Table of Contents 1. An Overview of Nutrition. Highlight 1: Nutrition Information and Misinformation. 2. Planning a Healthy Diet. Highlight 2: Vegetarian Diets. 3. Digestion, Absorption and Transport. Highlight 3: Common Digestive Problems. 4. The Carbohydrates: Sugars, Starches and Fibers. Highlight 4: Carbs, kCalories and Controversies. 5. The Lipids: Triglycerides, Phospholipids and Sterols. Highlight 5: High-Fat Foods — Friend or Foe? 6. Protein: Amino Acids. Highlight 6: Nutritional Genomics. 7. Energy Metabolism. Highlight 7: Alcohol in the Body. 8. Energy Balance and Body Composition. Highlight 8: Eating Disorders. 9. Weight Management: Overweight, Obesity and Underweight. Highlight 9: The Latest and Greatest Weight-Loss Diet — Again. 10. The Water-Soluble Vitamins: B Vitamins and Vitamin C. Highlight 10: Vitamin and Mineral Supplements. 11. The Fat-Soluble Vitamins, A, D, E and K. Highlight 11: Antioxidant Nutrients in Disease Prevention. 12. Water and the Major Minerals. Highlight 12: Osteoporosis and Calcium. 13. The Trace Minerals. Highlight 13: Phytochemicals and Functional Foods. 14. Fitness: Physical Activity, Nutrients and Body Adaptations. Highlight 14: Supplements as Ergogenic Aids. 15. Life Cycle Nutrition: Pregnancy and Lactation. Highlight 15: Fetal Alcohol Syndrome. 16. Life Cycle Nutrition: Infancy, Childhood and Adolescence. Highlight 16: Childhood Obesity and the Early Development of Chronic Diseases. 17. Life Cycle Nutrition: Adulthood and the Later Years. Highlight 17: Nutrient-Drug Interactions. 18. Diet and Health. Highlight 18: Complementary and Alternative Medicine. 19. Consumer Concerns About Foods and Water. Highlight 19: Food Biotechnology. 20. Hunger and the Global Environment. Highlight 20: Environmentally Friendly Food Choices.
Chapter 1 – An Overview of Nutrition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Which characteristic is most typical of a chronic disease? a. It has a rapid onset. b. It rarely has noticeable symptoms. c. It produces sharp pains d. It progresses gradually. e. It disrupts daily life, but is unlikely to be life-threatening. ANS: D DIF: Bloom's: Understand REF: Introduction OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.1.1 Describe how various factors influence personal food choices. 2. What is the chief reason most people choose the foods they eat? a. cost b. taste c. convenience d. nutritional value e. habit ANS: B DIF: Bloom's: Remember REF: 1.1 Food Choices OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.1.1 Describe how various factors influence personal food choices. 3. A child develops a strong dislike of noodle soup after she consumes a bowl while sick with the flu. Her reaction is an example of a food-related . a. habit b. social interaction c. emotional turmoil d. negative association e. comfort eating ANS: D DIF: Bloom's: Evaluate REF: 1.1 Food Choices OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.1.1 Describe how various factors influence personal food choices. 4. A person who eats a bowl of oatmeal for breakfast every day is most likely making a food choice based on . a. habit b. availability c. body image d. environmental concerns e. cultural values ANS: A DIF: Bloom's: Evaluate REF: 1.1 Food Choices OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.1.1 Describe how various factors influence personal food choices. 5. Which individual is making a food choice based on negative association? a. A tourist from China who rejects a hamburger due to unfamiliarity b. A child who spits out his mashed potatoes because they taste too salty c. A teenager who grudgingly accepts an offer for an ice cream cone to avoid offending a close friend d. An elderly gentleman who refuses a peanut butter and jelly sandwich because he considers it a child's food e. An adult who refuses to eat foods that are not locally-sourced and organic
ANS: D DIF: Bloom's: Evaluate REF: 1.1 Food Choices OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.1.1 Describe how various factors influence personal food choices. 6. The motive for a person who alters his diet due to religious convictions is most likely related to his . a. values b. body image c. ethnic heritage d. functional association e. comfort ANS: A DIF: Bloom's: Understand REF: 1.1 Food Choices OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.1.1 Describe how various factors influence personal food choices. 7. Farah is viewing an exciting sports match of her favorite team and eating because of nervousness. Her food choice will most likely be based on . a. regional cuisines b. preferences c. emotional comfort d. positive association e. functional value ANS: C DIF: Bloom's: Evaluate REF: 1.1 Food Choices OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.1.1 Describe how various factors influence personal food choices. 8. What term describes foods that contain nonnutrient substances whose known action in the body is to promote well-being to a greater extent than that contributed by the food's nutrients? a. fortified foods b. enriched foods c. functional foods d. health-enhancing foods e. bioavailable foods ANS: C DIF: Bloom's: Understand REF: 1.1 Food Choices OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.1.1 Describe how various factors influence personal food choices. 9. Nonnutrient substances found in plant foods that may demonstrate biological activity in the body are commonly known as a. bioenhancements b. inorganic fibers c. phytochemicals d. phytoactive chemicals e. nonnutritive additives ANS: C DIF: Bloom’s Remember REF: 1.1 Food Choices OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.1.1 Describe how various factors influence personal food choices. 10. By chemical analysis, what nutrient is present in the highest amounts in most foods? a. fats b. water c. proteins d. carbohydrates e. vitamins and minerals ANS: B
DIF:
Bloom's: Remember
REF: 1.2 The Nutrients
OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.1.2 Name the six major classes of nutrients and identify which are organic and which yield energy. 11. What type of nutrient is needed by the body and must be supplied by foods? a. nutraceutical. b. metabolic nutrient c. organic nutrient d. essential nutrient e. phytonutrient. ANS: D DIF: Bloom's: Understand REF: 1.2 The Nutrients OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.1.2 Name the six major classes of nutrients and identify which are organic and which yield energy. 12. Which nutrient is an example of a macronutrient? a. proteins b. minerals c. water-soluble vitamins d. fat-soluble vitamins e. water ANS: A DIF: Bloom's: Evaluate REF: 1.2 The Nutrients OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.1.2 Name the six major classes of nutrients and identify which are organic and which yield energy. 13. Which nutrient is classified as a micronutrient? a. minerals b. proteins c. alcohols d. carbohydrates e. fats ANS: A DIF: Bloom's: Evaluate REF: 1.2 The Nutrients OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.1.2 Name the six major classes of nutrients and identify which are organic and which yield energy. 14. Which nutrient is an organic compound? a. salt b. water c. calcium d. vitamin C e. iron ANS: D DIF: Bloom's: Evaluate REF: 1.2 The Nutrients OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.1.2 Name the six major classes of nutrients and identify which are organic and which yield energy. 15. An essential nutrient is one that . a. must be made in large quantities by the body b. can only by synthesized by the body c. cannot be made in sufficient quantities by the body d. is used to synthesize other compounds in the body e. must be both consumed and synthesized to be complete ANS: C
DIF:
Bloom's: Understand
REF: 1.2 The Nutrients
OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.1.2 Name the six major classes of nutrients and identify which are organic and which yield energy. 16. The term organic, as related to compounds, would be best defined as a. products sold at health food stores b. products grown without use of pesticides c. foods having superior nutrient qualities d. substances with carbon-carbon or carbon-hydrogen bonds e. substances that contain water
.
ANS: D DIF: Bloom's: Understand REF: 1.2 The Nutrients OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.1.2 Name the six major classes of nutrients and identify which are organic and which yield energy. 17. How much energy is required to raise the temperature of one kilogram (liter) of water 1°C? a. 10 calories b. 100 calories c. 1 kilocalorie d. 10 kilocalories e. 100 kilocalories ANS: C DIF: Bloom's: Remember REF: 1.2 The Nutrients OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.1.2 Name the six major classes of nutrients and identify which are organic and which yield energy. 18. Gram for gram, which class of nutrient provides the most energy? a. fats b. alcohols c. proteins d. carbohydrates e. vitamins and minerals ANS: A DIF: Bloom's: Remember REF: 1.2 The Nutrients OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.1.2 Name the six major classes of nutrients and identify which are organic and which yield energy. 19. Food energy is commonly expressed in kcalories and in a. kilojoules b. kilograms c. kilometers d. kilonewtons e. kiloliters
.
ANS: A DIF: Bloom's: Remember REF: 1.2 The Nutrients OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.1.2 Name the six major classes of nutrients and identify which are organic and which yield energy. 20. Units of energy used by most scientists and nutritionists, aside from those in the United States, are expressed in . a. newtons b. liters c. kilojoules d. kilocalories e. grams
ANS: C DIF: Bloom’s: Remember REF: 1.2 The Nutrients OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.1.2 Name the six major classes of nutrients and identify which are organic and which yield energy. 21. Approximately how many milliliters are contained in a half-cup of milk? a. 50 b. 85 c. 120 d. 170 e. 200 ANS: C DIF: Bloom's: Apply REF: 1.2 The Nutrients OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.1.2 Name the six major classes of nutrients and identify which are organic and which yield energy. 22. A normal half-cup vegetable portion weighs approximately how many grams? a. 5 b. 50 c. 100 d. 150 e. 200 ANS: C DIF: Bloom's: Remember REF: 1.2 The Nutrients OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.1.2 Name the six major classes of nutrients and identify which are organic and which yield energy. 23. A weight reduction regimen calls for a daily intake of 1400 kcalories, which includes 30 g of fat. Approximately what percentage of the total energy is contributed by fat? a. 8.5% b. 15.0% c. 19.0% d. 25.5% e. 32.0% ANS: C DIF: Bloom's: Apply REF: 1.2 The Nutrients OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.1.2 Name the six major classes of nutrients and identify which are organic and which yield energy. 24. Which nutrient source will yields more than 4 kcalories per gram? a. plant fats b. plant proteins c. animal proteins d. plant carbohydrates e. animal carbohydrates ANS: A DIF: Bloom's: Apply REF: 1.2 The Nutrients OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.1.2 Name the six major classes of nutrients and identify which are organic and which yield energy. 25. What results from the metabolism of energy nutrients? a. Energy is released. b. Body fat increases. c. Energy is destroyed. d. Body water decreases. e. Body mass increases.
ANS: A DIF: Bloom's: Understand REF: 1.2 The Nutrients OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.1.2 Name the six major classes of nutrients and identify which are organic and which yield energy. 26. Which statement best describes the composition of most foods? a. Most contain only one of the three energy nutrients, although a few contain all of them. b. They contain equal amounts of the three energy nutrients. c. They contain mixtures of the three energy nutrients, although only one or two may predominate. d. They contain only two of the three energy nutrients, and those two are contained in equal amounts. e. They contain only two of the three energy nutrients, and one is present in far greater amounts than the other. ANS: C DIF: Bloom's: Evaluate REF: 1.2 The Nutrients OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.1.2 Name the six major classes of nutrients and identify which are organic and which yield energy. 27. How many vitamins are known to be required in the diet of human beings? a. 5 b. 8 c. 10 d. 13 e. 17 ANS: D DIF: Bloom's: Remember REF: 1.2 The Nutrients OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.1.2 Name the six major classes of nutrients and identify which are organic and which yield energy. 28. Which statement is true of minerals in their role as nutrients? a. They are organic. b. They yield 4 kcalories per gram. c. Some become dissolved in body fluids. d. Some may be destroyed during cooking. e. They are more fragile than vitamins. ANS: C DIF: Bloom's: Analyze REF: 1.2 The Nutrients OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.1.2 Name the six major classes of nutrients and identify which are organic and which yield energy. 29. How many minerals are known to be essential for human nutrition? a. 8 b. 12 c. 16 d. 20 e. 24 ANS: C DIF: Bloom's: Remember REF: 1.2 The Nutrients OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.1.2 Name the six major classes of nutrients and identify which are organic and which yield energy. 30. Your friend Carrie took a daily supplement of vitamin C and tells you that she feels a lot better. Her statement to you is best described as a(n) . a. anecdote
b. c. d. e.
theory. interpretation conclusion. hypothesis
ANS: A DIF: Apply REF: 1.3 The Science of Nutrition OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.1.3 Explain the scientific method and how scientists use various types of research studies and methods to acquire nutrition information. 31. What is the study of how a person's genes interact with nutrients? a. genetic counseling b. nutritional genomics c. genetic metabolomics d. nutritional genetics e. biogenetic nutrition ANS: B DIF: Bloom's: Understand REF: 1.3 The Science of Nutrition OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.1.3 Explain the scientific method and how scientists use various types of research studies and methods to acquire nutrition information. 32. How does a double-blind experiment work? a. Both subject groups take turns getting each treatment. b. Neither subjects nor researchers know which subjects are in the control or experimental group c. Neither group of subjects knows whether they are in the control or experimental group, but the researchers do know. d. Both subject groups know whether they are in the control or experimental group, but the researchers do not know. e. Neither the subjects nor the persons having contact with the subjects know the true purpose of the experiment. ANS: B DIF: Bloom's: Evaluate REF: 1.3 The Science of Nutrition OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.1.3 Explain the scientific method and how scientists use various types of research studies and methods to acquire nutrition information. 33. In the scientific method, a tentative solution to a problem is called a a. theory b. prediction c. hypothesis d. correlation e. deduction
.
ANS: C DIF: Bloom's: Remember REF: 1.3 The Science of Nutrition OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.1.3 Explain the scientific method and how scientists use various types of research studies and methods to acquire nutrition information. 34. What is one major weakness of a laboratory-based study? a. The costs are typically prohibitive. b. Findings are difficult to replicate. c. Results from animal testing cannot be applied to human beings. d. Experimental variables cannot be easily controlled. e. Causality cannot be inferred. ANS: C DIF: Bloom's: Analyze REF: 1.3 The Science of Nutrition OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.1.3 Explain the scientific method and how scientists use various types of
research studies and methods to acquire nutrition information. 35. What is one benefit of using controls in an experiment? a. The size of the groups can be very large. b. The subjects do not know anything about the experiment. c. The subjects who are treated are balanced against the placebos. d. The subjects are similar in all respects except for the treatment being tested. e. The costs associated with the study are usually much lower. ANS: D DIF: Bloom's: Evaluate REF: 1.3 The Science of Nutrition OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.1.3 Explain the scientific method and how scientists use various types of research studies and methods to acquire nutrition information. 36. What is one benefit of using a large sample size in an experiment? a. Chance variation is less likely to affect the results. b. The possibility of a placebo effect is eliminated. c. The experiment will be double-blind. d. The control group will be similar to the experimental group. e. Experimenter bias is less likely to have an effect. ANS: A DIF: Bloom's: Evaluate REF: 1.3 The Science of Nutrition OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.1.3 Explain the scientific method and how scientists use various types of research studies and methods to acquire nutrition information. 37. You have been asked to help a top nutrition researcher conduct human experiments on vitamin C. As the subjects walk into the laboratory, you distribute all the vitamin C pill bottles to the girls and all the placebo pill bottles to the boys. The researcher instantly informs you that there are two errors in your research practice. What steps should you have taken to conduct your experiment correctly? a. Giving all the boys the vitamin C and the girls the placebo, and telling them what they were getting b. Distributing the bottles randomly, randomizing the subjects, and telling them what they were getting c. Telling the subjects which group they were in, but preventing yourself from knowing the contents of the pill bottles d. Preventing yourself from knowing what is in the pill bottles, and distributing the bottles randomly to the subjects e. Allowing the subjects to decide whether they take Vitamin C or the placebo, and then giving them the opposite of what they requested ANS: D DIF: Bloom's: Evaluate REF: 1.3 The Science of Nutrition OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.1.3 Explain the scientific method and how scientists use various types of research studies and methods to acquire nutrition information. 38. An increase in exercise accompanied by a decrease in body weight is an example of a a. variable effect b. positive correlation c. negative correlation d. randomization effect e. placebo effect
.
ANS: C DIF: Bloom's: Understand REF: 1.3 The Science of Nutrition OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.1.3 Explain the scientific method and how scientists use various types of research studies and methods to acquire nutrition information.
39. Before publication in a reputable journal, the findings of a research study must undergo scrutiny by experts in the field in a process known as . a. peer review b. cohort review c. research intervention d. double-blind examination e. peer replication ANS: A DIF: Bloom's: Remember REF: 1.3 The Science of Nutrition OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.1.3 Explain the scientific method and how scientists use various types of research studies and methods to acquire nutrition information. 40. What is the smallest amount of a nutrient that, when consumed over a prolonged period, maintains a specific function? a. nutrient allowance b. nutrient requirement c. nutrient tolerable limit d. nutrient adequate intake e. nutrient recommendation ANS: B DIF: Bloom's: Remember REF: 1.4 Dietary Reference Intakes OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.1.4 Define the four categories of the DRI and explain their purposes. 41. A group of people consumes an amount of protein equal to the estimated average requirement for their population group. What percentage of people will receive insufficient amounts? a. 10 b. 25 c. 33 d. 40 e. 50 ANS: E DIF: Bloom's: Apply REF: 1.4 Dietary Reference Intakes OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.1.4 Define the four categories of the DRI and explain their purposes. 42. A health magazine contacts you for your expert opinion on what measure best describes the amounts of nutrients that should be consumed by the population. How should you reply? a. The Dietary Reference Intakes, because they are a set of nutrient intake values for healthy people in the United States and Canada b. The Tolerable Upper Intake levels, because they are the maximum daily amount of a nutrient that appears safe for most healthy people c. The Estimated Average Requirements, because they reflect the average daily amount of a nutrient that will maintain a specific function in half of the healthy people of a population d. The Recommended Dietary Allowances, because they represent the average daily amount of a nutrient considered adequate to meet the known nutrient needs of practically all healthy people. e. The Estimated Energy Requirement, because it represents what will maintain energy balance and good health in a person of a given age, gender, weight, height, and level of physical activity ANS: D DIF: Bloom's: Apply REF: 1.4 Dietary Reference Intakes OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.1.4 Define the four categories of the DRI and explain their purposes.
43. Recommended Dietary Allowances may be used to . a. measure nutrient balance of population groups b. assess dietary nutrient adequacy for individuals c. treat persons with diet-related illnesses d. calculate exact food requirements for most individuals e. recommend amounts of nutrients when there is insufficient evidence to determine the EAR ANS: B DIF: Bloom's: Evaluate REF: 1.4 Dietary Reference Intakes OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.1.4 Define the four categories of the DRI and explain their purposes. 44. Recommended Dietary Allowances are based on the a. Lower Tolerable Limit b. Upper Tolerable Limit c. Subclinical Deficiency Value d. Estimated Average Requirement e. Adequate Intake
.
ANS: D DIF: Bloom's: Remember REF: 1.4 Dietary Reference Intakes OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.1.4 Define the four categories of the DRI and explain their purposes. 45. The amount of a nutrient that meets the needs of about 98% of a population is known as the a. Adequate Intake. b. Daily Recommended Value. c. Tolerable Upper Intake Level. d. Recommended Dietary Allowance. e. Necessary and Sufficient Intake ANS: D DIF: Bloom's: Remember REF: 1.4 Dietary Reference Intakes OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.1.4 Define the four categories of the DRI and explain their purposes. 46. The RDAs (Recommended Dietary Allowances) for nutrients are generally a. more than twice as high as anyone needs b. the minimum amounts that average people need c. designed to meet the needs of almost all healthy people d. designed to prevent deficiency diseases in half the population e. reflective of current dietary preferences
.
ANS: C DIF: Bloom's: Understand REF: 1.4 Dietary Reference Intakes OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.1.4 Define the four categories of the DRI and explain their purposes. 47. What is a purpose of both the Recommended Dietary Allowance and Adequate Intake? a. Setting nutrient goals for individuals b. Identifying toxic intakes of nutrients c. Restoring health of malnourished individuals d. Developing nutrition programs for schoolchildren e. Improving population-level health ANS: A DIF: Bloom's: Understand REF: 1.4 Dietary Reference Intakes OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.1.4 Define the four categories of the DRI and explain their purposes.
48. Which statement is true of nutrient intakes? a. Higher intakes are always safer than lower intakes. b. Intakes below the EAR decrease risk of deficiency. c. A typical intake falling between the RDA and the EAR is almost always adequate. d. Intakes above the RDA are required to be safe. e. Intakes above the UL put an individual at risk of toxicity. ANS: E DIF: Bloom's: Evaluate REF: 1.4 Dietary Reference Intakes OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.1.4 Define the four categories of the DRI and explain their purposes. 49. What does the Tolerable Upper Intake Level of a nutrient represent? a. The maximum amount allowed for fortifying a food b. A number calculated by taking twice the RDA or three times the AI c. The maximum allowable amount available in supplement form d. The maximum amount from all sources that appears safe for most healthy people e. The amount that can be absorbed from a typical diet. ANS: D DIF: Bloom's: Evaluate REF: 1.4 Dietary Reference Intakes OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.1.4 Define the four categories of the DRI and explain their purposes. 50. What set of values is used to recommend the average kcalorie intake that maintains population groups in energy balance? a. Estimated Energy Requirement b. Adequate Average Requirement c. Recommended Dietary Allowance d. Acceptable Energy Distribution Range e. Tolerable Upper Energy Limit ANS: A DIF: Bloom's: Remember REF: 1.4 Dietary Reference Intakes OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.1.4 Define the four categories of the DRI and explain their purposes. 51. The percentages of kcalorie intakes for protein, fat, and carbohydrate that are thought to reduce the risk of chronic diseases are known as the . a. Estimated Energy Requirements b. Tolerable Range of Kilocalorie Intakes c. Estimated Energy Nutrient Recommendations d. Acceptable Macronutrient Distribution Ranges e. Healthy People Recommendations ANS: D DIF: Bloom's: Remember REF: 1.4 Dietary Reference Intakes OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.1.4 Define the four categories of the DRI and explain their purposes. 52. What is the AMDR for carbohydrate? a. 5-10% b. 15-25% c. 30-40% d. 45-65% e. 70-80% ANS: D Intakes
DIF:
Bloom's: Remember
REF: 1.4 Dietary Reference
OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.1.4 Define the four categories of the DRI and explain their purposes. 53. What is the AMDR for protein? a. 10-35% b. 40-45% c. 50-60% d. 65-75% e. 80-80% ANS: A DIF: Bloom's: Remember REF: 1.4 Dietary Reference Intakes OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.1.4 Define the four categories of the DRI and explain their purposes. 54. What is the AMDR for fat? a. 10-30% b. 20-35% c. 40-50% d. 55-65% e. 70-80% ANS: B DIF: Bloom's: Remember REF: 1.4 Dietary Reference Intakes OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.1.4 Define the four categories of the DRI and explain their purposes. 55. The Dietary Reference Intakes may be used to . a. treat people with diet-related disorders b. assess adequacy of all required nutrients c. plan and evaluate diets for healthy people d. assess adequacy of only vitamins and minerals e. diagnose diet-related disorders ANS: C DIF: Bloom's: Apply REF: 1.4 Dietary Reference Intakes OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.1.4 Define the four categories of the DRI and explain their purposes. 56. Which method is used to detect nutrient deficiencies? a. Nutrition assessment b. Nutrient stages identification c. Overt symptoms identification d. Outward manifestations assessment e. Nutritional diagnostic programs ANS: A DIF: Bloom's: Understand REF: 1.5 Nutrition Assessment OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.1.5 Explain how the four assessment methods are used to detect energy and nutrient deficiencies and excesses. 57. As a registered dietitian at Jones Hospital, you are instructed to write a policy statement on nutrition assessment procedures for all new patients. Which parameters would be most useful for the nutrition assessment of individuals? a. Diet recall, food likes and dislikes, allergies, and favorite family recipes b. Anthropometric data, physical examinations, food likes and dislikes, and family tree c. Diet records that include what the patient usually eats will provide sufficient information d. Historical information, anthropometric data, physical examinations, and laboratory tests e. Diet records that take the “average” of what the patient reports and what an objective observer reports
ANS: D DIF: Bloom's: Evaluate REF: 1.5 Nutrition Assessment OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.1.5 Explain how the four assessment methods are used to detect energy and nutrient deficiencies and excesses. 58. Which measure is anthropometric? a. body weight b. blood pressure c. blood iron level d. food intake information e. serum electrolytes ANS: A DIF: Bloom's: Remember REF: 1.5 Nutrition Assessment OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.1.5 Explain how the four assessment methods are used to detect energy and nutrient deficiencies and excesses. 59. Which sequence of stages is most typical in the development of a nutrient deficiency resulting from inadequate intake? a. Declining nutrient stores, abnormal functions within the body, and overt signs b. Abnormal functions within the body, declining nutrient stores, and overt signs c. Abnormal functions within the body, overt signs, and declining nutrient stores d. Declining nutrient stores, overt signs, and abnormal functions within the body e. Overt signs, abnormal functions, and declining nutrient stores ANS: A DIF: Bloom's: Remember REF: 1.5 Nutrition Assessment OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.1.5 Explain how the four assessment methods are used to detect energy and nutrient deficiencies and excesses. 60. What type of deficiency is caused by inadequate absorption of a nutrient? a. primary b. clinical c. secondary d. subclinical e. chronic ANS: C DIF: Bloom's: Understand REF: 1.5 Nutrition Assessment OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.1.5 Explain how the four assessment methods are used to detect energy and nutrient deficiencies and excesses. 61. A subclinical nutrient deficiency is defined as one that a. shows overt signs b. is in the early stages c. shows resistance to treatment d. is similar to a secondary deficiency e. is of acute onset
.
ANS: B DIF: Bloom's: Remember REF: 1.5 Nutrition Assessment OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.1.5 Explain how the four assessment methods are used to detect energy and nutrient deficiencies and excesses. 62. The overall objective of the Healthy People program is to a. establish the DRI b. identify national trends in food consumption c. identify leading causes of death in the United States d. set goals for the nation's health over the next 10 years
.
e. decrease health care costs ANS: D DIF: Bloom's: Remember REF: 1.5 Nutrition Assessment OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.1.5 Explain how the four assessment methods are used to detect energy and nutrient deficiencies and excesses. 63. Of the ten leading causes of illness and death, how many are associated directly with nutrition? a. one b. four c. six d. eight e. nine ANS: B DIF: Bloom's: Remember REF: 1.6 Diet and Health OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.1.6 Identify several risk factors and explain their relationships to chronic diseases. 64. Which statement explains the association between a risk factor and the development of a disease? a. All people with the risk factor will develop the disease. b. The absence of a risk factor guarantees freedom from the disease. c. The more risk factors for a disease, the greater the chance of developing that disease. d. The presence of a factor such as heredity can be modified to lower the risk of degenerative diseases. e. Risk factors tend to be short-lived, so their presence does not predict long-term risk of disease. ANS: C DIF: Bloom's: Understand REF: 1.6 Diet and Health OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.1.6 Identify several risk factors and explain their relationships to chronic diseases. 65. What single behavior contributes to the most deaths in the United States? a. poor diet b. tobacco use c. alcohol intake d. risky sexual activity e. unsafe driving ANS: B DIF: Bloom's: Remember REF: 1.6 Diet and Health OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.1.6 Identify several risk factors and explain their relationships to chronic diseases. 66. Who would be the most appropriate person to consult for nutrition information? a. chiropractor b. medical doctor c. registered dietitian d. health food store manager e. nutrition consultant ANS: C DIF: Bloom's: Evaluate REF: H-1 Nutrition Information and Misinformation OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.H-1 Recognize misinformation and describe how to identify reliable nutrition information. 67. Which statement best describes the legal limitations, if any, for a person who disseminates dietary advice to the public?
a. b. c. d.
The title "dietitian" can be used by anyone in all states. The title "nutritionist" can be used by anyone in all states. A license to practice as a nutritionist or dietitian is required by some states. A license to practice as a nutritionist is mandatory in all states but very few license dieticians. e. Nutrition consultants are subject to more stringent licensure than are dietitians. ANS: C DIF: Bloom's: Evaluate REF: H-1 Nutrition Information and Misinformation OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.H-1 Recognize misinformation and describe how to identify reliable nutrition information. 68. Which individuals is likely to possess the least amount of nutrition training and to have gotten his or her agree from an “alternative” educational program? a. dietetic technician b. registered dietician c. certified nutritionist d. dietetic technician, registered e. public health nutritionist ANS: C DIF: Bloom's: Evaluate REF: H-1 Nutrition Information and Misinformation OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.H-1 Recognize misinformation and describe how to identify reliable nutrition information. 69. For which of the following titles, by definition, require the individual to be college educated and pass a national examination administered by the Academy of Nutrition and Dietetics? a. medical doctor b. registered dietician c. certified nutritionist d. certified nutrition therapist e. registered nutritional consultant ANS: B DIF: Bloom's: Understand REF: H-1 Nutrition Information and Misinformation OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.H-1 Recognize misinformation and describe how to identify reliable nutrition information. 70. A person who assists registered dietitians has the formal title of a. dietetic assistant b. nutrition assistant c. dietetic technician d. nutrition technician e. dietetic aide
.
ANS: C DIF: Bloom's: Remember REF: H-1 Nutrition Information and Misinformation OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.H-1 Recognize misinformation and describe how to identify reliable nutrition information. COMPLETION 1. Risk factors for chronic disease tend to
and tend to
.
ANS: persist; cluster cluster; persist DIF: Bloom's: Remember REF: 1.6 Diet and Health OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.1.6 Identify several risk factors and explain their relationships to chronic diseases. 2. Foods associated with a particular culture are called
foods.
ANS: ethnic DIF: Bloom's: Remember REF: 1.1 Food Choices OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.1.1 Describe how various factors influence personal food choices. 3. Foods that provide health benefits beyond their nutrient contributions are called foods. ANS: functional DIF: Bloom's: Remember REF: 1.1 Food Choices OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.1.1 Describe how various factors influence personal food choices. 4. Nonnutrient compounds found in plants, some of which have biological activity in the body, are called . ANS: phytochemicals DIF: Bloom's: Remember REF: 1.1 Food Choices OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.1.1 Describe how various factors influence personal food choices. 5. The normal range for women.
is 18 to 21% for young men and 23 to 26% for young
ANS: body fat composition DIF: Bloom's: Remember REF: 1.2 The Nutrients OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.1.2 Name the six major classes of nutrients and identify which are organic and which yield energy. 6. The three energy-yielding nutrients are .
,
, and
ANS: carbohydrate; fat; protein carbohydrate; protein; fat fat; protein; carbohydrate fat; carbohydrate; protein protein; carbohydrate; fat protein; fat; carbohydrate DIF: Bloom's: Remember REF: 1.2 The Nutrients OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.1.2 Name the six major classes of nutrients and identify which are organic and
which yield energy. 7. Although sustain life.
provides energy, it is not considered a nutrient because it does not
ANS: alcohol DIF: Bloom's: Remember REF: 1.2 The Nutrients OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.1.2 Name the six major classes of nutrients and identify which are organic and which yield energy. MATCHING Match the correct answer with the appropriate term. a. b. c. d. e. f. g. h. i. j. 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10. 11. 12. 13. 14. 15. 16. 17. 18. 19. 20.
7 16 20 40 100 Fat Water Energy Protein Organic
k. Placebo l. Inorganic m. Validity n. Hypothesis o. Healthy People p. National nutrition surveys q. Anthropometrics r. Overt deficiency s. Physical examination t. Subclinical deficiency
Nutrient with the highest body concentration Substance containing no carbon or not pertaining to living things Number of indispensable nutrients for human beings Most substances containing carbon-hydrogen bonds Substance containing nitrogen Energy (kcal) required to increase temperature of 1 kg of water from 0° C to 100° C Nutrient with the highest energy density Energy (kcal) yield of five grams of sugar Energy (kcal) yield of one gram of alcohol Number of indispensable minerals for human beings An unproven statement An inert medication Possessing the quality of being evidence based The recommended intake is set at the population mean Gather information about dietary, nutritional, and health status Program that sets goals to increase the quality and years of healthy life Measurement of physical characteristics Inspection of skin, tongue, eyes, hair, and fingernails A nutrient deficiency showing outward signs A nutrient deficiency in the early stages
1. ANS: G DIF: Bloom's: Remember REF: 1.2 The Nutrients OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.1.2 Name the six major classes of nutrients and identify which are organic and which yield energy. 2. ANS: L DIF: Bloom's: Remember REF: 1.2 The Nutrients OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.1.2 Name the six major classes of nutrients and identify which are organic and
which yield energy. 3. ANS: D DIF: Bloom's: Remember REF: 1.2 The Nutrients OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.1.2 Name the six major classes of nutrients and identify which are organic and which yield energy. 4. ANS: J DIF: Bloom's: Remember REF: 1.2 The Nutrients OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.1.2 Name the six major classes of nutrients and identify which are organic and which yield energy. 5. ANS: I DIF: Bloom's: Remember REF: 1.2 The Nutrients OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.1.2 Name the six major classes of nutrients and identify which are organic and which yield energy. 6. ANS: E DIF: Bloom's: Remember REF: 1.2 The Nutrients OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.1.2 Name the six major classes of nutrients and identify which are organic and which yield energy. 7. ANS: F DIF: Bloom's: Remember REF: 1.2 The Nutrients OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.1.2 Name the six major classes of nutrients and identify which are organic and which yield energy. 8. ANS: C DIF: Bloom's: Remember REF: 1.2 The Nutrients OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.1.2 Name the six major classes of nutrients and identify which are organic and which yield energy. 9. ANS: A DIF: Bloom's: Remember REF: 1.2 The Nutrients OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.1.2 Name the six major classes of nutrients and identify which are organic and which yield energy. 10. ANS: B DIF: Bloom's: Remember REF: 1.2 The Nutrients OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.1.2 Name the six major classes of nutrients and identify which are organic and which yield energy. 11. ANS: N DIF: Bloom's: Remember REF: 1.3 The Science of Nutrition OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.1.3 Explain the scientific method and how scientists use various types of research studies and methods to acquire nutrition information. 12. ANS: K DIF: Bloom's: Remember REF: 1.3 The Science of Nutrition OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.1.3 Explain the scientific method and how scientists use various types of research studies and methods to acquire nutrition information. 13. ANS: M DIF: Bloom's: Remember REF: 1.3 The Science of Nutrition OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.1.3 Explain the scientific method and how scientists use various types of research studies and methods to acquire nutrition information. 14. ANS: H DIF: Bloom's: Remember REF: Dietary Reference Intakes OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.1.4 Define the four categories of the DRI and explain their purposes. 15. ANS: P DIF: Bloom's: Remember REF: 1.5 Nutrition Assessment OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.1.5 Explain how the four assessment methods are used to detect energy and nutrient deficiencies and excesses. 16. ANS: O DIF: Bloom's: Remember REF: 1.5 Nutrition Assessment OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.1.5 Explain how the four assessment methods are used to detect energy and nutrient deficiencies and excesses. 17. ANS: Q DIF: Bloom's: Remember REF: 1.5 Nutrition Assessment OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.1.5 Explain how the four assessment methods are used to detect energy and nutrient deficiencies and excesses. 18. ANS: S DIF: Bloom's: Remember REF: 1.5 Nutrition Assessment OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.1.5 Explain how the four assessment methods are used to detect energy and nutrient deficiencies and excesses. 19. ANS: R DIF: Bloom's: Remember REF: 1.5 Nutrition Assessment OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.1.5 Explain how the four assessment methods are used to detect energy and nutrient deficiencies and excesses.
20. ANS: T DIF: Bloom's: Remember REF: 1.5 Nutrition Assessment OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.1.5 Explain how the four assessment methods are used to detect energy and nutrient deficiencies and excesses. ESSAY 1. Describe six behavioral or social motives governing people's food choices. ANS: Preferences: As you might expect, the number one reason most people choose certain foods is taste— they like the flavor. Two widely shared preferences are for the sweetness of sugar and the savoriness of salt. High-fat foods also appear to be a universally common preference. Habit: People sometimes select foods out of habit. They eat cereal every morning, for example, simply because they have always eaten cereal for breakfast. Eating a familiar food and not having to make any decisions can be comforting. Ethnic Heritage and Regional Cuisines: Among the strongest influences on food choices are ethnic heritage and regional cuisines. People tend to prefer the foods they grew up eating. Every country, and in fact every region of a country, has its own typical foods and ways of combining them into meals. These cuisines reflect a unique combination of local ingredients and cooking styles. Social Interactions: Most people enjoy companionship while eating. It’s fun to go out with friends for a meal or share a snack when watching a movie together. Meals are often social events, and sharing food is part of hospitality. Social customs invite people to accept food or drink offered by a host or shared by a group—regardless of hunger signals. Availability, Convenience, and Economy: People often eat foods that are accessible, quick and easy to prepare, and within their financial means. Consumers who value convenience frequently eat out, bring home ready-to-eat meals, or have food delivered. Positive and Negative Associations: People tend to like particular foods associated with happy occasions—such as hot dogs at ball games or cake and ice cream at birthday parties. By the same token, people can develop aversions and dislike foods that they ate when they felt sick or that they were forced to eat in negative situations. Similarly, children learn to like and dislike certain foods when their parents use foods as rewards or punishments. Emotions: Emotions guide food choices and eating behaviors. Some people cannot eat when they are emotionally upset. Others may eat in response to a variety of emotional stimuli—for example, to relieve boredom or depression or to calm anxiety. Values: Food choices may reflect people’s religious beliefs, political views, or environmental concerns. Body Weight and Image: Sometimes people select certain foods and supplements that they believe will improve their physical appearance and avoid those they believe might be detrimental. Such decisions can be beneficial when based on sound nutrition and fitness knowledge, but decisions based on fads or carried to extremes undermine good health. Nutrition and Health Benefits: Many consumers make food choices they believe will improve their health. DIF: Bloom's: Understand REF: 1.1 Food Choices OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.1.1 Describe how various factors influence personal food choices.
2. Explain how food choices are influenced by habits, emotions, physical appearance, and ethnic background. ANS: Habit: People sometimes select foods out of habit. They eat cereal every morning, for example, simply because they have always eaten cereal for breakfast. Eating a familiar food and not having to make any decisions can be comforting. Ethnic Heritage and Regional Cuisines: Among the strongest influences on food choices are ethnic heritage and regional cuisines. People tend to prefer the foods they grew up eating. Every country, and in fact every region of a country, has its own typical foods and ways of combining them into meals. These cuisines reflect a unique combination of local ingredients and cooking styles. Emotions: Emotions guide food choices and eating behaviors. Some people cannot eat when they are emotionally upset. Others may eat in response to a variety of emotional stimuli—for example, to relieve boredom or depression or to calm anxiety. Body Weight and Image: Sometimes people select certain foods and supplements that they believe will improve their physical appearance and avoid those they believe might be detrimental. Such decisions can be beneficial when based on sound nutrition and fitness knowledge, but decisions based on fads or carried to extremes undermine good health. DIF: Bloom's: Understand REF: 1.1 Food Choices OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.1.1 Describe how various factors influence personal food choices. 3. Discuss some of the consequences of eating in response to emotions. ANS: Emotions guide food choices and eating behaviors. Some people cannot eat when they are emotionally upset. Others may eat in response to a variety of emotional stimuli—for example, to relieve boredom or depression or to calm anxiety. A depressed person may choose to eat rather than to call a friend. A person who has returned home from an exciting evening out may unwind with a late-night snack. These people may find emotional comfort, in part, because foods can influence the brain’s chemistry and the mind’s response. Carbohydrates and alcohol, for example, tend to calm, whereas proteins and caffeine are more likely to stimulate. Eating in response to emotions and stress can easily lead to overeating and obesity, but it may be helpful at times. For example, sharing food at times of bereavement serves both the giver’s need to provide comfort and the receiver’s need to be cared for and to interact with others as well as to take nourishment. DIF: Bloom's: Understand REF: 1.1 Food Choices OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.1.1 Describe how various factors influence personal food choices. 4. Define the term organic. How do the properties of vitamins relate to their organic nature? Contrast these points with the properties of inorganic compounds such as minerals. ANS: In chemistry, organic refers to substances or molecules containing carbon-carbon bonds or carbonhydrogen bonds that are characteristic of living organisms. The four classes of nutrients that are organic are carbohydrates, lipids (fats), proteins, and vitamins. Inorganic compounds or substances are those not containing carbon or pertaining to living organisms. The two classes of nutrients that are inorganic are minerals and water.
DIF: Bloom's: Understand REF: 1.2 The Nutrients OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.1.2 Name the six major classes of nutrients and identify which are organic and which yield energy. 5. List the strengths and weaknesses of epidemiological studies and experimental studies. ANS: Epidemiological studies research the incidence, distribution, and control of disease in a population. Epidemiological studies include cross-sectional, case-control, and cohort studies. Strengths: Can narrow down the list of possible causes Can raise questions to pursue through other research Weaknesses: Cannot control variables that may influence the development or the prevention of a disease Cannot prove cause and effect •
•
•
•
Experimental studies test cause-and-effect relationships between variables. Experimental studies include laboratory-based studies—on animals or in test tubes (in vitro)—and human intervention (or clinical) trials. Strengths: Can control conditions (for the most part) Can determine effects of a variable Can apply some findings on human beings to some groups of human beings Weaknesses: Cannot apply results from test tubes or animals to human beings Cannot generalize findings on human beings to all human beings Cannot use certain treatments for clinical or ethical reasons •
•
•
•
•
•
DIF: Bloom's: Understand REF: 1.3 The Science of Nutrition OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.1.3 Explain the scientific method and how scientists use various types of research studies and methods to acquire nutrition information. 6. Explain the importance of the placebo and the double-blind technique in carrying out research studies. ANS: Placebos: If people who take vitamin C for colds believe it will cure them, their chances of recovery may improve. Taking pills believed to be beneficial may shorten the duration and lessen the severity of illness regardless of whether the pills contain active ingredients. This phenomenon, the result of expectations, is known as the placebo effect. In experiments designed to determine vitamin C’s effect on colds, this mind-body effect must be rigorously controlled. Severity of symptoms is often a subjective measure, and people who believe they are receiving treatment may report less severe symptoms. One way experimenters control for the placebo effect is to give pills to all participants. Those in the experimental group, for example, receive pills containing vitamin C, and those in the control group receive a placebo—pills of similar appearance and taste containing an inactive ingredient. This way, the expectations of both groups will be equal. It is not necessary to convince all subjects that they are receiving vitamin C, but the extent of belief or unbelief must be the same in both groups. A study conducted under these conditions is called a blind experiment—that is, the subjects do not know (are blind to) whether they are members of the experimental group (receiving treatment) or the control group (receiving the placebo).
Double Blind: When both the subjects and the researchers do not know which subjects are in which group, the study is called a double-blind experiment. Being fallible human beings and having an emotional and sometimes financial investment in a successful outcome, researchers might record and interpret results with a bias in the expected direction. To prevent such bias, the pills are coded by a third party, who does not reveal to the experimenters which subjects are in which group until all results have been recorded. DIF: Bloom's: Understand REF: 1.3 The Science of Nutrition OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.1.3 Explain the scientific method and how scientists use various types of research studies and methods to acquire nutrition information. 7. Describe the steps involved in establishing nutrient values that make up the Dietary Reference Intakes. ANS: The DRI Committee consists of highly qualified scientists who base their estimates of nutrient needs on careful examination and interpretation of scientific evidence. These recommendations apply to healthy people and may not be appropriate for people with diseases that increase or decrease nutrient needs. Estimated Average Requirements (EAR): The committee reviews hundreds of research studies to determine the requirement for a nutrient—how much is needed in the diet. The committee selects a different criterion for each nutrient based on its roles in supporting various activities in the body and in reducing disease risks. An examination of all the available data reveals that each person’s body is unique and has its own set of requirements. Men differ from women, and needs change as people grow from infancy through old age. For this reason, the commit- tee clusters its recommendations for people into groups based on gender and age. Even so, the exact requirements for people of the same gender and age are likely to be different. Using this information, the committee determines an Estimated Average Requirement (EAR) for each nutrient—the average amount that appears sufficient for half of the population. Recommended Dietary Allowances (RDA): Once a nutrient requirement is established, the committee must decide what intake to recommend for everybody—the Recommended Dietary Allowance (RDA). The EAR is probably closest to everyone’s need. If people consumed exactly the average requirement of a given nutrient each day, however, approximately half of the population would develop deficiencies of that nutrient. Recommendations are therefore set greater than the EAR to meet the needs of most healthy people. Adequate Intakes (AI): For some nutrients, such as vitamin K, there is insufficient scientific evidence to determine an EAR (which is needed to set an RDA). In these cases, the committee establishes an Adequate Intake (AI) instead of an RDA. An AI reflects the average amount of a nutrient that a group of healthy people consumes. Like the RDA, the AI may be used as nutrient goals for individuals. Tolerable Upper Intake Levels (UL): The recommended intakes for nutrients are generous, yet they may not be sufficient for every individual for every nutrient. Nevertheless, it is probably best not to exceed these recommendations by very much or very often. Individual tolerances for high doses of nutrients vary, and somewhere beyond the recommended intake is a point beyond which a nutrient is likely to become toxic. This point is known as the Tolerable Upper Intake Level (UL). DIF: Bloom's: Understand REF: 1.4 Dietary Reference Intakes OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.1.4 Define the four categories of the DRI and explain their purposes. 8. Compare and contrast the meaning of Adequate Intakes, Recommended Dietary Allowances, Estimated Average Requirements, and Tolerable Upper Intake Levels for nutrients.
ANS: Estimated Average Requirements (EAR): The committee reviews hundreds of research studies to determine the requirement for a nutrient—how much is needed in the diet. The committee selects a different criterion for each nutrient based on its roles in supporting various activities in the body and in reducing disease risks. An examination of all the available data reveals that each person’s body is unique and has its own set of requirements. Men differ from women, and needs change as people grow from infancy through old age. For this reason, the commit- tee clusters its recommendations for people into groups based on gender and age. Even so, the exact requirements for people of the same gender and age are likely to be different. Using this information, the committee determines an Estimated Average Requirement (EAR) for each nutrient—the average amount that appears sufficient for half of the population. Recommended Dietary Allowances (RDA): Once a nutrient requirement is established, the committee must decide what intake to recommend for everybody—the Recommended Dietary Allowance (RDA). The EAR is probably closest to everyone’s need. If people consumed exactly the average requirement of a given nutrient each day, however, approximately half of the population would develop deficiencies of that nutrient. Recommendations are therefore set greater than the EAR to meet the needs of most healthy people. Adequate Intakes (AI): For some nutrients, such as vitamin K, there is insufficient scientific evidence to determine an EAR (which is needed to set an RDA). In these cases, the committee establishes an Adequate Intake (AI) instead of an RDA. An AI reflects the average amount of a nutrient that a group of healthy people consumes. Like the RDA, the AI may be used as nutrient goals for individuals. Tolerable Upper Intake Levels (UL): The recommended intakes for nutrients are generous, yet they may not be sufficient for every individual for every nutrient. Nevertheless, it is probably best not to exceed these recommendations by very much or very often. Individual tolerances for high doses of nutrients vary, and somewhere beyond the recommended intake is a point beyond which a nutrient is likely to become toxic. This point is known as the Tolerable Upper Intake Level (UL). DIF: Bloom's: Understand REF: 1.4 Dietary Reference Intakes OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.1.4 Define the four categories of the DRI and explain their purposes. 9. What approach is taken in setting recommendations for energy intakes and why? How does this approach differ from that taken for other nutrients? ANS: In contrast to the RDA and AI values for nutrients, the recommendation for energy is not generous. Excess energy cannot be readily excreted and is eventually stored as body fat. These reserves may be beneficial when food is scarce, but they can also lead to obesity and its associated health consequences. Estimated Energy Requirement (EER): The energy recommendation—called the Estimated Energy Requirement (EER)—represents the average dietary energy intake (kcalories per day) that will maintain energy balance in a person who has a healthy body weight and level of physical activity. Balance is key to the energy recommendation. Enough food energy is needed to sustain a healthy and active life, but too much can lead to weight gain and obesity. Because any amount in excess of energy needs will result in weight gain, no upper level for energy has been determined. Acceptable Macronutrient Distribution Ranges (AMDR)
People don’t eat energy directly; they derive energy from foods containing carbohydrates, fats, and proteins. Each of these three energy-yielding nutrients contributes to the total energy intake, and those contributions vary in relation to one another. The DRI committee has determined that the composition of a diet that provides adequate energy and nutrients and reduces the risk of chronic diseases is: 45 to 65 percent kcalories from carbohydrate 20 to 35 percent kcalories from fat 10 to 35 percent kcalories from protein. DIF: Bloom's: Understand REF: 1.4 Dietary Reference Intakes OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.1.4 Define the four categories of the DRI and explain their purposes. 10. List and discuss four methods commonly used to assess nutritional status of individuals. ANS: To prepare a nutrition assessment, a registered dietitian (or registered dietitian nutritionist), dietetic technician registered, or other trained health-care professional uses: Historical information Anthropometric measurements Physical examinations Laboratory tests One step in evaluating nutrition status is to obtain information about a person’s history with respect to health status, socioeconomic status, drug use, and diet. The health history reflects a person’s medical record and may reveal a disease that interferes with the person’s ability to eat or the body’s use of nutrients. The person’s family history of major diseases is also noteworthy, especially for conditions such as heart disease that have a genetic tendency to run in families. Economic circumstances may show a financial inability to buy foods or inadequate kitchen facilities in which to prepare them. Social factors such as marital status, ethnic background, and educational level also influence food choices and nutrition status. A drug history, including all prescribed and over-the-counter medications, may highlight possible interactions that lead to nutrient deficiencies. A second technique that may help to reveal nutrition problems is taking anthropometric measures such as height and weight. The assessor compares a person’s measurements with standards specific for gender and age or with previous measures on the same individual. A third nutrition assessment technique is a physical examination looking for clues to poor nutrition status. Visual inspection of the hair, eyes, skin, posture, tongue, and fingernails can provide such clues. In addition, information gathered from an interview can help identify symptoms. The examination requires skill because many physical signs and symptoms reflect more than one nutrient deficiency or toxicity—or even nonnutrition conditions. Like the other assessment techniques, a physical examination alone does not yield firm conclusions. Instead, physical examinations reveal possible imbalances that must be confirmed by other assessment techniques, or they confirm results from other assessment measures. A fourth way to detect a developing deficiency, imbalance, or toxicity is to take samples of blood or urine, analyze them in the laboratory, and compare the results with normal values for a similar population. Laboratory tests are most useful in uncovering early signs of malnutrition before symptoms appear. In addition, they can confirm suspicions raised by other assessment methods. DIF: Bloom's: Remember REF: 1.5 Nutrition Assessment OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.1.5 Explain how the four assessment methods are used to detect energy and nutrient deficiencies and excesses.
11. Discuss how the results from national nutrition surveys are used by private and government agencies and groups. ANS: National nutrition surveys gather information about the population’s dietary, nutritional, and related health status. One survey collects data on the kinds and amounts of foods people eat. Another survey examines the people themselves, using anthropometric measurements, physical examinations, and laboratory tests. The data provide valuable information on several nutrition-related conditions, such as growth retardation, heart disease, and nutrient deficiencies. National nutrition surveys often oversample high-risk groups (low-income families, pregnant women, adolescents, the elderly, African Americans, and Mexican Americans) to glean an accurate estimate of their health and nutrition status. The resulting wealth of information from the national nutrition surveys is used for a variety of purposes. For example, Congress uses this information to establish public policy on nutrition education, food assistance programs, and the regulation of the food supply. Scientists use the information to establish research priorities. The food industry uses these data to guide decisions in public relations and product development. The Dietary Reference Intakes and other major reports that examine the relationships between diet and health depend on information collected from these nutrition surveys. These data also provide the basis for developing and monitoring national health goals. DIF: Bloom's: Remember REF: 1.5 Nutrition Assessment OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.1.5 Explain how the four assessment methods are used to detect energy and nutrient deficiencies and excesses. 12. Describe the national trends of food consumption over the past 40 years. ANS: We eat more meals away from home, particularly at fast-food restaurants. We eat larger portions. We drink more sweetened beverages and eat more energy-dense, nutrient-poor foods such as candy and chips. We snack frequently. As a result of these dietary habits, our energy intake has risen and, consequently, so has the incidence of overweight and obesity. Overweight and obesity, in turn, profoundly influence our health. DIF: Bloom's: Remember REF: 1.5 Nutrition Assessment OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.1.5 Explain how the four assessment methods are used to detect energy and nutrient deficiencies and excesses. 13. List 10 goals of the Healthy People program. How successful is the program thus far? ANS: Increase the proportion of adults who are at a healthy weight Reduce the proportion of adults who are obese Reduce iron deficiency among young children and females of childbearing age Reduce iron deficiency among pregnant females Reduce the proportion of children and adolescents who are overweight or obese Increase the contribution of fruits to the diets of the population aged 2 years and older Increase the variety and contribution of vegetables to the diets of the population aged 2 years and older Increase the contribution of whole grains to the diets of the population aged 2 years and older Reduce consumption of saturated fat in the population aged 2 years and older Reduce consumption of sodium in the population aged 2 years and older Increase consumption of calcium in the population aged 2 years and older Increase the proportion of worksites that offer nutrition or weight management classes or counseling Increase the proportion of physician office visits that include counseling or education related to nutrition or weight
Eliminate very low food security among children in US households Prevent inappropriate weight gain in youth and adults Increase the proportion of primary care physicians who regularly measure the body mass index of their patients Reduce consumption of kcalories from solid fats and added sugars in the population aged 2 years and older Increase the number of states that have state-level policies that incentivize food retail outlets to provide foods that are encouraged by the Dietary Guidelines Increase the number of states with nutrition standards for foods and beverages provided to preschoolaged children in childcare Increase the percentage of schools that offer nutritious foods and beverages outside of school meals Progress in meeting the 2010 goals was mixed. A few objectives were met, about half made some progress, and several showed no progress—or even moved in the wrong direction. The objective to reduce average blood cholesterol levels was achieved, but objectives to eat more fruits, vegetables, and whole grains and to increase physical activity showed little or no improvement. Trends in over-weight and obesity actually worsened. Clearly, “what we eat in America” must change if we hope to meet the Healthy People goals. DIF: Bloom's: Remember REF: 1.5 Nutrition Assessment OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.1.5 Explain how the four assessment methods are used to detect energy and nutrient deficiencies and excesses. 14. Discuss the meaning and significance of the relationships between risk factors and chronic diseases. ANS: Factors that increase or reduce the risk of developing chronic diseases can be identified by analyzing statistical data. A strong association between a risk factor and a disease means that when the factor is present, the likelihood of developing the disease increases. It does not mean that all people with the risk factor will develop the disease. Similarly, a lack of risk factors does not guarantee freedom from a given disease. On the average, though, the more risk factors in a person’s life, the greater that person’s chances of developing the disease. Conversely, the fewer risk factors in a person’s life, the better the chances for good health. DIF: Bloom's: Remember REF: 1.6 Diet and Health OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.1.6 Identify several risk factors and explain their relationships to chronic diseases. 15. Discuss two important characteristics of chronic disease risk factors. ANS: Risk factors tend to persist over time. Without intervention, a young adult with high blood pressure will most likely continue to have high blood pressure as an older adult, for example. Thus, to minimize the damage, early intervention is most effective. Risk factors tend to cluster. For example, a person who is obese may be physically inactive, have high blood pressure, and have high blood cholesterol—all risk factors associated with heart disease. Multiple risk factors act synergistically to increase the risk of disease dramatically. Intervention that focuses on one risk factor often benefits the others as well. For example, physical activity can help reduce weight. Physical activity and weight loss will, in turn, help to lower blood pressure and blood cholesterol. DIF: Bloom's: Remember REF: 1.6 Diet and Health OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.1.6 Identify several risk factors and explain their relationships to chronic
diseases. 16. What cautions should you keep in mind when considering popular news reports about nutrition? ANS: Consumers get much of their nutrition information from Internet websites, television news, and magazine articles, which have heightened awareness of how diet influences the development of diseases. Consumers benefit from news coverage of nutrition when they learn to make lifestyle changes that will improve their health. Sometimes, however, popular reports mislead consumers and create confusion. They often tell a lopsided story quickly instead of presenting the integrated results of research studies or a balance of expert opinions. Tight deadlines and limited understanding sometimes make it difficult to provide a thorough report. Hungry for the latest news, the media often report scientific findings quickly and prematurely— without benefit of careful interpretation, replication, or peer review. Usually, the reports present findings from a single, recently released study, making the news current and controversial. Consequently, the public receives diet and health news fast, but not always in perspective. Reporters may twist inconclusive findings into “meaningful discoveries” when pressured to write catchy headlines and sensational stories. As a result “surprising new findings” sometimes seem to contradict one another, and consumers may feel frustrated and betrayed. Occasionally, the reports are downright false, but more often the apparent contradictions are simply the normal result of science at work. A single study contributes to the big picture, but when viewed alone, it can easily distort the image. To be meaningful the conclusions of any study must be presented cautiously within the context of other research findings. DIF: Bloom's: Remember REF: H-1 Nutrition Information and Misinformation OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.H-1 Recognize misinformation and describe how to identify reliable nutrition information. 17. List techniques that help identify nutrition quackery. ANS: In contrast to registered dietitians, thousands of people obtain fake nutrition degrees and claim to be nutrition consultants or doctors of “nutrimedicine.” These and other such titles may sound meaningful, but most of these people lack the established credentials and training of an RD. If you look closely, you can see signs of their fake expertise. Consider educational background, for example. The minimum standards of education for a dietitian specify a bachelor of science (BS) degree in food science and human nutrition or related fields from an accredited college or university. Such a degree generally requires 4 to 5 years of study. Similarly, minimum standards of education for a dietetic technician specify an associate degree that typically requires 2 years of study. In contrast, a fake nutritionist may display a degree from a 6-month course. Such a degree simply falls short. In some cases, businesses posing as schools offer even less—they sell certificates to anyone who pays the fees. To obtain these “degrees,” a candidate need not attend any classes, read any books, or pass any examinations.
Sales of unproven and dangerous products have always been a concern, but the Internet now provides merchants with an easy and inexpensive way to reach millions of customers around the world. Because of the difficulty in regulating the Internet, fraudulent and illegal sales of medical products have hit a bonanza. As is the case with the air, no one owns the Internet, and similarly, no one has control over the pollution. Countries have different laws regarding sales of drugs, dietary supplements, and other health products, but applying these laws to the Internet marketplace is almost impossible. Even if illegal activities could be defined and identified, finding the person responsible for a particular website is not always possible. Websites can appear and disappear in a blink of a cursor. Now, more than ever, consumers must heed the caution “Buyer beware.” In summary, when you hear nutrition news, consider its source. Ask yourself these two questions: Is the person providing the information qualified to speak on nutrition? Is the information based on valid scientific research? If not, find a better source. After all, your health depends on it. DIF: Bloom's: Remember REF: H-1 Nutrition Information and Misinformation OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.H-1 Recognize misinformation and describe how to identify reliable nutrition information. 18. (A.) Explain the education and training requirements associated with obtaining registration as a dietitian. (B.) List several career areas in which registered dietitians are often employed. ANS: A registered dietitian (RD) has the educational background necessary to deliver reliable nutrition advice and care. To become an RD, a person must earn an undergraduate degree requiring about 60 credit hours in nutrition, food science, and other related subjects; complete a year’s clinical internship or the equivalent; pass a national examination administered by the Academy of Nutrition and Dietetics; and maintain up-to-date knowledge and registration by participating in required continuing education activities, such as attending seminars, taking courses, or conducting research. To help consumers recognize that an RD is a credentialed nutritionist, the Academy of Nutrition and Dietetics recently approved the optional use of the term registered dietitian nutritionist (RDN). The meanings of RD and RDN are identical. Dietitians perform a multitude of duties in many settings in most communities. They work in the food industry, pharmaceutical companies, home health agencies, long-term care institutions, private practice, public health departments, research centers, education settings, fitness centers, and hospitals. Depending on their work settings, dietitians can assume a number of different job responsibilities and positions. In hospitals, administrative dietitians manage the foodservice system; clinical dietitians provide client care; and nutrition support team dietitians coordinate nutrition care with other healthcare professionals. In the food industry, dietitians conduct research, develop products, and market services. DIF: Bloom's: Remember REF: H-1 Nutrition Information and Misinformation OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.H-1 Recognize misinformation and describe how to identify reliable nutrition information.
Chapter 2 – Planning a Healthy Diet MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. A person's customary intake of foods and beverages over time defines her or his a. body weight b. eating pattern c. genetic predisposition d. risk for inherited diseases e. preference pattern
.
ANS: B DIF: Bloom's: Remember REF: 2.1 Principles and Guidelines OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.2.1 Explain how each of the diet-planning principles can be used to plan a healthy diet. 2. The diet-planning principle that provides all the nutrients, fiber, and energy in amounts sufficient to maintain health is called . a. variety b. adequacy c. moderation d. kcalorie control e. nutrient density ANS: B DIF: Bloom's: Remember REF: 2.1 Principles and Guidelines OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.2.1 Explain how each of the diet-planning principles can be used to plan a healthy diet. 3. What are the principles of diet planning? a. abundance, B vitamins, kcalories, diet control, minerals, and variety b. abundance, balance, conservative, diversity, moderation, and vitamins c. adequacy, bone development, correction, vitamin density, master, and variety d. adequacy, balance, kcalorie control, nutrient density, moderation, and variety e. abundance, adequacy, nutrient density, aerobics, and kcalorie control ANS: D DIF: Bloom's: Evaluate REF: 2.1 Principles and Guidelines OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.2.1 Explain how each of the diet-planning principles can be used to plan a healthy diet. 4. Which food is the most calcium-dense? a. whole milk b. fat-free milk c. low-fat milk d. cheddar cheese e. cottage cheese ANS: B DIF: Bloom's: Understand REF: 2.1 Principles and Guidelines OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.2.1 Explain how each of the diet-planning principles can be used to plan a healthy diet.
5. Nutrient dense refers to foods that . a. carry the USDA nutrition labeling b. are higher in weight relative to volume c. provide more nutrients relative to kcalories d. contain a mixture of carbohydrate, fat, and protein e. give the most protein for the consumer’s food dollar ANS: C DIF: Bloom's: Understand REF: 2.1 Principles and Guidelines OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.2.1 Explain how each of the diet-planning principles can be used to plan a healthy diet. 6. The concept of nutrient density is most helpful in achieving what principle of diet planning? a. Variety b. Balance c. Moderation d. kcalorie control e. cost control ANS: D DIF: Bloom's: Understand REF: 2.1 Principles and Guidelines OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.2.1 Explain how each of the diet-planning principles can be used to plan a healthy diet. 7. A food that provides 100 mg of magnesium and 25 kcal in a serving has a magnesium density (mg per kcal) of . a. 0.25 b. 0.4 c. 2.5 d. 4 e. 25 ANS: D DIF: Bloom's: Apply REF: 2.1 Principles and Guidelines OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.2.1 Explain how each of the diet-planning principles can be used to plan a healthy diet. 8. Ranking foods according to their overall nutrient composition is known as a. biological value b. nutrient profiling c. the risk reduction score d. the healthy eating index e. compositional profiling
.
ANS: B DIF: Bloom's: Understand REF: 2.1 Principles and Guidelines OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.2.1 Explain how each of the diet-planning principles can be used to plan a healthy diet. 9. Providing enough, but not an excess, of a food is a diet-planning principle known as a. safety b. variety
.
c. moderation d. undernutrition e. conservatism ANS: C DIF: Bloom's: Understand REF: 2.1 Principles and Guidelines OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.2.1 Explain how each of the diet-planning principles can be used to plan a healthy diet. 10. Applying the principle of variety in food planning helps ensure the benefits of a. moderation b. vegetarianism c. nutrient density d. dilution of harmful substances e. abundance
.
ANS: D DIF: Bloom's: Understand REF: 2.1 Principles and Guidelines OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.2.1 Explain how each of the diet-planning principles can be used to plan a healthy diet. 11. Which recommendation is part of the Dietary Guidelines for Americans? a. Balance kcalories. b. Limit protein foods intake. c. Practice good foot hygiene. d. Reduce seafood consumption. e. Become vegetarians. ANS: A DIF: Bloom's: Remember REF: 2.1 Principles and Guidelines OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.2.1 Explain how each of the diet-planning principles can be used to plan a healthy diet. 12. What is an important feature of the food group subgroupings? a. Consuming a vegetable will provide only one major nutrient b. Consuming legumes supplies protein but not fiber or vitamins c. Consuming every subgroup every day is not necessary d. Consuming broccoli every day for a week to meet the vegetables group intake is acceptable e. Consuming dairy products is no longer recommended ANS: C DIF: Bloom's: Understand REF: 2.2 Diet-Planning Guides OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.2.2 Use the USDA Food Patterns to develop a meal plan within a specified energy allowance. 13. Jamie, a vegetarian, is trying to plan a healthy diet according to the USDA Food Patterns. Which protein foods would be the best nutrient choices for one day? a. 2 pieces bacon, 1/2 can tuna, 2 pieces bread b. 1/2 cup rice, 2 tbsp low sugar jam or jelly, 2 pieces bread c. 1/2 cup black beans, 2 tbsp peanut butter, 1 c spinach d. 1 skinless chicken breast, 2 egg whites, meal replacement bar e. 1 egg, one cup leaf lettuce, 2 ounces fatty fish
ANS: C DIF: Bloom's: Evaluate REF: 2.2 Diet-Planning Guides OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.2.2 Use the USDA Food Patterns to develop a meal plan within a specified energy allowance. 14. What two major nutrients are supplied by the fruit group? a. vitamins D and E b. vitamins A and C c. protein and calcium d. B vitamins and iron e. vitamin K and magnesium ANS: B DIF: Bloom's: Remember REF: 2.2 Diet-Planning Guides OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.2.2 Use the USDA Food Patterns to develop a meal plan within a specified energy allowance. 15. How much fruit juice (100%) is equivalent to 1 cup of fresh fruit? a. 1/4 cup b. 1/2 cup c. 1 cup d. 1 1/2 cups e. 2 cups ANS: C DIF: Bloom's: Remember REF: 2.2 Diet-Planning Guides OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.2.2 Use the USDA Food Patterns to develop a meal plan within a specified energy allowance. 16. According to the USDA Food Patterns, which protein food should be most limited? a. shrimp b. baked beans c. peanut butter d. skinless chicken e. eggs ANS: B DIF: Bloom's: Remember REF: 2.2 Diet-Planning Guides OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.2.2 Use the USDA Food Patterns to develop a meal plan within a specified energy allowance. 17. Which food item is a healthy choice for protein in the USDA Food Patterns? a. nuts b. bacon c. luncheon meats d. sweet potatoes e. marbled meats ANS: A DIF: Bloom's: Remember REF: 2.2 Diet-Planning Guides OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.2.2 Use the USDA Food Patterns to develop a meal plan within a specified energy allowance. 18. In which food group are legumes found? a. dairy b. fruits c. grains d. protein
e. oils ANS: D DIF: Bloom's: Remember REF: 2.2 Diet-Planning Guides OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.2.2 Use the USDA Food Patterns to develop a meal plan within a specified energy allowance. 19. How many subgroups comprise the vegetable food group? a. two b. three c. five d. six e. seven ANS: C DIF: Bloom's: Remember REF: 2.2 Diet-Planning Guides OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.2.2 Use the USDA Food Patterns to develop a meal plan within a specified energy allowance. 20. Kcalories from which food would be considered part of one's discretionary kcalorie allowance? a. jam b. watermelon c. raw carrots d. brussels sprouts e. green beans ANS: A DIF: Bloom's: Remember REF: 2.2 Diet-Planning Guides OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.2.2 Use the USDA Food Patterns to develop a meal plan within a specified energy allowance. 21. Which food supplies only discretionary kcalories? a. bagel b. raisins c. grape jelly d. peanut butter e. 100% fruit juice ANS: C DIF: Bloom's: Evaluate REF: 2.2 Diet-Planning Guides OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.2.2 Use the USDA Food Patterns to develop a meal plan within a specified energy allowance.
22. What assessment tool is designed to measure how well a diet meets the recommendations of the Dietary Guidelines? a. Healthy Eating Index b. Supplemental Nutrition Assistance Program c. Dietitian's Comparative Effectiveness Plan d. U.S. Public Health Nutrient Assessment Barometer e. U.S. Preventive Services Task Forge Guide ANS: A DIF: Bloom's: Remember REF: 2.2 Diet-Planning Guides OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.2.2 Use the USDA Food Patterns to develop a meal plan within a specified energy allowance. 23. In the MyPlate icon, which nutrient is shown as a separate food group?
a. b. c. d. e.
fat dairy carbohydrate micronutrients discretionary-calorie foods
ANS: B DIF: Bloom's: Remember REF: 2.2 Diet-Planning Guides OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.2.2 Use the USDA Food Patterns to develop a meal plan within a specified energy allowance. 24. What is a major criticism of the use of the MyPlate educational tool? a. It allows for oversized portions. b. The dairy group excludes ice cream. c. The five groups are not clearly identified. d. It treats all foods within a single group the same. e. It cannot be adapted to vegetarian or vegan diets. ANS: D DIF: Bloom's: Evaluate REF: 2.2 Diet-Planning Guides OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.2.2 Use the USDA Food Patterns to develop a meal plan within a specified energy allowance. 25. Which food group is typically consumed in amounts greater than recommended by the USDA? a. dairy b. fruits c. vegetables d. protein foods e. whole grains ANS: D DIF: Bloom's: Remember REF: 2.2 Diet-Planning Guides OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.2.2 Use the USDA Food Patterns to develop a meal plan within a specified energy allowance. 26. Food exchange systems were originally developed for people with a. diabetes b. cancer c. cardiovascular disease d. life-threatening obesity e. neurological impairments
.
ANS: A DIF: Bloom's: Remember REF: 2.2 Diet-Planning Guides OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.2.2 Use the USDA Food Patterns to develop a meal plan within a specified energy allowance. 27. Which feature characterizes the exchange list system? a. Foods are grouped according to their source. b. Adequate intakes of minerals and vitamins are virtually guaranteed. c. A fat portion provides about twice the energy as a carbohydrate portion. d. All foods are grouped according to their content of carbohydrate, protein, and fats. e. Foods are sorted by their vitamin and mineral content. ANS: D DIF: Bloom's: Remember REF: 2.2 Diet-Planning Guides OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.2.2 Use the USDA Food Patterns to develop a meal plan within a specified energy allowance.
28. In food exchange lists, to what group are olives assigned? a. fat b. meat c. carbohydrate d. meat substitute e. fruit ANS: A DIF: Bloom's: Remember REF: 2.2 Diet-Planning Guides OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.2.2 Use the USDA Food Patterns to develop a meal plan within a specified energy allowance. 29. Whole-grain flour contains all parts of the grain with the exception of the a. bran b. husk c. germ d. endosperm e. heart
.
ANS: B DIF: Bloom's: Remember REF: 2.2 Diet-Planning Guides OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.2.2 Use the USDA Food Patterns to develop a meal plan within a specified energy allowance. 30. Refined grain products contain only the a. bran b. husk c. germ d. endosperm e. chaff
.
ANS: D DIF: Bloom's: Remember REF: 2.2 Diet-Planning Guides OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.2.2 Use the USDA Food Patterns to develop a meal plan within a specified energy allowance. 31. The addition of calcium to some orange juice products by food manufacturers is known as nutrient . a. enrichment b. restoration c. fortification d. mineralization e. adulteration ANS: C DIF: Bloom's: Remember REF: 2.2 Diet-Planning Guides OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.2.2 Use the USDA Food Patterns to develop a meal plan within a specified energy allowance. 32. The part of the grain that remains after being refined is the a. bran b. germ c. husk d. endosperm e. chaff
.
ANS: D DIF: Bloom's: Remember REF: 2.2 Diet-Planning Guides OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.2.2 Use the USDA Food Patterns to develop a meal plan within a specified
energy allowance. 33. Which bread has the highest fiber content? a. white b. refined c. enriched d. whole grain e. super-fine ANS: D DIF: Bloom's: Remember REF: 2.2 Diet-Planning Guides OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.2.2 Use the USDA Food Patterns to develop a meal plan within a specified energy allowance. 34. Which characteristic best describes enriched grain products? a. They have all of the added nutrients listed on the label. b. They have the fiber restored from the refining procedure. c. They have virtually all the nutrients restored from refining procedure. d. They have only 4 vitamins and 4 minerals added by the food manufacturer. e. They are typically low in calories. ANS: A DIF: Bloom's: Remember REF: 2.2 Diet-Planning Guides OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.2.2 Use the USDA Food Patterns to develop a meal plan within a specified energy allowance. 35. What mineral is added to refined flours in the enrichment process? a. iron b. iodine c. calcium d. magnesium e. copper ANS: A DIF: Bloom's: Remember REF: 2.2 Diet-Planning Guides OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.2.2 Use the USDA Food Patterns to develop a meal plan within a specified energy allowance. 36. Which product label always denotes a whole-grain product? a multi-grain b. 100% wheat c. whole-wheat d. stone-ground e. high fiber ANS: C DIF: Bloom's: Remember REF: 2.2 Diet-Planning Guides OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.2.2 Use the USDA Food Patterns to develop a meal plan within a specified energy allowance. 37. The enrichment of grain products in the United States was initiated in the a. 1880s b. 1900s c. 1920s d. 1940s e. 1960s ANS: D
DIF:
Bloom's: Remember
.
REF: 2.2 Diet-Planning Guides
OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.2.2 Use the USDA Food Patterns to develop a meal plan within a specified energy allowance. 38. Which nutrient is used to enrich grains? a. zinc b. folate c. protein d. calcium e. sodium ANS: B DIF: Bloom's: Remember REF: 2.2 Diet-Planning Guides OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.2.2 Use the USDA Food Patterns to develop a meal plan within a specified energy allowance. 39. The most highly fortified foods on the market are a. frozen dinners b. imitation foods c. enriched breads d. breakfast cereals e. canned fruits and vegetables
.
ANS: D DIF: Bloom's: Remember REF: 2.2 Diet-Planning Guides OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.2.2 Use the USDA Food Patterns to develop a meal plan within a specified energy allowance. 40. Which nutrient would be supplied in much greater amounts from whole-grain bread versus enriched bread? a. zinc b. folate c. riboflavin d. thiamin e. sodium ANS: A DIF: Bloom's: Remember REF: 2.2 Diet-Planning Guides OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.2.2 Use the USDA Food Patterns to develop a meal plan within a specified energy allowance. 41. Cooking an 8-ounce raw steak will reduce the weight (ounces) to approximately a. 3 b. 4 c. 5 d. 6 e. 7
ounces.
ANS: D DIF: Bloom's: Remember REF: 2.2 Diet-Planning Guides OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.2.2 Use the USDA Food Patterns to develop a meal plan within a specified energy allowance. 42. Textured vegetable protein is usually made from a. soybeans b. corn stalks c. a mixture of legumes d. cruciferous vegetables
.
e. dark green, red, and orange vegetables ANS: A DIF: Bloom's: Remember REF: 2.2 Diet-Planning Guides OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.2.2 Use the USDA Food Patterns to develop a meal plan within a specified energy allowance. 43. Which term is used to describe a cut of meat having a low fat content? a. Grade AA b. Select c. Prime d. Choice e. Grade A ANS: B DIF: Bloom's: Remember REF: 2.2 Diet-Planning Guides OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.2.2 Use the USDA Food Patterns to develop a meal plan within a specified energy allowance. 44. A meat described as "prime cut" means that it a. has an extended shelf life b. usually carries a high price c. is served only in restaurants d. is higher in fat than other cuts of meat e. comes from animals raised organically
.
ANS: D DIF: Bloom's: Understand REF: 2.2 Diet-Planning Guides OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.2.2 Use the USDA Food Patterns to develop a meal plan within a specified energy allowance. 45. What term describes a food that resembles and substitutes for another food but is nutritionally inferior to it? a. faux food b. pseudo food c. imitation food d. food substitute e. fraudulent food ANS: C DIF: Bloom's: Remember REF: 2.2 Diet-Planning Guides OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.2.2 Use the USDA Food Patterns to develop a meal plan within a specified energy allowance. 46. A food scientist is developing a new and improved cereal bar. She consults with you to about the ordering of the ingredients on a food label. The ingredients are: Sugar: 30 g, Puffed wheat: 28 g, Dry milk powder: 5 g, Red food coloring: 35 mg, Salt: 2 g. What is the appropriate order in which to list these ingredients on the food label? a. sugar, puffed wheat, dry milk powder, salt, red food coloring b. red food coloring, salt, dry milk powder, puffed wheat, sugar c. dry milk powder, puffed wheat, red food coloring, salt, sugar d. puffed wheat, sugar, dry milk powder, salt, red food coloring e. sugar, salt, puffed wheat, dry milk powder, red food coloring ANS: A DIF: Bloom's: Evaluate REF: 2.3 Food Labels OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.2.3 Compare and contrast the information on food labels to make selections that meet specific dietary and health goals.
47. According to nutrition labeling laws, what two minerals must be listed on the package label as a percent Daily Value? a. calcium and iron b. zinc and phosphorus c. fluoride and chloride d. chromium and magnesium e. copper and potassium ANS: A DIF: Bloom's: Remember REF: 2.3 Food Labels OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.2.3 Compare and contrast the information on food labels to make selections that meet specific dietary and health goals. 48. A food label ingredient list reads in the following order: wheat flour, vegetable shortening, sugar, salt, and cornstarch. What item would be found in the SMALLEST amount in this food? a. salt b. sugar c. cornstarch d. wheat flour e. vegetable shortening ANS: C DIF: Bloom's: Understand REF: 2.3 Food Labels OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.2.3 Compare and contrast the information on food labels to make selections that meet specific dietary and health goals. 49. By law, a serving size on beverage food labels is a. 4-6 fluid ounces b. 8 fluid ounces c. 10-12 fluid ounces d. 16 fluid ounces e. 24 fluid ounces
.
ANS: B DIF: Bloom's: Remember REF: 2.3 Food Labels OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.2.3 Compare and contrast the information on food labels to make selections that meet specific dietary and health goals. 50. Which statement describes a characteristic of food serving sizes? a. Serving sizes for most foods have not yet been established by the FDA b. The serving size for ice cream is 2 cups and the serving size for all beverages is 12 fluid ounces c. Serving sizes on food labels are not always the same as those of the USDA Food Patterns d. Serving sizes must be listed in common household measures, such as cups, or metric measures, such as milliliters, but not both e. Manufacturers are free to set their own serving sizes as long as they specify what the serving size is. ANS: C DIF: Bloom's: Understand REF: 2.3 Food Labels OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.2.3 Compare and contrast the information on food labels to make selections that meet specific dietary and health goals. 51. According to nutrition labeling laws, the amounts of what two vitamins must be listed on the package label as a percent Daily Value? a. vitamins D and E
b. c. d. e.
vitamins A and C thiamin and riboflavin vitamin B6 and niacin vitamins E and K
ANS: B DIF: Bloom's: Remember REF: 2.3 Food Labels OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.2.3 Compare and contrast the information on food labels to make selections that meet specific dietary and health goals. 52. Food labels express the nutrient content in relation to a set of standard values known as the a. Daily Values b. FDA Standards c. Dietary Reference Intakes d. Recommended Dietary Intakes e. USDA Intake Standards
.
ANS: A DIF: Bloom's: Remember REF: 2.3 Food Labels OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.2.3 Compare and contrast the information on food labels to make selections that meet specific dietary and health goals.
53. Population groups such as sedentary older men, sedentary younger women, and active older women have a daily energy need of approximately kcalories. a. 1200 b. 1500 c. 1800 d. 2000 e. 2400 ANS: D DIF: Bloom's: Remember REF: 2.3 Food Labels OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.2.3 Compare and contrast the information on food labels to make selections that meet specific dietary and health goals. 54. On a food label, the "% Daily Value" table compares key nutrients per serving for a person consuming how many kcalories daily? a. 1200 b. 1500 c. 1800 d. 2000 e. 2400 ANS: D DIF: Bloom's: Remember REF: 2.3 Food Labels OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.2.3 Compare and contrast the information on food labels to make selections that meet specific dietary and health goals. 55. What is a feature of the Nutrition Facts panel on a food label? a. Trans fat content is optional. b. Saturated fat must be listed. c. Naturally present sugars are excluded. d. Soluble and insoluble fiber must be listed separately. e. Unsaturated fats must be listed. ANS: B DIF: Bloom's: Remember REF: 2.3 Food Labels OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.2.3 Compare and contrast the information on food labels to make selections
that meet specific dietary and health goals. 56. What is a feature of the Daily Values found on food labels? a. They are updated every two years as mandated by the USDA. b. They are expressed on a "per 1000-kcalorie intake" basis. c. They assist people in determining whether a food contains a little or a lot of a nutrient. d. They define a food as an excellent source of a nutrient if it contributes at least 50% of the dietary recommended intake. e. They assign grades of A, B, C, D, or F to foods. ANS: C DIF: Bloom's: Understand REF: 2.3 Food Labels OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.2.3 Compare and contrast the information on food labels to make selections that meet specific dietary and health goals. 57. A food label that advertises the product as a "rich source of fiber" is an example of a a. nutrient claim b. health claim c. weight reduction claim d. structure-function claim e. research-based claim
.
ANS: A DIF: Bloom's: Understand REF: 2.3 Food Labels OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.2.3 Compare and contrast the information on food labels to make selections that meet specific dietary and health goals. 58. According to the FDA, a food label that reads "improves memory" is an example of a a. health claim b. Daily Value claim c. qualified health claim d. structure-function claim e. unsupported claim
.
ANS: D DIF: Bloom's: Understand REF: 2.3 Food Labels OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.2.3 Compare and contrast the information on food labels to make selections that meet specific dietary and health goals. 59. Greg is trying to decide which brand of cereal to buy, but he is a somewhat confused by the health claims. Which statement represents the highest level of significant scientific agreement? a. "This cereal promotes a healthy heart." b. "This cereal supports heart health." c. "This product contains whole grains, which have been proven to reduce the risk of heart disease and certain cancers." d. "Very limited and preliminary scientific research suggests this product can reduce risk for cancers; FDA concludes that there is little scientific evidence supporting this claim." e. “Anecdotal evidence demonstrates a clear relationship between consumption of this product and elimination of health risk factors.” ANS: C DIF: Bloom's: Evaluate REF: 2.3 Food Labels OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.2.3 Compare and contrast the information on food labels to make selections that meet specific dietary and health goals. 60. What is a characteristic of structure-function claims on food labels? a. They are allowed only for unprocessed food.
b. c. d. e.
They can be made without any FDA approval. They must conform to guidelines of the "A" list of health claims. They must state the name of the disease or symptom for which a benefit is claimed. They can only be made based on peer-reviewed research.
ANS: B DIF: Bloom's: Understand REF: 2.3 Food Labels OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.2.3 Compare and contrast the information on food labels to make selections that meet specific dietary and health goals. 61. Which food items are consumed in the diet of a lactovegetarian? a. plant foods only b. eggs and plant foods only c. meat, eggs, and plant foods only d. milk products and plant foods only e. fish, eggs, and dairy only ANS: D DIF: Bloom's: Evaluate REF: H-2 Vegetarian Diets OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.H-2 Develop a well-balanced vegetarian meal plan. 62. Tempeh is made from . a. soybeans b. any legume c. fermented leafy vegetables d. fermented yellow vegetables e. wheat proteins ANS: A DIF: Bloom's: Remember REF: H-2 Vegetarian Diets OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.H-2 Develop a well-balanced vegetarian meal plan. 63. Which ingredient on a food label would be a source of protein? a. BHT b. tofu c. corn starch d. diglycerides e. high fructose corn syrup ANS: B DIF: Bloom's: Evaluate REF: H-2 Vegetarian Diets OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.H-2 Develop a well-balanced vegetarian meal plan. 64. Which feature is present in people who regularly eating meals based on tofu? a. They show less heart disease but more colon cancer than omnivores. b. They show evidence of marginal protein intake compared with omnivores. c. They have lower blood pressure levels than those eating meat. d. They have lower sodium intakes but blood pressure is similar to those eating red meat. e. They are virtually indistinguishable from meat eaters in terms of disease occurrence. ANS: C DIF: Bloom's: Evaluate REF: H-2 Vegetarian Diets OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.H-2 Develop a well-balanced vegetarian meal plan. 65. In vegetarians, the RDA is higher for a. iron b. folate c. calcium d. vitamin A
.
e. protein ANS: A DIF: Bloom's: Remember REF: H-2 Vegetarian Diets OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.H-2 Develop a well-balanced vegetarian meal plan. 66. Which statement describes a feature of iron nutrition in vegetarians? a. Vegetarians adapt to absorbing iron more efficiently. b. Iron utilization is inhibited by the high zinc content in grains c. The absorption of iron is low due to the high vitamin C intake. d. More iron deficiency is found in vegetarians than in people eating a mixed diet. e. There are no differences in iron intake or utilization in vegetarians. ANS: A DIF: Bloom's: Evaluate REF: H-2 Vegetarian Diets OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.H-2 Develop a well-balanced vegetarian meal plan. 67. Meat replacements consumed by vegans are often made of a. soy b. fish c. eggs d. dairy e. poultry
.
ANS: A DIF: Bloom's: Remember REF: H-2 Vegetarian Diets OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.H-2 Develop a well-balanced vegetarian meal plan. 68. What is typically a characteristic of a vegetarian diet? a. Fat intake is higher. b. Fiber intake is lower. c. Vitamin B12 intake is lower. d. Intakes of vitamins A and C are lower. e. Iron intake is higher. ANS: C DIF: Bloom's: Evaluate REF: H-2 Vegetarian Diets OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.H-2 Develop a well-balanced vegetarian meal plan. 69. Which statement characterizes vitamin B12 nutrition in vegetarians and vegans? a. Vitamin B12 in fortified cereals has low bioavailability. b. Vegan mothers need only infrequent intake of vitamin B12-fortified cereals. c. The vitamin B12 in fermented soy products may be present in an inactive form .d. Infants born to vegan mothers are resistant to the development of vitamin B12 deficiency. e. Vitamin B12 is problematic in vegetarians but not vegans. ANS: C DIF: Bloom's: Evaluate REF: H-2 Vegetarian Diets OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.H-2 Develop a well-balanced vegetarian meal plan. 70. What best characterizes a macrobiotic diet? a. It excludes all hot and salty foods. b. It permits inclusion of many non-organic foods. c. It represents a way of life rather than just a way of eating. d. It emphasizes abundant amounts of fish, fruits, nuts, and seeds. e. It is based on seasonally-available fruits, vegetables, grains, and game meats and fish. ANS: C DIF: Bloom's: Evaluate REF: H-2 Vegetarian Diets OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.H-2 Develop a well-balanced vegetarian meal plan.
COMPLETION 1.
reflects a diet that provides sufficient energy and enough of all the nutrients to meet the needs of healthy people. ANS: Adequacy DIF: Bloom's: Remember REF: 2.1 Principles and Guidelines OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.2.1 Explain how each of the diet-planning principles can be used to plan a healthy diet.
2. To calculate the nutrient density of a food item, divide the .
by the
ANS: milligrams; kcalories DIF: Bloom's: Remember REF: 2.1 Principles and Guidelines OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.2.1 Explain how each of the diet-planning principles can be used to plan a healthy diet. 3.
refers to a measure of the nutrients a food provides relative to the energy it provides. ANS: Nutrient density DIF: Bloom's: Remember REF: 2.1 Principles and Guidelines OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.2.1 Explain how each of the diet-planning principles can be used to plan a healthy diet.
4. Diet-planning tools that sort foods into groups based on nutrient content and then specify that people should eat certain amounts of foods from each group are called plans. ANS: food group DIF: Bloom's: Remember REF: 2.2 Diet Planning Guides OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.2.2 Use the USDA Food Patterns to develop a meal plan within a specified energy allowance. 5.
contribute the same key nutrients—notably, protein, iron, and zinc—as meats, poultry, and seafood. ANS: Legumes DIF: Bloom's: Remember REF: 2.2 Diet Planning Guides OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.2.2 Use the USDA Food Patterns to develop a meal plan within a specified energy allowance.
6. The kcalories remaining in a person’s energy allowance after consuming enough nutrient- dense foods to meet all nutrient needs for a day are called kcalories.
ANS: discretionary DIF: Bloom's: Remember REF: 2.2 Diet Planning Guides OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.2.2 Use the USDA Food Patterns to develop a meal plan within a specified energy allowance. 7. An assessment tool called the the recommendations of the Dietary Guidelines.
can be used to measure how well a diet meets
ANS: Healthy Eating Index DIF: Bloom's: Remember REF: 2.2 Diet Planning Guides OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.2.2 Use the USDA Food Patterns to develop a meal plan within a specified energy allowance. 8. Diet-planning tools that organize foods by their proportions of carbohydrate, fat, and protein are called . ANS: exchange lists DIF: Bloom's: Remember REF: 2.2 Diet Planning Guides OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.2.2 Use the USDA Food Patterns to develop a meal plan within a specified energy allowance. 9. The Nutrition Facts panel must provide the both for important nutrients.
, the
, or
ANS: nutrient amount; percent Daily Value percent Daily Value; nutrient amount; DIF: Bloom's: Remember REF: 2.3 Food Labels OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.2.3 Compare and contrast the information on food labels to make selections that meet specific dietary and health goals. 10. The is the seed that grows into a wheat plant, so it is especially rich in vitamins and minerals to support new life. ANS: germ DIF: Bloom's: Remember REF: 2.3 Food Labels OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.2.3 Compare and contrast the information on food labels to make selections that meet specific dietary and health goals. MATCHING a. 5 b. 40 c. 65
k. Green peas l. Balance m. Vitamin B12
d. e. f. g. h. i. j. 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10. 11. 12. 13. 14. 15. 16. 17. 18. 19. 20.
