Test Bank For Medical Terminology 3rd Edition by QuentinAxel

Medical Terminology: Get Connected!, 3e (Frucht) Chapter 1 Introduction to Medical Terminology All answers to questions asking for a combining form must be written in the combining form style, meaning word root/combining vowel. For example, the combining form meaning "gland" is aden/o. All answers to questions asking for a suffix must be written in suffix form, meaning a hyphen before your answer. For example, the suffix meaning "cell" is -cyte. All answers to questions asking for a prefix must be written in prefix form, meaning a hyphen after your answer. For example, the prefix meaning "three" is tri-. Do NOT capitalize any of your answers or include a period at the end of your answer. The computer will NOT recognize your answer as correct if it is written in any other style. 1) The combining form that means heart is ________. Answer: cardi/o; cardio Page Ref: 5 Learning Obj.: 1-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 2) The combining form that means stomach is ________. Answer: gastr/o; gastro Page Ref: 5 Learning Obj.: 1-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 3) The combining form that means liver is ________. Answer: hepat/o; hepato Page Ref: 5 Learning Obj.: 1-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 4) The combining form that means nose is ________. Answer: rhin/o; rhino Page Ref: 5 Learning Obj.: 1-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 5) The combining form that means head is ________. Answer: cephal/o; cephalo Page Ref: 5 Learning Obj.: 1-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 1 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

6) The combining form that means joint is ________. Answer: arthr/o; arthro Page Ref: 5 Learning Obj.: 1-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 7) The combining form that means muscle is ________. Answer: my/o; myo Page Ref: 5 Learning Obj.: 1-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 8) The combining form that means bone is ________. Answer: oste/o; osteo Page Ref: 5 Learning Obj.: 1-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 9) The combining form that means electricity is ________. Answer: electr/o; electro Page Ref: 4 Learning Obj.: 1-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 10) The combining form that means cancer is ________. Answer: carcin/o; carcino Page Ref: 3, 4 Learning Obj.: 1-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 11) The suffix that means surgical removal is ________. Answer: -ectomy; ectomy Page Ref: 3 Learning Obj.: 1-2 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

12) The suffix that means inflammation is ________. Answer: -itis; itis Page Ref: 3 Learning Obj.: 1-2 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 13) The suffix that means enlarged is ________. Answer: -megaly; megaly Page Ref: 3 Learning Obj.: 1-2 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 14) The suffix that means study of is ________. Answer: -logy; logy Page Ref: 3 Learning Obj.: 1-2 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 15) The suffix that means a record is ________. Answer: -gram; gram Page Ref: 3 Learning Obj.: 1-2 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 16) The suffix that means disease is ________. Answer: -pathy; pathy Page Ref: 3 Learning Obj.: 1-2 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 17) The prefix that means between is ________. Answer: inter-; inter Page Ref: 4 Learning Obj.: 1-2 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

18) A prefix that means without is ________. Answer: a-; a Page Ref: 4 Learning Obj.: 1-2 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 19) The prefix that means abnormal, difficult, or painful is ________. Answer: dys-; dys Page Ref: 4 Learning Obj.: 1-2 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 20) A prefix that means under is ________. Answer: sub-; sub Page Ref: 4 Learning Obj.: 1-2 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 21) A prefix that means two is ________. Answer: bi-; bi Page Ref: 4 Learning Obj.: 1-2 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 22) The prefix that means after is ________. Answer: post-; post Page Ref: 4 Learning Obj.: 1-2 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 23) A word ________ is the foundation of most medical terms. Answer: root Page Ref: 3 Learning Obj.: 1-2 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

24) Many medical terms do not have a ________. Answer: prefix Page Ref: 3 Learning Obj.: 1-2 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 25) A ________ is found at the beginning of a medical term. Answer: prefix Page Ref: 3 Learning Obj.: 1-2 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 26) Medical terminology is an efficient method of conveying important information because each term has a flexible meaning. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Medical terminology is an efficient method of conveying important information because each term has a specific meaning. Page Ref: 2 Learning Obj.: 1-1 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 27) An eponym is based on a person's name. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 2 Learning Obj.: 1-1 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 28) The majority of medical terms are based on Latin and Greek word parts. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 2 Learning Obj.: 1-1 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 29) A combining form consists of a word root and a combining vowel. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 4 Learning Obj.: 1-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

30) The prefix often indicates the body system or organ being discussed. Answer: FALSE Explanation: The word root often indicates the body system or organ being discussed. Page Ref: 3 Learning Obj.: 1-2 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 31) Combining vowels make medical terms easier to pronounce. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 4 Learning Obj.: 1-2 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 32) Suffixes are placed before a word root. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Prefixes are placed before a word root. Page Ref: 3 Learning Obj.: 1-2 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 33) All medical terms must have a prefix. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Many medical terms do not have a prefix. Page Ref: 3 Learning Obj.: 1-2 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 34) Terms ending in -a are pluralized by simply adding an -e to the end of the term. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 7 Learning Obj.: 1-5 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Plurals 35) Terms ending in -um are pluralized by simply adding an -s to the end of the term. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Terms ending in -um are pluralized by dropping -um and adding -a. Page Ref: 7 Learning Obj.: 1-5 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Plurals

36) When pronouncing a medical term, c and g have a soft sound if followed by e, i, or y. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 7 Learning Obj.: 1-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pronunciation 37) When pronouncing a medical term, if pn is in the middle of a word, pronounce only the n. Answer: FALSE Explanation: When pronouncing a medical term, if pn is at the beginning of the word, pronounce only the n. Page Ref: 7 Learning Obj.: 1-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Pronunciation 38) A combining vowel is placed between a word root and a suffix if the suffix begins with a consonant. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 4 Learning Obj.: 1-2 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 39) A combining vowel is placed between two word roots only if the second word root begins with a consonant. Answer: FALSE Explanation: A combining vowel is placed between two word roots even if the second word root begins with a vowel. Page Ref: 4 Learning Obj.: 1-2 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 40) A suffix can be used to indicate a surgical procedure. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 3 Learning Obj.: 1-2 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 41) Word roots frequently refer to a body structure, organ, or system. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 3 Learning Obj.: 1-2 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 7 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

42) The combining form gastr/o means "liver." Answer: FALSE Explanation: The combining form gastr/o means "stomach." Page Ref: 5 Learning Obj.: 1-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 43) The combining form rhin/o means "head." Answer: FALSE Explanation: The combining form rhin/o means "nose." Page Ref: 5 Learning Obj.: 1-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 44) The combining form oste/o means "bone." Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 5 Learning Obj.: 1-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 45) The suffix -ectomy means "study of." Answer: FALSE Explanation: The suffix -ectomy means "surgical removal." Page Ref: 3 Learning Obj.: 1-2 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 46) The suffix -itis means "inflammation." Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 3 Learning Obj.: 1-2 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 47) The suffix -pathy means "enlarged." Answer: FALSE Explanation: The suffix -pathy means "disease." Page Ref: 3 Learning Obj.: 1-2 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

48) The prefix dys- means "abnormal, difficult, or painful." Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 4 Learning Obj.: 1-2 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 49) The prefix sub- means "without." Answer: FALSE Explanation: The prefix sub- means "under." Page Ref: 4 Learning Obj.: 1-2 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 50) The prefix post- means "after." Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 4 Learning Obj.: 1-2 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 51) Which of the following is NOT one of the word parts used in a medical term? A) Combining vowel B) Word root C) Combining form D) Suffix Answer: C Explanation: A) The combining vowel links the root to the suffix or a root to another root, and it is a word part. B) The word root is the core of the word and the element from which other words are formed. It is also a word part. C) The combining form is not a word part; rather, it is constructed from two word parts. D) The suffix is added at the end of the word, and it is a word part. Page Ref: 4 Learning Obj.: 1-2 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

52) Which of the following is NOT one of the common types of medical terms? A) Latin words B) French words C) Modern English words D) Greek words Answer: B Explanation: A) Most of the body's organs are named from Latin words. B) There are very few French words in medical terminology. C) There are many modern English words used in medical terminology. D) Many terms that describe diseases come from Greek words. Page Ref: 2 Learning Obj.: 1-1 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 53) Which of the following words is an example of an eponym? A) Alzheimer disease B) Cardiology C) Irritable bowel syndrome D) Magnetic resonance imaging Answer: A Explanation: A) Alzheimer disease is named for physician Alois Alzheimer. B) Cardiology is not an eponym; it is built from word parts. C) Irritable bowel syndrome is not an eponym; it is a modern English term. D) Magnetic resonance imaging is not an eponym; it is a modern English term. Page Ref: 2 Learning Obj.: 1-1 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 54) Which of the following medical terminology word parts provides the essential meaning of a word? A) Combining vowel B) Word root C) Suffix D) Prefix Answer: B Explanation: A) The combining vowel links the root to the suffix or a root to another root but has no real meaning. B) The word root provides the essential meaning of a term. C) A suffix is added at the end of the word root to modify the meaning. D) A prefix is added at the beginning of the word root to modify the meaning. Page Ref: 3 Learning Obj.: 1-2 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 10 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

55) Which of the following is NOT the type of information typically provided by word roots? A) Body structure B) Organ C) System D) Diseases Answer: D Explanation: A) Word roots commonly describe body structures, organs, or systems. B) Word roots commonly describe body structures, organs, or systems. C) Word roots commonly describe body structures, organs, or systems. D) Information about diseases is typically provided by suffixes. Page Ref: 3 Learning Obj.: 1-2 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 56) Which of the following is NOT the type of information provided by a prefix? A) Procedure B) Position C) Number D) Time Answer: A Explanation: A) Procedure information is typically provided by a suffix. B) The position of something can be described by a prefix (e.g., pre- means "in front of"). C) A number can be described by a prefix (e.g., quadri- means "four"). D) Time can be described by a prefix (e.g., post- means "after"). Page Ref: 3 Learning Obj.: 1-2 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 57) Which of the following statements regarding prefixes is NOT true? A) Prefixes indicate surgical procedures. B) Prefixes are found at the beginning of terms. C) Many medical terms do not have a prefix. D) A hyphen is placed at the end of a prefix when it is written by itself. Answer: A Explanation: A) Suffixes typically provide procedure information, not prefixes. B) A prefix is found at the beginning of the term. C) Not all terms have a prefix. D) If you write a prefix by itself, a hyphen is placed at the end to denote it is a prefix. Page Ref: 3 Learning Obj.: 1-2 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

58) Which of the following types of information is provided by a suffix? A) Diagnostic procedures B) Positions C) Numbers D) Times Answer: A Explanation: A) A suffix can provide information about a diagnostic procedure. B) Position information is provided by a prefix. C) Number information is provided by a prefix. D) Time information is provided by a prefix. Page Ref: 3 Learning Obj.: 1-2 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 59) Which of the following statements regarding suffixes is NOT true? A) A hyphen is placed at the front of a suffix when it is written by itself. B) A suffix gives information such as conditions or diseases. C) Suffixes give the essential meaning of the term. D) Suffixes are placed at the end of a medical term. Answer: C Explanation: A) If you write a suffix by itself, put a hyphen in front to show it is a suffix (i.e., ate). B) A suffix gives information such as a disease or a condition (i.e., -dipsia = "thirst"). C) Word roots–not suffixes–give the essential meaning of the term. D) Suffixes are placed at the end of the term (i.e., in cardiology, the suffix is -logy). Page Ref: 3 Learning Obj.: 1-2 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 60) In which of the following situations is a combining vowel never used? A) Between two word roots B) Between a word root and a suffix when the suffix begins with a consonant C) Between a prefix and a word root D) A combining vowel is always used. Answer: C Explanation: A) Sometimes a combining vowel is needed to ease pronunciation between two word roots (i.e., gastrointestinal). B) Sometimes a combining vowel is needed to ease pronunciation between a word root and a suffix (i.e., cardiology). C) A combining vowel is never used between a prefix and a word root. D) A combining vowel is not needed between a prefix and a word root. Page Ref: 4 Learning Obj.: 1-2 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building 12 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

61) Which of the following statements regarding combining vowels is true? A) A combining vowel is used between a prefix and a word root. B) A combining vowel is used to make a prefix more pronounceable. C) A combining vowel is placed between two word roots. D) A combining vowel is placed between a word root and a suffix if the suffix begins with a vowel. Answer: C Explanation: A) A combining vowel is not used between a prefix and a word root. B) A combining vowel is not used with a prefix. C) A combining vowel is placed between two word roots. D) If the suffix begins with a vowel, a combining vowel is not needed. Page Ref: 4 Learning Obj.: 1-2 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building 62) When reading an unfamiliar medical term, the first step in analyzing the term is to ________. A) put the meaning of the word parts together B) sound out the word out loud C) define each word part D) divide the term into its word parts Answer: D Explanation: A) You must first break the word into smaller pieces. B) You must first break the word into smaller pieces. C) You must first break the word into smaller pieces. D) You must first break the word into smaller pieces. Page Ref: 5 Learning Obj.: 1-4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 63) When pluralizing a term that ends in -um, you should ________. A) keep the -um and add an -a B) drop the -um and add an -a C) drop the -um and add -ta D) drop the -um and add a -y Answer: B Explanation: A) When pluralizing an -um term, drop the -um and add an -a. B) When pluralizing an -um term, drop the -um and add an -a. C) When pluralizing an -um term, drop the -um and add an -a. D) When pluralizing an -um term, drop the -um and add an -a. Page Ref: 7 Learning Obj.: 1-5 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Plurals

64) If a word ends in -us, make it plural by ________. A) keeping the -us and adding -ta B) dropping the -us and adding -ies C) keeping the -us and adding -e D) dropping the -us and adding -i Answer: D Explanation: A) When pluralizing an -us term, drop the -us and add -i. B) When pluralizing an -us term, drop the -us and add -i. C) When pluralizing an -us term, drop the -us and add -i. D) When pluralizing an -us term, drop the -us and add -i. Page Ref: 7 Learning Obj.: 1-5 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Plurals 65) Which of the following combining form means "heart?" A) Cardi/o B) Carcin/o C) Gastr/o D) Hepat/o Answer: A Explanation: A) Cardi/o means heart. B) Carcin/o means cancer. C) Gastr/o means stomach. D) Hepat/o means liver. Page Ref: 5 Learning Obj.: 1-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 66) Which of the following combining forms is spelled incorrectly? A) Gastr/o B) Carcen/o C) Rhin/o D) Oste/o Answer: B Explanation: A) Gastr/o is spelled correctly. B) Carcen/o is spelled incorrectly; it should be carcin/o. C) Rhin/o is spelled correctly. D) Oste/o is spelled correctly. Page Ref: 3, 4 Learning Obj.: 1-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Spelling

67) Which of the following combining forms means "nose?" A) Gastr/o B) Hepat/o C) Rhin/o D) Electr/o Answer: C Explanation: A) Gastr/o is "stomach." B) Hepat/o is "liver." C) Rhin/o is "nose." D) Electr/o is "electricity." Page Ref: 5 Learning Obj.: 1-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 68) Which of the following combining form means "stomach?" A) Cardi/o B) Gastr/o C) Hepat/o D) Arthr/o Answer: B Explanation: A) Cardi/o is heart. B) Gastr/o is "stomach." C) Hepat/o is "liver." D) Arthr/o is "joint." Page Ref: 5 Learning Obj.: 1-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 69) The combining form cephal/o means ________. A) bone B) head C) muscle D) liver Answer: B Explanation: A) The combining form oste/o means "bone." B) The combining form cephal/o means "head." C) The combining form my/o means "muscle." D) The combining form hepat/o means "liver." Page Ref: 5 Learning Obj.: 1-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

70) Which of the following suffixes is misspelled? A) -ektomy B) -logy C) -megaly D) -itis Answer: A Explanation: A) The suffix -ektomy is misspelled; it should be -ectomy. B) The suffix -logy is spelled correctly. C) The suffix -megaly is spelled correctly. D) The suffix -itis is spelled correctly. Page Ref: 3 Learning Obj.: 1-2 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Spelling 71) Which of the following suffixes means "inflammation?" A) -gram B) -megaly C) -logy D) -itis Answer: D Explanation: A) The suffix -gram refers to a record. B) The suffix -megaly means "enlarged." C) The suffix -logy means "the study of." D) The suffix -itis refers to inflammation. Page Ref: 3 Learning Obj.: 1-2 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 72) The suffix -megaly means ________. A) study of B) enlarged C) record or picture D) disease Answer: B Explanation: A) The suffix -logy means "the study of." B) The suffix -megaly means "enlarged." C) The suffix -gram means "a record." D) The suffix -pathy means "disease." Page Ref: 3 Learning Obj.: 1-2 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

73) Which of the following prefixes is misspelled? A) InterB) PostC) DisD) SubAnswer: C Explanation: A) The prefix inter- is spelled correctly. B) The prefix post- is spelled correctly. C) The prefix dis- is misspelled; it should be dys-. D) The prefix sub- is spelled correctly. Page Ref: 4 Learning Obj.: 1-2 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Spelling 74) Which of the following prefixes means "without?" A) AB) BiC) InterD) PostAnswer: A Explanation: A) The prefix a- means "without." B) The prefix bi- means "two." C) The prefix inter- means "between." D) The prefix post- means "after." Page Ref: 4 Learning Obj.: 1-2 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 75) The prefix dys- means ________. A) between B) two C) beneath D) abnormal Answer: D Explanation: A) Inter- is "between." B) Bi- is "two." C) Sub- is "under." D) Dys- is "abnormal." Page Ref: 4 Learning Obj.: 1-2 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

Match each term on the left with the correct definition on the right. A) bone B) used to indicate a procedure C) used to indicate time D) word root + combining vowel E) liver F) head G) cancer H) a record I) under J) nose K) enlarged L) abnormal M) without N) between O) disease P) electricity Q) inflammation R) muscle S) heart T) foundation of a medical term U) joint V) after W) surgical removal X) connects two word roots Y) stomach 76) combining vowel Page Ref: 4 Learning Obj.: 1-2 Taxonomy: Question Type: Remembering Word Building 77) word root Page Ref: 3 Learning Obj.: 1-2 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 78) suffix Page Ref: 3 Learning Obj.: 1-2 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 18 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

79) Prefix Page Ref: 3 Learning Obj.: 1-2 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 80) combining form Page Ref: 4 Learning Obj.: 1-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 81) cardi/o Page Ref: 5 Learning Obj.: 1-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 82) gastr/o Page Ref: 5 Learning Obj.: 1-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 83) hepat/o Page Ref: 5 Learning Obj.: 1-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 84) rhin/o Page Ref: 5 Learning Obj.: 1-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 85) cephal/o Page Ref: 5 Learning Obj.: 1-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 86) arthr/o Page Ref: 5 Learning Obj.: 1-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 19 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

87) my/o Page Ref: 5 Learning Obj.: 1-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 88) oste/o Page Ref: 5 Learning Obj.: 1-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 89) electr/o Page Ref: 4 Learning Obj.: 1-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 90) carcin/o Page Ref: 3, 4 Learning Obj.: 1-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 91) -pathy Page Ref: 3 Learning Obj.: 1-2 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 92) -gram Page Ref: 3 Learning Obj.: 1-2 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 93) -megaly Page Ref: 3 Learning Obj.: 1-2 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 94) -it is Page Ref: 3 Learning Obj.: 1-2 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 20 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

95) -ectomy Page Ref: 3 Learning Obj.: 1-2 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 96) aPage Ref: 4 Learning Obj.: 1-2 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 97) interPage Ref: 4 Learning Obj.: 1-2 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 98) dysPage Ref: 4 Learning Obj.: 1-2 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 99) subPage Ref: 4 Learning Obj.: 1-2 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 100) postPage Ref: 4 Learning Obj.: 1-2 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building Answers: 76) X 77) T 78) B 79) C 80) D 81) S 82) Y 83) E 84) J 85) F 86) U 87) R 88) A 89) P 90) G 91) O 92) H 93) K 94) Q 95) W 96) M 97) N 98) L 99) I 100) V

101) List and describe the four word parts used to build medical terms. Answer: 1. Word root ∙ foundation of a medical term ∙ often indicates the body system or part of the body that is being discussed 2. Prefix ∙ added to the front of the term ∙ indicates positions, numbers, times, or abnormal conditions 3. Suffix ∙ added to the end of the term ∙ indicates condition, disease, or procedure 4. Combining vowel ∙ usually an o ∙ connects two word roots ∙ connects word root and suffix if the suffix begins with a consonant Page Ref: 3-4 Learning Obj.: 1-2 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 102) Describe the strategy for defining an unfamiliar medical term. Answer: 1. Divide the term into its word parts. 2. Define each word part. 3. Put the meaning of the word parts together to see what the term is describing. Page Ref: 5 Learning Obj.: 1-4 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building

Medical Terminology: Get Connected!, 3e (Frucht) Chapter 2 Suffixes All answers to questions asking for a suffix must be written in suffix form, meaning a hyphen before your answer. For example, the suffix meaning "cell" is -cyte. Do NOT capitalize any of your answers or include a period at the end of your answer. The computer will NOT recognize your answer as correct if it is written in any other style. 1) The suffix that means weakness is ________. Answer: -asthenia; asthenia Page Ref: 13 Learning Obj.: 2-2 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 2) The suffix that means abnormal cell condition is ________. Answer: -cytosis; cytosis Page Ref: 13 Learning Obj.: 2-2 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 3) The suffix that means blood condition is ________. Answer: -emia; emia Page Ref: 13 Learning Obj.: 2-2 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 4) The suffix that means inflammation is ________. Answer: -itis; itis Page Ref: 14 Learning Obj.: 2-2 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 5) The suffix that means abnormal softening is ________. Answer: -malacia; malacia Page Ref: 14 Learning Obj.: 2-2 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

6) The suffix that means disease is ________. Answer: -pathy; pathy Page Ref: 14 Learning Obj.: 2-2 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 7) The suffix that means drooping is ________. Answer: -ptosis; ptosis Page Ref: 14 Learning Obj.: 2-2 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 8) The suffix that means rupture is ________. Answer: -rrhexis; rrhexis Page Ref: 14 Learning Obj.: 2-2 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 9) The suffix that means narrowing is ________. Answer: -stenosis; stenosis Page Ref: 14 Learning Obj.: 2-2 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 10) The suffix that means surgical breaking is ________. Answer: -clasia; clasia Page Ref: 15 Learning Obj.: 2-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 11) The suffix that means surgical repair is ________. Answer: -plasty; plasty Page Ref: 15 Learning Obj.: 2-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

12) The suffix that means surgical crushing is ________. Answer: -tripsy; tripsy Page Ref: 15 Learning Obj.: 2-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 13) The suffix that means process of recording is ________. Answer: -graphy; graphy Page Ref: 15 Learning Obj.: 2-4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 14) The suffix that means instrument for viewing is ________. Answer: -scope; scope Page Ref: 16 Learning Obj.: 2-4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 15) The suffix that means cell is ________. Answer: -cyte; cyte Page Ref: 16 Learning Obj.: 2-5 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 16) The suffix that means feeling, sensation is ________. Answer: -esthesia; esthesia Page Ref: 16 Learning Obj.: 2-5 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 17) A suffix that means pregnancy is ________. Answer: -gravida; gravida; -cyesis; cyesis Page Ref: 16 Learning Obj.: 2-5 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

18) The suffix that means resembling is ________. Answer: -oid; oid Page Ref: 16 Learning Obj.: 2-5 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 19) The suffix that means oxygen is ________. Answer: -oxia; oxia Page Ref: 16 Learning Obj.: 2-5 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 20) The suffix that means eating, swallowing is ________. Answer: -phagia; phagia Page Ref: 16 Learning Obj.: 2-5 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 21) A suffix that means formation is ________. Answer: -plasm; plasm; -poiesis; poiesis Page Ref: 16, 17 Learning Obj.: 2-5 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 22) The suffix that means spitting is ________. Answer: -ptysis; ptysis Page Ref: 17 Learning Obj.: 2-5 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 23) The suffix that means chest is ________. Answer: -thorax; thorax Page Ref: 17 Learning Obj.: 2-5 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

24) The suffix that means treatment is ________. Answer: -therapy; therapy Page Ref: 17 Learning Obj.: 2-5 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 25) The suffix that means study of is ________. Answer: -logy; logy Page Ref: 17 Learning Obj.: 2-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 26) All medical terms built from Latin or Greek word parts must have a suffix. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 13 Learning Obj.: 2-1 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 27) A suffix is added to the beginning of a medical term. Answer: FALSE Explanation: A suffix is added to the end of a medical term. Page Ref: 13 Learning Obj.: 2-1 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 28) Suffixes may be used to indicate a surgical or diagnostic procedure. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 13 Learning Obj.: 2-1 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 29) Suffixes may be used to indicate location or number. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Suffixes may be used to indicate conditions, diseases, surgical procedures, diagnostic procedures, or medical specialties. Prefixes may be used to indicate location or number. Page Ref: 13 Learning Obj.: 2-1 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

30) The suffix -algia means "pain." Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 13 Learning Obj.: 2-2 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 31) The suffix -ectasis means "pain." Answer: FALSE Explanation: The suffix -ectasis means "dilated." Page Ref: 13 Learning Obj.: 2-2 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 32) The suffix -ia means "condition." Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 13 Learning Obj.: 2-2 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 33) The suffix -lith means "inflammation." Answer: FALSE Explanation: The suffix -lith means "stone." The suffix -itis means "inflammation." Page Ref: 14 Learning Obj.: 2-2 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 34) The suffix -megaly means "enlarged." Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 14 Learning Obj.: 2-2 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 35) The suffix -penia means "fear." Answer: FALSE Explanation: The suffix -penia means "too few." The suffix -phobia means "fear." Page Ref: 14 Learning Obj.: 2-2 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

36) The suffix -rrhage means "abnormal flow." Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 14 Learning Obj.: 2-2 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 37) The suffix -sclerosis means "rupture." Answer: FALSE Explanation: The suffix -sclerosis means "hardening." The suffix -rrhexis means "rupture." Page Ref: 14 Learning Obj.: 2-2 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 38) The suffix -toxic means "poison." Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 14 Learning Obj.: 2-2 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 39) The suffix -pexy means "surgical crushing." Answer: FALSE Explanation: The suffix -pexy means "surgical fixation." The suffix -tripsy means "surgical crushing." Page Ref: 15 Learning Obj.: 2-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 40) The suffix -ectomy means "surgical removal." Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 15 Learning Obj.: 2-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 41) The suffix -centesis means "instrument for recording." Answer: FALSE Explanation: The suffix -centesis means "puncture to withdraw fluid." The suffix -graph means "instrument for recording." Page Ref: 15 Learning Obj.: 2-4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 7 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

42) The suffix -manometer means "instrument for measuring pressure." Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 15 Learning Obj.: 2-4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 43) The suffix -scopy means "instrument for viewing." Answer: FALSE Explanation: The suffix -scopy means "process of visually examining." The suffix -scope means "instrument for viewing." Page Ref: 15 Learning Obj.: 2-4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 44) The suffix -derma means "skin condition." Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 16 Learning Obj.: 2-5 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 45) The suffix -genesis means "thirst." Answer: FALSE Explanation: The suffix -genesis means "produces." The suffix -dipsia means "thirst." Page Ref: 16 Learning Obj.: 2-5 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 46) The suffix -globulin means "protein." Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 16 Learning Obj.: 2-5 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 47) The suffix -opia means "sense of smell." Answer: FALSE Explanation: The suffix -opia means "vision." The suffix -osmia means "sense of smell." Page Ref: 16 Learning Obj.: 2-5 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

48) The suffix -para means "to bear (offspring)." Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 16 Learning Obj.: 2-5 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 49) The suffix -phasia means "porous." Answer: FALSE Explanation: The suffix -phasia means "speech." The suffix -porosis means "porous." Page Ref: 16 Learning Obj.: 2-5 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 50) The suffix -pnea means "breathing." Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 17 Learning Obj.: 2-5 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 51) Which of the following suffixes means "protrusion"? A) -cele B) -ectasis C) -lith D) -malacia Answer: A Explanation: A) The suffix -cele means "protrusion." B) The suffix -ectasis means "dilated." C) The suffix -lith means "stone." D) The suffix -malacia means "abnormal softening." Page Ref: 13 Learning Obj.: 2-2 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

52) The suffix -edema means ________. A) vomiting B) swelling C) destruction D) pain Answer: B Explanation: A) The suffix -emesis means "vomiting." B) The suffix -edema means "swelling." C) The suffix -lytic means "destruction." D) The suffixes -algia and -dynia mean "pain.' Page Ref: 13 Learning Obj.: 2-2 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 53) Which of the following suffixes means "abnormal condition"? A) -lysis B) -emia C) -iasis D) -weakness Answer: C Explanation: A) The suffix -lysis means "to destroy." B) The suffix -emia means "blood condition." C) The suffix -iasis means "abnormal condition." D) -weakness is not a suffix. Page Ref: 13 Learning Obj.: 2-2 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 54) The suffix -lysis means ________. A) inflammation B) pain C) abnormal softening D) to destroy Answer: D Explanation: A) Inflammation is described by the suffix -itis. B) Pain is described by the suffixes -algia and -dynia. C) Abnormal softening is described by the suffix -malacia. D) The suffix -lysis means "to destroy." Page Ref: 14 Learning Obj.: 2-2 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

55) Which of the following suffixes means "tumor or mass"? A) -oma B) -penia C) -rrhagia D) -stasis Answer: A Explanation: A) The suffix -oma means "tumor or mass." B) The suffix -penia means "too few." C) The suffix -rrhagia means "abnormal flow condition." D) The suffix -stasis means "stopping." Page Ref: 14 Learning Obj.: 2-2 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 56) The suffix -phobia means ________. A) disease B) fear C) discharge D) stopping Answer: B Explanation: A) The suffix that means "disease" is -pathy. B) The suffix -phobia means "fear." C) The suffix that means "discharge" is -rrhea. D) The suffix that means "stopping" is -stasis. Page Ref: 14 Learning Obj.: 2-2 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 57) Which of the following suffixes means "abnormal flow condition"? A) -oma B) -lith C) -rrhagia D) -ism Answer: C Explanation: A) The suffix -oma means "tumor or mass." B) The suffix -lith means "stone." C) The suffix -rrhagia means "abnormal flow condition." D) The suffix -ism means "state of." Page Ref: 14 Learning Obj.: 2-2 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

58) The suffix -spasm means ________. A) hardening B) paralysis C) too few D) involuntary muscle contraction Answer: D Explanation: A) The suffix -sclerosis means "hardening." B) The suffix -plegia means "paralysis." C) The suffix -penia means "too few." D) The suffix -spasm means "involuntary muscle contraction." Page Ref: 15 Learning Obj.: 2-2 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 59) Which of the following suffixes means "urine condition"? A) -uria B) -ptosis C) -edema D) -lytic Answer: A Explanation: A) The suffix -uria means "urine condition." B) The suffix -ptosis means "drooping." C) The suffix -edema means "swelling." D) The suffix -lytic means "destruction." Page Ref: 14 Learning Obj.: 2-2 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 60) The suffix -ostomy means ________. A) surgical fixation B) surgically create an opening C) surgical breaking D) surgical repair Answer: B Explanation: A) The suffix -pexy means "surgical fixation." B) The suffix -ostomy means "surgically create an opening." C) The suffix -clasia means "surgical breaking." D) The suffix -plasty means "surgical repair." Page Ref: 15 Learning Obj.: 2-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

61) Which of the following suffixes means "to suture"? A) -tome B) -desis C) -rrhaphy D) -pexy Answer: C Explanation: A) The suffix -tome means" instrument to cut." B) The suffix -desis means "surgical fusing." C) The suffix -rrhaphy means "to suture." D) The suffix -pexy means "surgical fixation." Page Ref: 15 Learning Obj.: 2-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 62) The suffix -gram means ________. A) view of B) puncture to withdraw fluid C) instrument for viewing D) a record Answer: D Explanation: A) The suffix -opsy means "view of." B) The suffix -centesis means "puncture to withdraw fluid." C) The suffix -scope means "instrument for viewing." D) The suffix -gram means a record. Page Ref: 15 Learning Obj.: 2-4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 63) Which of the following suffixes means "instrument for measuring"? A) -meter B) -graph C) -scope D) -metry Answer: A Explanation: A) The suffix -meter means "instrument for measuring." B) The suffix -graph means "instrument for recording." C) The suffix -scope means "an instrument for viewing." D) The suffix -metry means "process of measuring." Page Ref: 15 Learning Obj.: 2-4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

64) The suffix -ule means ________. A) attracted to B) small C) digestion D) oxygen Answer: B Explanation: A) The suffix -phil means "attracted to." B) The suffix -ule means "small." C) The suffix -pepsia means "digestion." D) The suffix -oxia means "oxygen." Page Ref: 17 Learning Obj.: 2-5 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 65) Which of the following suffixes means "thirst"? A) -globin B) -opia C) -dipsia D) -oid Answer: C Explanation: A) The suffix -globin means "protein." B) The suffix -opia means "vision." C) The suffix -dipsia means "thirst." D) The suffix -oid means "resembling." Page Ref: 16 Learning Obj.: 2-5 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 66) The suffix -kinesia means ________. A) cell B) skin condition C) protein D) movement Answer: D Explanation: A) The suffix -cyte means "cell." B) The suffix -derma means "skin condition." C) The suffixes -globin and -globulin mean "protein." D) The suffix -kinesia means "movement." Page Ref: 16 Learning Obj.: 2-5 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

67) Which of the following suffixes means "view of"? A) -opsy B) -phil C) -genic D) -globin Answer: A Explanation: A) The suffix -opsy means "view of." B) The suffix -phil means "attracted to." C) The suffix -genic means "producing." D) The suffix -globin means 'protein." Page Ref: 16 Learning Obj.: 2-5 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 68) The suffix -partum means ________. A) treatment B) childbirth C) chest D) formation Answer: B Explanation: A) The suffix -therapy mean "treatment." B) The suffix -partum means "childbirth." C) The suffix -thorax means "chest." D) The suffixes -plasm and -poiesis mean "formation." Page Ref: 16 Learning Obj.: 2-5 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 69) Which of the following suffixes means "attracted to"? A) -thorax B) -opia C) -phil D) -cle Answer: C Explanation: A) The suffix -thorax means "chest." B) The suffix -opia means "vision." C) The suffix -phil means "attracted to." D) The suffix -cle means "small." Page Ref: 16 Learning Obj.: 2-5 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

70) The suffix -poiesis means ________. A) childbirth B) porous C) small D) formation Answer: D Explanation: A) The suffix -partum means childbirth. B) The suffix -porosis means porous. C) The suffixes -cle and -ule mean small. D) The suffix -poiesis means formation. Page Ref: 17 Learning Obj.: 2-5 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 71) Which of the following suffixes means "porous"? A) -porosis B) -poiesis C) -ptysis D) -pnea Answer: A Explanation: A) The suffix -porosis means "porous." B) The suffix -poiesis means "formation." C) The suffix -ptysis means "spitting." D) The suffix -pnea means "breathing." Page Ref: 17 Learning Obj.: 2-5 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 72) The suffix -er means ________. A) specialist B) one who C) study of D) physician Answer: B Explanation: A) The suffixes -ician and -ist mean "specialist." B) The suffix -er means "one who." C) The suffix -logy means "study of." D) The suffix -iatrist means "physician." Page Ref: 17 Learning Obj.: 2-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

73) Which of the following suffixes means medical specialty? A) -er B) -logist C) -iatric D) -iatry Answer: C Explanation: A) The suffix -er means "one who." B) The suffix -logist means "one who studies." C) The suffix -iatric means "medical specialty." D) The suffix -iatry means "medical treatment." Page Ref: 17 Learning Obj.: 2-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 74) The suffix -al means ________. A) resembling B) small C) condition D) pertaining to Answer: D Explanation: A) The suffix -oid means "resembling." B) The suffixes -cle, -ole, and -ule mean "small." C) The suffix -ia means "condition." D) The suffix -al means "pertaining to." Page Ref: 17 Learning Obj.: 2-7 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 75) Which of the following suffixes does NOT mean "small"? A) -ia B) -ule C) -ole D) -cle Answer: A Explanation: A) The suffix -ia does not mean small; it means "condition." B) The suffix -ule means "small." C) The suffix -ole means "small." D) The suffix -cle means "small." Page Ref: 13 Learning Obj.: 2-2 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

Match each term on the left with the correct definition on the right. A) small B) paralysis C) development D) stopping E) process of measuring F) cutting into G) abnormal condition H) that which produces I) pregnancy J) voice K) sense of smell L) pain M) one who studies N) protein O) pertaining to P) surgical fusing Q) medical specialty R) vomiting S) destruction T) instrument to cut U) discharge V) state of W) instrument for recording X) specialist Y) digestion 76) -dynia Page Ref: 13 Learning Obj.: 2-2 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 77) -emesis Page Ref: 13 Learning Obj.: 2-2 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 78) -ism Page Ref: 13 Learning Obj.: 2-2 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

79) -lytic Page Ref: 14 Learning Obj.: 2-2 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 80) -osis Page Ref: 14 Learning Obj.: 2-2 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 81) -plegia Page Ref: 14 Learning Obj.: 2-2 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 82) -rrhea Page Ref: 14 Learning Obj.: 2-2 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 83) -stasis Page Ref: 14 Learning Obj.: 2-2 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 84) -desis Page Ref: 15 Learning Obj.: 2-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 85) -otomy Page Ref: 15 Learning Obj.: 2-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 86) -tome Page Ref: 15 Learning Obj.: 2-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 19 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

87) -graph Page Ref: 15 Learning Obj.: 2-4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 88) -metry Page Ref: 15 Learning Obj.: 2-4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 89) -cyesis Page Ref: 16 Learning Obj.: 2-5 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 90) -gen Page Ref: 16 Learning Obj.: 2-5 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 91) -globin Page Ref: 16 Learning Obj.: 2-5 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 92) -ole Page Ref: 16 Learning Obj.: 2-5 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 93) -osmia Page Ref: 16 Learning Obj.: 2-5 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 94) -pepsia Page Ref: 16 Learning Obj.: 2-5 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 20 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

95) -phonia Page Ref: 16 Learning Obj.: 2-5 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 96) -trophic Page Ref: 17 Learning Obj.: 2-5 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 97) -ic Page Ref: 18 Learning Obj.: 2-7 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 98) -ist Page Ref: 17 Learning Obj.: 2-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 99) -logist Page Ref: 17 Learning Obj.: 2-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 100) -iatric Page Ref: 17 Learning Obj.: 2-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building Answers: 76) L 77) R 78) V 79) S 80) G 81) B 82) U 83) D 84) P 85) F 86) T 87) W 88) E 89) I 90) H 91) N 92) A 93) K 94) Y 95) J 96) C 97) O 98) X 99) M 100) Q

101) Describe what a suffix is and how it is used in medical terminology. Answer: ∙ Found on the end of a medical term ∙ All medical terms built from Latin or Greek word parts must have a suffix ∙ Not associated with only one medical specialty or body system ∙ Categories of suffixes ∘ Indicating diseases or abnormal conditions ∘ Indicating a surgical or diagnostic procedure ∘ General suffixes ∘ Indicating medical specialties or personnel ∘ Convert word root into an adjective Page Ref: 13 Learning Obj.: 2-1 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building 102) Describe the function of adjective suffixes. Answer: ∙ Convert word roots into adjectives. ∙ Often used with a word root and paired with a second term to indicate location. ∙ For example, -ic is added to gastr/o to make the adjective gastric. ∙ Gastric ulcer means an ulcer located in the stomach. ∙ Accepted meaning for many adjective suffixes is pertaining to. Page Ref: 17 Learning Obj.: 2-7 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building

Medical Terminology: Get Connected!, 3e (Frucht) Chapter 3 Prefixes All answers to questions asking for a prefix must be written in prefix form, meaning a hyphen after your answer. For example, a prefix meaning "two" is bi-. Do NOT capitalize any of your answers or include a period at the end of your answer. The computer will NOT recognize your answer as correct if it is written in any other style. 1) The prefix that means against is ________. Answer: anti-; anti Page Ref: 25 Learning Obj.: 3-2 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 2) The prefix that means painful or difficult is ________. Answer: dys-; dys Page Ref: 25 Learning Obj.: 3-2 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 3) The prefix that means in front of or before is ________. Answer: ante-; ante Page Ref: 26 Learning Obj.: 3-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 4) The prefix that means outside of is ________. Answer: extra-; extra Page Ref: 26 Learning Obj.: 3-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 5) A prefix other than endo- that means within is ________. Answer: intra-; intra Page Ref: 26 Learning Obj.: 3-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

6) The prefix that means beside is ________. Answer: para-; para Page Ref: 26 Learning Obj.: 3-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 7) The prefix that means half is ________. Answer: hemi-; hemi Page Ref: 26 Learning Obj.: 3-4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 8) The prefix that means insufficient is ________. Answer: hypo-; hypo Page Ref: 26 Learning Obj.: 3-4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 9) The prefix that means none is ________. Answer: nulli-; nulli Page Ref: 27 Learning Obj.: 3-4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 10) The prefix that means four is ________. Answer: quadri-; quadri Page Ref: 27 Learning Obj.: 3-4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 11) The prefix that means new is ________. Answer: neo-; neo Page Ref: 27 Learning Obj.: 3-5 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

12) The prefix that means after is ________. Answer: post-; post Page Ref: 27 Learning Obj.: 3-5 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 13) The prefix that means self is ________. Answer: auto-; auto Page Ref: 27 Learning Obj.: 3-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 14) The prefix that means same is ________. Answer: homo-; homo Page Ref: 27 Learning Obj.: 3-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 15) The prefix that means slow is ________. Answer: brady-; brady Page Ref: 25 Learning Obj.: 3-2 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 16) The prefix that means fast is ________. Answer: tachy-; tachy Page Ref: 25 Learning Obj.: 3-2 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 17) The prefix that means thick is ________. Answer: pachy-; pachy Page Ref: 25 Learning Obj.: 3-2 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

18) The prefix that means normalis ________. Answer: eu-; eu Page Ref: 27 Learning Obj.: 3-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 19) The prefix that means small is ________. Answer: micro-; micro Page Ref: 27 Learning Obj.: 3-4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 20) The prefix that means all is ________. Answer: pan-; pan Page Ref: 27 Learning Obj.: 3-4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 21) The prefix that means first is ________. Answer: primi-; primi Page Ref: 27 Learning Obj.: 3-4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 22) A prefix that means one is ________. Answer: mono-; mono; uni-; uni Page Ref: 27 Learning Obj.: 3-4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 23) The prefix that means three is ________. Answer: tri-; tri Page Ref: 27 Learning Obj.: 3-4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

24) The prefix that means different is ________. Answer: hetero-; hetero Page Ref: 27 Learning Obj.: 3-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 25) The prefix that means between is ________. Answer: inter-; inter Page Ref: 26 Learning Obj.: 3-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 26) All prefixes have multiple meanings. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Some prefixes have more than one meaning. Page Ref: 25 Learning Obj.: 3-1 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 27) A prefix is added to the beginning of a medical term. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 25 Learning Obj.: 3-1 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 28) Prefixes may be used to indicate diagnostic procedures. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Prefixes may be used to indicate diseases or abnormal conditions; directions or body positions; numbers or quantity measurements; or time. Page Ref: 25 Learning Obj.: 3-1 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 29) Prefixes may be used to indicate direction or body position. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 25 Learning Obj.: 3-1 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

30) Prefixes may be used to convert word roots into adjectives. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Suffixes may be used to convert word roots into adjectives. Page Ref: 25 Learning Obj.: 3-1 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 31) The prefix a- means "without." Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 25 Learning Obj.: 3-2 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 32) The prefix pachy- means "fast." Answer: FALSE Explanation: The prefix pachy- means "thick." Page Ref: 25 Learning Obj.: 3-2 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 33) The prefix endo- means "within, inner." Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 26 Learning Obj.: 3-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 34) The prefix hypo- means "inside." Answer: FALSE Explanation: The prefix hypo- means "below." Page Ref: 26 Learning Obj.: 3-3, 3-4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 35) The prefix para- means "beside; two like parts of a pair." Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 26 Learning Obj.: 3-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

36) The prefix supra- means "between." Answer: FALSE Explanation: The prefix supra- means "above." Page Ref: 26 Learning Obj.: 3-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 37) The prefix di- means "two." Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 26 Learning Obj.: 3-4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 38) The prefix micro- means "half." Answer: FALSE Explanation: The prefix micro- means "small." Page Ref: 27 Learning Obj.: 3-4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 39) The prefix pan- means "all." Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 27 Learning Obj.: 3-4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 40) The prefix tri- means "one." Answer: FALSE Explanation: The prefix tri- means "three." Page Ref: 27 Learning Obj.: 3-4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 41) The prefix tachy- means "fast." Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 25 Learning Obj.: 3-2 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

42) The prefix dys- means "more than normal." Answer: FALSE Explanation: The prefix dys- means "painful," "difficult," or "abnormal." Page Ref: 25 Learning Obj.: 3-2 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 43) The prefix epi- means "above." Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 26 Learning Obj.: 3-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 44) The prefix peri- means "across." Answer: FALSE Explanation: The prefix peri- means "around." Page Ref: 26 Learning Obj.: 3-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 45) The prefix retro- means "behind." Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 26 Learning Obj.: 3-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 46) The prefix infra- means "between." Answer: FALSE Explanation: The prefix infra- means "below." Page Ref: 26 Learning Obj.: 3-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 47) The prefix sub- means "under." Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 26 Learning Obj.: 3-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

48) The prefix trans- means "in front of." Answer: FALSE Explanation: The prefix trans- means "across." Page Ref: 26 Learning Obj.: 3-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 49) The prefix primi- means "first." Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 27 Learning Obj.: 3-4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 50) The prefix nulli- means "slow." Answer: FALSE Explanation: The prefix nulli- means "none." Page Ref: 27 Learning Obj.: 3-4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 51) Which of the following prefixes means "without"? A) AnB) DysC) PachyD) AntiAnswer: A Explanation: A) The prefix an- means "without." B) The suffix dys- means "painful," "difficult," or "abnormal." C) The suffix pachy- means "thick." D) The suffix anti- means "against." Page Ref: 25 Learning Obj.: 3-2 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

52) The prefix de- means ________. A) against B) without C) slow D) thick Answer: B Explanation: A) The prefix anti- means "against." B) The prefix de- means "without." C) The prefix brady- means "slow." D) The prefix pachy- means "thick." Page Ref: 25 Learning Obj.: 3-2 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 53) Which prefix does NOT mean "without"? A) AB) AnC) DysD) DeAnswer: C Explanation: A) The prefix a- does mean "without." B) The prefix an- does mean "without." C) The prefix dys- means "painful," "difficult," or "abnormal." D) The prefix de- does mean "without." Page Ref: 25 Learning Obj.: 3-2 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 54) The prefix epi- means ________. A) around B) outward C) below D) above Answer: D Explanation: A) The prefix peri- means "around." B) The prefix ex- means "outward." C) The prefixes hypo- and infra- mean "below." D) The prefix epi- means "above." Page Ref: 26 Learning Obj.: 3-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

55) Which prefix can mean either "within" or "inner"? A) endoB) exC) supraD) periAnswer: A Explanation: A) The prefix endo- means "within" or "inner." B) The prefix ex- means "outward." C) The prefix supra- means "above." D) The prefix peri- means "around." Page Ref: 26 Learning Obj.: 3-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 56) The prefix infra- means ________. A) above B) below C) in front of D) between Answer: B Explanation: A) The prefixes epi- and supra- mean "above." B) The prefix infra- means "below." C) The prefix ante- means "in front of." D) The prefix inter- means "between." Page Ref: 26 Learning Obj.: 3-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 57) Which prefix means "around"? A) ExtraB) AnteC) PeriD) EndoAnswer: C Explanation: A) The prefix extra- means "outside of." B) The prefix ante- means "in front of." C) The prefix peri- means "around." D) The prefix endo- means "within" or "inner." Page Ref: 26 Learning Obj.: 3-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

58) The prefix trans- means ________. A) below B) above C) behind D) across Answer: D Explanation: A) The prefixes hypo- and infra- mean "below." B) The prefixes epi- and supra- mean "above." C) The prefix retro- means "behind." D) The prefix trans- means "across." Page Ref: 26 Learning Obj.: 3-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 59) Which prefix means "half"? A) BiB) DiC) NulliD) HemiAnswer: D Explanation: A) The prefix bi- means "two." B) The prefix di- means "two." C) The prefix nulli- means none. D) The prefix hemi- means "half." Page Ref: 26 Learning Obj.: 3-4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 60) The prefix mono- means ________. A) one B) two C) three D) four Answer: A Explanation: A) The prefix mono- means "one." B) The prefixes bi- and di- mean "two." C) The prefix tri- means "three." D) The prefix quadri- means "four." Page Ref: 27 Learning Obj.: 3-4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

61) Which prefix means "many"? A) HemiB) PolyC) PrimiD) NulliAnswer: B Explanation: A) The prefix hemi- means "half." B) The prefix poly- means "many." C) The prefix primi- means "first." D) The prefix nulli- means "none." Page Ref: 27 Learning Obj.: 3-4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 62) The prefix ultra- means ________. A) insufficient B) many C) excess D) first Answer: C Explanation: A) The prefix hypo- means "insufficient." B) The prefix poly- means "many." C) The prefix ultra- means "excess." D) The prefix primi- means "first." Page Ref: 27 Learning Obj.: 3-4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 63) Which prefix means "before"? A) AnteB) NeoC) PostD) PrimiAnswer: A Explanation: A) The prefix ante- means "before." B) The prefix neo- means "new." C) The prefix post- means "after." D) The prefix primi- means "first." Page Ref: 27 Learning Obj.: 3-5 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

64) The prefix eu- means ________. A) across B) normal C) same D) abnormal or painful Answer: B Explanation: A) The prefix trans- means "across." B) The prefix eu- means "normal." C) The prefix homo- means "same." D) The prefix dys- means "abnormal" or "painful." Page Ref: 27 Learning Obj.: 3-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 65) A prefix may be used to indicate ________. A) medical specialties B) surgical procedures C) body position D) abnormal conditions Answer: C Explanation: A) A suffix is used to indicate medical specialties, not a prefix. B) A suffix is used to indicate surgical procedures, not a prefix. C) A prefix may be used to indicate body position. D) A suffix is used to indicate abnormal conditions. Page Ref: 25 Learning Obj.: 3-1 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 66) Which of the following statements about the prefix hypo- is FALSE? A) It means below. B) It means insufficient. C) It can indicate number or quantity. D) It can indicate time. Answer: D Explanation: A) "Below" is one of the meanings for hypo-. B) "Insufficient" is one of the meanings for hypo-. C) Hypo- can mean "insufficient" and so indicate number or quantity. D) Hypo- does not indicate time. Page Ref: 25 Learning Obj.: 3-3, 3-4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

67) Which prefix does NOT mean "below" or "under"? A) IntraB) HypoC) SubD) InfraAnswer: A Explanation: A) The prefix intra- means "within." B) The prefix hypo- means "below." C) The prefix sub- means "under." D) The prefix infra- means "below." Page Ref: 26 Learning Obj.: 3-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 68) Which of the following prefixes means "many"? A) PolyB) PanC) PrimiD) HemiAnswer: A Explanation: A) The prefix poly- means "many." B) The prefix pan- means "all." C) The prefix primi- means "first." D) The prefix hemi- means "half." Page Ref: 27 Learning Obj.: 3-4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 69) Which of the following prefixes means "self"? A) HomoB) EuC) AutoD) HeteroAnswer: C Explanation: A) The prefix homo- means "same." B) The prefix eu- means "normal." C) The prefix auto- means "self." D) The prefix hetero- means "different." Page Ref: 27 Learning Obj.: 3-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

70) The prefix neo- means ________. A) before B) old C) after D) new Answer: D Explanation: A) The prefixes ante- and pre- mean "before." B) The prefix neo- does not mean "old." C) The prefix post- means "after." D) The prefix neo- means "new." Page Ref: 27 Learning Obj.: 3-5 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 71) Which of the following prefixes does NOT mean a specific number? A) PanB) TriC) MonoD) BiAnswer: A Explanation: A) The prefix pan- means "all." B) The prefix tri- means "three." C) The prefix mono- means "one." D) The prefix bi- means "two." Page Ref: 27 Learning Obj.: 3-4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 72) The prefix brady- means ________. A) thick B) slow C) fast D) excess Answer: B Explanation: A) The prefix pachy- means "thick." B) The prefix brady- means "slow." C) The prefix tachy- means "fast." D) The prefix ultra- means "excess." Page Ref: 25 Learning Obj.: 3-2 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

73) Which of the following prefixes does NOT indicate a direction? A) HypoB) EpiC) NeoD) SupraAnswer: C Explanation: A) The prefix hypo- means "below." B) The prefix epi- means "above." C) The prefix neo- means "new." D) The prefix supra- means "above." Page Ref: 27 Learning Obj.: 3-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 74) Which of the following prefixes does NOT indicate a time? A) PreB) AnteC) PostD) AntiAnswer: D Explanation: A) The prefix pre- indicates "before." B) The prefix ante- indicates "before." C) The prefix post- indicates "after." D) The prefix anti- means "against." Page Ref: 25 Learning Obj.: 3-2, 3-5 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 75) Which of the following prefixes means "all"? A) PanB) HemiC) MultiD) MicroAnswer: A Explanation: A) The prefix pan- means "all." B) The prefix hemi- means "half." C) The prefix multi- means "many." D) The prefix micro- means "small." Page Ref: 27 Learning Obj.: 3-4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

Match each term on the left with the correct definition on the right. A) against B) through C) excessive D) one E) within F) between G) thick H) after I) before J) normal K) small L) new M) painful, difficult, abnormal N) same O) different P) outside of Q) behind R) four S) fast T) slow U) outward V) many W) above X) first Y) insufficient, below 76) bradyPage Ref: 25 Learning Obj.: 3-2 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 77) tachyPage Ref: 25 Learning Obj.: 3-2 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 78) exPage Ref: 26 Learning Obj.: 3-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

79) interPage Ref: 26 Learning Obj.: 3-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 80) retroPage Ref: 26 Learning Obj.: 3-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 81) hyperPage Ref: 26 Learning Obj.: 3-4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 82) multiPage Ref: 27 Learning Obj.: 3-4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 83) primiPage Ref: 27 Learning Obj.: 3-4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 84) uniPage Ref: 27 Learning Obj.: 3-4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 85) prePage Ref: 27 Learning Obj.: 3-5 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 86) heteroPage Ref: 27 Learning Obj.: 3-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 19 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

87) dysPage Ref: 25 Learning Obj.: 3-2 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 88) pachyPage Ref: 25 Learning Obj.: 3-2 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 89) antiPage Ref: 25 Learning Obj.: 3-2 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 90) neoPage Ref: 27 Learning Obj.: 3-5 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 91) intraPage Ref: 26 Learning Obj.: 3-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 92) supraPage Ref: 26 Learning Obj.: 3-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 93) hypoPage Ref: 25 Learning Obj.: 3-3, 3-4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 94) microPage Ref: 27 Learning Obj.: 3-4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 20 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

95) quadriPage Ref: 27 Learning Obj.: 3-4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 96) postPage Ref: 27 Learning Obj.: 3-5 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 97) homoPage Ref: 27 Learning Obj.: 3-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 98) euPage Ref: 27 Learning Obj.: 3-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 99) extraPage Ref: 26 Learning Obj.: 3-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 100) perPage Ref: 27 Learning Obj.: 3-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building Answers: 76) T 77) S 78) U 79) F 80) Q 81) C 82) V 83) X 84) D 85) I 86) O 87) M 88) G 89) A 90) L 91) E 92) W 93) Y 94) K 95) R 96) H 97) N 98) J 99) P 100) B

101) Describe what a prefix is and how it is used in medical terminology. Answer: ∙ Found at the beginning of a medical term ∙ Not all terms have a prefix ∙ Not associated with only one medical specialty or body system ∙ Categories of prefixes ∘ Prefixes indicating diseases or abnormal conditions ∘ Prefixes indicating directions or body positions ∘ Prefixes indicating numbers or quantity measurements ∘ Prefixes indicating time ∘ General prefixes Page Ref: 25 Learning Obj.: 3-1 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building

Medical Terminology: Get Connected!, 3e (Frucht) Chapter 4 Anatomical Terminology All answers to questions asking for a combining form must be written in the combining form style, meaning word root/combining vowel. For example, the combining form meaning "heart" is cardi/o. Do NOT capitalize any of your answers or include a period at the end of your answer. The computer will NOT recognize your answer as correct if it is written in any other style. 1) The combining form that means abdomen is ________. Answer: abdomin/o; abdomino Page Ref: 33 Learning Obj.: 4-4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 2) The combining form that means front (side of body) is ________. Answer: anter/o; antero Page Ref: 33 Learning Obj.: 4-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 3) The combining form that means head is ________. Answer: cephal/o; cephalo Page Ref: 33 Learning Obj.: 4-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 4) The combining form that means skull is ________. Answer: crani/o; cranio Page Ref: 33 Learning Obj.: 4-4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 5) The combining form that means tail is ________. Answer: caud/o; caudo Page Ref: 33 Learning Obj.: 4-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

6) The combining form that means neck is ________. Answer: cervic/o; cervico Page Ref: 33 Learning Obj.: 4-4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 7) The combining form that means buttocks is ________. Answer: glute/o; gluteo Page Ref: 33 Learning Obj.: 4-4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 8) The combining form that means arm is ________. Answer: brachi/o; brachio Page Ref: 33 Learning Obj.: 4-4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 9) The combining form that means groin is ________. Answer: inguin/o; inguino Page Ref: 33 Learning Obj.: 4-4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 10) The combining form that means side is ________. Answer: later/o; latero Page Ref: 33 Learning Obj.: 4-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 11) The combining form that means middle is ________. Answer: medi/o; medio Page Ref: 33 Learning Obj.: 4-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

12) A combining form that means nose is ________. Answer: nas/o; naso Page Ref: 37 Learning Obj.: 4-4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 13) A combining form that means chest is ________. Answer: thorac/o; thoraco Page Ref: 33 Learning Obj.: 4-4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 14) The combining form that means eye socket is ________. Answer: orbit/o; orbito Page Ref: 33 Learning Obj.: 4-4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 15) The combining form that means spine is ________. Answer: spin/o; spino Page Ref: 33 Learning Obj.: 4-5 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 16) The combining form that means pelvis is ________. Answer: pelv/o; pelvo Page Ref: 33 Learning Obj.: 4-4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 17) The combining form that means mouth is ________. Answer: or/o; oro Page Ref: 33 Learning Obj.: 4-4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

18) The combining form that means ear is ________. Answer: ot/o; oto Page Ref: 33 Learning Obj.: 4-4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 19) The combining form that means elbow is ________. Answer: cubit/o; cubito Page Ref: 33 Learning Obj.: 4-4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 20) The combining form that means patella (kneecap) is ________. Answer: patell/o; patello Page Ref: 33 Learning Obj.: 4-4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 21) The combining form that means scapula (shoulder blade) is ________. Answer: scapul/o; scapulo Page Ref: 33 Learning Obj.: 4-4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 22) A combining form that means sternum (breast bone) is ________. Answer: stern/o; sterno Page Ref: 33 Learning Obj.: 4-4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 23) A combining form that means cartilage is ________. Answer: chondr/o; chondro Page Ref: 33 Learning Obj.: 4-4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

24) A combining form that means belly (side of body) is ________. Answer: ventr/o; ventro Page Ref: 33 Learning Obj.: 4-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 25) A combining form that means vertebra is ________. Answer: vertebr/o; vertebro Page Ref: 33 Learning Obj.: 4-4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 26) A medical term that means pertaining to the abdomen is ________. Answer: abdominal Page Ref: 39 Learning Obj.: 4-4 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Body Surface Terminology 27) A medical term that means pertaining to the front is ________. Answer: anterior Page Ref: 36 Learning Obj.: 4-3 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Directional Terminology 28) A medical term that means pertaining to the arm is ________. Answer: brachial Page Ref: 39 Learning Obj.: 4-4 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Body Surface Terminology 29) A medical term that means pertaining to the head is ________. Answer: cephalic Page Ref: 36 Learning Obj.: 4-3 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Directional Terminology

30) A medical term that means pertaining to the neck is ________. Answer: cervical Page Ref: 39 Learning Obj.: 4-4 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Body Surface Terminology 31) A medical term that means pertaining to the skull is ________. Answer: cranial Page Ref: 39 Learning Obj.: 4-4 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Body Surface Terminology 32) A medical term that means pertaining to the tail is ________. Answer: caudal Page Ref: 36 Learning Obj.: 4-3 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Directional Terminology 33) A medical term that means pertaining to the buttocks is ________. Answer: gluteal Page Ref: 39 Learning Obj.: 4-4 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Body Surface Terminology 34) A medical term that means pertaining to the side is ________. Answer: lateral Page Ref: 37 Learning Obj.: 4-3 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Directional Terminology 35) A medical term that means pertaining to the middle is ________. Answer: medial Page Ref: 37 Learning Obj.: 4-3 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Directional Terminology

36) A medical term that means pertaining to below is ________. Answer: inferior Page Ref: 37 Learning Obj.: 4-3 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Directional Terminology 37) A medical term that means pertaining to above is ________. Answer: superior Page Ref: 37 Learning Obj.: 4-3 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Directional Terminology 38) A medical term that means pertaining to the femur/thigh is ________. Answer: femoral Page Ref: 39 Learning Obj.: 4-4 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Body Surface Terminology 39) A medical term that means pertaining to the pelvis is ________. Answer: pelvic Page Ref: 40 Learning Obj.: 4-4 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Body Surface Terminology 40) A medical term that means pertaining to the groin is ________. Answer: inguinal Page Ref: 39 Learning Obj.: 4-4 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Body Surface Terminology 41) A medical term that means pertaining to the nose is ________. Answer: nasal Page Ref: 39 Learning Obj.: 4-4 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Body Surface Terminology

42) A medical term that means pertaining to the mouth is ________. Answer: oral Page Ref: 40 Learning Obj.: 4-4 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Body Surface Terminology 43) A medical term that means pertaining to the eye socket is ________. Answer: orbital Page Ref: 39 Learning Obj.: 4-4 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Body Surface Terminology 44) A medical term that means pertaining to the ear is ________. Answer: otic Page Ref: 40 Learning Obj.: 4-4 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Body Surface Terminology 45) A medical term that means pertaining to the shoulder blade is ________. Answer: scapular Page Ref: 40 Learning Obj.: 4-4 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Body Surface Terminology 46) A medical term that means pertaining to the chest is ________. Answer: thoracic Page Ref: 40 Learning Obj.: 4-4 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Body Surface Terminology 47) A medical term that means pertaining to the backbone is ________. Answer: vertebral Page Ref: 40 Learning Obj.: 4-4 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Body Surface Terminology

48) A medical term that means pertaining to the breast bone is ________. Answer: sternal Page Ref: 40 Learning Obj.: 4-4 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Body Surface Terminology 49) A medical term that means pertaining to the kneecap is ________. Answer: patellar Page Ref: 40 Learning Obj.: 4-4 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Body Surface Terminology 50) A medical term that means pertaining to the belly side of the body is ________. Answer: ventral Page Ref: 38 Learning Obj.: 4-3 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Directional Terminology 51) The front of the elbow is the antecubital area of the body. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 39 Learning Obj.: 4-4 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Body Surface Terminology 52) The axillary area of the body refers to the underarm area. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 39 Learning Obj.: 4-4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Body Surface Terminology 53) The term brachial refers to the arm. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 39 Learning Obj.: 4-4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Body Surface Terminology

54) The femoral area refers to the kneecap. Answer: FALSE Explanation: The patellar area refers to the kneecap. The femoral area refers to the femur or thigh. Page Ref: 40 Learning Obj.: 4-4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Body Surface Terminology 55) The upper extremity consists of the forearm and hand. Answer: FALSE Explanation: The upper extremity consists of the entire arm. Page Ref: 40 Learning Obj.: 4-4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Body Surface Terminology 56) The oral area of the body contains the forehead. Answer: FALSE Explanation: The oral area of the body contains the mouth. The cranial area of the body contains the forehead. Page Ref: 40 Learning Obj.: 4-4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Body Surface Terminology 57) The palmar area is behind the knee. Answer: FALSE Explanation: The popliteal area is behind the knee. The palmar area is on the palm of the hand. Page Ref: 40 Learning Obj.: 4-4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Body Surface Terminology 58) A cut perpendicular across the arms yields a cross-section view. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 35 Learning Obj.: 4-2 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Planes and Sections 59) The body can be divided into sections along three different planes. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 34 Learning Obj.: 4-2 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Planes and Sections 10 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

60) A cut along the sagittal plane produces a coronal section. Answer: FALSE Explanation: A cut along the sagittal plane produces a sagittal section. A cut along the coronal (frontal) plane produces a coronal section. Page Ref: 35 Learning Obj.: 4-2 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Planes and Sections 61) The transverse plane divides the body into anterior and posterior portions. Answer: FALSE Explanation: The transverse plane divides the body into upper and lower portions. The frontal or coronal plane divides the body into anterior and posterior portions. Page Ref: 35 Learning Obj.: 4-2 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Planes and Sections 62) In the anatomical position, the arms are down at the sides. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 34 Learning Obj.: 4-1 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomical Position 63) When describing body position, the assumption is always that the person is in the anatomical position. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 33 Learning Obj.: 4-1 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomical Position 64) In the anatomical position, the body is lying on its back. Answer: FALSE Explanation: In the anatomical position, the body is standing erect. In the supine position, the body is lying on its back. Page Ref: 33 Learning Obj.: 4-1 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomical Position

65) The sagittal plane is also called the coronal plane. Answer: FALSE Explanation: The frontal plane is also called the coronal plane. Page Ref: 35 Learning Obj.: 4-2 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Planes and Sections 66) The transverse plane is a horizontal plane. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 35 Learning Obj.: 4-2 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Planes and Sections 67) The sagittal plane divides the body into left and right portions. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 35 Learning Obj.: 4-2 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Planes and Sections 68) The coronal plane divides the body into upper and lower portions. Answer: FALSE Explanation: The coronal plane divides the body into front and back portions. The transverse plane divides the body into upper and lower portions. Page Ref: 35 Learning Obj.: 4-2 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Planes and Sections 69) A longitudinal section of the body is produced by a lengthwise slice along the long axis of a structure. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 35 Learning Obj.: 4-2 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Planes and Sections 70) The dorsal direction is toward the posterior side of the trunk. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 36 Learning Obj.: 4-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Directional Terminology

71) The lower extremities are the brachial region of the body. Answer: FALSE Explanation: The arm is the brachial region of the body. Page Ref: 39 Learning Obj.: 4-4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Body Surface Terminology 72) The term otic refers to the ear. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 40 Learning Obj.: 4-4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Body Surface Terminology 73) The buttocks are the genital region of the body. Answer: FALSE Explanation: The buttocks are the gluteal region of the body. Page Ref: 39 Learning Obj.: 4-4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Body Surface Terminology 74) The diaphragm divides the thoracic cavity from the abdominopelvic cavity. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 41 Learning Obj.: 4-5 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Body Cavities 75) The mediastinum is located in the center of the abdominal cavity. Answer: FALSE Explanation: The mediastinum is located in the center of the thoracic cavity. Page Ref: 41 Learning Obj.: 4-5 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Body Cavities 76) The pleural cavity contains the heart. Answer: FALSE Explanation: The pleural cavities contain the lungs. The mediastinum contains the heart. Page Ref: 41 Learning Obj.: 4-5 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Body Cavities

77) The hypochondriac region is located beneath the lower ribs. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 43 Learning Obj.: 4-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Body Cavities 78) The umbilical region centers over the navel. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 43 Learning Obj.: 4-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Body Cavities 79) The lumbar region is in the groin area. Answer: FALSE Explanation: The iliac or inguinal regions are near the groin. The lumbar regions are located laterally near the waist. Page Ref: 43 Learning Obj.: 4-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Body Cavities 80) The right upper quadrant contains the gallbladder. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 42 Learning Obj.: 4-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Body Cavities 81) The left lower quadrant contains the appendix. Answer: FALSE Explanation: The right lower quadrant contains the appendix. Page Ref: 42 Learning Obj.: 4-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Body Cavities 82) The spinal cavity is a dorsal body cavity. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 41 Learning Obj.: 4-5 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Body Cavities

83) The peritoneum is a membrane that protects the brain. Answer: FALSE Explanation: The meninges are a membrane that protects the brain. The peritoneum protects the abdominopelvic organs. Page Ref: 41 Learning Obj.: 4-5 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Body Cavities 84) The cranial cavity contains the brain. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 41 Learning Obj.: 4-5 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Body Cavities 85) The esophagus is found in the abdominopelvic cavity. Answer: FALSE Explanation: The esophagus is found in the thoracic cavity. Page Ref: 41 Learning Obj.: 4-5 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Body Cavities 86) The term superior is interchangeable with cephalic. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 36 Learning Obj.: 4-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Directional Terminology 87) The term inferior is interchangeable with dorsal. Answer: FALSE Explanation: The term inferior is interchangeable with caudal. Page Ref: 36 Learning Obj.: 4-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Directional Terminology 88) The term deep means "further below from the surface of the body." Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 37 Learning Obj.: 4-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Directional Terminology

89) The term distal means "pertaining to near to the beginning of a structure." Answer: FALSE Explanation: The term proximal means "pertaining to near to the beginning of a structure." Page Ref: 37 Learning Obj.: 4-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Directional Terminology 90) The term prone means "lying face downward." Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 37 Learning Obj.: 4-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Directional Terminology 91) The term medial refers to the side. Answer: FALSE Explanation: The term medial refers to the middle. Page Ref: 37 Learning Obj.: 4-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Directional Terminology 92) The directional term anterior means "pertaining to the front." Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 36 Learning Obj.: 4-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Directional Terminology 93) The term cranial means "pertaining to the head." Answer: FALSE Explanation: The term cranial means "pertaining to the skull." The term cephalic means "pertaining to the head." Page Ref: 39 Learning Obj.: 4-4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Body Surface Terminology 94) The term gluteal means "pertaining to the genital region." Answer: FALSE Explanation: The term gluteal means "pertaining to the buttocks." Page Ref: 39 Learning Obj.: 4-4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Body Surface Terminology 16 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

95) The term brachial means "pertaining to the arm." Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 39 Learning Obj.: 4-4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Body Surface Terminology 96) The term inguinal refers to the groin. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 39 Learning Obj.: 4-4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Body Surface Terminology 97) The trunk refers to the area around the navel. Answer: FALSE Explanation: The term umbilical refers to the area around the navel. Page Ref: 40 Learning Obj.: 4-4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Body Surface Terminology 98) The term thoracic means "pertaining to the chest." Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 40 Learning Obj.: 4-4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Body Surface Terminology 99) The sternum is the shoulder blade. Answer: FALSE Explanation: The sternum is the breast bone. The scapula is the shoulder blade. Page Ref: 40 Learning Obj.: 4-4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Body Surface Terminology 100) The term popliteal refers to the creased area behind the knee. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 40 Learning Obj.: 4-4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Body Surface Terminology

101) Which of the following is NOT part of the anatomical position? A) Standing erect B) Palms facing backward C) Legs together D) Eyes looking ahead Answer: B Explanation: A) Standing erect is part of the anatomical position. B) The palms face forward in the anatomical position, not backward. C) Legs together is part of the anatomical position. D) Eyes looking straight ahead is part of the anatomical position. Page Ref: 34 Learning Obj.: 4-1 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomical Position 102) Which plane divides the body into left and right portions? A) Sagittal B) Frontal C) Coronal D) Transverse Answer: A Explanation: A) The sagittal plane divides the body into left and right portions. B) The frontal plane divides the body into front and back sections. C) The coronal plane divides the body into front and back sections. D) The transverse plane divides the body into top and bottom sections. Page Ref: 35 Learning Obj.: 4-2 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Planes and Sections 103) Which plane divides the body into front and back portions? A) Sagittal B) Frontal C) Transverse D) Median Answer: B Explanation: A) The sagittal plane divides the body into right and left sections. B) The frontal plane divides the body into anterior (front) and posterior (back) portions. C) The transverse plane divides the body into top and bottom sections. D) The term median refers to the middle of the body, but it is not a plane. Page Ref: 35 Learning Obj.: 4-2 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Planes and Sections

104) Which plane is the only horizontal body plane? A) Sagittal B) Frontal C) Transverse D) Median Answer: C Explanation: A) The sagittal plane is a vertical plane that divides the body into right and left sections. B) The frontal plane is a vertical plane that divides the body into front and back sections. C) The transverse plane is the only horizontal plane, and it divides the body into upper and lower portions. D) The term median refers to the middle of the body, but it is not a plane. Page Ref: 35 Learning Obj.: 4-2 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Planes and Sections 105) Which sectional view of the body is produced by a slice perpendicular to the long axis? A) Cross-section B) Coronal section C) Longitudinal section D) Sagittal section Answer: A Explanation: A) A slice perpendicular to the long axis produces a cross-section view. B) A coronal section is produced by dividing the body into front and back sections. C) A longitudinal section is produced by a lengthwise slice along the long axis of a structure. D) A sagittal section is produced by dividing the body into right and left sections. Page Ref: 35 Learning Obj.: 4-2 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Planes and Sections 106) Which plane divides the body into upper and lower portions? A) Coronal B) Transverse C) Sagittal D) Frontal Answer: B Explanation: A) The coronal plane divides the body into front and back sections. B) The transverse plane divides the body into upper and lower portions. C) The sagittal plane divides the body into right and left sections. D) The frontal plane divides the body into front and back sections. Page Ref: 35 Learning Obj.: 4-2 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Planes and Sections 19 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

107) Which sectional view of the body is produced by a lengthwise slice along the long axis of a structure? A) Cross-section B) Transverse section C) Longitudinal section D) Sagittal section Answer: C Explanation: A) A cross-section view of the body is produced by a slice perpendicular to the long axis. B) A transverse section is produced by dividing the body into upper and lower portions. C) A longitudinal section is produced by a lengthwise slice along the long axis of a structure. D) A sagittal section is produced by dividing the body into right and left sections. Page Ref: 40 Learning Obj.: 4-2 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Planes and Sections 108) Which plane is a vertical plane? A) Frontal B) Cross-section C) Transverse D) Longitudinal Answer: A Explanation: A) The frontal plane is a vertical plane that divides the body into front and back sections. B) A cross-section is a view of the body produced by a perpendicular cut to the long axis of a structure, but it is not a plane. C) The transverse plane is a horizontal plane that divides the body into upper and lower portions. D) Longitudinal refers to a section produced by a lengthwise cut along the long axis of a structure, but it is not a plane. Page Ref: 35 Learning Obj.: 4-2 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Planes and Sections

109) A cut along the frontal plane produces a ________ section. A) coronal B) sagittal C) longitudinal D) crossAnswer: A Explanation: A) A cut along the frontal or coronal plane produces a frontal or coronal section. B) A cut along the sagittal plane produces a sagittal section. C) A lengthwise slice along the long axis of a structure produces a longitudinal section. D) A cut perpendicular to the long axis of a structure produces a cross-section. Page Ref: 35 Learning Obj.: 4-2 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Planes and Sections 110) Which of the following directional terms means "pertaining to above"? A) Superior B) Medial C) Ventral D) Caudal Answer: A Explanation: A) Superior means "pertaining to above." B) Medial means "pertaining to the middle." C) Ventral means "pertaining to the belly side of the body." D) Caudal means "pertaining to the tail." Page Ref: 37 Learning Obj.: 4-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Directional Terminology 111) Which of the following directional terms means "pertaining to below"? A) Cephalic B) Inferior C) Posterior D) Dorsal Answer: B Explanation: A) Cephalic means "pertaining to the head." B) Inferior means "pertaining to below." C) Posterior means "pertaining to the back of the body." D) Dorsal means "pertaining to the back of the body." Page Ref: 37 Learning Obj.: 4-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Directional Terminology

112) Which of the following directional terms means "pertaining to the tail"? A) Distal B) Lateral C) Caudal D) Deep Answer: C Explanation: A) Distal means "pertaining to away from the beginning of a structure." B) Lateral means "pertaining to the side." C) Caudal means "pertaining to the tail." D) Deep means "further below from the surface." Page Ref: 37 Learning Obj.: 4-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Directional Terminology 113) Which of the following directional terms is the opposite of medial? A) Superior B) Caudal C) Lateral D) Distal Answer: C Explanation: A) Superior means pertaining to above. B) Caudal means pertaining to the tail. C) Lateral, "pertaining to the side," is the opposite of medial, "pertaining to the middle." D) Distal means "pertaining to away from the beginning of a structure." Page Ref: 37 Learning Obj.: 4-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Directional Terminology 114) Which of the following directional terms refers to the back side of the body? A) Posterior B) Ventral C) Distal D) Deep Answer: A Explanation: A) Posterior means "pertaining to the back side of the body." B) Ventral means "pertaining to the belly side." C) Distal means "pertaining to away from the beginning of a structure." D) Deep means "further below from the surface." Page Ref: 37 Learning Obj.: 4-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Directional Terminology

115) Which of the following directional terms means "pertaining to away from the beginning of a structure"? A) Superficial B) Distal C) Supine D) Proximal Answer: B Explanation: A) Superficial means "nearer the surface." B) Distal means "pertaining to away from the beginning of a structure." C) Supine means "to lie face up." D) Proximal means "pertaining to near to the beginning of a structure." Page Ref: 37 Learning Obj.: 4-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Directional Terminology 116) Which of the following directional terms is the opposite of distal? A) Dorsal B) Midline C) Superficial D) Proximal Answer: D Explanation: A) Dorsal means "pertaining to the back side of the body." B) Midline refers to a line cutting down the middle of the body. C) Superficial means "nearer the surface." D) Proximal, "pertaining to near to the beginning of a structure," is the opposite of distal, "pertaining to away from the beginning of a structure." Page Ref: 42 Learning Obj.: 4-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Directional Terminology 117) Which of the following directional terms means "to lie face down"? A) Prone B) Proximal C) Supine D) Ventral Answer: A Explanation: A) Prone means "to lie face down." B) Proximal means "pertaining to near the point of origin." C) Supine means "to lie face up." D) Ventral means "pertaining to the front side of the body." Page Ref: 37 Learning Obj.: 4-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Directional Terminology 23 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

118) Which of the following directional terms is the opposite of anterior? A) Posterior B) Ventral C) Caudal D) Cephalic Answer: A Explanation: A) Posterior is the opposite of anterior. B) Ventral is the opposite of dorsal. C) Caudal is the opposite of cephalic. D) Cephalic is the opposite of caudal. Page Ref: 36 Learning Obj.: 4-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Directional Terminology 119) Which of the following directional terms means "nearer the surface"? A) Superior B) Distal C) Superficial D) Deep Answer: C Explanation: A) Superior means "pertaining to above." B) Distal means "pertaining to away from the point of origin." C) Superficial means "nearer the surface." D) Deep means "further below the surface." Page Ref: 37 Learning Obj.: 4-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Directional Terminology 120) Which of the following directional terms specifically refers to the belly side of the body? A) Dorsal B) Caudal C) Cephalic D) Ventral Answer: D Explanation: A) Dorsal refers to the back side of the body. B) Caudal refers to the tailbone. C) Cephalic refers to the head. D) Ventral refers to the belly side of the body. Page Ref: 38 Learning Obj.: 4-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Directional Terminology

121) The ventral side of the body could also be described as the ________ side of the body. A) cephalic B) proximal C) anterior D) posterior Answer: C Explanation: A) Cephalic refers to the head, not the ventral side of the body. B) Proximal refers to something that is near the point of origin, not the ventral side of the body. C) Anterior refers to the front side of the body, as does ventral. D) Posterior refers to the back, not the ventral side of the body. Page Ref: 36 Learning Obj.: 4-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Directional Terminology 122) The opposite direction from cephalic is ________. A) dorsal B) ventral C) proximal D) caudal Answer: D Explanation: A) Dorsal refers to the back side of the body and is not the opposite of cephalic. B) Ventral refers to the front side of the body and is not the opposite of cephalic. C) Proximal refers to something that is near the point of origin and is not the opposite of cephalic. D) Caudal refers to the tail and is the opposite of cephalic. Page Ref: 36 Learning Obj.: 4-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Directional Terminology 123) The position opposite of prone is ________. A) supine B) deep C) anterior D) lateral Answer: A Explanation: A) The supine position is the opposite of the prone position. B) Deep means "further below the surface" and is not the opposite of prone. C) Anterior means "pertaining to the front" and is not the opposite of prone. D) Lateral means "pertaining to the side" and is not the opposite of prone. Page Ref: 37 Learning Obj.: 4-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Directional Terminology

124) The neck is the ________ region of the body. A) dorsal B) cervical C) cephalic D) pubic Answer: B Explanation: A) Dorsal means "pertaining to the back." B) Cervical means "pertaining to the neck." C) Cephalic means "pertaining to the head." D) Pubic means "pertaining to the pubis." Page Ref: 39 Learning Obj.: 4-4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Body Surface Terminology 125) Which of the following terms means "pertaining to the back side of the body"? A) Cephalic B) Superior C) Distal D) Dorsal Answer: D Explanation: A) Cephalic means "pertaining to the head." B) Superior means "pertaining to above." C) Distal means "away from the point of origin." D) Dorsal means "pertaining to the back side of the body." Page Ref: 37 Learning Obj.: 4-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Directional Terminology 126) The knee is more ________ than the femur. A) ventral B) distal C) superior D) proximal Answer: B Explanation: A) Ventral refers to the belly side of the body, and both the femur and knee are on the belly side. B) Distal means "pertaining to away from the beginning of the structure," and the knee is farther away from the beginning of the leg than the femur. C) Superior means "pertaining to above," but the knee is below the femur. D) Proximal means "nearest to the beginning of the structure," but the femur is nearer the beginning of the leg than the knee.. Page Ref: 37 Learning Obj.: 4-3 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Directional Terminology 26 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

127) Another name for the torso is the ________ region of the body. A) vertebral B) dorsal C) trunk D) brachial Answer: C Explanation: A) Vertebral refers to the vertebra, not the torso. B) Dorsal refers to the back, not the torso. C) The trunk is another name for the torso. D) Brachial refers to the arm, not the torso. Page Ref: 38 Learning Obj.: 4-4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Body Surface Terminology 128) The term antecubital refers to the front side of the ________. A) knee B) head C) chest D) elbow Answer: D Explanation: A) Patellar refers to the knee. B) Cranial refers to the head. C) Thoracic refers to the chest. D) Antecubital refers to the front side of the elbow. Page Ref: 39 Learning Obj.: 4-4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Body Surface Terminology 129) The ________ area is the underarm. A) axillary B) popliteal C) sternal D) gluteal Answer: A Explanation: A) The axillary area is the underarm area. B) The popliteal area is the creased area behind the knee. C) The sternal area is the area of the breast bone. D) The gluteal area is the buttocks. Page Ref: 39 Learning Obj.: 4-4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Body Surface Terminology

130) The arms are the ________ region of the body. A) brachial B) femoral C) trunk D) pelvic Answer: A Explanation: A) The arms are the brachial region of the body. B) The upper leg is the femoral region of the body. C) The trunk refers to the torso area of the body. D) The pelvic area is the region of the pelvis. Page Ref: 39 Learning Obj.: 4-4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Body Surface Terminology 131) Which of the following is NOT an area found on the anterior trunk? A) Abdominal B) Gluteal C) Pelvic D) Thoracic Answer: B Explanation: A) The abdominal area is part of the anterior trunk. B) The gluteal area is on the posterior trunk. C) The pelvic area is part of the anterior trunk. D) The thoracic area is part of the anterior trunk. Page Ref: 38 Learning Obj.: 4-4 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Body Surface Terminology 132) Which of the following terms refers to the buttocks area of the body? A) Inguinal B) Femoral C) Palmar D) Gluteal Answer: D Explanation: A) The term inguinal refers to the groin region. B) The term femoral refers to the thigh region. C) The term palmar refers to the palm of the hand. D) The term gluteal refers to the buttocks. Page Ref: 39 Learning Obj.: 4-4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Body Surface Terminology

133) Which of the following terms refers to the thigh area of the body? A) Pelvic B) Plantar C) Femoral D) Oral Answer: C Explanation: A) The term pelvic refers to the pelvis. B) The term plantar refers to the sole of the foot. C) The term femoral refers to the thigh. D) The term oral refers to the mouth. Page Ref: 39 Learning Obj.: 4-4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Body Surface Terminology 134) Which of the following terms refers to the nose? A) Nasal B) Otic C) Orbital D) Oral Answer: A Explanation: A) The term nasal refers to the nose. B) The term otic refers to the ear. C) The term orbital refers to the eye socket. D) The term oral refers to the mouth. Page Ref: 39 Learning Obj.: 4-4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Body Surface Terminology 135) Which of the following terms refers to the eye socket area of the body? A) Nasal B) Otic C) Orbital D) Oral Answer: C Explanation: A) The term nasal refers to the nose. B) The term otic refers to the ear. C) The term orbital refers to the eye socket. D) The term oral refers to the mouth. Page Ref: 39 Learning Obj.: 4-4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Body Surface Terminology

136) Which of the following terms refers to the ear? A) Nasal B) Otic C) Orbital D) Oral Answer: B Explanation: A) The term nasal refers to the nose. B) The term otic refers to the ear. C) The term orbital refers to the eye socket. D) The term oral refers to the mouth. Page Ref: 40 Learning Obj.: 4-4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Body Surface Terminology 137) Which of the following body areas is NOT found on the head? A) Orbital B) Nasal C) Otic D) Axillary Answer: D Explanation: A) The orbital area is the eye socket and is found on the head. B) The nasal area is the nose and is found on the head. C) The otic area is the ear and is found on the head. D) The axillary area is the armpit and is found on the trunk. Page Ref: 39 Learning Obj.: 4-4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Body Surface Terminology 138) Which of the following terms refers to the mouth? A) Nasal B) Otic C) Orbital D) Oral Answer: D Explanation: A) The term nasal refers to the nose. B) The term otic refers to the ear. C) The term orbital refers to the eye socket. D) The term oral refers to the mouth. Page Ref: 40 Learning Obj.: 4-4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Body Surface Terminology

139) Which of the following terms refers to the groin area of the body? A) Inguinal B) Genital C) Scapular D) Popliteal Answer: A Explanation: A) The term inguinal refers to the groin. B) The term genital means "pertaining to the genitals." C) The term scapular means "pertaining to the shoulder blade." D) The term popliteal refers to the creased area behind the knee. Page Ref: 39 Learning Obj.: 4-4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Body Surface Terminology 140) Which of the following body areas is NOT found on the lower extremity? A) Plantar B) Genital C) Popliteal D) Femoral Answer: B Explanation: A) The plantar area is the sole of the foot and is part of the lower extremity. B) The genital area is located on the lower part of the trunk. C) The popliteal area is the crease at the back of the knee and is part of the lower extremity. D) The femoral area is the thigh and is part of the lower extremity. Page Ref: 38 Learning Obj.: 4-4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Body Surface Terminology 141) Which of the following body areas is NOT found on the upper extremity? A) Antecubital B) Palmar C) Cervical D) Brachial Answer: C Explanation: A) The antecubital area is at the elbow and is on the upper extremity. B) The palmar area is on the palm of the hand and is on the upper extremity. C) The cervical area is at the neck and is not part of the upper extremity. D) The brachial area is the arm and is on the upper extremity. Page Ref: 38 Learning Obj.: 4-4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Body Surface Terminology

142) Which of the following body areas is NOT found on the trunk? A) Scapular B) Sternal C) Popliteal D) Vertebral Answer: C Explanation: A) The scapular area is the shoulder blade and is found on the posterior trunk. B) The sternal area is the breast bone and is found on the anterior trunk. C) The popliteal area is at the back of the knee and is not part of the trunk. D) The vertebral area is the spine and is found on the posterior trunk. Page Ref: 38 Learning Obj.: 4-4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Body Surface Terminology 143) Which of the following terms refers to the sole of the foot? A) popliteal B) prone C) palmar D) plantar Answer: D Explanation: A) The term popliteal refers to the creased area behind the knee. B) The term prone means lying face down. C) The term palmar refers to the palm of the hand. D) The term plantar refers to the sole of the foot. Page Ref: 40 Learning Obj.: 4-4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Body Surface Terminology 144) Which of the following terms refers to the navel? A) Umbilical B) Mediastinum C) Trunk D) Dorsal Answer: A Explanation: A) The term umbilical refers to the navel. B) The mediastinum refers to the central region of the thoracic cavity. C) The term trunk refers to the torso. D) The term dorsal refers to the back. Page Ref: 40 Learning Obj.: 4-4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Body Surface Terminology

145) Which of the following terms refers to the shoulder blade? A) Sternal B) Scapular C) Inguinal D) Cervical Answer: B Explanation: A) The term sternal refers to the breast bone. B) The term scapular refers to the shoulder blade. C) The term inguinal refers to the groin. D) The term cervical refers to the neck body region. Page Ref: 40 Learning Obj.: 4-4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Body Surface Terminology 146) Which of the following terms refers to the breast bone? A) Gluteal B) Orbital C) Sternal D) Plantar Answer: C Explanation: A) The term gluteal refers to buttocks region. B) The term orbital refers to eye socket region. C) The term sternal refers to the breast bone. D) The term plantar refers to the sole of the foot. Page Ref: 40 Learning Obj.: 4-4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Body Surface Terminology 147) Which of the following terms refers to the backbone? A) Cephalic B) Otic C) Umbilical D) Vertebral Answer: D Explanation: A) The term cephalic refers to the head. B) The term otic refers to the ear. C) The term umbilical refers to the region around the navel. D) The term vertebral refers to the backbone. Page Ref: 40 Learning Obj.: 4-4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Body Surface Terminology

148) Which of the following is a dorsal body cavity? A) Abdominal B) Pelvic C) Thoracic D) Spinal Answer: D Explanation: A) The abdominal cavity is ventral. B) The pelvic cavity is ventral. C) The thoracic cavity is ventral. D) The spinal cavity is dorsal. Page Ref: 40 Learning Obj.: 4-5 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Body Cavities 149) The cranial cavity contains the ________. A) spinal cord B) heart C) brain D) stomach Answer: C Explanation: A) The spinal cavity contains the spinal cord. B) The thoracic cavity contains the heart. C) The cranial cavity contains the brain. D) The abdominopelvic cavity contains the stomach. Page Ref: 41 Learning Obj.: 4-5 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Body Cavities 150) Which of the following structures is NOT located in the mediastinum? A) Heart B) Thymus gland C) Lungs D) Aorta Answer: C Explanation: A) The heart is in the mediastinum. B) The thymus gland is in the mediastinum. C) The lungs are in the pleural cavities. D) The aorta is in the mediastinum. Page Ref: 41 Learning Obj.: 4-5 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Body Cavities

151) What organ is located inside the pleural cavity? A) Heart B) Stomach C) Urinary bladder D) Lung Answer: D Explanation: A) The heart is in the thoracic cavity. B) The stomach is in the abdominopelvic cavity. C) The urinary bladder is in the abdominopelvic cavity. D) The lungs are in the pleural cavities. Page Ref: 41 Learning Obj.: 4-5 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Body Cavities 152) Which of the following organs is NOT found in the abdominopelvic cavity? A) Lung B) Stomach C) Gallbladder D) Uterus Answer: A Explanation: A) The lungs are in the pleural cavities, which are subdivisions of the thoracic cavity. B) The stomach is in the abdominopelvic cavity. C) The gallbladder is in the abdominopelvic cavity. D) The uterus is in the abdominopelvic cavity. Page Ref: 41 Learning Obj.: 4-5 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Body Cavities 153) Which of the following cavities is NOT a ventral cavity? A) Abdominal B) Spinal C) Thoracic D) Pelvic Answer: B Explanation: A) The abdominal cavity is a ventral cavity. B) The spinal cavity is a dorsal cavity. C) The thoracic cavity is a ventral cavity. D) The pelvic cavity is a ventral cavity. Page Ref: 40 Learning Obj.: 4-5 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Body Cavities

154) Which cavity contains the urinary bladder? A) Cranial B) Pleural C) Pelvic D) Abdominal Answer: C Explanation: A) The cranial cavity contains the brain; it does not contain the urinary bladder. B) The pleural cavities contain the lungs; they do not contain the urinary bladder. C) The pelvic cavity contains the urinary bladder. D) The abdominal cavity contains the organs of digestion; it does not contain the urinary bladder. Page Ref: 41 Learning Obj.: 4-5 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Body Cavities 155) The brain and spinal cord are protected by the ________. A) pleura B) peritoneum C) mediastinum D) meninges Answer: D Explanation: A) The pleura are around the lungs. B) The peritoneum is in the abdominopelvic cavity. C) The mediastinum is the central region of the thoracic cavity. D) The meninges are the membrane sac that protects the brain and spinal cord. Page Ref: 41 Learning Obj.: 4-5 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Body Cavities 156) The only major abdominopelvic organ to lie outside the peritoneum is the ________. A) kidney B) uterus C) urethra D) urinary bladder Answer: A Explanation: A) The kidneys lie behind the peritoneum and are said to be retroperitoneal. B) The uterus lies inside the peritoneum. C) The urethra lies inside the peritoneum. D) The urinary bladder lies inside the peritoneum. Page Ref: 42 Learning Obj.: 4-5 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Body Cavities

157) In the anatomical divisions of the abdomen, which of the following regions belongs in the upper row? A) Umbilical B) Epigastric C) Iliac D) Lumbar Answer: B Explanation: A) The umbilical region is in the middle row. B) The epigastric region lies in the upper row. C) The iliac region is in the bottom row. D) The lumbar region is in the middle row. Page Ref: 43 Learning Obj.: 4-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Body Cavities 158) In the anatomical divisions of the abdomen, the center square of the middle row is the ________ region. A) umbilical B) lumbar C) hypogastric D) iliac Answer: A Explanation: A) The umbilical region lies in the center of the middle row. B) The lumbar region lies to the right and to the left of the middle row. C) The hypogastric region lies in the center of the bottom row. D) The iliac region lies to the right and left of the bottom row. Page Ref: 43 Learning Obj.: 4-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Body Cavities 159) The spleen and stomach are located in the ________ quadrant. A) right upper B) left upper C) right lower D) left lower Answer: B Explanation: A) The spleen and stomach are not located in the right upper quadrant. B) The spleen and stomach are located in the left upper quadrant. C) The spleen and stomach are not located in the right lower quadrant. D) The spleen and stomach are not located in the left lower quadrant. Page Ref: 42 Learning Obj.: 4-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Body Cavities 37 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

160) The gallbladder and the majority of the liver are located in the ________ quadrant. A) right upper B) left upper C) right lower D) left lower Answer: A Explanation: A) The gallbladder and the majority of the liver are located in the right upper quadrant. B) The gallbladder and the majority of the liver are not in the left upper quadrant. C) The gallbladder and the majority of the liver are not in the right lower quadrant. D) The gallbladder and the majority of the liver are not in the left lower quadrant Page Ref: 42 Learning Obj.: 4-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Body Cavities 161) In the abdominopelvic cavity, which of the following is NOT a midline organ? A) Urinary bladder B) Prostate gland C) Uterus D) Stomach Answer: D Explanation: A) The urinary bladder is a midline organ. B) The prostate gland is a midline organ. C) The uterus is a midline organ. D) The stomach is not a midline organ. Page Ref: 42 Learning Obj.: 4-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Body Cavities 162) In which quadrant would you find the large intestine? A) Left lower quadrant B) Right lower quadrant C) Middle quadrant D) All quadrants Answer: D Explanation: A) Only part of the large intestine lies in the left lower quadrant. B) Only part of the large intestine lies in the right lower quadrant. C) There is no middle quadrant in the clinical divisions. D) A portion of the large intestine lies in all quadrants. Page Ref: 42 Learning Obj.: 4-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Body Cavities

