Vanders Human Physiology 15th Edition Widmaier Test Bank Chapter 1
Homeostasis: A Framework for Human Physiology
1) Which of these is NOT one of the four general categories of cells that make up the human body? A) Epithelial cells B) Collagen cells C) Connective tissue cells D) Neurons E) Muscle cells 2) Physiology is the study of A) how two organisms interact. B) how organisms function. C) the spread of diseases. D) the structure of the body. E) two of the choices are correct. 3) The study of disease states in the body is called A) pathophysiology. B) anatomy. C) homeostasis. D) differentiation. E) histology. 4) Which is NOT a connective tissue cell? A) Bone cell B) Skeletal muscle cell C) Blood cell D) Fat cell E) Cartilage cell 5) What is the principal function performed by epithelial cells? A) Fat storage B) Anchoring body structures C) Forming boundaries between body compartments D) Generating movement E) Transmitting electrical signals 6) The types of cells that are specialized to communicate with other cells and control their activities are A) epithelial cells. B) muscle cells. C) connective tissue cells. D) neurons. E) Two of the choices are correct.
7) What is the term for the developmental process that leads to specialized cell types? A) Genomics B) Differentiation C) Homeostasis D) Positive feedback E) Acclimatization 8) Which best describes the extracellular matrix? A) It is found just inside the cell membrane in all tissues, it sends branching collagen fibers between cells to connect them, and it transmits chemical information from the interior of one cell to the interior of adjacent cells. B) It is a tissue having more than the four general cell types, it transports proteins and polysaccharides between body compartments, and it is the route by which chemical signals like hormones reach all parts of the body. C) It covers the body's surface, it contains connective and muscle tissue, and it helps generate movement. D) It surrounds cells; it contains proteins, polysaccharides, and minerals; it provides a scaffold for cell attachment; and it transmits chemical messengers to cells. 9) If a person begins to sweat upon entering a hot room but continued sweating is able to keep the body temperature stable, which of these best describes her condition? A) She is in an equilibrium state. B) She is not using energy to maintain a constant temperature. C) She is in a steady state. D) She is using a positive feedback mechanism. E) Two of the choices are correct. 10) Which concept is the defining feature of the discipline of physiology? A) Descent with modification B) Homeostasis C) Evolution D) Equilibrium E) Differentiation 11) Describing a physiological variable as "homeostatic" means that it A) has varied from the normal value, and will remain constant at the new value. B) never varies from an exact set point value. C) is in an equilibrium state that requires no energy input to stay at the normal value. D) is in a state of dynamic constancy that is regulated to remain near a stable set point value. E) has no normal range, but will just change to match the outside environmental conditions.
12) Which of the following situations best represents a homeostatic mechanism? A) A person who becomes very nervous begins to sweat profusely. B) After going outside on a hot day, the core body temperature increases. C) Increasing the size of fast-food restaurant portions causes body weight to increase. D) After eating a large batch of salty popcorn, levels of salt in the urine increase. E) As age increases, the amount of calcium in bones tends to decrease. 13) What term is used to describe the steady-state value for any variable that the body attempts to maintain? A) Set point B) Equilibrium potential C) Error signal D) Reflex arc E) Median value 14) Which of components of a general reflex arc are listed in the order information typically flows through them following a stimulus? A) Effector, afferent pathway, integrating center, efferent pathway, receptor B) Effector, efferent pathway, integrating center, afferent pathway, receptor C) Integrating center, receptor, afferent pathway, efferent pathway, effector D) Receptor, efferent pathway, integrating center, afferent pathway, effector E) Receptor, afferent pathway, integrating center, efferent pathway, effector 15) Feedforward regulatory processes A) work in anticipation of changes in regulated variables. B) are identical to positive feedback processes. C) lead to instability of the regulated variable. D) maximize fluctuations in the regulated variable. E) tend to force physiological variables away from their set point. 16) Which situation describes a feedforward mechanism? A) Blood glucose returns toward normal an hour after a meal. B) The smell of rotten food on a plate triggers the vomit reflex. C) A drop in core body temperature triggers shivering. D) An increase in core body temperature stimulates sweating. E) Food in the stomach triggers the production of stomach acid. 17) What is the general purpose of positive feedback mechanisms? A) To maintain a constant internal environment B) To anticipate changes in the environment C) To return a variable toward the set point D) To bring about a rapid change in the body E) To detect changes in the external environment
18) Shivering in response to a cold draft is an example of A) a homeostatic mechanism. B) positive feedback. C) feedforward regulation. D) acclimation. E) Two of the choices are correct. 19) If the amount of sodium in the blood decreases, what would a negative feedback control mechanism be expected to do? A) Decrease the amount of sodium in the blood B) Increase the amount of sodium in the blood C) Leave the amount of sodium unchanged D) Change the set point for sodium E) Inhibit the ingestion of more sodium 20) What is the best description of the efferent pathway of a reflex arc? A) Signals from the integrating center to receptors B) The route by which receptors send signals to effectors C) Signaling pathway for receptors to influence the integrating center D) The route by which effector organs send signals to receptors E) The route by which signals from an integrating center reach effector organs 21) Which one of the following is the correct sequence for a regulatory reflex arc? A) Stimulus, effector, efferent pathway, integrating center, afferent pathway, receptor B) Stimulus, receptor, efferent pathway, integrating center, afferent pathway, effector C) Stimulus, receptor, afferent pathway, integrating center, efferent pathway, effector D) Stimulus, effector, afferent pathway, integrating center, efferent pathway, receptor E) Effector, efferent pathway, integrating center, afferent pathway, receptor, stimulus 22) Identify the effectors in this homeostatic reflex: Eating a salt-rich meal increases blood volume and pressure, stretching blood vessel walls. Nerve signals sent to the brainstem stimulate changes in hormonal and neural signaling. The heart rate is slowed, blood vessel walls are relaxed, and the kidneys increase urinary salt. The blood pressure returns toward normal. A) Brainstem and blood vessels B) Blood vessels, hormones, and nerves C) Heart, blood vessels, and kidneys D) Brainstem, blood vessels, and kidneys E) Hormones and nerves
23) The hormone insulin enhances the transport of glucose into body cells. Its secretion is controlled by a negative feedback system between the concentration of glucose in the blood and the cells that secrete insulin. Which of the following statements is most likely to be correct? A) A decrease in blood glucose concentration will stimulate insulin secretion, which will in turn lower the blood glucose concentration still further. B) An increase in blood glucose concentration will stimulate insulin secretion, which will in turn lower the blood glucose concentration. C) A decrease in blood glucose concentration will stimulate insulin secretion, which will in turn increase the blood glucose concentration. D) An increase in blood glucose concentration will stimulate insulin secretion, which will in turn increase the blood glucose concentration still further. 24) How are endocrine glands and hormones involved in homeostatic reflexes? A) Endocrine glands can be receptors, and hormones can be effectors. B) Endocrine glands can be integrating centers, and hormones can be efferent pathways. C) Endocrine glands can be efferent pathways, and hormones can be effectors. D) Endocrine glands are not part of reflex mechanisms, but hormones can be afferent or efferent pathways. E) They are not involved; reflexes only involve actions of the nervous system. 25) What is a hormone? A) A chemical released from a nerve cell that affects nearby cells across a synapse B) A chemical released from an endocrine gland that affects target cells without entering the bloodstream C) A chemical found in the blood that catalyzes the destruction of ingested toxins and foreign substances D) A chemical found in the sweat that signals other individuals about the physiological status of the body E) A chemical regulator secreted from an endocrine gland that travels through the bloodstream to affect target cells 26) Some neurons in the vagus nerve have synaptic connections to sinoatrial cells (pacemaker) in the heart. These neurons secrete acetylcholine, which ultimately results in a decreased heart rate. This is an example of A) endocrine control. B) exocrine control. C) hormonal control. D) neural control. E) paracrine control.