1
/2 cup 1 cup FDA Bran Iron USDA Soybeans
n. Vitamin A o. Endosperm p. Nutrient density q. Sodium and hypertension r. Tomatoes and prostate cancer s. Margarine containing plant sterols t. Orange juice containing added calcium
The principle of consuming a number of foods in proportion to each other The principle of recognizing that a food has more iron than another food when expressed per kcalorie Origin of the MyPlate graphic Number of major food groups Legume belonging to the starch category of exchange lists Part of grain richest in fiber Part of grain containing most of the starch Nutrient added in grain enrichment process Example of a fortified food Commonly used to make textured vegetable protein Example of a functional food Nutrient commonly added in cow's milk fortification process Maximum number of grams of fat recommended on a 2000-kcalorie diet based on the Daily Value Serving size (equivalent to 1 oz) of rice in the USDA Food Patterns Serving size of rice on a food label Agency that regulates food labeling Grams of fat supplied by a 1200-kcalorie diet that is 30% fat Associated in a reliable health claim allowed on food labels Associated in a health claim NOT allowed on food labels without a disclaimer Nutrient commonly added in soy milk fortification process
1. ANS: L DIF: Bloom's: Remember REF: 2.1 Principles and Guidelines OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.2.1 Explain how each of the diet-planning principles can be used to plan a healthy diet. 2. ANS: P DIF: Bloom's: Remember REF: 2.1 Principles and Guidelines OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.2.1 Explain how each of the diet-planning principles can be used to plan a healthy diet. 3. ANS: I DIF: Bloom's: Remember REF: 2.2 Diet Planning Guides OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.2.2 Use the USDA Food Patterns to develop a meal plan within a specified energy allowance. 4. ANS: A DIF: Bloom's: Remember REF: 2.2 Diet Planning Guides OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.2.2 Use the USDA Food Patterns to develop a meal plan within a specified energy allowance. 5. ANS: K DIF: Bloom's: Remember REF: 2.2 Diet Planning Guides OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.2.2 Use the USDA Food Patterns to develop a meal plan within a specified energy allowance. 6. ANS: G DIF: Bloom's: Remember REF: 2.2 Diet Planning Guides OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.2.2 Use the USDA Food Patterns to develop a meal plan within a specified energy allowance.
7. ANS: O DIF: Bloom's: Remember REF: 2.2 Diet Planning Guides OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.2.2 Use the USDA Food Patterns to develop a meal plan within a specified energy allowance. 8. ANS: H DIF: Bloom's: Remember REF: 2.2 Diet Planning Guides OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.2.2 Use the USDA Food Patterns to develop a meal plan within a specified energy allowance. 9. ANS: T DIF: Bloom's: Remember REF: 2.2 Diet Planning Guides OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.2.2 Use the USDA Food Patterns to develop a meal plan within a specified energy allowance. 10. ANS: J DIF: Bloom's: Remember REF: 2.2 Diet Planning Guides OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.2.2 Use the USDA Food Patterns to develop a meal plan within a specified energy allowance. 11. ANS: S DIF: Bloom's: Remember REF: 2.2 Diet Planning Guides OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.2.2 Use the USDA Food Patterns to develop a meal plan within a specified energy allowance. 12. ANS: N DIF: Bloom's: Remember REF: 2.2 Diet Planning Guides OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.2.2 Use the USDA Food Patterns to develop a meal plan within a specified energy allowance. 13. ANS: C DIF: Bloom's: Remember REF: 2.3 Food Labels OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.2.3 Compare and contrast the information on food labels to make selections that meet specific dietary and health goals. 14. ANS: D DIF: Bloom's: Remember REF: 2.2 Diet Planning Guides OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.2.2 Use the USDA Food Patterns to develop a meal plan within a specified energy allowance. 15. ANS: E DIF: Bloom's: Remember REF: 2.3 Food Labels OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.2.3 Compare and contrast the information on food labels to make selections that meet specific dietary and health goals. 16. ANS: F DIF: Bloom's: Remember REF: 2.3 Food Labels OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.2.3 Compare and contrast the information on food labels to make selections that meet specific dietary and health goals. 17. ANS: B DIF: Bloom's: Remember REF: 2.3 Food Labels OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.2.3 Compare and contrast the information on food labels to make selections that meet specific dietary and health goals. 18. ANS: Q DIF: Bloom's: Remember REF: 2.3 Food Labels OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.2.3 Compare and contrast the information on food labels to make selections that meet specific dietary and health goals. 19. ANS: R DIF: Bloom's: Remember REF: 2.3 Food Labels OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.2.3 Compare and contrast the information on food labels to make selections that meet specific dietary and health goals. 20. ANS: M DIF: Bloom's: Remember REF: H-2 Vegetarian Diets OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.H-2 Develop a well-balanced vegetarian meal plan. ESSAY 1. List and discuss the significance of six diet-planning principles. ANS:
Adequacy reflects a diet that provides sufficient energy and enough of all the nutrients to meet the needs of healthy people. Take the essential nutrient iron, for example. Because the body loses some iron each day, people have to replace it by eating foods that contain iron. A person whose diet fails to provide enough iron-rich foods may develop the symptoms of iron-deficiency anemia: the person may feel weak, tired, and listless; have frequent headaches; and find that even the smallest amount of muscular work brings disabling fatigue. To prevent these deficiency symptoms, a person must include foods that supply adequate iron. Balance in the diet helps to ensure adequacy. The art of balancing the diet involves consuming enough —but not too much—of different types of foods in proportion to one another. In a balanced diet, foods rich in some nutrients do not crowd out foods that are rich in other nutrients. kcalorie (energy) Control: Designing an adequate diet within a reasonable kcalorie allowance requires careful planning. Once again, balance plays a key role. The amount of energy coming into the body from foods should balance with the amount of energy being used by the body to sustain its metabolic and physical activities. Upsetting this balance leads to gains or losses in body weight. Nutrient density promotes adequacy and kcalorie control. To eat well without overeating, select nutrient-dense foods—that is, foods that deliver the most nutrients for the least food energy. Moderation contributes to adequacy, balance, and kcalorie control. Foods rich in fat and sugar often provide enjoyment and energy but relatively few nutrients; in addition, they promote weight gain when eaten in excess. A person practicing moderation eats such foods only on occasion and regularly selects foods low in solid fats and added sugars, a practice that automatically improves nutrient density. Variety improves nutrient adequacy. A diet may have all of the virtues just described and still lack variety, if a person eats the same foods day after day. People should select foods from each of the food groups daily and vary their choices within each food group from day to day for several reasons. First, different foods within the same group contain different arrays of nutrients. Second, no food is guaranteed entirely free of substances that, in excess, could be harmful. Third, as the adage goes, variety is the spice of life. DIF: Bloom's: Understand REF: 2.1 Principles and Guidelines OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.2.1 Explain how each of the diet-planning principles can be used to plan a healthy diet. 2. Why is it important to vary intake of foods within the same food group from day to day? ANS: Variety improves nutrient adequacy. A diet may have all of the virtues just described and still lack variety, if a person eats the same foods day after day. People should select foods from each of the food groups daily and vary their choices within each food group from day to day for several reasons. First, different foods within the same group contain different arrays of nutrients. Among the fruits, for example, strawberries are especially rich in vitamin C while apricots are rich in vitamin A. Second, no food is guaranteed entirely free of substances that, in excess, could be harmful. The strawberries might contain trace amounts of one contaminant, the apricots another. By alternating fruit choices, a person will ingest very little of either contaminant. Third, as the adage goes, variety is the spice of life. A person who eats beans frequently can enjoy pinto beans in Mexican burritos today, garbanzo beans in a Greek salad tomorrow, and baked beans with barbecued chicken on the week-end. Eating nutritious meals need never be boring.
DIF: Bloom's: Evaluate REF: 2.1 Principles and Guidelines OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.2.1 Explain how each of the diet-planning principles can be used to plan a healthy diet. 3. What is meant by the term "nutrient-dense food"? Give three examples each of foods with high nutrient density and low nutrient density. ANS: Nutrient density promotes adequacy and kcalorie control. To eat well without overeating, select nutrient-dense foods—that is, foods that deliver the most nutrients for the least food energy. Consider foods containing calcium, for example. You can get about 300 milligrams of calcium from either 1½ ounces of cheddar cheese or 1 cup of fat-free milk, but the cheese delivers about twice as much food energy (kcalories) as the milk. The fat-free milk, then, is twice as calcium dense as the cheddar cheese; it offers the same amount of calcium for half the kcalories. Both foods are excellent choices for adequacy’s sake alone, but to achieve adequacy while controlling kcalories, the fat-free milk is the better choice. (Alternatively, a person could select a low-fat cheddar cheese with its kcalories comparable to fat-free milk.) Just as a financially responsible person pays for rent, food, clothes, and tuition on a limited budget, healthy people obtain iron, calcium, and all the other essential nutrients on a limited energy (kcalorie) allowance. Success depends on getting many nutrients for each kcalorie “dollar.” A person who makes nutrient-dense choices can meet daily nutrient needs on a lower energy budget. Such choices support good health. Foods that are notably low in nutrient density—such as potato chips, candy, and colas—are called empty-kcalorie foods. The kcalories these foods provide are called “empty” because they deliver a lot of energy (from added sugars, solid fats, or both) but little, or no, protein, vitamins, or minerals. The concept of nutrient density is relatively simple when examining the contributions of one nutrient to a food or diet. With respect to calcium, milk ranks high and meats rank low. With respect to iron, meats rank high and milk ranks low. But it is a more complex task to answer the question, which food is more nutritious? To answer that question, we need to consider several nutrients— including both nutrients that may harm health as well as those that may be beneficial. Ranking foods based on their overall nutrient composition is known as nutrient profiling. Researchers have yet to agree on an ideal way to rate foods based on the nutrient profile, but when they do, nutrient profiling will be quite useful in helping consumers identify nutritious foods and plan healthy diets. Foods listed as examples will vary. DIF: Bloom's: Understand REF: 2.1 Principles and Guidelines OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.2.1 Explain how each of the diet-planning principles can be used to plan a healthy diet. 4. List and describe the contributions of the five food groups in the USDA Food Patterns. ANS: Fruits contribute folate, vitamin A, vitamin C, potassium, and fiber.
Vegetables contribute folate, vitamin A, vitamin C, vitamin K, vitamin E, magnesium, potassium, and fiber. Grains contribute folate, niacin, riboflavin, thiamin, iron, magnesium, selenium, and fiber. Protein foods contribute protein, essential fatty acids, niacin, thiamin, vitamin B6, vitamin B12, iron, magnesium, potassium, and zinc. Milk and milk products contribute protein, riboflavin, vitamin B12, calcium, potassium, and, when fortified, vitamin A and vitamin D. Oils are not a food group, but are featured here because they contribute vitamin E and essential fatty acids. DIF: Bloom's: Understand REF: 2.2 Diet-Planning Guides OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.2.2 Use the USDA Food Patterns to develop a meal plan within a specified energy allowance. 5. Provide examples and discuss the importance of the five subgroups of the vegetables food group. ANS: All vegetables provide an array of nutrients, but some vegetables are especially good sources of certain vitamins, minerals, and beneficial phytochemicals. For this reason, the vegetable group is sorted into five subgroups. The dark-green vegetables deliver the B vitamin folate; the red and orange vegetables provide vitamin A; legumes supply iron and protein; the starchy vegetables contribute carbohydrate energy; and the other vegetables fill in the gaps and add more of these same nutrients. Dark-green vegetables: Broccoli and leafy greens such as arugula, beet greens, bok choy, collard greens, kale, mustard greens, romaine lettuce, spinach, turnip greens, watercress Red and orange vegetables: Carrots, carrot juice, pumpkin, red bell peppers, sweet potatoes, tomatoes, tomato juice, vegetable juice, winter squash (acorn, butternut) Legumes: Black beans, black-eyed peas, garbanzo beans (chickpeas), kidney beans, lentils, navy beans, pinto beans, soybeans and soy products such as tofu, split peas, white beans Starchy vegetables: Cassava, corn, green peas, hominy, lima beans, potatoes Other vegetables: Artichokes, asparagus, bamboo shoots, bean sprouts, beets, brussels sprouts, cabbages, cactus, cauliflower, celery, cucumbers, eggplant, green beans, green bell peppers, iceberg lettuce, mushrooms, okra, onions, seaweed, snow peas, zucchini DIF: Bloom's: Understand REF: 2.2 Diet-Planning Guides OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.2.2 Use the USDA Food Patterns to develop a meal plan within a specified energy allowance. 6. Define the term "discretionary kcalories" and give three examples of foods that provide them. Under what circumstances is the intake of discretionary kcalories permitted? ANS:
People who consistently choose nutrient-dense foods may be able to meet most of their nutrient needs without consuming their full allowance of kcalories. The difference between the kcalories needed to supply nutrients and those needed to maintain weight might be considered discretionary kcalories. DIF: Bloom's: Apply REF: 2.2 Diet-Planning Guides OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.2.2 Use the USDA Food Patterns to develop a meal plan within a specified energy allowance. 7. Discuss the meaning, significance, and utility of MyPlate as an educational tool.
ANS: The USDA created an educational tool called MyPlate to illustrate the five food groups. The MyPlate icon divides a plate into four sections, each representing a food group—fruits, vegetables, grains, and protein foods. The sections vary in size, indicating relative proportion each food group contributes to a healthy diet. A circle next to the plate represents the milk group (dairy). The MyPlate icon does not stand alone as an educational tool. A wealth of information can be found at the website (www.choosemyplate.gov). Consumers can choose the kinds and amounts of foods they need to eat each day based on their height, weight, age, gender, and activity level. Information is also available for children, pregnant and lactating women, and for vegetarians. In addition to creating a personal plan, consumers can find daily tips to help them improve their diet and increase physical activity. A key message of the website is to enjoy food, but eat less by avoiding oversized portions. DIF: Bloom's: Evaluate REF: 2.2 Diet-Planning Guides OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.2.2 Use the USDA Food Patterns to develop a meal plan within a specified energy allowance. 8. What is the Healthy Eating Index and how does it work? ANS: An assessment tool, called the Healthy Eating Index, can be used to measure how well a diet meets the recommendations of the Dietary Guidelines. Various components of the diet are given scores that reflect the quantities consumed. For most components, higher intakes result in higher scores. For example, selecting at least 3 ounces of whole grains (per 2000 kcalories) gives a score of 10 points, whereas selecting no whole grains gives a score of 0 points. For a few components, lower intakes provide higher scores. For example, less than 2.2 grams of sodium (per 2000 kcalories) receives 10 points, but more than 4 grams gets 0 points. An assessment of recent nutrition surveys using the Healthy Eating Index reports that the American diet scores 54 out of a possible 100 points. To improve this score, the American diet needs to decrease kcalories from solid fats and added sugars by about 60 percent; increase fruits by 100 percent and vegetables and milk products by 70 percent; maintain the quantity of grains but shift the quality to four times as many whole grains; and reduce salt by more than half. DIF: Bloom's: Understand REF: 2.2 Diet-Planning Guides OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.2.2 Use the USDA Food Patterns to develop a meal plan within a specified
energy allowance. 9. What is the origin of food exchange lists? How are they best utilized? ANS: Food group plans are particularly well suited to help a person achieve dietary adequacy, balance, and variety. Exchange lists provide additional help in achieving kcalorie control and moderation. Originally developed as a meal planning guide for people with diabetes, exchange lists have proved useful for general diet planning as well. Unlike the USDA Food Patterns, which sort foods primarily by their vitamin and mineral contents, the exchange system sorts foods according to their energy-nutrient contents. Consequently, foods do not always appear on the exchange list where you might first expect to find them. For example, cheeses are grouped with meats because, like meats, cheeses contribute energy from protein and fat but provide negligible carbohydrate. (In the USDA Food Patterns presented earlier, cheeses are grouped with milk because they are milk products with similar calcium contents.) For similar reasons, starchy vegetables such as corn, green peas, and potatoes are listed with grains on the starch list in the exchange system, rather than with the vegetables. Likewise, olives are not classed as a “fruit” as a botanist would claim; they are classified as a “fat” because their fat content makes them more similar to oil than to berries. Cream cheese, bacon, and nuts are also on the fat list to remind users of their high fat content. These groupings highlight the characteristics of foods that are significant to energy intake. DIF: Bloom's: Understand REF: 2.2 Diet-Planning Guides OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.2.2 Use the USDA Food Patterns to develop a meal plan within a specified energy allowance. 10. Discuss the meaning and significance of foods that are processed, refined, enriched, fortified, or whole-grain. ANS: Processed foods: foods that have been treated to change their physical, chemical, microbiological, or sensory properties. Fortified: the addition to a food of nutrients that were either not originally present or present in insignificant amounts. Fortification can be used to correct or prevent a widespread nutrient deficiency or to balance the total nutrient profile of a food. Refined: the process by which the coarse parts of a food are removed. When wheat is refined into flour, the bran, germ, and husk are removed, leaving only the endosperm. Enriched: the addition to a food of specific nutrients to replace losses that occur during processing so that the food will meet a specified standard. Whole grain: a grain that maintains the same relative proportions of starchy endosperm, germ, and bran as the original (all but the husk); not refined. DIF: Bloom's: Understand REF: 2.2 Diet-Planning Guides OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.2.2 Use the USDA Food Patterns to develop a meal plan within a specified energy allowance. 11. List the information that must be displayed on food labels.
ANS: Serving Sizes: Because labels present nutrient information based on one serving, they must identify the size of the serving. The Food and Drug Administration (FDA) has established specific serving sizes for various foods and requires that all labels for a given product use the same serving size. Nutrient Quantities: In addition to the serving size and the servings per container, the FDA requires that the Nutrition Facts panel on food labels present nutrient information in two ways—in quantities (such as grams) and as percentages of standards called the Daily Values. The Nutrition Facts panel must provide the nutrient amount, percent Daily Value, or both for the following: Total food energy (kcalories) Food energy from fat (kcalories) Total fat (grams and percent Daily Value) Saturated fat (grams and percent Daily Value) Trans fat (grams) Cholesterol (milligrams and percent Daily Value) Sodium (milligrams and percent Daily Value) Total carbohydrate, which includes starch, sugar, and fiber (grams and percent Daily Value) Dietary fiber (grams and percent Daily Value) Sugars, which includes both those naturally present in and those added to the food (grams) Protein (grams) The labels must also present nutrient content information as a percent Daily Value for the following vitamins and minerals: Vitamin A Vitamin C Iron Calcium The Daily Values: Food labels list the amount of some nutrients in a product as a percentage of its Daily Value, which makes the numbers more meaningful to consumers. The Daily Values reflect dietary recommendations for nutrients and dietary components that have important relationships with health. The “% Daily Value” column on a label provides a ballpark estimate of how individual foods contribute to the total diet. Front-of-Package Labels: Some consumers find the many numbers on Nutrition Facts panels overwhelming. They want an easier and quicker way to interpret information and select products. Food manufacturers responded by creating front-of-package labels that incorporate text, color, and icons to present key nutrient facts. DIF: Bloom's: Remember REF: 2.3 Food Labels OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.2.3 Compare and contrast the information on food labels to make selections that meet specific dietary and health goals. 12. Discuss the regulations for nutrient claims and health claims on food labels. ANS:
Nutrient Claims: Have you noticed phrases such as “good source of fiber” on a box of cereal or “rich in calcium” on a package of cheese? These and other nutrient claims may be used on labels so long as they meet FDA definitions, which include the conditions under which each term can be used. For example, in addition to having less than 2 milligrams of cholesterol, a “cholesterol-free” product may not contain more than 2 grams of saturated fat and trans fat combined per serving. The accompanying glossary defines nutrient terms on food labels, including criteria for foods described as “low,” “reduced,” and “free.” When nutrients have been added to enriched or fortified products, they must appear in the ingredients list. Some descriptions imply that a food contains, or does not contain, a nutrient. Implied claims are prohibited unless they meet specified criteria. For example, a claim that a product “contains no oil” implies that the food contains no fat. If the product is truly fat-free, then it may make the no-oil claim, but if it contains another source of fat, such as butter, it may not. Health Claims: Health claims describe a relationship between a food (or food component) and a disease or health-related condition. In some cases, the FDA authorizes health claims based on an extensive review of the scientific literature. For example, the health claim that “Diets low in sodium may reduce the risk of high blood pressure” is based on enough scientific evidence to establish a clear link between diet and health. In cases where there is emerging—but not established—evidence for a relationship between a food or food component and disease, the FDA allows the use of qualified health claims that must use specific language indicating that the evidence supporting the claim is limited. A qualified health claim might claim that “Very limited and preliminary research suggests that eating one-half to one cup of tomatoes and/or tomato sauce a week may reduce the risk of prostate cancer. The FDA concludes that there is little scientific evidence supporting the claim.” Structure-Function Claims: Unlike health claims, which require food manufacturers to collect scientific evidence and petition the FDA, structure-function claims can be made without any FDA approval. Product labels can claim to “slow aging,” “improve memory,” and “build strong bones” without any proof. The only criterion for a structure-function claim is that it must not mention a disease or symptom. Unfortunately, structure-function claims can be deceptively similar to health claims, and most consumers do not distinguish between different types of claims. DIF: Bloom's: Understand REF: 2.3 Food Labels OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.2.3 Compare and contrast the information on food labels to make selections that meet specific dietary and health goals. 13. Discuss the reasons for why people become vegetarians. ANS: The health benefits of a primarily vegetarian diet seem to have encouraged many people to eat more plant-based meals. The popular press sometimes refers to individuals who eat small amounts of meat, seafood, or poultry from time to time as “flexitarians.” People who choose to exclude meat and other animal-derived foods from their diets today do so for many of the same reasons the Greek philosopher Pythagoras cited in the sixth century B.C.: physical health, ecological responsibility, and philosophical concerns. They might also cite world hunger issues, economic reasons, ethical concerns, or religious beliefs as motivating factors. DIF: Bloom's: Remember REF: H-2 Vegetarian Diets OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.H-2 Develop a well-balanced vegetarian meal plan. 14. List and discuss the health advantages of a vegetarian diet.
ANS: Vegetarians tend to maintain a lower and healthier body weight than nonvegetarians. In general, those who eat meat have higher energy intakes and body weights. Vegetarians’ lower body weights correlate with their high intakes of fiber and low intakes of fat. Obesity and weight gains are strong risk factors for diabetes, which partially explains why nonvegetarian diets are more often associated with diabetes than vegetarian diets. Even when body weight and life-style factors are taken into account, vegetarian eating patterns seem to protect against diabetes. Vegetarians tend to have lower blood pressure and lower rates of hypertension than nonvegetarians. Appropriate body weight helps to maintain a healthy blood pressure, as does a diet low in saturated fat and cholesterol and high in fiber, fruits, vegetables, whole grains, low-fat milk products, and protein from plant sources. Meat is associated with an increased risk of heart disease and stroke. The incidence of heart disease and related deaths and the concentrations of blood cholesterol are lower for vegetarians than for nonvegetarians, which can partly be explained by their avoidance of meat.The dietary factor most directly related to heart disease is saturated animal fat, and in general, vegetarian diets are lower in total fat, saturated fat, and cholesterol than typical meat-based diets. The fats common in plant-based diets—the monounsaturated fats of olives, seeds, and nuts and the polyunsaturated fats of vegetable oils—are associated with a decreased risk of heart disease. Furthermore, vegetarian diets are generally higher in dietary fiber, antioxidant vitamins, and phytochemicals—all factors that help control blood lipids and protect against heart disease. Many vegetarians include soy products such as tofu in their diets. Soy products—with their polyunsaturated fats, fibers, vitamins, and minerals, and little saturated fat—may help to protect against heart disease. Vegetarians have a lower overall cancer incidence than the general population. Their low cancer rates may be due to their high intakes of fruits and vegetables. Some scientific findings indicate that vegetarian diets are associated not only with lower cancer mortality in general, but also with lower incidence of cancer at specific sites as well, most notably, colon cancer. People with colon cancer seem to eat more meat. Some cancer experts recommend limiting consumption of red meat to no more than 11 ounces a week, with very little (if any) processed meat. In addition to obesity, diabetes, hypertension, heart disease, and some cancers, vegetarian diets may help prevent osteoporosis, diverticular disease, gallstones, cataracts, and rheumatoid arthritis. DIF: Bloom's: Understand REF: H-2 Vegetarian Diets OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.H-2 Develop a well-balanced vegetarian meal plan. 15. Discuss how vegetarians and vegans can ensure that they have adequate protein intake. ANS:
The protein RDA for vegetarians is the same as for others, although some have suggested that it should be higher because plant proteins are not digested as completely. Lacto-ovo-vegetarian diets that include animal-derived foods such as milk and eggs, deliver high-quality proteins and are likely to meet protein needs. Even vegetarians who adopt only plant-based diets are likely to meet protein needs provided that their energy intakes are adequate and the protein sources varied. The proteins of whole grains, vegetables, legumes, and nuts and seeds can provide adequate amounts of all the amino acids. An advantage of many vegetarian sources of protein is that they are generally lower in saturated fat than meats and are often higher in fiber and richer in some vitamins and minerals. Vegetarians sometimes use meat replacements made of textured vegetable protein (soy protein). These foods are formulated to look and taste like meat, seafood, or poultry. Many of these products are fortified to provide the vitamins and minerals found in animal sources of protein. Some may be high in salt, sugars, and saturated fats. A wise vegetarian learns to read labels and use a variety of whole, unrefined foods often and commercially prepared foods less frequently. Vegetarians may also use soy products such as tofu to bolster protein intake. DIF: Bloom's: Understand REF: H-2 Vegetarian Diets OBJ: UNUT.WHRO.16.H-2 Develop a well-balanced vegetarian meal plan.
Chapter 3 – Digestion, Absorption, and Transport MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. The process by which food is broken down into absorbable components is called which of the following? a. digestion b. absorption c. secretion d. mastication ANS: A MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 65-66, Section 3.1-Digestion
2. What is mastication? a. the act of chewing b. the act of swallowing c. the wave-like contraction of the intestines d. the wave-like contraction of the esophagus ANS: A MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 66, Section 3.1-Digestion
3. Which of the following parts is the lumen of the GI tract? a. the epiglottis b. the capillaries c. the inner space d. the mucosal surface ANS: C MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 66, Section 3.1-Digestion
4. In what organ does the digestion process begin? a. mouth b. stomach c. duodenum d. jejunum-ileum ANS: A MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 66, Section 3.1-Digestion
5. What is umami? a. the flavour of monosodium glutamate b. the opening between the duodenum and jejunum c. the intestinal enzyme that hydrolyzes fish proteins d. an intestinal enzyme that hydrolyzes dietary nucleic acids ANS: A MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 66, Section 3.1-Digestion
6. About how many more times sensitive is the sense of smell compared with the sense of taste? a. 2 times b. 10 times c. 100s of times
d. 1000s of times ANS: D MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 66, Section 3.1-Digestion
7. Which of the following is a basic taste sensation? a. hot b. cold c. sugary d. bitter ANS: D MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 66, Section 3.1-Digestion
8. The food flavour enhancer monosodium glutamate is believed by some scientists to promote a unique taste sensation known by which of the following terms. a. salinos b. umami c. chymos d. glutami ANS: B MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 66, Section 3.1-Digestion
9. Which of the following best describes the anatomy of the gastrointestinal tract? a. a vat-like vessel b. a rigid, solid tunnel c. a flexible muscular tube d. a firm, duct-like channel ANS: C MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 66, Section 3.1-Digestion
10. Which of the following is a specific sphincter muscle? a. longitudinal b. cardiac c. duodenal d. diaphragmatic ANS: C MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 66, Section 3.1-Digestion
11. Where is the epiglottis located? a. throat b. bile duct c. pancreatic duct d. lower esophagus ANS: A MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 66, Section 3.1-Digestion
12. What structure separates the colon from the small intestine? a. pylorus b. ileocecal valve c. gastric retainer d. rectal sphincter
ANS: B MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 66, Section 3.1-Digestion
13. What structure controls the release of material from the stomach to the small intestine? a. ileocecal valve b. pyloric sphincter c. diaphragmatic valve d. esophageal sphincter ANS: B MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 66, Section 3.1-Digestion
14. What part of the GI tract prevents a person from choking while swallowing? a. mouth b. epiglottis c. pyloric sphincter d. upper esophageal sphincter ANS: B MSC: Application
REF: p. 66, 67, Section 3.1-Digestion
15. What structure functions to prevent entrance of food into the trachea? a. tongue b. epiglottis c. cardiac sphincter d. trachea sphincter ANS: B MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 66, 67, Section 3.1-Digestion
16. Which of the following is a function of the appendix? a. It ferments fibre. b. It stores lymph cells. c. It slows down peristalsis. d. It stores preformed stools. ANS: B MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 66, 67, Section 3.1-Digestion
17. What is a bolus? a. enzyme that hydrolyzes starch b. portion of food swallowed at one time c. device used to analyze the contents of the stomach d. sphincter muscle separating the stomach from the small intestine ANS: B MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 67, Section 3.1-Digestion
18. A bolus is conducted past the diaphragm through which of the following parts. a. epiglottis b. stomach c. esophagus d. large intestine ANS: C
REF: p. 67, Section 3.1-Digestion
MSC: Knowledge 19. Which of these is one function of the pyloric sphincter? a. secrete acid into the stomach b. secrete hormones into the stomach c. prevent the contents of the small intestine from backing up into the stomach d. prevent the contents of the small intestine from emptying too quickly into the colon ANS: C MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 67, Section 3.1-Digestion
20. Which of the following structures controls the passage of material from the small intestine to the large intestine? a. pyloric valve b. ileocecal valve c. colonic sphincter d. jejunal sphincter ANS: B MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 67, Section 3.1-Digestion
21. What is the primary function of the rectum? a. control functioning of the colon b. absorb minerals from waste materials c. store waste materials prior to evacuation d. absorb excess water from waste materials ANS: C MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 67, 68, Section 3.1-Digestion
22. Into what region of the intestinal tract does the stomach empty? a. ileum b. cecum c. jejunum d. duodenum ANS: D MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 68, Section 3.1-Digestion
23. After swallowing, in what order does food pass through the regions of the GI tract? a. jejunum, duodenum, colon, ileum, rectum b. jejunum, ileum, duodenum, rectum, colon c. stomach, duodenum, jejunum, ileum, colon d. stomach, jejunum, duodenum, colon, ileum ANS: C MSC: Application
REF: p. 68, Section 3.1-Digestion
24. Which of the following is a description of chyme? a. the semisolid mass of undigested food which passes through the ileocecal valve b. a semiliquid mass of partially digested food released by the stomach into the small intestine c. the mixture of pancreatic juices containing enzymes for digestion of the macronutrients d. a thick, viscous material synthesized by mucosal cells for protection against digestive juices
ANS: B MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 68, Section 3.1-Digestion
25. What is the name given to partially digested food in the stomach? a. chyme b. liquid food c. gastric mucus d. semiliquid mass ANS: A MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 68, Section 3.1-Digestion
26. What is meant by the term “motility” in reference to the GI tract? a. the efficiency of lymph transport b. the ability of the GI tract muscles to move c. the speed of gastric digestive juice release d. the speed of pancreatic digestive juice release ANS: B MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 68, Section 3.1-Digestion
27. Which of the following best defines peristalsis? a. It is the static or quiet period between meals when the GI tract is empty. b. It is the constant rate of contraction along the GI tract when food is present. c. It is contraction of parallel and circular muscles found in the walls of the intestines but not the stomach. d. It is wavelike muscular contractions resulting from alternate tightening and relaxing of circular and longitudinal muscles of the GI tract. ANS: D MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 68-69, Section 3.1-Digestion
28. Which of the following best describes the muscular actions of digestion? a. Peristalsis begins in the stomach upon the initiation of the swallowing reflex. b. Contraction and relaxation along the jejunum is enhanced by a third layer of diagonal muscles. c. Segmentation along the intestines allows momentary reversal of the movement of intestinal contents. d. Relaxation of the rectal sphincter muscles prevents the continuous elimination of stool. ANS: C MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 68-70, Section 3.1-Digestion
29. During the process of digestion, at what point does the stomach begin to release chyme? a. when the fluid to solid ratio in chyme is 3 to 1 b. when the chyme is liquefied c. within 15 minutes of gastrin release d. within 5–10 minutes of starting a meal ANS: B MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 69, Section 3.1-Digestion
30. Which of the following GI tract organs has the strongest muscles? a. stomach b. small intestine
c. large intestine d. cardiac sphincter ANS: A MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 69, Section 3.1-Digestion
31. Which of the following is a function of sphincter muscles? a. control peristalsis b. grind large food particles c. secrete digestive juices into the GI tract d. control the passage of food through the GI tract ANS: D MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 70, Section 3.1-Digestion
32. The lower esophageal sphincter is also known as which of the following? a. reflux restrainer b. cardiac sphincter c. perihepatic control valve d. reverse peristalsis inhibitor ANS: B MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 70, Section 3.1-Digestion
33. What is reflux? a. hard, dry, stools b. backward flow of chyme c. soft, poorly formed stools d. the mixture of bile and pancreatic juice ANS: B MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 70, Section 3.1-Digestion
34. What types of enzymes are responsible for hydrolyzing the proteins in foods? a. lipases b. salivases c. proteases d. carbohydrases ANS: C MSC: Application
REF: p. 70, Section 3.1-Digestion
35. Which of the following organs are directly involved in the digestion of protein? a. Stomach, salivary glands and pancreas b. Stomach, pancreas and colon c. Stomach, pancreas and jejunum. d. Stomach, gallbladder and ileum. ANS: C MSC: Application
REF: p. 70-72, Section 3.1-Digestion
36. What is the function of mucus in the stomach? a. emulsify fats b. neutralize stomach acid c. activate pepsinogen to pepsin d. protect stomach cells from gastric juices
ANS: D MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 71, Section 3.1-Digestion
37. What is a function of hydrochloric acid in the stomach? a. It absorbs water. b. It inhibits peristalsis. c. It neutralizes the alkaline food mass. d. It creates an optimum pH. ANS: D MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 71, Section 3.1-Digestion
38. Which of the following best describes the normal pH of the stomach? a. very acidic b. slightly acidic c. neutral d. slightly alkaline ANS: A MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 71, Section 3.1-Digestion
39. Why is there little or no digestion of starch in the stomach? a. Mucus inhibits starch breakdown. b. Stomach enzymes are dysfunctional. c. Starch has already been adequately digested by salivary enzymes. d. Salivary enzymes do not work in an acid environment. ANS: D MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 71, Section 3.1-Digestion
40. What is the fate of any enzymes that are present in the foods we eat? a. hydrolyzed in the GI tract b. absorbed intact by the stomach c. absorbed intact by the small intestine d. passed through the GI tract and excreted in the stool ANS: A MSC: Application
REF: p. 71, Section 3.1-Digestion
41. What substance protects the stomach lining from damage due to digestive juices? a. water b. mucus c. pepsinogen d. dietary fats ANS: B MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 71, Section 3.1-Digestion
42. Which is an example of a role of hydrochloric acid in the gastrointestinal tract? a. It kills bacteria. b. It activates pancreatic enzymes. c. It raises the pH of chyme. d. It promotes hydrolysis of dietary carbohydrate. ANS: B
REF: p. 71, Section 3.1-Digestion
MSC: Knowledge 43. Which of these parts of the GI tract contains highly acidic digestive juices? a. colon b. ileum c. stomach d. duodenum ANS: C MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 71, Section 3.1-Digestion
44. The usual pH of gastric juice is approximately which of the following values? a. 2 b. 4 c. 6 d. 7 ANS: A MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 71, Section 3.1-Digestion
45. Which of these is an important function of mucus? a. help solubilize bile b. stabilize pancreatic enzymes c. enhance absorption of vitamin B12 d. protect the stomach walls from digestion ANS: D MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 71, Section 3.1-Digestion
46. After a portion of food is chewed and swallowed, what happens to the salivary amylase in the stomach? a. It is inactivated by gastric juice. b. It continues to hydrolyze starches. c. It binds to pepsin and catalyzes proteolytic activity. d. It passes into the duodenum where the alkaline pH stimulates carbohydrase activity. ANS: A MSC: Application
REF: p. 71, Section 3.1-Digestion
47. Which of the following body organs secretes digestive enzymes? a. esophagus b. gastric glands c. liver d. endocrine glands ANS: B MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 71, Section 3.1-Digestion
48. The process by which bile acts on fat so enzymes can attack the fat is known as which of the following? a. condensation b. emulsification c. enzymification d. phosphorylation ANS: B
REF: p. 71, 72, Section 3.1-Digestion
MSC: Knowledge 49. Which of the following is is digested by pancreatic juice? a. fats b. fibre c. zymogens d. insulin ANS: B MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 71-72, Section 3.1-Digestion
50. Which of the following is a component of pancreatic juice? a. bile b. HCl c. lipase d. emulsifier ANS: A MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 71-72, Section 3.1-Digestion
51. Your cousin Miguel is extolling the virtues of his new dietary supplement. He says that it contains enzymes that will make him healthier, and he asks for your opinion. You tell him that the enzymes a. will increase the digestibility of the foods he eats b. could likely interfere with the enzymes secreted by his pancreas c. could likely overload his gastrointestinal tract and lead to diarrhea d. are proteins and proteins are destroyed in the gastrointestinal tract ANS: D MSC: Application
REF: p. 72, Section 3.1-Digestion
52. A solution with a pH of 7 is how many times more alkaline than a solution with a pH of 6? a. 1 time b. 5 times c. 10 times d. 100 times ANS: C MSC: Application
REF: p. 72, Section 3.1-Digestion
53. How does bicarbonate contribute to the digestive process? a. It raises the pH of chyme b. It prevents reflux of of chyme (heartburn). c. It emulsifies lipids in the duodenum. d. It breaks down starch to simple sugars. ANS: A MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 72, Section 3.1-Digestion
54. After the pancreatic juices have mixed with chyme in the small intestine, which of the following describes the pH of the resulting mixture? a. very acidic b. moderately acidic c. strongly alkaline d. approximately neutral ANS: D
REF: p. 72, Section 3.1-Digestion
MSC: Application 55. Which of the following is produced by bacterial fermentation of certain fibres in the colon? a. cholesterol b. minerals c. secretin d. small fat fragments ANS: D MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 72, Section 3.1-Digestion
56. What is one function of the gallbladder? a. store bile b. produce bile c. reabsorb water and salts d. perform enzymatic digestion ANS: A MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 72, Section 3.1-Digestion
57. An example of an important function of the colon would be its absorption of which of the following substances? a. bile b. fats c. salts d. hormones ANS: C MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 72, Section 3.1-Digestion
58. Which of the following would be the largest component of stools? a. fats b. fibre c. pesticide and heavy metal residues d. peptides ANS: B MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 72, Section 3.1-Digestion
59. Which of the following classes of nutrients requires the least amount of digestion? a. lipids b. proteins c. vitamins d. carbohydrates ANS: C MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 72, Section 3.1-Digestion
60. Which of the following nutrients requires the least amount of digestion? a. starch b. calcium c. animal fats d. animal proteins ANS: B MSC: Application
REF: p. 72, Section 3.1-Digestion
61. Which of the following is generally NOT digested but does stimulate intestinal muscle contractions? a. bile b. fibre c. starch d. amylase ANS: B MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 72, Section 3.1-Digestion
62. Which of the following is the most important function of fibre in digestive health? a. It provides energy (Calories) through bacterial fermentation in the colon. b. It increases fecal bulk and stimulates intestinal muscle contractions. c. It supports the elimination of cholesterol in stools. d. It helps rid the body of contaminants. ANS: B MSC: Application
REF: p. 72, Section 3.1-Digestion
63. What is the function of bile? a. emulsify fats b. initiate digestion of protein c. enhance absorption of complex carbohydrates d. protect the stomach and small intestine from the action of hydrochloric acid ANS: A MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 72, Section 3.1-Digestion
64. Nancy has stones that are blocking bile release from her gallbladder. What is likely to be the main response to her problem? a. impaired fat digestion b. impaired carbohydrate digestion c. impaired protein digestion d. impaired CCK release ANS: A MSC: Remember
REF: p.72, 81, Section 3.4-The Health and Regulation of the GI Tract
65. Which of the following mechanisms is an important function of the intestinal villi crypts? a. synthesis of chylomicrons b. secretion of juices into the small intestine c. synthesis of fragments of fat for use by the colon d. transport of fat-soluble nutrients into the circulation ANS: B MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 74, Section 3.2-Absorption
66. What is the name of the projections on the inner surface of the small intestine? a. villi b. cilia c. mesenteric vessels d. vascular projectiles ANS: A MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 74, Section 3.2-Absorption
67. Which of the following is a function of the intestinal microvilli? a. secretion of bile salts b. secretion of digestive acid c. transport of nutrient molecules d. transport of pancreatic enzymes ANS: C MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 74, Section 3.2-Absorption
68. Which of the following is the primary site for absorption of nutrients? a. crypt b. villus c. microvillus d. macrovillus ANS: C MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 74, Section 3.2-Absorption
69. Which of the following are found on the microvilli and function to break apart small nutrients into the final products of digestion? a. mucus b. micelles c. enzymes d. hormones ANS: C MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 74, Section 3.2-Absorption
70. Which mechanism directly accounts for the absorption of some nutrients by intestinal cells? a. dilution b. transmigration c. active transport d. facilitated diversion ANS: C MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 74, Section 3.2-Absorption
71. How does the concept of surface area most relate to the absorption of nutrients? a. The presence of fibre in a meal expands the intestinal lumen and thereby the surface area for nutrient absorption. b. The surface area of nutrient molecules if the main determinant of the process of absorption. c. Large numbers of villi and microvilli in the small intestine increase the surface area for nutrient absorption. d. The surface area of pancreatic enzymes is a key factor in their digestive capacity. ANS: C MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 74-76, Section 3.2-Absorption
72. Which of the following is a significant property of dietary fibre? a. inhibition of protease activity b. promotion of water retention of stools c. inhibition of large intestinal contractions d. promotion of vitamin excretion in stools ANS: B
REF: p. 76, Section 3.1-Digestion
MSC: Knowledge 73. To assist the process of digestion and absorption, it is usually best to do which of the following? a. Eat several snacks per day so the system is not overwhelmed. b. Combine different food types to enhance the absorption process. c. Avoid eating meat and fruit at the same meal to prevent competition. d. Take enzyme pills or powder periodically so the system can rest and rejuvenate. ANS: B MSC: Application
REF: p. 76, Section 3.2-Absorption
74. When nutrients are transported from intestinal epithelial cells to the vascular system, what organ is first to receive them? a. liver b. heart c. lungs d. kidneys ANS: A MSC: Application
REF: p. 76, Section 3.2-Absorption
75. Which of the following products of digestion is released directly into the bloodstream? a. chylomicrons b. minerals c. polypeptides d. soluble fibre ANS: A MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 76, Section 3.2-Absorption
76. Exchange of oxygen, nutrients, and waste materials takes place across the walls of which of the following small vessels? a. ducts b. venules c. arterioles d. capillaries ANS: D MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 76, Section 3.3-The Circulatory Systems
77. What vessel carries blood from the liver to the heart? a. aorta b. hepatic vein c. thoracic duct d. hepatic portal vein ANS: B MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 77, Section 3.3-The Circulatory Systems
78. The hepatic portal vein empties into which organ? a. liver b. heart c. pancreas d. lung ANS: A
REF: p. 77, Section 3.3-The Circulatory Systems
MSC: Knowledge 79. When alcohol and barbiturates are ingested, they are absorbed from the gastrointestinal tract and transported first to which of the following organs? a. liver b. heart c. spleen d. kidneys ANS: A MSC: Application
REF: p. 78, Section 3.3-The Circulatory Systems
80. Which of the following conducts lymph into the vascular system? a. villi b. mesentery c. subclavian vein d. common bile duct ANS: C MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 78, Section 3.3-The Circulatory Systems
81. What are lacteals? a. gastric secretory cells b. products of milk digestion c. intestinal lymphatic vessels d. products of colonic fermentation ANS: C MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 78, Section 3.3-The Circulatory Systems
82. Which distinguishes the lymphatic system from the vascular system? a. The lymphatic system carries fats from the intestines to the liver before they can enter the vasculature. b. The lymphatic system circulates via a one-way pump at the junction to the subclavian vein. c. The lymphatic system takes fats from the intestines to the bloodstream, initially bypassing the liver. d. The lymphatic system transports fat-soluble and water-soluble vitamins to the vascular system via the thoracic duct. ANS: A MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 78-79, Section 3.3-The Circulatory Systems
83. Which of these is the first major organ to receive nutrients that are absorbed into the lymph? a. liver b. heart c. spleen d. pancreas ANS: B MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 78-79, Section 3.3-The Circulatory Systems
84. Immediately after absorption, what circulatory system carries the fat-soluble vitamins and large fats? a. vascular system b. mesenteric system
c. lymphatic system d. enterohepatic system ANS: C MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 78-79, Section 3.3-The Circulatory Systems
85. The living bacteria found in yogurt are known as what microorganisms? a. probiotics b. prebiotics c. postbiotics d. zymobiotics ANS: A MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 79, Section 3.4-The Health and Regulation of the GI Tract
86. Microorganisms in food that are viable when consumed and that are beneficial to health are known by which of the following terms? a. probiotics b. prebiotics c. postbiotics d. zymobiotics ANS: A MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 79, Section 3.4-The Health and Regulation of the GI Tract
87. When consumed on a regular basis, which of the following foods promotes healthful changes of the microflora of the GI tract? a. fish b. yogurt c. poultry d. iron-rich foods ANS: B MSC: Application
REF: p. 79, Section 3.4-The Health and Regulation of the GI Tract
88. The intestinal flora are comprised primarily of which of the following? a. parasites b. bacteria c. fibre d. probiotics ANS: B MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 79, Section 3.4-The Health and Regulation of the GI Tract
89. What is the primary role of the normal, thriving, intestinal, bacterial population? a. help degrade meat and dairy proteins b. help prevent infectious bacteria from attacking the system c. synthesize vitamin D, which can be absorbed into the body d. synthesize several amino acids which can be absorbed into the body ANS: B MSC: Application
REF: p. 79, Section 3.4-The Health and Regulation of the GI Tract
90. Which of the following is known to be produced by small intestinal bacteria? a. mucus b. chyme
c. glucose d. vitamins ANS: D MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 79, Section 3.4-The Health and Regulation of the GI Tract
91. The maintenance of the body’s constant internal conditions is guided by which principle? a. homeostasis b. regularity c. bioregulation d. metabolic balance ANS: A MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 79-80, Section 3.4-The Health and Regulation of the GI Tract
92. Which 2 systems coordinate all digestive/absorptive processes? a. enzyme and thoracic systems b. portal and lymphatic systems c. nervous and endocrine systems d. transport and circulatory systems ANS: C MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 80, Section 3.4-The Health and Regulation of the GI Tract
93. What is the normal pH of stomach juice? a. 0.25–0.50 b. 1.5–1.7 c. 7.0–7.5 d. 9.5–9.75 ANS: B MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 80, Section 3.4-The Health and Regulation of the GI Tract
94. Which of the following hormones regulates the pH of the stomach? a. gastrin b. insulin c. secretin d. cholecystokinin ANS: A MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 80, Section 3.4-The Health and Regulation of the GI Tract
95. Which of the following substances functions to control the release of hydrochloric acid to prevent excessive acidity? a. fibre b. gastrin c. secretin d. bicarbonate ANS: B MSC: Application
REF: p. 80, Section 3.4-The Health and Regulation of the GI Tract
96. Which of the following substances stimulates the pancreas to release bicarbonate-rich juice? a. gastrin b. secretin c. glucagon
d. gastric-inhibitory peptide ANS: B MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 80, Section 3.4-The Health and Regulation of the GI Tract
97. Which of the following plays the largest role in regulating the release of pancreatic digestive enzymes? a. the hormone gastrin. b. the pancreatic sphincter. c. the amount of fat, protein or carbohydrate in chyme d. the release of digestive enzymes by the pancreas remains constant and is not affected by external or internal factors. ANS: C MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 80-81, Section 3.4-The Health and Regulation of the GI Tract
98. Which of the following are all enterogastrone hormones? a. gastric inhibitory peptide, secretin and bicarbonate b. gastric inhibitory peptide, secretin and cholecystokinin c. gastric inhibitory peptide, bicarbonate and gastrin d. gastric inhibitory peptide, cholecystokinin and zymogen ANS: B MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 80-81, Section 3.4-The Health and Regulation of the GI Tract
99. What is the first vessel to receive absorbed water-soluble vitamins? a. hepatic vein b. mesenteric vein c. mesenteric artery d. hepatic portal vein ANS: D MSC: Application 100.
What is/are the primary target organ(s) for the action of cholecystokinin? a. pancreas only b. pancreas and stomach c. pancreas and duodenum d. pancreas and gallbladder ANS: D MSC: Knowledge
101.
REF: p. 81, Section 3.3-The Circulatory Systems
REF: p. 81, Section 3.4-The Health and Regulation of the GI Tract
Which of the following is a chief function of cholecystokinin (CCK)? a. CCK triggers the release of bile. b. CCK increases the rate of GI tract motility. c. CCK triggers release of gastrin. d. CCK triggers release of HCl from the stomach. ANS: C REF: p. 81, Section 3.4-The Health and Regulation of the GI Tract MSC: Knowledge recall
102.
Which of these is the usual consequence of removing a diseased gallbladder? a. inability to digest fats b. some damage to the pancreas c. inability to digest carbohydrates d. delivery of bile directly to the duodenum
ANS: D MSC: Application 103.
Jenny has just has undergone a cholecystectomy. After recovery, what ability will Jenny have lost? a. to manufacture bile b. to store bile c. to digest carbohydrates d. to insulin neutralize acidic gastric juices ANS: B MSC: Knowledge
104.
REF: p. 81, Section 3.4-The Health and Regulation of the GI Tract
What is a zymogen? a. an intestinal hormone b. an inactive enzyme precursor c. a defective pancreatic enzyme d. an inflamed small intestinal out-pocketing ANS: B MSC: Knowledge
108.
REF: p. 81, Section 3.4-The Health and Regulation of the GI Tract
What substance controls the release of bile into the small intestines? a. gastrin b. secretin c. prozymogen d. cholecystokinin ANS: D MSC: Knowledge
107.
REF: p. 81, Section 3.4-The Health and Regulation of the GI Tract
Nancy is having difficulty releasing bile from her gallbladder. What hormone might be functioning improperly? a. CCK b. gastrin c. secretin d. gastrin ANS: A MSC: Knowledge
106.
REF: p. 81, Section 3.4-The Health and Regulation of the GI Tract
Which of the following hormones is released by the intestinal wall in response to the presence of fat? a. insulin b. gastrin c. secretin d. cholecystokinin ANS: D MSC: Knowledge
105.
REF: p. 81, Section 3.4-The Health and Regulation of the GI Tract
REF: p. 81, Section 3.4-The Health and Regulation of the GI Tract
Which of the following results is associated with the presence of fat in the GI tract? a. inhibition of mucosal enzyme activities b. slowing of the process of digestion and absorption c. inhibition of thiamine, riboflavin, and niacin absorption d. stimulation and hastening of digestion and absorption
ANS: B MSC: Knowledge 109.
REF: p. 81, Section 3.4-The Health and Regulation of the GI Tract
The chief purpose of the gallbladder is to store a substance that is required for the assimilation of which of the following ingested nutrients? a. fats only b. carbohydrates only c. fats and carbohydrates d. proteins, fats, and carbohydrates ANS: A MSC: Application
REF: p. 81, Section 3.4-The Health and Regulation of the GI Tract
110. Which of the following nutrients requires the greatest time for digestion? a. fats b. water c. minerals d. carbohydrates ANS: C MSC: Application
REF: p. 82, Section 3.4-The Health and Regulation of the GI Tract
111. A decrease in the flow of blood to the intestines is known by which of the following terms? a. gut stasis b. gut dysmotility c. intestinal stroke d. intestinal ischemia ANS: D MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 82, Section 3.4-The Health and Regulation of the GI Tract
112. Choking occurs when a piece of food becomes firmly lodged in which structure? a. larynx b. trachea c. epiglottis d. esophagus ANS: B MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 84-85, Section 3.5-Common Digestive Problems
113. The Heimlich manoeuvre may be helpful in conditions associated with which of these signs? a. choking b. vomiting c. heartburn d. constipation ANS: A MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 84-85, Section 3.5-Common Digestive Problems
114. Which of the following results from reverse peristalsis? a. gas b. choking c. vomiting d. diarrhea ANS: C
REF: p. 85, Section 3.5-Common Digestive Problems
MSC: Knowledge 115. What is the very first thing you should do if you suspect someone is choking on food? a. perform the Heimlich manoeuvre b. strike the person sharply on the back c. attempt to dislodge the food with your fingers d. ask the person to make sounds from the throat ANS: D MSC: Application
REF: p. 85, Section 3.5-Common Digestive Problems
116. A person with chronic diarrhea is at risk for which of the following? a. dehydration b. constipation c. peptic ulcers d. Heimlich’s disease ANS: A MSC: Application
REF: p. 86, Section 3.5-Common Digestive Problems
117. Inflammation of the large intestine is known as which of the following conditions? a. colitis b. indigestion c. hemorrhoiditis d. acid dysregulation ANS: A MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 87, Section 3.5-Common Digestive Problems
118. Which of these organs is affected by colitis? a. stomach b. pancreas c. gall bladder d. large intestine ANS: D MSC: Application
REF: p. 87, Section 3.5-Common Digestive Problems
119. Susan has irritable bowel syndrome. Which treatment is most likely to be recommended? a. complete avoidance of fibre b. probiotics c. complete avoidance of wheat, rye, oats and barley d. clear fluids during relapses ANS: B MSC: Knowledge 120.
REF: p. 87, Section 3.5-Common Digestive Problems
A person on a low-fibre diet is at increased risk for experiencing elevated rectal vein pressure leading to formation of which of the following signs? a. reflux b. hiccups c. hemorrhoids d. peptic ulcers ANS: C MSC: Application
REF: p. 87, Section 3.5-Common Digestive Problems
121.
What is one of the signs of constipation? a. increased thirst b. inability to digest fats c. fewer than one bowel movement per day d. fewer than 3 bowel movements per week ANS: D MSC: Knowledge
122.
People are said to be constipated when they experience which of the following events? a. painful or difficult bowel movements b. reflux more than 3 times a month c. more than a day without a bowel movement d. soft or watery bowel movements with little notice ANS: A MSC: Application
123.
REF: p. 87, Section 3.5-Common Digestive Problems
Which of the following dietary measures is recommended to relieve constipation? a. eating less fibre b. drinking prune juice c. eating less fat d. drinking less water ANS: B MSC: Knowledge
127.
REF: p. 87, Section 3.5-Common Digestive Problems
Which of the following is a common cause of constipation? a. high-fat diet b. high-carbohydrate diet c. low fibre diet d. high milk diet ANS: C MSC: Knowledge
126.
REF: p. 87, Section 3.5-Common Digestive Problems
Which of the following signs is most likely to result from insufficient intake of fibre? a. diarrhea b. bloating c. constipation d. pancreatitis ANS: C MSC: Application
125.
REF: p. 87, Section 3.5-Common Digestive Problems
Which of the following would all be recommended to treat constipation? a. increasing water intake, decreasing fibre intake, increasing physical activity b. increasing water intake, decreasing fibre intake, including prune juice c. increasing vegetables and fruits, increasing physical activity, increasing water intake d. increasing whole grains, restricting fluids, increasing physical activity ANS: C MSC: Knowledge
124.
REF: p. 87, Section 3.5-Common Digestive Problems
REF: p. 87, Section 3.5-Common Digestive Problems
Which of these is the primary cause for belching?
a. b. c. d.
swallowing air viral infections eating spicy foods drinking alcoholic beverages
ANS: A MSC: Knowledge 128.
Colonic irrigation is a popular practice for treatment of which of the following? a. belching b. constipation c. rapid peristalsis d. explosive diarrhea ANS: B MSC: Knowledge
129.
REF: p. 88, Section 3.5-Common Digestive Problems
Which of the following has been associated with heartburn? a. eating too slowly b. drinking too little c. overeating d. eating acidic foods, such as oranges ANS: C MSC: Knowledge
133.
REF: p. 88, Section 3.5-Common Digestive Problems
Which of the following nutrients is most associated with increased production of intestinal gas? a. iron b. fats c. proteins d. carbohydrates ANS: D MSC: Knowledge
132.
REF: p. 88, Section 3.5-Common Digestive Problems
Which of the following nutrients is most likely to cause intestinal gas? a. protein b. carbohydrate c. fats. d. sulphur ANS: B MSC: Knowledge
131.
REF: p. 88, Section 3.5-Common Digestive Problems
Holding the breath for as long as possible is considered an effective treatment for which of the following problems? a. colitis b. hiccups c. belching d. gastroesophageal reflux ANS: B MSC: Application
130.
REF: p. 88, Section 3.5-Common Digestive Problems
REF: p. 89, Section 3.5-Common Digestive Problems
Jim went for his annual medical check-up and was diagnosed with heartburn. Which of the following actions is most likely causing Jim’s condition?
a. b. c. d.
inhibition of peristalsis overactive cardiac sphincter activity overactive pyloric sphincter activity defective lower esophageal sphincter activity
ANS: D MSC: Application 134.
People who have frequent, regular bouts of heartburn and indigestion have a medical condition known as which of the following? a. colitis b. watery stools c. lymphatic malabsorption d. gastroesophageal reflux ANS: D MSC: Application
135.
REF: p. 89, Section 3.5-Common Digestive Problems
A person with chronic GI bleeding is at risk for deficiency of which of the following substances? a. HCl b. iron c. bile d. protein ANS: B MSC: Application
139.
REF: p. 89, Section 3.5-Common Digestive Problems
Peptic ulcers commonly reside in which organ(s)? a. stomach only b. esophagus only c. stomach or duodenum only d. esophagus or duodenum only ANS: C MSC: Knowledge
138.
REF: p. 89, Section 3.5-Common Digestive Problems
Untreated gastroesophageal reflux increases the risk for the more serious condition known as which of the following? a. Graves’ disease b. Sinclair’s gastrum c. Barrett’s esophagus d. Zollinger-Ellison cancer ANS: C MSC: Application
137.
REF: p. 89, Section 3.5-Common Digestive Problems
Antacids were originally developed to treat which of the following conditions? a. excessive gas b. acid indigestion c. excessive belching d. active ulcers in the stomach ANS: D MSC: Application
136.
REF: p. 89, Section 3.5-Common Digestive Problems
REF: p. 89, Section 3.5-Common Digestive Problems
Which of the following food components are poorly tolerated by those with stomach ulcers?
a. b. c. d.
fibre caffeine. simple sugars protein
ANS: D MSC: Knowledge 140.
The primary treatment for ulcer caused by the presence of H. pylori is which of the following? a. fibre b. surgery c. antacids d. antibiotics ANS: D MSC: Knowledge
141.
REF: p. 90, Section 3.5-Common Digestive Problems
Which of the following foods is least likely to aggravate an existing ulcer? a. beer b. raw carrots c. regular coffee d. decaffeinated coffee ANS: B MSC: Application
145.
REF: p. 90, Section 3.5-Common Digestive Problems
All of the following is least likely to cause ulcers? a. bacterial infection b. excessive use of antacids c. excessive gastric acid secretion d. use of certain anti-inflammatory medicines ANS: B MSC: Knowledge
144.
REF: p. 90, Section 3.5-Common Digestive Problems
All of the following are causes of ulcers, which one is the most common cause? a. H. pylori infection b. regular use of aspirin c. regular use of ibuprofen d. disorders that cause high gastric acid output ANS: A MSC: Knowledge
143.
REF: p. 90, Section 3.5-Common Digestive Problems
Which of the following is NOT recommended for the management of existing ulcers? a. Alcohol intake should be curtailed. b. Antibiotics should be administered. c. Aspirin should be administered. d. Anti-inflammatory drug use should be curtailed. ANS: C MSC: Application
142.
REF: p. 89-90, Section 3.5-Common Digestive Problems
REF: p. 90, Section 3.5-Common Digestive Problems
The organism H. pylorus has been identified as one of the major causes of which of the following disorders? a. hiccups
b. hemorrhoids c. diverticulosis d. gastric ulcers ANS: D MSC: Knowledge 146.
What is the most common cause for the development of ulcers? a. infection from H. pylori b. excessive consumption of spicy foods c. failure to adapt to a high-stress lifestyle d. prolonged excessive consumption of hot beverages ANS: A MSC: Knowledge
147.
REF: p. 90, Section 3.5-Common Digestive Problems
REF: p. 90, Section 3.5-Common Digestive Problems
In general, which of the following remedies is associated with the fewest adverse effects from the treatment of constipation in adults? a. taking an enema b. taking a laxative c. ingestion of prunes d. ingestion of mineral oil ANS: C MSC: Application
REF: p. 91, Section 3.5-Common Digestive Problems
MATCHING
a. Liver b. Villus c. Goblet d. Pylorus e. Enzyme f. Gastrin g. Secretin h. Capillary i. Appendix j. Diffusion k. Epiglottis l. Gallbladder m. Carbohydrase n. Hepatic portal vein o. Hepatic vein p. Ileocecal valve q. Cholecystokinin r. Active transport s. Hydrochloric acid t. Lymphatic system 1. 2. 3. 4.
Prevents food from entering the windpipe when swallowing Organ that stores lymph cells Controls the entry of chyme into the duodenum Controls the entry of chyme into the colon
5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10. 11. 12. 13. 14. 15. 16. 17. 18. 19. 20.
Enzyme that digests starch Substance that helps make or break a chemical bond A component of gastric juice Organ that releases bile into intestines Organ that synthesizes bile Fingerlike projection of small intestinal lining Type of cell that secretes mucus Absorption mechanism that requires energy Absorption mechanism that does not require energy Connects an artery to a vein Vessel that carries blood from liver to heart Vessel that carries blood from GI tract to liver Carries fat-soluble vitamins Hormone that signals release of pancreatic bicarbonate Hormone that triggers release of gastric acid Hormone that signals release of bile
1. ANS: K 2. ANS: I 3. ANS: D 4. ANS: P 5. ANS: M 6. ANS: E 7. ANS: S 8. ANS: L 9. ANS: A 10. ANS: B 11. ANS: C 12. ANS: R 13. ANS: J 14. ANS: H 15. ANS: O 16. ANS: N 17. ANS: T 18. ANS: G 19. ANS: F 20. ANS: Q
REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF:
p. 66 p. 66 p. 66 p. 68 p. 70 p. 70 p. 71 p. 72 p. 72 p. 74 p. 74 p. 74 p. 74 p. 76 p. 77 p. 77 p. 78 p. 80 p. 80 p. 81
ESSAY 1. What factors are involved in expressing taste sensations? ANS: Answers may vary. REF: p. 66 2. Name and describe the functions of the 4 major sphincter muscles that divide the GI tract into its principal regions.
ANS: Answers may vary. REF: p. 66-68 3. Describe the major events of digestion that occur in the mouth, stomach, and small intestine. ANS: Answers may vary. REF: p. 66-73 4. Explain the differences between peristalsis and segmentation. ANS: Answers may vary. REF: p. 68-70 5. What are the effects on colonic function from insufficient fluid intake, insufficient fibre intake, or intestinal infection? ANS: Answers may vary. REF: p. 70-72 6. What is the function of hydrochloric acid and why is it necessary in the process of digestion? ANS: Answers may vary. REF: p. 71 7. Discuss the defences of the GI tract against bacteria that cause infection. ANS: Answers may vary. REF: p. 71, 72 8. Describe anatomical features of the small intestine that facilitate absorption. ANS: Answers may vary. REF: p. 74-75 9. Discuss the validity of the art of “food combining.” ANS: Answers may vary. REF: p. 76
10. Describe the parts of the vascular system that are involved in digestion and absorption of water-soluble and fat-soluble nutrients. ANS: Answers may vary. REF: p. 76-79 11. Compare the properties of prebiotics and probiotics. Give examples of each type. ANS: Answers may vary. REF: p. 79 12. List several beneficial roles of the intestinal flora. ANS: Answers may vary. REF: p. 79 13. Discuss the role of bacteria in the GI tract and factors that help regulate their proliferation. ANS: Answers may vary. REF: p. 79 14. What factors govern the opening and closing of the GI tract sphincters? ANS: Answers may vary. REF: p. 80-81 15. Name and describe the functions of 3 major hormones involved in digestion/absorption. ANS: Answers may vary. REF: p. 80-81 16. Discuss the response of the pancreas to enzyme secretion upon exposure to diets differing in the amounts of protein, fat, and carbohydrate. ANS: Answers may vary. REF: p. 80-81 17. Provide 2 examples of a feedback mechanism in digestion/absorption.
ANS: Answers may vary. REF: p. 80-81 18. What is the most likely explanation for the observation that a person may experience “upset digestion” upon changing the diet? ANS: Answers may vary. REF: p. 80-82 19. Why does the pancreas not “digest itself”? ANS: Answers may vary. REF: p. 81 20. Describe physical and emotional factors that affect the health of the digestive system. ANS: Answers may vary. REF: p. 82 21. What are common factors that initiate choking? What are the preferred methods to assist a person who is choking? What foods are commonly associated with choking? ANS: Answers may vary. REF: p. 84-85 22. Describe 4 common digestive problems and their recommended treatments or therapies. ANS: Answers may vary. REF: p. 84-90 23. Describe the similarities and differences between vomiting and diarrhea. ANS: Answers may vary. REF: p. 85-86 24. What are the effects of chronic or severe vomiting? ANS: Answers may vary.
REF: p. 85-86 25. What are the characteristics and treatments of irritable bowel syndrome? ANS: Answers may vary. REF: p. 86 26. Discuss common treatments for constipation. Why do people react differently to the same treatment? ANS: Answers may vary. REF: p. 87 27. In the treatment of heartburn or “acid indigestion,” what therapies are recommended and which are not? ANS: Answers may vary. REF: p. 88-89 28. Describe the 3 major causes of peptic ulcers and the recommended therapies. ANS: Answers may vary. REF: p. 89-90
Chapter 4. The Carbohydrates: Sugars, Starches and Fibers. MULTIPLE CHOICE
1 : Which foods almost always provide ample amounts of carbohydrates? A : plant foods B : health foods C : animal products D : protein-rich foods Correct Answer : A 2 : What type of nutrient is starch? A : fiber B : gluten C : simple carbohydrate D : complex carbohydrate Correct Answer : D 3 : How many carbon atoms are found in most common dietary monosaccharides? A:5 B:6 C:8 D : 12 Correct Answer : B 4 : Which specific type of sugar is known as blood sugar or dextrose? A : glucose B : maltose C : sucrose D : fructose Correct Answer : A 5 : What is the sweetest-tasting simple carbohydrate in the diet? A : glucose B : lactose C : fructose D : sucrose Correct Answer : C 6 : What reaction links two monosaccharides together? A : hydrolysis B : absorption C : disaccharide D : condensation Correct Answer : D 7 : What chemical is a byproduct of the condensation of two molecules of glucose? A : water 1 / 14
B : oxygen C : hydrogen D : carbon dioxide Correct Answer : A 8 : What chemical reaction splits starch into individual monosaccharides? A : hydrolysis B : condensation C : gluconeogenesis D : homeostatic balancing Correct Answer : A 9 : What is the composition of sucrose? A : two fructose units B : one glucose and one fructose unit C : one glucose and one galactose unit D : one galactose and one fructose unit Correct Answer : B 10 : Which monosaccharide is a component of all three dietary disaccharides? A : sucrose B : glucose C : fructose D : galactose Correct Answer : B 11 : What is the primary storage form of carbohydrate in the body? A : fiber B : starch C : glucose D : glycogen Correct Answer : D 12 : What are cellulose, pectin, hemicellulose, and lignin? A : fibers B : starches C : sugar alcohols D : artificial sweeteners Correct Answer : A 13 : What is the difference between the chemical bonds in starch and those in cellulose? A : Starch bonds are single. B : Starch bonds are fatty acids. C : Cellulose bonds release energy. D : Cellulose bonds are not hydrolyzed by human enzymes. Correct Answer : D 2 / 14
14 : A functional fiber is one that . A : occurs naturally in the intact plant B : performs a specific function in the plant C : is extracted from plants and has a beneficial health effect D : is a polysaccharide that is stored primarily in muscle and liver of animals Correct Answer : C 15 : Which carbohydrate is the least likely to contribute to the energy for the body? A : sucrose B : glycogen C : maltose D : cellulose Correct Answer : D 16 : What change would you expect in milk that has been treated with a commercially available lactase? A : an increase in sweetness B : a decrease in sweetness C : an increase in carbohydrate content D : a decrease in carbohydrate content Correct Answer : A 17 : Enzymatic digestion of starches takes place both in the small intestine and the A : mouth B : colon C : stomach D : pancreas
.
Correct Answer : A 18 : The short chains of glucose units that result from starch breakdown are called A : sucrose B : lignins C : pectins D : dextrins
.
Correct Answer : D 19 : What is the primary absorption site for digestible carbohydrates? A : mouth B : stomach C : small intestine D : large intestine Correct Answer : C 20 : The enzymes that digest dietary sugars are produced by the A : gall bladder B : stomach
.
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C : pancreas D : small intestine Correct Answer : D 21 : What is the primary means for degradation of soluble fibers in the large intestines? A : bacterial enzymes B : pancreatic amylase C : peristaltic segmentation D : villus brush border hydrolases Correct Answer : A 22 : What is the first organ to receive carbohydrates absorbed from the intestine? A : heart B : liver C : pancreas D : skeletal muscle Correct Answer : B 23 : Why are hard cheeses lower in lactose than soft cheeses? A : The lactose molecules bond to casein. B : More lactose is removed during manufacturing. C : The bacterial culture is selected to degrade more of the lactose. D : The lactose molecules condense to form a poorly digested oligosaccharide. Correct Answer : B 24 : Which dairy product provides the least amount of lactose per serving? A : low-fat milk B : cottage cheese C : chocolate milk D : cheddar cheese Correct Answer : D 25 : Among the following population groups, which shows the highest prevalence of lactose intolerance? A : Hispanics B : Caucasians C : Scandinavians D : Native Americans Correct Answer : D 26 : Which ingredient listed on food labels would be acceptable to the person who is highly intolerant to lactose in the diet? A : whey B : casein C : dextrins D : milk solids 4 / 14
Correct Answer : C 27 : Which organ contains most of the bodys glycogen? A : liver B : muscle C : kidney D : intestine Correct Answer : B 28 : When a typical body is at rest, what is the maximum amount of time stores of glycogen can provide energy to sustain the body? A : 4 hours B : 1 day C : 3 days D : 1 week Correct Answer : B 29 : What is the primary function of insulin? A : to raise blood glucose levels B : to lower blood glucose levels C : to stimulate glycogen breakdown D : to stimulate intestinal carbohydrate absorption Correct Answer : B 30 : Ketosis leads to a change in A : carbohydrate metabolism B : blood acid-base balance C : fat synthesis D : insulin homeostasis
.
Correct Answer : B 31 : What is the best food source to prevent ketosis? A : protein rich foods, such as steak B : foods with high fat content, such as cheeses C : carbohydrates, such as vegetables D : foods containing lactase, such as yogurt Correct Answer : C 32 : Ketone bodies are formed from A : amino acids B : fat fragments C : nucleic acids D : monosaccharides
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Correct Answer : B 33 : What is the most common cause of hypoglycemia? A : overeating 5 / 14
B : brain tumors C : uncontrolled diabetes D : fasting Correct Answer : C 34 : What is the process by which an amino acid is used to make glucose? A : glycation B : ketogenesis C : protein sparing D : gluconeogenesis Correct Answer : D 35 : What is the first organ to respond to an increase in blood glucose concentration? A : brain B : liver C : muscle D : pancreas Correct Answer : D 36 : What is a normal range (in mg/dL) for blood glucose? A : 6080 B : 70100 C : 120140 D : 140180 Correct Answer : B 37 : What is the typical response of the body to changes in blood glucose? A : Blood glucose levels that fall too low signal the release of insulin. B : Blood glucose levels that fall too low signal the release of glucagon. C : Blood glucose levels that rise too high signal the release of glycogen. D : Blood glucose levels that rise too high signal the release of epinephrine. Correct Answer : B 38 : When you are under physical stress, what hormone is released quickly to stimulate an increase in blood glucose concentration? A : insulin B : secretin C : glycogen D : epinephrine Correct Answer : D 39 : A person eating lots of white bread, white rice, and ready-to-eat cereals would have a diet with a glycemic index that is . A : very low B : low C : moderate D : high 6 / 14
Correct Answer : D 40 : Your nephew Jimmy, who is 10 years old, has told you that his body doesnt make insulin. He confides in you that he craves candy but was told by his parents that he can only eat sugarfree snacks. Jimmy has most likely been diagnosed with . A : hyperactivity B : type 1 diabetes C : type 2 diabetes D : non-insulin dependent diabetes mellitus Correct Answer : B 41 : What is one feature of people diagnosed with diabetes? A : Many people with type 2 diabetes are obese. B : Most people who have diabetes require insulin therapy. C : Diabetes results chiefly from excess dietary intake of simple carbohydrates. D : People with type 1 diabetes fail to respond to the insulin made by the pancreas. Correct Answer : A 42 : The glycemic index of foods is . A : a method of ranking foods according to their potential to increase blood glucose B : the newest, most practical means for planning diets for people with diabetes C : a well-utilized, highly valued mechanism to control the intake of simple sugars D : a measure of the percentage of digestible carbohydrates in relation to total energy content of the food Correct Answer : A 43 : High-fructose corn syrup contains significant amounts of A : glucose B : maltose C : sucrose D : galactose
.
Correct Answer : A 44 : What is the predominant sweetener used in formulating beverages? A : glucose B : sucrose C : invert sugar D : high-fructose corn syrup Correct Answer : D 45 : Food manufacturers prefer to use high-fructose corn syrup instead of sugar because sugar . A : is more soluble B : is more expensive C : retains more moisture D : contains less soluble fiber 7 / 14
Correct Answer : B 46 : Which condition is a known indicator of prediabetes? A : insulin resistance B : severe hunger 45 hours after a meal C : carbohydrate intake as a percentage of total kcalories D : more than two episodes per week of hypoglycemia Correct Answer : A 47 : Honey contains . A : both fructose and lactose B : both glucose and galactose C : more kcalories per teaspoon than sucrose D : abundant amounts of calcium and iron Correct Answer : C 48 : Which sweetener contains a significant amount of calcium? A : molasses B : brown sugar C : maple sugar D : invert sugar Correct Answer : A 49 : Which dietary strategy will have the most effect in reducing the incidence of dental caries? A : Eat sugary foods separate from meals. B : Eat dried fruits in place of whole fruits. C : Sip a sugary soft drink slowly rather than quickly. D : Eat a sugary snack all at one time rather than in parts throughout the day. Correct Answer : D 50 : Which statement accurately describes the relationship between carbohydrate intake and dental health? A : Starches cannot promote the formation of dental caries. B : After exposure to a single snack, mouth bacteria produce acid for 6090 minutes. C : Eating a sugary dessert at the beginning of a meal, rather than the end, is less likely to promote dental caries. D : Sugar consumed in a soft drink promotes more bacterial fermentation than the same amount of sugar in a doughnut. Correct Answer : C 51 : What is stevia? A : an herb-derived sweetener B : an FDA-approved sugar alcohol C : a poorly digested polysaccharide D : an inhibitor of lactase enzyme activity Correct Answer : A 8 / 14
52 : Among the following approved sweeteners, which has the highest relative sweetness? A : tagatose B : neotame C : aspartame D : acesulfame-K Correct Answer : B 53 : What is a characteristic of the sugar replacers (sugar alcohols)? A : They have a low glycemic index. B : They promote constipation in children. C : They demonstrate fewer GI side effects than the artificial sweeteners. D : They are less effective than artificial sweeteners in inhibiting dental caries. Correct Answer : A 54 : When consumed in excess, which food component is most likely to lead to diarrhea? A : fiber B : sucrose C : wheat starch D : sugar alcohols Correct Answer : D 55 : Which food component is known to correlate most strongly with reduced risk of deaths from heart disease when consumed in high amounts? A : fiber B : sugar C : levulose D : corn syrup Correct Answer : A 56 : What are the two main mechanisms by which starch decreases the risk of colon cancer? A : binding and removing potential carcinogens and the activation of cancer-killing enzymes B : decreasing the rate at which carcinogens pass through large intestines and the activation of cancer-killing enzymes C : binding and removing potential carcinogens and increasing inflammation in the colon in response to carcinogens D : activation of cancer-killing enzymes and increasing inflammation in the colon in response to carcinogens Correct Answer : A 57 : According to most dietary guidelines, what percentage of the days total energy intake should be furnished by carbohydrates? A : 1015 B : 3035 C : 4565 D : 9095 Correct Answer : C 9 / 14
58 : What is a characteristic of carbohydrate information on food labels? A : The Sugars amount includes only added sugars. B : The amount of starch is listed as a separate category. C : The Total Carbohydrate amount includes starch, sugars, and fiber. D : The Total Carbohydrate amount includes starch and sugars but not fiber. Correct Answer : C 59 : What is a typical response in people following a low-carbohydrate diet? A : They often complain of diet-induced diarrhea. B : They experience frequent bouts of hyperglycemia. C : Their total weight loss is about the same as in people on a low-fat diet. D : They lose about the same amount of weight as people on conventional diets for the first 6 months. Correct Answer : C 60 : People who are insulin resistant are more likely to increase A : glycogen stores in the muscles B : glycogen stores in the liver C : fat production in the muscles D : fat production in the liver
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Correct Answer : D 61 : Eating foods with a low glycemic index most likely leads to weight loss by A : curbing appetite to prevent overeating B : increasing insulin production to stimulate digestion C : decreasing insulin production to stimulate fat production D : stimulating glucagon production to break down fats in storage
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Correct Answer : A 62 : What nutrient has accounted for virtually all of the increase in kcalorie intake of people in the United States since the 1970s? A : fat B : protein C : alcohol D : carbohydrate Correct Answer : D 63 : What is a common result when a person with type 2 diabetes loses weight? A : a decrease in glucagon sensitivity B : a decrease in carbohydrate cravings C : an increase in insulin sensitivity D : an increase in epinephrine secretion Correct Answer : C
MATCHING 10 / 14
64 : Match each word or phrase with the most appropriate definition or explanation. A : disaccharide containing fructose A : pectin B : chemical reaction that links two molecules B : insulin together C : mouth C : chemical reaction that splits a larger molecule into smaller molecules D : a complex carbohydrate in muscle D : starch E : a complex carbohydrate in legumes E : sucrose F : structurally similar to starch but resistant to F : lactose digestion G : a water-soluble fiber G : lignin H : a water-insoluble fiber H : sucralose I : site where digestion of disaccharides takes I : glycogen place J : site where digestion of starch begins J : glucagon K : site where fibers may be metabolized to K : cellulose short-chain fatty acids L : when digested, yields galactose L : hydrolysis M : substance that signals the release of M : high fructose corn syrup glucose into blood N : substance that signals removal of glucose N : epinephrine from the blood O : condensation O : stress hormone that modulates blood glucose P : processed syrup made from cornstarch P : small intestine Q : an alternative sweetener Q : large intestine Correct Answer : A:E B : A14 C : A11 D:I E:D F:K G:A H:G I : A15 J:C K : A16 L:F M:J 11 / 14
N:B O : A13 P : A12 Q:H
ESSAY 65 : List the three most common types of polysaccharides in nutrition, and describe each one in terms of its function and monosaccharide composition. Correct Answer : The three major polysaccharides are glycogen, starches, and dietary fibers. Glycogen is found in the muscle and liver of animals, while starch and fibers are both plantbased polysaccharides. Glycogen, which serves as the glucose storage for animals, is comprised entirely of glucose molecules attached together in a highly branched structure. Starches are how plants store their excess glucose, and therefore are also comprised entirely of glucose molecules; however, the glucose molecules are linked together in long branched and unbranched chains. Fibers, which comprise the structural parts of plants, are mostly polysaccharides, though it can be comprised of other chemicals and different monosaccharides. However, these fibers cannot be broken down into monosaccharides by enzymes in the digestive tract due to differences in the type of bonds that hold the monosaccharides together. These types of polysaccharides cannot contribute energy to the body, as they pass through undigested.? 66 : Describe carbohydrate digestion, including the processes occurring in the mouth, stomach, small intestines, and large intestines to break down polysaccharides, disaccharides, monosaccharides, and the fate of fiber. Correct Answer : ?Carbohydrate digestion begins in the mouth with salivary enzymes (salivary amylase) that can break down starches into smaller polysaccharides and disaccharides. Digestion of carbohydrates ceases in the stomach, as acids in the stomach create a pH environment that is unfriendly to the enzymes that break down the carbohydrates. Fiber in the stomach also remains intact, which helps with a feeling of fullness. In the small intestines, enzymes are secreted that completely break all of the polysaccharides (pancreatic amylase) and disaccharides (maltase, sucrase, and lactase) into monosaccharides, which are then absorbed into the body. The cellulose passes through the small intestines untouched and into the large intestines. Some of fiber is digested by bacteria living in the large intestine, while most remains intact, aiding with defecation by retaining water and increasing heart health by binding cholesterol for elimination. 67 : Explain how high levels of glucose in the blood after you eat affect insulin levels, glucagon levels, and the fate of glucose in the blood stream. Correct Answer : ?After you eat, increased blood glucose levels will stimulate the beta cells in the pancreas to increase insulin levels, while simultaneously inhibiting the release of glucagon from the alpha cells of the pancreas, decreasing these levels. The increase in insulin levels will trigger the removal of glucose from the blood stream into liver and muscle cells for storage as 12 / 14
glycogen. 68 : Explain how the glycemic response is dependent on the source of carbohydrates that you consume. Is it better to have a high or low glycemic response? Explain. Correct Answer : ?The glycemic response, or the speed at which glucose is absorbed into the blood stream, increases when glucose is easily digested, such as when you consume large amounts of foods containing added sugars, like honey or corn syrup, particularly in the absence of any other foods. The glycemic response would decrease when the carbohydrates are less easily digested, such as when you consume foods that are high in polysaccharides, like fruits and vegetables, or when you eat the sugars with other foods that may alter sugar absorption. It is better to have a low glycemic index, as this maintains more steady-state levels of glucose and allow for lower levels of insulin to be released, rather than a large spike of glucose triggering a larger bolus of insulin, which would then lead to a sharp decline in glucose levels. 69 : Explain how carbohydrate consumption leads to dental carries. Correct Answer : ?Bacteria that live in the mouth ferment the sugars, which produce acid that erodes tooth enamel. 70 : Explain the difference between artificial sweeteners and sugar alcohols, including the benefits and drawbacks of each type. Correct Answer : ?Artificial sweeteners and sugar alcohols are both used to add sweetness to foods without the caloric value. Artificial sweeteners do not contain any appreciable amount of energy for a body, which is good for weight gain. The biggest drawback to these sweeteners is that in high doses, these chemicals can cause adverse effects, though the exact degree to which they do this and the exact relationship between quantity and the development of these effects is still being studied. Sugar alcohols, however, do contribute calories to the diet but fewer than regular sugars. Sugar alcohols may cause abdominal discomfort and diarrhea. However, they do not contribute to dental carries. 71 : How does a diet that is high in fiber benefit patients with diabetes? Correct Answer : ?Soluble fibers can trap nutrients as they pass through the digestive tract, which slows glucose absorption. The decrease in absorption prevents a high surge of glucose, and the rebound that comes after the insulin levels spike. 72 : An adolescent male comes to you for advice as to how best manage his diet. In the initial evaluation, you decide that he should be consuming approximately 2500 kcalories. How many of these kcalories should be contributed by carbohydrates, and what is the approximate amount of fiber you would recommend for this young man. Correct Answer : ?Carbohydrates should contribute between 45 to 65 percent of the kcalories, so between 1125 and 1625 kcalories should come from carbohydrates. Fiber should be about 14 grams per 1000 kcalories, so he should be consuming about 35 grams of fiber. (14g fiber/1000 kCalories ´ 2500 kCalories = 35 grams of fiber). 73 : Describe the mechanism by which a high-fiber diet decreases the risk of heart disease independent of decreasing fat intake. Correct Answer : ?Soluble fibers can bind to bile acids in the GI tract, leading to their excretion from the body rather than being recycled for reuse. When this happens, the liver is forced to 13 / 14
make new bile acids by breaking down cholesterol that is stored in the liver. This, in turn, will decrease blood cholesterol. 74 : Explain why the consumption of high fructose corn syrup is particularly problematic for people trying to lose weight. Correct Answer : ?Fructose can only be metabolized in the liver, which will convert most of the fructose into fat. Additionally, fructose does not stimulate an insulin response, which would normally suppress the appetite. In the absence of this cue, one would not feel that they had been satiated after eating foods that contain high amounts of fructose.
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Chapter 5. The Lipids: Triglycerides, Phospholipids and Sterols. MULTIPLE CHOICE
1 : Most dietary lipids are A : sterols B : glycerols C : triglycerides D : monoglycerides
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Correct Answer : C 2 : Lipids that are solid at room temperature are known as A : oils B : fats C : omegas D : glycerols Correct Answer : B
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3 : What is the simplest 18-carbon fatty acid? A : stearic acid B : linoleic acid C : palmitic acid D : linolenic acid Correct Answer : A 4 : Like , lipids are made of A : vitamins; C, N, and O B : carbohydrates; C, H, and O C : protein; C, H, O, and N D : water; C, H, and O
atoms.