163) Which of the following medical term is misspelled? A) Bracheal B) Cranial C) Gluteal D) Inferior Answer: A Explanation: A) Bracheal should be spelled brachial. B) Cranial is spelled correctly. C) Gluteal is spelled correctly. D) Inferior is spelled correctly. Page Ref: 39 Learning Obj.: 4-4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Spelling 164) Which of the following medical terms is misspelled? A) Caudal B) Crainial C) Popliteal D) Inguinal Answer: B Explanation: A) Caudal is spelled correctly. B) Crainial should be spelled cranial. C) Popliteal is spelled correctly. D) Inguinal is spelled correctly. Page Ref: 39 Learning Obj.: 4-4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Spelling 165) Which of the following medical terms is misspelled? A) Vertebral B) Proximal C) Medial D) Mediastenum Answer: D Explanation: A) Vertebral is spelled correctly. B) Proximal is spelled correctly. C) Medial is spelled correctly. D) Mediastenum should be spelled mediastinum. Page Ref: 41 Learning Obj.: 4-5 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Spelling

166) Which of the following medical terms is misspelled? A) Superficial B) Proximal C) Planter D) Cephalic Answer: C Explanation: A) Superficial is spelled correctly. B) Proximal is spelled correctly. C) Planter should be spelled plantar. D) Cephalic is spelled correctly. Page Ref: 40 Learning Obj.: 4-4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Spelling 167) Which of the following medical terms is misspelled? A) Thorasic B) Lateral C) Posterior D) Superior Answer: A Explanation: A) Thorasic should be spelled thoracic. B) Lateral is spelled correctly. C) Posterior is spelled correctly. D) Superior is spelled correctly. Page Ref: 40 Learning Obj.: 4-4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Spelling 168) Which of the following terms means "pertaining to the skull"? A) cubital B) cranial C) cervical D) cephalic Answer: B Explanation: A) Cubital means "pertaining to the elbow." B) Cranial means "pertaining to the skull." C) Cervical means "pertaining to the neck." D) Cephalic means "pertaining to the head." Page Ref: 39 Learning Obj.: 4-4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Body Surface Terminology

169) Which of the following terms does NOT refer a structure on the front side of the body? A) Antecubital B) Nasal C) Gluteal D) Orbital Answer: C Explanation: A) Antecubital refers to the front of the elbow, which is a structure on the front side of the body. B) Nasal refers to the nose, which is a structure on the front side of the body. C) Gluteal refers to the buttocks, which is a structure on the back side of the body. D) Orbital refers to the eye socket, which is a structure on the front side of the body. Page Ref: 38 Learning Obj.: 4-4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Directional Terminology 170) Which of these body areas is NOT found on the back side of the trunk? A) Popliteal B) Vertebral C) Gluteal D) Scapular Answer: A Explanation: A) The popliteal area is on the back of the lower extremity. B) The vertebral area is part of the back side of the trunk. C) The gluteal area is part of the back side of the trunk. D) The scapular area is part of the back side of the trunk. Page Ref: 38 Learning Obj.: 4-4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Body Surface Terminology 171) Which of the following suffixes does NOT mean "pertaining to"? A) -ar B) -es C) -ic D) -ior Answer: B Explanation: A) The suffix -ar means "pertaining to." B) The suffix -es does not mean "pertaining to." C) The suffix -ic means "pertaining to." D) The suffix -ior means "pertaining to." Page Ref: 33 Learning Obj.: 4-4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

172) Which of the following prefixes means above? A) AnteB) EpiC) HypoD) RetroAnswer: B Explanation: A) The prefix ante- means "before, in front of." B) The prefix epi- means "above." C) The prefix hypo- means "below, insufficient." D) The prefix retro- means "behind.' Page Ref: 33 Learning Obj.: 4-4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 173) Which of the following body areas is inferior to the patellar area? A) Genital B) Cervical C) Plantar D) Oral Answer: C Explanation: A) The genital area is superior to the patellar area. B) The cervical area is superior to the patellar area. C) The plantar area is inferior to the patellar area. D) The oral area is superior to the patellar area Page Ref: 40 Learning Obj.: 4-4 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Body Surface Terminology 174) Which of the following body areas is superior to the umbilical area? A) Nasal B) Genital C) Femoral D) Popliteal Answer: A Explanation: A) The nasal area is superior to the umbilical area. B) The genital area is inferior to the umbilical area. C) The femoral area is inferior to the umbilical area. D) The popliteal area is inferior to the umbilical area. Page Ref: 39 Learning Obj.: 4-4 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Body Surface Terminology

175) Which of the following organs is NOT protected by the peritoneum? A) Liver B) Heart C) Ureter D) Pancreas Answer: B Explanation: A) The liver is protected by the peritoneum. B) The heart is protected by the pericardial sac. C) The ureter is protected by the peritoneum. D) The pancreas is protected by the peritoneum. Page Ref: 41 Learning Obj.: 4-5 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Body Cavities

Match each term on the left with the correct definition on the right. A) lying face up B) buttocks C) front side of the body D) neck E) near to the beginning of a structure F) toward the head G) divides body into front and back portions H) side of the body I) sole of the foot J) ear K) pertaining to the tail L) nearer the surface of the body M) underarm area N) divides body into left and right portions O) contains the stomach P) cavity contains the heart and lungs Q) shoulder blade R) contains the urinary bladder S) thigh T) contains the brain U) divides body into upper and lower portions V) upper extremity W) pertaining to the side X) mouth Y) groin 176) Axillary Page Ref: 39 Learning Obj.: 4-4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Body Surface Terminology 177) cervical Page Ref: 39 Learning Obj.: 4-4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Body Surface Terminology 178) femoral Page Ref: 39 Learning Obj.: 4-4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Body Surface Terminology

179) scapular Page Ref: 40 Learning Obj.: 4-4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Body Surface Terminology 180) inguinal Page Ref: 39 Learning Obj.: 4-4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Body Surface Terminology 181)otic Page Ref: 40 Learning Obj.: 4-4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Body Surface Terminology 182) transverse plane Page Ref: 35 Learning Obj.: 4-2 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Planes and Sections 183) coronal plane Page Ref: 35 Learning Obj.: 4-2 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Planes and Sections 184) sagittal plane Page Ref: 35 Learning Obj.: 4-2 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Planes and Sections 185) brachial region Page Ref: 38 Learning Obj.: 4-4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Body Surface Terminology 186) oral Page Ref: 40 Learning Obj.: 4-4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Body Surface Terminology 45 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

187) plantar Page Ref: 40 Learning Obj.: 4-4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Body Surface Terminology 188) gluteal Page Ref: 39 Learning Obj.: 4-4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Body Surface Terminology 189) thoracic Page Ref: 41 Learning Obj.: 4-5 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Body Cavities 190) abdominal cavity Page Ref: 41 Learning Obj.: 4-5 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Body Cavities 191) cranial cavity Page Ref: 41 Learning Obj.: 4-5 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Body Cavities 192) pelvic cavity Page Ref: 41 Learning Obj.: 4-5 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Body Cavities 193) caudal Page Ref: 36 Learning Obj.: 4-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Directional Terminology 194) ventral belly Page Ref: 38 Learning Obj.: 4-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Directional Terminology 46 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

195) proximal Page Ref: 37 Learning Obj.: 4-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Directional Terminology 196) supine Page Ref: 37 Learning Obj.: 4-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Directional Terminology 197) anterior Page Ref: 36 Learning Obj.: 4-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Directional Terminology 198) cephalic Page Ref: 36 Learning Obj.: 4-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Directional Terminology 199) lateral Page Ref: 37 Learning Obj.: 4-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Directional Terminology 200) superficial Page Ref: 37 Learning Obj.: 4-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Directional Terminology Answers: 176) M 177) D 178) S 179) Q 180) Y 181) J 182) U 183) G 184) N 185) V 186) X 187) I 188) B 189) P 190) O 191) T 192) R 193) K 194) H 195) E 196) A 197) C 198) F 199) W 200) L

201) Describe the anatomical position and why it is important. Answer: ∙ Standing erect, arms at the sides, palms of hands facing forward, eyes looking straight ahead, legs parallel with the feet, toes pointing forward ∙ Standard position for describing positions and relationships of structures in the human body Page Ref: 33-34 Learning Obj.: 4-1 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomical Position 202) Describe the difference between the clinical and anatomical divisions of the abdominopelvic cavity. Answer: ∙ Clinical divisions: ∘ Divided into four equal quadrants ∘ Quadrants cross at the navel. ∘ Right upper quadrant (RUQ) contains right lobe of liver (bulk of liver), right kidney, upper portion of right ureter, pancreas (small section), gallbladder, and portions of large and small intestines. ∘ Right lower quadrant (RLQ) contains lower portion of right ureter, portions of large and small intestines, appendix, right ovary and uterine tube (in females), and right vas deferens and seminal vesicle (in males). ∘ Left upper quadrant (LUQ) contains stomach, spleen, left lobe of liver (smaller), pancreas (most of organ), left kidney, upper portion of left ureter, and portions of large and small intestines. ∘ Left lower quadrant (LLQ) contains lower portion of left ureter, portions of large and small intestines, sigmoid colon, left ovary and uterine tube (in females), and left vas deferens and seminal vesicle (in males). ∙ Anatomical divisions: ∘ Divided into nine sections like tic-tac-toe board ∘ Right hypochondriac: right lateral side of upper row under lower ribs, which are connected to the sternum by cartilage ∘ Epigastric: middle area of upper row overlying stomach ∘ Left hypochondriac: left lateral side of upper row ∘ Right lumbar: right lateral side of middle row near waist ∘ Umbilical: middle area of middle row containing navel (also called umbilicus) ∘ Left lumbar: left lateral side of middle row ∘ Right iliac: right lateral side of lower row near the groin ∘ Hypogastric: middle area of lower row ∘ Left iliac: left lateral side of lower row near the groin Page Ref: 42-43 Learning Obj.: 4-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Body Cavities

Medical Terminology: Get Connected!, 3e (Frucht) Chapter 5 Dermatology: Integumentary System All answers to questions asking for a combining form must be written in the combining form style, meaning word root/combining vowel. For example, the combining form meaning "heart" is cardi/o. All answers to questions asking for a suffix must be written in suffix form, meaning a hyphen before your answer. For example, the suffix meaning "cell" is -cyte. All answers to questions asking for a prefix must be written in prefix form, meaning a hyphen after your answer. For example, a prefix meaning "two" is bi-. Do NOT capitalize any of your answers or include a period at the end of your answer. The computer will NOT recognize your answer as correct if it is written in any other style. 1) The combining form that means life is ________. Answer: bi/o; bio Page Ref: 49 Learning Obj.: 5-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 2) The combining form that means cold is ________. Answer: cry/o; cryo Page Ref: 49 Learning Obj.: 5-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 3) The combining form that means chemical is ________. Answer: chem/o; chemo Page Ref: 49 Learning Obj.: 5-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 4) The combining form that means gland is ________. Answer: aden/o; adeno Page Ref: 49 Learning Obj.: 5-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 5) A combining form other than adip/o that means fat is ________. Answer: lip/o; lipo Page Ref: 49 Learning Obj.: 5-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 1 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

6) The combining form that means red is ________. Answer: erythr/o; erythro Page Ref: 49 Learning Obj.: 5-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 7) The combining form that means sweat is ________. Answer: hidr/o; hidro Page Ref: 49 Learning Obj.: 5-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 8) The combining form that means scaly is ________. Answer: ichthy/o; ichthyo Page Ref: 49 Learning Obj.: 5-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 9) A combining form that means hard or hornlike is ________. Answer: kerat/o; kerato Page Ref: 49 Learning Obj.: 5-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 10) The combining form that means black is ________. Answer: melan/o; melano Page Ref: 49 Learning Obj.: 5-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 11) The combining form that means fungus is ________. Answer: myc/o; myco Page Ref: 49 Learning Obj.: 5-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

12) The combining form that means oil is ________. Answer: seb/o; sebo Page Ref: 49 Learning Obj.: 5-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 13) A combining form that means pus is ________. Answer: py/o; pyo Page Ref: 49 Learning Obj.: 5-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 14) The combining form that means hardening is ________. Answer: scler/o; sclero Page Ref: 49 Learning Obj.: 5-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 15) The combining form that means yellow is ________. Answer: xanth/o; xantho Page Ref: 49 Learning Obj.: 5-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 16) The combining form that means dry is ________. Answer: xer/o; xero Page Ref: 49 Learning Obj.: 5-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 17) The combining form that means bladder or sac is ________. Answer: vesic/o; vesico Page Ref: 49 Learning Obj.: 5-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

18) The combining form that means hair is ________. Answer: trich/o; tricho Page Ref: 49 Learning Obj.: 5-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 19) A combining form other than onych/o that means nail is ________. Answer: ungu/o; unguo Page Ref: 49 Learning Obj.: 5-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 20) A combining form other than cutane/o or derm/o that means skin is ________. Answer: dermat/o; dermato Page Ref: 49 Learning Obj.: 5-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 21) A suffix that means skin condition is ________. Answer: -derma; derma Page Ref: 50 Learning Obj.: 5-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 22) A suffix that means view of is ________. Answer: -opsy; opsy Page Ref: 50 Learning Obj.: 5-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 23) A suffix that means instrument to cut is ________. Answer: -tome; tome Page Ref: 50 Learning Obj.: 5-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

24) A prefix that means thick is ________. Answer: pachy-; pachy Page Ref: 50 Learning Obj.: 5-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 25) A suffix that means hardening is ________. Answer: -sclerosis; sclerosis Page Ref: 50 Learning Obj.: 5-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 26) A medical term that means pertaining to above the skin is ________. Answer: epidermal Page Ref: 53 Learning Obj.: 5-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building 27) A medical term that means pertaining to within the skin is ________. Answer: intradermal Page Ref: 53 Learning Obj.: 5-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building 28) A medical term that means inflammation of the skin is ________. Answer: dermatitis Page Ref: 53 Learning Obj.: 5-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building 29) A medical term that means one who studies the skin is ________. Answer: dermatologist Page Ref: 53 Learning Obj.: 5-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building

30) A medical term that means surgical repair of the skin is ________. Answer: dermatoplasty Page Ref: 54 Learning Obj.: 5-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building 31) A medical term that means abnormal condition with lack of sweating is ________. Answer: anhidrosis Page Ref: 54 Learning Obj.: 5-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building 32) A medical term that means black tumor is ________. Answer: melanoma Page Ref: 55 Learning Obj.: 5-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building 33) A medical term that means black cell is ________. Answer: melanocyte Page Ref: 55 Learning Obj.: 5-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building 34) A medical term that means resembling fat is ________. Answer: lipoid Page Ref: 55 Learning Obj.: 5-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building 35) A medical term that means red skin condition is ________. Answer: erythroderma Page Ref: 53 Learning Obj.: 5-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building

36) A medical term that means pus skin condition is ________. Answer: pyoderma Page Ref: 53 Learning Obj.: 5-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building 37) A medical term that means surgical removal of a nail is ________. Answer: onychectomy Page Ref: 55 Learning Obj.: 5-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building 38) A medical term that means abnormal softening of a nail is ________. Answer: onychomalacia Page Ref: 55 Learning Obj.: 5-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building 39) A medical term that means producing pus is ________. Answer: pyogenic Page Ref: 56 Learning Obj.: 5-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building 40) A medical term that means tumor in a gland is ________. Answer: adenoma Page Ref: 51 Learning Obj.: 5-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building 41) A medical term that means discharge of oil is ________. Answer: seborrhea Page Ref: 56 Learning Obj.: 5-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building

42) A medical term that means abnormal condition of hair fungus is ________. Answer: trichomycosis Page Ref: 56 Learning Obj.: 5-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building 43) A medical term that means pertaining to a nail is ________. Answer: ungual Page Ref: 56 Learning Obj.: 5-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building 44) A medical term that means surgical removal of fat is ________. Answer: lipectomy Page Ref: 55 Learning Obj.: 5-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building 45) A medical term other than hypodermic that means pertaining to under the skin is ________. Answer: subcutaneous Page Ref: 53 Learning Obj.: 5-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building 46) A medical term that means scaly skin condition is ________. Answer: ichthyoderma Page Ref: 53 Learning Obj.: 5-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building 47) A medical term that means white skin condition is ________. Answer: leukoderma Page Ref: 53 Learning Obj.: 5-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building

48) A medical term that means dry skin condition is ________. Answer: xeroderma Page Ref: 53 Learning Obj.: 5-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building 49) A medical term that means hard skin condition is ________. Answer: scleroderma Page Ref: 53 Learning Obj.: 5-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building 50) A medical term that means abnormal condition of nail fungus is ________. Answer: onychomycosis Page Ref: 55 Learning Obj.: 5-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building 51) The skin is also called the integument. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 49 Learning Obj.: 5-4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 52) Sebum is a watery secretion that cools the skin by evaporation. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Sweat is a watery secretion that cools the skin by evaporation. Page Ref: 54 Learning Obj.: 5-2 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 53) The skin contains sensory receptors for pain, temperature, and touch. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 49 Learning Obj.: 5-2 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology

54) The subcutaneous layer of skin is dense connective tissue. Answer: FALSE Explanation: The subcutaneous layer beneath the dermis is fat tissue. Page Ref: 52 Learning Obj.: 5-4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 55) Melanocytes contain a pigment to give skin and hair its color. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 55 Learning Obj.: 5-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 56) The epidermis is composed primarily of fat. Answer: FALSE Explanation: The subcutaneous layer is composed primarily of fat. Page Ref: 52 Learning Obj.: 5-4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 57) Keratin is a hard protein found in hair and nails. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 54 Learning Obj.: 5-4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 58) Sweat glands secrete an oil to lubricate the skin. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Sebaceous glands secrete an oil to lubricate the skin. Page Ref: 56 Learning Obj.: 5-4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 59) Hair is a shaft of keratinized cells. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 56 Learning Obj.: 5-4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology

60) The light-colored, half-moon area at the base of a nail is called the cuticle. Answer: FALSE Explanation: The light-colored, half-moon area at the base of a nail is called the lunula. Page Ref: 55 Learning Obj.: 5-4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 61) An abrasion is an injury that scrapes away the surface of the skin. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 57 Learning Obj.: 5-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 62) Pustules and papules are commonly seen in alopecia. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Pustules and papules are commonly seen in acne. Page Ref: 57 Learning Obj.: 5-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 63) Basal cell carcinoma is caused by sun exposure. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 57 Learning Obj.: 5-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 64) A contusion is also called a furuncle. Answer: FALSE Explanation: A boil is also called a furuncle. Page Ref: 57 Learning Obj.: 5-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 65) Erythema is a reddening of the skin. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 59 Learning Obj.: 5-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary

66) An ecchymosis is a pinpoint hemorrhage. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Petechiae are pinpoint hemorrhages. Page Ref: 61 Learning Obj.: 5-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 67) Lesion is a general term for some type of tissue abnormality. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 60 Learning Obj.: 5-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 68) Pruritus is a purplish-red bruise usually occurring in people with thin, easily damaged skin. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Purpura is severe itching. Page Ref: 61 Learning Obj.: 5-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 69) Cauterization is the intentional destruction of tissue. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 58 Learning Obj.: 5-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 70) Tinea is the result of a viral infection. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Tinea is the result of a fungal infection. Page Ref: 61 Learning Obj.: 5-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 71) Chemabrasion is also called a chemical peel. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 58 Learning Obj.: 5-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary

72) A fissure is a jagged wound. Answer: FALSE Explanation: A laceration is a jagged wound. Page Ref: 60 Learning Obj.: 5-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 73) A contusion results in bruising. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 58 Learning Obj.: 5-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 74) A cyst is a solid skin lesion. Answer: FALSE Explanation: A papule is a solid skin lesion. Page Ref: 60 Learning Obj.: 5-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 75) Debridement removes dead or damaged tissue from a wound. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 58 Learning Obj.: 5-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 76) A macule is a raised lesion. Answer: FALSE Explanation: A macule is a flat, discolored spot on the skin surface. Page Ref: 60 Learning Obj.: 5-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 77) A pustule is a raised spot containing pus. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 61 Learning Obj.: 5-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary

78) An ulcer is a flat, discolored lesion on the skin. Answer: FALSE Explanation: An ulcer is an open sore. Page Ref: 61 Learning Obj.: 5-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 79) A vesicle is a small, fluid-filled raised spot on the skin. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 62 Learning Obj.: 5-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 80) An abscess is a collection of clear fluid under the skin. Answer: FALSE Explanation: An abscess is a collection of pus under the skin. Page Ref: 57 Learning Obj.: 5-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 81) Urticaria is often associated with food allergies. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 62 Learning Obj.: 5-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 82) Cryosurgery uses extreme heat to destroy tissue. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Cryosurgery uses cold to destroy tissue. Page Ref: 58 Learning Obj.: 5-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 83) Herpes simplex infection is commonly called fever blisters. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 59 Learning Obj.: 5-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary

84) Fourth-degree burns are the deepest burns. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Third-degree burns are the deepest burns. Page Ref: 58 Learning Obj.: 5-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 85) Second-degree burns are characterized by blisters. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 57 Learning Obj.: 5-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 86) Impetigo is also called shingles. Answer: FALSE Explanation: A herpes zoster viral infection is called shingles. Page Ref: 59 Learning Obj.: 5-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 87) Decubitus ulcers are commonly called bedsores. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 58 Learning Obj.: 5-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 88) Impetigo is the result of severe skin trauma. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Impetigo is an inflammatory skin disease. Page Ref: 59 Learning Obj.: 5-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 89) Gangrene is characterized by tissue necrosis. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 59 Learning Obj.: 5-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary

90) A nevus is a solid, raised clump of skin cells. Answer: FALSE Explanation: A nevus is a pigmented skin blemish, birthmark, or mole. Page Ref: 60 Learning Obj.: 5-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 91) Malignant melanoma is a dangerous type of skin cancer. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 60 Learning Obj.: 5-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 92) Onychia is commonly called nail biting. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Onychophagia is commonly called nail biting. Page Ref: 55 Learning Obj.: 5-5 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 93) Tinea is a fungal infection. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 61 Learning Obj.: 5-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 94) Purpura describes raised spots on the skin containing pus. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Pustules are raised spots on the skin containing pus. Page Ref: 61 Learning Obj.: 5-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 95) Alopecia is the medical term for baldness. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 57 Learning Obj.: 5-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary

96) Skin grafts are typically required to treat second-degree burns. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Skin grafts are typically required to treat third-degree burns. Page Ref: 58 Learning Obj.: 5-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 97) C&S identifies the type of bacteria causing an infection and which antibiotic will best fight it. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 58 Learning Obj.: 5-7 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 98) A dermatome is an instrument for cutting skin. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 58 Learning Obj.: 5-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 99) Varicella is commonly called measles. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Varicella is commonly called chickenpox. Page Ref: 62 Learning Obj.: 5-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 100) A wheal is a cracklike cut in the skin. Answer: FALSE Explanation: A fissure is a cracklike cut in the skin. Page Ref: 59 Learning Obj.: 5-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary

101) Which is an accessory structure of the skin? A) Sweat B) Hair C) Fat D) Blood vessels Answer: B Explanation: A) Sweat is a secretion, not an accessory structure of the skin. B) Hair is an accessory structure of the skin C) Fat is not an accessory structure of the skin. D) Blood vessels are not accessory structures of the skin. Page Ref: 49 Learning Obj.: 5-2 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 102) Which of the following is the most superficial layer of skin? A) Subcutaneous layer B) Epidermis C) Dermis D) Keratin layer Answer: B Explanation: A) The subcutaneous layer underlies the skin. B) The epidermis is the most superficial layer of the skin. C) The dermis is the inner layer of the skin. D) Keratin is not a layer of the skin. Page Ref: 52 Learning Obj.: 5-4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 103) Which of the following is NOT a function of the skin? A) Temperature regulation B) Protection against pathogens C) Absorption of nutrients D) Housing sensory receptors Answer: C Explanation: A) Temperature regulation is a function of the skin B) Protection against pathogens is a function of the skin C) Nutrient absorption is not a function of the skin. D) Housing sensory receptors is a function of the skin. Page Ref: 49 Learning Obj.: 5-2 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology

104) Which of the following statements is NOT true? A) Dermatology diagnoses and treats skin conditions. B) Plastic surgeons repair, reconstruct, or improve damaged or missing body structures. C) Dermatologists also treat conditions of the hair and nails. D) Plastic surgeons treat only skin conditions. Answer: D Explanation: A) Dermatology does diagnose and treat skin conditions. B) Plastic surgeons do repair, reconstruct, or improve damaged or missing body structures. C) Dermatologists do also treat conditions of the hair and nails. D) Plastic surgeons do more than just treat skin conditions. Page Ref: 49 Learning Obj.: 5-1 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Medical Specialties 105) Which of the following pairs is NOT correctly matched? A) Epidermis—outer skin layer B) Melanin—gives skin its color C) Keratin—innermost layer, containing fatty tissue D) Dermis—strong connective tissue layer Answer: C Explanation: A) The epidermis is the outer skin layer. B) Melanin does give skin its color. C) The subcutaneous layer, not keratin, is the innermost layer, containing fatty tissue. D) The dermis is a strong connective tissue layer. Page Ref: 52 Learning Obj.: 5-4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 106) Which of the following answer choices regarding melanin is NOT true? A) The more melanin present, the lighter the skin color B) Gives skin its color C) Protects against ultraviolet rays D) Found in the epidermis Answer: A Explanation: A) The more melanin present, the darker the skin color. B) Melanin does give skin its color. C) Melanin does protect against ultraviolet rays. D) Melanocytes containing melanin are found in the epidermis. Page Ref: 55 Learning Obj.: 5-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology

107) Which of the following statements regarding the dermis is NOT true? A) The dermis is the inner skin layer. B) The dermis is composed of flexible connective tissue. C) The dermis contains a large amount of adipose tissue. D) The dermis houses sweat glands. Answer: C Explanation: A) The dermis is the inner skin layer. B) The dermis is composed of flexible connective tissue. C) The dermis does not contain a large amount of adipose tissue. D) The dermis does house sweat glands. Page Ref: 52 Learning Obj.: 5-4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 108) Which of the following statements regarding the epidermis is NOT true? A) The epidermis is the outermost layer of skin. B) The epidermis is composed of dense connective tissue for strength. C) The epidermis forms a protective barrier. D) The basal layer is the deepest layer of the epidermis. Answer: B Explanation: A) The epidermis is the outermost layer of skin. B) The epidermis is not composed of dense connective tissue. C) The epidermis does form a protective barrier. D) The basal layer is the deepest layer of the epidermis. Page Ref: 52 Learning Obj.: 5-4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 109) Which of the following structures is NOT housed in the dermis? A) Nails B) Hair follicles C) Sebaceous glands D) Sweat glands Answer: A Explanation: A) Nails are not housed in the dermis. B) Hair follicles are housed in the dermis. C) Sebaceous glands are housed in the dermis. D) Sweat glands are housed in the dermis. Page Ref: 52 Learning Obj.: 5-4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology

110) Which of the following statements regarding the subcutaneous layer is NOT true? A) This layer is underneath the dermis. B) This layer is composed primarily of fat cells. C) This layer acts as insulation against cold. D) This layer houses sensory receptors. Answer: D Explanation: A) The subcutaneous layer is underneath the dermis. B) The subcutaneous layer is composed primarily of fat cells. C) The subcutaneous layer acts as insulation against cold. D) The subcutaneous layer does not house sensory receptors. Page Ref: 52 Learning Obj.: 5-4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 111) Hair fibers are composed of ________. A) melanin B) keratin C) collagen D) lipocytes Answer: B Explanation: A) Melanin is the black pigment found in melanocytes. B) Hair is composed of keratin. C) Collagen is a type of protein, but it does not compose hair fibers. D) Lipoyctes are fat cells. Page Ref: 54 Learning Obj.: 5-4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 112) Hair grows toward the surface of the skin through the ________. A) hair shaft B) hair root C) hair follicle D) hair cuticle Answer: C Explanation: A) Hair does not grow toward the surface of the skin through the shaft. B) Hair does not grow toward the surface of the skin through the root. C) Hair grows toward the surface of the skin through the hair follicle. D) Hair does not grow toward the surface of the skin through the cuticle. Page Ref: 56 Learning Obj.: 5-4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology

113) Which glands are responsible for lubricating the skin? A) Sebaceous glands B) Fat glands C) Sweat glands D) Apocrine glands Answer: A Explanation: A) Sebaceous glands lubricate the skin by producing sebum. B) There aren't glands in the skin called fat glands. C) Sweat glands are responsible for perspiration. D) Apocrine glands are a type of sweat gland. Page Ref: 56 Learning Obj.: 5-4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 114) Which of the following pairs is NOT matched correctly? A) Hair—composed of keratin B) Nails—composed of connective tissue C) Sweat glands—secrete sweat to cool the skin D) Sebaceous glands—secrete sebum to lubricate the skin Answer: B Explanation: A) Hair is composed of keratin. B) Nails are flat plates of keratin, not composed of connective tissue. C) Sweat glands secrete sweat to cool the skin. D) Sebaceous glands secrete sebum to lubricate the skin. Page Ref: 55 Learning Obj.: 5-4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 115) Which of the following statements regarding sebaceous glands is NOT true? A) These glands secrete sebum. B) These glands also secrete a small amount of waste products. C) Sebum lubricates the skin. D) These glands are located in the dermis. Answer: B Explanation: A) Sebaceous glands do secrete sebum. B) Sebaceous glands do not secrete waste products. C) Sebum does lubricate the skin. D) Sebaceous glands are located in the dermis. Page Ref: 56 Learning Obj.: 5-4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology

116) Which of the following regarding sweat glands is NOT true? A) These glands are tightly coiled structures. B) Sweat contains a small amount of waste products. C) Perspiration cools the body. D) These glands are located in the subcutaneous layer. Answer: D Explanation: A) Sweat glands are tightly coiled structures. B) Sweat does contain a small amount of waste products. C) Perspiration does cool the body. D) Sweat glands are located in the dermis, not the subcutaneous layer. Page Ref: 54 Learning Obj.: 5-4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 117) Which of the following terms means "inflammation of a gland"? A) Adenoma B) Adenitis C) Ichthyoderma D) Dermatitis Answer: B Explanation: A) Adenoma means "tumor of a gland." B) Adenitis means "inflammation of a gland." C) Ichthyoderma means "condition of scaly skin." D) Dermatitis means "inflammation of the skin." Page Ref: 51 Learning Obj.: 5-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building 118) Which of the following terms means "dry skin condition"? A) Xanthoderma B) Pyoderma C) Xeroderma D) Pachyderma Answer: C Explanation: A) Xanthoderma means "yellow skin condition." B) Pyoderma means "pus skin condition." C) Xeroderma means "dry skin condition." D) Pachyderma means "thick skin condition." Page Ref: 53 Learning Obj.: 5-5 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

119) Which of the following terms means "surgical repair of the skin"? A) Dermatopathy B) Dermatosis C) Dermatoplasty D) Dermatosclerosis Answer: C Explanation: A) Dermatopathy means "disease of the skin." B) Dermatosis means "abnormal condition of the skin." C) Dermatoplasty means "surgical repair of the skin." D) Dermatosclerosis means "hardening of the skin." Page Ref: 54 Learning Obj.: 5-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building 120) Which of the following terms is NOT a surgical procedure? A) Adenectomy B) Dermatoplasty C) Dermatopathy D) Onychectomy Answer: C Explanation: A) Adenectomy is a surgical procedure. B) Dermatoplasty is a surgical procedure. C) Dermatopathy is a disease of the skin, not a surgical procedure. D) Onychectomy is a surgical procedure. Page Ref: 54 Learning Obj.: 5-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building 121) Which of the following terms means "nail eating (biting)"? A) Onychophagia B) Trichomycosis C) Trichophagia D) Onychomalacia Answer: A Explanation: A) Onychophagia means "nail eating." B) Trichomycosis means "abnormal condition of hair fungus." C) Trichophagia means "eating or swallowing the hair." D) Onychomalacia means "abnormal softening of the nails." Page Ref: 55 Learning Obj.: 5-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building

122) Which of the following terms means "abnormal hair fungus condition"? A) Trichomycosis B) Keratoderma C) Dermatosclerosis D) Hidradenitis Answer: A Explanation: A) Trichomycosis means "abnormal hair fungus condition." B) Keratoderma means "hornlike skin condition." C) Dermatosclerosis means "hardening of the skin." D) Hidradenitis means "sweat gland inflammation." Page Ref: 56 Learning Obj.: 5-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building 123) Which of the following terms means "pertaining to within the skin"? A) Epidermal B) Hypodermal C) Intradermal D) Transdermal Answer: C Explanation: A) Epidermal means "pertaining to above the skin." B) Hypodermal means "pertaining to below the skin." C) Intradermal means "pertaining to within the skin." D) Transdermal means "pertaining to across the skin." Page Ref: 53 Learning Obj.: 5-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building 124) Which of the following terms specifically means "abnormal condition of the skin"? A) Dermatopathy B) Dermatosis C) Dermatoplasty D) Dermatitis Answer: B Explanation: A) Dermatopathy means "disease of the skin." B) Dermatosis means "abnormal condition of the skin." C) Dermatoplasty means "surgical repair of the skin." D) Dermatitis means "inflammation of the skin." Page Ref: 53 Learning Obj.: 5-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building

125) Which of the following terms means "abnormal condition of excessive sweating"? A) Hyperhidrosis B) Ahidrosis C) Anhidrosis D) Hypohidrosis Answer: A Explanation: A) Hyperhidrosis means "abnormal condition of excessive sweating." B) Hidradenitis means "sweat gland inflammation." C) Anhidrosis means "abnormal condition without sweating." D) Hypohidrosis means "abnormal condition with lack of sweating." Page Ref: 54 Learning Obj.: 5-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building 126) Which of the following terms means "fat tumor"? A) Lipectomy B) Adiposis C) Adipopathy D) Lipoma Answer: D Explanation: A) Lipectomy means "surgical removal of fat." B) Adiposis means "abnormal condition of fat." C) Adipopathy means "fat disease." D) Lipoma means "fat tumor." Page Ref: 55 Learning Obj.: 5-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building 127) Which of the following terms means "abnormal softening of a nail"? A) Onychomycosis B) Onychomalacia C) Onychosclerosis D) Onychostenosis Answer: B Explanation: A) Onychomycosis means "abnormal condition of nail fungus." B) Onychomalacia means "abnormal softening of a nail." C) Onychosclerosis means "abnormal condition of hardening of a nail." D) Onychostenosis means "abnormal condition of the narrowing of a nail." Page Ref: 55 Learning Obj.: 5-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building

128) Which of the following terms is misspelled? A) Onychomycosis B) Ichthyoderma C) Hyperhydrosis D) Subcutaneous Answer: C Explanation: A) Onychomycosis is spelled correctly. B) Ichthyoderma is spelled correctly. C) Hyperhydrosis should be spelled hyperhidrosis. D) Subcutaneous is spelled correctly. Page Ref: 54 Learning Obj.: 5-5 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Spelling 129) Which of the following terms is misspelled? A) Dermatologist B) Melenocyte C) Lipectomy D) Ungual Answer: B Explanation: A) Dermatologist is spelled correctly. B) Melenocyte should be spelled melanocyte. C) Lipectomy is spelled correctly. D) Ungual is spelled correctly. Page Ref: 55 Learning Obj.: 5-5 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Spelling 130) Which of the following terms is misspelled? A) Luekoderma B) Erythroderma C) Scleroderma D) Xeroderma Answer: A Explanation: A) Luekoderma should be spelled leukoderma. B) Erythroderma is spelled correctly. C) Scleroderma is spelled correctly. D) Xeroderma is spelled correctly. Page Ref: 53 Learning Obj.: 5-5 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Spelling

131) Which of the following terms means "hard skin condition"? A) Erythroderma B) Xeroderma C) Ichthyoderma D) Scleroderma Answer: D Explanation: A) Erythroderma means "condition of red skin." B) Xeroderma means "condition of dry skin." C) Ichthyoderma means "condition of scaly skin." D) Scleroderma means "hard skin condition." Page Ref: 53 Learning Obj.: 5-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building 132) Which of the following terms means "red skin condition"? A) Ichthyoderma B) Erythroderma C) Xanthoderma D) Leukoderma Answer: B Explanation: A) Ichthyoderma means "condition of scaly skin." B) Erythroderma means "red skin condition," C) Xanthoderma is a condition of yellow skin. D) Leukoderma is a condition of white skin. Page Ref: 53 Learning Obj.: 5-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building 133) Which term is an injury caused by scraping away of the skin surface? A) Alopecia B) Contusion C) Abrasion D) Dermatome Answer: C Explanation: A) Alopecia is a condition of baldness. B) A contusion is a bruise. C) An abrasion is caused by scraping away the skin surface. D) A dermatome is an instrument used to cut skin. Page Ref: 57 Learning Obj.: 5-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary

134) Which term does NOT refer to an abnormal skin color? A) Leukoderma B) Erythema C) Xanthoderma D) Keratosis Answer: D Explanation: A) Leukoderma refers to white skin color. B) Erythema refer to red skin color C) Xanthoderma refers to a yellow skin color. D) Keratosis does not refer to an abnormal skin color. Page Ref: 54 Learning Obj.: 5-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building 135) Which term is a bruise caused by blunt trauma to the skin? A) Ecchymosis B) Petechiae C) Necrosis D) Purpura Answer: A Explanation: A) Ecchymosis is a bruise caused by blunt trauma to the skin. B) Petechiae are pinpoint hemorrhages. C) Necrosis is death in tissues. D) Purpura is a condition of purplish-red bruises. Page Ref: 59 Learning Obj.: 5-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 136) A pigmented skin blemish, birthmark, or mole is called a(n) ________. A) keloid B) nevus C) ecchymosis D) abrasion Answer: B Explanation: A) A keloid is an abnormally large scar. B) A nevus is a blemish, birthmark, or mole. C) Ecchymosis is bruising. D) An abrasion is a skin surface scrape. Page Ref: 60 Learning Obj.: 5-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary

137) Which condition is usually associated with food allergies? A) Pustule B) Pruritus C) Urticaria D) Tinea Answer: C Explanation: A) Pustules are not associated with food allergies. B) Pruritus is not associated with food allergies. C) Urticaria is associated with food allergies. D) Tinea is not associated with food allergies. Page Ref: 62 Learning Obj.: 5-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 138) Which surface lesion is a torn or jagged wound? A) Laceration B) Macule C) Fissure D) Ulcer Answer: A Explanation: A) A laceration is a torn or jagged wound. B) A macule is flat, discolored spot on the skin. C) A fissure is a cracklike break in the skin. D) An ulcer is an open sore in the skin or mucous membrane. Page Ref: 60 Learning Obj.: 5-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 139) Which surface lesion is a flat, discolored spot on the skin surface? A) Papule B) Wheal C) Macule D) Vesicle Answer: C Explanation: A) A papule is a small, solid, raised lesion on skin surface. B) A wheal is a small, round, raised spot on the skin that may be accompanied by itching. C) A macule is a flat, discolored spot on the skin surface. D) A vesicle is a small, fluid-filled, raised spot on the skin. Page Ref: 60 Learning Obj.: 5-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary

140) Which surface lesion is a small, round, raised area that is typically an allergic reaction? A) Vesicle B) Wheal C) Pustule D) Papule Answer: B Explanation: A) A vesicle is a small, fluid-filled, raised spot on the skin. B) A wheal is a small, round, raised area associated with allergic reactions. C) A pustule is a raised spot on the skin containing pus. D) A papule is a small, solid, raised lesion on the skin surface. Page Ref: 62 Learning Obj.: 5-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 141) Which surface lesion is a small, solid, raised lesion? A) Papule B) Pustule C) Cyst D) Macule Answer: A Explanation: A) A papule is a small, solid, raised lesion. B) A pustule is a raised spot on the skin containing pus. C) A cyst is a fluid-filled sac under the skin. D) A macule is a surface lesion that is a flat and discolored spot on the skin surface. Page Ref: 60 Learning Obj.: 5-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 142) Which surface lesion is a small, fluid-filled, raised spot on the skin? A) Pustule B) Vesicle C) Papule D) Wheal Answer: B Explanation: A) A pustule is a raised spot on the skin containing pus. B) A vesicle is a small, fluid-filled, raised spot on the skin. C) A papule is a small, solid, raised lesion on the skin surface. D) A wheal is a small, round, raised spot on the skin that may be accompanied by itching. Page Ref: 62 Learning Obj.: 5-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary

143) Which of the following skin conditions does not have pus? A) Pustule B) Abscess C) Impetigo D) Papule Answer: D Explanation: A) A pustule is a raised spot on the skin containing pus. B) An abscess is an infection by pyogenic bacteria resulting in localized collection of pus. C) Impetigo is an inflammatory skin disease with pustules. D) A papule does not involve pus. Page Ref: 60 Learning Obj.: 5-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 144) This condition is frequently called a bedsore or pressure sore. A) Decubitus ulcer B) Cellulitis C) Ichthyosis D) Gangrene Answer: A Explanation: A) A decubitus ulcer is referred to as a bedsore or pressure sore. B) Cellulitis is an inflammation of connective tissues, skin, and muscle. C) Ichthyosis is an abnormal condition of scales. D) Gangrene is necrosis with a bacterial infection and decay. Page Ref: 58 Learning Obj.: 5-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 145) Which type of skin cancer is considered the most aggressive? A) Malignant melanoma B) Squamous cell carcinoma C) Basal cell carcinoma D) Decubitus ulcer Answer: A Explanation: A) Malignant melanoma is the most aggressive skin cancer. B) Squamous cell carcinoma may go into deeper tissue but is not the most aggressive. C) Basal cell carcinoma occurs in the basal cell layer and is not the most aggressive. D) A decubitus ulcer is not a type of cancer. Page Ref: 60 Learning Obj.: 5-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary

146) This infection is commonly called chickenpox. A) Varicella B) Rubella C) Onychia D) Tinea Answer: A Explanation: A) Varicella is chickenpox. B) Rubella is not called chickenpox. C) Onychia is not called chickenpox. D) Tinea is not called chickenpox. Page Ref: 62 Learning Obj.: 5-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 147) Which of the following conditions is caused by loss of blood supply? A) Purpura B) Gangrene C) Boil D) Psoriasis Answer: B Explanation: A) Purpura is a condition of purplish-red bruises. B) Gangrene is caused by loss of blood supply. C) A boil is a bacterial infection of a hair follicle. D) Psoriasis is a chronic inflammatory condition consisting of crusty papules forming patches with circular borders. Page Ref: 59 Learning Obj.: 5-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 148) Which of the following conditions is a fungal infection? A) Pruritus B) Petechiae C) Wheal D) Tinea Answer: D Explanation: A) Pruritus is severe itching. B) Petechiae are pinpoint hemorrhages. C) A wheal is a small, round, raised spot on the skin that may be accompanied by itching. D) Tinea is a fungal infection. Page Ref: 61 Learning Obj.: 5-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary

149) Which condition is baldness? A) Onychia B) Ecchymosis C) Alopecia D) Nevus Answer: C Explanation: A) Onychia is an inflamed nail bed. B) Ecchymosis is a black-and-blue bruise. C) Alopecia is baldness. D) A nevus is a pigmented skin blemish, birthmark, or mole. Page Ref: 57 Learning Obj.: 5-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 150) An inflamed nail bed is called ________. A) paronychia B) onychia C) onychophagia D) perionychitis Answer: B Explanation: A) Paronychia means "pertaining to beside the nail." B) Onychia is an inflamed nail bed. C) Onychophagia means "nail eating (biting)." D) Perionychitis means "inflammation around the nail." Page Ref: 60 Learning Obj.: 5-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 151) Which diagnostic procedure examines a piece of tissue under a microscope? A) Cytology B) Curettage C) Biopsy D) Debridement Answer: C Explanation: A) Cytology means "study of cells." B) Curettage is a procedure that scrapes off superficial skin lesions. C) Biopsy is a procedure that examines a piece of tissue under a microscope. D) Debridement is removal of foreign material and dead tissue from a wound. Page Ref: 57 Learning Obj.: 5-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary

152) A culture and sensitivity is a procedure for detecting ________. A) cancer B) a bacterial infection C) a viral infection D) a lice infestation Answer: B Explanation: A) A C&S will not detect cancer. B) A C&S will detect a bacterial infection. C) A C&S will not detect a viral infection. D) A C&S will not detect a lice infestation. Page Ref: 58 Learning Obj.: 5-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 153) Which surgical procedure is the removal of dead or damaged tissue from a wound? A) Debridement B) Electrocautery C) Cauterization D) Cryosurgery Answer: A Explanation: A) Debridement is the removal of dead or damaged tissue from a wound. B) Electrocautery is the use of electric current to destroy tissue. C) Cauterization is the intentional destruction of tissue by a caustic chemical, electric current, laser, or freezing. D) Cryosurgery uses extreme cold to freeze and destroy tissue. Page Ref: 58 Learning Obj.: 5-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 154) Which surgical procedure is used to remove acne scars? A) Cauterization B) Dermabrasion C) Electrolysis D) Dermatoplasty Answer: B Explanation: A) Cauterization is not used to remove acne scars. B) Dermabrasion is used to remove acne scars. C) Electrolysis is not used to remove acne scars. D) Dermatoplasty is not used to remove acne scars. Page Ref: 58 Learning Obj.: 5-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary

155) Which procedure is commonly referred to as a chemical peel? A) Curettage B) Liposuction C) Dermabrasion D) Chemabrasion Answer: D Explanation: A) Curettage is not known as a chemical peel. B) Liposuction is not known as a chemical peel. C) Dermabrasion is not known as a chemical peel. D) Chemabrasion is known as a chemical peel. Page Ref: 58 Learning Obj.: 5-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 156) Which surgical procedure uses cold? A) Cryosurgery B) Dermabrasion C) Debridement D) Skin graft Answer: A Explanation: A) Cryosurgery uses cold. B) Dermabrasion does not use cold. C) Debridement does not use cold. D) Skin graft does not use cold. Page Ref: 58 Learning Obj.: 5-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 157) Which lesion is a fluid-filled sac under the skin? A) Nodule B) Wheal C) Cyst D) Papule Answer: C Explanation: A) A nodule is a solid, raised clump of skin cells. B) A wheal is a small, round, raised spot on the skin that may be accompanied by itching. C) A cyst is a fluid-filled sac under the skin. D) A papule is a small, solid, raised lesion on the skin surface. Page Ref: 58 Learning Obj.: 5-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary

158) Which type of cancer begins in the epidermis and rarely metastasizes or spreads? A) Keratinized carcinoma B) Squamous cell carcinoma C) Malignant melanoma D) Basal cell carcinoma Answer: D Explanation: A) Keratinized carcinoma does not begin in the epidermis. B) Squamous cell carcinoma may go into deeper tissue but does not generally metastasize. C) Malignant melanoma is an aggressive form of skin cancer that originates in a melanocyte. D) Basal cell carcinoma begins in the epidermis and rarely metastasizes. Page Ref: 57 Learning Obj.: 5-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 159) Which bacterial infection is found in a hair follicle? A) Boil B) Tinea C) Cyst D) Vesicle Answer: A Explanation: A) A boil is found in a hair follicle. B) Tinea is a fungal skin disease resulting in itching, scaling lesions. C) A cyst is a fluid-filled sac under the skin. D) A vesicle is a small, fluid-filled, raised spot on the skin. Page Ref: 57 Learning Obj.: 5-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 160) Which is NOT true regarding first-degree burns? A) Results in erythema B) Damages epidermis only C) Causes no scarring D) Forms large blisters Answer: D Explanation: A) A first-degree burn results in erythema. B) A first-degree burn damages the epidermis only. C) There is no scarring with a first-degree burn. D) Large blisters do not form following a first-degree burn. Page Ref: 57 Learning Obj.: 5-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary

161) Which is NOT true regarding third-degree burns? A) Damages full thickness of skin B) May lead to infection C) Extends into underlying tissues D) Rarely requires a skin graft Answer: D Explanation: A) Third-degree burns damage the full thickness of the skin. B) Infection is a major concern with third-degree burns. C) Third-degree burns extend into underlying tissues. D) Third-degree burns often require a skin graft. Page Ref: 58 Learning Obj.: 5-6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary 162) Which of the following pairs is NOT correctly matched? A) First-degree burn—damages epidermis only B) Second-degree burn—blisters form C) Third-degree burn—fluid loss is a major concern D) Second-degree burn—extends through dermis and into underlying tissues Answer: D Explanation: A) First-degree burns do damage the epidermis only. B) Second-degree burns do cause blisters to form. C) Third-degree burns may lead to fluid loss. D) Second-degree burns do not extend through the dermis and into underlying tissues. Page Ref: 57 Learning Obj.: 5-6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary 163) Which of the following is an instrument used to cut a thin slice of skin? A) Dermatome B) Cutaneotome C) Dermatosis D) Cutaneoplasty Answer: A Explanation: A) A dermatome is an instrument used to cut a thin slice of skin. B) Cutaneotome is not the name of a tool. C) Dermatosis means "abnormal condition of the skin." D) Cutaneoplasty means "surgical repair of the skin." Page Ref: 58 Learning Obj.: 5-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary

164) Which of the following is a cracklike break in the skin? A) Laceration B) Ecchymosis C) Fissure D) Wheal Answer: C Explanation: A) A laceration is a jagged-edged skin wound caused by tearing of skin. B) An ecchymosis is a black-and-blue bruise. C) A fissure is a cracklike break in the skin. D) A wheal is a small, round, raised spot on the skin that may be accompanied by itching. Page Ref: 59 Learning Obj.: 5-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 165) Which of the following conditions is commonly called fever blisters? A) Herpes simplex B) Macules C) Herpes zoster D) Impetigo Answer: A Explanation: A) Herpes simplex is commonly called fever blisters. B) A macule is not called a fever blister. C) Herpes zoster is not called fever blisters. D) Impetigo is not called fever blisters. Page Ref: 59 Learning Obj.: 5-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 166) Which of the following conditions is commonly called shingles? A) Urticaria B) Purpura C) Herpes zoster D) Herpes simplex Answer: C Explanation: A) Urticaria is not called shingles. B) Purpura is not called shingles. C) Herpes zoster is called shingles. D) Herpes simplex is not called shingles. Page Ref: 59 Learning Obj.: 5-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary

167) Which of the following may be used to perform cauterization? A) Caustic chemical B) Dermatome C) Cryosurgery D) Abrasion Answer: A Explanation: A) A caustic chemical may be used. B) A dermatome is not used to perform cauterization. C) Cryosurgery is not used to perform cauterization. D) Abrasion is not used to perform cauterization. Page Ref: 58 Learning Obj.: 5-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 168) Which type of bruise occurs in persons with fragile skin? A) Ecchymosis B) Abrasion C) Purpura D) Petechiae Answer: C Explanation: A) Ecchymosis may occur in people who do not have fragile skin. B) Abrasion may occur in people who do not have fragile skin. C) Purpura may occur in persons with fragile skin. D) Petechiae may occur in people who do not have fragile skin. Page Ref: 59 Learning Obj.: 5-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 169) Which of the following terms is generally used to indicate the presence of some type of tissue abnormality? A) Ulcer B) Nevus C) Macule D) Lesion Answer: D Explanation: A) An ulcer is an open sore or lesion in the skin or mucous membrane. B) A nevus is a pigmented skin blemish, birthmark, or mole. C) A macule is a flat, discolored spot on the skin surface. D) Lesion is a term used to indicate some type of tissue abnormality. Page Ref: 60 Learning Obj.: 5-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary

170) Which of the following terms indicates flat, pinpoint, purplish spots from bleeding under the skin? A) Impetigo B) Necrosis C) Onychia D) Petechiae Answer: D Explanation: A) Impetigo is an inflammatory skin disease. B) Necrosis is an area of tissue death. C) Onychia is an inflamed nail bed. D) Petechiae are flat, pinpoint, purplish spots from bleeding under the skin. Page Ref: 61 Learning Obj.: 5-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 171) Which term is used to describe intense itching? A) Purpura B) Pustule C) Petechiae D) Pruritus Answer: D Explanation: A) Purpura is a condition of purplish-red bruises usually occurring in people with fragile skin. B) A pustule is a raised spot on the skin containing pus. C) Petechiae are flat, pinpoint, purplish spots from bleeding under the skin. D) Pruritus is intense itching. Page Ref: 61 Learning Obj.: 5-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 172) Which abbreviation is NOT a type of skin cancer? A) BCC B) SCC C) Subq D) MM Answer: C Explanation: A) BCC is basal cell carcinoma. B) SCC is squamous cell carcinoma. C) Subq means subcutaneous. D) MM is malignant melanoma. Page Ref: 62 Learning Obj.: 5-7 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Abbreviations 41 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

173) Which abbreviation is a surgical procedure? A) I&D B) ID C) MM D) ung Answer: A Explanation: A) I&D is incision and drainage. B) ID means intradermal. C) MM is malignant melanoma. D) ung means ointment. Page Ref: 62 Learning Obj.: 5-7 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Abbreviations 174) Which abbreviation stands for a cancerous tumor? A) BX B) MM C) ID D) Subq Answer: B Explanation: A) BX means biopsy. B) MM means malignant melanoma. C) ID means intradermal. D) Subq means subcutaneous. Page Ref: 60 Learning Obj.: 5-7 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Abbreviations 175) Which abbreviation is a diagnostic test? A) HSV B) BCC C) STSG D) C&S Answer: D Explanation: A) HSV is herpes simplex virus. B) BCC is basal cell carcinoma. C) STSG is split-thickness skin graft. D) C&S is culture and sensitivity. Page Ref: 58 Learning Obj.: 5-7 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Abbreviations

Match each term on the left with the correct definition on the right. A) nail biting B) shaft of keratinized cells C) hard protein found in hair and nails D) pinpoint purplish spots E) flat discolored area F) oil that lubricates the skin G) tissue death H) serious type of skin cancer I)scaly skin J)fungal infection K) baldness L) used to cut the skin M) pertaining to fat N) primarily composed of adipose tissue O) open sore in the skin P) skin hemorrhages due to fragile skin Q) pressure sore R) cracklike lesion S) fluid-filled raised spot T) chickenpox U) inner layer of skin V) pale reddish wheals with severe itching W) pigmented skin blemish X) inflamed nail bed Y) protective barrier layer 176) dermis Page Ref: 52 Learning Obj.: 5-4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 177) hair Page Ref: 56 Learning Obj.: 5-4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 178) keratin Page Ref: 54 Learning Obj.: 5-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology

179) subcutaneous layer Page Ref: 52 Learning Obj.: 5-4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 180) sebum Page Ref: 56 Learning Obj.: 5-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 181) ichthyoderma Page Ref: 53 Learning Obj.: 5-5 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 182) onychophagia Page Ref: 55 Learning Obj.: 5-5 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 183) adipose Page Ref: 52 Learning Obj.: 5-5 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 184) epidermis Page Ref: 52 Learning Obj.: 5-4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 185) nevus Page Ref: 60 Learning Obj.: 5-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 186) necrosis Page Ref: 60 Learning Obj.: 5-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 44 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

187) purpura Page Ref: 61 Learning Obj.: 5-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 188) urticaria Page Ref: 62 Learning Obj.: 5-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 189) macule Page Ref: 60 Learning Obj.: 5-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 190) petechiae Page Ref: 61 Learning Obj.: 5-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 191) fissure Page Ref: 59 Learning Obj.: 5-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 192) vesicle Page Ref: 62 Learning Obj.: 5-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 193) decubitus ulcer Page Ref: 58 Learning Obj.: 5-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 194) ulcer Page Ref: 62 Learning Obj.: 5-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 45 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

195) malignant melanoma Page Ref: 60 Learning Obj.: 5-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 196) varicella Page Ref: 62 Learning Obj.: 5-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 197) tinea Page Ref: 61 Learning Obj.: 5-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 198) alopecia Page Ref: 57 Learning Obj.: 5-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 199) onychia Page Ref: 60 Learning Obj.: 5-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 200) dermatome Page Ref: 58 Learning Obj.: 5-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary Answers: 176) U 177) B 178) C 179) N 180) F 181) I 182) A 183) M 184) Y 185) W 186) G 187) P 188) V 189) E 190) D 191) R 192) S 193) Q 194) O 195) H 196) T 197) J 198) K 199) X 200) L

201) Describe the three depths of burn. Answer: 1. First-degree: damages epidermis; redness and pain; no blisters 2. Second-degree: damages epidermis and dermis; blisters appear 3. Third-degree: destroys epidermis and dermis; damages subcutaneous layer; scarring occurs Page Ref: 57-58 Learning Obj.: 5-6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 202) Describe the functions of skin. Answer: 1. Protection: skin is a continuous two-way barrier that prevents pathogens such as bacteria from invading the body and prevents vital substances such as water from leaking out of the body 2. Temperature regulation: if the body is too hot, evaporation of sweat from sweat glands and dilation of blood vessels in the skin help to cool the body; if the body needs to conserve heat, blood vessels constrict; additionally, the fatty subcutaneous layer serves as insulation 3. Sensation: skin contains many different sensory receptors that send information to the brain regarding touch, pressure, temperature, and pain 4. Waste disposal: small amount of waste products, such as excess salt, is excreted from the body in sweat Page Ref: 49 Learning Obj.: 5-2 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology

Medical Terminology: Get Connected!, 3e (Frucht) Chapter 6 Orthopedics: Musculoskeletal System All answers to questions asking for a combining form must be written in the combining form style, meaning word root/combining vowel. For example, the combining form meaning "heart" is cardi/o. All answers to questions asking for a suffix must be written in suffix form, meaning a hyphen before your answer. For example, the suffix meaning "cell" is -cyte. All answers to questions asking for a prefix must be written in prefix form, meaning a hyphen after your answer. For example, a prefix meaning "two" is bi-. Do NOT capitalize any of your answers or include a period at the end of your answer. The computer will NOT recognize your answer as correct if it is written in any other style. 1) The combining form that means bursa is ________. Answer: burs/o; burso Page Ref: 74 Learning Obj.: 6-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 2) A combining form other than tendin/o that means tendon is ________. Answer: ten/o; teno Page Ref: 74 Learning Obj.: 6-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 3) A combining form other than muscul/o that means muscle is ________. Answer: my/o; myo Page Ref: 74 Learning Obj.: 6-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 4) The combining form that means joint is ________. Answer: arthr/o; arthro Page Ref: 74 Learning Obj.: 6-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 5) The combining form that means cartilage is ________. Answer: chondr/o; chondro Page Ref: 74 Learning Obj.: 6-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 1 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

6) The combining form that means wrist is ________. Answer: carp/o; carpo Page Ref: 74 Learning Obj.: 6-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 7) The combining form that means hump is ________. Answer: kyph/o; kypho Page Ref: 74 Learning Obj.: 6-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 8) The combining form that means bent backward is ________. Answer: lord/o; lordo Page Ref: 74 Learning Obj.: 6-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 9) A combining form that means bone marrow is ________. Answer: myel/o; myelo Page Ref: 74 Learning Obj.: 6-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 10) The combining form that means straight is ________. Answer: orth/o; ortho Page Ref: 75 Learning Obj.: 6-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 11) The combining form that means bone is ________. Answer: oste/o; osteo Page Ref: 74 Learning Obj.: 6-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

12) The combining form that means sternum is ________. Answer: stern/o; sterno Page Ref: 74 Learning Obj.: 6-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 13) A combining form that means crooked or bent is ________. Answer: scoli/o; scolio Page Ref: 74 Learning Obj.: 6-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 14) A combining form other than vertebr/o that means vertebra is ________. Answer: spondyl/o; spondylo Page Ref: 74 Learning Obj.: 6-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 15) The combining form that means skull is ________. Answer: crani/o; cranio Page Ref: 74 Learning Obj.: 6-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 16) The combining form that means femur is ________. Answer: femor/o; femoro Page Ref: 74 Learning Obj.: 6-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 17) The combining form that means clavicle is ________. Answer: clavicul/o; claviculo Page Ref: 74 Learning Obj.: 6-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

18) The suffix that means movement is ________. Answer: -kinesia; kinesia Page Ref: 75 Learning Obj.: 6-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 19) The suffix that means puncture to withdraw fluid is ________. Answer: -centesis; centesis Page Ref: 75 Learning Obj.: 6-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 20) The suffix that means weakness is ________. Answer: -asthenia; asthenia Page Ref: 75 Learning Obj.: 6-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 21) A suffix that means surgical breaking is ________. Answer: -clasia; clasia Page Ref: 75 Learning Obj.: 6-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 22) A suffix that means surgical fusing is ________. Answer: -desis; desis Page Ref: 75 Learning Obj.: 6-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 23) A suffix that means cutting into is ________. Answer: -otomy; otomy Page Ref: 75 Learning Obj.: 6-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

24) A suffix that means porous is ________. Answer: -porosis; porosis Page Ref: 75 Learning Obj.: 6-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 25) A prefix that means excessive is ________. Answer: hyper-; hyper Page Ref: 75 Learning Obj.: 6-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 26) A medical term that means pertaining to the kneecap is ________. Answer: patellar Page Ref: 78 Learning Obj.: 6-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building 27) A medical term that means muscle weakness is ________. Answer: myasthenia Page Ref: 83 Learning Obj.: 6-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building 28) A medical term that means a record of muscle's electricity is ________. Answer: electromyogram Page Ref: 83 Learning Obj.: 6-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building 29) A medical term that means surgical repair of a tendon is ________. Answer: tendinoplasty; tenoplasty Page Ref: 84 Learning Obj.: 6-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building

30) A medical term that means slow movement is ________. Answer: bradykinesia Page Ref: 81 Learning Obj.: 6-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building 31) A medical term that means pertaining to under the mandible is ________. Answer: submandibular Page Ref: 78 Learning Obj.: 6-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building 32) A medical term that means joint pain is ________. Answer: arthralgia Page Ref: 79 Learning Obj.: 6-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building 33) A medical term that means pertaining to the humerus is ________. Answer: humeral Page Ref: 78 Learning Obj.: 6-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building 34) A medical term that means excessive movement is ________. Answer: hyperkinesia Page Ref: 81 Learning Obj.: 6-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building 35) A medical term that means surgically break a joint is ________. Answer: arthroclasia Page Ref: 79 Learning Obj.: 6-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building

36) A medical term that means surgical fusing of a joint is ________. Answer: arthrodesis Page Ref: 79 Learning Obj.: 6-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building 37) A medical term that means instrument for viewing a joint is ________. Answer: arthroscope Page Ref: 79 Learning Obj.: 6-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building 38) A medical term that means abnormal cartilage softening is ________. Answer: chondromalacia Page Ref: 80 Learning Obj.: 6-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building 39) A medical term that means pertaining to within the skull is ________. Answer: intracranial Page Ref: 81 Learning Obj.: 6-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building 40) A medical term that means process of visually examining a joint is ________. Answer: arthroscopy Page Ref: 79 Learning Obj.: 6-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building 41) A medical term that means bone cell is ________. Answer: osteocyte Page Ref: 84 Learning Obj.: 6-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building

42) A medical term that means bone and bone marrow inflammation is ________. Answer: osteomyelitis Page Ref: 84 Learning Obj.: 6-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building 43) A medical term that means pertaining to the fibula is ________. Answer: fibular Page Ref: 78 Learning Obj.: 6-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building 44) A medical term that means pertaining to between the vertebrae is ________. Answer: intervertebral Page Ref: 78 Learning Obj.: 6-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building 45) A medical term that means surgical breaking of a bone is ________. Answer: osteoclasia Page Ref: 84 Learning Obj.: 6-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building 46) A medical term that means bone and cartilage tumor is ________. Answer: osteochondroma Page Ref: 84 Learning Obj.: 6-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building 47) A medical term that means puncture to withdraw fluid from a joint is ________. Answer: arthrocentesis Page Ref: 79 Learning Obj.: 6-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building

48) A medical term that means surgical removal of a bursa is ________. Answer: bursectomy Page Ref: 80 Learning Obj.: 6-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building 49) A medical term that means to suture a muscle is ________. Answer: myorrhaphy Page Ref: 83 Learning Obj.: 6-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building 50) A medical term that means ruptured muscle is ________. Answer: myorrhexis Page Ref: 83 Learning Obj.: 6-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building 51) The scapula is the breast bone. Answer: FALSE Explanation: The scapula is the shoulder blade. Page Ref: 76 Learning Obj.: 6-4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 52) Cardiac muscle is found only in the heart. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 82 Learning Obj.: 6-4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 53) The musculoskeletal system includes the bones, muscles, and joints of the body. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 74 Learning Obj.: 6-2 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology

54) Another name for tendon is articulation. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Another name for joint is articulation. Page Ref: 79 Learning Obj.: 6-4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 55) Muscles are attached to bones by tendons. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 74 Learning Obj.: 6-2 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 56) Cartilage is found covering the ends of bones and serves as a place for tendons to attach. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Cartilage is found covering the ends of bones and serves as a shock absorber. Page Ref: 80 Learning Obj.: 6-4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 57) Muscles contract to move bones at each joint. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 74 Learning Obj.: 6-2 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 58) A bursa is a fluid-filled sac found inside joints to reduce friction. Answer: FALSE Explanation: A bursa is a fluid-filled sac found between tendons and bone to reduce friction. Page Ref: 80 Learning Obj.: 6-4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 59) Bone scans are useful for identifying stress fractures but not bone cancer. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Bone scans are useful for identifying stress fractures and bone cancer. Page Ref: 85 Learning Obj.: 6-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary

60) In a compression fracture, the broken bone is caused by diseased or weakened bone, not trauma. Answer: FALSE Explanation: In a pathologic fracture, the broken bone is caused by diseased or weakened bone, not trauma. Page Ref: 86 Learning Obj.: 6-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 61) Phalanges refer to the finger and toe bones. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 76 Learning Obj.: 6-4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 62) Any artificial body part is called a prosthesis. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 90 Learning Obj.: 6-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 63) The sternum is commonly called the collar bone. Answer: FALSE Explanation: The clavicle is commonly called the collar bone. Page Ref: 76 Learning Obj.: 6-4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 64) Stress fractures are caused by repetitive low-impact forces. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 92 Learning Obj.: 6-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 65) Lordosis is commonly called humpback. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Kyphosis is commonly called humpback. Page Ref: 88 Learning Obj.: 6-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 11 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

66) Synovial joints have the greatest range of movement. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 75 Learning Obj.: 6-4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 67) Osteoarthritis is an autoimmune disease that affects the joints. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Rheumatoid arthritis is an autoimmune disease that affects the joints. Page Ref: 91 Learning Obj.: 6-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 68) Smooth muscle is found in internal organs. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 82 Learning Obj.: 6-4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 69) A sprain is a dislocation of a joint. Answer: FALSE Explanation: A sprain is a ligament injury without joint dislocation. Page Ref: 91 Learning Obj.: 6-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 70) Red bone marrow produces blood cells. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 82 Learning Obj.: 6-2 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 71) Lordosis is an excessive curvature of the thoracic spine. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Lordosis is an excessive curvature of the lumbar spine. Page Ref: 88 Learning Obj.: 6-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary

72) CK levels may be elevated during a heart attack. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 86 Learning Obj.: 6-7 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Abbreviations 73) Fibromyalgia occurs in red bone marrow. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Fibromyalgia occurs in the muscles and fibrous soft tissue. Page Ref: 87 Learning Obj.: 6-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 74) DXA is used to diagnose osteoporosis. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 87 Learning Obj.: 6-7 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Abbreviations 75) A surgical procedure to repair a fracture is called open reduction. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 90 Learning Obj.: 6-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 76) The abbreviation UE stands for the leg. Answer: FALSE Explanation: The abbreviation UE stands for the arm. Page Ref: 93 Learning Obj.: 6-7 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Abbreviations 77) NSAIDs are not steroid medications. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 89 Learning Obj.: 6-7 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Abbreviations

78) THA stands for knee replacement surgery. Answer: FALSE Explanation: THA stands for hip replacement surgery (total hip arthroplasty). Page Ref: 92 Learning Obj.: 6-7 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Abbreviations 79) The abnormal shortening of muscle fibers, tendons, or connective tissue is called a contracture. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 86 Learning Obj.: 6-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 80) A sudden, involuntary, strong muscle contraction is called a spasm. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 91 Learning Obj.: 6-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 81) During a compression fracture, one bone fragment is pushed into another. Answer: FALSE Explanation: During an impacted fracture, one bone fragment is pushed into another. Page Ref: 88 Learning Obj.: 6-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 82) Carpal tunnel syndrome is an example of muscular dystrophy. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Carpal tunnel syndrome is an example of a repetitive motion disorder. Page Ref: 86 Learning Obj.: 6-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 83) Greenstick fractures are commonly seen in children. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 87 Learning Obj.: 6-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary

84) Kyphosis occurs in the cervical spine. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Kyphosis occurs in the thoracic spine. Page Ref: 88 Learning Obj.: 6-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 85) Muscular dystrophy is an inherited disease. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 89 Learning Obj.: 6-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 86) The patella is the lower jaw. Answer: FALSE Explanation: The mandible is the lower jaw. Page Ref: 76 Learning Obj.: 6-4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 87) Muscle atrophy may occur due to muscle disease, nervous system disease, or lack of use. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 89 Learning Obj.: 6-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 88) The lower jaw bone is the maxilla. Answer: FALSE Explanation: The upper jaw bone is the maxilla. Page Ref: 76 Learning Obj.: 6-4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 89) The adjective form for the wrist is carpal. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 78 Learning Obj.: 6-5 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

90) The adjective form for the upper arm bone is humerus. Answer: FALSE Explanation: The adjective form for the upper arm bone is humeral. Page Ref: 78 Learning Obj.: 6-5 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 91) In an oblique fracture, the fracture line runs along an angle to the shaft of the bone. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 89 Learning Obj.: 6-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 92) Osteogenic sarcoma is a rare type of bone cancer. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Osteogenic sarcoma is the most common type of bone cancer. Page Ref: 90 Learning Obj.: 6-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 93) Spina bifida is a birth defect. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 91 Learning Obj.: 6-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 94) In a compound fracture, the bone is shattered into fragments. Answer: FALSE Explanation: In a comminuted fracture, the bone is shattered into fragments. Page Ref: 86 Learning Obj.: 6-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 95) A simple fracture is the same thing as a closed fracture. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 86 Learning Obj.: 6-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary

96) In chondromalacia, the bone has become soft. Answer: FALSE Explanation: In chondromalacia, the cartilage has become soft. Page Ref: 80 Learning Obj.: 6-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building 97) TKR is a surgical procedure. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 92 Learning Obj.: 6-7 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Abbreviations 98) The carpus is the ankle. Answer: FALSE Explanation: The carpus is the wrist. Page Ref: 76 Learning Obj.: 6-4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 99) The function of a bursa is to reduce friction. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 80 Learning Obj.: 6-2 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 100) The tailbone is the os coxae. Answer: FALSE Explanation: The tailbone is the coccyx. Page Ref: 76 Learning Obj.: 6-4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology

101) Which of the following is NOT one of the three types of muscles found in the body? A) Skeletal B) Motor C) Smooth D) Cardiac Answer: B Explanation: A) Skeletal muscle contracts to produce movement of the skeleton. B) Motor is not a type of muscle. C) Smooth muscle is used to produce movement of internal organs. D) Cardiac muscle is found only in the heart. Page Ref: 82 Learning Obj.: 6-4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 102) Which of the following muscle types is found in internal organs? A) Skeletal B) Voluntary C) Smooth D) Cardiac Answer: C Explanation: A) Skeletal muscle is found attached to bones, not in internal organs. B) Voluntary muscle is skeletal muscle; it is not found in internal organs. C) Smooth muscle produces movement of internal organs. D) Cardiac muscle is found only in the heart, not other internal organs. Page Ref: 82 Learning Obj.: 6-4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 103) Which of the following muscle types is found only in the heart? A) Skeletal B) Cardiac C) Smooth D) Voluntary Answer: B Explanation: A) Skeletal muscle is found attached to bones, not in the heart. B) Cardiac muscle is found only in the heart. C) Smooth muscle produces movement of internal organs; it is not found in the heart. D) Voluntary muscle is skeletal muscle; it is not found in the heart. Page Ref: 82 Learning Obj.: 6-4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology

104) The pubic symphysis is an example of which type of joint? A) Fibrous B) Cartilaginous C) Synovial D) Bursa Answer: B Explanation: A) Fibrous joints are united by fibrous tissue and allow essentially no movement between the bones; an example is the sutures between the skull bones. B) The pubic symphysis is a cartilaginous joint. Cartilaginous joints allow only a small amount of shifting. C) Synovial joints allow the greatest range of motion. Examples are the shoulder and knee, not the pubic symphysis. D) A bursa is a fluid-filled sac typically found between tendon and bone to reduce friction. It is not a type of joint. Page Ref: 75 Learning Obj.: 6-4 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 105) Which of the following is NOT a function of bone? A) Supporting the body B) Storehouse for minerals C) Flexibility of the skeleton D) Housing red bone marrow Answer: C Explanation: A) Bones help support and move the body. B) Bones serve as a storehouse for important minerals such as calcium. C) Bones do not provide flexibility for the skeleton; this is the purpose of joints. D) Bones house both red and yellow bone marrow. Page Ref: 82 Learning Obj.: 6-2 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology

106) Two bones are held together in a joint by ________. A) cartilage B) tendons C) ligaments D) muscles Answer: C Explanation: A) Cartilage is tough, flexible connective tissue that covers the ends of bones in a joint. B) Tendons attach muscles to bones at a joint. C) Two bones are held together in a joint by ligaments. D) Muscles are attached to the skeleton by tendons; muscles contract to move bones at each joint. Page Ref: 74 Learning Obj.: 6-2 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 107) The ends of bones in a joint are covered by ________. A) cartilage B) spongy bone C) tendons D) red bone marrow Answer: A Explanation: A) Cartilage is tough, flexible connective tissue that covers the ends of bones in a joint. B) Spongy bone is found inside bone, not on the ends of bones. C) Tendons attach muscles to bones at a joint; they do not cover the ends of bones. D) Red bone marrow is located in the small spaces of spongy bone inside the bone, not on the ends of bones. Page Ref: 80 Learning Obj.: 6-4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology

108) A fluid-filled sac found between tendons and bone is called ________. A) a bursa B) a ligament C) cartilage D) bone marrow Answer: A Explanation: A) A bursa is a fluid-filled sac typically found between tendon and bone to reduce friction. B) A ligament joins two bones together at a joint; it is not a fluid-filled sac. C) Cartilage is tough, flexible connective tissue that covers the ends of bones in a joint. It is not a fluid-filled sac. D) Bone marrow is found on the inside of bones; it is not a fluid-filled sac. Page Ref: 80 Learning Obj.: 6-4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 109) Which of the following refers to the hand bones? A) Mandible B) Maxilla C) Metacarpus D) Metatarsus Answer: C Explanation: A) The mandible refers to the lower jaw bone. B) The maxilla refers to the upper jaw bone. C) The metacarpus refers to the hand bones. D) Metatarsus refers to the foot bones. Page Ref: 76 Learning Obj.: 6-4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 110) Which of the following bones are the fingers? A) Tarsals B) Scapulae C) Metacarpals D) Phalanges Answer: D Explanation: A) Tarsals refer to the ankle bones. B) Scapulae refer to the shoulder blades. C) Metacarpals refer to the hand bones. D) Phalanges are the finger bones. Page Ref: 76 Learning Obj.: 6-4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 21 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

111) Which of the following bones is the shoulder blade? A) Scapula B) Carpus C) Clavicle D) Fibula Answer: A Explanation: A) Scapula refers to the shoulder blade. B) Carpus refers to the wrist bones. C) Clavicle refers to the collar bone. D) The fibula is the smaller bone in the lower leg. Page Ref: 76 Learning Obj.: 6-4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 112) The clavicle is commonly called the ________. A) forearm B) breast bone C) shoulder blade D) collar bone Answer: D Explanation: A) The forearm contains two bones: the ulna and radius. B) The sternum is commonly called the breast bone. C) The scapula is commonly called the shoulder blade. D) The clavicle is commonly called the collar bone. Page Ref: 76 Learning Obj.: 6-4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 113) Which of the following bones is NOT found in the upper extremity? A) Humerus B) Ischium C) Carpus D) Ulna Answer: B Explanation: A) The humerus is the long bone of the upper arm. B) The ischium is a bone found in the pelvis. C) Carpus refers to the wrist bones. D) The ulna is a long bone of the forearm. Page Ref: 76 Learning Obj.: 6-4 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology

114) Which of the following bones is NOT found in the lower extremity? A) Patella B) Tarsus C) Femur D) Scapula Answer: D Explanation: A) The patella is the kneecap. B) Tarsus refers to the ankle bones. C) The femur is the long bone of the thigh. D) The scapula is commonly called the shoulder blade. Page Ref: 76 Learning Obj.: 6-4 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 115) Which of the following bones is NOT part of the pelvis? A) Ischium B) Ilium C) Sacrum D) Pubis Answer: C Explanation: A) The ischium is a bone found in the pelvis. B) The ilium is a large bone found in the pelvis. C) The sacrum is the lower part of the spine. D) The pubis is a bone found in the pelvis. Page Ref: 76 Learning Obj.: 6-4 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 116) The tibia is commonly referred to as the ________. A) shin bone B) ankle bones C) hip bone D) kneecap Answer: A Explanation: A) The tibia is commonly referred to as the shin bone. B) The tarsals are commonly referred to as the ankle bones. C) The ilium forms the hip bone. D) The patella is commonly referred to as the kneecap. Page Ref: 76 Learning Obj.: 6-4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology

117) The clavicle is commonly referred to as the ________. A) shoulder blade B) breast bone C) collar bone D) wrist Answer: C Explanation: A) The scapula is commonly referred to as the shoulder blade. B) The sternum is commonly referred to as the breast bone. C) The clavicle is commonly referred to as the collar bone. D) The carpals are commonly referred to as the wrist bones. Page Ref: 76 Learning Obj.: 6-4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 118) The anatomical name of the kneecap is ________. A) fibula B) patella C) phalanges D) tarsus Answer: B Explanation: A) The fibula is the smaller bone in the lower leg. B) The anatomical name of the kneecap is the patella. C) The anatomical name of the finger and toe bones is the phalanges. D) The anatomical name of the ankle bones is tarsus. Page Ref: 76 Learning Obj.: 6-4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 119) Phalanges refer to the ________. A) fingers and toes B) wrists and ankles C) hands and feet D) elbows and knees Answer: A Explanation: A) Phalanges refer to both the fingers and toes. B) The wrist bones are called carpals and the ankle bones are called tarsals. C) The hand bones are called metacarpals and the feet bones are called metatarsals. D) The kneecap is called the patella; the elbows do not have an associated bone. Page Ref: 76 Learning Obj.: 6-4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology

120) Which of the following is the name for joints with the greatest range of motion? A) Ischial B) Phalangeal C) Synovial D) Fibrous Answer: C Explanation: A) Ischial is not a type of joint. B) Phalangeal is not a type of joint. C) Synovial joints allow the greatest range of motion; they are the most common joint type in the body. D) Fibrous joints allow essentially no movement between the bones. Page Ref: 75 Learning Obj.: 6-4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 121) Braces or splints used to prevent or correct deformities are called ________. A) prosthetics B) orthotics C) orthopedics D) podiatry Answer: B Explanation: A) Prosthetics are artificial devices used as substitutes for missing body parts. B) Braces or splints used to prevent or correct deformities are called orthotics. C) Orthopedics is the branch of medicine dealing with musculoskeletal disorders. D) Podiatry is a branch of medicine dealing with foot disorders. Page Ref: 89 Learning Obj.: 6-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary

122) The medical term for humpback is ________. A) contracture B) scoliosis C) kyphosis D) lordosis Answer: C Explanation: A) Contracture is the medical term for the abnormal shortening of muscle fibers, tendons, or connective tissue that makes it difficult to stretch muscle. B) Scoliosis is the medical term for an abnormal lateral curvature of the spine. C) Kyphosis is the medical term for humpback. It refers to an abnormal increase in the normal outward curvature of the thoracic spine. D) Lordosis is the medical term for swayback. It refers to an abnormal increase in the normal forward curvature of the lumbar spine. Page Ref: 88 Learning Obj.: 6-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 123) Which term means that the fracture is accompanied by an open skin wound? A) Simple fracture B) Compression fracture C) Pathologic fracture D) Compound fracture Answer: D Explanation: A) A simple fracture, or closed facture, is a broken bone with no open skin wound. B) A compression fracture causes the loss of height of a vertebral body; it does not mean that the fracture is with an open skin wound. C) A pathologic fracture is a broken bone caused by diseased or weakened bone, not trauma. It usually does not accompany an open skin wound. D) A compound fracture is a broken bone with an open skin wound. Page Ref: 86 Learning Obj.: 6-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary

124) Which type of fracture is commonly seen in children because their bones are still pliable? A) Greenstick fracture B) Comminuted fracture C) Simple fracture D) Stress fracture Answer: A Explanation: A) A greenstick fracture is commonly seen in children because children's bones are still pliable. It occurs when one side of the bone breaks and the other side only bends. B) A comminuted fracture occurs when the bone shatters into many small fragments. It may occur in both children and adults. C) A simple fracture, or closed facture, is a broken bone with no open skin wound. It is common in children and adults. D) A stress fracture occurs as a result of repetitive low-impact forces. It may occur in both children and adults. Page Ref: 87 Learning Obj.: 6-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 125) Which type of fracture occurs because the bone is diseased or weakened? A) Stress fracture B) Pathologic fracture C) Spiral fracture D) Oblique fracture Answer: B Explanation: A) A stress fracture occurs as a result of repetitive low-impact forces, not because the bone is diseased or weakened. B) A pathologic fracture is a broken bone caused by diseased or weakened bone, not trauma. C) A spiral fracture is a bone break in which the fracture line spirals around the shaft of the bone. It occurs as the result of a twisting injury. D) An oblique fracture is a bone break in which the fracture line runs along an angle to the shaft of the bone. Page Ref: 90 Learning Obj.: 6-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary

126) In which type of fracture is the bone shattered? A) Greenstick B) Oblique C) Comminuted D) Pathologic Answer: C Explanation: A) In a greenstick fracture, one side of the bone breaks and the other side only bends. B) In an oblique fracture, the fracture line runs along an angle to the shaft of the bone. C) In a comminuted fracture, the bone shatters into many small fragments. D) A pathologic fracture is caused by diseased or weakened bone, not trauma. Page Ref: 86 Learning Obj.: 6-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 127) ________ is a decrease in bone mass that results in a thinning and weakening of the bone. A) Contracture B) Kyphosis C) Osteoporosis D) Fibromyalgia Answer: C Explanation: A) Contracture is an abnormal shortening of muscle fibers, tendons, or connective tissue. B) Kyphosis is an abnormal increase in the normal outward curvature of the thoracic spine. C) Osteoporosis is a condition that develops due to a decrease in bone mass. This results in a thinning and weakening of the bone. D) Fibromyalgia is a chronic condition with widespread aching and pain in the muscles and fibrous soft tissue. Page Ref: 90 Learning Obj.: 6-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary

128) Which of the following conditions is commonly called a ruptured disk? A) Herniated nucleus pulposus B) Spondylitis C) Spina bifida D) Spondylosis Answer: A Explanation: A) Herniated nucleus pulposus refers to the protrusion of an intervertebral disk between two vertebrae. It is also called a herniated disk or ruptured disk. B) Spondylitis is inflammation of the vertebra. This is not the same as a ruptured disk. C) Spina bifida is a birth defect that occurs when the vertebra fails to fully form around the spinal cord. This is not the same as a ruptured disk. D) Spondylosis is an abnormal condition of the vertebra. This is not the same as a ruptured disk. Page Ref: 88 Learning Obj.: 6-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 129) An abnormal lateral curvature of the spine is called ________. A) lordosis B) orthosis C) scoliosis D) kyphosis Answer: C Explanation: A) Lordosis is an abnormal increase in the normal forward curvature of the lumbar spine. It is commonly called swayback. B) Orthosis is an externally applied brace or splint used to prevent or correct deformities. C) Scoliosis is an abnormal lateral curvature of the spine. D) Kyphosis is an abnormal increase in the normal outward curvature of the thoracic spine. It is commonly called hunchback or humpback. Page Ref: 91 Learning Obj.: 6-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary

130) Spina bifida is a congenital anomaly that affects which bone? A) Femur B) Hip C) Skull D) Vertebra Answer: D Explanation: A) Spina bifida does not affect the femur. B) Spina bifida does not affect the hip. C) Spina bifida does not affect the skull. D) Spina bifida is a birth defect that occurs when a vertebra fails to form fully around the spinal cord. Page Ref: 91 Learning Obj.: 6-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 131) Which of the following diagnostic procedures is used to detect osteoporosis? A) Dual-energy absorptiometry B) Myelography C) Bone scan D) Arthrography Answer: A Explanation: A) Dual-energy absorptiometry is a diagnostic test that uses low-dose X-ray beams to measure bone density; it is used to diagnose osteoporosis. B) Myelography is the process of recording bone marrow. It is not used to detect osteoporosis. C) A bone scan is a nuclear medicine scan using radioactive dye to visualize bones. It is used to find stress fractures or bone cancer. D) Arthrography is the process of recording a joint. It is not used to detect osteoporosis. Page Ref: 87 Learning Obj.: 6-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary

132) Which of the following tests is used to determine if muscles are responding properly? A) Dual-energy absorptiometry B) Deep tendon reflex C) Bone scan D) Arthroscopy Answer: B Explanation: A) Dual-energy absorptiometry is a diagnostic test that uses low-dose X-ray beams to measure bone density; it is used to diagnose osteoporosis. B) Deep tendon reflex is an involuntary muscle contraction in response to striking a muscle tendon with a reflex hammer. It is used to determine whether muscles respond properly. C) A bone scan is a nuclear medicine scan using radioactive dye to visualize bones. It is used to find stress fractures or bone cancer. D) Arthroscopy is used to visually examine a joint. Page Ref: 87 Learning Obj.: 6-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 133) Which procedure examines the inside of a joint? A) Arthroplasty B) Arthrodesis C) Arthrocentesis D) Arthroscopy Answer: D Explanation: A) Arthroplasty is the surgical repair of a joint. B) Arthrodesis is the surgical fusion of a joint. C) Arthrocentesis is a puncture to withdraw fluid from a joint. D) An arthroscopy is used to examine the inside of a joint. Page Ref: 79 Learning Obj.: 6-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building

134) Surgery performed to realign bone fragments is called a(n) ________. A) open reduction B) external fixation C) percutaneous diskectomy D) internal fixation Answer: A Explanation: A) A reduction is used to correct a fracture or dislocation by realigning bones; if the bones are manipulated through a surgical incision, it is called an open reduction. B) External fixation uses casts, splints, and pins inserted through the skin to stabilize a fractured bone while it heals. C) Percutaneous diskectomy involves inserting a catheter tube into an intervertebral disk through skin to suck out pieces of a herniated or ruptured disk. D) Internal fixation uses pins, plates, rods, screws, and wires to stabilize a fractured bone while it heals. Page Ref: 87 Learning Obj.: 6-6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary 135) Muscle wasting is the common term for muscle ________. A) contracture B) atrophy C) spasm D) strain Answer: B Explanation: A) Muscle contracture is the abnormal shortening of muscle fibers, making it difficult to stretch the muscle. B) Muscle wasting is the common term for muscle atrophy. This occurs when there is a loss of muscle bulk due to muscle disease, nervous system disease, or lack of use. C) A muscle spasm is a sudden, involuntary, strong muscle contraction. D) A muscle strain occurs when there is damage to a muscle from overuse or overstretching. Page Ref: 89 Learning Obj.: 6-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary

136) Which of the following is a sudden, involuntary, strong muscle contraction? A) Hyperkinesia B) Myopathy C) Dyskinesia D) Spasm Answer: D Explanation: A) Hyperkinesia is excessive movement. B) Myopathy is a muscle disease. C) Dyskinesia is difficult movement. D) Spasm is a sudden, involuntary, strong muscle contraction. Page Ref: 91 Learning Obj.: 6-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 137) Which diagnostic procedure uses a radioactive dye to produce an image? A) Magnetic resonance imaging B) Bone scan C) Arthroscopy D) Dual-energy absorptiometry Answer: B Explanation: A) Magnetic resonance imaging uses electromagnetic energy to produce an image. B) A bone scan is a nuclear medicine scan that uses radioactive dye to visualize bones. C) Arthroscopy is the process of visually examining a joint. D) Dual-energy absorptiometry uses low-dose X-ray beams to measure bone density. Page Ref: 85 Learning Obj.: 6-6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary 138) Which of the following conditions is caused by overuse or overstretching? A) Strain B) Muscular dystrophy C) Kyphosis D) Fibromyalgia Answer: A Explanation: A) A strain is damage to the muscle or tendons from overuse or overstretching. B) Muscular dystrophy is an inherited disease that involves progressive muscle degeneration, weakness, and atrophy. It is not caused by overuse or overstretching. C) Kyphosis is an abnormal increase in the normal outward curvature of the thoracic spine. It is not caused by overuse or overstretching. D) Fibromyalgia is a chronic condition with widespread aching and pain in the muscles and fibrous soft tissue. It is not caused by overuse or overstretching. Page Ref: 91 Learning Obj.: 6-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 33 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

139) Which of the following involves obtaining fluid from a joint in order to examine it to make a diagnosis? A) Arthroscopy B) Arthroclasia C) Arthrodesis D) Arthrocentesis Answer: D Explanation: A) Arthroscopy is the process of visually examining a joint. B) Arthroclasia involves surgically breaking a joint. C) Arthrodesis is the surgical fusing of a joint. D) Arthrocentesis is a procedure in which the joint is punctured to withdraw fluid. The fluid is then examined to make a diagnosis. Page Ref: 79 Learning Obj.: 6-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building 140) Widespread aching and pain in the muscles and fibrous soft tissue is called ________. A) carpal tunnel syndrome B) fibromyalgia C) repetitive motion disorder D) muscular dystrophy Answer: B Explanation: A) Carpal tunnel syndrome is a repetitive motion disorder caused by pressure on tendons and nerves as they pass through the carpal tunnel of the wrist. B) Fibromyalgia is a chronic condition with widespread aching and pain in the muscles and fibrous soft tissue. C) A repetitive motion disorder involves tendon, muscle, joint, or nerve damage caused by prolonged periods of pressure, vibration, or repetitive movements. D) Muscular dystrophy is an inherited disease that involves progressive muscle degeneration, weakness, and atrophy. Page Ref: 87 Learning Obj.: 6-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary

141) The bones of the body are joined together to form ________. A) the joints B) ligaments C) the skeleton D) bursae Answer: C Explanation: A) The place where two bones meet is called a joint. B) Ligaments join bones together at joints. C) The bones of the body collectively form the skeleton. D) Bursae are fluid-filled sacs that are found between tendons and bones. Page Ref: 74 Learning Obj.: 6-2 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 142) Which term does NOT mean "pertaining to the ilium"? A) Patellar B) Scapular C) Metatarsul D) Iliac Answer: D Explanation: A) Patellar means pertaining to the knee. B) Scapular means pertaining to the scapula. C) Metatarsal means pertaining to the foot bones. D) Ili/o is the combining form meaning "ilium." The suffix -ac means "pertaining to." Iliac means "pertaining to the ilium." Page Ref: 77 Learning Obj.: 6-5 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

143) Which term means "pertaining to the femur"? A) Femuric B) Femoral C) Femoris D) Femural Answer: B Explanation: A) Although the suffix -ic means "pertaining to," the correct combining form for femur is femor/o, not femur/o. B) Femor/o is the combining form meaning "femur." The suffix -al means "pertaining to." Femoral means "pertaining to the femur." C) Although the combining form for femur is femor/o, the suffix -is does not mean pertaining to. D) Although the suffix -al means "pertaining to," the correct combining form for femur is femor/o, not femur/o. Page Ref: 78 Learning Obj.: 6-5 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 144) Which of the following is a repetitive motion disorder? A) Contracture B) Herniated nucleus pulposus C) Carpal tunnel syndrome D) Muscular dystrophy Answer: C Explanation: A) A contracture is an abnormal shortening of muscle fibers, tendons, or connective tissue. B) Herniated nucleus pulposus is the protrusion of an intervertebral disk between two vertebrae. C) Carpal tunnel syndrome is a repetitive motion disorder caused by pressure on tendons and nerves as they pass through the carpal tunnel of the wrist. D) Muscular dystrophy is an inherited disease that involves progressive muscle degeneration, weakness, and atrophy. Page Ref: 86 Learning Obj.: 6-6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary

145) Which of the following pairs is NOT correctly matched? A) Internal fixation—performed during a surgical procedure B) Open reduction—requires a surgical incision C) Closed reduction—bones are realigned using external manipulation D) External fixation—includes pins, plates, rods, and screws Answer: D Explanation: A) Internal fixation is performed during a surgical procedure. B) Open reduction requires a surgical incision. C) In a closed reduction, bones are realigned using external manipulation. D) Internal fixation uses pins, plates, rods, and screws. External fixation uses casts, splints, and pins to stabilize a fractured bone. Page Ref: 87 Learning Obj.: 6-6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary 146) Which of the following answer choices regarding rheumatoid arthritis is NOT true? A) An autoimmune disease B) Chronic soft tissue inflammation C) Most common in weight-bearing joints D) May result in crippling deformities Answer: C Explanation: A) Rheumatoid arthritis is an autoimmune disease. B) Rheumatoid arthritis causes chronic soft tissue inflammation. C) Osteoarthritis is most common in weight-bearing joints, not rheumatoid arthritis. D) Rheumatoid arthritis may result in crippling deformities. Page Ref: 91 Learning Obj.: 6-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 147) Which of the following answer choices regarding muscular dystrophy is NOT true? A) It is an inherited disease. B) It leads to shortening of muscle fibers. C) It causes progressive muscle degeneration. D) It causes muscle atrophy. Answer: B Explanation: A) Muscular dystrophy is an inherited disease. B) Muscular dystrophy does not result in the shortening of muscle fibers. Contractures are caused by a shortening of muscle fibers. C) Muscular dystrophy causes progressive muscle degeneration. D) Muscular dystrophy causes muscle atrophy. Page Ref: 89 Learning Obj.: 6-6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary 37 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

148) Which of the following answer choices regarding herniated nucleus pulposus is NOT true? A) It is the protrusion of an intervertebral disk. B) It puts pressure on spinal nerves. C) It increases the normal forward curvature of lumbar spine. D) It may require surgery. Answer: C Explanation: A) Herniated nucleus pulposus involves protrusion of an intervertebral disk between two vertebrae. B) Herniated nucleus pulposus puts pressure on the spinal nerves. C) Lordosis increases the normal forward curvature of the lumbar spine. D) Herniated nucleus pulposus may require surgery. Page Ref: 88 Learning Obj.: 6-6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary 149) Which of the following pairs is NOT correctly matched? A) Scoliosis—lateral curvature of the spine B) Fibromyalgia—chronic and widespread aching and pain in muscles C) Fixation—stabilizes fractured bone while it heals D) Orthosis—replaces missing body part Answer: D Explanation: A) Scoliosis is the abnormal lateral curvature of the spine. B) Fibromyalgia is a chronic condition with widespread aching and pain in the muscles and fibrous soft tissue. C) Fixation is used to stabilize fractured bones while they heal. D) Orthosis is an externally applied brace or splint used to prevent or correct deformities. A prosthesis is an artificial device used to replace a missing body part. Page Ref: 89 Learning Obj.: 6-6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary

150) Which of the following conditions is marked by widespread aching and pain in the muscles? A) Muscular dystrophy B) Compression fracture C) Fibromyalgia D) Kyphosis Answer: C Explanation: A) Muscular dystrophy is an inherited disease that involves progressive muscle degeneration, weakness, and atrophy. B) A compression fracture occurs when a bone break causes loss of height of a vertebral body. C) Fibromyalgia is a chronic condition with widespread aching and pain in the muscles and fibrous soft tissue. D) Kyphosis is an abnormal increase in the normal outward curvature of the thoracic spine. Page Ref: 87 Learning Obj.: 6-6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary 151) Muscle atrophy may result from ________. A) a greenstick fracture B) kyphosis C) a nervous system disease D) involuntary strong muscle contraction Answer: C Explanation: A) A greenstick fracture is a fracture with an incomplete break. This does not usually cause muscle atrophy. B) Kyphosis is an abnormal increase in the normal outward curvature of the thoracic spine. This does not usually cause muscle atrophy. C) Muscle atrophy can result from muscle disease, nervous system disease, or lack of use. D) A spasm is a sudden, involuntary, strong muscle contraction. It does not usually cause muscle atrophy. Page Ref: 89 Learning Obj.: 6-6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary

152) Which of the following answer choices regarding NSAIDs is NOT true? A) It is a large group of drugs. B) They are used to treat conditions such as arthritis. C) They provide pain relief. D) They are steroid drugs. Answer: D Explanation: A) NSAIDs are a large group of drugs. B) NSAIDs can be used to treat conditions such as arthritis. C) NSAIDs provide mild pain relief. D) NSAIDs are nonsteroidal drugs, not steroid drugs. Page Ref: 89 Learning Obj.: 6-6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary 153) Which of the following is NOT used for external fixation? A) Plate B) Cast C) Splint D) Pin Answer: A Explanation: A) Plates are used for internal fixation, not external fixation. B) Casts, splints, and pins are all used for external fixation. C) Casts, splints, and pins are all used for external fixation. D) Casts, splints, and pins are all used for external fixation. Page Ref: 87 Learning Obj.: 6-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 154) Which of the following regarding osteogenic sarcoma is NOT true? A) It is the most common type of bone cancer. B) It usually begins in osteocytes found at the ends of bones. C) It most frequently occurs in persons 10-25 years old. D) It results in bone rubbing against bone. Answer: D Explanation: A) Osteogenic sarcoma is the most common type of bone cancer. B) Osteogenic sarcoma usually begins in osteocytes found at the ends of bones. C) Osteogenic sarcoma most frequently occurs in persons 10-25 years old. D) Osteogenic sarcoma does not result in bone rubbing against bone. Osteoarthritis results in bone rubbing against bone. Page Ref: 90 Learning Obj.: 6-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary

155) A percutaneous diskectomy may be used to treat ________. A) MD B) RA C) FX D) HNP Answer: D Explanation: A) MD is the abbreviation for muscular dystrophy. It is not treated with percutaneous diskectomy. B) RA is the abbreviation for rheumatoid arthritis. It is not treated with percutaneous diskectomy. C) FX is the abbreviation for fracture. It is not treated with percutaneous diskectomy. D) HNP stands for herniated nucleus pulposus. It can be treated with percutaneous diskectomy. Page Ref: 88, 90 Learning Obj.: 6-7 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Abbreviations 156) Which of the following fractures is NOT correctly paired? A) Transverse—fracture line is straight across the shaft of the bone B) Oblique—fracture line is at an angle to the shaft of the bone C) Greenstick—bone is shattered D) Spiral—fracture line spirals around the shaft of the bone Answer: C Explanation: A) In a transverse fracture, the fracture line is straight across the shaft of the bone. B) In an oblique fracture, the fracture line is at an angle to the shaft of the bone. C) In a greenstick fracture, the bone is not shattered. Instead, the bone is broken only on one side. D) In a spiral fracture, the fracture line spirals around the shaft of the bone. Page Ref: 87 Learning Obj.: 6-6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary 157) The A in the abbreviation THA stands for ________. A) arthroplasty B) arthrography C) arthroscopy D) arthrotomy Answer: A Explanation: A) The A in THA stands for arthroplasty. B) The A in THA stands for arthroplasty, not arthrography. C) The A in THA stands for arthroplasty, not arthroscopy. D) The A in THA stands for arthroplasty, not arthrotomy. Page Ref: 92 Learning Obj.: 6-7 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Abbreviations 41 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

158) Which of the following conditions is a birth defect? A) Carpal tunnel syndrome B) Osteogenic sarcoma C) Scoliosis D) Spina bifida Answer: D Explanation: A) Carpal tunnel syndrome is a repetitive motion disorder, not a birth defect. B) Osteogenic sarcoma is a common type of bone cancer, not a birth defect. C) Scoliosis is an abnormal lateral curvature of the spine. It is not a birth defect. D) Spina bifida is a birth defect that occurs when a vertebra fails to fully form around the spinal cord. Page Ref: 91 Learning Obj.: 6-6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary 159) Which of the following terms means "abnormal cartilage softening"? A) Chondroplasty B) Chondroma C) Chondromalacia D) Chondritis Answer: C Explanation: A) Chondroplasty means "surgical repair of cartilage." B) Chondroma means "cartilage tumor." C) Chondromalacia means "abnormal cartilage softening." D) Chondritis means "cartilage inflammation." Page Ref: 80 Learning Obj.: 6-5 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 160) Which of the following terms means "slow movement"? A) Tachykinesia B) Bradykinesia C) Hyperkinesia D) Dyskinesia Answer: B Explanation: A) Tachykinesia means "fast movement." B) Bradykinesia means "slow movement." C) Hyperkinesia means "excessive movement." D) Dyskinesia means "difficult movement." Page Ref: 81 Learning Obj.: 6-5 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

161) Blood cells are produced by the ________. A) cartilage B) red bone marrow C) tendon D) shaft of the bone Answer: B Explanation: A) Cartilage is tough, flexible connective tissue that covers ends of bones in joints. It does not produce blood cells. B) Red bone marrow produces blood cells. C) A tendon is a strong band of connective tissue that anchors muscle to bone. It does not produce blood cells. D) The shaft of the bone does not produce blood cells. Page Ref: 82 Learning Obj.: 6-4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 162) Which of the following terms means "ruptured muscle"? A) Myalgia B) Myorrhaphy C) Myorrhexis D) Myasthenia Answer: C Explanation: A) Myalgia means "muscle pain." B) Myorrhaphy means "suture a muscle." C) Myorrhexis means "ruptured muscle." D) Myasthenia means "muscle weakness." Page Ref: 83 Learning Obj.: 6-5 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 163) Which term means "producing bone"? A) Osteotome B) Osteoclasia C) Osteopathy D) Osteogenic Answer: D Explanation: A) An osteotome is an instrument used to cut bone. B) Osteoclasia is the surgical breaking of a bone. C) Osteopathy is a bone disease. D) Osteogenic means "producing bone." Page Ref: 84 Learning Obj.: 6-5 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 43 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

164) A compound fracture can also be called a(n) ________. A) open fracture B) compression fracture C) comminuted fracture D) impacted fracture Answer: A Explanation: A) A compound fracture can also be called an open fracture because it involves an open skin wound. B) A compression fracture involves the loss of height of a vertebral body. C) A comminuted fracture is where the bone shatters into many small fragments. D) An impacted fracture occurs when one bone fragment is pushed into another. Page Ref: 86 Learning Obj.: 6-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 165) Maxillary means pertaining to the ________. A) upper jaw B) ankle C) lower jaw D) tailbone Answer: A Explanation: A) Maxillary means pertaining to the upper jaw. B) Tarsal means pertaining to the ankle. C) Mandibular means pertaining to the lower jaw. D) Coccygeal means pertaining to the tailbone. Page Ref: 79 Learning Obj.: 6-5 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 166) Which term means "surgical repair of a joint"? A) Arthroplasty B) Arthrography C) Arthroscopy D) Arthrocentesis Answer: A Explanation: A) Arthroplasty means "surgical repair of a joint." B) Arthrography means "the process of recording a joint." C) Arthroscopy means "the process of visually examining a joint." D) Arthrocentesis: means "puncture to withdraw fluid from a joint." Page Ref: 79 Learning Obj.: 6-5 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

167) Which of the following terms is misspelled? A) Substernal B) Myorhexis C) Myelogenic D) Electromyography Answer: B Explanation: A) Substernal is spelled correctly. B) It is spelled myorrhexis. C) Myelogenic is spelled correctly. D) Electromyography is spelled correctly. Page Ref: 83 Learning Obj.: 6-5 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Spelling 168) Which of the following terms is misspelled? A) Chondromalasia B) Arthralgia C) Osteomyelitis D) Intracranial Answer: A Explanation: A) It is spelled chondromalacia. B) Arthralgia is spelled correctly. C) Osteomyelitis is spelled correctly. D) Intracranial is spelled correctly. Page Ref: 80 Learning Obj.: 6-5 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Spelling 169) Which of the following terms is misspelled? A) Mandibuler B) Humeral C) Femoral D) Clavicular Answer: A Explanation: A) It is spelled mandibular. B) Humeral is spelled correctly. C) Femoral is spelled correctly. D) Clavicular is spelled correctly. Page Ref: 78 Learning Obj.: 6-5 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Spelling

170) Which of the following terms is misspelled? A) Maxillary B) Coccygeal C) Metacarpes D) Thoracic Answer: C Explanation: A) Maxillary is spelled correctly. B) Coccygeal is spelled correctly. C) It is spelled metacarpus. D) Thoracic is spelled correctly. Page Ref: 76 Learning Obj.: 6-5 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Spelling 171) Which of the following abbreviations stands for the arm? A) AK B) BDT C) UE D) IM Answer: C Explanation: A) AK means "above the knee." B) BDT means "bone density testing." C) UE means "upper extremity," which is the arm. D) IM means "intramuscular." Page Ref: 93 Learning Obj.: 6-7 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Abbreviations 172) Which of the following abbreviations is a record of the electrical activity of a muscle? A) RLE B) DJD C) RA D) EMG Answer: D Explanation: A) RLE means "right lower extremity." B) DJD means "degenerative joint disease." C) RA means "rheumatoid arthritis." D) EMG means "electromyogram," which is a record of the electrical activity of a muscle. Page Ref: 93 Learning Obj.: 6-7 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Abbreviations

173) Which of the following abbreviations is NOT a pathological condition? A) HNP B) CK C) MD D) CTS Answer: B Explanation: A) HNP means "herniated nucleus pulposus." This is a pathological condition. B) CK means "creatine kinase." C) MD means "muscular dystrophy." This is a pathological condition. D) CTS means "carpal tunnel syndrome." This is a pathological condition. Page Ref: 93 Learning Obj.: 6-7 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Abbreviations 174) Which of the following abbreviations is a diagnostic test? A) IM B) MD C) DXA D) OA Answer: C Explanation: A) IM means "intramuscular." This is not a diagnostic test. B) MD means "muscular dystrophy." This is not a diagnostic test. C) DXA means "dual-energy absorptiometry." This is a diagnostic test. D) OA means "osteoarthritis." This is not a diagnostic test. Page Ref: 93 Learning Obj.: 6-7 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Abbreviations 175) Which of the following abbreviations stands for a surgical procedure? A) TKA B) RLE C) OA D) Ca Answer: A Explanation: A) TKA stands for "total knee arthroplasty," which is a surgical procedure. B) RLE means "right lower extremity." C) OA means "osteoarthritis." D) Ca means "calcium." Page Ref: 93 Learning Obj.: 6-7 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Abbreviations

Match each term on the left with the correct definition on the right. A) a repetitive motion disorder B) muscle enzyme C) hard, calcified tissue D) bone used to replace lost bone E) shin bone F) damaged muscle or tendon G) joint with greatest range of motion H) autoimmune disease attacking the joints I) thigh bone J) serves as shock absorber K) test of muscle response to a reflex hammer L) instrument for viewing a joint M) tailbone N) common in weight-bearing joints O) brace or splint P) abnormal lateral curvature of spine Q) bone cancer R) realigning of bone fragments S) ankle bones T) moves the skeleton U) bone is shattered V) bones in joint are displaced W) lower jaw X) hunchback Y) ruptured disk 176) tarsus Page Ref: 76 Learning Obj.: 6-4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 177) tibia Page Ref: 76 Learning Obj.: 6-4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 178) coccyx Page Ref: 76 Learning Obj.: 6-4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology

179) synovial Page Ref: 75 Learning Obj.: 6-4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 180) cartilage Page Ref: 80 Learning Obj.: 6-2 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 181) mandible Page Ref: 76 Learning Obj.: 6-4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 182) femur Page Ref: 76 Learning Obj.: 6-4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 183) arthroscope Page Ref: 79 Learning Obj.: 6-5 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 184) carpal tunnel syndrome Page Ref: 86 Learning Obj.: 6-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 185) comminuted fracture Page Ref: 86 Learning Obj.: 6-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 186) osteogenic sarcoma Page Ref: 90 Learning Obj.: 6-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 49 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

187) bone Page Ref: 83 Learning Obj.: 6-4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 188) dislocation Page Ref: 87 Learning Obj.: 6-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 189) rheumatoid arthritis Page Ref: 91 Learning Obj.: 6-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 190) bone graft Page Ref: 85 Learning Obj.: 6-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 191) reduction Page Ref: 90 Learning Obj.: 6-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 192) HNP Page Ref: 88 Learning Obj.: 6-7 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Abbreviations 193) skeletal muscle Page Ref: 82 Learning Obj.: 6-2 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 194) kyphosis Page Ref: 88 Learning Obj.: 6-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 50 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

195) orthosis Page Ref: 89 Learning Obj.: 6-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 196) OA Page Ref: 89 Learning Obj.: 6-7 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Abbreviations 197) strain Page Ref: 91 Learning Obj.: 6-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 198) deep tendon reflex Page Ref: 87 Learning Obj.: 6-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 199) creatine kinase Page Ref: 86 Learning Obj.: 6-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 200) scoliosis Page Ref: 91 Learning Obj.: 6-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary Answers: 176) S 177) E 178) M 179) G 180) J 181) W 182) I 183) L 184) A 185) U 186) Q 187) C 188) V 189) H 190) D 191) R 192) Y 193) T 194) X 195) O 196) N 197) F 198) K 199) B 200) P

201) Describe the functions of bone. Answer: ∙ Supports and moves the body ∙ Provides vital protection to underlying organs such as heart, lungs, liver, and bladder ∙ Houses bone marrow; red bone marrow produces all blood cells ∙ Serves as storehouse for important minerals such as calcium Page Ref: 83 Learning Obj.: 6-2 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 202) Describe the different types of fractures. Answer: ∙ Closed fracture: broken bone with no open skin wound; also called simple fracture ∙ Compound fracture: broken bone with open skin wound; also called open fracture ∙ Comminuted fracture: bone shatters into many small fragments ∙ Compression fracture: bone break causes loss of height of vertebral body ∙ Greenstick fracture: one side of the bone breaks and the other side only bends ∙ Impacted fracture: one bone fragment is pushed into another ∙ Oblique fracture: fracture line runs along an angle to the shaft of the bone ∙ Pathologic fracture: break caused by diseased or weakened bone, not trauma ∙ Spiral fracture: fracture line spirals around the shaft of the bone ∙ Stress fracture: slight bone break caused by repetitive, low-impact forces ∙ Transverse fracture: fracture line straight across the shaft of the bone Page Ref: 86-92 Learning Obj.: 6-6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary

Medical Terminology: Get Connected!, 3e (Frucht) Chapter 7 Cardiology: Cardiovascular System All answers to questions asking for a combining form must be written in the combining form style, meaning word root/combining vowel. For example, the combining form meaning "heart" is cardi/o. All answers to questions asking for a suffix must be written in suffix form, meaning a hyphen before your answer. For example, the suffix meaning "cell" is -cyte. All answers to questions asking for a prefix must be written in prefix form, meaning a hyphen after your answer. For example, a prefix meaning "two" is bi-. Do NOT capitalize any of your answers or include a period at the end of your answer. The computer will NOT recognize your answer as correct if it is written in any other style. 1) A combining form other than ven/o that means vein is ________. Answer: phleb/o; phlebo Page Ref: 106 Learning Obj.: 7-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 2) The combining form that means ventricle is ________. Answer: ventricul/o; ventriculo Page Ref: 106 Learning Obj.: 7-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 3) The combining form angi/o means ________. Answer: vessel Page Ref: 106 Learning Obj.: 7-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 4) The combining form that means aorta is ________. Answer: aort/o; aorto Page Ref: 106 Learning Obj.: 7-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 5) The combining form that means artery is ________. Answer: arteri/o; arterio Page Ref: 106 Learning Obj.: 7-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 1 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

6) The combining form that means fatty substance or plaque is ________. Answer: ather/o; athero Page Ref: 106 Learning Obj.: 7-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 7) The combining form that means atrium is ________. Answer: atri/o; atrio Page Ref: 106 Learning Obj.: 7-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 8) A combining form other than cardi/o that means heart is ________. Answer: coron/o; corono Page Ref: 106 Learning Obj.: 7-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 9) A combining form other than vas/o that means blood vessel is ________. Answer: vascul/o; vasculo Page Ref: 106 Learning Obj.: 7-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 10) The combining form that means pulse is ________. Answer: sphygm/o; sphygmo Page Ref: 106 Learning Obj.: 7-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 11) A combining form other than valv/o that means valve is ________. Answer: valvul/o; valvulo Page Ref: 106 Learning Obj.: 7-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

12) A combining form that means clot is ________. Answer: thromb/o; thrombo Page Ref: 106 Learning Obj.: 7-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 13) The combining form that means plug is ________. Answer: embol/o; embolo Page Ref: 106 Learning Obj.: 7-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 14) A suffix that means instrument for measuring pressure is ________. Answer: -manometer; manometer Page Ref: 106 Learning Obj.: 7-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 15) A suffix other than -ole that means small is ________. Answer: -ule; ule Page Ref: 107 Learning Obj.: 7-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 16) A suffix that means hardening is ________. Answer: -sclerosis; sclerosis Page Ref: 107 Learning Obj.: 7-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 17) A prefix that means slow is ________. Answer: brady-; brady Page Ref: 107 Learning Obj.: 7-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

18) A prefix that means excessive is ________. Answer: hyper-; hyper Page Ref: 107 Learning Obj.: 7-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 19) A medical term that means record of a vessel is ________. Answer: angiogram Page Ref: 109 Learning Obj.: 7-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building 20) A medical term that means involuntary muscle spasm in a vessel is ________. Answer: angiospasm Page Ref: 109 Learning Obj.: 7-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building 21) A medical term that means pertaining to an artery is ________. Answer: arterial Page Ref: 110 Learning Obj.: 7-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building 22) A medical term that means small artery is ________. Answer: arteriole Page Ref: 110 Learning Obj.: 7-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building 23) A medical term that means abnormal condition of (having a) dilated vein is ________. Answer: varicosis Page Ref: 114 Learning Obj.: 7-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building

24) A medical term that means surgical removal of plaque is ________. Answer: atherectomy Page Ref: 110 Learning Obj.: 7-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building 25) A medical term that means pertaining to the atrium is ________. Answer: atrial Page Ref: 110 Learning Obj.: 7-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building 26) A medical term that means pertaining to between the atria is ________. Answer: interatrial Page Ref: 110 Learning Obj.: 7-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building 27) A medical term that means slow heart condition is ________. Answer: bradycardia Page Ref: 116 Learning Obj.: 7-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building 28) A medical term that means enlarged heart is ________. Answer: cardiomegaly Page Ref: 111 Learning Obj.: 7-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building 29) A medical term that means one who studies the heart is ________. Answer: cardiologist Page Ref: 111 Learning Obj.: 7-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building

30) A medical term that means fast heart condition is ________. Answer: tachycardia Page Ref: 122 Learning Obj.: 7-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building 31) A medical term that means vein inflammation is ________. Answer: phlebitis Page Ref: 112 Learning Obj.: 7-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building 32) A medical term other than cardiac that means pertaining to the heart is ________. Answer: coronary Page Ref: 112 Learning Obj.: 7-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building 33) A medical term that means surgical repair of a valve is ________. Answer: valvoplasty Page Ref: 113 Learning Obj.: 7-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building 34) A medical term that means inflammation of a valve is ________. Answer: valvulitis Page Ref: 113 Learning Obj.: 7-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building 35) A medical term that means pertaining to the atrium and ventricle is ________. Answer: atrioventricular Page Ref: 110 Learning Obj.: 7-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building

36) A medical term that means hardening of plaque is ________. Answer: atherosclerosis Page Ref: 110 Learning Obj.: 7-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building 37) A medical term that means pertaining to heart muscle is ________. Answer: myocardial Page Ref: 111 Learning Obj.: 7-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building 38) A medical term that means record of heart's electrical (activity) is ________. Answer: electrocardiogram Page Ref: 111 Learning Obj.: 7-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building 39) A medical term that means pertaining to a valve is ________. Answer: valvular Page Ref: 113 Learning Obj.: 7-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building 40) A medical term that means pertaining to a vein is ________. Answer: venous Page Ref: 114 Learning Obj.: 7-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building 41) A medical term that means small vein is ________. Answer: venule Page Ref: 114 Learning Obj.: 7-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building

42) A medical term that means abnormal condition of (having) clots is ________. Answer: thrombosis Page Ref: 113 Learning Obj.: 7-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building 43) A medical term that means pertaining to a ventricle is ________. Answer: ventricular Page Ref: 114 Learning Obj.: 7-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building 44) A medical term that means pertaining to between the ventricles is ________. Answer: interventricular Page Ref: 114 Learning Obj.: 7-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building 45) A medical term that means study of the heart is ________. Answer: cardiology Page Ref: 111 Learning Obj.: 7-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building 46) A medical term that means instrument to measure pressure of the pulse is ________. Answer: sphygmomanometer Page Ref: 121 Learning Obj.: 7-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building 47) A medical term that means disease of the heart muscle is ________. Answer: cardiomyopathy Page Ref: 111 Learning Obj.: 7-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building

48) A medical term that means pertaining to around the heart is ________. Answer: pericardial Page Ref: 111 Learning Obj.: 7-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building 49) A medical term that means hardening of an artery is ________. Answer: arteriosclerosis Page Ref: 113 Learning Obj.: 7-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building 50) A medical term that means pertaining to inner (lining) of the heart is ________. Answer: endocardial Page Ref: 111 Learning Obj.: 7-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building 51) The cardiovascular system consists of the heart and blood vessels. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 106 Learning Obj.: 7-2 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 52) Blood is carried away from the heart by veins. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Blood is carried toward the heart by veins. Page Ref: 106 Learning Obj.: 7-2 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 53) Heart valves prevent backflow of blood. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 110 Learning Obj.: 7-2 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology

54) The ventricles are the smaller pumping chambers of the heart. Answer: FALSE Explanation: The ventricles are the larger pumping chambers of the heart. Page Ref: 114 Learning Obj.: 7-2 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 55) There are four valves in the heart. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 110 Learning Obj.: 7-2 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 56) Oxygen and nutrients are delivered to tissues by veins. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Oxygen and nutrients are delivered to tissues by capillaries. Page Ref: 106 Learning Obj.: 7-2 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 57) The heart is composed of muscle tissue. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 106 Learning Obj.: 7-2 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 58) The aorta carries blood from the right ventricle to the body. Answer: FALSE Explanation: The aorta carries blood from the left ventricle to the body. Page Ref: 109 Learning Obj.: 7-2 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 59) Arteries carry oxygenated blood to the lungs. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Arteries carry oxygenated blood to capillary beds. Page Ref: 106 Learning Obj.: 7-2 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology

60) The combining form angi/o can be used to refer to either blood vessels or lymph vessels. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 109 Learning Obj.: 7-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 61) An infarct is a fatty deposit of lipids in an artery. Answer: FALSE Explanation: A plaque is a fatty deposit of lipids in an artery. Page Ref: 110 Learning Obj.: 7-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 62) A sphygmomanometer is commonly called a blood pressure cuff. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 121 Learning Obj.: 7-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 63) Congestive heart failure develops as a result of a heart murmur. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Congestive heart failure develops as a result of the heart muscle not being able to pump blood forcefully enough. Page Ref: 116 Learning Obj.: 7-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 64) A stethoscope is used for auscultation. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 115 Learning Obj.: 7-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 65) An infarct is an abnormal heart sound. Answer: FALSE Explanation: A heart murmur is an abnormal heart sound. Page Ref: 118 Learning Obj.: 7-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary

66) In an infarct, an area of tissue in an organ undergoes necrosis. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 119 Learning Obj.: 7-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 67) A stent is an electrical device that artificially stimulates the heart muscle to contract. Answer: FALSE Explanation: A pacemaker is an electrical device that artificially stimulates the heart muscle to contract. Page Ref: 120 Learning Obj.: 7-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 68) The atria receive blood returning to the heart. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 110 Learning Obj.: 7-2 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 69) A sphygmomanometer is used for auscultation. Answer: FALSE Explanation: A stethoscope is used for auscultation. Page Ref: 115 Learning Obj.: 7-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 70) The medical term arrhythmia refers to an irregular heartbeat. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 115 Learning Obj.: 7-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 71) Bradycardia means "fast heartbeat." Answer: FALSE Explanation: Bradycardia means "slow heartbeat." Page Ref: 115 Learning Obj.: 7-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary

72) A heart murmur may sound like a soft blowing sound or a harsh click. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 118 Learning Obj.: 7-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 73) An aneurysm is the widening of a vein. Answer: FALSE Explanation: An aneurysm is the widening of an artery. Page Ref: 115 Learning Obj.: 7-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 74) A Holter monitor is worn by the patient for at least a few hours. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 119 Learning Obj.: 7-6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary 75) An embolus is a stationary clot forming inside a blood vessel. Answer: FALSE Explanation: A thrombus is a stationary clot forming inside a blood vessel. Page Ref: 113 Learning Obj.: 7-6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary 76) Streptokinase is an example of a medication used for intravascular thrombolytic therapy. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 119 Learning Obj.: 7-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 77) Intraventricular means "pertaining to between the ventricles." Answer: FALSE Explanation: Interventricular means "pertaining to between the ventricles." Page Ref: 114 Learning Obj.: 7-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building

78) A catheter is a thin tube inserted into the body. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 116 Learning Obj.: 7-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 79) In heart valve prolapse, the flaps of the heart valve are too stiff. Answer: FALSE Explanation: In heart valve stenosis, the flaps of the heart valve are too stiff. Page Ref: 118 Learning Obj.: 7-6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary 80) Angina pectoris may be a symptom of a heart attack. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 119 Learning Obj.: 7-6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary 81) PTCA is surgery in which a blood vessel is grafted around an occluded coronary artery. Answer: FALSE Explanation: CABG is surgery in which a blood vessel is grafted around an occluded coronary artery. Page Ref: 117 Learning Obj.: 7-6, 7-7 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Abbreviations 82) An occlusion is a blockage of a blood vessel. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 120 Learning Obj.: 7-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 83) Congenital septal defects always affect the atria. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Congenital septal defects may affect the atria or ventricles. Page Ref: 116 Learning Obj.: 7-6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary

84) Myocardial infarction is a heart attack. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 119 Learning Obj.: 7-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 85) DVT usually occurs in the arteries of the legs. Answer: FALSE Explanation: DVT usually occurs in the veins of the legs. Page Ref: 117 Learning Obj.: 7-6, 7-7 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Abbreviations 86) A thrombus is a blood clot forming within a blood vessel. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 113 Learning Obj.: 7-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 87) Myocarditis is disease of the heart muscle. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Cardiomyopathy is disease of the heart muscle. Page Ref: 111 Learning Obj.: 7-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary 88) An endarterectomy may be performed to remove plaques from an artery. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 118 Learning Obj.: 7-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 89) Hypertension means "low blood pressure." Answer: FALSE Explanation: Hypertension means "high blood pressure." Page Ref: 119 Learning Obj.: 7-6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary

90) An increase in the blood levels of complex proteins known as cardiac biomarkers indicates damage to the heart muscle. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 116 Learning Obj.: 7-6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary 91) Cardiac catheterization is used to record the electrical activity of the heart muscle. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Electrocardiography is used to record the electrical activity of the heart muscle. Page Ref: 118 Learning Obj.: 7-6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary 92) Doppler ultrasonography is used to measure blood pressure. Answer: FALSE Explanation: A sphygmomanometer is used to measure blood pressure. Page Ref: 121 Learning Obj.: 7-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 93) CPR is a combination of chest compressions and rescue breathing. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 116 Learning Obj.: 7-6, 7-7 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Abbreviations 94) Percutaneous transluminal coronary angioplasty uses a balloon to dilate a narrowed blood vessel. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 121 Learning Obj.: 7-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 95) An embolectomy is a surgical procedure used to remove an aneurysm. Answer: FALSE Explanation: An embolectomy is a surgical procedure used to remove a floating blood clot. Page Ref: 112 Learning Obj.: 7-5 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 16 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

96) A pacemaker artificially stimulates contraction of heart muscle. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 120 Learning Obj.: 7-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 97) Defibrillation is an abnormal quivering of heart fibers. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Fibrillation is an abnormal quivering of heart fibers. Page Ref: 118 Learning Obj.: 7-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 98) A thrombolytic medication dissolves clots. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 119 Learning Obj.: 7-6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary 99) An EMG is the record of the electrical activity of the heart. Answer: FALSE Explanation: An EKG is the record of the electrical activity of the heart. Page Ref: 123 Learning Obj.: 7-6, 7-7 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Abbreviations 100) The abbreviation CABG refers to open-heart surgery. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 117 Learning Obj.: 7-6, 7-7 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Abbreviations

101) Which of the following organs is NOT part of the cardiovascular system? A) Artery B) Spleen C) Vein D) Capillary Answer: B Explanation: A) Arteries are part of the cardiovascular system. B) The spleen is not part of the cardiovascular system. C) Veins are part of the cardiovascular system. D) Capillaries are part of the cardiovascular system. Page Ref: 106 Learning Obj.: 7-2 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 102) Which of the following pairs of statements is NOT correctly matched? A) Heart—pumps blood B) Arteries—sites of oxygen exchange with the tissues of the body C) Capillaries—narrowest blood vessels D) Veins—carry blood back to the heart Answer: B Explanation: A) The heart contracts to push blood through the blood vessels. B) The capillaries, not arteries, are the point at which oxygen and nutrients are delivered to local tissues. C) Capillaries are the narrowest blood vessels. D) Veins carry blood back to the heart. Page Ref: 106 Learning Obj.: 7-2 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 103) Cardiovascular technologists perform all of the following EXCEPT ________. A) electrocardiography B) echocardiography C) exercise stress tests D) coronary artery bypass grafts Answer: D Explanation: A) A cardiovascular technologist performs electrocardiography. B) A cardiovascular technologist performs echocardiography. C) A cardiovascular technologist performs exercise stress tests. D) Cardiovascular surgeons, not technologists, perform coronary artery bypass grafts. Page Ref: 106 Learning Obj.: 7-1 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Medical Specialties

104) Which of the following combining forms means a "dilated vein"? A) vas/o B) vascul/o C) ven/o D) varic/o Answer: D Explanation: A) Vas/o means "blood vessel." B) Vascul/o means "blood vessel." C) Ven/o means "vein." D) Varic/o means "dilated vein." Page Ref: 106 Learning Obj.: 7-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 105) Which of the following statements regarding the heart is NOT true? A) The heart has four chambers. B) The heart is divided into left and right halves by the septum. C) The heart is composed of smooth muscle fibers. D) The heart is a muscular pump. Answer: C Explanation: A) The heart has four chambers: the right and left atria and right and left ventricles. B) The heart is divided into left and right halves by the septum. C) The heart is composed of cardiac muscle tissue, not smooth muscle fibers. D) The heart is a muscular pump. Page Ref: 106 Learning Obj.: 7-4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 106) The inner lining of the heart is called the ________. A) endocardium B) epicardium C) pericardium D) myocardium Answer: A Explanation: A) The endocardium is the inner lining of the heart. B) Epicardium means "above the heart." C) Pericardium means "around the heart." D) Myocardium is the muscular layer of the heart. Page Ref: 110 Learning Obj.: 7-4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology

107) Which layer of the heart is responsible for contracting in order to pump blood? A) Endocardium B) Epicardium C) Pericardium D) Myocardium Answer: D Explanation: A) Endocardium is the inner lining of the heart. B) Epicardium means "above the heart." C) Pericardium means "around the heart." D) The myocardium is the muscular layer that contracts to push blood through blood vessels. Page Ref: 110 Learning Obj.: 7-2 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 108) Which of the following statements regarding the atria is NOT true? A) Atria are the upper chambers. B) The two atria are separated by a septum. C) Atria pump blood out of the heart. D) Atria receive blood into the heart. Answer: C Explanation: A) The atria are the upper chambers of the heart. B) The two atria are separated by a septum. C) Atria do not pump blood out of the heart. They receive blood returning to the heart. D) The atria receive blood into the heart from the body and lungs. Page Ref: 110 Learning Obj.: 7-2 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 109) Which of the following statements regarding the ventricles is NOT true? A) Ventricles are the pumping chambers. B) The left ventricle pumps blood to the lungs. C) Ventricles are very muscular. D) Ventricles pump blood into the great arteries. Answer: B Explanation: A) Ventricles are the pumping chambers. B) The left ventricle pumps blood into the aorta for the body, not the lungs. C) Ventricles are very muscular. D) Ventricles pump blood into the aorta and pulmonary trunk and pulmonary arteries. Page Ref: 114 Learning Obj.: 7-2 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology

110) Which term means "enlarged heart"? A) Cardiomegaly B) Cardiodynia C) Cardiospasm D) Cardiorrhexis Answer: A Explanation: A) Cardiomegaly means "enlarged heart." Cardi/o means "heart," and -megaly means "enlarged." B) Cardiodynia means "heart pain." Cardi/o means "heart," and -dynia means "pain." C) Cardiospasm means "involuntary muscle contraction of the heart." Cardi/o means "heart," and -spasm means "involuntary muscle contraction." D) Cardiorrhexis means "ruptured heart." Cardi/o means "heart," and -rrhexis means "rupture." Page Ref: 111 Learning Obj.: 7-5 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 111) Which of the following statements regarding heart valves is NOT true? A) They are flaplike structures. B) There are four valves in the heart. C) They prevent backflow of blood. D) They must remain tightly closed in order to work properly. Answer: D Explanation: A) Valves are flaplike structures. B) There are four valves in the heart: tricuspid, mitral, pulmonary, and aortic. C) Valves close tightly to prevent backflow of blood. D) Valves must be able to both open and close in order to work properly. Page Ref: 113 Learning Obj.: 7-2 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 112) The flaps of heart valves are also called ________. A) cusps B) vents C) stents D) infarcts Answer: A Explanation: A) The flaps of heart valves are also called cusps. B) The flaps of heart valves are not called vents. C) Stents are stainless steel tubes places within a blood vessel to widen the lumen. D) An infarct is an area of tissue necrosis that develops from ischemia. Page Ref: 118 Learning Obj.: 7-2 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 21 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

113) The term pericardium means "pertaining to ________ the heart." A) inside B) around C) under D) within Answer: B Explanation: A) Endo- means "inner." Peri- means "around." B) Peri- means "around." C) Peri- does not mean "under." D) Endo- or intra- mean "within." Peri- means "around." Page Ref: 111 Learning Obj.: 7-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 114) Blood exits the left ventricle of the heart into the ________. A) aorta B) vena cavae C) veins D) capillaries Answer: A Explanation: A) Blood exits the left ventricle of the heart into the aorta. B) Blood flows from the vena cavae into the right atrium of the heart. C) Veins carry blood back to the heart. D) Capillaries are the site of oxygen, nutrient, and waste exchange between the blood and the local tissues. Page Ref: 111 Learning Obj.: 7-2 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 115) Veins carry blood ________. A) back to the heart B) to the lungs C) to the body D) away from the ventricles Answer: A Explanation: A) Veins carry blood back to the heart. B) The pulmonary arteries carry blood toward the lungs. C) Arteries carry blood to the body. D) Arteries carry blood away from the ventricles. Page Ref: 106 Learning Obj.: 7-2 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology

116) The largest artery in the body is the ________. A) vena cava B) pulmonary artery C) aorta D) pulmonary trunk Answer: C Explanation: A) The vena cava is a vein, not an artery. B) The pulmonary artery is not the largest artery in the body. C) The aorta is the largest artery in the body. D) The pulmonary trunk is not the largest artery in the body. Page Ref: 109 Learning Obj.: 7-4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 117) Which of the following is NOT a valve of the heart? A) Tricuspid B) Mitral C) Pulmonary D) Cardiac Answer: D Explanation: A) The tricuspid valve is between the right atrium and right ventricle. B) The mitral valve is between the left atrium and left ventricle. C) The pulmonary valve is between the left ventricle and pulmonary trunk. D) Cardiac is not one of the valves of the heart. Page Ref: 113 Learning Obj.: 7-4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 118) An embolus is a piece that has broken off which of the following? A) Clot B) Tissue C) Vessel D) Stent Answer: A Explanation: A) An embolus is a piece that has broken off of a clot, or it could be a mass of fat or bacteria floating through the blood until it blocks blood flow. B) An embolus is not a piece that has broken off of tissue. C) An embolus is not a piece that has broken off of a vessel. D) An embolus is not a piece that has broken off of a stent. Page Ref: 112 Learning Obj.: 7-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary

119) Which term means "condition of blood being held back"? A) Ischemia B) Fibrillation C) Infarct D) Atherosclerosis Answer: A Explanation: A) Ischemia is the "condition of blood being held back." B) Fibrillation means "quivering of heart fibers." C) An infarct is an area of tissue necrosis from ischemia. D) Atherosclerosis is fatty plaque deposits on an artery wall. Page Ref: 112 Learning Obj.: 7-5 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 120) Which term means "vessel inflammation with clots"? A) Thrombogenic B) Thromboangiitis C) Thrombophlebitis D) Thrombovenitis Answer: B Explanation: A) Thrombogenic means "producing a clot." B) Thromboangiitis means "vessel inflammation with clots." C) Thrombophlebitis means "inflammation and clots in a vein." D) Thrombovenitis means "clots in a vein." Page Ref: 113 Learning Obj.: 7-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building 121) The narrowest blood vessels are called ________. A) arteries B) veins C) capillaries D) venules Answer: C Explanation: A) Arteries are not the narrowest blood vessels. B) Veins are not the narrowest blood vessels. C) Capillaries are the narrowest blood vessels. D) Venules are not the narrowest blood vessels. Page Ref: 106 Learning Obj.: 7-2 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology

122) The smallest arteries are called ________. A) arteriules B) capillaries C) arteriums D) arterioles Answer: D Explanation: A) Arteriules is not a correct anatomic term. B) Capillaries are not the smallest arteries. C) Arteriums is not a correct anatomic term. D) Arterioles are the smallest arteries. Page Ref: 110 Learning Obj.: 7-2 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 123) Which of the following statements regarding the myocardium is NOT true? A) It is smooth to reduce friction. B) It is composed of cardiac muscle. C) It contracts. D) It develops the pressure to push blood through blood vessels. Answer: A Explanation: A) The endocardium, not the myocardium, is smooth to reduce friction. B) The myocardium is composed of cardiac muscle. C) The myocardium contracts to push blood through blood vessels. D) The myocardium contracts to develop the pressure needed to push blood through blood vessels. Page Ref: 110 Learning Obj.: 7-2 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 124) Arteries carry ________. A) deoxygenated blood to the body B) oxygenated blood to the lungs C) oxygenated blood to capillary beds D) deoxygenated blood to the heart Answer: C Explanation: A) Arteries carry oxygenated blood to the body. B) Arteries carry deoxygenated blood to the lungs. C) Arteries carry oxygenated blood to capillary beds. D) Veins carry deoxygenated blood to the heart. Page Ref: 106 Learning Obj.: 7-2 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology

125) The exchange of oxygen and nutrients from the blood into the body tissues occurs in the ________. A) heart B) aorta C) lungs D) capillary beds Answer: D Explanation: A) The exchange of oxygen and nutrients from the blood into the body tissues does not occur in the heart. B) The exchange of oxygen and nutrients from the blood into the body tissues does not occur in the aorta. C) The exchange of oxygen and nutrients from the blood into the body tissues does not occur in the lungs. D) The exchange of oxygen and nutrients from the blood into the body tissues occurs in the capillary beds. Page Ref: 106 Learning Obj.: 7-2 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 126) Which combining form means "chest"? A) Angi/o B) Steth/o C) Phleb/o D) Sphygm/o Answer: B Explanation: A) Angi/o means "vessel." B) Steth/o means "chest." C) Phleb/o means "vein." D) Sphygm/o means "pulse." Page Ref: 106 Learning Obj.: 7-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

127) Which term means "pertaining to between the atria"? A) Intraatrial B) Interarterial C) Interatrial D) Transatrial Answer: C Explanation: A) Intra- means "within," not "between." B) Arteri means "artery," not "atria." C) Inter- means "between," atri/o means "atrium," and -al means "pertaining to." D) Trans- means "across," not "between." Page Ref: 110 Learning Obj.: 7-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building 128) Which term means "hardening of an artery"? A) Arteriosclerosis B) Arteriostenosis C) Angiosclerosis D) Atherosclerosis Answer: A Explanation: A) Arteriosclerosis means "hardening of an artery." B) Arteriostenosis means "narrowing of an artery." C) Angiosclerosis means "hardening of a vessel." D) Atherosclerosis means "hardening of plaque." Page Ref: 113 Learning Obj.: 7-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building 129) The term for heart pain is ________. A) cardiorrhexis B) cardiostenosis C) cardiosclerosis D) cardiomegaly Answer: D Explanation: A) Cardiorrhexis means "ruptured heart." B) Cardiostenosis means "narrowing of the heart." C) Cardiosclerosis means "hardening of the heart." D) Cardiodynia means "heart pain." Page Ref: 111 Learning Obj.: 7-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building

130) Which combining form is for a structure NOT found inside the heart? A) Atri/o B) Phleb/o C) Valvul/o D) Ventricul/o Answer: B Explanation: A) Atri/o is the combining form for atrium, which is found inside the heart. B) Phleb/o is the combining form for vein, which is not found inside the heart. C) Valvul/o is the combining form for valve, which is found inside the heart. D) Ventricul/o is the combining form for ventricle, which is found inside the heart. Page Ref: 106 Learning Obj.: 7-4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 131) A heart specialist would be called a ________. A) cardiologist B) phlebotomist C) coronologist D) hemangiologist Answer: A Explanation: A) A heart specialist is called a cardiologist. B) A phlebotomist specializes in drawing blood from veins. C) A coronologist is not the term used to refer to a heart specialist. D) A hemangiologist is not the term used to refer to a heart specialist. Page Ref: 106 Learning Obj.: 7-1 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Medical Specialties 132) Which term means "high blood pressure"? A) Hypermanometer B) Hypotension C) Hypertension D) Supratension Answer: C Explanation: A) Hypermanometer does not mean "high blood pressure." B) Hypotension means "low blood pressure." C) Hypertension means "high blood pressure." D) Supratension does not mean "high blood pressure." Page Ref: 119 Learning Obj.: 7-6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary

133) Which term means "process of recording a vessel"? A) Angiogram B) Arteriography C) Electrocardiography D) Angiography Answer: D Explanation: A) Angiogram means "record of a vessel." B) Arteriography means "process of recording an artery." C) Hemangiography means "process of recording the heart's electrical (activity)." D) Angiography means "process of recording a vessel." Page Ref: 109 Learning Obj.: 7-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building 134) Which term means "listening to the sounds within the body"? A) Stethoscope B) Auscultation C) Prolapse D) Murmur Answer: B Explanation: A) A stethoscope is an instrument used to listen to body sounds. B) Auscultation means "listening to the sounds within the body." C) A prolapse occurs when flaps of the heart valve are too loose and fail to shut tightly. D) A heart murmur is an abnormal heart sound. Page Ref: 115 Learning Obj.: 7-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 135) Which term is a yellow, fatty deposit in a blood vessel? A) Fibrillation B) Angina C) Plaque D) Stent Answer: C Explanation: A) Fibrillation is an abnormal quivering or contraction of heart fibers. B) Angina pectoris refers to severe chest pain. C) Plaque is a soft, yellow, fatty deposit that builds up along the inner wall of blood vessels. D) A stent is a stainless steel tube placed within the blood vessel or duct to widen the lumen. Page Ref: 110 Learning Obj.: 7-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary

136) Which term means "fast heartbeat"? A) Fibrillation B) Tachycardia C) Hypercardia D) Bradycardia Answer: B Explanation: A) Fibrillation is an abnormal quivering or contraction of heart fibers. B) Tachycardia means "fast heartbeat." C) Hypercardia is not the term used for fast heartbeat. D) Bradycardia means "slow heartbeat." Page Ref: 122 Learning Obj.: 7-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 137) Streptokinase and tissue plasminogen activator are used for ________. A) hypertension B) defibrillation C) open-heart surgery D) thrombolytic therapy Answer: D Explanation: A) Streptokinase and tissue plasminogen activator are two drugs used for intravascular thrombolytic therapy, not hypertension. B) Streptokinase and tissue plasminogen activator are two drugs used for intravascular thrombolytic therapy, not defibrillation. C) Streptokinase and tissue plasminogen activator are two drugs used for intravascular thrombolytic therapy, not open-heart surgery. D) Streptokinase and tissue plasminogen activator are two drugs used for intravascular thrombolytic therapy. Page Ref: 119 Learning Obj.: 7-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary

138) What is the name of the stainless steel tube placed within a blood vessel? A) Bruit B) Stent C) Plaque D) Cardioverter Answer: B Explanation: A) A bruit is a type of murmur heart over an obstructed artery. B) A stent is a stainless steel tube placed within a blood vessel to widen the lumen. C) Plaque is a soft, yellow, fatty deposit in blood vessels. D) A cardioverter is another name for a defibrillator. Page Ref: 121 Learning Obj.: 7-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 139) The complete stoppage of heart activity is called ________. A) cardiac arrest B) fibrillation C) myocardial infarction D) angina pectoris Answer: A Explanation: A) A complete stoppage of heart activity is called cardiac arrest. B) Fibrillation is an abnormal quivering or contraction of heart fibers. C) Myocardial infarction is a heart attack. D) Angina pectoris is chest pain. Page Ref: 116 Learning Obj.: 7-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 140) Which condition is the severe chest pain associated with myocardial ischemia? A) Congestive heart failure B) Cardiomegaly C) Angina pectoris D) Coronary artery disease Answer: C Explanation: A) Congestive heart failure is a condition that develops when heart muscle is not able to pump blood forcefully enough. B) Cardiomegaly is an enlarged heart. C) Angina pectoris is severe chest pain associated with myocardial ischemia. D) Coronary artery disease is a chronic heart disease caused by arteriosclerosis or atherosclerosis of the coronary arteries. Page Ref: 115 Learning Obj.: 7-6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary 31 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

141) In which condition is the heart muscle too weak to pump efficiently? A) Heart valve prolapse B) Congestive heart failure C) Myocarditis D) Endocarditis Answer: B Explanation: A) In a heart valve prolapse, the flaps of the heart valve are too loose and fail to shut tightly. B) In congestive heart failure, the heart muscle is too weak to pump efficiently. C) Myocarditis is inflammation of the heart muscle. D) Endocarditis is inflammation of the endocardial layer of the heart. Page Ref: 116 Learning Obj.: 7-6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary 142) In bacterial endocarditis, the mass of bacteria that forms is referred to as ________. A) atheroma B) plaque C) pyoma D) vegetation Answer: D Explanation: A) Atheroma is the accumulation of material from the degeneration of the arterial wall. B) Plaque refers to the soft, yellow, fatty deposits that build up along the inner wall of blood vessels. C) Pyoma does not refer to the mass of bacteria that forms in bacterial endocarditis. D) The mass of bacteria that forms in bacterial endocarditis is referred to as vegetation. Page Ref: 115 Learning Obj.: 7-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 143) Fibrillation means that the ________. A) heart muscle is quivering B) heart is beating too fast C) heart has stopped beating D) heart has suffered a heart attack Answer: A Explanation: A) Fibrillation means that the heart muscle is quivering. B) Tachycardia is when the heart is beating too fast. C) Asystole is when the heart has stopped beating. D) Myocardial infarction is a heart attack. Page Ref: 118 Learning Obj.: 7-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 32 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

144) In which of the following conditions is a heart valve too loose? A) Valvorrhexis B) Valve prolapse C) Valvulitis D) Valve stenosis Answer: B Explanation: A) Valvorrhexis means rupture of a valve. B) In a heart valve prolapse, the flaps of the heart valve are too loose and fail to shut tightly. C) Valvulitis means valve inflammation. D) In heart valve stenosis, the flaps of the heart valve are too stiff and are unable to open fully. Page Ref: 118 Learning Obj.: 7-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 145) Valve stenosis means the valve is too ________. A) large B) loose C) small D) stiff Answer: D Explanation: A) Stenosis does not mean that the valve is too large. B) Valve prolapse is used to refer to valves that are too loose. C) Stenosis does not mean that the valve is too small. D) In heart valve stenosis, the flaps of the heart valve are too stiff and unable to open fully. Page Ref: 118 Learning Obj.: 7-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 146) Which of the following is a floating clot that has broken off a clot somewhere else in the body? A) Embolus B) Infarct C) Aneurysm D) Thrombus Answer: A Explanation: A) An embolus is a floating clot that has broken off a clot somewhere else in the body. B) An infarct is an area of necrotic tissue. C) An aneurysm is a weakness in an arterial wall. D) A thrombus is a stationary blood clot. Page Ref: 112 Learning Obj.: 7-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 33 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

147) Which of the following conditions is a birth defect? A) Congestive heart failure B) Deep vein thrombosis C) Congenital septal defect D) Infarct Answer: C Explanation: A) Congestive heart failure is not a birth defect. B) Deep vein thrombosis is not a birth defect. C) A congenital septal defect is a birth defect. D) An infarct is not a birth defect. Page Ref: 116 Learning Obj.: 7-6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary 148) A weakened and dilated artery is called a(n) ________. A) arteriosclerosis B) aneurysm C) varicosity D) atherosclerosis Answer: B Explanation: A) Arteriosclerosis is the hardening of an artery. B) An aneurysm is a weakened and dilated artery. C) A varicosity is an abnormal condition of a dilated vein. D) Atherosclerosis is a fatty plaque deposit in an artery. Page Ref: 115 Learning Obj.: 7-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 149) Which of the following terms describes inflammation causing the formation of blood clots within the vein? A) Thrombogenic B) Thromboangiitis C) Thrombolytic D) Thrombophlebitis Answer: D Explanation: A) Thrombogenic means "producing clots." B) Thromboangiitis means "vessel inflammation with clots." C) Thrombolytic means "destruction of clots." D) Thrombophlebitis means "inflammation of a vein with clots." Page Ref: 113 Learning Obj.: 7-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building

150) Which of the following diagnostic procedures is a blood test? A) Holter monitor B) Cardiac biomarkers C) Cardiac catheterization D) Stress test Answer: B Explanation: A) A Holter monitor is a portable ECG monitor worn by a patient for a few hours to a few days to assess heart and pulse activity. B) Cardiac biomarkers is a blood test to determine the amount of heart disease or damage based on the amount of complex proteins released by the heart muscle when it is damaged. C) Cardiac catheterization is the passing of a catheter through veins or arteries leading into the heart. D) A stress test is a method for evaluating cardiovascular fitness. Page Ref: 116 Learning Obj.: 7-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 151) Which of the following diagnostic procedures measures cardiovascular fitness? A) Cardiac biomarkers B) Auscultation C) Stress test D) Cardiopulmonary resuscitation Answer: C Explanation: A) Cardiac biomarkers is a blood test to determine the amount of heart disease or damage based on the amount of complex proteins released by the heart muscle when it is damaged. B) Auscultation is used to listen to sounds within the body. C) A stress test is used to measure cardiovascular fitness. D) Cardiopulmonary resuscitation uses a combination of external compressions and rescue breathing to maintain blood flow and air movement in and out of lungs during cardiac and respiratory arrest. Page Ref: 122 Learning Obj.: 7-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary

152) Which of the following diagnostic procedures can visualize internal cardiac structures? A) Intravascular thrombolytic therapy B) Stress test C) Electrocardiography D) Transesophageal echocardiography Answer: D Explanation: A) Intravascular thrombolytic therapy cannot visualize internal cardiac structures. B) A stress test cannot visualize internal cardiac structures. C) Electrocardiography cannot visualize internal cardiac structures. D) Transesophageal echocardiography can visualize internal cardiac structures. Page Ref: 122 Learning Obj.: 7-6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary 153) Which surgical procedure uses a blood vessel obtained from another part of the body? A) Coronary artery bypass graft B) Percutaneous transluminal coronary angioplasty C) Cardiac catheterization D) Intracoronary artery stent Answer: A Explanation: A) A coronary artery bypass graft uses a blood vessel obtained from another part of the body, usually a leg vein. B) Percutaneous transluminal coronary angioplasty does not use a blood vessel obtained from another part of the body. C) Cardiac catheterization does not use a blood vessel obtained from another part of the body. D) An intracoronary artery stent does not use a blood vessel obtained from another part of the body. Page Ref: 117 Learning Obj.: 7-6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary

154) Which of the following does NOT give information regarding the health of the heart? A) Transesophageal echocardiography B) Holter monitor C) Venipuncture D) Stress testing Answer: C Explanation: A) Transesophageal echocardiography is used to visualize internal cardiac structures, especially heart valves. B) A Holter monitor is used to assess heart and pulse activity as a person goes through activities of daily living. C) A venipuncture is used to withdraw blood or inject medication or fluids into a vein. D) Stress testing is a measure of evaluating cardiovascular fitness. Page Ref: 122 Learning Obj.: 7-6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary 155) Which therapeutic device is used to treat ventricular fibrillation? A) Intravascular thrombolytic therapy B) Implantable cardioverter defibrillator C) Stent D) Pacemaker Answer: B Explanation: A) Intravascular thrombolytic therapy is used to chemically dissolve clots in blood vessels. B) An implantable cardioverter defibrillator is used to treat potentially life-threatening arrhythmias such as fibrillation. C) A stent is used to treat atherosclerosis, not ventricular fibrillation. D) A pacemaker is used to treat bradycardia, not ventricular fibrillation. Page Ref: 119 Learning Obj.: 7-6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary

156) Which surgical procedure removes the damaged inner lining of an artery? A) Endarterectomy B) Coronary artery bypass graft C) Transesophageal echocardiography D) Embolectomy Answer: A Explanation: A) An endarterectomy removes the inner lining of an artery in order to remove plaques. B) A coronary artery bypass graft is an open-heart surgery in which a blood vessel is grafted to route blood around an occluded coronary artery. C) Transesophageal echocardiography uses a swallowed ultrasound head to better visualize internal cardiac structures. D) Embolectomy is the surgical removal of an embolus. Page Ref: 118 Learning Obj.: 7-6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary 157) Angina pectoris is ________. A) chest pain caused by myocardial ischemia B) a heart attack C) when the heart beats too fast D) complete stoppage of all heart activity Answer: A Explanation: A) Angina pectoris is chest pain caused by myocardial ischemia. B) A myocardial infarction is a heart attack. C) Tachycardia is a fast heartbeat. D) Cardiac arrest is the complete stoppage of all heart activity. Page Ref: 115 Learning Obj.: 7-6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary 158) Cardiac arrest is ________. A) fibrillation B) bradycardia C) stoppage of heart activity D) myocardial infarction Answer: C Explanation: A) Fibrillation is quivering of heart fibers. B) Bradycardia is a slow heartbeat. C) Cardiac arrest is the complete stoppage of all heart activity. D) Myocardial infarction is a heart attack. Page Ref: 116 Learning Obj.: 7-6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary 38 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

159) Which term means "process of recording a vein"? A) Phlebography B) Phlebotomy C) Venogram D) Phlebitis Answer: A Explanation: A) Phlebography means "process of recording a vein." B) Phlebotomy means "incision into a vein." C) Venogram means "record of a vein." D) Phlebitis means "inflammation of a vein." Page Ref: 112 Learning Obj.: 7-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building 160) Which of the following pairs of statements is NOT correctly matched? A) Tachycardia—abnormally fast heartbeat B) Fibrillation—using an instrument to shock the heart back to a normal rhythm C) Stent—placed in a coronary artery to widen it D) Stress test—evaluates cardiovascular fitness Answer: B Explanation: A) Tachycardia is an abnormally fast heartbeat. B) Defibrillation, not fibrillation, is using an instrument to shock the heart back to a normal rhythm. C) A stent is placed in a coronary artery to widen it. D) A stress test evaluates cardiovascular fitness. Page Ref: 117 Learning Obj.: 7-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary

161) Which of the following is an electrical device inside the chest cavity with electrodes to shock the heart? A) HR B) TEE C) ICD D) DVT Answer: C Explanation: A) HR stands for "heart rate." It is not an electrical device. B) TEE stands for "transesophageal echocardiogram." It is used to visualize internal cardiac structures, not shock the heart. C) ICD, or implantable cardioverter defibrillator, is an electrical device implanted in the chest cavity with electrodes to the heart. It applies shock to stop potentially life-threatening arrhythmias such as fibrillation. D) DVT stands for "deep vein thrombosis." It is not an electrical device. Page Ref: 119 Learning Obj.: 7-6, 7-7 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Abbreviations 162) Which of the following answer choices regarding heart valve stenosis is NOT true? A) Most often affects tricuspid valve B) Valve cusps too stiff C) Difficult for blood to flow through D) Valves unable to open fully Answer: A Explanation: A) Heart valve stenosis most often affects the mitral valve, not the tricuspid valve. B) In heart valve stenosis, the valve cusps are too stiff. C) In heart valve stenosis, the valve is only partially open, making it difficult for blood to flow through. D) In heart valve stenosis, the flaps of the heart valve are unable to open fully. Page Ref: 118 Learning Obj.: 7-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary

163) Which of the following statements regarding fibrillation is NOT true? A) It is the abnormal quivering of heart fibers. B) Atrial fibrillation is more dangerous than ventricular fibrillation. C) Ventricular fibrillation may cause death. D) Defibrillation may be necessary to give the heart a normal beat. Answer: B Explanation: A) Fibrillation is the abnormal quivering of heart fibers. B) Ventricular fibrillation is more dangerous than atrial fibrillation because it may result in cardiac arrest and death. C) Ventricular fibrillation may cause cardiac arrest and death. D) Defibrillation may be necessary to give the heart a normal beat. Page Ref: 118 Learning Obj.: 7-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 164) An endarterectomy removes ________. A) plaque B) a heart valve C) an aneurysm D) varicosity Answer: A Explanation: A) An endarterectomy removes the inner lining of an artery to remove plaques. B) An endarterectomy does not remove a heart valve. C) An endarterectomy does not remove an aneurysm. D) An endarterectomy does not remove a varicosity. Page Ref: 118 Learning Obj.: 7-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 165) Which term is misspelled? A) Angiplasty B) Arteriorrhexis C) Bradycardia D) Valvulitis Answer: A Explanation: A) It should be spelled angioplasty. B) Arteriorrhexis is spelled correctly. C) Bradycardia is spelled correctly. D) Valvulitis is spelled correctly. Page Ref: 109 Learning Obj.: 7-5 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Spelling

166) Which term is misspelled? A) Atherosclerosis B) Myocardial C) Phleboitis D) Interventricular Answer: C Explanation: A) Atherosclerosis is spelled correctly. B) Myocardial is spelled correctly. C) It is spelled phlebitis. D) Interventricular is spelled correctly. Page Ref: 112 Learning Obj.: 7-5 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Spelling 167) Which term is misspelled? A) Plaque B) Electrocardiography C) Stethoscope D) Murmer Answer: D Explanation: A) Plaque is spelled correctly. B) Electrocardiography is spelled correctly. C) Stethoscope is spelled correctly. D) It is spelled murmur. Page Ref: 118 Learning Obj.: 7-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Spelling 168) Which term is misspelled? A) Infarction B) Fribillation C) Tachycardia D) Sphygmomanometer Answer: B Explanation: A) Infarction is spelled correctly. B) It is spelled fibrillation. C) Tachycardia is spelled correctly. D) Sphygmomanometer is spelled correctly. Page Ref: 118 Learning Obj.: 7-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Spelling

169) Which of the following abbreviations is NOT a pathological condition? A) CHF B) MI C) CPR D) HTN Answer: C Explanation: A) CHF stands for congestive heart failure, which is a pathological condition. B) MI stands for myocardial infarction, which is a pathological condition. C) CPR stands for cardiopulmonary resuscitation, which is not a pathological condition. D) HTN stands for hypertension, which is a pathological condition Page Ref: 116 Learning Obj.: 7-7 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Abbreviations 170) Which of the following abbreviations is a diagnostic test? A) CCU B) ECG C) DVT D) MVP Answer: B Explanation: A) CCU stands for coronary care unit, which is not a diagnostic test. B) ECG stands for electrocardiography, which is a diagnostic test. C) DVT stands for deep vein thrombosis, which is not a diagnostic test. D) MVP stands for mitral valve prolapse, which is not a diagnostic test. Page Ref: 123 Learning Obj.: 7-7 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Abbreviations 171) Which of the following abbreviations stands for a fast heartbeat? A) CC B) IV C) MI D) VT Answer: D Explanation: A) CC stands for cardiac catheterization, which is not a fast heartbeat. B) IV stands for intravenous, which is not a fast heartbeat. C) MI stands for myocardial infarction, which is not a fast heartbeat. D) VT stands for ventricular tachycardia, which is a fast heartbeat. Page Ref: 123 Learning Obj.: 7-7 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Abbreviations

172) Which of the following abbreviations is a birth defect? A) CABG B) DVT C) CSD D) CHF Answer: C Explanation: A) CABG stands for "coronary artery bypass graft," which is not a birth defect. B) DVT stands for "deep vein thrombosis," which is not a birth defect. C) CSD stands for "congenital septal defect," which is a birth defect. D) CHF stands for "congestive heart failure," which is not a birth defect. Page Ref: 116 Learning Obj.: 7-7 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Abbreviations 173) Which of the following abbreviations stands for a heart attack? A) HTN B) MI C) CAD D) PVD Answer: B Explanation: A) HTN stands for "hypertension," which is not a heart attack. B) MI stands for "myocardial infarction," which is a heart attack. C) CAD stands for "coronary artery disease," which is not a heart attack. D) PVD stands for "peripheral vascular disease," which is not a heart attack. Page Ref: 119 Learning Obj.: 7-7 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Abbreviations 174) Which abbreviation stands for "high blood pressure"? A) CSD B) HR C) BP D) HTN Answer: D Explanation: A) CSD stands for "congenital septal defect," which is not high blood pressure. B) HR stands for "heart rate," not high blood pressure. C) BP stands for "blood pressure," not high blood pressure. D) HTN stands for "hypertension," which is high blood pressure. Page Ref: 119 Learning Obj.: 7-7 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Abbreviations

175) Which of the following abbreviations stands for a surgical procedure? A) CABG B) MI C) CHF D) HTN Answer: A Explanation: A) CABG stands for "coronary artery bypass graft," which is a surgical procedure. B) MI stands for "myocardial infarction," which is not a surgical procedure. C) CHF stands for "congestive heart failure," which is not a surgical procedure. D) HTN stands for "hypertension," which is not a surgical procedure. Page Ref: 117 Learning Obj.: 7-7 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Abbreviations

Match each term on the left with the correct definition on the right. A) removes inner lining of artery B) assesses cardiovascular fitness C) a stationary blood clot D) uses ultrasound to see internal heart structures E) pumping heart chamber F) a floating blood clot G) measures BP H) carries blood away from the heart I) upper heart chamber J) widened artery K) restores normal heartbeat L) carries blood toward the heart M) withdraws blood N) high blood pressure O) area of dead tissue P) thin flexible tube placed in the body Q) birth defect affecting the heart R) largest artery in the body S) abnormal heart sound T) loss of blood supply U) heart attack V) part of a blood test that indicates heart damage W) stoppage of heart activity X) chest pain Y) stainless steel tube 176) Atrium Page Ref: 110 Learning Obj.: 7-4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 177) ventricle Page Ref: 114 Learning Obj.: 7-4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 178) artery Page Ref: 106 Learning Obj.: 7-2 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology

179) vein Page Ref: 106 Learning Obj.: 7-2 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 180) endarterectomy Page Ref: 118 Learning Obj.: 7-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 181) stent Page Ref: 121 Learning Obj.: 7-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 182) aorta Page Ref: 109 Learning Obj.: 7-4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 183) TEE Page Ref: 122 Learning Obj.: 7-6, 7-7 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Abbreviations 184) infarct Page Ref: 119 Learning Obj.: 7-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 185) ischemia Page Ref: 120 Learning Obj.: 7-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 186) catheter Page Ref: 116 Learning Obj.: 7-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 47 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

187) angina pectoris Page Ref: 115 Learning Obj.: 7-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 188) cardiac arrest Page Ref: 116 Learning Obj.: 7-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 189) MI Page Ref: 119 Learning Obj.: 7-6, 7-7 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary 190) hypertension Page Ref: 119 Learning Obj.: 7-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 191) venipuncture Page Ref: 122 Learning Obj.: 7-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 192) sphygmomanometer Page Ref: 121 Learning Obj.: 7-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 193) thrombus Page Ref: 113 Learning Obj.: 7-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 194) embolus Page Ref: 112 Learning Obj.: 7-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 48 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

195) CSD Page Ref: 116 Learning Obj.: 7-6, 7-7 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Abbreviations 196) heart murmur Page Ref: 118 Learning Obj.: 7-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 197) stress test Page Ref: 122 Learning Obj.: 7-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 198) defibrillation Page Ref: 117 Learning Obj.: 7-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 199) aneurysm Page Ref: 115 Learning Obj.: 7-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 200) cardiac biomarkers Page Ref: 116 Learning Obj.: 7-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary Answers: 176) I 177) E 178) H 179) L 180) A 181) Y 182) R 183) D 184) O 185) T 186) P 187) X 188) W 189) U 190) N 191) M 192) G 193) C 194) F 195) Q 196) S 197) B 198) K 199) J 200) V

201) List the three types of blood vessels and give their function. Answer: ∙ Arteries: carry blood away from the heart and toward capillary beds; arteries to lungs carry deoxygenated blood; arteries to body carry oxygenated blood ∙ Capillaries: blood enters capillaries from arteries; sites where oxygen and nutrients are delivered and wastes are picked up ∙ Veins: receive blood from capillaries; carry blood back to the heart; veins from body carry deoxygenated blood and veins from lungs carry oxygenated blood Page Ref: 106, 109, 112 Learning Obj.: 7-2 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 202) Both a coronary artery bypass graft and percutaneous transluminal coronary angioplasty are treatments for coronary artery disease. Describe what CAD is and define each of these procedures. Answer: ∙ Coronary artery disease: chronic heart disease caused by arteriosclerosis or atherosclerosis of coronary arteries ∙ Coronary artery bypass graft: open-heart surgery in which blood vessel, often a leg vein, is grafted to route blood around an occluded coronary artery ∙ Percutaneous transluminal coronary angioplasty: widens narrowed coronary artery by inserting a balloon catheter into the narrowed artery and inflating the balloon to dilate the narrowed blood vessel Page Ref: 117, 121 Learning Obj.: 7-6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary

Medical Terminology: Get Connected!, 3e (Frucht) Chapter 8 Hematology: Blood All answers to questions asking for a combining form must be written in the combining form style, meaning word root/combining vowel. For example, the combining form meaning "heart" is cardi/o. All answers to questions asking for a suffix must be written in suffix form, meaning a hyphen before your answer. For example, the suffix meaning "cell" is -cyte. All answers to questions asking for a prefix must be written in prefix form, meaning a hyphen after your answer. For example, a prefix meaning "two" is bi-. Do NOT capitalize any of your answers or include a period at the end of your answer. The computer will NOT recognize your answer as correct if it is written in any other style. 1) The combining form that means cell is ________. Answer: cyt/o; cyto Page Ref: 135 Learning Obj.: 8-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 2) The combining form that means base is ________. Answer: bas/o; baso Page Ref: 135 Learning Obj.: 8-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 3) A combining form that means sugar is ________. Answer: glyc/o; glyco Page Ref: 135 Learning Obj.: 8-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 4) The combining form that means clotting is ________. Answer: coagul/o; coagulo Page Ref: 135 Learning Obj.: 8-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 5) The combining form that means rosy red is ________. Answer: eosin/o; eosino Page Ref: 135 Learning Obj.: 8-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 1 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

6) The combining form that means red is ________. Answer: erythr/o; erythro Page Ref: 135 Learning Obj.: 8-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 7) The combining form that means fat is ________. Answer: lip/o; lipo Page Ref: 135 Learning Obj.: 8-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 8) The combining form that means disease is ________. Answer: path/o; patho Page Ref: 135 Learning Obj.: 8-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 9) A combining form other than hemat/o that means blood is ________. Answer: hem/o; hemo Page Ref: 135 Learning Obj.: 8-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 10) The combining form that means white is ________. Answer: leuk/o; leuko Page Ref: 135 Learning Obj.: 8-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 11) A combining form other than ven/o that means vein is ________. Answer: phleb/o; phlebo Page Ref: 135 Learning Obj.: 8-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

12) The combining form that means neutral is ________. Answer: neutr/o; neutro Page Ref: 135 Learning Obj.: 8-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 13) A combining form that means clot is ________. Answer: thromb/o; thrombo Page Ref: 135 Learning Obj.: 8-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 14) A combining form that means lymph is ________. Answer: lymph/o; lympho Page Ref: 135 Learning Obj.: 8-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 15) A combining form that means plug is ________. Answer: embol/o; embolo Page Ref: 135 Learning Obj.: 8-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 16) A combining form that means infection is ________. Answer: septic/o; septico Page Ref: 135 Learning Obj.: 8-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 17) A suffix that means protein is ________. Answer: -globin; globin Page Ref: 135 Learning Obj.: 8-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

18) A suffix that means mass is ________. Answer: -oma; oma Page Ref: 135 Learning Obj.: 8-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 19) A suffix that means abnormal cell condition (too many) is ________. Answer: -cytosis; cytosis Page Ref: 135 Learning Obj.: 8-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 20) A suffix that means blood condition is ________. Answer: -emia; emia Page Ref: 135 Learning Obj.: 8-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 21) A suffix that means too few is ________. Answer: -penia; penia Page Ref: 135 Learning Obj.: 8-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 22) A suffix that means attracted to is ________. Answer: -phil; phil Page Ref: 135 Learning Obj.: 8-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 23) A suffix other than -plasm that means formation is ________. Answer: -poiesis; poiesis Page Ref: 135 Learning Obj.: 8-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

24) A suffix that means stopping is ________. Answer: -stasis; stasis Page Ref: 135 Learning Obj.: 8-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 25) The suffix that means cell is ________. Answer: -cyte; cyte Page Ref: 135 Learning Obj.: 8-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 26) A suffix that means to destroy is ________. Answer: -lysis; lysis Page Ref: 135 Learning Obj.: 8-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 27) A suffix that means instrument for measuring is ________. Answer: -meter; meter Page Ref: 135 Learning Obj.: 8-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 28) A suffix that means abnormal condition is ________. Answer: -osis; osis Page Ref: 135 Learning Obj.: 8-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 29) A suffix that means abnormal flow is ________. Answer: -rrhage; rrhage Page Ref: 135 Learning Obj.: 8-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

30) A prefix that means self is ________. Answer: auto-; auto Page Ref: 136 Learning Obj.: 8-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 31) A prefix that means all is ________. Answer: pan-; pan Page Ref: 136 Learning Obj.: 8-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 32) A medical term that means red cell is ________. Answer: erythrocyte Page Ref: 137 Learning Obj.: 8-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building 33) A medical term that means abnormal flow of blood is ________. Answer: hemorrhage Page Ref: 138 Learning Obj.: 8-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building 34) A medical term that means one who studies blood is ________. Answer: hematologist Page Ref: 139 Learning Obj.: 8-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building 35) A medical term that means too few clotting cells is ________. Answer: thrombocytopenia Page Ref: 139 Learning Obj.: 8-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building

36) A medical term that means white cell is ________. Answer: leukocyte Page Ref: 159 Learning Obj.: 8-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building 37) A medical term that means one cell is ________. Answer: monocyte Page Ref: 137 Learning Obj.: 8-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building 38) A medical term that means abnormal condition (too many) in clotting cells is ________. Answer: thrombocytosis Page Ref: 137 Learning Obj.: 8-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building 39) A medical term that means too few of all cells is ________. Answer: pancytopenia Page Ref: 139 Learning Obj.: 8-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building 40) A medical term that means blood formation is ________. Answer: hematopoiesis Page Ref: 139 Learning Obj.: 8-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building 41) A medical term that means to destroy a clot is ________. Answer: thrombolysis Page Ref: 140 Learning Obj.: 8-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building

42) A medical term that means process of measuring blood cells is ________. Answer: hemocytometry Page Ref: 138 Learning Obj.: 8-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building 43) A medical term that means attracted to rosy red (stain) is ________. Answer: eosinophil Page Ref: 139 Learning Obj.: 8-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building 44) A medical term that means condition of being without blood is ________. Answer: anemia Page Ref: 137 Learning Obj.: 8-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building 45) A medical term that means blood protein is ________. Answer: hemoglobin Page Ref: 138 Learning Obj.: 8-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building 46) A medical term that means abnormal condition (too many) in red cells is ________. Answer: erythrocytosis Page Ref: 137 Learning Obj.: 8-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building 47) A medical term that means blood condition with insufficient sugar is ________. Answer: hypoglycemia Page Ref: 137 Learning Obj.: 8-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building

48) A medical term that means blood condition with excessive fat is ________. Answer: hyperlipemia Page Ref: 137 Learning Obj.: 8-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building 49) A medical term that means stopping of blood is ________. Answer: hemostasis Page Ref: 138 Learning Obj.: 8-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building 50) A medical term that means clotting cell is ________. Answer: thrombocyte Page Ref: 137 Learning Obj.: 8-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building 51) Blood is approximately 55% plasma. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 135 Learning Obj.: 8-4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 52) Platelets are the watery part of blood. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Plasma is the watery part of blood. Page Ref: 135 Learning Obj.: 8-4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 53) Hemoglobin is the protein inside erythrocytes that picks up and transports oxygen. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 135 Learning Obj.: 8-4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology

54) Leukocytes are also called platelets. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Leukocytes are also called white blood cells. Page Ref: 135 Learning Obj.: 8-4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 55) Platelets are actually platelike fragments broken off from a larger cell. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 135 Learning Obj.: 8-4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 56) Hemoglobin is one of the formed elements. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Hemoglobin is a protein than transports oxygen. Page Ref: 135 Learning Obj.: 8-4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 57) The blood-clotting process is called hemostasis. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 135 Learning Obj.: 8-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 58) Monocytes are one type of red blood cell. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Monocytes are one type of white blood cell. Page Ref: 135 Learning Obj.: 8-4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 59) Hematopoiesis occurs in the red bone marrow. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 135 Learning Obj.: 8-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary

60) Glucose is transported by erythrocytes. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Oxygen is transported by erythrocytes. Page Ref: 135 Learning Obj.: 8-2 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 61) Platelets were formerly called thrombocytes. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 135 Learning Obj.: 8-4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 62) Anemia affects the amount of electrolytes delivered to tissues. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Anemia affects the amount of oxygen delivered to tissues. Page Ref: 140 Learning Obj.: 8-6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary 63) Several types of white blood cells are named based on the type of stain they are attracted to. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 139 Learning Obj.: 8-4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 64) An anticoagulant is any substance that prevents hematopoiesis. Answer: FALSE Explanation: An anticoagulant is any substance that prevents hemostasis. Page Ref: 140 Learning Obj.: 8-6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary 65) A clot is a hard collection of fibrin, blood cells, and tissue debris. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 140 Learning Obj.: 8-2 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology

66) A blood culture and sensitivity test checks for bacterial growth. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 141 Learning Obj.: 8-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 67) Aplastic anemia may require a bone marrow transplant. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 140 Learning Obj.: 8-6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary 68) Coagulate means "bleed excessively." Answer: FALSE Explanation: Coagulate means "form a blood clot." Page Ref: 141 Learning Obj.: 8-6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary 69) A hematoma is commonly called a bruise. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 142 Learning Obj.: 8-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 70) Whole blood is commonly called serum. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Blood that has the formed elements and clotting factors removed is called serum. Page Ref: 143 Learning Obj.: 8-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 71) Hemostasis means "to stop bleeding." Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 138 Learning Obj.: 8-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building

72) Leukemia is an inherited condition in which blood fails to clot. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Hemophilia is an inherited condition in which blood fails to clot. Page Ref: 142 Learning Obj.: 8-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 73) An autotransfusion uses a person's own blood to replace lost blood. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 141 Learning Obj.: 8-6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary 74) An embolus is commonly called a stationary clot. Answer: FALSE Explanation: An embolus is commonly called a floating clot. Page Ref: 141 Learning Obj.: 8-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 75) Hemoglobin and hematocrit are two blood tests included in a complete blood count. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 41 Learning Obj.: 8-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 76) Iron-deficiency anemia occurs when there is a loss of functioning red bone marrow. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Aplastic anemia occurs when there is a loss of functioning red bone marrow. Page Ref: 140 Learning Obj.: 8-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 77) Sickle cell anemia is named for the abnormal shape of the red blood cells. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 143 Learning Obj.: 8-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary

78) Leukemia causes an excessive number of immature red blood cells to be circulating in the bloodstream. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Leukemia causes an excessive number of immature white blood cells to be circulating in the bloodstream. Page Ref: 142 Learning Obj.: 8-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 79) An erythrocyte sedimentation rate is a blood test that determines if there is an inflammatory disease in the body. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 141 Learning Obj.: 8-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 80) Prothrombin time indicates how many days circulating red blood cells survive before they are removed by the spleen. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Prothrombin time indicates how long it takes blood to clot. Page Ref: 142 Learning Obj.: 8-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 81) A diff is a blood test that determines the number of each type of leukocyte. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 143 Learning Obj.: 8-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 82) A red blood cell count is the same as a hematocrit. Answer: FALSE Explanation: A hematocrit measures the volume of red blood cells within the total volume of blood, not the actual number of red blood cells. Page Ref: 141 Learning Obj.: 8-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary

83) A culture and sensitivity will determine the best antibiotic to use for an infection. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 141 Learning Obj.: 8-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 84) Hemophilia occurs when two vital clotting factors are missing. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Hemophilia occurs when a single vital clotting factor is missing. Page Ref: 142 Learning Obj.: 8-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 85) Bone marrow aspiration can be used to look for leukemia or aplastic anemia. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 141 Learning Obj.: 8-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 86) Radiation therapy or chemotherapy may cause an increase in the number of leukocytes. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Radiation therapy or chemotherapy may cause a decrease in the number of leukocytes. Page Ref: 143 Learning Obj.: 8-6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary 87) Prior to a bone marrow transplant, the patient's own bone marrow is destroyed using radiation or chemicals. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 141 Learning Obj.: 8-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 88) In sickle cell anemia, red blood cells lose their normal sickle shape. Answer: FALSE Explanation: In sickle cell anemia, red blood cells take on an abnormal sickle shape. Page Ref: 143 Learning Obj.: 8-6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary 15 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

89) Leukemia is a type of cancer. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 142 Learning Obj.: 8-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 90) Vitamin B12 is necessary for platelet production. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Vitamin B12 is necessary for erythrocyte production. Page Ref: 142 Learning Obj.: 8-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 91) Hemophilia is an inherited bleeding disorder. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 142 Learning Obj.: 8-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 92) Iron-deficiency anemia results from the digestive tract's inability to absorb enough vitamin B12. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Pernicious anemia results from the digestive tract's inability to absorb enough vitamin B12. Page Ref: 142 Learning Obj.: 8-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 93) Thrombolytic therapy dissolves blood clots to restore normal circulation. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 143 Learning Obj.: 8-6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary 94) Phlebotomy removes blood from an artery and is also called venipuncture. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Phlebotomy removes blood from a vein and is also called venipuncture. Page Ref: 142 Learning Obj.: 8-6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary 16 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

95) Serum is blood that has had the formed elements and clotting factors removed. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 143 Learning Obj.: 8-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 96) Thalassemia is one of the symptoms of leukemia. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Thalassemia is a type of anemia. Page Ref: 143 Learning Obj.: 8-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 97) Septicemia is commonly called blood poisoning. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 143 Learning Obj.: 8-6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary 98) A white blood cell differential measures the difference between the number of red blood cells and the number of white blood cells. Answer: FALSE Explanation: A white blood cell differential measures the number of each type of white blood cell. Page Ref: 143 Learning Obj.: 8-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 99) Blood becomes too thick to flow easily through blood vessels in polycythemia vera. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 142 Learning Obj.: 8-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 100) Polycythemia vera is characterized by too many leukocytes. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Polycythemia vera is characterized by too many erythrocytes. Page Ref: 142 Learning Obj.: 8-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 17 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

101) Which term means "abnormal condition of clots"? A) Thrombectomy B) Thrombolysis C) Thrombosis D) Thrombocytosis Answer: C Explanation: A) Thrombectomy means "excision of a blood clot." B) Thrombolysis means "breaking down a blood clot." C) Thrombosis means "abnormal condition of clots." D) Thrombocytosis means "abnormal cell condition of a blood clot." Page Ref: 140 Learning Obj.: 8-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building 102) Which term means "formation of red (cells)"? A) Erythropoiesis B) Hematopoiesis C) Leukopoiesis D) Thrombopoiesis Answer: A Explanation: A) Erythropoiesis means "formation of red (cells)." B) Hematopoiesis means "formation of blood." C) Leukopoiesis means "formation of white cells." D) Thrombopoiesis means "formation of clots." Page Ref: 140 Learning Obj.: 8-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building 103) Which term means "blood cell mass"? A) Hemocyte B) Hemoma C) Hemolysis D) Hemocytoma Answer: D Explanation: A) Hemocyte means "blood cell." B) Hemoma is not a correct word usage. C) Hemolysis means "to destroy blood." D) Hemocytoma means "blood cell mass." Page Ref: 138 Learning Obj.: 8-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building

104) Which term means "pertaining to blood"? A) Hemotal B) Hemotic C) Hematory D) Hematic Answer: D Explanation: A) Hemot is not a word root. B) Hemot is not a word root. C) Hematory is not a correct word usage. D) Hematic means "pertaining to blood." Page Ref: 139 Learning Obj.: 8-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building 105) Which term means "attracted to rosy red (stain)"? A) Basophil B) Eosinophil C) Erythrophil D) Neutrophil Answer: B Explanation: A) Basophil means "attracted to basic (stain)." B) Eosinophil means "attracted to rosy red (stain)." C) Erythrophil means "attracted to red (stain)." D) Neutrophil means "attracted to neutral (stain)." Page Ref: 139 Learning Obj.: 8-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building 106) Which term means "clotting cell"? A) Erythrocyte B) Leukocyte C) Monolocyte D) Thrombocyte Answer: D Explanation: A) Erythrocyte means "red cell." B) Leukocyte means "white cell." C) Monocyte means "one cell." D) Thrombocyte means "clotting cell." Page Ref: 137 Learning Obj.: 8-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building

107) Which term means "abnormal condition (too many) in white cells"? A) Pancytopenia B) Leukocytosis C) Hematocytosis D) Leukocytopenia Answer: B Explanation: A) Pancytopenia means "too few of all cells." B) Leukocytosis means "abnormal condition (too many) in white cells." C) Hematocytosis means "too many blood cells." D) Leukocytopenia means "too few white cells." Page Ref: 137 Learning Obj.: 8-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building 108) Which term means "too few red (cells)"? A) Leukocytosis B) Erythrocytosis C) Hematocytosis D) Erythropenia Answer: D Explanation: A) Leukocytosis means "too many white cells." B) Erythrocytosis means "too many red cells." C) Hematocytosis means "too many blood cells." D) Erythropenia means "too few red (cells)." Page Ref: 139 Learning Obj.: 8-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building 109) Which term means "abnormal flow of blood"? A) Hemocytolysis B) Hematoma C) Hemorrhage D) Hemostasis Answer: C Explanation: A) Hemocytolysis means "to destroy blood cells." B) Hematoma means "blood mass." C) Hemorrhage means "abnormal flow of blood." D) Hemostasis means "stopping of blood." Page Ref: 138 Learning Obj.: 8-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building

110) Which term means "blood protein"? A) Hemoglobin B) Hemocyte C) Hematoma D) Hemostasis Answer: A Explanation: A) Hemoglobin means "blood protein." B) Hemocyte means "blood cell." C) Hematoma means "blood mass." D) Hemostasis means "stopping of blood." Page Ref: 138 Learning Obj.: 8-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building 111) Which of the following is (are) NOT one of the formed elements of the blood? A) Red cells B) Platelets C) White cells D) Plasma Answer: D Explanation: A) Red cells are formed elements of blood. B) Platelets are formed elements of blood. C) White cells are formed elements of blood. D) Plasma is not one of the formed elements of blood. Page Ref: 135 Learning Obj.: 8-4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 112) The watery part of blood is called ________. A) red cells B) plasma C) white cells D) platelets Answer: B Explanation: A) Red cells are not the watery part of blood. B) Plasma is the watery part of blood. C) White cells are not the watery part of blood. D) Platelets are not the watery part of blood. Page Ref: 135 Learning Obj.: 8-4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology

113) Blood cells are produced in the ________. A) spleen B) thymus gland C) red bone marrow D) liver Answer: C Explanation: A) The spleen does not produce blood cells. B) The thymus gland does not produce blood cells. C) The red bone marrow produces blood cells. D) The liver does not produce blood cells. Page Ref: 135 Learning Obj.: 8-4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 114) Which of the following is NOT correctly matched? A) Red cells—transport oxygen B) Leukocytes—protect the body from invasion C) Plasma—tissue repair D) Platelets—control bleeding Answer: C Explanation: A) Red cells do transport oxygen. B) Leukocytes do protect the body from invasion. C) Plasma is not involved in tissue repair. D) Platelets do control bleeding. Page Ref: 135 Learning Obj.: 8-2 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 115) Which of the following substances is NOT transported by plasma? A) Oxygen B) Glucose C) Electrolytes D) Amino acids Answer: A Explanation: A) Oxygen is transported by hemoglobin in erythrocytes, not plasma. B) Glucose is transported by plasma. C) Electrolytes are transported by plasma. D) Amino acids are transported by plasma. Page Ref: 135 Learning Obj.: 8-2 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology

116) Which of the following statements regarding plasma is NOT true? A) Plasma is a watery fluid. B) Approximately 45% of blood is plasma. C) Plasma transports substances such as glucose. D) Blood cells float in plasma. Answer: B Explanation: A) Plasma is a watery fluid. B) Approximately 55% of blood is plasma, not 45%. C) Plasma transports substances such as glucose. D) Blood cells float in plasma. Page Ref: 135 Learning Obj.: 8-4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 117) Which of the following statements regarding blood is NOT true? A) Hemostasis is the blood-clotting process. B) Leukocytes are fragments of a larger cell. C) Blood cells are formed in the red bone marrow. D) Platelets were formerly called thrombocytes. Answer: B Explanation: A) Hemostasis is the blood-clotting process. B) Platelets, not leukocytes, are fragments of a larger cell. C) Blood cells are formed in the red bone marrow. D) Platelets were formerly called thrombocytes. Page Ref: 135 Learning Obj.: 8-4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 118) Which of the following is NOT a type of leukocyte? A) Neutrophil B) Monocyte C) Eosinocyte D) Lymphocyte Answer: C Explanation: A) A neutrophil is a type of leukocyte. B) A monocyte is a type of leukocyte. C) An eosinocyte is not a type of leukocyte. D) A lymphocyte is a type of leukocyte. Page Ref: 135 Learning Obj.: 8-4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology

119) The suffix -cytosis is used to indicate ________. A) the presence of a type of anemia B) an abnormal decrease in the number of blood cells C) an abnormal bleeding condition D) an abnormal increase in the number of blood cells Answer: D Explanation: A) The suffix -cytosis does not mean the presence of a type of anemia. B) The suffix -cytosis does not mean an abnormal decrease in the number of blood cells. C) The suffix -cytosis does not mean an abnormal bleeding condition. D) The suffix -cytosis means "abnormal cell condition (too many)." Page Ref: 135 Learning Obj.: 8-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 120) The suffix -penia means ________. A) too few B) too large C) too many D) too small Answer: A Explanation: A) The suffix -penia means "too few." B) The suffix -penia does not mean "too large." C) The suffix -penia does not mean "too many." D) The suffix -penia does not mean "too small." Page Ref: 135 Learning Obj.: 8-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 121) Blood clots do NOT consist of ________. A) blood cells B) fibrin C) tissue debris D) hormones Answer: D Explanation: A) Blood clots consist in part of blood cells. B) Blood clots consist in part of fibrin. C) Blood clots consist in part of tissue debris. D) Blood clots do not consist of hormones. Page Ref: 140 Learning Obj.: 8-2 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology

122) Which of the following terms describes the formation of a blood clot? A) Coagulation B) Thrombolysis C) Erythrocytosis D) Hematopoiesis Answer: A Explanation: A) Coagulation is the formation of a blood clot. B) Thrombolysis does not describe the formation of a blood clot. C) Erythrocytosis does not describe the formation of a blood clot. D) Hematopoiesis does not describe the formation of a blood clot. Page Ref: 141 Learning Obj.: 8-6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary 123) Which condition results in thick blood as a result of having too many red blood cells? A) Hemophilia B) Polycythemia vera C) Hyperlipemia D) Thalassemia Answer: B Explanation: A) Hemophilia is the inability to stop bleeding. B) Polycythemia vera results in thick blood as a result of having too many red blood cells. C) Hyperlipemia is the condition of excessive fats in the blood. D) Thalassemia is the condition in which the body is unable to correctly make hemoglobin. Page Ref: 142 Learning Obj.: 8-6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary 124) Which type of anemia is inherited? A) Pernicious anemia B) Iron-deficiency anemia C) Thalassemia D) Aplastic anemia Answer: C Explanation: A) Pernicious anemia is not inherited. B) Iron-deficiency anemia is not inherited. C) Thalassemia is an inherited type of anemia. D) Aplastic anemia is not inherited. Page Ref: 143 Learning Obj.: 8-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary

125) Which anemia results from the loss of functioning bone marrow? A) Aplastic anemia B) Hemolytic anemia C) Iron-deficiency anemia D) Sickle cell anemia Answer: A Explanation: A) Aplastic anemia results from the loss of functioning red bone marrow. B) Pernicious anemia results from a vitamin deficiency that lowers erythrocyte production. C) Iron-deficiency anemia results from insufficient iron to build hemoglobin for red blood cells. D) Sickle cell anemia is hereditary. Page Ref: 140 Learning Obj.: 8-6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary 126) Which type of anemia is caused by a vitamin B12 deficiency? A) Aplastic anemia B) Sickle cell anemia C) Iron-deficiency anemia D) Pernicious anemia Answer: D Explanation: A) Aplastic anemia results from a loss of functioning red bone marrow. B) In sickle cell anemia, erythrocytes take on an abnormal curve. C) Iron-deficiency anemia results when there is not enough iron to build hemoglobin for red blood cells. D) Pernicious anemia results from a deficiency in the amount of vitamin B12 absorbed by the digestive system. Page Ref: 142 Learning Obj.: 8-6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary 127) Which of the following conditions is a blood infection? A) Thalassemia B) Septicemia C) Leukemia D) Hemophilia Answer: B Explanation: A) Thalassemia is not a blood infection. B) Septicemia is a blood infection. C) Leukemia is not a blood infection. D) Hemophilia is not a blood infection. Page Ref: 143 Learning Obj.: 8-6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary 26 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

128) Which of the following conditions is a cancer? A) Polycythemia vera B) Septicemia C) Leukemia D) Pernicious anemia Answer: C Explanation: A) Polycythemia vera is not a cancer. B) Septicemia is not a cancer. C) Leukemia is a cancer. D) Pernicious anemia is not a cancer. Page Ref: 142 Learning Obj.: 8-6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary 129) Which of the following is NOT an inherited condition? A) Leukemia B) Sickle cell anemia C) Thalassemia D) Hemophilia Answer: A Explanation: A) Leukemia is not an inherited condition. B) Sickle cell anemia is an inherited condition. C) Thalassemia is an inherited condition. D) Hemophilia is an inherited condition. Page Ref: 142 Learning Obj.: 8-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 130) Which of the following blood tests is NOT part of a complete blood count? A) Red cell count B) Hemoglobin C) Clotting time D) Hematocrit Answer: C Explanation: A) A red cell count is part of a complete blood count. B) Hemoglobin is part of a complete blood count. C) Clotting time is not part of a complete blood count. D) A hematocrit is part of a complete blood count. Page Ref: 141 Learning Obj.: 8-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary

131) Which of the following blood tests measures how long it takes for a clot to form? A) Erythrocyte sedimentation rate B) Culture and sensitivity C) Hematocrit D) Pro-time Answer: D Explanation: A) Erythrocyte sedimentation rate measures the rate at which red blood cells settle out of blood to form sediment. B) Culture and sensitivity determines if bacteria are present. C) A hematocrit measures the volume of red blood cells. D) Pro-time measures how long it takes for a clot to form. Page Ref: 142 Learning Obj.: 8-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 132) Which of the following blood tests measures the volume of red blood cells within the total volume of blood? A) Erythrocyte sedimentation rate B) Culture and sensitivity C) Hematocrit D) Pro-time Answer: C Explanation: A) Erythrocyte sedimentation rate measures the rate at which red blood cells settle out of blood to form sediment. B) Culture and sensitivity determines if bacteria are present. C) A hematocrit measures the volume of red blood cells within the total volume of blood. D) Pro-time measures how long it takes for a clot to form. Page Ref: 141 Learning Obj.: 8-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary

133) Which of the following blood tests is an indicator of the presence of an inflammatory disease? A) Erythrocyte sedimentation rate B) Culture and sensitivity C) Hematocrit D) Pro-time Answer: A Explanation: A) Erythrocyte sedimentation rate is an indicator of the presence of an inflammatory disease. B) Culture and sensitivity determines if bacteria are present. C) A hematocrit measures the volume of red blood cells. D) Pro-time measures how long it takes for a clot to form. Page Ref: 141 Learning Obj.: 8-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 134) Which of the following blood tests checks for bacterial growth? A) Erythrocyte sedimentation rate B) Culture and sensitivity C) Hematocrit D) Pro-time Answer: B Explanation: A) Erythrocyte sedimentation rate measures the rate at which red blood cells settle out of the blood to form sediment. B) Culture and sensitivity checks for bacterial growth. C) A hematocrit measures the volume of red blood cells. D) Pro-time measures how long it takes for a clot to form. Page Ref: 141 Learning Obj.: 8-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 135) Which term refers to a blood transfusion of the patient's own blood? A) Analogous transfusion B) Autotransfusion C) Primary transfusion D) Homologous transfusion Answer: B Explanation: A) Analogous transfusion is not a transfusion of the patient's own blood. B) Autotransfusion is a blood transfusion of the patient's own blood. C) Primary transfusion is not a transfusion of the patient's own blood. D) Homologous transfusion is not a transfusion of the patient's own blood. Page Ref: 141 Learning Obj.: 8-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 29 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