27) Heart rate is increased by the release of epinephrine by the adrenal medulla into the bloodstream. This is an example of A) endocrine control. B) exocrine control. C) paracrine control. D) direct neural control. E) positive feedback. 28) How is autocrine regulation best described? A) Chemical regulators are released directly into blood vessels. B) Chemical regulators released by cells affect the functional status of different kinds of cells in the vicinity of the secretory cell. C) Chemical regulators affect the same cells that produce them. D) Chemical regulators reach their site of action through a duct. E) Chemical regulators are continuously released in constant amounts by the cell. 29) The tall slender body shape that helps to dissipate heat in people native to equatorial regions is an example of A) an adaptation. B) acclimatization. C) set point resetting. D) homeostasis. E) phase shift. 30) After spending several days at a high altitude, where oxygen pressure is low, a person will begin to produce more red blood cells, which enhances the ability of blood to carry oxygen to the tissues. What term best describes this type of response? A) Developmental acclimatization B) Positive feedback C) Physiological acclimatization D) Feedforward regulation E) Evolution 31) Circadian rhythms are biological rhythms with what main characteristic? A) They are cyclical, like the 28-day female menstrual cycle. B) They are cyclical, like the rhythmic beating of the heart. C) They are voluntary rhythms, like the time you decide to eat lunch each day. D) They cease to occur when a person is in a dark environment. E) They repeat approximately every 24 hours, like daily spikes in hormone secretion. 32) What is the location of the internal pacemaker that sets biological rhythms? A) Suprachiasmatic nucleus of the brain B) Ventricles of the heart C) Endocrine gland in the gonads D) Photoreceptors of the eye E) The adrenal glands
33) A protein is found in blood that is produced by the pancreas and acts on receptors of cells in the liver. What type of physiological regulator is it most likely to be? A) A hormone B) An autocrine signal C) A paracrine signal D) A neurotransmitter E) An enzyme 34) Which best describes how the total body balance of any chemical substance is determined? A) The rate the body produces the substance B) The rate the substance is secreted from the body C) The rate the substance is metabolized by the body D) The difference between the amount of substance lost from the body and the amount gained the body E) The amount produced by the body minus the amount metabolized by the body 35) A burn patient ingests 100 grams of protein per day and loses 110 grams of protein per day due to the injury. What is the overall protein state of the patient? A) Positive protein balance B) Negative protein balance C) Stable protein balance D) A state that can't be determined 36) Eating a bag of salty potato chips without increasing sodium excretion would result in what state? A) Positive sodium balance B) Negative sodium balance C) Stable sodium balance D) It can't be determined without knowing the size of the sodium pool 37) An experimental subject is isolated in an underground room with no windows, no clocks, and no contact with the outside world. Researchers monitoring his behavior observe that he eats breakfast a little bit later each day. What term best describes the subject's biological activity? A) Circadian rhythm B) Free-running rhythm C) Jet lag D) Phase shift E) Entrainment 38) Which equation is most accurate? A) Extracellular fluid volume + interstitial fluid volume = whole body fluid volume B) Intracellular fluid volume + interstitial fluid volume = extracellular fluid volume C) Extracellular fluid volume - interstitial fluid volume = plasma volume D) Plasma volume + intracellular fluid volume = extracellular fluid volume E) Total body fluid volume - intracellular fluid volume = interstitial fluid volume
39) The internal environment of the body refers to A) the plasma. B) the interstitial fluid. C) the intracellular fluid. D) the interstitial fluid and the intracellular fluid combined. E) the plasma, the interstitial fluid, and the intracellular fluid combined. 40) The interstitial fluid refers to A) the fluid within the cells. B) the plasma. C) the fluid between the cells. D) the plasma and fluid between the cells. E) the fluid between the cells and the fluid within the cells. 41) Neglecting protein differences, which of the following fluids has a virtually identical solute concentration? A) The interstitial fluid and the intracellular fluid B) The interstitial fluid and the plasma C) The extracellular fluid and the plasma D) The interstitial fluid, the extracellular fluid, and the plasma E) None of these choices 42) When a blood vessel is injured, it releases chemicals that activate platelets and cause them to stick to the injury site. The activated platelets in turn release more chemicals and attract more platelets to the injury site until the wound is fully sealed. This process of blood clotting is an example of A) negative feedback. B) positive feedback. C) feedforward regulation. D) adaptation. E) acclimatization. 43) During childbirth, as a baby's head is pressed against the mother's cervix, signals are relayed via nerves from cervix to the mother's brain. The brain initiates the secretion of oxytocin (a hormone) from the mother's pituitary gland. Oxytocin stimulates further uterine contractions. As the uterus contracts even harder in response to oxytocin, the baby's head is pushed harder against the cervix; this stimulates yet more nerve signals to the mother's brain, resulting in yet more oxytocin secretion until finally the baby is pushed through the cervix. This process of childbirth is an example of A) negative feedback. B) positive feedback. C) feedforward regulation. D) adaptation. E) acclimatization.