Correct Answer : B 5 : Which type of fatty acid is missing four or more hydrogen atoms? A : monounsaturated fatty acid B : polyunsaturated fatty acid C : long-chain saturated fatty acid D : short-chain saturated fatty acid Correct Answer : B 6 : An omega-3 fatty acid has its first double bond on the A : third carbon from the acid end B : first three carbons from the acid end C : third carbon from the methyl end D : first three carbons from the methyl end
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Correct Answer : C 7 : A triglyceride always contains three A : carbons
. 1 / 13
B : glycerols C : fatty acids D : double bonds Correct Answer : C 8 : Which factor determines the hardness of a fat at a given temperature? A : origin of the fat B : degree of saturation C : number of acid groups D : number of oxygen atoms Correct Answer : B 9 : Which food source would yield the softest lipids at room temperature? A : lard B : beef C : pork D : safflower Correct Answer : D 10 : Which structural feature of fatty acids determines their susceptibility to spoilage by oxygen? A : chain length B : number of double bonds C : position of first saturated bond D : size of adjacent fatty acids on the triglyceride molecule Correct Answer : B 11 : What is the target of hydrogenation? A : bond between the fatty acid chain and the glycerol backbone B : bond between the phosphate group and the choline C : carbon-carbon double bond D : carbon-hydrogen bond Correct Answer : C 12 : What is a negative consequence of hydrogenation? A : addition of trans double bonds in fatty acids B : addition of cis double bonds in fatty acids C : loss of trans double bonds in fatty acids D : loss of cis double bonds in fatty acids Correct Answer : A 13 : How does the presence of a double bond alter the firmness of fatty acid molecules? A : Double bonds bend the molecule, which leads to an increase in the stacking of molecules. B : Double bonds straighten the molecule, which leads to an increase in the stacking of molecules. C : Double bonds bend the molecule, which leads to a decrease in the stacking of molecules. D : Double bonds straighten the molecule, which leads to a decrease in the stacking of molecules. 2 / 13
Correct Answer : C 14 : What is a feature of phospholipids? A : resistant to digestion B : soluble in both water and fat C : highly susceptible to oxidation D : found naturally only in animal foods Correct Answer : B 15 : What characteristic is shared by cholesterol and lecithin? A : Both are sterols. B : Both are phospholipids. C : Both are synthesized in the body. D : Both are essential dietary nutrients. Correct Answer : C 16 : What is the major sterol in an omnivorous diet? A : palm oil B : lecithin C : cholesterol D : arachidonic acid Correct Answer : C 17 : What is the main composition of the cell membrane? A : phospholipids with the fatty acid tails facing the outside and the phosphates on the inside B : phospholipids with the phosphates facing the outside and the fatty acids on the inside C : sterols with the fatty acid tails facing the outside and the phosphates on the inside D : sterols with the phosphates facing the outside and the fatty acids on the inside Correct Answer : B 18 : A common feature of the plant sterols is they A : raise LDL and lower HDL B : inhibit absorption of dietary cholesterol C : inhibit absorption of bad cholesterol D : enhance absorption of omega-3 fatty acids
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Correct Answer : B 19 : Which compound is a sterol? A : vitamin D B : phospholipid C : triglyceride D : oleic acid Correct Answer : A 20 : What is a characteristic of the lipase enzymes? A : Gastric lipase plays a significant role in fat digestion in adults. 3 / 13
B : Intestinal mucosal lipase is responsible for fat storage in adipocytes. C : Salivary gland lipase (lingual lipase) plays an active role in fat digestion in infants. D : Pancreatic lipase hydrolyzes most dietary triglycerides completely to glycerol and free fatty acids. Correct Answer : C 21 : In the digestion of fats, emulsifiers function as A : enzymes B : hormones C : detergents D : chylomicrons
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Correct Answer : C 22 : What part of the gastrointestinal tract is the predominant site of dietary fat hydrolysis? A : mouth B : stomach C : small intestine D : large intestine Correct Answer : C 23 : Chylomicrons are synthesized within the A : liver B : intestinal cells C : lymphatic system D : storage compartment of plant seeds
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Correct Answer : B 24 : Bile assists in the absorption of A : fat only B : all nutrients C : carbohydrate and fat only D : carbohydrate, fat, and protein
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Correct Answer : A 25 : Where is bile stored in the body? A : liver B : pancreas C : gallbladder D : intestinal epithelial cells Correct Answer : C 26 : After a meal, most of the fat that eventually empties into the blood is in the form of particles known as . A : micelles B : chylomicrons C : low-density lipoproteins D : very-low-density lipoproteins 4 / 13
Correct Answer : B 27 : Your Aunt Gladys has a family history of heart disease. She decides to begin eating a bowl of oatmeal every morning to help lower her blood cholesterol. After about a month of following this routine, her cholesterol declined about five points. What is the most likely explanation for this effect? A : Oatmeal is a low-fat food and inhibits the bodys synthesis of cholesterol. B : Oatmeal is high in complex fibers that inhibit cholesterol-synthesizing enzymes. C : Oatmeal consumed on a regular basis suppresses the craving for high-cholesterol foods. D : Oatmeal is high in soluble fibers that trap bile, causing the body to use more cholesterol for bile replacement. Correct Answer : D 28 : Which lipoprotein is largest in size? A : chylomicron B : high-density lipoprotein C : low-density lipoprotein D : very-low-density lipoprotein Correct Answer : A 29 : In comparison to a low-density lipoprotein, a high-density lipoprotein contains A : less lipid B : less protein C : more cholesterol D : more carbohydrate
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Correct Answer : A 30 : A high risk of heart attack correlates with high blood levels of A : free fatty acids B : high-density lipoproteins C : low-density lipoproteins D : very low-density lipoproteins
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Correct Answer : C 31 : What lipoprotein is responsible for transporting cholesterol back to the liver from the periphery? A : chylomicron B : low-density lipoprotein C : high-density lipoprotein D : very-low density lipoprotein Correct Answer : C 32 : Resistin and adiponectin are . A : glycolipids that regulate synthesis of lipoproteins B : intestinal cell hormones that regulate secretion of bile C : intestinal cell hormones that trigger secretion of pancreatic juice D : protein hormones secreted from fat cells that help regulate energy balance 5 / 13
Correct Answer : D 33 : What fatty acid is used by the body to synthesize arachidonic acid? A : oleic acid B : linoleic acid C : palmitic acid D : linolenic acid Correct Answer : B 34 : Aspirin works to reduce the symptoms of infection or pain by retarding the synthesis of . A : arachidonic acid B : certain eicosanoids C : certain saturated fatty acids D : certain unsaturated fatty acids Correct Answer : B 35 : Which food or foods provide(s) essential fatty acids? A : fish only B : beef only C : plants only D : fish, beef, and plants Correct Answer : D 36 : What is the function of lipoprotein lipase? A : to synthesize lipoproteins in liver cells B : to synthesize triglycerides in adipose cells C : to assemble lipid particles into chylomicrons D : to hydrolyze blood triglycerides for uptake into cells Correct Answer : D 37 : Which two fatty acids are absolutely essential and cannot be produced by the body? A : arachidonic acid and linoleic acid B : DHA and EPA C : oleic acid and linolenic acid D : linoleic acid and linolenic acid Correct Answer : D 38 : What is the highest total blood cholesterol concentration (mg/dL) that falls within the desirable range? A : 50 B : 101 C : 199 D : 299 Correct Answer : C 6 / 13
39 : Which lipids are measured in a lipid profile? A : cholesterol and phospholipids B : cholesterol and eicosanoids C : phospholipids and eicosanoids D : triglycerides and cholesterol Correct Answer : D 40 : Your roommate Bob has just come back from the doctor, where he was subjected to a blood lipid profile analysis. The doctor recommended he make dietary changes because his blood cholesterol levels put him at increased risk for cardiovascular disease. Bob most likely has . A : low LDL and high HDL B : low HDL and high LDL C : high LDL and HDL D : low LDL and HDL Correct Answer : B 41 : What is a feature of fat intake and health? A : Intake of saturated fat raises blood cholesterol more than intake of cholesterol. B : High intakes of fish oil decrease bleeding time and improve diabetes and wound healing. C : High intakes of short- and medium-chain fatty acids raise high-density lipoprotein levels. D : Trans-fatty acids contained in polyunsaturated fats but not in monounsaturated fats alter blood cholesterol levels. Correct Answer : A 42 : What describes a recognized relationship between dietary fat and cancer? A : Fat from milk does not increase risk for cancer. B : Dietary fat initiates rather than promotes cancer formation. C : High intakes of omega-3 fatty acids promote cancer development in animals. D : The evidence linking fat intake with cancer is stronger than that linking it with heart disease. Correct Answer : A 43 : Jenny is trying to lose weight by decreasing the fat in her diet. At the grocery store, she is overwhelmed by all the claims on the food product labels and finally chooses an expensive fatfree frozen dessert. What would be an appropriate analysis of Jennys decision? A : Most frozen desserts are fat-free and she should not pay extra for one with a fat-free claim. B : Since fats contribute 9 kcalories per gram, she can eat twice as many kcalories from this dessert and still lose weight. C : As long as she makes sure to eat the dessert before 9 p.m., it should not contribute much to her daily kcaloric intake. D : Fat-free products typically have so much added sugar that the kcalorie count can be as high as in the regular-fat product. Correct Answer : D 44 : What is a feature of fat in the diet of athletes? A : A minimum of 20 percent fat energy in the diet is needed. B : Energy derived from fat has very little bearing on performance. C : Optimal performance is found with a high-carbohydrate, 15 percent total fat kcalories diet. 7 / 13
D : Diets with at least 10 percent total kcalories from fat are still able to provide the recommended amounts of micronutrients. Correct Answer : A 45 : Although eating fish supports heart health and fish provides many vitamins and minerals, it is notably poor in . A : iron B : protein C : unsaturated fats D : omega-3 fatty acids Correct Answer : A 46 : What is a potential consequence of high intakes of fish oil supplements? A : increased clotting B : excessive bleeding C : hypertension D : diabetes Correct Answer : B 47 : Ronnie eats a fairly balanced diet but wants to include a good source of omega-3 fats. Which food should you recommend? A : eggs B : salmon C : low-fat cheese D : lean chicken breast Correct Answer : B 48 : Which sources of lipids should be substituted for saturated fats to help lower blood cholesterol levels? A : butter B : canola oil C : coconut oil D : stick margarine Correct Answer : B 49 : What is a characteristic of eggs in our diets today? A : Eggs are high in both cholesterol and saturated fat. B : High omega-3 fat eggs are now available by prescription only. C : Although it is high in cholesterol, eggs are low in saturated fat. D : Even in people with a healthy lipid profile, consumption of one egg per day is detrimental. Correct Answer : C 50 : Which type of fish has the highest amount of omega-3 fatty acids? A : catfish B : European sea bass C : cod D : grouper 8 / 13
Correct Answer : B 51 : What is a characteristic of the lipid content of meat? A : The meat from grass-fed animals is similar in composition to soy protein. B : Grass-fed animals contain more omega-3 fats in the meat than grain-fed animals. C : Grain-fed animals contain more polyunsaturated fatty acids in the meat compared with grassfed animals. D : Grain-fed animals contain lower concentrations of fat in the meat compared with grass-fed animals. Correct Answer : B 52 : You and your friend John are planning a college graduation party and you want to include healthy snack alternatives. You select fruit, veggies, low-fat dips, low-fat cheeses, whole-wheat crackers, and low-fat potato chips. John says he has heard about the fat replacer olestra in the potato chips and asks you how it works. You reply that olestra . A : slows the pancreass release of lipase enzyme B : consists of tight protein-binding molecules that replace the fat molecules usually present in potato chips C : contains a fat-like substance that the bodys enzymes cant break down and, therefore, cannot be absorbed D : is first subjected to radiation exposure to desaturate the bonds within the fat molecules, which reduces the kcalorie content Correct Answer : C 53 : What is the percent of kcalories from fat for a cookie that contains 10 grams of fat and 150 kcalories? A : 90 percent B : 72.3 percent C : 60 percent D : 52.8 percent Correct Answer : C 54 : What is a feature of nut consumption and improved cardiovascular health? A : The benefit is unrelated to the phytochemical content. B : The benefit is unrelated to changes in LDL concentration. C : The benefit is found only from ingestion of a few types of nuts. D : The benefit may be related, in part, to the high content of monounsaturated fats and low content of saturated fats. Correct Answer : D 55 : Studies show that regular consumption of fatty fish leads to A : lower blood pressure B : higher blood cholesterol C : greater tendency of the blood to clot D : decreased storage of omega-3 fatty acids
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Correct Answer : A 9 / 13
56 : Which fish is generally highest in mercury? A : shark B : catfish C : salmon D : canned light tuna Correct Answer : A 57 : A characteristic of farm-raised fish is that they contain A : lower levels of omega-3 fats B : higher levels of soluble fiber C : higher levels of trace elements D : higher levels of mercury
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Correct Answer : A 58 : Studies show that a 1 percent increase in dietary saturated fatty acids will raise the risk of heart disease by what percentage? A : 0.5 B : 1.0 C : 2.0 D : 5.0 Correct Answer : C 59 : What is a good plant source of omega-3 lipids? A : flax seeds B : safflower oil C : sunflower seeds D : corn oil margarine Correct Answer : A 60 : A major feature of the Mediterranean diet is the liberal intake of A : eggs B : olive oil C : lean meat D : fortified butter
.
Correct Answer : B
MATCHING 61 : Match each word or phrase with the most appropriate definition or explanation. A : an 18-carbon monounsaturated fatty acid A : liver B : olestra B : a plant-derived source of abundant saturated fatty acids C : a long-chain saturated fatty acid C : micelle D : a good source of monounsaturated fats D : aspirin E : a phospholipid E : lecithin F : major dietary precursor for vitamin D F : corn oil 10 / 13
synthesis G : source of bile G : olive oil H : signals the release of bile H : sardines I : major source of lipase I : pancreas J : structure assisting absorption of long-chain J : canola oil fats K : oleic acid K : a lipoprotein synthesized within intestinal absorptive cells L : a lipoprotein made primarily by the liver L : stearic acid M : cholesterol M : the lipoprotein type with the highest percentage of protein N : slows the synthesis of eicosanoids N : potato chips O : an essential fatty acid O : tropical oils P : common source of trans-fatty acids P : chylomicron Q : good food source of omega-3 fatty acids Q : linolenic acid R : good food source of omega-6 fatty acids R : cholecystokinin S : fat replacement product made from fatty S : high-density lipoprotein acids and sucrose T : oil that is characteristic of the Mediterranean T : very-low density lipoprotein diet Correct Answer : A:K B : A14 C : A11 D:J E:E F : A12 G:A H : A17 I:I J:C K : A15 L : A19 M : A18 N:D O : A16 P : A13 11 / 13
Q:H R:F S:B T:G
ESSAY 62 : What are the pros and cons of using hydrogenation in food preparation? Correct Answer : ?Hydrogenation protects foods from spoiling too fast, increasing the shelf life of a product. It also increases the versatility of a fat by altering its texture (such as using vegetable oils to make margarine). The biggest drawback of the process of hydrogenation is that it introduces trans bonds into the fats. Essentially, this takes a healthier unsaturated fat and turns it into a fat that acts more like a saturated fat in the body, increasing cholesterol and risk of heart disease. 63 : Compare and contrast the firmness and stability of saturated, monounsaturated, and polyunsaturated fats. Correct Answer : Firmness increases as you increase saturation, so the fewer the number of double bonds, the firmer the fat is at room temperature. Therefore, saturated fatty acids, which do not have any double bonds, are most firm at room temperature, followed by monounsaturated fats with a single double bond, and then polyunsaturated fats with multiple double bonds, which are usually oils at room temperature. Double bonds, however, are not as stable, and as such, polyunsaturated fats, with multiple double bonds, are the most likely to spoil, and saturated fats are the least likely to spoil.? 64 : What is an emulsifier? What would be the difference between normal mayonnaise and mayonnaise that was not treated with an emulsifier? Correct Answer : ?An emulsifier is a substance that has both hydrophilic and hydrophobic regions, allowing it to interact with both water-soluble and fat soluble substances. This is important in the preparation of foods, such as mayonnaise, as it allows the water-soluble components of mayonnaise to mix well with the lipids in the condiment. In the absence of emulsifiers, the mayonnaise would separate into two separate layers. 65 : What is atherosclerosis, and what role does cholesterol play in its development? Correct Answer : ?Atherosclerosis is a disease in the arteries caused by the accumulation of plaques on the inner wall that impede the flow of blood through the vessels. Cholesterol is a major contributor to the formation of these plaques. 66 : Describe fat digestion, beginning in the mouth and continuing through the large intestines. Correct Answer : ?Fat digestion begins in the mouth, with some of the fats melting at body temperature. Additionally, lingual lipase released in saliva begins to hydrolyze the fats to some 12 / 13
extent, largely affecting short- and medium-chain fatty acids, such as those in dairy products. Digestion continues in the stomach with gastric lipases, which also only hydrolyze a small amount of the fat. Most of the digestion of fats occurs in the small intestine, with the addition of bile, which emulsifies the fats, and pancreatic and intestinal lipases, which fully breaks down the emulsified triglycerides into monoglycerides, glycerol, and fatty acids, which can then be absorbed. Some fats may avoid absorption if they become trapped in fiber, which is then excreted from the body in feces. 67 : Describe the enterohepatic circulation of bile. Correct Answer : ?Bile is made in the liver from cholesterol, which is then sent to the gallbladder for storage. After eating, bile is released into the small intestines to emulsify fats in this organ. As it progresses through the small intestine, the bile can either be reabsorbed for reuse or is trapped by soluble fiber and removed in the feces. 68 : Describe the route of large lipid transport throughout the body in lipoproteins, beginning with absorption in the small intestine, and the roles of VLDL, LDL, and HDL. Correct Answer : ?Large lipids are absorbed into the intestine and form chylomicrons, which travel in the lymph to the thoracic valve, where they enter the blood. The chylomicrons then travel to fat and muscle cells for storage. The liver then removes any remnants of the chylomicrons from the blood. When fats are needed, the liver forms VLDL, which can then deliver the lipids throughout the body to where they are needed. As the lipids are removed from the VLDL, the VLDL transitions to LDL, which then travels back to the liver. The liver also makes HDL, which can pick up cholesterol from the body and return it to the liver for use or excretion. 69 : Aside from their role in energy production for the body, list three other important roles of fat in the body. Correct Answer : ?Fat insulates the body from changes in temperature, provide protection for the major organs from shock, and provide structural and signaling support for cells. 70 : What is olestra? What are the benefits and safety issues with the use of olestra? Correct Answer : ?Olestra is an artificial fat. Artificial fats contain fewer kcalories than normal fats. Olestra cannot be digested in the gastrointestinal track, which means that it will not be absorbed by the body. However, as it passes through the GI tract, it binds to fat soluble vitamins, preventing them from being absorbed. To compensate, foods with olestra are fortified with vitamins, however, it is still less ideal than simply choosing better foods to begin with. 71 : Describe the study that determined that the type of fat had more impact on health than the amount of fat. Correct Answer : ?A study that compared diets around the world, (The Seven Countries Study), determined that in two countries with a similar high-fat intake had very different risk of heart disease. Upon examination, people from Finland, which had a high-fat intake and a high risk of heart disease, ate a diet that was high in saturated fats. People from Crete, however, had a diet that was high in monounsaturated and polyunsaturated fats, and a very low risk for heart disease. This led to the idea that it was the type of fat, rather than simply the amount of fat, that was important in determining this risk.
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Chapter 6. Protein: Amino Acids. MULTIPLE CHOICE
1 : In comparison to the composition of carbohydrates and fats, which element found in proteins makes them unique? A : carbon B : oxygen C : nitrogen D : hydrogen Correct Answer : C 2 : What is the primary factor that differentiates one amino acid from another? A : the side group B : the central carbon atom C : the number of oxygen atoms D : the number of nitrogen atoms Correct Answer : A 3 : What type of reaction is required to bind two molecules of glycine together and release a molecule of water? A : hydrolysis B : deamination C : denaturation D : condensation Correct Answer : D 4 : What is the composition of a tripeptide? A : one amino acid with three carbons B : three amino acids bonded together C : one amino acid with three acid groups D : three small protein chains bonded together Correct Answer : B 5 : What is the tertiary structure of a protein? A : the structure of the protein after post-translational modifications have occurred B : the structure of the protein determined by electrostatic interactions C : the structure of the protein determined by hydrophobic and hydrophilic interactions D : the structure of the protein including multiple protein subunits Correct Answer : C 6 : A dispensable amino acid is one that . A : is not needed by the body B : can be synthesized by the body C : can be used to synthesize an indispensable amino acid D : cannot be synthesized by the body because of a genetic defect Correct Answer : B 1 / 13
7 : Cells are able to synthesize thousands of different proteins due to the A : unlimited availability of essential amino acids B : number of different amino acids C : availability of amino acids containing sulfur D : availability of amino acids containing hydroxyl groups
.
Correct Answer : B 8 : The weak electrical attractions within polypeptide chains account for the proteins structure. A : primary B : secondary C : tertiary D : quaternary Correct Answer : B 9 : What is an example of protein denaturation? A : the formation of a scab over a wound B : the change occurring in an enzyme to promote catalysis of a chemical reaction C : the alteration of the protein structure in hydrochloric acid D : the activation of protein synthesis after changes in gene expression Correct Answer : C 10 : Where does protein digestion begin in the human body? A : mouth B : stomach C : small intestine D : large intestine Correct Answer : B 11 : What digestive enzyme would be most affected in people who are unable to produce hydrochloric acid? A : pepsin B : transaminase C : pancreatic protease D : intestinal peptidase Correct Answer : A 12 : Protein-hydrolyzing enzymes are commonly known as A : proteases B : hydrolyzers C : prodigestins D : denaturases
.
Correct Answer : A 13 : What is the chief function of pepsin? A : It emulsifies dietary proteins. B : It activates hydrochloric acid. 2 / 13
C : It activates pancreatic proteases. D : It cleaves proteins into smaller polypeptides. Correct Answer : D 14 : What percentage of dietary protein is hydrolyzed in the mouth? A:0 B : 510 C : 1520 D : 2530 Correct Answer : A 15 : After digestion of proteins, what products are absorbed into the circulation? A : free amino acids only B : free amino acids and oligopeptides C : free amino acids and dipeptides only D : free amino acids and a few dipeptides and tripeptides Correct Answer : D 16 : What is the usual fate of orally ingested enzyme supplements? A : digested by gastrointestinal proteases B : rapidly degraded by salivary secretions C : mostly absorbed in original form from the stomach D : completely absorbed in original form from the jejunum Correct Answer : A 17 : The process whereby messenger RNA is made from a DNA template is known as A : expression B : sequencing C : transcription D : ribosome assembly
.
Correct Answer : C 18 : What is a ribosome? A : a template for protein synthesis B : a hard knot of subcutaneous protein mass C : a structure upon which proteins are assembled D : an antibody synthesized by specialized immune cells Correct Answer : C 19 : A common genetic variation that causes a change in the amino acid sequence in the structure of hemoglobin leads to the disease . A : diabetes B : marasmus C : phenylketonuria D : sickle-cell anemia Correct Answer : D 3 / 13
20 : What class of macromolecule is an enzyme? A : carbohydrate B : lipid C : protein D : nucleic acid Correct Answer : C 21 : What is a characteristic of hormones? A : inactivate bacteria B : act as messenger molecules C : coordinate visual responses D : act as buffers in the bloodstream Correct Answer : B 22 : A patient with acidosis may have a pH of A : 7.3 B : 7.35 C : 7.4 D : 7.45
.
Correct Answer : A 23 : Edema is caused by . A : a decrease in protein loss B : an increase in protein synthesis C : excessive dietary protein D : negative protein balance Correct Answer : D 24 : How do proteins function as regulators of blood pH? A : Proteins react with acids to produce uric acid, which can be excreted. B : Proteins bind hydrogen ions to prevent them from altering blood pH. C : Proteins attract acids out of the blood stream and into cells. D : Amino acids that are highly acidic or basic are specifically excreted. Correct Answer : B 25 : Why do proteins often function as carriers for lipids in the blood? A : Proteins are required to activate pumps for lipids to gain entry into cells. B : Proteins prevent the lipids from being recognized as foreign to avert an immune response. C : Proteins in the carriers begin the digestion process as they move through the blood. D : Proteins protect the hydrophobic regions of the lipids to allow easy transport through the blood. Correct Answer : D 26 : What is opsin? A : an antigen B : an antibody 4 / 13
C : light-sensitive protein D : a blood transport protein Correct Answer : C 27 : What is the amino acid pool? A : the total amino acid content derived from a 24-hour dietary intake B : a measure of the circulating essential amino acid levels available for protein synthesis C : the total amount of free amino acids in the circulation destined for deamination and excretion D : a mix of essential and nonessential amino acids derived from protein breakdown and dietary protein intake Correct Answer : B 28 : How do protein rich foods contribute to weight gain? A : High protein diets are also often high in saturated fats, which is what leads to weight gain. B : High protein diets increase absorption of lipids in the small intestine. C : High protein diets often prevent fiber from removing excess fats in the small intestine. D : High protein diets can lead to an excess of amino acid being converted into fat. Correct Answer : D 29 : What is the usual state of nitrogen balance for healthy infants, children, and pregnant women? A : equilibrium B : metabolic C : positive D : negative Correct Answer : C 30 : What amino acid is used to synthesize the neurotransmitter serotonin and the vitamin niacin? A : glycine B : tyrosine C : methionine D : tryptophan Correct Answer : D 31 : What is the fate of excess dietary protein? A : After absorption, the liver will store the extra amino acids. B : After absorption, the extra amino acids will be rapidly degraded. C : Digestion will be decreased by 30 to 60 percent, resulting in less absorption. D : After absorption, extra proteins will be synthesized and stored for use when protein intake returns to normal. Correct Answer : B 32 : When amino acids are deaminated, the immediate products are ammonia and often a acid. A : uric B : keto 5 / 13
C : folic D : gluco Correct Answer : B 33 : A person who is starving is losing A : fat only B : glycogen only C : glycogen and fat only D : glycogen, protein, and fat
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Correct Answer : D 34 : What are the two products of deamination? A : ammonia and keto acid B : amino acid and keto acid C : ammonia and an amino acid D : urea and a keto acid Correct Answer : A 35 : What is a consequence of excess protein intake? A : decreased excretion of calcium B : decreased size of the liver and kidneys C : increased production and excretion of urea D : increased protein storage by the liver and kidneys Correct Answer : C 36 : What are the products of transamination? A : ammonia and keto acid B : amino acid and keto acid C : ammonia and an amino acid D : urea and a keto acid Correct Answer : B 37 : In the metabolism of amino acids for energy, what is the fate of the amino group? A : excreted as urea B : burned for energy C : stored in the liver D : converted to glucose Correct Answer : A 38 : Jason is 35 years old and was recently diagnosed with two failing kidneys. He was advised to decrease the amount of protein he consumes. If Jason cheats by eating an 8-ounce steak for dinner tonight, shortly thereafter there would most likely be an increase in the urea levels of his . A : urine B : blood C : stools D : sweat 6 / 13
Correct Answer : B 39 : A result of transamination reactions is the synthesis of A : essential amino acids B : nonessential amino acids C : neurotransmitters and hormones D : both nonessential and essential amino acids
.
Correct Answer : B 40 : Your father, who has a high blood ammonia concentration, most likely has a poorly functioning . A : liver B : spleen C : kidney D : intestinal tract Correct Answer : A 41 : What is the percent digestibility of most plant proteins? A : 2545 B : 5065 C : 7090 D : 9599 Correct Answer : C 42 : Which food protein has the best assortment of essential amino acids for the human body? A : egg B : rice C : corn D : gelatin Correct Answer : A 43 : Which factor is related to the quality of a food protein? A : essential amino acid balance B : nonessential amino acid balance C : total amino acids per gram of food D : quantity of nonessential amino acids that can be converted to glucose Correct Answer : A 44 : If the diet is lacking an essential amino acid, what will be the course of action? A : Body cells will synthesize it. B : Protein synthesis will be limited. C : Health will not be affected as long as other nutrients are adequate. D : Proteins will be made but they will lack that particular amino acid. Correct Answer : B 45 : Alberta is a 20-year-old who has been a vegetarian for three years. She comes to you for 7 / 13
advice after reading some material online by the Meat Promoters of America organization. One of their statements is ...vegetarians are at risk for protein deficiency because they cannot consume all of the essential amino acids necessary for healthy individuals. How should Alberta be advised? A : She should consume dairy and egg products at every meal to protect herself against protein deficiency. B : She should avoid the limiting amino acids because they are limiting her ability to maintain proper protein status. C : Because the statement is basically true, she should consider eating small quantities of meat every day in order to avoid protein deficiency. D : Although many foods dont provide all the essential amino acids individually, she could consume complementary proteins throughout the day, which would provide all the essential amino acids she needs. Correct Answer : D 46 : Relative to animal proteins, which amino acid is present in lesser amounts in proteins of legumes? A : alanine B : isoleucine C : tryptophan D : glutamic acid Correct Answer : C 47 : Excessive amounts of homocysteine in the blood are thought to increase the risk for A : cancer B : diabetes C : heart disease D : protein-energy malnutrition
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Correct Answer : C 48 : Which statement describes an association between protein intake and kidney function? A : Low-protein diets increase the risk for kidney stone formation. B : Restricting protein intake may slow the progression of kidney disease. C : High protein intakes over the long term represent a risk factor for kidney disease. D : Liberal protein intakes result in high urea production, which increases the long-term efficiency of the kidneys. Correct Answer : B 49 : Which statement describes a relationship between protein intake and calcium metabolism? A : Calcium excretion falls with increasing intake of animal-derived proteins. B : Calcium excretion rises with increasing intake of animal-derived proteins. C : Calcium absorption declines with higher intakes of plant-derived proteins. D : Calcium absorption increases with higher intakes of animal-derived proteins. Correct Answer : B 50 : What is a feature of the protein RDA? A : The recommendations are generous. B : It is highest proportionately for adult males. 8 / 13
C : It is established at 8 grams per kilogram of ideal body weight. D : An assumption is made that dietary protein is from animal sources only. Correct Answer : A 51 : If protein needs are expressed per kilogram of body weight, what describes the requirements of infants? A : less than adults B : similar to adults C : greater than adults D : less than adolescents Correct Answer : C 52 : What is an assumption made in the formulation of the RDA for protein? A : Dietary protein is of high quality only. B : Dietary protein is of animal origin only. C : Dietary carbohydrate and fat intakes are adequate. D : Dietary protein should represent 12 percent of total energy. Correct Answer : C 53 : What is a feature of protein nutrition? A : Protein in body tissues is preserved fairly well on low-energy diets. B : The protein RDA assumes that dietary protein is from a mix of low- and high-quality sources. C : Many people in the United States and Canada consume somewhat less protein than is needed. D : Athletes in training benefit from increasing their protein energy intake to 45 to 50 percent of total daily energy. Correct Answer : B 54 : What is the percentage of total energy derived from protein in a diet containing 50 grams of protein and 2000 kcalories? A : 2.5 B:5 C : 10 D : 20 Correct Answer : C 55 : Jim, a college baseball player, tells you that he has started to take glutamine supplements. How would you advise him? A : As long as he keeps the dose under 10 grams per day, the benefits outweigh the costs. B : Since he plays baseball, he should consider taking alanine supplements instead. C : Since he plays baseball, he should consider taking tryptophan supplements instead. D : Since single amino acids do not occur naturally in foods, they offer no benefit to the body and may even be harmful. Correct Answer : D 56 : What is a feature of the branched-chain amino acids? A : They are all dispensable amino acids. 9 / 13
B : They suppress ammonia production if taken in large doses. C : They represent the major energy source for muscle tissue. D : They may be helpful in treatment of advanced liver failure. Correct Answer : D 57 : What amino acid supplement has been advertised in the popular media for treating herpes infections? A : lysine B : arginine C : tryptophan D : phenylalanine Correct Answer : A 58 : The disease phenylketonuria is related chiefly to abnormal metabolism of A : lactose B : omega-3 fats C : soy polysaccharides D : a certain amino acid
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Correct Answer : D 59 : The study of how food interacts with genes is known as A : nutritional genomics B : chromosomals C : nucleotide expression D : mutagenic expression
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Correct Answer : A 60 : The cells proteome consists of A : all nucleotide bases B : all the protein in the cell C : the ratio of DNA to RNA D : the protein metabolic apparatus
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Correct Answer : B 61 : The cellular process of silencing or activating genes is in part accomplished by A : DNA methylation B : multigene genomics C : translational sequencing D : a transcription-translation cycle
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Correct Answer : A 62 : What dispensable amino acid becomes essential in people with PKU? A : glycine B : tyrosine C : arginine D : glutamine 10 / 13
Correct Answer : B
MATCHING 63 : Match each word or phrase with the most appropriate definition or explanation. A : a dietary nonessential amino acid A : soy B : a conditionally essential amino acid B : urea C : a small protein hormone C : pepsin D : a large protein that carries oxygen D : gelatin E : describes substances repelled by water E : alanine F : describes protein exposed to severe heat F : insulin G : an active protease G : infection H : a cell structure where protein synthesis H : tyrosine takes place I : a connective tissue protein I : collagen J : a protein catalyst J : denatured K : excessive fluid residing between cells K : ribosome L : substance that keeps the pH constant L : enzyme M : a condition that favors positive nitrogen M : pregnancy balance N : edema N : a condition that favors negative nitrogen balance O : a product of amino acid breakdown O : hemoglobin P : a dietary protein lacking tryptophan P : hydrophobic Q : a good quality protein source Q : homocysteine R : an amino acid associated with heart diseaseR : buffer Correct Answer : A:E B:H C:F D : A14 E : A15 F:J G:C H:K I:I J : A11 K : A13 L : A17 11 / 13
M : A12 N:G O:B P:D Q:A R : A16
ESSAY 64 : Describe the primary, secondary, tertiary, and quaternary structure of a protein. Correct Answer : The primary structure of a protein is the amino acid sequence of the polypeptide. The secondary structure is determined by weak electrical forces between the amino acids, folding the peptide sequence into helixes and pleated sheets. The tertiary structure is the more complex three-dimensional shape based on the amino acid composition, positioning amino acids with hydrophobic amino acids on the inside and amino acids with hydrophilic side chains on the outside of the structure. Disulfide bonds between amino acids also contribute to the tertiary structure. Quaternary structure is determined by the association of individual polypeptides with each other, forming a larger complex of multiple polypeptide chains. 65 : Outline the process of protein digestion from the mouth through the large intestine. Correct Answer : ?In the mouth, proteins are softened and mixed with saliva. In the stomach, the hydrochloric acid denatures the proteins into highly accessible polypeptide chains, which can then be cleaved into smaller polypeptides with the enzyme pepsin. In the small intestines, the smaller polypeptide chains are further broken down with peptidases into individual amino acids, which can then be absorbed. Amino acids rarely end up in the large intestine, but are introduced into the blood stream and removed later by the liver for excretion as urine. 66 : Outline the process of protein synthesis, beginning with DNA and ending with a completed protein strand. Correct Answer : The DNA in the nucleus of a cell serves as a template for mRNA. The mRNA, which is almost an exact copy of the DNA, is then transported to the cytoplasm or rough endoplasmic reticulum and attaches itself to a ribosome to serve as template for protein synthesis. Once the ribosome and mRNA are joined, a tRNA, charged with specific amino acids, will bind to the mRNA/ribosomal complex in a sequence specific manner dictated by the mRNA sequence. The next loaded tRNA will then bind to the mRNA/ribosomal complex, and an enzyme joins the two amino acids together. The tRNA will be released to go reload with another amino acid, and the process will continue with another loaded tRNA. When the polypeptide chain is complete, the polypeptide chain and ribosome separate and the protein can then be further processed and folded into its final shape. 67 : Explain how proteins regulate blood pH. 12 / 13
Correct Answer : ?Proteins can regulate blood pH by serving as buffers. Proteins can bind and release hydrogen ions in response to changes in blood pH, serving as both proton donors and acceptors depending on the pH of the blood. By serving this role, the proteins can prevent the blood pH from changing dramatically, protecting the body. 68 : List at least five major, general, functions of proteins in the body. Correct Answer : ?Proteins can function as enzymes, antibodies, transporters, structural support, regulators of fluid balance, acid-base regulators, and a source of energy and glucose formation. 69 : Are vegetables considered high-quality proteins? Explain your answer. Correct Answer : ?Vegetables are not considered high-quality proteins, because they rarely contain all of the essential amino acids in a ratio that humans require. Rather, vegetables can be consumed with other foods to provide a complete balance of the amino acids. By choosing complementary proteins, vegetarians can still meet their required protein intakes. 70 : Explain how the amount of protein in ones diet would impact bone health. Correct Answer : ?Bones are comprised of both calcium and proteins. However, if protein intake is too high, calcium is excreted at a higher rate, which can lead to demineralization of the bones and osteoporosis. If protein intake is too low, proteins essential for bone structure are lost, which can also lead to osteoporosis. 71 : Explain the role of homocysteine in health. Correct Answer : ?High homocysteine levels seem to serve as a negative indicator for a number of different conditions, including heart disease and heart attacks, as well as under conditions associated with these diseases, including smoking and drinking alcohol or coffee. However, it is unclear whether homocysteine is a cause or an effect of these diseases and conditions. 72 : Give two reasons why amino acid supplements should not be taken by healthy individuals. Correct Answer : ?Amino acid supplements can be harmful to the body. Large doses of amino acids can cause diarrhea. Additionally, too much of a single amino acid can prevent the uptake of a variety of different amino acids, potentially leading to an amino acid deficiency. Finally, as amino acids are not proven to have any health benefits, they are a waste of money. 73 : Describe how nutrition affects the number or types of proteins that are present in a given cell. Correct Answer : Nutrients consumed within a diet can both positively and negatively affect the body by activating or silencing gene expression. One way they do this is by changing the methylation at the start of a specific gene, which turns the gene on and off like a switch. By turning on or off the ability of the cell to make mRNA copies of itself, it will alter protein synthesis of a given protein. When the DNA for a gene coding for a specific protein is turned on, mRNA expression will increase, and subsequently levels of that protein will increase. When the DNA for that gene is turned off, mRNA expression will decrease, and the levels of that protein will decrease.?
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Chapter 7. Energy Metabolism. MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Which of the following reactions describes the sum of all chemical reactions that go on in living cells? a. digestion b. metabolism c. absorption d. catabolism ANS: B
REF: p. 205, Section 7.0-Introduction
MSC: Knowledge
2. In photosynthesis, the plant uses energy from the sun, plus water and carbon dioxide, to synthesize which of the following molecules? a. carbohydrates only b. fats and carbohydrates only c. protein and carbohydrates only d. fats, proteins, and carbohydrates ANS: A
REF: p. 205, Section 7.0-Introduction
MSC: Knowledge
3. A typical cell contains “powerhouses,” which is another name for which of the following structures? a. DNA b. ribosomes c. mitochondria d. rough endoplasmic reticulum ANS: C MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 206, Section 7.1-Chemical Reactions in the Body
4. Which of these terms is specific to reactions in which simple compounds are combined into more complex molecules? a. anabolic b. catabolic c. ergogenic d. gluconeogenic ANS: A MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 206, Section 7.1-Chemical Reactions in the Body
5. The site of lipid synthesis in the cell is which of these bodies? a. nucleus b. Golgi bodies c. mitochondria d. smooth endoplasmic reticulum ANS: D MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 206, Section 7.1-Chemical Reactions in the Body
6. Which of the following reactions is an example of an anabolic reaction? a. pyruvate synthesis from glucose b. acetyl-coA synthesis from cholesterol c. carbon dioxide synthesis from citric acid d. cholesterol synthesis from acetyl-coA molecules
ANS: D MSC: Application
REF: p. 206, 207, Section 7.1-Chemical Reactions in the Body
7. The formation of glycogen by the liver cell is an example of which of these reactions? a. oxidation b. glycolysis c. anabolism d. catabolism ANS: C MSC: Application
REF: p. 206, 207, Section 7.1-Chemical Reactions in the Body
8. Which of the following processes is an example of a catabolic reaction? a. glucose formation from glycerol b. urea formation from an amino acid c. albumin formation from amino acids d. palmitic acid formation from acetate ANS: B MSC: Application
REF: p. 206, 207, Section 7.1-Chemical Reactions in the Body
9. Which of the following best characterizes catabolic reactions? a. involve release of energy b. occur only in mitochondria c. involve consumption of energy d. occur only when dietary energy is inadequate ANS: A MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 206-208, Section 7.1-Chemical Reactions in the Body
10. Which of the following is among the functions of the liver? a. excretion of urea b. synthesis of the final active form of vitamin D c. production of red blood cells d. conversion of fructose to glucose ANS: D MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 207, Section 7.1-Chemical Reactions in the Body
11. What is the approximate percent efficiency of conversion of food energy to ATP energy in the body? a. 20 percent b. 50 percent c. 80 percent d. 99 percent ANS: B MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 208, Section 7.1-Chemical Reactions in the Body
12. In the adult body, most of the food energy NOT stored as fat or glycogen is lost as which of the following forms of energy? a. heat b. photons c. macronutrients in stool d. electromagnetic radiation ANS: A
REF: p. 208, Section 7.1-Chemical Reactions in the Body
MSC: Application 13. Which of the following defines a coenzyme? a. a unit consisting of an enzyme bound to reactants plus ATP b. an organic molecule required for the functioning of an enzyme c. the small, active part of an enzyme that binds to the organic reactants d. an inactive enzyme that becomes functional upon contact with specific cofactors ANS: B MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 208, Section 7.1-Chemical Reactions in the Body
14. The hydrolysis of ATP that often occurs simultaneously with the synthesis of many compounds is an example of which of the following processes? a. coupled reactions b. tandem cleavages c. metabolic couplings d. high energy processes ANS: A MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 208, Section 7.1-Chemical Reactions in the Body
15. Which of the following metabolic reactions occurs when a cell uses energy? a. ATP gains a phosphate group and becomes ADP. b. ADP gains a phosphate group and becomes ATP. c. ATP releases a phosphate group and becomes ADP. d. ADP releases a phosphate group and becomes ATP. ANS: C MSC: Application
REF: p. 208, Section 7.1-Chemical Reactions in the Body
16. Which is the major energy carrier molecule in most cells? a. ATP b. glucose c. pyruvate d. water ANS: A MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 208-210, Section 7.1-Chemical Reactions in the Body
17. The basic units derived from food that enter the TCA cycle directly or through pyruvate and acetyl CoA include all of the members of which of the following groups? a. glycerol, starches, glucose b. starches, peptides, fatty acids c. fatty acids, glycerol, amino acids d. amino acids, peptides, glucose ANS: C MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 209, Section 7.2-Breaking Down Nutrients for Energy
18. Approximately what percentage of the body’s energy expenditure is furnished by amino acids? a. 1–5 percent b. 10–15 percent c. 25–35 percent d. 50–65 percent ANS: B
REF: p. 209, Section 7.2-Breaking Down Nutrients for Energy
MSC: Knowledge 19. Which of the following CANNOT be formed from acetyl-coA molecules? a. glucose b. cholesterol c. stearic acid d. carbon dioxide ANS: A MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 210, Section 7.2-Breaking Down Nutrients for Energy
20. Which of the following conversions is termed glycolysis? a. glycogen to fat b. glycogen to protein c. glucose to pyruvate d. glucose to glycogen ANS: C MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 211, Section 7.2-Breaking Down Nutrients for Energy
21. The series of reactions involving the conversion of glucose to pyruvate is known as which of the following? a. pyrolysis b. glycolysis c. beta-oxidation d. coupled reaction ANS: B MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 211, Section 7.2-Breaking Down Nutrients for Energy
22. Which of the following is an aspect of glycolysis? a. It is irreversible. b. It can occur only in the presence of oxygen. c. It can occur only in the absence of oxygen. d. It generates 2 molecules of pyruvate for each molecule of glucose. ANS: D MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 211-213, Section 7.2-Breaking Down Nutrients for Energy
23. Which of the following distinguishes aerobic metabolism from anaerobic metabolism? a. Little or no oxygen is consumed. b. Lactic acid is a major byproduct. c. Energy is produced more slowly. d. It yields energy for only short periods. ANS: C MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 212-213, Section 7.2-Breaking Down Nutrients for Energy
24. Which of the following series outlines the overall sequence of events in the complete oxidation of glucose? a. Cori cycle, TCA cycle, glycolysis b. glycolysis, TCA cycle, electron transport chain c. electron transport chain, TCA cycle, Cori cycle d. TCA cycle, electron transport chain, glycolysis ANS: B
REF: p. 212, 219, 221-222, Section 7.2-Breaking Down Nutrients for Energy
MSC: Application 25. An aerobic reaction is one that requires which of the following components? a. alcohol b. oxygen c. nitrogen d. ammonia ANS: B MSC: Application
REF: p. 213, Section 7.2-Breaking Down Nutrients for Energy
26. The Cori cycle involves the interconversion of which of the following pairs? a. lactate and glucose b. glucose and amino acids c. pyruvate and citric acids d. fatty acids and acetyl-coA ANS: A MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 213, Section 7.2-Breaking Down Nutrients for Energy
27. Your roommate Demetrius is participating in a weightlifting course and complains of a burning pain during workouts. You explain to Demetrius that this is due to his muscles converting excess pyruvate to which of the following compounds? a. lactate b. glycerol c. acetyl-coA d. amino acids ANS: A MSC: Application
REF: p. 213-214, Section 7.2-Breaking Down Nutrients for Energy
28. When a person is performing intense physical exercise and begins to feel fatigue and a burning pain in the muscles, the response of the muscles is to synthesize more of which of the following compounds? a. lactate b. glucose c. citric acid d. fatty acids ANS: A MSC: Application
REF: p. 213-214, Section 7.2-Breaking Down Nutrients for Energy
29. Which of the following pathways from pyruvate is irreversible? a. to glucose b. to glucogenic amino acids c. lactate d. acetyl CoA ANS: D MSC: Application
REF: p. 214, Section 7.2-Breaking Down Nutrients for Energy
30. Which of the following groups contains only compounds that can be formed from metabolized glucose? a. acetyl CoA, muscle glycogen, urea b. acetyl-CoA, muscle glycogen, amino acids c. acetyl CoA, amino acids, ammonia
d. acetyl CoA, muscle glycogen, ammonia ANS: B MSC: Application
REF: p. 214-215, Section 7.2-Breaking Down Nutrients for Energy
31. Which of the following nutrients can be made from compounds composed of 2-carbon skeletons? a. glucose b. fructose c. glycogen d. fatty acids ANS: D MSC: Application
REF: p. 214-215, Section 7.2-Breaking Down Nutrients for Energy
32. Which of the following is a possible fate of acetyl-coA? a. degradation to urea b. synthesis to glycerol c. synthesis to fatty acids d. degradation to ammonia ANS: C MSC: Application
REF: p. 214-215, Section 7.2-Breaking Down Nutrients for Energy
33. What is the first product of fatty acid catabolism? a. glycerol b. pyruvate c. acetyl-coA d. triglycerides ANS: C MSC: Application
REF: p. 215, Section 7.2-Breaking Down Nutrients for Energy
34. Fatty acid oxidation results in the direct production of which of these compounds? a. ketones b. fructose c. pyruvate d. acetyl-coA ANS: D MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 215, Section 7.2-Breaking Down Nutrients for Energy
35. Production of excessive amounts of acetyl-coA molecules leads to the synthesis of which of the following compounds? a. fatty acids only b. fatty acids and glucose only c. fatty acids and fructose only d. fatty acids, glucose, and amino acids ANS: A MSC: Application
REF: p. 215, Section 7.2-Breaking Down Nutrients for Energy
36. In a triglyceride that contains 54 carbon atoms, how many can become part of glucose? a. 3 b. 9 c. 54 d. 108
ANS: A MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 215, Section 7.2-Breaking Down Nutrients for Energy
37. Approximately what percentage of the weight of triglycerides can be converted to glucose? a. 5 percent b. 10 percent c. 20 percent d. 30 percent ANS: A MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 215, Section 7.2-Breaking Down Nutrients for Energy
38. What percentage (by weight) of a triglyceride molecule can be converted to glucose? a. 0 percent b. 5 percent c. 50 percent d. 100 percent ANS: B MSC: Application
REF: p. 215, Section 7.2-Breaking Down Nutrients for Energy
39. How many acetyl-coA molecules may be obtained from oxidation of an 18-carbon fatty acid? a. 3 b. 6 c. 9 d. 18 ANS: C MSC: Application
REF: p. 215, Section 7.2-Breaking Down Nutrients for Energy
40. In which of the following groups can all of the dietary components be used to synthesize and store glycogen? a. lactose, animal fats, wheat starch b. animal fats, wheat starch, plant proteins c. wheat starch, plant proteins, lactose d. plant proteins, lactose, vegetable oils ANS: C MSC: Application
REF: p. 215-216, Section 7.2-Breaking Down Nutrients for Energy
41. Which of the following compounds can be formed from fatty acids? a. ketones b. glucose c. amino acids d. urea ANS: A MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 215-216, 217, Section 7.2-Breaking Down Nutrients for Energy
42. In which of the following groups can all of the dietary components be used to make body proteins? a. glucose, glycerol, fatty acids b. glycerol, fatty acids, amino acids c. fatty acids, amino acids, glucose d. amino acids, glucose, glycerol
ANS: D MSC: Application
REF: p. 215-217, Section 7.2-Breaking Down Nutrients for Energy
43. Which of these is the immediate fate of excess dietary protein in the body? a. storage b. reduction c. oxidation d. deamination ANS: D MSC: Application
REF: p. 216, Section 7.2-Breaking Down Nutrients for Energy
44. Which of the following processes leads to the production of urea? a. oxidation of glucose b. oxidation of amino acids c. incomplete oxidation of fatty acids d. synthesis of protein from amino acids ANS: B MSC: Application
REF: p. 216, 218, Section 7.2-Breaking Down Nutrients for Energy
45. After digestion and absorption, an amino acid NOT used to build protein will first be subjected to which of the following processes? a. removal of its amino group b. removal of its carboxyl group c. hydrolysis of its peptide bond d. condensation of its peptide bond ANS: A MSC: Application
REF: p. 217, Section 7.2-Breaking Down Nutrients for Energy
46. When protein consumption is in excess of body needs and energy needs are met, what is the fate of the energy in the excess amino acid molecules? a. stored as fat only b. stored as glycogen only c. stored as amino acids only d. stored as glycogen and fat ANS: D MSC: Application
REF: p. 217-218, Section 7.2-Breaking Down Nutrients for Energy
47. When energy-yielding nutrients are consumed in excess, which one(s) can lead to storage of fat? a. fat only b. carbohydrate only c. fat and carbohydrate only d. fat, carbohydrate, and protein ANS: D MSC: Application
REF: p. 218, Section 7.2-Breaking Down Nutrients for Energy
48. If the carbohydrate content of the diet is insufficient to meet the body’s needs for glucose, which of the following compounds can be converted to glucose? a. fatty acids b. acetyl-coA c. amino acids
d. carbon dioxide ANS: C MSC: Application
REF: p. 218, Section 7.2-Breaking Down Nutrients for Energy
49. An immediate consequence of a cellular deficiency of oxaloacetate is a slowing of which of these reactions? a. glycolysis b. the TCA cycle c. lactate synthesis d. ketone formation ANS: B MSC: Application
REF: p. 220, Section 7.2-Breaking Down Nutrients for Energy
50. In which of the following groups can all of the compounds serve as a precursor for oxaloacetate synthesis? a. fat, starch, glucose b. starch, glucose, protein c. glucose, protein, fat d. protein, fat, starch ANS: B MSC: Application
REF: p. 220, Section 7.2-Breaking Down Nutrients for Energy
51. What are the products from the complete oxidation of fatty acids? a. urea and acetone b. gatty acids and glycerol c. carbon, hydrogen, and oxygen d. water, carbon dioxide, and energy ANS: D MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 220-221, Section 7.2-Breaking Down Nutrients for Energy
52. In addition to energy, which of these components are the principal end products of cellular oxidation of carbohydrates? a. water and carbon dioxide b. carbon, hydrogen, and urea c. indigestible fibre and nitrogen d. monosaccharides and amino acids ANS: A MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 220-221, Section 7.2-Breaking Down Nutrients for Energy
53. In which of the following groups are the products all generated via the TCA cycle or electron transport chain? a. water, energy, ammonia b. energy, ammonia, carbon dioxide c. ammonia, carbon dioxide, water d. carbon dioxide, water, energy ANS: D MSC: Application
REF: p. 220-221, Section 7.2-Breaking Down Nutrients for Energy
54. At what point is oxygen used in the electron transport chain? a. at the end
b. at every step c. at the beginning d. when ATP is synthesized ANS: A MSC: Application
REF: p. 221, Section 7.2-Breaking Down Nutrients for Energy
55. In which of the following groups are the products all generated from the electron transport chain pathway? a. CO2, urea, water b. urea, water, energy c. water, energy, CO2 d. energy, CO2, urea ANS: C MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 221, Section 7.2-Breaking Down Nutrients for Energy
56. Which of the following accounts for the higher energy density of a fatty acid compared with the other energy-yielding nutrients? a. Fatty acids have a lower percentage of hydrogen-carbon bonds. b. Fatty acids have a greater percentage of hydrogen-carbon bonds. c. Other energy-yielding nutrients have a lower percentage of oxygen-carbon bonds. d. Other energy-yielding nutrients undergo fewer metabolic reactions, thereby lowering the energy yield. ANS: B MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 221-222, Section 7.2-Breaking Down Nutrients for Energy
57. The number of ATP molecules that can be produced from a molecule of protein, fat, or carbohydrate is generally related to the number of atoms of which element? a. carbon b. oxygen c. nitrogen d. hydrogen ANS: D MSC: Application
REF: p. 222, Section 7.2-Breaking Down Nutrients for Energy
58. Approximately how many molecules of ATP are generated from the complete oxidation of 1 molecule of glucose? a. 4 b. 9 c. 32 d. 130 ANS: C MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 222, Section 7.2-Breaking Down Nutrients for Energy
59. Approximately how many ATP molecules are synthesized from the complete oxidation of 1 molecule of palmitic acid? a. 9 b. 27 c. 98 d. 129
ANS: D MSC: Application
REF: p. 222, Section 7.2-Breaking Down Nutrients for Energy
60. Which of the following is the most likely explanation for the body’s higher metabolic efficiency of converting a molecule of corn oil into stored fat compared with a molecule of sucrose? a. There are more potential pathways for disposal of carbohydrates than fats which reduce the efficiency. b. The presence of oxygen in the corn oil molecule increases the potential for oxidation. c. Fat contains more carbon-hydrogen bonds that can be oxidized d. Because the energy content of corn oil is higher than sucrose, the energy cost of conversion into stored fat requires a smaller percentage of the nutrient’s energy. ANS: C MSC: Application
REF: p. 221-222, Section 7.3-Energy Balance
61. Which of the following can be synthesized from all 3 energy-yielding nutrients? a. lactate b. glycogen c. acetyl-coA d. oxaloacetate ANS: C MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 223, Section 7.3-Energy Balance
62. If a person consumes 100 kcalories in excess of energy needs from table sugar, approximately how many of the kcalories are stored in the body? a. 25 kcal b. 50 kcal c. 75 kcal d. 100 kcal ANS: C MSC: Application
REF: p. 223-224, Section 7.3-Energy Balance
63. If a person consumes 100 kcalories in excess of energy needs from olive oil, approximately what percentage of the kcalories are stored in the body? a. 25 percent b. 45 percent c. 65 percent d. 95 percent ANS: D MSC: Application
REF: p. 223-224, Section 7.3-Energy Balance
64. Jake is getting ready for spring training and is sitting down to a dinner of half a chicken, a rib-eye steak, black beans, and 5 slices of bacon. He has been eating typical dinners like this for about a month and has since gained 3 kg while exercising only briefly. Why hasn’t Jake seen an increase in his biceps or abs? a. Dietary protein alone does not contribute to muscle accretion. b. It takes at least 6 months to document changes in muscle accretion. c. The weight he has gained can be attributed to a substantial increase in otherprotein stores. d. Because muscle accretion only responds to very lean meat choices, he should eliminate the fatty bacon and steak from his diet to promote muscle gain. ANS: A
REF: p. 224, Section 7.3-Energy Balance
MSC: Application 65. Which of the following statements explains how excess carbohydrate intake contributes to obesity? a. It is efficiently converted to storage fat. b. It spares oxidation of body fat and dietary fat. c. It stimulates glucagon release resulting in inhibition of fatty acid oxidation. d. It stimulates pancreatic lipase secretion, which results in higher dietary fat absorption. ANS: B MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 224, Section 7.3-Energy Balance
66. Which of the following reactions is the body’s first response to the absorption of abundant amounts of carbohydrate? a. catabolism of body fat b. catabolism of glycogen c. synthesis and storage of glycogen d. synthesis and storage of triglycerides ANS: C MSC: Application
REF: p. 224, Section 7.3-Energy Balance
67. Assuming that other nutrient needs are met, what is the most efficient way to fatten a turkey? a. Feed excess fat. b. Feed excess protein. c. Feed excess starch. d. Feed excess glucose. ANS: A MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 224-225, Section 7.3-Energy Balance
68. If an individual consumes dietary carbohydrate in excess of energy needs, what would be the first pathway for disposal of the carbohydrate? , a. fat synthesis b. ATP synthesis c. glycogen synthesis d. protein synthesis ANS: C MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 224-225, Section 7.3-Energy Balance
69. What is the body’s most likely response to surplus dietary fat? a. The excess fat will almost all be stored as body fat. b. The excess fat will promote increased fat oxidation. c. The excess fat will spares breakdown of body proteins. d. The greater the excess of dietary fat the lower the efficiency of fat storage . ANS: A MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 224-225, Section 7.3-Energy Balance
70. After the first day or so of fasting, which of the following compounds is most depleted in the body? a. glycogen b. fatty acids c. amino acids d. triglycerides ANS: A
REF: p. 225, Section 7.3-Energy Balance
MSC: Application 71. Of the total amount of carbohydrate energy consumed by the body, approximately what percentage is used by the brain and nerve cells? a. 10 percent b. 30 percent c. 50 percent d. 90 percent ANS: C MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 226, Section 7.3-Energy Balance
72. If a normal person expends 1200 kcalories while at rest, approximately how many are used by the brain? a. 40 kcal b. 100 kcal c. 200 kcal d. 300 kcal ANS: D MSC: Application
REF: p. 226, Section 7.3-Energy Balance
73. During the first few days of a fast, what energy source provides about 90 percent of the glucose needed to fuel the body? a. protein b. ketones c. glycogen d. triglycerides ANS: A MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 226, Section 7.3-Energy Balance
74. How soon would death occur from starvation if the body was unable to shift to a state of ketosis? a. approximately 3 days b. approximately 3 weeks c. approximately 6 weeks d. 2 to 3 months ANS: B MSC: Application
REF: p. 226, Section 7.3-Energy Balance
75. The effects on metabolism from starvation are most similar to those from which of the following states? a. fasting b. feasting c. a balanced reduced energy diet d. physical activity energy expenditure in excess of dietary intake ANS: A MSC: Application
REF: p. 226, Section 7.3-Energy Balance
76. Which of the following results in ketone formation? a. lack of protein in the diet b. partially oxidation of fats c. excess acetoacetate in the diet
d. excess carbohydrate in the diet ANS: B MSC: Application
REF: p. 226-227, Section 7.3-Energy Balance
77. Which of the following conditions most likely results in acetone breath? a. ketonemia b. feasting syndrome c. acetyl-coA toxicity d. metabolic hormone imbalance ANS: A MSC: Application
REF: p. 226-227, Section 7.3-Energy Balance
78. Which of the following substances is used to supply some of the fuel needed by the brain only after the body has been fasting for a while? a. ketones b. glycerol c. fatty acids d. amino acids ANS: A MSC: Application
REF: p. 226-227, Section 7.3-Energy Balance
79. Elizabeth has been fasting for 4 days in observance of her religious beliefs. You note that her breath smells “fruity.” This is most likely due to which of the following occurrences? a. her intake of religious wafers b. her intake of dilute fruit juices c. her body’s shift to a state of ketosis d. her body’s switch to a lipogenic state ANS: C MSC: Application
REF: p. 226-227, Section 7.3-Energy Balance
80. Which of the following symptoms is most likely to be experienced by an individual who has developed ketosis? a. lowering of blood pH b. an increased appetite c. a vinegar-like odour on the breath d. weight gain ANS: A MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 226-227, Section 7.3-Energy Balance
81. What type of diet is associated with the development of ketosis? a. low fat b. low carbohydrate c. high protein d. high energy ANS: B MSC: Application
REF: p. 226-228, Section 7.3-Energy Balance
82. Ketonemia is defined as an elevation of which of the following? a. ketones in the blood b. ketones in the urine
c. alpha-ketoglutarate in the blood d. alpha-ketoglutarate in the urine ANS: A MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 227, Section 7.3-Energy Balance
83. How are ketones formed? a. by condensation of lactic acid molecules b. by condensation of acetyl-coA molecules c. by hydrolysis of excess glycerol fragments d. by hydrolysis of excess pyruvate fragments ANS: B MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 227, Section 7.3-Energy Balance
84. Which of the following responses is least likely to be symptomatic of starvation? a. a decrease in metabolic rate b. a decrease in mental alertness c. a decrease in immune function d. a decrease in body temperature ANS: B MSC: Application
REF: p. 227, Section 7.3-Energy Balance
85. Which of the following is classified as a ketone body? a. sorbitol b. pyruvate c. acetyl-coA d. acetoacetate ANS: D MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 227, Section 7.3-Energy Balance
86. Lillie has been diagnosed with ketosis after following a very-low-carbohydrate weight loss diet for 2 months. Which of the following symptoms would also indicate ketosis in Lillie? a. thinning hair b. irritable temper c. fishy body odour d. fruity odour on breath ANS: D MSC: Application
REF: p. 227, Section 7.3-Energy Balance
87. A person is observed to have fruity odour on their breath. Which of the following states is the most likely explanation? a. ketosis b. feasting c. alkalosis d. overnight fasting ANS: A MSC: Application
REF: p. 227-228, Section 7.3-Energy Balance
88. Which of the following dietary nutrients would most rapidly reverse a state of ketosis in a starving person? a. fat
b. protein c. amino acids d. carbohydrate ANS: D MSC: Application
REF: p. 228, Section 7.3-Energy Balance
89. What side effects are typically experienced withlow-carbohydrate weight loss diets? a. enhanced sports performance b. elevated uric acid c. diarrhea d. high blood pressure ANS: B MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 228, Section 7.3-Energy Balance
90. The health benefits of moderate alcohol intake occur in people from which of the following ages? a. 21 years b. 35 years c. 55 years d. 65 years ANS: B MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 230, Section 7.4-Alcohol and Nutrition
91. Binge drinking is defined as the consumption of how many ethanol-containing drinks within a couple of hours? a. 1–2 drinks b. 4–5 drinks c. 6–9 drinks d. more than 10 drinks ANS: B MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 230, Section 7.4-Alcohol and Nutrition
92. Which of the following defines a moderate level of alcohol intake per day for the average-sized woman? a. up to 1 drink b. up to 2 drinks c. up to 3 drinks d. up to 5 drinks ANS: A MSC: Application
REF: p. 230-231, Section 7.4-Alcohol and Nutrition
93. Which of the following defines a moderate level of alcohol intake per day for the average-sized man? a. up to 1 drink b. up to 2 drinks c. up to 3 drinks d. up to 5 drinks ANS: B MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 230-231, Section 7.4-Alcohol and Nutrition
94. The chemical structure of ethanol consists of which of the following combinations? a. 2 carbons and 1 hydroxyl group
b. 3 carbons and 2 carbonyl groups c. 4 carbons and 1 keto acid d. 6 carbons and 2 double bonds ANS: A MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 231, Section 7.4-Alcohol and Nutrition
95. With alcohol beverages, what is the ratio of proof to percentage of alcohol? a. 1:1 b. 2:1 c. 4:1 d. 8:1 ANS: B MSC: Application
REF: p. 231, Section 7.4-Alcohol and Nutrition
96. The amount of ethanol in a typical “drink” is which of the following amounts? a. 0.5 ounce b. 1 ounce c. 1.5 ounces d. 2 ounces ANS: A MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 231, Section 7.4-Alcohol and Nutrition
97. One average-sized can or bottle of beer (340 mL) contains about the same amount of alcohol as which of the following drinks? a. 15 mLof rum b. 500 mL of wine c. 50 mL of vodka d. 1 litre of wine cooler ANS: C REF: p. 231, Section 7.4-Alcohol and Nutrition MSC: Knowledge remember 98. What is the percentage of ethanol in 120-proof scotch whiskey? a. 5 percent b. 30 percent c. 60 percent d. 95 percent ANS: C MSC: Application
REF: p. 231, Section 7.4-Alcohol and Nutrition
99. Which of the following is one explanation for the generally lower tolerance for alcohol in women in comparison to men? a. Women fast more often. b. Women do not eat as much food with the alcohol. c. Women consume more of their alcohol in sweetened drinks. d. Women have lower amounts of stomach alcohol dehydrogenase. ANS: D MSC: Knowledge 100.
REF: p. 232, Section 7.4-Alcohol and Nutrition
Which of these organs is first to absorb alcohol after a person takes a drink? a. colon
b. stomach c. jejunum d. duodenum ANS: B MSC: Application 101.
What is the primary organ that oxidizes alcohol? a. brain b. liver c. pancreas d. digestive tract ANS: B MSC: Knowledge
102.
REF: p. 232, Section 7.4-Alcohol and Nutrition
Which of these describes acetaldehyde? a. an intermediate in fatty acid synthesis b. an intermediate in alcohol metabolism c. the first product of fatty acid catabolism d. the TCA compound that combines with acetyl-coA ANS: B MSC: Knowledge
106.
REF: p. 232, Section 7.4-Alcohol and Nutrition
In which of the following situations would you expect alcohol absorption (15g) to be slowest? a. following a 600 kcal meal b. when consumed with a mixer of fruit juice c. when consumed by underweight versus overweight individuals d. when consumed by a woman compared to a man ANS: A MSC: Knowledge
105.
REF: p. 232, Section 7.4-Alcohol and Nutrition
The metabolism of alcohol begins in which of these organs? a. liver b. brain c. stomach d. intestines ANS: C MSC: Knowledge
104.
REF: p. 232, Section 7.4-Alcohol and Nutrition
Which of the following is best suited for slowing alcohol absorption? a. not eating b. eating protein snacks c. drinking caffeine drinks d. eating carbohydrate snacks ANS: D MSC: Application
103.
REF: p. 232, Section 7.4-Alcohol and Nutrition
REF: p. 232, Section 7.4-Alcohol and Nutrition
Your middle-aged aunt says that she always feels more “tipsy” than her same-size husband, even though their alcohol intake is the same. You respond by saying to your aunt which of the following? a. “Men have greater amounts of liver acetaldehyde dehydrogenase and so can oxidize the alcohol at a faster rate.”
b. “Women have less stomach alcohol dehydrogenase enzyme and consequently absorb more of the alcohol into the bloodstream.” c. “Men have greater amounts of alcohol dehydrogenase in the brain, resulting in reduced exposure of brain neurons to alcohol.” d. “Women have less liver alcohol dehydrogenase and acetaldehyde dehydrogenase and so more alcohol is released into the systemic circulation.” ANS: B MSC: Application 107.
In the average healthy person, about how much time is required by the liver to process the alcohol in a typical drink? a. 15 minutes b. 30 minutes c. 1 hour d. 2 hours ANS: C MSC: Application
108.
REF: p. 232, Section 7.4-Alcohol and Nutrition
Which of the following plays a major role in regulating the elimination of alcohol from the body? a. cellular mitochondrial ethanol oxidizing system b. kidney antidiuretic hormone c. liver alcohol dehydrogenase d. brain acetaldehyde dehydrogenase ANS: C MSC: Knowledge
109.
REF: p. 232, Section 7.4-Alcohol and Nutrition
REF: p. 232-233, Section 7.4-Alcohol and Nutrition
Which of the following is a basis for driving legislation and blood alcohol? a. Acceptable blood alcohol concentrations are lower in women than men b. Acceptable blood alcohol concentrations are higher in overweight versus underweight individuals c. Athletes can generally tolerate more alcohol than sedentary individuals of the same body weight because alcohol is metabolized by muscle as well as by the liver. d. The amount of alcohol in the breath is proportional to the amount in the blood. ANS: D MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 232-235, Section 7.4-Alcohol and Nutrition
110. Excess alcohol intake leads to a reduction in the synthesis rate of the following compounds? a. liver fat b. liver glucose c. ketone bodies d. acetyl-coA molecules ANS: B MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 233, Section 7.4-Alcohol and Nutrition
111. What is the sequence of stages that brings about advanced liver disease caused by chronic alcohol toxicity? a. fibrosis, decreased activation of vitamin D, cirrhosis b. alcoholic hepatitis, fibrosis, fat accumulation c. decreased vitamin D activation, fat accumulation, fibrosis d. fat accumulation, alcoholic hepatitis, cirrhosis
ANS: D MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 233, Section 7.4-Alcohol and Nutrition
112. Which of these describes MEOS? a. an advanced liver disorder b. a drug that inhibits alcohol absorption c. a waste product of alcohol metabolism d. a system of enzymes that oxidizes alcohol and drugs ANS: D MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 234, Section 7.4-Alcohol and Nutrition
113. Approximately what percentage of alcohol in the body is eliminated via the urine and breath? a. 1 percent b. 2 percent c. 10 percent d. 25 percent ANS: C MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 234, Section 7.4-Alcohol and Nutrition
114. Which of the following functions is (are) first to be affected when a person begins to drink alcohol? a. speech and vision b. judgment and reasoning c. voluntary muscle control d. respiration and heart function ANS: B MSC: Application
REF: p. 234-235, Section 7.4-Alcohol and Nutrition
115. What is the minimum blood alcohol percentage that defines legal drunkenness in most provinces? a. 0.05 percent b. 0.08 percent c. 0.11 percent d. 0.15 percent ANS: B MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 235, Section 7.4-Alcohol and Nutrition
116. What minimum concentration of blood alcohol leads to impaired judgment and increased heart rate? a. 0.01 percent b. 0.05 percent c. 0.10 percent d. 0.35 percent ANS: B MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 235, Section 7.4-Alcohol and Nutrition
117. What minimum concentration of alcohol in the blood is usually fatal? a. 0.5 percent b. 1 percent c. 5 percent d. 50 percent ANS: A MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 235, Section 7.4-Alcohol and Nutrition
118. Which of the following is a consequence of alcohol intake? a. The MEOS is suppressed. b. Homocysteine production is reduced. c. Water content of the blood in increased. d. Antidiuretic hormone production is suppressed. ANS: D MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 235, Section 7.4-Alcohol and Nutrition
119. Approximately how many kcalories are contained in 3 ounces of 80-proof rum? a. 50 kcal b. 100 kcal c. 150 kcal d. 200 kcal ANS: D MSC: Application 120.
The Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome in people with chronic alcohol abuse stems primarily from a deficiency of which of the following compounds? a. folate b. thiamine c. antidiuretic hormone d. alcohol dehydrogenase ANS: B MSC: Knowledge
121.
REF: p. 236, Section 7.4-Alcohol and Nutrition
How does chronic excess alcohol intake affect folate ? a. The small intestine recycles more folate. b. The liver releases less folate into the blood. c. The kidneys excrete more folate via the urine. d. The small intestine absorbs more folate from the diet. ANS: C MSC: Application
123.
REF: p. 236, Section 7.4-Alcohol and Nutrition
Which of the following is the most likely metabolic response to excessive ethanol intake? a. increased gastric acid output b. Idecreases activity of the MEO. c. decreases secretion of gastric histamine. d. increases secretion of antidiuretic hormone. ANS: A MSC: Knowledge
122.
REF: p. 236, Section 7.4-Alcohol and Nutrition
REF: p. 236, Section 7.4-Alcohol and Nutrition
Approximately how many kcalories from ethanol are contained in 1 standard drink of vodka or rum? a. 25 kcal b. 50 kcal c. 100 kcal d. 200 kcal ANS: C MSC: Application
REF: p. 236, Section 7.4-Alcohol and Nutrition
124.
Approximately what percentage of all Canadians who consume alcohol would be considered heavy drinkers? a. 5 percent b. 10 percent c. 15 percent d. 20 percent ANS: D MSC: Knowledge
125.
What percentage of Canadian university students was reported to binge drink? a. 18.5 b. 20.5 c. 22.5 d. 24.5 ANS: A MSC: Knowledge
126.
REF: p. 237, Section 7.4-Alcohol and Nutrition
In a 2004 survey of university students across Canada, what % had consumed alcohol in the previous month? a. about 1/4 b. about 1/2 c. about 3/4 d. almost all ANS: C MSC: Application
127.
REF: p. 237, Section 7.4-Alcohol and Nutrition
REF: p. 237, Section 7.4-Alcohol and Nutrition
Which of the following is the most likely physiological response to alcohol ingestion? a. cooling of the body b. appetite stimulation c. increased mineral absorption d. stimulation of brain activity ANS: A MSC: Knowledge MATCHING
a. NAD b. Urea c. MEOS d. Water e. Glucose f. Enzyme g. Glycogen h. Glycerol i. Ammonia j. Coenzyme k. Cori cycle l. Lactate m. Acetoacetate
REF: p. 238, Section 7.4-Alcohol and Nutrition
n. o. p. q. r. s. t. 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10. 11. 12. 13. 14. 15. 16. 17. 18. 19. 20.
Acetyl-coA Pyruvate Glucogenic Gastric alcohol dehydrogenase Synthesis of pyruvate from glycogen Synthesis of cholesterol from acetate Synthesis of acetyl-coA from glucose
Example of an anabolic reaction Example of a catabolic reaction A protein that accelerates a chemical reaction A small non-protein organic substance that promotes optimal activity of an enzyme A product of glycolysis A product of pyruvate metabolism when oxygen is limited The oxidation product of pyruvate A recycling process of converting lactate to glucose An irreversible reaction The part of a triglyceride that is convertible to glucose A product of deamination Amino acids that are convertible to glucose The principal nitrogen-containing waste product Waste product of the electron transport chain A storage form of carbohydrate The major energy fuel for the central nervous system A ketone An enzyme with activity levels related to a person’s sex A coenzyme required for metabolism of alcohol A system for metabolizing drugs and alcohol
1. ANS: S 2. ANS: R 3. ANS: F 4. ANS: J 5. ANS: O 6. ANS: L 7. ANS: N 8. ANS: K 9. ANS: T 10. ANS: H 11. ANS: I 12. ANS: P 13. ANS: B 14. ANS: D 15. ANS: G 16. ANS: E 17. ANS: M 18. ANS: Q 19. ANS: A 20. ANS: C
REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF:
p. 206 p. 206 p. 208 p. 208 p. 211 p. 213 p. 214 p. 214 p. 214 p. 215 p. 216 p. 216 p. 216 p. 221 p. 224 p. 226 p. 227 p. 232 p. 232 p. 234
ESSAY 1. Compare and contrast the various ways in which the body metabolizes carbohydrate, fat, and amino acids. ANS: Answers may vary. REF: p. 207 2. List 4 of the liver’s functions in the metabolism of each of these nutrients: carbohydrates, fats, and proteins. ANS: Answers may vary. REF: p. 207 3. What are the major differences between aerobic and anaerobic metabolism? Give an example of an aerobic reaction and an anaerobic reaction. ANS: Answers may vary. REF: p. 210-212 4. Explain the roles of protein and fat as nutrients for gluconeogenesis. What are the circumstances that favour low and high rates of gluconeogenesis? ANS: Answers may vary. REF: p. 215-218 5. How does the electron transport chain function in the synthesis of ATP? ANS: Answers may vary. REF: p. 220-221 6. Describe interactions among the energy nutrients when each is consumed in excess. ANS: Answers may vary. REF: p. 222-225 7. Discuss ways in which the body’s metabolism adapts to conditions of fasting/starvation. How do these adaptations affect the rate of weight loss when a person follows a low-kcalorie diet? ANS: Answers may vary.
REF: p. 226-227 8. What is ketosis and how can it be identified? What conditions typically induce a state of ketosis? What are the adverse effects of this condition? ANS: Answers may vary. REF: p. 226-227 9. How does the body respond to a low-carbohydrate diet? ANS: Answers may vary. REF: p. 227-228 10. Compare and contrast the metabolism of alcohol in men versus women. ANS: Answers may vary. REF: p. 232 11. Describe the 2 major pathways for metabolism of alcohol in the liver. How does the liver adapt when forced to metabolize high quantities of alcohol on a daily basis? ANS: Answers may vary. REF: p. 232-234 12. Discuss ways in which alcohol interferes with metabolism of proteins, fats, carbohydrates, vitamins, minerals, and water. ANS: Answers may vary. REF: p. 235-237 13. Describe the effects of excess alcohol intake on folate utilization. ANS: Answers may vary. REF: p. 236 14. Describe specific effects of alcohol on each of the following organs: heart, kidney, and brain. ANS: Answers may vary. REF: p. 238
15. List 6 common myths concerning alcohol use and discuss ways to dispel them. ANS: Answers may vary. REF: p. 238
Chapter 8 – Energy Balance and Body Composition
MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. What would be the approximate weight gain of a person who consumes an excess of 500 kcalories daily for 1 month? a. 0.25 kg b. 1 kg c. 1.4 kg d. 1.8 kg ANS: D MSC: Application
REF: p. 241-242, Section 8.1 Energy Balance
2. When an adult gains an extra 4.5 kg of body weight, approximately how much of this weight is fat? a. 2.3 kg b. 3.4 kg c. 4.3 kg d. 4.5 kg ANS: B MSC: Application
REF: p. 241-242, Section 8.1 Energy Balance
3. Approximately what percentage of weight loss during starvation is lean body mass? a. 0 percent b. 20 percent c. 35 percent d. 50 percent ANS: D MSC: Application
REF: p. 242, Section 8.1 Energy Balance
4. In an adult who gains 9 kg of excess body weight, about how much of this is lean tissue? a. 0 kg b. 1 kg c. 2.3 kg d. 4.5 kg ANS: C MSC: Application
REF: p. 242, Section 8.1 Energy Balance
5. Which of these instruments is used to measure the energy content of foods? a. energy chamber b. exothermic meter c. bomb calorimeter d. combustion chamber ANS: C MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 242, Section 8.2 Energy In: The kCalories Foods Provide
6. Which of the following terms describes the number of kcalories that the body obtains from a food, in contrast to the number of kcalories that are determined by burning the food in a bomb calorimeter? a. direct calorimetry b. indirect calorimetry c. psychological food value d. physiological food value ANS: D MSC: Application
REF: p. 242, Section 8.2 Energy In: The kCalories Foods Provide
7. Which of the following represents an indirect measure of the amount of energy released from food? a. the increase in heat given off when the food is burned b. quantity of oxygen consumed when the food is burned c. quantity of carbon dioxide consumed when the food is burned d. the increase in heat retained by the food when it is slowly brought to 100°C ANS: B MSC: Application
REF: p. 242, Section 8.2 Energy In: The kCalories Foods Provide
8. A person who exhibits a physiological need to eat is most likely experiencing the sensation of which of the following? a. hunger b. appetite c. stress eating d. neuropeptide Y suppression ANS: A MSC: Application
REF: p. 243, Section 8.2 Energy In: The kCalories Foods Provide
9. Which part of the brain triggers the hunger sensation? a. hippocampus b. amygdala c. cerebellum d. hypothalamus ANS: D MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 243, Section 8.2 Energy In: The kCalories Foods Provide
10. After consuming a very large meal, the desire to eat a slice of chocolate cake is an example of behaviour known as which of the following? a. satiety b. hunger c. appetite d. pigging out ANS: C MSC: Application
REF: p. 243, Section 8.2 Energy In: The kCalories Foods Provide
11. A person who eats in response to arousal is most likely experiencing which of the following? a. stress eating b. sensory influences
c. physiological influences d. postabsorptive influences ANS: A MSC: Application
REF: p. 243, Section 8.2 Energy In: The kCalories Foods Provide
12. The feeling of satisfaction resulting from consumption of a meal is termed which of the following? a. satiety b. appetite c. postabsorptive hunger d. resting postabsorptive increment ANS: A MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 243, Section 8.2 Energy In: The kCalories Foods Provide
13. An example of an external cue that may cause an obese person to respond to food typically is which of the following? a. TV commercials b. outdoor exercises c. satiation d. lack of sleep ANS: A MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 243, Section 8.2 Energy In: The kCalories Foods Provide
14. Which of the following hormones is most responsible for signalling satiety as well as reducing food intake during a meal? a. gastrin b. adipokines c. epinephrine d. cholecystokinin ANS: D MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 243, Section 8.2 Energy In: The kCalories Foods Provide
15. About how long does it take for a meal to be completely eliminated from the stomach? a. 30 minutes b. 1.5 hours c. 4 hours d. 8 hours ANS: C MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 243, Section 8.2 Energy In: The kCalories Foods Provide
16. Which of the following is a characteristic of satiety or satiation? a. Satiety activates hunger. b. Satiation signals the commencement of eating. c. Satiation develops as food enters the GI tract. d. Satiety but not hunger may be overridden by stress. ANS: C MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 243-244, Section 8.2 Energy In: The kCalories Foods Provide
17. Which of the following foods would have a weakened effect on satiation? a. watermelon and strawberries b. toast and jam c. skim milk and an oatmeal cookie d. cheese dip and crackers ANS: D MSC: Application
REF: p. 243-245, Section 8.2 Energy In: The kCalories Foods Provide
18. Among the following foods, which has the greatest power to suppress hunger? a. apples b. peanuts c. doughnuts d. potato chips ANS: A MSC: Application
REF: p. 244, Section 8.2 Energy In: The kCalories Foods Provide
19. Which of these is the most satiating macronutrient? a. fat b. water c. protein d. carbohydrate ANS: C MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 244, Section 8.2 Energy In: The kCalories Foods Provide
20. The day after Thanksgiving, you and your sisters are a little hungry and want to eat leftovers before going shopping. Which of the following foods would most readily satisfy the feeling of hunger? a. turkey b. pecan pie c. mashed potatoes d. noodle casserole ANS: A MSC: Application
REF: p. 244-245, Section 8.2 Energy In: The kCalories Foods Provide
21. Which of the following hormones is released into the intestine after a person eats a high fat food? a. norepinephrine b. serotonin c. cholecystokinin d. adiponectin ANS: C MSC: Application
REF: p. 244-245, Section 8.2 Energy In: The kCalories Foods Provide
22. The brain chemical neuropeptide Y is known to specifically enhance the craving for which of the following nutrients? a. fat b. salt
c. protein d. carbohydrate ANS: D MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 245, Section 8.2 Energy In: The kCalories Foods Provide
23. Which of the following is a function of neuropeptide Y? a. It stimulates hunger. b. It reduces fat storage. c. It is synthesized in the liver. d. It increases fat cravings. ANS: B MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 245, Section 8.2 Energy In: The kCalories Foods Provide
24. Which of the following describes the process of thermogenesis? a. burning of fat b. synthesis of fat c. generation of heat d. generation of water ANS: C MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 245, Section 8.3-Energy Out: The kCalories the Body Expends
25. Why might the measurement of the resting metabolic rate in a person be somewhat higher than her basal metabolic rate? a. She was mildly malnourished. b. She slept through the procedure. c. She was dehydrated. d. She ate right before the measurement was done. ANS: D MSC: Application
REF: p. 246, Section 8.3-Energy Out: The kCalories the Body Expends
26. What fraction of the day’s energy expenditure of the average person is represented by the basal metabolism? a. about 1/10 b. up to 1/2 c. about 2/3 d. over 9/10 ANS: C MSC: Application
REF: p. 246, Section 8.3-Energy Out: The kCalories the Body Expends
27. What is the approximate daily basal metabolism of a 50 kg woman? a. 500 kcal b. 1000 kcal c. 1500 kcal d. 2000 kcal ANS: B MSC: Application
REF: p. 246, Section 8.3-Energy Out: The kCalories the Body Expends
28. Which of the following factors has the most influence on the body’s metabolic rate? a. age b. gender c. amount of fat tissue d. amount of lean body tissue ANS: D MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 246, Section 8.3-Energy Out: The kCalories the Body Expends
29. Which of the following measures may be used to calculate the amount of energy expended by the body? a. oxygen consumed b. total air exchanged c. intestinal gas expelled d. carbon dioxide consumed ANS: A MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 246, Section 8.3-Energy Out: The kCalories the Body Expends
30. Which of these methods is used to measure the amount of heat given off by the body? a. bomb calorimetry b. basal calorimetry c. direct calorimetry d. indirect calorimetry ANS: C MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 246, Section 8.3-Energy Out: The kCalories the Body Expends
31. Which of the following measures are all used to compute a woman’s BMR? a. Body fat, height, and age b. Body weight, height, and age c. Physical activity level, body weight, and height d. Energy intake, physical activity level, and body weight ANS: B MSC: Application
REF: p. 246, Section 8.3-Energy Out: The kCalories the Body Expends
32. Which of the following would best assess the energy expenditure of a bedridden patient? a. body composition b. basal metabolic rate c. physical activity level d. adaptive thermogenesis ANS: B MSC: Application
REF: p. 246, 248, Section 8.3-Energy Out: The kCalories the Body Expends
33. Thyroid hormone activity can speed up or slow down the rate of metabolism by which of the following percentages? a. 10 percent b. 15 percent
c. 20 percent d. 25 percent ANS: A MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 247, Section 8.3-Energy Out: The kCalories the Body Expends
34. Which of the following is an example of a moderate equivalent task (MET) activity? a. stretching b. sleeping c. golfing d. weight lifting ANS: C MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 248, Section 8.3-Energy Out: The kCalories the Body Expends
35. Which of the following diets promotes the greatest loss of body heat? a. high fat, low protein b. high protein, low fat c. high carbohydrate, low fat d. balanced protein, fat, and carbohydrate ANS: B MSC: Application
REF: p. 248, Section 8.3-Energy Out: The kCalories the Body Expends
36. Which of these terms describes the increase in energy expenditure that occurs in a person who fractures a leg? a. febrile hyperthermia b. physical hyperthermia c. specific thermogenesis d. adaptive thermogenesis ANS: D MSC: Application
REF: p. 248, Section 8.3-Energy Out: The kCalories the Body Expends
37. What is the approximate value for the thermic effect of a 2500-kcalorie diet? a. 25 kcal b. 250 kcal c. 400 kcal d. 500 kcal ANS: B MSC: Application
REF: p. 248, Section 8.3-Energy Out: The kCalories the Body Expends
38. What is the primary reason for avoiding the value for adaptive thermogenesis when calculating energy requirements? a. It is too costly to measure. b. It is too variable to measure. c. The value is too low to be meaningful. d. The value is highly influenced by the dietary ratio of protein, fat, and carbohydrate. ANS: B MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 248, Section 8.3-Energy Out: The kCalories the Body Expends
39. Among the following groups, which has the highest metabolic rate? a. females b. older individuals c. younger individuals d. people with smaller surface areas ANS: C MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 248-249, Section 8.3-Energy Out: The kCalories the Body Expends
40. If a dancer and a typist are the same height and have the exact same body build, the dancer will be heavier because she has which of the following? a. more body fat b. stronger bones c. stronger muscles d. more muscle mass ANS: D MSC: Application
REF: p. 248-249, Section 8.3-Energy Out: The kCalories the Body Expends
41. What is the main explanation for the difference in basal metabolic rates between males and females of the same body weight? a. Males are usually taller than females. b. Females have lower levels of thyroid hormones. c. Males have a higher percentage of lean body mass. d. Females have a lower percentage of adipose tissue. ANS: C MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 248-249, Section 8.3-Energy Out: The kCalories the Body Expends
42. For every decade beyond the age of 30, what is the percentage decrease in the need for total kcalories? a. 2 percent b. 5 percent c. 10 percent d. 15 percent ANS: B MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 249, Section 8.3-Energy Out: The kCalories the Body Expends
43. If a normal 30-year-old woman has a daily energy expenditure of 2200 kcalories, what would be her expected output when she reaches 60 years of age? a. 1210 kcal b. 1450 kcal c. 1885 kcal d. 2275 kcal ANS: C MSC: Application
REF: p. 249, Section 8.3-Energy Out: The kCalories the Body Expends
44. To estimate the energy requirements of individuals, which of the following factors is used in the equations?
a. b. c. d.
weight fat intake surface area fat-fold thickness
ANS: A MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 249-250, Section 8.3-Energy Out: The kCalories the Body Expends
45. For almost all people who use the equations for calculating Estimated Energy Requirements, the actual values fall within a range of plus or minus which of these amounts? a. 50–100 kcal b. 125–200 kcal c. 320–400 kcal d. 500–750 kcal ANS: C MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 250, Section 8.3-Energy Out: The kCalories the Body Expends
46. The weight of the body less the fat content is known as which of the following terms? a. cherubic index b. lean body mass c. body mass index d. ideal body weight ANS: B MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 249, Section 8.4-Body Weight, Body Composition, and Health
47. What is the approximate percentage of Canadian adults with a BMI over 25.0? a. 30 percent b. 40 percent c. 50 percent d. 60 percent ANS: D MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 251, Section 8.4-Body Weight, Body Composition, and Health
48. An index of a person’s weight in relation to height is called which of these terms? a. body mass index b. height-to-weight index c. ideal body weight index d. desirable body weight index ANS: A MSC: Application
REF: p. 251, Section 8.4-Body Weight, Body Composition, and Health
49. A person is at high risk for signs of illness and diminished work capacity when the BMI first drops below which of these values? a. 12 b. 14 c. 17 d. 18.5
ANS: C MSC: Application
REF: p. 252, Section 8.4-Body Weight, Body Composition, and Health
50. Jim is a 45 year old who eats fast food at least 3 times a week and smokes a pack of cigarettes each day. He just had a physical examination and was told that his body mass index is 24. In what category would Jim’s BMI be classified? a. Obesity b. Overweight c. Underweight d. Healthy weight ANS: D MSC: Application
REF: p. 252, Section 8.4-Body Weight, Body Composition, and Health
51. Why does use of the BMI overestimate the prevalence of obesity in Canadians of African descent? a. Blacks have a higher average height than whites. b. Blacks have denser bones and higher body protein concentrations than whites. c. Blacks tend to have different proportions of brown and white adipose tissue than whites. d. The fat pads in blacks are situated primarily around the hips, whereas in whites the pads are primarily abdominal. ANS: B MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 252, Section 8.4-Body Weight, Body Composition, and Health
52. What is the range of body fat content for normal-weight women? a. 9–17 percent b. 23–31 percent c. 33–37 percent d. 38–44 percent ANS: B MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 252, Section 8.4-Body Weight, Body Composition, and Health
53. What is the approximate body mass index of a woman who is 165 centimeters tall and weighs 57 kg? a. 21 b. 26 c. 31 d. 36 ANS: A MSC: Application
REF: p. 252, 253, Section 8.4-Body Weight, Body Composition, and Health
54. Which of the following types of athlete may be classified as overweight by BMI standards, even though he/she is not overfat? a. cyclists b. gymnasts c. football players d. marathon runners ANS: C MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 252-253, Section 8.4-Body Weight, Body Composition, and Health
55. Jacki, who has a sedentary lifestyle, is 165 cm tall and weighs 75 kg. She calculated her BMI to be 27.5. She recognizes that her body weight is unhealthy and vows to improve her eating habits and begin a regular program of physical fitness. Her goal is to achieve a BMI of 22. Approximately how much weight must she lose? a. 9.5 kg b. 12.3 kg c. 15 kg d. 18.6 kg ANS: C MSC: Application
REF: p. 252-253, Section 8.4-Body Weight, Body Composition, and Health
56. What is the weight classification assigned both to young women with 30 percent body fat and young men with 20% body fat? a. obese b. normal c. mildly overweight d. slightly underweight ANS: B MSC: Application
REF: p. 252-254, Section 8.4-Body Weight, Body Composition, and Health
57. Which of the following percentages of body fat can be present in excessively obese adults? a. 55 percent b. 60 percent c. 65 percent d. 70 percent ANS: D MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 253, Section 8.4-Body Weight, Body Composition, and Health
58. What is the range of body fat content for normal-weight men? a. 5–10 percent b. 13–21 percent c. 22–30 percent d. 32–40 percent ANS: B MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 254, Section 8.4-Body Weight, Body Composition, and Health
59. Which of the following conditions may occur in an individual whose body fat falls below a certain threshold? a. gallbladder disease b. diabetes c. hormone synthesis failure d. dehydration ANS: C MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 254, Section 8.4-Body Weight, Body Composition, and Health
60. Central obesity is associated with an increased risk for which of the following conditions? a. infertility b. clinical depression c. hypertension d. abnormal hunger regulation ANS: C MSC: Application
REF: p. 254, Section 8.4-Body Weight, Body Composition, and Health
61. Jenny is 34 years old and has a BMI of 28. Her body type could be described as “pear-like.” John is 55 years old with a BMI of 28, and a body type that is “apple-like.” Why is John more likely than Jenny to be at risk for degenerative diseases? a. He is male. b. He is older. c. He weighs more. d. He has central obesity. ANS: D MSC: Application
REF: p. 254, Section 8.4-Body Weight, Body Composition, and Health
62. Which of the following defines central obesity? a. accumulation of fat during the mid-years of life b. storage of excess fat around the trunk of the body c. over-fatness due to a large number of interacting behavioural problems d. over-fatness due to reliance on high-fat foods as a central part of the diet ANS: B MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 254, Section 8.4-Body Weight, Body Composition, and Health
63. Research in obese people seems to show that there is less susceptibility to health problems provided that the excess body fat is distributed around which of these areas? a. stomach b. arms and chest c. hips and thighs d. neck and shoulders ANS: C MSC: Application
REF: p. 254, Section 8.4-Body Weight, Body Composition, and Health
64. Which of the following measures can be used to gauge the amount of a person’s abdominal fat? a. BMI b. essential body fat c. hydrodensitometry d. waist circumference ANS: D MSC: Application
REF: p. 254, Section 8.4-Body Weight, Body Composition, and Health
65. Intra-abdominal fat is the same as which of the following? a. waist fat b. visceral fat
c. lipid profile fat d. subcutaneous fat ANS: B MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 254, Section 8.4-Body Weight, Body Composition, and Health
66. Waist circumference can best be used to assess which of the following amounts? a. BMI b. total body water c. abdominal fat stores d. subcutaneous fat stores ANS: C MSC: Application
REF: p. 254, Section 8.4-Body Weight, Body Composition, and Health
67. A high risk of weight-related health problems is seen in women whose waist circumference begins to exceed which of these measurements? a. 61 cm b. 71 cm c. 88 cm d. 107 cm ANS: C MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 254, Section 8.4-Body Weight, Body Composition, and Health
68. There is a high risk of obesity-related health problems when a man’s waist circumference begins to exceed which of these measurements? a. 102 cm b. 116 cm c. 127 cm d. 133 cm ANS: A MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 254, Section 8.4-Body Weight, Body Composition, and Health
69. Storage of excess body fat in which of these regions of the body is associated with the highest risks for cardiovascular disease and diabetes? a. neck b. abdomen c. hips and thighs d. arms and shoulders ANS: B MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 254-255, Section 8.4-Body Weight, Body Composition, and Health
70. Which of the following fruits is commonly linked to upper body fat levels as the fruit typifies the body's shape? a. pineapple b. grape c. pear d. apple
ANS: D MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 255, Section 8.4-Body Weight, Body Composition, and Health
71. Which of the following methods measures body density by first weighing an individual on land and then weighing him/her again while submerged in water? a. air displacement plethysmography b. dual energy x-ray absorptiometry c. hydrodensitometry d. bioelectrical impedance ANS: C MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 256, Section 8.4-Body Weight, Body Composition, and Health
72. Which of the following methods assesses body fat by examining the thickness of a fold of body tissue on the arm, below the shoulder blade and in other areas of the body? a. dual energy x-ray absorptiometry b. BMI c. air displacement plethysmography d. skinfold measures ANS: D MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 256, Section 8.4-Body Weight, Body Composition, and Health
73. A graph of the relationship between mortality (left axis) and body mass index is shaped like a(n) a. J b. S c. backslash d. inverted U ANS: A MSC: Application
REF: p. 256, Section 8.4-Body Weight, Body Composition, and Health
74. A known health risk for being underweight includes which of the following? a. diabetes b. respiratory infections c. headaches d. increased cancer-induced wasting ANS: D MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 256-257, Section 8.4-Body Weight, Body Composition, and Health
75. In terms of preventable illnesses and early deaths, where does obesity rank? a. first b. second c. third d. fourth ANS: B MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 257, Section 8.4-Body Weight, Body Composition, and Health
76. The risks for dying prematurely are doubled when the body mass index first rises above what value?
a. b. c. d.