136) Which of the following medications dissolves an existing clot? A) Hematinic B) Anticoagulant C) Antiplatelet D) Thrombolytic agent Answer: D Explanation: A) A hematinic does not dissolve an existing clot. B) An anticoagulant does not dissolve an existing clot. C) An antiplatelet does not dissolve an existing clot. D) A thrombolytic agent dissolves an existing clot. Page Ref: 143 Learning Obj.: 8-6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary 137) Which of the following medications prevents blood clot formation? A) Hematinic B) Anticoagulant C) Antihemorrhagic D) Thrombolytic agent Answer: B Explanation: A) A hematinic does not prevent blood clot formation. B) An anticoagulant prevents blood clot formation. C) An antihemorrhagic does not prevent blood clot formation. D) A thrombolytic agent does not prevent blood clot formation. Page Ref: 140 Learning Obj.: 8-6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary 138) Which of the following statements regarding anemia is NOT true? A) They are all inherited. B) It is a group of blood disorders. C) There may be a reduction in the number of red cells. D) The result of anemia is less oxygen being delivered to tissues. Answer: A Explanation: A) Not all types of anemia are inherited. B) Anemia is a group of blood disorders. C) Anemia may result in a reduction in the number of red cells. D) The result of anemia is less oxygen being delivered to tissues. Page Ref: 140 Learning Obj.: 8-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary

139) Which of the following statements regarding aplastic anemia is NOT true? A) There is a loss of function of yellow bone marrow. B) It is a severe type of anemia. C) A bone marrow transplant may be necessary. D) There are too few of all types of blood cells. Answer: A Explanation: A) There is a loss of function of red, not yellow, bone marrow. B) Aplastic anemia is a severe type of anemia. C) A bone marrow transplant may be necessary with aplastic anemia. D) There are too few of all types of blood cells in aplastic anemia. Page Ref: 140 Learning Obj.: 8-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 140) Which of the following statements regarding blood culture and sensitivity is NOT true? A) It is a blood test. B) A blood specimen is incubated. C) It is a test for the presence of a viral infection. D) It determines the best antibiotic treatment to use. Answer: C Explanation: A) Blood culture and sensitivity is a blood test. B) A blood specimen is incubated in blood culture and sensitivity. C) Blood culture and sensitivity is a test for the presence of a bacterial infection, not a viral infection. D) Blood culture and sensitivity determines the best antibiotic treatment to use. Page Ref: 141 Learning Obj.: 8-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 141) A bone marrow aspiration may be used to test for ________. A) an embolus B) thalassemia C) a hematoma D) aplastic anemia Answer: D Explanation: A) A bone marrow aspiration does not test for an embolus. B) A bone marrow aspiration does not test for thalassemia. C) A bone marrow aspiration does not test for a hematoma. D) A bone marrow aspiration may be used to test for aplastic anemia or leukemia. Page Ref: 141 Learning Obj.: 8-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary

142) Which of the following is NOT correctly matched? A) Hematocrit—measures the volume of red blood cells within the total blood volume B) Pro-time—determines the time for blood to clot C) White blood cell differential—does not distinguish between types of leukocytes D) Sedimentation rate—indicates the presence of inflammatory disease Answer: C Explanation: A) A hematocrit measures the volume of red blood cells within the total blood volume. B) Pro-time determines the time for blood to clot. C) A white blood cell differential determines the number of each type of leukocyte. D) Sedimentation rate indicates the presence of inflammatory disease. Page Ref: 143 Learning Obj.: 8-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 143) Which of the following terms is commonly called a floating clot? A) Embolus B) Hemorrhage C) Coagulate D) Thrombus Answer: A Explanation: A) An embolus is commonly called a floating clot. B) Hemorrhage is not a floating clot. C) Coagulate is not a floating clot. D) A thrombus is not a floating clot. Page Ref: 141 Learning Obj.: 8-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 144) A hematoma is commonly called ________. A) a bleeder B) venipuncture C) a bruise D) blood poisoning Answer: C Explanation: A) A hematoma is not called a bleeder. B) A hematoma is not venipuncture. C) A hematoma is commonly called a bruise. D) A hematoma is not blood poisoning. Page Ref: 142 Learning Obj.: 8-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary

145) Which of the following statements regarding hemoglobin is NOT true? A) It is a blood protein. B) It is the name of a blood test. C) The hemoglobin test measures the amount of hemoglobin present in a blood sample. D) It transports carbon dioxide in the blood. Answer: D Explanation: A) Hemoglobin is a blood protein. B) Hemoglobin is a blood test. C) The hemoglobin test measures the amount of hemoglobin present in blood. D) Hemoglobin transports oxygen in the blood, not carbon dioxide. Page Ref: 135 Learning Obj.: 8-6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary 146) Which of the following statements regarding erythrocyte sedimentation rate is NOT true? A) It is a blood test. B) It measures the speed of clotting time. C) It measures the rate at which red blood cells settle out of the blood. D) It indicates the presence of an inflammatory disease. Answer: B Explanation: A) Erythrocyte sedimentation rate is a blood test. B) Erythrocyte sedimentation rate does not measure the speed of clotting time. C) Erythrocyte sedimentation rate measures the rate at which red blood cells settle out of the blood. D) Erythrocyte sedimentation rate indicates the presence of an inflammatory disease. Page Ref: 141 Learning Obj.: 8-6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary 147) Which of the following conditions results in the almost complete inability to stop bleeding? A) Hemophilia B) Polycythemia vera C) Leukemia D) Thalassemia Answer: A Explanation: A) Hemophilia results in the almost complete inability to stop bleeding. B) Polycythemia vera is a condition in which the patient produces too many erythrocytes. C) Leukemia is cancer of leukocytes. D) Thalassemia is a condition in which the patient is unable to correctly make hemoglobin. Page Ref: 142 Learning Obj.: 8-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary

148) A person with iron-deficiency anemia lacks enough iron to ________. A) support white blood cells B) build hemoglobin C) stop bleeding D) fight off infections Answer: B Explanation: A) Iron-deficiency anemia does not affect white blood cells. B) A person with iron-deficiency anemia lacks enough iron to build hemoglobin. C) Iron-deficiency anemia does not affect bleeding. D) Iron-deficiency anemia does not affect fighting off infections. Page Ref: 142 Learning Obj.: 8-6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary 149) Which condition results in a large number of abnormal and immature leukocytes circulating in the bloodstream? A) Septicemia B) Hemophilia C) Thalassemia D) Leukemia Answer: D Explanation: A) Septicemia is an infection in the blood. B) Hemophilia is a lack of a vital clotting factor. C) Thalassemia is an inherited blood disorder. D) Leukemia results in a large number of abnormal and immature leukocytes circulating in the bloodstream. Page Ref: 142 Learning Obj.: 8-6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary 150) Which of the following statements regarding pernicious anemia is NOT true? A) There is insufficient vitamin B12. B) Not enough vitamin B12 is absorbed by the digestive tract. C) Too many red blood cells are manufactured. D) Vitamin B12 is necessary for erythrocyte production. Answer: C Explanation: A) There is insufficient vitamin B12 with pernicious anemia. B) Not enough vitamin B12 is absorbed by the digestive tract with pernicious anemia. C) Too few red blood cells are manufactured with pernicious anemia, not too many. D) Vitamin B12 is necessary for erythrocyte production. Page Ref: 142 Learning Obj.: 8-6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary 34 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

151) Phlebotomy is also called ________. A) hematoma B) venipuncture C) thrombectomy D) polycythemia Answer: B Explanation: A) Hematoma is a blood mass. B) Phlebotomy is also called venipuncture. C) Thrombectomy is an excision of a blood clot. D) Polycythemia is the condition of having too many blood cells. Page Ref: 142 Learning Obj.: 8-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 152) Which of the following statements regarding polycythemia vera is NOT true? A) It is a type of anemia. B) There are too many erythrocytes. C) The blood is too thick. D) Blood is unable to flow through blood vessels smoothly. Answer: A Explanation: A) Polycythemia vera is not a type of anemia. B) There are too many erythrocytes with polycythemia vera. C) The blood is too thick with polycythemia vera. D) Blood is unable to flow through blood vessels smoothly with polycythemia vera. Page Ref: 142 Learning Obj.: 8-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 153) Which of the following statements regarding a red blood cell count is NOT true? A) It is a blood test. B) It determines the number of erythrocytes in the blood. C) A decrease may indicate septicemia. D) An increase may indicate polycythemia vera. Answer: C Explanation: A) Red blood cell count is a blood test. B) Red blood cell count determines the number of erythrocytes in the blood. C) A decrease in red blood cells may indicate anemia but not septicemia. D) An increase in red blood cells may indicate polycythemia vera. Page Ref: 142 Learning Obj.: 8-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary

154) Which of the following statements regarding septicemia is NOT true? A) It is commonly called blood poisoning. B) It is the presence of bacteria in the bloodstream. C) A hematocrit is a blood test that tests for septicemia. D) Bacteria may release their toxins into the bloodstream. Answer: C Explanation: A) Septicemia is commonly called blood poisoning. B) Septicemia is the presence of bacteria in the bloodstream. C) A hematocrit does not test for septicemia. D) Bacteria may release their toxins into the bloodstream. Page Ref: 143 Learning Obj.: 8-6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary 155) Which of the following statements regarding sickle cell anemia is NOT true? A) It is inherited. B) Leukocytes take on an abnormal curved or sickle shape. C) Sickle cells are fragile. D) It occurs almost exclusively in persons of African descent. Answer: B Explanation: A) Sickle cell anemia is inherited. B) Erythrocytes, not leukocytes, take on an abnormal curved or sickle shape in sickle cell anemia. C) Sickle cells are fragile. D) Sickle cell anemia occurs almost exclusively in persons of African descent. Page Ref: 143 Learning Obj.: 8-6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary 156) Persons with thalassemia are unable to correctly make ________. A) hemoglobin B) platelets C) plasma D) leukocytes Answer: A Explanation: A) Persons with thalassemia are unable to correctly make hemoglobin. B) Platelets are not affected in thalassemia. C) Plasma is not affected in thalassemia. D) Leukocytes are not affected in thalassemia. Page Ref: 143 Learning Obj.: 8-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary

157) Which of the following statements regarding a white blood cell count is NOT true? A) It is a blood test. B) It determines the number of each type of leukocyte. C) An increase may indicate an infection. D) A decrease may be caused by chemotherapy. Answer: B Explanation: A) A white blood cell count is a blood test. B) A white blood cell count determines the total number of leukocytes, not each type. C) An increase in leukocytes may indicate an infection. D) A decrease in leukocytes may be caused by chemotherapy. Page Ref: 143 Learning Obj.: 8-6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary 158) Which term means "condition of being without blood"? A) Ahemoglobin B) Erythropenia C) Anemia D) Hypoglycemia Answer: C Explanation: A) Ahemoglobin means "without hemoglobin." B) Erythropenia is the condition of having too few red blood cells. C) Anemia means "condition of being without blood." D) Hypoglycemia is a deficiency of sugar in the blood. Page Ref: 137 Learning Obj.: 8-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building 159) The term hyperlipemia means there is/are excessive ________ in the blood. A) toxins B) hemoglobin C) iron D) fat Answer: D Explanation: A) Toxins are not part of hyperlipemia. B) Hemoglobin is not part of hyperlipemia. C) Iron is not part of hyperlipemia. D) The term hyperlipemia means there is excessive fat in the blood. Page Ref: 137 Learning Obj.: 8-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building

160) The term pancytopenia means there are too few ________. A) of all cells B) red cells C) white cells D) clotting cells Answer: A Explanation: A) The term pancytopenia means there are too few of all cells. B) Pancytopenia describes the condition of having too few of all cells, not just red cells. C) Pancytopenia describes the condition of having too few of all cells, not just white cells. D) Pancytopenia describes the condition of having too few of all cells, not just clotting cells. Page Ref: 139 Learning Obj.: 8-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building 161) Thrombolytic therapy treats ________. A) anemia B) hemophilia C) clots D) septicemia Answer: C Explanation: A) Anemia is not treated by thrombolytic therapy. B) Hemophilia is not treated by thrombolytic therapy. C) Clots are treated by thrombolytic therapy. D) Septicemia is not treated by thrombolytic therapy. Page Ref: 143 Learning Obj.: 8-6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary 162) An embolus is dangerous because it can ________. A) cause cancer B) block a smaller blood vessel C) cause excessive bleeding D) cause anemia Answer: B Explanation: A) An embolus does not cause cancer. B) An embolus may block a smaller blood vessel. C) An embolus does not cause excessive bleeding. D) An embolus does not cause anemia. Page Ref: 141 Learning Obj.: 8-6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary

163) Which of the following abbreviations stands for hemoglobin? A) Hemo B) Hg C) Hgb D) H-globin Answer: C Explanation: A) Hemo does not stand for hemoglobin. B) Hg does not stand for hemoglobin. C) Hgb does stand for hemoglobin. D) H-globin is not an abbreviation for hemoglobin. Page Ref: 143 Learning Obj.: 8-7 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Abbreviations 164) Which of the following terms is misspelled? A) Erythrocyte B) Monocyte C) Luekocyte D) Thrombocyte Answer: C Explanation: A) Erythrocyte is spelled correctly. B) Monocyte is spelled correctly. C) Luekocyte is spelled leukocyte. D) Thrombocyte is spelled correctly. Page Ref: 135 Learning Obj.: 8-4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Spelling 165) Which abbreviation indicates a blood test performed on leukocytes? A) diff B) pro-time C) RBC D) ESR Answer: A Explanation: A) A white blood cell differential, or diff, is performed on leukocytes. B) Pro-time is not a test performed on leukocytes. C) RBC stands for "red blood cell." D) ESR stands for "erythrocyte sedimentation rate," which is not a test performed on leukocytes. Page Ref: 143 Learning Obj.: 8-7 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Abbreviations

166) Which of the following terms is misspelled? A) Hematocrit B) Hemotoma C) Hemoglobin D) Hemophilia Answer: B Explanation: A) Hematocrit is spelled correctly. B) Hemotoma is spelled hematoma. C) Hemoglobin is spelled correctly. D) Hemophilia is spelled correctly. Page Ref: 139 Learning Obj.: 8-5 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Spelling 167) Which of the following terms is misspelled? A) Anticoagulant B) Embolus C) Autotransfusion D) Thalasemia Answer: D Explanation: A) Anticoagulant is spelled correctly. B) Embolus is spelled correctly. C) Autotransfusion is spelled correctly. D) Thalasemia is spelled thalassemia. Page Ref: 143 Learning Obj.: 8-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Spelling 168) Which of the following terms is misspelled? A) Erythropoeisis B) Eosinopenia C) Thrombocytosis D) Hematocytopenia Answer: A Explanation: A) Erythropoeisis is spelled erythropoiesis. B) Eosinopenia is spelled correctly. C) Thrombocytosis is spelled correctly. D) Hematocytopenia is spelled correctly. Page Ref: 140 Learning Obj.: 8-5 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Spelling

169) Which of the following terms is misspelled? A) Thrombolyses B) Erythrocytosis C) Hematologist D) Hemorrhage Answer: A Explanation: A) Thrombolyses is spelled thrombolysis. B) Erythrocytosis is spelled correctly. C) Hematologist is spelled correctly. D) Hemorrhage is spelled correctly. Page Ref: 140 Learning Obj.: 8-5 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Spelling 170) Which of the following abbreviations is a procedure used to treat aplastic anemia? A) C&S B) BMT C) PMN D) ESR Answer: B Explanation: A) C&S stands for "blood culture and sensitivity" and does not treat aplastic anemia. B) BMT stands for "bone marrow transplant," a procedure used to treat aplastic anemia. C) PMN stands for "polymorphonuclear neutrophil" and does not treat aplastic anemia. D) ESR stands for "erythrocyte sedimentation rate" and does not treat aplastic anemia. Page Ref: 141 Learning Obj.: 8-7 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Abbreviations 171) Which of the following abbreviations is a test of how long it takes for blood to clot? A) BMT B) PA C) diff D) PT Answer: D Explanation: A) BMT stands for "bone marrow transplant" and does not test clotting time. B) PA stands for "pernicious anemia" and does not test clotting time. C) diff stands for "differential" and does not test clotting time. D) PT stands for "prothrombin time," which tests clotting time. Page Ref: 142 Learning Obj.: 8-7 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Abbreviations

172) Which of the following abbreviations is NOT a type of leukocyte? A) crit B) basos C) monos D) eos Answer: A Explanation: A) A crit, or hematocrit, measures the volume of red blood cells in the total volume of blood. B) Basophils are a type of leukocyte. C) Monocytes are a type of leukocyte. D) Eosinophils are a type of leukocyte. Page Ref: 143 Learning Obj.: 8-7 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Abbreviations 173) Which of the following abbreviations refers to a type of neutrophil? A) RBC B) segs C) PA D) HGB Answer: B Explanation: A) RBC stands for "red blood cell." B) segs stands for "segmented neutrophils." C) PA stands for "pernicious anemia." D) HGB stands for "hemoglobin." Page Ref: 143 Learning Obj.: 8-7 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Abbreviations 174) Which of the following abbreviations is NOT a blood test? A) BMT B) HCT C) PT D) CBC Answer: A Explanation: A) BMT stands for "bone marrow transplant." B) HCT stands for "hematocrit." C) PT stands for "prothrombin time." D) CBC stands for "complete blood count." Page Ref: 143 Learning Obj.: 8-7 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Abbreviations

175) Which of the following abbreviations is a blood test for inflammation in the body? A) ESR B) HCT C) WBC D) CBC Answer: A Explanation: A) ESR stands for "erythrocyte sedimentation rate," a blood test for inflammation in the body. B) HCT stands for "hematocrit." C) WBC stands for "white blood cell." D) CBC stands for "complete blood count." Page Ref: 141 Learning Obj.: 8-7 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Abbreviations

Match each term on the left with the correct definition on the right. A) cancer of bone marrow B) have the ability to fight pathogens C) blood test that indicates inflammation in the body D) blood poisoning E) blood with formed elements and clotting factors removed F) venipuncture G) measures volume of erythrocytes in total volume of blood H) form a blood clot I) machine for performing blood tests J) low blood sugar K) transport oxygen L) condition of having too many red blood cells M) bruise N) determines bacterial infection O) floating clot P) condition in which blood fails to clot Q) results from insufficient vitamin B12 R) transfer of blood from one person to another S) loss of functioning red bone marrow T) watery part of blood U) high fat in the blood V) play a role in hemostasis W) prevents clot formation X) blood protein Y) measures blood clotting ability 176) Erythrocytes Page Ref: 135 Learning Obj.: 8-2 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 177) Plasma Page Ref: 135 Learning Obj.: 8-4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 178) Leukocytes Page Ref: 135 Learning Obj.: 8-2 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology

179) platelets Page Ref: 135 Learning Obj.: 8-2 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 180) embolus Page Ref: 141 Learning Obj.: 8-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 181) serum Page Ref: 143 Learning Obj.: 8-4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 182) pro-time Page Ref: 142 Learning Obj.: 8-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 183) hyperlipemia Page Ref: 137 Learning Obj.: 8-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building 184) polycythemia vera Page Ref: 142 Learning Obj.: 8-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 185) leukemia Page Ref: 142 Learning Obj.: 8-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 186) hemophilia Page Ref: 142 Learning Obj.: 8-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 45 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

187) culture and sensitivity Page Ref: 141 Learning Obj.: 8-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 188) hematocrit Page Ref: 141 Learning Obj.: 8-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 189) phlebotomy Page Ref: 142 Learning Obj.: 8-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 190) pernicious anemia Page Ref: 142 Learning Obj.: 8-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 191) sedimentation rate Page Ref: 141 Learning Obj.: 8-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 192) hemoglobin Page Ref: 142 Learning Obj.: 8-4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 193) blood analyzer Page Ref: 141 Learning Obj.: 8-7 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Abbreviations 194) aplastic anemia Page Ref: 140 Learning Obj.: 8-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 46 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

195) hypoglycemia Page Ref: 137 Learning Obj.: 8-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building 196) anticoagulant Page Ref: 140 Learning Obj.: 8-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 197) transfusion Page Ref: 141 Learning Obj.: 8-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 198) coagulate Page Ref: 141 Learning Obj.: 8-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 199) hematoma Page Ref: 142 Learning Obj.: 8-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 200) septicemia Page Ref: 143 Learning Obj.: 8-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary Answers: 176) K 177) T 178) B 179) V 180) O 181) E 182) Y 183) U 184) L 185) A 186) P 187) N 188) G 189) F 190) Q 191) C 192) X 193) I 194) S 195) J 196) W 197) R 198) H 199) M 200) D

201) Describe the components of blood. Answer: ∙ Plasma: watery portion of blood; 55% of whole blood; primarily water; transports dissolved substances ∙ Erythrocytes: red blood cells; contain hemoglobin, a protein that transports oxygen ∙ Leukocytes: white blood cells; provide protection against pathogens; five types: eosinophils, lymphocytes, monocytes, basophils, neutrophils ∙ Platelets: also called thrombocytes; trigger blood-clotting process Page Ref: 135 Learning Obj.: 8-4 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 202) List and briefly describe the different types of anemias introduced in this chapter. Answer: ∙ aplastic anemia: Severe form of anemia caused by loss of functioning red bone marrow; results in decrease in number of all blood cells; may require bone marrow transplant ∙ iron-deficiency anemia: Anemia resulting when there is not enough iron to build hemoglobin for red blood cells ∙ pernicious anemia: Anemia resulting when insufficient amount of vitamin B12 is absorbed by digestive system; vitamin B12 is necessary for erythrocyte production ∙ sickle cell anemia: Inherited blood cell disorder in which erythrocytes take on an abnormal curved or "sickle" shape; cells are fragile and easily damaged, resulting in anemia; occurs almost exclusively in persons of African descent ∙ thalassemia: Inherited blood disorder in which body is unable to correctly make hemoglobin, resulting in anemia Page Ref: 140, 142, 143 Learning Obj.: 8-6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary

Medical Terminology: Get Connected!, 3e (Frucht) Chapter 9 Immunology: Immune Systems All answers to questions asking for a combining form must be written in the combining form style, meaning word root/combining vowel. For example, the combining form meaning "heart" is cardi/o. All answers to questions asking for a suffix must be written in suffix form, meaning a hyphen before your answer. For example, the suffix meaning "cell" is -cyte. All answers to questions asking for a prefix must be written in prefix form, meaning a hyphen after your answer. For example, a prefix meaning "two" is bi-. Do NOT capitalize any of your answers or include a period at the end of your answer. The computer will NOT recognize your answer as correct if it is written in any other style. 1) The combining form that means system is ________. Answer: system/o; systemo Page Ref: 155 Learning Obj.: 9-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 2) The combining form that means cell is ________. Answer: cyt/o; cyto Page Ref: 155 Learning Obj.: 9-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 3) The combining form that means cortex is ________. Answer: cortic/o; cortico Page Ref: 155 Learning Obj.: 9-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 4) A combining form that means eating is ________. Answer: phag/o; phago Page Ref: 155 Learning Obj.: 9-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 5) A combining form that means disease is ________. Answer: path/o; patho Page Ref: 155 Learning Obj.: 9-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 1 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc

6) A combining form that means adenoid is ________. Answer: adenoid/o; adenoido Page Ref: 155 Learning Obj.: 9-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 7) A combining form that means protection is ________. Answer: immun/o; immuno Page Ref: 155 Learning Obj.: 9-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 8) A combining form that means lymph is ________. Answer: lymph/o; lympho Page Ref: 155 Learning Obj.: 9-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 9) A combining form that means lymph node is ________. Answer: lymphaden/o; lymphadeno Page Ref: 155 Learning Obj.: 9-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 10) A combining form that means lymph vessel is ________. Answer: lymphangi/o; lymphangio Page Ref: 155 Learning Obj.: 9-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 11) A combining form that means spleen is ________. Answer: splen/o; spleno Page Ref: 155 Learning Obj.: 9-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

12) A combining form that means thymus gland is ________. Answer: thym/o; thymo Page Ref: 155 Learning Obj.: 9-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 13) A combining form that means tonsil is ________. Answer: tonsill/o; tonsillo Page Ref: 155 Learning Obj.: 9-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 14) A suffix that means protein is ________. Answer: -globulin; globulin Page Ref: 155 Learning Obj.: 9-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 15) A suffix that means stopping is ________. Answer: -stasis; stasis Page Ref: 155 Learning Obj.: 9-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 16) A suffix that means dilated is ________. Answer: -ectasis; ectasis Page Ref: 155 Learning Obj.: 9-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 17) A suffix that means swelling is ________. Answer: -edema; edema Page Ref: 155 Learning Obj.: 9-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

18) A suffix that means process of recording is ________. Answer: -graphy; graphy Page Ref: 155 Learning Obj.: 9-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 19) A suffix that means abnormal softening is ________. Answer: -malacia; malacia Page Ref: 155 Learning Obj.: 9-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 20) A suffix that means enlarged is ________. Answer: -megaly; megaly Page Ref: 155 Learning Obj.: 9-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 21) A suffix that means resembling is ________. Answer: -oid; oid Page Ref: 155 Learning Obj.: 9-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 22) A suffix that means to suture is ________. Answer: -rrhaphy; rrhaphy Page Ref: 155 Learning Obj.: 9-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 23) A suffix that means poison is ________. Answer: -toxic; toxic Page Ref: 155 Learning Obj.: 9-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

24) A suffix that means surgical fixation is ________. Answer: -pexy; pexy Page Ref: 155 Learning Obj.: 9-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 25) A suffix that means surgical repair is ________. Answer: -plasty; plasty Page Ref: 155 Learning Obj.: 9-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 26) A prefix that means against is ________. Answer: anti-; anti Page Ref: 155 Learning Obj.: 9-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 27) A prefix that means one is ________. Answer: mono-; mono Page Ref: 155 Learning Obj.: 9-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 28) A prefix that means self is ________. Answer: auto-; auto Page Ref: 155 Learning Obj.: 9-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 29) A medical term that means pertaining to the tonsils is ________. Answer: tonsillar Page Ref: 162 Learning Obj.: 9-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building

30) A medical term that means surgical removal of the thymus gland is ________. Answer: thymectomy Page Ref: 162 Learning Obj.: 9-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building 31) A medical term that means one who studies immunity is ________. Answer: immunologist Page Ref: 157 Learning Obj.: 9-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building 32) A medical term that means disease of lymph nodes is ________. Answer: lymphadenopathy Page Ref: 158 Learning Obj.: 9-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building 33) A medical term that means lymph vessel tumor is ________. Answer: lymphangioma Page Ref: 160 Learning Obj.: 9-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building 34) A medical term that means enlarged spleen is ________. Answer: splenomegaly Page Ref: 161 Learning Obj.: 9-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building 35) A medical term that means pertaining to lymph is ________. Answer: lymphatic Page Ref: 158 Learning Obj.: 9-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building

36) A medical term that means adenoid inflammation is ________. Answer: adenoiditis Page Ref: 156 Learning Obj.: 9-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building 37) A medical term that means protection protein is ________. Answer: immunoglobulin Page Ref: 157 Learning Obj.: 9-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building 38) A medical term that means lymph swelling is ________. Answer: lymphedema Page Ref: 158 Learning Obj.: 9-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building 39) A medical term that means resembling lymph is ________. Answer: lymphoid Page Ref: 158 Learning Obj.: 9-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building 40) A medical term that means record of lymph nodes is ________. Answer: lymphadenogram Page Ref: 158 Learning Obj.: 9-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building 41) A medical term that means surgical removal of a lymph vessel is ________. Answer: lymphangiectomy Page Ref: 160 Learning Obj.: 9-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building

42) A medical term that means disease producing is ________. Answer: pathogenic Page Ref: 160 Learning Obj.: 9-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building 43) A medical term that means eating cell is ________. Answer: phagocyte Page Ref: 160 Learning Obj.: 9-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building 44) A medical term that means thymus gland tumor is ________. Answer: thymoma Page Ref: 162 Learning Obj.: 9-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building 45) A medical term that means study of disease is ________. Answer: pathology Page Ref: 160 Learning Obj.: 9-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building 46) A medical term that means immunity treatment is ________. Answer: immunotherapy Page Ref: 157 Learning Obj.: 9-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building 47) A medical term that means lymph cell tumor is ________. Answer: lymphocytoma Page Ref: 158 Learning Obj.: 9-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building

48) A medical term that means abnormal softening of the spleen is ________. Answer: splenomalacia Page Ref: 161 Learning Obj.: 9-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building 49) A medical term that means surgical fixation of the spleen is ________. Answer: splenopexy Page Ref: 161 Learning Obj.: 9-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building 50) A medical term that means inflammation of the tonsils is ________. Answer: tonsillitis Page Ref: 162 Learning Obj.: 9-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building 51) The immune system is a network of cells, tissues, and organs throughout the body. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 155 Learning Obj.: 9-4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 52) Pathogen is a term used to refer only to viruses and bacteria. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Pathogen refers to anything that can damage the body including viruses, bacteria, toxins, and cancerous cells. Page Ref: 155 Learning Obj.: 9-2 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 53) Toxins are an example of a pathogen. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 155 Learning Obj.: 9-2 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary

54) The tonsils are a type of lymph node. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Tonsils contain lymphatic tissue, but they are not lymph nodes. Page Ref: 155 Learning Obj.: 9-4 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 55) Many functions of the immune system are carried out by lymphocytes. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 155 Learning Obj.: 9-2 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 56) The immune system protects the body against pathogens everywhere except in the organs of the lymphatic system. Answer: FALSE Explanation: The cells of the immune system are concentrated throughout the body in the organs of the lymphatic system. Page Ref: 155 Learning Obj.: 9-2 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 57) The thymus gland and spleen are part of the lymphatic system. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 155 Learning Obj.: 9-4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 58) Lymph flows through lymph vessels to be returned to the arterial circulation. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Lymph flows through lymph vessels to be returned to the venous circulation. Page Ref: 158 Learning Obj.: 9-2 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 59) An allergist is an immunologist that specializes in treating allergies. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 155 Learning Obj.: 9-1 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Medical Specialties 10 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc

60) Lymph nodes are small roundish organs located along the path of veins. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Lymph nodes are small roundish organs located along the path of lymphatic vessels. Page Ref: 158 Learning Obj.: 9-4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 61) The fluid inside a lymphatic vessel is called lymph. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 158 Learning Obj.: 9-4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 62) Lymph nodes and lymph glands are not the same thing. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Lymph gland is a common name for lymph node. Page Ref: 158 Learning Obj.: 9-4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 63) The immune system destroys cancerous cells. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 155 Learning Obj.: 9-2 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 64) The lingual tonsils are also called the adenoids. Answer: FALSE Explanation: The pharyngeal tonsils are also called the adenoids. Page Ref: 157 Learning Obj.: 9-4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 65) Monocytes are phagocytic cells. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 160 Learning Obj.: 9-2 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology

66) Vaccinations cause the person to have a mild case of the disease so that they won't have a severe case later in life. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Vaccinations stimulate the immune response and antibody production, but they do not cause a mild case of the disease. Page Ref: 166 Learning Obj.: 9-6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary 67) Immunoglobulins are protective proteins in the immune system. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 157 Learning Obj.: 9-2 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 68) Cytotoxic cells stimulate the production of antibodies. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Cytotoxic cells physically attack and kill pathogens. Page Ref: 163 Learning Obj.: 9-2 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 69) Lymph nodes house lymphocytes and other white blood cells. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 158 Learning Obj.: 9-4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 70) The spleen filters pathogens from lymph fluid. Answer: FALSE Explanation: The spleen filters pathogens from blood and destroys worn-out red blood cells. Page Ref: 160 Learning Obj.: 9-2 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 71) Phagocytes engulf pathogens or damaged cells. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 160 Learning Obj.: 9-2 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 12 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc

72) The thymus gland is located in the left side of the upper abdomen. Answer: FALSE Explanation: The thymus gland is located in the mediastinum behind the sternum. Page Ref: 161 Learning Obj.: 9-4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 73) The thymus gland is necessary for proper development of the immune system. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 161 Learning Obj.: 9-4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 74) Tonsils are located in the nasal cavity to remove pathogens breathed in. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Tonsils are located in the throat. Page Ref: 162 Learning Obj.: 9-2 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 75) Lymphadenopathy and night sweats are symptoms of AIDS-related complex. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 162 Learning Obj.: 9-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 76) AIDS-related complex is seen in the late stages of HIV infection. Answer: FALSE Explanation: AIDS-related complex is seen in the early stage of HIV infection. Page Ref: 162 Learning Obj.: 9-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 77) Opportunistic infections are common in AIDS patients. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 162 Learning Obj.: 9-6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary

78) Anaphylaxis is also called hives. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Anaphylaxis is also called anaphylactic shock. Page Ref: 163 Learning Obj.: 9-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 79) Anaphylactic shock is caused by a severe allergic reaction. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 163 Learning Obj.: 9-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 80) The antinuclear antibody titer is elevated during an allergic reaction. Answer: FALSE Explanation: The antinuclear antibody titer is elevated by autoimmune diseases. Page Ref: 163 Learning Obj.: 9-6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary 81) Systemic lupus erythematosus is an example of an autoimmune disease. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 166 Learning Obj.: 9-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 82) Corticosteroids are hormones produced by the adrenal medulla. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Corticosteroids are hormones produced by the adrenal cortex. Page Ref: 163 Learning Obj.: 9-2 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 83) Elephantiasis results from the blockage of lymphatic vessels. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 163 Learning Obj.: 9-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary

84) Hives are a symptom of an autoimmune disease. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Hives are a symptom of an allergic reaction. Page Ref: 164 Learning Obj.: 9-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 85) Hodgkin's disease affects the lymph nodes. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 164 Learning Obj.: 9-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 86) Hives include the appearance of skin ulcers as part of an allergic reaction. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Hives include the appearance of wheals as part of an allergic reaction. Page Ref: 164 Learning Obj.: 9-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 87) An immunocompromised immune system fails to respond properly to a pathogen. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 164 Learning Obj.: 9-6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary 88) Inflamed tissue is swollen but not reddened. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Inflamed tissue is swollen and reddened. Page Ref: 165 Learning Obj.: 9-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 89) An allergy is a hypersensitivity to a common substance in the environment. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 163 Learning Obj.: 9-6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary

90) Opportunistic infections affect patients with anemia. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Opportunistic infections affect patients with compromised immune systems. Page Ref: 165 Learning Obj.: 9-6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary 91) The scratch test is used to determine what a person is allergic to. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 166 Learning Obj.: 9-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 92) SCID is a genetic condition characterized by severe allergies. Answer: FALSE Explanation: SCID is a genetic condition characterized by a nonfunctioning immune system. Page Ref: 166 Learning Obj.: 9-7 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Abbreviations 93) Hodgkin's disease is a type of lymphoma. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 164 Learning Obj.: 9-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 94) Urticaria is the severe itching associated with sarcoidosis. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Urticaria is the severe itching associated with hives. Page Ref: 166 Learning Obj.: 9-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 95) Pneumocystis pneumonia is commonly seen in patients with AIDS. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 162 Learning Obj.: 9-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary

96) Hodgkin's lymphoma is a type of cancer, while non-Hodgkin's lymphoma is not. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Both are types of cancer. Page Ref: 164, 165 Learning Obj.: 9-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 97) An antibody immunoassay is a blood test for HIV antibodies. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 164 Learning Obj.: 9-6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary 98) Mononucleosis is a type of bacterial infection of lymphoid tissue. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Mononucleosis is an acute viral infection of lymphoid tissue. Page Ref: 165 Learning Obj.: 9-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 99) Immunosuppressants are used to prevent rejection of transplanted organs. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 164 Learning Obj.: 9-6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary 100) Kaposi's sarcoma is a type of wheal. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Kaposi's sarcoma is a type of cancer often seen in patients with AIDS. Page Ref: 165 Learning Obj.: 9-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary

101) Which term means "protection protein"? A) Immunogenic B) Immunologist C) Immunoglobulin D) Immunotherapy Answer: C Explanation: A) Immunogenic means "pertaining to producing protection." B) Immunologist means "one who studies protection." C) Immunoglobulin means "protection protein." D) Immunotherapy is immunity treatment. Page Ref: 157 Learning Obj.: 9-5 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 102) Which term means "lymph swelling"? A) Lymphedema B) Lymphoma C) Lymphocyte D) Lymphogenic Answer: A Explanation: A) Lymphedema means "lymph swelling." B) Lymphoma means "tumor of lymph." C) Lymphocyte means "lymph cell." D) Lymphogenic means "producing lymph." Page Ref: 158 Learning Obj.: 9-5 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 103) Which term means "record of lymph nodes"? A) Lymphadenopathy B) Lymphadenitis C) Lymphadenosis D) Lymphadenogram Answer: D Explanation: A) Lymphadenopathy means "disease of lymph nodes." B) Lymphadenitis means "inflammation of lymph nodes." C) Lymphadenosis means "abnormal condition of lymph nodes." D) Lymphadenogram means "record of lymph nodes." Page Ref: 158 Learning Obj.: 9-5 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

104) Which term means "disease of lymph vessel"? A) Lymphangiitis B) Lymphangiectasis C) Lymphangioma D) Lymphangiopathy Answer: D Explanation: A) Lymphangiitis means "inflammation of lymph vessel." B) Lymphangiectasis means "dilated lymph vessel." C) Lymphangioma means "tumor of lymph vessel." D) Lymphangiopathy means "disease of lymph vessel." Page Ref: 159 Learning Obj.: 9-5 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 105) Which term means "one who studies disease"? A) Pathogenic B) Pathologist C) Pathogen D) Pathology Answer: B Explanation: A) Pathogenic means "disease producing." B) Pathologist means "one who studies disease." C) Pathogen is anything that can damage the body. D) Pathology means "study of disease." Page Ref: 160 Learning Obj.: 9-5 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 106) Which term means "abnormal softening of the spleen"? A) Splenoid B) Splenomegaly C) Splenorrhaphy D) Splenomalacia Answer: D Explanation: A) Splenoid means "resembling the spleen." B) Splenomegaly means "enlarged spleen." C) Splenorrhaphy means "suture of the spleen." D) Splenomalacia means "abnormal softening of the spleen." Page Ref: 161 Learning Obj.: 9-5 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

107) Which term means "thymus gland tumor"? A) Thymitis B) Thymoma C) Thymectomy D) Thymoid Answer: B Explanation: A) Thymitis means "inflammation of the thymus gland." B) Thymoma means "thymus gland tumor." C) Thymectomy means "surgical removal of the thymus gland." D) Thymoid means "resembling the thymus gland." Page Ref: 162 Learning Obj.: 9-5 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 108) Which term means "inflammation of the tonsils"? A) Tonsillatic B) Tonsillar C) Tonsilloid D) Tonsillitis Answer: D Explanation: A) Tonsillectomy means "surgical removal of the tonsils." B) Tonsillar means "pertaining to the tonsils." C) Tonsilloid means "resembling the tonsils." D) -itis is a suffix that means "inflammation." Page Ref: 162 Learning Obj.: 9-5 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 109) Which term means "stopping lymph"? A) Lymphoid B) Lymphostasis C) Lymphocytoma D) Lymphedema Answer: B Explanation: A) Lymphoid means "resembling lymph." B) Lymphostasis means "stopping lymph." C) Lymphocytoma means "tumor of a lymph cell." D) Lymphedema means "swelling of lymph." Page Ref: 158 Learning Obj.: 9-5 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

110) Which term means "surgical removal of adenoids"? A) Adenoidotomy B) Adenoiditis C) Adenoidopexy D) Adenoidectomy Answer: D Explanation: A) Adenoidotomy means "cutting into adenoids." B) Adenoiditis means "inflammation of adenoids." C) Adenoidopexy means "surgical fixation of adenoids." D) Adenoidectomy means "surgical removal of adenoids." Page Ref: 157 Learning Obj.: 9-5 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 111) Which term means "lymph node inflammation"? A) Lymphangiitis B) Lymphadenopathy C) Lymphadenitis D) Lymphangiogram Answer: C Explanation: A) Lymphangiitis means "lymph vessel inflammation." B) Lymphadenopathy means "disease of lymph nodes." C) Lymphadenitis means "lymph node inflammation." D) Lymphangiogram means "a record of a lymph vessel." Page Ref: 158 Learning Obj.: 9-5 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 112) Which term means "to suture the spleen"? A) Splenorrhaphy B) Splenectomy C) Splenoplasty D) Splenopexy Answer: A Explanation: A) Splenorrhaphy means "suture of the spleen." B) Splenectomy means "surgical removal of the spleen." C) Splenoplasty means "surgical repair of the spleen." D) Splenopexy means "surgical fixation of the spleen." Page Ref: 161 Learning Obj.: 9-5 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

113) The meaning of the suffix -genic is ________. A) swelling B) study of C) producing D) pertaining to Answer: C Explanation: A) -edema means "swelling." B) -logy means "study of." C) -genic means "producing." D) -ar, -atic, and -ic mean "pertaining to." Page Ref: 155 Learning Obj.: 9-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 114) The meaning of the suffix -ectasis is ________. A) abnormal softening B) protein C) dilated D) stopping Answer: C Explanation: A) -malacia means "abnormal softening." B) -globulin means "protein." C) -ectasis means "dilated." D) -stasis means "stopping." Page Ref: 155 Learning Obj.: 9-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 115) The meaning of the suffix -stasis is ________. A) stopping B) treatment C) poison D) enlarged Answer: A Explanation: A) -stasis means "stopping." B) -therapy means "treatment." C) -toxic means "poison." D) -megaly means "enlarged." Page Ref: 155 Learning Obj.: 9-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

116) The meaning of the suffix -malacia is ________. A) inflammation B) abnormal softening C) resembling D) suture Answer: B Explanation: A) -itis means "inflammation." B) -malacia means "abnormal softening." C) -oid means "resembling." D) -rrhaphy means "to suture." Page Ref: 155 Learning Obj.: 9-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 117) The immune system does NOT consist of ________. A) cells B) organs C) tissues D) erythrocytes Answer: D Explanation: A) Cells are part of the immune system. B) Organs are part of the immune system. C) Tissues are part of the immune system. D) Lymphocytes, not erythrocytes, are part of the immune system. Page Ref: 155 Learning Obj.: 9-4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 118) Which white blood cells are most involved in carrying out the functions of the immune system? A) Basophils B) Monocytes C) Lymphocytes D) Eosinophils Answer: C Explanation: A) Basophils are not most involved in carrying out the functions of the immune system. B) Monocytes are not most involved in carrying out the functions of the immune system. C) Lymphocytes are most involved in carrying out the functions of the immune system. D) Eosinophils are not most involved in carrying out the functions of the immune system. Page Ref: 155 Learning Obj.: 9-2 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 23 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc

119) Which of the following is NOT a pathogen? A) Cancer cells B) Bacteria C) Viruses D) Phagocytes Answer: D Explanation: A) Cancer cells are pathogens. B) Bacteria are pathogens. C) Viruses are pathogens. D) Phagocytes consume pathogens or damaged cells. Page Ref: 155 Learning Obj.: 9-6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary 120) The adenoids are also called the ________. A) pharyngeal tonsils B) thymus gland C) spleen D) lymph nodes Answer: A Explanation: A) The adenoids are also called the pharyngeal tonsils. B) The thymus gland is not called adenoids. C) The spleen is not called adenoids. D) Lymph nodes are not called adenoids. Page Ref: 157 Learning Obj.: 9-4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 121) Which of the following statements regarding lymph fluid is NOT true? A) It is a clear fluid. B) It is returned to the arterial circulation. C) It is collected from body tissues. D) It flows through lymph vessels. Answer: B Explanation: A) Lymph is a clear fluid. B) Lymph is returned to the venous, not arterial, circulation. C) Lymph is collected from body tissues. D) Lymph flows through lymph vessels. Page Ref: 158 Learning Obj.: 9-2 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology

122) Which of the following is NOT part of the lymphatic system? A) Liver B) Spleen C) Lymph nodes D) Lymphatic vessels Answer: A Explanation: A) The liver is not part of the lymphatic system. B) The spleen is part of the lymphatic system. C) The lymph nodes are part of the lymphatic system. D) The lymphatic vessels are part of the lymphatic system. Page Ref: 155 Learning Obj.: 9-4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 123) Which of the following statements regarding lymph nodes is NOT true? A) They house lymphocytes and other white blood cells. B) They remove pathogens and damaged cells from lymph. C) They are distributed along the path of veins. D) They are commonly called lymph glands. Answer: C Explanation: A) Lymph nodes house lymphocytes and other white blood cells. B) Lymph nodes remove pathogens and damaged cells from lymph. C) Lymph nodes are distributed along the path of lymphatic vessels. D) Lymph nodes are commonly called lymph glands. Page Ref: 158 Learning Obj.: 9-2 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 124) Which of the following statements regarding the tonsils is NOT true? A) There are two different sets of tonsils. B) The tonsils are composed of lymphatic tissue. C) The tonsils remove pathogens from air and food. D) The pharyngeal tonsils are commonly called the adenoids. Answer: A Explanation: A) There are three, not two, different sets of tonsils. B) The tonsils are composed of lymphatic tissue. C) The tonsils remove pathogens from air and food. D) The pharyngeal tonsils are commonly called the adenoids. Page Ref: 162 Learning Obj.: 9-4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology

125) Which of the following statements about the spleen is NOT true? A) The spleen houses leukocytes that filter pathogens from blood. B) The spleen produces new erythrocytes. C) The spleen removes and destroys worn-out red blood cells. D) The spleen is located in the upper left side of the abdomen. Answer: B Explanation: A) The spleen houses leukocytes that filter pathogens from blood. B) The spleen does not produce new erythrocytes. C) The spleen removes and destroys worn-out red blood cells. D) The spleen is located in the upper left side of the abdomen. Page Ref: 161 Learning Obj.: 9-4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 126) Which of the following statements regarding the thymus gland is NOT true? A) The thymus gland is located in the mediastinum behind the sternum. B) The thymus gland begins to shrink by puberty. C) The thymus gland is important for the proper development of the immune system. D) The thymus gland increases in size throughout life. Answer: D Explanation: A) The thymus gland is located in the mediastinum behind the sternum. B) The thymus gland begins to shrink by puberty. C) The thymus gland is important for the proper development of the immune system. D) The thymus gland does not increase in size throughout life. Page Ref: 161 Learning Obj.: 9-4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 127) Which type of cell is an example of a phagocytic cell? A) Lymphocyte B) Monocyte C) Erythrocyte D) Lipocyte Answer: B Explanation: A) A lymphocyte is a lymph cell. B) A monocyte is a phagocytic cell. C) An erythrocyte is a red cell. D) A lipocyte is a fat cell. Page Ref: 160 Learning Obj.: 9-2 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology

128) Which of the following conditions is swelling caused by a blockage of lymph flow? A) Elephantiasis B) Hives C) Hodgkin's disease D) Mononucleosis Answer: A Explanation: A) Elephantiasis is swelling caused by a blockage of lymph flow. B) Hives are wheals appearing during an allergic reaction. C) Hodgkin's disease is cancer of lymphatic cells found in lymph nodes. D) Mononucleosis is a viral infection of lymph tissue. Page Ref: 164 Learning Obj.: 9-6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary 129) Which of the following is the severe itching associated with hives? A) Anaphylaxis B) Sarcoidosis C) Lymphedema D) Urticaria Answer: D Explanation: A) Anaphylaxis is a life-threatening condition resulting from a severe allergic reaction. B) Sarcoidosis is an autoimmune disease with fibrous lesions. C) Lymphedema is lymph swelling. D) Urticaria is the severe itching associated with hives. Page Ref: 166 Learning Obj.: 9-6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary 130) Which of the following is a life-threatening allergic reaction? A) Elephantiasis B) Sarcoidosis C) Anaphylactic shock D) AIDS-related complex Answer: C Explanation: A) Elephantiasis is swelling caused by a blockage of lymph flow. B) Sarcoidosis is an autoimmune disease with fibrous lesions. C) Anaphylactic shock is a life-threatening allergic reaction. D) AIDS-related complex is the early stage of HIV infection. Page Ref: 163 Learning Obj.: 9-6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary

131) Which of the following conditions is an autoimmune disease? A) Kaposi's sarcoma B) Sarcoidosis C) Elephantiasis D) Mononucleosis Answer: B Explanation: A) Kaposi's sarcoma is a type of skin cancer. B) Sarcoidosis is an autoimmune disease with fibrous lesions forming in the lymph nodes, liver, skin, lungs, spleen, eyes, and small bones of the hands and feet. C) Elephantiasis is swelling caused by a blockage of lymph flow. D) Mononucleosis is a viral infection of lymph tissue. Page Ref: 165 Learning Obj.: 9-6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary 132) Which of the following conditions is cancer? A) Hodgkin's disease B) Lymphadenitis C) AIDS-related complex D) Sarcoidosis Answer: A Explanation: A) Hodgkin's disease is cancer of lymphatic cells found in lymph nodes. B) Lymphadenitis is inflammation of the lymph nodes. C) AIDS-related complex is the early stage of HIV infection. D) Sarcoidosis is an autoimmune disease with fibrous lesions. Page Ref: 164 Learning Obj.: 9-6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary 133) Which of the following pairs is mismatched? A) Mononucleosis—bacterial infection B) Scratch test—allergy test C) Opportunistic infection—seen in immunocompromised persons D) Antibody immunoassay—tests for the presence of antibodies against the HIV virus Answer: A Explanation: A) Mononucleosis is a viral, not bacterial, infection. B) Scratch test is an allergy test. C) Opportunistic infection is seen in immunocompromised persons. D) The antibody immunoassay does test for the presence of antibodies against the HIV virus. Page Ref: 165 Learning Obj.: 9-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary

134) Which of the following statements regarding AIDS-related complex is NOT true? A) It is the early stage of HIV infection. B) Urticaria is a common symptom. C) Symptoms of infection are mild. D) Lymphadenopathy is a common symptom. Answer: B Explanation: A) AIDS-related complex is the early stage of HIV infection: a true statement. B) Urticaria is not a common symptom of AIDS-related complex. C) Symptoms of infection in AIDS-related complex are mild. D) Lymphadenopathy is a common symptom of AIDS-related complex. Page Ref: 162 Learning Obj.: 9-6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary 135) Which of the following statements regarding AIDS is NOT true? A) This is the later stage of HIV infection. B) Immune system cells are unable to fight off infection. C) Sarcoidosis is a common opportunistic infection in AIDS patients. D) Opportunistic infections are common. Answer: C Explanation: A) AIDS is the later stage of HIV infection. B) Immune system cells are unable to fight off infection in AIDS. C) Sarcoidosis is not a common opportunistic infection in AIDS patients. D) Opportunistic infections are common with AIDS. Page Ref: 162 Learning Obj.: 9-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 136) Which of the following substances is NOT commonly known to cause allergies? A) Pollen B) Food C) Heat D) Medication Answer: C Explanation: A) Pollen is a common cause of allergies. B) Food causes allergies. C) Heat does not commonly cause allergies. D) Medication causes allergies. Page Ref: 163 Learning Obj.: 9-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary

137) Which of the following conditions is a hypersensitivity to a common substance in the environment? A) Sarcoidosis B) Allergy C) Elephantiasis D) Hodgkin disease Answer: B Explanation: A) Sarcoidosis is an autoimmune disease with fibrous lesions. B) Allergy is a hypersensitivity to a common substance in the environment. C) Elephantiasis is swelling caused by a blockage of lymph flow. D) Hodgkin disease is cancer of lymphatic cells found in lymph nodes. Page Ref: 163 Learning Obj.: 9-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 138) Which of the following statements regarding anaphylactic shock is NOT true? A) It is a life-threatening condition. B) It causes cardiovascular and respiratory problems. C) It may be triggered by a bee sting. D) It is also called urticaria. Answer: D Explanation: A) Anaphylactic shock is a life-threatening condition. B) Anaphylactic shock causes cardiovascular and respiratory problems. C) Anaphylactic shock may be triggered by a bee sting. D) Anaphylactic shock is not also called urticaria. Page Ref: 163 Learning Obj.: 9-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 139) Antinuclear antibody titer is elevated in ________. A) autoimmune conditions B) cancer C) pneumonia D) allergies Answer: A Explanation: A) Antinuclear antibody titer is elevated in autoimmune conditions. B) Cancer is not associated with elevated antinuclear antibody titer. C) Pneumonia is not associated with elevated antinuclear antibody titer. D) Allergies are not associated with elevated antinuclear antibody titer. Page Ref: 163 Learning Obj.: 9-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary

140) Which of the following is an example of an autoimmune disease? A) Allergies B) Systemic lupus erythematosus C) Hodgkin's disease D) Corticosteroids Answer: B Explanation: A) Allergies are a hypersensitivity to a common substance in the environment. B) Systemic lupus erythematosus is an example of an autoimmune disease. C) Hodgkin's disease is cancer of lymphatic cells found in lymph nodes. D) Corticosteroids are hormones produced by the adrenal cortex. Page Ref: 166 Learning Obj.: 9-6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary 141) Cytotoxic cells ________. A) stimulate allergic reactions B) cause cancerous changes in cells C) are responsible for inflammation D) physically attack and kill pathogens Answer: D Explanation: A) Allergic reactions are not stimulated by cytotoxic cells. B) Cancerous changes in cells are not caused by cytotoxic cells. C) Cytotoxic cells are not responsible for inflammation. D) Cytotoxic cells physically attack and kill pathogens. Page Ref: 163 Learning Obj.: 9-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 142) Which of the following terms is the common name for the appearance of wheals during an allergic reaction? A) Hives B) Inflammation C) Mononucleosis D) Sarcoidosis Answer: A Explanation: A) Hives are the common name for the appearance of wheals during an allergic reaction. B) Inflammation is not a common name for wheals. C) Mononucleosis is not a common name for wheals. D) Sarcoidosis is not a common name for wheals. Page Ref: 164 Learning Obj.: 9-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 31 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc

143) Hodgkin's disease is cancer found in the ________. A) lymph nodes B) spleen C) thymus D) lymph vessels Answer: A Explanation: A) Hodgkin's disease is cancer found in the lymph nodes. B) Hodgkin's disease is not found in the spleen. C) Hodgkin's disease is not found in the thymus. D) Hodgkin's disease is not found in the lymph vessels. Page Ref: 164 Learning Obj.: 9-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 144) Another term for immunodeficient is ________. A) immunocompromised B) inflamed C) immunosuppressant D) urticaria Answer: A Explanation: A) Another term for immunodeficient is immunocompromised. B) Inflamed is not another term for immunodeficient. C) Immunosuppressant is not another term for immunodeficient. D) Urticaria is not another term for immunodeficient. Page Ref: 164 Learning Obj.: 9-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 145) Which of the following is NOT a sign of inflammation? A) Blue tinge to the skin B) Pain C) Swelling D) Hot to the touch Answer: A Explanation: A) A blue tinge to the skin is not a sign of inflammation. B) Pain is a sign of inflammation. C) Swelling is a sign of inflammation. D) Being hot to the touch is a sign of inflammation. Page Ref: 165 Learning Obj.: 9-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary

146) Kaposi's sarcoma is a cancer often seen in patients with ________. A) Hodgkin's disease B) AIDS C) sarcoidosis D) elephantiasis Answer: B Explanation: A) Kaposi's sarcoma is not seen in Hodgkin's disease. B) Kaposi's sarcoma is a cancer often seen in patients with AIDS. C) Kaposi's sarcoma is not seen in sarcoidosis. D) Kaposi's sarcoma is not seen in elephantiasis. Page Ref: 165 Learning Obj.: 9-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 147) Kaposi's sarcoma is a cancer that begins in the ________. A) bone B) spleen C) skin D) liver Answer: C Explanation: A) Kaposi's sarcoma does not begin in the bone. B) Kaposi sarcoma's does not begin in the spleen. C) Kaposi's sarcoma is a cancer that begins in the skin. D) Kaposi's sarcoma does not begin in the liver. Page Ref: 165 Learning Obj.: 9-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 148) Which of the following statements regarding mononucleosis is TRUE? A) It is an acute viral infection of lymphoid tissue. B) It is a cancer of the lymph nodes. C) It is an opportunistic infection seen in AIDS patients. D) It is a chronic bacterial infection of lymph. Answer: A Explanation: A) Mononucleosis is an acute viral infection of lymphoid tissue. B) Mononucleosis is not a cancer of the lymph nodes. C) Mononucleosis is not an opportunistic infection seen in AIDS patients. D) Mononucleosis is not a chronic bacterial infection of lymph. Page Ref: 165 Learning Obj.: 9-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary

149) The fibrous lesions of sarcoidosis form in all of the following EXCEPT the ________. A) lungs B) spleen C) eyes D) brain Answer: D Explanation: A) Sarcoidosis does form in the lungs. B) Sarcoidosis does form in the spleen. C) Sarcoidosis does form in the eyes. D) Sarcoidosis does not form in the brain. Page Ref: 165 Learning Obj.: 9-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 150) Which of the following is a genetic condition causing children to be born with nonfunctioning immune systems? A) Systemic lupus erythematosus B) Severe combined immunodeficiency C) Sarcoidosis D) Urticaria Answer: B Explanation: A) Systemic lupus erythematosus is an autoimmune disease in which the immune system attacks connective tissue throughout the body. B) Severe combined immunodeficiency is a genetic condition causing children to be born with nonfunctioning immune systems. C) Sarcoidosis is an autoimmune disease with fibrous lesions. D) Urticaria is severe itching associated with hives. Page Ref: 166 Learning Obj.: 9-6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary

151) Which lab test is used to detect HIV antibodies? A) Enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay B) Scratch test C) Antibody immunoassay D) Antinuclear antibody titer Answer: C Explanation: A) Enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay is a test is a blood test for HIV antibodies but not the most sensitive in detecting them. B) A scratch test is a type of allergy test. C) The antibody immunoassay is used to detect HIV antibodies. D) An antinuclear antibody titer tests for antibodies against cell nuclei. Page Ref: 164 Learning Obj.: 9-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 152) Which combining form is misspelled? A) Spleen/o B) Tonsill/o C) Thym/o D) Lymphangi/o Answer: A Explanation: A) Spleen/o is spelled splen/o. B) Tonsill/o is spelled correctly. C) Thym/o is spelled correctly. D) Lymphangi/o is spelled correctly. Page Ref: 155 Learning Obj.: 9-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Spelling 153) Which suffix is misspelled? A) -rrhaphy B) -ectasis C) -malacia D) -cite Answer: D Explanation: A) -rrhaphy is spelled correctly. B) -ectasis is spelled correctly. C) -malacia is spelled correctly. D) -cite is spelled -cyte. Page Ref: 155 Learning Obj.: 9-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Spelling

154) Which of the following is NOT a surgical procedure? A) Splenopexy B) Splenectomy C) Splenomalacia D) Splenorrhaphy Answer: C Explanation: A) Splenopexy is a surgical procedure. B) Splenectomy is a surgical procedure. C) Splenomalacia is not a surgical procedure. It is abnormal softening of the spleen. D) Splenorrhaphy is a surgical procedure. Page Ref: 161 Learning Obj.: 9-6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary 155) Which of the following is a record of the lymph vessels? A) Lymphangiogram B) Lymphangioplasty C) Lymphangiography D) Lymphangiectasis Answer: A Explanation: A) Lymphangiogram is a record of a lymph vessel. B) Lymphangioplasty is surgical repair of a lymph vessel. C) Lymphangiography is the process of recording lymph vessels. D) Lymphangiectasis is a dilated lymph vessel. Page Ref: 160 Learning Obj.: 9-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building 156) Splenorrhaphy means "________ of the spleen." A) surgical repair B) record C) suture D) surgical removal Answer: C Explanation: A) Splenorrhaphy is not surgical repair of the spleen. B) Splenorrhaphy is not a record of the spleen. C) Splenorrhaphy is suture of the spleen. D) Splenorrhaphy is not surgical removal of the spleen. Page Ref: 161 Learning Obj.: 9-3 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building

157) Which of the following combining forms refers to one of the tonsils? A) Phag/o B) Adenoid/o C) Splen/o D) Thym/o Answer: B Explanation: A) Phag/o means "eating." B) Adenoid/o means "adenoid"; adenoids are also called the pharyngeal tonsils. C) Splen/o means "spleen." D) Thym/o means "thymus gland." Page Ref: 157 Learning Obj.: 9-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 158) Which condition results in a large number of abnormal white blood cells circulating in the bloodstream? A) Systemic lupus erythematosus B) Hodgkin's disease C) Kaposi's sarcoma D) Mononucleosis Answer: D Explanation: A) Systemic lupus erythematosus does not result in a large number of abnormal white blood cells circulating in the bloodstream. B) Hodgkin's disease does not result in a large number of abnormal white blood cells circulating in the bloodstream. C) Kaposi's sarcoma does not result in a large number of abnormal white blood cells circulating in the bloodstream. D) Mononucleosis results in a large number of abnormal white blood cells circulating in the bloodstream. Page Ref: 165 Learning Obj.: 9-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary

159) Which word part means "against"? A) -toxic B) -iasis C) AntiD) AutoAnswer: C Explanation: A) -toxic means "poison." B) -iasis means "abnormal condition." C) Anti- means "against." D) Auto- means "self." Page Ref: 155 Learning Obj.: 9-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 160) Which of the following is NOT an infection? A) Hodgkin's disease B) Mononucleosis C) Pneumocystis pneumonia D) Acquired immunodeficiency syndrome Answer: A Explanation: A) Hodgkin's disease is cancer, not an infection. B) Mononucleosis is an infection. C) Pneumocystis pneumonia is an infection. D) Acquired immunodeficiency syndrome is an infection. Page Ref: 164 Learning Obj.: 9-6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary 161) Which of the following medications helps to block an allergic reaction? A) Antihistamine B) Corticosteroid C) Vaccination D) Immunosuppressant Answer: A Explanation: A) An antihistamine is a medication that helps to block an allergic reaction. B) A corticosteroid does not help to block an allergic reaction. C) A vaccination does not help to block an allergic reaction. D) An immunosuppressant does not help to block an allergic reaction. Page Ref: 163 Learning Obj.: 9-6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary

162) Which of the following medications is used to prevent rejection of a transplanted organ? A) Antihistamine B) Corticosteroid C) Vaccination D) Immunosuppressant Answer: D Explanation: A) An antihistamine is not used to prevent rejection of a transplanted organ. B) A corticosteroid is not used to prevent rejection of a transplanted organ. C) A vaccination is not used to prevent rejection of a transplanted organ. D) An immunosuppressant is used to prevent rejection of a transplanted organ. Page Ref: 164 Learning Obj.: 9-6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary 163) Which of the following medications is useful for treating autoimmune diseases? A) Antihistamine B) Corticosteroid C) Vaccination D) Immunosuppressant Answer: B Explanation: A) An antihistamine is not used to treat an autoimmune disease. B) A corticosteroid is a hormone used to treat autoimmune diseases. C) A vaccination is not used to treat an autoimmune disease. D) An immunosuppressant is not used to treat an autoimmune disease. Page Ref: 163 Learning Obj.: 9-6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary 164) Which of the following stimulates antibody production to give protection against disease? A) Antihistamine B) Corticosteroid C) Vaccination D) Immunosuppressant Answer: C Explanation: A) An antihistamine is not used to give protection against disease. B) A corticosteroid is not used to give protection against disease. C) A vaccination stimulates antibody production to give protection against disease. D) An immunosuppressant is not used to give protection against disease. Page Ref: 166 Learning Obj.: 9-6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary

165) Which of the following terms is misspelled? A) Splenitis B) Phagosite C) Thymectomy D) Lymphangiogram Answer: B Explanation: A) Splenitis is spelled correctly. B) Phagosite is spelled phagocyte. C) Thymectomy is spelled correctly. D) Lymphangiogram is spelled correctly. Page Ref: 160 Learning Obj.: 9-5 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Spelling 166) Which of the following terms is misspelled? A) Pathogenic B) Adenoidectomy C) Inflamation D) Lymphangiitis Answer: C Explanation: A) Pathogenic is spelled correctly. B) Adenoidectomy is spelled correctly. C) Inflamation is spelled inflammation. D) Lymphangiitis is spelled correctly. Page Ref: 165 Learning Obj.: 9-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Spelling 167) Which of the following terms is misspelled? A) Hodgkin B) Karposi C) Mononucleosis D) Opportunistic Answer: B Explanation: A) Hodgkin is spelled correctly. B) Karposi is spelled Kaposi. C) Mononucleosis is spelled correctly. D) Opportunistic is spelled correctly. Page Ref: 165 Learning Obj.: 9-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Spelling

168) Which of the following terms is misspelled? A) Pneumonia B) Immunodeficency C) Sarcoidosis D) Autoimmune Answer: B Explanation: A) Pneumonia is spelled correctly. B) Immunodeficency is spelled immunodeficiency. C) Sarcoidosis is spelled correctly. D) Autoimmune is spelled correctly. Page Ref: 164 Learning Obj.: 9-5 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Spelling 169) Which of the following terms is misspelled? A) Erythematosus B) Urticaria C) Immunization D) Vacination Answer: D Explanation: A) Erythematosus is spelled correctly. B) Urticaria is spelled correctly. C) Immunization is spelled correctly. D) Vacination is spelled vaccination. Page Ref: 166 Learning Obj.: 9-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Spelling 170) Which of the following abbreviations stands for the early stage of HIV infection? A) PCP B) AIDS C) ANA D) ARC Answer: D Explanation: A) PCP stands for "pneumocystis pneumonia." B) AIDS stands for "acquired immunodeficiency syndrome." C) ANA stands for "antinuclear antibody titer." D) ARC stands for "AIDS-related complex," the early stage of HIV infection. Page Ref: 162 Learning Obj.: 9-7 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Abbreviations

171) Which of the following abbreviations is a test that determines the number of antibodies against cell nuclei present in the bloodstream? A) HD B) KS C) ANA D) PCP Answer: C Explanation: A) HD stands for "Hodgkin's disease." B) KS stands for "Kaposi's sarcoma." C) ANA stands for "antinuclear antibody titer," a test that determines the number of antibodies against cell nuclei present in the bloodstream. D) PCP stands for "pneumocystis pneumonia." Page Ref: 163 Learning Obj.: 9-7 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Abbreviations 172) Which of the following abbreviations is a surgical procedure? A) ARC B) T&A C) mono D) NHL Answer: B Explanation: A) ARC stands for "AIDS-related complex." B) T&A stands for "tonsillectomy and adenoidectomy," a surgical procedure. C) Mono is the shortened version of "mononucleosis." D) NHL stands for "non-Hodgkin's lymphoma." Page Ref: 166 Learning Obj.: 9-7 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Abbreviations 173) Which of the following abbreviations is a type of cancer? A) HD B) HIV C) PCP D) SCID Answer: A Explanation: A) HD stands for "Hodgkin's disease," a type of cancer. B) HIV stands for "human immunodeficiency virus." C) PCP stands for "pneumocystis pneumonia." D) SCID stands for "severe combined immunodeficiency." Page Ref: 164 Learning Obj.: 9-7 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Abbreviations 42 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc

174) Which of the following abbreviations is a genetic condition? A) ANA B) HIV C) PCP D) SCID Answer: D Explanation: A) ANA stands for "antinuclear antibody titer." B) HIV stands for "human immunodeficiency virus." C) PCP stands for "pneumocystis pneumonia." D) SCID stands for "severe combined immunodeficiency," a genetic condition. Page Ref: 166 Learning Obj.: 9-7 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Abbreviations 175) Which of the following abbreviations is an opportunistic infection? A) PCP B) HD C) ANA D) SCID Answer: A Explanation: A) PCP stands for "pneumocystis pneumonia," an opportunistic infection. B) HD stands for "Hodgkin's disease." C) ANA stands for "antinuclear antibody titer." D) SCID stands for "severe combined immunodeficiency." Page Ref: 165 Learning Obj.: 9-7 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Abbreviations

Match each term on the left with the correct definition on the right. A) cancer of lymphatic tissues B) unable to respond properly to pathogens C) attack and kill pathogens or diseased cells D) infection of lymphoid tissue E) medication to prevent organ rejection F) wheals G) removes pathogens and damaged cells from lymph H) specialist in treating allergies I) hormone produced by adrenal gland J) life-threatening allergic reaction K) an opportunistic infection L) results from blockage of lymphatic vessels M) phagocytic cell N) test for allergies O) intense itching P) record of a lymph vessel Q) genetic condition of nonfunctioning immune system R) immune system attacks own body S) test for HIV antibodies T) adenoids U) characterized by pain, swelling, and redness V) autoimmune disease affecting joints and skin W) destroys worn-out erythrocytes X) hypersensitivity to a common substance Y) surgical fixation of the spleen 176) Allergy Page Ref: 163 Learning Obj.: 9-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 177) autoimmune disease Page Ref: 163 Learning Obj.: 9-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 178) corticosteroid Page Ref: 163 Learning Obj.: 9-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary

179) cytotoxic cells Page Ref: 163 Learning Obj.: 9-2 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 180) spleen Page Ref: 161 Learning Obj.: 9-2 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 181) lymph node Page Ref: 158 Learning Obj.: 9-2 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 182) elephantiasis Page Ref: 164 Learning Obj.: 9-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 183) antibody immunoassay Page Ref: 164 Learning Obj.: 9-7 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Abbreviations 184) immunosuppressant Page Ref: 164 Learning Obj.: 9-6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary 185) inflammation Page Ref: 165 Learning Obj.: 9-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 186) scratch test Page Ref: 166 Learning Obj.: 9-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 45 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc

187) SLE Page Ref: 166 Learning Obj.: 9-7 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Abbreviations 188) NHL Page Ref: 165 Learning Obj.: 9-7 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Abbreviations 189) pharyngeal tonsils Page Ref: 157 Learning Obj.: 9-4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 190) splenopexy Page Ref: 161 Learning Obj.: 9-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building 191) lymphangiogram Page Ref: 160 Learning Obj.: 9-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building 192) allergist Page Ref: 155 Learning Obj.: 9-1 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Medical Specialties 193) macrophage Page Ref: 160 Learning Obj.: 9-2 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 194) immunocompromised Page Ref: 164 Learning Obj.: 9-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 46 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc

195) hives Page Ref: 164 Learning Obj.: 9-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 196) urticaria Page Ref: 166 Learning Obj.: 9-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 197) anaphylactic shock Page Ref: 163 Learning Obj.: 9-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 198) mononucleosis viral Page Ref: 165 Learning Obj.: 9-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 199) SCID Page Ref: 166 Learning Obj.: 9-7 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Abbreviations 200) PCP Page Ref: 165 Learning Obj.: 9-7 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Abbreviations Answers: 176) X 177) R 178) I 179) C 180) W 181) G 182) L 183) S 184) E 185) U 186) N 187) V 188) A 189) T 190) Y 191) P 192) H 193) M 194) B 195) F 196) O 197) J 198) D 199) Q 200) K

201) List the organs of the lymphatic system and the function of each. Answer: ∙ lymph nodes: Small roundish organs located along the path of lymphatic vessels; they house lymphocytes and other white blood cells; as lymph passes through the lymph nodes, these cells are able to remove pathogens and damaged cells ∙ tonsils: Three sets of tonsils located in throat: palatine, pharyngeal, and lingual; contain lymphatic tissue that protects body from pathogens in air breathed and food eaten ∙ thymus gland: Gland located in mediastinum behind sternum; in early life, it is necessary for proper development of immune system; by puberty, it has begun to shrink ∙ spleen: Organ of lymphatic system; located on left side of upper abdomen; houses leukocytes responsible for filtering blood and destroying worn-out red blood cells Page Ref: 158, 161-162 Learning Obj.: 9-4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 202) What is an autoimmune disease? Give two examples. Answer: ∙ autoimmune disease: Disease resulting from body's immune system attacking its own cells as if they were pathogens ∙ sarcoidosis: Autoimmune disease with fibrous lesions forming in lymph nodes, liver, skin, lungs, spleen, eyes, and the small bones of the hands and feet ∙ systemic lupus erythematosus: Autoimmune disease in which immune system attacks connective tissue throughout body such as in joints and skin Page Ref: 163, 165, 166 Learning Obj.: 9-6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary

Medical Terminology: Get Connected!, 3e (Frucht) Chapter 10 Pulmonology: Respiratory System All answers to questions asking for a combining form must be written in the combining form style, meaning word root/combining vowel. For example, the combining form meaning "heart" is cardi/o. All answers to questions asking for a suffix must be written in suffix form, meaning a hyphen before your answer. For example, the suffix meaning "cell" is -cyte. All answers to questions asking for a prefix must be written in prefix form, meaning a hyphen after your answer. For example, a prefix meaning "two" is bi-. Do NOT capitalize any of your answers or include a period at the end of your answer. The computer will NOT recognize your answer as correct if it is written in any other style. 1) The combining form that means air sac is ________. Answer: alveol/o; alveolo Page Ref: 178 Learning Obj.: 10-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 2) The combining form that means blue is ________. Answer: cyan/o; cyano Page Ref: 178 Learning Obj.: 10-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 3) The combining form that means incomplete is ________. Answer: atel/o; atelo Page Ref: 178 Learning Obj.: 10-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 4) The combining form other than bronch/o that means bronchus is ________. Answer: bronchi/o; bronchio Page Ref: 178 Learning Obj.: 10-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 5) The combining form that means bronchiole is ________. Answer: bronchiol/o; bronchiolo Page Ref: 178 Learning Obj.: 10-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 1 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

6) The combining form that means dust is ________. Answer: coni/o; conio Page Ref: 178 Learning Obj.: 10-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 7) The combining form that means mediastinum is ________. Answer: mediastin/o; mediastino Page Ref: 178 Learning Obj.: 10-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 8) A combining form that means chest is ________. Answer: thorac/o; thoraco Page Ref: 178 Learning Obj.: 10-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 9) A combining form that means lobe is ________. Answer: lob/o; lobo Page Ref: 178 Learning Obj.: 10-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 10) The combining form that means fibrous is ________. Answer: fibr/o; fibro Page Ref: 178 Learning Obj.: 10-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 11) The combining form that means straight is ________. Answer: orth/o; ortho Page Ref: 178 Learning Obj.: 10-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

12) The combining form that means oxygen is ________. Answer: ox/i; oxi Page Ref: 178 Learning Obj.: 10-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 13) A combining form that means pus is ________. Answer: py/o; pyo Page Ref: 178 Learning Obj.: 10-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 14) The combining form that means pleura is ________. Answer: pleur/o; pleuro Page Ref: 178 Learning Obj.: 10-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 15) The combining form that means lung or air is ________. Answer: pneum/o; pneumo Page Ref: 178 Learning Obj.: 10-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 16) The combining form other than pneumon/o that only means lung is ________. Answer: pulmon/o; pulmono Page Ref: 178 Learning Obj.: 10-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 17) The combining form that means cancer is ________. Answer: carcin/o; carcino Page Ref: 178 Learning Obj.: 10-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

18) The combining form that means breathing is ________. Answer: spir/o; spiro Page Ref: 178 Learning Obj.: 10-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 19) The combining form that means trachea is ________. Answer: trache/o; tracheo Page Ref: 178 Learning Obj.: 10-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 20) The suffix that means puncture to withdraw fluid is ________. Answer: -centesis; centesis Page Ref: 178 Learning Obj.: 10-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 21) The suffix that means dilated is ________. Answer: -ectasis; ectasis Page Ref: 179 Learning Obj.: 10-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 22) The suffix that means instrument for measuring is ________. Answer: -meter; meter Page Ref: 179 Learning Obj.: 10-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 23) The suffix that means surgically create an opening is ________. Answer: -ostomy; ostomy Page Ref: 179 Learning Obj.: 10-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

24) The suffix that means breathing is ________. Answer: -pnea; pnea Page Ref: 179 Learning Obj.: 10-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 25) The suffix that means spitting is ________. Answer: -ptysis; ptysis Page Ref: 179 Learning Obj.: 10-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 26) The suffix that means chest is ________. Answer: -thorax; thorax Page Ref: 179 Learning Obj.: 10-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 27) The prefix that means painful, difficult, abnormal is ________. Answer: dys-; dys Page Ref: 179 Learning Obj.: 10-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 28) The prefix that means within, inner is ________. Answer: endo-; endo Page Ref: 179 Learning Obj.: 10-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 29) The prefix that means normal, good is ________. Answer: eu-; eu Page Ref: 179 Learning Obj.: 10-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

30) A medical term that means instrument for viewing the bronchus is ________. Answer: bronchoscope Page Ref: 181 Learning Obj.: 10-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building 31) A medical term that means instrument for measuring oxygen is ________. Answer: oximeter Page Ref: 184 Learning Obj.: 10-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building 32) A medical term that means without oxygen condition is ________. Answer: anoxia Page Ref: 184 Learning Obj.: 10-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building 33) A medical term that means puncture pleura to withdraw fluid is ________. Answer: pleurocentesis Page Ref: 184 Learning Obj.: 10-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building 34) A medical term other than pneumonic or pulmonic that means pertaining to a lung is ________. Answer: pulmonary Page Ref: 185 Learning Obj.: 10-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building 35) A medical term that means pertaining to the bronchus is ________. Answer: bronchial Page Ref: 182 Learning Obj.: 10-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building

36) A medical term that means process of measuring breathing is ________. Answer: spirometry Page Ref: 186 Learning Obj.: 10-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building 37) A medical term that means spitting (up) blood is ________. Answer: hemoptysis Page Ref: 186 Learning Obj.: 10-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building 38) A medical term that means cutting into the mediastinum is ________. Answer: mediastinotomy Page Ref: 183 Learning Obj.: 10-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building 39) A medical term that means to surgically create an opening in the trachea is ________. Answer: tracheostomy Page Ref: 187 Learning Obj.: 10-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building 40) A medical term that means surgical removal of a lobe is ________. Answer: lobectomy Page Ref: 183 Learning Obj.: 10-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building 41) A medical term that means involuntary muscle contraction of the bronchus is ________. Answer: bronchospasm Page Ref: 181 Learning Obj.: 10-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building

42) A medical term that means pertaining to the chest is ________. Answer: thoracic Page Ref: 186 Learning Obj.: 10-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building 43) A medical term that means pertaining to within the trachea is ________. Answer: endotracheal Page Ref: 187 Learning Obj.: 10-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building 44) A medical term that means slow breathing is ________. Answer: bradypnea Page Ref: 185 Learning Obj.: 10-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building 45) A medical term that means difficult breathing is ________. Answer: dyspnea Page Ref: 184 Learning Obj.: 10-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building 46) A medical term that means pus in the chest is ________. Answer: pyothorax Page Ref: 187 Learning Obj.: 10-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building 47) A medical term other than thoracodynia that means chest pain is ________. Answer: thoracalgia Page Ref: 186 Learning Obj.: 10-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building

48) A medical term that means normal breathing is ________. Answer: eupnea Page Ref: 185 Learning Obj.: 10-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building 49) A medical term that means bronchus inflammation is ________. Answer: bronchitis Page Ref: 181 Learning Obj.: 10-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building 50) A medical term that means without breathing is ________. Answer: apnea Page Ref: 184 Learning Obj.: 10-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building 51) All cells of the body must have a constant supply of oxygen. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 178 Learning Obj.: 10-2 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 52) Carbon dioxide is the waste product of energy production. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 178 Learning Obj.: 10-2 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 53) Carbon dioxide is returned to the lungs from the body where it is then inhaled. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Carbon dioxide is returned to the lungs from the body where it is then exhaled. Page Ref: 178 Learning Obj.: 10-2 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology

54) Oxygen is loaded into the bloodstream in the lungs. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 178 Learning Obj.: 10-2 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 55) The combining form pneumon/o may mean "air" or "lung." Answer: FALSE Explanation: The combining form pneum/o may mean "air" or "lung." Page Ref: 178 Learning Obj.: 10-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 56) The trachea is part of the lower respiratory system. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 178 Learning Obj.: 10-4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 57) The bronchioles are commonly called the air sacs. Answer: FALSE Explanation: The alveoli are commonly called the air sacs. Page Ref: 180 Learning Obj.: 10-4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 58) Exchange of oxygen takes place between the alveoli and the capillary blood supply surrounding them. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 180 Learning Obj.: 10-2 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 59) Hypoventilation combines bradypnea and hyperpnea. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Hypoventilation combines bradypnea and hypopnea. Page Ref: 191 Learning Obj.: 10-6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary

60) The bronchi carry air from the trachea into the lungs. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 181 Learning Obj.: 10-2 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 61) The bronchi divide repeatedly until they form the narrowest airways called bronchioles. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 181 Learning Obj.: 10-4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 62) Bronchioles carry air from the trachea to the alveoli. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Bronchioles carry air from the bronchi to the alveoli. Page Ref: 182 Learning Obj.: 10-2 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 63) The term pneumoconiosis refers to the inhaling of particles into the lungs. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 182 Learning Obj.: 10-6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary 64) The pleura is a double-layered membrane that forms a protective sac around the lungs. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 184 Learning Obj.: 10-2 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 65) The right lung has two lobes and the left lung has three. Answer: FALSE Explanation: The right lung has three lobes and the left lung has two. Page Ref: 183 Learning Obj.: 10-4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology

66) Emphysema results from the destruction of alveolar walls. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 190 Learning Obj.: 10-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 67) The mediastinum is the area of the chest that contains the lungs. Answer: FALSE Explanation: The mediastinum is the area of the chest between the lungs. Page Ref: 183 Learning Obj.: 10-4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 68) An ABG is a blood test. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 188 Learning Obj.: 10-6, 10-7 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Abbreviations 69) COPD is a cancerous condition. Answer: FALSE Explanation: COPD is not a cancerous condition; it is difficulty breathing from emphysema or bronchitis. Page Ref: 189 Learning Obj.: 10-6, 10-7 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Abbreviations 70) Sudden infant death syndrome is also known as hyaline membrane disease. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Infant respiratory distress syndrome is also known as hyaline membrane disease. Page Ref: 191 Learning Obj.: 10-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 71) An asthma attack may be brought on by allergies. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 188 Learning Obj.: 10-6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary

72) Influenza is a highly contagious viral infection. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 191 Learning Obj.: 10-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 73) Purulent means "containing blood." Answer: FALSE Explanation: Purulent means "containing pus." Page Ref: 193 Learning Obj.: 10-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 74) IPPB is a machine that assists the lungs with filling with air. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 192 Learning Obj.: 10-6, 10-7 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Abbreviations 75) Pneumothorax may result in a collapsed lung. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 192 Learning Obj.: 10-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 76) Pleurisy is the inflammation of the pleura. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 192 Learning Obj.: 10-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 77) The lungs are located in the peritoneal cavity. Answer: FALSE Explanation: The lungs are located in the pleural cavity. Page Ref: 184 Learning Obj.: 10-4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology

78) Pulmonary function tests are conducted by respiratory therapists. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 193 Learning Obj.: 10-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Medical Specialties 79) Aspiration is commonly called suffocation. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Asphyxiation is commonly called suffocation. Page Ref: 188 Learning Obj.: 10-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 80) Hemoptysis is commonly called a nosebleed. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Hemoptysis means coughing up and spitting out blood. Page Ref: 186 Learning Obj.: 10-6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary 81) Breathing too fast and too deep is hyperventilation. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 191 Learning Obj.: 10-6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary 82) Phlegm is mucus coughed up from the lungs. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Sputum is mucus coughed up from the lungs. Page Ref: 194 Learning Obj.: 10-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 83) Orthopnea is breathing made worse by sitting up straight. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Orthopnea is breathing made better by sitting up straight. Page Ref: 183 Learning Obj.: 10-6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary

84) Rhonchi are abnormal crackling sounds made during inhalation. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Rhonchi are abnormal whistling sounds made during breathing. Page Ref: 195 Learning Obj.: 10-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 85) Pleural effusion is the accumulation of fluid inside the lungs. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Pleural effusion is the accumulation of fluid or gas inside the pleural cavity. Page Ref: 192 Learning Obj.: 10-6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary 86) Croup is an acute condition found in children that is characterized by a barking type of cough. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 190 Learning Obj.: 10-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 87) Bronchiectasis is a dilated bronchus. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 182 Learning Obj.: 10-5 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 88) Cystic fibrosis occurs when fibrous scar tissue forms in the lungs. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Cystic fibrosis causes very thick mucus to clog the lungs. Page Ref: 190 Learning Obj.: 10-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 89) Atelectasis is a condition in which lung tissue collapses. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 188 Learning Obj.: 10-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary

90) Pneumoconiosis is commonly called walking pneumonia. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Pneumoconiosis is the accumulation of particles in the lungs, such as coal dust. Page Ref: 182 Learning Obj.: 10-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary 91) In pneumoconiosis, the air sacs fill up with fluid. Answer: FALSE Explanation: In pneumonia, the air sacs fill up with fluid. Page Ref: 193 Learning Obj.: 10-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 92) A pulmonary embolism may be caused by an air bubble in the pulmonary artery. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 193 Learning Obj.: 10-6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary 93) C&S is a blood test that determines oxygen content in the blood. Answer: FALSE Explanation: ABGs is a blood test that determines oxygen content in the blood. Page Ref: 188 Learning Obj.: 10-6, 10-7 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Abbreviations 94) Bronchoscopy is a procedure in which the inside of the windpipe is examined with a scope. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Bronchoscopy is a procedure in which the inside of the bronchi is examined with a scope. Page Ref: 181 Learning Obj.: 10-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary 95) Pulmonary angiography injects dye into a blood vessel to view it on an X-ray. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 193 Learning Obj.: 10-6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary 16 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

96) The sweat test determines if the patient has tuberculosis. Answer: FALSE Explanation: The sweat test determines if the patient has cystic fibrosis. Page Ref: 194 Learning Obj.: 10-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 97) The abbreviation RUL stands for "right upper lung." Answer: FALSE Explanation: The abbreviation RUL stands for "right upper lobe." Page Ref: 195 Learning Obj.: 10-7 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Abbreviations 98) CXR is the abbreviation for chest X-ray. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 195 Learning Obj.: 10-7 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Abbreviations 99) An endotracheal tube passes through the mouth and into the trachea. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 191 Learning Obj.: 10-6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary 100) Sputum cytology is a diagnostic test for pneumonia. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Sputum cytology is a diagnostic test for lung cancer. Page Ref: 194 Learning Obj.: 10-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary

101) The respiratory system, along with the bloodstream, is responsible for the delivery of ________ to the cells of the body. A) oxygen B) nutrients C) carbon dioxide D) sodium Answer: A Explanation: A) The respiratory system and the bloodstream are responsible for delivering oxygen to the cells of the body. B) Nutrients are delivered via the bloodstream and the digestive system to the cells of the body. C) The bloodstream and respiratory system help remove carbon dioxide from the cells of the body. D) Sodium is not delivered via the bloodstream and the respiratory system to the cells of the body. Page Ref: 178 Learning Obj.: 10-2 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 102) Which of the following statements regarding the respiratory system is NOT true? A) Oxygen is needed for the body to produce energy. B) Carbon dioxide moves from the blood into the cells. C) Oxygen moves from the alveoli into the bloodstream. D) Carbon dioxide is the waste product of energy production. Answer: B Explanation: A) Oxygen is needed for the body to produce energy. B) Carbon dioxide moves from cells into the blood, is transported to the lungs, and is then exhaled. C) Oxygen moves from the alveoli into the bloodstream. D) Carbon dioxide is the waste product of energy production. Page Ref: 178 Learning Obj.: 10-2 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology

103) Which of the following pairs of terms is mismatched? A) Trachea—windpipe B) Lobes—subdivisions of lungs C) Pleura—protective sac D) Bronchioles—air sacs Answer: D Explanation: A) Windpipe is another term for the trachea. B) The subdivisions of the lungs are called lobes. C) The pleura is the protective sac around the lungs. D) Alveoli, not bronchioles, are air sacs in the lungs. Page Ref: 180 Learning Obj.: 10-4 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 104) Which of the following statements regarding bronchial tubes is NOT true? A) Each bronchus is surrounded by pulmonary capillaries. B) Bronchi divide to form narrow bronchioles. C) The trachea splits into a left and right primary bronchus. D) Alveoli are located at the tips of bronchioles. Answer: A Explanation: A) Each alveolus, not bronchus, is surrounded by pulmonary capillaries. B) Bronchi divide to form narrow bronchioles. C) The trachea splits into a left and right primary bronchus. D) Alveoli are located at the tips of bronchioles. Page Ref: 180 Learning Obj.: 10-4 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 105) Which of the following is NOT part of the lower respiratory system? A) Trachea B) Bronchioles C) Pharynx D) Bronchi Answer: C Explanation: A) The trachea is part of the lower respiratory system. B) The bronchioles are part of the lower respiratory system. C) The pharynx is part of the upper respiratory system. D) The bronchi are part of the lower respiratory system. Page Ref: 178 Learning Obj.: 10-4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology

106) Inhalation brings in fresh ________ and exhalation removes ________. A) carbon dioxide; oxygen B) oxygen; nitrogen C) oxygen; carbon dioxide D) nitrogen; carbon dioxide Answer: C Explanation: A) Inhalation brings in fresh oxygen and exhalation removes carbon dioxide. B) Although oxygen is brought in through inhalation, the primary purpose of exhalation is to remove carbon dioxide, not nitrogen. C) Inhalation brings in fresh oxygen and exhalation removes carbon dioxide. D) The primary purpose of inhalation is to bring in fresh oxygen, not nitrogen. Page Ref: 178 Learning Obj.: 10-2 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 107) Which of the following choices presents the airways in anatomical order? A) Bronchi, trachea, bronchioles, alveoli B) Bronchi, trachea, alveoli, bronchioles C) Trachea, bronchi, bronchioles, alveoli D) Brachea, bronchioles, bronchi, alveoli Answer: C Explanation: A) The trachea branches into bronchi, which branch into bronchioles, which terminate in alveoli. B) The trachea branches into bronchi, which branch into bronchioles, which terminate in alveoli. C) The trachea branches into bronchi, which branch into bronchioles, which terminate in alveoli. D) The trachea branches into bronchi, which branch into bronchioles, which terminate in alveoli. Page Ref: 179-180 Learning Obj.: 10-4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 108) The pulmonary capillaries surround the ________. A) bronchioles B) bronchi C) trachea D) alveoli Answer: D Explanation: A) Bronchioles are not surrounded by pulmonary capillaries. B) Bronchi are not surrounded by pulmonary capillaries. C) The trachea is not surrounded by pulmonary capillaries. D) The alveoli are surrounded by pulmonary capillaries. Page Ref: 180 Learning Obj.: 10-4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 20 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

109) Which of the following statements regarding the lungs is NOT true? A) The lungs are divided into lobes. B) The parietal pleura is the outer pleural layer. C) Lungs are located within the pleural cavity. D) The mediastinum of the thoracic cavity is located behind each lung. Answer: D Explanation: A) The lungs are divided into lobes. B) The parietal pleura is the outer pleural layer. C) Lungs are located within the pleural cavity. D) The mediastinum is the central region of the thoracic cavity between the lungs. It is not located behind each lung. Page Ref: 183 Learning Obj.: 10-4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 110) A healthcare provider involved in respiratory care is a ________ therapist. A) lung B) respiratory C) pulmonary D) breathing Answer: B Explanation: A) A healthcare provider involved in respiratory care is a respiratory therapist, not a lung therapist. B) A healthcare provider involved in respiratory care is a respiratory therapist. C) A healthcare provider involved in respiratory care is a respiratory therapist, not a pulmonary therapist. D) A healthcare provider involved in respiratory care is a respiratory therapist, not a breathing therapist. Page Ref: 178 Learning Obj.: 10-1 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Medical Specialties

111) Which of the following statements regarding alveoli is NOT true? A) They are located at the end of bronchi. B) They are thin-walled. C) They are also called the air sacs. D) They are surrounded by capillaries. Answer: A Explanation: A) Alveoli are located at the end of respiratory bronchioles, not bronchi. B) Alveoli are thin-walled. C) Alveoli are also called the air sacs. D) Alveoli are surrounded by capillaries. Page Ref: 180 Learning Obj.: 10-4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 112) Coni/o is a combining form meaning "dust," but it is used to refer to the inhalation of ________ into the lungs. A) water B) bacteria C) particles D) food Answer: C Explanation: A) The combining form coni/o is not used for water. B) The combining form coni/o is not used for bacteria. C) The combining form coni/o is used to refer to the inhalation of particles into the lungs. D) The combining form coni/o is not used for food. Page Ref: 182 Learning Obj.: 10-3 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building 113) Which organ(s) is NOT found in the mediastinum? A) Trachea B) Heart C) Aorta D) Lungs Answer: D Explanation: A) The trachea is found in the mediastinum. B) The heart is found in the mediastinum. C) The aorta is found in the mediastinum. D) The lungs are not found in the mediastinum. Page Ref: 183 Learning Obj.: 10-4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology

114) Persons with difficulty breathing often feel that they can breathe easier when ________. A) they are lying down B) they are sitting up C) they are asleep D) the room is kept warm Answer: B Explanation: A) Lying down does not make it easier to breathe. B) Persons with difficulty breathing often feel that they can breathe easier when they are sitting up. C) Sleeping does not make it easier to breathe. D) A warm room does not make it easier to breathe. Page Ref: 183 Learning Obj.: 10-4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 115) Which of the following statements regarding the pleura is NOT true? A) It is a double-layered membrane. B) It forms a protective sac for the lungs. C) It folds to form the pleural cavity. D) The inner layer is called the parietal pleura. Answer: D Explanation: A) The pleura is a double-layered membrane. B) The pleura forms a protective sac for the lungs. C) The pleura folds to form the pleural cavity. D) The inner layer is called the visceral pleura, not the parietal pleura. Page Ref: 184 Learning Obj.: 10-4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 116) Which of the following statements regarding the trachea is NOT true? A) Alveoli are located at the end of the trachea. B) It carries air into the chest cavity. C) It is commonly called the windpipe. D) It splits into two main bronchi. Answer: A Explanation: A) Alveoli are located at the end of the respiratory bronchioles, not the trachea. B) The trachea carries air into the chest cavity. C) The trachea is commonly called the windpipe. D) The trachea splits into two main bronchi. Page Ref: 187 Learning Obj.: 10-4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology

117) Which of the following is NOT associated with adult respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS)? A) Tachypnea B) Overinflated air sacs C) Dyspnea D) Hypoxia Answer: B Explanation: A) Tachypnea is a symptom of ARDS. B) Overinflated air sacs are not associated with ARDS. C) Dyspnea is a symptom of ARDS. D) Hypoxia is a symptom of ARDS. Page Ref: 188 Learning Obj.: 10-6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary 118) Which of the following leads to unconsciousness and death if it is not corrected immediately? A) Croup B) Influenza C) Asphyxia D) Atelectasis Answer: C Explanation: A) Croup does not lead to death if not immediately corrected. B) Influenza does not lead to death if not immediately corrected. C) Asphyxia can lead to unconsciousness and death if not corrected immediately. D) Atelectasis does not lead to death if not immediately corrected. Page Ref: 188 Learning Obj.: 10-6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary 119) Which of the following pairs of terms is mismatched? A) Tachypnea—deep breathing B) Hypopnea—shallow breathing C) Apnea—without breathing D) Bradypnea—slow breathing Answer: A Explanation: A) Tachypnea means fast breathing, not deep breathing. B) Hypopnea means shallow breathing. C) Apnea means without breathing. D) Bradypnea means slow breathing. Page Ref: 185 Learning Obj.: 10-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary 24 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