44) During childbirth, as a baby's head is pressed against the mother's cervix, signals are relayed via nerves from cervix to the mother's brain. The brain initiates the secretion of oxytocin (a hormone) from the mother's pituitary gland. Oxytocin stimulates further uterine contractions. As the uterus contracts even harder in response to oxytocin, the baby's head is pushed harder against the cervix; this stimulates yet more nerve signals to the mother's brain, resulting in yet more oxytocin secretion until finally the baby is pushed through the cervix. The integrating center in this process of childbirth is A) the mother's brain. B) the mother's cervix. C) the nerve signals to the mother's brain. D) oxytocin. E) the mother's pituitary gland. 45) During childbirth, as a baby's head is pressed against the mother's cervix, signals are relayed via nerves from cervix to the mother's brain. The brain initiates the secretion of oxytocin (a hormone) from the mother's pituitary gland. Oxytocin stimulates further uterine contractions. As the uterus contracts even harder in response to oxytocin, the baby's head is pushed harder against the cervix; this stimulates yet more nerve signals to the mother's brain, resulting in yet more oxytocin secretion until finally the baby is pushed through the cervix. The effector in this process of childbirth is A) the mother's brain. B) the mother's cervix. C) the nerve signals to the mother's brain. D) oxytocin. E) the mother's pituitary gland. 46) During breastfeeding, as the baby suckles, nerve signals are relayed from the mother's nipple to the mother's brain. The brain initiates the mother's pituitary gland to produce more prolactin (a hormone), which causes more milk to be ejected. This process of breastfeeding is an example of A) negative feedback. B) positive feedback. C) feedforward regulation. D) adaptation. E) acclimatization. 47) Some adults have the ability to digest lactose in milk. This is an example of A) negative feedback. B) positive feedback. C) feedforward regulation. D) adaptation. E) None of the choices are correct.
48) As soon as a person sees a cup of lemon juice, they start to salivate. This is an example of A) negative feedback. B) positive feedback. C) feedforward regulation. D) adaptation. E) None of the choices are correct. 49) Differentiation is necessary before a cell can exchange material with its environment. 50) The number of distinct cell types in the human body is about twenty. 51) One function of epithelial cells is to form selective barriers regulating exchange of materials across them. 52) Organs are generally composed of only one kind of tissue. 53) The respiratory system is primarily responsible for transporting blood to the body's tissues. 54) Homeostasis refers to the relative constancy of the external environment. 55) The composition of the fluid bathing the cells of the body is the same as that within the cells. 56) The extracellular fluid compartment includes the interstitial fluid and plasma. 57) Homeostatic control systems and acclimatization are examples of biological adaptations. 58) A person who is acclimated to a hot environment will begin to react physiologically to a decreased environmental temperature faster than a person who is not. 59) When loss of a substance from the body exceeds gain, the body is said to be in positive balance for that substance. 60) The negative feedback system is much more common than the positive feedback system. 61) is the general term for a chemical released by the endings of neurons onto other neurons, muscle cells, or gland cells. 62) is the general term for a chemical released by the endings of neurons into the bloodstream. 63) cells.
regulation describes regulation of cellular activity by messengers from nearby
64) is the term describing regulation of cellular activity by chemical mediators produced by that same cell.
Vander's Human Physiology, 15e (Widmaier) Chapter 1 Homeostasis: A Framework for Human Physiology 1) Which of these is NOT one of the four general categories of cells that make up the human body? A) Epithelial cells B) Collagen cells C) Connective tissue cells D) Neurons E) Muscle cells Answer: B Section: 01.02 Topic: Levels of organization Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module A06 Levels of organization. HAPS Outcome: A06.01 Describe, in order from simplest to most complex, the major levels of organization in the human organism. 2) Physiology is the study of A) how two organisms interact. B) how organisms function. C) the spread of diseases. D) the structure of the body. E) two of the choices are correct. Answer: B Section: 01.01 Topic: Scope of anatomy and physiology Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module B01 Definition. HAPS Outcome: A05.01 Define the terms anatomy and physiology. 3) The study of disease states in the body is called A) pathophysiology. B) anatomy. C) homeostasis. D) differentiation. E) histology. Answer: A Section: 01.01 Topic: Scope of anatomy and physiology Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module A05 Basic terminology HAPS Outcome: A05.01 Define the terms anatomy and physiology.
4) Which is NOT a connective tissue cell? A) Bone cell B) Skeletal muscle cell C) Blood cell D) Fat cell E) Cartilage cell Answer: B Section: 01.02 Topic: Levels of organization Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module A06 Levels of organization. HAPS Outcome: A06.02 Give an example of each level of organization. 5) What is the principal function performed by epithelial cells? A) Fat storage B) Anchoring body structures C) Forming boundaries between body compartments D) Generating movement E) Transmitting electrical signals Answer: C Section: 01.02 Topic: Levels of organization Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module A06 Levels of organization. HAPS Outcome: A06.02 Give an example of each level of organization. 6) The types of cells that are specialized to communicate with other cells and control their activities are A) epithelial cells. B) muscle cells. C) connective tissue cells. D) neurons. E) Two of the choices are correct. Answer: D Section: 01.02 Topic: Levels of organization Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module A06 Levels of organization. HAPS Outcome: A06.02 Give an example of each level of organization.