27 30 32 35
ANS: D MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 257, Section 8.4-Body Weight, Body Composition, and Health
77. Central obesity and weight gains of more than how many kg during early and middle adulthood correlate with increased disease risks? a. 3 kg b. 6 kg c. 9 kg d. 12 kg ANS: C MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 257, Section 8.4-Body Weight, Body Composition, and Health
78. Which of the following is a health risk associated with excessive body fat? a. osteoporosis b. fractures c. gallbladder disease d. lupus ANS: C MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 257, Section 8.4-Body Weight, Body Composition, and Health
79. Ben is worried that his family history of heart disease and his BMI of 28 are putting him at very high risk for developing cardiovascular disease. What would a clinician advise Ben to help lower his risk? a. Take steps to raise the LDL and lower the HDL. b. Consider liposuction surgery for removing extra abdominal fat. c. Lose weight as it can lower both blood cholesterol and blood pressure. d. Obtain genetic testing to determine the exact percent chance of developing cardiovascular disease. ANS: C MSC: Application
REF: p. 257-258, Section 8.4-Body Weight, Body Composition, and Health
80. Why is chronic inflammation a concern for overweight and obese individuals? a. It increases the risk for obesity by 50 percent. b. It promotes the development of metabolic syndrome. c. It is commonly found in people with a BMI less than 24. d. It enhances insulin sensitivity leading to periodic bouts of hypoglycemia. ANS: B MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 257-258, Section 8.4-Body Weight, Body Composition, and Health
81. Inflammation is characterized by an increase in which of the following factors? a. adipocytes b. leukocytes c. immune cells d. subcutaneous fat stores
ANS: C MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 258, Section 8.4-Body Weight, Body Composition, and Health
82. Which of the following statements illustrates the association between type 2 diabetes and body fat? a. People with the disease often have central obesity rather than lower-body obesity. b. A woman who has gained 5.5 kg since age 18 has doubled her risk of developing the disease. c. An obese person is 3 times more likely to develop the disease than is a nonobese individual. d. Overweight people with the disease who lose weight show no improvement in glucose tolerance and insulin resistance. ANS: D MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 258, Section 8.4-Body Weight, Body Composition, and Health
83. What is the resulting condition for a person who suffers from insulin resistance? a. type 1 diabetes b. type 2 diabetes c. metabolic syndrome d. pancreatic failure ANS: B MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 258, Section 8.4-Body Weight, Body Composition, and Health
84. The major cause of insulin resistance is related to which of these factors? a. low-protein diets b. high-protein diets c. excess body weight d. prolonged excess carbohydrate intake ANS: C MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 258, Section 8.4-Body Weight, Body Composition, and Health
85. Which of the following statements describes an association between body weight and mortality? a. Obesity is the fourth leading cause of premature death. b. Overweight men who are physically fit have a lower mortality risk than normal-weight, unfit men. c. Normal-weight men who are physically unfit have a similar mortality risk versus normalweight fit men. d. The amount of weight gain in adulthood that is not associated with increased mortality is 9 kg or less. ANS: B MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 258, Section 8.4-Body Weight, Body Composition, and Health
86. Which of the following statements may best explain the relationship between excess body fat and higher risk for cancers of the female reproductive system? a. Obese women are more sedentary, which promotes cancer development. b. The higher levels of body fat act as a reservoir of carcinogenic substances. c. Excess body fat produces more estrogen, which may promote tumour development.
d. The greater food consumption of obese women provides a higher intake of naturallyoccurring carcinogens. ANS: C MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 258, Section 8.4-Body Weight, Body Composition, and Health
87. Which of these terms is given to the condition of a female athlete who has an eating disorder and develops amenorrhea and osteoporosis? a. female athlete triad b. triathlete medical disorder c. high stress tertiary disorder d. non-adaptable training syndrome ANS: A MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 261, Section 8.5-Eating Disorders
88. Among people with binge-eating disorder, approximately what percentage are females? a. 5 percent b. 15 percent c. 25 percent d. 50 percent ANS: A MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 261, Section 8.5-Eating Disorders
89. What is the most prevalent eating disorder? a. bulimia nervosa b. anorexia nervosa c. binge-eating disorder d. athlete triad ANS: A MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 261, Section 8.5-Eating Disorders
90. What is an emetic? a. an appetite-suppressant b. an inhibitor of intestinal lipase c. a substance that induces vomiting d. an over-the-counter weight loss product ANS: C MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 261, 266, Section 8.5-Eating Disorders
91. What is a cathartic? a. a strong laxative b. a drug that induces vomiting c. a device to measure skinfold thickness d. a device to measure the amount of intra-abdominal fat ANS: A MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 261, 266, Section 8.5-Eating Disorders
92. Why is amenorrhea a concern for women? a. It induces prolonged bone loss. b. It is a risk factor for women with bulimia. c. It is a normal adaptation to strenuous physical training. d. It is precipitated by high serum estrogen concentrations. ANS: A MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 262, Section 8.5-Eating Disorders
93. Which of the following is a typical characteristic of amenorrhea? a. infertility b. increased body fat c. muscle dysmorphia d. high blood estrogen ANS: A MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 262, Section 8.5-Eating Disorders
94. John is a weightlifter who abuses steroids and eats a high protein diet. Although he is large and muscular, he continues to have a distorted body image of himself. From which of the following conditions does John suffer? a. acromegaly b. muscle dysmorphia c. anorexia nervosa d. bulimia musculara ANS: B MSC: Application
REF: p. 263, Section 8.5-Eating Disorders
95. Which of the following is critical to the diagnosis of anorexia nervosa? a. slight weight loss b. continuous binge eating c. distorted body image d. lack of control over eating ANS: C MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 263-264, Section 8.5-Eating Disorders
96. Which of the following is a characteristic of people with anorexia nervosa? a. In those who recover, energy intakes return to normal almost all of the time. b. Treatment with prescription drugs plays only a limited role. c. It has one of the lowest mortality rates among psychiatric disorders. d. Only 25 percent of men who are treated can maintain weight at a near healthy level. ANS: B MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 264-265, Section 8.5-Eating Disorders
97. Approximately what fraction of people treated for anorexia nervosa show reasonable maintenance of their weight gain? a. 1/4 b. 1/2
c. 4/5 d. 9/10 ANS: B MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 265, Section 8.5-Eating Disorders
98. A typical food chosen by a person with bulimia nervosa during a binge includes which of the following? a. bread b. cookies c. yogurt d. vegetables ANS: B MSC: Application
REF: p. 266, Section 8.5-Eating Disorders
99. Which of the following is the primary goal for the treatment of bulimia nervosa? a. immediate discontinuation of purging b. restriction of food intake to3 meals per day c. maintenance of weight d. suppression of sweet and high-fat food intake ANS: C MSC: Knowledge 100.
Diet recommendations for people with bulimia nervosa include which one of the following? a. Avoid skipping meals. b. Include foods that are low in fibre. c. Eat cold foods to stimulate satiety. d. Eat large amounts of finger foods. ANS: A MSC: Knowledge
101.
REF: p. 266, Section 8.5-Eating Disorders
REF: p. 266-267, Section 8.5-Eating Disorders
What is the primary factor that differentiates bulimia nervosa from binge eating? a. Purging is rarely practiced in binge-eating disorder. b. Higher rates of depression are reported in bulimia nervosa. c. More food is consumed at one setting in binge-eating disorders. d. Uncontrollable cravings for high-fat foods are seen only in bulimia nervosa. ANS: A MSC: Knowledge
MATCHING
a. b. c. d. e.
2 5 13 20 25
REF: p. 267-268, Section 8.5-Eating Disorders
f. 100 g. 7000 h. Fasting i. Satiety j. Hunger k. Caffeine l. Appetite m. External cue n. Stress eating o. Thermic effect p. Basal metabolism q. Direct calorimetry r. Indirect calorimetry s. Specific dynamic effect t. Adaptive thermogenesis 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10. 11. 12. 13. 14. 15. 16. 17. 18. 19. 20.
Approximate number of kcalories in 1 kg of body fat Technique used to measure the amount of heat given off when a food burns Technique used to measure the amount of oxygen consumed when a food burns Response to the smell of favourite food Irritating sensation that initiates thoughts of food A feeling of fullness after eating Eating in response to arousal Eating in response to the time of day Energy needed to maintain the body at rest A factor that lowers basal metabolism A factor that raises basal metabolism Approximate number of kcalories per minute expended by a person with a total daily energy need of 2900 kcalories Term that describes the energy needed to process food Changes in energy expenditure consequent to changes in environment The amount of energy in a 1000-kcalorie meal that is expended as specific dynamic activity Synonymous with the thermic effect of food Thermic effect of alcohol as percent The percentage decline in basal metabolism per decade of adult life Body mass index of an adult of 82 kg and 180 cm Lower range of body fat percentage in normal-weight men
1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9.
ANS: G ANS: Q ANS: R ANS: L ANS: J ANS: I ANS: N ANS: M ANS: P
REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF:
p. 241 p. 242 p. 242 p. 243 p. 243 p. 243 p. 243 p. 243 p. 246
10. ANS: 11. ANS: 12. ANS: 13. ANS: 14. ANS: 15. ANS: 16. ANS: 17. ANS: 18. ANS: 19. ANS: 20. ANS:
H K A O T F S D B E C
REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF:
p. 247 p. 247 p. 247 p. 248 p. 248 p. 248 p. 248 p. 248 p. 249 p. 252 p. 252
ESSAY 1. Discuss common methods for determining the energy content of foods and energy expenditure of individuals. ANS: Answers may vary. REF: p. 242, 245-249 2. Discuss factors that affect the sensations of hunger and appetite. ANS: Answers may vary. REF: p. 243 3. Discuss factors that can override hunger and satiety. ANS: Answers may vary. REF: p. 243-244 4. Explain the difference between satiety and satiation. Give examples of nutrients with a high or low satiating index. ANS: Answers may vary. REF: p. 243-245 5. Diagram the interrelationships associated with hunger, satiation, and satiety.
ANS: Answers may vary. REF: p. 244 6. How does consumption of fat, more so than protein and carbohydrate, induce satiation and satiety? ANS: Answers may vary. REF: p. 244-245 7. Compare measurement of the basal metabolism with the resting metabolism. ANS: Answers may vary. REF: p. 246 8. Define basal metabolic rate and discuss factors that increase and decrease it. ANS: Answers may vary. REF: p. 246-247 9. List the major components that contribute to the body’s daily expenditure of energy. Compare the relative contributions of each of these components in a sedentary person with their contributions in a marathon runner of the same body weight. ANS: Answers may vary. REF: p. 246-249 10. Explain the meaning and significance of A. the thermic effect of food. B. adaptive thermogenesis. ANS: Answers may vary. REF: p. 248 11. What factors may account for the decline in BMR with age?
ANS: Answers may vary. REF: p. 249 12. In the estimation of energy requirements, discuss the contributions of gender, growth rate, age, physical activity, and body composition. ANS: Answers may vary. REF: p. 249 13. List 6 tips that promote a person’s acceptance of a healthy body weight. ANS: Answers may vary. REF: p. 251 14. Present the BMI figures that denote underweight, healthy weight, overweight, and obese. ANS: Answers may vary. REF: p. 252 15. Discuss the importance of fat distribution in the body in relation to risk for degenerative diseases. ANS: Answers may vary. REF: p. 254 16. Under what conditions or circumstances would it be desirable for people to have less or more body fat than normal? ANS: Answers may vary. REF: p. 253-254 17. What factors should be considered in determining healthy body fat levels in people or population groups? ANS: Answers may vary.
REF: p. 254-255 18. Why do health care professionals prefer to use BMI and waist circumference in preference to other measures of body composition for assessment of health risk? ANS: Answers may vary. REF: p. 254-255 19. Explain the adverse effects of excess body fat deposited around the abdominal region. ANS: Answers may vary. REF: p. 254-256 20. What are some of the physiological consequences in a person who falls below a certain threshold for body fat? ANS: Answers may vary. REF: p. 256-257 21. Briefly explain the following techniques for the estimation of body composition: a) skinfold measures, b) hydrodensitometry, c) bioelectrical impedance, d) air displacement plethysmography, and e) dual energy X-ray absorptiometry. ANS: Answers may vary. REF: p. 256 22. List several health risks associated with being underweight and with being overweight. ANS: Answers may vary. REF: p. 256-258 23. What is the association between chronic inflammation and the metabolic syndrome?
ANS: Answers may vary. REF: p. 257-258 24. What are some possible explanations of the association between excess body fat and cancer? ANS: Answers may vary. REF: p. 258 25. List 4 risk factors for eating disorders in athletes. ANS: Answers may vary. REF: p. 261-262 26. Explain the role that society plays in promoting eating disorders. ANS: Answers may vary. REF: p. 261, 268 27. Explain the relationship between eating disorders and osteoporosis in female athletes. ANS: Answers may vary. REF: p. 262 28. List the characteristics of anorexia nervosa and bulimia nervosa. Describe the typical personality traits of individuals with these eating disorders. ANS: Answers may vary. REF: p. 263-267 29. Compare and contrast the characteristics of binge-eating disorder and bulimia nervosa. ANS: Answers may vary. REF: p. 265-268
30. Outline important diet strategies for helping overcome bulimia nervosa. ANS: Answers may vary. REF: p. 266-267 31. Discuss the general criteria for diagnosis and evaluation of unspecified eating disorders. ANS: Answers may vary. REF: p. 267 32. Discuss the criteria for diagnosis and evaluation of binge-eating disorder. ANS: Answers may vary. REF: p. 267 33. Discuss the characteristics of binge eating disorder. What is known about its treatment? ANS: Answers may vary. REF: p. 267-268
Chapter 9 – Weight Management: Overweight, Obesity, and Underweight MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. According to body mass index values, the percentage of the Canadian adult population that is considered overweight or obese is which of these? a. 30 percent b. 40 percent c. 50 percent d. 60 percent ANS: D
REF: p. 271, Section 9.1-Overweight and Obesity MSC: Knowledge
2. According to body mass index figures, what percentage of people aged 2–19 years are overweight or obese? a. 12 percent b. 26 percent c. 48 percent d. 68 percent ANS: B MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 271, Section 9.1-Overweight and Obesity
3. Which of these is the classification of a person who is 193 centimetres tall and 92 kg? a. underweight b. healthy weight c. overweight d. obese ANS: C
REF: p. 271, Section 9.1-Overweight and Obesity MSC: Application
4. Which of the following describes a trend of worldwide obesity? a. Nowadays, obesity is not seen in developing countries. b. Prevalence of obesity is at an epidemic level. c. The cutoff figure of the BMI for obesity varies from country to country. d. The obesity in other countries does not seem to increase risks for chronic diseases. ANS: B
REF: p. 272, Section 9.1-Overweight and Obesity MSC: Knowledge
5. Which of the following statements demonstrates the relationship between fat cell development and weight? a. The amount of fat in the body is substantially determined by the size of the fat cells. b. More and larger fat cells are found in obese people compared with healthy-weight persons. c. Fat cell number increases most readily during early adulthood, when energy expenditure declines. d. Fat cells may enlarge but not increase in number upon reaching the age of 50 in males and reaching menopause in women. ANS: B MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 272, Section 9.1-Overweight and Obesity
6. Which one of the following describes the behaviour of fat cells? a. The number decreases when fat is lost from the body. b. The size is smaller in obese people than in normal-weight people.
c. The storage capacity for fat depends on cell type. d. The number increases several-fold during the growth years and tapers off when adult status is reached. ANS: D MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 272, Section 9.1-Overweight and Obesity
7. Tom was overweight when he was 13. During puberty he continued to gain weight steadily until at age 23, when he decided to lose weight. Tom successfully lost 22.7 kg. Which of the following most likely happened to Tom’s fat cells? a. They shrank in size but did not decrease in number. b. They melted away when he burned all the excess fat. c. They decreased in number but did not decrease in size. d. They changed very little since fat cells shrink only with a weight loss greater than 45.5 kg ANS: A MSC: Application
REF: p. 272, Section 9.1-Overweight and Obesity
8. From which of the following areas of the body do women have the most difficulty in losing weight? a. breasts b. stomach c. legs d. hips ANS: D MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 272, Section 9.1-Overweight and Obesity
9. The most likely explanation for why women readily store fat around the hips whereas men readily store fat around the abdomen is gender differences in which of the following? a. blood insulin levels b. the activity of lipoprotein lipase c. circulating lipid transport proteins d. the activity of lipoprotein synthetase ANS: B MSC: Application
REF: p. 272, Section 9.1-Overweight and Obesity
10. Which of these is the rationale for the fat cell theory of obesity? a. Fat cell number increases dramatically after puberty. b. Fat cell number in an adult can decrease only by fasting. c. Fat cell number increases most readily in late childhood and early puberty. d. Weight gain from overeating in adults takes place primarily by increasing the number of fat cells. ANS: C MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 272-273, Section 9.1-Overweight and Obesity
11. Which of the following enzymes is known to promote fat storage in adipocytes? a. adipose tissue lipase b. lipoprotein lipase c. cellulite synthetase d. lipoprotein synthetase ANS: B MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 272-273, Section 9.1-Overweight and Obesity
12. Which of the following terms is used to describe fat cell death? a. apoptosis b. autophagy c. necrosis d. cell morphology ANS: A MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 272-273, Section 9.1-Overweight and Obesity
13. The concept which suggests that those individuals who use energy sparingly will store fat more readily, thus increasing his/her chances of weight gain, is known as which of the following? a. fat cell theory b. thrifty adipose theory c. thrifty gene theory d. set point theory ANS: C MSC: Application
REF: p. 272-273, Section 9.1-Overweight and Obesity
14. Obesity resulting from an increase in the size of fat cells is termed which of the following? a. hyperplastic obesity b. hypertrophic obesity c. idiopathic leptinemia d. anaplastic hypometabolism ANS: B MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 273, Section 9.1-Overweight and Obesity
15. Adverse effects on organs such as the liver from the presence of excess body fat is known as which of these? a. lipotoxicity b. hyperplastic lipase c. set point susceptibility d. hyper-responsive ghrelin ANS: A MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 273, Section 9.1-Overweight and Obesity
16. Hyperplastic obesity is related to which of the following changes? a. an increase in fat absorption b. a decrease in ketone formation c. an increase in the size of fat cells d. an increase in the number of fat cells ANS: D MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 273, Section 9.1-Overweight and Obesity
17. Obesity resulting from an increase in the number of fat cells is termed which of these? a. hyperplastic obesity b. hypertrophic obesity c. idiopathic leptinemia d. anaplastic hypometabolism ANS: A MSC:
REF: p. 273, Section 9.1-Overweight and Obesity Knowledge
18. Which of the following defines the body’s set point? a. minimum weight of a person b. maximum weight of a person c. point at which a person’s weight plateaus before dropping again quickly d. point above which the body tends to lose weight and below which it tends to gain weight ANS: D MSC:
REF: p. 273, Section 9.1-Overweight and Obesity Knowledge
19. Which of these is Prader-Willi syndrome? a. altered receptor activity for leptin b. a genetic disorder resulting in obesity c. fat accumulation in the liver of gastric bypass patients d. a failure to adapt to alternating periods of excess and inadequate energy intake ANS: B MSC:
REF: p. 274, Section 9.1-Overweight and Obesity Knowledge
20. Which of the following measures can have a dramatic impact on minimizing the genetic influence on BMI? a. childhood appetite control b. drug therapy c. increased sleep d. vigorous exercise ANS: D MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 274, Section 9.2-Causes of Overweight and Obesity
21. On which organ or tissue does leptin primarily act? a. pancreas b. intestines c. adipocytes d. hypothalamus ANS: D MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 274, Section 9.2-Causes of Overweight and Obesity
22. Which of the following is known to cause a reduction in fat cell number in mice? a. injection of leptin b. supplements of ghrelin c. long-term resistance exercise d. consumption of high-protein diets ANS: A MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 274-275, Section 9.2-Causes of Overweight and Obesity
23. Why is a leptin-deficient mouse much larger than its leptin-sufficient counterpart? a. Leptin deficiency causes lower levels of ghrelin. b. Leptin deficiency enhances appetite and decreases energy expenditure. c. Leptin deficiency causes psychological depression, which leads to increased food intake. d. Leptin deficiency reduces the desire to do physical activity, resulting in more excess energy available for fat storage. ANS: B MSC: Application
REF: p. 274-275, Section 9.2-Causes of Overweight and Obesity
24. Which of the following describes a relationship between leptin and energy balance? a. Fat cell sensitivity to leptin is higher in obese people. b. A deficiency of leptin is characteristic of all obese people. c. Blood levels of leptin usually correlate directly with body fat. d. Major functions of leptin include an increase in hunger and a decrease in metabolic rate. ANS: C MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 274-275, Section 9.2-Causes of Overweight and Obesity
25. From which of the following body parts is leptin secreted? a. stomach b. adipose tissue c. small intestine d. bone marrow ANS: B MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 274, 276, Section 9.2-Causes of Overweight and Obesity
26. Which of the following is a function of ghrelin? a. inhibits inflammation b. stimulates appetite and energy storage. c. stimulates growth of new blood cells d. protects against insulin resistance ANS: B MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 275, Section 9.2-Causes of Overweight and Obesity
27. Which of the following proteins protects against type 2 diabetes? a. PYY b. leptin c. ghrelin d. adiponectin ANS: D MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 275, Section 9.2-Causes of Overweight and Obesity
28. Which of these is the observed effect of sleep deprivation on leptin and ghrelin? a. Leptin and ghrelin both increase. b. Leptin and ghrelin both decrease. c. Leptin decreases while ghrelin increases. d. Leptin increases while ghrelin decreases. ANS: C MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 276, Section 9.2-Causes of Overweight and Obesity
29. Why is weight loss, in part, more successful with exercise and also after bypass surgery? a. Ghrelin levels are relatively low. b. Adiponectin levels are relatively high. c. PYY release from the hypothalamus is suppressed. d. Leptin release from subcutaneous fat stores is enhanced. ANS: A MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 276, Section 9.2-Causes of Overweight and Obesity
30. Which of the following proteins decreases after a meal? a. oxyntomodulin
b. pancreatic peptide c. PYY d. ghrelin ANS: D MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 276, Section 9.2-Causes of Overweight and Obesity
31. Which of the following hormones stimulates appetite? a. PYY b. leptin c. ghrelin d. cholecystokinin ANS: C MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 276, Section 9.2-Causes of Overweight and Obesity
32. Which of the following proteins mimics the glucose-lowering effects of insulin? a. PYY b. resistin c. leptin d. visfatin ANS: D MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 276, Section 9.2-Causes of Overweight and Obesity
33. Which of these serves as the body’s chief storage site for lipids? a. yellow fat b. brown adipose tissue c. white adipose tissue d. high-density lipoproteins ANS: C MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 276, Section 9.2-Causes of Overweight and Obesity
34. Which of the following is the significance of the uncoupling proteins in adipose tissue? a. increased loss of body heat b. reduction of fat cell number c. lowering of basal metabolism d. proliferation of fat cell number ANS: A MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 276-277, Section 9.2-Causes of Overweight and Obesity
35. What type of adipose tissue is most effective at helping someone to maintain warm body temperatures during the coldest parts of the year? a. black b. white c. brown d. yellow ANS: C MSC: Application
REF: p. 276-277, Section 9.2-Causes of Overweight and Obesity
36. In which of the following groups of individuals is brown fat especially important? a. newborns b. adolescents
c. middle-aged adults d. the elderly ANS: A MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 277, Section 9.2-Causes of Overweight and Obesity
37. What is the chief factor that determines a person’s susceptibility to obesity? a. heredity only b. environment only c. fat content only d. heredity and environment ANS: D MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 277, Section 9.2-Causes of Overweight and Obesity
38. Which of the following is the best evidence that environment must play a role in obesity? a. the rate of obesity has been rising while the gene pool has remained relatively constant b. the recognition that identical twins reared apart have body weights similar to their biological parents c. the development of precise body composition methodologies that define adipose storage sites based on gender d. the discovery of uncoupling proteins that explain the variations in energy metabolism among lean and overweight people ANS: A MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 277, Section 9.2-Causes of Overweight and Obesity
39. Suzanne is at a fast-food restaurant and she agrees to "supersize" her meal. Approximately how many more kcalories will Suzanne now consume? a. 400 b. 500 c. 600 d. 700 ANS: C MSC: Application
REF: p. 277, Section 9.2-Causes of Overweight and Obesity
40. Which of the following is lower in obese people compared to non-obese people? a. basal metabolic rate b. thermic effect of food c. physical activity level d. metabolic response to exercise ANS: C MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 277-278, Section 9.2-Causes of Overweight and Obesity
41. Which of the following statements illustrates the relationship between physical activity and energy balance? a. There is a strong genetic component to reduced physical activity of overweight people. b. Differences in the time obese and lean people spend lying, sitting, standing, and moving account for about 350 kcalories per day. c. Although watching television correlates with weight gain, playing video games does not, presumably due to the heightened excitement engendered by action games. d. Extraordinarily inactive people who lower their food intakes below that of their lean counterparts activate brown adipose tissue uncoupling proteins that stimulate hyperthermic
weight loss. ANS: B MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 278, Section 9.2-Causes of Overweight and Obesity
42. The term that describes the energy expenditure associated with everyday spontaneous activities is known as which of the following? a. physical inactivity b. sedentary thermogenesis c. nonexercise activity thermogenesis d. inactive caloric expenditure ANS: C MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 278, Section 9.2-Causes of Overweight and Obesity
43. To help prevent body fat gain, the DRI suggests daily, moderately intense, physical activities totalling how much time? a. 20 minutes b. 60 minutes c. 1½ hours d. 3 hours ANS: B MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 278, Section 9.2-Causes of Overweight and Obesity
44. At any given time, approximately what percentage of all Canadian adults are attempting to lose weight? a. 14 percent b. 25 percent c. 37 percent d. 44 percent ANS: D MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 279, Section 9.3-Problems of Overweight and Obesity
45. Aggressive treatment should be introduced in obese people if they have which of the following risk factors? a. hypertension only b. cigarette smoking only c. high LDL and low HDL d. impaired glucose tolerance only ANS: C MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 279, Section 9.2-Causes of Overweight and Obesity
46. The three indicators used by healthcare professionals to evaluate risks to health from obesity include disease risk profile, BMI, and which of the following? a. BMR b. waist-hip ratio c. physical inactivity levels d. waist circumference ANS: D MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 279, Section 9.2-Causes of Overweight and Obesity
47. What percentage of people in Canada who use non-prescription weight-loss products have a normal weight? a. 5 percent b. 10 percent c. 20 percent d. 35 percent ANS: B MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 280, Section 9.2-Causes of Overweight and Obesity
48. A popular eating plan that promises quick weight loss is known as which of the following? a. a fad diet b. a discretionary diet c. a spot reduction program d. an aggressive bariatric program ANS: A MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 280, Section 9.2-Causes of Overweight and Obesity
49. What is the principal reason that Health Canada has banned the sale of products containing ephedrine? a. The costs are prohibitive. b. The products were found to be ineffective for weight loss. c. The products were implicated in several cases of heart attacks and seizures. d. The products were found to contain contaminants that were believed to be responsible for inducing liver failure. ANS: C MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 281, Section 9.2-Causes of Overweight and Obesity
50. When consumed in high doses, which of the following compounds is associated with modest weight loss in people? a. chitosan b. pyruvate c. yohimbine d. conjugated linoleic acid ANS: B MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 281, Section 9.3-Problems of Overweight and Obesity
51. Which of the following weight-loss products has Health Canada placed a partial ban on its sale? a. ephedrine b. yohimbine c. chromium d. chitosan ANS: A MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 281, Section 9.3-Problems of Overweight and Obesity
52. What is the primary reason that laxatives are generally ineffective agents for losing weight? a. They have little, if any, effect on appetite. b. They have a low binding activity to dietary fat. c. They act on the large intestine rather than the small intestine. d. They often induce abdominal cramping and intestinal gas, thereby encouraging rejection and noncompliance.
ANS: C MSC: Application
REF: p. 282, Section 9.3-Problems of Overweight and Obesity
53. Over-the-counter products labelled as “dieter’s tea” are reported to lead to which of these symptoms? a. leptin resistance b. ketone poisoning c. cravings for protein d. nausea and diarrhea ANS: D MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 282, Section 9.3-Problems of Overweight and Obesity
54. Fraudulent weight reduction literature refers to visually apparent, lumpy forms of body fat as which of these terms? a. lipomas b. lipidosis c. cellulite d. hyperphagic deposits ANS: C MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 282, Section 9.3-Problems of Overweight and Obesity
55. Clinically severe obesity is also known as which of these terms? a. morbid obesity b. metabolic syndrome c. leptin-resistant obesity d. psychological-resistant syndrome ANS: A MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 282, Section 9.4-Aggressive Treatments for Obesity
56. Bariatrics is a field of medicine that specializes in the treatment of which of these states? a. obesity b. addiction to weight-loss drugs c. severe underweight d. anorexia and bulimia ANS: A MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 282, Section 9.4-Aggressive Treatments for Obesity
57. Which one of the following criterion would allow a patient to become a candidate for weight-loss surgery? a. BMI higher than 40 b. a medical condition such as seizures or a heart attack c. BMI higher than 30 d. drug therapy has been unsuccessful ANS: A MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 282-283, Section 9.4-Aggressive Treatments for Obesity
58. Which of the following neurotransmitters is released by the weight-loss drugs phentermine and diethyproprion? a. epinephrine b. dopamine
c. serotonin d. norepinephrine ANS: D MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 283, Section 9.4-Aggressive Treatments for Obesity
59. Mr. Sinclair has a BMI of 43 and is taking drugs to lose weight. He has heard that some drugs cause lots of gastrointestinal discomfort and he wants a drug with fewer side effects. Which of the following drugs should be prescribed for Mr. Sinclair? a. olestra b. orlistat c. serotonin d. phentermine ANS: D MSC: Application
REF: p. 283, Section 9.4-Aggressive Treatments for Obesity
60. How does orlistat function in the body to promote weight loss? a. orlistat reduces taste sensation. b. orlistat inhibits lipoprotein lipase. c. orlistat inhibits pancreatic lipase. d. orlistat alters circulating leptin concentrations. ANS: C MSC: Application
REF: p. 283, Section 9.4-Aggressive Treatments for Obesity
61. After gastric surgery, which of the following hormones is reduced, thus suppressing hunger? a. leptin b. adinopectin c. ghrelin d. PYY ANS: C MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 283, Section 9.4-Aggressive Treatments for Obesity
62. Which of the following is a characteristic of the results of weight-loss surgery? a. Hunger is only slightly suppressed. b. Deficiencies of carbohydrate and fibre are common in the long term. c. Dramatic improvements are seen in blood lipids, diabetes, and blood pressure. d. Medical supervision in the postsurgery period is required only for the first 6–9 months. ANS: C MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 283-284, Section 9.4-Aggressive Treatments for Obesity
63. Which of the following describes the research results regarding obese women in weight-loss programs? a. They were mostly satisfied with a 15 percent reduction in weight. b. They initially expected to lose unrealistic amounts of weight. c. They typically lost about 30 percent more weight than researchers predicted. d. They experienced fewer psychological benefits than expected after losing weight. ANS: B MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 284-285, Section 9.5-Weight-Loss Strategies
64. In a weight reduction regimen, the most realistic time frame for losing 10 percent of initial body weight is which of the following times?
a. b. c. d.
6 weeks 3 months 6 months 1 year
ANS: C MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 285, Section 9.5-Weight-Loss Strategies
65. Which of these is a safe rate of weight loss on a long-term basis for most overweight people? a. 0.5–1 kg/week b. 1.4 - 1.8 kg/week c. 5 percent body weight/month d. 10 percent body weight/month ANS: A MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 285, Section 9.5-Weight-Loss Strategies
66. Which one of the following is a sensible guideline for diet plans? a. Consume low-fat foods only. b. Eat rapidly to avoid prolonged contact with food. c. Adjust energy intake downward as weight loss progresses. d. Skip breakfast but eat a mid-morning snack. ANS: C MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 285-287, Section 9.5-Weight-Loss Strategies
67. As a general rule, which of the following is the minimum number of kcalories per day necessary to ensure nutritional adequacy in an eating plan for reducing body weight? a. 500 kcal b. 800 kcal c. 1200 kcal d. 1600 kcal ANS: C MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 286, Section 9.5-Weight-Loss Strategies
68. Which of the following approaches would be most effective at lowering energy intake in a person on a weight reduction program? a. Decrease portion size. b. Select less energy-dense foods. c. Restrict fibre intake as a means to reduce excess water retention. d. Consume a small high-fat snack before each meal to reduce appetite. ANS: B MSC: Application
REF: p. 287-288, Section 9.5-Weight-Loss Strategies
69. The feeling of satiety from weight-loss diets is best achieved by diets rich in which food components? a. fat b. short-chain fats c. simple carbohydrates d. complex carbohydrates ANS: D MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 287-289, Section 9.5-Weight-Loss Strategies
70. What is the best approach to weight loss?
a. b. c. d.
Avoid foods containing carbohydrates. Eliminate all fats from the diet and decrease water intake. Greatly increase protein intake to prevent body protein loss. Reduce daily energy intake and increase energy expenditure.
ANS: D MSC: Application
REF: p. 289-290, Section 9.5-Weight-Loss Strategies
71. An important aid in any weight-loss diet program is which of the following? a. decrease water intake b. increase physical activity c. speed up thyroid activity with metabolic enhancers d. develop ketosis by keeping carbohydrate intake as low as possible ANS: B MSC: Application
REF: p. 289-290, Section 9.5-Weight-Loss Strategies
72. Which of the following describes a connection between physical activity and energy expenditure? a. Walking a km uses about the same energy as running a km. b. Walking a km uses about half as much energy as running a km. c. Exercising the leg muscles is effective at burning away fat primarily around the thighs and hips. d. Exercising the abdominal muscles is effective at burning away fat primarily around the abdomen. ANS: A MSC: Application
REF: p. 290, Section 9.5-Weight-Loss Strategies
73. A typical person who burns 200 kcalories during a 3 km run would, in the post-exercise period, burn an additional a. 30 kcal b. 75 kcal c. 150 kcal d. 300 kcal ANS: A MSC: Application
REF: p. 290, Section 9.5-Weight-Loss Strategies
74. In order for weight loss to be effective, one's caloric expenditure should exceed one's energy intake by approximately how many kcalories? a. 500 kcal b. 550 kcal c. 600 kcal d. 650 kcal ANS: B MSC: Application
REF: p. 291, Section 9.5-Weight-Loss Strategies
75. What is the principal reason that appetite is turned off immediately after a person finishes an intense workout? a. The feeling of thirst overpowers the desire for food. b. The elevated blood lactate level antagonizes ghrelin. c. Glucose and fatty acids are still abundant in the blood. d. The senses of smell and taste are suppressed for at least 1 hour. ANS: C
REF: p. 291, Section 9.5-Weight-Loss Strategies
MSC: Application 76. A fact about the adaptive response to regular physical exercise includes which one of the following? a. Regular physical exercise increases appetite. b. Regular physical exercise stimulates digestive function in the post-exercise period. c. Regular physical exercise increases energy expenditure in the post-exercise period. d. Regular physical exercise triggers release of glucose from glycogen from the muscles. ANS: B MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 291-292, Section 9.5-Weight-Loss Strategies
77. What is the chief reason that health care professionals advise people to engage only in low-to-moderate intensity activities for prolonged duration rather than more intense, shorter routines? a. Cost is lower. b. Boredom is reduced. c. Compliance is better. d. Monitoring time is diminished. ANS: C MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 291-292, Section 9.5-Weight-Loss Strategies
78. How does "spot reducing" benefit one's body? a. It doesn't, because no exercise can target fat removal from any specific area of the body. b. Upper body fat is mostly unaffected by exercising lower body muscles. c. Lower body fat in women is depleted at a faster rate than abdominal fat. d. Abdominal fat in men is released more readily with anaerobic exercise. ANS: A MSC: Application
REF: p. 292, Section 9.5-Weight-Loss Strategies
79. Approximately how many kcalories are expended per kilogram body weight when walking 1.6 km at a moderate pace? a. 0.1 kcal b. 1 kcal c. 2.5 kcal d. 5 kcal ANS: B MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 292, Section 9.5-Weight-Loss Strategies
80. Approximately how many kcalories per week should be expended in physical activity in order to maintain a weight loss? a. 2000 kcal b. 4000 kcal c. 6000 kcal d. 9000 kcal ANS: A MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 292, Section 9.5-Weight-Loss Strategies
81. Jeff reads the entire newspaper while consuming his large breakfast by himself in his kitchen. Which one of the following environmental behaviours is influencing his actions? a. atmosphere b. accessibility
c. socializing d. distractions ANS: D MSC: Application
REF: p. 293, Section 9.5-Weight-Loss Strategies
82. Which one of the following represents a common environmental influence on eating behaviours? a. Eating while performing hard physical work. b. Socializing with strangers during a meal often leads to reduced food intake. c. Having to walk to the grocery store to purchase food before preparing it. d. Being in a pleasant atmosphere often lengthens the time of the meal but not the amount of food eaten. ANS: B MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 293-294, Section 9.5-Weight-Loss Strategies
83. To help maximize the long-term success of a person’s weight-loss program, which of the following personal attitudes should be encouraged in the individual? a. strongly believing that weight can be lost b. viewing the body realistically as being fat rather than thin c. refraining from expressing overconfidence in ability to lose weight d. accepting that little or no exercise is a part of the lifestyle of most overweight people ANS: A MSC: Application
REF: p. 293-294, Section 9.5-Weight-Loss Strategies
84. Which of the following is a positive feature of the effect of food accessibility on food intake? a. Keeping healthy food within view is an effective way to eat less. b. People underestimate the amount of a snack eaten when it is a short distance away. c. People eat more of a snack when it is on their desk than when situated only 6 feet away. d. People at home would rather travel to the store to obtain new food than eat the leftovers. ANS: D MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 293-294, Section 9.5-Weight-Loss Strategies
85. Which of the following is an association between the environment and food intake? a. Distractions generally appear to reduce food intake. b. The fewer the number of foods at a meal, the more likely people will overeat. c. The mere sight or smell of food prompts people to commence eating even if they are not hungry. d. Small portions of food on small plates lead people to underestimate the amount of food eaten. ANS: C MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 293-294, Section 9.5-Weight-Loss Strategies
86. Which of the following is an example of a behaviour modification technique for weight control? a. feeling guilty after you overeat b. keeping a record of your eating habits c. always cleaning your plate when you eat d. having someone watch you to prevent overeating ANS: B MSC: Application
REF: p. 294, Section 9.5-Weight-Loss Strategies
87. Which of the following percentages is described as successful weight-loss maintenance?
a. b. c. d.
5 percent 10 percent 15 percent 20 percent
ANS: C MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 295, Section 9.5-Weight-Loss Strategies
88. To qualify for successful weight-loss maintenance, a 200-pound person who intentionally lost 20 lbs must hold the loss for at least which of the following durations? a. 3 months b. 6 months c. 1 year d. 2 years ANS: C MSC: Application
REF: p. 295, Section 9.5-Weight-Loss Strategies
89. Approximately what percentage of overweight people who intentionally lose weight are able to maintain the weight loss for at least 1 year? a. 25 percent b. 50 percent c. 75 percent d. 90 percent ANS: B MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 296, Section 9.5-Weight-Loss Strategies
90. Because obesity apparently has many causes, even in an individual, the best approach seems to be which of the following? a. fasting b. medicines c. prevention d. genetic counselling ANS: C MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 296, Section 9.5-Weight-Loss Strategies
91. Approximately what percentage of Canadian adults are classified as underweight? a. 2 percent b. 5 percent c. 10 percent d. 12 percent ANS: A
REF: p. 297, Section 9.6-Underweight
MSC: Knowledge
92. The classification of underweight is defined when the BMI first drops below which of the following values? a. 14 b. 18.5 c. 20 d. 22.5 ANS: B
REF: p. 297, Section 9.6-Underweight
MSC: Knowledge
93. Among the following, which is the most important strategy for an underweight person who wishes to achieve a healthy body weight? a. a high-kcalorie diet plus regular exercise b. a high-kcalorie diet and minimal exercise c. a high-protein diet plus regular exercise d. total elimination of alcohol and exercise ANS: A
REF: p. 297, Section 9.6-Underweight
MSC: Application
94. Of the following, which one is among the recommended strategies for weight gain in an underweight person? a. behaviour modification training b. increased physical activity, especially endurance training c. forced awakening during the night for supplemental meals and snacks d. consumption of regular meals and snacks that provide high-kcalorie foods in small volumes ANS: A
REF: p. 297-298, Section 9.6-Underweight
MSC: Application
95. Which of the following foods would be an excellent energy-dense food for an individual who is hoping to gain weight? a. cucumber instead of avocado b. cod instead of salmon c. milkshakes instead of skim milk d. salad with vinaigrette instead of mayonnaise ANS: C
REF: p. 298, Section 9.6-Underweight
MSC: Application
96. When exercising to build muscle, how many additional kcalories above one's normal intake are required to support the exercise and the building of the muscle? a. 100 - 500 kcals b. 250 - 650 kcals c. 500 - 1000 kcals d. 750 - 1250 kcals ANS: C
REF: p. 299, Section 9.6-Underweight
MSC: Application
97. Fad diets often produce weight loss, at least initially, for which of these reasons? a. They dictate the correct distribution of energy among the macronutrients. b. They prevent rapid spikes and declines in one’s blood glucose level. c. They don’t require people to count kcalories, and are thus easier to stick to. d. They are designed to limit energy intake to around 1200 kcal/day. ANS: D MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 305, Section 9.7-The Latest and Greatest Weight-Loss Diet—Again
98. Jody is taking a nutrition class, and has been assigned to evaluate a popular diet plan. She finds a description of a plan for her assignment in a magazine at the grocery store. Which of the following statements in the magazine would suggest that this plan is an unsound, fad diet? a. “Keep fresh fruit or carrot sticks in the fridge at work so you won’t be tempted to raid the vending machine for a snack.” b. “Once you complete this 6-month plan, you’ll never have to diet again.” c. “Starting an aerobic exercise plan may seem daunting, but you can start out with shorter, easier sessions and then build up to 3 or more hours a week.” d. “On this plan, you can lose up to 5 kgs per week!”
ANS: B REF: p. 305-307, Section 9.7-The Latest and Greatest Weight-Loss Diet—Again MSC: Knowledge MATCHING
a. 1 b. 2 c. 10 d. 40 e. 60 f. 66 g. Leptin h. Orlistat i. Ghrelin j. Cellulite k. Set point l. White fat m. Adiponectin n. Brown fat o. Ephedrine p. Liposuction q. Phentermine r. Lipoprotein lipase s. Hypertrophic obesity t. Hyperplastic obesity 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10. 11. 12. 13. 14. 15. 16. 17. 18. 19. 20.
Percentage of Canadian adults considered overweight An enzyme that promotes fat storage A term that describes an increase in fat cell number in obesity A theory that the body tends to maintain a certain weight by internal controls A term that describes an increase in fat cell size in obesity Hormone that suppresses appetite Hormone that stimulates appetite Adipose tissue substance that inhibits inflammation Type of adipose that primarily stores fat Type of adipose that primarily produces heat Percentage of non-prescription weight-loss product users in Canada who are at a normal weight Substance in some herbs that may cause heart attacks and seizures A fraudulent term to describe lumpy fat Minimum BMI of a clinically severe obese person A drug that releases norepinephrine Inhibitor of pancreatic lipase A cosmetic surgical procedure Safe rate of weight loss, in kgs per week Percentage of Canadian adults classified as underweight Recommended minimum number of minutes per day of moderately intense physical activity to prevent weight gain
1. ANS: F
REF: p. 271
2. ANS: R 3. ANS: T 4. ANS: K 5. ANS: S 6. ANS: G 7. ANS: I 8. ANS: M 9. ANS: L 10. ANS: N 11. ANS: C 12. ANS: O 13. ANS: J 14. ANS: D 15. ANS: Q 16. ANS: H 17. ANS: P 18. ANS: A 19. ANS: B 20. ANS: E
REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF:
p. 272 p. 273 p. 273 p. 273 p. 274 p. 275 p. 275 p. 276 p. 276 p. 280 p. 281 p. 282 p. 282 p. 283 p. 283 p. 284 p. 285 p. 298 p. 289
ESSAY 1. Explain the set point theory of weight change. ANS: Answers may vary. REF: p. 273 2. Discuss differences in fat cell metabolism between males and females. ANS: Answers may vary. REF: p. 272-273 3. Explain the role of lipoprotein lipase enzyme in fat cell metabolism. ANS: Answers may vary. REF: p. 272-273 4. List the major factors involved in obesity. Which ones can be controlled by dietary changes or behaviour modification? ANS: Answers may vary. REF: p. 273-278
5. Discuss the role of genetics in promoting excess weight gain and in discouraging weight loss. ANS: Answers may vary. REF: p. 274 6. Discuss the roles of leptin, ghrelin, adiponectin, and PYY in the regulation of food intake and energy storage. ANS: Answers may vary. REF: p. 274-276 7. Discuss the interactive roles of leptin, ghrelin, and PYY in food intake control. ANS: Answers may vary. REF: p. 274-276 8. Explain the significance and models of action of uncoupling reactions in energy metabolism. ANS: Answers may vary. REF: p. 276-277 9. Explain the association between ghrelin secretion and sleep. ANS: Answers may vary. REF: p. 276-277 10. Contrast the metabolic roles of white adipose tissue and brown adipose tissue. ANS: Answers may vary. REF: p. 276-277 11. In understanding food habits in obese people, what is the importance of the energy-balance equation over time? ANS: Answers may vary. REF: p. 277 12. Discuss the relationship between genetic and environmental factors to obesity and weight control. ANS:
Answers may vary. REF: p. 277 13. Explain the factors involved in the promotion of obesity by high-fat diets and food portion sizes. ANS: Answers may vary. REF: p. 277-278 14. Discuss the role of the restaurant industry in promoting excess food consumption. ANS: Answers may vary. REF: p. 277-278 15. Discuss the various factors related to the role of insufficient physical activity in energy balance. ANS: Answers may vary. REF: p. 278 16. Discuss the recommendations for losing weight in population groups who are either overweight in good health, obese or overweight with risk factors, or obese or overweight with a life-threatening condition. ANS: Answers may vary. REF: p. 279 17. Describe psychological problems encountered by obese people in their attempts to lose weight. ANS: Answers may vary. REF: p. 279-280 18. Outline the cycle of behaviour associated with the psychology of weight cycling in relation to the high failure rate of weight-loss programs. ANS: Answers may vary. REF: p. 279-280 19. List several health risks associated with being underweight and with being overweight. ANS: Answers may vary.
REF: p. 279-280, 297-298 20. What types of information might be found in a weight-loss consumer “bill of rights”? ANS: Answers may vary. REF: p. 280 21. Explain the attraction of unsound weight-loss procedures and plans to obese people. ANS: Answers may vary. REF: p. 280-282 22. Discuss the use of herbal products for weight loss. ANS: Answers may vary. REF: p. 280-282 23. List several factors that help identify inappropriate, unsound, and possibly dangerous commercial weight-loss programs. ANS: Answers may vary. REF: p. 280-282 24. Discuss the use of prescription drugs for the treatment of obesity, including modes of action and adverse side effects. ANS: Answers may vary. REF: p. 282-283 25. Describe the approaches for weight loss by surgery. What are the benefits and what are the adverse side effects of these procedures? ANS: Answers may vary. REF: p. 283-284 26. Describe a good weight-reduction diet in relation to energy content, meal size, carbohydrate and fat levels, and water intake. ANS: Answers may vary. REF: p. 284-289
27. Outline the recommendations for a successful weight-loss diet. ANS: Answers may vary. REF: p. 284-289 28. What are the findings from studies of people on weight-loss diets who skip meals? ANS: Answers may vary. REF: p. 285-286 29. Discuss ways in which an increase in the water content of the diet plays an important role in body weight management. ANS: Answers may vary. REF: p. 287 30. Explain the role of fibre in assisting weight loss. ANS: Answers may vary. REF: p. 287-288 31. What are the results of research studies concerning the importance of low-fat diets in weight-reduction regimes? ANS: Answers may vary. REF: p. 288-289, 287 32. Discuss the importance of carbohydrate selection and of sugar alternatives in a weight-loss program. ANS: Answers may vary. REF: p. 288-289 33. Explain the changes in metabolism consequent to a decrease in energy intake. How are these changes modified by regular physical exercise? ANS: Answers may vary. REF: p. 289-292 34. Describe the benefits of regular physical activity as an aid to weight-loss dieting.
ANS: Answers may vary. REF: p. 289-292 35. Explain the relationship of physical activity and appetite control. ANS: Answers may vary. REF: p. 291-292 36. Explain what is meant by “spot reducing” and discuss its effectiveness in altering body fat content. ANS: Answers may vary. REF: p. 292 37. Discuss the role of environmental influences on food intake. ANS: Answers may vary. REF: p. 292-294 38. Describe the effects of socializing during meal times on quantity of food consumed. ANS: Answers may vary. REF: p. 293 39. Provide an explanation for the higher food consumption of people who eat in the presence of others. ANS: Answers may vary. REF: p. 293 40. How do package sizes and serving containers influence food intake? ANS: Answers may vary. REF: p. 293 41. Explain the role of behaviour modification in weight-reduction programs. ANS: Answers may vary. REF: p. 294-295
42. Discuss public health strategies designed to help people reduce body weight and prevent a regain. ANS: Answers may vary. REF: p. 296-297 43. List circumstances under which some people would benefit from having more body fat. ANS: Answers may vary. REF: p. 298 44. Present a sound diet plan for weight gain in the underweight person. ANS: Answers may vary. REF: p. 298-299 45. Provide an appropriate response to each of these 2 comments: “This new diet discovery can alter your genetic code for energy metabolism” and “High-protein diets are brain food.” ANS: Answers may vary. REF: p. 304-306 46. Why do the proponents of fad diets shy away from counting calories with a weight-loss program? ANS: Answers may vary. REF: p. 305 47. Compare and contrast the theory, applicability, and success of the Atkins diet with that of the Ornish diet. ANS: Answers may vary. REF: p. 306-307 48. List 5 guidelines each for identifying a fad diet and a healthy diet. ANS: Answers may vary. REF: p. 307
Chapter 10. The Water-Soluble Vitamins: B Vitamins and Vitamin C.8 – Energy Balance and Body Composition
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. Which of the following is a general feature of a vitamin? 2. It is inorganic 3. It may contain nitrogen 4. It may be required in large amounts 5. It may support growth but not maintenance
2. Which of the following is a feature of vitamins? 3. Many serve in the role of enzyme inhibitors 4. Structurally, many are found linked together 5. Several may be oxidized to yield 4 kcalories per gram 6. The quantities present in foods are measured in micrograms or milligrams
3. What is a precursor? 4. A conditionally essential vitamin 5. A sign or symptom of a vitamin deficiency disorder 6. A substance that is used to synthesize another compound 7. A substance that is recycled through the liver and intestines
4. What is meant by the bioavailability of a vitamin in food? 5. The total amount available from plant and animal food 6. The amount absorbed and subsequently used by the body 7. The amount that escapes destruction from food processing 8. The number of different chemical forms of the same vitamin
5. Which of the following is NOT among the general characteristics of the water-soluble vitamins? 6. They must be consumed daily 7. Toxic levels in the body are rarely found 8. They are absorbed directly into the blood 9. Excesses are eliminated by the kidneys
6. Which of the following is NOT among the general characteristics of the fatsoluble vitamins? 7. Excesses are eliminated by the kidneys 8. Absorption is via the lymphatic circulation 9. Several of them require protein carriers for transport 10. They can be stored in relatively large amounts in certain body tissues
7. Cooking a food in liberal amounts of water is least likely to affect its content of 8. folate. 9. thiamin. 10. vitamin A. 11. riboflavin.
8. Which of the following vitamins would be removed in the production of skim milk? 9. Thiamin 10. Vitamin A 11. Riboflavin 12. Vitamin B12
9. What is the primary excretory route for the water-soluble vitamins? 10.Bile 11.Kidney 12.Intestine 13.Perspiration
10.When thiamin is consumed in excess of needs, how does the body treat the excess? 11. Not absorbed 12. Excreted primarily in the urine 13. Excreted primarily in the feces 14. Stored in liver, bone, and adipose tissue
11. What is a chief function of the B vitamins? 12. Antioxidation 13. Anticoagulation 14. Antibody stabilization 15. Coenzyme participation
12.Which of the following explains why B vitamin deficiencies lead to lack of energy? 13. B vitamins are a source of kilocalories 14. Absorption of carbohydrates and fats is decreased 15. Oxygen for energy metabolism cannot be transported to the cells 16.Coenzymes needed for energy metabolism are produced in insufficient amounts
13. Which of the following describes the basic function of a coenzyme? 14. Attaches to RNA to assist in the synthesis of an enzyme 15. Attaches to cell membranes to assist in uptake of an enzyme 16. Attaches to an enzyme and allows a chemical reaction to take place 17.Attaches to an enzyme, which allows for transport of the enzyme through the circulation
14. Which of the following functions has a requirement for thiamin? 15. Blood coagulation 16. Formation of red blood cells
17. Energy release from energy-yielding nutrients 18. Formation of epithelial cell mucopolysaccharides
15.What is the primary chemical reaction in which thiamin participates as a coenzyme? 16. Transfers amine groups in the synthesis of amino acids 17. Transfers hydrogen atoms in the synthesis of erythrocytes 18.Assists in addition of methyl groups to compounds involved in energy metabolism 19.Assists in removal of one-carbon units from compounds involved in energy metabolism
16. Which of the following is the coenzyme form of thiamin? 17. Thiaminacide 18. Thiamin pyrophosphate 19. Thiamin adenine dinucleotide 20. Thiamin flavin mononucleotide
17. Beriberi results from a deficiency of 18. niacin. 19. thiamin. 20. vitamin C. 21. vitamin B12.
18. Which of the following diets is most likely to lead to beriberi? 19. High intakes of white rice 20. Low intakes of whole grains 21. High intakes of unrefined rice 22. Low intakes of enriched grains
19. The Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome may be treated with supplements of
20. folacin. 21. thiamin. 22. vitamin C. 23. vitamin B12.
20. Which of the following is a characteristic of thiamin nutrition? 21. The coenzyme contains pyrosulfate 22. It is required for regeneration of folate 23. It is required for regeneration of niacin 24. It is an integral part of the nerve cell membrane
21. Approximately what percentage of alcoholics exhibit thiamin deficiency?
22. 20 23. 40 24. 60 25. 80
22. All of the following are characteristic of thiamin nutrition EXCEPT 23. severe deficiency may lead to edema. 24. severe deficiency may occur without edema. 25. recommended intakes are stated in “equivalents.” 26. recommended intakes are based primarily on participation in enzyme activity.
23. Which of the following provides the most thiamin per serving size? 24. Ham 25. Squash 26. Whole milk 27. Whole-grain breads
24. Which of the following is a property of thiamin nutrition?
25. Participates in activation of prothrombin 26. Poor sources include seafood and cheeses 27. Significant amounts are found in leafy vegetables 28. Deficiency results in cheilosis and marked dermatitis
25. How does the method of cooking affect thiamin stability? 26. Microwaving the food conserves much of the thiamin 27. Prolonged heating of the food has little, if any, effect on the thiamin 28.Boiling the food tends to conserve thiamin by forming a stable, hydrated complex 29.Steaming the food can lead to substantial thiamin loss due to the high heat needed to form the steam
26.Which of the following contains the highest concentration of thiamin in muscle tissue? 27. Pig 28. Fish 29. Steer 30. Chicken
27. Of the following, which is the richest food source of thiamin? 28. Lettuce 29. Soy milk 30. Cow milk 31. Refined rice
28. Riboflavin in its coenzyme form functions in the transfer of 29. methyl groups. 30. 1-carbon units. 31. 2-carbon units. 32. hydrogen atoms.
29.Which of the following vitamins is involved substantially in energy transformation reactions? 30. Biotin 31. Cobalamin 32. Riboflavin 33. Pyridoxine
30. Which of the following is indicative of a dietary deficiency of riboflavin? 31. Beriberi 32. Diarrhea 33. Keratomalacia 34. Inflamed mouth membranes
31.Which of the following food groups ordinarily contains the highest amount of riboflavin when expressed per kcalorie? 32. Dairy 33. Meats 34. Fruits 35. Vegetables
32. What is ariboflavonosis? 33. The vitamin B2 deficiency disease 34. Food sources devoid of vitamin B2 35. Ultraviolet destruction of vitamin B2 36. Excessive heat destruction of vitamin B2
33. The signs and symptoms of riboflavin deficiency are known collectively as 34. pellagra. 35. antiflavonosis. 36. ariboflavinosis. 37. flavin adenine dinucleosis.
34. Riboflavin needs are more difficult to meet when the diet is low in 35. meats. 36. grains. 37. vegetables. 38. dairy foods.
35. Riboflavin is most easily destroyed when exposed to 36. heat. 37. acid. 38. alkali. 39. ultraviolet light.
36. What type of container is best for protecting the riboflavin content of milk?
37. Airtight 38. Cardboard 39. Transparent glass 40. Translucent plastic
37. The coenzyme FAD is formed from what vitamin? 38. Niacin 39. Choline 40. Thiamin 41. Riboflavin
38.Of the following commonly eaten foods, which makes the greatest contribution to riboflavin intake? 39. Milk 40. Potatoes 41. Orange juice 42. Peanut butter
39.Milk and milk products provide liberal amounts of which of the following vitamins? 40. Folate 41. Biotin 42. Riboflavin 43. Pantothenic acid
40.A deficiency of what vitamin produces a characteristic cracking and redness at the corners of the mouth? 41. Biotin 42. Niacin 43. Riboflavin 44. Ascorbic acid
41. Which of the following is a property of riboflavin in nutrition? 42. Stability to heat is good 43. Deficiency leads to beriberi 44. Requirements are proportional to body weight 45. Significant amounts are found in citrus products
42. Which of the following is a property of niacin in nutrition? 43. It is susceptible to destruction in foods exposed to light 44. It participates primarily in reactions involving amino acids 45. It is soluble in both water and lipids depending upon its chemical form 46. It can be synthesized in the body from the essential amino acid tryptophan
43.Which of the following properties is shared by niacin and riboflavin coenzymes? 44. Unstable to irradiation 45. Unstable to metal cooking utensils 46. Acceptance and transfer of hydrogen atoms 47. Acceptance and transfer of carboxyl groups
44.When the diet contains an adequate amount of protein, what amino acid can be used by the body to synthesize niacin? 45. Lysine 46. Valine 47. Tryptophan 48. Phenylalanine
45. Which of the following nutrients functions to prevent the appearance of a bilateral, symmetrical dermatitis, primarily on areas exposed to the sun?
46. Niacin 47. Choline 48. Inositol 49. Riboflavin
46. The vitamin deficiency disease pellagra means 47. “rough skin.” 48. “paralyzed limbs.” 49. “demented behavior.” 50. “flattened erythrocytes.”
47.A low-protein diet in which corn is a principal food has been found to cause a deficiency of what vitamin? 48. Niacin 49. Thiamin 50. Vitamin C 51. Vitamin B12
48.What vitamin deficiency disease appeared in people who had subsisted on a diet high in corn and low in protein? 49. Scurvy 50. Pellagra
51. Wet beriberi 52. Pernicious anemia
49. Which of the following is NOT among the common signs of pellagra? 50. Diarrhea 51. Dementia 52. Dermatitis 53. Desiccation
50.A general niacin deficiency is known to be manifested in abnormalities of all of the following organs/systems EXCEPT 51. skin. 52. skeletal system. 53. nervous system. 54. gastrointestinal tract.
51. Tryptophan can be used in the body to synthesize 52. FAD. 53. biotin. 54. niacin. 55. inositol.
52.While researching your southern family history, you find that your grandmother had a sister who died fairly young. The symptoms leading up to her death included diarrhea, dermatitis, and dementia. Because the family led a poor, corn-farming existence, you suspect this relative died of 53. scurvy. 54. cancer. 55. pellagra. 56. beriberi.
53.Which of the following substances is found in corn and contributes to the development of pellagra? 54. Avidin 55. Leucine 56. Phytates 57. Phenylalanine
54. What term identifies the characteristic tingling sensations and reddening of the skin after ingesting a pharmacologic dose of nicotinic acid? 55. Niacin flush 56. NAD dermatitis 57. Niacin erythrema 58. Bilateral symmetrical dermatitis
55.Which of the following overt side effect(s) is likely to appear after a person ingests a high quantity of nicotinic acid? 56. Constipation 57. Mental confusion 58. Painful, tingling, itching sensation 59. Hair loss, bloating, and photophobia
56.When taken in large doses, which of the following vitamins is associated with liver injury? 57. Niacin 58. Thiamin 59. Vitamin B6 60. Vitamin B12
57.Large doses of nicotinic acid are known to result in all of the following EXCEPT 58. dilation of capillaries. 59. increased HDL cholesterol. 60. lowering of LDL cholesterol.
61. disappearance of learning disorders in children.
58. Which of the following is a feature of niacin nutrition? 59. Low doses may lead to kidney stones 60. High doses may lower blood cholesterol 61. Low doses may lead to heartburn and low blood pressure 62. High doses may elevate red blood cell count in mildly anemic individuals
59.Your friend Jane just returned from the doctor, who diagnosed her with a specific vitamin B toxicity. However, she doesn’t recall the name of the vitamin. Which of the following is the only possible culprit associated with toxicity symptoms? 60. Niacin 61. Biotin 62. Riboflavin 63. Vitamin B12
60. What is the approximate niacin RDA for adults? 61. 15 mg niacin equivalents 62. 30 mg niacin equivalents 63. 15 mg tryptophan equivalents 64. 30 mg tryptophan equivalents
61. Among the following, which would be the best source of niacin equivalents? 62. Milk 63. Broccoli 64. Chicken 65. Strawberries
62. Which of the following is a characteristic of niacin nutrition? 63. In foods, it is more unstable than thiamin and riboflavin
64. The average intake is slightly lower than the RDA in the United States 65.The amount in a serving of whole-wheat bread is about twice that in a serving of peanut butter 66.About half of the daily need for most people could be met by the tryptophan found in protein foods
63. Which of the following is a feature of pantothenic acid in nutrition? 64. Absorption from foods is inhibited by aspirin 65. A deficiency or a toxicity shows similar symptoms 66. Deficiencies are seen primarily in children ages 4-10 years 67. It functions in the metabolism of amino acids, glucose, and fatty acids
64.Your brother Bob is a competitive body builder. His trainer suggested that he consume 4 egg white omelets per day. Bob remembers a warning about a possible vitamin deficiency from consuming too many egg whites and asks if he should follow the prescribed diet. Your reply to Bob is that he should NOT 65. be concerned as long as he consumes both the yolk and whites of the eggs. 66.follow the diet, since the avidin in the egg whites could bind to niacin and prevent its absorption. 67.follow the diet, since the avidin in the egg whites could bind to biotin and prevent its absorption. 68.be concerned, because, when the eggs are cooked, the avidin protein is denatured, and thus does not pose a problem for deficiency disease.
65.Which of the following is NOT among the general features of biotin in nutrition? 66. It functions in the breakdown of amino acids and fatty acids 67. It functions as a carrier of carbon dioxide in energy metabolism 68. A deficiency can be induced by ingesting large quantities of raw egg whites 69.A deficiency can be induced by ingesting large amounts of thiamin and folic acid, which interfere with its absorption
66. Among the following compounds that serve as coenzymes in metabolism, which is considered a vitamin for human beings? 67. Biotin 68. Inositol 69. Lipoic acid 70. Orotic acid
67.Which of the following foods contains a protein that decreases bioavailability of biotin? 68. Aged wine 69. Aged cheese 70. Raw egg whites 71. Raw cauliflower
68.Which of the following vitamins is synthesized in significant amounts by intestinal bacteria? 69. Folate 70. Biotin 71. Cyanocobalamin 72. Pantothenic acid
69. Biotin can be synthesized by 70. avidin. 71. the skin. 72. the liver. 73. intestinal bacteria.
70. What is the adult Adequate Intake for biotin? 71. 3 µg/day 72. 30 µg/day 73. 3 mg/day 74. 30 mg/day
71. What vitamin forms a part of coenzyme A? 72. Biotin 73. Folate 74. Riboflavin 75. Pantothenic acid
72. What is the AI for pantothenic acid for adults? 73. 1 mg/day 74. 3 mg/day 75. 5 mg/day 76. 8 mg/day
73.Which of the following vitamins is known to sustain substantial losses during processing of food? 74. Biotin 75. Niacin 76. Vitamin B12
77. Pantothenic acid
74. Which of the following is NOT a form of vitamin B6? 75. Pyridoxal 76. Pyridoxine 77. Pyrimidine 78. Pyridoxamine
75. Which of the following vitamins is stored primarily in muscle tissue? 76. Biotin 77. Folate 78. Vitamin B6
79. Pantothenic acid
76. The chief symptoms of early vitamin B6 deficiency include 77. confusion and depression. 78. muscle cramps and stiffness. 79. profound fatigue and anemia. 80. hyperactivity and shortness of breath.
77. What vitamin is involved intensively in amino acid metabolism? 78. Biotin 79. Vitamin A 80. Vitamin B6
81. Riboflavin
78. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of vitamin B6 in nutrition?
79. It is stored in muscle tissue 80. It is required in amounts proportional to energy expenditure 81. It can lead to irreversible nerve damage when taken in large doses 82. It functions, in part, in the synthesis of glycine and glutamic acid
79. All of the following are features of vitamin B6 metabolism EXCEPT 80. a deficiency or toxicity leads to depression. 81. its destruction and excretion are promoted by alcohol intake. 82. it functions primarily as the coenzyme pyridoxal phosphate. 83.it enhances physical performance when supplied at a level of l mg/g of dietary protein.
80. What is the Tolerable Upper Intake Level for vitamin B6? 81. 100 mg/day 82. 500 mg/day 83. 1000 mg/day 84. 10,000 mg/day
81. A common drug for the treatment of tuberculosis is known to markedly interfere in the metabolism of vitamin 82. B6. 83. B12.
84. C. 85. D.
82.Irreversible nerve damage has been reported in people taking large doses of vitamin 83. B1. 84. B2. 85. B6. 86. B12.
83.Which of the following statements reflects our knowledge of watersoluble vitamin toxicity? 84. Toxicity symptoms for vitamin B6 can be severe and irreversible
85. Toxicity symptoms for vitamin C include constipation and hyperactivity 86.Toxicities of the B vitamins occur almost as often from foods as from supplements 87.Toxicity of niacin has been reported in body builders taking large amounts of amino acid supplements
84. In what major way does alcohol intake affect vitamin B6 metabolism? 85. It reduces acetaldehyde formation 86. It increases fecal excretion of the vitamin 87. It dislodges the PLP coenzyme from its enzyme 88. It interferes with synthesis of the PLP coenzyme
85. What is the adult RDA for vitamin B6? 86. 1.3 mg/day
87. 5.5 mg/day 88. 15 mg/day 89. 22 mg/day
86.On a per-kcalorie basis, which of the following foods is richest in vitamin B6? 87. Meats 88. Fruits 89. Legumes 90. Grains
87. Which of the following is an essential dietary nutrient for human beings? 88. Folate 89. Inositol 90. Methoxatin 91. Lipoic acid
88. Pteroylglutamic acid is known as 89. folate. 90. choline. 91. inositol. 92. pyridoxamine.
89. Which of the following is NOT among the properties of folate in nutrition? 90. It is needed for proper functioning of vitamin B12
91. It functions primarily in the transfer of amino groups 92. The coenzyme of folate requires vitamin B12 to function properly
93. It requires enzymes on the intestinal mucosa to enhance its absorption from most foods
90. Which of the following characteristics is shared by vitamin B12 and folate?
91. Both are required for nucleic acid synthesis 92. Both require intrinsic factors for their release from food proteins 93. Both are found in significant amounts in green leafy vegetables 94. Both are considered problem nutrients for strict vegetarians
91.Which of the following vitamins undergoes significant enterohepatic circulation? 92. Folate 93. Niacin 94. Thiamin 95. Pyridoxine
92.Which of the following vitamins is usually found in a form that is bound to one or more glutamic acid molecules in food? 93. Folate 94. Thiamin 95. Vitamin B6
96. Ascorbic acid
93.A person with a disorder that limits absorption of bile is at increased risk for deficiency of 94. folate. 95. niacin. 96. riboflavin. 97. ascorbic acid.
94. Which of the following is NOT a feature of folate nutrition? 95. Most food folate is bound to a string of amino acids 96. Folate is actively secreted back into the GI tract with bile 97.Food folate must be hydrolyzed by intestinal cell enzymes prior to absorption 98.Folate must be methylated by homocysteine prior to crossing the brush border membrane
95.What is the most likely explanation for the impaired functioning of the GI tract resulting from folate deficiency? 96.Insufficient bile production, thereby promoting fat malabsorption and diarrhea 97.Reduced mucosal cell replacement, thereby resulting in decreased GI functioning 98.Decreased enzymatic capacity in the intestines, thereby resulting in malabsorption 99. Decreased oxygen supply to body tissues, with the intestines being particularly affected because of their high metabolic activity
96.Approximately what percentage of naturally occurring dietary folate is bioavailable? 97. 10 98. 25 99. 50 100. 80
97.The percent bioavailability of a folate supplement taken on an empty stomach is 98. 5. 99. 25. 100. 50. 101. 100.
98.How many dietary folate equivalents are provided by 100 µg of a folate supplement? 99. 50 100. 70 101. 133 102. 170
99.Research has shown that the risk for neural tube defects is lowered by taking supplements of 100. niacin. 101. folate. 102. vitamin C. 103. vitamin B12.
100. 101. 102. 103. 104.
Which of the following is a type of neural tube defect? Scurvy Beriberi Pellagra Spina bifida
101. Which of the following is true regarding B vitamins and homocysteine metabolism? 102. Folate catabolyzes homocysteine 103. Biotin supplements reduce blood homocysteine levels 104. Excessive homocysteine intake reduces vitamin B12 absorption 105. High blood homocysteine levels correlate with reduced incidence of colon cancer
102.
Methylcobalamin is a coenzyme form of
103.
vitamin B1.
104. 105.
vitamin B6. vitamin B12.
106.
niacin.
103. 104.
What vitamin contains cobalt? A
105.
B6
106.
B12
107.
Pantothenic acid
104. Which of the following is a feature of folate nutrition? 105. The coenzyme form is FAD 106. Dairy foods are a poor source of folate except for goat’s milk 107. Insufficient folate intake results in deficiency of homocysteine 108. Synthetic folate is 70% more available than naturally occurring food folate
105. By law, what amount of folate (µg) must be added to 100 g of food products such as breads, flour, and rice? 106. 0 107. 5 108. 50 109. 140
106. Nicole is pregnant and is trying to monitor her folate intake. She is eating foods high in folate as well as taking folate supplements, and she is having a hard time determining how many dietary folate equivalents she is consuming. Below is a list of her daily intake with respect to folate:
1 1
/2 cup of cooked lentils (180 μg food folate) /2 cup of fresh orange juice (60 μg food folate)
folate supplement (200 μg) How many DFEs is Nicole consuming? 1. 440 2. 480 3. 540 4. 580 5. Because of adverse interactions with other vitamins, a safe daily folate intake is up to 6. 400 µg. 7. 600 µg.
8. 1,000 µg. 9. 2,000 µg.
108. A deficiency of which of the following vitamins results in accumulation of homocysteine in the blood? 109. Folate 110. Biotin 111. Niacin 112. Vitamin K
109. The appearance of vitamin B12 deficiency symptoms may be delayed due to high intake of supplements of 110. folate. 111. niacin. 112. vitamin C. 113. vitamin B6.
110. What vitamin is involved mainly with the replacement of red blood cells and digestive tract cells? 111. Folate 112. Niacin 113. Thiamin 114. Riboflavin
111. Which of the following substances is known to adversely affect folate utilization? 112. Insulin 113. Calcium supplements 114. Regular use of antacids 115. Vitamin B12 supplements
112. Which of the following is representative of folate availability in foods? 113. Good sources are dairy products and meats 114. Poor sources are fruit juices and vegetable juices 115. Much of the vitamin is lost due to heat and oxidation 116. Only about 10% of the amount in foods is bioavailable
113. Which of the following is known to significantly affect the body’s folate status? 114. Sedentary lifestyle 115. Some anticancer drugs 116. Excess protein intake 117. Insufficient fiber intake
114. Physiological stresses such as blood loss, burns, measles, and cancer are known particularly to increase the risk of deficiency for 115. biotin. 116. folate. 117. riboflavin. 118. pantothenic acid.
115. 116. 117. 118. 119.
Which of the following is associated with a deficiency of folate? Hemolysis Hypoxemia Hemolytic anemia Macrocytic anemia
116. 117. 118. 119. 120.
Folate deficiency has been reported in infants fed soy milk. goat’s milk. chicken liver. infant formula.
117. Among all the vitamins, which is believed to be most vulnerable to interactions with drugs? 118. Folate 119. Niacin 120. 121.
Vitamin B6 Vitamin B12
118. 119. 120. 121. 122.
What is the RDA for folate for a woman weighing 132 pounds? 180 μg/day 220 μg/day 242 μg/day 400 μg/day
119. 120. 121. 122. 123.
What is the adult RDA for folate (µg/day)? 100 200 400 800
120. 121. 122. 123. 124.
Which of the following foods is highest in folate? Meats Starches Dairy products Green, leafy vegetables
121.
Which of the following is required for the absorption of dietary
vitamin B12?
122. 123. 124. 125.
Bile Lipase Intrinsic factor Carboxypeptidase
122.
Which of the following is NOT among the factors required for
efficient dietary absorption of vitamin B12?
123. 124. 125. 126.
Pepsin Intrinsic factor Hydrochloric acid Mucosal cobalaminase
123. What is the function of intrinsic factor in vitamin B12 absorption? 124. It catalyzes release of the vitamin from its protein-bound form 125. It attaches to the vitamin, thereby allowing absorption from the small intestine 126. It acts as a storage protein for the vitamin within the intestinal epithelial cells 127. It acts as a cofactor for mucosal enzymes involved in absorption of the vitamin
124. What is the most likely reason for the development of a vitamin B12 deficiency? 125. Inadequate intake 126. Increased excretion 127. Inadequate absorption 128. Increased losses in food preparation
125. 126. 127.
Pernicious anemia results from a deficiency of folate. selenium.
128.
vitamin B12.
129.
iron and copper.
126. The nasal spray route represents a safe and efficacious means for the supply of
127.
folate.
128.
vitamin B1.
129. 130.
vitamin C. vitamin B12.
127. The absorption of which of the following vitamins is most affected by the disorder atrophic gastritis? 128. Choline 129. Vitamin C 130.
131.
Vitamin B12
Pantothenic acid
128. Which of the following is a property of vitamin B12? 129. It is efficiently recycled by the body 130. It is necessary for protection from pinpoint hemorrhages 131. It requires attachment to fatty acids for transport in the circulation 132. It is absorbed from the stomach with the aid of a special binding protein 133. A similar type of anemia is produced when there is a deficiency of either 134. riboflavin or niacin. 135.
136. 137.
vitamin B12 or folate.
thiamin or riboflavin. vitamin B6 or vitamin B12.
130. Which of the following is a common treatment for pernicious anemia caused by inadequate absorption? 131. Injection of cobalamin 132. Topical administration of liver extract 133. Oral supplements of B-vitamin complex 134. A diet high in liver and green, leafy vegetables
131. If a person refrained from ingesting any of the water-soluble vitamins, deficiency symptoms would appear last for 132. folate. 133. vitamin C. 134. 135.
vitamin B1. vitamin B12.
132. Normally, the body’s storage and re-utilization of vitamin B12 prevents a primary or secondary deficiency from occurring until after about 133. 3 days. 134. 3 weeks. 135. 3 months. 136. 3 years.
133. In a person who loses the ability to absorb vitamin B12, approximately what period of time could elapse before deficiency signs develop?
134. 135. 136. 137.
One month Six months One year Three years
134. Pernicious anemia results from a combination of lack of intrinsic factor and 135. ariboflavonosis. 136. lack of hydrochloric acid. 137. lack of pancreatic vitaminases. 138. pharmacologic intakes of folate.
135. Which of the following is NOT known to be a risk factor for development of atrophic gastritis? 136. Age over 50 yrs 137. Iron deficiency 138. Helicobacter pylori infection
139.
Avoidance of leafy vegetables
136. Among the following water-soluble vitamins, a secondary deficiency would most likely be seen for 137. biotin. 138. thiamin. 139. vitamin C. 140. vitamin B12.
137. 138. 139. 140. 141.
Which of the following is a feature of vitamin B12 nutrition? Deficiencies lead to “wet” beriberi Even marginal deficiency impairs cognitive function Excess intake leads to loss of appetite and constipation Severe deficiency is characterized chiefly by free-radical damage
138. Why are fermented soy products, sea algae, and most nutritional yeast products poor sources of vitamin B12? 139. The vitamin is not in a bioavailable form 140. These foods contain high amounts of antiintrinsic factor 141. The vitamin is readily destroyed by the presence of microbes 142. These foods contain high levels of folate, which inhibits B12 absorption
139.
Which of the following is a feature of vitamin B12 bioavailability?
140.
Synthetic B12 in supplement form is highly utilizable
141. 142.
Fermented soy products are optimal sources of the vitamin Yeast consumed by vegans is a good source of the vitamin
143.
Sea algae such as spirulina contain vitamin B12 that is about
50% available
140.
Why are strict vegetarians at risk of developing a vitamin
B12 deficiency? 141. Vegetarian diets inhibit absorption of the vitamin 142. Vegetarian diets provide insufficient amounts of the vitamin 143. The fiber content of vegetarian diets causes decreased storage by the liver 144. The fiber content of vegetarian diets causes increased excretion of the vitamin
141. B12? 142. 143. 144. 145.
Of the following foods, which would be the only source of vitamin
142. 143. 144. 145. 146.
Which of the following is a characteristic of vitamin B12 nutrition? Toxicity symptoms are serious and irreversible Units in food are expressed as cobalamin equivalents It is inactivated when the food is heated in a microwave Bioavailable amounts are found in fermented soy products
143. 144. 145. 146. 147.
The adult RDA for vitamin B12 (µg/day) is 0.5. 1.25. 2.4. 4.0.
144. 145. 146. 147. 148.
Which of the following vitamins has an RDA? Biotin Choline Cobalamin Pantothenic acid
Pecans Hot dog Cauliflower Whole-grain bread
145. 146. 147. 148. 149.
Which of the following is a feature of choline in nutrition? It is an analog of ascorbic acid It is abundant in green leafy vegetables The body can synthesize it from cysteine Average intakes in the United States are lower than recommended
146. Which of the following nutrients is synthesized in significant amounts in the body? 147. Choline 148. Thiamine 149. Ascorbic acid 150. Pantothenic acid
147. Which of the following is known to perform an essential function in the human body? 148. Carnitine 149. Orotic acid 150. Methoxantin 151. Pangamic acid
148. Which of the following is NOT known to be required in the diet of human beings? 149. Folic acid 150. Lipoic acid 151. Ascorbic acid 152. Pantothenic acid
149. Which of the following is NOT known to be a vitamin for human beings? 150. Cobalamin 151. Ubiquinone
152. 153.
Pyridoxine Pantothenic acid
150. Which of the following is frequently affected by deficiencies of the B vitamins? 151. Bones 152. Tongue 153. Eyesight 154. Hair and nails
151. Which of the following is an overt sign of a possible B vitamin deficiency? 152. Anemia 153. Smooth tongue 154. Abnormal liver function 155. Abnormal heart function
152. Which of the following characteristics is shared by vitamins B6, B12, C and folate? 153. Required for glycolysis 154. Consumption prevents anemia 155. Required in microgram quantities 156. Found in citrus products and legumes
153. 154. 155. 156. 157.
What is a free radical? An inactive vitamin An unphosphorylated vitamin A molecule of unbound cobalamins A molecule with at least one unpaired electron
154.
Which of the following is a general function of vitamin C?
155. 156. 157. 158.
Antiviral agent Antifungal agent Anticancer agent Antioxidant agent
155. 156. 157. 158. 159.
In what capacity does vitamin C function? Coenzyme for energy release Cofactor in collagen formation Cofactor with calcium in blood coagulation Coenzyme in the formation of red blood cells
156. 157. 158. 159. 160.
The protein that requires ascorbic acid for its formation is keratin. albumin. collagen. hydroxyproline.
157. 158. 159. 160. 161.
The synthesis of collagen requires both vitamin C and iron. zinc. cobalamin. beta-carotene.
158. 159. 160. 161. 162.
What organ stores the highest concentration of vitamin C? Liver Muscle Thyroid gland Adrenal glands
159. Which of the following represents the results of wellcontrolled studies of vitamin C supplementation on the resistance to, and recovery from, colds? 160. There was a reduction in the duration of colds by 50% on the average 161. There was only a minor effect on reducing the number and severity of colds 162. There was a consistent reduction in the duration of colds in people who consumed at least 200 mg a day 163. There was a significant reduction in the number of colds only in people who consumed more than three grams per day
160. Why might vitamin C supplements be beneficial in treating the common cold? 161. They deactivate histamine 162. They reduce episodes of diarrhea 163. They destroy intestinal pathogens 164. They alter hypothalamic control of body temperature
161. Which of the following vitamins is known to deactivate histamine, a substance that causes nasal congestion? 162. Niacin 163. Vitamin E 164. Vitamin C 165. Vitamin B12
162. What is the minimum daily amount of ascorbic acid that will prevent the appearance of scorbutic symptoms in human beings? 163. 10 mg 164. 30 mg 165. 50 mg 166. 60 mg
163. How much vitamin C is needed daily to raise blood ascorbic acid concentrations to a maximum? 164. 10 mg 165. 75 mg 166. 125 mg 167. 200 mg
164. 165. 166. 167. 168.
Which of the following is an early sign of vitamin C deficiency? Bleeding gums Pernicious anemia Appearance of a cold Hysteria and depression
165. 166. 167. 168. 169.
In the United States, what is the adult RDA for vitamin C? 10-20 mg 50-60 mg 75-90 mg 100-135 mg
166. 167. 168. 169. 170.
People who smoke require additional vitamin C in the amount of 5 mg. 35 mg. 100 mg. 200 mg.
167. Which of the following symptoms is indicative of a deficiency of vitamin C? 168. Hair loss 169. Muscle spasms 170. Bilateral symmetrical dermatitis 171. Subcutaneous pinpoint hemorrhages
168. People with the condition known as iron overload may be adversely affected from taking supplements of 169. niacin. 170. retinol. 171. cobalamin. 172. ascorbic acid.
169. Which of the following is a feature of vitamin C in the body? 170. Severe deficiency is irreversible 171. Low levels are found in people who chew tobacco 172. Extremes of physical stress impair mobilization of vitamin C 173. Severe deficiency signs become apparent when blood levels fall by about 20%
170. C? 171. 172. 173. 174.
Which of the following is NOT among the characteristics of vitamin
171. 172. 173. 174. 175.
Which of the following food groups is a rich source of vitamin C? Milk group Meat group Fruit group Grains group
Easily degraded by heat Easily degraded by oxygen With moderate intake it acts chiefly as a prooxidant Adequate amounts are contained in breast milk but not cow’s milk
172. What term is used to describe the outcome of a diagnostic test that apparently shows that you have mononucleosis when in reality you do not?
173. 174. 175. 176.
True positive True negative False positive False negative
173. What term describes the outcome of a diagnostic test that apparently indicates that you do not have an infection when in reality you do?
174. 175. 176. 177.
True positive True negative False positive False negative
174. John is looking to increase his dietary sources of vitamin C. However, he expresses a strong dislike for all citrus fruits. Which of the following shopping lists would you recommend? 175. Liver, yogurt, milk 176. Brussels sprouts, broccoli, strawberries 177. Banana, peanut butter, canned tuna fish 178. Whole grains, pork, fortified corn flakes
175. 176. 177. 178. 179.
Which of the following foods provides ample amounts of vitamin C? Tofu Yogurt Legumes Broccoli
176. 177. 178. 179. 180.
Which of these meals is lowest in vitamin C? Roast beef, carrots, noodles, and tea Hot dog, cabbage, french fries, and milk Roast beef, broccoli, noodles, and coffee Spaghetti with tomato sauce, meatball, garlic bread, and red wine
177. Which of the following would be a very good source of vitamin C for the lacto-ovo-vegetarian? 178. Milk 179. Eggs
180. 181.
Broccoli Whole-grain bread
178. All of the following are consequences of ingesting excess vitamin C supplements EXCEPT 179. they frequently cause diarrhea. 180. they appear safe at levels up to 2000 mg/day. 181. they enhance the action of anticlotting medications. 182. they interfere with laboratory urine tests for the diagnosis of diabetes.
179. Moderate intakes of which of the following would provide sufficient amounts of vitamin C? 180. Potatoes 181. Brown rice 182. Low-fat milk 183. Whole-wheat bread
180. What food makes a significant contribution to vitamin C intakes in the U.S. population despite its modest vitamin C concentration? 181. Potatoes 182. Organ meats 183. Breaded fish 184. Whole-grain cereals
181. C? 182. 183. 184. 185.
Which of the following would be the poorest dietary source of vitamin
Liver Potatoes Whole grains Cruciferous vegetables
182. A vitamin supplement labeled as “high potency” contains an amount that is 183. 50% of the Daily Value. 184. equal to the UL. 185. up to 200% of the Daily Value. 186. 100% or more of the Daily Value.
183. Approximately what percentage of the U.S. population takes a dietary supplement regularly? 184. 5 185. 33 186. 50 187. 80
184. The known dangers of taking vitamin supplements include all of the following EXCEPT 185. vitamin toxicity. 186. the taker may ignore warning signs of a disease. 187. the taker may feel a false sense of security and consume a poor diet. 188. pathogenic bacterial overgrowth of the large intestines leading to increased risk of infection.
185. Which of the following statements is representative of vitamin supplementation practices? 186. Most people who take supplements consume a poor diet 187. Most people should take supplements daily because of the great difficulty in obtaining the needed amounts from food 188. People who have low energy intakes or are pregnant are at risk for developing deficiencies and may benefit from supplementation 189. People should take supplements daily because nutrition surveys in the U.S. and Canada have detected deficiencies in some population groups
186. A person who shuns dairy and spends most of her time indoors would likely benefit from a supplement of 187. vitamin A. 188.
189. 190.
vitamin B6.
vitamin C. vitamin D.
187. Those groups of people who are at risk for developing marginal nutrient deficiencies and may benefit from taking vitamin supplements include all of the following EXCEPT 188. vegans. 189. food faddists. 190. athletes who are engaged in intense competitive events. 191. people with low energy intakes, such as habitual dieters and the elderly.
188. Which of the following is NOT among the common effects from ingesting a mild iron overdose? 189. Nausea 190. GI distress 191. Black tongue 192. Black diarrhea
189. Why shouldn’t vitamin E supplements be taken for at least one week before surgery? 190. Vitamin E interferes with barbiturate pain medications 191. The antioxidant activity affects stability of most anesthetic agents 192. Vitamin E acts as a blood thinner and could lead to excessive bleeding 193. The antioxidant activity interferes with synthesis of replacement erythrocytes
190. Which of the following is a feature of nutrient intakes and supplement use in the United States?
191. Few people ingest the optimal amounts of all vitamins and minerals from foods 192. The NIH recommends that people use supplements to prevent chronic diseases 193. The NIH recommends that people NOT use supplements to prevent chronic diseases 194. The FDA recognizes that most nutrient supplements are associated with little, if any, harm
191. What nutrient is responsible for causing the most accidental ingestion deaths in children? 192. Iron 193. Calcium 194. Vitamin A 195. Vitamin D
192. 193. 194. 195. 196.
Nutrient supplements known as “green pills” often contain mostly food coloring. high-potency vitamin C. dehydrated alfalfa and parsley. dried extracts of spoiled meats.
193. If a dietary supplement poses a significant risk of illness to consumers, what agency must prove harm before removing the product from the market? 194. FDA 195. CDC 196. USDA 197. USPHS
Matching
1. Name of thiamin deficiency disease 2. A food unusually rich in thiamin 3. Exposure to this leads to destruction of riboflavin 4. A food source that supplies a substantial amount of people’s riboflavin intake 5. Deficiency of this vitamin leads to cracks and redness at corners of the mouth 6. Used for synthesis of niacin 7. Overconsumption of this food has resulted in pellagra 8. High doses are known to lower LDL cholesterol 9. Deficiency of this vitamin is induced by feeding raw egg whites 10. This vitamin is a component of acetyl CoA 11.Toxicity from this vitamin is known to cause nerve damage and inability to walk 12.Prevention of neural tube defects is related to increased intake of this substance by pregnant women 13. One of the first symptoms of folate deficiency 14. Required to maintain nerve fiber sheath 15. Required for absorption of vitamin B12
16. Made in the body from methionine 17. The antiscorbutic factor
18. Vitamin C is required for the synthesis of this substance 19. Excess intake of vitamin C may aggravate this disorder 20. A concentrated source of vitamin C
A.