120) Which of the following conditions is progressive and usually irreversible? A) Adult respiratory distress syndrome B) Hyaline membrane disease C) Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease D) Severe acute respiratory syndrome Answer: C Explanation: A) Adult respiratory distress syndrome is not progressive and irreversible for all patients. B) Hyaline membrane disease, also known as infant respiratory distress syndrome, is not progressive and irreversible for all patients. C) Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease is a chronic disease that is progressive and usually irreversible. D) Severe acute respiratory syndrome is not progressive and irreversible for all patients. Page Ref: 189 Learning Obj.: 10-6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary 121) Which of the following conditions in children is characterized by a harsh cough? A) Hyaline membrane disease B) Infant respiratory distress syndrome C) Croup D) Cystic fibrosis Answer: C Explanation: A) Hyaline membrane disease, also known as infant respiratory distress syndrome, is characterized by extreme difficulty in breathing because the lungs are not able to expand fully. B) Infant respiratory distress syndrome, also known as hyaline membrane disease, is characterized by extreme difficulty in breathing because the lungs are not able to expand fully. C) Croup is characterized by a harsh, barking cough. D) Cystic fibrosis is characterized by the production of very thick mucus and severe congestion. Page Ref: 190 Learning Obj.: 10-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary

122) Which term means "to inhale fluid or a foreign object into the airways"? A) Purulent B) Aspirate C) Crackles D) Asphyxiate Answer: B Explanation: A) Purulent means "containing pus." B) Aspirate means "to inhale fluid or a foreign object into the airways." C) Crackles are abnormal crackling sounds made during inhalation. D) Asphyxiate means to experience lack of oxygen. This can lead to unconsciousness and death if not corrected immediately. Page Ref: 188 Learning Obj.: 10-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 123) Which term means "containing pus"? A) Purulent B) Aspirate C) Crackles D) Asphyxiation Answer: A Explanation: A) Purulent means "containing pus." B) Aspirate means "to inhale fluid or a foreign object into the airways." C) Crackles are abnormal crackling sounds made during inhalation. D) Asphyxiation is a lack of oxygen that can lead to unconsciousness and death if not corrected immediately. Page Ref: 193 Learning Obj.: 10-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 124) Which term means "suffocation"? A) Purulent B) Aspirate C) Crackles D) Asphyxiation Answer: D Explanation: A) Purulent means "containing pus." B) Aspirate means "to inhale fluid or a foreign object into the airways." C) Crackles are abnormal crackling sounds made during inhalation. D) Asphyxiation is a lack of oxygen that can lead to unconsciousness and death if not corrected immediately. It is also called suffocation. Page Ref: 188 Learning Obj.: 10-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 26 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

125) Which term refers to crackling lung sounds? A) Purulent B) Crackles C) Aspirate D) Asphyxiation Answer: B Explanation: A) Purulent means "containing pus." B) Crackles are abnormal crackling sounds made during inhalation. C) Aspirate means "to inhale fluid or a foreign object into the airways." D) Asphyxiation is a lack of oxygen that can lead to unconsciousness and death if not corrected immediately. Page Ref: 189 Learning Obj.: 10-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 126) Which of the following statements regarding emphysema is NOT true? A) It results from the destruction of alveolar walls. B) It is associated with long-term smoking. C) It may result in a collapsed lung. D) Alveoli become overinflated. Answer: C Explanation: A) Emphysema results from the destruction of alveolar walls. B) Emphysema is associated with long-term smoking. C) Emphysema does not typically result in a collapsed lung. D) In emphysema, alveoli become overinflated. Page Ref: 190 Learning Obj.: 10-6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary 127) Which term is a condition that may result in a collapsed lung? A) Pneumothorax B) Rhonchi C) Ventilator D) Sputum Answer: A Explanation: A) A pneumothorax may result in a collapsed lung. B) Rhonchi is a whistling sound heard during inhalation or exhalation. C) A ventilator is a mechanical device to assist patients with breathing. D) Sputum is mucus or phlegm coughed up and spit out from the respiratory tract. Page Ref: 193 Learning Obj.: 10-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary

128) Which term below refers to mucus coughed up from the lungs? A) Pneumothorax B) Rhonchi C) Ventilator D) Sputum Answer: D Explanation: A) A pneumothorax is a collection of air or gas in the pleural cavity that may result in a collapsed lung. B) Rhonchi is a whistling sound heard during inhalation or exhalation. C) A ventilator is a mechanical device to assist patients with breathing. D) Sputum is mucus or phlegm coughed up and spit out from the respiratory tract. Page Ref: 194 Learning Obj.: 10-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 129) Which of the following is a term for a machine that assists patients with breathing? A) Pneumothorax B) Rhonchi C) Ventilator D) Sputum Answer: C Explanation: A) A pneumothorax is a collection of air or gas in the pleural cavity that may result in a collapsed lung. B) Rhonchi is a whistling sound heard during inhalation or exhalation. C) A ventilator is a mechanical device to assist patients with breathing. D) Sputum is mucus or phlegm coughed up and spit out from the respiratory tract. Page Ref: 194 Learning Obj.: 10-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 130) Which term below describes a whistling sound during breathing? A) Pneumothorax B) Rhonchi C) Ventilator D) Sputum Answer: B Explanation: A) A pneumothorax is a collection of air or gas in the pleural cavity that may result in a collapsed lung. B) Rhonchi is a whistling sound heard during inhalation or exhalation. C) A ventilator is a mechanical device to assist patients with breathing. D) Sputum is mucus or phlegm coughed up and spit out from the respiratory tract. Page Ref: 195 Learning Obj.: 10-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 28 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

131) Which of the following is NOT one of the vital signs? A) Respiratory rate B) Urine output C) Heart rate D) Blood pressure Answer: B Explanation: A) Respiratory rate is a vital sign. B) Urine output is not one of the vital signs. C) Heart rate is a vital sign. D) Blood pressure is a vital sign. Page Ref: 193 Learning Obj.: 10-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 132) A bronchodilator is a medication that causes the bronchi to ________. A) narrow B) secrete mucus C) widen D) tighten Answer: C Explanation: A) Bronchi widen, not narrow, because of a bronchodilator. B) Bronchi do not secrete mucus because of a bronchodilator. C) A bronchodilator causes the bronchi to widen. D) Bronchi do not tighten because of a bronchodilator. Page Ref: 188 Learning Obj.: 10-6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary 133) Cystic fibrosis (CF) also affects the ________ system. A) cardiovascular B) urinary C) digestive D) reproductive Answer: C Explanation: A) The cardiovascular system is not affected by CF. B) The urinary system is not affected by CF. C) The digestive system is also affected by CF. D) The reproductive system is not affected by CF. Page Ref: 190 Learning Obj.: 10-6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary

134) Which of the following terms is also called suffocation? A) Asphyxia B) Atelectasis C) Aspiration D) Hypoventilation Answer: A Explanation: A) Asphyxia is also called suffocation. B) Atelectasis is not another term for suffocation. C) Aspiration is not another term for suffocation. D) Hypoventilation is not another term for suffocation. Page Ref: 188 Learning Obj.: 10-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 135) Which of the following terms is also called wheezing? A) Rhonchi B) Pleural effusion C) Hypoventilation D) Rales Answer: A Explanation: A) Rhonchi can also be called wheezing. B) Pleural effusion is not also called wheezing. C) Hypoventilation is not also called wheezing. D) Rales are not also called wheezing. Page Ref: 195 Learning Obj.: 10-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 136) Mucus coughed up from the respiratory tract is called ________. A) rhonchi B) croup C) hemoptysis D) sputum Answer: D Explanation: A) Rhonchi or wheezing is a whistling sound heard during inhalation or exhalation. B) Croup is an acute viral infection in infants and children. C) Hemoptysis means spitting up blood. D) Sputum is mucus coughed up from the respiratory tract. Page Ref: 194 Learning Obj.: 10-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary

137) Which of the following conditions is associated with long-term smoking? A) Emphysema B) Cystic fibrosis C) Croup D) Asthma Answer: A Explanation: A) Emphysema is often associated with long-term smoking. B) Cystic fibrosis is a genetic condition that is not associated with smoking. C) Croup is an infection that is not associated with smoking. D) Asthma is a chronic lung condition that is not associated with smoking. Page Ref: 190 Learning Obj.: 10-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 138) Which of the following conditions is also known as hyaline membrane disease (HMD)? A) Infant respiratory distress syndrome B) Severe acute respiratory syndrome C) Cystic fibrosis D) Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease Answer: A Explanation: A) Infant respiratory distress syndrome is also known as HMD. B) Severe acute respiratory syndrome is not known as HMD. C) Cystic fibrosis is not known as HMD. D) Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease is not known as HMD. Page Ref: 191 Learning Obj.: 10-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 139) Which of the following conditions is a viral infection? A) Pleural effusion B) Influenza C) Emphysema D) Atelectasis Answer: B Explanation: A) Pleural effusion is not a viral infection. B) Influenza is caused by a viral infection. C) Emphysema is not a viral infection. D) Atelectasis is not a viral infection. Page Ref: 191 Learning Obj.: 10-6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary

140) Which of the following statements regarding ventilation-perfusion scans is NOT true? A) It is a nuclear medicine image. B) Radioactive dye is injected into the bloodstream. C) It is particularly useful in diagnosing pneumonia. D) Radioactive tagged air is inhaled. Answer: C Explanation: A) A ventilation-perfusion scan is a nuclear medicine image. B) Radioactive dye is injected into the bloodstream during a ventilation-perfusion scan. C) A ventilation-perfusion scan is used to evaluate ventilation and perfusion in the lungs. It does not help diagnose pneumonia. D) Radioactive tagged air is inhaled during a ventilation-perfusion scan. Page Ref: 194 Learning Obj.: 10-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 141) Which of the following is an example of a TB test? A) Mantoux test B) Branch test C) Pulmonary function test D) Scratch test Answer: A Explanation: A) A Mantoux test is a type of TB test. B) A branch test is not a TB test. C) A pulmonary function test is not a TB test. D) A scratch test is not a TB test. Page Ref: 194 Learning Obj.: 10-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 142) Which of the following has NOT been studied as a possible cause of SIDS? A) Sleep apnea B) Airway spasms C) Pulmonary emboli D) Failure of nerves to stimulate the diaphragm Answer: C Explanation: A) Sleep apnea has been studied as a possible cause of SIDS. B) Airway spasms have been studied as a possible cause of SIDS. C) Pulmonary emboli have not been studied as a possible cause of SIDS. D) Failure of the nerves to stimulate the diaphragm has been studied as a possible cause of SIDS. Page Ref: 193 Learning Obj.: 10-6, 10-7 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Abbreviations

143) Which of the following conditions threatened a worldwide epidemic in 2003? A) SARS B) ARDS C) SIDS D) TPR Answer: A Explanation: A) SARS threatened a worldwide epidemic in 2003. B) ARDS did not threaten a worldwide epidemic in 2003. C) SIDS did not threaten a worldwide epidemic in 2003. D) TPR did not threaten a worldwide epidemic in 2003. Page Ref: 193 Learning Obj.: 10-6, 10-7 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Abbreviations 144) Which of the following conditions causes constriction of the bronchial airways and bronchospasms? A) Emphysema B) Asthma C) Pneumoconiosis D) Adult respiratory distress syndrome Answer: B Explanation: A) Emphysema results from destruction of alveolar walls, leading to overinflated alveoli. B) Asthma causes constriction of the bronchial airways and bronchospasms. C) Pneumoconiosis is an abnormal condition of particles in the lungs. D) Adult respiratory distress syndrome causes respiratory failure in adults. Page Ref: 188 Learning Obj.: 10-6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary 145) Which of the following is an inherited condition? A) Emphysema B) Atelectasis C) Pleurisy D) Cystic fibrosis Answer: D Explanation: A) Emphysema is not inherited. B) Atelectasis is not inherited. C) Pleurisy is not inherited. D) Cystic fibrosis is an inherited condition. Page Ref: 190 Learning Obj.: 10-6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary 33 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

146) Which of the following conditions may cause an infarct in the lungs? A) Pulmonary fibrosis B) Pulmonary emboli C) Pulmonary edema D) Pneumonia Answer: B Explanation: A) Pulmonary fibrosis does not cause an infarct in the lungs. B) Pulmonary emboli may cause an infarct in the lungs. C) Pulmonary edema does not cause an infarct in the lungs. D) Pneumonia does not cause an infarct in the lungs. Page Ref: 193 Learning Obj.: 10-6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary 147) Which serious lung infection causes the alveoli to fill up with fluid? A) Tuberculosis B) Pneumoconiosis C) Pneumonia D) Pulmonary embolism Answer: C Explanation: A) Tuberculosis causes inflammation and calcification in the lungs. B) Pneumoconiosis is an abnormal condition of particles in the lungs. C) Pneumonia is a serious lung infection that causes the alveoli to fill up with fluid. D) Pulmonary embolism is a blood clot or air bubble that results in infarct of lung tissue. Page Ref: 193 Learning Obj.: 10-6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary 148) Which of the following conditions indicates the abnormal presence of fluid or gas in the pleural cavity? A) Pulmonary embolism B) Tuberculosis C) Pleural effusion D) Pleurisy Answer: C Explanation: A) A pulmonary embolism is a blood clot or air bubble that results in infarct of lung tissue. B) Tuberculosis causes inflammation and calcification in the lungs. C) Pleural effusion refers to the abnormal presence of fluid or gas in the pleural cavity. D) Pleurisy is inflammation of the pleura. Page Ref: 192 Learning Obj.: 10-6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary 34 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

149) Which condition is characterized by the destruction of the walls of the alveoli, which results in overinflated air sacs? A) Emphysema B) Pulmonary edema C) Pneumoconiosis D) SARS Answer: A Explanation: A) Emphysema is characterized by the destruction of the walls of the alveoli, which results in overinflated air sacs. B) Pulmonary edema is a condition in which lung tissue retains an excessive amount of fluid. C) Pneumoconiosis is an abnormal condition of particles in the lungs. D) SARS is a highly contagious viral lung infection with high fever. Page Ref: 190 Learning Obj.: 10-6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary 150) Which of the following diagnostic tests is used to diagnose cystic fibrosis (CF)? A) Sweat test B) Spirometry C) Pulmonary angiography D) Sputum cytology Answer: A Explanation: A) The sweat test is used to diagnose CF. B) Spirometry is not used to diagnose CF. C) Pulmonary angiography is not used to diagnose CF. D) Sputum cytology is not used to diagnose CF. Page Ref: 194 Learning Obj.: 10-6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary 151) Which of the following diagnostic tests is a nuclear medicine procedure especially useful in identifying pulmonary emboli (PE)? A) Spirometry B) Mantoux test C) Pulmonary function test D) Ventilation-perfusion scan Answer: D Explanation: A) Spirometry is not used to identify PE. B) A Mantoux test is not used to identify PE. C) A pulmonary function test is not used to identify PE. D) A ventilation-perfusion scan is useful in identifying PE. Page Ref: 194 Learning Obj.: 10-6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary 35 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

152) Which of the following diagnostic procedures is a test for malignant cells? A) Sputum cytology B) Sputum culture and sensitivity C) Pulmonary function test D) Arterial blood gases Answer: A Explanation: A) Sputum cytology is a test for malignant cells. B) Sputum culture and sensitivity is a test for bacteria. C) A pulmonary function test is used to determine pulmonary function. D) Arterial blood gases are used to test levels of oxygen and carbon dioxide in the blood. Page Ref: 194 Learning Obj.: 10-6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary 153) Which of the following uses a tube placed through the mouth and into the trachea to help maintain an open airway? A) Postural drainage B) Endotracheal intubation C) Cardiopulmonary resuscitation D) Bronchodilator Answer: B Explanation: A) Postural drainage uses gravity to promote drainage of secretions from bronchi. B) Endotracheal intubation uses a tube placed through the mouth and into the trachea to maintain an open airway and facilitate artificial ventilation. C) Cardiopulmonary resuscitation uses external compressions to the sternum and rescue breathing to maintain blood flow and air movement. D) A bronchodilator is a medication that causes the bronchi to dilate. Page Ref: 191 Learning Obj.: 10-6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary

154) Which of the following is an emergency treatment given to patients when their breathing and heart stop? A) Postural drainage B) Thoracentesis C) Cardiopulmonary resuscitation D) Intermittent positive pressure breathing Answer: C Explanation: A) Postural drainage uses gravity to encourage the removal of secretions from the bronchi. B) Thoracentesis is used to remove fluid from the thoracic cavity. C) Cardiopulmonary resuscitation uses external compressions to the sternum and rescue breathing to maintain blood flow and air movement in and out of lungs during cardiac and respiratory arrest. D) Intermittent positive pressure breathing is used for ventilation to assist the lungs in filling with air. Page Ref: 189 Learning Obj.: 10-6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary 155) Which therapeutic procedure uses gravity to encourage the removal of secretions from the bronchi? A) Postural drainage B) Intermittent positive pressure breathing C) Thoracentesis D) Endotracheal intubation Answer: A Explanation: A) Postural drainage uses gravity to encourage the removal of secretions from the bronchi. B) Intermittent positive pressure breathing is used for ventilation to assist the lungs in filling with air. C) Thoracentesis is used to remove fluid from the thoracic cavity. D) Endotracheal intubation uses a tube placed through the mouth and into the trachea to maintain an open airway and facilitate artificial ventilation. Page Ref: 193 Learning Obj.: 10-6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary

156) Which term means "surgical repair of the trachea"? A) Tracheotomy B) Tracheoplasty C) Tracheal D) Tracheostomy Answer: B Explanation: A) A tracheotomy is an incision into the trachea. B) A tracheoplasty is the surgical repair of the trachea. C) Tracheal means "pertaining to the trachea." D) A tracheostomy is used to create an artificial opening in the trachea. Page Ref: 187 Learning Obj.: 10-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building 157) Which term means "small bronchus"? A) Bronchiolar B) Bronchiule C) Bronchial D) Bronchiole Answer: D Explanation: A) Bronchiolar means "pertaining to the bronchiole." B) Bronchiule is not a correct medical term. C) Bronchial means "pertaining to bronchi." D) Bronchiole means "small bronchus." Page Ref: 182 Learning Obj.: 10-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building 158) Which term means "abnormal condition of dust in the lungs"? A) Pneumonia B) Pneumoconiosis C) Pneumothorax D) Pneumonectomy Answer: B Explanation: A) Pneumonia is an inflammatory condition of the lung caused by bacterial or viral infection. B) Pneumoconiosis means "abnormal condition of dust in the lungs." C) A pneumothorax is a condition of air in the pleural cavity that may result in a collapsed lung. D) Pneumonectomy is surgical removal of the lung. Page Ref: 182 Learning Obj.: 10-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building

159) Which term means "one who studies the lungs"? A) Pneumologist B) Pulmonology C) Pneumonologist D) Pulmonologist Answer: D Explanation: A) Pneumologist is not the term used for one who studies the lungs. B) Pulmonology is the study of the lung. C) Pneumonologist is not the term used for one who studies the lungs. D) A pulmonologist is one who studies the lungs. Page Ref: 185 Learning Obj.: 10-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building 160) Which term means "process of measuring breathing"? A) Oximetry B) Pneumometry C) Spirometry D) Bronchometry Answer: C Explanation: A) Oximetry does not measure breathing. B) Pneumometry does not measure breathing. C) Spirometry is the process of measuring breathing. D) Bronchometry does not measure breathing. Page Ref: 186 Learning Obj.: 10-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building 161) Which term means "abnormal condition of being blue"? A) Cyanosis B) Cyanitis C) Cyaniosis D) Cyanotic Answer: A Explanation: A) Cyanosis is the abnormal condition of being blue. Cyan/o means "blue" and osis means "abnormal condition." B) In the word cyanitis, -itis means "inflammation." C) Cyaniosis is not correct word usage. D) In the word cyanotic, -tic means "pertaining to" Page Ref: 182 Learning Obj.: 10-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building

162) Which term means "pleura pain"? A) Pleurodynia B) Thoracalgia C) Pleuritis D) Pleurocentesis Answer: A Explanation: A) Pleurodynia means "pleura pain." B) Thoracalgia means pain in the thorax. C) Pleuritis means inflammation of the pleura. D) Pleurocentesis means to puncture the pleura to withdraw fluid. Page Ref: 184 Learning Obj.: 10-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building 163) Which of the following terms means "excessive (deep) breathing"? A) Hypopnea B) Tachypnea C) Hyperpnea D) Orthopnea Answer: C Explanation: A) Hypopnea means "insufficient (shallow) breathing." B) Tachypnea means "fast breathing." C) Hyperpnea means "excessive (deep) breathing." D) Orthopnea means "inability to breathe unless one is sitting up or standing erect." Page Ref: 185 Learning Obj.: 10-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building 164) Which of the following terms means "normal breathing"? A) Apnea B) Eupnea C) Orthopnea D) Dyspnea Answer: B Explanation: A) Apnea means "without breathing." B) Eupnea means "normal breathing." C) Orthopnea means "inability to breathe unless one is sitting up or standing erect." D) Dyspnea means "difficult breathing." Page Ref: 185 Learning Obj.: 10-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building

165) Which of the following terms means "air in the chest"? A) Pneumothorax B) Hemothorax C) Pyothorax D) Thoracocentesis Answer: A Explanation: A) Pneumothorax means "air in the chest." B) Hemothorax means "blood in the chest." C) Pyothorax means "pus in the chest." D) Thoracocentesis is a chest puncture to withdraw fluid. Page Ref: 185 Learning Obj.: 10-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building 166) Which term is misspelled? A) Tuberculosis B) Sputem C) Purulent D) Pulmonary Answer: B Explanation: A) Tuberculosis is spelled correctly. B) It should be spelled sputum. C) Purulent is spelled correctly. D) Pulmonary is spelled correctly. Page Ref: 194 Learning Obj.: 10-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Spelling 167) Which term is misspelled? A) Pneumothorax B) Phlegm C) Influenza D) Rhonci Answer: D Explanation: A) Pneumothorax is spelled correctly. B) Phlegm is spelled correctly. C) Influenza is spelled correctly. D) It should be spelled rhonchi. Page Ref: 195 Learning Obj.: 10-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Spelling

168) Which term is misspelled? A) Pneumonia B) Endotracheal C) Pleurisey D) Emphysema Answer: C Explanation: A) Pneumonia is spelled correctly. B) Endotracheal is spelled correctly. C) It should be spelled pleurisy. D) Emphysema is spelled correctly. Page Ref: 192 Learning Obj.: 10-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Spelling 169) Which term is misspelled? A) Croup B) Hypoxea C) Bronchodilator D) Atelectasis Answer: B Explanation: A) Croup is spelled correctly. B) It should be spelled hypoxia. C) Bronchodilator is spelled correctly. D) Atelectasis is spelled correctly. Page Ref: 191 Learning Obj.: 10-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Spelling 170) Which abbreviation stands for a genetic condition? A) CXR B) ARDS C) TB D) CF Answer: D Explanation: A) CXR stands for "chest X-ray." B) ARDS stands for "adult respiratory distress syndrome." C) TB stands for "tuberculosis." D) CF stands for "cystic fibrosis," which is a genetic condition. Page Ref: 190 Learning Obj.: 10-6, 10-7 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Abbreviations

171) Which abbreviation stands for a machine that assists the lungs with filling with air? A) IPPB B) HMD C) PFT D) TPR Answer: A Explanation: A) IPPB stands for "intermittent positive pressure breathing." B) HMD stands for "hyaline membrane disease." C) PFT stands for "pulmonary function test." D) TPR stands for "temperature, pulse, and respiration." Page Ref: 192 Learning Obj.: 10-6, 10-7 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Abbreviations 172) Which abbreviation stands for a diagnostic laboratory test? A) CPR B) IPPB C) ARDS D) ABGs Answer: D Explanation: A) CPR stands for "cardiopulmonary resuscitation." B) IPPB stands for "intermittent positive pressure breathing." C) ARDS stands for "adult respiratory distress syndrome." D) ABGs stands for "arterial blood gases." Page Ref: 188 Learning Obj.: 10-7 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Abbreviations 173) Which abbreviation stands for a life-threatening condition in babies? A) TB B) SARS C) SIDS D) COPD Answer: C Explanation: A) TB stands for "tuberculosis." B) SARS stands for "severe acute respiratory syndrome." C) SIDS stands for "sudden infant death syndrome." D) COPD stands for "chronic obstructive pulmonary disease." Page Ref: 194 Learning Obj.: 10-6, 10-7 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Abbreviations

174) Which abbreviation stands for a test of respiratory function? A) TB B) PFT C) SOB D) CF Answer: B Explanation: A) TB stands for "tuberculosis." B) PFT stands for "pulmonary function test." C) SOB stands for "shortness of breath." D) CF stands for "cystic fibrosis." Page Ref: 193 Learning Obj.: 10-7 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Abbreviations 175) Which abbreviation stands for a pathological condition? A) SARS B) PFT C) C&S D) ET Answer: A Explanation: A) SARS stands for "severe acute respiratory syndrome." B) PFT stands for "pulmonary function test." C) C&S stands for "culture and sensitivity." D) ET stands for "endotracheal." Page Ref: 193 Learning Obj.: 10-6, 10-7 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Abbreviations

Match each term on the left with the correct definition on the right. A) condition that destroys the walls of the alveoli B) visual exam of the bronchi C) a TB test D) without breathing E) caused by tubercle bacillus F) rattling breath sounds G) excessive fluid is retained in the lung tissue H) maintains blood and airflow during cardiac arrest I) test for cystic fibrosis J) central region of the thoracic cavity K) test for cancer L) sputum M) condition in which patient produces thick mucus N) air sacs O) uses a spirometer P) to inhale fluid or foreign objects into the airways Q) also called a respirator R) whistling sound S) insufficient amount of oxygen in body T) bradypnea and hypopnea U) windpipe V) condition with bronchospasms and wheezing W) a blood test X) containing pus Y) difficult breathing 176) Trachea Page Ref: 187 Learning Obj.: 10-4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 177) alveoli Page Ref: 180 Learning Obj.: 10-4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 178) sweat test Page Ref: 194 Learning Obj.: 10-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary

179) ventilator Page Ref: 194 Learning Obj.: 10-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 180) sputum cytology Page Ref: 194 Learning Obj.: 10-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 181) crackles Page Ref: 189 Learning Obj.: 10-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 182) mediastinum Page Ref: 183 Learning Obj.: 10-4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 183) purulent Page Ref: 193 Learning Obj.: 10-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 184) PFT Page Ref: 193 Learning Obj.: 10-6, 10-7 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Abbreviations 185) hypoventilation Page Ref: 191 Learning Obj.: 10-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 186) phlegm Page Ref: 192 Learning Obj.: 10-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 46 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

187) rhonchi Page Ref: 195 Learning Obj.: 10-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 188) hypoxia Page Ref: 191 Learning Obj.: 10-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 189) CPR Page Ref: 189 Learning Obj.: 10-6, 10-7 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Abbreviations 190) emphysema Page Ref: 190 Learning Obj.: 10-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 191) CF Page Ref: 190 Learning Obj.: 10-6, 10-7 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Abbreviations 192) pulmonary edema Page Ref: 193 Learning Obj.: 10-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 193) TB Page Ref: 194 Learning Obj.: 10-6, 10-7 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Abbreviations 194) apnea Page Ref: 184 Learning Obj.: 10-5 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 47 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

195) bronchoscopy Page Ref: 181 Learning Obj.: 10-5 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 196) asthma Page Ref: 188 Learning Obj.: 10-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 197) Mantoux test Page Ref: 194 Learning Obj.: 10-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 198) aspirate Page Ref: 188 Learning Obj.: 10-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 199) dyspnea Page Ref: 184 Learning Obj.: 10-5 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 200) ABGs Page Ref: 188 Learning Obj.: 10-6, 10-7 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Abbreviations Answers: 176) U 177) N 178) I 179) Q 180) K 181) F 182) J 183) X 184) O 185) T 186) L 187) R 188) S 189) H 190) A 191) M 192) G 193) E 194) D 195) B 196) V 197) C 198) P 199) Y 200) W

201) List the organs of the lower respiratory system and describe their role in the body. Answer: ∙ Trachea, bronchi, lungs, pleura ∙ Carry air into and out of the lungs ∙ Oxygen is constantly needed to produce energy ∙ Carbon dioxide is a waste product of energy production and must be removed from the body ∙ This gas exchange occurs between the alveoli inside the lungs and the bloodstream surrounding them ∙ The pleura is a protective sac around the lungs. Page Ref: 178, 180, 184 Learning Obj.: 10-2, 10-4 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 202) What is sputum? What is the difference between sputum cytology and sputum culture and sensitivity? Answer: ∙ Sputum is the mucus coughed up and spit out from the respiratory tract ∙ Sputum cytology is a lab test that examines cells found in sputum and looks for cancerous cells ∙ Sputum culture and sensitivity is a test for bacterial infection. Culture grows the bacteria in order to identify it, and sensitivity determines which antibiotic is most effective in killing the bacteria Page Ref: 194 Learning Obj.: 10-6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary

Medical Terminology: Get Connected!, 3e (Frucht) Chapter 11 Gastroenterology: Digestive System All answers to questions asking for a combining form must be written in the combining form style, meaning word root/combining vowel. For example, the combining form meaning "heart" is cardi/o. All answers to questions asking for a suffix must be written in suffix form, meaning a hyphen before your answer. For example, the suffix meaning "cell" is -cyte. All answers to questions asking for a prefix must be written in prefix form, meaning a hyphen after your answer. For example, a prefix meaning "two" is bi-. Do NOT capitalize any of your answers or include a period at the end of your answer. The computer will NOT recognize your answer as correct if it is written in any other style. 1) The combining form that means anus is ________. Answer: an/o; ano Page Ref: 207 Learning Obj.: 11-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 2) A combining form other than appendic/o that means appendix is ________. Answer: append/o; appendo Page Ref: 207 Learning Obj.: 11-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 3) The combining form that means bile is ________. Answer: chol/e; chole Page Ref: 207 Learning Obj.: 11-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 4) The combining form that means bile duct is ________. Answer: cholangi/o; cholangio Page Ref: 207 Learning Obj.: 11-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 5) The combining form that means gallbladder is ________. Answer: cholecyst/o; cholecysto Page Ref: 207 Learning Obj.: 11-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 1 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

6) The combining form that means common bile duct is ________. Answer: choledoch/o; choledocho Page Ref: 207 Learning Obj.: 11-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 7) A combining form other than colon/o that means colon is ________. Answer: col/o; colo Page Ref: 207 Learning Obj.: 11-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 8) The combining form that means diverticulum is ________. Answer: diverticul/o; diverticulo Page Ref: 207 Learning Obj.: 11-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 9) A combining form that means duodenum is ________. Answer: duoden/o; duodeno Page Ref: 207 Learning Obj.: 11-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 10) The combining form that means intestine is ________. Answer: enter/o; entero Page Ref: 207 Learning Obj.: 11-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 11) The combining form that means esophagus is ________. Answer: esophag/o; esophago Page Ref: 207 Learning Obj.: 11-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

12) The combining form that means stomach is ________. Answer: gastr/o; gastro Page Ref: 207 Learning Obj.: 11-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 13) A combining form that means polyp is ________. Answer: polyp/o; polypo Page Ref: 207 Learning Obj.: 11-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 14) The combining form that means ileum is ________. Answer: ile/o; ileo Page Ref: 207 Learning Obj.: 11-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 15) The combining form that means liver is ________. Answer: hepat/o; hepato Page Ref: 207 Learning Obj.: 11-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 16) The combining form that means jejunum is ________. Answer: jejun/o; jejuno Page Ref: 207 Learning Obj.: 11-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 17) A combining form that means abdomen is ________. Answer: lapar/o; laparo Page Ref: 207 Learning Obj.: 11-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

18) The combining form that means stone is ________. Answer: lith/o; litho Page Ref: 207 Learning Obj.: 11-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 19) The combining form that means pancreas is ________. Answer: pancreat/o; pancreato Page Ref: 207 Learning Obj.: 11-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 20) The combining form that means anus and rectum is ________. Answer: proct/o; procto Page Ref: 207 Learning Obj.: 11-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 21) The combining form that means rectum is ________. Answer: rect/o; recto Page Ref: 207 Learning Obj.: 11-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 22) The combining form that means sigmoid colon is ________. Answer: sigmoid/o; sigmoido Page Ref: 207 Learning Obj.: 11-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 23) The suffix that means eating or swallowing is ________. Answer: -phagia; phagia Page Ref: 208 Learning Obj.: 11-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

24) The suffix that means protrusion is ________. Answer: -cele; cele Page Ref: 207 Learning Obj.: 11-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 25) The suffix that means vomiting is ________. Answer: -emesis; emesis Page Ref: 207 Learning Obj.: 11-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 26) The suffix that means tumor is ________. Answer: -oma; oma Page Ref: 207 Learning Obj.: 11-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 27) The suffix that means surgically create an opening is ________. Answer: -ostomy; ostomy Page Ref: 208 Learning Obj.: 11-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 28) The suffix that means digestion is ________. Answer: -pepsia; pepsia Page Ref: 208 Learning Obj.: 11-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 29) The suffix that means drooping is ________. Answer: -ptosis; ptosis Page Ref: 208 Learning Obj.: 11-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

30) The suffix that means surgical crushing is ________. Answer: -tripsy; tripsy Page Ref: 208 Learning Obj.: 11-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 31) A medical term that means pertaining to the anus is ________. Answer: anal Page Ref: 209 Learning Obj.: 11-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building 32) A medical term that means pertaining to the colon and rectum is ________. Answer: colorectal Page Ref: 211 Learning Obj.: 11-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building 33) A medical term that means pertaining to the duodenum is ________. Answer: duodenal Page Ref: 212 Learning Obj.: 11-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building 34) A medical term that means pertaining to the intestine is ________. Answer: enteric Page Ref: 212 Learning Obj.: 11-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building 35) A medical term that means pertaining to the esophagus is ________. Answer: esophageal Page Ref: 213 Learning Obj.: 11-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building

36) A medical term that means pertaining to the stomach is ________. Answer: gastric Page Ref: 213 Learning Obj.: 11-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building 37) A medical term that means appendix inflammation is ________. Answer: appendicitis Page Ref: 209 Learning Obj.: 11-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building 38) A medical term that means surgical removal of the gallbladder is ________. Answer: cholecystectomy Page Ref: 210 Learning Obj.: 11-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building 39) A medical term that means abnormal condition of having diverticula is ________. Answer: diverticulosis Page Ref: 211 Learning Obj.: 11-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building 40) A medical term that means study of stomach and intestine is ________. Answer: gastroenterology Page Ref: 214 Learning Obj.: 11-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building 41) A medical term that means cutting into the abdomen is ________. Answer: laparotomy Page Ref: 215 Learning Obj.: 11-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building

42) A medical term that means drooping of the rectum and anus is ________. Answer: proctoptosis Page Ref: 216 Learning Obj.: 11-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building 43) A medical term that means surgical removal of polyp is ________. Answer: polypectomy Page Ref: 216 Learning Obj.: 11-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building 44) A medical term that means surgically create an opening in the jejunum is ________. Answer: jejunostomy Page Ref: 215 Learning Obj.: 11-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building 45) A medical term that means pertaining to the liver is ________. Answer: hepatic Page Ref: 214 Learning Obj.: 11-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building 46) A medical term that means pertaining to the pancreas is ________. Answer: pancreatic Page Ref: 215 Learning Obj.: 11-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building 47) A medical term that means instrument for viewing the sigmoid colon is ________. Answer: sigmoidoscope Page Ref: 217 Learning Obj.: 11-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building

48) A medical term that means vomiting blood is ________. Answer: hematemesis Page Ref: 212 Learning Obj.: 11-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building 49) A medical term that means painful digestion is ________. Answer: dyspepsia Page Ref: 215 Learning Obj.: 11-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building 50) A medical term that means without swallowing is ________. Answer: aphagia Page Ref: 216 Learning Obj.: 11-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building 51) The pharynx is an organ of the gastrointestinal tract. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 207 Learning Obj.: 11-4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 52) The rectum is the distal opening of the digestive tract. Answer: FALSE Explanation: The anus is the distal opening of the digestive tract. Page Ref: 209 Learning Obj.: 11-4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 53) The common bile duct transports bile to the duodenum. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 209 Learning Obj.: 11-2 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology

54) The colon receives undigested food from the small intestine. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 211 Learning Obj.: 11-2 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 55) The liver stores bile produced by the gallbladder. Answer: FALSE Explanation: The gallbladder stores bile made by the liver. Page Ref: 210 Learning Obj.: 11-2 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 56) Final digestion of food begins in the duodenum. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 212 Learning Obj.: 11-2 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 57) A diverticulum is a small abnormal pouch that forms off the stomach wall. Answer: FALSE Explanation: A diverticulum is a small abnormal pouch that forms off the intestinal or colon wall. Page Ref: 211 Learning Obj.: 11-6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary 58) The stomach produces hydrochloric acid. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 213 Learning Obj.: 11-4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 59) The sections of the small intestine in order are jejunum, ileum, and duodenum. Answer: FALSE Explanation: The sections of the small intestine in order are duodenum, jejunum, and ileum. Page Ref: 207 Learning Obj.: 11-4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology

60) The gallbladder is an accessory organ of the digestive system. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 207 Learning Obj.: 11-4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 61) Nutrient molecules from digested food are absorbed by the stomach. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Nutrient molecules from digested food are absorbed by the small intestine. Page Ref: 212 Learning Obj.: 11-2 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 62) The jejunum receives food from the stomach. Answer: FALSE Explanation: The duodenum receives food from the stomach. Page Ref: 212 Learning Obj.: 11-4 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 63) The abdominal cavity houses the organs of digestion, reproduction, and excretion. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 215 Learning Obj.: 11-4 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 64) Intestinal polyps may become cancerous. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 216 Learning Obj.: 11-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 65) Pancreatic enzymes are transported to the stomach to aid in digestion. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Pancreatic enzymes are transported to the duodenum. Page Ref: 215 Learning Obj.: 11-2 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology

66) Feces pass out of the sigmoid colon and into the rectum. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 217 Learning Obj.: 11-2 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 67) Volvulus is the term describing a section of intestine that has telescoped inside itself. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Intussusception is the term describing a section of intestine that has telescoped inside itself. Page Ref: 221 Learning Obj.: 11-6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary 68) Nausea is feeling the urge to vomit. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 221 Learning Obj.: 11-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 69) An upper GI series is also called a barium swallow. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 222 Learning Obj.: 11-6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary 70) Ulcerative colitis is another name for Crohn's disease. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Ulcerative colitis and Crohn's disease are not the same. Page Ref: 218, 222 Learning Obj.: 11-6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary 71) Ulcerative colitis is a chronic inflammatory bowel disease. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 222 Learning Obj.: 11-6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary

72) Melena is caused by the presence of blood in the stool. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 221 Learning Obj.: 11-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 73) TPN gives nutrients directly into the stomach via a tube down the throat. Answer: FALSE Explanation: TPN gives nutrients directly into the bloodstream. Page Ref: 222 Learning Obj.: 11-6, 11-7 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Abbreviations 74) A bleeding ulcer eats through the wall of the stomach to release stomach contents into the abdominal cavity. Answer: FALSE Explanation: A perforated ulcer eats through the wall of the stomach to release stomach contents into the abdominal cavity. Page Ref: 222 Learning Obj.: 11-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 75) Hemorrhoids are varicose veins in the rectum. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 220 Learning Obj.: 11-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 76) Jaundice is the yellow-colored skin associated with stomach disease. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Jaundice is the yellow-colored skin associated with liver disease. Page Ref: 221 Learning Obj.: 11-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 77) Esophageal varices are varicose veins. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 219 Learning Obj.: 11-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 13 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

78) Ileus refers to a cancerous tumor in the ileum. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Ileus refers to an obstruction of the intestine. Page Ref: 220 Learning Obj.: 11-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 79) Esophageal atresia is the lack of a connection between the esophagus and stomach. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 219 Learning Obj.: 11-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 80) Helicobacter pylori antibody test looks for the bacteria that cause polyps. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Helicobacter pylori antibody test looks for the bacteria that cause gastric ulcers. Page Ref: 220 Learning Obj.: 11-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 81) Dysentery is usually caused by a bacterial or parasitic infection. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 218 Learning Obj.: 11-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 82) An FOBT is an X-ray of the large intestine using barium. Answer: FALSE Explanation: A BE is an X-ray of the large intestine using barium. Page Ref: 218 Learning Obj.: 11-6, 11-7 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Abbreviations 83) In esophageal atresia, food cannot enter the esophagus. Answer: FALSE Explanation: In esophageal atresia, food cannot enter the stomach. Page Ref: 219 Learning Obj.: 11-6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary

84) Cirrhosis is the condition of having gallstones. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Cirrhosis is a type of liver disease. Page Ref: 218 Learning Obj.: 11-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 85) Crohn's disease is a chronic condition. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 218 Learning Obj.: 11-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 86) Barium is a contrast medium used in an X-ray examination of the esophagus and stomach. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 218, 222 Learning Obj.: 11-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 87) Ascites is the collection of fluid in the stomach. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Ascites is the collection of fluid in the abdominal cavity. Page Ref: 217 Learning Obj.: 11-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 88) The suffix -emesis means "vomiting." Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 207 Learning Obj.: 11-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 89) A diverticulum is a small mushroom-shaped tumor that grows on mucous membranes of the colon. Answer: FALSE Explanation: A polyp is a small mushroom-shaped tumor that grows on mucous membranes of the colon. Page Ref: 216 Learning Obj.: 11-6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary 15 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

90) In GERD, acid backs up from the stomach into the trachea. Answer: FALSE Explanation: In GERD, acid backs up from the stomach into the esophagus. Page Ref: 220 Learning Obj.: 11-6, 11-7 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Abbreviations 91) Esophageal varices may rupture and cause serious bleeding. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 219 Learning Obj.: 11-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 92) Ileus refers to an intestinal blockage. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 220 Learning Obj.: 11-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 93) In volvulus, the intestine twists on itself, cutting off blood flow. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 222 Learning Obj.: 11-6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary 94) Intususseption is spelled correctly. Answer: FALSE Explanation: The correct spelling is intussusception. Page Ref: 221 Learning Obj.: 11-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Spelling 95) Irritable bowel syndrome is also called spastic colon. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 221 Learning Obj.: 11-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary

96) O&P is also called a stool guaiac test. Answer: FALSE Explanation: FOBT is also called a stool guaiac test. Page Ref: 219 Learning Obj.: 11-6, 11-7 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Abbreviations 97) An UGI X-ray examines the sigmoid colon. Answer: FALSE Page Ref: 222 Learning Obj.: 11-6, 11-7 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Abbreviations 98) A laparoscopy examines the inside of the abdominal cavity. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 215 Learning Obj.: 11-6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary 99) A BE is the same as a lower GI series. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 218 Learning Obj.: 11-6, 11-7 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Abbreviations 100) Ascites is a parasitic infection of the intestines and colon. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Ascites is the accumulation of fluid in the abdominal cavity. Page Ref: 217 Learning Obj.: 11-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary

101) Which medical term means "appendix inflammation"? A) Appendicitis B) Appenditis C) Appendicopathy D) Appendicosis Answer: A Explanation: A) Appendicitis means "appendix inflammation." B) Appenditis is not a correct term. Append/o is not the correct combining form. C) Appendicopathy is not the correct term; -pathy means "disease of." D) Appendicosis is not the correct term; -osis means "abnormal condition." Page Ref: 209 Learning Obj.: 11-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building 102) Which medical term means "surgical removal of gallbladder"? A) Choledochectomy B) Cholecystectomy C) Cholelithotripsy D) Cholelithiasis Answer: B Explanation: A) Choledochectomy means "surgical removal of common bile duct." B) Cholecystectomy means "surgical removal of gallbladder." C) Cholelithectomy means "surgical crushing of bile stones (gallstones)." D) Cholelithiasis means "condition of having bile stones (gallstones)." Page Ref: 199 Learning Obj.: 11-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building 103) Which medical term means "process of visually examining the colon"? A) Colostomy B) Colonoscope C) Colonoscopy D) Colonic Answer: C Explanation: A) A colostomy is an artificial opening in the colon. B) A colonoscope is an instrument for viewing the colon. C) Colonoscopy means "process of visually examining the colon." D) Colonic means "pertaining to colon." Page Ref: 211 Learning Obj.: 11-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building

104) Which medical term means "stomach pain"? A) Duodenalgia B) Gingivalgia C) Enteralgia D) Gastralgia Answer: D Explanation: A) Duodenalgia means pain in the duodenum. B) Gingivalgia means pain in the gums. C) Enteralgia means pain in the intestine. D) Gastralgia means "stomach pain." Page Ref: 214 Learning Obj.: 11-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building 105) Which medical term means "surgical removal of stomach"? A) Gastrectomy B) Gastrotomy C) Gastroplasty D) Gastrostomy Answer: A Explanation: A) Gastrectomy means "surgical removal of stomach." B) Gastrotomy means "cutting into the stomach." C) Gastroplasty means "surgical repair of stomach." D) Gastrostomy means "surgically create an opening in stomach." Page Ref: 213 Learning Obj.: 11-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building 106) Which medical term means "pertaining to the third section of the small intestine"? A) Duodenal B) Ileal C) Cecal D) Jejunal Answer: B Explanation: A) The duodenum is the first section of the small intestine. B) Ileal means "pertaining to ileum," which is the third section of the small intestine. C) The cecum is part of the large intestine. D) The jejunum is the second part of the small intestine. Page Ref: 214 Learning Obj.: 11-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building

107) Which medical term means "instrument for viewing the rectum and anus"? A) Anoscope B) Sigmoidoscope C) Proctoscope D) Rectoscope Answer: C Explanation: A) Anoscope means "instrument for viewing only the anus." B) Sigmoidoscope means "instrument for viewing the sigmoid colon." C) Proctoscope means "instrument for viewing the rectum and anus." D) Rectoscope means "instrument for viewing only the rectum." Page Ref: 216 Learning Obj.: 11-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building 108) Which medical term means "slow digestion"? A) Tachypepsia B) Dyspepsia C) Apepsia D) Bradypepsia Answer: D Explanation: A) Tachypepsia means "fast digestion." B) Dyspepsia means "painful digestion." C) Apepsia means "without digestion." D) Bradypepsia means "slow digestion." Page Ref: 215 Learning Obj.: 11-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building 109) Which medical term means "excessive eating"? A) Polyphagia B) Tachyphagia C) Dysphagia D) Aphagia Answer: A Explanation: A) Polyphagia means "excessive eating." B) Tachyphagia means "fast eating." C) Dysphagia means "difficult swallowing." D) Aphagia means "without swallowing." Page Ref: 215 Learning Obj.: 11-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building

110) Which medical term means "condition of having a stone in the common bile duct"? A) Cholelithiasis B) Choledocholithiasis C) Cholecystitis D) Choledocholithotripsy Answer: B Explanation: A) Cholelithiasis means "condition of having bile stones (gallstones)." B) Choledocholithiasis means "condition of having a stone in the common bile duct." C) Cholecystitis means "gallbladder inflammation." D) Choledocholithotripsy means "surgical crushing of stone in the common bile duct." Page Ref: 210 Learning Obj.: 11-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building 111) A ________ is a small mushroom-shaped tumor. A) polyp B) pyrosis C) melena D) denture Answer: A Explanation: A) A polyp is a small mushroom-shaped tumor that grows on mucous membranes of the colon. B) Pyrosis is not a tumor. C) Melena is dark, tarry stool due to the presence of blood. D) Denture is not a tumor. Page Ref: 216 Learning Obj.: 11-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 112) The medical term for "vomiting" is ________. A) deglutination B) nausea C) emesis D) melena Answer: C Explanation: A) Deglutination does not mean "vomiting." B) Nausea is feeling the urge to vomit. C) Emesis means "vomiting." D) Melena is dark, tarry stool due to the presence of blood. Page Ref: 222 Learning Obj.: 11-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary

113) All of the following are accessory organs of the digestive system EXCEPT the ________. A) liver B) pancreas C) gallbladder D) pharynx Answer: D Explanation: A) The liver is an accessory organ of the digestive system. B) The pancreas is an accessory organ of the digestive system. C) The gallbladder is an accessory organ of the digestive system. D) The pharynx is an organ of the digestive system, not an accessory organ. Page Ref: 207 Learning Obj.: 11-4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 114) The stomach produces ________. A) bile B) sulfuric acid C) pancreatic enzymes D) hydrochloric acid Answer: D Explanation: A) Bile is made by the liver, stored in the gallbladder, and transported to the duodenum to aid in fat digestion. B) Sulfuric acid is not in the stomach. C) The stomach produces digestive enzymes, but pancreatic enzymes would be produced in the pancreas. D) The stomach produces hydrochloric acid and digestive enzymes for protein digestion. Page Ref: 213 Learning Obj.: 11-4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 115) The partially digested liquid mixture that leaves the stomach is called ________. A) chyme B) melena C) ascites D) atresia Answer: A Explanation: A) Chyme is the partially digested liquid mixture that leaves the stomach and enters the duodenum. B) Melena is dark, tarry stool due to the presence of blood. C) Ascites is accumulation of fluid in the abdominal cavity. D) Atresia is not a partially digested liquid mixture. Page Ref: 213 Learning Obj.: 11-2 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 22 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

116) The correct order of the three sections of the small intestine is ________. A) jejunum, duodenum, ileum B) duodenum, jejunum, ileum C) duodenum, ileum, jejunum D) ileum, jejunum, duodenum Answer: B Explanation: A) The order of the three sections of the small intestine is duodenum, jejunum, ileum. B) The order of the three sections of the small intestine is duodenum, jejunum, ileum. C) The order of the three sections of the small intestine is duodenum, jejunum, ileum. D) The order of the three sections of the small intestine is duodenum, jejunum, ileum. Page Ref: 207 Learning Obj.: 11-4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 117) The ________ of the small intestine receives food from the stomach. A) cecum B) jejunum C) ileum D) duodenum Answer: D Explanation: A) The cecum is in the large intestine. B) The jejunum receives digested food from the duodenum. C) The ileum receives digested food from the jejunum. D) The duodenum receives food from the stomach. Page Ref: 212 Learning Obj.: 11-4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 118) The appendix is a small structure attached to the ________. A) ileum B) cecum C) sigmoid colon D) duodenum Answer: B Explanation: A) The appendix is not attached to the ileum. B) The appendix is a small pouch attached to the cecum. C) The appendix is not attached to the sigmoid colon. D) The appendix is not attached to the duodenum. Page Ref: 209 Learning Obj.: 11-4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology

119) Feces are stored in the ________ prior to elimination. A) sigmoid colon B) anus C) rectum D) cecum Answer: C Explanation: A) Feces are not stored in the sigmoid colon. B) The anus is the opening of the digestive system for expelling feces, not storing it. C) Feces are stored in the rectum prior to elimination. D) The cecum is the first section of the colon and is not used for storing feces. Page Ref: 217 Learning Obj.: 11-2 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 120) The liver produces ________ to aid in digestion. A) bile B) amylase C) chyme D) buffers Answer: A Explanation: A) The liver produces bile to aid in digestion. B) Amylase is not produced by the liver to aid in digestion. C) Chyme is not produced by the liver to aid in digestion. D) Buffers are not produced by the liver to aid in digestion. Page Ref: 214 Learning Obj.: 11-2 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 121) The function of the gallbladder is to store ________. A) buffers B) amylase C) bile D) glucose Answer: C Explanation: A) The gallbladder does not store buffers. B) The gallbladder does not store amylase. C) The function of the gallbladder is to store bile. D) The gallbladder does not store glucose. Page Ref: 210 Learning Obj.: 11-2 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology

122) The common bile duct carries bile to the ________. A) stomach B) liver C) gallbladder D) duodenum Answer: D Explanation: A) The common bile duct does not carry bile to the stomach. B) The common bile duct does not carry bile to the liver. C) The common bile duct does not carry bile to the gallbladder. D) The common bile duct carries bile to the duodenum. Page Ref: 210 Learning Obj.: 11-2 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 123) The pancreas secretes ________. A) barium B) bile C) acid D) enzymes Answer: D Explanation: A) Barium is not secreted by the pancreas. B) Bile is not secreted by the pancreas. C) Acid is not secreted by the pancreas. D) The pancreas secretes digestive enzymes. Page Ref: 215 Learning Obj.: 11-2 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 124) The two rings of muscles that control the opening and closing of the anus are called ________. A) pouches B) sphincters C) varices D) skeletal muscles Answer: B Explanation: A) Pouches are not rings of muscles. B) Sphincters are rings of muscles that control the opening and closing of the anus. C) Varices are not rings of muscles. D) Skeletal muscles are not rings of muscles. Page Ref: 209 Learning Obj.: 11-2 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology

125) Bile aids in the digestion of ________. A) carbohydrates B) protein C) sugar D) fat Answer: D Explanation: A) Bile does not aid in the digestion of carbohydrates. B) Bile does not aid in the digestion of protein. C) Bile does not aid in the digestion of sugar. D) Bile aids in the digestion of fat. Page Ref: 209 Learning Obj.: 11-2 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 126) Which of the following is NOT part of the large intestine? A) Appendix B) Jejunum C) Colon D) Cecum Answer: B Explanation: A) The appendix is part of the large intestine. B) The jejunum is part of the small intestine. C) The colon is part of the large intestine. D) The cecum is part of the large intestine. Page Ref: 215 Learning Obj.: 11-4 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 127) Which of the following is a small abnormal pouch formed off the intestinal or colon wall? A) Cecum B) Appendix C) Diverticulum D) Hemorrhoid Answer: C Explanation: A) The cecum is part of the large intestine. B) The appendix is attached to the large intestine. C) A diverticulum is a small, abnormal pouch formed off the intestinal or colon wall. D) A hemorrhoid is a varicose vein in the rectum. Page Ref: 211 Learning Obj.: 11-6 Taxonomy: Vocabulary Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology

128) Which of the following carries food between the throat and the stomach? A) Esophagus B) Trachea C) Duodenum D) Common bile duct Answer: A Explanation: A) The esophagus carries food between the throat and the stomach. B) The trachea does not carry food between the throat and the stomach. C) The duodenum does not carry food between the throat and the stomach. D) The common bile duct does not carry food between the throat and the stomach. Page Ref: 213 Learning Obj.: 11-2 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 129) Which of the following types of organs are NOT found in the abdomen? A) Excretion B) Respiration C) Reproduction D) Digestion Answer: B Explanation: A) Organs that function in excretion are found in the abdomen. B) Organs that function in respiration are found in the thorax, not the abdomen. C) Organs that function in reproduction are found in the abdomen. D) Organs that function in digestion are found in the abdomen. Page Ref: 215 Learning Obj.: 11-4 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 130) Which of the following suffixes means "digestion"? A) -phagia B) -phonia C) -pepsia D) -pnea Answer: C Explanation: A) The suffix -phagia means "eating or swallowing." B) The suffix -phonia does not mean "digestion." C) The suffix -pepsia means "digestion." D) The suffix -pnea means "breathing." Page Ref: 208 Learning Obj.: 11-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

131) The alimentary canal refers to the ________. A) pharynx B) esophagus C) small intestine D) gastrointestinal tract Answer: D Explanation: A) The alimentary canal does not refer to the pharynx. B) The alimentary canal does not refer to the esophagus. C) The alimentary canal does not refer to the small intestine. D) The alimentary canal refers to the gastrointestinal tract. Page Ref: 207 Learning Obj.: 11-4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 132) Which of the following is a contrast medium used for X-rays of the digestive system? A) Barium B) Iron C) Magnesium D) Sodium Answer: A Explanation: A) Barium is a contrast medium used for X-rays of the digestive system. B) Iron is not used as a contrast medium for X-rays. C) Magnesium is not used as a contrast medium for X-rays. D) Sodium is not used as a contrast medium for X-rays. Page Ref: 218, 222 Learning Obj.: 11-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 133) Which of the following statements regarding dysentery is NOT true? A) It is an acute intestinal condition. B) It may result in a ruptured intestine with severe bleeding. C) It is usually caused by a bacterial or parasitic infection. D) Symptoms include diarrhea and blood in the stool. Answer: B Explanation: A) Dysentery is an acute intestinal condition. B) Dysentery does not result in a ruptured intestine with severe bleeding. C) Dysentery is usually caused by a bacterial or parasitic infection. D) Symptoms of dysentery include diarrhea and blood in the stool. Page Ref: 219 Learning Obj.: 11-6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary

134) In a child born with esophageal atresia, food cannot enter the ________. A) throat B) duodenum C) stomach D) esophagus Answer: C Explanation: A) Esophageal atresia does not allow food to enter the stomach, but food is able to enter the throat. B) Esophageal atresia does not allow food to enter the stomach, but food is able to enter the duodenum. C) In a child born with esophageal atresia, food cannot enter the stomach. D) Esophageal atresia does not allow food to enter the stomach, but food is able to enter the esophagus. Page Ref: 219 Learning Obj.: 11-6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary 135) Hemorrhoids are varicose veins in the ________ region. A) gastric B) esophageal C) hepatic D) rectal Answer: D Explanation: A) Hemorrhoids are not found in the gastric region. B) Hemorrhoids are not found in the esophageal region. C) Hemorrhoids are not found in the hepatic region. D) Hemorrhoids are varicose veins in the rectal region. Page Ref: 220 Learning Obj.: 11-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary

136) A fecal occult blood test may also be called a(n) ________. A) hemoccult test B) barium enema test C) antibody test D) upper GI test Answer: A Explanation: A) A fecal occult blood test may also be called a hemoccult test or stool guaiac test. B) A fecal occult blood test is not also called a barium enema test. C) A fecal occult blood test is not also called an antibody test. D) A fecal occult blood test is not also called an upper GI test. Page Ref: 219 Learning Obj.: 11-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 137) Which of the following statements regarding gastric bypass surgery is NOT true? A) It is a treatment for obesity. B) A portion of the colon is bypassed. C) A portion of the stomach is surgically disconnected from the GI tract. D) Food empties into a small gastric pouch. Answer: B Explanation: A) Gastric bypass surgery is a treatment for obesity. B) A portion of the colon is not bypassed in gastric bypass surgery. C) In gastric bypass surgery, a portion of the stomach is surgically disconnected from the GI tract. D) After gastric bypass surgery, food empties into a small gastric pouch. Page Ref: 219 Learning Obj.: 11-6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary 138) Ileus may be caused by ________. A) a parasitic infection B) chronic liver disease C) intestinal obstruction D) gallstones Answer: C Explanation: A) A parasitic infection does not cause ileus. B) Chronic liver disease does not cause ileus. C) Ileus occurs when the intestine is obstructed when muscular movements stop moving food or when blockage prevents food from moving through the digestive tract. D) Gallstones do not cause ileus. Page Ref: 220 Learning Obj.: 11-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 30 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

139) Which of the following statements regarding irritable bowel syndrome is NOT true? A) It is also called spastic colon. B) It is often associated with stress. C) It is characterized by abdominal pain and diarrhea. D) It is associated with dark, tarry stool. Answer: D Explanation: A) Irritable bowel syndrome is also called spastic colon. B) Irritable bowel syndrome is often associated with stress. C) Irritable bowel syndrome is often characterized by abdominal pain and diarrhea. D) Irritable bowel syndrome does not cause dark, tarry stool. Page Ref: 221 Learning Obj.: 11-6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary 140) The telescoping of one section of the intestine into another is called ________. A) ascites B) volvulus C) intussusception D) ileus Answer: C Explanation: A) Ascites is accumulation of fluid in the abdominal cavity. B) Volvulus occurs when a length of the bowel becomes twisted around itself. C) Intussusception occurs when one section of the intestine telescopes into another. D) Ileus is obstruction of the intestine. Page Ref: 221 Learning Obj.: 11-6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary 141) Melena indicates the presence of ________ in the stool. A) blood B) pus C) fats D) water Answer: A Explanation: A) Melena indicates the presence of blood in the stool. B) Melena does not indicate the presence of pus in the stool. C) Melena does not indicate the presence of fats in the stool. D) Melena does not indicate the presence of water in the stool. Page Ref: 221 Learning Obj.: 11-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary

142) An O&P is a lab test for the presence of ________. A) parasite eggs B) blood C) bacteria D) bile Answer: A Explanation: A) An O&P is a lab test for the presence of parasites or their eggs in feces. B) An O&P is not a lab test for the presence of blood. C) An O&P is not a lab test for the presence of bacteria. D) An O&P is not a lab test for the presence of bile. Page Ref: 221 Learning Obj.: 11-7 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Abbreviations 143) Which of the following pairs is NOT correctly matched? A) Nausea—urge to vomit B) Intussusception—intestine twisted around itself C) Cirrhosis—liver disease D) Jaundice—yellow skin color Answer: B Explanation: A) Nausea is the urge to vomit. B) Intussusception occurs when one section of intestine slips or telescopes into another section of intestine. C) Cirrhosis is a type of chronic liver disease. D) Jaundice is characterized by yellow skin color. Page Ref: 221 Learning Obj.: 11-6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary 144) Which of the following pairs is NOT correctly matched? A) PUD—a pathological condition B) GB—a surgical procedure C) TPN—nutritional supplement D) UGI—an X-ray Answer: B Explanation: A) PUD stands for peptic ulcer disease, which is a pathological condition. B) GB stands for gallbladder, which is not a surgical procedure. C) TPN stands for total parenteral nutrition, which is a nutritional supplement. D) UGI stands for upper gastrointestinal series, which is a type of X-ray. Page Ref: 223 Learning Obj.: 11-7 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Abbreviations

145) An upper GI series examines which of the following organs? A) Colon B) Stomach C) Jejunum D) Rectum Answer: B Explanation: A) The colon is not examined in the upper GI series. B) The stomach is examined in the upper GI series. C) The jejunum is not examined in the upper GI series. D) The rectum is not examined in the upper GI series. Page Ref: 222 Learning Obj.: 11-6, 11-7 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Abbreviations 146) In total parenteral nutrition, the nutrients are given into the ________. A) esophagus B) bloodstream C) stomach D) duodenum Answer: B Explanation: A) In total parenteral nutrition, the nutrients are given into the bloodstream, not the esophagus. B) In total parenteral nutrition, the nutrients are given into the bloodstream. C) In total parenteral nutrition, the nutrients are given into the bloodstream, not the stomach. D) In total parenteral nutrition, the nutrients are given into the bloodstream, not the duodenum. Page Ref: 222 Learning Obj.: 11-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 147) Which of the following conditions is an inflammatory bowel disease? A) Gastroesophageal reflux disease B) Dysentery C) Ulcerative colitis D) Hemorrhoids Answer: C Explanation: A) Gastroesophageal reflux disease is not an inflammatory bowel disease. B) Dysentery is not an inflammatory bowel disease. C) Ulcerative colitis is an inflammatory bowel disease. D) Hemorrhoids are not an inflammatory bowel disease. Page Ref: 222 Learning Obj.: 11-6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary

148) An ulcer that has eaten through the wall of the stomach is called a ________. A) perforated ulcer B) peritoneal ulcer C) bleeding ulcer D) peptic ulcer Answer: A Explanation: A) A perforated ulcer is an ulcer that has eaten through the wall of the stomach. B) A peritoneal ulcer is not one that has eaten through the wall of the stomach. C) A bleeding ulcer is an ulcer that has eaten into a blood vessel. D) A peptic ulcer is an erosion in the mucous membrane of the lower esophagus, stomach, or duodenum. Page Ref: 222 Learning Obj.: 11-6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary 149) Which of the following statements regarding peptic ulcer disease is NOT true? A) Two symptoms are pain and diarrhea. B) It may affect the esophagus, stomach, or duodenum. C) The ulcer may eat into a blood vessel. D) Erosions form on mucous membranes. Answer: A Explanation: A) Pain and diarrhea are symptoms of irritable bowel syndrome, not peptic ulcer disease. B) Peptic ulcer disease may affect the esophagus, stomach, or duodenum. C) A peptic ulcer may eat into a blood vessel. D) Erosions in peptic ulcer disease form on mucous membranes. Page Ref: 222 Learning Obj.: 11-6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary 150) In ascites, fluid accumulates in the ________. A) stomach B) abdominal cavity C) liver D) colon Answer: B Explanation: A) In ascites, the fluid accumulates in the abdominal cavity, not the stomach. B) In ascites, the fluid accumulates in the abdominal cavity. C) In ascites, the fluid accumulates in the abdominal cavity, not the liver. D) In ascites, the fluid accumulates in the abdominal cavity, not the colon. Page Ref: 217 Learning Obj.: 11-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 34 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

151) Helicobacter pylori is a type of ________. A) parasite B) virus C) bacteria D) fungus Answer: C Explanation: A) Helicobacter pylori is not a parasite. B) Helicobacter pylori is not a virus. C) Helicobacter pylori is a type of bacteria. D) Helicobacter pylori is not a fungus. Page Ref: 220 Learning Obj.: 11-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 152) In dysphagia, swallowing is ________. A) slow B) weak C) fast D) difficult Answer: D Explanation: A) The prefix dys- means "difficult," not slow. B) The prefix dys- means "difficult," not weak. C) The prefix dys- means "difficult," not fast. D) The prefix dys- means "difficult." Page Ref: 216 Learning Obj.: 11-5 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 153) Which of the following conditions could cause jaundice? A) Ulcerative colitis B) Gastroesophageal reflux C) Dysentery D) Cirrhosis Answer: D Explanation: A) Ulcerative colitis does not cause jaundice. B) Gastroesophageal reflux does not cause jaundice. C) Dysentery does not cause jaundice. D) Cirrhosis is a chronic liver disease that could cause jaundice. Page Ref: 218 Learning Obj.: 11-6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary

154) The yellow cast to the skin that indicates liver disease is called ________. A) jaundice B) cirrhosis C) melena D) hematemesis Answer: A Explanation: A) Jaundice is a yellow cast to the skin. B) Cirrhosis is a type of chronic liver disease. C) Melena is dark, tarry stool due to the presence of blood. D) Hematemesis means vomiting blood. Page Ref: 221 Learning Obj.: 11-6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary 155) Which of the following conditions is a congenital anomaly? A) Ascites B) Cirrhosis C) Esophageal atresia D) Crohn's disease Answer: C Explanation: A) Ascites is not a congenital anomaly. B) Cirrhosis is not a congenital anomaly. C) Esophageal atresia is a congenital anomaly. D) Crohn's disease is not a congenital anomaly. Page Ref: 219 Learning Obj.: 11-6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary 156) Peptic ulcer disease occurs in the ________. A) stomach B) mouth C) colon D) jejunum Answer: A Explanation: A) Peptic ulcer disease occurs in the lower esophagus, stomach, or duodenum. B) Peptic ulcer disease does not occur in the mouth. C) Peptic ulcer disease does not occur in the colon. D) Peptic ulcer disease does not occur in the jejunum. Page Ref: 222 Learning Obj.: 11-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary

157) Helicobacter pylori bacteria cause which of the following conditions? A) Gastric ulcers B) Ulcerative colitis C) Crohn's disease D) Hemorrhoids Answer: A Explanation: A) Helicobacter pylori bacteria cause gastric ulcers. B) Ulcerative colitis is not caused by Helicobacter pylori bacteria. C) Crohn's disease is not caused by Helicobacter pylori bacteria. D) Hemorrhoids are not caused by Helicobacter pylori bacteria. Page Ref: 220 Learning Obj.: 11-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 158) The twisting of the bowel on itself is called ________. A) intussusception B) volvulus C) hemorrhoids D) dysentery Answer: B Explanation: A) Intussusception occurs when one section of the intestine slips or telescopes into another section of intestine. B) Volvulus is the twisting of the bowel on itself. C) Hemorrhoids are varicose veins in the rectum. D) Dysentery is an acute intestinal condition that causes pain, diarrhea, and blood and mucus in the stool. Page Ref: 222 Learning Obj.: 11-6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary 159) Crohn's disease most often affects the ________. A) stomach B) duodenum C) ileum D) common bile duct Answer: C Explanation: A) Crohn's disease most often affects the ileum, not the stomach. B) Crohn's disease most often affects the ileum, not the duodenum. C) Crohn's disease most often affects the ileum. D) Crohn's disease most often affects the ileum, not the common bile duct. Page Ref: 218 Learning Obj.: 11-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 37 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

160) Cirrhosis is a type of chronic ________ disease. A) colon B) pancreas C) liver D) gallbladder Answer: C Explanation: A) Cirrhosis is a type of chronic liver disease, not colon disease. B) Cirrhosis is a type of chronic liver disease, not pancreas disease. C) Cirrhosis is a type of chronic liver disease. D) Cirrhosis is a type of chronic liver disease, not gallbladder disease. Page Ref: 218 Learning Obj.: 11-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 161) Which of the following conditions is characterized by diarrhea, often with blood and mucus? A) Diverticulitis B) Volvulus C) Crohn's disease D) Dysentery Answer: D Explanation: A) Diverticulitis is not characterized by diarrhea with blood and mucus. B) Volvulus is not characterized by diarrhea with blood and mucus. C) Crohn's disease is not characterized by diarrhea with blood and mucus. D) Dysentery is characterized by diarrhea, often with blood and mucus. Page Ref: 219 Learning Obj.: 11-6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary 162) Which of the following exams would be used to view inside a section of the colon? A) Gastroscopy B) Sigmoidoscopy C) Laparoscopy D) Esophagoscopy Answer: B Explanation: A) The combining form gastr/o means "stomach." B) The combining form sigmoid/o means "sigmoid colon." C) The combining form lapar/o means "abdomen." D) The combining form esophag/o means "esophagus." Page Ref: 217 Learning Obj.: 11-3 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building

163) Which of the following procedures provides the patient with intravenous (IV) nutrition? A) Total parenteral nutrition B) Esophageal atresia C) Barium swallow D) Gastric bypass Answer: A Explanation: A) Total parenteral nutrition provides the patient with IV nutrition given directly into the bloodstream. B) Esophageal atresia is a congenital lack of a connection between the esophagus and stomach. C) A barium swallow is used to obtain an upper GI series. D) Gastric bypass is a surgical treatment for obesity. Page Ref: 222 Learning Obj.: 11-6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary 164) Which of the following surgical procedures would treat stones in the digestive system? A) Gastric bypass B) Laparotomy C) Choledocholithotripsy D) Diverticulectomy Answer: C Explanation: A) Gastric bypass is a surgical treatment for obesity. B) Laparotomy means cutting into the abdomen. It does not treat stones. C) Choledocholithotripsy crushes stones in the common bile duct. D) Diverticulectomy is the surgical removal of diverticulum. Page Ref: 210 Learning Obj.: 11-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building 165) Which of the following surgical procedures treats obesity? A) Gastric bypass B) Esophageal atresia C) Cholecystectomy D) Gastroesophageal reflux Answer: A Explanation: A) Gastric bypass is a surgical treatment for obesity. B) Esophageal atresia is a congenital condition, not a treatment. C) A cholecystectomy is the surgical removal of the gallbladder. It does not treat obesity. D) Gastroesophageal reflux is a pathological condition, not a treatment. Page Ref: 219 Learning Obj.: 11-6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary

166) Which term is misspelled? A) Ascites B) Hemorhoids C) Gastroesophageal D) Ileus Answer: B Explanation: A) Ascites is spelled correctly. B) It should be spelled hemorrhoids. C) Gastroesophageal is spelled correctly. D) Ileus is spelled correctly. Page Ref: 220 Learning Obj.: 11-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Spelling 167) Which term is misspelled? A) Ulcerative B) Varices C) Jaundus D) Cirrhosis Answer: C Explanation: A) Ulcerative is spelled correctly. B) Varices is spelled correctly. C) It should be spelled jaundice. D) Cirrhosis is spelled correctly. Page Ref: 221 Learning Obj.: 11-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Spelling 168) Which term is misspelled? A) Melana B) Atresia C) Laparotomy D) Polyphagia Answer: A Explanation: A) It should be spelled melena. B) Atresia is spelled correctly. C) Laparotomy is spelled correctly. D) Polyphagia is spelled correctly. Page Ref: 221 Learning Obj.: 11-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Spelling

169) Which term is misspelled? A) Proctoptosis B) Sigmoidoscope C) Cholelithiasis D) Disentery Answer: D Explanation: A) Proctoptosis is spelled correctly. B) Sigmoidoscope is spelled correctly. C) Cholelithiasis is spelled correctly. D) It should be spelled dysentery. Page Ref: 219 Learning Obj.: 11-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Spelling 170) Which term is misspelled? A) Ascites B) Gastroentestinal C) Volvulus D) Nausea Answer: B Explanation: A) Ascites is spelled correctly. B) It should be spelled gastrointestinal. C) Volvulus is spelled correctly. D) Nausea is spelled correctly. Page Ref: 207 Learning Obj.: 11-2 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Spelling 171) Which abbreviation stands for a pathological condition? A) GERD B) FOBT C) BM D) O&P Answer: A Explanation: A) GERD stands for "gastroesophageal reflux disease." B) FOBT stands for "fecal occult blood test." C) BM stands for "bowel movement." D) O&P stands for "ova and parasites," a clinical lab test. Page Ref: 220 Learning Obj.: 11-7 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Abbreviations

172) Which abbreviation stands for a lab test? A) N&V B) IBS C) CBD D) O&P Answer: D Explanation: A) N&V stands for "nausea and vomiting." B) IBS stands for "irritable bowel syndrome." C) CBD stands for "common bile duct." D) O&P stands for "ova and parasites," a clinical lab test. Page Ref: 221 Learning Obj.: 11-7 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Abbreviations 173) Which abbreviation stands for a digestive organ? A) FOBT B) UGI C) GB D) EGD Answer: C Explanation: A) FOBT stands for "fecal occult blood test." B) UGI stands for "upper gastrointestinal series." C) GB stands for "gallbladder." D) EGD stands for "esophagogastroduodenoscopy." Page Ref: 223 Learning Obj.: 11-7 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Abbreviations 174) Which abbreviation does NOT stand for a pathological condition? A) IBS B) TPN C) GERD D) PUD Answer: B Explanation: A) IBS stands for "irritable bowel syndrome." B) TPN stands for "total parenteral nutrition." C) GERD stands for "gastroesophageal reflux disease." D) PUD stands for "peptic ulcer disease." Page Ref: 221 Learning Obj.: 11-7 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Abbreviations

175) Which abbreviation stands for an X-ray? A) UGI B) GERD C) GB D) TPN Answer: A Explanation: A) UGI stands for "upper gastrointestinal series," which is an X-ray. B) GERD stands for "gastroesophageal reflux disease." C) GB stands for "gallbladder." D) TPN stands for "total parenteral nutrition." Page Ref: 222 Learning Obj.: 11-7 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Abbreviations

Match each term on the left with the correct definition on the right. A) varicose veins B) produces digestive enzymes C) stomach disconnected from GI tract D) lower GI series E) fluid in the abdominal cavity F) urge to vomit G) mushroom-shaped tumor H) spastic colon I) section of intestine J) chronic liver disease K) stores bile L) attached to the cecum M) produces bile N) pouch that forms off the colon O) bowel twists around itself P) yellow skin color Q) causes gastric ulcers R) infection with pain and diarrhea S) lab test for parasitic infection T) nutrients delivered directly into the bloodstream U) aids in fat digestion V) lab test for blood in the stool W) gallstones X) dark, tarry stool Y) carries food from the throat to the stomach 176) appendix Page Ref: 209 Learning Obj.: 11-4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 177) bile Page Ref: 209 Learning Obj.: 11-2 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 178) ileum Page Ref: 214 Learning Obj.: 11-4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology

179) Helicobacter pylori Page Ref: 220 Learning Obj.: 11-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 180) jaundice Page Ref: 221 Learning Obj.: 11-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 181) nausea Page Ref: 221 Learning Obj.: 11-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 182) TPN Page Ref: 222 Learning Obj.: 11-7 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Abbreviations 183) cirrhosis Page Ref: 218 Learning Obj.: 11-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 184) melena Page Ref: 221 Learning Obj.: 11-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 185) liver Page Ref: 214 Learning Obj.: 11-2 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 186) gallbladder Page Ref: 210 Learning Obj.: 11-2 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 45 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

187) pancreas Page Ref: 215 Learning Obj.: 11-2 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 188) esophagus Page Ref: 213 Learning Obj.: 11-2 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 189) hemorrhoids Page Ref: 220 Learning Obj.: 11-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 190) diverticulum Page Ref: 211 Learning Obj.: 11-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 191) polyp Page Ref: 216 Learning Obj.: 11-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 192) irritable bowel syndrome Page Ref: 221 Learning Obj.: 11-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 193) cholelithiasis Page Ref: 209 Learning Obj.: 11-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 194) FOBT Page Ref: 219 Learning Obj.: 11-6, 11-7 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Abbreviations 46 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

195) O&P Page Ref: 221 Learning Obj.: 11-6, 11-7 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Abbreviations 196) gastric bypass Page Ref: 219 Learning Obj.: 11-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 197) volvulus Page Ref: 222 Learning Obj.: 11-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 198) dysentery Page Ref: 219 Learning Obj.: 11-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 199) barium enema Page Ref: 218 Learning Obj.: 11-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 200) ascites Page Ref: 217 Learning Obj.: 11-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary Answers: 176) L 177) U 178) I 179) Q 180) P 181) F 182) T 183) J 184) X 185) M 186) K 187) B 188) Y 189) A 190) N 191) G 192) H 193) W 194) V 195) S 196) C 197) O 198) R 199) D 200) E

201) List the accessory organs of the digestive system and describe the function of each. Answer: The accessory organs are the liver, gallbladder, and pancreas. ∙ Liver: produces bile to aid in fat digestion ∙ Gallbladder: stores bile produced by the liver ∙ Pancreas: produces digestive enzymes Page Ref: 207, 210, 214, 215 Learning Obj.: 11-2, 11-4 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 202) Compare and contrast upper and lower GI series. Answer: Both are X-rays taken using barium as a contrast medium to outline the digestive tract. Upper GI series is also called barium swallow; it examines the esophagus and the stomach. Lower GI series is also called barium enema; it examines the large intestine. Page Ref: 218, 222 Learning Obj.: 11-6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary

Medical Terminology: Get Connected!, 3e (Frucht) Chapter 12 Urology and Nephrology: Urinary System and Male Reproductive System All answers to questions asking for a combining form must be written in the combining form style, meaning word root/combining vowel. For example, the combining form meaning "heart" is cardi/o. All answers to questions asking for a suffix must be written in suffix form, meaning a hyphen before your answer. For example, the suffix meaning "cell" is -cyte. All answers to questions asking for a prefix must be written in prefix form, meaning a hyphen after your answer. For example, a prefix meaning "two" is bi-. Do NOT capitalize any of your answers or include a period at the end of your answer. The computer will NOT recognize your answer as correct if it is written in any other style. 1) The combining form that means nitrogen waste is ________. Answer: azot/o; azoto Page Ref: 220 Learning Obj.: 12-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 2) The combining form that means bacteria is ________. Answer: bacteri/o; bacterio Page Ref: 220 Learning Obj.: 12-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 3) The combining form that means urinary bladder is ________. Answer: cyst/o; cysto Page Ref: 220 Learning Obj.: 12-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 4) The combining form that means glomerulus is ________. Answer: glomerul/o; glomerulo Page Ref: 220 Learning Obj.: 12-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 5) The combining form that means sugar or glucose is ________. Answer: glycos/o; glycoso Page Ref: 220 Learning Obj.: 12-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 1 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

6) The combining form that means glans penis is ________. Answer: balan/o; balano Page Ref: 220 Learning Obj.: 12-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 7) The combining form that means stone is ________. Answer: lith/o; litho Page Ref: 220 Learning Obj.: 12-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 8) The combining form that means epididymis is ________. Answer: epididym/o; epididymo Page Ref: 220 Learning Obj.: 12-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 9) A combining form other than nephr/o that means kidney is ________. Answer: ren/o; reno Page Ref: 220 Learning Obj.: 12-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 10) The combining form that means night is ________. Answer: noct/i; nocti Page Ref: 221 Learning Obj.: 12-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 11) The combining form that means scanty is ________. Answer: olig/o; oligo Page Ref: 221 Learning Obj.: 12-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

12) The combining form that means renal pelvis is ________. Answer: pyel/o; pyelo Page Ref: 220 Learning Obj.: 12-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 13) A combining form other than urin/o that means urine is ________. Answer: ur/o; uro Page Ref: 220 Learning Obj.: 12-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 14) The combining form that means ureter is ________. Answer: ureter/o; uretero Page Ref: 220 Learning Obj.: 12-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 15) The combining form that means urethra is ________. Answer: urethr/o; urethro Page Ref: 220 Learning Obj.: 12-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 16) A combining form other than orchid/o, orchi/o, or testicul/o that means testes is ________. Answer: orch/o; orcho Page Ref: 220 Learning Obj.: 12-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 17) The combining form that means prostate gland is ________. Answer: prostat/o; prostato Page Ref: 220 Learning Obj.: 12-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

18) The combining form other than sperm/o that means sperm is ________. Answer: spermat/o; spermato Page Ref: 220 Learning Obj.: 12-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 19) The combining form that means vas deferens is ________. Answer: vas/o; vaso Page Ref: 220 Learning Obj.: 12-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 20) The combining form that means seminal vesicle is ________. Answer: vesicul/o; vesiculo Page Ref: 220 Learning Obj.: 12-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 21) The suffix that means stone is ________. Answer: -lith; lith Page Ref: 221 Learning Obj.: 12-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 22) The suffix that means narrowing is ________. Answer: -stenosis; stenosis Page Ref: 221 Learning Obj.: 12-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 23) The suffix that means drooping is ________. Answer: -ptosis; ptosis Page Ref: 221 Learning Obj.: 12-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

24) The suffix that means surgical crushing is ________. Answer: -tripsy; tripsy Page Ref: 221 Learning Obj.: 12-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 25) The suffix that means urine condition is ________. Answer: -uria; uria Page Ref: 221 Learning Obj.: 12-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 26) The suffix that means surgical fixation is ________. Answer: -pexy; pexy Page Ref: 221 Learning Obj.: 12-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 27) The suffix that means hardening is ________. Answer: -sclerosis; sclerosis Page Ref: 221 Learning Obj.: 12-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 28) The suffix that means protrusion is ________. Answer: -cele; cele Page Ref: 221 Learning Obj.: 12-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 29) The prefix that means within is ________. Answer: intra-; intra Page Ref: 221 Learning Obj.: 12-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

30) The prefix that means across is ________. Answer: trans-; trans Page Ref: 221 Learning Obj.: 12-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 31) A medical term that means enlarged kidney is ________. Answer: nephromegaly Page Ref: 224 Learning Obj.: 12-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building 32) A medical term that means discharge from the glans penis is ________. Answer: balanorrhea Page Ref: 223 Learning Obj.: 12-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building 33) A medical term that means inflammation of kidney and glomerulus is ________. Answer: glomerulonephritis Page Ref: 225 Learning Obj.: 12-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building 34) A medical term that means X-ray record of the renal pelvis is ________. Answer: pyelogram Page Ref: 226 Learning Obj.: 12-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building 35) A medical term that means pertaining to the epididymis is ________. Answer: epididymal Page Ref: 224 Learning Obj.: 12-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building

36) A medical term that means pertaining to the kidney is ________. Answer: renal Page Ref: 226 Learning Obj.: 12-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building 37) A medical term that means one who studies urine is ________. Answer: urologist Page Ref: 227 Learning Obj.: 12-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building 38) A medical term that means pertaining to the ureter is ________. Answer: ureteral Page Ref: 228 Learning Obj.: 12-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building 39) A medical term that means surgical removal of vas deferens is ________. Answer: vasectomy Page Ref: 229 Learning Obj.: 12-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building 40) A medical term that means narrowing of a ureter is ________. Answer: ureterostenosis Page Ref: 228 Learning Obj.: 12-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building 41) A medical term that means pertaining to the urethra is ________. Answer: urethral Page Ref: 228 Learning Obj.: 12-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building

42) A medical term that means pertaining to the seminal vesicles is ________. Answer: vesicular Page Ref: 229 Learning Obj.: 12-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building 43) A medical term that means state of hidden testes is ________. Answer: cryptorchism Page Ref: 225 Learning Obj.: 12-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building 44) A medical term that means narrowing of the urethra is ________. Answer: urethrostenosis Page Ref: 228 Learning Obj.: 12-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building 45) A medical term that means pertaining to urine is ________. Answer: urinary Page Ref: 229 Learning Obj.: 12-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building 46) A medical term that means without urine condition is ________. Answer: anuria Page Ref: 228 Learning Obj.: 12-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building 47) A medical term that means abnormal urine condition is ________. Answer: dysuria Page Ref: 228 Learning Obj.: 12-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building

48) A medical term that means condition of blood in the urine is ________. Answer: hematuria Page Ref: 228 Learning Obj.: 12-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building 49) A medical term that means condition of scanty amount of urine is ________. Answer: oliguria Page Ref: 228 Learning Obj.: 12-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building 50) A medical term that means condition of pus in the urine is ________. Answer: pyuria Page Ref: 228 Learning Obj.: 12-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building 51) Another name for the urinary system and male reproductive system is the genitourinary system. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 220 Learning Obj.: 12-4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 52) The ureter carries urine from the kidney to the bladder. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 220 Learning Obj.: 12-2 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 53) The ureter carries urine to the outside of the body. Answer: FALSE Explanation: The urethra carries urine to the outside of the body. Page Ref: 220 Learning Obj.: 12-2 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology

54) There are two urethras and one ureter. Answer: FALSE Explanation: There are two ureters and one urethra. Page Ref: 220 Learning Obj.: 12-4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 55) The external opening of the ureter is the meatus. Answer: FALSE Explanation: The external opening of the urethra is the meatus. Page Ref: 228 Learning Obj.: 12-4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 56) Each kidney contains thousands of nephrons. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 224 Learning Obj.: 12-4 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 57) The glans penis is commonly called the foreskin. Answer: FALSE Explanation: The prepuce is commonly called the foreskin. Page Ref: 223 Learning Obj.: 12-4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 58) One function of the urinary system is to maintain normal pH in the body. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 220 Learning Obj.: 12-2 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 59) Kidneys send excess water to the bladder in order for urine to be formed. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Urine is formed in the kidneys, not in the bladder. Page Ref: 220 Learning Obj.: 12-2 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology

60) Testosterone is the male sex hormone. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 220 Learning Obj.: 12-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 61) The urinary system and male reproductive system share the ureter. Answer: FALSE Explanation: The urinary system and male reproductive system share the urethra. Page Ref: 220 Learning Obj.: 12-4 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 62) Urologists treat conditions of the male reproductive system. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 220 Learning Obj.: 12-1 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Medical Specialties 63) Urine enters the bladder via the urethra and exits via the ureter. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Urine enters the bladder via the ureter and exits via the urethra. Page Ref: 220 Learning Obj.: 12-2 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 64) The epididymis stores sperm produced by the testes. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 224 Learning Obj.: 12-2 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 65) The majority of stones that form in the body come from excess sugar. Answer: FALSE Explanation: The majority of stones that form in the body come from an accumulation of mineral salts. Page Ref: 224 Learning Obj.: 12-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology

66) The glomerulus is part of a nephron. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 224 Learning Obj.: 12-4 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 67) The plural form of testes is testis. Answer: FALSE Explanation: The plural form of testis is testes. Page Ref: 225 Learning Obj.: 12-4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 68) The renal pelvis is the area just outside each kidney where urine is first stored. Answer: FALSE Explanation: The renal pelvis is found inside the kidney. Page Ref: 226 Learning Obj.: 12-4 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 69) Fluid from the prostate gland nourishes sperm. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 226 Learning Obj.: 12-2 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 70) Semen consists of sperm and fluids from the male reproductive glands. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 227 Learning Obj.: 12-4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 71) BPH is a precancerous condition of the prostate gland. Answer: FALSE Explanation: BPH is not precancerous. Page Ref: 230 Learning Obj.: 12-7 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Abbreviations

72) A UA is a blood test for kidney function. Answer: FALSE Explanation: A BUN is a blood test for kidney function. Page Ref: 230 Learning Obj.: 12-6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary 73) Chlamydia is a bacterial STD. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 230, 233 Learning Obj.: 12-7 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Abbreviations 74) ESWL is a treatment for polycystic kidney disease. Answer: FALSE Explanation: ESWL is a treatment for kidney stones. Page Ref: 231 Learning Obj.: 12-7 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Abbreviations 75) Genital herpes is a highly infectious bacterial STD. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Genital herpes is a highly infectious viral STD. Page Ref: 231, 233 Learning Obj.: 12-7 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Abbreviations 76) Erectile dysfunction is also called impotence. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 231 Learning Obj.: 12-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 77) Peritoneal dialysis uses a kidney machine to filter waste from blood. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Hemodialysis uses a kidney machine to filter waste from blood. Page Ref: 231 Learning Obj.: 12-6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary

78) Hesitancy is difficulty initiating the flow of urine. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 231 Learning Obj.: 12-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 79) An IVP is a blood test for kidney function. Answer: FALSE Explanation: A BUN is a blood test for kidney function. Page Ref: 230 Learning Obj.: 12-7 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Abbreviations 80) Hemodialysis is a treatment for kidney failure. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 231 Learning Obj.: 12-6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary 81) During a retrograde pyelogram, dye to highlight the kidney is inserted into a vein. Answer: FALSE Explanation: During an intravenous pyelogram, dye to highlight the kidney is inserted into a vein. Page Ref: 232 Learning Obj.: 12-6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary 82) Polycystic kidney disease is an inherited condition. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 232 Learning Obj.: 12-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 83) Testicular cancer is more commonly seen in men over 50 years old. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Testicular cancer is more commonly seen in young men or boys. Page Ref: 233 Learning Obj.: 12-6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary

84) A varicocele is the development of varicose veins around the kidney. Answer: FALSE Explanation: A varicocele is the development of varicose veins in the scrotal veins. Page Ref: 235 Learning Obj.: 12-6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary 85) A urinalysis is the physical, chemical, and microscopic examination of urine. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 234 Learning Obj.: 12-6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary 86) Calculus is another term for a stone. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 224 Learning Obj.: 12-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 87) A flexible tube inserted into the body is a catheter. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 234 Learning Obj.: 12-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 88) An orchiopexy procedure may be required to permanently correct cryptorchism. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 233 Learning Obj.: 12-6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary 89) A severe case of phimosis may require circumcision as a treatment. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 232 Learning Obj.: 12-6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary

90) The older common name for an STD is venereal disease. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 233 Learning Obj.: 12-7 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Abbreviations 91) A digital rectal exam involves actually palpating the prostate gland through the rectal wall. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 231 Learning Obj.: 12-6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary 92) A TUR removes portions of the prostate gland through the urethra. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 233 Learning Obj.: 12-7 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Abbreviations 93) A hydrocele is an accumulation of fluid within the penis. Answer: FALSE Explanation: A hydrocele is an accumulation of fluid within the scrotum. Page Ref: 231 Learning Obj.: 12-6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary 94) Circumcision is the surgical removal of the prepuce. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 230 Learning Obj.: 12-6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary 95) PSA is a blood test for testicular cancer. Answer: FALSE Explanation: PSA is a blood test for prostate cancer. Page Ref: 232 Learning Obj.: 12-7 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Abbreviations

96) Urinary incontinence is a decrease in the force of the urine stream. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Urinary incontinence is involuntary urination. Page Ref: 234 Learning Obj.: 12-6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary 97) A voiding cystourethrogram collects urine that is not contaminated by coming into contact with the skin. Answer: FALSE Explanation: A clean-catch specimen collects urine that is not contaminated by coming into contact with the skin. Page Ref: 231 Learning Obj.: 12-6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary 98) In a retrograde pyelogram, the dye is injected into the bloodstream. Answer: FALSE Explanation: In a retrograde pyelogram, the dye is inserted through the urethra. Page Ref: 233 Learning Obj.: 12-6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary 99) Cystoscopy is a visual examination of the kidney. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Cystoscopy is a visual examination of the urinary bladder. Page Ref: 223 Learning Obj.: 12-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary 100) A catheterization inserts a flexible tube through the urethra and into the urinary bladder. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 234 Learning Obj.: 12-6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary

101) Which term means "drooping kidney"? A) Nephritis B) Nephrosclerosis C) Nephroptosis D) Nephroma Answer: C Explanation: A) Nephritis means "inflammation of the kidney." B) Nephrosclerosis means "hardening of the kidney." C) Nephroptosis means "drooping kidney." D) Nephroma means "kidney tumor." Page Ref: 224 Learning Obj.: 12-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building 102) Which term means "instrument for viewing the urethra"? A) Urethroscopy B) Ureteroscope C) Urethroscope D) Ureteroscopy Answer: C Explanation: A) Urethroscopy: means "visually examining the urethra." B) A ureteroscope is an instrument for viewing the ureter. C) Urethroscope means "instrument for viewing the urethra." D) Ureteroscopy: means "visually examining the ureter." Page Ref: 228 Learning Obj.: 12-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building 103) Which medical term means "state of being without sperm"? A) Spermatolysis B) Aspermia C) Oligospermia D) Spermatogenesis Answer: B Explanation: A) Spermatolysis means "to destroy sperm." B) Aspermia means "state of being without sperm." C) Oligospermia means "scanty sperm." D) Spermatogenesis means "generates sperm." Page Ref: 227 Learning Obj.: 12-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building

104) Which term means "surgical crushing of a stone"? A) Lithotripsy B) Lithotomy C) Lithomegaly D) Lithiasis Answer: A Explanation: A) Lithotripsy means "surgical crushing of a stone." B) Lithotomy means "incision into a stone." C) Lithomegaly means "enlargement of a stone." D) Lithiasis means "abnormal condition of a stone." Page Ref: 224 Learning Obj.: 12-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building 105) Which term means "surgical repair of the bladder"? A) Cystostomy B) Cystopexy C) Cystoplasty D) Cystoscope Answer: C Explanation: A) Cystostomy: means "artificial opening of the bladder." B) Cystopexy: means "surgical fixation of the bladder." C) Cystoplasty means "surgical repair of the bladder." D) A cystoscope: is an instrument used to view the bladder. Page Ref: 220, 221 Learning Obj.: 12-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building 106) Which term means "enlarged kidney"? A) Nephrolith B) Nephromegaly C) Nephrostenosis D) Nephrosclerosis Answer: B Explanation: A) Nephrolith means "kidney stone." B) Nephromegaly means "enlarged kidney." C) Nephrostenosis means "narrowing of the kidney." D) Nephrosclerosis means "hardening of the kidney." Page Ref: 224 Learning Obj.: 12-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building

107) Which term means "to destroy sperm"? A) Spermatocyte B) Spermatic C) Spermatolysis D) Spermatogenesis Answer: C Explanation: A) A spermatocyte is a sperm cell. B) Spermatic means "pertaining to sperm." C) Spermatolysis means "to destroy sperm." D) Spermatogenesis means "generates sperm." Page Ref: 227 Learning Obj.: 12-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building 108) Which term means "pain in the urethra"? A) Urethralgia B) Urethritis C) Ureterectasis D) Ureteralgia Answer: A Explanation: A) Urethralgia means "pain in the urethra." B) Urethritis means "inflammation of the urethra." C) Ureterectasis means "dilation of the ureter." D) Ureteralgia means "pain in the ureter." Page Ref: 228 Learning Obj.: 12-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building 109) Which term means "renal pelvis inflammation"? A) Cystitis B) Pyeloplasty C) Pyelitis D) Pyelogram Answer: C Explanation: A) Cystitis means "inflammation of the bladder." B) Pyeloplasty means "surgical repair of the renal pelvis." C) Pyelitis means "renal pelvis inflammation." D) Pyelogram means "record of the renal pelvis." Page Ref: 220, 221 Learning Obj.: 12-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building