7) What is the term for the developmental process that leads to specialized cell types? A) Genomics B) Differentiation C) Homeostasis D) Positive feedback E) Acclimatization Answer: B Section: 01.02 Topic: Levels of organization Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module A06 Levels of organization. HAPS Outcome: A06.01 Describe, in order from simplest to most complex, the major levels of organization in the human organism. 8) Which best describes the extracellular matrix? A) It is found just inside the cell membrane in all tissues, it sends branching collagen fibers between cells to connect them, and it transmits chemical information from the interior of one cell to the interior of adjacent cells. B) It is a tissue having more than the four general cell types, it transports proteins and polysaccharides between body compartments, and it is the route by which chemical signals like hormones reach all parts of the body. C) It covers the body's surface, it contains connective and muscle tissue, and it helps generate movement. D) It surrounds cells; it contains proteins, polysaccharides, and minerals; it provides a scaffold for cell attachment; and it transmits chemical messengers to cells. Answer: D Section: 01.02 Topic: Levels of organization Bloom's: Level 2. Understand HAPS Topic: Module A06 Levels of organization. HAPS Outcome: A06.02 Give an example of each level of organization.
9) If a person begins to sweat upon entering a hot room but continued sweating is able to keep the body temperature stable, which of these best describes her condition? A) She is in an equilibrium state. B) She is not using energy to maintain a constant temperature. C) She is in a steady state. D) She is using a positive feedback mechanism. E) Two of the choices are correct. Answer: C Section: 01.05 Topic: Examples of homeostatic mechanisms Bloom's: Level 2. Understand HAPS Topic: Module B03 Examples of homeostatic mechanisms.; Module B04 Application of homeostatic mechanisms HAPS Outcome: B03.01 Provide an example of a negative feedback loop that utilizes the nervous system to relay information. Describe the specific organs, structures, cells or molecules (receptors, neurons, CNS structures, effectors, neurotransmitters) included in the feedback loop.; B04.01 Provide specific examples to demonstrate how organ systems respond to maintain homeostasis. 10) Which concept is the defining feature of the discipline of physiology? A) Descent with modification B) Homeostasis C) Evolution D) Equilibrium E) Differentiation Answer: B Section: 01.04 Topic: Definition of homeostasis Bloom's: Level 2. Understand HAPS Topic: Module B01 Definition. HAPS Outcome: B01.01 Define homeostasis.
11) Describing a physiological variable as "homeostatic" means that it A) has varied from the normal value, and will remain constant at the new value. B) never varies from an exact set point value. C) is in an equilibrium state that requires no energy input to stay at the normal value. D) is in a state of dynamic constancy that is regulated to remain near a stable set point value. E) has no normal range, but will just change to match the outside environmental conditions. Answer: D Section: 01.04 Topic: Definition of homeostasis Bloom's: Level 2. Understand HAPS Topic: Module B01 Definition. HAPS Outcome: B01.01 Define homeostasis. 12) Which of the following situations best represents a homeostatic mechanism? A) A person who becomes very nervous begins to sweat profusely. B) After going outside on a hot day, the core body temperature increases. C) Increasing the size of fast-food restaurant portions causes body weight to increase. D) After eating a large batch of salty popcorn, levels of salt in the urine increase. E) As age increases, the amount of calcium in bones tends to decrease. Answer: D Section: 01.05 Topic: Examples of homeostatic mechanisms Bloom's: Level 3. Apply HAPS Topic: Module B03 Examples of homeostatic mechanisms.; Module B04 Application of homeostatic mechanisms HAPS Outcome: B04.01 Provide specific examples to demonstrate how organ systems respond to maintain homeostasis.; B03.02 Provide an example of a negative feedback loop that utilizes the endocrine system to relay information. Describe the specific cells or molecules (production cells, hormones, target cells) included in the feedback loop.
13) What term is used to describe the steady-state value for any variable that the body attempts to maintain? A) Set point B) Equilibrium potential C) Error signal D) Reflex arc E) Median value Answer: A Section: 01.05 Topic: Examples of homeostatic mechanisms Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module B02 General types of homeostatic mechanisms. HAPS Outcome: B02.01 List the components of a feedback loop and explain the function of each. 14) Which of components of a general reflex arc are listed in the order information typically flows through them following a stimulus? A) Effector, afferent pathway, integrating center, efferent pathway, receptor B) Effector, efferent pathway, integrating center, afferent pathway, receptor C) Integrating center, receptor, afferent pathway, efferent pathway, effector D) Receptor, efferent pathway, integrating center, afferent pathway, effector E) Receptor, afferent pathway, integrating center, efferent pathway, effector Answer: E Section: 01.06 Topic: Examples of homeostatic mechanisms Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module B02 General types of homeostatic mechanisms. HAPS Outcome: B02.01 List the components of a feedback loop and explain the function of each. 15) Feedforward regulatory processes A) work in anticipation of changes in regulated variables. B) are identical to positive feedback processes. C) lead to instability of the regulated variable. D) maximize fluctuations in the regulated variable. E) tend to force physiological variables away from their set point. Answer: A Section: 01.05 Topic: Examples of homeostatic mechanisms Bloom's: Level 2. Understand HAPS Topic: Module B04 Application of homeostatic mechanisms HAPS Outcome: B04.01 Provide specific examples to demonstrate how organ systems respond to maintain homeostasis.
16) Which situation describes a feedforward mechanism? A) Blood glucose returns toward normal an hour after a meal. B) The smell of rotten food on a plate triggers the vomit reflex. C) A drop in core body temperature triggers shivering. D) An increase in core body temperature stimulates sweating. E) Food in the stomach triggers the production of stomach acid. Answer: B Section: 01.05 Topic: Examples of homeostatic mechanisms Bloom's: Level 3. Apply HAPS Topic: Module B04 Application of homeostatic mechanisms HAPS Outcome: B04.01 Provide specific examples to demonstrate how organ systems respond to maintain homeostasis. 17) What is the general purpose of positive feedback mechanisms? A) To maintain a constant internal environment B) To anticipate changes in the environment C) To return a variable toward the set point D) To bring about a rapid change in the body E) To detect changes in the external environment Answer: D Section: 01.05 Topic: Examples of homeostatic mechanisms Bloom's: Level 2. Understand HAPS Topic: Module B02 General types of homeostatic mechanisms. HAPS Outcome: B02.02 Compare and contrast positive and negative feedback in terms of the relationship between stimulus and response.