Pork
H.
Anemia
B.
Corn
I.
Collagen
C.
Dairy
J.
Beriberi
D.
Folate
K.
Broccoli
E.
Biotin
F.
Niacin
G.
Choline
L. M. N.
O.
Tryptophan
P.
Iron overload
Q.
Ascorbic acid
R.
Intrinsic factor
S.
Ultraviolet light
T.
Pantothenic acid
Riboflavin Vitamin B6
Vitamin B12
Essay
1. Provide a brief definition of a vitamin. Do all vitamins contain an “amino” group? 2. What steps should be taken by consumers to minimize the loss of vitamins from foods? 3. Discuss the effects of heat and ultraviolet light on vitamin stability. 4. What is meant by the bioavailability of a vitamin? How is it determined? 5. Provide examples of how the vitamins differ from the macronutrients in terms of structure, function, and food contents. 6. Discuss the meaning and significance of the Tolerable Upper Intake Levels for the water-soluble vitamins. 7. Compare and contrast the water-soluble vitamin group with the fat-soluble vitamin group with respect to absorption, transport, storage, excretion, toxicity, and requirements.
8. Discuss thiamin nutrition including functions, risk factors for deficiency, symptoms of deficiency, food sources, and stability. 9. Discuss riboflavin nutrition including functions, risk factors for deficiency, symptoms of deficiency, food sources, and stability. 10.Describe the type of diet associated with pellagra in the U.S. in the early 1900s. 11.Why was pellagra once believed to be caused by a pathogen instead of a vitamin deficiency? 12. Explain the medicinal uses for niacin supplements. What conditions make people more susceptible to the side effects from niacin supplements? 13.Discuss the essentiality, deficiency symptoms, and major food sources of biotin and pantothenic acid. 14. Explain how vitamin B6 and isoniazid interact to affect the
vitamin’s metabolism.
15. a. What is the effect of excess alcohol intake on vitamin B6 metabolism? 16. Describe the toxic effects of excess vitamin B6 supplements. 17. What factors are associated with vitamin B12 inadequacy other than low intake?
18.Explain the absorption mechanisms for folate from foods. How does the body dispose of excess folate? 19.Why is the bioavailability of folate from food almost always lower than from the synthetic form? 20.Explain the role of folate in red blood cell synthesis and maintenance of cells lining the GI tract. 21. Discuss through the use of examples the importance of folate in development of the neural tube during the early weeks of pregnancy.
22.Discuss the expected benefits of folate fortification of grain products. What are the possible adverse effects of this practice? 23.What are the associations between folate intake and development and progression of certain cancers? 24.Explain the association between folate deficiency and homocysteine metabolism. What are observations from the folate fortification program regarding risk for cardiovascular disease and death? 25.Provide explanations for the development of a primary and a secondary deficiency of folate. 26.Discuss the interrelationships of folate and vitamin B12 in the diagnosis and treatment of large-cell type anemia. 27. Define intrinsic factor and discuss its relationship to vitamin B12 absorption. What other factors are associated with vitamin B12 absorption? What is the
most common cause of vitamin B12 deficiency, and how is vitamin B12 deficiency treated in those with this condition? 28. Why might vegans develop a vitamin B12 deficiency? Why might they have a normal vitamin B12 status? Why are the amounts of B12 listed on labels of certain plant and yeast food products inaccurate and misleading?
29. What is meant by the following: Folate “cures” the blood symptoms of a vitamin B12 deficiency, but cannot stop the nerve symptoms from progressing. 30.Discuss the association between marginal vitamin B12 deficiency and cognitive function. 31.Discuss the essentiality of choline, including chief functions and major food sources. 32. Discuss the roles of the B vitamins in energy metabolism. 33. Diagram the metabolic pathways that involve participation of B vitamins. 34.Discuss how B-vitamin deficiencies rarely present as singlevitamin deficiencies. 35. Discuss similarities in the deficiency symptoms of the B vitamins. 36.Under what circumstances can water-soluble vitamins be toxic? Cite several examples. 37. Explain the modes of action of vitamin C. 38.In what ways have vitamin C supplements been shown to affect nasal congestion from a cold? 39.Under what conditions and for what reasons would intakes of vitamin C above the RDA be desirable? 40. Describe the potential hazards of excessive vitamin C intake. 41.List common foods that are good sources of vitamin C and foods that are unusually poor sources of the vitamin. 42.What is meant by false positive and false negative medical test results? How might these tests be influenced by vitamin supplements? 43. Choose 4 water-soluble vitamins and list their chief functions, deficiency and toxicity symptoms, and major food sources. 44.List several arguments for and against the regular use of vitamin supplements. 45.List population groups that have a physiological need for vitamin/mineral supplements. 46.What type of testing is done by the U.S. Pharmacopeia to assure the quality and safety of certain vitamin and mineral supplements? 47.Explain the major provisions of the Dietary Supplement Health and Education Act of 1994.
Answer Key (ANS = correct answer, REF = page reference, DIF = difficulty, OBJ = learning objective)
Multiple Choice 1. ANS: b REF: 297 2. ANS: d REF: 298 3. ANS: c REF: 298 4. ANS: b REF: 298 5. ANS: a REF: 298-300 6. ANS: a REF: 298-300 7. ANS: c REF: 299 8. ANS: b REF: 298-299 9. ANS: b REF: 299|300 10. ANS: b REF: 299-300 11. ANS: d REF: 300 12. ANS: d REF: 300 13. ANS: c REF: 300 14. ANS: c REF: 301 15. ANS: d REF: 301 16. ANS: b REF: 301 17. ANS: b REF: 301 18. ANS: a REF: 301-302 19. ANS: b REF: 301 20. ANS: d REF: 301 21. ANS: d REF: 301 22. ANS: c REF: 301-302 23. ANS: a REF: 302|303 24. ANS: b REF: 303 25. ANS: a REF: 302 26. ANS: a REF: 302 27. ANS: b REF: 303 28. ANS: d REF: 302-303 29. ANS: c REF: 302-303
DIF: Knowledge-level DIF: Knowledge-level DIF: Knowledge-level DIF: Knowledge-level DIF: Knowledge-level DIF: Knowledge-level DIF: Application-level DIF: Application-level DIF: Knowledge-level DIF: Application-level DIF: Knowledge-level DIF: Application-level DIF: Knowledge-level DIF: Application-level DIF: Knowledge-level DIF: Knowledge-level DIF: Knowledge-level DIF: Application-level DIF: Application-level DIF: Knowledge-level DIF: Application-level DIF: Knowledge-level DIF: Knowledge-level DIF: Knowledge-level DIF: Knowledge-level DIF: Application-level DIF: Application-level DIF: Knowledge-level DIF: Knowledge-level
OBJ: 10.1 OBJ: 10.1 OBJ: 10.1 OBJ: 10.1 OBJ: 10.1 OBJ: 10.1 OBJ: 10.1 OBJ: 10.1 OBJ: 10.1 OBJ: 10.1 OBJ: 10.2.0 OBJ: 10.2.0 OBJ: 10.2.0 OBJ: 10.2.1 OBJ: 10.2.1 OBJ: 10.2.1 OBJ: 10.2.1 OBJ: 10.2.1 OBJ: 10.2.1 OBJ: 10.2.1 OBJ: 10.2.1 OBJ: 10.2.1 OBJ: 10.2.1 OBJ: 10.2.1 OBJ: 10.2.1 OBJ: 10.2.1 OBJ: 10.2.1 OBJ: 10.2.2 OBJ: 10.2.2
30. ANS: d REF: 304 31. ANS: d REF: 304 32. ANS: a REF: 304 33. ANS: c REF: 304 34. ANS: d REF: 304 35. ANS: d REF: 304 36. ANS: b REF: 304 37. ANS: d REF: 302|304 38. ANS: a REF: 304 39. ANS: c REF: 304 40. ANS: c REF: 304 41. ANS: a REF: 304 42. ANS: d REF: 305 43. ANS: c REF: 302|305 10.2.2|10.2.3 44. ANS: c REF: 305 45. ANS: a REF: 305|308 46. ANS: a REF: 305 47. ANS: a REF: 305-306 48. ANS: b REF: 305-306 49. ANS: d REF: 305 50. ANS: b REF: 305 51. ANS: c REF: 305 52. ANS: c REF: 305-306 53. ANS: b REF: 305-306 54. ANS: a REF: 306 55. ANS: c REF: 306 56. ANS: a REF: 308 57. ANS: d REF: 306 58. ANS: b REF: 306 59. ANS: a REF: 308 60. ANS: a REF: 308 61. ANS: c REF: 307 62. ANS: d REF: 307 63. ANS: d REF: 308-309 64. ANS: d REF: 308 65. ANS: d REF: 308 66. ANS: a REF: 308|318-319 10.2.4|10.2.10 67. ANS: c REF: 308
DIF: Knowledge-level DIF: Knowledge-level DIF: Knowledge-level DIF: Knowledge-level DIF: Application-level DIF: Knowledge-level DIF: Application-level DIF: Knowledge-level DIF: Application-level DIF: Application-level DIF: Knowledge-level DIF: Knowledge-level DIF: Knowledge-level DIF: Application-level
OBJ: 10.2.2 OBJ: 10.2.2 OBJ: 10.2.2 OBJ: 10.2.2 OBJ: 10.2.2 OBJ: 10.2.2 OBJ: 10.2.2 OBJ: 10.2.2 OBJ: 10.2.2 OBJ: 10.2.2 OBJ: 10.2.2 OBJ: 10.2.2 OBJ: 10.2.3 OBJ:
DIF: Knowledge-level DIF: Application-level DIF: Knowledge-level DIF: Application-level DIF: Knowledge-level DIF: Knowledge-level DIF: Knowledge-level DIF: Application-level DIF: Application-level DIF: Application-level DIF: Application-level DIF: Application-level DIF: Application-level DIF: Knowledge-level DIF: Knowledge-level DIF: Application-level DIF: Knowledge-level DIF: Application-level DIF: Knowledge-level DIF: Knowledge-level DIF: Application-level DIF: Knowledge-level DIF: Knowledge-level
OBJ: 10.2.3 OBJ: 10.2.3 OBJ: 10.2.3 OBJ: 10.2.3 OBJ: 10.2.3 OBJ: 10.2.3 OBJ: 10.2.3 OBJ: 10.2.3 OBJ: 10.2.3 OBJ: 10.2.3 OBJ: 10.2.3 OBJ: 10.2.3 OBJ: 10.2.3 OBJ: 10.2.3 OBJ: 10.2.3 OBJ: 10.2.3 OBJ: 10.2.3 OBJ: 10.2.3 OBJ: 10.2.3 OBJ: 10.2.5 OBJ: 10.2.4 OBJ: 10.2.4 OBJ:
DIF: Knowledge-level
OBJ: 10.2.4
68. ANS: b REF: 308 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 10.2.4 69. ANS: d REF: 308 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 10.2.4 70. ANS: b REF: 308 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 10.2.4 71. ANS: d REF: 308 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 10.2.5 72. ANS: c REF: 309 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 10.2.5 73. ANS: d REF: 309 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 10.2.5 74. ANS: c REF: 309 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 10.2.6 75. ANS: c REF: 309 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 10.2.6 76. ANS: a REF: 309 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 10.2.6 77. ANS: c REF: 309 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 10.2.6 78. ANS: b REF: 309 DIF: Application-level OBJ: 10.2.6 79. ANS: d REF: 309|311 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 10.2.6 80. ANS: a REF: 310|311 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 10.2.6 81. ANS: a REF: 309 DIF: Application-level OBJ: 10.2.6 82. ANS: c REF: 310 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 10.2.6 83. ANS: a REF: 310 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 10.2.6 84. ANS: c REF: 309 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 10.2.6 85. ANS: a REF: 311 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 10.2.6 86. ANS: b REF: 310 DIF: Application-level OBJ: 10.2.6 87. ANS: a REF: 310|318-319 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 10.2.7|10.2.10 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 10.2.7 88. ANS: a REF: 310 89. ANS: b REF: 310-311 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 10.2.7 90. ANS: a REF: 310|315 DIF: Application-level OBJ: 10.2.7|10.2.8 91. ANS: a REF: 312 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 10.2.7 92. ANS: a REF: 311 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 10.2.7 93. ANS: a REF: 312 DIF: Application-level OBJ: 10.2.7 94. ANS: d REF: 311 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 10.2.7 95. ANS: b REF: 312 DIF: Application-level OBJ: 10.2.7 96. ANS: c REF: 312 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 10.2.7 97. ANS: d REF: 312 DIF: Application-level OBJ: 10.2.7 98. ANS: d REF: 312 DIF: Application-level OBJ: 10.2.7 99. ANS: b REF: 313 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 10.2.7 100. ANS: d REF: 312|313 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 10.2.7 101. ANS: a REF: 313 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 10.2.7 102. ANS: c REF: 315 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 10.2.8
103. ANS: c REF: 315 10.2.8 104. ANS: d REF: 312 10.2.7 105. ANS: d REF: 313 10.2.7 106. ANS: d REF: 312 10.2.7 107. ANS: c REF: 313 10.2.7 108. ANS: a REF: 313 10.2.7 109. ANS: a REF: 313|317 10.2.7|10.2.8 110. ANS: a REF: 314 10.2.7 111. ANS: c REF: 315 10.2.7 112. ANS: c REF: 315 10.2.7 113. ANS: b REF: 314 10.2.7 114. ANS: b REF: 314 10.2.7 115. ANS: d REF: 314 10.2.7 116. ANS: b REF: 314 10.2.7 117. ANS: a REF: 314 10.2.7 118. ANS: d REF: 315 10.2.7 119. ANS: c REF: 315 10.2.7 120. ANS: d REF: 315 10.2.7 121. ANS: c REF: 315 10.2.8 122. ANS: d REF: 315-316 10.2.8
DIF: Knowledge-level
OBJ:
DIF: Knowledge-level
OBJ:
DIF: Application-level
OBJ:
DIF: Application-level
OBJ:
DIF: Knowledge-level
OBJ:
DIF: Knowledge-level
OBJ:
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OBJ:
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OBJ:
DIF: Knowledge-level
OBJ:
DIF: Knowledge-level
OBJ:
DIF: Knowledge-level
OBJ:
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OBJ:
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OBJ:
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OBJ:
DIF: Knowledge-level
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OBJ:
123. ANS: b REF: 315-316 10.2.8 124. ANS: c REF: 316 10.2.8 125. ANS: c REF: 317 10.2.8 126. ANS: d REF: 316-317 10.2.8 127. ANS: c REF: 316 10.2.8 128. ANS: a REF: 316 10.2.8 129. ANS: b REF: 317 10.2.8 130. ANS: a REF: 316-317 10.2.8 131. ANS: d REF: 316|317 10.2.8 132. ANS: d REF: 316|317 10.2.8 133. ANS: d REF: 317 10.2.8 134. ANS: b REF: 316-317 10.2.8 135. ANS: d REF: 316 10.2.8 136. ANS: d REF: 316 10.2.8 137. ANS: b REF: 317 10.2.8 138. ANS: a REF: 317 10.2.8 139. ANS: a REF: 317 10.2.8 140. ANS: b REF: 317 10.2.8 141. ANS: b REF: 317 10.2.8 142. ANS: c REF: 317 10.2.8
DIF: Knowledge-level
OBJ:
DIF: Application-level
OBJ:
DIF: Knowledge-level
OBJ:
DIF: Knowledge-level
OBJ:
DIF: Application-level
OBJ:
DIF: Knowledge-level
OBJ:
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OBJ:
DIF: Application-level
OBJ:
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OBJ:
DIF: Application-level
OBJ:
DIF: Application-level
OBJ:
DIF: Knowledge-level
OBJ:
DIF: Knowledge-level
OBJ:
DIF: Application-level
OBJ:
DIF: Knowledge-level
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143. ANS: c REF: 316 10.2.8 144. ANS: c REF: 316 10.2.8 145. ANS: d REF: 318 10.2.9 146. ANS: a REF: 318 10.2.9 147. ANS: a REF: 318-319 10.2.10 148. ANS: b REF: 319 10.2.10 149. ANS: b REF: 319 10.2.10 150. ANS: b REF: 321 10.2.11 151. ANS: b REF: 321 152. ANS: b REF: 311|321|325 10.2.6|10.2.11|10.3 153. ANS: d REF: 323 154. ANS: d REF: 323 155. ANS: b REF: 323 156. ANS: c REF: 323 157. ANS: a REF: 323 158. ANS: d REF: 324 159. ANS: c REF: 324 160. ANS: a REF: 324 161. ANS: c REF: 324 162. ANS: a REF: 324 163. ANS: d REF: 324 164. ANS: a REF: 325 165. ANS: c REF: 324 166. ANS: b REF: 325 167. ANS: d REF: 325 168. ANS: d REF: 325 169. ANS: b REF: 325 170. ANS: c REF: 325-326 171. ANS: c REF: 326-327 172. ANS: c REF: 325 173. ANS: d REF: 325
DIF: Knowledge-level
OBJ:
DIF: Knowledge-level
OBJ:
DIF: Knowledge-level
OBJ:
DIF: Knowledge-level
OBJ:
DIF: Knowledge-level
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DIF: Application-level DIF: Application-level
OBJ: 10.3 OBJ:
DIF: Knowledge-level DIF: Knowledge-level DIF: Knowledge-level DIF: Knowledge-level DIF: Knowledge-level DIF: Knowledge-level DIF: Application-level DIF: Application-level DIF: Knowledge-level DIF: Knowledge-level DIF: Application-level DIF: Knowledge-level DIF: Knowledge-level DIF: Application-level DIF: Knowledge-level DIF: Application-level DIF: Knowledge-level DIF: Knowledge-level DIF: Knowledge-level DIF: Application-level DIF: Application-level
OBJ: 10.3 OBJ: 10.3 OBJ: 10.3 OBJ: 10.3 OBJ: 10.3 OBJ: 10.3 OBJ: 10.3 OBJ: 10.3 OBJ: 10.3 OBJ: 10.3 OBJ: 10.3 OBJ: 10.3 OBJ: 10.3 OBJ: 10.3 OBJ: 10.3 OBJ: 10.3 OBJ: 10.3 OBJ: 10.3 OBJ: 10.3 OBJ: 10.3 OBJ: 10.3
174. 175. 176. 177. 178. 179. 180. 181. 182. 183. 184. 185. 186. 187. 188. 189. 190. 191. 192. 193.
ANS: b REF: 326-327 ANS: d REF: 326 ANS: a REF: 326-327 ANS: c REF: 326-327 ANS: c REF: 325-326|327 ANS: a REF: 326-327 ANS: a REF: 326 ANS: c REF: 326-327 ANS: d REF: 331 ANS: c REF: 331 ANS: d REF: 332-334 ANS: c REF: 332 ANS: d REF: 332 ANS: c REF: 332 ANS: c REF: 333 ANS: c REF: 332 ANS: a REF: 332 ANS: a REF: 333 ANS: c REF: 335 ANS: a REF: 336
DIF: Application-level DIF: Knowledge-level DIF: Application-level DIF: Application-level DIF: Application-level DIF: Application-level DIF: Knowledge-level DIF: Application-level DIF: Knowledge-level DIF: Knowledge-level DIF: Knowledge-level DIF: Application-level DIF: Application-level DIF: Application-level DIF: Knowledge-level DIF: Knowledge-level DIF: Knowledge-level DIF: Knowledge-level DIF: Knowledge-level DIF: Knowledge-level
OBJ: 10.3 OBJ: 10.3 OBJ: 10.3 OBJ: 10.3 OBJ: 10.3 OBJ: 10.3 OBJ: 10.3 OBJ: 10.3 OBJ: 10.4 OBJ: 10.4 OBJ: 10.4 OBJ: 10.4 OBJ: 10.4 OBJ: 10.4 OBJ: 10.4 OBJ: 10.4 OBJ: 10.4 OBJ: 10.4 OBJ: 10.4 OBJ: 10.4
Matching 1. ANS: J REF: 301 2. ANS: A REF: 302 3. ANS: S REF: 304 4. ANS: C REF: 304 5. ANS: L REF: 304 6. ANS: O REF: 305 7. ANS: B REF: 305-306 8. ANS: F REF: 306 9. ANS: E REF: 308 10. ANS: T REF: 308 11. ANS: M REF: 310|311 12. ANS: D REF: 313 13. ANS: H REF: 314 14. ANS: N REF: 315 15. ANS: R REF: 315
DIF: Knowledge-level DIF: Knowledge-level DIF: Knowledge-level DIF: Knowledge-level DIF: Knowledge-level DIF: Knowledge-level DIF: Knowledge-level DIF: Knowledge-level DIF: Knowledge-level DIF: Knowledge-level DIF: Knowledge-level DIF: Knowledge-level DIF: Knowledge-level DIF: Knowledge-level DIF: Knowledge-level
OBJ: 10.2.1 OBJ: 10.2.1 OBJ: 10.2.2 OBJ: 10.2.2 OBJ: 10.2.2 OBJ: 10.2.3 OBJ: 10.2.3 OBJ: 10.2.3 OBJ: 10.2.4 OBJ: 10.2.5 OBJ: 10.2.6 OBJ: 10.2.7 OBJ: 10.2.7 OBJ: 10.2.8 OBJ: 10.2.8
16. ANS: G REF: 318 17. ANS: Q REF: 323 18. ANS: I REF: 323 19. ANS: P REF: 325 20. ANS: K REF: 326
DIF: Knowledge-level DIF: Knowledge-level DIF: Knowledge-level DIF: Knowledge-level DIF: Knowledge-level
OBJ: 10.2.9 OBJ: 10.3 OBJ: 10.3 OBJ: 10.3 OBJ: 10.3
Essay 1. REF: 297 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 10.1 2. REF: 298-299 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 10.1 3. REF: 298 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 10.1 4. REF: 298 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 10.1 5. REF: 298 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 10.1 6. REF: 299-300 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 10.1 7. REF: 298-300 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 10.1 8. REF: 301-302|303 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 10.2.1 9. REF: 302-305 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 10.2.2 10. REF: 305-306 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 10.2.3 11. REF: 305-306 DIF: Application-level OBJ: 10.2.3 12. REF: 306-307 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 10.2.3 13. REF: 307-309 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 10.2.4|10.2.5 14. REF: 309 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 10.2.6 15. REF: 309|310|311 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 10.2.6 16. REF: 316-317 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 10.2.8 17. REF: 311-312 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 10.2.7 18. REF: 311|312 DIF: Application-level OBJ: 10.2.7 19. REF: 310|312|314 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 10.2.7 20. REF: 312-313 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 10.2.7 21. REF: 312-313 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 10.2.7 22. REF: 313 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 10.2.7 23. REF: 313 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 10.2.7 24. REF: 314-315 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 10.2.7 25. REF: 314|317 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 10.2.7|10.2.8 26. REF: 315-317 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 10.2.8 27. REF: 317 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 10.2.8 28. REF: 317 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 10.2.8 29. REF: 316-317 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 10.2.8 30. REF: 318 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 10.2.9
31. REF: 319-320 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 10.2.11 32. REF: 319-320 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 10.2.11 OBJ: 10.2.11 33. REF: 319-322 DIF: Knowledge-level 34. REF: 319-322 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 10.2.11 35. REF: 306-307|310|315|322|325-326 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 10.2.3|10.2.6|10.2.7|10.2.11|10.3 36. REF: 323-324 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 10.3 37. REF: 324 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 10.3 38. REF: 324-325 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 10.3 39. REF: 325-326 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 10.3 40. REF: 326-327 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 10.3 41. REF: 325 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 10.3 42. REF: 301-318|323-328 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 10.2|10.3 43. REF: 331-334 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 10.4 44. REF: 332 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 10.4 45. REF: 334 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 10.4 46. REF: 336 DIF: Knowledge-level OBJ: 10.4
Understanding Nutrition: 13th Edition Test Bank – Whitney
Chapter 11. The Fat-Soluble Vitamins, A, D, E and K.
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1 : What is the major carrier of the fat-soluble vitamins from the intestinal epithelial cell to the circulation? A : albumin B : cholesterol C : chylomicrons D : lipid-soluble binding proteins Correct Answer : C 2 : What is a property of the fat-soluble vitamins? A : Most of them are synthesized by intestinal bacteria. B : Intestinal transport occurs by way of the portal circulation. C : Deficiency symptoms may take years to develop on a poor diet. D : Toxicity risk is higher for vitamins E and K than for other fat-soluble vitamins. Correct Answer : C 3 : Which food substance can be converted into vitamin A in the body? A : tryptophan B : chlorophyll C : xanthophyll D : beta-carotene Correct Answer : D 4 : How many different forms of vitamin A are active in the body? A:1 B:2 C:3 D:5 Correct Answer : C 5 : What form of vitamin A supports reproduction but not growth? A : retinal B : retinol C : retinoic acid D : retinyl esters Correct Answer : B 6 : What do retinal and unsaturated fatty acids have in common? A : Neither is found in animal fats. B : Neither is transported by chylomicrons. C : They may exist in the cis or trans form. D : They are both needed to prevent erythrocyte hemolysis. Correct Answer : C 7 : What are the known effects of raising animals on diets containing retinoic acid as the only 346 / 14
source of vitamin A? A : Growth is stunted. B : Blindness develops. C : Retinal synthesis is stimulated. D : Retinol synthesis is stimulated. Correct Answer : B 8 : Which statement describes an association between vitamin A and vision? A : Retinoic acid is the form required for synthesis of retinoblasts. B : Light causes retinal to shift from a cis to a trans configuration. C : Retinol is the form bound to beta-carotene in the corneal membrane. D : Pigment molecules in the retina are composed of a molecule of vitamin A bound to an omega-3 fatty acid. Correct Answer : B 9 : What is the name of the vitamin A compound that is active in the visual response? A : opsin B : keratin C : retinal D : carotene Correct Answer : C 10 : Which statement describes the primary function of vitamin A in bone health? A : It stimulates uptake of calcium from the intestines. B : It promotes synthesis of specific bone proteins involved in the mineralization process. C : It assists enzymes that degrade certain regions of the bone, thereby allowing remodeling to occur. D : It inhibits oxidation of bone mucopolysaccharides, thereby preserving bone crystal integrity and promoting growth. Correct Answer : C 11 : If a normal, healthy adult were to begin consuming a vitamin A-poor diet, approximately how much time would pass before the first deficiency symptoms would appear? A : 2 weeks B : 1 to 2 months C : 6 months D : 1 to 2 years Correct Answer : D 12 : What do beta-carotene and vitamin E have in common? A : Both act as antioxidants. B : Both are found in animal fats. C : Neither is involved in free radical control. D : Neither is involved in synthesis of retinal. Correct Answer : A 13 : Why does vitamin A status depend on the persons protein status? 347 / 14
A : Adequate protein intake is a marker for liberal intake of the vitamin. B : Dietary protein ensures synthesis of the vitamins GI tract transporter. C : Adequate protein intake reduces the risk for infection from bacteria that degrade the vitamin. D : Transport of the vitamin within the body requires sufficient protein to synthesize retinolbinding protein. Correct Answer : D 14 : The first detectable sign of vitamin A deficiency is usually A : xerosis B : xerophthalmia C : night blindness D : corneal keratinization
.
Correct Answer : C 15 : The effects of vitamin A deficiency are most severe in what population group? A : adults B : elderly C : newborns D : adolescents Correct Answer : C 16 : Which statement describes a feature of vitamin A nutrition? A : Deficiency is common in United States. B : Toxicity occurs from excess intakes of preformed vitamin A as well as beta-carotene. C : Supplements are recommended for certain groups of infants and children infected with the measles in the United States. D : In poor countries, supplements prevent and cure night blindness but offer little protection against malaria and lung disease. Correct Answer : C 17 : What part of the body is affected most by keratomalacia? A : bone B : liver C : cornea D : immune cells Correct Answer : C 18 : The preferred unit of expression of vitamin A is the A : milligram B : global unit C : international unit D : retinol activity equivalent
.
Correct Answer : D 19 : How many micrograms of dietary beta-carotene are equivalent to 1 retinol activity equivalent? A:2 348 / 14
B:4 C:8 D : 12 Correct Answer : D 20 : What is the most likely side effect for a person who regularly consumes large quantities of carrots or carrot juice? A : bone pain B : dermatitis C : skin yellowing D : vitamin A toxicity Correct Answer : C 21 : Which individual would be most likely to develop a vitamin A toxicity? A : adolescent women B : overweight adults C : those taking vitamin A supplements D : those consuming more than 100 g of carrots daily Correct Answer : C 22 : What is a feature of vitamin A in foods? A : Carotenoid absorption is inhibited by foods rich in chlorophyll. B : Margarine made from corn oil is a poor source of vitamin A. C : Most carotenoids can be converted in the body to active vitamin A. D : Chlorophyll in dark green leafy vegetables masks the presence of beta-carotene. Correct Answer : D 23 : Your sister Ellen has just joined the Peace Corps and will be working on ways to improve the nutritional status of children in Indonesia. Once there, she saw that many of the children and some adults suffer from night blindness. Which food should she recommend be incorporated into the Indonesian diet to help prevent future generations from developing this condition? A : sweet potato B : orange juice C : peanut butter D : powdered skim milk Correct Answer : A 24 : Which food is a very good source of vitamin A? A : corn B : pumpkin pie C : baked potato D : whole-grain bread Correct Answer : B 25 : What is a characteristic of vitamin A in foods? A : Fast foods are generally considered good sources of vitamin A. B : A regular intake of chicken liver is known to induce toxicity in children. 349 / 14
C : Xanthophylls in certain vegetables can be converted to active vitamin A in the liver. D : Chlorophyll in vegetables can be converted to active vitamin A in the intestinal cells. Correct Answer : B 26 : The plant version of vitamin D is known as A : ergocalciferol B : foliocalciferol C : cholecalciferol D : phyllocalciferol
.
Correct Answer : A 27 : The animal version of vitamin D is known as A : ergocalciferol B : foliocalciferol C : cholecalciferol D : phyllocalciferol
.
Correct Answer : C 28 : What can the body use to synthesize vitamin D? A : bone B : carotene C : tryptophan D : exposure to sunlight Correct Answer : D 29 : Which compound is known to function as a hormone? A : vitamin D B : vitamin K C : phylloquinone D : alpha-tocopherol Correct Answer : A 30 : What is/are the main function(s) of vitamin D? A : It promotes secretion of calcitonin. B : It promotes synthesis of 7-dehydrocholesterol. C : It promotes synthesis of carotenoids and controls absorption of fat-soluble vitamins. D : It promotes calcium and phosphorus absorption and promotes calcium mobilization from bone. Correct Answer : D 31 : Where is calbindin primarily found in the body? A : liver B : kidneys C : intestine D : esophagus Correct Answer : C 350 / 14
32 : What population group is at highest risk for osteomalacia? A : infants B : elderly men C : adult women D : children ages 212 years Correct Answer : C 33 : In what system would the effects of a vitamin D deficiency be most readily observed? A : nervous B : skeletal C : muscular D : circulatory Correct Answer : B 34 : Which symptom would indicate a vitamin D deficiency? A : bowed legs B : rupture of red blood cells C : frequent respiratory infections D : abnormally high blood calcium level Correct Answer : A 35 : Which conditions or diseases are known to be caused by a deficiency of the same nutrient? A : osteomalacia and rickets B : xerophthalmia and breath pentane release C : kwashiorkor and fibrocystic breast disease D : hemolytic anemia and large-cell type anemia Correct Answer : A 36 : What is a feature of vitamin D? A : The bioavailability of vitamin D from soy milk is low. B : Lifeguards on southern beaches have increased risk for vitamin D toxicity. C : Only about one-half of the worlds population relies on sunlight to maintain adequate vitamin D nutrition. D : Prolonged exposure to sunlight degrades the vitamin D precursor in skin, thus preventing vitamin D toxicity. Correct Answer : D 37 : What is the most reliable source of vitamin D in the diet? A : meat B : fortified milk C : fruits and vegetables D : enriched breads and cereals Correct Answer : B 38 : What is a feature of vitamin D synthesis? A : Tanning lamps and tanning booths do not stimulate vitamin D synthesis. 351 / 14
B : Sunscreens with sunburn protection factors of 2 and above prevent synthesis of vitamin D. C : The ultraviolet rays of the sun are able to easily pierce heavy clouds and smog to promote vitamin D synthesis. D : Dark-skinned people require longer sunlight exposure than light-skinned people to synthesize equivalent amounts of vitamin D. Correct Answer : D 39 : What is a naturally occurring food source of vitamin D? A : egg yolks B : red meats C : tomato juice D : whole-wheat bread Correct Answer : A 40 : Absorption efficiency of vitamin D supplements is markedly improved when they are taken . A : with a large meal B : with a small meal C : with orange juice D : on an empty stomach Correct Answer : A 41 : Which vitamin prevents the oxidation of low-density lipoproteins? A:A B:E C:K D:D Correct Answer : B 42 : The major function of vitamin E is to inhibit the destruction of A : lysosomes B : free radicals C : mucopolysaccharides D : polyunsaturated fatty acids
.
Correct Answer : D 43 : Which vitamin is least associated with the process of bone remodeling? A:A B:K C:E D:D Correct Answer : C 44 : What form of tocopherol shows vitamin E activity in the human body? A : alpha B : beta C : gamma 352 / 14
D : delta Correct Answer : A 45 : What is a feature of vitamin E? A : It functions as a hormone-like substance. B : Toxicity symptoms include bone abnormalities. C : Deficiencies occur from inability to absorb dietary lipids. D : Important food sources include enriched breads and pasta. Correct Answer : C 46 : Why are primary vitamin E deficiencies rarely observed in human beings? A : The vitamin is not essential. B : The vitamin is widespread in foods. C : Most people take vitamin E supplements. D : The vitamin can be synthesized by the body. Correct Answer : B 47 : Which condition may improve with vitamin E therapy? A : diabetes B : pernicious anemia C : muscular dystrophy D : intermittent claudication Correct Answer : D 48 : What is a property of the tocopherols? A : They are easily destroyed by air and oxygen. B : They act as precursors for the menaquinones. C : They can all be converted to the active alpha-tocopherol. D : They are fairly stable when exposed to heat. Correct Answer : A 49 : Which type of food is a major source of vitamin E in the diet? A : meats B : citrus fruits C : vegetable oils D : milk and dairy products Correct Answer : C 50 : Increasing the amount of polyunsaturated fats in the diet increases the need for vitamin . A:A B:E C:K D:D Correct Answer : B 353 / 14
51 : Which properties do vitamins D and K share? A : Both are synthesized in the body. B : Both are required for normal vision. C : Neither has an effect on bone metabolism. D : Neither has an effect on erythrocyte function. Correct Answer : A 52 : Which molecule requires vitamin K for its synthesis? A : albumin B : pyruvate C : prothrombin D : mucopolysaccharides Correct Answer : C 53 : What feature is shared by vitamins E and K? A : Deficiencies of either lead to anemia. B : Both have strong antioxidant properties. C : Neither is involved in bone development. D : Supplements of either may interfere with anticlotting medications. Correct Answer : D 54 : What is a feature of vitamin K? A : A deficiency increases the risk for hemophilia. B : A deficiency leads to keratinization of the cornea. C : Bacteria in the intestines synthesize bioavailable vitamin K. D : There are multiple forms in the diet, of which menadione is the naturally occurring form. Correct Answer : C 55 : What is a feature of osteocalcin? A : It activates lysosomes involved in remodeling bone. B : It binds calcium in the GI tract to enhance absorption. C : It requires vitamin K to bind to bone-forming minerals. D : It works synergistically with the kidneys to reduce urinary calcium excretion. Correct Answer : C 56 : What would most readily induce a vitamin K deficiency? A : achlorhydria B : antibiotic therapy C : presence of oxalic acid in food D : insufficient intake of green leafy vegetables Correct Answer : B 57 : What is a characteristic of vitamin K nutrition? A : Deficiency may lead to hemophilia. B : Toxicity may increase risk for hemophilia. C : Absorption is inhibited when bile production diminishes. D : Supplements are highly effective against osteoporosis. 354 / 14
Correct Answer : C 58 : Which vitamin is synthesized by intestinal bacteria? A:A B:E C:K D:D Correct Answer : C 59 : What population group has the highest risk for vitamin K deficiency? A : adults B : elderly C : newborns D : teenagers Correct Answer : C 60 : What is a feature of vitamin K? A : Deficiencies lead to intravascular clotting. B : Major dietary sources are whole grains and legumes. C : No adverse effects have been reported with high intakes. D : Primary deficiencies are more common than secondary deficiencies. Correct Answer : C 61 : Which molecule is a major form of vitamin K in foods? A : ergodione B : ergoquinone C : tocopherone D : phylloquinone Correct Answer : D 62 : What is the best source of dietary vitamin K? A : spinach B : raspberries C : whole wheat bread D : baked potato Correct Answer : A 63 : What is a free radical? A : an antioxidant substance that prevents accumulation of cell-damaging oxides B : a substance in food that interacts with nutrients to decrease their utilization C : a nutrient in excess of body needs that the body is free to degrade with no consequence D : a molecule that is unstable and highly reactive because it contains unpaired electrons Correct Answer : D 64 : What is a characteristic of free radicals? A : They are destroyed by cigarette smoking. 355 / 14
B : They arise from normal metabolic reactions. C : They typically stop chain reactions associated with the production of peroxides. D : They are known to accumulate even in the presence of abundant antioxidant nutrients. Correct Answer : B 65 : Substances that promote oxidation are usually termed A : prooxidants B : antioxidants C : free radical generators D : reactive electron oxidants
.
Correct Answer : A 66 : What is a characteristic of both vitamin C and vitamin E? A : Both protect against LDL oxidation. B : Neither reduces arterial inflammation. C : Neither participates in regulating blood clotting. D : Both act as prooxidants at physiological intakes. Correct Answer : A 67 : What is a feature of antioxidants and health? A : Dietary antioxidants protect against free radical formation but not against DNA damage. B : Beta-carotene supplements have actually been shown to increase the risk of lung cancer in smokers. C : Diet surveys show that most of the U.S. population consumes recommended amounts of antioxidant nutrients. D : People who eat foods rich in vitamin E still have the same level of atherosclerotic plaques as consumers who dont. Correct Answer : B
MATCHING 68 : Match the vitamin with its primary function. A : raising blood calcium levels A : vitamin A B : synthesis of blood clotting proteins B : vitamin D C : stabilization of cell membranes C : vitamin E D : maintenance of mucous membranes D : vitamin K Correct Answer : A:B B:D C:C D:A
356 / 14
69 : Match the vitamin with the deficiency and toxicity symptoms. Terms may be used more than once or not at all. A : liver abnormalities A : vitamin A deficiency B : rickets B : vitamin A toxicity C : osteomalacia C : vitamin D deficiency D : keratinization D : vitamin D toxicity E : no effects known E : vitamin E deficiency F : birth defects F : vitamin E toxicity G : kidney stones G : vitamin K deficiency H : infectious diseases H : vitamin K toxicity I : xerophthalmia J : erythrocyte hemolysis Correct Answer : A:B B:C C:C D:A E:H F:B G:D H:A I:A J:E
ESSAY 70 : Explain how vitamin A deficiency alters food absorption. Correct Answer : ?Vitamin A deficiency leads to the loss of the goblet cells in the digestive tract, which decreases the secretion of mucus. The mucus is required for digestion and absorption of nutrients from the digestive tract. 71 : What is the dietary benefit of golden rice? Correct Answer : ?Golden rice is rice that has been genetically modified to contain betacarotene. Some parts of the developing world depend heavily on rice as a primary staple, which can lead to vitamin A deficiency. By fortifying the rice with beta-carotene, entire populations of people can be protected from vitamin A deficiency. 72 : Explain what symptoms you would expect from a person who consumes large amounts of 357 / 14
beef liver and onions? What is the cause of these symptoms? Correct Answer : ?The liver is the storage place for vitamin A in the body, both in humans and in animals. For this reason, you would expect to see symptoms that are associated with vitamin A toxicity, including headaches and nausea initially, and ultimately leading to osteoporosis and liver abnormalities. 73 : Explain how rhodopsin is involved in vision. Correct Answer : ?Rhodopsin is comprised of a protein called opsin, and a cofactor, retinal. When light strikes the retina, the opsin is released, and retinal changes conformation from cis to trans, which generates an electrical impulse that travels to the brain. 74 : Explain vitamin Ds role in bone health, including the specifics of the mechanisms employed to achieve this goal. Correct Answer : ?Vitamin D is responsible for maintaining blood concentrations of calcium and phosphorus. Vitamin D does this by increasing mineral absorption in the digestive tract, increasing reabsorption of these minerals by the kidney, and mobilization of these minerals from existing bone. 75 : Describe the process by which vitamin D from the diet is activated in order to function fully. How does this differ from vitamin D derived from a precursor to cholesterol, 7-dehydrocholesterol? Correct Answer : ?Vitamin D is ingested from either plants or animals as either vitamin D2 or D3, respectively, and is transported to the liver, where one hydroxyl group is added (now called calcidiol), and then transported to the kidney for a second hydroxyl group is added (now called calcitriol, or the active form of vitamin D). This differs from vitamin D that is derived from 7-dehydrocholesterol, in that this compound is converted by UV light in skin cells to previtamin D3, which is then converted to vitamin D3 using heat in the body. The vitamin D3 is then converted in the liver and kidney in the same manner that dietary vitamin D is converted to its active form. 76 : After Tracys mother develops osteoporosis, she visits her doctor about what she can do to help reduce her risk for developing this disease. If you were Tracys doctor, what lifestyle changes would you suggest, and which fat soluble vitamin(s) would you recommend she work on incorporating into her diet to decrease her risk for osteoporosis. What source(s) would you recommend to meet the RDA for this/these vitamin(s)? Correct Answer : ?Tracy needs to increase her vitamin D levels. One way she can do this is to spend more time outside and/or use less protection while she is outside, drink fortified milk, eat more oily fish, like salmon, and begin taking vitamin D supplements. 77 : How does vitamin E protect against heart disease? Correct Answer : ?Vitamin E protects against the oxidation of LDL. When oxidized, LDL accelerates the formation of plaques. Additionally, vitamin E protects against inflammation, which has been shown to lead to heart disease. 78 : Explain why newborns do not have significant amounts of vitamin K at birth. What are the benefits and concerns of this deficiency, and what is the standard of care given at birth to prevent vitamin K deficiency symptoms? 358 / 14
Correct Answer : ?Newborns do not have a lot of vitamin K at birth because it does not easily cross the placenta. Additionally, vitamin K producing bacteria are not present in the digestive tract, nor does vitamin K exist in breast milk in high amounts. This is advantageous to the infant during the stressful birthing process, as it prevents the blood from clotting, which can cause infant to have serious complications, and possibly die. However, after the baby is born, the risk of hemorrhagic disease is high, so to prevent the baby from bleeding out, the baby is given a shot of vitamin K immediately after birth. 79 : How does smoking increase the risk for cancer? Correct Answer : ?Smoking increases free radicals in the body. Free radicals can then damage lipids, DNA, and proteins within the cell. Damage to the DNA can lead to mutations that can cause cancer.
359 / 14
Chapter 12 – Water and the Major Minerals
MULTIPLE CHOICE c
01. Approximately how much water (lbs) is found in a 134-lb person? a. 34 b. 65 c. 80 d. 105
b
02. What is the body’s most indispensable nutrient? a. Fat b. Water c. Protein d. Glucose
b
04. Which of the following is not a function of water in the body? a. Lubricant b. Source of energy c. Maintains protein structure d. Participant in chemical reactions
b
05. Which of the following contributes most to the weight of the human body? a. Iron b. Water c. Protein d. Calcium
b
07. In the body, water that resides between cells is known as a. diuretic fluid. b. interstitial fluid. c. edematous fluid. d. intravascular fluid.
d
08. All of the following are mild symptoms of dehydration except a. thirst. b. fatigue. c. weakness. d. spastic muscles.
d
09. Which of the following body structures helps to regulate thirst? a. Brain stem b. Cerebellum c. Optic nerve d. Hypothalamus
b
10. Where is interstitial water found? a. Within cells b. Between cells c. Within the lungs d. Within blood vessels
1
a
11. Which of the following is a feature of water and nutrition? a. Water intoxication is rare but can result in death b. Water losses from the body are highest through the feces c. Chronic high intakes increase the risk for bladder cancer d. Soft water has significant concentrations of magnesium and calcium
d
12. Which of the following is a feature of water? a. Not a vital nutrient b. Not found in foods c. Oxidized to yield energy d. Generated from oxidation of energy nutrients
c
16. The average daily loss of water via the kidneys, lungs, feces, and skin is approximately a. 0 to 0.5 liters. b. 0.5 to 1.5 liters. c. 1.5 to 2.5 liters. d. 3.0 to 4.0 liters.
c
17. What is the minimum amount of water (mL) that must be excreted each day as urine in order to carry away the body’s waste products? a. 100 b. 250 c. 500 d. 1,000
b
20. What minimum level of body weight loss as water impairs a person’s physical performance? a. 1-2% b. 3-4% c. 5-9% d. 10-15%
a
23. Which of the following is present in highest concentration in soft water? a. Sodium b. Calcium c. Magnesium d. Phosphorus
c
24. Habitual intake of soft water is most likely to aggravate a. scurvy. b. diabetes. c. hypertension. d. megaloblastic anemia.
c
26. How does antidiuretic hormone function? a. It activates renin b. It activates angiotension c. It stimulates water reabsorption by the kidneys d. It stimulates sodium reabsorption by the kidneys
d
27. What pituitary hormone regulates kidney retention of water? a. Thyroxine b. Cortisone c. Epinephrine
2
d.
Antidiuretic hormone
c
28. What organ provides the major control for homeostasis of body fluids? a. Liver b. Heart c. Kidneys d. Skeletal muscle
b
32. Ions that carry a positive charge are called a. anions. b. cations. c. mineralytes. d. valence ions.
a
33. Which of the following describes a way to make an electrolyte solution? a. Dissolve a teaspoon of salt in a glass of water b. Vigorously shake a mixture of corn oil and water c. Dissolve a pinch of corn starch in a glass of water d. Vigorously shake a pinch of table sugar in warm water
d
34. All of the following are properties of electrolytes except a. they attract water. b. they are charged particles. c. they carry electrical current. d. they include fat-soluble as well as water-soluble particles.
a
35. What is the major extracellular cation? a. Sodium b. Sulfate c. Protein d. Potassium
d
36. What is the major intracellular cation? a. Sodium b. Calcium c. Phosphate d. Potassium
d
37. What is the major extracellular anion? a. Sodium b. Lactate c. Sulfate d. Chloride
c
38. What is the major intracellular anion? a. Protein b. Sodium c. Phosphate d. Bicarbonate
c
39. What is the term for the pressure that develops when two solutions of varying concentrations are separated by a membrane? a. Hypotension b. Hypertension 3
c. d.
Osmotic pressure Hypertonic pressure
b
40. What is the force that moves water into a space where a solute is more concentrated? a. Buffer action b. Osmotic pressure c. Permeable selectivity d. Electrolyte imbalance
b
41. What is the sodium-potassium pump? a. A cell membrane protein that uses energy to pump sodium into the cell b. A cell membrane protein that uses energy to pump sodium out of the cell c. A mechanism present throughout interstitial fluid for draining sodium from the circulation d. A mechanism present in the kidneys that exchanges sodium with lactic acid in order to regulate organic acid concentration
a
42. When a person loses fluid by sweating or bleeding, what minerals are lost in greatest quantity? a. Sodium and chloride b. Bicarbonate and sulfate c. Calcium and magnesium d. Potassium and phosphate
d
43. All of the following are typical ingredients in an oral rehydration therapy formula except a. salt. b. water. c. sugar. d. protein.
b
44. All of the following are common participants in the regulation of body fluid pH except a. proteins. b. oxalic acid. c. bicarbonate. d. carbonic acid.
c
45. The normal blood pH range is approximately a. 6.80-7.15. b. 6.98-7.12. c. 7.35-7.45. d. 7.55-8.55.
c
46. What organ is the chief regulator of the body’s acid-base balance? a. Skin b. Liver c. Kidneys d. Stomach
a
47. All of the following play important roles in acid-base balance except a. the liver. b. the lungs. c. the kidneys. d. blood buffers.
4
a
49. Which of the following events is specific to a salt-sensitive individual? a. Blood pressure increases as salt intake rises b. Immune system is activated when salt intake increases c. Muscle cramps occur when body sodium becomes depleted d. Thirst response is activated upon consumption of a sodium-rich food
c
51. Normally, what is the relationship of the amount of sodium excreted to the amount ingested that day? a. Intake is higher b. Excretion is higher c. Intake and excretion are equal d. Excretion is unrelated to intake
b
52. What is another term for hypertension? a. High blood sodium b. High blood pressure c. Excessive mental stress d. Excessive muscular contraction
d
55. The DASH diet plan was devised to prevent a. dehydration. b. constipation. c. osteoporosis. d. hypertension.
a
57. What is the greatest single source of sodium in the diet? a. Processed foods b. Unprocessed foods c. Natural salt content of foods d. Salt added during cooking and at the table
b
58. What percentage of a person’s total sodium intake derives from naturally occurring food sodium? a. 0 b. 10 c. 50 d. 80
b
59. Which of the following is a feature of sodium and health? a. Salt sensitivity is generally rare in African-Americans b. High sodium intake is known to promote calcium excretion c. High sodium intake over many years leads to hypertension in most people d. Sodium alone and sodium in salt have nearly equivalent effects on blood pressure
b
62. What adverse response is known to occur in people who drink copious amounts of water while participating in intense physical activity? a. Dehydration b. Hyponatremia c. Metabolic alkalosis d. Elevated blood sodium
b
64. Hyponatremia refers to low blood concentration of a. renin. b. sodium. 5
c. d.
chloride. aldosterone.
c
69. Which of the following is the primary function of potassium? a. Participates in wound healing b. Helps maintain gastric acidity c. Acts as principal intracellular electrolyte d. Protects bone structures against degeneration
d
70. Barbara has been healthy up to the past couple of weeks, but since then has been complaining of considerable muscle weakness. Her doctor just received the results of blood tests, which showed that she is deficient in potassium. If Barbara continues her current habits of consuming a diet low in potassium, for which of the following disorders is she most likely to be at risk? a. Rickets b. Arthritis c. Low blood pressure d. High blood pressure
b
71. Which of the following is a feature of potassium? a. It is unrelated to blood pressure b. Liberal intakes may correct hypertension c. Major dietary sources are processed foods d. Deficiencies are usually the result of deficient intakes
b
73. Which of the following is a symptom of potassium deficiency? a. Extreme thirst b. Muscle weakness c. Profound sweating d. Lowered blood pressure
a
74. All of the following are features of potassium in nutrition except a. processed foods are a major source. b. high intakes may protect against stroke. c. per serving size, legumes are a rich source. d. per serving size, bananas are a rich source.
a
75. Which of the following is not among the common food sources of potassium? a. Cheeses b. Potatoes c. Fresh fruits d. Orange juice
d
76. Which of the following is not a feature of potassium deficiency? a. It leads to hyperglycemia b. It leads to higher blood pressure c. It can be prevented by consumption of potatoes d. It is common due to availability of only a few good food sources
b
79. Almost all (99%) of the calcium in the body is used to a. provide energy for cells. b. provide rigidity for the bones and teeth. c. regulate the transmission of nerve impulses.
6
d.
maintain the blood level of calcium within very narrow limits.
d
85. Which of the following regulates the level of calcium in the blood? a. Dietary intake of calcium b. Glucagon and epinephrine c. Dietary intake of phosphorus d. Parathyroid hormone and calcitonin
b
86. Calcium absorption is facilitated by the presence of a. fiber. b. lactose. c. phytic acid. d. oxalic acid.
b
87. All of the following are known to enhance calcium absorption from the GI tract except a. lactose. b. oxalates. c. pregnancy. d. stomach acid.
d
88. Tiffany is a strict vegan and does not consume calcium-rich plant foods nor supplements of calcium. Which of the following is most responsible for maintaining her blood calcium levels in the normal range? a. Calcitonin b. Calmodulin c. Hydroxyapatite d. Parathyroid hormone
d
90. Which of the following foods are significant sources of oxalates? a. Seeds and nuts b. Processed cheeses c. Fermented dairy products d. Spinach and sweet potatoes
d
96. Which of the following are good sources of dietary calcium? a. Fruits b. Breads c. Enriched grains d. Certain green vegetables
b
97. Which of the following green vegetables shows the lowest bioavailability of calcium? a. Kale b. Spinach c. Broccoli d. Mustard greens
d
98. On a per kcalorie basis, which of the following are the best sources of calcium? a. Meats b. Fruits c. Breads d. Vegetables
c
99. Which of the following shows the highest bioavailability for calcium? a. Milk 7
b. c. d.
Spinach Broccoli Pinto beans
b
100.Which of the following is a feature of osteoporosis? a. It is most common in men over 45 years of age b. It has virtually no effect on blood calcium levels c. It results from short-term deprivation of dietary calcium d. It causes significant alterations in the blood levels of parathormone and calcitonin
b
101.Which of the following ages (years) is typically associated with people having the densest bone? a. 15 b. 28 c. 35 d. 46
a
102.At what age do adults normally begin to lose bone mass? a. 30-40 yrs b. 40-50 yrs c. 50-60 yrs d. 60-70 yrs
d
104.All of the following are characteristics of phosphorus in nutrition except a. high dietary intakes have no adverse effects. b. about 85% of the body’s phosphorus is located in bones and teeth. c. the phosphoric acid in cola drinks has little effect on bone content. d. the ratio of phosphorus to calcium in the diet is important for bone maintenance.
c
105.What is the calcium Adequate Intake for young adults? a. 500 mg b. 800 mg c. 1000 mg d. 1500 mg
a
106.Which of the following is a feature of phosphorus? a. Involved in energy exchange b. Activates fat-soluble vitamins c. Ranks lowest among the minerals in amount present in the body d. Ranks highest among the minerals in amount present in the body
a
110. Where is the majority of the body’s magnesium found? a. Bones b. Teeth c. Fatty tissue d. Cells of soft tissue
c
111. Which of the following is a major function of magnesium? a. Transport of oxygen b. Prevention of anemia c. Catalyst in energy metabolism d. Production of thyroid hormone
8
112. A friend shows you a newspaper article titled “Magnesium’s Role in ATP Synthesis.” You explain that a. magnesium does not play a role in ATP synthesis. b. it is not magnesium but manganese that plays the role in ATP synthesis. c. magnesium serves as a catalyst in the reaction that adds the last phosphate to ATP. d. there are three magnesium groups within the ATP structure that help it do its work.
c
b
434(A)
133.A person’s highest bone density is achieved by around age (years) a. 18. b. 30. c. 55. d. 70.
d
134.What percentage of people with osteoporosis are female? a. 20 b. 40 c. 60 d. 80
d
140.Which of the following is a feature of physical activity and bone health? a. Dancing is not an effective activity for helping maintain bone density b. Weight training improves bone density in young but not older women c. Weight-bearing activities are effective in maintaining bone mass in adults but not in adolescents d. Working the muscles places stress on bones which stimulates more trabeculae development
a
150.What is most likely to occur when a calcium supplement and an iron supplement are taken simultaneously? a. Absorption of iron is reduced b. Absorption of iron is improved c. Excretion of iron in the urine is reduced d. Excretion of iron in the urine is enhanced
c
151.To minimize the risk of calcium toxicity, total daily intakes should be held to a maximum of a. 500 mg. b. 1,000 mg. c. 2,500 mg. d. 5,000 mg.
Chapter 13 – The Trace Minerals
MULTIPLE CHOICE 01.
Which of the following is a characteristic of the trace minerals? a. A deficiency sign common to many trace minerals is dermatitis b. The amounts in foods are dependent, in part, on soil composition c. Deficiencies are more difficult to recognize in children than in adults d. The amount of all trace minerals in the average person totals approximately 100 grams
02.
What is the ionic state of ferrous iron? a. -2 b. -1 c. +1 d. +2
03.
What is the ionic state of ferric iron? a. +3 b. +2 c. -2 d. -3
04.
Which of the following is a characteristic of iron transport? a. Albumin is the major iron transport protein in the blood b. Transferrin in the blood carries iron to the bone marrow c. Hemochromatosis results from inability to absorb and transport iron d. Ferritin functions by transporting iron from the spleen to the bone marrow
05.
Which of the following is a protein that carries iron through the circulation to the tissues? a. Albumin b. Transferrin c. Hemosiderin d. Metallothionein
06.
What iron-containing compound carries oxygen in the bloodstream? a. Ferritin b. Myoglobin c. Transferrin d. Hemoglobin
07.
What is the oxygen carrying protein of muscle cells? a. Transferrin b. Myoglobin c. Hemoglobin d. Cytochrome
08.
What fraction of the total iron content of a normal diet is heme iron? a. 1/100 b. 1/10 c. 1/3 d. 1/2
09.
If a person’s body has a total of 5 grams of iron, how many grams would be found in the hemoglobin? a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4
10.
What percentage of the iron in meat is nonheme iron? a. 0 b. 20 c. 40 d. 60
11.
Which of the following foods provides iron in the most absorbable form? a. Rice b. Spinach c. Hamburger d. Orange juice
12.
All of the following factors are known to enhance the absorption of iron except a. MFP factor. b. organic acids. c. ascorbic acid. d. calcium from milk.
13.
Which of the following compounds provides a major storage reservoir for iron? a. Ferritin b. Myoglobin c. Transferrin d. Hemoglobin
14.
All of the following are body proteins directly involved in iron metabolism except a. ferritin. b. transferrin. c. hemosiderin. d. metallothionein.
15.
All of the following characteristics are shared by iron and zinc except a. absorption is inhibited by fiber. b. absorption is inhibited by cow’s milk. c. transport in the blood is primarily by albumin. d. absorption rises with increased needs of the body.
16.
Which of the following characteristics is shared by zinc and iron? a. Good food sources include dairy products b. Proteins in the blood are needed for their transport c. Severe deficiencies lead to delay in the onset of puberty d. Doses of 10 times the RDA may cause death in children
17.
Which of the following characteristics are shared by iron and zinc? a. Neither functions in the maintenance of blood glucose b. Neither is circulated from the pancreas to the intestines and back to the pancreas c. Both are absorbed into intestinal mucosal cells and bound to metallothionein for transport first to the liver d. Both are absorbed into intestinal epithelial cells but may then be lost by normal villus cell renewal processes
18.
Which of the following is a feature of iron absorption? a. It is lower in people with iron toxicity b. It is higher in people with iron deficiency c. It is lower when iron is in the form of heme rather than non-heme d. It is higher in adults than children due to more mature intestinal function
19.
Your cousin Emily is a vegetarian. Since you have just learned in your nutrition class that nonheme iron is absorbed less efficiently than heme iron, you want to make sure Emily is getting enough iron. What should you recommend Emily do to maximize her iron absorption? a. Choose spinach as her main source of iron b. Eat her nonheme iron sources with a glass of milk c. Eat her nonheme iron sources with a glass of orange juice d. Refrain from any major activity after eating to aid digestion/absorption of iron
20.
Among the following, which does not contain the MFP factor? a. Tuna b. Spinach c. Hamburger d. Chicken leg
21.
What is the function of MFP factor? a. Enhances iron absorption b. Acts as an iron enrichment nutrient c. Simulates metallothionein synthesis d. Acts as chelating agent for iron toxicity treatment
22.
When calculating the amount of iron that can be absorbed from a meal, all of the following factors are of major importance except a. EDTA content. b. phytate content. c. vitamin C content. d. MFP factor content.
23.
Which of the following nutrients enhances iron absorption from the intestinal tract? a. Biotin b. Calcium c. Vitamin D d. Vitamin C
24.
Under normal circumstances, what is the average percentage of dietary iron that is absorbed? a. 10 b. 18 c. 33 d. 60
25.
Which of the following is not known to affect iron bioavailability from complete meals? a. Caffeine b. Phytates c. Vitamin C d. MFP factor
26.
All of the following are known to reduce the absorption of iron except a. tea. b. coffee. c. sugars. d. phytates.
27.
How would the body respond typically to loss of blood from hemorrhage? a. More transferrin is produced to allow absorption and transport of more iron b. The average life of the red blood cell is increased in order to allow better tissue oxygenation c. Less iron storage proteins are produced which increases the amount of iron available for synthesis of new red blood cells d. The liver and muscles release their supply of stored red blood cells which compensates, in part, for the decrease in red blood cell concentration of the circulation
28.
All of the following are known to reduce the absorption of iron except a. phytates. b. MFP factor. c. soybean protein. d. tannic acid in tea.
29.
Absorption of iron from supplements is improved by taking them with a. tea. b. meat. c. milk. d. whole-grain bread.
30.
Which of the following is known to enhance iron absorption? a. Tea b. Coffee c. Foods containing vitamin C d. Foods containing vitamin E
31.
Which of the following is known as an iron-overload protein? a. Transferrin b. Hemosiderin c. Marrowferritin d. Metallothionein
32.
A person with high blood levels of hepcidin responds by a. decreasing iron absorption. b. increasing iron absorption. c. decreasing zinc absorption. d. increasing zinc absorption.
33.
All of the following are chief storage sites for surplus iron except the a. liver. b. spleen. c. muscle. d. bone marrow.
34.
What is hepcidin? a. A factor in meats that enhances iron absorption b. An intestinal mucosa protein that assists in iron turnover c. A substance in legumes that interferes with iron absorption d. A liver-derived hormone that helps regulate iron absorption and transport
35.
What is the average lifespan of red blood cells? a. Two weeks b. One month c. Four months d. Six months
36.
Approximately how many people worldwide are thought to be affected by iron deficiency? a. 1 million b. 100 million c. 1.2 billion d. 3.5 billion
37.
Which of the following is a characteristic of iron utilization? a. Most of the body’s iron is recycled b. The chief storage site for iron is the intestinal epithelium c. Iron is absorbed better from supplements than from foods d. Iron from nonheme food sources is absorbed better than that from heme food sources
38.
Iron overload is also known as a. ferrocyanosis. b. hemoglobinemia. c. hemochromatosis. d. metalloferrothionosis.
39.
Which of the following population groups is least susceptible to iron-deficiency anemia? a. Older infants b. Children 2-10 years of age c. Women of childbearing age d. Men 20-45 years of age
40.
Which of the following represents the order of the stages of iron deficiency? a. Iron stores decline - iron transport diminishes - hemoglobin synthesis falls b. Hemoglobin synthesis falls - iron transport diminishes - iron stores decline c. Iron transport diminishes - hemoglobin synthesis falls - iron stores decline d. Iron transport diminishes - iron stores decline - hemoglobin synthesis falls
41.
What is the major cause of iron deficiency? a. Blood loss b. Poor nutrition c. Hereditary defect d. Parasitic infections of the GI tract
42.
Which of the following is found in the first stage of iron deficiency? a. Iron stores decline as assessed by serum ferritin b. Hemoglobin levels fall, as assessed by complete blood count c. Red blood cell count falls, as assessed by hematocrit count d. Hemoglobin synthesis declines, as assessed by erythrocyte protoporphyrin
43.
The most common tests to diagnose iron deficiency include all of the following measures except a. size of red blood cells. b. number of red blood cells. c. DNA content of red blood cells. d. hemoglobin content of red blood cells.
44.
Why are hemoglobin and hematocrit tests of limited usefulness in the assessment of iron status? a. They are expensive to perform b. They are notoriously inaccurate c. They are late indicators of iron deficiency d. The range of normal value is usually wide
45.
What is erythrocyte protoporphyrin? a. Iron chelating drug b. Hemoglobin precursor c. Indicator of iron toxicity d. Inherited iron deficiency disease
46.
The erythrocyte protoporphyrin level is used as an indicator of a. late iron toxicity. b. early iron toxicity. c. late iron deficiency. d. early iron deficiency.
47.
Iron deficiency in children is likely to result from a diet that overemphasizes a. milk. b. cereals. c. vegetables. d. dried beans.
48.
What type of anemia results from iron deficiency? a. Hemolytic b. Megaloblastic c. Microcytic hypochromic d. Macrocytic hyperchromic
49.
Low levels of blood hemoglobin most likely indicate a deficiency of a. zinc. b. iron. c. copper. d. manganese.
50.
Which of the following symptoms would ordinarily not be found in individuals with irondeficiency anemia? a. Fatigue b. Headaches c. Concave nails d. Diminished sense of smell
51.
Which of the following individuals would most likely need an iron supplement? a. One-year-old b. Elderly female c. Pregnant female d. Adolescent female
52.
Taking into account the intestinal absorption efficiency of iron, approximately how much dietary iron must be consumed to account for the iron lost by donating a pint of blood? a. 5 mg b. 15 mg c. 50 mg d. 100 mg
53.
What is the name given to the ingestion of nonnutritive substances? a. Pica b. Goiter c. Tetany d. Hemosiderosis
54.
Which of the following is a characteristic of iron deficiency? a. Blood erythrocyte protoporphyrin levels decline as anemia worsens b. Iron supplements are not as effective at treating anemia as is proper nutrition c. People with anemia generally become fatigued only when they exert themselves d. The concave nails of iron-deficiency anemia result from abnormal ferritin levels
55.
Which of the following is descriptive of iron deficiency and behavior? a. The practice of pica may enhance iron absorption b. Changes in behavior precede the appearance of anemia c. The practice of pica may delay the onset of iron-induced behavioral changes d. Adults are more resistant to iron-induced behavioral changes than children
56.
Common terms that describe the body’s accumulation of excess iron include all of the following except a. iron overload. b. hemosiderosis. c. hemoglobinemia. d. hemochromatosis.
57.
Which of the following foods should be especially limited in the diet of individuals with hemochromatosis? a. Dairy products b. Fluoridated water c. Iron-fortified cereals d. Carbonated beverages
58.
Why are people with iron overload at increased risk for infections? a. Excess tissue iron destroys vitamin C b. Iron-rich blood favors growth of bacteria c. Iron-rich blood impairs the immune system d. Excess tissue iron interferes with antibiotic function
59.
Which of the following is a feature of the disorder hereditary hemochromatosis? a. It is characterized by acrodermatitis b. It is found primarily in women of child-bearing age c. It is associated with defects of copper and zinc absorption d. It is the most common genetic disorder in the United States
60.
Which of the following disorders may be linked with the presence of high blood iron? a. Dermatitis b. Diverticulosis c. Heart disease d. Neural tube defects
61.
Which of the following describes one aspect of iron toxicity? a. Among men in the United States, it is twice as common as iron-deficiency anemia b. In adults, the consumption of alcohol is somewhat protective against absorption of excess iron c. In most people with this disorder, infections are rare because bacteria are killed by excess iron in the blood d. It is usually caused by a virus that attacks the intestinal mucosal cells leading to unregulated and excessive iron absorption
62.
Signs of iron toxicity include all of the following except a. apathy. b. fatigue. c. hypochromic anemia. d. increases in infections.
63.
The most common cause of iron overload is a. an injury to the GI tract. b. a genetic predisposition. c. excessive use of iron cookware. d. excessive use of iron supplements.
64.
Approximately how much iron would be provided by a balanced diet supplying 2000 kcalories? a. 3 mg b. 6 mg c. 12 mg d. 30 mg
65.
When eaten in the same meal, which of the following foods enhances the absorption of iron in legumes? a. Nuts b. Fiber c. Oranges d. Whole-grain breads
66.
Approximately how much higher is the RDA for iron for a vegetarian woman of childbearing age compared with her nonvegetarian counterpart? a. 33% b. 80% c. 150% d. 200%
67.
Which of the following is the most effective and least costly strategy for preventing an iron deficiency? a. Consume iron supplements at a level 2-3 times the RDA b. Switch to iron cooking utensils and eat 4 servings of red meat daily c. Eat small amounts of citrus products and increase intake of low-fat milk d. Eat small quantities of meat, fish, and poultry frequently together with liberal amounts of vegetables and legumes
68.
A child diagnosed with iron-deficiency anemia would most likely benefit from increasing the consumption of a. milk. b. red meat. c. fresh fruits. d. yellow vegetables.
69.
If a normal, healthy young adult woman loses an average of 2 mg/day of iron from the body, approximately what minimum amount (mg/day) should she consume from the diet to prevent negative iron balance? a. 2 b. 5 c. 11 d. 19
70.
Which of the following is a feature of iron nutrition? a. Iron plays an important role in the synthesis of thyroxine b. On average, people absorb about 50-60% of dietary iron c. On average, women do not eat enough iron-containing foods d. Iron deficiency represents the second most common mineral deficiency in the United States
71.
In the United States, iron is currently added to which of the following foods? a. Milk and cheese b. Breads and cereals c. Peanut butter and jellies d. Orange juice and tomato juice
72.
What is the Tolerable Upper Intake Level for iron? a. 45 mg b. 90 mg c. 120 mg d. Twice the RDA
73.
Which of the following has been shown to improve absorption of iron from iron supplements? a. Taking then with milk b. Taking them with orange juice c. Taking them on an empty stomach rather than with meals d. Taking them in the form of the ferric salt rather than the ferrous salt
74.
Why is taking vitamin C ineffective at enhancing iron absorption from standard iron supplements? a. The iron in the supplement is in a chelated form b. The iron in the supplement is already in the ferrous form c. The iron in the supplement binds irreversibly with vitamin C d. The iron supplement already contains MFP to enhance absorption
75.
Which of the following is a common side effect from taking iron supplements? a. Itching b. Diarrhea c. Constipation d. Black tongue
76.
Which of the following would represent a source of possible iron contamination? a. An iron frypan b. An iron chelate c. A ferric iron supplement d. A ferrous iron supplement
77.
Which of the following is a common example of iron contamination in the diet? a. Using an iron skillet to scramble eggs can triple their iron content b. Cooking acidic foods in a copper pot can extract chelate iron from the pot c. Simmering acidic foods in glass dishes leads to leaching of iron salts from the glass d. Cooking leafy vegetables in a galvanized pot leads to a six-fold increase in iron content
78.
What is the RDA for iron for females 19-50 years old? a. 8 mg b. 10 mg c. 18 mg d. 32 mg
79.
An enzyme in which zinc or copper is an integral part of its structure is classified as a(n) a. metalloenzyme. b. oxidoreductase. c. cytochromidase. d. metallothionase.
80.
Which of the following defines an association between a protein and a function of zinc? a. Thyroxine: zinc transporter b. Globulin: transports zinc into cells c. Transferrin: essential to zinc excretion d. Metallothionein: promotes zinc homeostasis
81.
Which of the following is a major binding protein for zinc? a. Ligand b. Ferritin c. Hemosiderin d. Metallothionein
82.
Which of the following is a feature of zinc in nutrition? a. Pancreatic enzymes are rich in zinc b. The body’s primary excretory route is urine c. Good food sources are whole-grain products
83.
d. Toxicity symptoms include constipation and low body temperature Which of the following is known to regulate the absorption of zinc? a. Metallothionein in the intestinal cells b. Zinc-releasing enzymes in the intestinal mucosa c. Pancreatic juice containing zinc-absorption enhancers d. Bile acids which form a complex with zinc to promote its absorption
84
What is the chief transport substance for zinc in the circulation? a. Albumin b. Metallothionein c. Carbonic anhydrase d. High-density lipoproteins
85.
Which of the following minerals undergoes enteropancreatic circulation during normal metabolism? a. Iron b. Zinc c. Copper d. Fluoride
86.
What is the bioavailability of dietary zinc? a. 2-5% b. 5-10% c. 15-40% d. 50-60%
87.
Zinc is known to play an important role in all of the following functions except a. wound healing. b. synthesis of retinal. c. production of sperm. d. oxidation of polyunsaturated fatty acids.
88.
What dietary ratio of iron to zinc inhibits zinc absorption? a. 0.5 to 1 b. 1 to 1 c. Less than 2 to 1 d. Greater than 2 to 1
89.
Which of the following would be the minimum amount of dietary iron known to impair zinc absorption in an individual with a zinc intake of 15 mg? a. 5 mg b. 15 mg c. 30 mg d. 60 mg
90.
Which of the following conditions is known to lead to copper deficiency? a. Excess zinc b. Excess protein c. Insufficient iodine d. Insufficient calcium
91.
Which of the following is a known side effect of prolonged ingestion of excessive amounts of zinc supplements? a. Iron toxicity due to increased ferritin synthesis b. Zinc salt deposits in soft tissues such as the heart and kidneys c. Copper deficiency due to interference with copper absorption d. Mineral binding protein deficiency due to a decrease in metallothionein production
92.
All of the following are known to result from excessive zinc intake except a. inhibition of iron absorption. b. galvanized liver and kidneys. c. inhibition of copper absorption. d. decreases in high-density lipoproteins.
93.
Deficiency of which of the following minerals is associated with retarded growth and sexual development in children? a. Iron b. Zinc c. Iodine d. Chromium
94.
Conditions associated with zinc deficiency include all of the following except a. altered taste. b. kidney failure. c. abnormal night vision. d. poor healing of wounds.
95.
All of the following are recognized symptoms of zinc deficiency except a. anemia. b. altered taste acuity. c. impaired vision in dim light. d. increased susceptibility to infection.
96.
Which of the following represents the most reliable dietary source of zinc? a. Nuts and oils b. Milk and yogurt c. Fruits and vegetables d. Meats and whole-grain cereals
97.
What is the Tolerable Upper Intake Level for zinc? a. 20 mg b. 40 mg c. 80 mg d. 120 mg
98.
Zinc is highest in foods that also contain a high amount of a. fat. b. fiber. c. protein. d. carbohydrate.
99.
Under which of the following conditions are certain supplements of zinc reported to be beneficial? a. In the treatment of colds b. In the treatment of Menkes syndrome c. In the treatment of toxicity from certain other metals d. In the treatment of slow growth syndrome in U.S. children
100.
What formulation of zinc has been found effective in treating the symptoms of the common cold? a. Zinc chelator b. Zinc gluconate c. Zinc plus ferrous iron d. Zinc plus copper salt
101.
Commercially available zinc-containing lozenges are advertised to be effective against a. fatigue. b. vitamin A toxicity. c. the common cold. d. slowing of the BMR.
102.
What mineral is critical to the synthesis of thyroxine? a. Iron b. Copper c. Iodine d. Magnesium
103.
One of the thyroid gland hormones is called a. thyroxine. b. goitrogen. c. thiostimulating hormone. d. tissue stimulating hormone.
104.
What is the primary function of the thyroid hormones? a. Precursors for hemoglobin synthesis b. Counteract a deficiency of goitrogens c. Control the rate of oxygen use by cells d. Regulate acetylcholine concentrations in the central nervous system
105.
Which of the following is a feature of iodine in nutrition? a. Excessive intakes shrink the thyroid gland b. Processed foods in the United States do not use iodized salt c. Iodization of salt is mandatory in the United States but not in Canada d. Worldwide, the prevalence of iodine deficiency and iodine toxicity are approximately the same
106.
You have just been hired by the World Health Organization to promote nutrition education and policies in a small country in Asia, whose population has a high prevalence of goiter. Which of the following policies would be the best to implement with respect to iodine status, cost, and efficiency? a. Fortify the salt with iodine b. Promote free iodine supplements for all who want them c. Educate the population to avoid all goitrogens in their diet d. Educate the population to spend more time at the beach as seawater, sea mist, and seafood are sources of iodine
107.
Which of the following is the richest source of iodine? a. Corn b. Seafood c. Orange juice d. Cruciferous vegetables
108.
If cow’s milk is found to contain unusually high levels of iodine, what is the most likely explanation? a. Storage of milk in galvanized tanks b. Grazing of cows on high-iodine soils c. Addition of fortified salt at the milk processing plant d. Exposure of cows to iodide-containing medications and disinfectants
109.
Which of the following would be the most appropriate food source of iodide for a person who lives inland? a. Fresh water fish b. Iodized table salt c. Locally grown produce d. Plants of the cabbage family
110.
Approximately how much iodized salt must be consumed to meet but not exceed the RDA for iodine? a. 1 mg b. ½ teaspoon c. 1 teaspoon d. 1 tablespoon
111.
The most common cause of iodine deficiency is a. insufficient intake of iodine from foods. b. overconsumption of other trace elements. c. overconsumption of anti-thyroid substances. d. pituitary deficiencies of thyroid-stimulating hormone.
112.
What is the response of the thyroid gland to an iodine deficiency? a. Increase in its size to trap more iodine b. Increase in its size to trap more thyroxine c. Increased release of thyroid-stimulating hormone d. Decreased release of thyroid-stimulating hormone
113.
Which of the following may result from iodine deficiency? a. Gout b. Goiter c. Anemia d. Hypertension
114.
A woman with a severe iodine deficiency during pregnancy may give birth to a child with a. anemia. b. rickets. c. cretinism. d. allergies.
115.
What nutrient deficiency during pregnancy may give rise to a child with cretinism? a. Iodine b. Copper c. Chromium d. Molybdenum
116.
What is a goitrogen? a. One of the hormones produced by the thyroid gland b. A substance that enhances absorption of dietary iodide c. A substance that interferes with the functioning of the thyroid gland d. A compound used to supplement salt as a way to increase iodide intake
117.
A person ingesting large amounts of thyroid antagonist substances is at high risk of developing a. cretinism. b. simple goiter. c. high blood T3 levels. d. high blood thyroxine levels.
118.
Which of the following foods are known to contain goitrogens? a. Shellfish b. Whole grains c. Cauliflower and broccoli d. Blueberries and raspberries
119.
Which of the following fruits are known to contain substances that inhibit the functioning of the thyroid gland? a. Apples and pears b. Lemons and limes c. Avocados and mangos d. Peaches and strawberries
120.
Which of the following is a prominent feature of mild iodine deficiency in children? a. Demineralization b. Growth retardation c. Discoloration of teeth d. Poor performance in school
121.
Which of the following is a feature of iodide utilization? a. It is an integral part of pituitary thyroid stimulating hormone b. Ingestion of plants of the cabbage family stimulates iodide uptake c. A deficiency or a toxicity leads to enlargement of the thyroid gland d. The amount in foods is unrelated to the amount of iodine present in the soil
122.
Which of the following would most likely result from an excessive intake of iodine? a. Diarrhea b. Skin rashes c. Dehydration d. Thyroid gland enlargement
123.
What is the Tolerable Upper Intake Level for iodine? a. 200 µg b. 450 µg c. 1100 µg
124.
d. 2000 µg What is the adult RDA for iodine? a. 45 µg b. 100 µg c. 150 µg d. 225 µg
125.
Your uncle Carlos has survived two heart attacks, and recently asked if he might be deficient in selenium, which he had just heard is essential to heart health. You are aware of his food habits and explain that his condition could not be the result of a dietary deficiency of selenium because a. tap water is a source of selenium. b. selenium is prevalent in most food groups. c. he consumes legumes, a rich source of selenium. d. he drinks fluoridated water, which increases bioavailability of selenium.
126.
Which of the following is an important function of selenium? a. Helps blood to clot b. Inhibits the formation of free radicals c. Stabilizes the alcohol content of beer d. Acts as a cross-linking agent in collagen
127.
Which of the following nutrients has functions similar to those of vitamin E? a. Iron b. Selenium c. Chromium d. Molybdenum
128.
What trace element is part of the enzyme glutathione peroxidase? a. Iron b. Zinc c. Selenium d. Chromium
129.
Which of the following is a property of selenium in nutrition? a. It participates in the functioning of insulin b. Severe deficiency is associated with heart disease in China c. Significant food sources include dairy and unprocessed vegetables d. It has no RDA but the estimated safe and adequate dietary intake is only 2-3 μg/day
130.
Keshan disease results from a deficiency of a. copper. b. selenium. c. manganese. d. molybdenum.
131.
Which of the following minerals is a cofactor in the formation of hemoglobin? a. Iodine b. Copper c. Sodium d. Calcium
132.
Which of the following minerals functions primarily in reactions that consume oxygen? a. Zinc b. Copper c. Chromium d. Molybdenum
133.
Your aunt Thelma has been anemic for some time and was recently shown to be deficient in copper. Which of the following explains the association of copper and anemia? a. Copper is required for hemoglobin synthesis b. Copper plays a role in wound healing, which prevents excessive blood loss c. Anemia affects synthesis of protoporphyrin, which interferes with iron absorption d. Copper is known to protect against free radical formation, which prevents excess damage of red blood cells
134.
All of the following are characteristics of copper in nutrition except a. deficiency is rare. b. legumes are a rich source. c. absorption from foods is poor. d. absorption is reduced by ingestion of zinc supplements.
135.
The rare genetic disorders Menkes disease and Wilson’s disease result from abnormal utilization of a. iron. b. zinc. c. copper. d. manganese.
136.
Which of the following is a feature of copper nutrition? a. Absorption efficiency is similar to that of iron b. It is involved in collagen synthesis and wound healing c. Soft water may provide significant amounts in the diet d. Deficiency is common in children of Middle East countries
137.
Which of the following meats would be the best source of copper? a. Chicken b. Shellfish c. Beefsteak d. Hamburger
138.
Characteristics of manganese in nutrition include all of the following except a. plant foods are good sources. b. deficiencies are seen primarily in the elderly. c. absorption is inhibited by calcium supplements. d. toxicity is more common from environmental contamination than from the diet.
139.
Which of the following represents the most likely cause of manganese toxicity? a. Consumption of supplements b. Increased absorption due to genetic defect c. Inhalation of dust contaminated with manganese d. Consumption of foods grown on manganese-rich soils
140.
Which of the following characteristics are shared by copper and fluoride? a. Both may be obtained from drinking tap water b. Both serve as cofactors for a number of enzymes c. Neither is involved in the integrity of bones and teeth d. Neither is known to be toxic at intakes of 10 times the estimated safe and adequate dietary intake
141.
What is the primary mechanism associated with the role of fluoride in prevention of dental caries? a. Fluoride increases calcium absorption which increases crystal formation of teeth b. Decay is inhibited due to neutralization of organic acids produced by bacteria on the teeth c. Decay is reduced due to the inhibitory effects of fluoride on growth of bacteria on the teeth d. Fluoride becomes incorporated into the crystalline structure of teeth making them less susceptible to decay
142.
Which of the following mechanisms explains why fluoride is effective in controlling tooth decay? a. It helps regulate calcium levels in saliva b. It helps form decay-resistant fluorapatite c. It inhibits growth of decay-producing bacteria d. It changes the pH of the mouth, inhibiting bacterial growth
143.
You have just been elected mayor of Smalltownville, where the major source of drinking water is from wells. What major health problem would be expected among the children of Smalltownville? a. Goiter b. Dental caries c. GI infections d. Hemochromatosis What is the most reliable source of dietary fluoride? a. Public water b. Dark green vegetables c. Milk and milk products d. Meats and whole-grain cereals
144.
145.
What is the optimal fluoride concentration in community water supplies? a. 1 ppm b. 2 ppm c. 2.5 ppm d. 4 ppm
146.
Which of the following is a feature of fluoride in nutrition? a. Most bottled waters are fluoridated b. A severe deficiency is known as fluorosis c. Fluorapatite refers to an increase in the desire to eat fluoride-rich foods d. A deficiency contributes to the most widespread health problem in the United States
147.
Fluoride deficiency is best known to lead to a. dental decay. b. osteoporosis. c. discoloration of teeth. d. nutritional muscular dystrophy.
148.
Which of the following is known to cause discolored enamel of the teeth? a. Excessive fluoride in the water b. Insufficient fluoride in the water c. Excessive intake of simple sugars d. Inability of the body to absorb fluoride
149.
One of the chief functions of chromium is participation in the metabolism of a. iron. b. proteins. c. carbohydrates. d. metallothionein.
150.
As far as is known, what hormone is dependent upon chromium for optimal activity? a. Renin b. Gastrin c. Insulin d. Antidiurectic hormone
151.
Which of the following is a characteristic of chromium in nutrition? a. A deficiency leads to hypothyroidism b. Supplements are known to be helpful c. Whole grains represent an excellent source d. In the body, it enhances the action of ceruloplasmin
152.
What is the Tolerable Upper Intake Level for fluoride? a. 10 mg b. 25 mg c. 60 mg d. 100 mg
153.
Naturally occurring food sources of fluoride include all of the following except a. teas. b. tuna. c. milk. d. shrimp.
154.
What is a glucose tolerance factor? a. A protein that stimulates glycolysis b. A mineral cofactor for a specific enzyme c. A hormone that enhances pancreatic function d. A small organic compound that promotes the action of insulin
155.
Chromium deficiency is characterized by a. hypertension. b. hyperglycemia. c. enlargement of the liver. d. enlargement of the thyroid gland.
156.
Which of the following does not have an RDA? a. Iron b. Zinc c. Iodine d. Fluoride
157.
Which of the following is a characteristic of the mineral molybdenum? a. Enhances the activity of insulin b. Deficiency symptoms in people are unknown c. Unusually poor food sources are legumes and cereal grains d. Toxicity symptoms in human beings include damage to red blood cells
158.
What mineral is part of vitamin B12? a. Copper b. Cobalt c. Nickel d. Vanadium
159.
Which of the following trace minerals is known to be involved in bone development? a. Tin b. Cobalt c. Silicon d. Barium
160.
Evidence to date in animals and/or human beings suggests that normal bone metabolism requires all of the following trace minerals except a. boron. b. silver. c. silicon. d. vanadium.
161.
All of the following are considered heavy metals except a. iron. b. lead. c. mercury. d. cadmium.
162.
Which of the following is characteristic of lead in the body? a. Blood concentrations correlate with low IQ scores b. It interferes with bone growth but not dental health c. It easily displaces anion minerals from their metabolic sites d. Chelating agents have not been shown to be useful for treating high blood lead levels
163.
In the body, lead is known to significantly interfere with utilization of all of the following minerals except a. iron. b. zinc. c. calcium. d. selenium.
164.
What term designates foods that contain nonnutrient substances which may provide health benefits beyond basic nutrition? a. Health foods b. Organic foods c. Functional foods d. Disease preventative foods
165.
What is the Tolerable Upper Intake Level for copper? a. 1 mg b. 2.5 mg c. 7.5 mg d. 10 mg
166.
Which of the following is a rich source of phytoestrogens? a. Potatoes b. Soybeans c. Cold-water fish d. Green, leafy vegetables
167.
Lycopene is classified as a(n) a. lignan. b. carotenoid. c. phytoestrogen. d. enzyme cofactor.
168.
What is mycoprotein? a. A meat substitute made from a fungus b. A keratin-like protein found on the cornea c. A protein supplement enriched with trace minerals d. A dysfunctional blood protein arising from iron deficiency
169.
All of the following are classified as phytonutrients except a. lutein. b. lignans. c. hepcidin. d. phytosterols. Flaxseed is a rich source of a. lutein. b. lignans. c. sulforaphane. d. organosulfur compounds.
170.
Matching 01. 02. 03. 04. 05. 06. 07. 08. 09. 10. 11. 12. 13. 14. 15. 16. 17. 18. 19. 20. A. B. C. D. E.
Tea Iron Pica Zinc Heme
Iron storage protein Enhances absorption of nonheme iron Form of iron found only in animal flesh Form of iron found in both plant and animal foods Oxygen-carrying protein in muscle Substance in coffee and tea that reduces iron absorption Craving for non-food substances Toxicity from this mineral is twice as prevalent as deficiency in men Condition characterized by large deposits of iron storage protein in body tissues Zinc binding protein of intestine A deficiency of this element retards growth and arrests sexual maturation Iron-containing protein in erythrocytes Iodine deficiency disease Major dietary source of iodine Disease associated with severe selenium deficiency Stabilized form of tooth crystal Deficiency leads to hyperglycemia Condition associated with discoloration of tooth enamel Significant dietary source of fluoride Mineral that forms integral part of vitamin B12 F. G. H. I. J.
Goiter Cobalt Ferritin Keshan Nonheme
K. Chromium L. Fluorosis M. Myoglobin N. MFP Factor O. Hemoglobin
P. Q. R. S. T.
Tannic acid Fluorapatite Fortified salt Hemosiderosis Metallothionein
Chapter 14 –Fitness: Physical Activity, Nutrients, and Body Adaptations MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Which of the following best defines the term fitness? a. the ability of the body to resist stress b. the ability to maintain a normal body composition c. the ability of the body to remain free of injury while performing strenuous physical tasks d. the ability to meet normal physical demands within available energy reserves ANS: A
REF: 469, Section 14.0-Introduction
MSC: Knowledge
2. Which of the following distinguishes exercise from other physical activities? a. Exercise involve mandatory body movement, b. Exercise does not involve enhanced energy expenditure c. Exercise involves muscle contractions. d. Exercise involves structured, planned, repetitive movements. ANS: D
REF: 469, Section 14.1-Fitness
MSC: Knowledge
3. Which of the following factors are ALL components of fitness? a. flexibility, strength and bone fragility b. flexibility, bone fragility and cardiovascular endurance c. flexibility, cardiovascular endurance, and strength d. flexibility, bone fragility and cardiovascular endurance ANS: C
REF: 472, Section 14.1-Fitness
MSC: Knowledge
4. How do participants in a regular program of physical fitness compared with sedentary populations? a. They have lower bone density. b. They have higher blood pressure. c. They have higher resting pulse rate. d. They have lower blood cholesterol. ANS: D
REF: 470, Section 14.1-Fitness
MSC: Knowledge
5. What percentage of Canadian adults are physically inactive? a. 5 percent b. 20 percent c. 35 percent d. 50 percent ANS: D
REF: 470, Section 14.1-Fitness
MSC: Knowledge
6. Women who engage in regular physical activity have a reduced risk of gallbladder disease. Which of the following factors may, in part, account for the reduced risk? a. increased sphincter tone b. reduction of blood lipids c. alteration of hormonal profile d. increased strength of the gastrointestinal musculature ANS: B
REF: 470, Section 14.1-Fitness
MSC: Knowledge
7. Which of the following is consistent with the physical activity recommendations for moderate to vigorous exercise?
a. b. c. d.
The minimum daily amount is 10 minutes. The minimum time for an effective bout is 10 minutes. The minimum daily amount is 120 minutes. The minimum time for an effective bout is 60 minutes.