110) Which term means "condition of abnormal urination"? A) Polyuria B) Ketonuria C) Anuria D) Dysuria Answer: D Explanation: A) Polyuria means "the condition of urinating frequently." B) Ketonuria means "ketones in the urine." C) Anuria means "without urine." D) Dysuria means "condition of abnormal urination." Page Ref: 228 Learning Obj.: 12-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building 111) Urine is produced by the ________. A) nephrons B) bladder C) ureter D) renal pelvis Answer: A Explanation: A) Urine is produced by the nephrons. B) Urine is not produced in the bladder. C) Urine is not produced in the ureter. D) Urine is not produced in the renal pelvis. Page Ref: 229 Learning Obj.: 12-2 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 112) Which of the following is NOT an organ of the male genitourinary system? A) Kidney B) Bulbourethral gland C) Urethra D) Adrenal gland Answer: D Explanation: A) The kidney is a genitourinary organ. B) The bulbourethral gland is a genitourinary organ. C) The urethra is a genitourinary organ. D) The adrenal gland is not an organ of the genitourinary system. Page Ref: 220 Learning Obj.: 12-4 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology

113) In homeostasis, the urinary system regulates all of the following EXCEPT ________. A) levels of electrolytes in the body B) the amount of water in the body C) pH level D) the amount of hemoglobin in erythrocytes Answer: D Explanation: A) In homeostasis, the urinary system regulates levels of electrolytes in the body: yes, but b and c are also true B) In homeostasis, the urinary system regulates the amount of water in the body: yes, but a and c are also true C) In homeostasis, the urinary system regulates pH level: yes, but a and b are also true D) In homeostasis, the urinary system does not regulate the amount of hemoglobin in erythrocytes. Page Ref: 220 Learning Obj.: 12-2 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 114) Which structure empties urine into a ureter? A) Renal pelvis B) Urethra C) Bladder D) Prostate gland Answer: A Explanation: A) The renal pelvis empties urine into a ureter. B) The urethra does not empty urine into a ureter. C) The bladder does not empty urine into a ureter. D) The prostate gland does not empty urine into a ureter. Page Ref: 226 Learning Obj.: 12-2 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology

115) The male reproductive system and the urinary system share which organ? A) Urethra B) Ureter C) Bladder D) Prostate gland Answer: A Explanation: A) The male reproductive system and the urinary system share the urethra. B) The ureter is not shared between the male reproductive system and the urinary system. C) The bladder is not shared between the male reproductive system and the urinary system. D) The prostate gland is not shared between the male reproductive system and the urinary system. Page Ref: 220 Learning Obj.: 12-4 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 116) Spermatogenesis occurs in the ________. A) seminal vesicle B) prostate gland C) testes D) epididymis Answer: C Explanation: A) The seminal vesicle is not where spermatogenesis occurs. B) The prostate gland is not where spermatogenesis occurs. C) The testes are where spermatogenesis occurs. D) The epididymis is not where spermatogenesis occurs. Page Ref: 220 Learning Obj.: 12-2 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 117) The tip of the penis is called the ________. A) prepuce B) glans penis C) shaft of the penis D) penile gland Answer: B Explanation: A) The prepuce is not the tip of the penis. B) The glans penis is the tip of the penis. C) The shaft of the penis is not the tip of the penis. D) The penile gland is not the tip of the penis. Page Ref: 223 Learning Obj.: 12-4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology

118) After spermatogenesis, sperm are stored in the ________. A) epididymis B) vas deferens C) urethra D) seminal vesicle Answer: A Explanation: A) After spermatogenesis, sperm are stored in the epididymis. B) Sperm are not stored in the vas deferens. C) Sperm are not stored in the urethra. D) Sperm are not stored in the seminal vesicle. Page Ref: 224 Learning Obj.: 12-2 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 119) Which of the following is NOT one of the male reproductive glands? A) Bulbourethral B) Prostate C) Seminal vesicle D) Cystic Answer: D Explanation: A) The bulbourethral gland is a male reproductive gland. B) The prostate is a male reproductive gland. C) The seminal vesicle is a male reproductive gland. D) Cystic means "pertaining to the bladder" and is not the name of a gland. Page Ref: 220 Learning Obj.: 12-4 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 120) The vas deferens connects ________. A) the epididymis to the bladder B) the epididymis to the urethra C) the testes to the penis D) the testes to the urethra Answer: B Explanation: A) The vas deferens does not connect the epididymis to the bladder. B) The vas deferens connects the epididymis to the urethra. C) The vas deferens does not connect the testes to the penis. D) The vas deferens does not connect the testes to the urethra. Page Ref: 229 Learning Obj.: 12-4 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology

121) Another name for the foreskin is ________. A) epididymis B) prepuce C) vas deferens D) prostate Answer: B Explanation: A) The epididymis is not another name for the foreskin. B) The prepuce is another name for the foreskin. C) The vas deferens is not another name for the foreskin. D) The prostate is not another name for the foreskin. Page Ref: 223 Learning Obj.: 12-4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 122) Urine enters the bladder via the ________. A) urethra B) vas deferens C) ureters D) renal pelvis Answer: C Explanation: A) Urine does not enter the bladder through the urethra. B) Urine does not enter the bladder through the vas deferens. C) Urine enters the bladder via the ureters. D) Urine does not enter the bladder through the renal pelvis. Page Ref: 220 Learning Obj.: 12-4 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 123) Which of the following statements regarding the testes is NOT true? A) They produce testosterone. B) They are suspended in the scrotum. C) Sperm travels to the seminal vesicle for storage. D) They are the sites for sperm production. Answer: C Explanation: A) The testes produce testosterone. B) The testes are suspended in the scrotum. C) Sperm travels to the epididymis, not the seminal vesicle, for storage. D) The testes are the sites for sperm production. Page Ref: 225 Learning Obj.: 12-2 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology

124) Which of the following statements regarding the prostate gland is NOT true? A) Its fluid makes up much of the liquid portion of semen. B) It secretes a fluid to nourish sperm. C) It is located at the base of the bladder. D) It is not a true gland. Answer: D Explanation: A) The prostate gland's fluid makes up much of the liquid portion of semen. B) The prostate gland secretes a fluid to nourish sperm. C) The prostate gland is located at the base of the bladder. D) The prostate gland is a true gland. Page Ref: 226 Learning Obj.: 12-4 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 125) Which of the following statements regarding sperm is NOT true? A) It is the male reproductive cell. B) A sperm fertilizes an ovum. C) It contains one-quarter the normal number of chromosomes. D) Fertilization results in a baby with a full set of chromosomes. Answer: C Explanation: A) Sperm is the male reproductive cell. B) A sperm fertilizes an ovum. C) Sperm contains one-half, not one-quarter, the normal number of chromosomes. D) Fertilization results in a baby with a full set of chromosomes. Page Ref: 227 Learning Obj.: 12-4 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 126) Which of the following statements regarding benign prostatic hyperplasia is NOT true? A) It is a precancerous tumor. B) It is an enlargement of the prostate gland. C) It places pressure on the urethra. D) It is commonly seen in males over 50 years old. Answer: A Explanation: A) Benign prostatic hyperplasia is not a precancerous tumor. B) Benign prostatic hyperplasia is an enlargement of the prostate gland. C) Benign prostatic hyperplasia places pressure on the urethra. D) Benign prostatic hyperplasia is commonly seen in males over 50 years old. Page Ref: 230 Learning Obj.: 12-6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary

127) Which of the following organs is NOT a common site for calculus formation? A) kidney B) bladder C) ureter D) testes Answer: D Explanation: A) The kidney is a common site for calculus formation. B) The bladder is a common site for calculus formation. C) The ureter is a common site for calculus formation. D) The testes are not common sites for calculus formation. Page Ref: 230 Learning Obj.: 12-6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary 128) Which of the following statements regarding a clean-catch specimen is NOT true? A) It is collected after cleaning off the ureteral meatus. B) Urine is collected halfway through the urination process. C) This process minimizes contamination from the skin. D) It is a method of obtaining a urine sample. Answer: A Explanation: A) A clean-catch specimen is collected after cleaning off the urethral, not the ureteral, meatus. B) Urine is collected halfway through the urination process. C) This process of collecting a clean-catch specimen minimizes contamination from the skin. D) Collecting a clean-catch specimen is a method of obtaining a urine sample. Page Ref: 231 Learning Obj.: 12-6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary 129) A digital rectal exam (DRE) tests for an enlarged ________. A) testicle B) rectum C) prostate gland D) epididymis Answer: C Explanation: A) A DRE is not performed for an enlarged testicle. B) A DRE is not performed for an enlarged rectum. C) A digital rectal exam (DRE) tests for an enlarged prostate gland. D) A DRE is not performed for an enlarged epididymis. Page Ref: 231 Learning Obj.: 12-6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary

130) Erectile dysfunction (ED) is also referred to as ________. A) hesitancy B) impotence C) phimosis D) sterility Answer: B Explanation: A) Erectile dysfunction (ED) is not also referred to as hesitancy. B) Erectile dysfunction (ED) is also referred to as impotence. C) Erectile dysfunction (ED) is not also referred to as phimosis. D) Erectile dysfunction (ED) is not also referred to as sterility. Page Ref: 231 Learning Obj.: 12-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 131) Which condition is the inability to produce children? A) Sterility B) Phimosis C) Erectile dysfunction D) Impotence Answer: A Explanation: A) Sterility is the inability to produce children. B) Phimosis is a narrowing of the prepuce over the glans penis. C) Erectile dysfunction, or impotence, is is the inability to achieve erection of the penis for coitus. D) Erectile dysfunction, or impotence, is the inability to achieve erection of the penis for coitus. Page Ref: 233 Learning Obj.: 12-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 132) Cancer of the ________ is more commonly seen in young men or boys. A) urethra B) prostate gland C) bladder D) testes Answer: D Explanation: A) Cancer of the urethra is not more commonly seen in young men or boys B) Cancer of the prostate gland is not more commonly seen in young men or boys. C) Cancer of the bladder is not more commonly seen in young men or boys. D) Cancer of the testes is more commonly seen in young men or boys. Page Ref: 233 Learning Obj.: 12-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary

133) A semen analysis examines sperm for all of the following EXCEPT ________. A) number B) size C) swimming strength D) shape Answer: B Explanation: A) Sperm are analyzed for number. B) Sperm are not analyzed for size. C) Sperm are analyzed for swimming strength. D) Sperm are analyzed for shape. Page Ref: 233 Learning Obj.: 12-6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary 134) Which of the following was previously referred to as "venereal disease"? A) Benign prostatic hyperplasia B) Varicocele C) Erectile dysfunction D) Sexually transmitted disease Answer: D Explanation: A) Benign prostatic hyperplasia was not referred to as "venereal disease." B) Varicocele was not referred to as "venereal disease." C) Erectile dysfunction was not referred to as "venereal disease." D) Sexually transmitted disease was previously referred to as "venereal disease." Page Ref: 233 Learning Obj.: 12-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 135) Urinary incontinence is also called ________. A) trichomoniasis B) urgency C) varicocele D) enuresis Answer: D Explanation: A) Trichomoniasis is not urinary incontinence. B) Urgency is not urinary incontinence. C) Varicocele is not urinary incontinence. D) Enuresis is another word for urinary incontinence. Page Ref: 234 Learning Obj.: 12-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary

136) Which of the following statements regarding an undescended testicle is NOT true? A) It is also called cryptorchism. B) It is a congenital anomaly. C) It occurs in only one testicle, never two. D) An orchiopexy may be required to correct the condition. Answer: C Explanation: A) An undescended testicle is also called cryptorchism. B) An undescended testicle is a congenital anomaly. C) Cryptorchism may occur in only both testes. D) An orchiopexy may be required to correct the condition. Page Ref: 233 Learning Obj.: 12-6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary 137) A transurethral resection is a surgical procedure on which organ(s)? A) Testes B) Prostate gland C) Kidney D) Bladder Answer: B Explanation: A) A transurethral resection is not performed on the testes. B) A transurethral resection is a procedure performed on the prostate gland. C) A transurethral resection is not performed on the kidney. D) A transurethral resection is not performed on the bladder. Page Ref: 233 Learning Obj.: 12-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 138) Which of the following sexually transmitted diseases (STDs) is viral? A) Genital herpes B) Gonorrhea C) Syphilis D) Trichomoniasis Answer: A Explanation: A) Genital herpes is a viral infection. B) Gonorrhea is a bacterial infection. C) Syphilis is a bacterial infection.al D) Trichomoniasis is caused by a protozoan. Page Ref: 231 Learning Obj.: 12-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary

139) Which of the following statements regarding polycystic kidney disease is NOT true? A) The cysts are reduced by hemodialysis. B) It is inherited. C) It causes the formation of multiple cysts in the kidney. D) It eventually results in renal failure. Answer: A Explanation: A) The cysts are not reduced by hemodialysis. B) Polycystic kidney disease is inherited. C) Polycystic kidney disease causes the formation of multiple cysts in the kidney. D) Polycystic kidney disease eventually results in renal failure. Page Ref: 232 Learning Obj.: 12-6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary 140) Which of the following statements regarding phimosis is NOT true? A) It is a condition seen only in men. B) It is narrowing of the urethra. C) It may cause difficulty with urination and infection. D) A surgical treatment is circumcision. Answer: B Explanation: A) Phimosis is a condition seen only in men. B) Phimosis is narrowing of the prepuce, not the urethra, over the glans penis. C) Phimosis may cause difficulty with urination and infection. D) A surgical treatment for phimosis is circumcision. Page Ref: 232 Learning Obj.: 12-6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary 141) Which of the following is the insertion of a flexible tube into the body? A) Extracorporeal shockwave lithotripsy B) Transurethral resection C) Urinary catheterization D) Intravenous pyelogram Answer: C Explanation: A) Extracorporeal shockwave lithotripsy uses ultrasound waves to break up stones. B) Transurethral resection: surgical removal of prostate gland tissue. C) Urinary catheterization is the insertion of a flexible tube into the body. D) Intravenous pyelogram is X-ray of the kidney following injection of dye into a vein. Page Ref: 234 Learning Obj.: 12-6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary

142) The inability of the kidneys to filter wastes and/or produce urine is called ________. A) renal failure B) nephrolithiasis C) nephromegaly D) nephropathy Answer: A Explanation: A) Renal failure is the inability of the kidneys to filter wastes and/or produce urine. B) Nephrolithiasis is an abnormal condition of kidney stones. C) Nephromegaly is enlargement of the kidney. D) Nephropathy is disease of the kidney. Page Ref: 232 Learning Obj.: 12-6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary 143) A urinalysis performs all the following examinations of urine EXCEPT ________. A) chemical B) volume C) microscopic D) physical Answer: B Explanation: A) Examining the chemical composition of urine is part of urinalysis. B) A urinalysis does not examine urine volume. C) A microscopic examination of urine is part of urinalysis. D) A physical examination of urine is part of urinalysis. Page Ref: 234 Learning Obj.: 12-6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary 144) Which surgical procedure is used to treat cryptorchism? A) Circumcision B) Orchiopexy C) Vasectomy D) TUR Answer: B Explanation: A) Circumcision is done to remove the prepuce, B) An orchiopexy is used to treat cryptorchism. C) A vasectomy is excision of the vas deferens. D) TUR stands for "transurethral resection." Page Ref: 233 Learning Obj.: 12-6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary

145) Which surgical procedure removes the prepuce? A) Circumcision B) Sterilization C) BPH D) TUR Answer: A Explanation: A) Circumcision is a surgical procedure that removes the prepuce. B) Sterilization is done by vasectomy. C) BPH stands for "benign prostatic hyperplasia.". D) TUR stands for "transurethral resection." Page Ref: 230 Learning Obj.: 12-6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary 146) Which of the following is a blood test for prostate cancer? A) Digital rectal exam B) PAP smear C) Transurethral resection D) Prostate-specific antigen Answer: D Explanation: A) A digital rectal exam is not a blood test. B) A PAP smear is not a blood test. C) A transurethral resection is not a blood test. D) Prostate-specific antigen is a blood test for prostate cancer. Page Ref: 232 Learning Obj.: 12-6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary 147) Which of the following is NOT an STD? A) Chlamydia B) Gonorrhea C) Phimosis D) Trichomoniasis Answer: C Explanation: A) Chlamydia is an STD. B) Gonorrhea is an STD. C) Phimosis is narrowing of the prepuce over the glans penis. D) Trichomoniasis is an STD. Page Ref: 232 Learning Obj.: 12-7 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Abbreviations

148) A constriction of the prepuce is called ________. A) priapism B) cryptorchism C) epispadias D) phimosis Answer: D Explanation: A) Priapism is not constriction of the prepuce. B) Cryptorchism is not constriction of the prepuce. C) Epispadias is not constriction of the prepuce. D) Phimosis is a constriction of the prepuce. Page Ref: 232 Learning Obj.: 12-6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary 149) A varicocele occurs in the ________ veins. A) testicular B) scrotal C) penile D) urethral Answer: B Explanation: A) A varicocele does not occur in the testicular veins. B) A varicocele occurs in the scrotal veins. C) A varicocele does not occur in the penile veins. D) A varicocele does not occur in the urethral veins. Page Ref: 235 Learning Obj.: 12-6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary 150) BPH is enlargement of the ________. A) prostate gland B) breast C) penis D) prepuce Answer: A Explanation: A) Benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH) is enlargement of the prostate gland. B) Benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH) is not enlargement of the breast. C) Benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH) is not enlargement of the penis. D) Benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH) is not enlargement of the prepuce. Page Ref: 230 Learning Obj.: 12-7 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Abbreviations

151) ________ is a greater than normal occurrence in the urge to urinate, without an increase in the total daily volume of urine. A) Hesitancy B) Frequency C) Enuresis D) Urgency Answer: B Explanation: A) Hesitancy is difficulty initiating flow of urine. B) Frequency is a greater than normal occurrence in the urge to urinate, without an increase in the total daily volume of urine. C) Enuresis also known as bedwetting. D) Urgency is feeling the need to urinate immediately. Page Ref: 231 Learning Obj.: 12-6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary 152) ________ is feeling the need to urinate immediately. A) Micturition B) Frequency C) Urgency D) Hydrocele Answer: C Explanation: A) Micturition is the act of urinating. B) Frequency is a greater than normal occurrence in the urge to urinate, without an increase in the total daily volume of urine. C) Urgency is feeling the need to urinate immediately. D) Hydrocele is accumulation of fluid within the scrotum. Page Ref: 233 Learning Obj.: 12-6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary 153) Which condition affects the renal pelvis? A) Glomerulonephritis B) Nephrolithiasis C) Testalgia D) Pyelonephritis Answer: D Explanation: A) Glomerulonephritis does not affect the renal pelvis. B) Nephrolithiasis does not affect the renal pelvis. C) Testalgia does not affect the renal pelvis. D) Pyelonephritis is renal pelvis and kidney inflammation. Page Ref: 226 Learning Obj.: 12-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary 35 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

154) A patient with nephrolithiasis is suffering from ________. A) stones B) an infection C) cancer D) renal failure Answer: A Explanation: A) Nephrolithiasis means "abnormal condition of kidney stones"; lith- means "stone." B) Nephrolithiasis is not an infection. C) Nephrolithiasis is not cancer. D) Nephrolithiasis is not renal failure. Page Ref: 224 Learning Obj.: 12-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary 155) Which term refers to frequent nighttime urination? A) Azotemia B) Urgency C) Nocturia D) Diuresis Answer: C Explanation: A) Azotemia refers to blood with high levels of nitrogen waste. B) Urgency refers to feeling the need to urinate immediately. C) Nocturia refers to frequent nighttime urination. D) Diuresis refers to increased production of urine by the kidney. Page Ref: 228 Learning Obj.: 12-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary 156) Which term refers to frequent urination? A) Oliguria B) Anuria C) Dysuria D) Polyuria Answer: D Explanation: A) Oliguria means "scanty urination." B) Anuria means "without urination." C) Dysuria means "painful urination." D) Polyuria refers to frequent (excessive) urination. Page Ref: 228 Learning Obj.: 12-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building

157) Which clinical laboratory test measures the amount of nitrogenous waste in the blood? A) Blood urea nitrogen B) Creatinine clearance C) Urinalysis D) Culture and sensitivity Answer: A Explanation: A) Blood urea nitrogen measures the amount of nitrogenous waste in the blood. B) Creatinine clearance does not measure waste in the blood. C) Urinalysis does not measure waste in the blood. D) Culture and sensitivity does not measure waste in the blood. Page Ref: 230 Learning Obj.: 12-6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary 158) Which clinical laboratory test can identify an infection and involves growing bacteria? A) Blood urea nitrogen B) Phimosis C) Urinalysis D) Culture and sensitivity Answer: D Explanation: A) Blood urea nitrogen does not identify an infection. B) Phimosis is narrowing of the prepuce over the glans penis, not a lab test. C) Urinalysis does not involve growing bacteria. D) Urine culture and sensitivity identifies an infection and involves growing bacteria in a culture medium. Page Ref: 235 Learning Obj.: 12-6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary

159) ________ involves taking X-rays of the kidney as it filters out a dye injected into the bloodstream. A) Voiding cystourethrography B) Retrograde pyelogram C) Intravenous pyelogram D) Renogram Answer: C Explanation: A) Voiding cystourethrography is an X-ray made while patient voids dye that was placed in the bladder through the urethra. B) Retrograde pyelogram is an X-ray of the the urinary bladder, ureters, and renal pelvis. C) Intravenous pyelogram involves taking X-rays of the kidney as it filters out a dye injected into the bloodstream. D) A renogram is a picture of the kidney. Page Ref: 232 Learning Obj.: 12-6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary 160) ________ visualizes the bladder with an X-ray after placing dye directly into the bladder. A) Voiding cystourethrography B) Intravenous pyelogram C) Retrograde pyelogram D) Blood urea nitrogen Answer: A Explanation: A) Voiding cystourethrography visualizes the bladder with an X-ray after placing dye directly into the bladder. B) Intravenous pyelogram is an X-ray of the kidney as it filters out a dye injected into the bloodstream. C) Retrograde pyelogram is an X-ray of the urinary bladder, ureters, and renal pelvis. D) Blood urea nitrogen does not involve an X-ray. Page Ref: 235 Learning Obj.: 12-6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary

161) Extracorporeal shockwave lithotripsy (ESWL) uses ________ to treat kidney stones. A) X-rays B) ultrasound C) radio waves D) surgery Answer: B Explanation: A) ESWL does not use X-rays. B) Extracorporeal shockwave lithotripsy (ESWL) uses ultrasound to treat kidney stones. C) ESWL does not use radio waves. D) ESWL does not use surgery. Page Ref: 231 Learning Obj.: 12-6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary 162) Which therapeutic measure uses an artificial kidney machine? A) Catheterization B) Lithotripsy C) Hemodialysis D) Peritoneal dialysis Answer: C Explanation: A) Catheterization does not use an artificial kidney machine. B) Lithotripsy does not use an artificial kidney machine. C) An artificial kidney machine is used in hemodialysis. D) Peritoneal dialysis does not use an artificial kidney machine. Page Ref: 231 Learning Obj.: 12-6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary 163) Which therapeutic measure is used to treat renal failure? A) Catheterization B) Extracorporeal shockwave lithotripsy C) Culture and sensitivity D) Peritoneal dialysis Answer: D Explanation: A) Catheterization is not used to treat renal failure. B) Extracorporeal shockwave lithotripsy: is not used to treat renal failure. C) Culture and sensitivity is not used to treat renal failure. D) Peritoneal dialysis is used to treat renal failure. Page Ref: 232 Learning Obj.: 12-6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary

164) Which medical term is misspelled? A) Anuria B) Glycosuria C) Oligouria D) Hematuria Answer: C Explanation: A) Anuria is spelled correctly. B) Glycosuria is spelled correctly. C) Oligouria is spelled oliguria. D) Hematuria is spelled correctly. Page Ref: 228 Learning Obj.: 12-5 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Spelling 165) Which term is misspelled? A) Ureterral B) Urinalysis C) Cystolithiasis D) Hemodialysis Answer: A Explanation: A) Ureterral is spelled ureteral. B) Urinalysis is spelled correctly. C) Cystolithiasis is spelled correctly. D) Hemodialysis is spelled correctly. Page Ref: 228 Learning Obj.: 12-5 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Spelling 166) Which term is misspelled? A) Trichomoniasis B) Hesitancy C) Phamosis D) Impotence Answer: C Explanation: A) Trichomoniasis is spelled correctly. B) Hesitancy is spelled correctly. C) Phamosis is spelled phimosis. D) Impotence is spelled correctly. Page Ref: 232 Learning Obj.: 12-5 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Spelling

167) Which term is misspelled? A) Glomerulonephritis B) Nephroptosis C) Cystoscopy D) Gonorhea Answer: D Explanation: A) Glomerulonephritis is spelled correctly. B) Nephroptosis is spelled correctly. C) Cystoscopy is spelled correctly. D) Gonorhea is spelled gonorrhea. Page Ref: 231 Learning Obj.: 12-5 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Spelling 168) Which term is misspelled? A) Hidrocele B) Transurethral C) Syphilis D) Hemodialysis Answer: A Explanation: A) Hidrocele is spelled hydrocele. B) Transurethral is spelled correctly. C) Syphilis is spelled correctly. D) Hemodialysis is spelled correctly. Page Ref: 231 Learning Obj.: 12-5 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Spelling 169) Which term is misspelled? A) Urologist B) Nephroectomy C) Cystorrhaphy D) Glycosuria Answer: B Explanation: A) Urologist is spelled correctly. B) Nephroectomy is spelled nephrectomy. C) Cystorrhaphy is spelled correctly. D) Glycosuria is spelled correctly. Page Ref: 224 Learning Obj.: 12-5 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Spelling

170) Which abbreviation is a surgical procedure? A) HD B) DRE C) HPV D) TUR Answer: D Explanation: A) HD stands for "hemodialysis" B) DRE stands for "digital rectal exam" C) HPV stands for "human papilloma virus" D) TUR stands for "transurethral resection." Page Ref: 233 Learning Obj.: 12-7 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Abbreviations 171) Which abbreviation is a blood test? A) BUN B) cath C) KUB D) UTI Answer: A Explanation: A) BUN is "blood urea nitrogen," a blood test to determine kidney function. B) Cath stands for "catheterization." C) KUB stands for "kidney, ureter, bladder." D) UTI stands for "urinary tract infection." Page Ref: 230 Learning Obj.: 12-7 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Abbreviations 172) Which abbreviation is an inherited condition? A) CC B) PKD C) STD D) TUR Answer: B Explanation: A) CC stands for "clean-catch urine specimen." B) PKD is "polycystic kidney disease," an inherited condition. C) STD stands for "sexually transmitted disease." D) TUR stands for "transurethral resection." Page Ref: 232 Learning Obj.: 12-7 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Abbreviations

173) Which abbreviation is a lab test? A) HD B) I&O C) PSA D) RP Answer: C Explanation: A) HD stands for "hemodialysis." B) I&O stands for "intake and output." C) PSA is "prostate-specific antigen," a blood test to screen for prostate cancer. D) RP stands for "retrograde pyelogram." Page Ref: 232 Learning Obj.: 12-7 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Abbreviations 174) Which abbreviation is an X-ray of the renal pelvis? A) ESRD B) PKD C) PSA D) IVP Answer: D Explanation: A) ESRD stands for "end-stage renal disease." B) PKD stands for "polycystic kidney disease." C) PSA stands for "prostate-specific antigen." D) IVP is "intravenous pyelogram," which visualizes the renal pelvis. Page Ref: 232 Learning Obj.: 12-7 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Abbreviations 175) Which abbreviation is a treatment for kidney stones? A) ESWL B) ARF C) BUN D) UTI Answer: A Explanation: A) ESWL is "extracorporeal shockwave lithotripsy." B) ARF stands for "acute renal failure." C) BUN stands for "blood urea nitrogen." D) UTI stands for "urinary tract infection." Page Ref: 231 Learning Obj.: 12-7 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Abbreviations

Match each term on the left with the correct definition on the right. A) a flexible tube B) narrowing of prepuce C) chemical and physical examination of urine D) uses ultrasound to break up stones E) carries urine away from the kidney F) accumulation of fluid in the scrotum G) a blood test of kidney function H) urge to urinate more often than normal I) an infection J) artificial removal of waste from the body K) feeling the need to urinate immediately L) undescended testicle M) foreskin N) a stone O) a tumor P) varicose veins in the scrotum Q) a kidney X-ray R) an STD S) no urine formed T) difficulty initiating flow of urine U) surgical removal of prepuce V) impotence W) maintaining balance in the body X) urinary incontinence Y) palpation of prostate gland 176) hemodialysis Page Ref: 231 Learning Obj.: 12-6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary 177) frequency Page Ref: 231 Learning Obj.: 12-6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary 178) ESWL Page Ref: 231 Learning Obj.: 12-7 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Abbreviations 44 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

179) circumcision Page Ref: 230 Learning Obj.: 12-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 180) DRE Page Ref: 231 Learning Obj.: 12-7 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Abbreviations 181) calculus Page Ref: 230 Learning Obj.: 12-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 182) hydrocele Page Ref: 231 Learning Obj.: 12-6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary 183) anuria Page Ref: 228 Learning Obj.: 12-6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary 184) phimosis Page Ref: 232 Learning Obj.: 12-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 185) varicocele Page Ref: 235 Learning Obj.: 12-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 186) enuresis Page Ref: 234 Learning Obj.: 12-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 45 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

187) hesitancy Page Ref: 231 Learning Obj.: 12-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 188) urgency Page Ref: 233 Learning Obj.: 12-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 189) prepuce Page Ref: 223 Learning Obj.: 12-4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 190) ED Page Ref: 231 Learning Obj.: 12-7 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Abbreviations 191) cryptorchism Page Ref: 233 Learning Obj.: 12-6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary 192) ureter Page Ref: 220, 227 Learning Obj.: 12-4 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 193) homeostasis Page Ref: 220 Learning Obj.: 12-2 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 194) gonorrhea Page Ref: 231 Learning Obj.: 12-6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary 46 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

195) nephroma Page Ref: 224 Learning Obj.: 12-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building 196) catheter Page Ref: 234 Learning Obj.: 12-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 197) UA Page Ref: 234 Learning Obj.: 12-7 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Abbreviations 198) BUN Page Ref: 230 Learning Obj.: 12-7 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Abbreviations 199) UTI Page Ref: 234 Learning Obj.: 12-7 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Abbreviations 200) IVP Page Ref: 232 Learning Obj.: 12-7 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Abbreviations Answers: 176) J 177) H 178) D 179) U 180) Y 181) N 182) F 183) S 184) B 185) P 186) X 187) T 188) K 189) M 190) V 191) L 192) E 193) W 194) R 195) O 196) A 197) C 198) G 199) I 200) Q

201) Describe a semen analysis. Answer: ∙ Evaluation of semen for fertility ∙ Sperm examined for number, swimming strength, and shape ∙ May be used to determine if a vasectomy has been successful Page Ref: 233 Learning Obj.: 12-6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary 202) Describe calculi. Include what they are, where they can be found, and two ways they can be treated. Answer: ∙ Calculi are stones formed within an organ ∙ Usually form from the accumulation of mineral salts ∙ Found in kidney, renal pelvis, ureters, bladder, or urethra ∙ Diagnosed by any of the X-rays of the urinary organs such as an IVP or retrograde pyelogram or by cystoscopy ∙ Treated by surgery (lithotripsy or nephrolithotomy) or by extracorporeal shockwave lithotripsy Page Ref: 230, 231, 232, 233 Learning Obj.: 12-6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary

Medical Terminology: Get Connected!, 3e (Frucht) Chapter 13 Obstetrics and Gynecology: Female Reproductive System All answers to questions asking for a combining form must be written in the combining form style, meaning word root/combining vowel. For example, the combining form meaning "heart" is cardi/o. All answers to questions asking for a suffix must be written in suffix form, meaning a hyphen before your answer. For example, the suffix meaning "cell" is -cyte. All answers to questions asking for a prefix must be written in prefix form, meaning a hyphen after your answer. For example, a prefix meaning "two" is bi-. Do NOT capitalize any of your answers or include a period at the end of your answer. The computer will NOT recognize your answer as correct if it is written in any other style. 1) The combining form that means amnion is ________. Answer: amni/o; amnio Page Ref: 266 Learning Obj.: 13-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 2) The combining form that means cervix is ________. Answer: cervic/o; cervico Page Ref: 266 Learning Obj.: 13-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 3) The combining form that means chorion is ________. Answer: chori/o; chorio Page Ref: 266 Learning Obj.: 13-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 4) A combining form other than vagin/o that means vagina is ________. Answer: colp/o; colpo Page Ref: 266 Learning Obj.: 13-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 5) A combining form other than abdomin/o that means abdomen is ________. Answer: lapar/o; laparo Page Ref: 266 Learning Obj.: 13-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 1 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

6) The combining form that means embryo is ________. Answer: embry/o; embryo Page Ref: 266 Learning Obj.: 13-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 7) The combining form that means vulva is ________. Answer: episi/o; episio Page Ref: 266 Learning Obj.: 13-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 8) The combining form that means fetus is ________. Answer: fet/o; feto Page Ref: 266 Learning Obj.: 13-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 9) A combining form that means female is ________. Answer: gynec/o; gyneco Page Ref: 266 Learning Obj.: 13-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 10) The combining form that means uterine tube is ________. Answer: salping/o; salpingo Page Ref: 266 Learning Obj.: 13-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 11) A combining form other than hyster/o or uter/o that means uterus is ________. Answer: metr/o; metro Page Ref: 266 Learning Obj.: 13-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

12) The combining form that means fibrous is ________. Answer: fibr/o; fibro Page Ref: 266 Learning Obj.: 13-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 13) A combining form other than mast/o that means breast is ________. Answer: mamm/o; mammo Page Ref: 266 Learning Obj.: 13-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 14) The combining form that means menses is ________. Answer: men/o; meno Page Ref: 266 Learning Obj.: 13-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 15) The combining form that means birth is ________. Answer: nat/o; nato Page Ref: 266 Learning Obj.: 13-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 16) A combining form other than ovari/o that means ovary is ________. Answer: oophor/o; oophoro Page Ref: 266 Learning Obj.: 13-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 17) The combining form that means ovum is ________. Answer: o/o; oo Page Ref: 266 Learning Obj.: 13-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

18) The combining form that means pelvis is ________. Answer: pelv/o; pelvo Page Ref: 266 Learning Obj.: 13-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 19) The combining form that means cancer is ________. Answer: carcin/o; carcino Page Ref: 266 Learning Obj.: 13-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 20) The combining form that means scanty is ________. Answer: olig/o; oligo Page Ref: 266 Learning Obj.: 13-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 21) The suffix that means puncture to withdraw fluid is ________. Answer: -centesis; centesis Page Ref: 266 Learning Obj.: 13-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 22) The suffix that means one who studies is ________. Answer: -logist; logist Page Ref: 266 Learning Obj.: 13-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 23) The suffix that means process of recording is ________. Answer: -graphy; graphy Page Ref: 266 Learning Obj.: 13-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

24) The suffix that means abnormal flow condition is ________. Answer: -rrhagia; rrhagia Page Ref: 267 Learning Obj.: 13-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 25) The suffix that means discharge is ________. Answer: -rrhea; rrhea Page Ref: 267 Learning Obj.: 13-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 26) The suffix that means rupture is ________. Answer: -rrhexis; rrhexis Page Ref: 267 Learning Obj.: 13-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 27) The suffix that means cell is ________. Answer: -cyte; cyte Page Ref: 266 Learning Obj.: 13-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 28) A suffix other than -gravida that means pregnancy is ________. Answer: -cyesis; cyesis Page Ref: 266 Learning Obj.: 13-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 29) The suffix that means to bear (offspring) is ________. Answer: -para; para Page Ref: 267 Learning Obj.: 13-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

30) The suffix that means childbirth is ________. Answer: -partum; partum Page Ref: 267 Learning Obj.: 13-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 31) The prefix that means after is ________. Answer: post-; post Page Ref: 267 Learning Obj.: 13-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 32) A prefix other than pre- that means before is ________. Answer: ante-; ante Page Ref: 267 Learning Obj.: 13-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 33) The prefix that means new is ________. Answer: neo-; neo Page Ref: 267 Learning Obj.: 13-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 34) A prefix other than poly- that means many is ________. Answer: multi-; multi Page Ref: 267 Learning Obj.: 13-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 35) The prefix that means first is ________. Answer: primi-; primi Page Ref: 267 Learning Obj.: 13-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

36) A medical term that means pertaining to the amnion is ________. Answer: amniotic Page Ref: 269 Learning Obj.: 13-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building 37) A medical term that means pertaining to the cervix is ________. Answer: cervical Page Ref: 269 Learning Obj.: 13-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building 38) A medical term that means pertaining to the chorion is ________. Answer: chorionic Page Ref: 269 Learning Obj.: 13-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building 39) A medical term that means pertaining to the fetus is ________. Answer: fetal Page Ref: 272 Learning Obj.: 13-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building 40) A medical term that means cutting into the vulva is ________. Answer: episiotomy Page Ref: 271 Learning Obj.: 13-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building 41) A medical term that means pertaining to the embryo is ________. Answer: embryonic Page Ref: 271 Learning Obj.: 13-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building

42) A medical term that means pertaining to the breast is ________. Answer: mammary Page Ref: 273 Learning Obj.: 13-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building 43) A medical term that means pertaining to the ovary is ________. Answer: ovarian Page Ref: 275 Learning Obj.: 13-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building 44) A medical term that means pertaining to the uterus is ________. Answer: uterine Page Ref: 276 Learning Obj.: 13-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building 45) A medical term that means pertaining to the vagina is ________. Answer: vaginal Page Ref: 277 Learning Obj.: 13-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building 46) A medical term that means inflammation of a uterine tube is ________. Answer: salpingitis Page Ref: 276 Learning Obj.: 13-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building 47) A medical term that means after childbirth is ________. Answer: postpartum Page Ref: 276 Learning Obj.: 13-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building

48) A medical term that means first pregnancy is ________. Answer: primigravida Page Ref: 272 Learning Obj.: 13-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building 49) A medical term that means surgical fixation of the uterus is ________. Answer: hysteropexy Page Ref: 272 Learning Obj.: 13-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building 50) A medical term that means pertaining to within the uterus is ________. Answer: intrauterine Page Ref: 277 Learning Obj.: 13-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building 51) A cystocele occurs when the uterus protrudes into the urethra. Answer: FALSE Explanation: A cystocele occurs when the bladder protrudes into the vagina. Page Ref: 278 Learning Obj.: 13-6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary 52) Gynecology is the branch of medicine specializing in pregnancy and childbirth. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Obstetrics is the branch of medicine specializing in pregnancy and childbirth. Page Ref: 266 Learning Obj.: 13-1 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Medical Specialties 53) Ova are produced in the ovaries. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 266 Learning Obj.: 13-2 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology

54) The breasts provide nourishing milk for the embryo. Answer: FALSE Explanation: The breasts provide nourishing milk for the newborn. Page Ref: 266 Learning Obj.: 13-2 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 55) Fertilization typically occurs in the uterine (or fallopian) tubes. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 266 Learning Obj.: 13-2 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 56) The singular of ovum is ova. Answer: FALSE Explanation: The singular of ova is ovum. Page Ref: 266 Learning Obj.: 13-4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 57) The newly fertilized ovum implants in the lining of the uterus for development. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 266 Learning Obj.: 13-2 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 58) The uterus secretes the female sex hormones estrogen and progesterone. Answer: FALSE Explanation: The ovaries secrete the female sex hormones estrogen and progesterone. Page Ref: 266 Learning Obj.: 13-2 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 59) The amnion contains fluid in which the fetus floats. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 268 Learning Obj.: 13-2 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology

60) The chorion is the inner sac surrounding the fetus. Answer: FALSE Explanation: The amnion is the inner sac surrounding the fetus. Page Ref: 268 Learning Obj.: 13-2 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 61) The cervix is also called the neck of the uterus. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 269 Learning Obj.: 13-4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 62) The amnion forms part of the placenta. Answer: FALSE Explanation: The chorion forms part of the placenta. Page Ref: 269 Learning Obj.: 13-4 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 63) The vagina is commonly called the birth canal. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 270 Learning Obj.: 13-4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 64) Normal human gestation is about 36 weeks. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Normal human gestation is about 40 weeks. Page Ref: 272 Learning Obj.: 13-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 65) The clitoris is part of the vulva. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 271 Learning Obj.: 13-4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology

66) The fundus is the largest section of the uterus. Answer: FALSE Explanation: The body is the largest section of the uterus. Page Ref: 272 Learning Obj.: 13-4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 67) During the menstrual period, the endometrium is sloughed off. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 272 Learning Obj.: 13-2 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 68) The ovum carries half the mother's chromosomes. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 275 Learning Obj.: 13-2 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 69) Ovulation releases an ovum. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 275 Learning Obj.: 13-2 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 70) Atresia occurs when the placenta separates from the uterine wall prior to delivery of a baby. Answer: FALSE Explanation: An abruptio placentae occurs when the placenta separates from the uterine wall prior to delivery of a baby. Page Ref: 277 Learning Obj.: 13-6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary 71) Elective abortion is the legal termination of a pregnancy. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 277 Learning Obj.: 13-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary

72) The human papillomavirus has been shown to cause breast cancer. Answer: FALSE Explanation: The human papillomavirus has been shown to cause cervical cancer. Page Ref: 278 Learning Obj.: 13-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 73) Conization is the removal of breast tissue for biopsy. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Conization is the removal of cervical tissue for biopsy. Page Ref: 278 Learning Obj.: 13-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 74) A C-section is the surgical delivery of a baby through an abdominal incision. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 278 Learning Obj.: 13-7 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Abbreviations 75) Chorionic villus sampling is performed to obtain tissue for genetic analysis. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 278 Learning Obj.: 13-6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary 76) A D&C dilates the cervix in order to scrape the inside of the uterus. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 278 Learning Obj.: 13-7 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Abbreviations 77) Postpartum is a term that means "before childbirth." Answer: FALSE Explanation: Antepartum is a term that means "before childbirth." Page Ref: 276 Learning Obj.: 13-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

78) Infertility is generally defined as "no pregnancy after properly timed intercourse for one year." Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 280 Learning Obj.: 13-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 79) A fibroid tumor is a cancerous tumor of the uterus. Answer: FALSE Explanation: A fibroid tumor is a noncancerous tumor of the uterus. Page Ref: 280 Learning Obj.: 13-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 80) In placenta previa, the placenta tears away from the uterine wall. Answer: FALSE Explanation: In abruptio placentae, the placenta tears away from the uterine wall. Page Ref: 277 Learning Obj.: 13-6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary 81) Hemolytic disease of the newborn is also called erythroblastosis fetalis. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 280 Learning Obj.: 13-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 82) A Pap smear is able to detect a pregnancy during the first few weeks. Answer: FALSE Explanation: A Pap smear is a test for cervical cancer, not pregnancy. Page Ref: 281 Learning Obj.: 13-6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary 83) Fetal monitoring checks the fetal heart rate and fetal heart tone during labor. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 279 Learning Obj.: 13-6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary

84) Tubal ligation is the common phrase for a vasectomy. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Tubal ligation means "tying off the uterine tubes" in females, and vasectomy means "tying off the vas deferens" in males. Page Ref: 282 Learning Obj.: 13-6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary 85) In a cystocele, the bladder protrudes into the vagina. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 278 Learning Obj.: 13-6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary 86) Endometriosis occurs when the endometrial tissue fails to leave the uterus after it is sloughed off. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Endometriosis occurs when endometrial tissue appears throughout the pelvic or abdominal cavity. Page Ref: 279 Learning Obj.: 13-6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary 87) An ectopic pregnancy occurs outside the uterus. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 279 Learning Obj.: 13-6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary 88) Fibrocystic breast disease is an early warning sign of breast cancer. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Fibrocystic breast disease is NOT an early warning sign of breast cancer. Page Ref: 280 Learning Obj.: 13-6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary 89) A fistula is an abnormal passageway that develops between two structures. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 280 Learning Obj.: 13-6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary 15 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

90) A PID is a test for cervical cancer. Answer: FALSE Explanation: A Pap smear is a test for cervical cancer. Page Ref: 281 Learning Obj.: 13-7 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Abbreviations 91) IVF is an infertility treatment. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 280 Learning Obj.: 13-7 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Abbreviations 92) A stillbirth occurs when the fetus dies prior to 20 weeks of gestation. Answer: FALSE Explanation: A miscarriage occurs when the fetus dies prior to 20 weeks of gestation. Page Ref: 277 Learning Obj.: 13-6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary 93) Prematurity is the birth of a fetus before 37 weeks of gestation. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 282 Learning Obj.: 13-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 94) In a vesicovaginal fistula, the fistula develops between the uterus and the vagina. Answer: FALSE Explanation: In a vesicovaginal fistula, the fistula develops between the bladder and the vagina. Page Ref: 280 Learning Obj.: 13-6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary 95) PMS symptoms appear just prior to the onset of the menstrual period. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 282 Learning Obj.: 13-7 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Abbreviations

96) In hemolytic disease of the newborn, the mother's blood type is Rh-positive. Answer: FALSE Explanation: In hemolytic disease of the newborn, the mother's blood type is Rh-negative. Page Ref: 280 Learning Obj.: 13-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 97) A tubal ligation is used to prevent pregnancy. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 282 Learning Obj.: 13-6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary 98) A prolapsed uterus occurs when a uterine tube collapses into the uterus. Answer: FALSE Explanation: A prolapsed uterus occurs when a fallen uterus causes the cervix to protrude through the vaginal opening. Page Ref: 282 Learning Obj.: 13-6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary 99) Hysterorrhexis is spelled correctly. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 272 Learning Obj.: 13-5 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Spelling 100) Endometrioitis is spelled correctly. Answer: FALSE Explanation: The correct spelling is endometritis. Page Ref: 274 Learning Obj.: 13-5 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Spelling

101) Which medical term refers to the outer sac around the fetus? A) Ovarian B) Amniotic C) Uterine D) Chorionic Answer: D Explanation: A) Ovarian refers to the almond-shaped pair of organs on each side of the uterus. B) Amniotic refers to the inner sac around the fetus. C) Uterine refers to the pear-shaped organ in the lower pelvic cavity. D) Chorionic refers to the outer sac around the fetus. Page Ref: 269 Learning Obj.: 13-5 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 102) Which medical term refers to cutting into the abdominal cavity? A) Salpingotomy B) Hysterotomy C) Amniotomy D) Laparotomy Answer: D Explanation: A) Salpingotomy is an incision into a uterine tube. B) Hysterotomy is an incision into the uterus. C) Amniotomy is an incision into the amnion. D) Laparotomy refers to cutting into the abdominal cavity. Page Ref: 273 Learning Obj.: 13-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary 103) Which medical term refers to a record of the uterine tube? A) Salpingogram B) Hysterogram C) Mammogram D) Fallopiogram Answer: A Explanation: A) A salpingogram is a record of the uterine tube. B) Hysterogram means "record of the uterus." C) Mammogram means "record of the breast." D) Fallopiogram is not an actual medical term. Page Ref: 276 Learning Obj.: 13-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building

104) Which medical term means "discharge of amniotic (fluid)"? A) Amniorrhea B) Amniocentesis C) Amniotomy D) Amniorrhexis Answer: A Explanation: A) Amniorrhea means "discharge of amniotic (fluid)." B) Amniocentesis means "puncture to withdraw fluid from the amnion." C) Amniotomy means "incision into the amnion." D) Amniorrhexis means "rupture of the amnion." Page Ref: 269 Learning Obj.: 13-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building 105) Which medical term means "instrument for viewing the vagina"? A) Laparoscope B) Colposcope C) Colposcopy D) Cervicoscope Answer: B Explanation: A) Laparoscope means "instrument for viewing the abdomen." B) Colposcope means "instrument for viewing the vagina." C) Colposcopy means "process of visually examining the vagina." D) Cervicoscope means "instrument for viewing the cervix." Page Ref: 270 Learning Obj.: 13-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building 106) Which medical term means "suture of the vulva"? A) Episiectomy B) Episiorrhea C) Episiorrhaphy D) Episiotomy Answer: C Explanation: A) Episiectomy means "surgical removal of the vulva." B) Episiorrhea means "discharge of the vulva." C) Episiorrhaphy means "suture of the vulva." D) Episiotomy means "cutting into the vulva." Page Ref: 271 Learning Obj.: 13-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building

107) Which medical term means "surgical fixation of the uterus"? A) Uteroplasty B) Intrauterine C) Hysterectomy D) Hysteropexy Answer: D Explanation: A) Uteroplasty means "surgical repair of the uterus." B) Uterostomy means "pertaining to within the uterus." C) Hysterectomy means "surgical removal of the uterus." D) Hysteropexy means "surgical fixation of the uterus." Page Ref: 272 Learning Obj.: 13-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building 108) Which medical term means "record of the breast"? A) Mammogram B) Mastalgia C) Mastitis D) Mammoplasty Answer: A Explanation: A) Mammogram means "record of the breast." B) Mastalgia means "pain in the breast." C) Mastitis means "inflammation of the breast." D) Mammoplasty means "surgical repair of the breast." Page Ref: 273 Learning Obj.: 13-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building 109) Which medical term means "scanty menstrual discharge"? A) Dysmenorrhea B) Oligomenorrhea C) Amenorrhea D) Bradymenorrhea Answer: B Explanation: A) Dysmenorrhea means "painful menstrual discharge." B) Oligomenorrhea means "scanty menstrual discharge." C) Amenorrhea means "without menstrual discharge." D) Bradymenorrhea means "slow menstrual discharge." Page Ref: 274 Learning Obj.: 13-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building

110) Which medical term means "first birth"? A) Primigravida B) Nullipara C) Multigravida D) Primipara Answer: D Explanation: A) Primigravida means "first pregnancy." B) Nullipara means "no births." C) Multigravida means "many pregnancies." D) Primipara means "first birth." Page Ref: 276 Learning Obj.: 13-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building 111) Which medical term means "inflammation within the cervix"? A) Cervicitis B) Intracervicosis C) Endocervicitis D) Cervicoplasty Answer: C Explanation: A) Cervicitis means "inflammation of the cervix." B) Intracervicosis means "abnormal condition within the cervix." C) Endocervicitis means "inflammation within the cervix." D) Cervicoplasty means "surgical repair of the cervix." Page Ref: 269 Learning Obj.: 13-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building 112) Which medical term means "many pregnancies"? A) Multigravida B) Nulligravida C) Multipara D) Primigravida Answer: A Explanation: A) Multigravida means "many pregnancies." B) Nulligravida means "no pregnancies." C) Multipara means "multiple births." D) Primigravida means "first pregnancy." Page Ref: 272 Learning Obj.: 13-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building

113) Which medical term means "after birth"? A) Prepartum B) Postpartum C) Antepartum D) Postpara Answer: B Explanation: A) Prepartum means "before birth." B) Postpartum means "after birth." C) Antepartum means "before birth." D) Postpara is not a medical term. Page Ref: 276 Learning Obj.: 13-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building 114) Which of the following medical terms does not refer to uterine surgery? A) Hysteropexy B) Hysterorrhexis C) Uteroplasty D) Hysterectomy Answer: B Explanation: A) Hysteropexy means "surgical fixation of the uterus." B) Hysterorrhexis means "ruptured uterus." C) Uteroplasty means "surgical repair of the uterus." D) Hysterectomy means "excision of the uterus." Page Ref: 272 Learning Obj.: 13-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building 115) Which medical term means "produces an ovum"? A) Oophorogenesis B) Oocyte C) Oogenesis D) Oophoropexy Answer: C Explanation: A) Oophorogenesis means "generation of the ovary." B) Oocyte means "ovum cell." C) Oogenesis means "produces an ovum." D) Oophoropexy means "surgical fixation of the ovary." Page Ref: 275 Learning Obj.: 13-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building

116) The female external genitalia are collectively referred to as the ________. A) vulva B) vagina C) clitoris D) cervix Answer: A Explanation: A) The female external genitalia are collectively referred to as the vulva. B) The vagina is not the general term for the female external genitalia. C) The clitoris is not the general term for the female external genitalia. D) The cervix is not the general term for the female external genitalia. Page Ref: 271 Learning Obj.: 13-4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 117) Which of the following is NOT a function of the female reproductive system? A) To produce ova B) To serve as a location for fertilization C) To nourish the newborn D) To maintain homeostasis Answer: D Explanation: A) To produce ova is a function of the female reproductive system. B) To serve as a location for fertilization is a function of the female reproductive system. C) To nourish the newborn is a function of the female reproductive system. D) Maintaining homeostasis is not a function of the female reproductive system. Page Ref: 266 Learning Obj.: 13-2 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 118) Uterine tubes connect the ________. A) uterus and cervix B) uterus and vagina C) ovaries and uterus D) ovaries and cervix Answer: C Explanation: A) Uterine tubes do not connect the uterus and cervix. B) Uterine tubes do not connect the uterus and vagina. C) Uterine tubes connect the ovaries and uterus. D) Uterine tubes do not connect the ovaries and cervix. Page Ref: 276 Learning Obj.: 13-4 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology

119) The muscular layer of the uterus is called the ________. A) myometrium B) perimetrium C) endometrium D) mesometrium Answer: A Explanation: A) The muscular layer of the uterus is called the myometrium. B) Perimetrium means "around the uterus." C) Endometrium means "within the uterus." D) Mesometrium means "middle of the uterus." Page Ref: 272 Learning Obj.: 13-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building 120) The upper portion of the uterus is called the ________. A) cervix B) fundus C) body D) fimbriae Answer: B Explanation: A) The cervix is not the upper portion of the uterus. B) The upper portion of the uterus is called the fundus. C) The body is not the upper portion of the uterus. D) The fimbriae are not the upper portion of the uterus. Page Ref: 272 Learning Obj.: 13-4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 121) Which of the following statements regarding the vagina is NOT true? A) It serves as the birth canal. B) It receives the penis during intercourse. C) It extends from the cervix. D) It branches into the urethra. Answer: D Explanation: A) The vagina serves as the birth canal. B) The vagina receives the penis during intercourse. C) The vagina extends from the cervix. D) The vagina does not branch into the urethra. Page Ref: 270 Learning Obj.: 13-4 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology

122) Which of the following is NOT part of the vulva? A) Cervix B) Labia majora C) Clitoris D) Labia minora Answer: A Explanation: A) The cervix is not part of the vulva. B) The labia majora is part of the vulva. C) The clitoris is part of the vulva. D) The labia minora is part of the vulva. Page Ref: 271 Learning Obj.: 13-4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 123) The length of the typical human gestation is ________. A) 42 weeks. B) 30 weeks. C) 36 weeks. D) 40 weeks. Answer: D Explanation: A) The normal human gestation is not 42 weeks. B) The normal human gestation is not 30 weeks. C) The normal human gestation is not 36 weeks. D) The normal gestation is 40 weeks. Page Ref: 272 Learning Obj.: 13-2 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 124) The ________ is the inner membranous sac surrounding the fetus. A) amnion B) placenta C) endometrium D) chorion Answer: A Explanation: A) The amnion is the inner membranous sac surrounding the fetus. B) The placenta is the organ that nourishes the baby during pregnancy. C) The endometrium is the inner lining of the uterus. D) The chorion is the outer sac that forms part of the placenta. Page Ref: 268 Learning Obj.: 13-4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology

125) Just prior to the eighth week of gestation, the infant is called a(n) ________. A) neonate B) embryo C) zygote D) fetus Answer: B Explanation: A) The neonate is a newborn. B) The embryo is an early stage of human development from the time of fertilization until approximately the end of the second month of pregnancy. C) The zygote is the cell that results from fertilization. D) The fetus is the later stage of human development from approximately the beginning of the third month to birth. Page Ref: 270 Learning Obj.: 13-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 126) The female reproductive organ that produces ova is the ________. A) uterine tube B) ovary C) uterus D) cervix Answer: B Explanation: A) The uterine tube does not produce ova. B) The ovary is the female reproductive organ that produces ova. C) The uterus does not produce ova. D) The cervix does not produce ova. Page Ref: 275 Learning Obj.: 13-2 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 127) Fertilization typically occurs in the ________. A) ovary B) cervix C) uterus D) uterine tube Answer: D Explanation: A) Fertilization does not typically occur in the ovary. B) Fertilization does not typically occur in the cervix. C) Fertilization does not typically occur in the uterus. D) Fertilization typically occurs in the uterine tube. Page Ref: 276 Learning Obj.: 13-4 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 26 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

128) Inside the uterus, the fetus floats in ________ fluid. A) chorionic B) uterine C) amniotic D) cervical Answer: C Explanation: A) The fetus does not float in chorionic fluid. B) The fetus does not float in uterine fluid. C) Inside the uterus, the fetus floats in amniotic fluid. D) The fetus does not float in cervical fluid. Page Ref: 268 Learning Obj.: 13-4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 129) Which of the following pairs is NOT correctly matched? A) Uterus—pear-shaped, muscular organ B) Vagina—birth canal C) Embryo—late stage of human development D) Breast—nourishes the newborn Answer: C Explanation: A) The uterus is the pear-shaped, muscular organ. B) The vagina is the birth canal. C) The embryo is an early stage of human development. D) The breast nourishes the newborn. Page Ref: 270 Learning Obj.: 13-4 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 130) During menstruation, the ________ is shed. A) myometrium B) amnion C) endometrium D) placenta Answer: C Explanation: A) The myometrium is not shed during menstruation. B) The amnion is not shed during menstruation. C) The endometrium is shed during menstruation. D) The placenta is not shed during menstruation. Page Ref: 272 Learning Obj.: 13-4 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology

131) Which of the following statements regarding the uterine tubes is NOT true? A) They extend from the ovaries to the uterus. B) They are the sites for fertilization. C) There are two. D) They are also called the ovarian tubes. Answer: D Explanation: A) The uterine tubes extend from the ovaries to the uterus. B) The uterine tubes are the sites for fertilization. C) There are two uterine tubes. D) The uterine tubes are also called the fallopian tubes. Page Ref: 276 Learning Obj.: 13-4 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 132) Which suffix refers to a pregnancy that has successfully ended with the birth of an infant? A) -cyesis B) -gravida C) -genesis D) -partum Answer: D Explanation: A) -cyesis means "pregnancy." B) -gravida means "pregnancy." C) -genesis means "produces." D) -partum means "childbirth." Page Ref: 266 Learning Obj.: 13-3 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building 133) Which of the following pairs is NOT correctly matched? A) Fundus—large central region of the uterus B) Endometrium—inner lining of the uterus C) Cervix—neck of the uterus D) Myometrium—muscular layer of the uterus Answer: A Explanation: A) The fundus is the upper portion of the uterus. B) The endometrium is the inner lining of the uterus. C) The cervix is the neck of the uterus: matched correctly. D) The myometrium is the muscular layer of the uterus. Page Ref: 272 Learning Obj.: 13-4 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology

134) A(n) ________ abortion is also called a miscarriage. A) elective B) spontaneous C) limited D) therapeutic Answer: B Explanation: A) An elective abortion is not a miscarriage. B) A spontaneous abortion is also called a miscarriage. C) A limited abortion is not a miscarriage. D) A therapeutic abortion is not a miscarriage. Page Ref: 277 Learning Obj.: 13-6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary 135) Which of the following is an emergency condition that occurs when the placenta tears away from the uterine wall before birth? A) Placenta previa B) Atresia C) Abruptio placentae D) Fistula Answer: C Explanation: A) In placenta previa the placenta does not tear. B) In atresia the placenta does not tear. C) Abruptio placentae is an emergency condition that occurs when the placenta tears away from the uterine wall before birth. D) In a fistula the placenta does not tear. Page Ref: 277 Learning Obj.: 13-6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary 136) Hysteratresia is the loss of the cervical opening in the ________. A) vagina B) vulva C) uterine tube D) uterus Answer: D Explanation: A) Hysteratresia does not occur in the vagina. B) Hysteratresia does not occur in the vulva. C) Hysteratresia does not occur in the uterine tube. D) Hysteratresia occurs in the uterus. Page Ref: 272, 277 Learning Obj.: 13-6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary 29 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

137) Which of the following statements regarding cervical cancer is NOT true? A) D&C is a common treatment. B) Some cases may be caused by human papillomavirus. C) Human papillomavirus (HPV) is sexually transmitted. D) Pap smear is used for early detection. Answer: A Explanation: A) D&C is not a common treatment for cervical cancer. B) Some cases of cervical cancer may be caused by human papillomavirus. C) Human papillomavirus (HPV) is sexually transmitted. D) A Pap smear is used for early detection of cervical cancer. Page Ref: 278 Learning Obj.: 13-6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary 138) Which of the following involves surgical removal of a core of cervical tissue? A) Cesarean section B) Amniocentesis C) Chorionic villus sampling D) Conization Answer: D Explanation: A) Cesarean section is not performed in genetic analysis. B) Amniocentesis does not involve removal of cervical tissue. C) Chorionic villus biopsy does not involve removal of cervical tissue. D) Conization involves surgical removal of a core of cervical tissue for biopsy. Page Ref: 278 Learning Obj.: 13-6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary 139) Which of the following procedures is performed to obtain tissue for a biopsy? A) C-section B) IVF C) Conization D) Tubal ligation Answer: C Explanation: A) A C-section is performed for delivery. B) IVF stands for "in vitro fertilization." C) Conization is performed to obtain tissue for a biopsy. D) A tubal ligation is performed for sterilization. Page Ref: 278 Learning Obj.: 13-6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary

140) What advantage does a chorionic villus sampling have over an amniocentesis? A) It can be done faster. B) It can be done earlier. C) It can be done at the same time. D) It can be done later. Answer: B Explanation: A) Speed is not the advantage of a chorionic villus sampling over an amniocentesis. B) The advantage a chorionic villus sampling has over an amniocentesis is that it may be performed earlier. C) That it may be performed at the same time is not the advantage of a chorionic villus sampling over an amniocentesis. D) That is may be performed later is not the advantage of a chorionic villus sampling over an amniocentesis. Page Ref: 278 Learning Obj.: 13-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 141) In a cystocele, the ________ is protruding into the vagina. A) bladder B) uterus C) vulva D) ovary Answer: A Explanation: A) The bladder is protruding into the vagina in a cystocele. B) Cystocele does not involve a protruding uterus. C) Cystocele does not involve a protruding vulva. D) Cystocele does not involve a protruding ovary. Page Ref: 278 Learning Obj.: 13-6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary

142) In a rectocele, the rectum is protruding into the ________. A) uterus B) vagina C) ovary D) vulva Answer: B Explanation: A) Rectocele does not involve the rectum protruding into the uterus. B) Rectocele involves the rectum protruding into the vagina. C) Rectocele does not involve the rectum protruding into the ovary. D) Rectocele does not involve the rectum protruding into the vulva. Page Ref: 282 Learning Obj.: 13-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 143) In a D&C, the ________ is enlarged and the ________ is scraped. A) cervix; endometrium B) vulva; cervix C) endometrium; cervix D) uterus; endometrium Answer: A Explanation: A) In D&C, the cervix is enlarged and the endometrium is scraped. B) D&C does not enlarge the vulva or scrape the cervix. C) D&C does not enlarge the endometrium or scrape the cervix. D) D&C does not enlarge the uterus. Page Ref: 278 Learning Obj.: 13-7 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Abbreviations 144) An ectopic pregnancy does not occur in the ________. A) uterine tube B) uterus C) ovary D) fallopian tube Answer: B Explanation: A) The uterine tube can be the site of an ectopic pregnancy. B) An ectopic pregnancy does not occur in the uterus. C) The ovary can be the site of an ectopic pregnancy. D) The fallopian, or uterine, tube can be the site of an ectopic pregnancy. Page Ref: 279 Learning Obj.: 13-6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary

145) In endometriosis, ________ appear(s) throughout the abdominal or pelvic cavity. A) tumors B) ovarian tissue C) endometrial tissue D) cysts Answer: C Explanation: A) Endometriosis does not involve the appearance of tumors. B) Endometriosis does not involve the appearance of ovarian tissue. C) Endometriosis involves the appearance of endometrial tissue. D) Endometriosis does not involve the appearance of cysts. Page Ref: 279 Learning Obj.: 13-6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary 146) Which of the following statements regarding fetal monitoring is NOT true? A) Equipment is placed on the mother's abdomen or the fetus's scalp. B) The fetal heart rate is assessed. C) A drop in fetal heart rate indicates fetal distress. D) Fetal heart tone ranges from 120 to 160 beats per minute. Answer: D Explanation: A) Equipment is placed on the mother's abdomen or the fetus's scalp. B) The fetal heart rate is assessed. C) A drop in fetal heart rate indicates fetal distress. D) The fetal heart rate, not tone, ranges from 120 to 160 beats per minute. Page Ref: 279 Learning Obj.: 13-6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary 147) An abnormal passageway between two structures is called a(n) ________. A) fistula B) atresia C) biopsy D) syndrome Answer: A Explanation: A) A fistula is an abnormal passageway between two structures. B) Atresia is the lack of a normal body opening. C) A biopsy is a specimen taken to review. D) A syndrome is an abnormal condition. Page Ref: 280 Learning Obj.: 13-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary

148) Which of the following statements regarding in vitro fertilization is NOT true? A) The fertilized eggs return to the uterine tube. B) It is an infertility treatment. C) Ova are externally fertilized. D) The resulting child is commonly called a test tube baby. Answer: A Explanation: A) The fertilized eggs return to the uterus, not the uterine tube. B) In vitro fertilization is an infertility treatment. C) Ova are externally fertilized. D) The resulting child is commonly called a test tube baby. Page Ref: 280 Learning Obj.: 13-6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary 149) Which of the following statements regarding the Pap smear is FALSE? A) It is a test for early detection of cervical cancer. B) Cells are scraped off the cervix. C) Cells are examined under a microscope. D) A Pap smear is a treatment for infertility. Answer: D Explanation: A) A Pap smear is a test for early detection of cervical cancer. B) Cells are scraped off the cervix with a Pap smear. C) Cells are examined under a microscope with a Pap smear. D) A Pap smear is not a treatment for infertility. Page Ref: 281 Learning Obj.: 13-6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary 150) Scarring from what condition may interfere with fertility? A) Premenstrual syndrome B) Rectocele C) Pelvic inflammatory disease D) Chorionic villus sampling Answer: C Explanation: A) Premenstrual syndrome does not cause scarring. B) Rectocele does not cause scarring. C) Pelvic inflammatory disease can result in scarring that may interfere with fertility. D) Chorionic villus sampling does not cause scarring. Page Ref: 281 Learning Obj.: 13-6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary

151) In a prolapsed uterus, the ________ may protrude through the vaginal opening. A) vulva B) cervix C) ovary D) uterine tube Answer: B Explanation: A) The vulva does not protrude through the vaginal opening in a prolapsed uterus. B) The cervix can protrude through the vaginal opening in a prolapsed uterus. C) The ovary does not protrude through the vaginal opening in a prolapsed uterus. D) The uterine tube does not protrude through the vaginal opening in a prolapsed uterus. Page Ref: 282 Learning Obj.: 13-6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary 152) Which of the following conditions is NOT related to newborns? A) Tubal ligation B) Abruptio placentae C) Cesarean section D) Placenta previa Answer: A Explanation: A) Tubal ligation is a surgical tying off of the uterine tubes to prevent pregnancy. B) Abruptio placentae is related to newborns. C) Cesarean section is related to newborns. D) Placenta previa is related to newborns. Page Ref: 282 Learning Obj.: 13-6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary 153) Which of the following is typically an acute bacterial infection? A) Hysteratresia B) Pelvic inflammatory disease C) Vesicovaginal fistula D) Endometriosis Answer: B Explanation: A) Hysteratresia is not an acute bacterial infection. B) Pelvic inflammatory disease is typically an acute bacterial infection. C) Vesicovaginal fistula is not an acute bacterial infection. D) Endometriosis is not an acute bacterial infection. Page Ref: 281 Learning Obj.: 13-6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary

154) A premature infant is born prior to the completion of ________ weeks of gestation. A) 37 B) 25 C) 38 D) 40 Answer: A Explanation: A) A premature infant is born prior to the completion of 37 weeks of gestation. B) An infant may still be premature after 25 weeks of gestation. C) An infant born before 38 weeks of gestation may not be premature. D) An infant born before 40 weeks of gestation may not be premature. Page Ref: 282 Learning Obj.: 13-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 155) Which organ does NOT frequently develop cancerous tumors? A) Ovary B) Cervix C) Endometrium D) Uterine tube Answer: D Explanation: A) The ovary does develop cancer. B) The cervix does develop cancer. C) The endometrium does develop cancer. D) The uterine tube does not frequently develop cancerous tumors. Page Ref: 278, 279, 281 Learning Obj.: 13-6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary 156) Which of the following is a benign uterine growth? A) Fibroid B) Condyloma C) Genital warts D) Candidiasis Answer: A Explanation: A) A fibroid tumor is a benign uterine growth. B) A condyloma is not a benign uterine growth. C) Genital warts are not benign uterine growths. D) Candidiasis is not a benign uterine growth. Page Ref: 280 Learning Obj.: 13-6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary

157) A fallen uterus is called ________. A) anteflexed B) prolapsed C) stenotic D) sclerotic Answer: B Explanation: A) A fallen uterus is not called anteflexed. B) A fallen uterus is called a prolapsed uterus. C) A fallen uterus is not called stenotic. D) A fallen uterus is not called sclerotic. Page Ref: 282 Learning Obj.: 13-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 158) Uterine tissue found throughout the pelvic cavity is the hallmark of which condition? A) Pelvic inflammatory disease B) Fibroid C) Endometriosis D) Candidiasis Answer: C Explanation: A) Uterine tissue throughout the pelvic cavity is not the hallmark of pelvic inflammatory disease. B) Uterine tissue throughout the pelvic cavity is not the hallmark of a fibroid. C) Uterine tissue throughout the pelvic cavity is known as endometriosis. D) Uterine tissue throughout the pelvic cavity is not the hallmark of candidiasis. Page Ref: 279 Learning Obj.: 13-6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary 159) Which of the following conditions occurs when the placenta forms over the mouth of the cervix, blocking the birth canal? A) Placenta previa B) Abruptio placentae C) Choriocarcinoma D) Eclampsia Answer: A Explanation: A) Placenta previa occurs when the placenta forms over the mouth of the cervix, blocking the birth canal. B) Abruptio placentae is a tear in the placenta. C) Choriocarcinoma is cancer of the chorion. D) Eclampsia is high blood pressure in pregnancy. Page Ref: 281 Learning Obj.: 13-6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary 37 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

160) Which surgical procedure delivers a baby through an abdominal incision? A) Dilation and curettage B) Episiotomy C) Cesarean section D) Conization Answer: C Explanation: A) Dilation and curettage involves dilating the cervix and scraping uterine tissue. B) Episiotomy involves cutting the vulva to assist in delivery. C) A cesarean section delivers a baby through an abdominal incision. D) Conization involves removal of a core of cervical tissue for biopsy. Page Ref: 278 Learning Obj.: 13-6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary 161) Which type of abortion is done for a medical reason? A) Therapeutic abortion B) Medical abortion C) Spontaneous abortion D) Elective abortion Answer: A Explanation: A) A therapeutic abortion is done for a medical reason. B) A medical abortion is not the term for an abortion done for medical reasons. C) A spontaneous abortion is not done for medical reasons. D) An elective abortion is not done for medical reasons. Page Ref: 277 Learning Obj.: 13-6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary 162) Which of the following terms is misspelled? A) Oogenesis B) Atreesia C) Amenorrhea D) Cesarean Answer: B Explanation: A) Oogenesis is spelled correctly. B) Atreesia is spelled atresia. C) Amenorrhea is spelled correctly. D) Cesarean is spelled correctly. Page Ref: 277 Learning Obj.: 13-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Spelling

163) Which of the following terms is misspelled? A) Nulligravida B) Oophoritis C) Chorionic D) Indometrial Answer: D Explanation: A) Nulligravida is spelled correctly. B) Oophoritis is spelled correctly. C) Chorionic is spelled correctly. D) Indometrial is spelled endometrial. Page Ref: 275 Learning Obj.: 13-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Spelling 164) Which of the following terms is misspelled? A) Uterine B) Cystosele C) Curettage D) Colposcope Answer: B Explanation: A) Uterine is spelled correctly. B) Cystosele is spelled cystocele. C) Curettage is spelled correctly. D) Colposcope is spelled correctly. Page Ref: 278 Learning Obj.: 13-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Spelling 165) Which of the following terms is misspelled? A) Laparoscope B) Hysterography C) Fibrocystic D) Endometrosis Answer: D Explanation: A) Laparoscope is spelled correctly. B) Hysterography is spelled correctly. C) Fibrocystic is spelled correctly. D) Endometrosis is spelled endometriosis. Page Ref: 279 Learning Obj.: 13-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Spelling

166) Which of the following terms is misspelled? A) Mamogram B) Infertility C) Hemolytic D) Ovariosalpingitis Answer: A Explanation: A) Mamogram is spelled mammogram. B) Infertility is spelled correctly. C) Hemolytic is spelled correctly. D) Ovariosalpingitis is spelled correctly. Page Ref: 273 Learning Obj.: 13-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Spelling 167) Which organ is NOT removed during a TAH-BSO? A) Uterus B) Uterine tubes C) Vagina D) Ovaries Answer: C Explanation: A) The uterus is removed during a TAH-BSO. B) The uterine tubes are removed during a TAH-BSO. C) The vagina is not removed during a TAH-BSO. D) The ovaries are removed during a TAH-BSO. Page Ref: 283 Learning Obj.: 13-7 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Abbreviations 168) Which of the following abbreviations stands for the surgical delivery of an infant? A) FHR B) SB C) PMS D) CS Answer: D Explanation: A) FHR stands for "fetal heart rate." B) SB stands for "stillbirth." C) PMS stands for "premenstrual syndrome." D) CS stands for "cesarean section," the surgical delivery of an infant through an incision into the abdominal and uterine walls. Page Ref: 278 Learning Obj.: 13-7 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Abbreviations

169) Which of the following abbreviations is associated with cervical cancer? A) FHT B) CVS C) HPV D) PID Answer: C Explanation: A) FHT stands for "fetal heart tone." B) CVS stands for "chorionic villus sampling." C) HPV stands for "human papillomavirus," which can cause cervical cancer. D) PID stands for "pelvic inflammatory disease." Page Ref: 278 Learning Obj.: 13-7 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Abbreviations 170) Which of the following abbreviations is an infection that spreads to the pelvic cavity? A) IUD B) PMS C) GYN D) PID Answer: D Explanation: A) IUD stands for "intrauterine device." B) PMS stands for "premenstrual syndrome." C) GYN stands for "gynecology." D) PID stands for "pelvic inflammatory disease." Page Ref: 281 Learning Obj.: 13-7 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Abbreviations 171) Which of the following abbreviations stands for a medical specialty? A) LMP B) OB C) IVF D) PID Answer: B Explanation: A) LMP stands for "last menstrual period." B) OB stands for "obstetrics." C) IVF stands for "in vitro fertilization." D) PID stands for "pelvic inflammatory disease." Page Ref: 283 Learning Obj.: 13-7 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Abbreviations

172) Which of the following abbreviations stands for a surgical procedure? A) D&C B) GYN C) Pap D) HDN Answer: A Explanation: A) D&C stands for "dilation and curettage." B) GYN stands for "gynecology" C) Pap stands for "Papanicolaou test." D) HDN stands for "hemolytic disease of the newborn." Page Ref: 283 Learning Obj.: 13-7 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Abbreviations 173) Which of the following abbreviations stands for a birth control medication? A) FHR B) BSE C) OCPs D) PMS Answer: C Explanation: A) FHR stands for "fetal heart rate." B) BSE stands for "breast self-examination." C) OCPs stands for "oral contraceptive pills." D) PMS stands for "premenstrual syndrome." Page Ref: 283 Learning Obj.: 13-7 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Abbreviations 174) Which of the following abbreviations stands for a condition seen in newborns? A) PID B) BSE C) HDN D) HPV Answer: C Explanation: A) PID stands for "pelvic inflammatory disease." B) BSE stands for "breast self-examination." C) HDN stands for "hemolytic disease of the newborn." D) HPV stands for "human papillomavirus." Page Ref: 283 Learning Obj.: 13-7 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Abbreviations

175) Which of the following abbreviations stands for a diagnostic test? A) IUD B) OB C) Pap D) GYN Answer: C Explanation: A) IUD stands for "intrauterine device." B) OB stands for "obstetrics." C) Pap stands for "Papanicolaou test." D) GYN stands for "gynecology." Page Ref: 283 Learning Obj.: 13-7 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Abbreviations

Match each term on the left with the correct definition on the right. A) prevents pregnancy B) erythroblastosis fetalis C) birth canal D) develops outside the uterus E) outer fetal membrane F) egg cell G) benign breast cysts H) abnormal passageway I) usual site of fertilization J) benign uterine tumor K) removes core of cervical tissue for testing L) used to screen for genetic abnormalities M) external genitalia N) produces milk O) placenta develops over cervix P) intrauterine death of a viable-aged fetus Q) early separation of placenta from uterine wall R) lack of a normal body opening S) test for cervical cancer T) pertaining to a newborn U) suturing the vulva V) condition of never having been pregnant W) neck of uterus X) surgical delivery of infant Y) spontaneous abortion 176) vulva Page Ref: 271 Learning Obj.: 13-4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 177) ovum Page Ref: 275 Learning Obj.: 13-4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 178) uterine tube Page Ref: 276 Learning Obj.: 13-4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology

179) cervix Page Ref: 269 Learning Obj.: 13-4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 180) chorion Page Ref: 269 Learning Obj.: 13-4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 181) vagina Page Ref: 270 Learning Obj.: 13-4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 182) breast Page Ref: 273 Learning Obj.: 13-4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 183) HDN Page Ref: 280 Learning Obj.: 13-7 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Abbreviations 184) conization Page Ref: 278 Learning Obj.: 13-6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary 185) fibrocystic disease Page Ref: 280 Learning Obj.: 13-6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary 186) stillbirth Page Ref: 282 Learning Obj.: 13-6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary 45 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

187) miscarriage Page Ref: 277 Learning Obj.: 13-6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary 188) tubal ligation Page Ref: 282 Learning Obj.: 13-6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary 189) CVS Page Ref: 278 Learning Obj.: 13-7 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Abbreviations 190) Pap smear Page Ref: 281 Learning Obj.: 13-6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary 191) placenta previa Page Ref: 281 Learning Obj.: 13-6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary 192) fistula Page Ref: 280 Learning Obj.: 13-6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary 193) fibroid Page Ref: 280 Learning Obj.: 13-6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary 194) ectopic pregnancy Page Ref: 279 Learning Obj.: 13-6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary 46 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

195) abruptio placentae Page Ref: 277 Learning Obj.: 13-6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary 196) C-section Page Ref: 278 Learning Obj.: 13-7 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Abbreviations 197) atresia Page Ref: 277 Learning Obj.: 13-6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary 198) episiorrhaphy Page Ref: 271 Learning Obj.: 13-6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary 199) nulligravida Page Ref: 272 Learning Obj.: 13-6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary 200) neonatal Page Ref: 274 Learning Obj.: 13-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary Answers: 176) M 177) F 178) I 179) W 180) E 181) C 182) N 183) B 184) K 185) G 186) P 187) Y 188) A 189) L 190) S 191) O 192) H 193) J 194) D 195) Q 196) X 197) R 198) U 199) V 200) T

201) What is the definition of an abortion? List and describe the types of abortion. How is an abortion different from a stillbirth? Answer: ∙ Abortion is the discharge of an embryo from the uterus before about the 20th week of gestation - Spontaneous abortion (also called a miscarriage): it is unplanned - Elective abortion: planned, legal termination of a pregnancy - Therapeutic abortion: necessary for the health of the mother ∙ Stillbirth is the death of a fetus shortly before or at the time of delivery Page Ref: 277, 282 Learning Obj.: 13-6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary 202) Describe hemolytic disease of the newborn and how it can be treated. Answer: ∙ Develops in fetus when mother's blood type is Rh-negative and baby's blood is Rh-positive ∙ Antibodies in mother's blood enter the fetus's bloodstream through the placenta and destroy the fetus's red blood cells. ∙ Causes anemia, jaundice, and enlargement of the spleen ∙ Treated with intrauterine blood transfusion ∙ Also called erythroblastosis fetalis Page Ref: 280 Learning Obj.: 13-6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary

Medical Terminology: Get Connected!, 3e (Frucht) Chapter 14 Neurology: Nervous System All answers to questions asking for a combining form must be written in the combining form style, meaning word root/combining vowel. For example, the combining form meaning "heart" is cardi/o. All answers to questions asking for a suffix must be written in suffix form, meaning a hyphen before your answer. For example, the suffix meaning "cell" is -cyte. All answers to questions asking for a prefix must be written in prefix form, meaning a hyphen after your answer. For example, a prefix meaning "two" is bi-. Do NOT capitalize any of your answers or include a period at the end of your answer. The computer will NOT recognize your answer as correct if it is written in any other style. 1) The combining form that means head is ________. Answer: cephal/o; cephalo Page Ref: 295 Learning Obj.: 14-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 2) The combining form that means cerebrum is ________. Answer: cerebr/o; cerebro Page Ref: 295 Learning Obj.: 14-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 3) The combining form that means cerebellum is ________. Answer: cerebell/o; cerebello Page Ref: 295 Learning Obj.: 14-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 4) The combining form that means brain is ________. Answer: encephal/o; encephalo Page Ref: 295 Learning Obj.: 14-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 5) The combining form that means electricity is ________. Answer: electr/o; electro Page Ref: 295 Learning Obj.: 14-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 1 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

6) The combining form that means medulla oblongata is ________. Answer: medull/o; medullo Page Ref: 295 Learning Obj.: 14-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 7) The combining form that means meninges is ________. Answer: mening/o; meningo Page Ref: 295 Learning Obj.: 14-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 8) The combining form that means spinal cord is ________. Answer: myel/o; myelo Page Ref: 295 Learning Obj.: 14-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 9) A combining form that means nerve is ________. Answer: neur/o; neuro Page Ref: 295 Learning Obj.: 14-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 10) A combining form other than hem/o that means blood is ________. Answer: hemat/o; hemato Page Ref: 295 Learning Obj.: 14-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 11) A combining form other than aque/o that means water is ________. Answer: hydr/o; hydro Page Ref: 295 Learning Obj.: 14-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

12) The combining form that means pons is ________. Answer: pont/o; ponto Page Ref: 295 Learning Obj.: 14-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 13) A combining form that means hardening is ________. Answer: scler/o; sclero Page Ref: 295 Learning Obj.: 14-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 14) The combining form that means thalamus is ________. Answer: thalam/o; thalamo Page Ref: 295 Learning Obj.: 14-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 15) The combining form that means spine is ________. Answer: spin/o; spino Page Ref: 295 Learning Obj.: 14-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 16) A combining form other than vas/o that means blood vessel is ________. Answer: vascul/o; vasculo Page Ref: 295 Learning Obj.: 14-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 17) The suffix that means abnormal softening is ________. Answer: -malacia; malacia Page Ref: 295 Learning Obj.: 14-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

18) The suffix that means sensation (condition) is ________. Answer: -esthesia; esthesia Page Ref: 295 Learning Obj.: 14-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 19) The suffix that means disease is ________. Answer: -pathy; pathy Page Ref: 295 Learning Obj.: 14-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 20) The suffix that means speech is ________. Answer: -phasia; phasia Page Ref: 295 Learning Obj.: 14-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 21) The suffix that means paralysis is ________. Answer: -plegia; plegia Page Ref: 295 Learning Obj.: 14-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 22) A suffix other than -trophy that means development is ________. Answer: -trophic; trophic Page Ref: 295 Learning Obj.: 14-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 23) The suffix that means protrusion is ________. Answer: -cele; cele Page Ref: 295 Learning Obj.: 14-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

24) The suffix that means process of recording is ________. Answer: -graphy; graphy Page Ref: 295 Learning Obj.: 14-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 25) A prefix other than bi- that means two is ________. Answer: di-; di Page Ref: 296 Learning Obj.: 14-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 26) The prefix that means excessive is ________. Answer: hyper-; hyper Page Ref: 296 Learning Obj.: 14-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 27) A prefix other than a- that means without is ________. Answer: an-; an Page Ref: 296 Learning Obj.: 14-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 28) A prefix other than multi- that means many is ________. Answer: poly-; poly Page Ref: 296 Learning Obj.: 14-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 29) The prefix that means half is ________. Answer: hemi-; hemi Page Ref: 296 Learning Obj.: 14-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

30) A prefix other than uni- that means one is ________. Answer: mono-; mono Page Ref: 296 Learning Obj.: 14-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 31) A medical term that means pertaining to the cerebrum is ________. Answer: cerebral Page Ref: 298 Learning Obj.: 14-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building 32) A medical term that means pertaining to the cerebrum and spine is ________. Answer: cerebrospinal Page Ref: 298 Learning Obj.: 14-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building 33) A medical term that means pertaining to nerves is ________. Answer: neural Page Ref: 301 Learning Obj.: 14-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building 34) A medical term that means one who studies nerves is ________. Answer: neurologist Page Ref: 301 Learning Obj.: 14-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building 35) A medical term that means pertaining to the pons is ________. Answer: pontine Page Ref: 302 Learning Obj.: 14-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building

36) A medical term that means pertaining to the thalamus is ________. Answer: thalamic Page Ref: 303 Learning Obj.: 14-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building 37) A medical term that means pertaining to the meninges is ________. Answer: meningeal Page Ref: 300 Learning Obj.: 14-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building 38) A medical term that means (condition of being) without sensation is ________. Answer: anesthesia Page Ref: 299 Learning Obj.: 14-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building 39) A medical term that means lack of speech is ________. Answer: aphasia Page Ref: 302 Learning Obj.: 14-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building 40) A medical term that means brain pain is ________. Answer: encephalalgia Page Ref: 299 Learning Obj.: 14-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building 41) A medical term that means inflammation of the cerebellum is ________. Answer: cerebellitis Page Ref: 297 Learning Obj.: 14-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building

42) A medical term that means record of the brain's electricity is ________. Answer: electroencephalogram Page Ref: 299 Learning Obj.: 14-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building 43) A medical term that means nerve pain is ________. Answer: neuralgia Page Ref: 301 Learning Obj.: 14-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building 44) A medical term that means record of the spinal cord is ________. Answer: myelogram Page Ref: 300 Learning Obj.: 14-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building 45) A medical term that means paralysis of four (limbs) is ________. Answer: quadriplegia Page Ref: 302 Learning Obj.: 14-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building 46) A medical term that means difficult, abnormal speech is ________. Answer: dysphasia Page Ref: 302 Learning Obj.: 14-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building 47) A medical term that means inflammation of the brain is ________. Answer: encephalitis Page Ref: 299 Learning Obj.: 14-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building

48) A medical term that means spinal cord inflammation is ________. Answer: myelitis Page Ref: 300 Learning Obj.: 14-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building 49) A medical term that means condition (of having) excessive sensations is ________. Answer: hyperesthesia Page Ref: 299 Learning Obj.: 14-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building 50) A medical term that means inflammation of many nerves is ________. Answer: polyneuritis Page Ref: 301 Learning Obj.: 14-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building 51) The term hemiplegia refers to half the body being paralyzed. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 302 Learning Obj.: 14-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary 52) The term cerebrovascular means "pertaining to a stroke." Answer: FALSE Explanation: The term cerebrovascular means "pertaining to cerebral blood vessels." Page Ref: 298 Learning Obj.: 14-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building 53) The term encephalomalacia means "hardening of the brain." Answer: FALSE Explanation: The term encephalomalacia means "abnormal softening of the brain." Page Ref: 299 Learning Obj.: 14-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building

54) The term meningocele means "protrusion of the spinal cord and meninges." Answer: FALSE Explanation: The term myelomeningocele means "protrusion of the spinal cord and meninges." Page Ref: 307 Learning Obj.: 14-6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building 55) The pons is part of the brainstem. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 302 Learning Obj.: 14-4 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 56) The term myelogram means "a record of the spinal cord." Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 300 Learning Obj.: 14-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building 57) The term neurorrhaphy means "a ruptured nerve." Answer: FALSE Explanation: The term neurorrhaphy means "to suture a nerve." Page Ref: 301 Learning Obj.: 14-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building 58) The term aphasia means "inability to speak." Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 302 Learning Obj.: 14-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building 59) The term anesthesia means "the absence of pain." Answer: FALSE Explanation: The term anesthesia means "condition (of being) without sensation." Page Ref: 299 Learning Obj.: 14-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building

60) Nerves are part of the peripheral nervous system. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 295 Learning Obj.: 14-4 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 61) Sensory nerves carry messages from the central nervous system (CNS) to muscles and organs. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Sensory nerves carry messages to the central nervous system (CNS). Page Ref: 301 Learning Obj.: 14-2 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 62) Electrical impulses require a neurotransmitter to cross the synaptic cleft. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 295 Learning Obj.: 14-2 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 63) The largest part of the brain is the cerebrum. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 298 Learning Obj.: 14-4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 64) The central nervous system consists only of the brain. Answer: FALSE Explanation: The central nervous system consists of the brain and spinal cord. Page Ref: 295 Learning Obj.: 14-4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 65) All neurons are covered by myelin. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Not all neurons are covered by myelin. Page Ref: 295 Learning Obj.: 14-4 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology

66) The point at which one neuron meets another is called a synapse. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 295 Learning Obj.: 14-4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 67) The thalamus coordinates body movement and maintains balance. Answer: FALSE Explanation: The cerebellum coordinates body movement and maintains balance. Page Ref: 297 Learning Obj.: 14-2 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 68) The cerebrum is divided into the frontal, parietal, temporal, and occipital lobes. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 298 Learning Obj.: 14-4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 69) The cerebellum connects the rest of the brain to the spinal cord. Answer: FALSE Explanation: The medulla oblongata connects the rest of the brain to the spinal cord. Page Ref: 299 Learning Obj.: 14-4 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 70) The right side of the brain controls the left side of the body. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 299 Learning Obj.: 14-2 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 71) The outer layer of the meninges is the pia mater. Answer: FALSE Explanation: The inner layer of the meninges is the pia mater. Page Ref: 300 Learning Obj.: 14-4 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology

72) The thalamus relays incoming sensory information to the correct area of the cerebrum. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 303 Learning Obj.: 14-2 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 73) Alzheimer's disease is characterized by rigidity and a shuffling gait. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Parkinson's disease is characterized by rigidity and a shuffling gait. Page Ref: 307 Learning Obj.: 14-6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary 74) ALS is commonly called Lou Gehrig's disease. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 303 Learning Obj.: 14-7 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Abbreviations 75) Brain tumors are always malignant. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Brain tumors are not always malignant. Page Ref: 303 Learning Obj.: 14-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 76) An anticonvulsant medication is used to treat seizures. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 303 Learning Obj.: 14-6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary 77) A cerebral contusion means bruising of the brain. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 304 Learning Obj.: 14-6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary

78) A stroke is always caused by a ruptured cerebral blood vessel. Answer: FALSE Explanation: A stroke may be caused by a ruptured cerebral blood vessel, a floating blood clot, a stationary blood clot, or compression. Page Ref: 304 Learning Obj.: 14-6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary 79) Cerebral palsy may be caused by a lack of oxygen during or shortly after birth. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 304 Learning Obj.: 14-6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary 80) Dementia means having hallucinations. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Dementia is the progressive impairment of intellectual function. Page Ref: 305 Learning Obj.: 14-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 81) An EEG is also called a spinal tap. Answer: FALSE Explanation: A lumbar puncture is also called a spinal tap. Page Ref: 306 Learning Obj.: 14-6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary 82) A shunt draining CSF from the brain into the abdomen is a treatment for hydrocephalus. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 306 Learning Obj.: 14-7 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Abbreviations

83) A positron emission tomography scan uses radioactive oxygen to produce an image of the brain. Answer: FALSE Explanation: A positron emission tomography scan uses positive radionuclides to produce an image of the brain. Page Ref: 307 Learning Obj.: 14-6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary 84) Multiple sclerosis is an autoimmune disease. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 306 Learning Obj.: 14-6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary 85) A tonic-clonic seizure appears as the loss of awareness and absence of activity. Answer: FALSE Explanation: An absence seizure appears as the loss of awareness and absence of activity. Page Ref: 307 Learning Obj.: 14-6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary 86) Parkinson's disease is caused by the varicella zoster virus. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Shingles is caused by the varicella zoster virus. Page Ref: 307 Learning Obj.: 14-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 87) Spina bifida is a congenital defect of the spinal canal. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 307 Learning Obj.: 14-6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary 88) A floating blood clot is called a thrombosis. Answer: FALSE Explanation: A floating blood clot is called an embolus. Page Ref: 304 Learning Obj.: 14-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 15 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

89) An absence seizure is also called a petit mal seizure. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 307 Learning Obj.: 14-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 90) A coma is profound unconsciousness. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 305 Learning Obj.: 14-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 91) Syncope means "dizziness." Answer: FALSE Explanation: Syncope means "fainting." Page Ref: 308 Learning Obj.: 14-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 92) A CVA is a stroke. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 304 Learning Obj.: 14-7 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Abbreviations 93) The symptoms of a concussion are typically permanent. Answer: FALSE Explanation: The symptoms of a concussion are usually temporary. Page Ref: 305 Learning Obj.: 14-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 94) Epilepsy is a disturbance in the electrical activity of the brain. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 305 Learning Obj.: 14-6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary

95) Symptoms of a migraine include severe head pain, nausea, and sensitivity to light. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 306 Learning Obj.: 14-6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary 96) Myasthenia gravis is caused by damage to the myelin sheath around a nerve. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Multiple sclerosis is caused by damage to the myelin around neurons. Page Ref: 306 Learning Obj.: 14-6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary 97) A subdural hematoma is bleeding within the meninges after they are torn by trauma. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 308 Learning Obj.: 14-6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary 98) Shingles consists of painful blisters along the spinal cord. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Shingles consists of painful blisters along the path of a nerve. Page Ref: 307 Learning Obj.: 14-6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary 99) The abbreviation EEG stands for a type of diagnostic test. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 308 Learning Obj.: 14-7 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Abbreviations 100) The abbreviation CVA stands for a diagnostic test for a stroke. Answer: FALSE Explanation: The abbreviation CVA stands for the stroke itself ("cerebrovascular accident"), not a test for a stroke. Page Ref: 304 Learning Obj.: 14-7 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Abbreviations

101) Which of the following terms means "condition (of being) without sensation"? A) Hyperesthesia B) Anesthesia C) Aphasia D) Apnea Answer: B Explanation: A) Hyperesthesia means "condition (of having) excessive sensation." B) Anesthesia means "condition (of being) without sensation." C) Aphasia means "without speech." D) Apnea means "without breathing." Page Ref: 299 Learning Obj.: 14-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building 102) Which term means "surgical repair of a nerve"? A) Neuroplasty B) Neuropexy C) Neurorrhaphy D) Neuropathy Answer: A Explanation: A) Neuroplasty means "surgical repair of a nerve." B) Neuropexy means "surgical fixation of a nerve." C) Neurorrhaphy means "to suture a nerve." D) Neuropathy means "nerve disease." Page Ref: 301 Learning Obj.: 14-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building 103) Which term means "paralysis of one (limb)"? A) Diplegia B) Quadriplegia C) Monoplegia D) Hemiplegia Answer: C Explanation: A) Diplegia means "paralysis of two limbs." B) Quadriplegia means "paralysis of four limbs." C) Monoplegia means "paralysis of one (limb)." D) Hemiplegia means "paralysis of one half of the body." Page Ref: 302 Learning Obj.: 14-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building