18) Shivering in response to a cold draft is an example of A) a homeostatic mechanism. B) positive feedback. C) feedforward regulation. D) acclimation. E) Two of the choices are correct. Answer: E Section: 01.05 Topic: Examples of homeostatic mechanisms Bloom's: Level 2. Understand HAPS Topic: Module B03 Examples of homeostatic mechanisms.; Module B04 Application of homeostatic mechanisms HAPS Outcome: B03.01 Provide an example of a negative feedback loop that utilizes the nervous system to relay information. Describe the specific organs, structures, cells or molecules (receptors, neurons, CNS structures, effectors, neurotransmitters) included in the feedback loop.; B04.01 Provide specific examples to demonstrate how organ systems respond to maintain homeostasis. 19) If the amount of sodium in the blood decreases, what would a negative feedback control mechanism be expected to do? A) Decrease the amount of sodium in the blood B) Increase the amount of sodium in the blood C) Leave the amount of sodium unchanged D) Change the set point for sodium E) Inhibit the ingestion of more sodium Answer: B Section: 01.05 Topic: Examples of homeostatic mechanisms Bloom's: Level 3. Apply HAPS Topic: Module B03 Examples of homeostatic mechanisms.; Module B04 Application of homeostatic mechanisms HAPS Outcome: B03.01 Provide an example of a negative feedback loop that utilizes the nervous system to relay information. Describe the specific organs, structures, cells or molecules (receptors, neurons, CNS structures, effectors, neurotransmitters) included in the feedback loop.; B04.01 Provide specific examples to demonstrate how organ systems respond to maintain homeostasis.
20) What is the best description of the efferent pathway of a reflex arc? A) Signals from the integrating center to receptors B) The route by which receptors send signals to effectors C) Signaling pathway for receptors to influence the integrating center D) The route by which effector organs send signals to receptors E) The route by which signals from an integrating center reach effector organs Answer: E Section: 01.06 Topic: Examples of homeostatic mechanisms Bloom's: Level 2. Understand HAPS Topic: Module B02 General types of homeostatic mechanisms.; Module B03 Examples of homeostatic mechanisms. HAPS Outcome: B02.01 List the components of a feedback loop and explain the function of each.; B03.01 Provide an example of a negative feedback loop that utilizes the nervous system to relay information. Describe the specific organs, structures, cells or molecules (receptors, neurons, CNS structures, effectors, neurotransmitters) included in the feedback loop. 21) Which one of the following is the correct sequence for a regulatory reflex arc? A) Stimulus, effector, efferent pathway, integrating center, afferent pathway, receptor B) Stimulus, receptor, efferent pathway, integrating center, afferent pathway, effector C) Stimulus, receptor, afferent pathway, integrating center, efferent pathway, effector D) Stimulus, effector, afferent pathway, integrating center, efferent pathway, receptor E) Effector, efferent pathway, integrating center, afferent pathway, receptor, stimulus Answer: C Section: 01.06 Topic: Examples of homeostatic mechanisms Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module B02 General types of homeostatic mechanisms.; Module B03 Examples of homeostatic mechanisms. HAPS Outcome: B02.01 List the components of a feedback loop and explain the function of each.; B03.01 Provide an example of a negative feedback loop that utilizes the nervous system to relay information. Describe the specific organs, structures, cells or molecules (receptors, neurons, CNS structures, effectors, neurotransmitters) included in the feedback loop.
22) Identify the effectors in this homeostatic reflex: Eating a salt-rich meal increases blood volume and pressure, stretching blood vessel walls. Nerve signals sent to the brainstem stimulate changes in hormonal and neural signaling. The heart rate is slowed, blood vessel walls are relaxed, and the kidneys increase urinary salt. The blood pressure returns toward normal. A) Brainstem and blood vessels B) Blood vessels, hormones, and nerves C) Heart, blood vessels, and kidneys D) Brainstem, blood vessels, and kidneys E) Hormones and nerves Answer: C Section: 01.06 Topic: Examples of homeostatic mechanisms Bloom's: Level 3. Apply HAPS Topic: Module B02 General types of homeostatic mechanisms.; Module B03 Examples of homeostatic mechanisms.; Module B05 Predictions related to homeostatic imbalance, including disease states and disorders.; Module B04 Application of homeostatic mechanisms HAPS Outcome: B02.01 List the components of a feedback loop and explain the function of each.; B03.01 Provide an example of a negative feedback loop that utilizes the nervous system to relay information. Describe the specific organs, structures, cells or molecules (receptors, neurons, CNS structures, effectors, neurotransmitters) included in the feedback loop.; B04.01 Provide specific examples to demonstrate how organ systems respond to maintain homeostasis.; B05.01 Predict factors or situations affecting various organ systems that could disrupt homeostasis.
23) The hormone insulin enhances the transport of glucose into body cells. Its secretion is controlled by a negative feedback system between the concentration of glucose in the blood and the cells that secrete insulin. Which of the following statements is most likely to be correct? A) A decrease in blood glucose concentration will stimulate insulin secretion, which will in turn lower the blood glucose concentration still further. B) An increase in blood glucose concentration will stimulate insulin secretion, which will in turn lower the blood glucose concentration. C) A decrease in blood glucose concentration will stimulate insulin secretion, which will in turn increase the blood glucose concentration. D) An increase in blood glucose concentration will stimulate insulin secretion, which will in turn increase the blood glucose concentration still further. Answer: B Section: 01.05 Topic: Examples of homeostatic mechanisms Bloom's: Level 3. Apply HAPS Topic: Module B03 Examples of homeostatic mechanisms.; Module B04 Application of homeostatic mechanisms HAPS Outcome: B04.01 Provide specific examples to demonstrate how organ systems respond to maintain homeostasis.; B03.02 Provide an example of a negative feedback loop that utilizes the endocrine system to relay information. Describe the specific cells or molecules (production cells, hormones, target cells) included in the feedback loop. 24) How are endocrine glands and hormones involved in homeostatic reflexes? A) Endocrine glands can be receptors, and hormones can be effectors. B) Endocrine glands can be integrating centers, and hormones can be efferent pathways. C) Endocrine glands can be efferent pathways, and hormones can be effectors. D) Endocrine glands are not part of reflex mechanisms, but hormones can be afferent or efferent pathways. E) They are not involved; reflexes only involve actions of the nervous system. Answer: B Section: 01.06; 01.07 Topic: Examples of homeostatic mechanisms Bloom's: Level 2. Understand HAPS Topic: Module B03 Examples of homeostatic mechanisms. HAPS Outcome: B03.02 Provide an example of a negative feedback loop that utilizes the endocrine system to relay information. Describe the specific cells or molecules (production cells, hormones, target cells) included in the feedback loop.