ANS: B
REF: 471, Section 14.1-Fitness
MSC: Knowledge
8. Which of the following rates of moderately intense exercise in the minimum needed to achieve substantial health benefits? a. 10 minutes/day b. 20 minutes/day c. 150 minutes/week d. 300 minutes/week ANS: C
REF: 471, Section 14.1-Fitness
MSC: Knowledge
9. Which of the following is categorized as a fitness strength activity? a. pilates b. tennis c. cycling d. kickboxing ANS: A
REF: 472, Section 14.1-Fitness
MSC: Knowledge
10. Which of the following best exemplifies an activity that promotes flexibility? a. yoga b. pilates c. weight lifting d. jumping rope ANS: A
REF: 472, 476, Section 14.1-Fitness
MSC: Knowledge
11. Which of the following elements of training is part of the progressive overload principle? a. frequency only b. frequency and intensity only c. frequency, intensity and flexibility d. frequency, intensity and duration ANS: D
REF: 473, Section 14.1-Fitness
MSC: Knowledge
12. Which of the following defines muscle atrophy? a. loss of muscle size and strength b. muscle cramps arising from insufficient warm-up c. muscle spasms resulting from too-rapid progressive overloading d. alterations in heart muscle contractions when first initiating a fitness program ANS: A
REF: 473, Section 14.1-Fitness
MSC: Knowledge
13. Which of the following terms refers to the increase in muscle size in response to training? a. swelling b. hypertrophy c. mesomorphy d. engorgement ANS: B
REF: 473, Section 14.1-Fitness
MSC: Application
14. How can athletes safely add muscle tissue? a. By tripling protein intake b. By taking hormones duplicating those of puberty c. By repeatedly making muscles work harder d. decreasing intake of carbohydrates and relying on protein for muscle fuel ANS: C
REF: 473, Section 14.1-Fitness
MSC: Application
15. How long should the exercise warm-up and cool-down periods last? a. 1–2 minutes each b. 5–10 minutes each c. 15 minutes each d. 2 minutes warm-up and 4 minutes cool-down ANS: B
REF: 474, Section 14.1-Fitness
MSC: Knowledge
16. Which of the following is a direct result of cardiorespiratory conditioning? a. increased flexibility b. increased resting pulse c. increased breathing efficiency d. decreased blood volume and oxygen delivery ANS: C
REF: 474, Section 14.1-Fitness
MSC: Knowledge
17. Which of the following terms refers to the effect of regular exercise on heart and lung function? a. circulatory fitness b. myocardiopulmonary strengthening c. cardiopulmonary adaptation d. cardiorespiratory conditioning ANS: D
REF: 474, Section 14.1-Fitness
MSC: Knowledge
18. For maximum benefits, cardiorespiratory endurance activities should be sustained for at least how long? a. 20 minutes b. 40 minutes c. 1 hour d. 2 hours ANS: A
REF: 474, Section 14.1-Fitness
MSC: Knowledge
19. A person who achieves cardiorespiratory conditioning may alter resting pulse rate by about how much? a. -20 beats/min b. -10 beats/min c. +10 beats/min d. +20 beats/min ANS: A
REF: 474, Section 14.1-Fitness
MSC: Application
20. Which of these measurements refers to the volume of blood ejected by the heart each minute? a. VO2 max b. one-half VO2 max c. cardiac output d. stroke volume ANS: C
REF: 474, Section 14.1-Fitness
MSC: Knowledge
21. Which of the following measurements is a person’s “VO2 max”? a. maximum velocity on a treadmill test b. maximum rate of oxygen consumption c. maximum intake of oxygen while at rest d. maximum intake of air at 70 percent physical exhaustion ANS: B
REF: 474, Section 14.1-Fitness
MSC: Application
22. If a person’s maximum heart rate is 220 beats/minute, what is the safe maximum heart rate during vigorous exercise? a. 110 beats/min b. 142 beats/min c. 165 beats/min d. 198 beats/min ANS: D
REF: 475, Section 14.1-Fitness
MSC: Application
23. Pat has gained about 10 kilograms (kg) n the past 5 years and has come to you for help with a diet and exercise regimen. In order to promote optimal fat loss through exercise, in which of the following activities should Pat participate? a. wearing an electrical impulse belt throughout the day b. low- to moderate-intensity aerobic exercise like hiking c. high-intensity aerobic activity like cycling, swimming, or running d. very high-intensity anaerobic activity like 400 metre un at maximal speed ANS: B
REF: 477-478, Section 14.1-Fitness
MSC: Application
24. In weight training, muscle endurance can best be increased by which of the following types of activity? a. a low number of repetitions with heavy weight b. a low number of repetitions with lighter weight c. a high number of repetitions with heavy weight d. a high number of repetitions with lighter weight ANS: D
REF: 476, Section 14.1-Fitness
MSC: Application
25. In weight training, muscle strength can best be increased by which of the following types of activity? a. a low number of repetitions with heavy weight b. a low number of repetitions with lighter weight c. a high number of repetitions with heavy weight d. a high number of repetitions with lighter weight ANS: A
REF: 476, Section 14.1-Fitness
MSC: Application
26. Which is of these is the predominant fuel used by muscle cells during low- or moderate-intensity activity? a. fat b. protein c. glycogen d. blood glucose ANS: A MSC: Knowledge
REF: 477, Section 14.2-Energy Systems and Fuels to Support Activity
27. Joe arrives at the bus stop as his bus is pulling away and has to race for two 50m blocks to catch it at the next stop. Although he feels tired, which of the following high-energy muscle compounds did he rely on for quick energy? a. fat b. lactate c. creatine phosphate d. adenosine diphosphate ANS: C MSC: Application
REF: 477, Section 14.2-Energy Systems and Fuels to Support Activity
28. Which of these high-energy compounds acts as a reservoir of energy to replenish ATP during high intensity activity of short duration? a. glycerol b. glycogen c. fatty acids d. creatine phosphate ANS: D MSC: Knowledge
REF: 477, Section 14.2-Energy Systems and Fuels to Support Activity
29. During physical performance, what is the role of creatine phosphate? a. removal of lactic acid b. transfer of energy to make ATP c. removal of nitrogen waste products d. transfer of phosphate to muscle fibre ANS: B MSC: Knowledge
REF: 477, Section 14.2-Energy Systems and Fuels to Support Activity
30. When a person suddenly begins sprinting, about how long will it take to exhaust the muscles’ supply of creatine phosphate? a. 1 second b. 10 seconds c. 1 minute d. 10 minutes ANS: B MSC: Application
REF: 477, Section 14.2-Energy Systems and Fuels to Support Activity
31. If muscle work is anaerobic, which of the following CANNOT serve as fuel? a. fat b. protein c. carbohydrate d. creatine phosphate ANS: A MSC: Application
REF: 477, Section 14.2-Energy Systems and Fuels to Support Activity
32. Which of these substances contains chemical energy that is available instantly for muscle contraction? a. ATP b. NAD c. glucose d. gatty acids ANS: A
REF: 477, Section 14.2-Energy Systems and Fuels to Support Activity
MSC: Knowledge 33. Which of the following is the usual fate of muscle glycogen during exercise? a. utilized as a fuel within the muscle cells only b. released into the bloodstream to provide fuel for brain cells c. released into the bloodstream to replenish liver glycogen d. utilized to support lung and heart function ANS: A MSC: Application
REF: 478, Section 14.2-Energy Systems and Fuels to Support Activity
34. Which of these dietary nutrients are most effective at raising muscle glycogen concentrations? a. fats b. proteins c. carbohydrates d. alcohol ANS: C MSC: Application
REF: 478, Section 14.2-Energy Systems and Fuels to Support Activity
35. Which of the following diets promotes superior physical endurance in athletes? a. high-fat diet b. high-protein diet c. high-carbohydrate diet d. normal mixed diet with vitamin supplements ANS: C MSC: Application
REF: 478-479, Section 14.2-Energy Systems and Fuels to Support Activity
36. In the average person, the amount of stored glycogen represents how much energy? a. 500 kcal b. 1000 kcal c. 2000 kcal d. 4000 kcal ANS: C MSC: Application
REF: 478, Section 14.2-Energy Systems and Fuels to Support Activity
37. Which of the following activities reduces the amount of stored es glycogen at the highest rate? a. sleeping b. studying c. walking d. 400-metre run ANS: D MSC: Application
REF: 479, Section 14.2-Energy Systems and Fuels to Support Activity
38. Which of the following is least likely to affect the size of the body’s glycogen stores? a. energy content of the diet b. fat content of the diet c. mineral content of the diet d. carbohydrate content of the diet ANS: C MSC: Knowledge
REF: 478-479, Section 14.2-Energy Systems and Fuels to Support Activity
39. Which of the following substances would tend to accumulate in a tissue deprived of an oxygen supply during exercise? a. ATP b. lactate c. glucose-1-phosphate d. TCA cycle intermediates ANS: B MSC: Application
REF: 479, Section 14.2-Energy Systems and Fuels to Support Activity
40. Which of the following substances increases in muscles during intense exercise? a. ATP b. lactate c. glycogen d. phosphocreatine ANS: B MSC: Application
REF: 479, Section 14.2-Energy Systems and Fuels to Support Activity
41. Which of the following substances is a common product of anaerobic metabolism? a. lactate b. phytate c. phosphoric acid d. hydrochloric acid ANS: A MSC: Application
REF: 479, Section 14.2-Energy Systems and Fuels to Support Activity
42. What is the name of the biochemical pathway that converts lactate to glucose? a. Cori cycle b. Krebs cycle c. beta-oxidation d. reverse glycolysis ANS: A MSC: Knowledge
REF: 479, Section 14.2-Energy Systems and Fuels to Support Activity
43. How much time spent in vigorous activity is usually needed to deplete glycogen reserves? a. 1 hour b. 2 hours c. 3 hours d. 4 hours ANS: B MSC: Knowledge
REF: 480, Section 14.2-Energy Systems and Fuels to Support Activity
44. Which of these descriptions best characterizes the Cori cycle? a. a process in the liver that regenerates glucose from lactate released by muscles b. a sequence of coordinated muscle contractions of slow-twitch and fast-twitch fibres c. an exercise machine that allows development of both aerobic and anaerobic capacities d. a group of enzymatic reactions that accelerate muscle glycogen repletion in trained athletes ANS: A MSC: Knowledge
REF: 479, Section 14.2-Energy Systems and Fuels to Support Activity
45. Typically, during the first 20 minutes of moderate exercise, the body uses available glycogen in about which of the follow percentages? a. 20 percent b. 40 percent c. 60 percent d. 80 percent ANS: A MSC: Knowledge
REF: 479, Section 14.2-Energy Systems and Fuels to Support Activity
46. When a marathon runner experiences the phenomenon known as “hitting the wall,” which of these nutrients is most likely depleted? a. water b. protein c. glucose d. fatty acids ANS: C MSC: Application
REF: 480, Section 14.2-Energy Systems and Fuels to Support Activity
47. Which of the following promotes the most rapid repletion of glycogen stores after physical activity? a. mixed meal taken within 30 minutes b. mixed meal taken within 4 hours c. high-carbohydrate meal taken within 15 minutes d. high-carbohydrate meal taken within 2½ hours ANS: C MSC: Application
REF: 480, Section 14.2-Energy Systems and Fuels to Support Activity
48. Which of the following is a characteristic of the rate of glycogen synthesis after a bout of strenuous training? a. It is maximal beginning 2 hours after training. b. It proceeds at an even pace over the next 24 hours. c. It slows two hours after training by almost 50 percent.. d. It steadily increases over the four hours following training. ANS: C MSC: Knowledge
REF: 480-481, Section 14.2-Energy Systems and Fuels to Support Activity
49. Glycogen repletion following a bout of strenuous training is increased most by foods high in which macronutrient? a. protein b. low glycemic index carbohydrate c. high glycemic index carbohydrate d. fat ANS: C MSC: Knowledge
REF: 480-481, Section 14.2-Energy Systems and Fuels to Support Activity
50. Which of the following walking speeds is considered a moderate rate of exercise? a. 14-16 km per hour b. 10-12km per hour c. 5-7 km per hour d. 2-3 km per hour ANS: C
REF: 471, Section 14.2-Energy Systems and Fuels to Support Activity
MSC: Application 51. Which of the following best distinguishes conditioned muscles from unconditioned muscles? a. conditioned muscles can store more glycogen. b. conditioned muscles are more efficient at converting fat to glucose. c. conditioned muscles rely more on protein breakdown to provide glucose. d. conditioned muscles rely less on fat breakdown and more on glucose oxidation for energy. ANS: A MSC: Knowledge
REF: 481, Section 14.2-Energy Systems and Fuels to Support Activity
52. Which of the following describes a characteristic of fat use during physical activity? a. Upon commencing an activity, blood fatty acids rise to provide an immediate source of fuel. b. Fat that is present within the muscle fibre represents the primary source of energy for that muscle. c. Athletes who consume a high-fat, low-carbohydrate diet for even 1 day are at risk for depleting their glycogen reserves quickly. d. After consumption of a high-fat diet for at least 2 weeks, physical activities are performed as efficiently as from intake of a high-carbohydrate diet. ANS: C MSC: Knowledge
REF: 481, Section 14.2-Energy Systems and Fuels to Support Activity
53. What cellular organelles are responsible for producing ATP aerobically? a. ribosomes b. Golgi bodies c. mitochondria d. cell membranes ANS: C MSC: Knowledge
REF: 481, Section 14.2-Energy Systems and Fuels to Support Activity
54. For optimal performance of endurance athletes, sports nutritionists recommend approximately how much dietary fat as a percent of total energy? a. 5-10 percent b. 10-15 percent c. 20-35 percent d. 35-45 percent ANS: C MSC: Knowledge
REF: 482, Section 14.2-Energy Systems and Fuels to Support Activity
55. During a physical activity, what hormone signals the fat cells to begin releasing their fatty acids? a. leptin b. glucagon c. epinephrine d. neuropeptide-Y ANS: C MSC: Knowledge
REF: 482, Section 14.2-Energy Systems and Fuels to Support Activity
56. Which of the following describes fat utilization during physical activity? a. Fat that is stored closest to the exercising muscle is oxidized first. b. Fat represents the major fuel source during sustained, moderate activity.
c. Fat oxidization makes more of a contribution as the intensity of the exercise increases. d. Fat is burned in higher quantities during short, high-intensity exercises than prolonged, low-intensity exercises. ANS: B MSC: Application
REF: 482, Section 14.2-Energy Systems and Fuels to Support Activity
57. Which of the following is an effect of physical fitness on fat metabolism? a. Fatty acid release from adipose cells directly into muscle cells becomes more efficient. b. Fatty acid concentrations in the blood rise significantly after the first 20 minutes of physical activity. c. Fatty acid energy release requires less oxygen on a per-kcalorie basis than does the use of glucose. d. Fat utilization slows down and liver glucose release rises in response to adaptation of the body’s hormonal profile. ANS: B MSC: Application
REF: 482, Section 14.2-Energy Systems and Fuels to Support Activity
58. Which of the following is associated with muscles using their maximum amount of energy from fat? a. breathing is easy b. training regimen is optimal c. balanced diets were ingested d. high-glycemic index foods were ingested ANS: A MSC: Application
REF: 482, Section 14.2-Energy Systems and Fuels to Support Activity
59. In the immediate post-exercise period, what type of diet enhances muscle protein synthesis? a. protein alone b. carbohydrate alone c. carbohydrate plus fat d. carbohydrate plus protein ANS: D MSC: Application
REF: 483, Section 14.2-Energy Systems and Fuels to Support Activity
60. Which of the following is an effect of exercise on protein metabolism? a. Protein synthesis is inhibited during exercise. b. Protein use as a fuel is lowest in endurance athletes. c. Body protein synthesis rates decline about 30 percent for several hours after physical activity. d. Protein synthesis is increased slightly during exercise but thereafter diminishes by a like amount to remain in balance. ANS: A MSC: Application
REF: 483, Section 14.2-Energy Systems and Fuels to Support Activity
61. Which of the following describes the role of protein as a fuel during physical activity? a. Protein is not a major fuel for physical activity. b. Protein contributes 30% percent less to total fuel used for physical activity than during rest c. Protein contributes 30% percent more to total fuel used for physical activity than during rest. d. Body protein is the dominant fuel for resistance activity but not for endurance activity. ANS: A
REF: 483, Section 14.2-Energy Systems and Fuels to Support Activity
MSC: Application 62. The body’s use of protein is increased in which of the following situations?? a. when the percent energy from carbohydrates versus fat is increased. b. whan a bodybuilder’s degree of training increases over time c. when sedentary individuals embark on a bodybuilding program d. when total dietary energy levels are high ANS: C MSC: Application
REF: 483, Section 14.2-Energy Systems and Fuels to Support Activity
63. Which of the following is a characteristic of protein use in physical activity? a. Protein use in endurance events is less than for strength events. b. Protein use for energy increases with increased strength training. c. Protein contributes up to 10 percent of total fuel used during activity, which is similar to the resting state. d. Protein contributes approximately the same amount to total energy use on high-carbohydrate or high-fat diets. ANS: C MSC: Knowledge
REF: 483, Section 14.2-Energy Systems and Fuels to Support Activity
64. Which of the following is an effect of diet in physical activity? a. Diets high in fat lead to a fall in amino acid utilization to fuel performance. b. Diets lacking in carbohydrates lead to increased amino acid utilization to fuel performance. c. Deficiencies of vitamins have no effect on performance provided that all other nutrients are adequate. d. Deficiencies of minerals have no effect on performance provided that all other nutrients are adequate. ANS: B MSC: Application
REF: 478-484, Section 14.2-Energy Systems and Fuels to Support Activity
65. For female endurance athletes, about how much more protein above the RDA is recommended by recognized health organizations? a. 10–20 percent b. 25–35 percent c. 50–75 percent d. 100–150 percent ANS: C MSC: Application
REF: 484, Section 14.2-Energy Systems and Fuels to Support Activity
66. According to several recognized health organizations, about how many grams of protein per day are recommended for a 50 kg, female marathon runner? a. 40–45 g b. 50–64 g c. 60–70 g d. 120–154 g ANS: C MSC: Application
REF: 484, Section 14.2-Energy Systems and Fuels to Support Activity
67. Which of the following describes the dietary recommendations for competitive athletes?
a. The need for protein per kilogram body weight is higher in female athletes than in male athletes. b. The need for protein is best met by increasing the level to 20–25 percent of total energy content of the diet. c. The need for protein in weight lifters and marathon runners may be up to 50–100 percent higher than the RDA. d. The need for protein in most athletes generally could not be met from diets meeting energy requirements but providing only 10 percent of the energy as protein. ANS: C MSC: Application
REF: 484, Section 14.2-Energy Systems and Fuels to Support Activity
68. According to several recognized health organizations, about how many grams of protein per day are recommended for a 70 –kg, male, strength athlete? a. 56 g b. 112 g c. 140 g d. 168 g ANS: B MSC: Application
REF: 484, Section 14.2-Energy Systems and Fuels to Support Activity
69. Your friend Bob, who engages in endurance exercise throughout the week, is concerned that his protein intake is inadequate and asks what type of protein supplement he should take. Which of the following should be your response? a. All high-quality protein drinks are equivalent despite the price differences. b. The extra protein he needs should be high-quality lean sources of poultry and fish. c. He most likely already gets more protein from his regular diet than he needs, even for endurance activity. d. No sports authority organizations recommend protein intakes greater than the RDA for endurance athletes. ANS: C MSC: Application
REF: 484, Section 14.2-Energy Systems and Fuels to Support Activity
70. Which of the following is recommended for people who engage in regular high-intensity physical activity? a. Vitamin E supplements should be taken to protect against exercise-induced oxidative stress. b. Vitamin E supplements should be avoided as they have no effect against exercise-induced oxidative stress c. Since some studies find that vitamin E supplements increase oxidative stress, low vitamin E intake is advised. d. Since research on vitamin E supplements and oxidative stress is conflicting, food but not supplemental vitamin E sources are recommended. ANS: D MSC: Application
REF: 485, Section 14.3-Vitamins and Minerals to Support Activity
71. Which of the following reflects current research regarding vitamin E supplementation and physical activity? a. Vitamin E supplementation protects against exercise-induced oxidative stress. b. Some studies show that vitamin E protects against exercise-induced oxidative stress whereas others show the opposite. c. Some studies show that vitamin E supplements protect against oxidative stress only in en-
durance athletes competing outdoors in air-polluted environments. d. Some studies show that high-dose vitamin E intake improves oxygen consumption (VO2max) in endurance athletes ANS: B MSC: Knowledge
REF: 485, Section 14.3-Vitamins and Minerals to Support Activity
72. Which of these nutrients is important in the transport of oxygen in blood and in muscle tissue and in energy transformation reactions? a. iron b. calcium c. thiamine d. vitamin C ANS: A MSC: Application
REF: 486, Section 14.3-Vitamins and Minerals to Support Activity
73. Which of the following best represents current knowledge of the role of vitamin and mineral supplements in physical performance? a. When taken right before an event, vitamin and mineral supplements benefit performance. b. Moderate amounts of vitamins and mineral supplements improve the performance of most elite athletes. c. Except perhaps for iron, vitamin and mineral supplements are needed in high amounts to meet the needs of athletes exposed to hot and humid weather conditions. d. Except perhaps for iron, vitamin and mineral supplements are not recommended. ANS: D MSC: Knowledge
REF: 484-487, Section 14.3-Vitamins and Minerals to Support Activity
74. Why should iron supplements NOT be used to treat sports anemia? a. People who are suffering from sports anemia do not have a deficiency of dietary iron. b. Sports anemia is most likely the result of folate deficiency. c. The iron will interfere with creatine phosphate synthesis. d. The iron will not be absorbed well because of the intense workouts. ANS: A MSC: Application
REF: 486, Section 14.3-Vitamins and Minerals to Support Activity
75. How does sports anemia differ from iron-deficiency anemia? a. Sports anemia is associated with normal hemoglobin whereas iron deficiency anemia is associated with low hemoglobin. b. Sports anemia is not responsive to iron supplements whereas iron deficiency anemia is effectively treated by supplemental iron. c. Sports anemia is due primarily to blood loss associated with injury whereas iron deficiency anemia is mainly due to dietary insufficiency. d. Sports anemia is due primarily to increased iron loss via perspiration whereas iron deficiency anemia is due primarily to dietary insufficiency. ANS: B MSC: Application
REF: 485, Section 14.3-Vitamins and Minerals to Support Activity
76. Which of the following is most commonly the cause of sports anemia? a. dietary iron-deficiency. b. decreased red blood cell size. c. decreased red blood cell number.
d. a temporary adaptive response to training. ANS: D MSC: Knowledge
REF: 486, Section 14.3-Vitamins and Minerals to Support Activity
77. How do the dietary iron needs of female athletes differ from female non-athletes? a. Due to the absence of menstruation, n eeds of most female athletes are lower than non-athletes. b. Due to the demands of activity and small losses in sweat, the needs of female athletes are slightly higher than non-athletes. c. Due to high losses of iron in sweat, needs of female athletes are 2 – 3 times higher than non-athletes. d. Due to sports anemia, affected female athletes require more iron than non-athletes. ANS: B MSC: Application
REF: 485-486, Section 14.3-Vitamins and Minerals to Support Activity
78. Which of these nutrients needs to be replenished first during endurance physical exercise? a. iron b. water c. glucose d. glycogen ANS: B MSC: Knowledge
REF: 487, Section 14.4-Fluids and Electrolytes to Support Activity
79. Which amount of body water loss will produce a noticeable effect on performance? a. 2 percent of body weight b. 5 percent of body weight c. 10 percent of body weight d. 12 percent of body weight ANS: A MSC: Knowledge
REF: 487, Section 14.4-Fluids and Electrolytes to Support Activity
80. What is the minimum amount of body water loss that is likely to cause a person to collapse? a. 2 percent of body weight b. 7 percent of body weight c. 15 percent of body weight d. 25 percent of body weight ANS: B MSC: Knowledge
REF: 487, Section 14.4-Fluids and Electrolytes to Support Activity
81. Which of the following is typically the first sign of dehydration? a. fatigue b. dizziness c. intense thirst d. intense sweating ANS: A MSC: Knowledge
REF: 487, Section 14.4-Fluids and Electrolytes to Support Activity
82. A person engaged in an endurance event has lost 2 L of body water by sweating. What would be the approximate energy loss from the evaporation of the sweat? a. 100 kcal
b. 500 kcal c. 850 kcal d. 1200 kcal ANS: D MSC: Application
REF: 487, Section 14.4-Fluids and Electrolytes to Support Activity
83. What is the minimum amount of body water loss necessary to bring about a reduction in work capacity of an average 70 kg individual? a. 1.4 L b. 2.1 L c. 2.8 L d. 3.5 L ANS: A MSC: Application
REF: 487, Section 14.4-Fluids and Electrolytes to Support Activity
84. In an endurance athlete, the first priority of nutrient repletion should be which of the following? a. fluids b. protein c. glycogen d. electrolytes ANS: A MSC: Application
REF: 487, Section 14.4-Fluids and Electrolytes to Support Activity
85. Which of the following best characterizes heat stroke? a. a rise in body temperature due, in part, to dehydration, that is rarely fatal. b. heat build-up in the body, resulting in symptoms include headache, nausea, and mental changes . c. a rise in body temperature of 1°C, without dehydration d. a body water loss of 2 percent, causing reduced work capacity ANS: B MSC: Knowledge
REF: 487, Section 14.4-Fluids and Electrolytes to Support Activity
86. Suppose that a person engages in physical activity in hot, humid weather and wears a rubber suit to promote weight loss. Which of the following are they at high risk of experiencing? a. ketosis b. heat stroke c. hypothermia d. over hydration ANS: B MSC: Application
REF: 487, Section 14.4-Fluids and Electrolytes to Support Activity
87. Which of the following are common early symptoms of hypothermia? a. headache and nausea b. euphoria and shivering c. confusion and delirium d. dizziness and clumsiness ANS: B MSC: Knowledge
REF: 487, Section 14.4-Fluids and Electrolytes to Support Activity
88. Which of the following characterizes fluid losses in response to prolonged endurance exercise?
a. b. c. d.
Losses rise to a maximum of 0.5L fluid per hour of exercise. Losses are minimal in cold weather, because the body does not sweat. Losses in sweat can exceed the capacity of the GI tract to absorb water Losses are generally compensate by a marked rise in the thirst sensation to stimulate fluid replacement.
ANS: C MSC: Knowledge
REF: 487, Section 14.4-Fluids and Electrolytes to Support Activity
89. Joe’s cycling club is on a weekend-long trip. At a rest stop, one of his friends notices that Joe is acting very confused and clumsy. Joe’s behaviour may be an early sign of which of the following conditions? a. heat stroke b. dehydration c. hypothermia d. exertional distress ANS: A MSC: Application
REF: 487, Section 14.4-Fluids and Electrolytes to Support Activity
90. Which of the following is recommended for replacement of electrolytes in sports? a. Trained athletes need electrolyte replacement after 15 minutes of heavy exercise, whereas untrained person do not need electrolyte replacement for 1 hour.. b. Replenishment of lost electrolytes in most athletes can be accomplished by ingesting a regular diet. c. Significant losses of calcium, sulphur, and chromium in sweat can be replaced by including milk and whole grains in the diet. d. Losses of electrolytes in activities of 1 to 3 hours duration should be replaced using salt tablets. . ANS: B MSC: Knowledge
REF: 488, Section 14.4-Fluids and Electrolytes to Support Activity
91. For events of less than 1 hour, benefit from sports drinks is likely due to which of the following? a. psychological advantage. b. prevention of sodium depletion. c. provision of fuel to enhance performance. d. prevention of dehydration. ANS: A MSC: Knowledge
REF: 488, Section 14.4-Fluids and Electrolytes to Support Activity
92. In training to run a marathon this summer, you want to determine how much fluid to drink during training sessions. Your weight at the beginning of every training session is 70 kg. At the end of every training session you weigh 68 kg. How many cups of fluid are necessary replenish these losses? a. 500 mL b. 1,000 mL c. 1,500 mL d. 2,000 mL ANS: D MSC: Application
REF: 488, Section 14.4-Fluids and Electrolytes to Support Activity
93. How can water loss from the body be quickly estimated at the end of a physical activity? a. Multiply body weight (kg) by 1 percent to determine litres of water loss. b. Multiply duration of activity (min) by body weight (kg) to determine millilitres of water
loss. c. Subtract air temperature (°C) from body weight (kg) and then multiply by 5 to determine millilitres of water loss. d. Take the difference in body weight (kg) before and after the event and multiply by 1to determine litres of water loss. ANS: D MSC: Application
REF: 488, Section 14.4-Fluids and Electrolytes to Support Activity
94. What is the minimum amount of fluid that an athlete should drink for each half kilogram of body weight lost during an activity? a. 0.25 L b. 0.5 L c. 1 L d. 2 L ANS: B MSC: Application
REF: 488, Section 14.4-Fluids and Electrolytes to Support Activity
95. Hyponatremia refers to low blood levels of which of these nutrients? a. water b. sodium c. glucose d. potassium ANS: B MSC: Knowledge
REF: 488, Section 14.4-Fluids and Electrolytes to Support Activity
96. Which of the following strategies is recommended to replace sodium losses during a prolonged event, such as a marathon? a. consume salt tablets during the event. b. eat pretzels during the second half of the event. c. consume conventional sports drinks during the event. d. consume diluted fruit juice during the event. ANS: C MSC: Knowledge
REF: 490, Section 14.4-Fluids and Electrolytes to Support Activity
97. John is inclined to sweat heavily and has experienced heat cramps in the past. What would be his best choice for fluid replacement during a five hour cycling race next summer? a. a standard commercial sports drink throughout b. water for the first three hours and a standard commercial sports drink for the remainder of the event c. a high sodium commercial sports drink d. vitamin-enhanced water ANS: C MSC: Knowledge
REF: 488-90, Section 14.4-Fluids and Electrolytes to Support Activity
98. Which of the following is a benefit of glucose polymer sports drinks compared with sugar-containing drinks? a. Glucose polymer sports drinks supply more energy per gram of carbohydrate. b. Glucose polymer sports drinks require less digestion and therefore are absorbed faster into the circulation. c. Glucose polymer sports drinks attract less water in the GI tract and thus allow more water
to remain in circulation. d. Glucose polymer sports drinks are absorbed much more slowly and therefore provide a more even carbohydrate load to the body. ANS: C MSC: Application
REF: 489-490, Section 14.4-Fluids and Electrolytes to Support Activity
99. How long must an athlete exercise before sports drinks begin to provide a physiological advantage over plain water? a. 15 minutes b. 60 minutes c. 1½ hours d. 3 hours ANS: B MSC: Application 100.
What percentage of carbohydrate concentration in sports drinks is optimal for the endurance athlete? a. 1–2 percent b. 3-5 percent c. 6–8 percent d. 15–20 percent ANS: C MSC: Application
101.
REF: 490, Section 14.4-Fluids and Electrolytes to Support Activity
Which of the following remedies would be the best choice for physically active people who need to rehydrate? a. sweat replacers b. salt tablets and tap water c. diluted juice or cool water d. water warmed to body temperature ANS: C MSC: Application
103.
REF: 490, Section 14.4-Fluids and Electrolytes to Support Activity
About how many kcalories are supplied by 250 mL of a typical sports drink? a. 5–10 kcal b. 50–100 kcal c. 250–500 kcal d. 500–1000 kcal ANS: B MSC: Knowledge
102.
REF: 488-490, Section 14.4-Fluids and Electrolytes to Support Activity
REF: 488-490, Section 14.4-Fluids and Electrolytes to Support Activity
Which of the following is the chief adverse effect of drinking a carbonated beverage before engaging in athletic activity? a. The carbonic acid inhibits fluid absorption. b. The bubbles induce chronic burping and so inhibit performance. c. The bubbles induce feelings of fullness quickly and so limit fluid intake. d. The carbonic acid promotes gastroesophageal reflux, leading to upper GI discomfort. ANS: C MSC: Knowledge
REF: 490, Section 14.4-Fluids and Electrolytes to Support Activity
104.
Which of the following is the most significant rationale for eliminating alcohol intake during athletic performance? a. Alcohol is not metabolized in muscle. b. Alcohol inhibits glycogen breakdown. c. Alcohol inhibits creatine phosphate synthesis. d. Alcohol interferes with ATP synthesis in the liver. ANS: A MSC: Knowledge
105.
What is the greatest concern with use of enhanced water by athletes? a. unnecessary expense. b. vitamin intakes above the recommended upper limit. c. risk of hypernatremia. d. abdominal cramps, nausea and diarrhea ANS: A MSC: Knowledge
106.
REF: 491, Section 14.5-Diets for Physically Active People
Which of the following should be the composition of the final meal before an athletic event? a. high-protein, providing 30 kcal per kg body weight b. vegetable and fruit juices, providing 100–200 kcal c. high-carbohydrate, low-fibre, providing 300–800 kcal d. high-fibre, providing 200–300 kcal and liberal amounts of fluid ANS: C MSC: Application
109.
REF: 491, Section 14.5-Diets for Physically Active People
Which of the following is the recommended amount of dietary carbohydrate for an athlete training for a marathon? a. about 2 g/kg body weight b. about 4 g/kg body weight c. about 8 g/kg body weight d. about 12 g/kg body weight ANS: C MSC: Application
108.
REF: 490, Section 14.4-Fluids and Electrolytes to Support Activity
Which of the following should be a component of a healthy nutrition regimen for athletes? a. salt tablets b. protein powders c. nutrient-dense foods d. vitamin and mineral supplements ANS: C MSC: Application
107.
REF: 490, Section 14.4-Fluids and Electrolytes to Support Activity
REF: 493, Section 14.5-Diets for Physically Active People
Which of the following foods is poorly tolerated by many athletes? a. pasta b. beans c. breads d. potatoes ANS: B MSC: Application
REF: 493, Section 14.5-Diets for Physically Active People
110. Why should fibre-rich foods be avoided in an athlete’s pre-game meal? a. The fibre delays absorption of fat. b. The fibre interferes with glycolysis. c. The fibre crowds out more energy-dense foods. d. The fibre retains water in the GI tract that would otherwise be absorbed. ANS: D MSC: Knowledge
REF: 493, Section 14.5-Diets for Physically Active People
111. What is the recommended composition of the post-game meal of the athlete? a. low-protein b. high-protein c. low-carbohydrate d. high-carbohydrate ANS: D MSC: Application
REF: 493-494, Section 14.5-Diets for Physically Active People
112. Which of the following is the main indication for creatine supplementation in athletes? a. to enhance performance of endurance athletes. b. to increase muscle bulk in bodybuilders. c. to enhance performance of weight lifters and sprinters. d. to induce short-term weight loss. ANS: C MSC: Knowledge
REF: 500, Section 14.6-Supplements as Ergogenic Aids
113. Which of the following conclusions can be drawn about carnitine supplementation as an ergogenic aid? a. It does not seem to increase fat oxidation. b. It enhances carbohydrate oxidation rate but not fat oxidation. c. It raises muscle carnitine concentration but does not improve performance. d. It promotes retention of amino acids but does not lead to increased muscle mass. ANS: A MSC: Application
REF: 500, Section 14.6-Supplements as Ergogenic Aids
114. Which ergogenic aid would be best to enhance short-term, high-intensity performance? a. Creatine. b. Carnitine c. Conjugated linoleic acid d. Chromium picolinate. ANS: A MSC: Knowledge
REF: 498-500, Section 14.6-Supplements as Ergogenic Aids
115. Which of the following describes an effect of caffeine use in the athlete? a. It stimulates fatty acid release. b. It enhances performance for almost all athletes. c. It raises blood pH to counteract the buildup of lactate. d. It promotes absorption of electrolytes from the intestinal tract. ANS: A MSC: Application
REF: 500, Section 14.6-Supplements as Ergogenic Aids
116. Why is hromium picolinate supplementation NOT recommended for athletes?
a. b. c. d.
Chromium bioavailability from supplements is poor. Athletes may obtain sufficient chromium from chocolate. Chromium supplements enhance free fatty acid release but inhibit fatty acid oxidation. Most recent studies show no favourable effects of chromium supplements on strength or lean body mass.
ANS: D MSC: Application
REF: 499-500, Section 14.6-Supplements as Ergogenic Aids
117. Why is caffeine an effective ergogenic aid for some athletes? a. It slows depletion of muscle glycogen. b. It enhances muscle creatine-phosphate. c. It acts as a physiological and psychological stimulant. d. Ite supports reduction of body fat. ANS: C MSC: Knowledge
REF: 500-501, Section 14.6-Supplements as Ergogenic Aids
118. Many athletes avoid caffeine use during physical activity for which of the following reasons? a. Caffeine promotes fatigue. b. Caffeine reduces glycogen breakdown in muscles. c. University and national competitions prohibit the use of any caffeine. d. Side effects of caffeine include irritability, headaches, and diarrhea. ANS: D MSC: Knowledge
REF: 500-501, Section 14.6-Supplements as Ergogenic Aids
119. Which of the following ergogenic aids increases the risk for acromegaly? a. HMB b. creatine c. octacosanol d. human growth hormone ANS: D MSC: Knowledge 120.
What do DHEA and androstenedione have in common? a. both are hormones b. both are estrogens c. both are phytonutrients d. both are herbal extracts ANS: A MSC: Knowledge
121.
REF: 502, Section 14.6-Supplements as Ergogenic Aids
Which of the following consequences of excessive human growth hormone use has been identified in athletes? a. shorter life span. b. weight loss. c. shrinking of internal organs. d. nausea, vomiting and diarrhea. ANS: A MSC: Knowledge
122.
REF: 502, Section 14.6-Supplements as Ergogenic Aids
REF: 502, Section 14.6-Supplements as Ergogenic Aids
Which of the following is a side effect of androstenedione use?
a. b. c. d.
oily skin, acne and hair growth. diabetes. breast enlargement in both males and females. reduced strength.
ANS: A MSC: Knowledge
REF: 502, Section 14.6-Supplements as Ergogenic Aids
MATCHING
a. 4 b. 8–10 c. 20 d. 70 e. 105 f. 600 g. Oxygen h. Fitness i. Alcohol j. Caffeine k. Glucose l. Creatine m. Glycogen n. Hydration o. Flexibility p. Lactate q. Hypertrophy r. Hypothermia s. Hyperthermia t. Sports anemia The body’s ability to deal with stress The capacity of the joints to move with less chance of injury Increase in muscle size and strength A precursor in the formation of a high-energy compound in muscle cells Required for aerobic metabolism A chief substance of the Cori cycle that is released by muscles Depletion of this substance leads runners to experience “hitting the wall” Recommended amount of carbohydrate as percentage of total energy intake of endurance athletes Substance in muscle that serves as a source of energy and water Number of minutes after starting a physical activity that blood fatty acid concentrations begin to rise Suggested protein intake (grams per day) for a 70 –kg, male competitive body builder Transient condition of low blood hemoglobin in athletes Early symptoms of this disorder include nausea and stumbling Number of kcalories expended from evaporation of 1 L of sweat Early symptoms of this disorder are shivering and euphoria The replacement of fluids during physical activities Recommended amount of water intake, in cups, for each kilogram of body weight lost from physical activity 18. Stimulant used to enhance performance during exercise 19. Depressant that promotes fluid losses
1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10. 11. 12. 13. 14. 15. 16. 17.
20. Recommended carbohydrate intake, in grams per kilogram body weight, of athletes in heavy training 1. ANS: H 2. ANS: O 3. ANS: Q 4. ANS: L 5. ANS: G 6. ANS: P 7. ANS: K 8. ANS: D 9. ANS: M 10. ANS: C 11. ANS: E 12. ANS: T 13. ANS: S 14. ANS: F 15. ANS: R 16. ANS: N 17. ANS: A 18. ANS: J 19. ANS: I 20. ANS: B
REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF:
p. 469 p. 473 p. 473 p. 477 p. 482 p. 479 p. 480 p. 480 p. 478 p. 482 p. 483 p. 486 p. 487 p. 487 p. 487 p. 487 p. 487 p. 490 p. 491 p. 490
ESSAY 1. Discuss the physiological and psychological benefits of being physically fit. ANS: Answers may vary. REF: p. 470-472 2. Describe at least 5 major benefits associated with being physically fit. ANS: Answers may vary. REF: p. 470-472 3. Define and provide examples of aerobic physical activity, moderate-intensity physical activity, and vigorous-intensity physical activity. ANS: Answers may vary. REF: p. 471 4. What is the meaning and significance of applying the “talk test” to gauge the intensity of physical activities? ANS:
Answers may vary. REF: p. 471 5. Explain the meaning and significance of cardiorespiratory endurance. ANS: Answers may vary. REF: p. 471, 472, 473 6. Explain the recommended training procedure (i.e., overload principle) for mastering the components of fitness. ANS: Answers may vary. REF: p. 473 7. Define the progressive overload principle as it applies to physical fitness. ANS: Answers may vary. REF: p. 473 8. List recommendations for building fitness while minimizing the risk of overuse injuries. ANS: Answers may vary. REF: p. 473-474 9. Discuss the meaning, significance, and practical application of cardiorespiratory conditioning. ANS: Answers may vary. REF: p. 474-475 10. What is meant by a balanced fitness program and how is it best achieved? ANS: Answers may vary. REF: p. 475-476 11. Discuss the theory and application of resistance training. ANS: Answers may vary. REF: p. 476
12. In resistance exercise, what is the relationship between repetitions and amount of weight if the fitness goal is muscle strength, muscle power, or muscle emphasis? ANS: Answers may vary. REF: p. 476 13. Discuss the use of protein, fat, and carbohydrate as fuels during low-, moderate-, and high-intensity exercise. ANS: Answers may vary. REF: p. 476-478 14. Explain the association of ATP and creatine phosphate in physical performance. ANS: Answers may vary. REF: p. 477 15. How do diet and the intensity of physical activity affect glycogen storage and use? ANS: Answers may vary. REF: p. 478-480 16. What is the role of lactate in physical activity? ANS: Answers may vary. REF: p. 479 17. What happens to the body when glucose stores become depleted from strenuous activity? How can this depletion be delayed? ANS: Answers may vary. REF: p. 480 18. Explain the training technique of carbohydrate loading. What are its advantages and disadvantages? ANS: Answers may vary. REF: p. 480-481 19. Describe 3 factors that influence fat use during physical activity.
ANS: Answers may vary. REF: p. 481-482 20. Discuss the pros and cons of high-fat diets for athletic performance. ANS: Answers may vary. REF: p. 481-482 21. Describe the changes in protein metabolism that occur during and after physical activity. What is the role of diet in fostering recovery from muscle stress? ANS: Answers may vary. REF: p. 483 22. Compare the protein needs of endurance and strength athletes. ANS: Answers may vary. REF: p. 483-484 23. How do diet, activity intensity and duration, and extent of training influence protein use during physical activity? ANS: Answers may vary. REF: p. 483-484 24. How might supplemental vitamin E adversely affect physically active people? ANS: Answers may vary. REF: p. 485 25. Why are supplements of vitamin E thought to benefit people engaged in endurance activity? What does the evidence actually show? ANS: Answers may vary. REF: p. 485 26. Discuss the effects of athletic training on iron nutrition, especially in adolescent females. ANS: Answers may vary.
REF: p. 485-486 27. Compare and contrast the characteristics of sports anemia and iron-deficiency anemia. ANS: Answers may vary. REF: p. 486 28. Describe the risks for hyperthermia and hypothermia in physically active people. What is the role of fluid support in prevention and treatment? ANS: Answers may vary. REF: p. 486-488 29. Discuss the need for water in maintaining physical performance. What are the symptoms of dehydration? What are the recommendations for ensuring that the body is well hydrated prior to an athletic event? ANS: Answers may vary. REF: p. 486-488 30. Discuss the importance of sodium nutrition for the athlete. ANS: Answers may vary. REF: p. 488, 489-490 31. Why are athletes at risk for hyponatremia? How can this condition be prevented and treated? ANS: Answers may vary. REF: p. 488, 489-490 32. Why are alcoholic beverages considered poor sources of energy, water, and electrolytes for athletes? ANS: Answers may vary. REF: p. 490-491 33. Describe an appropriate diet for physically active people. ANS: Answers may vary. REF: p. 491-492
34. Discuss optimal composition and timing of pre-game and post-game meals. ANS: Answers may vary. REF: p. 493-494 35. Why do many people and especially athletes believe in ergogenic aids? ANS: Answers may vary. REF: p. 498-499 36. Discuss the use of 6 dietary substances promoted as aids to enhance athletic performance. ANS: Answers may vary. REF: p. 498, 499-501 37. Discuss the use and abuse of caffeine, carnitine, chromium, and creatine as ergogenic substances. ANS: Answers may vary. REF: p. 499-501 38. What is known about the ergogenic effects of conjugated linoleic acid? ANS: Answers may vary. REF: p. 500 39. Discuss the pros and cons of caffeine use in competitive athletic events. ANS: Answers may vary. REF: p. 500-501 40. Describe the hazards of using anabolic steroids and human growth hormone as ways of improving physical performance. ANS: Answers may vary. REF: p. 501-502
Chapter 15 – Life Cycle Nutrition: Pregnancy and Lactation MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Which of the following shows a relationship between nutrition and pregnancy? a. Underweight has little, if any, effect on fertility. b. Overweight men have low sperm counts that reduce fertility. c. Limited body fat in women interferes with the regular cycles of menstruation. d. The woman’s nutritional status is less important than the man’s for the developing fetus. ANS: B MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 505, Section 16.1-Nutrition prior to Pregnancy
2. Which of the following describes the capacity of a man to produce sperm and a woman to periodically produce a normal egg? a. zygote b. fertility c. conception d. implantation zone ANS: B MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 505, Section 16.1-Nutrition prior to Pregnancy
3. Which of the following has a favourable influence on fertility? a. being underweight b. having excess body fat c. eliminating low-glycemic carbohydrates from the diet d. choosing diets providing protein from vegetable sources ANS: D MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 505, Section 16.1-Nutrition prior to Pregnancy
4. What organ of the pregnant woman is central to the exchange of nutrients for waste products with the fetus? a. uterus b. vagina c. placenta d. amniotic sac ANS: C MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 506, Section 16.2-Growth and Development during Pregnancy
5. What organ functions to prepare the mother’s breasts for lactation? a. uterus b. ovaries c. placenta d. amniotic sac ANS: C MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 506, Section 16.2-Growth and Development during Pregnancy
6. What connects the umbilical cord to the fetus? a. uterus b. placenta
c. amniotic sac d. belly button ANS: D MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 506, Section 16.2-Growth and Development during Pregnancy
7. Which of the following describes the placenta? a. an organ from which the infant receives nourishment b. a muscular organ within which the infant develops before birth c. the developing infant from the eighth week after conception until birth d. the developing infant during its second through eighth week after conception ANS: A MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 506, Section 16.2-Growth and Development during Pregnancy
8. A newly fertilized egg is known as which of the following? a. a fetus b. an ovum c. a zygote d. an embryo ANS: C MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 506-507, Section 16.2-Growth and Development during Pregnancy
9. What is the approximate length of the fetus at 11 weeks of development? a. 2.5 cm b. 4.0 cm c. 5.5 cm d. 7.0 cm ANS: B MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 507, Section 16.2-Growth and Development during Pregnancy
10. A newborn infant at full gestational age has an average length of which of the following? a. 40 cm b. 45 cm c. 50 cm d. 55 cm ANS: C MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 507, Section 16.2-Growth and Development during Pregnancy
11. How many weeks is the usual duration of a full-term pregnancy? a. 32–36 weeks b. 38–42 weeks c. 43–45 weeks d. 46–49 weeks ANS: B MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 508, Section 16.2-Growth and Development during Pregnancy
12. Gestation is generally divided into equal periods of how long? a. 4 weeks, called quarters b. 9 weeks, called quartiles c. 4 months, called semesters d. 3 months, called trimesters
ANS: D MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 508, Section 16.2-Growth and Development during Pregnancy
13. Which of the following weight ranges typifies a healthy infant? a. 2 - 2.5 kg b. 2.5 - 3 kg c. 3 - 3.5 kg d. 3.5 - 4 kg ANS: C MSC: Application
REF: p. 508, Section 16.2-Growth and Development during Pregnancy
14. Which of these terms is given to the time period during which irreversible damage to the fetus may occur from specific events such as malnutrition or exposure to toxins? a. first trimester b. critical period c. fertility period d. conceptual period ANS: B MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 508, Section 16.2-Growth and Development during Pregnancy
15. Which of these is the name given to the human organism 2 to 8 weeks after fertilization and the stage at which the digestive system is formed? a. fetus b. embryo c. zygote d. mesoderm ANS: B MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 508, Section 16.2-Growth and Development during Pregnancy
16. Which of these is the term given to the developing infant from the eighth week after conception until birth? a. fetus b. ovum c. zygote d. embryo ANS: A MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 508, Section 16.2-Growth and Development during Pregnancy
17. Which of these is the stage of pregnancy at which an embryo shows a beating heart and a complete central nervous system? a. 8 weeks b. 12 weeks c. 20 weeks d. 29 weeks ANS: A MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 508, Section 16.2-Growth and Development during Pregnancy
18. During development of the fetus, which of these organs is/are the first to develop? a. heart and lungs b. liver and kidneys
c. gastrointestinal tract d. central nervous system and brain ANS: D MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 508, Section 16.2-Growth and Development during Pregnancy
19. The neural tube forms the early parts of which of the following body parts? a. umbilical cord b. liver and pancreas c. gastrointestinal tract d. brain and spinal cord ANS: D MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 508, Section 16.2-Growth and Development during Pregnancy
20. Among the following, which is known to represent a significant risk factor for a pregnancy being affected by a neural tube defect? a. maternal obesity b. age at time of pregnancy c. low socioeconomic status d. exposure to a hot tub during pregnancy ANS: A MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 509, Section 16.2-Growth and Development during Pregnancy
21. The mandatory Canadian fortification of which one of the following foods has helped dramatically to reduce the incidence for neural tube defects? a. flour b. salt c. milk d. orange juice ANS: A MSC: Application
REF: p. 509, Section 16.2-Growth and Development during Pregnancy
22. An infant born with incomplete closure of the spinal cord has which of the following disorders? a. spina bifida b. macrosomia c. anencephaly d. neural tube seizure ANS: A MSC: Application
REF: p. 509-510, Section 16.2-Growth and Development during Pregnancy
23. The most common forms of neural tube defects are spina bifida and which of the following? a. macrosomia b. anencephaly c. myelomeningecele d. rachischisis ANS: B MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 509, Section 16.2-Growth and Development during Pregnancy
24. Which of these organs is most affected in anencephaly? a. liver b. heart
c. brain d. pancreas ANS: C MSC: Application
REF: p. 509, Section 16.2-Growth and Development during Pregnancy
25. As a nutrition consultant, you advise patients to en sure they consume about 400 µg of folate daily. One patient is aware that folate helps prevent birth defects but she isn’t sure why she should take it if she is not pregnant. Which of the following is the most appropriate reply? a. Folate supplementation prevents pernicious anemia, which increases the risk of spina bifida. b. Folate supplementation is needed to ensure a large store that can be utilized by the growing fetus. c. As long as supplementation begins the day pregnancy is confirmed, there is no risk of defects. d. The neural tube develops early on in pregnancy, oftentimes before the woman realizes she is pregnant. ANS: D MSC: Application
REF: p. 508-509, Section 16.2-Growth and Development during Pregnancy
26. Which of the following nutrients taken as a prenatal supplement has been found to be associated with a lower incidence of neural tube defects? a. iron b. folate c. calcium d. cobalamin ANS: B MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 509, Section 16.2-Growth and Development during Pregnancy
27. Studies report that folate supplements for women may lower the incidence of neural tube defects of infants when the vitamin is taken during which of these stages of pregnancy? a. final 3 months of gestation b. middle 3 months of gestation c. first three months of gestation d. month before conception through the first 3 months of pregnancy ANS: D MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 509-510, Section 16.2-Growth and Development during Pregnancy
28. What is the percentage increase in the folate RDA during pregnancy? a. 25 percent b. 50 percent c. 75 percent d. 100 percent ANS: B MSC: Application
REF: p. 510, Section 16.2-Growth and Development during Pregnancy
29. What percentage of pregnancies in Canada are unplanned? a. 10 percent b. 20 percent c. 35 percent d. 50 percent
ANS: D MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 510, Section 16.2-Growth and Development during Pregnancy
30. As a means to reduce the risk of neural tube defects in newborn infants, grain products are fortified with which one of these nutrients? a. folate b. thiamin c. vitamin C d. vitamin B12 ANS: A MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 510, Section 16.2-Growth and Development during Pregnancy
31. During fetal development, which of the following nutritional concerns may increase the risk for a chronic condition later in adult life? a. Malnutrition during pregnancy leads to macrosomia and GI disturbances in the offspring. b. Insufficient nutrient intake during pregnancy promotes hypertrophy of the kidneys and hypotension in adulthood. c. Nutrition during pregnancy is the chief determinant of pancreatic beta cell growth and the risk for type 2 diabetes of the offspring. d. Malnutrition during pregnancy programs the fetus to modify the genetic composition of the placenta and thereby alter nutrient delivery through the umbilical cord. ANS: C MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 510-511, Section 16.2-Growth and Development during Pregnancy
32. The process by which maternal nutrient intake affects the child’s development of diseases later in life is known by which of the following terms? a. retrogenetics b. reverse genetics c. fetal programming d. postpartum degenerative expression ANS: C MSC: Application
REF: p. 511, Section 16.2-Growth and Development during Pregnancy
33. Which of these parameters is the most reliable indicator of an infant’s future health status? a. infant’s birth weight b. mother’s weight before pregnancy c. mother’s weight gain during pregnancy d. mother’s nutrition status prior to pregnancy ANS: A MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 511, Section 16.3-Maternal Weight
34. Which of the following describes macrosomia? a. a neural tube defect b. a high-birth weight infant c. excessive weight gain of the mother d. abnormal cravings for carbohydrate during pregnancy ANS: B MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 512, Section 16.3-Maternal Weight
35. Which of the following conditions increases the risk of macrosomia?
a. b. c. d.
folate deficiency pre-pregnancy obesity post-pregnancy infection gestational oxygen deprivation
ANS: B MSC: Application
REF: p. 512, Section 16.3-Maternal Weight
36. Which of the following terms describes an infant born during the 36th week of pregnancy? a. term b. preterm c. post term d. cesarean ANS: B MSC: Application
REF: p. 512, Section 16.3-Maternal Weight
37. Which of the following describes an infant born during the 43rd week of pregnancy? a. term b. preterm c. post term d. cesarean ANS: C MSC: Application
REF: p. 512, Section 16.3-Maternal Weight
38. What is the recommended range of weight gain during pregnancy for a normal-weight woman? a. 4.5–8.2 kg b. 8.6–10.9 kg c. 11.5–16.0 kg d. 17.2–20 kg ANS: C MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 512, Section 16.3-Maternal Weight
39. What is the recommended range of weight gain during pregnancy for an underweight woman? a. 6.8–11.3 kg b. 12.5–18.0 kg c. 19.1–22.7 kg d. 24.9–28.1 kg ANS: B MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 512, Section 16.3-Maternal Weight
40. In obese pregnant women, the risk for neural tube defects in the infant is believed to result from which of these behaviours? a. insufficient exercise b. poor glycemic control c. insufficient folate intake d. dieting during pregnancy ANS: B MSC: Application
REF: p. 512, Section 16.3-Maternal Weight
41. Which of the following describes a true relationship between body weight and pregnancy? a. Overweight women bear the greatest number of low-birth-weight infants.
b. Weight gain during pregnancy is the sole determinant of fetus weight at birth. c. The increased incidence of neural-tube defects of infants born to obese women is due primarily to folate insufficiency. d. Underweight women who gain 13.6 kg during pregnancy tend to birth smaller babies than heavier women who gain 13.6 kg. ANS: D MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 511-512, Section 16.3-Maternal Weight
42. You work with a primary-care physician to help newly pregnant women plan their diets. What vital information is needed to formulate a plan of weight gain? a. weight and height b. physical activity level c. number of previous pregnancies d. weight gain preference of the mother ANS: A MSC: Application
REF: p. 512-513, Section 16.3-Maternal Weight
43. In pregnancy, a large weight gain over a short time period is evidence of which of the following? a. edema b. poor glycemic control c. insufficient physical activity d. development of neural tube defects ANS: A MSC: Application
REF: p. 513, Section 16.3-Maternal Weight
44. For the normal-weight woman who becomes pregnant, what is the ideal weekly weight gain from the start of the second trimester and onward? a. 0.45 kg b. 0.9 kg c. 1.4 kg d. 1.8 kg ANS: A MSC: Application
REF: p. 513, Section 16.3-Maternal Weight
45. Usually, which of these is the first sign of preeclampsia? a. fall in blood pressure b. elevated blood glucose c. a large weight gain over a short time d. chronic episodes of pica over the last 2 trimesters ANS: C MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 513, Section 16.3-Maternal Weight
46. What is the recommended minimum weight gain of a woman who will bear twins? a. 11.3 kg b. 17.1 kg c. 20.4 kg d. 24.9 kg ANS: B MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 513, Section 16.3-Maternal Weight
47. What is the minimum recommended weight gain for the obese pregnant woman? a. 5 kg b. 8.2 kg c. 11.3 kg d. 15.9 kg ANS: A MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 513, Section 16.3-Maternal Weight
48. In pregnancy, a large weight gain over a short time is usually an indication of which of the following states? a. excessive fat deposition b. excessive fluid retention c. abnormal fetal development d. normal pregnancy only if it occurs during the second trimester ANS: B MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 513, Section 16.3-Maternal Weight
49. The component of weight gain during pregnancy that is similar to the average weight of the infant at birth is which of the following? a. placenta b. amniotic sac fluid c. maternal fat stores d. uterus and supporting muscles ANS: C MSC: Application
REF: p. 513, Section 16.3-Maternal Weight
50. Approximately which of the following measurements (in kg) represents the increase in the mother's fluid volume during pregnancy? a. 0.5 kg b. 1.0 kg c. 1.5 kg d. 2.0 kg ANS: D MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 514, Section 16.3-Maternal Weight
51. To maintain physical fitness during pregnancy, which of the following activities are considered acceptable? a. saunas b. scuba diving c. playing singles tennis d. playing singles squash ANS: C MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 514-515, Section 16.3-Maternal Weight
52. Which of the following situations occur as a response to pregnancy? a. breast size increases b. blood volume stays the same c. body water level decreases d. joint flexibility stays the same ANS: C
REF: p. 515, Section 16.4-Nutrition during Pregnancy
MSC: Knowledge 53. Jenny has just learned that she is 1 month pregnant (first trimester). She has been looking forward to all the ice cream, chips, and cakes she has seen women on TV and in the movies eating when they are pregnant. Which of the following is the most appropriate advice for Jenny? a. She can eat these foods, but only up to 340 kcalories extra per day. b. She can eat these foods, but only up to 550 kcalories extra per day. c. She does not have increased energy needs in the first trimester and should not indulge herself. d. She should not eat these foods, but rather include 1 extra serving from each food group per day. ANS: C MSC: Application
REF: p. 515, Section 16.4-Nutrition during Pregnancy
54. What is the recommended increase in daily energy intake, in kcalories, for the third trimester of pregnancy? a. 200 kcal b. 300 kcal c. 450 kcal d. 540 kcal ANS: C MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 515, Section 16.4-Nutrition during Pregnancy
55. Over the course of the entire pregnancy, approximately how much extra energy, in kcalories, does the average pregnant woman need to consume? a. 10,500 kcal b. 26,000 kcal c. 49,000 kcal d. 72,000 kcal ANS: D MSC: Application
REF: p. 515, Section 16.4-Nutrition during Pregnancy
56. Which of the following statements characterizes energy needs during pregnancy? a. The need is proportionally greater than for most other nutrients. b. The increased needs are similar at the beginning and end of pregnancy. c. The needs increase by similar amounts in teenagers and 30-year-old women. d. Carbohydrates should supply a minimum of 135 g and ideally 175 g per day. ANS: D MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 517, Section 16.4-Nutrition during Pregnancy
57. Which of the following nutrients are required in higher amounts during pregnancy due to their roles in the synthesis of red blood cells? a. protein and chromium b. folate and vitamin B12 c. calcium and vitamin A d. vitamin E and vitamin C ANS: B MSC: Application
REF: p. 517, Section 16.4-Nutrition during Pregnancy
58. Which of the following numbers is the protein RDA during pregnancy?
a. + 10 g/day b. + 15 g/day c. + 20 g/day d. + 25 g/day ANS: B MSC: Application
REF: p. 517, Section 16.4-Nutrition during Pregnancy
59. Of the following nutrient needs, which is considered the most difficult to meet during pregnancy, often because of low body stores? a. iron b. protein c. vitamin D d. vitamin B6 ANS: A MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 518, Section 16.4-Nutrition during Pregnancy
60. Which of the following amounts (in mg) of iron are typically provided in most prenatal supplements? a. 10 - 40 mg b. 20 - 50 mg c. 30 - 60 mg d. 40 - 70 mg ANS: C MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 518, Section 16.4-Nutrition during Pregnancy
61. What is the RDA for zinc in pregnant women aged 19 - 50 years? a. 10 mg b. 11 mg c. 12 mg d. 13 mg ANS: B MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 518, Section 16.4-Nutrition during Pregnancy
62. During pregnancy, which of the following nutrients show a dramatic increase in absorption? a. salt and sugar b. protein and fat c. calcium and iron d. thiamin and ascorbic acid ANS: C MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 518, Section 16.4-Nutrition during Pregnancy
63. What is the RDA for vitamin D during pregnancy? a. 12 ug per day b. 15 ug per day c. 18 ug per day d. 21 ug per day ANS: B MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 518, Section 16.4-Nutrition during Pregnancy
64. During the last trimester, how many milligrams of calcium are transferred daily to the fetus? a. 200 mg b. 300 mg c. 400 mg d. 500 mg ANS: B MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 518, Section 16.4-Nutrition during Pregnancy
65. The amount of vitamin D recommended in pregnancy should be obtained by consumption of fortified milk and from which of the following sources? a. low-mercury fish b. exposure to the sun c. tropical fruit juices d. vitamin D supplements ANS: B MSC: Application
REF: p. 518, Section 16.4-Nutrition during Pregnancy
66. In pregnant women unable to meet their calcium needs, how many milligrams of a daily calcium supplement are advised? a. 150 mg b. 300 mg c. 600 mg d. 1000 mg ANS: C MSC: Application
REF: p. 518, Section 16.4-Nutrition during Pregnancy
67. Examine the following menu for a pregnant woman. • • •
Breakfast 2 scrambled eggs 1 whole wheat English muffin 250 mL orange juice
• • • •
Lunch 2 pieces (125g) fried chicken 2 wheat rolls w/butter 125 mL mashed potatoes and gravy Iced tea
• • • •
Supper 100g pork chop 1 ear corn on the cob Lettuce and tomato salad with 30 mL dressing 1 slice bread
According to the recommended food intake for pregnancy, which of the following food groups is the only one that is provided in sufficient amounts by this menu? a. milk b. meats c. vegetables d. bread/cereal ANS: B MSC: Application
REF: p. 515-519, Section 16.4-Nutrition during Pregnancy
68. Since repeated pregnancies occurring within short time frames lead to depletion of the mother’s nutrient reserves, what is the optimal interval between pregnancies? a. ½ year b. 1 year c. 1½–2 years
d. 3–4 years ANS: C MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 519, Section 16.4-Nutrition during Pregnancy
69. Infants of vegan parents may suffer from spinal cord damage and develop severe psychomotor retardation as a result of a lack of which nutrient in the mother`s diet during pregnancy? a. iron b. calcium c. vitamin B12 d. folate ANS: C MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 519, Section 16.4-Nutrition during Pregnancy
70. Which of the following is a common problem of pregnancy? a. dehydration b. headaches c. constipation d. low blood pressure ANS: A MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 520-521, Section 16.4-Nutrition during Pregnancy
71. To help alleviate pregnancy-related nausea, which one of the following actions is recommended? a. Eat dry toast or dry crackers. b. Avoid carbonated beverages c. Avoid orange juice when feeling nauseated. d. Exercise regularly ANS: A MSC: Application
REF: p. 520, Section 16.4-Nutrition during Pregnancy
72. Which of the following is one of the recommendations to treat pregnancy-associated heartburn? a. Eat many small meals. b. Drink fluids only with meals. c. Exercise within 30 minutes after eating. d. Lie down within 15 minutes after eating. ANS: A MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 520, Section 16.4-Nutrition during Pregnancy
73. Which of the following statements reflects current knowledge of food choices in pregnancy? a. A craving for pickles is a strong indicator that the body needs salt. b. A craving for milk is a strong indicator that the body needs calcium and/or phosphorus. c. Careful and appropriate selection of foods can meet all nutrient needs for most women. d. Cravings and aversions to certain foods are probably the result of altered taste and smell sensitivities induced by hormones. ANS: D MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 520, Section 16.4-Nutrition during Pregnancy
74. Which one of the following is a feature of non-food cravings during pregnancy? a. They are women of Aboriginal descent. b. They are often associated with pernicious anemia c. They commonly include consumption of freezer frost and clay.
d. They are known to lead to premature delivery and to low-birth-weight infants. ANS: C MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 520, Section 16.4-Nutrition during Pregnancy
75. Jane is visiting with her doctor during her second trimester of pregnancy and has just revealed her strange cravings. The doctor declared that Jane is experiencing pica, which is causing her intense craving for which of the following? a. dirt b. garlic c. pickles d. pepperoni ANS: A MSC: Application
REF: p. 520, Section 16.4-Nutrition during Pregnancy
76. Which of these is the most likely reason for a pregnant woman to crave pickles? a. a change in hormones b. a hypoglycemic episode c. a physiologic need for fluid d. a physiologic need for sodium ANS: A MSC: Application
REF: p. 520, Section 16.4-Nutrition during Pregnancy
77. A craving for nonfood substances is known as which of the following terms? a. pica b. bulimia c. toxemia d. hyperemesis ANS: A MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 520, Section 16.4-Nutrition during Pregnancy
78. Which of the following weights is the standard classification for a low-birth-weight infant? a. 1.6 kg or less b. 1.8 kg or less c. 2.5 kg or less d. 2.9 kg or less ANS: C MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 521, Section 16.5-High-Risk Pregnancies
79. Which of the following weights is the standard classification for a very-low-birth-weight infant? a. 1.5 kg or less b. 2.0 kg or less c. 2.5 kg or less d. 2.9 kg or less ANS: A MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 521, Section 16.5-High-Risk Pregnancies
80. A risk from malnutrition in women during pregnancy includes which of the following? a. macrosomia. b. spontaneous abortion c. hypertension in the infant
d. post-delivery infertility ANS: A MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 522, Section 16.5-High-Risk Pregnancies
81. Which of the following is the name of the term that describes the cessation of a menstrual period during pregnancy? a. anencephaly b. prenatal acidosis c. prenatal anemia d. amenorrhea ANS: D MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 522, Section 16.5-High-Risk Pregnancies
82. Which of the following is CPNP? a. a serious neural tube defect b. the World Intervention and Conception program of the United Nations c. an environmental contaminant that may interfere with breast milk production d. a food and nutrition services program for pregnant women, children, and infants ANS: D MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 522, Section 16.5-High-Risk Pregnancies
83. Which many women receive CPNP benefits annually? a. 20 000 b. 30 000 c. 40 000 d. 50 000 ANS: D MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 522, Section 16.5-High-Risk Pregnancies
84. Brenda is in her 26th week of gestation and has a family history of diabetes. She has been consuming a diet containing 60 percent of energy from carbohydrates. If she does not make appropriate dietary changes, she is at high risk for developing which of the following complications? a. preeclampsia b. gestational diabetes c. hemorrhoids d. gastroesophageal reflux ANS: B MSC: Application
REF: p. 523, Section 16.5-High-Risk Pregnancies
85. What is gestational diabetes? a. a severe form of type 1 diabetes in newborns b. abnormal blood glucose maintenance during pregnancy c. reactive hypoglycemia expressed during the third trimester of pregnancy d. a temporary loss of insulin secretion during the first trimester of pregnancy ANS: B MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 523, Section 16.5-High-Risk Pregnancies
86. Which of the following percentages of women who experience gestational hypertension are at risk of developing preeclampsia? a. 30 percent
b. 40 percent c. 50 percent d. 60 percent ANS: C MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 523, Section 16.5-High-Risk Pregnancies
87. Which of the following is a risk factor for gestational diabetes? a. Norwegian ancestry is a risk factor. b. Infant birth weights are typically low. c. It usually develops during the first trimester of pregnancy. d. The most common consequences include labour and delivery complications. ANS: D MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 523, Section 16.5-High-Risk Pregnancies
88. What is the name of the condition characterized by high blood pressure, edema, and protein in the urine of a pregnant woman? a. preeclampsia b. gestational diabetes c. teratogenic hypertension d. pregnancy-induced blood pressure crisis ANS: A MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 523, Section 16.5-High-Risk Pregnancies
89. Preeclampsia typically develops during which time of the pregnancy? a. first half of pregnancy b. second half of pregnancy c. first month after delivery d. first trimester of pregnancy ANS: B MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 523, Section 16.5-High-Risk Pregnancies
90. How many pregnant women are affected by preeclampsia each year? a. 5 000 b. 10 000 c. 15 000 d. 20 000 ANS: B MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 523, Section 16.5-High-Risk Pregnancies
91. Approximately what percentage of newly pregnant women develop gestational diabetes? a. 1 percent b. 2 percent c. 3 percent d. 4 percent ANS: D MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 523, Section 16.5-High-Risk Pregnancies
92. Rosemary went to her doctor because she was experiencing high blood pressure, severe headaches and upper abdominal pain in the second trimester of her pregnancy. Her doctor ordered a urine test which showed elevated levels of protein in her urine. What condition is Rosemary experiencing?
a. b. c. d.
epilepsy gestational diabetes preeclampsia spontaneous abortion
ANS: C MSC: Application
REF: p. 523, Section 16.5-High-Risk Pregnancies
93. Which of the following is a distinguishing characteristic of eclampsia? a. seizures by the mother b. seizures by the newborn c. low blood pressure in the mother d. low blood pressure in the newborn ANS: A MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 523, Section 16.5-High-Risk Pregnancies
94. Which of the following is a common complication among adolescent mothers? a. prolonged labour b. macrocytic anemia c. hypertension d. maternal death ANS: A MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 524, Section 16.5-High-Risk Pregnancies
95. Which of the following may be effective at reducing the risk for preeclampsia? a. bed rest b. exercise c. low-protein diets d. vitamin B12 supplementation ANS: B MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 524, Section 16.5-High-Risk Pregnancies
96. Approximately how many kg should a healthy teenager gain during a pregnancy? a. 16 kg b. 18 kg c. 20 kg d. 22 kg ANS: A MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 524, Section 16.5-High-Risk Pregnancies
97. What is the risk of giving birth to a child with Down syndrome for a woman who is 40 years old compared with a 20 year old? a. one-half as much b. about the same c. 25 times higher d. 100 times higher ANS: D MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 525, Section 16.5-High-Risk Pregnancies
98. What term best describes a factor that causes abnormal fetal development and birth defects? a. toxigenic
b. mutagenic c. neonagenic d. teratogenic ANS: D MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 525, Section 16.5-High-Risk Pregnancies
99. Which of the following recommendations for pregnant women and alcohol intake has been issued by the Health Canada? a. They should drink absolutely no alcohol. b. They should refrain from drinking hard liquor only. c. They are permitted to ingest no more than 2 drinks per day. d. They are permitted to ingest small amounts of alcohol during the first 3 months but none thereafter. ANS: A MSC: Knowledge 100.
Tobacco use in pregnancy increases the risk for which of the following conditions? a. lung infection b. fetal death c. macrosomia d. sleeplessness ANS: B MSC: Knowledge
101.
REF: p. 525, Section 16.5-High-Risk Pregnancies
Which of the newborn`s body systems is severely damaged when the mother has used illicit drugs during pregnancy? a. respiratory system b. endocrine system c. circulatory system d. central nervous system ANS: D MSC: Knowledge
103.
REF: p. 525, Section 16.5-High-Risk Pregnancies
With few exceptions, which of the following substances or practices should be totally eliminated during pregnancy? a. swimming b. caffeine intake c. artificial sweeteners d. alcohol consumption ANS: D MSC: Application
102.
REF: p. 525, Section 16.5-High-Risk Pregnancies
REF: p. 525, Section 16.5-High-Risk Pregnancies
A positive relationship exists between sudden infant death syndrome and which of the following behaviours during pregnancy? a. lack of exercise b. high fish intake c. cigarette smoking d. vitamin C supplements ANS: C MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 525, Section 16.5-High-Risk Pregnancies
104.
Which of the following foodborne illnesses is of particular concern during pregnancy? a. listeriosis b. E.coli c. hepatitis d. botulism ANS: A MSC: Knowledge
105.
Which of the following vitamins, in toxic amounts, causes fetal malformations of the cranial nervous system? a. vitamin C b. vitamin A c. vitamin D d. vitamin B12 ANS: B MSC: Knowledge
106.
REF: p. 530, Section 16.6-Nutrition during Lactation
Which of the following is a function of prolactin? a. reverse the effects of certain mutagens b. reverse the effects of certain teratogens c. act on mammary glands to stimulate milk release d. act on mammary glands to promote milk production ANS: D MSC: Knowledge
109.
REF: p. 527, Section 16.5-High-Risk Pregnancies
In general, which of these is the chief consequence of nutritional deprivation in the lactating mother? a. cessation of lactation b. reduced quality of milk c. reduced quantity of milk d. reduced quality and quantity of milk ANS: C MSC: Knowledge
108.
REF: p. 526, Section 16.5-High-Risk Pregnancies
A risk of heavy caffeine use in human pregnancy is that it may do which of the following? a. worsen edema b. increase the risk of infant death c. increase the risk of birth defects d. increase the risk of stillborn infants ANS: B MSC: Knowledge
107.
REF: p. 526, Section 16.5-High-Risk Pregnancies
REF: p. 528, Section 16.6-Nutrition during Lactation
Which of these causes the “let-down reflex”? a. oxytocin b. estrogen c. prepartum amenorrhea d. postpartum amenorrhea ANS: A MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 528, Section 16.6-Nutrition during Lactation
110. The number of extra kcalories per day needed to produce a normal supply of milk during the first 6 months of lactation is approximately which of the following? a. 100 kcal. b. 250 kcal c. 500 kcal d. 1000 kcal ANS: C MSC: Application
REF: p. 529, Section 16.6-Nutrition during Lactation
111. Penny is a new mom and, on the advice of her doctor, has been eating an extra whole-wheat bagel with strawberry jelly every night in addition to her nutrient-dense diet. Why did Penny receive this advice? a. Bagels are a way of getting more kcalories in the diet. b. Bagels provide the extra protein lactating mothers need for lactose production. c. Babies prefer the strawberry jelly in the mother’s diet as it alters the taste of the breast milk. d. These bagels provide the extra carbohydrates and fibre lactating mothers need for lactose production. ANS: D MSC: Application
REF: p. 530, Section 16.6-Nutrition during Lactation
112. Which of the following describes the findings from studies of lactating women who exercised intensely compared with sedentary lactating women? a. They had similar energy intakes. b. Their milk was more nutrient-dense. c. They had a slightly greater amount of body fat. d. Their milk contained more lactate, which altered the milk’s taste. ANS: D MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 530, Section 16.6-Nutrition during Lactation
113. Which of the following is the AI for total water (in L) during lactation? a. 0.8 L b. 1.8 L c. 2.8 L d. 3.8 L ANS: D MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 530, Section 16.6-Nutrition during Lactation
114. Which of the following would be a reason a lactating woman might need to take an iron supplement? a. to improve the flavour of breast milk b. to increase iron content of breast milk c. to replace the iron stores she lost during pregnancy d. to account for the re-start of menstruation that usually occurs 1–2 months postpartum ANS: C MSC: Application
REF: p. 530, Section 16.6-Nutrition during Lactation
115. Which of the following statements correctly describes an association between nutrient intake and lactation? a. Milk production is increased by higher fluid intake. b. Ingestion of garlic may lead to an off-flavour of the milk.
c. Inadequate protein intake lowers the protein concentration of the milk. d. The energy RDA for milk production calls for an additional 1000 kcalories per day. ANS: B MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 531, Section 16.6-Nutrition during Lactation
116. It is still acceptable for a mother to breastfeed even if she has or has done which of the following? a. abused alcohol b. a drug addiction c. an ordinary cold d. a communicable disease ANS: C MSC: Application
REF: p. 531, Section 16.6-Nutrition during Lactation
117. Which of the following shows the relationship between maternal smoking and breast milk production? a. The milk produced by mothers who smoke contains nicotine. b. Cigarette smoking reduces the quality but not the quantity of breast milk. c. Infants of breastfeeding mothers who smoke gain excessive weight consisting mainly of abdominal adipose tissue. d. The smell and flavours of breast milk from mothers who smoke do not alter volume consumed until the infant reaches 3 months of age. ANS: A MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 532, Section 16.6-Nutrition during Lactation
118. Which of the following hormones is affected by alcohol intake during lactation? a. oxytocin b. thyroid stimulating hormone c. estrogen d. progesterone ANS: A MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 532, Section 16.6-Nutrition during Lactation
119. Which of the following causes tremors, hallucinations, and even death in infants, when a mother has chosen to abuse it during breastfeeding? a. caffeine b. illicit drugs c. medicinal drugs d. cigarettes ANS: B MSC: Knowledge 120.
Which of the following is an acceptable consumption of caffeine during lactation? a. the equivalent of 125 mL b. the equivalent of 250 mL c. the equivalent of 500 mL d. the equivalent of 1000 mL ANS: C MSC: Knowledge
121.
REF: p. 532, Section 16.6-Nutrition during Lactation
REF: p. 533, Section 16.6-Nutrition during Lactation
Which of these is the benefit of postpartum amenorrhea? a. It stimulates milk production.
b. It conserves iron in the mother. c. It stimulates the letdown reflex. d. It stimulates the suckling reflex in the infant. ANS: B MSC: Knowledge 122.
Breast milk tainted with dioxin can interfere with the development of which of the following in an infant? a. eyes b. brain c. teeth d. kidneys ANS: C MSC: Knowledge
123.
REF: p. 538, Section 16.7-Fetal Alcohol Syndrome
In what period of pregnancy would most damage from alcohol consumption occur? a. before conception b. first trimester c. second trimester d. third trimester ANS: B MSC: Knowledge
127.
REF: p. 538, Section 16.7-Fetal Alcohol Syndrome
Which of the following is a feature of children born with alcohol-related complications? a. The children are diagnosed right at birth. b. The children often show growth retardation. c. The children are usually very docile. d. All children born with these complications always show marked outward signs. ANS: B MSC: Knowledge
126.
REF: p. 540, Section 16.7-Fetal Alcohol Syndrome
A less severe form of fetal alcohol syndrome is known by which of the following terms? a. infant alcohol exposure b. fetal alcohol spectrum disorder c. fetal subdevelopment syndrome d. fetal alcohol-related neurodevelopmental disorder ANS: B MSC: Knowledge
125.
REF: p. 532, Section 16.6-Nutrition during Lactation
If a pregnant woman drinks alcohol during her second trimester, what are the consequences of her actions? a. a risk of spontaneous abortion b. the brain may be malformed c. body growth may be retarded d. the kidneys will be malformed ANS: A MSC: Application
124.
REF: p. 522,531, Section 16.6-Nutrition during Lactation
REF: p. 538, Section 16.7-Fetal Alcohol Syndrome
According to many experts, what minimum level of alcohol intake increases the risk of giving birth to an infant with fetal alcohol syndrome?
a. b. c. d.
1 drink/day 2 drinks/day 4 drinks/day 7 drinks/week
ANS: A MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 539, Section 16.7-Fetal Alcohol Syndrome
MATCHING
a. 0.04 b. 2 c. 3.5 d. 17–30 e. 25 f. 16.0 g. 38 h. Iron i. Pica j. Folate k. Zygote l. Embryo m. Alcohol n. Eclampsia o. Amniotic p. Birth weight q. Preeclampsia r. Breastfeeding s. Eat small, frequent meals t. Drink at least 8 glasses of liquid a day 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10. 11. 12. 13. 14. 15. 16. 17.
A newly fertilized ovum Fluid in which the fetus floats Developing infant from 2 to 8 weeks after conception Number of days after conception during which the neural tube is highly vulnerable to nutrient deficiency Percentage of Canadian newborns with a neural tube defect Adequate intakes of this nutrient within the 30 days prior to conception are especially important to lower risk of birth defects Most reliable indicator of an infant’s health An infant born prior to this number of weeks of pregnancy is classified as preterm Upper limit for the recommended number of kilograms that a pregnant woman of normal weight should gain Approximate weight, in kilograms, of average newborn baby Number of grams of extra protein per day recommended for the pregnant woman Dietary supplements of this nutrient are recommended for the last 6 months of pregnancy A recommended practice to prevent or relieve heartburn A recommended practice to prevent or alleviate constipation A craving for non-food substances A condition characterized by high blood pressure and protein in the urine A condition characterized by convulsions
18. Percentage of Canadian babies born with genetic abnormalities from older mothers 19. Excess intake of this substance in pregnancy is known to result in mental retardation of the child 20. A practice that conserves maternal iron stores 1. ANS: K 2. ANS: O 3. ANS: L 4. ANS: D 5. ANS: A 6. ANS: J 7. ANS: P 8. ANS: G 9. ANS: F 10. ANS: C 11. ANS: E 12. ANS: H 13. ANS: S 14. ANS: T 15. ANS: I 16. ANS: Q 17. ANS: N 18. ANS: B 19. ANS: M 20. ANS: R
REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF:
p. 506 p. 506 p. 507 p. 508 p. 509 p. 509-510 p. 511 p. 512 p. 513 p. 513 p. 517 p. 518 p. 520 p. 520 p. 520 p. 523 p. 523 p. 524 p. 525 p. 528
ESSAY 1. What is the role of the placenta and how does it develop? ANS: Answers may vary REF: p. 506 2. Describe the 3 major stages of fetal growth and development. ANS: Answers may vary REF: p. 506-508 3. Discuss the term “critical periods” in relation to pregnancy. ANS: Answers may vary REF: p. 508 4. List factors that increase risk for giving birth to an infant with a neural tube defect. ANS:
Answers may vary REF: p. 509 5. What is the Canadian government’s rationale for requiring the fortification of grain products with folate? ANS: Answers may vary REF: p. 509-510 6. Discuss the association between maternal malnutrition and the increased risk for development of diabetes in her offspring. ANS: Answers may vary REF: p. 510-511 7. Discuss the association between maternal nutrition and the risk for development of chronic diseases in her child. ANS: Answers may vary REF: p. 510-511 8. What are several benefits of exercise specifically for the pregnant woman? What types of exercise should be avoided and why? ANS: Answers may vary REF: p. 514-515 9. Discuss the influence of prenatal malnutrition on the appearance of degenerative diseases in the later life of the child. ANS: Answers may vary REF: p. 505, 515-519 10. Discuss the consequences of being overweight or obese at the time of pregnancy. ANS: Answers may vary REF: p. 512 11. Compare the recommended weight gains for pregnancy in women who, at conception, are normal weight, underweight, overweight, or obese.