104) Which term means "surgical removal of a nerve"? A) Neurology B) Neuroma C) Neurectomy D) Neuropathy Answer: C Explanation: A) Neurology means "study of nerves." B) Neuroma means "nerve tumor." C) Neurectomy means "surgical removal of a nerve." D) Neuropathy means "nerve disease." Page Ref: 301 Learning Obj.: 14-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building 105) Which term means "abnormal softening of the brain"? A) Encephalomalacia B) Encephalopathy C) Encephalosclerosis D) Encephalalgia Answer: A Explanation: A) Encephalomalacia means "abnormal softening of the brain." B) Encephalopathy means "brain disease." C) Encephalosclerosis means "hardening of the brain." D) Encephalalgia means "brain pain." Page Ref: 299 Learning Obj.: 14-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building 106) Which term means "brain pain"? A) Myelalgia B) Pontalgia C) Encephalalgia D) Cerebralgia Answer: C Explanation: A) Myelalgia means "pain in the spinal cord." B) Pontalgia means "pain in the pons." C) Encephalalgia means "brain pain." D) Cerebralgia means "pain in the cerebrum." Page Ref: 299 Learning Obj.: 14-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building

107) Which term refers to the region of the brain responsible for coordinating body movements? A) Cerebellar B) Thalamic C) Cerebral D) Pontine Answer: A Explanation: A) Cerebellar refers to the region of the brain responsible for coordinating body movements. B) Thalamic does not refer to the region of the brain responsible for coordinating body movements. C) Cerebral does not refer to the region of the brain responsible for coordinating body movements. D) Pontine does not refer to the region of the brain responsible for coordinating body movements. Page Ref: 297 Learning Obj.: 14-2 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 108) Which term means "without speech"? A) Hypophasia B) Dysphasia C) Bradyphasia D) Aphasia Answer: D Explanation: A) Hypophasia means "deficient speech." B) Dysphasia means "difficult speech." C) Bradyphasia means "slow speech." D) Aphasia means "without speech." Page Ref: 302 Learning Obj.: 14-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building

109) Which of the following terms refers to a tumor? A) Neuroma B) Meningocele C) Hyperesthesia D) Neuroplegia Answer: A Explanation: A) Neuroma refers to a tumor of the nerves. B) Meningocele means "protrusion of the meninges." C) Hyperesthesia means "excessive feeling." D) Neuroplegia means "paralysis of nerves." Page Ref: 301 Learning Obj.: 14-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building 110) Which term refers to the inflammation of the sac around the brain? A) Encephalitis B) Meningitis C) Cerebellitis D) Myelitis Answer: B Explanation: A) Encephalitis means "inflammation of the brain." B) Meningitis refers to the inflammation of the sac around the brain. C) Cerebellitis means "inflammation of the cerebellum." D) Myelitis means "inflammation of the spinal cord." Page Ref: 300 Learning Obj.: 14-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building 111) Which of the following terms means "record of the spinal cord"? A) Myelography B) Myelotomy C) Myelomalacia D) Myelogram Answer: D Explanation: A) Myelography means "process of recording the spinal cord." B) Myelotomy means "incision into the spinal cord." C) Myelomalacia means "abnormal softening of the spinal cord." D) Myelogram means "record of the spinal cord." Page Ref: 300 Learning Obj.: 14-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building

112) The central nervous system (CNS) consists of the brain and ________. A) nerves B) spinal cord C) myelin D) synapses Answer: B Explanation: A) The nerves are part of the peripheral nervous system. B) The spinal cord is part of the CNS. C) Myelin is an insulating substance that covers many neurons. D) Synapses are meeting places between neurons. Page Ref: 295 Learning Obj.: 14-4 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 113) Which of the following statements regarding the nervous system is NOT true? A) The nervous system coordinates all the activity of the body. B) The nervous system receives information from sensory receptors. C) The nervous system is divided into the central nervous system and the autonomic nervous system. D) The nervous system adjusts the activity of muscles and glands. Answer: C Explanation: A) The nervous system coordinates all the activity of the body. B) The nervous system receives information from sensory receptors. C) The nervous system is divided into the central nervous system and the peripheral, not autonomic, nervous system. D) The nervous system adjusts the activity of muscles and glands. Page Ref: 295 Learning Obj.: 14-2 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 114) Which of the following is NOT part of the brain? A) Cerebrum B) Thalamus C) Sensory receptor D) Brainstem Answer: C Explanation: A) The cerebrum is part of the brain. B) The thalamus is part of the brain. C) Sensory receptors are not part of the brain. D) The brainstem is part of the brain. Page Ref: 297 Learning Obj.: 14-4 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 22 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

115) Which of the following pairs is NOT matched correctly? A) Cerebrum—memory, problem solving, and language B) Medulla oblongata—connects the cerebellum to the rest of the brain C) Cerebellum—coordinates body movement and maintains balance D) Thalamus—relays incoming sensory information Answer: B Explanation: A) The cerebrum is responsible for memory, problem solving, and language. B) The medulla oblongata connects the rest of the brain to the spinal cord, not the cerebellum. C) The cerebellum coordinates body movement and maintains balance. D) The thalamus relays incoming sensory information. Page Ref: 299 Learning Obj.: 14-2 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 116) Which part of the brain is responsible for thoughts, judgment, memory, problem solving, and language? A) Pons B) Cerebrum C) Cerebellum D) Thalamus Answer: B Explanation: A) The pons is part of the brainstem. B) The cerebrum is responsible for thoughts, judgment, memory, problem solving, and language. C) The cerebellum coordinates body movement and maintains balance. D) The thalamus relays incoming sensory information. Page Ref: 298 Learning Obj.: 14-2 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 117) Which part of the brain serves as a center for relaying sensory information to the correct area of the cerebrum? A) Hypothalamus B) Cerebrum C) Pons D) Thalamus Answer: D Explanation: A) The hypothalamus is below the thalamus. B) The cerebrum is responsible for thoughts, judgment, memory, problem solving, and language. C) The pons is part of the brainstem. D) The thalamus serves as a center for relaying sensory information to the correct area of the cerebrum. Page Ref: 303 Learning Obj.: 14-2 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 23 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

118) Which part of the brain controls respiration, heart rate, temperature, and blood pressure? A) Medulla oblongata B) Cerebrum C) Cerebellum D) Thalamus Answer: A Explanation: A) The medulla oblongata controls respiration, heart rate, temperature, and blood pressure. B) The cerebrum is responsible for thoughts, judgment, memory, problem solving, and language. C) The cerebellum coordinates body movement and maintains balance. D) The thalamus relays incoming sensory information. Page Ref: 299 Learning Obj.: 14-2 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 119) Which part of the brain coordinates voluntary body movements and maintains balance? A) Pons B) Cerebrum C) Medulla oblongata D) Cerebellum Answer: D Explanation: A) The pons is part of the brainstem. B) The cerebrum is responsible for thoughts, judgment, memory, problem solving, and language. C) The medulla oblongata controls respiration, heart rate, temperature, and blood pressure. D) The cerebellum coordinates voluntary body movements and maintains balance. Page Ref: 297 Learning Obj.: 14-2 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 120) Which of the following pairs is mismatched? A) Dura mater—outer meninges layer B) Meninges—two-layered protective sac C) Pia mater—innermost layer of meninges D) Arachnoid layer—middle layer of meninges Answer: B Explanation: A) The dura mater is the outer meninges layer. B) The meninges are a three-layered, not two-layered, protective sac around the brain and spinal cord. C) The pia mater is the innermost layer of meninges. D) The arachnoid layer—middle layer of meninges. Page Ref: 300 Learning Obj.: 14-4 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 24 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

121) Which of the following is the point at which two neurons meet? A) Gyri B) Ventricles C) Synapse D) Sulci Answer: C Explanation: A) The gyri are not where two neurons meet. B) The ventricles are not where two neurons meet. C) A synapse is the point at which two neurons meet. D) The sulci are not where two neurons meet. Page Ref: 295 Learning Obj.: 14-2 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 122) Which of the following is the insulating material found around a neuron? A) Synapse B) Neurotransmitter C) Syncope D) Myelin Answer: D Explanation: A) A synapse is not the insulating material found around a neuron. B) A neurotransmitter is not the insulating material found around a neuron. C) A syncope is not the insulating material found around a neuron. D) Myelin is the insulating material found around many neurons. Page Ref: 295 Learning Obj.: 14-4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 123) Which of the following is NOT a lobe of the cerebrum? A) Cerebellum B) Frontal C) Occipital D) Parietal Answer: A Explanation: A) The cerebellum is not a lobe of the cerebrum. B) Frontal is a lobe of the cerebrum. C) Occipital is a lobe of the cerebrum. D) Parietal is a lobe of the cerebrum. Page Ref: 298 Learning Obj.: 14-4 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology

124) Which of the following conditions is also known as Lou Gehrig's disease? A) Parkinson's disease B) Alzheimer's disease C) Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis D) Cerebral palsy Answer: C Explanation: A) Parkinson's disease is not known as Lou Gehrig's disease. B) Alzheimer's disease is not known as Lou Gehrig's disease. C) Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis is also known as Lou Gehrig's disease. D) Cerebral palsy is not known as Lou Gehrig's disease. Page Ref: 303 Learning Obj.: 14-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 125) Which of the following conditions is the result of degeneration of motor neurons in the spinal cord? A) Spina bifida B) Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis C) Myasthenia gravis D) Cerebral palsy Answer: B Explanation: A) Spina bifida is a congenital defect in which two sides of the vertebra do not close or meet. B) Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis is the result of degeneration of motor neurons in the spinal cord. C) Myasthenia gravis is an autoimmune disease with severe muscular weakness and fatigue. D) Cerebral palsy is nonprogressive brain damage caused by a lack of oxygen during or shortly after birth or a defect in fetal development. Page Ref: 303 Learning Obj.: 14-6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary 126) Which of the following is a congenital birth defect? A) Spina bifida B) Shingles C) Alzheimer's disease D) Transient ischemic attack Answer: A Explanation: A) Spina bifida is a congenital birth defect. B) Shingles is not congenital. C) Alzheimer's disease is not congenital. D) Transient ischemic attack is not congenital. Page Ref: 307 Learning Obj.: 14-6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary 26 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

127) A cerebrospinal fluid analysis may be used to detect ________. A) Alzheimer's disease B) cerebral palsy C) spina bifida D) bleeding in the brain Answer: D Explanation: A) A cerebrospinal fluid analysis does not detect Alzheimer's disease. B) A cerebrospinal fluid analysis does not detect cerebral palsy. C) A cerebrospinal fluid analysis does not detect spina bifida. D) A cerebrospinal fluid analysis may be used to detect bleeding in the brain. Page Ref: 304 Learning Obj.: 14-6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary 128) Which of the following statements regarding a cerebrovascular accident is NOT true? A) It is the development of a brain infarct. B) It is a transient ischemic attack. C) It may be caused by a floating clot. D) Hemiplegia may result. Answer: B Explanation: A) A cerebrovascular accident is the development of a brain infarct. B) A cerebrovascular accident is not a transient ischemic attack, although a TIA can lead to a CVA. C) A cerebrovascular accident may be caused by a floating clot. D) Hemiplegia may result from a cerebrovascular accident. Page Ref: 308 Learning Obj.: 14-6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary 129) Which of the following results from the brain being shaken inside the skull? A) Paralysis B) Myasthenia gravis C) Migraine D) Concussion Answer: D Explanation: A) Paralysis is the temporary or permanent loss of muscle function. B) Myasthenia gravis is an autoimmune disease with severe muscular weakness and fatigue. C) A migraine is characterized by severe head pain and sensitivity to light. D) A concussion results from the brain being shaken inside the skull. Page Ref: 305 Learning Obj.: 14-6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary

130) Which of the following conditions is characterized by severe head pain and sensitivity to light? A) Paralysis B) Concussion C) Myasthenia gravis D) Migraine Answer: D Explanation: A) Paralysis is the temporary or permanent loss of muscle function. B) Concussion results from the brain being shaken inside the skull. C) Myasthenia gravis is an autoimmune disease with severe muscular weakness and fatigue. D) Migraine is characterized by severe head pain and sensitivity to light. Page Ref: 306 Learning Obj.: 14-6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary 131) Which of the following conditions is caused by the difficulty of electrical impulses passing across synapses? A) Concussion B) Migraine C) Myasthenia gravis D) Paralysis Answer: C Explanation: A) Concussion results from the brain being shaken inside the skull. B) Migraine is characterized by severe head pain and sensitivity to light. C) Myasthenia gravis is caused by the difficulty of electrical impulses passing across synapses. D) Paralysis is the temporary or permanent loss of muscle function. Page Ref: 306 Learning Obj.: 14-6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary 132) Which of the following conditions is the temporary or permanent loss of muscle function? A) Concussion B) Paralysis C) Migraine D) Myasthenia gravis Answer: B Explanation: A) Concussion results from the brain being shaken inside the skull. B) Paralysis is the temporary or permanent loss of muscle function. C) Migraine is characterized by severe head pain and sensitivity to light. D) Myasthenia gravis is an autoimmune disease with severe muscular weakness and fatigue. Page Ref: 307 Learning Obj.: 14-6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary 28 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

133) Which of the following conditions is due to the buildup of cerebrospinal fluid within the brain? A) Spina bifida B) Transient ischemic attack C) Hydrocephalus D) Seizure Answer: C Explanation: A) Spina bifida is a congenital defect in which two sides of the vertebra do not close or meet. B) Transient ischemic attack is a temporary reduction of blood supply to the brain. C) Hydrocephalus is due to the buildup of cerebrospinal fluid within the brain. D) Seizure is a sudden, uncontrollable onset of symptoms, such as in epileptic seizure. Page Ref: 306 Learning Obj.: 14-6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary 134) Which of the following terms refers to the uncontrollable onset of symptoms, such as in epilepsy? A) Seizure B) Hydrocephalus C) Spina bifida D) Transient ischemic attack Answer: A Explanation: A) Seizure refers to the uncontrollable onset of symptoms, such as in epilepsy. B) Hydrocephalus is due to the buildup of cerebrospinal fluid within the brain. C) Spina bifida is a congenital defect in which two sides of the vertebra do not close or meet. D) Transient ischemic attack is a temporary reduction of blood supply to the brain. Page Ref: 307 Learning Obj.: 14-6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary 135) Which of the following conditions is due to a defect in the walls of the spinal canal? A) Transient ischemic attack B) Seizure C) Spina bifida D) Hydrocephalus Answer: C Explanation: A) Transient ischemic attack is a temporary reduction of blood supply to the brain. B) Seizure is a sudden, uncontrollable onset of symptoms, such as in epileptic seizure. C) Spina bifida is due to a defect in the walls of the spinal canal. D) Hydrocephalus results from the buildup of cerebrospinal fluid within the brain. Page Ref: 307 Learning Obj.: 14-6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary 29 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

136) Which of the following conditions is the temporary reduction of blood supply to the brain? A) Transient ischemic attack B) Seizure C) Hydrocephalus D) Spina bifida Answer: A Explanation: A) Transient ischemic attack is the temporary reduction of blood supply to the brain. B) Seizure is a sudden, uncontrollable onset of symptoms, such as in epileptic seizure. C) Hydrocephalus is due to the buildup of cerebrospinal fluid within the brain. D) Spina bifida is due to a defect in the walls of the spinal canal. Page Ref: 308 Learning Obj.: 14-6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary 137) Which of the following statements regarding spinal cord injury is NOT true? A) The spinal cord is damaged by trauma. B) The spinal cord may be bruised. C) The spinal cord may be severed. D) Spinal cord injury causes subdural hematoma. Answer: D Explanation: A) The spinal cord is damaged by trauma. B) The spinal cord may be bruised. C) The spinal cord may be severed. D) A subdural hematoma results from trauma to the meninges. Page Ref: 307 Learning Obj.: 14-6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary 138) Which of the following statements regarding subdural hematoma is NOT true? A) A mass of blood forms underneath the dura mater. B) It may result in an SCI. C) It may exert fatal pressure on the brain. D) The hematoma must be drained by surgery. Answer: B Explanation: A) A mass of blood forms underneath the dura mater. B) A subdural hematoma will not result in an SCI. C) A subdural hematoma may exert fatal pressure on the brain. D) The hematoma must be drained by surgery. Page Ref: 308 Learning Obj.: 14-6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary

139) Which of the following statements regarding positron emission tomography is NOT true? A) It uses positive radionuclides. B) It is a laboratory blood test. C) It measures oxygen and glucose uptake. D) It measures the metabolic activity of the brain. Answer: B Explanation: A) Positron emission tomography uses positive radionuclides. B) Positron emission tomography is a diagnostic imaging technique. C) Positron emission tomography measures oxygen and glucose uptake. D) Positron emission tomography measures the metabolic activity of the brain. Page Ref: 307 Learning Obj.: 14-6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary 140) Which of the following terms describes a diagnostic test? A) Meningomyelocele B) Cerebrotomy C) Electroencephalography D) Neuroplasty Answer: C Explanation: A) Meningomyelocele is not a diagnostic test. B) Cerebrotomy is not a diagnostic test. C) Electroencephalography is a diagnostic test. D) Neuroplasty is not a diagnostic test. Page Ref: 308 Learning Obj.: 14-6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary 141) Which of the following terms does NOT refer to a part of the brainstem? A) Thalamic B) Pontine C) Medullary D) Midbrain Answer: A Explanation: A) Thalamic refers to the thalamus, not part of the brainstem. B) Pontine refers to the pons, part of the brainstem. C) Medullary refers to the medulla oblongata, part of the brainstem. D) The midbrain is part of the brainstem. Page Ref: 297 Learning Obj.: 14-4 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology

142) Seizures are characteristic of which condition? A) Migraine B) Parkinson's disease C) Epilepsy D) Shingles Answer: C Explanation: A) Migraine symptoms do not include seizures. B) Parkinson's disease symptoms do not include seizures. C) Seizures are characteristic of epilepsy. D) Shingles symptoms do not include seizures. Page Ref: 305 Learning Obj.: 14-6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary 143) Which of the following conditions could NOT be present at birth? A) Myasthenia gravis B) Hydrocephalus C) Spina bifida D) Cerebral palsy Answer: A Explanation: A) Myasthenia gravis is not congenital. B) Hydrocephalus could be present at birth. C) Spina bifida could be present at birth. D) Cerebral palsy could be present at birth. Page Ref: 306 Learning Obj.: 14-6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary 144) Which of the following conditions is an infarct from loss of blood supply to the brain? A) ALS B) SCI C) MS D) CVA Answer: D Explanation: A) ALS stands for "amyotrophic lateral sclerosis." B) SCI stands for "spinal cord injury." C) MS stands for "multiple sclerosis." D) CVA stands for "cerebrovascular accident" and is an infarct from loss of blood supply to the brain. Page Ref: 304 Learning Obj.: 14-7 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Abbreviations

145) Which of the following statements regarding a brain tumor is NOT true? A) It is an intracranial mass. B) It may be benign or malignant. C) It places pressure on normal brain tissue. D) It may be caused by a thrombosis. Answer: D Explanation: A) A brain tumor is an intracranial mass. B) A brain tumor may be benign or malignant. C) A brain tumor places pressure on normal brain tissue. D) A brain tumor is not caused by a thrombosis. Page Ref: 303 Learning Obj.: 14-6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary 146) Which type of seizure is also called a petit mal seizure? A) Absence seizure B) Focal seizure C) Tonic-clonic seizure D) Grand mal seizure Answer: A Explanation: A) An absence seizure is also called a petit mal seizure. B) A focal seizure is not a petit mal seizure. C) A tonic-clonic seizure is not a petit mal seizure. D) A grand mal seizure is not a petit mal seizure. Page Ref: 307 Learning Obj.: 14-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 147) Which type of seizure is also called a grand mal seizure? A) Absence seizure B) Focal seizure C) Tonic-clonic seizure D) Petit mal seizure Answer: C Explanation: A) An absence seizure is not a grand mal seizure. B) A focal seizure is not a grand mal seizure. C) A tonic-clonic seizure is also called a grand mal seizure. D) A petit mal seizure is not a grand mal seizure. Page Ref: 307 Learning Obj.: 14-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary

148) The abnormal mental state characterized by impaired intellectual function is called ________. A) dementia B) convulsions C) migraine D) ALS Answer: A Explanation: A) Dementia is the impairment of intellectual function that interferes with performing activities of daily living. B) Convulsions are involuntary movement. C) Migraine is a type of headache. D) ALS is muscular weakness and atrophy. Page Ref: 305 Learning Obj.: 14-6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary 149) The medical term for fainting is ________. A) vertigo B) syncope C) epilepsy D) dementia Answer: B Explanation: A) Vertigo is a sensation of spinning. B) Syncope is the medical term for fainting. C) Epilepsy is a recurrent disorder of the brain. D) Dementia is the impairment of intellectual function that interferes with daily living. Page Ref: 308 Learning Obj.: 14-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 150) Which of the following conditions can lead to a cerebrovascular accident? A) Coma B) Seizure C) Concussion D) Transient ischemic attack Answer: D Explanation: A) Coma is profound unconsciousness from injury or illness. B) Seizure is the sudden, uncontrollable onset of symptoms. C) Concussion is injury to the brain. D) Transient ischemic attack can lead to a cerebrovascular accident. Page Ref: 308 Learning Obj.: 14-6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary 34 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

151) A profound state of unconsciousness associated with an illness or injury is called ________. A) dementia B) a coma C) a convulsion D) a seizure Answer: B Explanation: A) Dementia is the progressive impairment of intellectual function. B) A coma is a profound state of unconsciousness associated with an illness or injury. C) A convulsion is involuntary movement. D) A seizure is the sudden, uncontrollable onset of symptoms. Page Ref: 305 Learning Obj.: 14-6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary 152) Which of the following pathological conditions may lead to a full-blown stroke? A) Cerebral palsy B) Transient ischemic attack C) Cerebral contusion D) Migraine Answer: B Explanation: A) Cerebral palsy does not lead to a full-blown stroke. B) A transient ischemic attack can lead to a cerebrovascular accident, or stroke. C) Cerebral contusion does not lead to a full-blown stroke. D) Migraine does not lead to a full-blown stroke. Page Ref: 308 Learning Obj.: 14-6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary 153) Which of the following pathological conditions occurs when there is an accumulation of cerebrospinal fluid in the ventricles of the brain? A) Syncope B) Cerebral palsy C) Hydrocephalus D) Cerebral contusion Answer: C Explanation: A) Syncope is another term for "fainting." B) Cerebral palsy is nonprogressive brain damage resulting from a defect in fetal development or oxygen deprivation during or shortly after birth. C) Hydrocephalus occurs when there is an accumulation of cerebrospinal fluid in the ventricles of the brain. D) Cerebral contusion is bruising of the brain from an impact to the skull. Page Ref: 306 Learning Obj.: 14-6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary 35 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

154) Which of the following conditions is a collection of blood under a layer of the meninges? A) Meningocele B) Subdural hematoma C) Meningioma D) Cerebral contusion Answer: B Explanation: A) Meningocele is a protrusion in the meninges. B) Subdural hematoma is a collection of blood under a layer of the meninges. C) Meningioma is a tumor of the meninges. D) Cerebral contusion is bruising of the brain from an impact to the skull. Page Ref: 308 Learning Obj.: 14-6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary 155) Which of the following conditions is characterized by progressive disorientation, speech and gait disturbances, and loss of memory? A) Alzheimer's disease B) Spina bifida C) Transient ischemic attack D) Parkinson's disease Answer: A Explanation: A) Alzheimer's disease is characterized by progressive disorientation, speech and gait disturbances, and loss of memory. B) Spina bifida is not characterized by progressive disorientation, speech and gait disturbances, and loss of memory. C) Transient ischemic attack is not characterized by progressive disorientation, speech and gait disturbances, and loss of memory. D) Parkinson's disease is not characterized by progressive disorientation, speech disturbances, and loss of memory, although it does involve gait disturbances. Page Ref: 303 Learning Obj.: 14-6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary

156) Which of the following conditions is characterized by fine tremors, muscle rigidity, and a shuffling gait? A) Alzheimer's disease B) Migraine C) Myasthenia gravis D) Parkinson's disease Answer: D Explanation: A) Alzheimer's disease is not characterized by fine tremors, muscle rigidity, and a shuffling gait. B) Migraine is not characterized by fine tremors, muscle rigidity, and a shuffling gait. C) Myasthenia gravis is not characterized by fine tremors, muscle rigidity, and a shuffling gait. D) Parkinson's disease is characterized by fine tremors, muscle rigidity, and a shuffling gait. Page Ref: 307 Learning Obj.: 14-6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary 157) What is the common name for a CVA? A) Stroke B) Lou Gehrig's disease C) Concussion D) Seizure Answer: A Explanation: A) Stroke is the common name for a CVA. B) Lou Gehrig's disease is not another name for CVA. C) Concussion is not another name for CVA. D) Seizure is not another name for CVA. Page Ref: 304 Learning Obj.: 14-7 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Abbreviations 158) Which of the following is NOT a potential cause of a cerebrovascular accident? A) Cerebral hemorrhage B) Embolus C) Compression D) Cerebral palsy Answer: D Explanation: A) Cerebral hemorrhage is a cause of a cerebrovascular accident. B) Embolus is a cause of a cerebrovascular accident. C) Compression is a cause of a cerebrovascular accident. D) Cerebral palsy is not a potential cause of a cerebrovascular accident. Page Ref: 304 Learning Obj.: 14-6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary 37 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

159) The protrusion of the spinal cord and meninges through an opening in the vertebral column is called ________. A) spina bifida B) a meningocele C) a myelomeningocele D) an encephalocele Answer: C Explanation: A) Spina bifida is when two sides of the vertebra do not meet or close. B) A meningocele is a protrusion of the meninges. C) A myelomeningocele is a protrusion of the spinal cord and meninges through an opening in the vertebral column. D) An encephalocele is a protrusion of the brain. Page Ref: 307 Learning Obj.: 14-6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary 160) Which of the following conditions results from a varicella zoster virus infection of a nerve? A) Dementia B) Multiple sclerosis C) Myasthenia gravis D) Shingles Answer: D Explanation: A) Dementia is not caused by varicella zoster. B) Multiple sclerosis is not caused by varicella zoster. C) Myasthenia gravis is not caused by varicella zoster. D) Shingles results from a varicella zoster virus infection of a nerve. Page Ref: 307 Learning Obj.: 14-6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary

161) Which of the following pathological conditions is due to the loss of the myelin insulation around nerves? A) Cerebral palsy B) Multiple sclerosis C) Myasthenia gravis D) Shingles Answer: B Explanation: A) Cerebral palsy is nonprogressive brain damage resulting from a defect in fetal development or trauma or oxygen deprivation during or shortly after birth. B) Multiple sclerosis is due to the loss of the myelin insulation around nerves. C) Myasthenia gravis is an autoimmune disease with severe muscular weakness and fatigue. D) Shingles is an eruption of painful blisters on the body along a nerve path. Page Ref: 306 Learning Obj.: 14-6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary 162) Which of the following diagnostic procedures uses positive radionuclides to reconstruct brain sections? A) Cerebral spinal fluid analysis B) Lumbar puncture C) Positron emission tomography D) Cerebral angiography Answer: C Explanation: A) Cerebral spinal fluid analysis is a laboratory examination of brain and spinal cord fluid. B) Lumbar puncture is a puncture with a needle into the lumbar vertebral area to withdraw fluid for examination. C) Positron emission tomography uses positive radionuclides to reconstruct brain sections. D) Cerebral angiography is the process of recording cerebral arteries. Page Ref: 307 Learning Obj.: 14-6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary

163) Which of the following diagnostic procedures is used to obtain cerebrospinal fluid for analysis? A) Nerve conduction velocity B) Lumbar puncture C) Positron emission tomography D) Cerebral angiography Answer: B Explanation: A) Nerve conduction velocity is used to test nerves. B) Lumbar puncture is used to obtain cerebrospinal fluid for analysis. C) Positron emission tomography is used to reconstruct brain sections. D) Cerebral angiography is used to record cerebral arteries. Page Ref: 306 Learning Obj.: 14-6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary 164) Which of the following procedures treats hydrocephalus? A) Cerebrospinal fluid shunt B) Positron emission tomography C) Lumbar puncture D) Anticonvulsant Answer: A Explanation: A) Cerebrospinal fluid shunt treats hydrocephalus. B) Positron emission tomography is not used to treat hydrocephalus. C) Lumbar puncture is not used to treat hydrocephalus. D) Anticonvulsant is not used to treat hydrocephalus. Page Ref: 306 Learning Obj.: 14-6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary 165) Which of the following terms is misspelled? A) Amyotrophic B) Migraine C) Meningal D) Encephalopathy Answer: C Explanation: A) Amyotrophic is spelled correctly. B) Migraine is spelled correctly. C) Meningal is spelled meningeal. D) Encephalopathy is spelled correctly. Page Ref: 300 Learning Obj.: 14-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Spelling

166) Which of the following terms is misspelled? A) Anticonvulsant B) Quadraplegia C) Dementia D) Myelography Answer: B Explanation: A) Anticonvulsant is spelled correctly. B) Quadraplegia is spelled quadriplegia. C) Dementia is spelled correctly. D) Myelography is spelled correctly. Page Ref: 302 Learning Obj.: 14-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Spelling 167) Which of the following terms is misspelled? A) Cerebrospinal B) Hydrocephalus C) Anesthesia D) Thalmic Answer: D Explanation: A) Cerebrospinal is spelled correctly. B) Hydrocephalus is spelled correctly. C) Anesthesia is spelled correctly. D) Thalmic is spelled thalamic. Page Ref: 303 Learning Obj.: 14-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Spelling 168) Which of the following terms is misspelled? A) Concussion B) Bifida C) Ischimic D) Pontine Answer: C Explanation: A) Concussion is spelled correctly. B) Bifida is spelled correctly. C) Ischimic is spelled ischemic. D) Pontine is spelled correctly. Page Ref: 308 Learning Obj.: 14-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Spelling

169) Which of the following terms is misspelled? A) Paralysis B) Myesthenia C) Seizure D) Syncope Answer: B Explanation: A) Paralysis is spelled correctly. B) Myesthenia is spelled myasthenia. C) Seizure is spelled correctly. D) Syncope is spelled correctly. Page Ref: 306 Learning Obj.: 14-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Spelling 170) Which of the following abbreviations represents a condition that occurs around the time of birth? A) CP B) HA C) LP D) CVD Answer: A Explanation: A) CP stands for "cerebral palsy." B) HA stands for "headache." C) LP stands for "lumbar puncture." D) CVD stands for "cerebrovascular disease." Page Ref: 304 Learning Obj.: 14-7 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Abbreviations 171) Which of the following abbreviations stands for a stroke? A) CP B) EEG C) CSF D) CVA Answer: D Explanation: A) CP stands for "cerebral palsy." B) EEG stands for "electroencephalogram, electroencephalography." C) CSF stands for "cerebrospinal fluid." D) CVA stands for "cerebrovascular accident." Page Ref: 304 Learning Obj.: 14-7 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Abbreviations

172) Which of the following abbreviations is a diagnostic test? A) CP B) EEG C) MS D) ANS Answer: B Explanation: A) CP stands for "cerebral palsy." B) EEG stands for "electroencephalogram, electroencephalography." C) MS stands for "multiple sclerosis." D) ANS stands for "autonomic nervous system." Page Ref: 308 Learning Obj.: 14-7 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Abbreviations 173) Which of the following abbreviations is a diagnostic imaging technique? A) CP B) LP C) PET D) ANS Answer: C Explanation: A) CP stands for "cerebral palsy." B) LP stands for "lumbar puncture." C) PET stands for "positron emission tomography." D) ANS stands for "autonomic nervous system." Page Ref: 307 Learning Obj.: 14-7 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Abbreviations 174) Which of the following abbreviations stands for a pathological condition in which there is damage to the myelin sheath around nerves? A) MS B) CVA C) TIA D) SCI Answer: A Explanation: A) MS stands for "multiple sclerosis." B) CVA stands for "cerebrovascular accident." C) TIA stands for "transient ischemic attack." D) SCI stands for "spinal cord injury." Page Ref: 306 Learning Obj.: 14-7 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Abbreviations

175) Which of the following abbreviations is a pathological condition? A) CP B) EEG C) PET D) ANS Answer: A Explanation: A) CP stands for "cerebral palsy." B) EEG stands for "electroencephalogram, electroencephalography." C) PET stands for "positron emission tomography." D) ANS stands for "autonomic nervous system." Page Ref: 304 Learning Obj.: 14-7 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Abbreviations

Match each term on the left with the correct definition on the right. A) grand mal seizure B) substance that insulates many neurons C) consists of brain and spinal cord D) profound unconsciousness or stupor E) connects brain to spinal cord F) contains pons and medulla oblongata G) taking an X-ray of the spinal cord H) loss of myelin sheath around neurons I) autoimmune disease with severe muscular weakness J) brain damage that occurs around time of birth K) a lobe of the cerebrum L) coordinates voluntary body movements M) to speak N) recording the electrical activity of the brain O) eruption of painful blisters along a nerve path P) a type of spina bifida Q) degeneration of motor neurons in the spinal cord R) brain inflammation S) fluid found circulating around and within the brain T) spinal tap U) a stroke V) accumulation of CSF in the ventricles of the brain W) result of uncontrolled neuron electrical activity X) bruising of the brain Y) impaired intellectual function 176) CNS Page Ref: 295 Learning Obj.: 14-7 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Abbreviations 177) epilepsy Page Ref: 305 Learning Obj.: 14-6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary 178) aphasia inability Page Ref: 302 Learning Obj.: 14-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary

179) myelin Page Ref: 295 Learning Obj.: 14-2 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 180) encephalitis Page Ref: 299 Learning Obj.: 14-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary 181) brainstem Page Ref: 297 Learning Obj.: 14-4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 182) cerebellum Page Ref: 297 Learning Obj.: 14-2 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 183) medulla oblongata Page Ref: 299 Learning Obj.: 14-4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 184) frontal Page Ref: 298 Learning Obj.: 14-4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 185) tonic-clonic Page Ref: 307 Learning Obj.: 14-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 186) coma Page Ref: 305 Learning Obj.: 14-6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary 46 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

187) dementia Page Ref: 305 Learning Obj.: 14-6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary 188) cerebral palsy Page Ref: 304 Learning Obj.: 14-6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary 189) meningocele Page Ref: 307 Learning Obj.: 14-6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary 190) hydrocephalus Page Ref: 306 Learning Obj.: 14-6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary 191) ALS Page Ref: 303 Learning Obj.: 14-7 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Abbreviations 192) multiple sclerosis Page Ref: 306 Learning Obj.: 14-6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary 193) shingles Page Ref: 307 Learning Obj.: 14-6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary 194) cerebral contusion Page Ref: 304 Learning Obj.: 14-6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary 47 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

195) myelography Page Ref: 300 Learning Obj.: 14-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary 196) EEG Page Ref: 308 Learning Obj.: 14-7 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Abbreviations 197) CSF Page Ref: 300 Learning Obj.: 14-7 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Abbreviations 198) lumbar puncture Page Ref: 306 Learning Obj.: 14-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 199) myasthenia gravis Page Ref: 306 Learning Obj.: 14-6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary 200) CVA Page Ref: 304 Learning Obj.: 14-7 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Abbreviations Answers: 176) C 177) W 178) M 179) B 180) R 181) F 182) L 183) E 184) K 185) A 186) D 187) Y 188) J 189) P 190) V 191) Q 192) H 193) O 194) X 195) G 196) N 197) S 198) T 199) I 200) U

201) Describe a cerebrovascular accident and the different causes for one. Answer: A cerebrovascular accident (or a stroke) occurs when the blood supply to the brain is cut off. An infarct or dead area develops. Causes: ∙ Hemorrhagic: ruptured blood vessel ∙ Embolus: a floating clot lodges in a cerebral vessel ∙ Thrombus: a stationary clot forms within a cerebral blood vessel ∙ Compression: a space-occupying lesion (like a tumor) pinches off an adjacent blood vessel Page Ref: 304 Learning Obj.: 14-6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary 202) List and briefly give the functions of the four sections of the brain. Answer: ∙ Cerebrum: largest part of the brain; receives sensory information, integrates all incoming messages with memories, selects responses, and sends motor commands; also responsible for memory, problem solving, and language ∙ Cerebellum: second largest part of the brain; works closely with cerebrum to coordinate body movement and maintain balance ∙ Thalamus: located just below the bulk of the cerebrum; relays incoming sensory information to correct area of the cerebrum ∙ Brainstem: consists of midbrain, medulla oblongata, and pons - Medulla oblongata: most inferior region of brain; connects the rest of the brain to the spinal cord; contains control centers for respiration, heart rate, temperature, and blood pressure - Pons: connects the cerebellum to the rest of the brain Page Ref: 297, 298-299, 302, 303 Learning Obj.: 14-2 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology

Medical Terminology: Get Connected!, 3e (Frucht) Chapter 15 Endocrinology: Endocrine System All answers to questions asking for a combining form must be written in the combining form style, meaning word root/combining vowel. For example, the combining form meaning "heart" is cardi/o. All answers to questions asking for a suffix must be written in suffix form, meaning a hyphen before your answer. For example, the suffix meaning "cell" is -cyte. All answers to questions asking for a prefix must be written in prefix form, meaning a hyphen after your answer. For example, a prefix meaning "two" is bi-. Do NOT capitalize any of your answers or include a period at the end of your answer. The computer will NOT recognize your answer as correct if it is written in any other style. 1) The combining form that means extremities is ________. Answer: acr/o; acro Page Ref: 321 Learning Obj.: 15-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 2) A combining form other than adrenal/o that means adrenal gland is ________. Answer: adren/o; adreno Page Ref: 321 Learning Obj.: 15-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 3) The combining form that means to secrete is ________. Answer: crin/o; crino Page Ref: 321 Learning Obj.: 15-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 4) A combining form other than glyc/o that means sugar is ________. Answer: glycos/o; glycoso Page Ref: 321 Learning Obj.: 15-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 5) The combining form that means gland is ________. Answer: aden/o; adeno Page Ref: 321 Learning Obj.: 15-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 1 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

6) A combining form other than ovari/o that means ovary is ________. Answer: oophor/o; oophoro Page Ref: 321 Learning Obj.: 15-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 7) A combining form other than orchid/o, orchi/o, or orch/o that means testis is ________. Answer: testicul/o; testiculo Page Ref: 321 Learning Obj.: 15-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 8) The combining form that means cancer is ________. Answer: carcin/o; carcino Page Ref: 321 Learning Obj.: 15-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 9) The combining form that means cell is ________. Answer: cyt/o; cyto Page Ref: 321 Learning Obj.: 15-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 10) A combining form that means eye is ________. Answer: ophthalm/o; ophthalmo Page Ref: 321 Learning Obj.: 15-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 11) A combining form that means pancreas is ________. Answer: pancreat/o; pancreato Page Ref: 321 Learning Obj.: 15-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

12) The combining form that means parathyroid gland is ________. Answer: parathyroid/o; parathyroido Page Ref: 321 Learning Obj.: 15-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 13) The combining form that means pineal gland is ________. Answer: pineal/o; pinealo Page Ref: 321 Learning Obj.: 15-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 14) The combining form that means pituitary gland is ________. Answer: pituitar/o; pituitaro Page Ref: 321 Learning Obj.: 15-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 15) The combining form that means thymus gland is ________. Answer: thym/o; thymo Page Ref: 321 Learning Obj.: 15-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 16) A combining form other than thyroid/o that means thyroid gland is ________. Answer: thyr/o; thyro Page Ref: 321 Learning Obj.: 15-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 17) The combining form that means poison is ________. Answer: toxic/o; toxico Page Ref: 321 Learning Obj.: 15-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

18) The suffix that means swelling is ________. Answer: -edema; edema Page Ref: 321 Learning Obj.: 15-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 19) The suffix that means thirst is ________. Answer: -dipsia; dipsia Page Ref: 321 Learning Obj.: 15-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 20) The suffix that means inflammation is ________. Answer: -itis; itis Page Ref: 321 Learning Obj.: 15-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 21) The suffix that means blood condition is ________. Answer: -emia; emia Page Ref: 321 Learning Obj.: 15-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 22) The suffix that means resembling is ________. Answer: -oid; oid Page Ref: 321 Learning Obj.: 15-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 23) The prefix that means within, inner is ________. Answer: endo-; endo Page Ref: 321 Learning Obj.: 15-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

24) The prefix that means excessive is ________. Answer: hyper-; hyper Page Ref: 321 Learning Obj.: 15-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 25) A prefix other than multi- that means many is ________. Answer: poly-; poly Page Ref: 321 Learning Obj.: 15-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 26) The prefix that means below, insufficient is ________. Answer: hypo-; hypo Page Ref: 321 Learning Obj.: 15-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 27) A medical term that means pertaining to the testis is ________. Answer: testicular Page Ref: 327 Learning Obj.: 15-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building 28) A medical term that means pertaining to the ovary is ________. Answer: ovarian Page Ref: 325 Learning Obj.: 15-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building 29) A medical term that means state of excessive thyroid gland (secretion) is ________. Answer: hyperthyroidism Page Ref: 329 Learning Obj.: 15-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building

30) A medical term that means pertaining to the adrenal gland is ________. Answer: adrenal Page Ref: 323 Learning Obj.: 15-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building 31) A medical term that means pertaining to the parathyroid gland is ________. Answer: parathyroidal Page Ref: 326 Learning Obj.: 15-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building 32) A medical term that means pertaining to the pancreas is ________. Answer: pancreatic Page Ref: 326 Learning Obj.: 15-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building 33) A medical term that means pertaining to the thymus gland is ________. Answer: thymic Page Ref: 328 Learning Obj.: 15-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building 34) A medical term that means pertaining to the thyroid gland is ________. Answer: thyroidal Page Ref: 329 Learning Obj.: 15-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building 35) A medical term that means many (too much) thirst is ________. Answer: polydipsia Page Ref: 327 Learning Obj.: 15-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building

36) A medical term that means many (too much) urine condition is ________. Answer: polyuria Page Ref: 327 Learning Obj.: 15-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building 37) A medical term that means condition of sugar in the urine is ________. Answer: glycosuria Page Ref: 324 Learning Obj.: 15-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building 38) A medical term that means surgical removal of the adrenal gland is ________. Answer: adrenalectomy Page Ref: 323 Learning Obj.: 15-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building 39) A medical term that means enlarged adrenal gland is ________. Answer: adrenomegaly Page Ref: 323 Learning Obj.: 15-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building 40) A medical term that means one who studies (the glands that) secrete within is ________. Answer: endocrinologist Page Ref: 323 Learning Obj.: 15-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building 41) A medical term that means state of excessive parathyroid gland (secretion) is ________. Answer: hyperparathyroidism Page Ref: 326 Learning Obj.: 15-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building

42) A medical term that means state of insufficient pituitary gland (secretion) is ________. Answer: hypopituitarism Page Ref: 327 Learning Obj.: 15-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building 43) A medical term that means surgical removal of the thymus gland is ________. Answer: thymectomy Page Ref: 328 Learning Obj.: 15-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building 44) A medical term that means disease of (the glands that) secrete within is ________. Answer: endocrinopathy Page Ref: 323 Learning Obj.: 15-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building 45) A medical term that means surgical removal of the parathyroid gland is ________. Answer: parathyroidectomy Page Ref: 326 Learning Obj.: 15-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building 46) A medical term that means thymus inflammation is ________. Answer: thymitis Page Ref: 328 Learning Obj.: 15-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building 47) A medical term that means enlarged thyroid gland is ________. Answer: thyromegaly Page Ref: 328 Learning Obj.: 15-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building

48) A medical term that means surgical removal of the thyroid gland is ________. Answer: thyroidectomy Page Ref: 329 Learning Obj.: 15-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building 49) A medical term that means study of (the glands that) secrete within is ________. Answer: endocrinology Page Ref: 323 Learning Obj.: 15-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building 50) A medical term that means adrenal gland disease is ________. Answer: adrenalopathy Page Ref: 323 Learning Obj.: 15-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building 51) The term pancreatitis is spelled correctly. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 326 Learning Obj.: 15-5 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Spelling 52) The term hypopituitarinism is spelled correctly. Answer: FALSE Explanation: The correct spelling is hypopituitarism. Page Ref: 327 Learning Obj.: 15-5 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Spelling 53) The term polydipsia is spelled correctly. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 327 Learning Obj.: 15-5 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Spelling

54) The term adrenallectomy is spelled correctly. Answer: FALSE Explanation: The correct spelling is adrenalectomy. Page Ref: 323 Learning Obj.: 15-5 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Spelling 55) The endocrine system glands are instrumental in maintaining homeostasis. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 321 Learning Obj.: 15-2 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 56) Endocrine glands secrete hormones directly into the bloodstream. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 321 Learning Obj.: 15-2 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 57) The adrenal glands are divided into an inner cortex and outer medulla. Answer: FALSE Explanation: The adrenal glands are divided into an inner medulla and outer cortex. Page Ref: 323 Learning Obj.: 15-4 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 58) Epinephrine is one of the adrenal cortex hormones. Answer: FALSE Explanation: The adrenal medulla secretes epinephrine. Page Ref: 323 Learning Obj.: 15-2 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 59) The testes release sperm for reproduction but they do not secrete hormones. Answer: FALSE Explanation: The testes release sperm for reproduction and secrete the male sex hormone, testosterone. Page Ref: 325 Learning Obj.: 15-2 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 10 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

60) The ovary releases ova and female sex hormones to regulate the menstrual cycle. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 324 Learning Obj.: 15-2 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 61) Hormones are the chemical messengers secreted by endocrine glands. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 321 Learning Obj.: 15-2 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 62) Melatonin stimulates melanocytes to produce more melanin. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Melatonin regulates the circadian rhythm. Page Ref: 326 Learning Obj.: 15-2 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 63) Antidiuretic hormone regulates the volume of water in the body. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 327 Learning Obj.: 15-2 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 64) Insulin raises the blood sugar level, and glucagon lowers the blood sugar level. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Insulin lowers blood sugar levels, and glucagon raises blood sugar levels. Page Ref: 325 Learning Obj.: 15-2 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 65) The circadian rhythm is the body's 24-hour clock. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 326 Learning Obj.: 15-2 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology

66) The parathyroid hormone is important for regulating blood levels of sodium. Answer: FALSE Explanation: The parathyroid hormone is important for regulating blood levels of calcium. Page Ref: 326 Learning Obj.: 15-2 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 67) The pituitary gland is sometimes referred to as the master gland. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 327 Learning Obj.: 15-4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 68) Prolactin stimulates the body to grow larger. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Prolactin stimulates the breasts to produce milk. Page Ref: 327 Learning Obj.: 15-2 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 69) Thymosin is important for the development of the immune system. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 328 Learning Obj.: 15-2 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 70) Polyuria means that the body is producing too much urine. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 327 Learning Obj.: 15-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building 71) Calcitonin is secreted by the parathyroid gland. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Calcitonin is secreted by the thyroid gland. Page Ref: 328 Learning Obj.: 15-2 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology

72) The thyroid hormones regulate the body's metabolic rate. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 328 Learning Obj.: 15-2 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 73) Excessive hormone production is called hypersecretion. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 321 Learning Obj.: 15-6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary 74) Corticosteroids are secreted by the thyroid gland. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Corticosteroids are secreted by the adrenal cortex. Page Ref: 330 Learning Obj.: 15-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 75) Adrenal feminization is the result of increased estrogen secretion by the adrenal cortex in a male. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 329 Learning Obj.: 15-6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary 76) A blood serum test measures levels of hormones in the bloodstream. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 329 Learning Obj.: 15-6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary 77) Cushing's syndrome results from hypersecretion of the adrenal cortex. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 330 Learning Obj.: 15-6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary

78) Polyuria and polydipsia are symptoms of diabetes insipidus. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 330 Learning Obj.: 15-6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary 79) Hyperglycemia and glycosuria are symptoms of diabetes mellitus. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 330 Learning Obj.: 15-6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary 80) Exophthalmos describes sunken-in eyeballs. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Exophthalmos describes bulging eyeballs. Page Ref: 330 Learning Obj.: 15-6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary 81) A goiter is an enlargement of the thymus gland. Answer: FALSE Explanation: A goiter is an enlargement of the thyroid gland. Page Ref: 331 Learning Obj.: 15-6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary 82) Myxedema results from thyroid hormone hyposecretion in an adult. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 331 Learning Obj.: 15-6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary 83) Type II diabetes mellitus typically develops early in life. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Type I diabetes mellitus typically develops early in life. Page Ref: 331 Learning Obj.: 15-6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary

84) A glucose tolerance test is often used for the initial diagnosis of diabetes mellitus. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 330 Learning Obj.: 15-6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary 85) Adrenal virilism occurs when the adrenal cortex of a man produces too much androgen. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Adrenal virilism occurs when the adrenal cortex of a woman produces too much androgen. Page Ref: 329 Learning Obj.: 15-6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary 86) Pheochromocytoma is usually a cancerous tumor of the adrenal medulla. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Pheochromocytoma is usually a benign tumor of the adrenal medulla. Page Ref: 332 Learning Obj.: 15-6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary 87) Type I diabetes mellitus is also called noninsulin-dependent diabetes mellitus. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Type I diabetes mellitus is also called insulin-dependent diabetes mellitus. Page Ref: 331 Learning Obj.: 15-6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary 88) Tetany is nerve irritability and painful muscle cramps resulting from too much calcium in the bloodstream. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Tetany is nerve irritability and painful muscle cramps resulting from too little calcium in the bloodstream. Page Ref: 332 Learning Obj.: 15-6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary

89) Acromegaly is a condition that affects children, causing enlargement of the bones of the head and extremities. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Acromegaly is a condition that affects adults, causing enlargement of the bones of the head and extremities. Page Ref: 329 Learning Obj.: 15-6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary 90) Diabetes insipidus results when not enough insulin is secreted to control blood sugar levels. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Diabetes insipidus is caused by insufficient antidiuretic hormone secreted by the posterior lobe of the pituitary gland. Page Ref: 330 Learning Obj.: 15-6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary 91) Congenital hypothyroidism is a lack of thyroid hormones that results in poor physical and mental development. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 329 Learning Obj.: 15-6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary 92) Hashimoto's thyroiditis is a chronic autoimmune condition. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 331 Learning Obj.: 15-6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary 93) Thyrotoxicosis results from a marked underproduction of thyroid hormones. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Thyrotoxicosis results from extreme hypersecretion of thyroid hormones. Page Ref: 332 Learning Obj.: 15-6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary

94) A fasting blood sugar is a blood test that measures the amount of sugar in the bloodstream after a 12-hour fast. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 330 Learning Obj.: 15-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 95) A radioimmunoassay test is used to measure the levels of radioactive substances in the bloodstream. Answer: FALSE Explanation: A radioimmunoassay test is used to measure the levels of various hormones in the plasma of blood. Page Ref: 332 Learning Obj.: 15-6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary 96) A thyroid scan uses ultrasound to visualize the thyroid gland. Answer: FALSE Explanation: A thyroid scan uses radioactive iodine to visualize the thyroid gland. Page Ref: 332 Learning Obj.: 15-6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary 97) FBS is an abbreviation for a laboratory test. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 330 Learning Obj.: 15-7 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Abbreviations 98) NPH is an abbreviation for an X-ray image of the pituitary gland. Answer: FALSE Explanation: NPH is an abbreviation for a type of insulin. Page Ref: 332 Learning Obj.: 15-7 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Abbreviations 99) FSH is the abbreviation for one of the pituitary gland hormones. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 327 Learning Obj.: 15-7 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Abbreviations 17 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

100) TSH is the abbreviation for one of the hormones produced by the thyroid gland. Answer: FALSE Explanation: TSH is the abbreviation for a hormone that stimulates the thyroid gland, not one of the thyroid gland's hormones. Page Ref: 327 Learning Obj.: 15-7 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Abbreviations 101) Which of the following terms means "condition of excessive sugar in the blood"? A) Hypersugemia B) Glycuria C) Hypoglycemia D) Hyperglycemia Answer: D Explanation: A) Sug is not a medical word part. B) Glycosuria means "condition of sugar in urine." C) Hypoglycemia means "condition of insufficient sugar in the blood." D) Hyperglycemia means "condition of excessive sugar in the blood." Page Ref: 324 Learning Obj.: 15-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building 102) Which of the following terms means "enlarged adrenal gland"? A) Adrenalopathy B) Adrenomegaly C) Adrenalectomy D) Adrenalitis Answer: B Explanation: A) Adrenalopathy means "disease of the adrenal gland." B) Adrenomegaly means "enlarged adrenal gland." C) Adrenalectomy means "excision of the adrenal gland." D) Adrenalitis means "inflammation of the adrenal gland." Page Ref: 323 Learning Obj.: 15-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building

103) Which of the following terms is a surgical procedure? A) Adenomalacia B) Ovariorrhexis C) Parathyroidectomy D) Pancreatitis Answer: C Explanation: A) Adenomalacia is not a surgical procedure. B) Ovariorrhexis is not a surgical procedure. C) Parathyroidectomy is a surgical procedure, the surgical removal of the parathyroid gland. D) Pancreatitis is not a surgical procedure. Page Ref: 326 Learning Obj.: 15-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building 104) Which of the following terms is another word for a type of tumor? A) Ovariocentesis B) Pancreatitis C) Hyperpituitarism D) Thymoma Answer: D Explanation: A) Ovariocentesis is not a type of tumor. B) Pancreatitis is not a type of tumor. C) Hyperpituitarism is not a type of tumor. D) Thymoma is a tumor of the thymus gland. Page Ref: 328 Learning Obj.: 15-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building 105) Which of the following terms is a blood condition? A) Glycosuria B) Polydipsia C) Polyuria D) Hypoglycemia Answer: D Explanation: A) Glycosuria means "condition of sugar in the urine." B) Polydipsia means "many (too much) thirst." C) Polyuria means "many (too much) urine." D) Hypoglycemia is a condition of insufficient blood sugar. Page Ref: 324 Learning Obj.: 15-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building

106) Which of the following terms means "excessive secretion of the parathyroid gland"? A) Hyperthyroidism B) Parathyroidectomy C) Hypothyroidism D) Hyperparathyroidism Answer: D Explanation: A) Hyperthyroidism means "state of excessive thyroid gland (secretion)." B) Parathyroidectomy means "surgical removal of the parathyroid gland." C) Hypothyroidism means "state of insufficient thyroid gland (secretion)." D) Hyperparathyroidism means "state of excessive parathyroid gland (secretion)." Page Ref: 326 Learning Obj.: 15-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building 107) Which of the following terms means "resembling a gland"? A) Adenoid B) Adrenalopathy C) Adrenal D) Adenocyte Answer: A Explanation: A) Adenoid means "resembling a gland." B) Adrenalopathy means "disease of the adrenal gland." C) Adrenal means "pertaining to the adrenal gland." D) Adenocyte means "gland cell." Page Ref: 322 Learning Obj.: 15-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building 108) Which of the following combining forms does NOT refer to an endocrine gland? A) Ovari/o B) Pituitar/o C) Acr/o D) Thyr/o Answer: C Explanation: A) Ovari/o does refer to a gland. B) Pituitar/o does refer to a gland. C) Acr/o refers to the extremities. D) Thyr/o does refer to a gland. Page Ref: 321 Learning Obj.: 15-3 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building

109) Which of the following terms means "inflammation of the thyroid gland"? A) Thymitis B) Adenitis C) Thyroiditis D) Pancreatitis Answer: C Explanation: A) Thymitis means "inflammation of the thymus gland." B) Adenitis means "inflammation of a gland." C) Thyroiditis means "inflammation of the thyroid gland." D) Pancreatitis means "inflammation of the pancreas." Page Ref: 329 Learning Obj.: 15-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building 110) Which of the following terms means "one who studies (the glands that) secrete within"? A) Endocrinologist B) Endocrinoma C) Endocrinopathy D) Endocrinology Answer: A Explanation: A) Endocrinologist means "one who studies (the glands that) secrete within." B) Endocrinoma means "endocrine tumor." C) Endocrinopathy means "endocrine disease." D) Endocrinology means "study of the endocrine system." Page Ref: 323 Learning Obj.: 15-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building 111) Which of the following statements regarding endocrine glands is NOT true? A) The endocrine system is instrumental in maintaining homeostasis. B) The endocrine system is a collection of glands. C) Endocrine glands secrete hormones into their target organs. D) Hormones are chemicals that act on their target organs. Answer: C Explanation: A) The endocrine system is instrumental in maintaining homeostasis. B) The endocrine system is a collection of glands. C) Endocrine glands secrete hormones into the bloodstream, not their target organs. D) Hormones are chemicals that act on their target organs. Page Ref: 321 Learning Obj.: 15-2 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology

112) Which of the following is NOT an endocrine gland? A) Lymph gland B) Pituitary gland C) Thyroid gland D) Pineal gland Answer: A Explanation: A) A lymph gland is not an endocrine gland. B) The pituitary gland is an endocrine gland. C) The thyroid gland is an endocrine gland. D) The pineal gland is an endocrine gland. Page Ref: 321 Learning Obj.: 15-4 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 113) The adrenal gland is divided into ________. A) a medulla and a cortex B) anterior and posterior sections C) inferior and superior sections D) left and right lobes Answer: A Explanation: A) The adrenal gland is divided into a medulla and a cortex. B) The adrenal gland is not divided into anterior and posterior sections. C) The adrenal gland is not divided into inferior and superior sections. D) The adrenal gland is not divided into left and right lobes. Page Ref: 323 Learning Obj.: 15-4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 114) Which of the following is NOT one of the hormones secreted by the adrenal cortex? A) Aldosterone B) Epinephrine C) Cortisol D) Estrogen Answer: B Explanation: A) Aldosterone is secreted by the adrenal cortex. B) Epinephrine is secreted by the adrenal medulla. C) Cortisol is secreted by the adrenal cortex. D) Estrogen is secreted by the adrenal cortex. Page Ref: 323 Learning Obj.: 15-2 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology

115) Which of the following pairs is mismatched? A) Testosterone—sex hormone B) Aldosterone—regulates sodium levels C) Cortisol—regulates protein metabolism D) Epinephrine—critical during emergency situations Answer: C Explanation: A) Testosterone is the male sex hormone. B) Aldosterone regulates sodium levels. C) Cortisol regulates carbohydrate, not protein, metabolism. D) Epinephrine is critical during emergency situations. Page Ref: 323 Learning Obj.: 15-2 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 116) Which of the following hormones is responsible for the regulation of the menstrual cycle? A) Thyroxine B) Estrogen C) Testosterone D) Epinephrine Answer: B Explanation: A) Thyroxine is not responsible for the regulation of the menstrual cycle. B) Estrogen is responsible for the regulation of the menstrual cycle. C) Testosterone is not responsible for the regulation of the menstrual cycle. D) Epinephrine is not responsible for the regulation of the menstrual cycle. Page Ref: 323 Learning Obj.: 15-2 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 117) Which of the following statements regarding insulin and glucagon is NOT true? A) Insulin reduces blood sugar levels. B) Insulin allows the cells of the body to take in glucose from the bloodstream. C) Glucagon stimulates the liver to increase storage of glucose. D) Glucagon raises blood sugar levels. Answer: C Explanation: A) Insulin reduces blood sugar levels. B) Insulin allows the cells of the body to take in glucose from the bloodstream. C) Glucagon stimulates the liver to release stored sugar back into the bloodstream. D) Glucagon raises blood sugar levels. Page Ref: 325 Learning Obj.: 15-2 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology

118) Which of the following statements regarding the parathyroid glands is NOT true? A) There are four parathyroid glands. B) The parathyroid glands secrete parathyroid hormone. C) Parathyroid hormone lowers blood levels of calcium. D) Parathyroid glands are on the posterior surface of the thyroid gland. Answer: C Explanation: A) There are four parathyroid glands. B) The parathyroid glands secrete parathyroid hormone. C) Parathyroid hormone raises, not lowers, blood levels of calcium. D) Parathyroid glands are on the posterior surface of the thyroid gland. Page Ref: 326 Learning Obj.: 15-4 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 119) Which of the following statements regarding the pineal gland or its hormone is NOT true? A) The pineal gland is found in the cerebrum of the brain. B) The pineal gland secretes melatonin. C) Melatonin regulates the body's circadian rhythm. D) The body's circadian rhythm is its 24-hour clock. Answer: A Explanation: A) The pineal gland is found in the thalamus region of the brain, not the cerebrum. B) The pineal gland secretes melatonin. C) Melatonin regulates the body's circadian rhythm. D) The body's circadian rhythm is its 24-hour clock. Page Ref: 326 Learning Obj.: 15-4 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 120) Which of the following hormones is NOT secreted by the pituitary gland? A) Growth hormone B) Melatonin C) Thyroid-stimulating hormone D) Prolactin Answer: B Explanation: A) Growth hormone is secreted by the pituitary gland. B) Melatonin is secreted by the pineal gland. C) Thyroid-stimulating hormone is secreted by the pituitary gland. D) Prolactin is secreted by the pituitary gland. Page Ref: 327 Learning Obj.: 15-2 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology

121) Which of the following hormones is secreted by the posterior pituitary lobe? A) Growth hormone B) Follicle-stimulating hormone C) Antidiuretic hormone D) Prolactin Answer: C Explanation: A) Growth hormone is secreted by the anterior pituitary lobe. B) Follicle-stimulating hormone is secreted by the anterior pituitary lobe. C) The antidiuretic hormone is secreted by the posterior pituitary lobe. D) Prolactin is secreted by the anterior pituitary lobe. Page Ref: 327 Learning Obj.: 15-2 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 122) Which of the following pairs is mismatched? A) Follicle-stimulating hormone—targets ovaries and testes B) Prolactin—targets breasts C) Thyroid-stimulating hormone—targets thyroid D) Adrenocorticotropic hormone—targets adrenal medulla Answer: D Explanation: A) Follicle-stimulating hormone targets the ovaries and testes. B) Prolactin targets the breasts. C) Thyroid-stimulating hormone targets the thyroid. D) Adrenocorticotropic hormone regulates the activity of the adrenal cortex. Page Ref: 327 Learning Obj.: 15-2 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 123) Which of the following hormones regulates the activity of the ovaries or testes? A) Follicle-stimulating hormone B) Thyroid-stimulating hormone C) Growth hormone D) Oxytocin Answer: A Explanation: A) Follicle-stimulating hormone regulates the activity of the ovaries or testes. B) Thyroid-stimulating hormone does not regulate the activity of the ovaries or testes. C) Growth hormone does not regulate the activity of the ovaries or testes. D) Oxytocin does not regulate the activity of the ovaries or testes. Page Ref: 327 Learning Obj.: 15-2 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology

124) Which hormone regulates the volume of water in the body? A) Oxytocin B) Luteinizing hormone C) Antidiuretic hormone D) Prolactin Answer: C Explanation: A) Oxytocin does not regulate the volume of water in the body. B) Luteinizing hormone does not regulate the volume of water in the body. C) Antidiuretic hormone regulates the volume of water in the body. D) Prolactin does not regulate the volume of water in the body. Page Ref: 327 Learning Obj.: 15-2 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 125) Which of the following statements regarding the testis or its hormone is NOT true? A) The single testis is located in the scrotum of males. B) Testes are responsible for sperm production. C) Testes secrete testosterone. D) Testosterone is the male sex hormone. Answer: A Explanation: A) The testes are a pair of oval-shaped glands located in the scrotum of males. B) Testes are responsible for sperm production. C) Testes secrete testosterone. D) Testosterone is the male sex hormone. Page Ref: 325 Learning Obj.: 15-4 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 126) Which of the following statements regarding the thymus gland or its hormone is NOT true? A) The thymus gland secretes thymosin. B) Thymosin is important for proper development of the immune system. C) The thymus is a gland in the endocrine system. D) The thymus gland is located in the mediastinum just below the heart. Answer: D Explanation: A) The thymus gland secretes thymosin. B) Thymosin is important for proper development of the immune system. C) The thymus is a gland in the endocrine system. D) The thymus gland is located in the mediastinum just above, not below, the heart. Page Ref: 328 Learning Obj.: 15-4 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology

127) Which of the following hormones is NOT secreted by the thyroid gland? A) Triiodothyronine B) Thyroid-stimulating hormone C) Thyroxine D) Calcitonin Answer: B Explanation: A) Triiodothyronine is secreted by the thyroid gland. B) Thyroid-stimulating hormone is secreted by the pituitary gland. C) Thyroxine is secreted by the thyroid gland. D) Calcitonin is secreted by the thyroid gland. Page Ref: 327 Learning Obj.: 15-4 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 128) Thyroxine and triiodothyronine work to regulate ________. A) calcium levels in the body B) glucose levels in the body C) sodium levels in the body D) the body's metabolic rate Answer: D Explanation: A) Thyroxine and triiodothyronine do not regulate calcium levels in the body. B) Thyroxine and triiodothyronine do not regulate glucose levels in the body. C) Thyroxine and triiodothyronine do not regulate sodium levels in the body. D) Thyroxine and triiodothyronine work to regulate the body's metabolic rate. Page Ref: 328 Learning Obj.: 15-2 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 129) Calcitonin works to regulate ________. A) calcium levels in the body B) glucose levels in the body C) sodium levels in the body D) the body's metabolic rate Answer: A Explanation: A) Calcitonin lowers blood calcium levels in the body. B) Calcitonin does not work to regulate glucose levels in the body. C) Calcitonin does not work to regulate sodium levels in the body. D) Calcitonin does not work to regulate the body's metabolic rate. Page Ref: 328 Learning Obj.: 15-2 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology

130) Which of the following glands is NOT regulated by an anterior pituitary hormone? A) Adrenal cortex B) Thyroid C) Pineal D) Ovaries and testes Answer: C Explanation: A) The adrenal cortex is regulated by an anterior pituitary hormone. B) The thyroid gland is regulated by an anterior pituitary hormone. C) The pineal gland is not regulated by an anterior pituitary hormone. D) The ovaries and testes are regulated by an anterior pituitary hormone. Page Ref: 327 Learning Obj.: 15-4 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 131) Which of the following pairs is mismatched? A) Acromegaly—enlarged bones in the head and extremities B) Corticosteroids—strong anti-inflammatory action C) Pheochromocytoma—malignant, cancerous tumor D) Goiter—enlarged thyroid gland Answer: C Explanation: A) Acromegaly is a chronic condition of enlarged bones in the head and extremities. B) Corticosteroids have a strong anti-inflammatory action. C) Pheochromocytoma is a usually benign tumor of the adrenal medulla. D) Goiter is an enlarged thyroid gland. Page Ref: 332 Learning Obj.: 15-6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary 132) Virilism means ________. A) inability to metabolize sugar properly B) development of male characteristics C) poor physical and mental development D) bulging eyeballs Answer: B Explanation: A) Virilism is not the inability to metabolize sugar properly. B) Virilism is the development of male secondary sexual characteristics. C) Virilism is not poor physical and mental development. D) Virilism is not bulging eyeballs. Page Ref: 329 Learning Obj.: 15-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary

133) Feminization may develop in a male due to problems with the ________. A) pituitary gland B) thyroid gland C) adrenal gland D) testes Answer: C Explanation: A) Feminization does not develop in a male due to problems with the pituitary gland. B) Feminization does not develop in a male due to problems with the thyroid gland. C) Feminization may develop in a male due to problems with the adrenal gland. D) Feminization does not develop in a male due to problems with the testes. Page Ref: 329 Learning Obj.: 15-6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary 134) Which of the following statements regarding corticosteroids is NOT true? A) Corticosteroids are secreted by the adrenal cortex. B) Corticosteroids are used to treat diabetes mellitus. C) Corticosteroids have strong anti-inflammatory action. D) Corticosteroids may be used to treat rheumatoid arthritis. Answer: B Explanation: A) Corticosteroids are secreted by the adrenal cortex. B) Corticosteroids are not used to treat diabetes mellitus. C) Corticosteroids have strong anti-inflammatory action. D) Corticosteroids may be used to treat rheumatoid arthritis. Page Ref: 330 Learning Obj.: 15-6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary 135) Which of the following is NOT a symptom of Cushing's syndrome? A) Weakness B) Edema C) Hair loss D) Osteoporosis Answer: C Explanation: A) Weakness is a symptom of Cushing's syndrome. B) Edema is a symptom of Cushing's syndrome. C) Excess hair growth, not loss, is a symptom of Cushing's syndrome. D) Osteoporosis is a symptom of Cushing's syndrome. Page Ref: 330 Learning Obj.: 15-6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary

136) Which of the following statements regarding diabetes insipidus is NOT true? A) It is caused by insufficient antidiuretic hormone. B) It is a disease of the pancreas. C) Polyuria is a symptom. D) Polydipsia is a symptom. Answer: B Explanation: A) Diabetes insipidus is caused by insufficient antidiuretic hormone. B) Diabetes insipidus is a disease of the pituitary gland. C) Polyuria is a symptom of diabetes insipidus. D) Polydipsia is a symptom of diabetes insipidus. Page Ref: 330 Learning Obj.: 15-6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary 137) Which of the following statements regarding exophthalmos is NOT true? A) It is another name for the condition of bulging eyeballs. B) It is a symptom of Graves' disease. C) It is caused by hypersecretion of thyroid hormones. D) It is treated with insulin injections. Answer: D Explanation: A) Exophthalmos is another name for the condition of bulging eyeballs. B) Exophthalmos is a symptom of Graves' disease. C) Exophthalmos is caused by hypersecretion of thyroid hormones. D) Exophthalmos is not treated with insulin injections. Page Ref: 330 Learning Obj.: 15-6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary 138) Hormone replacement therapy (HRT) is available in all the following forms EXCEPT ________. A) pills B) injections C) inhaled substances D) adhesive skin patches Answer: C Explanation: A) Pills are a form of HRT. B) Injections are a form of HRT. C) HRT is not a substance that is inhaled. D) Adhesive skin patches are a form of HRT. Page Ref: 331 Learning Obj.: 15-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary

139) Which of the following conditions is NOT a result of thyroid disease? A) Graves' disease B) Dwarfism C) Goiter D) Hashimoto's thyroiditis Answer: B Explanation: A) Graves' disease is a result of thyroid disease. B) Dwarfism results from a lack of growth hormone, which is secreted by the pituitary gland. C) Goiter is a result of thyroid disease. D) Hashimoto's thyroiditis is a result of thyroid disease. Page Ref: 330 Learning Obj.: 15-6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary 140) Which of the following statements regarding noninsulin-dependent diabetes mellitus is NOT true? A) It typically develops later in life. B) The pancreas produces normal to high levels of insulin. C) It is also called type II diabetes insipidus. D) Patients take medication to improve insulin function. Answer: C Explanation: A) Noninsulin-dependent diabetes mellitus typically develops later in life. B) The pancreas produces normal to high levels of insulin in noninsulin-dependent diabetes mellitus. C) Noninsulin-dependent diabetes mellitus is also called type II diabetes mellitus, not type II diabetes insipidus. D) Patients take medication to improve insulin function in noninsulin-dependent diabetes mellitus. Page Ref: 331 Learning Obj.: 15-6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary

141) Which of the following statements regarding pheochromocytoma is NOT true? A) It is usually a benign tumor. B) Headache and anxiety are symptoms. C) Epinephrine is secreted in excessive amounts. D) A tumor grows in the adrenal cortex. Answer: D Explanation: A) Pheochromocytoma is usually a benign tumor. B) Headache and anxiety are symptoms of pheochromocytoma. C) Epinephrine is secreted in excessive amounts in pheochromocytoma. D) A tumor grows in the adrenal medulla, not the cortex, in pheochromocytoma. Page Ref: 332 Learning Obj.: 15-6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary 142) Which of the following is NOT a blood test? A) Thyroid scan B) Radioimmunoassay C) Glucose tolerance test D) Thyroid function test Answer: A Explanation: A) A thyroid scan is not a blood test. B) A radioimmunoassay is a blood test. C) The glucose tolerance test is a blood test. D) The thyroid function test is a blood test. Page Ref: 332 Learning Obj.: 15-6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary 143) Tremors are a symptom of which condition? A) Thyrotoxicosis B) Exophthalmos C) Tetany D) Acromegaly Answer: A Explanation: A) Thyrotoxicosis may cause tremors. B) Exophthalmos is a condition in which the eyeballs protrude. C) Tetany is nerve irritability and painful muscle cramps from hypocalcemia. D) Acromegaly is a condition resulting from excessive growth hormone that results in enlargement of bones of the head and extremities. Page Ref: 332 Learning Obj.: 15-6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary

144) Which term refers to bulging eyeballs? A) Edema B) Exophthalmos C) Thyrotoxicosis D) Tetany Answer: B Explanation: A) Edema is a condition in which the body tissues contain excessive amounts of fluid. B) Exophthalmos refers to bulging eyeballs. C) Thyrotoxicosis is the extreme hypersecretion of thyroid hormones that may cause exophthalmos. D) Tetany is nerve irritability and painful muscle cramps from hypocalcemia. Page Ref: 330 Learning Obj.: 15-6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary 145) Which of the following is a symptom of adrenal feminization? A) Edema B) Exophthalmos C) Breast development D) Short stature Answer: C Explanation: A) Edema is not a symptom of adrenal feminization. B) Exophthalmos is not a symptom of adrenal feminization. C) Breast development is a symptom of adrenal feminization. D) Short stature is not a symptom of adrenal feminization. Page Ref: 329 Learning Obj.: 15-6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary

146) Which of the following conditions occurs when there is an increase in estrogen secretion by the adrenal cortex of men? A) Pheochromocytoma B) Adrenal feminization C) Myxedema D) Adrenal virilism Answer: B Explanation: A) Pheochromocytoma results from an excessive amount of epinephrine. B) Adrenal feminization occurs when there is an increase in estrogen secretion by the adrenal cortex of men. C) Myxedema results from hyposecretion of thyroid hormones. D) Adrenal virilism results from increased androgen secretion by the adrenal cortex. Page Ref: 329 Learning Obj.: 15-6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary 147) Cushing's syndrome is caused by ________. A) hyposecretion of the adrenal cortex B) hypersecretion of the adrenal cortex C) hyposecretion of the thyroid gland D) hypersecretion of the thyroid gland Answer: B Explanation: A) Cushing's syndrome is not caused by hyposecretion of the adrenal cortex. B) Cushing's syndrome is caused by hypersecretion of the adrenal cortex. C) Cushing's syndrome is not caused by hyposecretion of the thyroid gland. D) Cushing's syndrome is not caused by hypersecretion of the thyroid gland. Page Ref: 329 Learning Obj.: 15-6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary 148) Which of the following statements regarding insulin-dependent diabetes mellitus is NOT true? A) It generally develops early in life. B) It is also called type II diabetes mellitus. C) The pancreas does not produce insulin. D) The patient must take insulin injections. Answer: B Explanation: A) Insulin-dependent diabetes mellitus generally develops early in life. B) Insulin-dependent diabetes mellitus is also called type I, not II, diabetes mellitus. C) The pancreas does not produce insulin in insulin-dependent diabetes mellitus. D) The patient must take insulin injections in insulin-dependent diabetes mellitus. Page Ref: 331 Learning Obj.: 15-6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary 34 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

149) Which of the following statements regarding diabetes mellitus is NOT true? A) Diabetics experience hyperglycemia. B) It is a chronic disorder of sugar metabolism. C) Diabetics experience glycosuria. D) It affects only adults. Answer: D Explanation: A) Diabetics experience hyperglycemia. B) Diabetes mellitus is a chronic disorder of sugar metabolism. C) Diabetics experience glycosuria. D) Diabetes mellitus may develop early in life. Page Ref: 330, 331 Learning Obj.: 15-6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary 150) The nerve irritability and muscle cramps that develop as a result of hypoparathyroidism are called ________. A) tetany B) acromegaly C) congenital hypothyroidism D) myxedema Answer: A Explanation: A) The nerve irritability and muscle cramps that develop as a result of hypoparathyroidism are called tetany. B) Acromegaly is enlarged bones of the head and extremities. C) Congenital hypothyroidism involves poor physical and mental development. D) Myxedema includes the symptoms of anemia, slow speech, swollen facial features, and puffy and dry skin. Page Ref: 332 Learning Obj.: 15-6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary

151) Which of the following conditions is characterized by an enlargement of the bones of the head and extremities in adults? A) Dwarfism B) Congenital hypothyroidism C) Acromegaly D) Gigantism Answer: C Explanation: A) Dwarfism refers to the condition of being short in height. B) Congenital hypothyroidism involves poor physical and mental development. C) Acromegaly is characterized by an enlargement of the bones of the head and extremities in adults. D) Gigantism refers to excessive growth of the body. Page Ref: 329 Learning Obj.: 15-6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary 152) Which of the following conditions is characterized by being abnormally short in height? A) Dwarfism B) Congenital hypothyroidism C) Acromegaly D) Gigantism Answer: A Explanation: A) Dwarfism is characterized by being abnormally short in height. B) Congenital hypothyroidism involves poor physical and mental development. C) Acromegaly is enlarged bones of the head and extremities. D) Gigantism refers to excessive growth of the body. Page Ref: 330 Learning Obj.: 15-6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary 153) Which of the following conditions is characterized by poor physical and mental development? A) Dwarfism B) Congenital hypothyroidism C) Acromegaly D) Gigantism Answer: B Explanation: A) Dwarfism refers to the condition of being short in height. B) Congenital hypothyroidism is characterized by poor physical and mental development. C) Acromegaly is enlarged bones of the head and extremities. D) Gigantism refers to excessive growth of the body. Page Ref: 329 Learning Obj.: 15-6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary 36 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

154) Diabetes insipidus is caused by ________. A) excessive antidiuretic hormone B) insufficient antidiuretic hormone C) excessive thyroid hormone D) insufficient thyroid hormone Answer: B Explanation: A) Diabetes insipidus is not caused by excessive antidiuretic hormone. B) Diabetes insipidus is caused by insufficient antidiuretic hormone. C) Diabetes insipidus is not caused by excessive thyroid hormone. D) Diabetes insipidus is not caused by insufficient thyroid hormone. Page Ref: 330 Learning Obj.: 15-6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary 155) Which of the following conditions develops in a child or teenager from an overproduction of growth hormone? A) Dwarfism B) Congenital hypothyroidism C) Acromegaly D) Gigantism Answer: D Explanation: A) Dwarfism refers to a lack of growth hormone. B) Congenital hypothyroidism refers to a lack of thyroid hormones. C) Acromegaly develops in adults from excessive growth hormone. D) Gigantism develops in a child or teenager from an overproduction of growth hormone. Page Ref: 330 Learning Obj.: 15-6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary 156) Graves' disease is caused by ________. A) hypersecretion of the thyroid gland B) hyposecretion of the thyroid gland C) hypersecretion of the adrenal cortex D) hyposecretion of the adrenal cortex Answer: A Explanation: A) Graves' disease is caused by hypersecretion of thyroid hormones. B) Graves' disease is not caused by hyposecretion of thyroid hormones. C) Graves' disease is not caused by hypersecretion of the adrenal cortex. D) Graves' disease is not caused by hyposecretion of the adrenal cortex. Page Ref: 331 Learning Obj.: 15-6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary

157) An enlargement of the thyroid gland is called ________. A) gigantism B) goiter C) adenocarcinoma D) myxedema Answer: B Explanation: A) Gigantism develops from an overproduction of growth hormone. B) Goiter is an enlargement of the thyroid gland. C) Adenocarcinoma is a type of cancer. D) Myxedema is a condition resulting from hyposecretion of thyroid hormones in adults. Page Ref: 331 Learning Obj.: 15-6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary 158) Which of the following conditions is an autoimmune disease? A) Cushing's syndrome B) Congenital hypothyroidism C) Addison disease D) Hashimoto's thyroiditis Answer: D Explanation: A) Cushing's syndrome is not an autoimmune disease. B) Congenital hypothyroidism disease is not an autoimmune disease. C) Addison's disease is not an autoimmune disease. D) Hashimoto's thyroiditis is an autoimmune disease. Page Ref: 331 Learning Obj.: 15-6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary 159) Which of the following conditions results from hyposecretion of the thyroid gland in an adult? A) Myxedema B) Gigantism C) Tetany D) Pheochromocytoma Answer: A Explanation: A) Myxedema results from hyposecretion of the thyroid gland in an adult. B) Gigantism develops from an overproduction of growth hormone. C) Tetany is nerve irritability resulting from hypocalcemia; hypoparathyroidism is one cause. D) Pheochromocytoma is a benign tumor of the adrenal medulla that secretes excessive amounts of epinephrine. Page Ref: 331 Learning Obj.: 15-6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary 38 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

160) Which of the following conditions is a benign tumor of the adrenal medulla that secretes excessive amounts of epinephrine? A) Adenocarcinoma B) Goiter C) Pheochromocytoma D) Myxedema Answer: C Explanation: A) Adenocarcinoma is a malignant cancer. B) Goiter is enlargement of the thyroid gland. C) Pheochromocytoma is a benign tumor of the adrenal medulla that secretes excessive amounts of epinephrine. D) Myxedema results from hyposecretion of the thyroid gland in an adult. Page Ref: 332 Learning Obj.: 15-6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary 161) Which of the following diagnostic procedures uses radioactive iodine as part of the test? A) Thyroid scan B) Radioimmunoassay C) Glucose tolerance test D) Thyroid function test Answer: A Explanation: A) A thyroid scan uses radioactive iodine as part of the test. B) A radioimmunoassay does not use radioactive iodine. C) A glucose tolerance test does not use radioactive iodine. D) A thyroid function test does not use radioactive iodine. Page Ref: 332 Learning Obj.: 15-6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary

162) Which of the following diagnostic procedures can be used to measure the levels of hormones in the blood? A) Fasting blood sugar B) Radioactive iodine uptake C) Radioimmunoassay D) Glucose tolerance test Answer: C Explanation: A) A fasting blood sugar measures the amount of sugar in the bloodstream. B) A radioactive iodine uptake measures how much tagged iodine is removed from the bloodstream by the thyroid gland. C) A radioimmunoassay can be used to measure the levels of hormones in the blood. D) A glucose tolerance test determines a patient's ability to use glucose properly. Page Ref: 332 Learning Obj.: 15-6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary 163) In which of the following diagnostic procedures is the patient given a dose of glucose? A) Fasting blood sugar B) Radioimmunoassay C) Glucose tolerance test D) Thyroid scan Answer: C Explanation: A) A fasting blood sugar does not involve administration of glucose. B) A radioimmunoassay does not involve administration of glucose. C) A glucose tolerance test is a test for blood sugar levels that involves administration of glucose. D) A thyroid scan does not involve administration of glucose. Page Ref: 330 Learning Obj.: 15-6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary 164) Which of the following medications has strong anti-inflammatory properties? A) Corticosteroids B) Insulin C) Radioactive iodine D) Hormone replacement therapy Answer: A Explanation: A) Corticosteroids have strong anti-inflammatory properties. B) Insulin does not have strong anti-inflammatory properties. C) Radioactive iodine does not have strong anti-inflammatory properties. D) Hormone replacement therapy does not have strong anti-inflammatory properties. Page Ref: 330 Learning Obj.: 15-6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary 40 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

165) Which of the following terms is misspelled? A) Ovariocentesis B) Adenocarsinoma C) Endocrinology D) Hyperglycemia Answer: B Explanation: A) Ovariocentesis is spelled correctly. B) Adenocarsinoma is spelled adenocarcinoma. C) Endocrinology is spelled correctly. D) Hyperglycemia is spelled correctly. Page Ref: 322 Learning Obj.: 15-5 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Spelling 166) Which of the following terms is misspelled? A) Hypopituitarism B) Parathyroidectomy C) Adrenomegally D) Insipidus Answer: C Explanation: A) Hypopituitarism is spelled correctly. B) Parathyroidectomy is spelled correctly. C) Adrenomegally is spelled adrenomegaly. D) Insipidus is spelled correctly. Page Ref: 323 Learning Obj.: 15-5 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Spelling 167) Which of the following terms is misspelled? A) Cretinism B) Mellitus C) Thyrotoxicosis D) Exopthalmos Answer: D Explanation: A) Cretinism is spelled correctly. B) Mellitus is spelled correctly. C) Thyrotoxicosis is spelled correctly. D) Exopthalmos is spelled exophthalmos. Page Ref: 330 Learning Obj.: 15-5 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Spelling

168) Which of the following terms is misspelled? A) Corticosteroids B) Pheochromocitoma C) Radioimmunoassay D) Diabetes Answer: B Explanation: A) Corticosteroids is spelled correctly. B) Pheochromocitoma is spelled pheochromocytoma. C) Radioimmunoassay is spelled correctly. D) Diabetes is spelled correctly. Page Ref: 332 Learning Obj.: 15-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Spelling 169) Which of the following terms is misspelled? A) Dwarfism B) Gigantism C) Mixedema D) Goiter Answer: C Explanation: A) Dwarfism is spelled correctly. B) Gigantism is spelled correctly. C) Mixedema is spelled myxedema. D) Goiter is spelled correctly. Page Ref: 331 Learning Obj.: 15-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Spelling 170) Which of the following abbreviations is a type of insulin? A) IDDM B) DI C) LH D) NPH Answer: D Explanation: A) IDDM stands for "insulin-dependent diabetes mellitus." B) DI stands for "diabetes insipidus." C) LH stands for "luteinizing hormone." D) NPH stands for "neutral protamine Hagedorn (insulin)." Page Ref: 332 Learning Obj.: 15-7 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Abbreviations

171) Which of the following abbreviations stands for the lab test used to diagnose diabetes mellitus? A) PTH B) GTT C) RIA D) FBS Answer: B Explanation: A) PTH stands for "parathyroid hormone." B) GTT stands for "glucose tolerance test." C) RIA stands for "radioimmunoassay." D) FBS stands for "fasting blood sugar." Page Ref: 330 Learning Obj.: 15-7 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Abbreviations 172) Which of the following abbreviations stands for a pathological condition? A) ACTH B) TSH C) FSH D) DM Answer: D Explanation: A) ACTH stands for "adrenocorticotropic hormone." B) TSH stands for "thyroid-stimulating hormone." C) FSH stands for "follicle-stimulating hormone." D) DM stands for "diabetes mellitus." Page Ref: 330 Learning Obj.: 15-7 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Abbreviations 173) Which of the following abbreviations stands for a diagnostic lab test? A) TSH B) DM C) RIA D) FSH Answer: C Explanation: A) TSH stands for "thyroid-stimulating hormone." B) DM stands for "diabetes mellitus." C) RIA stands for "radioimmunoassay." D) FSH stands for "follicle-stimulating hormone." Page Ref: 332 Learning Obj.: 15-7 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Abbreviations

174) Which of the following abbreviations does NOT stand for a pituitary hormone? A) TSH B) T3 C) ACTH D) FSH Answer: B Explanation: A) TSH stands for "thyroid-stimulating hormone." B) T3 stands for "triiodothyronine," which is a thyroid gland hormone. C) ACTH stands for "adrenocorticotropic hormone." D) FSH stands for "follicle-stimulating hormone." Page Ref: 328 Learning Obj.: 15-7 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Abbreviations 175) Which of the following abbreviations does NOT stand for a hormone? A) DM B) TSH C) ACTH D) PTH Answer: A Explanation: A) DM stands for "diabetes mellitus." B) TSH stands for "thyroid-stimulating hormone." C) ACTH stands for "adrenocorticotropic hormone." D) PTH stands for "parathyroid hormone." Page Ref: 330 Learning Obj.: 15-7 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Abbreviations

Match each term on the left with the correct definition on the right. A) caused by hyposecretion of insulin by the pancreas B) female reproductive glands C) secretes thyroxine D) called the master gland E) sodium F) secretes melatonin G) secretes insulin H) excessive thirst I) diagnostic image made using radioactive iodine J) secrete aldosterone K) have strong anti-inflammatory action L) potassium M) abnormally short height N) cancerous tumor of a gland O) group of four small glands P) measures levels of hormones in the bloodstream Q) hyposecretion of thyroid hormones in adult R) male reproductive glands S) enlarged head and extremities T) measures the amount of sugar in the bloodstream U) caused by hypersecretion of the adrenal cortex V) poor physical and mental development W) secretes thymosin X) enlarged thyroid gland Y) caused by excessive growth hormone in a child 176) parathyroid glands Page Ref: 326 Learning Obj.: 15-4 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 177) testes Page Ref: 325 Learning Obj.: 15-4 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 178) adrenal glands Page Ref: 323 Learning Obj.: 15-4 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology

179) pancreas Page Ref: 325 Learning Obj.: 15-4 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 180) pineal gland Page Ref: 326 Learning Obj.: 15-4 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 181) pituitary gland Page Ref: 327 Learning Obj.: 15-4 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 182) thymus gland Page Ref: 328 Learning Obj.: 15-4 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 183) thyroid gland Page Ref: 328 Learning Obj.: 15-4 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 184) ovaries Page Ref: 324 Learning Obj.: 15-4 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 185) myxedema Page Ref: 331 Learning Obj.: 15-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 186) Cushing's syndrome Page Ref: 330 Learning Obj.: 15-6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary 46 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

187) type I diabetes mellitus Page Ref: 331 Learning Obj.: 15-6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary 188) acromegaly Page Ref: 329 Learning Obj.: 15-6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary 189) dwarfism Page Ref: 330 Learning Obj.: 15-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 190) congenital hypothyroidism Page Ref: 329 Learning Obj.: 15-6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary 191) goiter Page Ref: 331 Learning Obj.: 15-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 192) gigantism Page Ref: 330 Learning Obj.: 15-6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary 193) adenocarcinoma Page Ref: 322 Learning Obj.: 15-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building 194) FBS Page Ref: 330 Learning Obj.: 15-7 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Abbreviations 47 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

195) RIA Page Ref: 332 Learning Obj.: 15-7 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Abbreviations 196) thyroid scan Page Ref: 332 Learning Obj.: 15-6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary 197) polydipsia Page Ref: 327 Learning Obj.: 15-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building 198) corticosteroids Page Ref: 330 Learning Obj.: 15-6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary 199) K+ Page Ref: 332 Learning Obj.: 15-7 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Abbreviations 200) Na+ Page Ref: 332 Learning Obj.: 15-7 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Abbreviations Answers: 176) O 177) R 178) J 179) G 180) F 181) D 182) W 183) C 184) B 185) Q 186) U 187) A 188) S 189) M 190) V 191) X 192) Y 193) N 194) T 195) P 196) I 197) H 198) K 199) L 200) E

201) Explain why the pituitary gland is sometimes referred to as the master gland. Answer: The pituitary gland secretes hormones that are responsible for regulating the activity of other endocrine glands. ∙ Thyroid-stimulating hormone regulates the thyroid gland. ∙ Adrenocorticotropic hormone regulates the adrenal cortex. ∙ Follicle-stimulating hormone and luteinizing hormone regulate the ovaries and testes. Page Ref: 327 Learning Obj.: 15-4 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 202) Explain the difference between type I and type II diabetes mellitus. Answer: Type I diabetes mellitus: ∙ Also called insulin-dependent diabetes mellitus ∙ Develops early in life ∙ Pancreas stops producing insulin. ∙ Patients must take daily insulin injections. Type II diabetes mellitus: ∙ Also called noninsulin-dependent diabetes mellitus ∙ Develops later in life ∙ Pancreas produces normal to high levels of insulin but cells fail to respond to it. ∙ Patients may take medication to improve insulin function. Page Ref: 331 Learning Obj.: 15-6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary

Medical Terminology: Get Connected!, 3e (Frucht) Chapter 16 Ophthalmology: The Eye All answers to questions asking for a combining form must be written in the combining form style, meaning word root/combining vowel. For example, the combining form meaning "heart" is cardi/o. All answers to questions asking for a suffix must be written in suffix form, meaning a hyphen before your answer. For example, the suffix meaning "cell" is -cyte. All answers to questions asking for a prefix must be written in prefix form, meaning a hyphen after your answer. For example, a prefix meaning "two" is bi-. Do NOT capitalize any of your answers or include a period at the end of your answer. The computer will NOT recognize your answer as correct if it is written in any other style. 1) The combining form that means dull or dim is ________. Answer: ambly/o; amblyo Page Ref: 344 Learning Obj.: 16-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 2) The combining form that means color is ________. Answer: chrom/o; chromo Page Ref: 344 Learning Obj.: 16-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 3) The combining form that means eyelid is ________. Answer: blephar/o; blepharo Page Ref: 344 Learning Obj.: 16-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 4) The combining form that means conjunctiva is ________. Answer: conjunctiv/o; conjunctivo Page Ref: 344 Learning Obj.: 16-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 5) A combining form other than pupill/o that means pupil is ________. Answer: core/o; coreo Page Ref: 344 Learning Obj.: 16-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 1 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

6) A combining form other than corne/o that means cornea is ________. Answer: kerat/o; kerato Page Ref: 344 Learning Obj.: 16-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 7) The combining form that means ciliary body is ________. Answer: cycl/o; cyclo Page Ref: 344 Learning Obj.: 16-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 8) A combining form other than dacry/o that means tear is ________. Answer: lacrim/o; lacrimo Page Ref: 344 Learning Obj.: 16-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 9) A combining form that means double is ________. Answer: dipl/o; diplo Page Ref: 344 Learning Obj.: 16-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 10) A combining form other than ir/o that means iris is ________. Answer: irid/o; irido Page Ref: 344 Learning Obj.: 16-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 11) A combining form other than ophthalm/o or opt/o that means eye is ________. Answer: ocul/o; oculo Page Ref: 344 Learning Obj.: 16-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

12) The combining form that means vision is ________. Answer: opt/o; opto Page Ref: 344 Learning Obj.: 16-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 13) The combining form that means lens is ________. Answer: phac/o; phaco Page Ref: 344 Learning Obj.: 16-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 14) The combining form that means light is ________. Answer: phot/o; photo Page Ref: 344 Learning Obj.: 16-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 15) The combining form that means retina is ________. Answer: retin/o; retino Page Ref: 344 Learning Obj.: 16-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 16) The combining form that means sclera is ________. Answer: scler/o; sclero Page Ref: 344 Learning Obj.: 16-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 17) A combining form other than hydr/o that means water is ________. Answer: aque/o; aqueo Page Ref: 344 Learning Obj.: 16-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

18) The combining form that means glassy is ________. Answer: vitre/o; vitreo Page Ref: 344 Learning Obj.: 16-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 19) The combining form that means choroid layer is ________. Answer: choroid/o; choroido Page Ref: 344 Learning Obj.: 16-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 20) The combining form that means tension or pressure is ________. Answer: ton/o; tono Page Ref: 344 Learning Obj.: 16-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 21) The combining form that means fungus is ________. Answer: myc/o; myco Page Ref: 344 Learning Obj.: 16-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 22) The combining form that means dry is ________. Answer: xer/o; xero Page Ref: 344 Learning Obj.: 16-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 23) The suffix that means specialist is ________. Answer: -ician; ician Page Ref: 344 Learning Obj.: 16-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

24) The suffix that means paralysis is ________. Answer: -plegia; plegia Page Ref: 345 Learning Obj.: 16-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 25) The suffix that means drooping is ________. Answer: -ptosis; ptosis Page Ref: 345 Learning Obj.: 16-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 26) The suffix that means vision is ________. Answer: -opia; opia Page Ref: 345 Learning Obj.: 16-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 27) The prefix that means small is ________. Answer: micro-; micro Page Ref: 345 Learning Obj.: 16-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 28) The prefix that means half is ________. Answer: hemi-; hemi Page Ref: 345 Learning Obj.: 16-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 29) A medical term that means pertaining to the cornea is ________. Answer: corneal Page Ref: 348 Learning Obj.: 16-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building