25) What is a hormone? A) A chemical released from a nerve cell that affects nearby cells across a synapse B) A chemical released from an endocrine gland that affects target cells without entering the bloodstream C) A chemical found in the blood that catalyzes the destruction of ingested toxins and foreign substances D) A chemical found in the sweat that signals other individuals about the physiological status of the body E) A chemical regulator secreted from an endocrine gland that travels through the bloodstream to affect target cells Answer: E Section: 01.07 Topic: Examples of homeostatic mechanisms Bloom's: Level 2. Understand HAPS Topic: Module J01 General functions of the endocrine system. HAPS Outcome: J01.02 Define the terms hormone, endocrine gland, endocrine tissue (organ), and target cell. 26) Some neurons in the vagus nerve have synaptic connections to sinoatrial cells (pacemaker) in the heart. These neurons secrete acetylcholine, which ultimately results in a decreased heart rate. This is an example of A) endocrine control. B) exocrine control. C) hormonal control. D) neural control. E) paracrine control. Answer: D Section: 01.07 Topic: Examples of homeostatic mechanisms Bloom's: Level 2. Understand HAPS Topic: Module B03 Examples of homeostatic mechanisms. HAPS Outcome: B03.01 Provide an example of a negative feedback loop that utilizes the nervous system to relay information. Describe the specific organs, structures, cells or molecules (receptors, neurons, CNS structures, effectors, neurotransmitters) included in the feedback loop.
27) Heart rate is increased by the release of epinephrine by the adrenal medulla into the bloodstream. This is an example of A) endocrine control. B) exocrine control. C) paracrine control. D) direct neural control. E) positive feedback. Answer: A Section: 01.07 Topic: Examples of homeostatic mechanisms Bloom's: Level 2. Understand HAPS Topic: Module B03 Examples of homeostatic mechanisms. HAPS Outcome: B03.02 Provide an example of a negative feedback loop that utilizes the endocrine system to relay information. Describe the specific cells or molecules (production cells, hormones, target cells) included in the feedback loop. 28) How is autocrine regulation best described? A) Chemical regulators are released directly into blood vessels. B) Chemical regulators released by cells affect the functional status of different kinds of cells in the vicinity of the secretory cell. C) Chemical regulators affect the same cells that produce them. D) Chemical regulators reach their site of action through a duct. E) Chemical regulators are continuously released in constant amounts by the cell. Answer: C Section: 01.07 Topic: Examples of homeostatic mechanisms Bloom's: Level 2. Understand HAPS Topic: Module J06 Local hormones (paracrines and autocrines) and growth factors. HAPS Outcome: J06.01 Define the terms paracrine and autocrine.
29) The tall slender body shape that helps to dissipate heat in people native to equatorial regions is an example of A) an adaptation. B) acclimatization. C) set point resetting. D) homeostasis. E) phase shift. Answer: A Section: 01.08 Topic: Human origins and adaptations Bloom's: Level 3. Apply HAPS Topic: Module B03 Examples of homeostatic mechanisms. HAPS Outcome: B03.01 Provide an example of a negative feedback loop that utilizes the nervous system to relay information. Describe the specific organs, structures, cells or molecules (receptors, neurons, CNS structures, effectors, neurotransmitters) included in the feedback loop. 30) After spending several days at a high altitude, where oxygen pressure is low, a person will begin to produce more red blood cells, which enhances the ability of blood to carry oxygen to the tissues. What term best describes this type of response? A) Developmental acclimatization B) Positive feedback C) Physiological acclimatization D) Feedforward regulation E) Evolution Answer: C Section: 01.08 Topic: Types of homeostatic mechanisms Bloom's: Level 3. Apply HAPS Topic: Module B03 Examples of homeostatic mechanisms.; Module B04 Application of homeostatic mechanisms HAPS Outcome: B03.01 Provide an example of a negative feedback loop that utilizes the nervous system to relay information. Describe the specific organs, structures, cells or molecules (receptors, neurons, CNS structures, effectors, neurotransmitters) included in the feedback loop.; B04.01 Provide specific examples to demonstrate how organ systems respond to maintain homeostasis.
31) Circadian rhythms are biological rhythms with what main characteristic? A) They are cyclical, like the 28-day female menstrual cycle. B) They are cyclical, like the rhythmic beating of the heart. C) They are voluntary rhythms, like the time you decide to eat lunch each day. D) They cease to occur when a person is in a dark environment. E) They repeat approximately every 24 hours, like daily spikes in hormone secretion. Answer: E Section: 01.08 Topic: Types of homeostatic mechanisms Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module B03 Examples of homeostatic mechanisms.; Module B04 Application of homeostatic mechanisms HAPS Outcome: B03.01 Provide an example of a negative feedback loop that utilizes the nervous system to relay information. Describe the specific organs, structures, cells or molecules (receptors, neurons, CNS structures, effectors, neurotransmitters) included in the feedback loop.; B04.01 Provide specific examples to demonstrate how organ systems respond to maintain homeostasis.; B03.02 Provide an example of a negative feedback loop that utilizes the endocrine system to relay information. Describe the specific cells or molecules (production cells, hormones, target cells) included in the feedback loop. 32) What is the location of the internal pacemaker that sets biological rhythms? A) Suprachiasmatic nucleus of the brain B) Ventricles of the heart C) Endocrine gland in the gonads D) Photoreceptors of the eye E) The adrenal glands Answer: A Section: 01.08 Topic: Types of homeostatic mechanisms Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module B03 Examples of homeostatic mechanisms.; Module B04 Application of homeostatic mechanisms HAPS Outcome: B03.01 Provide an example of a negative feedback loop that utilizes the nervous system to relay information. Describe the specific organs, structures, cells or molecules (receptors, neurons, CNS structures, effectors, neurotransmitters) included in the feedback loop.; B04.01 Provide specific examples to demonstrate how organ systems respond to maintain homeostasis.; B03.02 Provide an example of a negative feedback loop that utilizes the endocrine system to relay information. Describe the specific cells or molecules (production cells, hormones, target cells) included in the feedback loop.