ANS: Answers may vary REF: p. 512-513 12. Discuss the changes in macronutrient needs in pregnancy. ANS: Answers may vary REF: p. 517 13. Discuss the impact of adequate intake of fatty acids by the pregnant woman on fetal development. ANS: Answers may vary REF: p. 517 14. What nutrients are needed in greater amounts during pregnancy and what physical changes account for the increased needs? ANS: Answers may vary REF: p. 516-517 15. Discuss the relationship between vitamin C intake and iron absorption from the diet and from iron supplements in pregnant women. ANS: Answers may vary REF: p. 518 16. Discuss important concerns of vegetarian diets during pregnancy or lactation. ANS: Answers may vary REF: p. 519 17. What steps can be taken to minimize the development and discomfort of nausea, heartburn, and constipation during pregnancy? ANS: Answers may vary REF: p. 519-520 18. Discuss food cravings and food aversions that develop in some women who become pregnant. ANS: Answers may vary
REF: p. 520 19. List the complications experienced by low-birth weight infants. ANS: Answers may vary REF: p. 521 20. Discuss 6 factors and conditions that lead to high-risk pregnancies ANS: Answers may vary REF: p. 521 21. Describe the consequences of malnutrition on conception and early pregnancy. ANS: Answers may vary REF: p. 522 22. Discuss the role of CPNP programs for women in high-risk pregnancies. Why is CPNP so effective? ANS: Answers may vary REF: p. 522 23. Define gestational diabetes and list risk factors. How is it managed? ANS: Answers may vary REF: p. 523 24. Explain the development of pregnancy-induced hypertension and the consequences if it is not properly managed. ANS: Answers may vary REF: p. 523 25. Describe the condition known as preeclampsia. What are its risk factors and what is known about its prevention? ANS: Answers may vary REF: p. 523
26. Describe the risks associated with adolescent pregnancy. ANS: Answers may vary REF: p. 524 27. Describe the risks associated with pregnancy in older women. ANS: Answers may vary REF: p. 524-525 28. What practices should be avoided during pregnancy and why? ANS: Answers may vary REF: p. 525-526 29. Discuss the effects of tobacco use in the pregnant woman and its effects on health of the newborn. ANS: Answers may vary REF: p. 525-526 30. Provide examples of the effects of environmental contaminants on pregnancy outcomes. ANS: Answers may vary REF: p. 526 31. List the benefits of breastfeeding for the infant and for the mother. ANS: Answers may vary REF: p. 528-529 32. Outline 10 steps to successful breastfeeding. ANS: Answers may vary REF: p. 529 33. Explain the energy needs for breastfeeding in light of the mother’s desire to lose the extra weight from pregnancy. ANS: Answers may vary
REF: p. 529-530 34. Discuss the effects of maternal intake of insufficient nutrients on the quantity and quality of breast milk. ANS: Answers may vary REF: p. 530 35. Give examples of associations between maternal food choices and breast milk flavour. ANS: Answers may vary REF: p. 531-532 36. Discuss the consequences of maternal alcohol intake on fetal development. ANS: Answers may vary REF: p. 532 37. Discuss the effects of maternal tobacco use on breastfeeding. ANS: Answers may vary REF: p. 532 38. Describe the physical and mental abnormalities associated with fetal alcohol syndrome. ANS: Answers may vary REF: p. 538-540 39. Describe distinguishing facial characteristics associated with fetal alcohol syndrome. ANS: Answers may vary REF: p. 539 40. Compare and contrast the features of prenatal alcohol exposure with those of fetal alcohol syndrome. ANS: Answers may vary REF: p. 539-540
Chapter 16 – Life Cycle Nutrition: Infancy, Childhood, and Adolescence MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. What would be a normal body weight after 1 year for a healthy infant with a birth weight of 4 kilograms a. 5.5 kg b. 7 kg c. 11.5 kg d. 16 kg ANS: C MSC: Application
REF: p. 543, Section 17.1-Nutrition during Infancy
2. What is the typical weight gain, in kilograms, of an infant between the first and second year of life? a. 2.3 b. 4.5 c. 15 d. 20 ANS: B MSC: Application
REF: p. 543, Section 17.1-Nutrition during Infancy
3. Which of these is the approximate energy requirement of infants, in kcalories per kilogram body weight? a. 25 kcal/kg b. 35 kcal/kg c. 75 kcal/kg d. 100 kcal/kg ANS: D MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 543, 545, Section 17.1-Nutrition during Infancy
4. Infants showing symptoms of acidosis, dehydration, diarrhea, elevated blood ammonia and urea, and fever may be reacting to which of the following nutritional problems? a. protein overload b. milk-protein intolerance c. carbohydrate intolerance d. insufficient protein and energy ANS: A MSC: Application
REF: p. 545, Section 17.1-Nutrition during Infancy
5. How many kcalories does a newborn baby require in a day? a. 450 b. 600 c. 750 d. 900 ANS: A MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 543, Section 17.1-Nutrition during Infancy
6. Approximately how much does an infant's length increase during the first year of life? a. 15 cm
b. 25 cm c. 40 cm d. 55 cm ANS: B MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 543, Section 17.1-Nutrition during Infancy
7. What organ in the infant uses more than half of the day’s total energy intake? a. liver b. brain c. kidney d. skeletal muscle ANS: B MSC: Application
REF: p. 545, Section 17.1-Nutrition during Infancy
8. What is the relative weight of an infant brain compared to an adult’s brain? a. half as much b. about the same c. 3 times as much d. 6 times as much ANS: D MSC: Application
REF: p. 545, Section 17.1-Nutrition during Infancy
9. Which one of the following shows the relationship between nutrition and metabolism in infancy? a. The infant’s brain uses about 40 percent of the daily energy intake. b. The fat in breast milk provides most of the energy to support rapid growth. c. The infant’s brain is smaller relative to the size of the body and therefore uses less energy. d. The protein content in breast milk can be high enough to occasionally induce protein overload. ANS: B MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 545, Section 17.1-Nutrition during Infancy
10. The recommended amounts of vitamins and minerals for infants are based on which of the following amounts? a. average amounts present in body tissues of thriving infants b. adult RDA scaled down to infants on a per kilogram body weight basis c. older child’s RDA scaled down to the infant on a per kilogram body weight basis d. average amounts ingested by thriving infants breast-fed by well-nourished mothers ANS: D MSC: Application
REF: p. 545, Section 17.1-Nutrition during Infancy
11. Which of the following is an important consideration regarding water in infancy? a. Breast-fed infants in hot, dry climates need supplemental water. b. Bottle-fed infants in hot, dry climates need supplemental water. c. Much of the infant’s body water content is located extracellularly. d. Conditions such as diarrhea and vomiting may be successfully treated with lower doses of adult medications. ANS: C MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 545, Section 17.1-Nutrition during Infancy
12. Health Canada recommends that which of the following nutrients should be added to the diet of an infant who is exclusively breast fed? a. vitamin C b. vitamin B12 c. vitamin K d. vitamin D ANS: D MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 546, Section 17.1-Nutrition during Infancy
13. For optimal breastfeeding benefits, it is recommended that the infant be encouraged to suckle on each breast for about which of the following durations? a. 1–2 minutes b. 5 minutes c. 10–15 minutes d. 30 minutes ANS: C MSC: Application
REF: p. 546-547, Section 17.1-Nutrition during Infancy
14. Which of the following is a fact concerning the nutritional composition of breast milk? a. There is casein in breast milk. b. The carbohydrate is lactose, which enhances calcium absorption. c. The concentration of protein is slightly higher than for cow’s milk. d. The proportion of energy contributed by vitamins is much higher than that recommended for adults. ANS: B MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 547, Section 17.1-Nutrition during Infancy
15. According to the American Academy of Pediatrics and the Canadian Paediatric Society, breast-feeding of full-term infants is which of the following? a. optional b. mildly recommended c. moderately recommended d. strongly recommended ANS: D MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 545, Section 17.1-Nutrition during Infancy
16. What is the chief reason that breast-fed infants usually need to eat more frequently than formula-fed infants? a. Breast milk contains less fat. b. Breast milk is digested faster. c. Breast milk is less nutrient dense. d. The amount of milk consumed per feeding is lower in breast-fed infants. ANS: B MSC: Application
REF: p. 547, Section 17.1-Nutrition during Infancy
17. Why is the intake of fatty acids so important for preterm infants who are fed formulas? a. Formulas enriched with oleic acid led to reduced atherogenic plaque by age 5 years compared with standard formulas. b. Formulas enriched with omega-3 fatty acids led to increased brain cell number compared with standard formulas.
c. Formulas enriched with docosahexaenoic acid and arachidonic acid resulted in improved visual acuity compared with standard formulas. d. Formulas enriched with equal amounts of omega-3, omega-6, and omega-9 fatty acids led to a lower prevalence of obesity after2 years compared with standard formulas. ANS: C MSC: Application
REF: p. 547, Section 17.1-Nutrition during Infancy
18. What is the primary protein in human breast milk? a. casein b. lactose c. albumin d. alpha-lactalbumin ANS: D MSC: Application
REF: p. 547, Section 17.1-Nutrition during Infancy
19. Katy is a healthy, 6 month-old infant. Her mother has fed Katy only breast milk during Katy's life. Which one of the following nutrients is Katy likely missing from her diet? a. sodium b. vitamin D c. iron and folate d. zinc and vitamin A ANS: B MSC: Application
REF: p. 547, Section 17.1-Nutrition during Infancy
20. Nutrient characteristics of human breast milk include which one of the following? a. The fluoride content is low. b. The potassium is highly bioavailable. c. The iron is highly bioavailable. d. The vitamin D content meets optimal growth requirements. ANS: A MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 547, Section 17.1-Nutrition during Infancy
21. Which of the following vitamin-mineral supplements should be prescribed for an infant who is breastfed up to 6 months of age? a. vitamin B12 b. fluoride c. vitamin C d. vitamin E ANS: B MSC: Application
REF: p. 547, Section 17.1-Nutrition during Infancy
22. Which of the following is colostrum? a. a clot in the bloodstream b. a major protein in breast milk c. a hormone that promotes milk production d. a milk-like substance secreted right after delivery ANS: D MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 548, Section 17.1-Nutrition during Infancy
23. Which of the following is an advantage of breast-feeding compared with formula feeding? a. There is no limit to the supply. b. It provides immunological protection. c. The mother can be sure the baby is getting enough milk. d. It is the only way to develop a true loving relationship with the baby. ANS: B MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 548, Section 17.1-Nutrition during Infancy
24. Which of the following supplements should be prescribed for an infant who is formula fed from 6 months up until 1 year of life? a. It is generally easier to overfeed a breast-fed infant than a formula-fed infant. b. Breast-fed infants obtain iron-binding proteins that inhibit bacterial infections. c. Breast-fed infants are at high risk of iron deficiency for the first 6 months of life. d. For optimal development, infants should be transitioned to formula after 1 year of breastfeeding. ANS: B MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 548, Section 17.1-Nutrition during Infancy
25. Which of the following problems is associated with bifidus factors? a. increased iron absorption b. increased bacterial growth c. decreased allergy protection d. decreased hormone production ANS: B MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 548, Section 17.1-Nutrition during Infancy
26. What component of breast milk binds iron and prevents it from supporting the growth of the infant’s intestinal bacteria? a. colostrum b. lactoferrin c. hemoferritin d. bifidus factor ANS: B MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 548, Section 17.1-Nutrition during Infancy
27. Which of the following proteins is lactadherin? a. an iron-binding protein in breast milk b. a vitamin D-binding protein in breast milk c. a breast milk protein that inactivates a GI virus that causes diarrhea d. a protein supplement to infant formulas that simulates the digestibility properties of alphalactalbumin ANS: C MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 548, Section 17.1-Nutrition during Infancy
28. You are presenting a talk on the benefits of breast-feeding to a group of new mothers in Zimbabwe. There have been numerous cases of infant diarrhea within this population over the past several years. Why is breast-feeding especially important under these circumstances? a. The emotional bonding enhances the overall health of the infant. b. The lactoferrin protein present in breast milk stimulates T-cell immunity.
c. The lactadherin protein present in breast milk attacks diarrhea-causing viruses. d. Breast milk as a source of nutrition limits the feeding of other foods which may be contaminated. ANS: C MSC: Application
REF: p. 548, Section 17.1-Nutrition during Infancy
29. Which one of the following is a feature of breast milk banks? a. The milk is unpasteurized. b. The milk consists of a pool from several lactating mothers. c. There is no need for a doctor's prescription to receive the breast milk. d. They accept milk from mothers who smoke cigarettes but not marijuana. ANS: B MSC: Application
REF: p. 549, Section 17.1-Nutrition during Infancy
30. Which of the following allergic reactions is less likely to occur in a breast-fed infant? a. wheezing b. diarrhea c. itchy skin d. stomach upset ANS: A MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 548, Section 17.1-Nutrition during Infancy
31. When compared with formula-fed infants, which of the following conditions is less prevalent in breastfed infants? a. lower cancer rates as adults b. lower diabetes rates as adults c. lower kidney disease rates as adults d. lower blood cholesterol levels as adults ANS: D MSC: Application
REF: p. 548, Section 17.1-Nutrition during Infancy
32. Compared with cow’s milk, breast milk contains which of the following quantities? a. less protein and calcium b. less lactose and vitamin C c. more fat and less carbohydrate d. more energy and less vitamin E ANS: A MSC: Application
REF: p. 547, Section 17.1-Nutrition during Infancy
33. To gradually replace breast milk with infant formula or other foods appropriate to an infant’s diet is called which of the following terms? a. feed b. wean c. nurse d. breast-feed ANS: B MSC: Application
REF: p. 549, Section 17.1-Nutrition during Infancy
34. Which of the following formulas is available for infants with lactose intolerance? a. egg
b. soy c. barley d. powdered cow’s milk ANS: B MSC: Application
REF: p. 550, Section 17.1-Nutrition during Infancy
35. Which two of the following ingredients are used in the manufacturing of infant soy formulas? a. cornstarch and maltose b. cornstarch and sucrose c. cornstarch and glucose d. cornstarch and galactose ANS: B MSC: Application
REF: p. 550, Section 17.1-Nutrition during Infancy
36. Which of the following is an advantage of breast milk when compared to infant formula? a. It contains antibodies. b. It contains more fluoride. c. It typically contains over twice the amount of iron. d. It contains less fat and more carbohydrate. ANS: A MSC: Application
REF: p. 549, Section 17.1-Nutrition during Infancy
37. What type of formula is available for infants with milk allergy? a. egg b. soy c. meat d. peanut ANS: B MSC: Application
REF: p. 550, Section 17.1-Nutrition during Infancy
38. Which of the following is a common source of lead poisoning in infants? a. maternal passage of lead to fetus b. baby bottles made from lead crystal c. contaminated water used to make infant formula d. preparation of infant formula in galvanized containers ANS: C MSC: Application
REF: p. 549, Section 17.1-Nutrition during Infancy
39. Which of the following is the most realistic advice for reducing lead exposure from the tap water used to prepare infant formula? a. Because the lead in hot water pipes settles out overnight, draw the water from this source first. b. Whenever possible, boil the water to vaporize the lead and thus decrease the amount remaining in the water. c. Because the first water drawn from the tap each day is highest in lead, let the water run a few minutes before using it. d. To inhibit lead absorption, add a small amount of citrus juice to the water to provide citric acid to complex with the lead. ANS: C MSC: Application
REF: p. 549, Section 17.1-Nutrition during Infancy
40. Goat’s milk is inappropriate for infants due to its low content of which of these nutrients? a. iron b. folate c. protein d. calcium ANS: B MSC: Application
REF: p. 550, Section 17.1-Nutrition during Infancy
41. An infant diagnosed with “goat’s milk anemia” is most likely deficient in which of these nutrients? a. iron b. folate c. vitamin B6 d. vitamin B12 ANS: B MSC: Application
REF: p. 550, Section 17.1-Nutrition during Infancy
42. Which of the following sources of nutrition for infants is least likely to become contaminated with microorganisms? a. soy formula b. breast milk c. iron-fortified formula d. liquid concentrate formula ANS: B MSC: Application
REF: p. 549, Section 17.1-Nutrition during Infancy
43. Which of the following defines nursing bottle tooth decay? a. caries development resulting from frequent use of non-sterile bottles and nipples b. bacterial attack of teeth due to severe tooth misalignment from sucking on oversized bottle nipples c. marked tooth decay of an infant due to prolonged exposure to carbohydrate-rich fluids from a bottle d. tooth decay resulting from constant exposure to food due to inability of the infant to swallow normally ANS: C MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 550, Section 17.1-Nutrition during Infancy
44. Low-fat or non-fat milk can be given routinely to a child until after what age? a. 2 weeks b. 3 months c. 2 years d. 6 years ANS: C MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 551, Section 17.1-Nutrition during Infancy
45. Which of these terms defines the condition of infant tooth deterioration resulting from chronic exposure to carbohydrate-rich fluids from a bottle? a. juice bottle erosion b. suckling enamelosis c. formula-induced gingivitis
d. nursing bottle tooth decay ANS: D MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 550, Section 17.1-Nutrition during Infancy
46. During the first year of life, cow’s milk is considered an inappropriate food due to which of the following reasons? a. Cow’s milk is too high in iron. b. Cow’s milk is too low in sodium. c. Cow’s milk is too high in protein. d. Cow’s milk is too low in vitamin A. ANS: C MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 549-550, Section 17.1-Nutrition during Infancy
47. Which of the following should be avoided when feeding an infant? a. whole milk b. ready-to-feed formula c. liquid concentrate formula appropriately diluted d. powdered formula or evaporated milk formula appropriately reconstituted ANS: A MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 551, Section 17.1-Nutrition during Infancy
48. Approximately what percentage of infants are born prematurely in Canada? a. 4 percent b. 12 percent c. 20 percent d. 33 percent ANS: B MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 550, Section 17.1-Nutrition during Infancy
49. Which of the following feeding practices is recommended for preterm infants? a. They should be fed exclusively on breast milk. b. They should be fed on breast milk enriched in a 1-to-1 ratio with cow’s milk. c. They should be fed preterm breast milk, occasionally fortified with specific nutrients. d. They should be fed only on special formulas because the nutrient content of breast milk is too low. ANS: C MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 550, Section 17.1-Nutrition during Infancy
50. Of the following cereals, which is most likely to result in an allergic reaction upon first feeding? a. oat b. rice c. corn d. wheat ANS: D MSC: Application
REF: p. 551, Section 17.1-Nutrition during Infancy
51. Which of the following is beikost? a. an oral rehydration solution b. a term that describes a type of malnutrition in infants c. a term that describes any non-milk food offered to an infant
d. a fermented milk product used as a substitute for breast milk ANS: C MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 551, Section 17.1-Nutrition during Infancy
52. Which of the following represents a good age to introduce solid foods to infants? a. 2 weeks b. 2 months c. 6 months d. 1 year ANS: C MSC: Application
REF: p. 551, Section 17.1-Nutrition during Infancy
53. At what age does the normal infant first develop the ability to swallow solid food? a. 3–5 weeks b. 26–32 weeks c. 4–6 months d. 9–12 months ANS: C MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 552, Section 17.1-Nutrition during Infancy
54. Why should new foods be introduced to an infant one at a time? a. It prevents overfeeding. b. Any allergic reactions can be detected. c. Immunological protection has not been developed. d. The swallowing reflex is not under voluntary control. ANS: B MSC: Application
REF: p. 551, Section 17.1-Nutrition during Infancy
55. Which of the following should be the first cereal introduced to the infant? a. oat b. corn c. rice d. wheat ANS: C MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 551, Section 17.1-Nutrition during Infancy
56. Roberta’s first child is now 9 months old. Roberta has been breast-feeding and using pureed meats and vegetables, but would like to begin to introduce other solid foods. Which of the following would be the best choice for the first food to introduce to the baby? a. yogurt b. unsweetened applesauce c. fish d. cheese ANS: B MSC: Application
REF: p. 552, Section 17.1-Nutrition during Infancy
57. Which of the following nutrients need to be supplied first by solid foods in a baby’s diet? a. vitamin C and iron b. vitamin A and zinc c. vitamin B12 and fluoride
d. vitamin E and magnesium ANS: A MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 552, Section 17.1-Nutrition during Infancy
58. Infants should NOT be given canned vegetables due to excessive amounts of which of the following? a. iron b. fibre c. sodium d. aluminum ANS: C MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 553, Section 17.1-Nutrition during Infancy
59. Infants fed honey or corn syrup are at increased risk for which of the following abnormalities? a. obesity b. botulism c. osteopenia d. type 1 diabetes ANS: B MSC: Application
REF: p. 553, Section 17.1-Nutrition during Infancy
60. Which of these is the principal reason that information about fat on food labels of infant foods is intentionally omitted? a. It is to prevent parents from restricting their infants’ fat intake. b. Infants have a rapid growth rate and will adjust their overall food intake to meet their needs. c. By law, the fat content is uniformly set at 30 percent of total energy for all infant foods and therefore is not required to be listed. d. By law, the fat content must have equivalent amounts of saturated, monounsaturated, and polyunsaturated fats to provide between 30 and 35 percent of total energy. ANS: A MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 552, Section 17.1-Nutrition during Infancy
61. Foods containing sorbitol or other sugar alcohols should NOT be given to infants for which of the following reasons? a. They promote diarrhea b. They promote constipation c. They decrease lead absorption d. They increase iron absorption ANS: A MSC: Application
REF: p. 553, Section 17.1-Nutrition during Infancy
62. Which of the following is a concern for vegan vegetarian diets and infancy? a. Infants weaned to vegan diets show slowing of growth. b. The risk for inadequate intakes of vitamins B12 and D is significant. c. Rice milk may substitute for other beverages from the age of 12 months and on. d. Infants and children in vegetarian families should be given calcium-fortified foods well into the second year. ANS: B MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 553, Section 17.1-Nutrition during Infancy
63. Which of the following is the primary factor in the development of milk anemia? a. impaired absorption of iron b. excessive intake of cow’s milk c. low iron content of breast milk d. insufficient intake of whole cow’s milk ANS: B MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 553-554, Section 17.1-Nutrition during Infancy
64. Young children who drink more than 2–3½ cups of milk a day are most likely at increased risk for deficiency of which of the following nutrients? a. iron b. folate c. vitamin A d. vitamin C ANS: A MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 554, Section 17.1-Nutrition during Infancy
65. A child who drinks a lot of milk at the expense of other foods is at high risk of showing signs of which of the following illnesses? a. anemia b. rickets c. hyperkeratosis d. ariboflavinosis ANS: A MSC: Application
REF: p. 553-554, Section 17.1-Nutrition during Infancy
66. The consumption of milk by children should be less than 1000 mL per day in order to lower the risk for which of the following abnormalities? a. solute overload b. iron deficiency c. vitamin A toxicity d. vitamin D toxicity ANS: B MSC: Application
REF: p. 553-554, Section 17.1-Nutrition during Infancy
67. What should be the parent’s response when a 1-year-old child wants to clumsily spoon-feed himself? a. Punish the child. b. Let the child eat with his fingers instead. c. Let the child try to feed himself so that he will learn. d. Gently take the spoon back and feed the child with it. ANS: C MSC: Application
REF: p. 554, Section 17.1-Nutrition during Infancy
68. Which of the following is associated with energy metabolism of the preschool child? a. Food intake is remarkably similar from meal to meal. b. Overweight individuals have appetites similar to normal-weight individuals. c. Energy needs per kilogram body weight increase from 1 year of age to 5 years of age. d. A 1-year-old who needs 800 kcal/day would require only about 1600 kcal at 6 years of age. ANS: D
REF: p. 554-555, Section 17.2-Nutrition during Childhood
MSC: Knowledge 69. Approximately how many kcalories per day does an average 6 year old need to obtain? a. 500 kcal b. 800 kcal c. 1600 kcal d. 2400 kcal ANS: C MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 555, Section 17.2-Nutrition during Childhood
70. How much more total energy does a normal-weight 10 year old need versus a 1 year old? a. 25 percent b. 50 percent c. 150 percent d. 200 percent ANS: C MSC: Application
REF: p. 555, Section 17.2-Nutrition during Childhood
71. A reasonable daily fibre intake for a 5 year old would be which of the following amounts? a. 2 g b. 5 g c. 25 g d. 45 g ANS: C MSC: Application
REF: p. 556, Section 17.2-Nutrition during Childhood
72. Which of the following ranges is the percentage of fat energy recommended for children aged 1 - 3 years? a. 10 - 15 percent b. 10 - 30 percent c. 25 - 40 percent d. 30 - 40 percent ANS: D MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 556, Section 17.2-Nutrition during Childhood
73. Which of the following is the most prevalent nutrient deficiency among Canadian children? a. iron deficiency b. protein deficiency c. calcium deficiency d. vitamin C deficiency ANS: A
REF: p.
MSC: Application
74. Which of the following supplements should a child receive during infancy and childhood? a. vitamins A and C b. vitamin A and potassium c. fluoride and calcium d. fluoride and iron ANS: D MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 556, Section 17.2-Nutrition during Childhood
75. Which of the following is the number of kcalories required by an active 2 - 3 year-old child? a. 1200 b. 1400 c. 1600 d. 1800 ANS: B MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 557, Section 17.2-Nutrition during Childhood
76. Why are hunger and behaviour in children so closely linked? a. Children who fail to eat breakfast typically become hyperactive after eating lunch. b. The nutrient deficit arising from skipping a breakfast is usually made up over the following 2 days. c. Children who eat nutritious breakfasts are absent from school less often than their friends who do not. d. Although breakfast-skippers show reduced attention spans, their scores on intelligence tests remain unaffected. ANS: C MSC: Application
REF: p. 557-558, Section 17.2-Nutrition during Childhood
77. Which of the following is the most likely reason that teachers promote the consumption of midmorning snacks for children? a. It provides an opportunity to learn about nutrition. b. It meets federally mandated school nutrition guidelines. c. It provides carbohydrate for maintenance of blood glucose and brain function. d. It helps decrease the symptoms of attention-deficit-hyperactivity disorder in 5 percent of school-age children. ANS: C MSC: Application
REF: p. 558, Section 17.2-Nutrition during Childhood
78. Which of the following shows the relationship between children who regularly eat breakfast and those who skip breakfast? a. Breakfast-skippers actually show lower scores on IQ tests than those who eat breakfast. b. Attention spans are similar but a significant number of breakfast-skippers show hyperglycemia. c. Breakfast-skippers initially show decreased mental performance but with time they adapt and show almost identical achievements. d. Breakfast-skippers who change to eating breakfast show a temporary improvement in mental concentration but also a moderate degree of hypoglycemia. ANS: A MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 557-558, Section 17.2-Nutrition during Childhood
79. Jenny is a 13-year-old who follows a vegan diet. She has not been performing as well as her non-vegetarian study friend on math tests. The teacher tells Jenny’s mom that she does not appear focused during lessons and can’t seem to concentrate on her schoolwork. Which of the following may provide a likely explanation? a. The diet doesn’t provide enough energy for her to stay alert. b. The diet provides insufficient bioavailable iron and she many be anemic. c. The diet contains insufficient calcium and protein, which impairs intellectual performance. d. The high fibre content of a vegan diet that promotes stool formation increases the urge to evacuate, which interferes with her ability to concentrate.
ANS: B MSC: Application
REF: p. 558, Section 17.2-Nutrition during Childhood
80. Which one of the following shows the relationship between adequate iron nutrition in children? a. Anemia makes children more relaxed. b. General symptoms of iron deficiency are similar to those of mild aluminum toxicity. c. The brain appears to be less sensitive to iron deficiency than the rest of the body. d. Children who had iron-deficiency anemia as infants do not show normal school performance even after iron status has improved. ANS: C MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 558, Section 17.2-Nutrition during Childhood
81. Which of the following organs is also sensitive to low iron concentrations? a. the brain b. the liver c. the pancreas d. the heart ANS: A MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 558, Section 17.2-Nutrition during Childhood
82. Which one of the following minerals is deficient in a child who has brittle, ridged fingernails? a. calcium b. iron c. phosphorous d. sodium ANS: B MSC: Application
REF: p. 559, Section 17.2-Nutrition during Childhood
83. Which of the following is a common sign of mild lead toxicity? a. headache b. stomach upset c. dermatitis d. irritability ANS: D MSC: Application
REF: p. 558, Section 17.2-Nutrition during Childhood
84. If a child exhibits swelling in the neck and cheeks, in which of the following nutrients is he/she likely deficient? a. iodine b. iron c. zinc d. vitamin A ANS: A MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 559, Section 17.2-Nutrition during Childhood
85. What is the prevalence of hyperactivity in children? a. 5–10 percent b. 15 percent c. 20 percent d. 25–35 percent
ANS: A MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 560, Section 17.2-Nutrition during Childhood
86. Which of the following is a characteristic myth about hyperactivity in children? a. Hyperactivity improves learning ability. b. Hyperactivity is caused by an increased intake of sugar. c. Hyperactivity is solely treated by prescribing stimulant drugs when necessary. d. In many cases, hyperactive children require institutionalization. ANS: B MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 560, Section 17.2-Nutrition during Childhood
87. Which of the following is an example of misbehaviour? a. Sam won't listen to his parents after consuming too much candy. b. Christine hits her brother after watching too much television. c. Josh cannot eat foods containing sodium benzoate because he becomes too impulsive. d. Ellen goes to special education classes to help her to improve her attention span. ANS: B MSC: Application
REF: p. 560, Section 17.2-Nutrition during Childhood
88. What is the percentage of children younger than 4 years of age who are diagnosed with true food allergies? a. 1 - 2 percent b. 2 - 4 percent c. 4 - 6 percent d. 6 - 8 percent ANS: D MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 560, Section 17.2-Nutrition during Childhood
89. A child who develops antibodies to a certain food is said to have a which of the following abnormalities? a. food allergy b. food intolerance c. specific inducible episode d. transient immune suppression ANS: A MSC: Application
REF: p. 560, Section 17.2-Nutrition during Childhood
90. An adverse reaction to food that does NOT signal the body to form antibodies is called which of the following terms? a. food allergy b. food intolerance c. mild food challenge d. transient food episode ANS: B MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 562, Section 17.2-Nutrition during Childhood
91. Which of the following is a symptom of an anaphylactic shock? a. crying b. difficulty breathing c. blurred vision
d. fever ANS: B MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 562, Section 17.2-Nutrition during Childhood
92. You have just started work as a summer camp counsellor and completed a training session for all the new employees on safety. Counsellors were instructed to prohibit campers from eating peanut butter and jelly sandwiches anywhere other than the cafeteria. You believe that the most likely explanation for this rule is which of the following? a. to prevent food poisoning b. to help keep the facilities clean c. to minimize jelly exposure for campers with jelly allergies d. to minimize peanut exposure for campers with peanut allergies ANS: D MSC: Application
REF: p. 561-562, Section 17.2-Nutrition during Childhood
93. Which of the following foods are most often the causes of allergies? a. eggs, peanuts, and milk b. bananas, juice, and cola c. apples, noodles, and rice d. pears, oatmeal, and chocolate ANS: A MSC: Application
REF: p. 561-562, Section 17.2-Nutrition during Childhood
94. Which of these foods is responsible for the most life-threatening allergic reactions in people? a. eggs b. peanuts c. shellfish d. cow’s milk ANS: B MSC: Application
REF: p. 562, Section 17.2-Nutrition during Childhood
95. A life-threatening whole-body allergic reaction is known as which of the following terms? a. anaphylactic shock b. hyperhistamine response c. hyporespiratory syndrome d. wheezing food intolerance ANS: A MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 561-562, Section 17.2-Nutrition during Childhood
96. A child known to be allergic to peanuts who begins to show signs such as difficulty breathing, swelling of the tongue, and severe abdominal discomfort is most likely in immediate need of a life-saving injection of which of the following chemicals? a. cortisone b. serotonin c. epinephrine d. acetylcholine ANS: C MSC: Application
REF: p. 562, Section 17.2-Nutrition during Childhood
97. What is the number of most common/priority allergy-causing foods?
a. b. c. d.
3 6 9 12
ANS: C MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 562, Section 17.2-Nutrition during Childhood
98. A child with a true allergy to milk is actually allergic to which of the following compounds that might be found in milk? a. casein b. lactose c. lactalbumin d. lactalglobulin ANS: A MSC: Application
REF: p. 562, Section 17.2-Nutrition during Childhood
99. If a child is allergic to soy, which of the following foods should be avoided? a. milk b. broccoli c. peanut butter d. textured vegetable protein ANS: D MSC: Application 100.
People who show adverse reactions to foods such as increased pulse rate, nausea, and hives, but do NOT show antibodies to the offending foods, are displaying which of the following abnormalities? a. food intolerances b. delayed allergies c. subclinical allergies d. undiagnosed food toxicities ANS: A MSC: Application
101.
REF: p. 562, Section 17.2-Nutrition during Childhood
Approximately what percentage of Canadian children between 2 and 17 years of age are overweight? a. 4 percent b. 8 percent c. 16 percent d. 18 percent ANS: D MSC: Knowledge
102.
REF: p. 562, Section 17.2-Nutrition during Childhood
REF: p. 563, Section 17.2-Nutrition during Childhood
Research indicates that which of the following percentages of toddles exceeds EER as a result of eating such foods as cheese puffs and pizza? a. The typical obese child does not learn food behaviours from his family. b. A non-obese child of non-obese parents has a less than 10 percent chance of becoming obese in adulthood. c. An obese adolescent with one obese parent has virtually a 100 percent chance of becoming obese in adulthood. d. The typical obese child today has approximately the same energy intake as did children 30 years ago.
ANS: B MSC: Knowledge 103.
What are the odds that an overweight 18 year old with only 1 obese parent will become an obese adult? a. 1 in 5 b. 2 in 5 c. 3 in 5 d. 4 in 5 ANS: D MSC: Application
104.
REF: p. 564, Section 17.2-Nutrition during Childhood
Five cans of soft drinks provide approximately how many kcalories? a. 25 kcalories b. 125 kcalories c. 415 kcalories d. 750 kcalories ANS: D MSC: Application
108.
REF: p. 564, Section 17.2-Nutrition during Childhood
The typical can of soft drink contains the equivalent of how many millilitres of sugar? a. 25 mL b. 30 mL c. 40 mL d. 50 mL ANS: D MSC: Knowledge
107.
REF: p. 565, Section 17.2-Nutrition during Childhood
Which of these population groups consumes the most soft drinks each day at school? a. teenage boys b. teenage girls c. preteen boys d. preteen girls ANS: A MSC: Knowledge
106.
REF: p. 563, Section 17.2-Nutrition during Childhood
According to the Canadian Paediatric Society what is the maximum number of hours/day of "recreational screen time" for children aged 5 - 17 years? a. 0 hours b. 1 hours c. 2 hours d. 3 hours ANS: C MSC: Knowledge
105.
REF: p. 563, Section 17.2-Nutrition during Childhood
REF: p. 564, Section 17.2-Nutrition during Childhood
What is the estimated annual number of TV commercials that the average North American child views? a. 40,000 b. 30,000 c. 20,000
d. 10,000 ANS: A MSC: Knowledge 109.
REF: p. 565, Section 17.2-Nutrition during Childhood
According to the Canadian Physical Activity Guidelines, how many minutes of moderate-to-vigorous-intensity exercise should children aged 5 - 11 and 12 - 17 years obtain in a day? a. 30 minutes b. 60 minutes c. 75 minutes d. 90 minutes ANS: B MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 567, Section 17.2-Nutrition during Childhood
110. Which one of the following is a typical growth characteristic of overweight children? a. They begin puberty later. b. They can achieve a normal appearance after losing excess fat. c. They develop less bone and muscle mass in response to carrying the extra weight. d. They grow taller than their normal-weight peers at first, but then stop growing at a shorter height. ANS: D MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 565, Section 17.2-Nutrition during Childhood
111. Which of the following pairs of conditions are associated with television’s influence? a. obesity and high blood lipids b. anorexia and nutrient deficiencies c. drug abuse and teenage pregnancy d. hyperactivity and lower body weight ANS: A MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 565, Section 17.2-Nutrition during Childhood
112. Which of the following is the most likely explanation for the increased prevalence of obesity in children over the past 30 years? a. They eat more snacks. b. They sleep more hours. c. They consume more sugar. d. They are less active physically. ANS: D MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 564-565, Section 17.2-Nutrition during Childhood
113. Which of the following is the leading cause of high blood pressure in children? a. obesity b. hyperactivity c. inactivity d. overhydration ANS: A MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 565, Section 17.2-Nutrition during Childhood
114. On which one of the following factors do behavioural weight-loss programs focus? a. where one eats b. when one eats
c. how one eats d. why one eats ANS: C MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 567, Section 17.2-Nutrition during Childhood
115. Mike is a 10-year-old inactive child who weighs 68 kg. He has come to your practice with his parents for help on losing weight. What advice should be given to the parents? a. Reduce his energy intake by 50 kcalories per day. b. Reduce his energy intake by 100 kcalories per day. c. Encourage a weight loss goal of 5 lbs per month. d. Maintain weight and do not encourage weight loss during growth and development. ANS: D MSC: Application
REF: p. 566, Section 17.2-Nutrition during Childhood
116. To lower the risk of obesity in children, which of the following practices should parents institute for their children? a. Serve them smaller portions. b. Serve them 3 meals a day without dessert. c. Teach them to take appropriate food portions. d. Serve them more beverages and less solid food. ANS: C MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 566, Section 17.2-Nutrition during Childhood
117. Which of the following is an effective strategy for dealing with obesity in a child? a. Encourage the individual to eat quickly and then leave the table. b. Institute new eating habits such as teaching the individual to clean the food plate. c. Engage the individual in at least 1 hour per day of moderate to vigorous physical activity. d. Take control and strongly encourage the individual to lose weight by limiting food intake and regular vigorous exercise. ANS: C MSC: Application
REF: p. 566, Section 17.2-Nutrition during Childhood
118. Why is it recommended that overweight children NOT follow a low-kcalorie diet? a. It can lead to a lowering of self-esteem. b. Children’s school performance can deteriorate. c. Most children are unable to learn new food habits. d. Diet restriction can interfere with growth and development. ANS: D MSC: Application
REF: p. 566, Section 17.2-Nutrition during Childhood
119. Which of these people is best able to manage the growth and weight gain of overweight children? a. school nurse b. parents/caregivers c. health-care professional d. school physical education instructor ANS: C MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 568-569, Section 17.2-Nutrition during Childhood
120.
Which of the following steps should be undertaken by the parent or guardian to ensure that young people eat well? a. Control the availability of food. b. Monitor the consumption of food. c. Prohibit eating except at mealtime. d. Provide an emotional climate that discourages snacking. ANS: A MSC: Knowledge
121.
Which one of the following practices is among the recommendations to help children develop an interest in vegetables? a. Serve vegetables warm, not hot. b. Serve vegetables with other foods on the plate. c. Serve vegetables undercooked and crunchy. d. Serve vegetables with the promise that after they are eaten, dessert will follow. ANS: C MSC: Knowledge
122.
REF: p. 568, Section 17.2-Nutrition during Childhood
Which of the following would be an excellent snack for a child? a. 1 medium apple and 50 grams of cheese cubes b. 355 mL of fruit drink and 250 mL of buttered popcorn c. 1 chocolate chip granola bar and 250 mL of chocolate milk d. 1 chocolate ice cream bar ANS: A MSC: Application
125.
REF: p. 568-569, Section 17.2-Nutrition during Childhood
Which one of the following is a food preference in children? a. Hot foods are preferred to warm ones. b. Smooth foods are preferred to lumpy ones. c. Cooked vegetables are preferred to raw ones. d. Green and yellow vegetables are the favourites. ANS: B MSC: Knowledge
124.
REF: p. 568, Section 17.2-Nutrition during Childhood
Even in preschoolers whose habits are being established, existing dietary attitudes are relatively resistant to change. Which of the following would be the wise parents’ best reaction? a. Be patient and persistent. b. Impose their own eating habits on the children. c. Wait until the children start school to initiate changes. d. Exert continuous pressure to initiate good food habits. ANS: A MSC: Application
123.
REF: p. 568-569, Section 17.2-Nutrition during Childhood
REF: p. 570, Section 17.2-Nutrition during Childhood
Which of the following practices is among the recommended methods for introducing new foods to children? a. Offer foods in combination with other favourite foods. b. Offer foods in larger amounts. c. Create a pleasant eating atmosphere. d. Present new foods at the end of the meal. ANS: C
REF: p. 569, Section 17.2-Nutrition during Childhood
MSC: Knowledge 126.
If a child is reluctant to try a new food, it is best to do which of the following? a. Send the child to his/her room. b. Withhold dessert until all food on the plate is eaten. c. Quietly remove it and present it again at another time. d. Encourage other family members to coax the child to eat it. ANS: C MSC: Knowledge
127.
When children are allowed to eat freely from a variety of foods, they usually select foods that are high in which of the following nutrients? a. iron b. fibre c. sugar d. protein ANS: C MSC: Knowledge
128.
REF: p. 570, Section 17.2-Nutrition during Childhood
Which of the following food skills should a 3 year-old child be able to perform? a. Measure liquids b. Mash or peel foods c. Crack egg shells d. Spear foods with a fork ANS: D MSC: Knowledge
131.
REF: p. 569, Section 17.2-Nutrition during Childhood
The Canadian Breakfast for Learning's "Breakfast Program" provides food from how many of the four food groups at a meal? a. 1 b. 4 c. 2 d. 3 ANS: D MSC: Knowledge
130.
REF: p. 569, Section 17.2-Nutrition during Childhood
The single most effective way to teach nutrition to children is by which of the following actions? a. example b. punishment c. singling out only hazardous nutrition practices for attention d. explaining the importance of eating new foods as a prerequisite for dessert ANS: A MSC: Application
129.
REF: p. 569, Section 17.2-Nutrition during Childhood
REF: p. 569, Section 17.2-Nutrition during Childhood
Which of the following snacks promotes a child's optimum dental health? a. crackers b. ice cream bar c. apple wedges with cheese cubes. d. bananas with chocolate sauce ANS: C
REF: p. 569-570, Section 17.2-Nutrition during Childhood
MSC: Application 132.
When does the adolescent growth spurt begin for females? a. 10 - 11 years of age b. 11 - 12 years of age c. 12 - 13 years of age d. 13 - 14 years of age ANS: A MSC: Knowledge
133.
What is the approximate duration of the adolescent growth spurt? a. 6 months b. 1 year c. 2½ years d. 6 years ANS: C MSC: Knowledge
134.
REF: p. 572, Section 17.3-Nutrition during Adolescence
A local high school has just added milk to the vending machines. Parents were very supportive of this change; however, not all the students believe this is useful. You have a few minutes to speak to the student body. Which of the following would be your best approach? a. Emphasize that the milk will be priced lower than the other beverages. b. Mention that the other beverages like soda have CO2, which increases the risk for heartburn. c. Point out that milk is a good source of calcium, which is required for teens during peak bone growth. d. Explain how milk contains important nutrients that lower the risk for anemia, especially in teenage girls. ANS: C MSC: Application
137.
REF: p. 571, Section 17.3-Nutrition during Adolescence
For which one of the following nutrients are Canadian adolescents seldom deficient, when compared with their American counterparts? a. calcium b. folate c. vitamin A d. vitamin D ANS: D MSC: Knowledge
136.
REF: p. 571, Section 17.3-Nutrition during Adolescence
On average, how many centimetres taller does the average adolescent male grow during puberty? a. 10 centimetres b. 15 centimetres c. 20 centimetres d. 25 centimetres ANS: C MSC: Knowledge
135.
REF: p. 571, Section 17.3-Nutrition during Adolescence
What is menarche?
REF: p. 573, Section 17.3-Nutrition during Adolescence
a. b. c. d.
a female’s time of first menstruation the adolescent growth spurt in males the adolescent growth spurt in females a borderline anemia state in adolescents
ANS: A MSC: Knowledge 138.
What is the RDA for calcium for adolescents aged 9 - 13 years? a. 1000 mg b. 1300 mg c. 1600 mg d. 1900 mg ANS: B MSC: Knowledge
139.
REF: p. 574, Section 17.3-Nutrition during Adolescence
What is considered to be the minimum pharmacologically active dose of caffeine? a. 5 mg b. 100 mg c. 200 mg d. 500 mg ANS: C MSC: Knowledge
143.
REF: p. 573, Section 17.3-Nutrition during Adolescence
Approximately how much caffeine is delivered by a typical cola beverage? a. 5–20 mg b. 30–55 mg c. 75 mg d. 150 mg ANS: B MSC: Knowledge
142.
REF: p. 573, Section 17.3-Nutrition during Adolescence
Which of the following beverages is consumed in smaller quantities by those adolescents who dine with their parents? a. energy drinks b. milk c. fruit juice d. soft drinks ANS: D MSC: Knowledge
141.
REF: p. 573, Section 17.3-Nutrition during Adolescence
Which of the following combinations would be an excellent snack for a teenager? a. corn chips and salsa b. beef jerky and an energy drink c. pizza and fruit punch d. low fat cheese and whole-grain crackers ANS: D MSC: Application
140.
REF: p. 572, Section 17.3-Nutrition during Adolescence
REF: p. 574, Section 17.3-Nutrition during Adolescence
Approximately what fraction of an average teenager’s daily energy intake is derived from snacks? a. 1/4
b. 1/3 c. 1/2 d. 2/3 ANS: A MSC: Application 144.
About how many meals each week are eaten outside the home by adolescents? a. 3 b. 7 c. 14 d. 21 ANS: B MSC: Application
145.
REF: p. 575, Section 17.3-Nutrition during Adolescence
Which of the following nutrients must be increased for adolescent smokers? a. vitamin B12 b. vitamin C c. iron d. calcium ANS: B MSC: Knowledge
148.
REF: p. 574, Section 17.3-Nutrition during Adolescence
A cigarette smoker who is planning to quit should expect a weight gain in the first year of about which of the following amounts? a. 1.5 kg b. 3 kg c. 4.5 kg d. 6 kg ANS: C MSC: Application
147.
REF: p. 574, Section 17.3-Nutrition during Adolescence
Which of the following is a nutrition-related problem associated with drug abuse? a. higher intakes of food during "highs" b. higher intakes of carotene-rich foods, causing skin to change colour c. higher body weights than non-smokers d. higher incidences of appetite suppression ANS: D MSC: Application
146.
REF: p. 574, Section 17.3-Nutrition during Adolescence
REF: p. 575, Section 17.3-Nutrition during Adolescence
Which one of the following is a sign of the development of atherosclerosis? a. Fatty streaks may begin to form within the first 15 years of life. b. An increase in HDL cholesterol. c. The kidneys begin to excrete more water. d. Shortness of breath develops. ANS: B REF: p. 581-582, Section 17.4-Childhood Obesity and the Early Development of Chronic Diseases MSC: Knowledge
149.
Which one of the following is the most important risk factor for diabetes among children? a. hyperglycemia
b. hypotension c. obesity d. diverticulitis ANS: C REF: p. 581, Section 17.4-Childhood Obesity and the Early Development of Chronic Diseases MSC: Knowledge 150.
Which of the following is an acceptable value for total blood cholesterol in children and adolescents? a. <4.4 mmol/L b. <3.4 mmol/L c. <2.4 mmol/L d. <1/4 mmol/L ANS: A REF: p. 583, Section 17.4-Childhood Obesity and the Early Development of Chronic Diseases MSC: Knowledge
151.
Which of the following is the recommended intake of fruit juice for children and adolescents aged 7 18 years? a. 200 - 225 mL b. 200 - 275 mL c. 250 - 300 mL d. 250 - 355 mL ANS: D REF: p. 583, Section 17.4-Childhood Obesity and the Early Development of Chronic Diseases MSC: Knowledge
152.
Of those teenagers who continue to smoke into adulthood, what percentage of them will die from a smoking-related cause? a. 25 percent b. 50 percent c. 60 percent d. 75 percent ANS: B REF: p. 584, Section 17.4-Childhood Obesity and the Early Development of Chronic Diseases MSC: Knowledge MATCHING
a. 7 b. 9.5 c. 50 d. 80 e. 100 f. Iron g. Casein h. Folate i. Honey j. Beikost k. Puberty
l. Linoleic m. Weaning n. Vitamin D o. Colostrum p. Lactoferrin q. Lactadherin r. Epinephrine s. Bifidus factors t. Alpha-lactalbumin 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10. 11. 12. 13. 14. 15. 16. 17. 18. 19. 20.
Expected weight, in kilograms, of an infant with a birth weight of 4 kg at 1 year Typical daily energy need, in kcalories per kilogram body weight, of an infant Essential fatty acid in breast milk Chief protein in human breast milk Chief protein in cow’s milk Nutrient that is low in human milk but adequate in infant formulas Pre-milk substance from the breast, containing antibodies Substance in breast milk that promotes growth of beneficial bacteria in the intestines Substance in breast milk that deprives intestinal bacteria of iron A breast-milk protein that fights virus-induced diarrhea Process whereby breast milk is gradually replaced by formula or semisolid foods Low content of this nutrient makes goat’s milk inappropriate for infants Another term for supplemental or weaning foods Possible source of infant botulism Deficiency of this nutrient in children shows symptoms similar to mild lead toxicity Approximate percentage of young children diagnosed with food allergies Substance given to prevent anaphylactic shock in people with food allergies Percent chance of becoming an obese adult for an obese teen with 1 obese parent Period in life when an individual becomes physically capable of reproduction Percentage of students graduating high school who report having been drunk at least once
1. ANS: B 2. ANS: E 3. ANS: L 4. ANS: T 5. ANS: G 6. ANS: N 7. ANS: O 8. ANS: S 9. ANS: P 10. ANS: Q 11. ANS: M 12. ANS: H 13. ANS: J 14. ANS: I 15. ANS: F 16. ANS: A 17. ANS: R 18. ANS: D 19. ANS: K
REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF:
p. 543 p. 545 p. 547 p. 547 p. 547 p. 547 p. 548 p. 548 p. 548 p. 548 p. 549 p. 550 p. 551 p. 553 p. 558 p. 560 p. 562 p. 563 p. 571
20. ANS: C
REF: p. 574
ESSAY 1. Describe the growth curve of infants from birth to 1 year. Compare the energy needs of this age group with that of adults. ANS: Answers may vary. REF: p. 543-545 2. Compare the heart rate, respiration rate, and energy needs of infants with those of adults. ANS: Answers may vary. REF: p. 545 3. Why is excess protein consumption by infants especially harmful? List the signs of protein overload in infants. How can protein overload be prevented? ANS: Answers may vary. REF: p. 545 4. Explain the feeding pattern of healthy breast-fed infants. ANS: Answers may vary. REF: p. 546-547 5. Discuss the importance of omega-3 fatty acids in the development of infants. ANS: Answers may vary. REF: p. 547 6. Why do most infant formulas now contain omega-3 fatty acids? ANS: Answers may vary. REF: p. 547 7. Describe 5 substances present in breast milk that affect immunologic function of the infant. ANS: Answers may vary.
REF: p. 548 8. Discuss the importance of breast milk banks. What steps are taken to exclude breast milk that may contain undesirable substances? ANS: Answers may vary. REF: p. 549 9. Discuss the long-term benefits of breast-feeding on body weight in later life. ANS: Answers may vary. REF: p. 548-549 10. Discuss the significance and application of hypoallergenic infant formulas. ANS: Answers may vary. REF: p. 550 11. Discuss the special nutritional needs of the preterm infant and ways to meet these needs. ANS: Answers may vary. REF: p. 550 12. Why is preterm breast milk suitable to meet the special needs of the preterm infant? ANS: Answers may vary. REF: p. 550 13. Discuss guidelines for introducing first foods to an infant. ANS: Answers may vary. REF: p. 551-552 14. Explain the appropriate procedure for introducing new foods to children. ANS: Answers may vary. REF: p. 551-552 15. Discuss the special considerations for the use of vegetarian diets during infancy.
ANS: Answers may vary. REF: p. 553 16. What practices by caregivers encourage the development of good eating habits during early childhood? ANS: Answers may vary. REF: p. 554 17. Discuss the short- and long-term consequences of iron deficiency in children on behaviour and on school performance. ANS: Answers may vary. REF: p. 558 18. Compare and contrast physical signs for hair, eyes, teeth, and gums in healthy and malnourished children. ANS: Answers may vary. REF: p. 559 19. Describe a healthy and malnourished appearance of the skin and nails of children. ANS: Answers may vary. REF: p. 559 20. Give examples of how hunger and nutrient deficiencies affect behaviour in children. ANS: Answers may vary. REF: p. 557-558 21. Describe the physical and mental effects of lead exposure on children. ANS: Answers may vary. REF: p. 558-559 22. What is the relationship between nutrition and hyperactivity in children? ANS: Answers may vary.
REF: p. 560 23. List possible reasons for the increase in the incidence of peanut allergy. ANS: Answers may vary. REF: p. 560 24. Differentiate between a person who has an asymptomatic allergy and one with a symptomatic allergy. ANS: Answers may vary. REF: p. 560-561 25. Explain how food allergies are diagnosed. If there is a positive diagnosis, what is the treatment? ANS: Answers may vary. REF: p. 560-561 26. Discuss the effects of food allergies and food intolerances on nutritional status. ANS: Answers may vary. REF: p. 560-562 27. What is anaphylactic shock? List 6 symptoms of impending anaphylactic shock and the immediate treatment for this reaction. ANS: Answers may vary. REF: p. 561-562 28. Discuss the effects of obesity in childhood. What steps can be taken to prevent and to treat this condition? ANS: Answers may vary. REF: p. 563-566 29. Discuss the contribution of television exposure and video games to obesity in children. ANS: Answers may vary. REF: p. 564-565 30. Describe the difference in physical traits of obese children and their normal-weight peers.
ANS: Answers may vary. REF: p. 565 31. Describe the psychological development of children who become overweight. ANS: Answers may vary. REF: p. 565 32. Discuss the importance of food colour, flavour, and temperature in relation to food preferences in children. ANS: Answers may vary. REF: p. 568 33. What steps can parents take to help ensure that children consume healthful snacks? ANS: Answers may vary. REF: p. 569 34. List 2 healthful snacks from each of the food groups: grains, vegetables, fruits, dairy, and meats/legumes. ANS: Answers may vary. REF: p. 570 35. List the food skills of pre-school children and the ages at which children develop these skills. ANS: Answers may vary. REF: p. 569 36. Discuss factors that undermine positive nutrition influences at school. ANS: Answers may vary. REF: p. 570-571 37. What accounts for the increased need for iron in male and female adolescents? ANS: Answers may vary.
REF: p. 572-573 38. Discuss differences in iron needs among adolescent males and females. ANS: Answers may vary. REF: p. 572-573 39. Describe the importance of calcium intake during adolescence. Do most adolescents meet their calcium needs? ANS: Answers may vary. REF: p. 573 40. Discuss the importance of adolescents eating meals at home. What nutrient intakes are typically lower in adolescents who miss breakfast? ANS: Answers may vary. REF: p. 573 41. Describe common eating patterns of teenagers and suggest appropriate changes to foster better eating habits. ANS: Answers may vary. REF: p. 573-574 42. List 4 nutrition problems associated with drug abuse and tobacco use in adolescents. ANS: Answers may vary. REF: p. 574-575 43. Describe the effects of smoking by adolescents on nutrition and health. What usually happens to body weight when someone gives up smoking? ANS: Answers may vary. REF: p. 575 44. What is meant when certain factors are described as playing a determining role versus a permissive role in the risk for diseases such as diabetes and cardiovascular disorders? ANS: Answers may vary.
REF: p. 581 45. List factors that encourage the early development of type 2 diabetes in children. ANS: Answers may vary. REF: p. 581-582 46. Describe the role of genetics in the risk for type 2 diabetes and heart disease in children. ANS: Answers may vary. REF: p. 581-582 47. Describe the development of arterial plaque from birth to the sixth decade of life. ANS: Answers may vary. REF: p. 582 48. Describe relationships among obesity, hypertension, and blood cholesterol in children and adolescents. ANS: Answers may vary. REF: p. 582-583 49. List dietary guidelines for fat, saturated fat, and cholesterol for children from age years to age 18 years. ANS: Answers may vary. REF: p. 583 50. What are dietary recommendations for fat, energy, saturated fat, and cholesterol in children younger than 2 years? ANS: Answers may vary. REF: p. 583-584
Chapter 17 – Life Cycle Nutrition: Adulthood and the Later Years MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. What fraction of the Canadian population is projected to be at least 65 years old in the year 2031? a. 1/100 b. 1/30 c. 1/5 d. 1/3 ANS: C
REF: p. 587, Section 18.0-Introduction
MSC: Knowledge
2. What is the fastest-growing age group in Canada? a. 21–30 years b. 35–50 years c. Over 65 years d. Over 85 years ANS: D
REF: p. 587, Section 18.0-Introduction
MSC: Knowledge
3. What is the life expectancy of males and females in Canada? a. 70–77 years b. 78–85 years c. 85–89 years d. 90–93 years ANS: B
REF: p. 587, Section 18.0-Introduction
MSC: Knowledge
4. What was the average life expectancy of Canadians born in the year 1900? a. 47-50 years b. 51-55 years c. 56-61 years d. 64-68 years ANS: A
REF: p. 587, Section 18.0-Introduction
MSC: Application
5. What is the life expectancy of white males and females? a. 62–68 years b. 76–81 years c. 82–86 years d. 87–90 years ANS: B
REF: p. 587, Section 18.0-Introduction
MSC: Knowledge
6. Approximately how many years is the maximum human life span? a. 75 years b. 100 years c. 115 years d. 130 years ANS: D
REF: p. 588, Section 18.0-Introduction
MSC: Knowledge
7. Approximately what percentage of a person’s life expectancy is under control of her genes? a. 0 percent b. 25 percent
c. 50 percent d. 75 percent ANS: B MSC: Application
REF: p. 588, Section 18.1-Nutrition and Longevity
8. Approximately what percentage of a person’s life expectancy is dependent upon his personal behaviour? a. 0 percent b. 25 percent c. 50 percent d. 75 percent ANS: D MSC: Application
REF: p. 588, Section 18.1-Nutrition and Longevity
9. What would be the physiological age of a 75-year-old woman whose physical health is equivalent to that of her 50-year-old daughter? a. 25 years b. 50 years c. 70 years d. 125 years ANS: B MSC: Application
REF: p. 589, Section 18.1-Nutrition and Longevity
10. Which of the following appears to be most influential in slowing the physical limitations that accompany aging? a. physical activity b. eating well c. moderate alcohol intake d. energy restriction ANS: A MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 589, Section 18.1-Nutrition and Longevity
11. Studies of adults show that longevity is related, in part, to which of the following? a. weight gain b. irregularity of meals c. short periods of sleep d. no or moderate alcohol intake ANS: D MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 589, Section 18.1-Nutrition and Longevity
12. What is the most important predictor of a person’s mobility in the later years? a. BMI b. alcohol use c. chronological age d. regular physical activity ANS: D MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 589, Section 18.1-Nutrition and Longevity
13. Which of the following is a finding from studies of diet restriction in rats? a. Restriction of specific nutrients exerted anti-aging effects.
b. Energy-restricted diets led to life extension in 90 percent of the rats. c. Energy-restricted diets led to lowering of the metabolic rate and body temperature. d. Restriction of food intake only after rats reached maturity, but not before, resulted in extension of life span. ANS: C MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 590, Section 18.1-Nutrition and Longevity
14. Which of the following features of energy intake and longevity is true? a. Improvements in longevity depend on reducing energy intake but not on the amount of body fat. b. Restriction of energy intake in genetically obese animals does not seem to improve longevity. c. Biochemical markers for longevity in humans are improved only when energy intake is reduced by at least one-third. d. The activities of the genes of older mice on energy-restricted diets are similar to those of mice on standard diets. ANS: A MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 590-591, Section 18.1-Nutrition and Longevity
15. What minimum reduction from the usual intake of energy in people brings about measurable improvements in body fat, blood pressure, insulin response, and blood lipids? a. 10 percent b. 25 percent c. 40 percent d. 50 percent ANS: A MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 591, Section 18.1-Nutrition and Longevity
16. People who persistently restrict energy intake by 30 percent for 30 years can expect to increase longevity by up to how many years? a. 3 years b. 6 years c. 9 years d. 12 years ANS: A MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 591, Section 18.1-Nutrition and Longevity
17. In people who practice energy restriction to prolong life, hunger becomes persistent when kcalorie intake first drops by what percentage? a. 30 percent b. 40 percent c. 50 percent d. 60 percent ANS: A MSC: Application
REF: p. 591, Section 18.1-Nutrition and Longevity
18. Which of the following is a proposed mechanism for energy restriction and improved longevity in animals? a. reduced oxidative stress b. increased metabolic rate
c. enhanced lipid oxidation d. reduced DNA repair ANS: A MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 591, Section 18.1-Nutrition and Longevity
19. Which of the following features of the stress response in men and women is true? a. Women’s general reactions to stress are different than those of men. b. The ability to respond is weaker in older women compared with older men. c. The secretion of epinephrine is suppressed in elderly women compared with elderly men. d. Psychological stressors such as divorce or death of a loved one are handled much less well by elderly men compared with elderly women. ANS: A MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 592, Section 18.2-The Aging Process
20. Which of the following is a characteristic of body weight in older people? a. A higher body weight reduces the risk of sarcopenia. b. Being overweight at age 75 does not reduce longevity. c. Being obese may not carry health risks. d. A moderately high body weight may be more detrimental than a low one. ANS: A MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 593, Section 18.2-The Aging Process
21. The relationship of overweight and health risks diminishes with age, starting after which of these ages? a. 45 years b. 55 years c. 65 years d. 75 years ANS: C MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 592, Section 18.2-The Aging Process
22. Which of the following describes sarcopenia? a. loss of central visual activity b. loss of muscle mass and strength c. aging-induced chronic inflammation of the stomach d. intestinal dysmotility from excessive use of laxatives ANS: B MSC: Knowledge 23.
REF: p. 593, Section 18.2-The Aging Process
Which of the following characteristics of aging and the immune system is true a. Immunity in older people does not seem to be affected by regular exercise. b. In Canada, infectious diseases are a minor cause of deaths in the elderly. c. Immune function does not decline with age in people who maintain good nutrition. d. Antibiotics are often ineffective in treating older people who have deficient immune systems. ANS: D MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 593, Section 18.2-The Aging Process
24. Which of the following terms describes an immune system that is inefficient and overactive in the aged? a. inflammaging
b. dysphagic cell mass c. sarcopenic undermining d. endentulous-induced wasting ANS: A MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 593, Section 18.2-The Aging Process
25. Mary is 75 years old and has been getting sick recently and losing weight. After assessing all symptoms, her doctor diagnoses atrophic gastritis and prescribes an antibiotic. Which one of the following symptoms is associated with this condition? a. diarrhea b. acid reflux c. weight loss d. stomach pain ANS: D MSC: Application
REF: p. 594, Section 18.2-The Aging Process
26. Atrophic gastritis notably impairs the absorption of which nutrient? a. vitamin B-6 b. vitamin B-12 c. thiamin d. riboflavin ANS: B MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 594, Section 18.2-The Aging Process
27. A person with dysphagia has which of the following disadvantages? a. no teeth b. low immunity c. difficulty swallowing d. diminished muscle mass ANS: C MSC: Application
REF: p. 594, Section 18.2-The Aging Process
28. Dietary interventions for dysphagia: a. are highly individualized b. provide solid-textured foods c. include clear liquids d. include vitamin and mineral supplements ANS: A MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 594, Section 18.2-The Aging Process
29. Which of the following characteristics of tooth loss in the elderly is true? a. People without teeth have adequate intakes of fibre and vitamins. b. Properly-fitted dentures are just as effective as natural teeth. c. People without teeth commonly consume adequate fruits and vegetables. d. The consumption of applesauce instead of apples and creamed corn instead of corn on the cob reduces nutrient bioavailability and impairs nutritional health. ANS: D MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 594, Section 18.2-The Aging Process
30. Which of the following signs typically characterizes atrophic gastritis?
a. b. c. d.
inflamed stomach mucosa excessive secretion of hydrochloric acid decreased bacterial growth in the stomach adequate secretion of pepsinogen and gastrin
ANS: A MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 594, Section 18.2-The Aging Process
31. A person who is edentulous has which of the following disadvantages? a. no teeth b. low immunity c. difficulty swallowing d. diminished muscle mass ANS: A MSC: Application
REF: p. 594, Section 18.2-The Aging Process
32. Among the elderly, malnutrition is most common in those living under which of the following circumstances? a. in nursing homes b. with their children c. at home with others d. at home by themselves ANS: A MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 595, Section 18.2-The Aging Process
33. What is the highest age group recognized in the Dietary Reference Intakes? a. 40 years and over b. 50 years and over c. 65 years and over d. 71 years and older ANS: D MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 595, Section 18.3-Energy and Nutrient Needs of Older Adults
34. A person with a pressure ulcer has damage to which of the following areas? a. skin b. colon c. mouth d. stomach ANS: A MSC: Application
REF: p. 596, Section 18.3-Energy and Nutrient Needs of Older Adults
35. Approximately what percentage decline in basal metabolism is seen in an 80-year-old person compared with a 40-year-old? a. 1–2 percent b. 2–4 percent c. 4–8 percent d. 8–16 percent ANS: C MSC: Application
REF: p. 596, Section 18.3-Energy and Nutrient Needs of Older Adults
36. Approximately what percentage decline in total energy expenditure is seen in a 70 year old versus a 30 year old? a. 2 percent b. 10 percent c. 20 percent d. 30 percent ANS: C MSC: Application
REF: p. 596, Section 18.3-Energy and Nutrient Needs of Older Adults
37. Which of the following describes the nutrient needs of older people? a. Nutrient needs vary according to individual histories. b. Nutrient needs remain the same as in young adult life. c. Nutrient needs increase; therefore, supplementation is required. d. Nutrient needs decrease for vitamins and minerals due to changes in body composition. ANS: A MSC: Application
REF: p. 596, Section 18.3-Energy and Nutrient Needs of Older Adults
38. Which one of the following features of elderly people and water metabolism is true? a. Elderly people do not feel thirsty or recognize dryness of the mouth. b. Elderly people have a higher total body water content compared with younger adults. c. Elderly people show increased frequency of urination, which results in higher requirements. d. Elderly people frequently show symptoms of overhydration such as mental lapses and disorientation. ANS: A MSC: Application
REF: p. 596, Section 18.3-Energy and Nutrient Needs of Older Adults
39. What is the total water per day recommendation for males over 50 years of age? a. 1300 mL b. 2500 mL c. 3700 mL d. 5000 mL ANS: C MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 596, Section 18.3-Energy and Nutrient Needs of Older Adults
40. Marie is an 80-year-old woman with a BMI of 27 who has been admitted to the hospital for dehydration. She lives alone, her diet is very high in desserts and sweets, and she only drinks diet colas. On morning hospital rounds, the attending physician asked the group of interns what they recommend for the patient. With which intern should you DISAGREE? a. Intern A: Try to lose enough weight to achieve a desirable BMI. b. Intern B: Try to incorporate soft fruits and cooked vegetables into the diet. c. Intern C: Try to avoid sodas that contain caffeine as they may contribute to dehydration. d. Intern D: Try to drink at least 6 glasses of water a day (or the equivalent in fruit juices). ANS: A REF: p. 596, 593-594, Section 18.3-Energy and Nutrient Needs of Older Adults MSC: Application 41. Vitamin B12 deficiency in the elderly is least likely to occur from which of the following? a. intestinal bacterial overgrowth b. insufficient intake of vitamin B12
c. reduced output of intrinsic factor d. reduced output of hydrochloric acid ANS: B MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 598, Section 18.3-Energy and Nutrient Needs of Older Adults
42. A doctor suspects the numbness in John’s hands is because he is not producing enough hydrochloric acid and intrinsic factor. The doctor encourages John to eat more foods containing vitamin B12. Why is this advice unlikely to alleviate John’s symptoms? a. John can absorb vitamin B12 from foods despite his lack of intrinsic factor. b. Intrinsic factor is not associated with vitamin B12 and eating more foods containing the vitamin would have no effect on John’s health. c. It is improbable that a lack of hydrochloric acid production and intrinsic factor are associated with the numbness that John is experiencing. d. Because John has no intrinsic factor, he cannot efficiently utilize vitamin B12 from natural sources. ANS: D MSC: Application
REF: p. 598, Section 18.3-Energy and Nutrient Needs of Older Adults
43. Which one of the following is a characteristic of vitamin B12 nutrition in older people? a. The RDA for vitamin B12 is different for younger adults. b. Older adults are advised to obtain most of their vitamin B12 from fortified foods and supplements. c. Up to 45 percent of those over 50 years of age are at risk of vitamin B12 deficiency due to atrophic gastritis. d. The DRI Committee recommends that older people increase their meat intake to provide adequate vitamin B12. ANS: B MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 598, Section 18.3-Energy and Nutrient Needs of Older Adults
44. Which of the following is a recent finding on vitamin D nutrition in the elderly? a. The capacity to self-synthesize vitamin D is high. b. The skin’s capacity to synthesize vitamin D is reduced. c. The presence of atrophic gastritis reduces bioavailability of vitamin D. d. Symptoms of vitamin D deficiency include dermatitis and diminished taste acidity. ANS: B MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 598, Section 18.3-Energy and Nutrient Needs of Older Adults
45. Which of the following features of vitamin D nutrition in the elderly is true? a. Most elderly receive near-RDA amounts of vitamin D. b. Aging reduces the kidneys’ ability to convert vitamin D to its active form. c. The RDA for vitamin D in the elderly is lower due to less excretion by the kidneys. d. Most elderly rely primarily on self-synthesis of vitamin D due to their greater time spent outdoors. ANS: B MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 598, Section 18.3-Energy and Nutrient Needs of Older Adults
46. Which of the following practices are known to be effective in preventing and treating the high incidence of constipation in the elderly? a. eating more red meat
b. drinking more water c. limiting physical activity d. taking vitamin B12 injections ANS: D MSC: Application
REF: p. 598, Section 18.3-Energy and Nutrient Needs of Older Adults
47. Which of the following features of calcium nutrition in the elderly is true? a. The DRI is 800–1000 mg. b. Calcium intakes are well below recommendations. c. Calcium supplements are not effective sources of calcium due to poor digestibility. d. Calcium from food is not well absorbed due to the intake of calcium-binding laxatives. ANS: B MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 598-599, Section 18.3-Energy and Nutrient Needs of Older Adults
48. Although many health-care professionals do not recommend a daily multivitamin-mineral supplement, the need for which of the following nutrients is usually met from supplement use? a. iron b. zinc c. vitamin D d. magnesium ANS: C MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 587, Section 18.3-Energy and Nutrient Needs of Older Adults
49. Which of the following statements describes one aspect of mineral nutrition of older adults? a. Zinc intake is adequate for about 95 percent of this group. b. Iron absorption is reduced due to low stomach acidity. c. Calcium intakes of females are near the RDA for this group. d. Calcium allowances for this group have recently been increased by the Committee on Dietary Reference Intakes. ANS: B MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 599, Section 18.3-Energy and Nutrient Needs of Older Adults
50. Which of the following is a condition that increases the likelihood of iron deficiency in older people? a. lack of intrinsic factor b. loss of iron due to menopause c. blood loss from yearly physical testing procedures d. poor iron absorption due to reduced stomach acid secretion and/or use of antacids ANS: D MSC: Application
REF: p. 599, Section 18.3-Energy and Nutrient Needs of Older Adults
51. Which of the following statements describes zinc nutrition in older people? a. A low zinc intake is common. b. Medications often enhance the absorption of zinc. c. Zinc toxicity can depress appetite. d. Medications often reduce the excretion of zinc. ANS: A MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 599, Section 18.3-Energy and Nutrient Needs of Older Adults
52. What are the thickenings that occur to the lenses of the eye, thereby affecting vision, especially in the elderly?
a. b. c. d.
retinitis keratoids cataracts rhodolipids
ANS: C MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 600, Section 18.4-Nutrition-Related Concerns of Older Adults
53. Jimmy is 33 years old and his obese parents each have cataracts in both eyes. They rarely eat fruits or vegetables and prefer a meat and potatoes existence. To reduce his risk of developing cataracts, which of the following should Jimmy incorporate into his lifestyle? a. taking vitamin D supplements b. eating a variety of foods that contain carotenoids c. eating a variety of foods that contain iron d. getting enough sleep at night to preserve the integrity of his eyes ANS: B MSC: Application
REF: p. 600, Section 18.4-Nutrition-Related Concerns of Older Adults
54. Which of the following is a characteristic of age-related macular degeneration? a. It is a rare form of vision loss in older people. b. Risk factors include sunlight-induced oxidative stress. c. Dietary omega-6 fatty acids may be protective. d. Therapy includes elimination of purine-containing foods. ANS: B MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 600, Section 18.4-Nutrition-Related Concerns of Older Adults
55. Which of the following is a feature of osteoarthritis? a. Low BMI is a risk factor. b. Nicotine intake reduces inflammation and increases flexibility. c. It is the most common type of arthritis that disables older people. d. Jogging worsens the symptoms in weight-bearing joints. ANS: C MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 600, Section 18.4-Nutrition-Related Concerns of Older Adults
56. Which of the following nutrients appear to be protective of cataract formation? a. iron and calcium b. chromium and zinc c. vitamin B12 and folate d. vitamin C and vitamin E ANS: D MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 600, Section 18.4-Nutrition-Related Concerns of Older Adults
57. Which of these organs is/are affected by macular degeneration? a. bone b. eyes c. liver d. kidneys ANS: B MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 600, Section 18.4-Nutrition-Related Concerns of Older Adults
58. Which of the following foods seems to benefit rheumatoid arthritis in some people?
a. b. c. d.
milk olive oil iodized salt refined cereals
ANS: B MSC: Application
REF: p. 601, Section 18.4-Nutrition-Related Concerns of Older Adults
59. Which of the following is a feature of arthritis? a. The immune system is not involved in rheumatoid arthritis. b. Weight loss intensifies the pain in the hands from osteoarthritis. c. Weight-bearing exercises often aggravate the pain from osteoarthritis. d. Supplements of glucosamine and chondroitin seem to reduce the pain of arthritis. ANS: D MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 601, Section 18.4-Nutrition-Related Concerns of Older Adults
60. Which of the following types of diets has been shown to prevent or reduce arthritis inflammation? a. high in simple sugars, low in canned fruit b. high in animal protein, low in canned fruit c. low in polyunsaturated fat, high in oleic acid d. low in saturated fat, high in omega-3 fatty acids ANS: D MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 601, Section 18.4-Nutrition-Related Concerns of Older Adults
61. Which of the following characteristics of gout is true? a. It has a higher prevalence in women. b. Seafood seems to be protective. c. It is considered a form of arthritis. d. It results from low deposits of uric acid crystals in the joints. ANS: C MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 601, Section 18.4-Nutrition-Related Concerns of Older Adults
62. Glucosamine and/or chondroitin supplements are used by some people to treat symptoms of which of these conditions? a. arthritis b. sarcopenia c. pressure ulcers d. mild memory loss ANS: A MSC: Application
REF: p. 601, Section 18.4-Nutrition-Related Concerns of Older Adults
63. Which of the following is NOT a common feature of gout? a. It affects mostly men. b. It is a form of arthritis. c. It results from uric acid crystals in the joints. d. It is treated by reducing intake of milk products. ANS: D MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 601, Section 18.4-Nutrition-Related Concerns of Older Adults
64. Which of the following is thought to promote the development of brain senile plaques and neurofibrillary tangles?
a. b. c. d.
oxidative stress excess acetylcholine dietary deficiency of choline low blood levels of homocysteine
ANS: A MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 602, Section 18.4-Nutrition-Related Concerns of Older Adults
65. What percentage of Canadian adults is affected by Alzheimer’s disease? a. 0.5 percent b. 1 percent c. 1.5 percent d. 5 percent ANS: C MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 602, Section 18.4-Nutrition-Related Concerns of Older Adults
66. Which of the following factors is known to be related to the appearance of Alzheimer’s disease? a. a decrease in free radicals b. an increase in beta-amyloid c. an increase in acetylcholine synthesis d. a decrease in homocysteine synthesis ANS: D MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 602, Section 18.4-Nutrition-Related Concerns of Older Adults
67. Which of the following characteristics of Alzheimer’s disease is true? a. It affects 60 percent of those over 80 years of age. b. It is responsive to dietary choline supplementation. c. It is associated with stability of brain nerve cell number. d. It is associated with clumps of beta-amyloid protein in the brain. ANS: D MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 602, Section 18.4-Nutrition-Related Concerns of Older Adults
68. What is the main reason for dieting in the elderly? a. to economize when food prices increase b. to improve appearance among their peers c. to pursue a medical goal such as reducing blood glucose d. to reduce risks for development of atrophic gastritis and pernicious anemia ANS: C MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 603, Section 18.5 Food Choices and Eating Habits of Older Adults
69. Which of the following features of food choices and eating habits of older people is true? a. The quality of life among older people has not improved since 1995. b. Older people spend less money on foods to eat at home than younger people. c. People over 65 are less likely to lose weight by dieting than are younger people. d. Most older people think of themselves as generally unhappy and in poor health. ANS: C MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 603, Section 18.5 Food Choices and Eating Habits of Older Adults
70. Which of the following does the tool Seniors in the Community: Risk Evaluation for Eating and Nutrition (SCREEN) measure? a. weight change
b. the cost of nutritious meals c. opportunity for social interactions d. counselling and referral to social services ANS: B MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 604, Section 18.5 Food Choices and Eating Habits of Older Adults
71. What is a congregate meal? a. a meal provided for the elderly in a place such as a community centre b. a meal prepared for the elderly that meets one-third of the Dietary Recommended Intakes c. a meal prepared for disadvantaged people of all ages to encourage communal gathering of diverse population groups d. a meal provided through the Nutrition Screening Initiative for the elderly and served primarily to church congregations ANS: A MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 604, Section 18.5 Food Choices and Eating Habits of Older Adults
72. Which of the following features of the Meals on Wheels program is true? a. The meals are delivered by volunteers. b. It operates at least 7 days a week. c. It provides the same social benefits as community meals. d. Only adults over the age of 60 years qualify. ANS: A MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 604, Section 18.5 Food Choices and Eating Habits of Older Adults
73. Which of the following is a principal reason that congregate meals are preferable to Meals on Wheels? a. The cost of administering congregate meals is lower. b. There are more social benefits to congregate meals. c. Nutritional benefits are greater with congregate meals. d. More meals per week are served with congregate meals. ANS: B MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 604, Section 18.5 Food Choices and Eating Habits of Older Adults
74. Rose is a 73-year-old spunky, energetic woman who is wheelchair bound. She cannot go to the grocery store and has no family members nearby. Which of the following would be the most appropriate suggestion for ensuring that Rose is obtaining adequate nutrition? a. Suggest she attend congregate meals. b. Sign her up for the Meals on Wheels program. c. Suggest that Rose enter a nursing home that will cater to her every need. d. Have a volunteer buy in bulk from a grocery warehouse once a month and deliver the food to Rose. ANS: B MSC: Application
REF: p. 604, Section 18.5 Food Choices and Eating Habits of Older Adults
75. Which of the following food purchase strategies can help a single person keep food costs down? a. Buying cannned vegetables instead of in-season vegetables b. Buying family-sized packages of meat and freezing portions c. Buying ready-to-serve meals d. Buying shredded cheese rather than block cheese ANS: A
REF: p. 605
MSC: Knowledge
76. According to a recent study by the Canadian Institute for Health Information, what percentage of community-dwelling seniors in six Canadian provinces take five or more prescription drugs? a. 10 b. 30 c. 50 d. 60 ANS: D MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 610, Section 18.6-Nutrient-Drug Interactions
77. How does aspirin reduce inflammation and pain? a. It acts as a sedative and barbiturate. b. It promotes wound healing and blood clotting. c. It interferes with the synthesis of prostaglandins. d. It binds to nerve receptors involved in pain perception. ANS: C MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 610, Section 18.6-Nutrient-Drug Interactions
78. Which of the following known consequences of taking a single 2-tablet dose of aspirin is true? a. It inhibits monoamine oxidase activity. b. It doubles the bleeding time of wounds. c. It increases production of prostaglandins that enhance fever. d. It is excreted very rapidly in people taking vitamin C supplements. ANS: B MSC: Application
REF: p. 610, Section 18.6-Nutrient-Drug Interactions
79. Which of the following is a characteristic of aspirin use? a. Aspirin acts as a pro-clotting agent. b. Aspirin should not be taken before surgery. c. Aspirin works faster when taken on an empty stomach. d. Aspirin irritates the stomach lining, especially on an empty stomach. ANS: A MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 610, Section 18.6-Nutrient-Drug Interactions
80. Which of these is the primary action of the medication megestrol acetate? a. It relieves depression. b. It promotes weight loss. c. It promotes weight gain. d. It lowers blood pressure. ANS: C MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 610-611, Section 18.6-Nutrient-Drug Interactions
81. Which of the following is a major side effect from the regular use of some antipsychotics, antidepressants, and corticosteroids? a. anemia b. chronic constipation c. substantial weight gain d. insomnia, loose stool, and acid reflux ANS: C MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 611, Section 18.6-Nutrient-Drug Interactions
82. Which 2 of these nutrients are known to interfere significantly with the utilization of the antibiotic tetracycline? a. iron and calcium b. zinc and chromium c. vitamin B12 and folate d. vitamin C and vitamin E ANS: A MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 611, Section 18.6-Nutrient-Drug Interactions
83. Which of the following does regular use of antacids significantly interfere with the absorption of? a. iron b. vitamin A c. calcium d. vitamin D ANS: B MSC: Application
REF: p. 611, Section 18.6-Nutrient-Drug Interactions
84. Which of the following drugs has a chemical structure similar to folate? a. tyramine b. coumadin c. tamoxifen d. methotrexate ANS: D MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 612, Section 18.6-Nutrient-Drug Interactions
85. Which of these is a common side effect from taking certain prescription drugs and consuming grapefruit juice? a. A metallic taste in the mouth appears. b. Blood concentrations of the drugs increase. c. The bioavailability of the drugs falls substantially. d. The bioflavonoids in the juice bind to the drugs and promote formation of uric acid crystals. ANS: B MSC: Application
REF: p. 612, Section 18.6-Nutrient-Drug Interactions
86. Which of the following features of warfarin use and vitamin K is true? a. Warfarin blocks vitamin K absorption. b. Orange juice intake interferes with warfarin’s effects on vitamin K. c. Dietary vitamin K intake determines the amount of warfarin prescribed. d. The tyramine content of aged meats interferes with binding of vitamin K to warfarin. ANS: C MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 612, Section 18.6-Nutrient-Drug Interactions
87. Your father was recently prescribed an anticoagulant medicine and was surprised that the doctor advised him to maintain consumption of consistent amounts of green leafy vegetables every day. You provide your father which of the following explanations? a. These vegetables significantly reduce absorption of the drug. b. These vegetables significantly increase absorption of the drug. c. Variable intake of green leafy vegetables will affect activity of monoamine oxidase inhibitors.
d. Inconsistent intakes of green leafy vegetables will interfere with the regular action of the drug. ANS: D MSC: Application
REF: p. 612, Section 18.6-Nutrient-Drug Interactions
88. Which of the following foods in particular must be restricted in the diet of a person taking a monoamine oxidase inhibitor drug? a. soybeans b. aged cheeses c. acid-forming foods d. cruciferous vegetables ANS: B MSC: Application
REF: p. 613, Section 18.6-Nutrient-Drug Interactions
89. Which of these ingredients, commonly used as a sweetener in liquid medicines, often causes diarrhea? a. sorbitol b. maltose c. saccharin d. aspartame ANS: A MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 613, Section 18.6-Nutrient-Drug Interactions
MATCHING
a. 1.5 b. 5 c. 20 d. 33 e. Energy f. Cataracts g. Vitamin D h. Dysphagia i. Aluminum j. Sarcopenia k. Edentulous l. Vitamin B12 m. Tetracycline n. Acetylcholine o. Osteoarthritis p. Grapefruit juice q. Atrophic gastritis r. Hydrochloric acid s. Omega-3 fatty acids t. Rheumatoid arthritis u. Macular degeneration v. Vitamin D 1. The projected percentage of Canadians who will be 65 years or older in 2031 2. Dietary restriction of this extends lifespan 3. Loss of muscle mass
4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10. 11. 12. 13. 14. 15. 16. 17. 18. 19. 20. 21. 22.
Percentage of people over age 60 with atrophic gastritis Term that describes difficulty swallowing A condition characterized, in part, by an inflamed stomach and abundant bacteria Lack of this substance is a symptom of atrophic gastritis Stomach bacterial utilization of this nutrient increases risk for deficiency Term that describes a person without teeth Percent decline per decade in energy needs from age 50 and on Low intake of milk by elderly people contributes to deficiency of this nutrient Declining synthesis occurs in aging skin Thickening of the eye lenses that occurs with aging Condition that leads to loss of central vision Type of arthritis resulting in deterioration of joint cartilage Nutrient that may reduce inflammation of rheumatoid arthritic joints Type of arthritis involving defective immune system Percentage of Canadians age >70 years with Alzheimer’s disease Substance that is essential to memory process Substance found in brains of people with Alzheimer’s disease that may trigger free-radical formation Intake of this substance along with milk reduces calcium absorption Intake of this substance interferes with utilization of many cardiovascular and central nervous system drugs
1. ANS: C 2. ANS: E 3. ANS: J 4. ANS: D 5. ANS: H 6. ANS: Q 7. ANS: R 8. ANS: L 9. ANS: K 10. ANS: B 11. ANS: G 12. ANS: V 13. ANS: F 14. ANS: U 15. ANS: O 16. ANS: S 17. ANS: T 18. ANS: A 19. ANS: N 20. ANS: I 21. ANS: M 22. ANS: P
REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF:
p. 587 p. 590 p. 593 p. 594 p. 594 p. 594 p. 594 p. 598 p. 594 p. 596 p. 598 p. 598 p. 600 p. 600 p. 600 p. 601 p. 601 p. 602 p. 602 p. 602 p. 611 p. 612
Chapter 18 – Diet and Health MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Cytokines are which of the following? a. scavengers of the immune system b. specialized antibodies that retain B cell memory c. specialized proteins that activate responses to infection d. highly specific cells that attack only 1 type of antigen ANS: C MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 618, Section 19.1-Nutrition and Infectious Diseases
2. Lymphocytes are which of the following? a. white blood cells that ingest and destroy foreign substances b. white blood cells that participate in immunity c. substances that elicit the formation of antibodies d. proteins capable of acting as antibodies ANS: B MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 618, Section 19.1-Nutrition and Infectious Diseases
3. What percentage of cells of the body are white blood cells? a. 0.01 percent b. 0.1 percent c. 1 percent d. 10 percent ANS: C
REF: p. 618
MSC: Knowledge
4. Immunoglobulins are produced primarily by which of the following cells? a. T cells b. B cells c. red blood cells d. phagocytes ANS: B
REF: p. 618
MSC: Knowledge
5. The process by which immune cells engulf and then destroy bacteria is known as which of these terms? a. bactocydosis b. phagocytosis c. cytotoxicosis d. immunoglobinemia ANS: B MSC: Application
REF: p. 618, Section 19.1-Nutrition and Infectious Diseases
6. Four-month old Kimmy was playing near some large dust particles under the couch, which caused her to sneeze and develop a runny nose and a cough. Two weeks later she came across more dust from the same place. Which of the following aspects of immunity allows Kimmy’s body to remember how to respond to this dust again? a. T cells b. B cells
c. beta cells d. spleen cells ANS: B MSC: Application
REF: p. 618, Section 19.1-Nutrition and Infectious Diseases
7. The immune system treats foreign substances such as bacteria and toxins as which of the following objects? a. antigens b. antibodies c. synergists d. immunoglobulins ANS: A
REF: p. 618
MSC: Knowledge
8. Which of the following cell types make up the immune system? a. P cells b. red blood cells c. platelets d. phagocytes ANS: D MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 618, Section 19.1-Nutrition and Infectious Diseases
9. Which of the following functions of the T cells is true? a. recognize antigens b. produce antibodies c. produce immunoglobulins d. are scavengers of the immune system ANS: A MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 618-619, Section 19.1-Nutrition and Infectious Diseases
10. Which of the following terms describes an event, such as a GI infection, that results in decreased nutrient absorption, which in turn results in inability to synthesize sufficient immune cells and immune factors, thereby leading to increased susceptibility to another GI infection? a. synergistic b. antagonistic c. enteroimmune recirculation d. reinforced negative nutrition spiral ANS: A
REF: p. 619
MSC: Application
11. HIV is known to be transmitted through direct contact with: a. saliva b. blood c. tears d. sweat ANS: B MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 619, Section 19.1-Nutrition and Infectious Diseases
12. Which of the following characteristics of HIV or AIDS is true? a. HIV but not AIDS is curable. b. AIDS develops from HIV infection. c. Optimal nutrition can prevent but not cure HIV.
d. Since the 1990s, the death rate from HIV and AIDS has increased markedly. ANS: B
REF: p. 619
MSC: Knowledge
13. Approximately how many people in North America have HIV or AIDS? a. 100,000 b. 550,000 c. 1.3 million d. 3.3 million ANS: C MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 620, Section 19.1-Nutrition and Infectious Diseases
14. Which of the following leading causes of death in the Canada does NOT bear a relationship to diet? a. cancer b. heart disease c. stroke d. pneumonia and influenza ANS: D
REF: p. 620
MSC: Knowledge
15. Of the 10 leading causes of illness and death, how many are associated directly with nutrition? a. 1 b. 4 c. 7 d. 10 ANS: B
REF: p. 620
MSC: Knowledge
16. Which of the following disorders is influenced strongly by genetics? a. AIDS b. diabetes c. smallpox d. polio ANS: B MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 621, Section 19.2 Nutrition and Chronic Diseases
17. Being obese is known to increase the probabilities of contracting all of the following diseases EXCEPT: a. cancer b. diabetes c. kwashiorkor d. hypertension ANS: C MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 621, Section 19.2 Nutrition and Chronic Diseases
18. For which of the following chronic diseases are dietary risk factors least involved in its development? a. cancer b. obesity c. diabetes d. atherosclerosis ANS: C MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 621, Section 19.2 Nutrition and Chronic Diseases
19. Which of the following are modifiable risk factors for disease? a. age b. gender c. heredity d. low HDL level ANS: D MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 624, Section 19.2 Nutrition and Chronic Diseases
20. What is the term given to mounds of lipid material mixed with smooth muscle cells and calcium that develop in the artery walls? a. plaques b. angina streaks c. arterial thickening d. pre-thromboemboli ANS: A
REF: p. 622
MSC: Knowledge
21. Which of the following forms of cardiovascular disease is most common? a. stroke b. atheromatous disease c. coronary heart disease d. hypertensive aneurysm ANS: C MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 622, Section 19.3 Cardiovascular Disease
22. By what age do most people first have well-developed arterial plaque? a. 30 years b. 40 years c. 50 years d. 60 years ANS: A MSC: Application
REF: p. 622-623, Section 19.3 Cardiovascular Disease
23. Beverly is a 48-year-old woman with a strong family history of atherosclerosis. She eats a diet high in fat, smokes, and doesn’t exercise much because she typically works 12-hour days. Beverly visits her doctor because she has recently been having chest pains. Her doctor suspects she is at risk for a heart attack. Which of the following indicators would be the most definitive predictor of this suspicion? a. platelet count b. C-reactive protein concentrations c. LDL cholesterol serum concentrations d. HDL cholesterol serum concentrations ANS: B MSC: Application
REF: p. 623, Section 19.3 Cardiovascular Disease
24. The ballooning out of an artery wall at a point where it has been weakened by deterioration is called which of the following terms? a. an aorta b. a plaque c. an aneurysm d. a diverticula
ANS: C
REF: p. 622
MSC: Knowledge
25. A person’s level of C-reactive protein appears to be a strong predictor for which of these disorders? a. cancer b. diabetes c. a heart attack d. HIV progression ANS: C MSC: Application
REF: p. 623, Section 19.3 Cardiovascular Disease
26. Which of the following test results may be classified as a risk factor for coronary heart disease? a. low lipoprotein-associated phospholipase A(2) levels b. low LDL-cholesterol levels c. high HDL-cholesterol levels d. high C-reactive protein levels ANS: D MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 623, Section 19.3 Cardiovascular Disease
27. Tiny, disc-shaped bodies in the blood that are important in clot formation are called which of the following terms? a. T cells b. C cells c. plaques d. platelets ANS: D MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 623, Section 19.3 Cardiovascular Disease
28. Which of the following characteristics of arterial plaque is true? a. Size of the plaque is not as important as composition. b. Stabilization of the plaque occurs with moderate intake of alcohol. c. The amount of C-reactive protein in the plaque is a marker for high risk. d. The rough surface of plaques promotes neutrophil aggregation and antigen formation. ANS: A MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 623, Section 19.3 Cardiovascular Disease
29. Markers for inflammation as a risk factor for cardiovascular disease include high levels of: a. CRP b. ephedra c. resveratrol d. HDL cholesterol ANS: A MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 623, Section 19.3 Cardiovascular Disease
30. The obstruction of a blood vessel by a clot that broke away from arterial plaque is termed which of the following? a. an anginism b. an embolism c. circulatory hypoxia d. a deplaquing event ANS: B
REF: p. 623, 622, Section 19.3 Cardiovascular Disease
MSC: Application 31. A significant reduction in blood flow to the brain is called which of the following terms? a. angina b. a stroke c. a vascular event d. metabolic syndrome ANS: B
REF: p. 624
MSC: Knowledge
32. Which of the following blood pressure readings first signifies a diagnosis of hypertension? a. 110 over 50 b. 120 over 70 c. 130 over 80 d. 140 over 90 ANS: D MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 625, Section 19.3 Cardiovascular Disease
33. Which of the following is considered a risk factor for coronary heart disease? a. obesity b. moderate sugar intake c. low LDL cholesterol d. high HDL cholesterol ANS: B MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 624, Section 19.3 Cardiovascular Disease
34. Which of the following describes a known association with coronary heart disease (CHD)? a. In men, CHD begins 10–15 years earlier than in women. b. Women who take estrogen to reduce the risk for osteoporosis are at significantly higher risk for CHD. c. Men with blood cholesterol levels in the borderline-high range account for up to 10 percent of all deaths from CHD. d. Women younger than 45 years of age tend to have higher LDL cholesterol than do men of that age, but this difference disappears after menopause. ANS: A MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 624, Section 19.3 Cardiovascular Disease
35. Which of these properties applies to pre-hypertension? a. predictor of stroke risk b. slightly high blood pressure c. precursor for Syndrome X d. component of the metabolic syndrome ANS: B MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 625, Section 19.3 Cardiovascular Disease
36. Which of these blood cholesterol carriers is of greatest concern in atherosclerosis? a. HDL b. LDL c. HDk d. VLDk ANS: B
REF: p. 625, Section 19.3 Cardiovascular Disease
MSC: Application 37. Which of the following features of low-density lipoproteins and coronary heart disease is true? a. HDL is more atherogenic than is LDL. b. Excess LDL cholesterol is vulnerable to oxidation. c. HDL-lowering treatments are designed to stabilize arterial plaques. d. Excess LDL cholesterol in the blood is removed by high-density lipoproteins. ANS: B
REF: p. 625
MSC: Knowledge
38. Anyone who is medically advised to lower blood cholesterol should do which of the following? a. eat fish oil capsules b. take lecithin supplements c. achieve desirable body weight d. lower his/her intake of insoluble fibre ANS: C
REF: p. 626
MSC: Application
39. Which of the following features of blood triglycerides and risk for coronary heart disease is true? a. High triglyceride levels are now designated as a major risk factor. b. Non-fasting triglyceride levels more strongly predict risk than fasting levels. c. High triglyceride levels correlate strongly with high HDL levels, which is a predictor for low risk. d. Triglyceride concentrations are low in very-low-density lipoproteins, which correlate with risk for metabolic syndrome. ANS: B
REF: p. 626
MSC: Knowledge
40. Which of the following associations between smoking and coronary heart disease is true? a. Smoking damages platelets. b. Smoking decreases blood pressure. c. Smoking as a risk factor for CHD differs for women and men. d. Cessation of smoking begins to lower the risk of CHD after 36 months. ANS: A
REF: p. 626
MSC: Knowledge
41. A person who produces a normal amount of insulin but whose cells show suboptimal response is said to be in which of the following states? a. polydipsic b. insulin resistant c. hyperglucagonemic d. pancreatic beta-cell deficient ANS: B
REF: p. 626
MSC: Application
42. Which of the following factors would lead a person with high blood pressure to develop the metabolic syndrome? a. diuretic use b. insulin resistance c. high HDL levels d. low blood triglycerides ANS: B
REF: p. 626
MSC: Application
43. Which of the following characteristics of the metabolic syndrome is true? a. Being physically active plays a major role in its development.
b. Malnutrition is thought to play a greater role than other risk factors. c. At least 3 of 5 specific diet-related risk factors must be present for diagnosis. d. The risk factors act synergistically to predict the risk for coronary heart disease. ANS: C
REF: p. 626
MSC: Knowledge
44. Direct contributors to the metabolic syndrome include which of the following? a. waist circumference >102 cm (for men) or >89 cm (for women) b. triglycerides 1.7 mmol/L c. blood pressure 120/80 mmHg d. fasting glucose 4.1 mmol/L ANS: A
REF: p. 626
MSC: Knowledge
45. Stefan was recently diagnosed with metabolic syndrome. His primary care physician refers him to your office for some counselling on his modifiable risk factors. Which of the following topics will you most likely discuss with Stefan? a. which medications to take b. how to improve his atherogenic diet c. how to slow down his aging process d. how to map out his family tree, identifying all relatives with heart disease ANS: B MSC: Application
REF: p. 626-627, Section 19.3 Cardiovascular Disease
46. For which of the following reasons should the measurement of a person’s blood cholesterol be performed at least twice, with measurements taken at least 1 week apart? a. The person may not be fasting. b. The reliability of laboratory testing instruments for cholesterol is inexact. c. Blood cholesterol concentrations are known to vary significantly day to day. d. The person may have an infection (e.g. cold) which affects cholesterol concentration. ANS: C
REF: p. 627
MSC: Application
47. What is the appropriate method of assessing blood lipids to ensure reliable results? a. Take at least 2 measurements at least 1 week apart. b. Send the patient to 2 different laboratories and average the results. c. Take a fasting and a non-fasting blood sample and average the results. d. Perform a fat tolerance test by having the patient drink a beverage containing 25 g of vegetable oil and obtain blood samples over the next 4 hours. ANS: A
REF: p. 627
MSC: Knowledge
48. Risk factors for coronary heart disease that can be minimized by behavioural change include all of the following EXCEPT: a. stress b. smoking c. heredity d. hypertension ANS: C
REF: p. 627
MSC: Knowledge
49. What should be the next course of action for a person who was unsuccessful in lowering LDL or blood pressure by lifestyle changes? a. prescribe medications
b. consider coronary bypass surgery c. obtain regular nutrition counselling d. consider gastric surgery to reduce body weight ANS: A MSC: Application
REF: p. 627, Section 19.3 Cardiovascular Disease
50. Among the following, which should be the first action taken to lower blood cholesterol? a. begin drug treatment b. consume a high-protein diet c. consume large amounts of fish and fish oils d. achieve and maintain appropriate body weight ANS: D
REF: p. 627
MSC: Application
51. Approximately how many million people in Canada are believed to have hypertension? a. 2 b. 4.5 c. 6 d. 10.5 ANS: B
REF: p. 630, Section 19.4 Hypertension
MSC: Knowledge
52. Which of these values is the best predictor for risk of a stroke? a. blood pressure b. LDL-cholesterol blood level c. HDL-cholesterol blood level d. trans-fatty acid intake ANS: A
REF: p. 630, Section 19.4 Hypertension
MSC: Application
53. To lower a high blood cholesterol level, which of the following is recommended? a. Consume 2 servings/week of fish. b. Consume at least 300 mg of cholesterol per day. c. Lower saturated fat intake to 17 percent total energy. d. Limit trans-fat intake to 10 percent total energy ANS: A
REF: p. 627
MSC: Application
54. Which of the following risk factors predict the development of hypertension? a. age b. race c. salt intake d. family background ANS: C
REF: p. 630, Section 19.4 Hypertension
MSC: Knowledge
55. Approximately what percent of people with high blood pressure are sensitive to salt? a. 15 percent b. 35 percent c. 50 percent d. 90 percent ANS: C
REF: p. 630
MSC: Knowledge
56. Peripheral resistance is affected primarily by the resistance of which of the following?
a. b. c. d.
blood flow in the atria blood flow in the arterioles the carotid arterial flow in the brain blood flow in the portal venous system
ANS: B
REF: p. 630, Section 19.4 Hypertension
MSC: Knowledge
57. Which of the following characteristic factors associated with hypertension is true? a. Most people with hypertension have BMIs <25. b. Most people with hypertension are extremely salt sensitive. c. Three to 4 alcohol drinks per day lowers risk for hypertension. d. African-Americans develop high blood pressure earlier in life and their average blood pressure is higher than whites’. ANS: D
REF: p. 630, Section 19.4 Hypertension
MSC: Knowledge
58. Blood pressure measurement is expressed in which of the following units? a. centimetres of silver b. centimetres of depth c. millimetres of plaque d. millimetres of mercury ANS: D
REF: p. 630
MSC: Application
59. What is the magnitude of the increase in risk for CVD for a person with a blood pressure reading of 140/80 compared with the optimum blood pressure? a. 20 percent b. 40 percent c. 75 percent d. 100 percent ANS: D
REF: p. 630
MSC: Application
60. Which of the following is the most likely reason that a blood pressure reading should be repeated before confirming a diagnosis of hypertension? a. The person reacted emotionally to the procedure. b. Blood pressure measuring devices often give inaccurate readings. c. The cuff of the blood pressure measuring device was wrapped too tightly on the arm. d. The cuff of the blood pressure measuring device was wrapped too loosely on the arm. ANS: A
REF: p. 630
MSC: Application
61. What happens to the risk for CVD for a person with a blood pressure of 120/90? a. It is halved. b. It is doubled. c. It is unchanged. d. It is reduced by 25 percent. ANS: B
REF: p. 630
MSC: Application
62. Which of the following explains how obesity increases the risk for developing hypertension? a. Obesity is associated with altered kidney function and fluid retention leading to higher blood pressure. b. The excess fat pads surrounding the kidneys impair blood flow to these organs and lead to higher output of renin. c. Sodium intake in obese people significantly exceeds the recommended intake, thereby pre-
disposing them to higher blood pressure. d. Higher lipoprotein lipase activity in obese people triggers the angiotensin cascade, leading to increased peripheral resistance to blood flow. ANS: A
REF: p. 630
MSC: Application
63. Strategies to reduce the risk of coronary heart disease in people who drink include limiting daily alcohol intake to which of these amounts? a. 1 drink for both women and men b. 1 drink for women and 2 for men c. 2 drinks for both women and men d. 2 drinks for women and 4 for men ANS: B MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 618,619, Section 19.4 Hypertension
64. Which of the following statements describes a risk factor for high blood pressure? a. Three alcohol drinks per day increases the risk for developing high blood pressure. b. Most people are genetically sensitive to sodium and will develop high blood pressure from excess salt intake. c. Ninety-five percent of people under 50 years of age with high blood pressure respond favourably to low salt intake. d. Ninety-five percent of people with high blood pressure who restrict salt intake show a significant decrease in blood pressure. ANS: A MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 630, 631, Section 19.4 Hypertension
65. The DASH diet was developed to lower the risk for which of the following disorders? a. cancer b. diabetes c. hypertension d. metabolic syndrome ANS: C
REF: p. 619
MSC: Knowledge
66. The DASH diet is actually the acronym for which of the following? a. Dramatic Alternatives to Solving HIV b. Diabetes And Sodium Hyperglycemia c. Dietary Approaches to Stop Hypertension d. Disorders-Associated Severe Hyperlipidemias ANS: C
REF: p. 631, Section 19.4 Hypertension
MSC: Knowledge
67. Among the following lifestyle changes, which has the least favourable effect on reducing blood pressure? a. adopting the DASH eating plan b. limiting daily alcohol intake to 1–2 drinks c. reducing body weight to less than a BMI of 25 d. performing physical exercise for 30 minutes per day, 5 days a week ANS: B MSC: Application
REF: p. 631-632, Section 19.4 Hypertension
68. Which of the following statements describes a relationship between sodium/salt and high blood pressure?
a. b. c. d.