30) A medical term that means pertaining to water is ________. Answer: aqueous Page Ref: 346 Learning Obj.: 16-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building 31) A medical term that means pertaining to tears is ________. Answer: lacrimal Page Ref: 349 Learning Obj.: 16-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building 32) A medical term that means pertaining to within the eye is ________. Answer: intraocular Page Ref: 350 Learning Obj.: 16-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building 33) A medical term that means pertaining to the pupil is ________. Answer: pupillary Page Ref: 351 Learning Obj.: 16-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building 34) A medical term that means pertaining to the retina is ________. Answer: retinal Page Ref: 351 Learning Obj.: 16-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building 35) A medical term that means pertaining to the sclera is ________. Answer: scleral Page Ref: 351 Learning Obj.: 16-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building

36) A medical term that means pertaining to glassy is ________. Answer: vitreous Page Ref: 351 Learning Obj.: 16-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building 37) A medical term that means pertaining to the choroid layer is ________. Answer: choroidal Page Ref: 347 Learning Obj.: 16-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building 38) A medical term that means pertaining to the conjunctiva is ________. Answer: conjunctival Page Ref: 347 Learning Obj.: 16-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building 39) A medical term that means pertaining to the nose and tears is ________. Answer: nasolacrimal Page Ref: 349 Learning Obj.: 16-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building 40) A medical term that means instrument for measuring pressure is ________. Answer: tonometer Page Ref: 351 Learning Obj.: 16-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building 41) A medical term that means abnormal softening of the sclera is ________. Answer: scleromalacia Page Ref: 351 Learning Obj.: 16-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building

42) A medical term that means hardening of the lens is ________. Answer: phacosclerosis Page Ref: 350 Learning Obj.: 16-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building 43) A medical term that means surgical repair of the eyelid is ________. Answer: blepharoplasty Page Ref: 347 Learning Obj.: 16-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building 44) A medical term that means double vision is ________. Answer: diplopia Page Ref: 350 Learning Obj.: 16-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building 45) A medical term that means one who studies the eye is ________. Answer: ophthalmologist Page Ref: 350 Learning Obj.: 16-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building 46) A medical term that means tear discharge is ________. Answer: dacryorrhea Page Ref: 348 Learning Obj.: 16-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building 47) A medical term that means ciliary body paralysis is ________. Answer: cycloplegia Page Ref: 348 Learning Obj.: 16-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building

48) A medical term that means abnormal condition of eye fungus is ________. Answer: oculomycosis Page Ref: 350 Learning Obj.: 16-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building 49) A medical term that means conjunctiva inflammation is ________. Answer: conjunctivitis Page Ref: 347 Learning Obj.: 16-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building 50) A medical term that means instrument for viewing the eye is ________. Answer: ophthalmoscope Page Ref: 350 Learning Obj.: 16-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building 51) The optic nerve carries images to the brain. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 344 Learning Obj.: 16-2 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 52) The retina is the middle layer of the eyeball. Answer: FALSE Explanation: The choroid layer is the middle layer of the eyeball. Page Ref: 347 Learning Obj.: 16-4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 53) The sclera is the white of the eye. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 351 Learning Obj.: 16-4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology

54) The iris is curved to bend light rays onto the retina. Answer: FALSE Explanation: The cornea is curved to bend light rays onto the retina. Page Ref: 348 Learning Obj.: 16-4 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 55) The ciliary body changes the shape of the lens. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 348 Learning Obj.: 16-4 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 56) The macula lutea is the center of the fovea centralis. Answer: FALSE Explanation: The fovea centralis is the center of the macula lutea. Page Ref: 351 Learning Obj.: 16-4 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 57) The aqueous humor is a watery substance in the front region of the eyeball. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 346 Learning Obj.: 16-4 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 58) The pupil is responsible for admitting the correct amount of light into the eyeball. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 347 Learning Obj.: 16-4 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 59) The choroid layer contains many blood vessels. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 347 Learning Obj.: 16-4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology

60) The eyelashes are also called cilia. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 346 Learning Obj.: 16-4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 61) The conjunctiva is a mucous membrane layer that protects the retina. Answer: FALSE Explanation: The conjunctiva is a mucous membrane layer that protects the anterior surface of the eyeball. Page Ref: 347 Learning Obj.: 16-4 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 62) Tears function to moisten and cleanse the anterior surface of the eyeball. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 348 Learning Obj.: 16-4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 63) Lacrimal glands are located in the inner corner of each eye. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Lacrimal glands are located superior and lateral to the eyeball and under the orbital bone. Page Ref: 348 Learning Obj.: 16-4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 64) The iris is a muscle that contracts or relaxes to change the size of the pupil. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 349 Learning Obj.: 16-4 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 65) Rods see color in bright light. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Cones see color in bright light. Page Ref: 351 Learning Obj.: 16-4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 11 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

66) The lens lies behind the iris and pupil. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 350 Learning Obj.: 16-4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 67) The vitreous humor is a gel-like substance that fills the area located between the lens and retina. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 351 Learning Obj.: 16-4 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 68) Nystagmus is also called color blindness. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Achromatopsia is also called color blindness. Page Ref: 352 Learning Obj.: 16-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 69) Accommodation is the ability of the eye to adjust to variations in light. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Accommodation is the ability of the eye to adjust to variations in distance. Page Ref: 352 Learning Obj.: 16-6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary 70) Achromatopsia is present from birth. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 352 Learning Obj.: 16-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 71) Astigmatism is also called lazy eye. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Amblyopia is also called lazy eye. Page Ref: 352 Learning Obj.: 16-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary

72) Fluorescein is a bright purple dye used to highlight corneal abrasions. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Fluorescein is a bright green dye. Page Ref: 353 Learning Obj.: 16-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 73) Color vision tests may be used to diagnose achromatopsia. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 353 Learning Obj.: 16-6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary 74) Cryoextraction uses cold to remove a cataract. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 353 Learning Obj.: 16-6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary 75) Diabetic retinopathy may result in the retina detaching from the back of the eyeball. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Diabetic retinopathy may result in small hemorrhages and edema in the retina. Page Ref: 353 Learning Obj.: 16-6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary 76) Amblyopia occurs when a person loses vision but not as a result of actual eye disease. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 352 Learning Obj.: 16-6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary 77) Xerophthalmia means "condition of dry eyes." Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 350 Learning Obj.: 16-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building

78) Glaucoma is the result of a cloudy or opaque lens. Answer: FALSE Explanation: A cataract is the result of a cloudy or opaque lens. Page Ref: 352 Learning Obj.: 16-6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary 79) Glaucoma develops in response to an increase in intraocular pressure. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 353 Learning Obj.: 16-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 80) Jerky-appearing involuntary eye movements are called nystagmus. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 355 Learning Obj.: 16-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 81) Hyperopia means "nearsightedness." Answer: FALSE Explanation: Hyperopia means "farsightedness." Page Ref: 354 Learning Obj.: 16-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 82) Hyperopia is corrected by a concave lens. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Hyperopia is corrected with a converging or biconvex lens. Page Ref: 354 Learning Obj.: 16-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 83) An IOL implant may be used to treat glaucoma. Answer: FALSE Explanation: An IOL implant may be used to treat a cataract. Page Ref: 354 Learning Obj.: 16-7 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Abbreviations

84) LASIK is a procedure to correct myopia. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 354 Learning Obj.: 16-7 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Abbreviations 85) Macular degeneration is a condition affecting the choroid layer of the eyeball. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Macular degeneration is a condition affecting the retina of the eyeball. Page Ref: 355 Learning Obj.: 16-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 86) An optician is a specialist in testing visual acuity. Answer: FALSE Explanation: An optician is a specialist in making corrective lenses. Page Ref: 355 Learning Obj.: 16-1 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Medical Specialties 87) Laser retinal photocoagulation is used to stabilize a detached retina. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 354 Learning Obj.: 16-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 88) Nyctalopia is commonly called night blindness. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 355 Learning Obj.: 16-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 89) A person with myopia can see things at a distance but not up close. Answer: FALSE Explanation: A person with myopia can see things up close but not at a distance. Page Ref: 355 Learning Obj.: 16-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary

90) Phacoemulsification is a treatment procedure for astigmatism. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Phacoemulsification is a treatment procedure for cataracts. Page Ref: 355 Learning Obj.: 16-6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary 91) Photophobia is a strong sensitivity to light. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 356 Learning Obj.: 16-6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary 92) PRK uses a laser to reshape the cornea. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 356 Learning Obj.: 16-7 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Abbreviations 93) Radial keratotomy uses spokelike incisions in the cornea to correct myopia. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 356 Learning Obj.: 16-6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary 94) A person with a refractive error does not see colors correctly. Answer: FALSE Explanation: A person with a refractive error is not able to focus images properly. Page Ref: 356 Learning Obj.: 16-6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary 95) A slit lamp microscope is used to examine the optic nerve. Answer: FALSE Explanation: A slit lamp microscope is used to examine the conjunctiva, cornea, iris, and lens. Page Ref: 356 Learning Obj.: 16-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary

96) A Snellen chart is used to evaluate distance vision. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 356 Learning Obj.: 16-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 97) Strabismus cannot be corrected with glasses. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Strabismus can be corrected with glasses. Page Ref: 357 Learning Obj.: 16-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 98) A stye is an infected sebaceous gland. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 357 Learning Obj.: 16-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 99) MY is the abbreviation for "farsightedness." Answer: FALSE Explanation: MY is the abbreviation for "myopia" or "nearsightedness." Page Ref: 355 Learning Obj.: 16-7 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Abbreviations 100) Strabotomy is the surgical procedure used to fix a detached retina. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Strabotomy is the surgical procedure used to fix strabismus. Page Ref: 357 Learning Obj.: 16-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary

101) Which medical term does NOT mean "pertaining to the eye" or "pertaining to vision"? A) Otic B) Ocular C) Ophthalmic D) Optic Answer: A Explanation: A) Otic does not mean "pertaining to the eye;" it means "pertaining to the ear." B) Ocular does mean "pertaining to the eye." C) Ophthalmic does mean "pertaining to the eye." D) Optic does mean "pertaining to vision." Page Ref: 349, 350 Learning Obj.: 16-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building 102) Which medical term means "tear discharge"? A) Nasolacrimal B) Dacryorrhea C) Keratitis D) Dacryolith Answer: B Explanation: A) Nasolacrimal means "pertaining to the nose and tears." B) Dacryorrhea means "tear discharge." C) Keratorrhea means "cornea inflammation." D) Dacryolith means "tear stone." Page Ref: 348 Learning Obj.: 16-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building 103) Which term means "double vision"? A) Hemianopia B) Nyctalopia C) Diplopia D) Exotropia Answer: C Explanation: A) Hemianopia means "without half vision." B) Nyctalopia means "night vision." C) Diplopia means "double vision." D) Exotropia means "away from vision." Page Ref: 350 Learning Obj.: 16-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building

104) Which term means "instrument for viewing the eye"? A) Optoscopy B) Pupilloscope C) Intraocular D) Ophthalmoscope Answer: D Explanation: A) Optoscopy means "process of visually examining the eye." B) Pupilloscope means "instrument for viewing the pupil." C) Intraocular means "pertaining to within the eye." D) Ophthalmoscope means "instrument for viewing the eye." Page Ref: 350 Learning Obj.: 16-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building 105) Which term means "surgical repair of the eyelid"? A) Blepharoplasty B) Conjunctivoplasty C) Retinoplasty D) Lacrimoplasty Answer: A Explanation: A) Blepharoplasty means "surgical repair of the eyelid." B) Conjunctivoplasty means "surgical repair of the conjunctiva." C) Retinoplasty means "surgical repair of the retina." D) Lacrimoplasty means "surgical repair of tear," not an actual medical term. Page Ref: 347 Learning Obj.: 16-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building 106) Which term means "abnormal softening of the sclera"? A) Scleromegaly B) Scleromalacia C) Scleritis D) Sclerotomy Answer: B Explanation: A) Scleromegaly means "enlargement of the sclera." B) Scleromalacia means "abnormal softening of the sclera." C) Scleritis means "inflammation of the sclera." D) Sclerotomy means "cutting into the sclera." Page Ref: 351 Learning Obj.: 16-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building

107) Which term means "surgical fixation of the retina"? A) Retinal B) Retinopathy C) Retinopexy D) Retinitis Answer: C Explanation: A) Retinal means "pertaining to the retina." B) Retinopathy means "disease of the retina." C) Retinopexy means "surgical fixation of the retina." D) Retinitis means "inflammation of the retina." Page Ref: 351 Learning Obj.: 16-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building 108) Which term means "surgical removal of the cornea"? A) Keratometry B) Keratotomy C) Keratoplasty D) Keratectomy Answer: D Explanation: A) Keratometry means "process of measuring the cornea." B) Keratotomy means "cutting into the cornea." C) Keratoplasty means "surgical repair of the cornea." D) Keratectomy means "surgical removal of the cornea." Page Ref: 349 Learning Obj.: 16-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building 109) Which term is NOT a surgical procedure? A) Coreometry B) Cryoretinopexy C) Sclerotomy D) Blepharoplasty Answer: A Explanation: A) Coreometry is not a surgical procedure; it is the process of measuring the pupil. B) Cryoretinopexy is a surgical procedure. C) Sclerotomy is a surgical procedure. D) Blepharoplasty is a surgical procedure. Page Ref: 347 Learning Obj.: 16-3 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building

110) Which term is NOT a pathological condition? A) Hemianopia B) Cyclotomy C) Xerophthalmia D) Phacomalacia Answer: B Explanation: A) Hemianopia is a pathological condition. B) Cyclotomy is not a pathological condition; it is cutting into the ciliary body, a surgical procedure. C) Xerophthalmia is a pathological condition. D) Phacomalacia is a pathological condition. Page Ref: 348 Learning Obj.: 16-6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary 111) Which of the following are NOT accessory structures of the eye? A) Conjunctivas B) Pupils C) Eyelids D) Lacrimal glands Answer: B Explanation: A) Conjunctivas are accessory structures of the eye. B) Pupils are not accessory structures of the eye. C) Eyelids are accessory structures of the eye. D) Lacrimal glands are accessory structures of the eye. Page Ref: 344 Learning Obj.: 16-4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 112) Which of the following statements is NOT true? A) Ophthalmologists are medical doctors. B) Optometrists complete four years of optometry school. C) Ophthalmologists are involved in all aspects of eye care. D) Optometrists specialize in grinding corrective lenses. Answer: D Explanation: A) Ophthalmologists are medical doctors. B) Optometrists complete four years of optometry school. C) Ophthalmologists are involved in all aspects of eye care. D) Optometrists prescribe but do not specialize in grinding corrective lenses; opticians grind lenses. Page Ref: 344 Learning Obj.: 16-1 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Medical Specialties 21 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

113) Which of the following statements regarding the eye is NOT true? A) The aqueous humor is found in the anterior region of the eyeball. B) A tonometer measures pressure inside the eyeball. C) The iris is the opening in the middle of the pupil. D) The vitreous humor is a gel-like substance. Answer: C Explanation: A) The aqueous humor is found in the anterior region of the eyeball. B) A tonometer measures pressure inside the eyeball. C) The pupil is the opening in the center of the iris. D) The vitreous humor is a gel-like substance. Page Ref: 347 Learning Obj.: 16-4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 114) Which of the following statements regarding the eye is NOT true? A) Eyelashes are also called cilia. B) The colored portion of the eye is the pupil. C) Lacrimal glands moisten and cleanse the anterior surface of the eyeball. D) The conjunctiva is a mucous membrane covering the anterior surface of the eyeball. Answer: B Explanation: A) Eyelashes are also called cilia. B) The iris is the colored portion of the eye. C) Lacrimal glands moisten and cleanse the anterior surface of the eyeball. D) The conjunctiva is a mucous membrane covering the anterior surface of the eyeball. Page Ref: 349 Learning Obj.: 16-4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 115) Which of the following is NOT a layer of the eyeball? A) Sclera B) Lens C) Retina D) Choroid Answer: B Explanation: A) The sclera is a layer of the eyeball. B) The lens is not a layer of the eyeball. C) The retina is a layer of the eyeball. D) The choroid is a layer of the eyeball. Page Ref: 350 Learning Obj.: 16-4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology

116) Which layer of the eye is responsible for supplying blood to the eye? A) Retina B) Choroid C) Sclera D) Lens Answer: B Explanation: A) The retina contains light receptors. B) The choroid is responsible for supplying blood to the eye. C) The sclera is the white of the eye. D) The lens bends light rays passing through it and is not a layer of the eye. Page Ref: 347 Learning Obj.: 16-4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 117) Which of the following eye structures is a mucous membrane? A) Cornea B) Retina C) Lens D) Conjunctiva Answer: D Explanation: A) The cornea is not a mucous membrane. B) The retina is not a mucous membrane. C) The lens is not a mucous membrane. D) The conjunctiva is a mucous membrane. Page Ref: 347 Learning Obj.: 16-4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 118) The opening in the center of the iris is the ________. A) pupil B) retina C) lens D) conjunctiva Answer: A Explanation: A) The pupil is the opening in the center of the iris. B) The retina is the inner layer of the eyeball. C) The lens is the transparent structure lying behind the iris and the pupil. D) The conjunctiva is the mucous membrane that protects the anterior surface of the eyeball. Page Ref: 347 Learning Obj.: 16-4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology

119) Which of the following eye structures controls the amount of light that enters the eyeball? A) Cornea B) Pupil C) Retina D) Lens Answer: B Explanation: A) The cornea is the anterior part of the sclera. B) The pupil is responsible for controlling the amount of light that enters the eyeball. C) The retina is the inner layer of the eyeball. D) The lens is the transparent structure lying behind the iris and the pupil. Page Ref: 347 Learning Obj.: 16-4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 120) The anterior portion of the sclera is the ________. A) pupil B) iris C) cornea D) lens Answer: C Explanation: A) The pupil is responsible for controlling the amount of light that enters the eye. B) The iris is the colored portion of the eye. C) The cornea is the anterior portion of the sclera. D) The lens is the transparent structure lying behind the iris and the pupil. Page Ref: 348 Learning Obj.: 16-4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 121) Which of the following structures is responsible for bending light rays? A) Pupil B) Aqueous humor C) Iris D) Cornea Answer: D Explanation: A) The pupil is responsible for controlling the amount of light that enters the eye. B) The aqueous humor is the watery fluid that fills the eye. C) The iris is the colored portion of the eye. D) The cornea is responsible for bending light rays. Page Ref: 348 Learning Obj.: 16-4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology

122) Which of the following statements regarding the ciliary body is NOT true? A) It is a ring of muscle around the outer edge of the lens. B) It is attached to the lens by suspensory ligaments. C) It pulls on the edges of the lens to change its shape. D) It secretes a watery fluid to moisten and cleanse the eyeball. Answer: D Explanation: A) The ciliary body is a ring of muscle around the outer edge of the lens. B) The ciliary body is attached to the lens by suspensory ligaments. C) The ciliary body pulls on the edges of the lens to change its shape. D) The ciliary body does not secrete a watery fluid. Page Ref: 348 Learning Obj.: 16-4 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 123) Tears are produced by the ________. A) lacrimal glands B) conjunctiva C) eyeball D) lens Answer: A Explanation: A) Tears are produced by the lacrimal glands. B) The conjunctiva does not produce tears. C) The eyeball does not produce tears. D) The lens does not produce tears. Page Ref: 348 Learning Obj.: 16-4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 124) Which of the following structures focuses incoming light rays onto the retina? A) Iris B) Lens C) Pupil D) Ciliary body Answer: B Explanation: A) The iris is the colored portion of the eye. B) The lens focuses incoming light rays onto the retina. C) The pupil is responsible for controlling the amount of light that enters the eye. D) The ciliary body is the ring of muscle around the outer edge of the lens. Page Ref: 350 Learning Obj.: 16-4 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology

125) Which structure of the eye is white and very fibrous and tough? A) Ciliary body B) Retina C) Sclera D) Choroid layer Answer: C Explanation: A) The ciliary body is the ring of muscle around the outer edge of the lens. B) The retina is the inner layer of the eyeball. C) The sclera is white and very fibrous and tough. D) The choroid layer is responsible for supplying blood to the eye. Page Ref: 351 Learning Obj.: 16-4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 126) Which of the following pairs is mismatched? A) Cornea—posterior portion of the sclera B) Retina—contains rods and cones C) Iris—muscle that contracts to change the size of the pupil D) Lens—focuses light rays on the retina Answer: A Explanation: A) The cornea is the anterior, not posterior, portion of the sclera. B) The retina contains rods and cones. C) The iris is made of muscle that contracts or relaxes to change the size of the pupil. D) The lens focuses light rays on the retina. Page Ref: 348 Learning Obj.: 16-4 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 127) Which of the following structures are the sensory receptor cells that are active in dim light? A) Cones B) Lens C) Rods D) Iris Answer: C Explanation: A) Cones help the eye in bright light. B) The lens bends light rays passing through it. C) Rods are the sensory receptor cells that are active in dim light. D) The iris is the colored portion of the eye that changes the size of the pupil. Page Ref: 351 Learning Obj.: 16-2 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology

128) Which of the following structures are the sensory receptor cells that see color? A) Cones B) Lens C) Rods D) Iris Answer: A Explanation: A) Cones are the sensory receptor cells that see color. B) The lens bends light rays passing through it. C) Rods are the sensory receptor cells that are active in dim light. D) The iris is the colored portion of the eye that changes the size of the pupil. Page Ref: 351 Learning Obj.: 16-2 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 129) Which of the following statements regarding the retina is NOT true? A) Light strikes the retina at the macula lutea. B) The center of the macula lutea is the fovea centralis. C) The fovea centralis contains only rods. D) Rods and cones are found in the retina. Answer: C Explanation: A) Light strikes the retina at the macula lutea. B) The center of the macula lutea is the fovea centralis. C) The fovea centralis contains only cones. D) Rods and cones are found in the retina. Page Ref: 351 Learning Obj.: 16-4 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 130) Which layer of the eye contains the sensory receptors for sight? A) Retina B) Choroid C) Sclera D) Lens Answer: A Explanation: A) The retina contains the sensory receptors for sight. B) The choroid is the middle layer of the eye containing many blood vessels. C) The sclera is the outermost layer of the eye known as the white of the eye. D) The lens bends light rays passing through it and is not a layer of the eye. Page Ref: 351 Learning Obj.: 16-4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology

131) Which of the following refers to the ability of the eye to adjust to variations in distance? A) Visual acuity B) Accommodation C) Myopia D) Astigmatism Answer: B Explanation: A) Visual acuity is the measurement of the sharpness of a patient's vision. B) Accommodation is the ability of the eye to adjust to variations in distance. C) Myopia is the condition of being able to see things close up but distance vision is blurred. D) Astigmatism is the condition in which irregular curvature of the cornea causes uneven bending of light rays. Page Ref: 352 Learning Obj.: 16-6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary 132) Which of the following pathological conditions is also called color blindness? A) Amblyopia B) Astigmatism C) Achromatopsia D) Retinitis Answer: C Explanation: A) Amblyopia is loss of vision not due to disease, commonly called lazy eye. B) Astigmatism is the condition in which irregular curvature of the cornea causes uneven bending of light rays. C) Achromatopsia is the profound inability to see in color from birth, or color blindness. D) Retinitis is inflammation of the retina. Page Ref: 352 Learning Obj.: 16-6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary 133) Which of the following statements regarding amblyopia is NOT true? A) It is commonly called lazy eye. B) It is loss of vision not due to any disease. C) It prevents light rays from reaching the retina. D) It is not correctable with glasses. Answer: C Explanation: A) Amblyopia is commonly called lazy eye. B) Amblyopia is loss of vision not due to any disease. C) Amblyopia does not prevent light rays from reaching the retina. D) Amblyopia is not correctable with glasses. Page Ref: 352 Learning Obj.: 16-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 28 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

134) Which of the following pathological conditions is due to abnormal curvature of the cornea? A) Astigmatism B) Cataract C) Glaucoma D) Strabismus Answer: A Explanation: A) Astigmatism is due to abnormal curvature of the cornea. B) A cataract is caused by a cloudy lens. C) Glaucoma is caused by increased intraocular pressure. D) Strabismus is a condition in which the eyes look in different directions at the same time. Page Ref: 352 Learning Obj.: 16-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 135) In astigmatism, the problem is found in the ________. A) vitreous body B) retina C) lens D) cornea Answer: D Explanation: A) In astigmatism, the problem is not found in the vitreous body. B) In astigmatism, the problem is not found in the retina. C) In astigmatism, the problem is not found in the lens. D) In astigmatism, the problem is found in the cornea. Page Ref: 352 Learning Obj.: 16-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 136) Which of the following pathological conditions is due to an opaque or cloudy lens? A) Astigmatism B) Cataract C) Glaucoma D) Strabismus Answer: B Explanation: A) Astigmatism is caused by irregular curvature of the cornea, which in turn causes uneven bending of light rays. B) A cataract is due to an opaque or cloudy lens. C) Glaucoma is caused by increased intraocular pressure. D) Strabismus is a condition in which the eyes look in different directions at the same time. Page Ref: 352 Learning Obj.: 16-6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary

137) An artificial lens may be required to treat which condition? A) Cataract B) Nystagmus C) Glaucoma D) Diabetic retinopathy Answer: A Explanation: A) An artificial lens may be required to treat a cataract. B) An artificial lens is not required to treat nystagmus. C) An artificial lens is not required to treat glaucoma. D) An artificial lens is not required to treat diabetic retinopathy. Page Ref: 352 Learning Obj.: 16-6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary 138) Which of the following diagnostic procedures would identify achromatopsia? A) Color vision test B) Fluorescein angiography C) Slit lamp microscopy D) Visual acuity Answer: A Explanation: A) A color vision test would identify achromatopsia. B) Fluorescein angiography is used to examine movement of the blood through the blood vessels of the eye. C) Slit lamp microscopy is used to examine the conjunctiva, cornea, iris, and lens. D) Visual acuity is the measurement of the sharpness of a patient's vision. Page Ref: 353 Learning Obj.: 16-6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary 139) Which surgical procedure uses cold to remove a lens with a cataract? A) Phacoemulsification B) Cryoextraction C) Laser retinal photocoagulation D) Photorefractive keratectomy Answer: B Explanation: A) Phacoemulsification is the use of high-frequency sound waves to break up a cataract. B) Cryoextraction uses cold to remove a lens with a cataract. C) Laser retinal photocoagulation is the use of a laser to make pinpoint scars to stabilize a detached or torn retina. D) Photorefractive keratectomy is the use of a laser to reshape the cornea. Page Ref: 353 Learning Obj.: 16-6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary 30 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

140) Which of the following statements regarding diabetic retinopathy is NOT true? A) Bright spots appear in the visual field. B) Small hemorrhages develop. C) Edema is present. D) Laser surgery is one treatment. Answer: A Explanation: A) Dark, not bright, spots appear in the visual field in diabetic retinopathy. B) Small hemorrhages develop in diabetic retinopathy. C) Edema is present in diabetic retinopathy. D) Laser surgery is one treatment for diabetic retinopathy. Page Ref: 353 Learning Obj.: 16-6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary 141) Which of the following diagnostic procedures is used to identify corneal abrasions? A) Fluorescein staining B) Ophthalmoscopy C) Coreometry D) Keratometry Answer: A Explanation: A) Fluorescein staining is used to identify corneal abrasions. B) Ophthalmoscopy is the process of visually examining the eyes. C) Coreometry is the process of measuring the pupil. D) Keratometry is the measurement of the cornea. Page Ref: 353 Learning Obj.: 16-6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary 142) Which diagnostic test is used to examine movement of blood through the blood vessels of the eye? A) Snellen test B) Fluorescein angiography C) Slit lamp microscopy D) Visual acuity Answer: B Explanation: A) A Snellen test is a chart used for testing visual acuity. B) Fluorescein angiography is used to examine movement of blood through the blood vessels of the eye. C) Slit lamp microscopy is used to examine the conjunctiva, cornea, iris, and lens. D) Visual acuity is the measurement of the sharpness of a patient's vision. Page Ref: 353 Learning Obj.: 16-6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary 31 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

143) Which of the following pathological conditions is due to increased intraocular pressure? A) Astigmatism B) Cataract C) Glaucoma D) Strabismus Answer: C Explanation: A) Astigmatism is caused by irregular curvature of the cornea, which in turn causes the uneven bending of light rays. B) A cataract is caused by an opaque or cloudy lens. C) Glaucoma is due to increased intraocular pressure. D) Strabismus is the condition in which the eyes look in different directions at the same time. Page Ref: 353 Learning Obj.: 16-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 144) Which of the following statements regarding glaucoma is TRUE? A) It results in the retina becoming detached. B) It causes double vision. C) It is diagnosed with fluorescein angiography. D) It can cause atrophy of the optic nerve. Answer: D Explanation: A) Glaucoma does not result in the retina becoming detached. B) Glaucoma does not cause double vision. C) Glaucoma is not diagnosed with fluorescein angiography. D) Glaucoma can cause atrophy of the optic nerve. Page Ref: 353 Learning Obj.: 16-6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary 145) Which of the following statements regarding hyperopia is NOT true? A) It is also called farsightedness. B) It is corrected by a concave lens. C) A person can see things in the distance. D) A person has trouble reading material at close range. Answer: B Explanation: A) Hyperopia is also called farsightedness. B) Hyperopia is corrected with a converging or biconvex, not concave, lens. C) A person can see things in the distance with hyperopia. D) A person has trouble reading material at close range with hyperopia. Page Ref: 354 Learning Obj.: 16-6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary

146) Implanting an intraocular lens corrects which of the following conditions? A) Nystagmus B) Glaucoma C) Cataracts D) Myopia Answer: C Explanation: A) Implanting an intraocular lens is not used to treat nystagmus. B) Implanting an intraocular lens is not used to treat glaucoma. C) Implanting an intraocular lens corrects cataracts. D) Implanting an intraocular lens is not used to treat myopia. Page Ref: 354 Learning Obj.: 16-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 147) Which of the following surgical procedures corrects myopia? A) LASIK B) Phacoemulsification C) Laser retinal photocoagulation D) Strabotomy Answer: A Explanation: A) LASIK corrects myopia. B) Phacoemulsification is used to break up a cataract. C) Laser retinal photocoagulation stabilizes a detached or torn retina. D) Strabotomy corrects strabismus. Page Ref: 354 Learning Obj.: 16-6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary 148) Which of the following surgical procedures is used to stabilize a detached retina? A) LASIK B) Laser retinal photocoagulation C) Photorefractive keratectomy D) IOL implant Answer: B Explanation: A) LASIK is used for correction of myopia. B) Laser retinal photocoagulation is used to stabilize a detached retina. C) Photorefractive keratectomy is used to reshape the cornea. D) An IOL implant is used to treat a cataract. Page Ref: 354 Learning Obj.: 16-6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary

149) Which of the following pathological conditions is the deterioration of part of the retina? A) Macular degeneration B) Cataract C) Amblyopia D) Strabismus Answer: A Explanation: A) Macular degeneration is the deterioration of the macula lutea of the retina. B) A cataract is lens cloudiness. C) Amblyopia is the loss of vision. D) Strabismus is a condition in which the eyes look in different directions at the same time. Page Ref: 355 Learning Obj.: 16-6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary 150) Which of the following pathological conditions is also called nearsightedness? A) Hemianopia B) Diplopia C) Hyperopia D) Myopia Answer: D Explanation: A) Hemianopia means "without half of vision." B) Diplopia means "double vision." C) Hyperopia means "excessive vision." D) Myopia is also called nearsightedness. Page Ref: 355 Learning Obj.: 16-6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary 151) Which of the following statements regarding myopia is NOT true? A) A person can see things close up. B) Distance vision is blurred. C) It is also called farsightedness. D) It is corrected with a diverging or biconcave lens. Answer: C Explanation: A) A person can see things close up with myopia. B) Distance vision is blurred with myopia. C) Myopia is also called nearsightedness, not farsightedness. D) Myopia is corrected with a diverging or biconcave lens. Page Ref: 355 Learning Obj.: 16-6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary

152) What is nyctalopia commonly called? A) Farsightedness B) Night blindness C) Nearsightedness D) Lazy eye Answer: B Explanation: A) Farsightedness is called hyperopia. B) Nyctalopia is commonly called night blindness. C) Nearsightedness is called myopia. D) Lazy eye is called amblyopia. Page Ref: 355 Learning Obj.: 16-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 153) Which of the following pathological conditions is characterized by jerky-appearing, involuntary eye movements? A) Nystagmus B) Photophobia C) Hemianopia D) Strabismus Answer: A Explanation: A) Nystagmus is characterized by jerky-appearing, involuntary eye movements. B) Photophobia symptoms do not include jerky-appearing, involuntary eye movements. C) Hemianopia symptoms do not include jerky-appearing, involuntary eye movements. D) Strabismus symptoms do not include jerky-appearing, involuntary eye movements. Page Ref: 355 Learning Obj.: 16-6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary 154) Photophobia means the eye is very sensitive to ________. A) light B) dryness C) cold D) stress Answer: A Explanation: A) Photophobia means the eye is very sensitive to light. B) Photophobia does not mean the eye is very sensitive to dryness. C) Photophobia does not mean the eye is very sensitive to cold. D) Photophobia does not mean the eye is very sensitive to stress. Page Ref: 356 Learning Obj.: 16-6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary

155) Which of the following surgical procedures uses a laser to reshape the cornea? A) LASIK B) Laser retinal photocoagulation C) Photorefractive keratectomy D) Radial keratotomy Answer: C Explanation: A) LASIK uses a laser to remove minute slices of corneal tissue. B) Laser retinal photocoagulation uses a laser to make pinpoint scars to stabilize a detached or torn retina. C) Photorefractive keratectomy uses a laser to reshape the cornea. D) Radial keratotomy uses spokelike incisions in the cornea to flatten it. Page Ref: 356 Learning Obj.: 16-6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary 156) Radial keratotomy makes ________ incisions in the cornea. A) spokelike B) round C) spiral D) deep Answer: A Explanation: A) Radial keratotomy makes spokelike incisions in the cornea. B) Radial keratotomy does not make round incisions in the cornea. C) Radial keratotomy does not make spiral incisions in the cornea. D) Radial keratotomy does not make deep incisions in the cornea. Page Ref: 356 Learning Obj.: 16-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 157) Which of the following statements regarding refractive error is NOT true? A) It is a defect in the ability of the eye to bend light rays. B) Light rays do not focus properly on the fovea centralis. C) Refractive error occurs only in myopia. D) The bending of light rays is called refraction. Answer: C Explanation: A) Refractive error is a defect in the ability of the eye to bend light rays. B) When refractive error occurs, light rays do not focus properly on the fovea centralis. C) Refractive error occurs in hyperopia as well as myopia. D) The bending of light rays is called refraction. Page Ref: 356 Learning Obj.: 16-6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary

158) Which of the following pathological conditions is the loss of half the vision? A) Nystagmus B) Photophobia C) Hemianopia D) Strabismus Answer: C Explanation: A) Nystagmus is jerky-appearing, involuntary eye movements. B) Photophobia is excessive sensitivity to light. C) Hemianopia is the loss of half the vision. D) In strabismus, the eyes look in different directions at the same time. Page Ref: 350 Learning Obj.: 16-6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary 159) Which of the following pathological conditions is due to weakened eye muscles? A) Astigmatism B) Cataract C) Glaucoma D) Strabismus Answer: D Explanation: A) Astigmatism is not caused by weakened eye muscles. B) A cataract is not caused by weakened eye muscles. C) Glaucoma is not caused by weakened eye muscles. D) Strabismus is due to weakened external eye muscles. Page Ref: 357 Learning Obj.: 16-6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary 160) Which of the following statements regarding strabismus is NOT true? A) It is caused by a weakness in the external eye muscles. B) It is commonly called cross-eyed if the eye is turned toward the nose. C) It may be corrected by surgery. D) Glasses are not an effective treatment. Answer: D Explanation: A) Strabismus is caused by a weakness in the external eye muscles. B) Strabismus is commonly called cross-eyed if the eye is turned toward the nose. C) Strabismus may be corrected by surgery. D) Glasses are one treatment that may be used to correct strabismus. Page Ref: 357 Learning Obj.: 16-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary

161) Another term for hordeolum is ________. A) conjunctivitis B) dacryolith C) oculomycosis D) stye Answer: D Explanation: A) Conjunctivitis is not another term for hordeolum. B) Dacryolith is not another term for hordeolum. C) Oculomycosis is not another term for hordeolum. D) Stye is another term for hordeolum. Page Ref: 357 Learning Obj.: 16-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 162) Which of the following conditions is a purulent infection of a sebaceous gland of the eyelid? A) Cataract B) Stye C) Strabismus D) Achromatopsia Answer: B Explanation: A) A cataract is the clouding of the lens. B) A stye is a purulent infection of a sebaceous gland on the eyelid. C) Strabismus is a condition in which the eyes look in different directions at the same time. D) Achromatopsia is color blindness. Page Ref: 357 Learning Obj.: 16-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 163) Which of the following diagnostic procedures examines the conjunctiva, cornea, iris, and lens? A) Fluorescein staining B) Slit lamp microscopy C) Visual acuity test D) Fluorescein angiography Answer: B Explanation: A) Fluorescein staining is used to highlight corneal abrasions. B) Slit lamp microscopy examines the conjunctiva, cornea, iris, and lens. C) A visual acuity test is used to measure the sharpness of a patient's vision. D) Fluorescein angiography examines the movement of blood through the blood vessels of the eye. Page Ref: 356 Learning Obj.: 16-6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary 38 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

164) Which of the following diagnostic procedures involves the use of intravenous dye? A) Fluorescein staining B) Ophthalmoscopy C) Fluorescein angiography D) Visual acuity test Answer: C Explanation: A) Fluorescein staining drops dye on the surface of the eyeball to highlight corneal abrasions. B) Ophthalmoscopy is the process of visually examining the eyes. C) Fluorescein angiography uses intravenous fluorescein to examine the movement of blood through the blood vessels of the eye. D) A visual acuity test is used to measure the sharpness of a patient's vision. Page Ref: 353 Learning Obj.: 16-6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary 165) Which of the following diagnostic procedures might involve the use of a Snellen chart? A) Fluorescein staining B) Ophthalmoscopy C) Fluorescein angiography D) Visual acuity test Answer: D Explanation: A) Fluorescein staining is used to highlight corneal abrasions. B) Ophthalmoscopy is the process of visually examining the eyes. C) Fluorescein angiography examines the movement of blood through the blood vessels of the eye. D) A visual acuity test is used to measure the sharpness of a patient's vision and might involve the use of a Snellen chart. Page Ref: 357 Learning Obj.: 16-6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary

166) Which term is NOT spelled correctly? A) Nyctalopia B) Glaucoma C) Myopia D) Nistagmus Answer: D Explanation: A) Nyctalopia is spelled correctly. B) Glaucoma is spelled correctly. C) Myopia is spelled correctly. D) Nistagmus is spelled nystagmus. Page Ref: 355 Learning Obj.: 16-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Spelling 167) Which term is NOT spelled correctly? A) Hyperopia B) Fluorescein C) Intraoccular D) Cryoextraction Answer: C Explanation: A) Hyperopia is spelled correctly. B) Fluorescein is spelled correctly. C) Intraoccular is spelled intraocular. D) Cryoextraction is spelled correctly. Page Ref: 350 Learning Obj.: 16-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Spelling 168) Which term is NOT spelled correctly? A) Conjuntivitis B) Coreometer C) Nasolacrimal D) Phacomalacia Answer: A Explanation: A) Conjuntivitis is spelled conjunctivitis. B) Coreometer is spelled correctly. C) Nasolacrimal is spelled correctly. D) Phacomalacia is spelled correctly. Page Ref: 347 Learning Obj.: 16-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Spelling

169) Which term is NOT spelled correctly? A) Opthalmic B) Phacoemulsification C) Optician D) Hemianopia Answer: A Explanation: A) Opthalmic is spelled ophthalmic. B) Phacoemulsification is spelled correctly. C) Optician is spelled correctly. D) Hemianopia is spelled correctly. Page Ref: 350 Learning Obj.: 16-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Spelling 170) Which term is NOT spelled correctly? A) Photophobia B) Strabizmus C) Keratotomy D) Refractive Answer: B Explanation: A) Photophobia is spelled correctly. B) Strabizmus is spelled strabismus. C) Keratotomy is spelled correctly. D) Refractive is spelled correctly. Page Ref: 357 Learning Obj.: 16-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Spelling 171) Which abbreviation stands for the sharpness of a patient's vision? A) VF B) VA C) REM D) Acc Answer: B Explanation: A) VF stands for "visual field." B) VA stands for "visual acuity." C) REM stands for "rapid eye movement." D) Acc stands for "accommodation." Page Ref: 357 Learning Obj.: 16-7 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Abbreviations

172) Which abbreviation stands for a surgical procedure? A) VA B) PRK C) REM D) Ast Answer: B Explanation: A) VA stands for "visual acuity." B) PRK stands for "photorefractive keratectomy." C) REM stands for "rapid eye movement." D) Astigm stands for "astigmatism." Page Ref: 356 Learning Obj.: 16-7 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Abbreviations 173) Which abbreviation stands for a word that means "nearsightedness"? A) Acc B) LASIK C) MY D) RK Answer: C Explanation: A) Acc stands for "accommodation." B) LASIK stands for "laser-assisted in situ keratomileusis." C) MY stands for "myopia." D) RK stands for "radial keratotomy." Page Ref: 355 Learning Obj.: 16-7 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Abbreviations 174) Which abbreviation stands for a pathological condition of the eye? A) PRK B) IOL C) s.gl. D) MY Answer: D Explanation: A) PRK stands for "photorefractive keratectomy." B) IOL stands for "intraocular lens." C) s.gl. stands for "without correction or glasses." D) MY stands for "myopia." Page Ref: 355 Learning Obj.: 16-7 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Abbreviations

175) Which abbreviation is NOT a surgical procedure? A) REM B) ECCE C) LASIK D) PRK Answer: A Explanation: A) REM stands for "rapid eye movement." B) ECCE stands for "extracapsular cataract extraction." C) LASIK stands for "laser-assisted in situ keratomileusis." D) PRK stands for "photorefractive keratectomy." Page Ref: 357 Learning Obj.: 16-7 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Abbreviations

Match each term on the left with the correct definition on the right. A) cloudy lens B) nearsightedness C) paralysis of the ciliary body D) white of the eye E) bright green dye F) night blindness G) test for visual acuity H) excessive sensitivity to light I) caused by uneven bending of light rays J) doctor of optometry K) grinds corrective lenses L) a mucous membrane M) contains rods and cones N) color blindness O) double vision P) surgery to correct myopia Q) point of clearest vision R) jerky-appearing, involuntary eye movements S) instrument for measuring pressure T) lazy eye U) uses a laser to reshape the cornea V) dilates and constricts to control light into the eye W) infected sebaceous gland X) produces tears Y) farsightedness 176) sclera Page Ref: 351 Learning Obj.: 16-4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 177) retina Page Ref: 351 Learning Obj.: 16-4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 178) fovea centralis Page Ref: 351 Learning Obj.: 16-4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology

179) pupil Page Ref: 347 Learning Obj.: 16-4 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 180) conjunctiva Page Ref: 347 Learning Obj.: 16-4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 181) lacrimal gland Page Ref: 348 Learning Obj.: 16-4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 182) cycloplegia Page Ref: 348 Learning Obj.: 16-6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary 183) diplopia Page Ref: 350 Learning Obj.: 16-6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary 184) tonometer Page Ref: 351 Learning Obj.: 16-6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary 185) optician Page Ref: 355 Learning Obj.: 16-1 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Medical Specialties 186) nyctalopia Page Ref: 355 Learning Obj.: 16-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 45 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

187) myopia Page Ref: 355 Learning Obj.: 16-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 188) achromatopsia Page Ref: 352 Learning Obj.: 16-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 189) hyperopia Page Ref: 354 Learning Obj.: 16-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 190) nystagmus Page Ref: 355 Learning Obj.: 16-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 191) photophobia Page Ref: 356 Learning Obj.: 16-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 192) Snellen chart Page Ref: 356 Learning Obj.: 16-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 193) stye Page Ref: 357 Learning Obj.: 16-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 194) LASIK Page Ref: 354 Learning Obj.: 16-7 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Abbreviations 46 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

195) PRK Page Ref: 355 Learning Obj.: 16-7 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Abbreviations 196) fluorescein Page Ref: 353 Learning Obj.: 16-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 197) cataract Page Ref: 352 Learning Obj.: 16-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 198) astigmatism Page Ref: 352 Learning Obj.: 16-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 199) amblyopia Page Ref: 352 Learning Obj.: 16-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 200) OD Page Ref: 357 Learning Obj.: 16-7 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Abbreviations Answers: 176) D 177) M 178) Q 179) V 180) L 181) X 182) C 183) O 184) S 185) K 186) F 187) B 188) N 189) Y 190) R 191) H 192) G 193) W 194) P 195) U 196) E 197) A 198) I 199) T 200) J

201) Describe the path of light through the eye. Answer: Light striking the retina to produce an image passes through the: ∙ Cornea ∙ Pupil ∙ Aqueous humor ∙ Lens ∙ Vitreous humor ∙ Retina To see properly, the following must be in place: ∙ Coordination between external eye muscles so that both eyes move together ∙ Correct amount of light admitted by the pupil ∙ Correct focus of light on the retina by the lens ∙ Optic nerve transmits sensory images to the brain Page Ref: 344, 345, 347, 348 Learning Obj.: 16-2 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 202) Compare and contrast myopia, hyperopia, and astigmatism. Answer: Comparison: ∙ All three are refractive errors, faulty bending of light rays. ∙ All three result in blurred vision. Contrast: ∙ Astigmatism ∘ Caused by irregular curvature of cornea ∘ Corrected with cylindrical lenses ∙ Hyperopia ∘ Also called farsightedness ∘ Able to see things in distance but has trouble reading material at close range ∘ Corrected with converging or biconvex lens ∙ Myopia ∘ Also called nearsightedness ∘ Able to see things close up but distance vision is blurred ∘ Corrected with diverging or biconcave lens Page Ref: 352, 354, 355 Learning Obj.: 16-6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary

Medical Terminology: Get Connected!, 3e (Frucht) Chapter 17 Otorhinolaryngology: Ear, Nose, and Throat All answers to questions asking for a combining form must be written in the combining form style, meaning word root/combining vowel. For example, the combining form meaning "heart" is cardi/o. All answers to questions asking for a suffix must be written in suffix form, meaning a hyphen before your answer. For example, the suffix meaning "cell" is -cyte. All answers to questions asking for a prefix must be written in prefix form, meaning a hyphen after your answer. For example, a prefix meaning "two" is bi-. Do NOT capitalize any of your answers or include a period at the end of your answer. The computer will NOT recognize your answer as correct if it is written in any other style. 1) The combining form that means adenoid is ________. Answer: adenoid/o; adenoido Page Ref: 368 Learning Obj.: 17-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 2) A combining form other than audit/o that means hearing is ________. Answer: audi/o; audio Page Ref: 368 Learning Obj.: 17-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 3) A combining form other than ot/o that means ear is ________. Answer: aur/o; auro Page Ref: 368 Learning Obj.: 17-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 4) The combining form that means cochlea is ________. Answer: cochle/o; cochleo Page Ref: 368 Learning Obj.: 17-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 5) The combining form that means epiglottis is ________. Answer: epiglott/o; epiglotto Page Ref: 368 Learning Obj.: 17-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 1 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

6) The combining form that means larynx is ________. Answer: laryng/o; laryngo Page Ref: 368 Learning Obj.: 17-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 7) A combining form other than tympan/o that means tympanic membrane is ________. Answer: myring/o; myringo Page Ref: 368 Learning Obj.: 17-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 8) A combining form other than nas/o that means nose is ________. Answer: rhin/o; rhino Page Ref: 368 Learning Obj.: 17-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 9) A combining form that means pharynx is ________. Answer: pharyng/o; pharyngo Page Ref: 368 Learning Obj.: 17-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 10) The combining form that means sinus is ________. Answer: sinus/o; sinuso Page Ref: 368 Learning Obj.: 17-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 11) The combining form that means tonsils is ________. Answer: tonsill/o; tonsillo Page Ref: 368 Learning Obj.: 17-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

12) The combining form that means trachea is ________. Answer: trache/o; tracheo Page Ref: 368 Learning Obj.: 17-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 13) A combining form that means fungus is ________. Answer: myc/o; myco Page Ref: 368 Learning Obj.: 17-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 14) The combining form that means stomach is ________. Answer: gastr/o; gastro Page Ref: 368 Learning Obj.: 17-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 15) The combining form that means nerve is ________. Answer: neur/o; neuro Page Ref: 368 Learning Obj.: 17-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 16) The combining form that means pus is ________. Answer: py/o; pyo Page Ref: 368 Learning Obj.: 17-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 17) The suffix that means involuntary muscle contraction is ________. Answer: -spasm; spasm Page Ref: 369 Learning Obj.: 17-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

18) The suffix that means inflammation is ________. Answer: -itis; itis Page Ref: 368 Learning Obj.: 17-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 19) The suffix that means study of is ________. Answer: -logy; logy Page Ref: 369 Learning Obj.: 17-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 20) The suffix that means enlarged is ________. Answer: -megaly; megaly Page Ref: 369 Learning Obj.: 17-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 21) The suffix that means discharge is ________. Answer: -rrhea; rrhea Page Ref: 369 Learning Obj.: 17-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 22) The suffix that means process of measuring is ________. Answer: -metry; metry Page Ref: 369 Learning Obj.: 17-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 23) The suffix that means rupture is ________. Answer: -rrhexis; rrhexis Page Ref: 369 Learning Obj.: 17-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

24) The suffix that means hardening is ________. Answer: -sclerosis; sclerosis Page Ref: 369 Learning Obj.: 17-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 25) The suffix that means sense of smell is ________. Answer: -osmia; osmia Page Ref: 369 Learning Obj.: 17-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 26) The suffix that means voice is ________. Answer: -phonia; phonia Page Ref: 369 Learning Obj.: 17-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 27) The suffix that means narrowing is ________. Answer: -stenosis; stenosis Page Ref: 369 Learning Obj.: 17-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 28) The prefix that means beside is ________. Answer: para-; para Page Ref: 369 Learning Obj.: 17-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 29) The prefix that means all is ________. Answer: pan-; pan Page Ref: 369 Learning Obj.: 17-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

30) A medical term other than aural that means pertaining to the ear is ________. Answer: otic Page Ref: 374 Learning Obj.: 17-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building 31) A medical term that means pertaining to the epiglottis is ________. Answer: epiglottic Page Ref: 372 Learning Obj.: 17-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building 32) A medical term that means pertaining to the larynx is ________. Answer: laryngeal Page Ref: 372 Learning Obj.: 17-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building 33) A medical term that means pertaining to the nose and stomach is ________. Answer: nasogastric Page Ref: 373 Learning Obj.: 17-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building 34) A medical term that means without sense of smell is ________. Answer: anosmia Page Ref: 373 Learning Obj.: 17-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building 35) A medical term that means pertaining to the pharynx is ________. Answer: pharyngeal Page Ref: 375 Learning Obj.: 17-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building

36) A medical term that means pertaining to the tonsils is ________. Answer: tonsillar Page Ref: 376 Learning Obj.: 17-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building 37) A medical term that means pertaining to the trachea is ________. Answer: tracheal Page Ref: 376 Learning Obj.: 17-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building 38) A medical term that means surgical removal of the adenoid is ________. Answer: adenoidectomy Page Ref: 371 Learning Obj.: 17-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building 39) A medical term that means pharynx inflammation is ________. Answer: pharyngitis Page Ref: 375 Learning Obj.: 17-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building 40) A medical term that means instrument for viewing the larynx is ________. Answer: laryngoscope Page Ref: 372 Learning Obj.: 17-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building 41) A medical term that means abnormal condition of nose fungus is ________. Answer: rhinomycosis Page Ref: 375 Learning Obj.: 17-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building

42) A medical term that means narrowing of the trachea is ________. Answer: tracheostenosis Page Ref: 376 Learning Obj.: 17-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building 43) A medical term that means surgical repair of the eardrum is ________. Answer: myringoplasty; tympanoplasty Page Ref: 373, 377 Learning Obj.: 17-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building 44) A medical term that means without voice is ________. Answer: aphonia Page Ref: 375 Learning Obj.: 17-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building 45) A medical term that means pertaining to hearing is ________. Answer: auditory Page Ref: 371 Learning Obj.: 17-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building 46) A medical term that means one who studies hearing is ________. Answer: audiologist Page Ref: 371 Learning Obj.: 17-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building 47) A medical term that means pertaining to the cochlea is ________. Answer: cochlear Page Ref: 372 Learning Obj.: 17-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building

48) A medical term that means pertaining to the eardrum is ________. Answer: tympanic Page Ref: 377 Learning Obj.: 17-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building 49) A medical term that means process of visually examining the ear is ________. Answer: otoscopy Page Ref: 374 Learning Obj.: 17-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building 50) A medical term that means discharge of pus from the ear is ________. Answer: otopyorrhea Page Ref: 374 Learning Obj.: 17-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building 51) The ear is responsible for hearing and balance. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 368 Learning Obj.: 17-2 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 52) The larynx is responsible for speech. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 368 Learning Obj.: 17-2 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 53) The semicircular canals are sensory organs for hearing. Answer: FALSE Explanation: The semicircular canals are organs for balance. Page Ref: 371 Learning Obj.: 17-2 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology

54) The auricle is also called the pinna. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 371 Learning Obj.: 17-4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 55) The epiglottis closes to prevent food from entering the larynx or trachea. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 372 Learning Obj.: 17-2 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 56) The tonsils are located in the larynx. Answer: FALSE Explanation: The tonsils are located in the pharynx. Page Ref: 374 Learning Obj.: 17-4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 57) The vocal cords vibrate to produce sound. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 372 Learning Obj.: 17-2 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 58) The Eustachian tube connects the pharynx to the inner ear. Answer: FALSE Explanation: The Eustachian or auditory tube connects the pharynx to the middle ear. Page Ref: 374 Learning Obj.: 17-4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 59) The larynx is the voice box. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 372 Learning Obj.: 17-4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology

60) The pharynx carries air directly into the lungs. Answer: FALSE Explanation: The trachea carries air into the lungs. Page Ref: 376 Learning Obj.: 17-2 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 61) Otorhinolaryngology treats organs of the head and neck. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 368 Learning Obj.: 17-1 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Medical Specialties 62) The adenoids are also called the pharyngeal tonsils. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 370 Learning Obj.: 17-4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 63) The malleus, incus, and pinna are called the ossicles. Answer: FALSE Explanation: The malleus, incus, and stapes are called the ossicles. Page Ref: 371 Learning Obj.: 17-4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 64) The cochlea is commonly called the outer ear. Answer: FALSE Explanation: The cochlea is part of the inner ear. Page Ref: 371 Learning Obj.: 17-4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 65) The tympanic membrane is commonly called the eardrum. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 373 Learning Obj.: 17-4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology

66) The nasal septum divides the pharynx down the middle. Answer: FALSE Explanation: The nasal septum divides the nasal cavity down the middle. Page Ref: 373 Learning Obj.: 17-4 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 67) Air enters the nose through the nares. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 373 Learning Obj.: 17-2 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 68) The middle ear is also called the cochlea because it is coiled like a snail's shell. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Part of the inner ear is called the cochlea because it is coiled like a snail's shell. Page Ref: 372 Learning Obj.: 17-4 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 69) The trachea transports food and liquids to the esophagus. Answer: FALSE Explanation: The pharynx transports food and liquids to the esophagus. Page Ref: 368 Learning Obj.: 17-2 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 70) The paranasal sinuses act as an echo chamber for sound production. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 375 Learning Obj.: 17-2 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 71) The tonsils house a large number of white blood cells to protect the body. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 370 Learning Obj.: 17-2 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology

72) An acoustic neuroma is a cancerous tumor of the sheath around the auditory nerve. Answer: FALSE Explanation: An acoustic neuroma is a benign tumor of the sheath around the auditory nerve. Page Ref: 377 Learning Obj.: 17-6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary 73) A cochlear implant is a device to improve balance. Answer: FALSE Explanation: A cochlear implant is a device to improve hearing. Page Ref: 378 Learning Obj.: 17-6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary 74) Croup is an acute condition found in children that is characterized by a barking type of cough. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 378 Learning Obj.: 17-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 75) A decongestant is a medication to reduce nasal and sinus stuffiness. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 378 Learning Obj.: 17-6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary 76) Diphtheria is also called whooping cough. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Pertussis is also called whooping cough. Page Ref: 380 Learning Obj.: 17-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 77) An endotracheal tube passes through the mouth and into the trachea. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 378 Learning Obj.: 17-6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary

78) Epistaxis is commonly called deafness. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Epistaxis is commonly called a nosebleed. Page Ref: 378 Learning Obj.: 17-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 79) The falling test is designed to evaluate balance but not equilibrium. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Balance and equilibrium are the same. Page Ref: 378 Learning Obj.: 17-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 80) A hearing aid may also be called an amplification device. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 378 Learning Obj.: 17-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 81) Ménière's disease is a condition affecting the middle ear. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Ménière's disease is a condition affecting the inner ear. Page Ref: 378 Learning Obj.: 17-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 82) A nasal cannula is a two-pronged plastic device for delivering oxygen into the nose. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 379 Learning Obj.: 17-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 83) Otitis externa is a fungal infection of the outer ear. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 379 Learning Obj.: 17-6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary

84) Otitis interna is also called swimmer's ear. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Otitis externa is also called swimmer's ear. Page Ref: 379 Learning Obj.: 17-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 85) OM is a common infection in children. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 379 Learning Obj.: 17-7 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Abbreviations 86) Inner ear infections may affect both hearing and balance. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 379 Learning Obj.: 17-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 87) Another term for otitis interna is middle ear infection. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Another term for otitis media is middle ear infection. Page Ref: 379 Learning Obj.: 17-6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary 88) Pertussis forms a thick, membranous film across the throat. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Diphtheria forms a thick, membranous film across the throat. Page Ref: 378 Learning Obj.: 17-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 89) The DPT vaccine protects against pertussis. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 380 Learning Obj.: 17-7 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Abbreviations

90) PE tubes assist in the draining of fluid trapped in the inner ear. Answer: FALSE Explanation: PE tubes assist in the draining of fluid trapped in the middle ear. Page Ref: 380 Learning Obj.: 17-7 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Abbreviations 91) Pharyngitis is an inflammation of the windpipe. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Pharyngitis is an inflammation of the throat. Page Ref: 375 Learning Obj.: 17-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building 92) Laryngoplegia means surgical repair of the voice box. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Laryngoplegia means paralysis of the voice box. Page Ref: 372 Learning Obj.: 17-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building 93) Tracheomegaly is narrowing of the trachea. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Tracheomegaly is enlargement of the trachea. Page Ref: 376 Learning Obj.: 17-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building 94) Tinnitus is ringing in the ear(s). Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 380 Learning Obj.: 17-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 95) The abbreviation Oto stands for an ear infection. Answer: FALSE Explanation: The abbreviation Oto stands for otology. Page Ref: 380 Learning Obj.: 17-7 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Abbreviations 16 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

96) The abbreviation T&A stands for a diagnostic lab test. Answer: FALSE Explanation: The abbreviation T&A stands for a surgical procedure. Page Ref: 380 Learning Obj.: 17-7 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Abbreviations 97) Rinne and Weber tests use a lighted scope to examine ear structures. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Rinne and Weber tests use a tuning fork. Page Ref: 380 Learning Obj.: 17-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 98) Vertigo means "sensation of whirling around." Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 380 Learning Obj.: 17-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 99) Audiometry is a test of hearing ability. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 371 Learning Obj.: 17-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building 100) An ENT is an ear, nose, and throat doctor. Answer: TRUE Page Ref: 368 Learning Obj.: 17-7 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Abbreviations

101) Which medical term refers to an inflammation of one of the pairs of tonsils? A) Adenoiditis B) Epiglottitis C) Pharyngitis D) Pansinusitis Answer: A Explanation: A) Adenoiditis refers to an inflammation of one of the tonsils. B) Epiglottitis is an inflammation of the epiglottis. C) Pharyngitis is an inflammation of the pharynx. D) Pansinusitis is an inflammation of all the sinuses. Page Ref: 371 Learning Obj.: 17-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building 102) Which medical term means "pertaining to the ear"? A) Otic B) Auditory C) Audiogram D) Otalgia Answer: A Explanation: A) Otic means "pertaining to the ear." B) Auditory means "pertaining to hearing." C) Audiogram means "record of hearing." D) Otalgia means "ear pain." Page Ref: 374 Learning Obj.: 17-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building 103) Which term means "record of a hearing test"? A) Audiometry B) Auditory C) Audiogram D) Audiometer Answer: C Explanation: A) Audiometry means "process of measuring hearing." B) Auditory means "pertaining to hearing." C) Audiogram means "record of a hearing test." D) Audiometer means "instrument for measuring hearing." Page Ref: 371 Learning Obj.: 17-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building

104) Which term means "instrument for viewing the voice box"? A) Laryngoscopy B) Pharyngoscope C) Otoscope D) Laryngoscope Answer: D Explanation: A) Laryngoscopy means "process of visually examining the voice box." B) Pharyngoscope means "instrument for viewing the pharynx." C) Otoscope means "instrument for viewing the ear." D) Laryngoscope means "instrument for viewing the voice box." Page Ref: 372 Learning Obj.: 17-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building 105) Which term refers to a fungal infection? A) Otomycosis B) Adenoiditis C) Otopyorrhea D) Myringitis Answer: A Explanation: A) Otomycosis refers to a fungal infection. B) Adenoiditis means "inflammation of the adenoids." C) Otopyorrhea means "discharge of pus from the ear." D) Myringitis means "inflammation of the tympanic membrane." Page Ref: 374 Learning Obj.: 17-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building 106) Which term means "ear pain"? A) Otology B) Otalgia C) Otopyorrhea D) Otomycosis Answer: B Explanation: A) Otology means "study of the ear." B) Otalgia means "ear pain." C) Otopyorrhea means "discharge of pus from the ear." D) Otomycosis means "abnormal condition of ear fungus." Page Ref: 374 Learning Obj.: 17-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building

107) The term nasogastric refers to the nose and the ________. A) throat B) larynx C) stomach D) esophagus Answer: C Explanation: A) Nasogastric is not a term referring to the nose and the throat. B) Nasogastric is not a term referring to the nose and the larynx. C) Nasogastric is a term referring to the nose and the stomach. D) Nasogastric is not a term referring to the nose and the esophagus. Page Ref: 373 Learning Obj.: 17-3 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building 108) Which term means "paralysis of the voice box"? A) Laryngitis B) Laryngospasm C) Laryngoplegia D) Laryngoplasty Answer: C Explanation: A) Laryngitis means "inflammation of the voice box." B) Laryngospasm means "involuntary muscle contraction of the voice box." C) Laryngoplegia means "paralysis of the voice box." D) Laryngoplasty means "surgical repair of the voice box." Page Ref: 372 Learning Obj.: 17-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building 109) Which term means "cutting into the eardrum"? A) Tympanectomy B) Myringoplasty C) Tympanopathy D) Myringotomy Answer: D Explanation: A) Tympanectomy means "surgical removal of the eardrum." B) Myringoplasty means "surgical repair of the eardrum." C) Tympanopathy means "disease of the eardrum." D) Myringotomy means "cutting into the eardrum." Page Ref: 373 Learning Obj.: 17-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building

110) Which of the following terms is NOT a surgical procedure? A) Audiometry B) Laryngoplasty C) Tonsillectomy D) Tracheotomy Answer: A Explanation: A) Audiometry means "process of measuring hearing." B) Laryngoplasty means "surgical repair of the voice box." C) Tonsillectomy means "surgical removal of the tonsils." D) Tracheotomy means "cutting into the trachea." Page Ref: 371 Learning Obj.: 17-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building 111) Which term means "cutting into the throat"? A) Myringotomy B) Pharyngotomy C) Laryngoplasty D) Tympanotomy Answer: B Explanation: A) Myringotomy means "cutting into the eardrum." B) Pharyngotomy means "cutting into the throat." C) Laryngoplasty means "surgical repair of the voice box." D) Tympanotomy means "cutting into the eardrum." Page Ref: 375 Learning Obj.: 17-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building 112) Which of the following pairs is mismatched? A) Aur/o—ear B) Laryng/o—voice box C) Ot/o—nose D) Pharyng/o—throat Answer: C Explanation: A) Aur/o means "ear." B) Laryng/o means "voice box." C) Ot/o means "ear," not nose. D) Pharyng/o means "throat." Page Ref: 368 Learning Obj.: 17-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

113) Which suffix means "enlarged"? A) -stenosis B) -megaly C) -sclerosis D) -metry Answer: B Explanation: A) -stenosis means "narrowing." B) -megaly means "enlarged." C) -sclerosis means "hardening." D) -metry means "process of measuring." Page Ref: 369 Learning Obj.: 17-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 114) Which of the following prefixes does NOT mean "without"? A) AnB) EndoC) AD) DeAnswer: B Explanation: A) An- means "without." B) Endo- means "within or inner." C) A- means "without." D) De- means "without." Page Ref: 369 Learning Obj.: 17-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 115) Which suffix means "voice"? A) -ory B) -plegia C) -phonia D) -plasty Answer: C Explanation: A) -ory means "pertaining to." B) -plegia means "paralysis." C) -phonia means "voice." D) -plasty means "surgical repair." Page Ref: 369 Learning Obj.: 17-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building

116) Which combining form means "tympanic membrane"? A) Epiglott/o B) Rhin/o C) Myring/o D) Trache/o Answer: C Explanation: A) Epiglott/o means "epiglottis." B) Rhin/o means "nose." C) Myring/o means "tympanic membrane." D) Trache/o means "trachea." Page Ref: 368 Learning Obj.: 17-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 117) Which of the following combining forms means "ear"? A) Audi/o B) Audit/o C) Aur/o D) Adenoid/o Answer: C Explanation: A) Audi/o means "hearing." B) Audit/o means "hearing." C) Aur/o means "ear." D) Adenoid/o means "adenoid." Page Ref: 368 Learning Obj.: 17-3 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Word Building 118) Which of the following pairs of terms is mismatched? A) Trachea—windpipe B) Larynx—voice box C) Pharynx—throat D) Cochlea—tonsils Answer: D Explanation: A) The trachea is the windpipe. B) The larynx is the voice box. C) The pharynx is the throat. D) The cochlea is part of the inner ear. Page Ref: 371 Learning Obj.: 17-4 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology

119) Which of the following is (are) NOT an organ treated in otorhinolaryngology? A) Bronchi B) Ears C) Throat D) Voice box Answer: A Explanation: A) The bronchi are not treated in otorhinolaryngology. B) The ears are organs treated in otorhinolaryngology. C) The throat is an organ treated in otorhinolaryngology. D) The voice box is an organ treated in otorhinolaryngology. Page Ref: 368 Learning Obj.: 17-4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 120) Which of the following choices presents the airways in anatomical order? A) Larynx, trachea, pharynx, nose B) Nose, trachea, pharynx, larynx C) Nose, pharynx, larynx, trachea D) Pharynx, larynx, trachea, nose Answer: C Explanation: A) Larynx, trachea, pharynx, nose is not correct anatomical order. B) Nose, trachea, pharynx, larynx is not correct anatomical order. C) Anatomical order is nose, pharynx, larynx, trachea. D) Pharynx, larynx, trachea, nose is not correct anatomical order. Page Ref: 368 Learning Obj.: 17-4 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 121) Which of the following is NOT one of the three pairs of tonsils? A) Pharyngeal B) Laryngeal C) Palatine D) Lingual Answer: B Explanation: A) Pharyngeal is a pair of tonsils. B) Laryngeal is not one of the three pairs of tonsils. C) Palatine is a pair of tonsils. D) Lingual is a pair of tonsils. Page Ref: 370, 374 Learning Obj.: 17-4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology

122) Which of the following statements regarding the tonsils is NOT true? A) There are three pairs of tonsils. B) Tonsils are located in the pharynx. C) Tonsils house large numbers of white blood cells. D) The adenoids are the only tonsils located in the larynx. Answer: D Explanation: A) There are three pairs of tonsils. B) Tonsils are located in the pharynx. C) Tonsils house large numbers of white blood cells. D) Adenoids are located in the pharynx. Page Ref: 370, 374 Learning Obj.: 17-4 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 123) Which of the following is NOT one of the ossicles? A) Malleus B) Incus C) Stapes D) Cochlea Answer: D Explanation: A) The malleus is one of the ossicles. B) The incus is one of the ossicles. C) The stapes is one of the ossicles. D) The cochlea is not one of the ossicles. Page Ref: 371 Learning Obj.: 17-4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 124) The ossicles are located in which cavity of the ear? A) External B) Middle C) Inner D) Nasal Answer: B Explanation: A) The ossicles are not located in the external cavity of the ear. B) The ossicles are located in the middle cavity of the ear. C) The ossicles are not located in the inner cavity of the ear. D) The nasal cavity is not a cavity of the ear. Page Ref: 371 Learning Obj.: 17-4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology

125) Which of the following statements regarding hearing is NOT true? A) The pinna captures sound waves. B) Fluid vibrations in the cochlea strike hair cells that in turn stimulate nerve endings. C) The auditory nerve sends messages to the brain. D) The ossicles conduct vibrations across the inner ear. Answer: D Explanation: A) The pinna captures sound waves. B) Fluid vibrations in the cochlea strike hair cells that in turn stimulate nerve endings. C) The auditory nerve sends messages to the brain. D) The ossicles conduct vibrations across the middle, not the inner, ear. Page Ref: 371 Learning Obj.: 17-2 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 126) Which of the following pairs is mismatched? A) Cochlea—balance B) Pinna—auricle C) Malleus—an ossicle D) Tympanic membrane—eardrum Answer: A Explanation: A) The cochlea is involved with conducting sound, not with maintaining balance. B) The pinna is also called the auricle. C) The malleus is an ossicle. D) The tympanic membrane is an eardrum. Page Ref: 371 Learning Obj.: 17-4 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 127) Which of the following statements regarding the cochlea is NOT true? A) It contains hair cells. B) It is part of the middle ear. C) It is responsible for hearing. D) It is shaped like a coiled snail shell. Answer: B Explanation: A) The cochlea contains hair cells. B) The cochlea is part of the inner, not the middle, ear. C) The cochlea is responsible for hearing. D) The cochlea is shaped like a coiled snail shell. Page Ref: 372 Learning Obj.: 17-4 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology

128) Which of the following statements regarding the epiglottis is NOT true? A) It is a bony flap. B) It sits above the larynx. C) It prevents food and drink from entering the larynx. D) It rotates to cover the larynx when you swallow. Answer: A Explanation: A) The epiglottis is a cartilage, not a bony, flap. B) The epiglottis sits above the larynx. C) The epiglottis prevents food and drink from entering the larynx. D) The epiglottis rotates to cover the larynx when you swallow. Page Ref: 372 Learning Obj.: 17-4 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 129) Which of the following statements regarding the larynx is NOT true? A) It is commonly called the voice box. B) It is located between the pharynx and the throat. C) It contains the vocal cords. D) It produces sound. Answer: B Explanation: A) The larynx is commonly called the voice box. B) The larynx is located between the pharynx and the trachea. The pharynx is the throat. C) The larynx contains the vocal cords. D) The larynx produces sound. Page Ref: 372 Learning Obj.: 17-4 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 130) The nasal cavity is divided down the middle by the ________. A) palate B) sinuses C) nasal septum D) nares Answer: C Explanation: A) The palate does not divide the nasal cavity down the middle. B) The sinuses do not divide the nasal cavity down the middle. C) The nasal cavity is divided down the middle by the nasal septum. D) The nares do not divide the nasal cavity down the middle. Page Ref: 373 Learning Obj.: 17-4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology

131) Which of the following is NOT a function of the nasal cavity? A) Warms air B) Moisturizes air C) Cleanses air D) Removes oxygen from air Answer: D Explanation: A) The nasal cavity warms air. B) The nasal cavity moisturizes air. C) The nasal cavity cleanses air. D) It is not a function of the nasal cavity to remove oxygen from air. Page Ref: 373 Learning Obj.: 17-2 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 132) The two external openings into the nose are called the ________. A) nares B) cilia C) sinuses D) nasal septum Answer: A Explanation: A) The two external openings into the nose are called the nares. B) The cilia are not external openings into the nose. C) The sinuses are not external openings into the nose. D) The nasal septum is not an external opening into the nose. Page Ref: 373 Learning Obj.: 17-4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 133) Which of the following statements regarding the pharynx is NOT true? A) It is commonly called the throat. B) It is a muscular tube. C) It transports air to the esophagus. D) It is the location of the tonsils. Answer: C Explanation: A) The pharynx is commonly called the throat. B) The pharynx is a muscular tube. C) The pharynx transports air to the larynx, not the esophagus. D) The pharynx is the location of the tonsils. Page Ref: 374 Learning Obj.: 17-4 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology

134) Which structure connects the middle ear to the pharynx? A) Trachea B) Internal auditory canal C) Eustachian tube D) Ossicles Answer: C Explanation: A) The trachea does not connect the middle ear to the pharynx. B) The internal auditory canal does not connect the middle ear to the pharynx. C) The Eustachian or auditory tube connects the middle ear to the pharynx. D) The ossicles do not connect the middle ear to the pharynx. Page Ref: 374 Learning Obj.: 17-4 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 135) The paranasal sinuses are located within the ________. A) nasal cavity B) facial bones C) pharynx D) inner ear Answer: B Explanation: A) The paranasal sinuses are not located within the nasal cavity. B) The paranasal sinuses are located within the facial bones. C) The paranasal sinuses are not located within the pharynx. D) The paranasal sinuses are not located within the inner ear. Page Ref: 375 Learning Obj.: 17-4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 136) Air is carried between the larynx and bronchial tubes in the ________. A) epiglottis B) trachea C) nasal cavity D) esophagus Answer: B Explanation: A) Air is not carried between the larynx and bronchial tubes in the epiglottis. B) Air is carried between the larynx and bronchial tubes in the trachea. C) Air is not carried between the larynx and bronchial tubes in the nasal cavity. D) Air is not carried between the larynx and bronchial tubes in the esophagus. Page Ref: 376 Learning Obj.: 17-2 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology

137) Which of the following terms refers to the absence of the sense of smell? A) Dysphonia B) Anosmia C) Tinnitus D) Vertigo Answer: B Explanation: A) Dysphonia means "difficulty speaking." B) Anosmia refers to the absence of the sense of smell. C) Tinnitus is a term for "ringing in the ear(s)." D) Vertigo is a term for "sensation of spinning." Page Ref: 373 Learning Obj.: 17-6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary 138) Which of the following terms refers to difficulty speaking? A) Dysphonia B) Anosmia C) Tinnitus D) Vertigo Answer: A Explanation: A) Dysphonia refers to difficulty speaking. B) Anosmia means "absence of smell." C) Tinnitus is a term for "ringing in the ear(s)." D) Vertigo is a term for "sensation of spinning." Page Ref: 375 Learning Obj.: 17-6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary 139) Which of the following statements regarding an acoustic neuroma is NOT true? A) It is a cancerous tumor. B) It is located on the cochlear nerve sheath. C) Tinnitus is a symptom. D) It causes progressive hearing loss. Answer: A Explanation: A) An acoustic neuroma is a benign, not a cancerous, tumor. B) An acoustic neuroma is located on the cochlear nerve sheath. C) Tinnitus is a symptom of an acoustic neuroma. D) An acoustic neuroma causes progressive hearing loss. Page Ref: 377 Learning Obj.: 17-6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary

140) Which of the following is a hearing device surgically placed under the skin behind the ear? A) Cochlear implant B) Hearing aid C) Amplification device D) Endotracheal tube Answer: A Explanation: A) A cochlear implant is a hearing device surgically placed under the skin behind the ear. B) A hearing aid is another term for "amplification device." C) An amplification device is another term for "hearing aid." D) An endotracheal tube is a tube inserted through the mouth and into the trachea. Page Ref: 378 Learning Obj.: 17-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 141) Which of the following pairs is mismatched? A) Pertussis—whooping cough B) Acoustic neuroma—tumor C) Tinnitus—ringing in the ear(s) D) Epistaxis—outer ear infection Answer: D Explanation: A) Pertussis is also called whooping cough. B) An acoustic neuroma is a tumor. C) Tinnitus is ringing in the ear(s). D) Epistaxis is a nosebleed, not an outer ear infection. Page Ref: 378 Learning Obj.: 17-6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary 142) Which of the following conditions is characterized by a barking cough? A) Diphtheria B) Epistaxis C) Croup D) Ménière's disease Answer: C Explanation: A) Diphtheria is characterized by the formation of a thick, membranous film across the throat. B) Epistaxis is a nosebleed. C) Croup is characterized by a barking cough. D) Ménière's disease is an acute or chronic inner ear condition. Page Ref: 378 Learning Obj.: 17-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 31 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

143) Which of the following is mismatched? A) Deafness—inability to hear B) Nasal cannula—delivers oxygen C) Cochlear implant—hearing device D) Decongestant—medication to stop coughs Answer: D Explanation: A) Deafness is the inability to hear. B) A nasal cannula delivers oxygen. C) A cochlear implant is a hearing device. D) A decongestant is a medication to reduce nasal and sinus stuffiness and congestion. It does not stop coughs. Page Ref: 378 Learning Obj.: 17-6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary 144) Which condition is a bacterial upper respiratory infection characterized by the formation of a thick, membranous film across the throat? A) Diphtheria B) Pertussis C) Croup D) Epistaxis Answer: A Explanation: A) Diphtheria is a bacterial upper respiratory infection characterized by the formation of a thick, membranous film across the throat. B) Pertussis is another term for "whooping cough." C) Croup is characterized by a barking cough. D) Epistaxis is another term for "nosebleed." Page Ref: 378 Learning Obj.: 17-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 145) Which of the following creates an open upper respiratory airway? A) Endotracheal intubation B) Nasal cannula C) Pressure-equalizing tube D) Cochlear implant Answer: A Explanation: A) Endotracheal intubation creates an open upper respiratory airway. B) A nasal cannula is used to deliver oxygen to the nose. C) A pressure-equalizing tube is a tube placed in the ear to equalize pressure. D) A cochlear implant is a hearing device surgically placed in the skin behind the ear. Page Ref: 378 Learning Obj.: 17-6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary 32 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

146) Which of the following is another term for "nosebleed"? A) Tinnitus B) Epistaxis C) Croup D) Hemoptysis Answer: B Explanation: A) Tinnitus is a term for "ringing in the ear(s)." B) Epistaxis is another term for "nosebleed." C) Croup is an ailment characterized by a barking cough. D) Hemoptysis is a term for "coughing up blood." Page Ref: 378 Learning Obj.: 17-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 147) Which of the following is a two-pronged device to deliver oxygen? A) Endotracheal intubation B) Nasal cannula C) Pressure-equalizing tube D) Cochlear implant Answer: B Explanation: A) Endotracheal intubation creates an open upper respiratory airway. B) A nasal cannula is a two-pronged device to deliver oxygen. C) A pressure-equalizing tube is a tube placed in the ear to equalize pressure. D) A cochlear implant is a hearing device surgically placed in the skin behind the ear. Page Ref: 379 Learning Obj.: 17-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 148) Which of the following is placed in the eardrum to drain trapped fluid? A) Endotracheal intubation B) Nasal cannula C) Pressure-equalizing tube D) Cochlear implant Answer: C Explanation: A) Endotracheal intubation creates an open upper respiratory airway. B) A nasal cannula is a two-pronged device to deliver oxygen. C) A pressure-equalizing tube is placed in the eardrum to drain trapped fluid. D) A cochlear implant is a hearing device surgically placed in the skin behind the ear. Page Ref: 380 Learning Obj.: 17-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary

149) Which of the following diagnostic procedures examines the external ear? A) Audiometry B) Rinne and Weber tuning fork tests C) Otoscopy D) Falling test Answer: C Explanation: A) Audiometry is the process of measuring hearing. B) Rinne and Weber tuning fork tests assess both the function of the cochlear nerve and the ability of ear structures to conduct sound waves to the inner ear. C) Otoscopy examines the external ear. D) A falling test is a group of tests to evaluate balance and equilibrium. Page Ref: 374 Learning Obj.: 17-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary 150) Which of the following diagnostic procedures evaluates balance and equilibrium? A) Audiometry B) Rinne and Weber tuning fork tests C) Otoscopy D) Falling test Answer: D Explanation: A) Audiometry is the process of measuring hearing. B) Rinne and Weber tuning fork tests assess both the function of the cochlear nerve and the ability of ear structures to conduct sound waves to the inner ear. C) Otoscopy is a diagnostic procedure to examine the external ear. D) A falling test evaluates balance and equilibrium. Page Ref: 378 Learning Obj.: 17-6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary 151) Which of the following is the process of measuring hearing? A) Audiometry B) Rinne and Weber tuning fork tests C) Otoscopy D) Falling test Answer: A Explanation: A) Audiometry means "process of measuring hearing." B) Rinne and Weber tuning fork tests assess both the function of the cochlear nerve and the ability of ear structures to conduct sound waves to the inner ear. C) Otoscopy is a diagnostic procedure to examine the external ear. D) A falling test is a group of tests to evaluate balance and equilibrium. Page Ref: 371 Learning Obj.: 17-5 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 34 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

152) Which of the following is a chronic inner ear condition? A) Swimmer's ear B) Otitis media C) Myringitis D) Ménière's disease Answer: D Explanation: A) Swimmer's ear is otitis externa, or inflammation of the external ear. B) Otitis media is an inflammation of the middle ear. C) Myringitis is an inflammation of the eardrum. D) Ménière's disease is a chronic inner ear condition. Page Ref: 378 Learning Obj.: 17-6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary 153) Which of the following is an ear infection commonly seen in children? A) Tinnitus B) Otitis media C) Pertussis D) Diphtheria Answer: B Explanation: A) Tinnitus is a term for "ringing in the ear(s)." B) Otitis media is an ear infection commonly seen in children. C) Pertussis is a term for whooping cough. D) Diphtheria is a bacterial upper respiratory infection characterized by the formation of a thick, membranous film across the throat. Page Ref: 379 Learning Obj.: 17-6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary 154) Which of the following statements regarding otitis media is NOT true? A) It is a fungal infection. B) It is commonly called a middle ear infection. C) Pathogens from the throat enter the middle ear through the Eustachian tube. D) It is often preceded by an upper respiratory infection. Answer: A Explanation: A) Otitis media is a bacterial or viral, not a fungal, infection. B) Otitis media is commonly called a middle ear infection. C) Pathogens from the throat enter the middle ear through the Eustachian tube. D) Otitis media is often preceded by an upper respiratory infection. Page Ref: 379 Learning Obj.: 17-6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary

155) Which of the following diagnostic procedures tests the function of the cochlear nerve? A) Audiometry B) Rinne and Weber tuning fork tests C) Otoscopy D) Falling test Answer: B Explanation: A) Audiometry is a diagnostic procedure that tests hearing. B) Rinne and Weber tuning fork tests assess the function of the cochlear nerve. C) Otoscopy is a diagnostic procedure to examine the external ear. D) A falling test is a group of tests to evaluate balance and equilibrium. Page Ref: 380 Learning Obj.: 17-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 156) Which of the following terms refers to ringing in the ear(s)? A) Dysphonia B) Anosmia C) Tinnitus D) Vertigo Answer: C Explanation: A) Dysphonia means "difficulty speaking." B) Anosmia means "absence of smell." C) Tinnitus refers to ringing in the ear(s). D) Vertigo is another term for "sensation of spinning." Page Ref: 380 Learning Obj.: 17-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 157) Which of the following terms refers to a sensation of spinning or whirling around? A) Dysphonia B) Anosmia C) Tinnitus D) Vertigo Answer: D Explanation: A) Dysphonia means "difficulty speaking." B) Anosmia means "without sense of smell." C) Tinnitus is another term for "ringing in the ear(s)." D) Vertigo refers to a sensation of spinning or whirling around. Page Ref: 380 Learning Obj.: 17-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary

158) A test that includes heel-to-toe walking and balancing on one foot is the ________. A) falling test B) Rinne and Weber test C) audiometry test D) tympanometry test Answer: A Explanation: A) The falling test includes heel-to-toe walking and balancing on one foot. B) Rinne and Weber tests assess both the function of the auditory nerve and the ability of ear structures to conduct sound waves to the inner ear. C) An audiometry test is a diagnostic procedure to test hearing. D) A tympanometry test measures the eardrums. Page Ref: 378 Learning Obj.: 17-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 159) Which of the following is NOT a function of the organs of the head and neck? A) Obtain sensory information. B) Provide a passageway for air. C) Provide a passageway for food and drink. D) Regulate hormone production. Answer: D Explanation: A) The organs of the head and neck obtain sensory information. B) The organs of the head and neck provide a passageway for air. C) The organs of the head and neck provide a passageway for food and drink. D) The organs of the head and neck do not regulate hormone production. Page Ref: 368 Learning Obj.: 17-2 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 160) Which of the following terms does NOT refer to a surgical procedure? A) Myringosclerosis B) Myringectomy C) Myringoplasty D) Myringotomy Answer: A Explanation: A) Myringosclerosis does not refer to surgical procedure; -sclerosis means "hardening." B) Myringectomy is a surgical procedure. C) Myringoplasty is a surgical procedure. D) Myringotomy is a surgical procedure. Page Ref: 373 Learning Obj.: 17-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building 37 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

161) Which of the following statements regarding diphtheria is NOT true? A) It is a bacterial infection. B) It is characterized by a barking cough. C) It affects the upper respiratory system. D) It has a high mortality rate. Answer: B Explanation: A) Diphtheria is a bacterial infection. B) Diphtheria is not characterized by a barking cough. C) Diphtheria affects the upper respiratory system. D) Diphtheria has a high mortality rate. Page Ref: 378 Learning Obj.: 17-6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary 162) Which of the following converts sound signals into electrical impulses? A) Cochlear implant B) Endotracheal intubation C) Hearing aid D) Pressure-equalizing tube Answer: A Explanation: A) A cochlear implant converts sound signals into electrical impulses. B) Endotracheal intubation is a tube inserted through the mouth into the trachea to open the upper respiratory airway. C) A hearing aid is another term for "amplification device." D) A pressure-equalizing tube assists in draining trapped fluid and equalizing pressure between the middle ear cavity and the atmosphere. Page Ref: 378 Learning Obj.: 17-6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary 163) The DPT vaccine is for pertussis and what else? A) Diphtheria B) Whooping cough C) Croup D) Deafness Answer: A Explanation: A) The DPT vaccine is for pertussis, diphtheria, and tetanus. B) Whooping cough is pertussis. C) Croup is characterized by a barking cough and is not prevented by the DPT vaccine. D) Deafness is not prevented by the DPT vaccine. Page Ref: 378 Learning Obj.: 17-7 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Abbreviations 38 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

164) Which term is NOT spelled correctly? A) Diptheria B) Myringitis C) Pharyngospasm D) Nasogastric Answer: A Explanation: A) Diptheria is spelled diphtheria. B) Myringitis is spelled correctly. C) Pharyngospasm is spelled correctly. D) Nasogastric is spelled correctly. Page Ref: 378 Learning Obj.: 17-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Spelling 165) Which term is NOT spelled correctly? A) Pharyngotomy B) Epistakis C) Tonsillitis D) Tympanoplasty Answer: B Explanation: A) Pharyngotomy is spelled correctly. B) Epistakis is spelled epistaxis. C) Tonsillitis is spelled correctly. D) Tympanoplasty is spelled correctly. Page Ref: 378 Learning Obj.: 17-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Spelling 166) Which term is NOT spelled correctly? A) Otomycosis B) Adenoidectomy C) Canula D) Cochlear Answer: C Explanation: A) Otomycosis is spelled correctly. B) Adenoidectomy is spelled correctly. C) Canula is spelled cannula. D) Cochlear is spelled correctly. Page Ref: 379 Learning Obj.: 17-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Spelling

167) Which term is NOT spelled correctly? A) Acoustic B) Croup C) Decongestant D) Pertusis Answer: D Explanation: A) Acoustic is spelled correctly. B) Croup is spelled correctly. C) Decongestant is spelled correctly. D) Pertusis is spelled pertussis. Page Ref: 380 Learning Obj.: 17-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Spelling 168) Which term is NOT spelled correctly? A) Tinitus B) Otitis C) Vertigo D) Endotracheal Answer: A Explanation: A) Tinitus is spelled tinnitus. B) Otitis is spelled correctly. C) Vertigo is spelled correctly. D) Endotracheal is spelled correctly. Page Ref: 380 Learning Obj.: 17-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Spelling 169) Which of the following abbreviations stands for the ear infection commonly called swimmer's ear? A) OE B) Oto C) OM D) URI Answer: A Explanation: A) OE stands for the ear infection commonly called swimmer's ear, otitis externa. B) Oto stands for "otology." C) OM stands for "otitis media." D) URI stands for "upper respiratory infection." Page Ref: 379 Learning Obj.: 17-7 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Abbreviations

170) Which abbreviation stands for a surgical procedure? A) Oto B) OM C) T&A D) OE Answer: C Explanation: A) Oto stands for "otology." B) OM stands for "otitis media." C) T&A stands for "tonsillectomy and adenoidectomy." D) OE stands for "otitis externa." Page Ref: 380 Learning Obj.: 17-7 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Abbreviations 171) Which abbreviation stands for a vaccine? A) ENT B) T&A C) URI D) DPT Answer: D Explanation: A) ENT stands for "ears, nose, and throat." B) T&A stands for "tonsillectomy and adenoidectomy." C) URI stands for "upper respiratory infection." D) DPT stands for "diphtheria, pertussis, tetanus," a vaccine. Page Ref: 380 Learning Obj.: 17-7 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Abbreviations 172) Which abbreviation stands for a medical specialty? A) ENT B) DPT C) URI D) OE Answer: A Explanation: A) ENT stands for "ears, nose, and throat" or "otorhinolaryngology." B) DPT stands for "diphtheria, pertussis, tetanus." C) URI stands for "upper respiratory infection." D) OE stands for "otitis externa." Page Ref: 380 Learning Obj.: 17-7 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Abbreviations

173) Which abbreviation stands for an ear infection? A) T&A B) DPT C) ENT D) OM Answer: D Explanation: A) T&A stands for "tonsillectomy and adenoidectomy." B) DPT stands for "diphtheria, pertussis, tetanus." C) ENT stands for "ears, nose, and throat." D) OM stands for "otitis media," an infection of the middle ear. Page Ref: 379 Learning Obj.: 17-7 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Abbreviations 174) The abbreviation ET stands for ________. A) endotracheal B) ear and throat C) ear tenderness D) ear and trachea Answer: A Explanation: A) The abbreviation ET stands for "endotracheal." B) ET does not stand for "ear and throat." C) ET does not stand for "ear tenderness." D) ET does not stand for "ear and trachea." Page Ref: 380 Learning Obj.: 17-7 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Abbreviations 175) Which abbreviation is an infection? A) ENT B) URI C) Oto D) T&A Answer: B Explanation: A) ENT stands for "ears, nose, and throat." B) URI stands for "upper respiratory infection." C) Oto stands for "otology." D) T&A stands for "tonsillectomy and adenoidectomy." Page Ref: 380 Learning Obj.: 17-7 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Abbreviations

Match each term on the left with the correct definition on the right. A) symptoms include vertigo and tinnitus B) one of the pairs of tonsils C) whooping cough D) swimmer's ear E) delivers oxygen F) pertaining to the eardrum G) pinna H) ringing in the ear(s) I) discharge from the nose J) otorhinolaryngology K) voice box L) sensory organ for hearing M) throat N) amplification device 176) OM Page Ref: 379 Learning Obj.: 17-7 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Abbreviations 177) falling test Page Ref: 378 Learning Obj.: 17-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 178) nasal cannula Page Ref: 379 Learning Obj.: 17-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 179) vertigo Page Ref: 380 Learning Obj.: 17-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 180) hearing aid Page Ref: 378 Learning Obj.: 17-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 43 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

O) inability to hear P) nosebleed Q) organs for equilibrium R) lacking the sense of smell S) reduces nasal and sinus stuffiness T) measures hearing U) evaluates balance and equilibrium V) an ossicle W) spinning sensation X) middle ear infection Y) an important vaccine 181) epistaxis Page Ref: 378 Learning Obj.: 17-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 182) DPT Page Ref: 378, 380 Learning Obj.: 17-7 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Abbreviations 183) decongestant Page Ref: 378 Learning Obj.: 17-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 184) deafness Page Ref: 378 Learning Obj.: 17-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 185) adenoids Page Ref: 370 Learning Obj.: 17-4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 186) audiometry Page Ref: 371 Learning Obj.: 17-6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary 44 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

187) tympanic Page Ref: 377 Learning Obj.: 17-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building 188) rhinorrhea Page Ref: 375 Learning Obj.: 17-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building 189) pertussis Page Ref: 380 Learning Obj.: 17-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 190) larynx Page Ref: 372 Learning Obj.: 17-4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 191) pharynx Page Ref: 374 Learning Obj.: 17-4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 192) auricle Page Ref: 371 Learning Obj.: 17-4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 193) malleus Page Ref: 371 Learning Obj.: 17-4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 194) cochlea Page Ref: 372 Learning Obj.: 17-4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 45 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

195) ENT Page Ref: 368 Learning Obj.: 17-7 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Abbreviations 196) tinnitus Page Ref: 380 Learning Obj.: 17-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 197) semicircular canals Page Ref: 371 Learning Obj.: 17-4 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 198) anosmia Page Ref: 373 Learning Obj.: 17-5 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Word Building 199) otitis externa Page Ref: 379 Learning Obj.: 17-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary 200) Ménière's disease Page Ref: 378 Learning Obj.: 17-6 Taxonomy: Remembering Question Type: Vocabulary Answers: 176) X 177) U 178) E 179) W 180) N 181) P 182) Y 183) S 184) O 185) B 186) T 187) F 188) I 189) C 190) K 191) M 192) G 193) V 194) L 195) J 196) H 197) Q 198) R 199) D 200) A

201) List and briefly describe the organs treated by otorhinolaryngology. How is this medical specialty different from other medical specialties? Answer: ∙ Ear: hearing and equilibrium (balance) ∙ Nose: smell and entrance for air into the body ∙ Pharynx: carries air to the larynx and trachea, and food and drink to the esophagus ∙ Larynx: speech ∙ Trachea: brings air to the lungs Otorhinolaryngology focuses on a specific region of the body, the head and neck, rather than a whole body system. Page Ref: 368 Learning Obj.: 17-4 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Anatomy and Physiology 202) The ear is divided into three distinct sections. Name the sections and describe the typical infection of each region. Answer: ∙ External (outer) ear: otitis externa is an infection of the external ear; commonly caused by fungus; also called otomycosis; common name is swimmer's ear ∙ Middle ear: otitis media is a bacterial or viral infection of the middle ear cavity; common in children; often preceded by upper respiratory infection during which pathogens move from the pharynx to the middle ear through the auditory (Eustachian) tube; commonly referred to as a middle ear infection ∙ Inner ear: otitis interna causes inflammation of the inner ear; can affect both hearing and equilibrium; also called inner ear infection Page Ref: 371, 379 Learning Obj.: 17-6 Taxonomy: Understanding Question Type: Vocabulary