33) A protein is found in blood that is produced by the pancreas and acts on receptors of cells in the liver. What type of physiological regulator is it most likely to be? A) A hormone B) An autocrine signal C) A paracrine signal D) A neurotransmitter E) An enzyme Answer: A Section: 01.07 Topic: Types of homeostatic mechanisms Bloom's: Level 3. Apply HAPS Topic: Module J01 General functions of the endocrine system. HAPS Outcome: J01.02 Define the terms hormone, endocrine gland, endocrine tissue (organ), and target cell. 34) Which best describes how the total body balance of any chemical substance is determined? A) The rate the body produces the substance B) The rate the substance is secreted from the body C) The rate the substance is metabolized by the body D) The difference between the amount of substance lost from the body and the amount gained the body E) The amount produced by the body minus the amount metabolized by the body Answer: D Section: 01.08 Topic: Types of homeostatic mechanisms Bloom's: Level 2. Understand HAPS Topic: Module B05 Predictions related to homeostatic imbalance, including disease states and disorders. HAPS Outcome: B05.01 Predict factors or situations affecting various organ systems that could disrupt homeostasis.
35) A burn patient ingests 100 grams of protein per day and loses 110 grams of protein per day due to the injury. What is the overall protein state of the patient? A) Positive protein balance B) Negative protein balance C) Stable protein balance D) A state that can't be determined Answer: B Section: 01.08 Topic: Types of homeostatic mechanisms Bloom's: Level 3. Apply HAPS Topic: Module B05 Predictions related to homeostatic imbalance, including disease states and disorders.; Module 06 Application of homeostatic mechanisms; Module 07 Predictions related to homeostatic imbalance, including disease states & disorders HAPS Outcome: O07.01 Predict factors or situations affecting metabolism that could disrupt homeostasis.; B05.01 Predict factors or situations affecting various organ systems that could disrupt homeostasis. 36) Eating a bag of salty potato chips without increasing sodium excretion would result in what state? A) Positive sodium balance B) Negative sodium balance C) Stable sodium balance D) It can't be determined without knowing the size of the sodium pool Answer: A Section: 01.08 Topic: Types of homeostatic mechanisms Bloom's: Level 3. Apply HAPS Topic: Module B05 Predictions related to homeostatic imbalance, including disease states and disorders.; Module O07 Predictions related to homeostatic imbalance, including disease states & disorders HAPS Outcome: O07.01 Predict factors or situations affecting metabolism that could disrupt homeostasis.; B05.01 Predict factors or situations affecting various organ systems that could disrupt homeostasis.
37) An experimental subject is isolated in an underground room with no windows, no clocks, and no contact with the outside world. Researchers monitoring his behavior observe that he eats breakfast a little bit later each day. What term best describes the subject's biological activity? A) Circadian rhythm B) Free-running rhythm C) Jet lag D) Phase shift E) Entrainment Answer: B Section: 01.08 Topic: Types of homeostatic mechanisms Bloom's: Level 2. Understand HAPS Topic: Module B03 Examples of homeostatic mechanisms.; Module B04 Application of homeostatic mechanisms HAPS Outcome: B03.01 Provide an example of a negative feedback loop that utilizes the nervous system to relay information. Describe the specific organs, structures, cells or molecules (receptors, neurons, CNS structures, effectors, neurotransmitters) included in the feedback loop.; B04.01 Provide specific examples to demonstrate how organ systems respond to maintain homeostasis.; B03.02 Provide an example of a negative feedback loop that utilizes the endocrine system to relay information. Describe the specific cells or molecules (production cells, hormones, target cells) included in the feedback loop. 38) Which equation is most accurate? A) Extracellular fluid volume + interstitial fluid volume = whole body fluid volume B) Intracellular fluid volume + interstitial fluid volume = extracellular fluid volume C) Extracellular fluid volume - interstitial fluid volume = plasma volume D) Plasma volume + intracellular fluid volume = extracellular fluid volume E) Total body fluid volume - intracellular fluid volume = interstitial fluid volume Answer: C Section: 01.03 Topic: Examples of homeostatic mechanisms Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module Q02 Description of the major fluid compartments. HAPS Outcome: Q02.01 Describe the fluid compartments (including the subdivisions of the extracellular fluid) and state the relative volumes of each.
39) The internal environment of the body refers to A) the plasma. B) the interstitial fluid. C) the intracellular fluid. D) the interstitial fluid and the intracellular fluid combined. E) the plasma, the interstitial fluid, and the intracellular fluid combined. Answer: E Section: 01.03 Topic: Survey of body systems Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module Q02 Description of the major fluid compartments. HAPS Outcome: Q02.01 Describe the fluid compartments (including the subdivisions of the extracellular fluid) and state the relative volumes of each. 40) The interstitial fluid refers to A) the fluid within the cells. B) the plasma. C) the fluid between the cells. D) the plasma and fluid between the cells. E) the fluid between the cells and the fluid within the cells. Answer: C Section: 01.03 Topic: Survey of body systems Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module Q02 Description of the major fluid compartments. HAPS Outcome: Q02.01 Describe the fluid compartments (including the subdivisions of the extracellular fluid) and state the relative volumes of each. 41) Neglecting protein differences, which of the following fluids has a virtually identical solute concentration? A) The interstitial fluid and the intracellular fluid B) The interstitial fluid and the plasma C) The extracellular fluid and the plasma D) The interstitial fluid, the extracellular fluid, and the plasma E) None of these choices Answer: C Section: 01.03 Topic: Survey of body systems Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module Q02 Description of the major fluid compartments. HAPS Outcome: Q02.01 Describe the fluid compartments (including the subdivisions of the extracellular fluid) and state the relative volumes of each.