People with chronic kidney disease are less likely to be salt-sensitive. Lowering sodium intakes reduces blood pressure only in certain ethnic groups. People over 30 years of age with hypertension are most likely to be salt-sensitive. Weight loss is often as effective as sodium restriction in lowering blood pressure.
ANS: D MSC: Application
REF: p. 631-632, Section 19.4 Hypertension
69. Which of the following changes in diet would be most effective in lowering blood pressure? a. eliminating the use of table salt altogether b. including 3 servings of skim milk and 10 servings of fruits and vegetables a day c. substituting all table salt use throughout the day with Mrs. Dash seasoning product d. including 3 servings of skim milk and 10 servings of fruits and vegetables a day plus restricting sodium to 2 g/day ANS: D MSC: Application
REF: p. 631-632, Section 19.4 Hypertension
70. Which of the following recommendations is used by health professionals to treat hypertension? a. Decrease fibre intake. b. Eat foods high in iron. c. If overweight, reduce weight. d. Decrease intake of dairy products to avoid sodium. ANS: C
REF: p. 631, Section 19.4 Hypertension
MSC: Application
71. People who use diuretics are most at risk of developing imbalances of which of these nutrients? a. sodium b. calcium c. potassium d. phosphate ANS: C
REF: p. 632
MSC: Application
72. How do diuretics lower blood pressure? a. by increasing fluid loss b. by decreasing potassium loss c. by reducing arterial plaque formation d. by increasing retention of calcium and potassium ANS: A
REF: p. 632
MSC: Application
73. Which of the following characteristics of drug therapy for hypertension is true? a. Antihypertensive drugs work by lowering blood volume. b. The most frequently prescribed drug therapies are DASH inhibitors. c. Most people with hypertension need only 1 medicine to reduce blood pressure. d. Major side effects of antihypertensive drugs are depletion of body sodium and phosphorus. ANS: A
REF: p. 632
MSC: Knowledge
74. Which of the following features of the DASH diet is true? a. It works synergistically with reduction of sodium intake. b. It was originally designed as therapy for atherosclerosis. c. It is effective due to the high intakes of iron and vitamin B12. d. It includes an exercise component and a limitation on trans-fat intake.
ANS: A MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 632-632, Section 19.4 Hypertension
75. A person who hasn’t consumed anything except water for the past 8 hours has a blood glucose concentration of 5.6 mmol/L. This person would be classified as which of the following? a. normal b. diabetic c. pre-diabetic d. impaired glucose tolerant ANS: C MSC: Application
REF: p. 632, Section 19.5 Diabetes Mellitus
76. The sixth leading cause of death is which of the following? a. cancer b. diabetes c. hypertension d. coronary heart disease ANS: B
REF: p. 632
MSC: Knowledge
77. Which of these diseases does diabetes contribute to? a. blindness b. osteoporosis c. inflammatory bowel disease d. HIV ANS: A MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 632, Section 19.5 Diabetes Mellitus
78. Which of the following metabolic activities is stimulated by insulin? a. fat release b. glucose uptake c. protein catabolism d. alcohol breakdown ANS: B MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 633, Section 19.5 Diabetes Mellitus
79. Which of these is believed to be the primary cause of type 1 diabetes? a. defect in insulin sensitivity b. excessive body weight gain c. defect of the immune system d. excessive intake of simple carbohydrates ANS: C MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 633, Section 19.5 Diabetes Mellitus
80. In which of the following conditions would the pancreas be unable to synthesize insulin? a. hyperglycemia b. type 1 diabetes mellitus c. type 2 diabetes mellitus d. hypoglycemia ANS: B MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 633, Section 19.5 Diabetes Mellitus
81. Type 2 diabetes usually develops after people reach which of these ages? a. 21 years b. 30 years c. 40 years d. 55 years ANS: C
REF: p. 633
MSC: Application
82. What percentage of people with diabetes have type 1 diabetes? a. 5–10 percent b. 15–20 percent c. 25–35 percent d. 45–55 percent ANS: A MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 633, Section 19.5 Diabetes Mellitus
83. Which of the following characteristic of type 1 diabetes is true? a. It is an autoimmune disorder. b. It occurs exclusively in people under 40 years of age. c. It must be treated by daily oral intake of insulin pills. d. It accounts for approximately 50 percent of all cases of diabetes. ANS: A MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 633, Section 19.5 Diabetes Mellitus
84. Most people with type 2 diabetes have which of the following disorders? a. sarcopenia b. osteoporosis c. excess body fat d. insulin dependency ANS: C MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 633-634, Section 19.5 Diabetes Mellitus
85. Brooke is a 52-year-old obese person who is constantly drinking pop and likes to end her dinner every night with a piece of chocolate cake and ice cream. After going to the doctor, Brooke is diagnosed with diabetes. Which of the following types of diabetes does Brooke most likely have? a. type 1 diabetes b. type 2 diabetes c. juvenile diabetes d. gestational diabetes ANS: B MSC: Application
REF: p. 633-634, Section 19.5 Diabetes Mellitus
86. Which of the following disorders is characterized by insulin resistance of fat cells? a. hypoglycemia b. atherosclerosis c. type 1 diabetes mellitus d. type 2 diabetes mellitus ANS: D MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 633-634, Section 19.5 Diabetes Mellitus
87. Insulin resistance is defined as which one of the following? a. reduced sensitivity of cells to blood insulin b. impaired secretion of insulin by the pancreas c. increased destruction of insulin-producing cells d. refusal of people with type 1 diabetes to self-inject insulin ANS: A MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 633, Section 19.5 Diabetes Mellitus
88. Which of the following characteristics of diabetes mellitus is true? a. Type 1 diabetes can occur at any age. b. Type 2 diabetes develops primarily during early childhood. c. The 2 major forms are variations of the insulin-dependent type. d. The most common form is characterized by low insulin production. ANS: A MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 633, Section 19.5 Diabetes Mellitus
89. What percentage of people with type 2 diabetes are obese? a. 10–20 percent b. 50 percent c. 75 percent d. 80–90 percent ANS: D
REF: p. 634
MSC: Knowledge
90. Among the following ethnic groups, which has the lowest risk for type 2 diabetes? a. Canadian whites b. Asian-Canadians c. African-Canadians d. Indigenous Canadians ANS: A MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 634, Section 19.5 Diabetes Mellitus
91. Among the following ethnic populations, which group shows the lowest prevalence of type 2 diabetes? a. Caucasians b. Indigenous Canadians c. African-Americans d. Hispanic-Americans ANS: A MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 634, Section 19.5 Diabetes Mellitus
92. A complication of diabetes is blurry vision, which results from swelling of the lenses of the eye caused by conversion of excess glucose to which of the following compounds? a. sugar alcohols b. glycated fructose c. long-chain ketones d. glycated corneal proteins ANS: A MSC: Application
REF: p. 634, Section 19.5 Diabetes Mellitus
93. Which of the following signs is NOT among the common, long-term consequences of diabetes? a. blindness
b. kidney failure c. decrease in infections d. increased possibility of heart attacks ANS: C MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 634-636, Section 19.5 Diabetes Mellitus
94. The frequent urination common in diabetes is known as which of these terms? a. polyuria b. polyphagia c. polyuresis d. pseudodiuresis ANS: A MSC: Application
REF: p. 635, Section 19.5 Diabetes Mellitus
95. The excessive thirst common in diabetes is known as which of these terms? a. hydration b. polyuresis c. polydipsia d. hyperhydration ANS: C
REF: p. 635
MSC: Application
96. What is the primary reason for increased urine output in uncontrolled diabetes? a. Insufficient levels of circulating insulin permit the kidneys to lose excess water. b. High levels of blood glucose spill into the urine, drawing water with it by osmosis. c. Excess circulating insulin affects the output of antidiuretic hormone which allows greater losses of water. d. Large amounts of body fat and glycogen are broken down, resulting in increased release of cellular water. ANS: B MSC: Application
REF: p. 635, Section 19.5 Diabetes Mellitus
97. Which of the following diseases is a leading cause of both blindness and kidney failure? a. cancer b. diabetes c. HIV/AIDS d. atherosclerosis ANS: B MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 635, Section 19.5 Diabetes Mellitus
98. A person with diabetes is most likely to develop which of the following? a. AIDS b. cancer c. heart disease d. diverticulosis ANS: C MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 634-635, Section 19.5 Diabetes Mellitus
99. Gangrene is a common complication primarily in people with which one of the following diseases? a. cancer b. diabetes
c. pancreatitis d. HIV infection ANS: B 100.
MSC: Application
REF: p. 636-637, Section 19.5 Diabetes Mellitus
REF: p. 636-637, Section 19.5 Diabetes Mellitus
A cancer that originates from bone is which of the following? a. a sarcoma b. a carcinoma c. an osteocarcinoma d. a hematopoietic neoplasm ANS: A
105.
REF: p. 636
In the otherwise stable person with type 1 diabetes, a potential problem associated with physical activity is which of the following disorders? a. hypoglycemia b. hyperglycemia c. nausea and vomiting d. temporary kidney shutdown ANS: A MSC: Application
104.
MSC: Knowledge
Which of the following roles of diet applies to people with diabetes? a. Sugar and sugar-containing foods need not be avoided. b. The glycemic effect of foods should be a primary consideration. c. Diets should provide a consistent carbohydrate intake spaced throughout the day. d. The dietary amount of carbohydrate is more important than the source of carbohydrate. ANS: B MSC: Application
103.
REF: p. 635
It is acceptable for people with diabetes to engage in which of the following? a. alcohol intake in moderation b. protein intake representing 20-30 percent of total kcalories c. sugar intake in amounts greater than the general population d. total fat intake in amounts similar to the general population ANS: A
102.
MSC: Knowledge
Diabetes leads to which of the following? a. altered sense of taste b. impaired circulation c. increased resistance to infections d. decreased loss of water via the urine ANS: B
101.
REF: p. 635
REF: p. 637, Section 19.6-Cancer
Which of the following describes the actions of a carcinogen? a. cancer-initiating substance b. cancer-inhibitory substance c. cancer-treating substance d. cancer-antipromoting substance ANS: A
REF: p. 637
MSC: Knowledge
MSC: Knowledge
106.
A tumour that releases cells, leading to the spread of cancer to other regions of the body, is said to do which of the following? a. promote b. augment c. metastasize d. infiltrate downstream ANS: C
107.
REF: p. 637
MSC: Knowledge
A non-cancerous abnormal cell mass is known as a: a. benign tumour b. promoting tumour c. malignant tumour d. premalignant tumour ANS: A
109.
MSC: Application
What term describes factors that enhance the development of cancer after it has been initiated? a. promoters b. post-initiators c. tumour formatives d. tumour directives ANS: A
108.
REF: p. 637, 638, Section 19.6-Cancer
REF: p. 637, Section 19.6-Cancer
MSC: Knowledge
A substance that causes cancer is termed which of the following? a. a carcinogen b. an antipromoter c. a DNA-modifier d. an RNA-modifier ANS: A
REF: p. 637
MSC: Knowledge
110. The higher risk for breast cancer in obese women after menopause is thought to result mainly from chronic exposure to which of the following factors? a. estrogen b. aflatoxin c. high-fat diets d. sedentary lifestyles ANS: A
REF: p. 638
MSC: Application
111. Which of the following is known to correlate strongly with risk for cancer of the head and neck? a. fried foods b. alcohol intake c. food additives d. high intake of vegetables and fruits ANS: B
REF: p. 639
MSC: Knowledge
112. Which of the following cooking techniques for meats results in least formation of carcinogens? a. frying b. grilling c. broiling d. marinating before cooking
ANS: D
REF: p. 639
MSC: Application
113. Which of the following cooking techniques for meats results in formation of the highest amounts of carcinogens? a. broiling b. roasting c. marinating before cooking d. wrapping the food in foil when cooking ANS: A
REF: p. 639
MSC: Application
114. Which of the following statements represents current thought regarding the development of cancer? a. Dietary fat appears to be protective against many types of cancer. b. Food additives play only a small role, if any, in the causation of cancer. c. Food contaminants play only a small role, if any, in the causation of cancer. d. Dietary protein from animal sources appears to be protective against many types of cancer. ANS: B
REF: p. 639, 640, Section 19.6-Cancer
MSC: Knowledge
115. What happens after absorption of carcinogens that are produced on meats from grilling over a direct flame? a. They are detoxified by the liver. b. They act as initiators for breast cancer. c. They act as promoters for prostate cancer. d. They are subjected to enterohepatic circulation. ANS: A
REF: p. 639, Section 19.6-Cancer
MSC: Knowledge
116. Which of the following food components is known to speed up the passage of substances through the large intestine, thereby decreasing exposure time to carcinogens? a. milk b. fibre c. omega-3 fats d. refined starches ANS: B
REF: p. 640, Section 19.6-Cancer
MSC: Application
117. Which of the following dietary components is thought to be protective against certain types of cancer? a. fibre b. inositol and biotin c. certain saturated fats d. protein from animal sources ANS: A
REF: p. 640, Section 19.6-Cancer
MSC: Knowledge
118. Which of the following is a feature of dietary fat and cancer? a. Type of fat may influence cancer initiation. b. Type of fat may influence cancer promotion. c. Intake of omega-3 fatty acids from fish may increase risk for some cancers. d. Recent studies have strengthened the associated risk of high-fat diets with cancer. ANS: B
REF: p. 640, Section 19.6-Cancer
MSC: Knowledge
119. Which of the following foods is known to contain abundant amounts of phytonutrients that protect against cancers of the esophagus and endometrium? a. fermented dairy foods
b. cruciferous vegetables c. allium-rich vegetables d. lycopene-rich vegetables ANS: B 120.
MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 641, Section 19.7-Recommendations for Chronic Diseases
REF: p. 640-641, Section 19.7-Recommendations for Chronic Diseases
The loss of how many kilograms can result in a measurable improvement in glucose, blood lipids, and blood pressure? a. 5–10 kg b. 15–20 kg c. 30–40 kg d. more than 45 kg ANS: A MSC: Knowledge
125.
REF: p. 641, Section 19.6-Cancer
Which of the following defines the association between nutrition and chronic disease? a. Diet can influence the time of onset of some chronic diseases. b. Diet is the primary factor affecting the development of chronic diseases. c. Dietary influence in the development of chronic diseases is direct, straightforward, and well understood. d. Dietary advice for combating heart disease and cancer prevents their development if instituted early in life. ANS: A MSC: Knowledge
124.
MSC: Knowledge
Which of the following practices is believed to be protective for all of the following: heart disease, hypertension, diabetes, and cancer? a. using little salt b. drinking alcohol only in moderation c. using little sugar d. consuming fat within the range of 20–35 percent of total energy ANS: B MSC: Application
123.
REF: p. 640, Section 19.6-Cancer
Health professionals recommend which of the following to reduce cancer risks? a. Limit intake of fast foods to three times a week. b. Drink alcohol. c. Increase intake of foods high in iron. d. Eat at least 5 servings a day of vegetables and fruits. ANS: D
122.
MSC: Knowledge
Which of the following dietary guidelines believed to help protect against cancer is true? a. increasing alcohol intake b. consuming charbroiled meats c. consuming refined starchy foods d. consuming cruciferous vegetables ANS: D
121.
REF: p. 640, Section 19.6-Cancer
REF: p. 643, Section 19.7-Recommendations for Chronic Diseases
Conventional medicine and alternative medical therapies are commonly linked together into a practice called which of the following? a. interactive therapy
b. yin and yang medicine c. herbal-assisted healing d. complementary medicine ANS: D MSC: Knowledge 126.
Why is complementary and alternative medicine considered to be unconventional medicine? a. It is not taught in medical schools. b. Insurance companies refuse to cover it. c. Safety and effectiveness are not well established. d. It is used primarily by chiropractors and herbalists. ANS: C MSC: Knowledge
127.
REF: p. 648, Section 19.8-Complementary and Alternative Medicine
Chelation therapy is purported to work by ridding the body of which of the following undesirables? a. tumour cells b. toxic metals c. organic toxins d. excess fat-soluble vitamins ANS: B MSC: Knowledge
130.
REF: p. 648, 649, Section 19.8-Complementary and Alternative Medicine
Which of these treatments is effective against lead poisoning and is also considered an alternative therapy for cardiovascular disease? a. ozone injections b. chelation therapy c. biofield therapeutics d. hydroexpulsion therapeutics ANS: B MSC: Knowledge
129.
REF: p. 648, Section 19.7-Recommendations for Chronic Diseases
Which of the following is currently accepted as a medical treatment in the Canada? a. radiation therapy b. biofeedback c. ozone therapy d. iridology ANS: A MSC: Knowledge
128.
REF: p. 648, Section 19.7-Recommendations for Chronic Diseases
REF: p. 648, Section 19.8-Complementary and Alternative Medicine
What is ayurveda? a. a system that combines biofeedback with hypnosis b. an oriental plant that suppresses colon and breast tumour growth c. an ancient Hindu system for enhancing the body’s ability to prevent illness and to heal itself d. a variation of standard acupuncture technique that applies electromagnetic impulses to the needles ANS: C MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 649, Section 19.8-Complementary and Alternative Medicine
131.
Naturally occurring salicylates in curry, paprika, and certain teas provide the same protective effects as low doses of which of the following medications? a. statins b. aspirin c. insulin d. diuretics ANS: B MSC: Knowledge
132.
What is the name of the cancer-treatment substance first extracted from the bark of old Pacific yew trees (and now synthesized in the laboratory)? a. ephedra b. paclitaxal c. kombucha d. germanium ANS: B MSC: Knowledge
133.
REF: p. 652, Section 19.8-Complementary and Alternative Medicine
Which of the following features of herbal preparations sold to the public is true? a. They are regulated as natural health products. b. They are not evaluated for safety or effectiveness by Health Canada. c. Health Canada, and not the manufacturer of the herb, has the burden of proving the product is unsafe. d. They are considered appropriate for treatment of certain major health disorders such as cancer or AIDS. ANS: A MSC: Knowledge
134.
REF: p. 652, Section 19.8-Complementary and Alternative Medicine
REF: p. 652, 654, Section 19.8-Complementary and Alternative Medicine
The most important organs of the immune system include all of the following EXCEPT a. spleen b. muscle c. lymph nodes d. thymus gland ANS: B MSC: Knowledge MATCHING
a. b. c. d. e. f. g. h. i. j. k.
B cells T cells Stroke Tumour Plaque Initiator Platelets Embolus Promoter Gangrene Thrombus
REF: p. 618, Section 19.1-Nutrition and Infectious Diseases
l. Aneurysm m. Metastasis n. Acrylamide o. Macrophages p. Cancer q. Atherosclerosis r. Type 1 diabetes s. Type 2 diabetes t. Immunoglobulin u. Protein-energy malnutrition v. Microangiopathies 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10. 11. 12. 13. 14. 15. 16. 17. 18. 19. 20. 21. 22.
Immune cells that produce antibodies Immune cells that attack antigens A type of protein that can act as an antibody Immune cells that practice phagocytosis The condition in which the body’s defense systems of intact skin, a healthy digestive tract, and effective lymph tissues are compromised The primary cause of death in the Canada Disease characterized by the accumulation of lipids on the inner arterial walls A mound of lipid material embedded in arterial walls A blood clot that has broken loose and circulates in the bloodstream A blood clot that is attached to arterial plaque Small, cell-like bodies required for formation of a blood clot The bulging of an artery commonly caused by elevated blood pressure Consequence of a clot that stops blood flow to the brain This type of diabetes is always controlled by insulin injections This type of diabetes is usually controlled without insulin injections Term that describes disorders of small blood vessels frequently observed with diabetes Term that describes the death of tissue due to deficient blood supply, common in severe cases of diabetes When cancers spread to other tissues of the body An abnormal mass of cells Substance or event that gives rise to a cancer Substance that favours cancer development after cellular DNA has been altered A carcinogen in fried potato products
1. ANS: A 2. ANS: B 3. ANS: T 4. ANS: O 5. ANS: U 6. ANS: P 7. ANS: Q 8. ANS: E 9. ANS: H 10. ANS: K 11. ANS: G 12. ANS: L 13. ANS: C 14. ANS: R
REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF:
p. 618 p. p.618 p.618 p.619 p.620 p.622 p.622 p.622 p.622 p.623 p.623 p.624 p.633
15. 16. 17. 18. 19. 20. 21. 22.
ANS: S ANS: V ANS: J ANS: M ANS: D ANS: F ANS: I ANS: N
REF: p.633 REF: p.635 REF: p.635 REF: p.637-638 REF: p.637-638 REF: p.637-638 REF: p.637-638 REF: p.639
Chapter 19 – Consumer Concerns about Foods and Water MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. The potential of a substance to harm someone is known as which of the following terms? a. hazard b. toxicity c. risk level d. safety level ANS: B
REF: 659, Section 20.0-Introduction
MSC: Application
2. Which of these terms defines the measure of the probability and severity of harm? a. risk b. safety c. hazard d. toxicity ANS: A
REF: 659, Section 20.0-Introduction
MSC: Knowledge
3. Which of these terms describes the possibility of harm from normal use of a substance? a. hazard b. toxicity c. bioinsecurity d. food insecurity ANS: A
REF: 659, Section 20.0-Introduction
MSC: Application
4. What government agency is charged with protecting the safety of Canada’s food supply? a. The Food Safety and Security Agency b. The Canadian Food Inspection Agency c. The Antiterrorism Subcommittee on Food Security d. The FDA subcommittee on Food Safety and Hazards Agency ANS: B
REF: 660, Section 20.0-Introduction
MSC: Knowledge
5. Which of the following is the international agency that has adopted standards to regulate the use of pesticides? a. FAO b. FDA c. CDC d. USDA ANS: A
REF: 660, Section 20.0-Introduction
MSC: Knowledge
6. According to the Canadian Food Inspection Agency, which of the following is the leading food safety concern? a. food additives b. pesticide residues c. food-borne illnesses d. environmental contaminants ANS: C
REF: 661, Section 20.0-Introduction
MSC: Knowledge
7. Two or more cases of a similar illness resulting from the consumption of a common food is termed which of the following? a. a rash b. an outbreak c. an epidemic d. a toxic incidence ANS: B MSC: Knowledge
REF: 661, Section 20.1-Food-Borne Illnesses
8. According to Canadian Public Health experts, how many people in the Canada experience food-borne illness every year? a. 0.5 million b. 12 million c. 76 million d. 150 million ANS: B MSC: Knowledge
REF: 661, Section 20.1-Food-Borne Illnesses
9. Which of the common symptoms below is not among those associated with food-borne illness, caused by the Salmonella organism a. diarrhea b. vomiting c. abdominal cramps d. low body temperature ANS: D MSC: Application
REF: 661, Section 20.1-Food-Borne Illnesses
10. Infections by which of the following microbes may be fatal in more than 20 percent of high risk individuals? a. Listeria b. Escherichia coli c. Staphylococcus aureus d. Clostridium perfringens ANS: A MSC: Knowledge
REF: 661, Section 20.1-Food-Borne Illnesses
11. Which of the following is not among the most common symptoms of food-borne infection caused by Salmonella bacteria? a. fever b. cramps c. diarrhea d. double vision ANS: D MSC: Knowledge
REF: 661, Section 20.1-Food-Borne Illnesses
12. Which of these organisms is responsible for producing the most common food toxin? a. Escherichia coli b. Vibrio vulnificus c. Staphylococcus aureus d. Lactobacillus acidophilus
ANS: C MSC: Knowledge
REF: 661, Section 20.1-Food-Borne Illnesses
13. Which of the following is an example of food intoxication? a. addition of alkaline and acidic agents to foods b. illness produced by acute over-consumption of high-fat foods c. addition of alcohol-containing beverages in the cooking of foods d. illness produced from ingestion of food contaminated with natural toxins ANS: D MSC: Application
REF: 661, Section 20.1-Food-Borne Illnesses
14. From the list below, identify the characteristic associated with botulism illness? a. It is rarely fatal and victims usually recover completely. b. It is caused by a toxic compound produced by a microbe rather than by invasion of pathogenic bacteria. c. It is caused by ingestion of food contaminated with a combination of aflatoxin and mould. d. It most often occurs from eating foods that were stored under aerobic conditions of high pH. ANS: B MSC: Knowledge
REF: 661, Section 20.1-Food-Borne Illnesses
15. From the list below, identify a characteristic of botulism? a. A chief symptom is diarrhea. b. A full recovery may take years. c. It is caused by the organism Staphylococcus aureus. d. It is a toxicant produced in foods stored under aerobic conditions. ANS: B MSC: Knowledge
REF: 661, Section 20.1-Food-Borne Illnesses
16. The industrial application of heat to inactivate most but not all bacteria in a food is commonly known as which of the following processes? a. sanitization b. sterilization c. pasteurization d. depathogenation ANS: C MSC: Application
REF: 661, Section 20.1-Food-Borne Illnesses
17. What system was developed by government regulatory agencies and the food industry to help identify and/or control food contamination and food-borne disease? a. The Two-Forty-One-Forty rule b. Safe Handling Certification Program c. Hazard Analysis Critical Control Points d. North American Residue Monitoring Program ANS: C MSC: Knowledge
REF: 663, Section 20.1-Food-Borne Illnesses
18. Among food-borne infections, which of these pairs of organisms are the chief cause of illness / chief cause of death? a. Listeria / Yersinia
b. Salmonella / Listeria c. Giardia / Campylobacter d. Campylobacter / Salmonella ANS: B MSC: Knowledge
REF: 661, Section 20.1-Food-Borne Illnesses
19. A patient with a high temperature complains of headache, stomachache, fever, and vomiting. Upon questioning, he admits to eating several raw eggs the day before. The most likely organism causing these symptoms is which of the following? a. blank E. coli b. Salmonella c. Perfringens d. Campylobacter jejuni ANS: B MSC: Application
REF: 661, 662, Section 20.1-Food-Borne Illnesses
20. Clostridium botulinum poisoning is a hazard associated with which of the following foods? a. fresh carrots b. rotting vegetables c. undercooked poultry d. improperly canned vegetables ANS: D MSC: Knowledge
REF: 661, Section 20.1-Food-Borne Illnesses
21. A child is brought into the emergency room with breathing difficulties. He also has difficulty swallowing and speaking. The mother mentions that he ate some home-canned beans yesterday. You suspect microbiological food poisoning. The most likely toxin is which of these? a. botulinum toxin b. giardiasis toxin c. Salmonella toxin d. campylobacteria toxin ANS: A MSC: Knowledge
REF: 661, 662, Section 20.1-Food-Borne Illnesses
22. Which of the following is the major food source for transmission of Campylobacter bacteria? a. raw poultry b. uncooked seafood c. imported soft cheeses d. undercooked beef hot dogs ANS: A MSC: Knowledge
REF: 662, Section 20.1-Food-Borne Illnesses
23. Which of the following foods are associated with illness from Salmonella? a. raw vegetables b. pickled vegetables c. home-canned vegetables d. raw meats, poultry, and eggs ANS: D MSC: Knowledge
REF: 662, Section 20.1-Food-Borne Illnesses
24. More than 50 percent of our imported food comes from which of the following countries? a. Mexico b. China c. Brazil d. United States ANS: D MSC: Knowledge
REF: 663, Section 20.1-Food-Borne Illnesses
25. Which of the following is especially susceptible to microbial growth ? a. chicken stored in the freezer b. Fruit juice stored in the refrigerator c. Ground meat d. canned meat ANS: C MSC: Knowledge
REF: 664, Section 20.1-Food-Borne Illnesses
26. Which of the following events would most likely result from placing cooked hamburger patties on the same plate that held the uncooked patties? a. flavour declination b. meat juice retention c. fat drippings exudation d. microbial cross-contamination ANS: D MSC: Application
REF: 664, Section 20.1-Food-Borne Illnesses
27. What is the recommended minimum amount of time for washing hands with warm water and soap before preparing or eating food? a. 5–10 seconds b. 20 seconds c. ½–1 minute d. 3 minutes ANS: B MSC: Knowledge
REF: 665, Section 20.1-Food-Borne Illnesses
28. Scenario: a food-borne illness outbreak was reported after employees of a national chain restaurant had used the same knife to cut raw meat products as they did for vegetables. Which of the following terms most likely describes the employees’ neglect that led to the patrons of the restaurant becoming ill? a. contamination b. cross-contamination c. Hazard Analysis Critical Control Points d. inappropriate monitoring of food temperatures ANS: B MSC: Application
REF: 664, Section 20.1-Food-Borne Illnesses
29. The Canadian Food Inspection Agency recommends that ‘safe handling instructions’ appear on one of the following food items listed below, which it is? a. raw ground walnuts b. cooked deli salomi c. smoked fish d. fresh ground poultry
ANS: D MSC: Application
REF: 665, Section 20.1-Food-Borne Illnesses
30. Why is ground meat more susceptible to microbial contamination than non-ground meat? a. It has more surface area. b. It is usually undercooked. c. It has a higher fat content. d. It is not inspected as often. ANS: A MSC: Application
REF: 664-665, Section 20.1-Food-Borne Illnesses
31. You work part-time at a local diner and an older employee tells you that one of the worst oversights he sees is the workers’ disregard for the “danger” zone. Which of the following applies to this employee’s warning? a. keeping the freezer at 1°C b. serving raw seafood without proper cooking techniques c. keeping beef patties on a warm grill (57°C) for up to 3 hours d. not disposing of egg shells immediately after use and allowing them to sit on countertops ANS: C MSC: Application
REF: 664-666, Section 20.1-Food-Borne Illnesses
32. What country accounts for most of the reported cases of mad cow disease? a. China b. Hong Kong c. United States d. United Kingdom ANS: D MSC: Knowledge
REF: 666, Section 20.1-Food-Borne Illnesses
33. In cows infected with mad cow disease, which of the following tissues is generally free of the infectious agents? a. brain b. muscle c. intestines d. central nervous system ANS: B MSC: Application
REF: 666, Section 20.1-Food-Borne Illnesses
34. All but one of the following are properties associated with the cooking of hamburgers, which one is it? a. Colour alone is usually indicative of “doneness.” b. Burgers should be cooked to an internal temperature of 71°C. c. Some burgers will retain some pink colour even when cooked to 79°C. d. Some burgers will turn brown before reaching the recommended temperature. ANS: A MSC: Knowledge
REF: 665-666, Section 20.1-Food-Borne Illnesses
35. Which of the following is NOT a feature of the swine flu virus? a. It is also called the H1N1 virus. b. It can be transmitted by eating infected pork. c. It is considered only a mildly contagious viral infection.
d. It is spread mainly via coughs and sneezes of infected individuals. ANS: B MSC: Knowledge
REF: 667, Section 20.1-Food-Borne Illnesses
36. What unintended benefit is derived from the freezing of fish by the food industry? a. The fish becomes tenderized. b. Mature parasitic worms are killed. c. Botulinum toxin becomes inactivated. d. The toxins from hepatitis A and B are destroyed. ANS: B MSC: Application
REF: 667, Section 20.1-Food-Borne Illnesses
37. To minimize the possibility of food-borne illness, hamburger should be cooked to an internal temperature of at least which of the following? a. 52°C b. 60°C c. 71°C d. 91°C ANS: C MSC: Application
REF: 665, Section 20.1-Food-Borne Illnesses
38. Which of the following is the most appropriate method to thaw turkey? a. in the refrigerator b. at room temperature c. on top of a warm oven d. under very low heat in the oven ANS: A MSC: Application
REF: 666-667, Section 20.1-Food-Borne Illnesses
39. Which of the following foods is best known to transmit hepatitis? a. poultry b. seafood c. legumes d. raw vegetables ANS: B MSC: Knowledge
REF: 667-668, Section 20.1-Food-Borne Illnesses
40. Which of the following practices is safest for minimizing microbial contamination of prepared foods? a. Store food in a controlled atmosphere of chlorine bleach vapours b. Restrict the food’s exposure at room temperature to a maximum of 4–6 hours c. Restrict the food’s exposure between 4°C and 60°C to a maximum of 2 hours d. Store food under air-tight conditions at a temperature of 0°C for a maximum of 1 month ANS: C MSC: Application
REF: 665, 666, Section 20.1-Food-Borne Illnesses
41. Consumption of raw oysters is known to cause which hepatitis type? a. type A b. type B c. type C d. type D
ANS: A MSC: Knowledge
REF: 668, Section 20.1-Food-Borne Illnesses
42. All but one of the following are characteristics of raw oyster consumption, which one is it? a. Freezing for 24 hours kills the hepatitis virus. b. Some hot sauces can kill the bacteria found in them. c. Some people who drink alcohol are protected from oyster-borne illness. d. People with weakened immune systems are especially vulnerable to oyster-borne illness. ANS: A MSC: Knowledge
REF: 668, Section 20.1-Food-Borne Illnesses
43. All but one of the following is/are a good practice(s) to help prevent food-borne illness. a. Use hands to mix foods. b. Thaw meats in the refrigerator. c. Use a meat thermometer to avoid undercooking. d. Use hot, soapy water to wash hands, utensils, and countertops. ANS: A MSC: Application
REF: 668, Section 20.1-Food-Borne Illnesses
44. What is the minimum recommended safe temperature to heat leftovers? a. 60°C b. 67°C c. 74°C d. 82°C ANS: C MSC: Application
REF: 666, Section 20.1-Food-Borne Illnesses
45. All but one of the following are characteristics of oysters in the diet, which one is it? a. They are the primary factor in traveller’s diarrhea. b. Eating them raw is a risk factor for some bacterial infections. c. Some oyster-borne microbes are destroyed when the consumer drinks alcohol. d. Many oyster-borne bacteria, but not viruses, are destroyed by some hot sauces. ANS: A MSC: Knowledge
REF: 668, Section 20.1-Food-Borne Illnesses
46. What is the safe refrigerator storage time for uncooked steaks, cooked chicken, opened packages of luncheon meats, and tuna salad? a. 1–2 days b. 3–5 days c. 1 week d. 2–4 weeks ANS: B MSC: Application
REF: 668, Section 20.1-Food-Borne Illnesses
47. Which of the following methods of thawing meats or poultry increases health risk? a. in the refrigerator b. at room temperature c. in a microwave oven d. under cool running water
ANS: B MSC: Knowledge
REF: 666-667, Section 20.1-Food-Borne Illnesses
48. If you suspect that you are suffering from a food-borne illness, appropriate actions to take include all of the following EXCEPT a. Refrain from eating or drinking any more of the tainted product. b. Drink clear liquids to help combat diarrhea and vomiting, and call a physician. c. Find a portion of the remaining suspected food and ask someone else to taste it to detect any off flavours. d. Find the remainder of the suspected food items, label them and store in the refrigerator for possible inspection by health authorities. ANS: C MSC: Application
REF: 668, Section 20.1-Food-Borne Illnesses
49. What are the chances of contracting diarrhea while travelling to other countries? a. 1 in 2 b. 1 in 10 c. 1 in 100 d. 1 in 1000 ANS: A MSC: Knowledge
REF: 668, Section 20.1-Food-Borne Illnesses
50. Which of the following is an example of a food preservation technique? a. irradiation used to sterilize spices b. carotenoids used to retard formation of nitrosamines c. sulphites used to retard growth of pathogenic organisms d. nitrites used to form unique radiolytic particles when the food is overheated ANS: A MSC: Knowledge
REF: 669, Section 20.1-Food-Borne Illnesses
51. A patient reports that since returning from overseas travel to a developing country, she has been experiencing stomach cramps and diarrhea. Which of the following food-borne organisms is most likely responsible for these symptoms? a. blankE. coli b. Clostridium botulinum c. Clostridium perfringens d. Listeria monocytogenes ANS: A MSC: Application
REF: 668, Section 20.1-Food-Borne Illnesses
52. Among the following organisms, which is primarily responsible for causing “traveller’s” diarrhea? a. Vibrio b. Escherichia coli c. Staphylococcus aureus d. Clostridium botulinum ANS: B MSC: Knowledge
REF: 668, Section 20.1-Food-Borne Illnesses
53. Which of the following is inappropriate advice on sanitation for someone travelling to another country?
a. b. c. d.
Drink all beverages without ice. Drink bottled carbonated beverages. Boil the local water before use to kill microbes. Eat fruits and vegetables raw with their skins to decrease risk from wash-water contamination.
ANS: D MSC: Application
REF: 669, Section 20.1-Food-Borne Illnesses
54. You are presenting a general seminar at a food safety convention. At the end of your talk, an audience member barrages you with questions about irradiation of foods causing people to be exposed to radioactive food. How should you respond? a. Irradiation techniques do not in any way produce radioactive foods. b. There is only cause for concern when treating foods such as milk, grapefruits, eggs, and high-fat meats. c. Radioactive foods have been approved for consumption by the Canadian Medical Association, the FAO, and the WHO. d. Cold pasteurization is the only technique that results in radioactive foods and as long as they are avoided, there is no cause for concern. ANS: A MSC: Application
REF: 669-670, Section 20.1-Food-Borne Illnesses
55. All but one of the following common foods has been approved for irradiation, which one is it? a. potatoes b. milk c. wheat d. strawberries ANS: B MSC: Knowledge
REF: 669, Section 20.1-Food-Borne Illnesses
56. What processing method allows for cartons of milk to be shelved in grocery stores at room temperature? a. prolonged pasteurization b. boiling for exactly 10 minutes c. ultrahigh temperature treatment d. combination irradiation/pasteurization ANS: C MSC: Knowledge
REF: 669, Section 20.1-Food-Borne Illnesses
57. All but one of the following is the chief reason irradiation isn’t used for preserving dairy products, which one is it? a. It imparts off flavours b. It coalesces the fat particles c. It is inefficient at killing microorganisms d. It results in high amounts of radioactive food particles ANS: A MSC: Application
REF: 669, Section 20.1-Food-Borne Illnesses
58. Which of the following is a common term to describe the process of irradiation? a. UHT treatment b. radura treatment
c. cold pasteurization d. pulsed electron beam ANS: C MSC: Knowledge
REF: 669, Section 20.1-Food-Borne Illnesses
59. All but one of the following is a feature of irradiated foods, which one is it ? a. The World Health Organization has not approved food irradiation. b. The labels of all foods except for meats must indicate treatment by irradiation. c. Irradiation of foods such as strawberries and mangoes hastens their ripening. d. The irradiation label is not required on commercially prepared foods that contain irradiated ingredients. ANS: D MSC: Knowledge
REF: 669-670, Section 20.1-Food-Borne Illnesses
60. All but one of the following describes associations between vegetable preparation and vitamin preservation, which one is it? a. Vegetables should be washed before cutting to reduce vitamin losses. b. After a vegetable is picked, vitamin synthesis stops but vitamin degradation continues. c. Vegetables should be cooked in water rather than by steaming to minimize vitamin losses. d. Vegetables should be stored in the refrigerator until used to preserve vitamin content. ANS: C MSC: Knowledge
REF: 670, Section 20.2-Nutritional Adequacy of Foods and Diets
61. Which of these nutrients in foods are most vulnerable to losses during food handling and preparation? a. trace minerals b. fat-soluble vitamins c. polyunsaturated fats d. water-soluble vitamins ANS: D MSC: Knowledge
REF: 670, Section 20.2-Nutritional Adequacy of Foods and Diets
62. The extent to which an environmental contaminant becomes harmful is dependent primarily on which of these factors? a. its persistence b. its solanine content c. its soil absorption efficiency d. its water solubility characteristics ANS: A MSC: Knowledge
REF: 671, Section 20.3-Environmental Contaminants
63. Which of the following are examples of heavy metals? a. mercury and lead b. iron and chromium c. carbon and nitrogen d. molybdenum and fluoride ANS: A MSC: Knowledge
REF: 672, Section 20.3-Environmental Contaminants
64. Which of the following activities is an example of heavy metal exposure from foods? a. cooking foods for prolonged periods in iron skillets
b. ingesting food containing high amounts of mercury c. ingesting food supplements containing high levels of calcium and sodium salts d. cooking foods over superheated charcoal containing high levels of copper and iron ANS: B MSC: Application
REF: 672, Section 20.3-Environmental Contaminants
65. The increase in the concentration of contaminants in the tissues of animals high on the food chain is termed which of the following? a. bioaccumulation b. hyperconcentration c. evolutionary containment d. functional high-level accumulation ANS: A MSC: Knowledge
REF: 672, Section 20.3-Environmental Contaminants
66. Which of the following is a feature of an organic halogen? a. heavy metal b. safe additive c. toxic chemical d. component of most proteins ANS: C MSC: Knowledge
REF: 672, Section 20.3-Environmental Contaminants
67. What is the primary source of dietary mercury? a. seafood b. legumes c. unfiltered water d. undercooked poultry ANS: A MSC: Knowledge
REF: 672, Section 20.3-Environmental Contaminants
68. Of the following types of seafood, which should be consumed in the smallest amount by pregnant and lactating women? a. shrimp b. canned light tuna c. pollack and catfish d. white albacore tuna ANS: D MSC: Application
REF: 673, Section 20.3-Environmental Contaminants
69. All of the following are characteristics of mercury in nutrition EXCEPT a. Mercury toxicity damages the developing brain. b. Farm-raised fish typically have less mercury than wild-caught fish. c. Larger fish have less muscle mercury due to the dilutional effect of size. d. The Canadian Food Inspection Agency enforces the mercury levels found in in fish. ANS: C MSC: Knowledge
REF: 672-673, Section 20.3-Environmental Contaminants
70. Which of the following is a characteristic of heavy metals in the Canadian food supply? a. Virtually all fish contain mercury.
b. Mercury contamination of fish is most severe in tuna. c. Toxicity is most severe in the elderly population. d. Contamination is usually greater in farm-raised fish than in ocean fish. ANS: A MSC: Knowledge
REF: 672, Section 20.3-Environmental Contaminants
71. Your friend Mark is an avid organic food consumer. He believes that natural foods are the only way to avoid the chemicals that farmers “poison” their crops with. You warn Mark that not all natural foods are free from toxins; indeed, that many foods contain naturally occurring toxic substances. The example you provide could be the solanine commonly found in which of these foods? a. beets b. broccoli c. potatoes d. corn ANS: C MSC: Application
REF: 674, Section 20.4-Natural Toxicants in Foods
72. What is the principal factor related to solanine concentration in potatoes? a. contamination b. irradiation malfunction c. soil heavy metal content d. improper storage conditions ANS: D MSC: Application
REF: 674, Section 20.4-Natural Toxicants in Foods
73. Which of the following is associated with solanine? a. It is not destroyed by cooking. b. It enhances absorption of lead. c. It antagonizes the thyroid gland. d. It is destroyed when potatoes start to sprout. ANS: A MSC: Knowledge
REF: 674, Section 20.4-Natural Toxicants in Foods
74. One of the following is a feature of naturally occurring food toxicants, which one is it? a. Lima beans contain deadly cyanide compounds. b. The toxic solanine in potatoes is inactivated by cooking. c. The toxic laetrile in certain fruit seeds is a moderately effective cancer treatment. d. Mustard greens and radishes contain compounds that are known to worsen a cholesterol problem. ANS: A MSC: Knowledge
REF: 673, Section 20.4-Natural Toxicants in Foods
75. Many countries restrict the varieties of commercially grown lima beans due to the seed’s content of which of the following toxicants? a. cyanide b. solanine c. goitrogens d. hallucinogens ANS: A MSC: Knowledge
REF: 673, Section 20.4-Natural Toxicants in Foods
76. One of the following isn’t a match between a naturally occurring toxin and its food, which one is it ? a. solanine in potatoes b. goitrogens in cabbage c. cyanogens in lima beans d. acrylamides in tomatoes ANS: D MSC: Knowledge
REF: 673-674, Section 20.4-Natural Toxicants in Foods
77. What term is used to describe the highest level of a pesticide that is allowed in a food when the pesticide is used according to label directions? a. toxicity level b. tolerance level c. risk concentration d. optimum concentration ANS: B
REF: 674, Section 20.5-Pesticides
MSC: Knowledge
78. Which of these organizations is responsible for setting tolerance guidelines for the use of a pesticide on food? a. Health Canada b. Canadian Food Inspection Agency c. Environment Canada d. Pesticide Regulation Agency ANS: A
REF: 674, Section 20.5-Pesticides
MSC: Knowledge
79. What organization is responsible for enforcing the tolerances that are set for a pesticide on food? a. Health Canada b. Canadian Food Inspection Agency c. Environment Canada d. Pesticide Regulation Agency ANS: B
REF: 674, Section 20.5-Pesticides
MSC: Knowledge
80. The CFIA monitors pesticides by sampling using which of the following criteria? a. all food shipments for all pesticides b. all food shipments for some pesticides c. some food shipments for all pesticides d. some food shipments for some pesticides ANS: D
REF: 674, Section 20.5-Pesticides
MSC: Knowledge
81. What is the name of the program that reports on the dietary intakes of pesticides from our food supply? a. Pest Management Regulatory Agency b. Toxicant Monitoring Program c. Food Safety and Health Program d. Diet and Market Analysis Report ANS: A
REF: 675, Section 20.5-Pesticides
MSC: Knowledge
82. All but one of the following practices is known to minimize exposure to food pesticide residues, which one is it? a. throwing away the outer leaves of leafy vegetables b. using a knife to peel citrus fruits rather than biting into the peel
c. throwing away the fats and oils in broths and pan drippings from cooked meats d. washing waxed fruits and vegetables in water to remove the wax-impregnated pesticides ANS: D
REF: 676, Section 20.5-Pesticides
MSC: Knowledge
83. Food producers are allowed to label a food product as organic if it meets which of the following criteria? a. has been irradiated b. contains genetically engineered ingredients c. was made with at least 95 percent organic ingredients d. was grown with fertilizer made from sewer sludge ANS: C
REF: 677, Section 20.5-Pesticides
MSC: Knowledge
84. Which of the following has been shown to be associated with pesticides on foods? a. Pesticide residues on organic foods are similar to those on conventionally grown foods. b. Pesticides are easier to remove from organic foods because of their greater water-solubility. c. Pesticide residues are substantially reduced by the use of unprocessed animal manures used to grow leafy vegetables. d. Pesticide chemicals in the urine of children given an organic foods diet for 5 days are dramatically lower than before the diet. ANS: D
REF: 677, Section 20.5-Pesticides
MSC: Knowledge
85. Most food additives are classified as which of the following? a. emulsifiers b. preservatives c. colour enhancers d. bleaching agents ANS: B
REF: 678, Section 20.6-Food Additives
MSC: Application
86. Which of these organizations regulates the use of chemical additives? a. Food and Drugs Act b. Public Health Agency of Canada c. Canadian Pesticide Committee d. Canadian Food Inspection agency ANS: A
REF: 678, Section 20.6-Food Additives
MSC: Knowledge
87. What is the origin of the quotation “No additive shall be deemed to be safe if it is found to induce cancer when ingested by man or animal”? a. GRAS list b. Delaney Clause c. WHO Mandate of 1985 d. USDA Bulletin of 1962 ANS: B
REF: 679, Section 20.6-Food Additives
MSC: Knowledge
88. What is the name of the rule that modifies the original meaning of the Delaney Clause? a. GRAS list b. Bonnie Clause c. de minimis rule d. no-risk standard
ANS: C
REF: 679, Section 20.6-Food Additives
MSC: Knowledge
89. What is the term that describes the allowance of most additives in foods at levels 100 times below the lowest level known to cause any harmful effects? a. toxicity range b. zone of hazard c. acceptable area d. margin of safety ANS: D
REF: 679, Section 20.6-Food Additives
MSC: Knowledge
90. Which of these is the classification given to a substance put into food to give it a certain colour? a. indirect additive b. incidental additive c. peripheral additive d. intentional additive ANS: D
REF: 680, Section 20.6-Food Additives
MSC: Application
91. Which of the following substances in the diet would typically have the lowest margin of safety? a. table salt b. pesticides c. preservatives d. colour additives ANS: A
REF: 679, Section 20.6-Food Additives
MSC: Application
92. Which of these categories is assigned to additives put in foods after a rational decision-making process? a. indirect b. incidental c. intentional d. contaminants ANS: C
REF: 680, Section 20.6-Food Additives
MSC: Knowledge
93. Sugar and salt are used as antimicrobial agents in foods because they prevent microbial use of which of these food contents? a. fat b. water c. protein d. carbohydrate ANS: B
REF: 680, Section 20.6-Food Additives
MSC: Application
94. In searching for a recipe for homemade jelly, you come across a recipe by a notable food scientist, who emphasizes the importance of the correct amount of sugar in the jelly as it serves as the product’s antimicrobial agent. What is the rationale behind this statement? a. Sugar is not a sustainable food source for most microbes. b. Sugar phagocytizes the microbes that are present in the jelly. c. Sugar captures water and makes it unavailable for microbes. d. Sugar wards off offending bacterial agents present in the jelly. ANS: C
REF: 680, Section 20.6-Food Additives
MSC: Application
95. Of the following food additives, which is used most widely as an antimicrobial agent?
a. b. c. d.
sugar saccharin sodium nitrite sodium propionate
ANS: A
REF: 680, Section 20.6-Food Additives
MSC: Knowledge
96. What is the chief reason that nitrites are allowed to be added to certain meat products? a. Nitrites improve the consistency. b. Nitrites stabilize the vitamin content of meat. c. Nitrites significantly enhance the flavour of meat. d. Nitrites inhibit the formation of botulinum toxin. ANS: D
REF: 680, Section 20.6-Food Additives
MSC: Knowledge
97. One of the following isn’t among the characteristics of antimicrobial food additives, which one is it? a. Nitrates also preserve the colour of hot dogs. b. Ordinary baking powder is one of the most common. c. Nitrites are used to enhance the flavour of foods. d. Nitrites can be converted to cancer-causing substances in the stomach. ANS: B
REF: 680, Section 20.6-Food Additives
MSC: Knowledge
98. Nitrites do all but one of the following, which one is it ? a. preserve colour b. impart off-flavours c. present naturally in foods d. protect against bacterial growth ANS: B
REF: 680, Section 20.6-Food Additives
MSC: Knowledge
99. When a slice of fresh apple turns a brown colour, this is most likely the result of which of the following processes? a. oxidation b. dehydration c. microbial contamination d. ethylene oxide treatment during ripening ANS: A 100.
MSC: Application
Which of the following substances added to foods inhibits formation of botulinum toxin? a. BHA b. nitrites c. table salt d. sodium ascorbate ANS: B
101.
REF: 681, Section 20.6-Food Additives
REF: 680, Section 20.6-Food Additives
MSC: Knowledge
The features of sulphites include all but one of the following features, which one is it? a. improve flavour b. prevent oxidation c. destroy appreciable amounts of thiamine d. cause adverse reactions in some people ANS: A
REF: 681, Section 20.6-Food Additives
MSC: Knowledge
102.
Which of these vitamins undergoes the most destruction in foods preserved with sulphites? a. folate b. thiamine c. vitamin D d. ascorbic acid ANS: B
103.
MSC: Knowledge
REF: 681, Section 20.6-Food Additives
MSC: Application
REF: 681, Section 20.6-Food Additives
MSC: Knowledge
The flavour enhancer MSG represents a dietary source of which of the following substances? a. sulphite b. sodium c. acrylamide d. bicarbonate ANS: B
108.
REF: 681, Section 20.6-Food Additives
BHT is known to confer one of the following is a features , which is it ? a. It is a food antimicrobial. b. It is a common food colorant. c. It contributes significantly to the total additive intake from the diet. d. It decreases cancer formation when given in large amounts to animals exposed to carcinogens. ANS: D
107.
MSC: Knowledge
Which of the following properties are shared by vitamins C and E, BHA and BHT, and sulphites? a. flavour enhancer b. antimicrobial agent c. antioxidant activity d. incidental food additive ANS: C
106.
REF: 681, Section 20.6-Food Additives
Which one of the following isn’t among the antioxidant agents used by food processors? a. BHA b. BHT c. solanine d. vitamin E ANS: C
105.
MSC: Knowledge
Sulphites are used as additives in one of the following ways, which is it ? a. are frequently used in wines b. inhibit growth of most microbes c. interact with folate to inhibit its absorption d. are one of the few substances to have virtually no side effects ANS: A
104.
REF: 681, Section 20.6-Food Additives
REF: 681, Section 20.6-Food Additives
MSC: Application
What is the largest single group of food additives? a. flavouring agents b. artificial sweeteners c. antimicrobial agents d. artificial colouring agents ANS: A
REF: 681, Section 20.6-Food Additives
MSC: Knowledge
109.
Which of the following additives is a flavour-enhancing food additive? a. BHT b. beta-carotene c. sodium propionate d. monosodium glutamate ANS: D
REF: 681, Section 20.6-Food Additives
MSC: Knowledge
110. One of the following isn’t a feature of monosodium glutamate in foods, which is it? a. it is among the best known flavour enhancers b. is considered safe for adults c. enhances the tastes of sweet, salty, bitter, and sour d. induces adverse reactions primarily in people with diabetes ANS: D
REF: 681, Section 20.6-Food Additives
MSC: Knowledge
111. Which of the following abnormalities is known to make people more sensitive to experiencing the MSG symptom complex? a. obesity b. asthma c. diabetes d. hypertension ANS: B
REF: 681, Section 20.6-Food Additives
MSC: Application
112. What additive common to Asian foods is thought to be associated with acute, temporary intolerance reactions? a. nitrites b. carotenoids c. monosodium glutamate d. polybrominated biphenyl ANS: C
REF: 681, Section 20.6-Food Additives
MSC: Knowledge
113. Which of the following is the most common use for adding carotenoids to foods? a. to colour the food b. to extend shelf life c. to inhibit microbial growth d. to inhibit nitrosamine formation ANS: A
REF: 681, Section 20.6-Food Additives
MSC: Application
114. Which of these sweeteners should be avoided by people with PKU? a. neotame b. sucralose c. aspartame d. acesulfame-K ANS: C
REF: 682, Section 20.6-Food Additives
115. Aspartame has one of the following features, which one is it ? a. Its sweetness increases with heat. b. It is made up of 3 amino acids. c. It is recommended for people with PKU. d. Its breakdown products include methanol and formaldehyde.
MSC: Application
ANS: D
REF: 682, Section 20.6-Food Additives
MSC: Knowledge
116. Which of these processes happens when beverages containing aspartame are stored at warm temperatures for prolonged periods? a. Methanol is produced. b. Ketone bodies appear. c. The aspartic acid becomes oxidized. d. The sweetness level becomes exaggerated. ANS: A
REF: 682, Section 20.6-Food Additives
MSC: Application
117. High intakes of aspartame are known to do which of the following? a. inhibit digestive tract enzymes b. become unsafe for most of the population c. decrease the threshold for seizures in epilepsy d. become metabolized into more than 6 times as much methanol as that from tomato juice consumption ANS: C
REF: 682, Section 20.6-Food Additives
MSC: Knowledge
118. Which of the following foods represents a common source of acrylamide intake in Canada? a. raw fruits b. french fries c. raw vegetables d. grilled seafood ANS: B
REF: 682, Section 20.6-Food Additives
MSC: Application
119. Which of these substances are carcinogens known to be produced when high-carbohydrate foods are cooked at high temperatures? a. dioxins b. acrylamides c. carrageenans d. nitrosamine ANS: B 120.
MSC: Application
To determine quickly if a particular glass or ceramic vessel is safe for use in a microwave oven, place the empty container in the microwave and “cook” it for 1 minute. How should the container feel to be considered safe? a. cool b. lukewarm c. warm d. hot ANS: A
121.
REF: 683, Section 20.6-Food Additives
REF: 684, Section 20.6-Food Additives
MSC: Application
Why should consumers use only specialized glass or ceramic containers rather than common packaging materials to heat foods in microwave ovens? a. Several types of common packaging materials may catch on fire. b. Many common packaging materials contain traces of PCBs, which are released into the food. c. There are substances in common packaging materials that can migrate into the food and present a health hazard. d. Many substances in common packaging materials interact with flavour components in
food and impart off-flavours. ANS: C MSC: Application 122.
Which of the following toxic substances are formed from production of paper products used in food packaging? a. PBBs b. URPs c. dioxins d. BHT and BHA ANS: C
123.
MSC: Knowledge
REF: 684, Section 20.6-Food Additives
MSC: Knowledge
REF: 683, Section 20.6-Food Additives
MSC: Knowledge
What classification is given to a substance that leaches from the inside lining of a can into the fruit, resulting in an off-flavour? a. direct additive b. indirect additive c. migratory contamination d. peripheral contamination ANS: B
127.
REF: 684, Section 20.6-Food Additives
Which of the following is an example of an indirect food additive? a. nitrites b. vitamin E c. irradiation d. tin from the can ANS: D
126.
MSC: Knowledge
Which of these is the standard chemical used to remove caffeine from coffee beans? a. nitric acid b. sodium propionate c. methylene chloride d. polybrominated biphenyl ANS: C
125.
REF: 684, Section 20.6-Food Additives
Which of the following is a food contaminant formed during chlorine treatment of wood used in the manufacture of paper? a. dioxin b. alginate c. acrylamide d. hydrochloride ANS: A
124.
REF: 683-684, Section 20.6-Food Additives
REF: 683, Section 20.6-Food Additives
MSC: Application
Which of the following is associated with the chlorination of public water systems? a. It has a high cost-to-benefit ratio. b. It imparts a pleasant taste to the water. c. It reduces dental caries formation in children. d. It is associated with an increase in bladder cancer. ANS: D MSC: Knowledge
REF: 686, Section 20.7-Consumer Concerns about Water
128.
What is meant by potable water? a. water fit for drinking b. water that must be boiled before drinking c. water that must be chlorinated before drinking d. water suitable only for use on lawns and gardens ANS: A MSC: Knowledge
129.
Which of these substances is commonly added to public water supplies to disinfect the water? a. ozone b. fluoride c. chlorine d. penicillin ANS: C MSC: Knowledge
130.
REF: 686, Section 20.7-Consumer Concerns about Water
Water that has the odour of “rotten eggs” most likely contains which of the following contaminants? a. sulphur b. dioxins c. Giardia d. Cryptosporidium ANS: A MSC: Application
133.
REF: 686, Section 20.7-Consumer Concerns about Water
Only one of the following accurately describes a characteristic of home water treatments, which one is it? a. Activated carbon filters are effective in removing chlorine. b. Most home filtration systems are highly efficient at removing virtually all types of contaminants. c. Boiling the water is effective at removing all organic chemicals as well as killing microorganisms. d. Most home filtration systems combine the processes of heavy metal removal, killing of microorganisms, softening of the water, and addition of enhancers. ANS: A MSC: Knowledge
132.
REF: 686, Section 20.7-Consumer Concerns about Water
Only one of minerals in the list below isn’t associated with unpleasant characteristics of potable water, which one is it? a. iron b. calcium c. manganese d. phosphorus ANS: D MSC: Knowledge
131.
REF: 685, Section 20.7-Consumer Concerns about Water
REF: 686, Section 20.7-Consumer Concerns about Water
Which of these is the chief purpose of using ozone as a commercial water treatment? a. Ozone kills microorganisms. b. Ozone complexes with heavy metals. c. Ozone stabilizes the carbon filtration process.
d. Ozone promotes chlorine dissipation and thus enhances taste. ANS: A MSC: Knowledge 134.
What is the average yearly intake (litres), per person, of bottled water in Canada? a. 5 L b. 25 L c. 65 L d. 175 L ANS: C
135.
REF: 686, Section 20.7-Consumer Concerns about Water
Approximately what percentage of our fresh water supply is used directly by the residential sector? a. 2 percent b. 10 percent c. 30 percent d. 55 percent ANS: B MSC: Knowledge
139.
REF: 686, Section 20.7-Consumer Concerns about Water
Which of the following accurately describes bottled waters that are sold to consumers? a. Bottled water is classified as a food and is regulated by Health Canada. b. Bottled water is regarded as a Natural Health Product c. Bottled water is classified as an indirect additive to the diet and is regulated by the CFIA. d. Government regulations mandate that labels on bottled water reveal sources and heavy metal content. ANS: A MSC: Knowledge
138.
REF: 686, Section 20.7-Consumer Concerns about Water
Which of these is the most common source of bottled water? a. glacier run-off b. springs c. rivers in the wilderness d. municipal water supplies ANS: B MSC: Knowledge
137.
REF: 686, Section 20.7-Consumer Concerns about Water
Which of these is the process by which water is purified by pressurizing it and forcing it across a membrane? a. ozonation b. distillation c. reverse osmosis d. activated carbon filtration ANS: C MSC: Knowledge
136.
REF: 686, Section 20.7-Consumer Concerns about Water
REF: 686, Section 19.8-Food Biotechnology
Improvements in nutrient composition, such as when corn is genetically modified to contain higher amounts of its limiting amino acids, is a strategy known as which of the following? a. biofortification b. reverse DNA enrichment c. CFIA approved enrichment
d. frankenfood transdevelopment ANS: A MSC: Application 140.
Genetic engineering of broccoli to increase the selenium content has inadvertently lowered the content of which of the following nutrients? a. fibre, an indigestible carbohydrate b. vitamin C, a water-soluble antioxidant c. sulphoraphane, an anticancer phytochemical d. chlorophyll, a magnesium-containing substance ANS: C MSC: Knowledge
141.
REF: 691, Section 19.8-Food Biotechnology
REF: 691, Section 19.8-Food Biotechnology
Currently, rennin, an enzyme used by the food industry for the production of cheese, is available from all but one of the sources below, which is it ? a. calf stomach b. pig intestines c. genetically-engineered viruses d. genetically-engineered bacteria ANS: D MSC: Knowledge
REF: 691, Section 19.8-Food Biotechnology
MATCHING
a. BGH b. BHT c. EPA d. Health Canada e. MSG f. GRAS g. Safe h. Sulphite i. Hazard j. Nitrite k. Toxicity l. Solanine m. Hepatitis n. Goitrogen o. Nitrosamines p. Bioaccumulation q. Margin of Safety r. Tolerance Level s. Methylene chloride t. Intentional additives 1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
Term that designates the ability of a substance to harm living organisms if enough is consumed Term designating that a substance is possibly toxic under normal use conditions Typical food-borne infection that results from eating undercooked or raw shellfish The act of concentrating contaminants within the flesh of animals high on the food chain Toxic compound common in cabbage, turnips, and radishes
6. Poisonous narcotic-like substance present in potato sprouts 7. Term that describes the maximum amount of a pesticide residue permitted on a food when the chemical is used according to directions 8. Term that judges that the risks for consumption of pesticides on foods are acceptable 9. Acronym used in the U.S. for a list of food additives long believed to be safe 10. Zone between the normal concentration used and that in which a hazard exists 11. Class of substances that are purposely added to foods 12. Substance added to cured meats to preserve colour 13. Carcinogenic substances formed within the stomach 14. Organization that is responsible for certifying food colours 15. A food additive known to destroy thiamine 16. A preservative commonly used in snack foods to slow the development of off-flavours, odours, and colour changes 17. Flavour enhancer 18. Hormone that promotes growth and milk production in cows 19. Substance used to remove caffeine from coffee 20. Organization that is responsible for ensuring that public water systems meet minimum health standards 1. ANS: K 2. ANS: I 3. ANS: M 4. ANS: P 5. ANS: N 6. ANS: L 7. ANS: R 8. ANS: G 9. ANS: F 10. ANS: Q 11. ANS: T 12. ANS: J 13. ANS: O 14. ANS: D 15. ANS: H 16. ANS: B 17. ANS: E 18. ANS: A 19. ANS: S 20. ANS: C
REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF:
p. 659 p. 659 p. 662 p. 671 p. 673 p. 674 p. 674 p. 659, 674 p. 679 p. 679 p. 680 p. 680 p. 680 p. 681 p. 681 p. 681 p. 681 p. 684 p. 684 p. 687
ESSAY 1. List the major functions of the following agencies that monitor the nation’s food supply: CFIA, AAFC, and Health Canada. ANS: Answers may vary. REF: p. 660 2. List 6 symptoms associated with major food-borne illness.
ANS: Answers may vary. REF: p. 661 3. Cite examples of outbreaks of food-borne infections from consumption of food products sold by the food industry. ANS: Answers may vary. REF: p. 661 4. Describe one well-publicized outbreak of food-borne infection that happened in 2008 ANS: Answers may vary. REF: p. 661 5. Describe several known outbreaks of food poisoning in North America since the year 2000 that also affect foods sold in Canada. ANS: Answers may vary. REF: p. 661-663 6. List at least 6 symptoms that are associated with the contraction of food-borne illness. ANS: Answers may vary. REF: p. 661 7. List 3 major pathogenic microbes that are transmitted by foods; describe their food sources, symptoms of sickness, and methods of prevention. ANS: Answers may vary. REF: p. 662-663 8. Describe food-borne infections that are early onset (within 1–2 days), mid-onset (3–6 days), and late onset (after 7 days). ANS: Answers may vary. REF: p. 662-663 9. What steps can consumers take to ensure food safety in the kitchen?
ANS: Answers may vary. REF: p. 663-664 10. What are mad cow disease and H1N1 influenza and how do they affect human beings? How can you reduce risk of contracting these disorders? ANS: Answers may vary. REF: p. 666-667 11. What precautions should consumers take when selecting and consuming seafood? ANS: Answers may vary. REF: p. 667-668 12. List safe-handling practices for milk and cheeses, eggs, honey, mixed salads, seafood, and picnic foods. ANS: Answers may vary. REF: p. 667 13. Discuss consumer concerns about irradiation. ANS: Answers may vary. REF: p. 669-670 14. Explain the precautions that should be taken to minimize the risk of traveller’s diarrhea. ANS: Answers may vary. REF: p. 668-669 15. What is food irradiation and how is it regulated? Explain the pros and cons of irradiation as a food-processing method. ANS: Answers may vary. REF: p. 669-670 16. What steps can consumers take to minimize nutrient losses during food preparation? ANS: Answers may vary.
REF: p. 670 17. Describe the effects of environmental contaminants, including the bioaccumulation of toxic substances. ANS: Answers may vary. REF: p. 671-673 18. Discuss the importance of mercury in the food chain. What population groups are most susceptible to mercury toxicity? What are the recommendations concerning consumption of foods containing mercury? ANS: Answers may vary. REF: p. 672-673 19. Give several examples of naturally occurring toxicants in foods and appropriate methods to minimize exposure to them. ANS: Answers may vary. REF: p. 673-674 20. How are pesticides regulated and monitored in the Canadian food supply? How can consumers minimize risk of pesticide exposure? ANS: Answers may vary. REF: p. 674-676 21. Discuss the concerns of the public regarding the use of pesticides. Describe methods to minimize intake of pesticide residues on foods. ANS: Answers may vary. REF: p. 674-676 22. Describe the use of alternatives to conventional chemical application for the control of agricultural pests. ANS: Answers may vary. REF: p. 675-676 23. Discuss regulations governing the production and labelling of organic foods. How can pesticide residues be monitored in the body?
ANS: Answers may vary. REF: p. 676-678 24. What are the Canadian criteria for organically grown crops? ANS: Answers may vary. REF: p. 676-678 25. List several advantages for the use of food additives. ANS: Answers may vary. REF: p. 678 26. What is the meaning and significance of the Delaney Clause? Why is it believed by many to be too strict and inflexible? ANS: Answers may vary. REF: p. 679 27. Explain the food manufacturer’s responsibilities for the use of food additives. ANS: Answers may vary. REF: p. 678-679 28. List 4 appropriate uses for nutrient additives to foods. ANS: Answers may vary. REF: p. 683-684 29. What are sulphites? Explain current Health Canada regulations regarding their use. ANS: Answers may vary. REF: p. 681 30. List the major antioxidant additives in the food supply and their side effects in human beings. ANS: Answers may vary.
REF: p. 681 31. What are the advantages and disadvantages of using MSG in foods? ANS: Answers may vary. REF: p. 681 32. Give examples of different types of indirect food additives and explain how they become part of the food supply. ANS: Answers may vary. REF: p. 683-685 33. Discuss the formation and significance of acrylamide and dioxins in food. ANS: Answers may vary. REF: p. 683-684 34. Discuss the use of packaging materials for foods designed to be exposed to microwave cooking. How can you determine if an unlabelled glass or ceramic container is microwave-safe? ANS: Answers may vary. REF: p. 683-684 35. Discuss safety concerns of consuming coffee that was decaffeinated by methylene chloride. Are there other ways to remove the caffeine? ANS: Answers may vary. REF: p. 684 36. What are the chief concerns with the use of antibiotics in livestock? ANS: Answers may vary. REF: p. 684-685 37. Explain the differences between groundwater and surface water as sources of drinking water. ANS: Answers may vary. REF: p. 685
38. List several unpleasant characteristics associated with safe, potable water. ANS: Answers may vary. REF: p. 685-686 39. Discuss the origin of common drinking water contaminants such as heavy metals, microbes, and organic toxicants. ANS: Answers may vary. REF: p. 685-687 40. List 4 common home treatments for improving the quality of water. ANS: Answers may vary. REF: p. 686 41. How does genetic engineering differ from traditional selective breeding? ANS: Answers may vary. REF: p. 690-691 42. Discuss appropriate uses of vitamins and minerals as food additives. ANS: Answers may vary. REF: p. 691 43. Present examples of food crops that have been genetically engineered to produce their own pesticides. ANS: Answers may vary. REF: p. 692 44. What is “biopharming”? Provide an example. ANS: Answers may vary. REF: p. 692 45. Give examples of genetic engineering for the production of herbicide- and pesticide-resistant crops. ANS: Answers may vary.
REF: p. 692 46. Present examples of food crops that have been genetically engineered to produce drugs for human beings. ANS: Answers may vary. REF: p. 692 47. Provide examples of the potential problems and concerns with biotechnology. ANS: Answers may vary. REF: p. 692-693 48. Present 6 arguments each on the pros and cons of genetic engineering. ANS: Answers may vary. REF: p. 692-693, 694 49. Explain the role of Health Canada in regulating food produced through biotechnology. ANS: Answers may vary. REF: p. 693-695 50. Present eight arguments each that are in support of, and in opposition to, food biotechnology. ANS: Answers may vary. REF: p. 694
Chapter 20 – Hunger and the Global Environment MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Which of the following terms refers to limited or doubtful availability of nutritionally adequate and safe foods? a. food insecurity b. food insufficiency c. food vulnerability d. food precariousness ANS: A MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 698, Section 21.1-Hunger in Canada the
2. Melissa works 2 jobs to support her 3 children. Due to her limited finances Melissa does not often eat 3 meals a day and worries about how and where she will get the next meal for herself and her children. Melissa is experiencing which of the following? a. food insufficiency b. food mismanagement c. non-sustainable lifestyle d. misallocation of resources ANS: A MSC: Application
REF: p. 698, Section 21.1-Hunger in Canada the
3. Which of the following is the primary cause for hunger in Canada and in less developed countries? a. poverty b. high cost of food c. excessive food waste d. lack of nutrition education ANS: A MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 698, Section 21.1-Hunger in Canada the
4. Approximately what fraction of the Canadian population lives in a general state of poverty? a. 1/3 b. 1/5 c. 1/10 d. 1/20 ANS: B MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 698, Section 21.1-Hunger in Canada the
5. According to Statistics Canada, approximately what percentage of Canadian children under 18 years lived in low-income families? a. 1/25 b. 1/15 c. 1/10 d. 1/3 ANS: C MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 698, Section 21.1-Hunger in Canada the
6. Which of the following food recovery methods is considered ‘non-perishable food collection?
a. Collect prepared foods from commercial kitchens. b. Salvage perishable items from wholesalers and markets. c. Gather crops from fields that either have already been harvested or are not profitable to harvest. d. Collecting processed foods from wholesalers and markets ANS: D MSC: Application
REF: p. 699, Section 21.1-Hunger in Canada the
7. Which of the following is Canada’s only national non-profit organization dedicated to supporting child nutrition? a. Breakfast for Learning b. Goodwill Food Assistance c. Meals for Children d. Food Security for Children ANS: A MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 699, Section 21.1-Hunger in Canada the
8. As you sit in the waiting room of a doctor’s office leafing through a magazine, you see a letter to the editor about world hunger. In it, the author stated, “…and thus, hunger worsens poverty ... ”. Does hunger worsen poverty? a. Yes, but it can be corrected with appropriate access to reproductive health care. b. No; if hungry people work hard enough they can work to get themselves out of poverty. c. Yes, it propagates poverty by increasing the death rate and leaving many families as single-parent households. d. Yes, hunger makes poverty worse by robbing a person of the good health and the physical and mental energy needed to be active and productive. ANS: D MSC: Application
REF: p. 700, Section 21.2-World Hunger
9. A period of extreme food shortage resulting in widespread starvation and death is known by which of the following terms? a. plague b. famine c. food poverty d. food insecurity ANS: B MSC: Application
REF: p. 700-702, Section 21.2-World Hunger
10. What is the international poverty line per day for a single person? a. $1.08 b. $3.75 c. $5.15 d. $10.00 ANS: A MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 700, Section 21.2-World Hunger
11. The worst famine in the 20th century occurred in which country? a. India b. China c. Africa
d. Ireland ANS: B MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 701, Section 21.2-World Hunger
12. Among malnourished populations worldwide, which of the following nutrients is least likely to be lacking? a. iron b. iodine c. vitamin A d. vitamin D ANS: D MSC: Application
REF: p. 702, Section 21.2-World Hunger
13. Which of the following nutrients is being distributed to millions of children worldwide to help reduce measles mortality? a. iron b. iodine c. protein d. vitamin A ANS: D MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 702, Section 21.2-World Hunger
14. Approximately 2 billion people in the world have one of the following diseases, which one is it? a. Iodine deficiency b. iron-deficiency anemia c. Vitamin A deficiency d. Zinc deficiency ANS: B MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 702, Section 21.2-World Hunger
15. What fraction of children worldwide are born underweight? a. 1/10 b. 1/6 c. 1/3 d. 1/2 ANS: B MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 703, Section 21.2-World Hunger
16. In an effort to reduce morbidity and mortality, which of the following would be a first course of action for a Peace Corps volunteer to correct the prevalence of diarrhea in a small village where she is working? a. implementing oral rehydration therapy for those who are dehydrated b. implementing oral refeeding therapy for those who are malnourished c. ensuring there is enough fortified rice for all the women and children d. distributing as many medications to the village people as she can obtain ANS: A MSC: Application
REF: p. 703, Section 21.2-World Hunger
17. Approximately what number of children worldwide die each year of malnutrition and malnutrition-related causes?
a. 50,000 b. 500,000 c. 1.2 million d. 5.6 million ANS: D MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 703, Section 21.2-World Hunger
18. What is administered by health-care workers to help treat the diarrhea and dehydration common to children suffering from diseases of poverty? a. oral rehydration therapy b. ozone purified waste water c. protein-energy repletion formula d. charcoal-filtered water and corn starch ANS: A MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 703, Section 21.2-World Hunger
19. What is meant by the human carrying capacity of the earth? a. the number of tons of edible food that can be produced by all of the earth’s cultivable land b. the maximum number of people that the earth can support over time c. the amount of oxygen consumed by all living organisms in relation to the amount of oxygen produced by all living plants d. the total weight of all living organisms in relation to the weight of all non-living material including the earth’s water mass ANS: B MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 703, Section 21.3-Poverty and Overpopulation
20. What is the approximate yearly increase in the world’s population? a. 0.5 million b. 12 million c. 50 million d. 70 million ANS: D MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 703, Section 21.3-Poverty and Overpopulation
21. What is the chief reason why people living in poverty and hunger bear numerous children? a. Birth control expenses are prohibitive. b. To ensure that some of the children survive to adulthood. c. The low educational level of adults limits their understanding of family planning. d. The parents seek greater fulfillment through having more children since there are few other interests in their lives. ANS: B MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 704, Section 21.3-Poverty and Overpopulation
22. Which of the following is the least likely factor to affect world population growth? a. birth rates b. death rates c. standard of living d. scientific knowledge ANS: D MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 704, Section 21.3-Poverty and Overpopulation
23. Which of the following describes a known long-term relationship among poverty, hunger, and population growth? a. As economic status improves, population growth rises. b. As economic status improves, population growth diminishes. c. Lack of natural resources rather than poverty is the most important contributor to overpopulation. d. Over the past decade the increase in the world’s food output has been greater than the increase in the world’s population. ANS: B MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 704, Section 21.3-Poverty and Overpopulation
24. If the world’s production of food energy were equally distributed among the world’s population, approximately how many kcalories per day would be available to each person? a. 650 kcal b. 1000 kcal c. 2720 kcal d. 3750 kcal ANS: D MSC: Application
REF: p. 705, Section 21.4-The Global Environment
25. Which of the following is a negative consequence that is known to occur as a result of farm irrigation? a. It makes the soil more porous. b. It helps preserve the water supply. c. It contributes to soil preservation. d. It increases the salt content in the soil. ANS: D MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 706, Section 21.4-The Global Environment
26. What is aquaculture? a. a seaweed growth system b. the practice of fish farming c. a water purification system d. the raising of plants in a water environment ANS: B MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 706, Section 21.4-The Global Environment
27. Which of the following contributes the least to the world’s supply of food energy? a. rice b. corn c. wheat d. sorghum ANS: D MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 706-707, Section 21.4-The Global Environment
28. Which of the following is a feature of Agriculture and Agri-Food Canada’s sustainable development strategy? a. They promote protection of soil and water. b. They frequently lead to higher crop prices. c. They are designed to benefit mostly small family farms.
d. They tend to support the use of pesticides and fertilizers. ANS: D MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 707, Section 21.4-The Global Environment
29. Which of these terms describes agricultural practices that are designed to minimize use of energy and chemicals? a. integrated production b. progressive agriculture c. sustainable agriculture d. resource management production ANS: C MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 707, Section 21.4-The Global Environment
30. Which of the following is derived from renewable energy technologies? a. oil b. coal c. biofuels d. natural gas ANS: C MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 708, Section 21.4-The Global Environment
31. About how many kcalories of fuel are used to produce 100 kcalories of grains? a. 1 kcal b. 33 kcal c. 50 kcal d. 75 kcal ANS: B MSC: Application
REF: p. 712, Section 21.5 Environmentally Friendly Food Choices
32. What is the nutritional advantage of eating range-fed buffalo? a. The iron content is higher. b. The nutrients are more stable and less prone to oxidation. c. The fat content is lower and the fat has more omega-3 fatty acids. d. There is a greater variety of phytonutrients, especially those that reduce risk of heart disease and cancer. ANS: C MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 712, Section 21.5 Environmentally Friendly Food Choices
33. In the practice of agriculture, approximately what percentage more energy is required to produce most animal foods in comparison to grains? a. 10 percent b. 200 percent c. 450 percent d. 1000 percent ANS: B MSC: Application
REF: p. 712, Section 21.5 Environmentally Friendly Food Choices
34. How much more grain is consumed by livestock than by people? a. one-half as much b. about the same
c. 5 times as much d. 10 times as much ANS: D MSC: Knowledge
REF: p. 712, Section 21.5 Environmentally Friendly Food Choices
35. On average, how many kilometers is a food item transported before a consumer eats it? a. 25 kilometers b. 100 kilometers c. 750 kilometers d. 1200 kilometers ANS: D MSC: Application
REF: p. 713, Section 21.5 Environmentally Friendly Food Choices
MATCHING
a. 1 b. 8 c. 20 d. 30 e. 6.7 f. 80 g. 150 h. 95 i. 1200 J. Fossil j. CHOICE BLANK k. Famine l. Methane m. Irrigation n. Non-point o. Poverty p. Sustainable q. Breakfast for Learning r. Food insecurity s. Food Banks Canada t. ORT 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10. 11. 12. 13. 14.
Intermittent hunger caused by lack of money The primary cause of hunger Canada’s only national non-profit organization dedicated to supporting child nutrition HungerCount, is published each October by which national organization? Approximate number, in billions, of people in the world Extreme scarcity of food Approximate amount, in $/day, of the international poverty line for individuals Treatment for diarrhea-related dehydration Percent of the world’s population with iron-deficiency anemia Number of children, in millions, under age 5 with vitamin A deficiency Percentage of people added to the world’s population who are born into poverty Coal belongs to this type of fuel Produced in large quantities by cows This source of water for crops increases the salinity of the soil
15. 16. 17. 18. 19. 20.
Type of water pollution caused by runoff Number of kilograms of grain needed to produce 1 kilogram of animal weight gain Percentage of energy used that is consumed by the food industry Approximate number of cultivated crops in the world today Term that describes using resources at a replaceable rate with no net accumulation of pollution Number of kilometers, on average, a food item is transported before it is eaten
1. ANS: R 2. ANS: O 3. ANS: Q 4. ANS: S 5. ANS: E 6. ANS: K 7. ANS: A 8. ANS: T 9. ANS: D 10. ANS: F 11. ANS: H 12. ANS: J 13. ANS: L 14. ANS: M 15. ANS: N 16. ANS: B 17. ANS: C 18. ANS: G 19. ANS: P 20. ANS: I
REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF:
p.698 p.698 p.699 p.699 p.700 p.700 p.700 p.703 p.702 p.702 p.705 p.706 p.706 p.706 p.705 p.706 p.706 p.707 p.707 p.713
ESSAY 1. Define the subcategories of food security and food insecurity. ANS: Answers may vary. REF: p. 698 2. List and discuss the causes of hunger in Canada. What population groups are most vulnerable? ANS: Answers may vary. REF: p. 698-699 3. What is the hunger-obesity paradox? ANS: Answers may vary. REF: p. 699
4. List and explain 4 common methods of food recovery. ANS: Answers may vary. REF: p. 699 5. List reasons for the lack of qualified people to self-enroll in federal food assistance programs. ANS: Answers may vary. REF: p. 700 6. List ways that consumers can plan healthy, thrifty meals. ANS: Answers may vary. REF: p. 701 7. Discuss how overpopulation is related to the world hunger problem. ANS: Answers may vary. REF: p. 703-704 8. Describe 4 ways in which major improvements could be made in worldwide environmental problems. ANS: Answers may vary. REF: p. 705-707 9. Discuss 5 environmental problems that limit food production. ANS: Answers may vary. REF: p. 705-707 10. What is meant by non-point water pollution? ANS: Answers may vary. REF: p. 705 11. What is meant by biodiversity and how does it affect world food production? ANS: Answers may vary.
REF: p. 706 12. Give 5 examples each of cultivation practices used in sustainable and non-sustainable agriculture. ANS: Answers may vary. REF: p. 707-708 13. Compare and contrast the requirements for production of animal foods versus plant foods. ANS: Answers may vary. REF: p. 712-713 14. What are the disadvantages of consuming food that was grown far away? ANS: Answers may vary. REF: p. 713-715 15. Discuss the advantages of obtaining foods grown locally versus globally. ANS: Answers may vary. REF: p. 713-715 16. List 8 environmentally friendly food-related choices that involve food shopping, gardening, cooking food, use of kitchen appliances, and cleanup/waste disposal. ANS: Answers may vary. REF: p. 715