42) When a blood vessel is injured, it releases chemicals that activate platelets and cause them to stick to the injury site. The activated platelets in turn release more chemicals and attract more platelets to the injury site until the wound is fully sealed. This process of blood clotting is an example of A) negative feedback. B) positive feedback. C) feedforward regulation. D) adaptation. E) acclimatization. Answer: B Section: 01.05 Topic: Types of homeostatic mechanisms Bloom's: Level 2. Understand HAPS Topic: Module B03 Examples of homeostatic mechanisms.; Module B04 Application of homeostatic mechanisms HAPS Outcome: B03.03 Provide an example of a positive feedback loop in the body. Describe the specific structures (organs, cells or molecules) included in the feedback loop.; B04.01 Provide specific examples to demonstrate how organ systems respond to maintain homeostasis. 43) During childbirth, as a baby's head is pressed against the mother's cervix, signals are relayed via nerves from cervix to the mother's brain. The brain initiates the secretion of oxytocin (a hormone) from the mother's pituitary gland. Oxytocin stimulates further uterine contractions. As the uterus contracts even harder in response to oxytocin, the baby's head is pushed harder against the cervix; this stimulates yet more nerve signals to the mother's brain, resulting in yet more oxytocin secretion until finally the baby is pushed through the cervix. This process of childbirth is an example of A) negative feedback. B) positive feedback. C) feedforward regulation. D) adaptation. E) acclimatization. Answer: B Section: 01.05 Topic: Types of homeostatic mechanisms Bloom's: Level 3. Apply HAPS Topic: Module B03 Examples of homeostatic mechanisms.; Module B04 Application of homeostatic mechanisms HAPS Outcome: B03.01 Provide an example of a negative feedback loop that utilizes the nervous system to relay information. Describe the specific organs, structures, cells or molecules (receptors, neurons, CNS structures, effectors, neurotransmitters) included in the feedback loop.; B04.01 Provide specific examples to demonstrate how organ systems respond to maintain homeostasis.; B03.02 Provide an example of a negative feedback loop that utilizes the endocrine system to relay information. Describe the specific cells or molecules (production cells, hormones, target cells) included in the feedback loop.
44) During childbirth, as a baby's head is pressed against the mother's cervix, signals are relayed via nerves from cervix to the mother's brain. The brain initiates the secretion of oxytocin (a hormone) from the mother's pituitary gland. Oxytocin stimulates further uterine contractions. As the uterus contracts even harder in response to oxytocin, the baby's head is pushed harder against the cervix; this stimulates yet more nerve signals to the mother's brain, resulting in yet more oxytocin secretion until finally the baby is pushed through the cervix. The integrating center in this process of childbirth is A) the mother's brain. B) the mother's cervix. C) the nerve signals to the mother's brain. D) oxytocin. E) the mother's pituitary gland. Answer: A Section: 01.05 Topic: Types of homeostatic mechanisms Bloom's: Level 3. Apply HAPS Topic: Module B03 Examples of homeostatic mechanisms.; Module B04 Application of homeostatic mechanisms HAPS Outcome: B03.01 Provide an example of a negative feedback loop that utilizes the nervous system to relay information. Describe the specific organs, structures, cells or molecules (receptors, neurons, CNS structures, effectors, neurotransmitters) included in the feedback loop.; B04.01 Provide specific examples to demonstrate how organ systems respond to maintain homeostasis.; B03.02 Provide an example of a negative feedback loop that utilizes the endocrine system to relay information. Describe the specific cells or molecules (production cells, hormones, target cells) included in the feedback loop.
45) During childbirth, as a baby's head is pressed against the mother's cervix, signals are relayed via nerves from cervix to the mother's brain. The brain initiates the secretion of oxytocin (a hormone) from the mother's pituitary gland. Oxytocin stimulates further uterine contractions. As the uterus contracts even harder in response to oxytocin, the baby's head is pushed harder against the cervix; this stimulates yet more nerve signals to the mother's brain, resulting in yet more oxytocin secretion until finally the baby is pushed through the cervix. The effector in this process of childbirth is A) the mother's brain. B) the mother's cervix. C) the nerve signals to the mother's brain. D) oxytocin. E) the mother's pituitary gland. Answer: E Section: 01.05 Topic: Types of homeostatic mechanisms Bloom's: Level 3. Apply HAPS Topic: Module B03 Examples of homeostatic mechanisms.; Module B04 Application of homeostatic mechanisms HAPS Outcome: B03.01 Provide an example of a negative feedback loop that utilizes the nervous system to relay information. Describe the specific organs, structures, cells or molecules (receptors, neurons, CNS structures, effectors, neurotransmitters) included in the feedback loop.; B04.01 Provide specific examples to demonstrate how organ systems respond to maintain homeostasis.; B03.02 Provide an example of a negative feedback loop that utilizes the endocrine system to relay information. Describe the specific cells or molecules (production cells, hormones, target cells) included in the feedback loop.
46) During breastfeeding, as the baby suckles, nerve signals are relayed from the mother's nipple to the mother's brain. The brain initiates the mother's pituitary gland to produce more prolactin (a hormone), which causes more milk to be ejected. This process of breastfeeding is an example of A) negative feedback. B) positive feedback. C) feedforward regulation. D) adaptation. E) acclimatization. Answer: B Section: 01.05 Topic: Types of homeostatic mechanisms Bloom's: Level 3. Apply HAPS Topic: Module B03 Examples of homeostatic mechanisms.; Module B04 Application of homeostatic mechanisms HAPS Outcome: B03.01 Provide an example of a negative feedback loop that utilizes the nervous system to relay information. Describe the specific organs, structures, cells or molecules (receptors, neurons, CNS structures, effectors, neurotransmitters) included in the feedback loop.; B04.01 Provide specific examples to demonstrate how organ systems respond to maintain homeostasis.; B03.02 Provide an example of a negative feedback loop that utilizes the endocrine system to relay information. Describe the specific cells or molecules (production cells, hormones, target cells) included in the feedback loop. 47) Some adults have the ability to digest lactose in milk. This is an example of A) negative feedback. B) positive feedback. C) feedforward regulation. D) adaptation. E) None of the choices are correct. Answer: D Section: 01.08 Topic: Examples of homeostatic mechanisms Bloom's: Level 3. Apply HAPS Topic: Module B03 Examples of homeostatic mechanisms.; Module B04 Application of homeostatic mechanisms HAPS Outcome: B03.01 Provide an example of a negative feedback loop that utilizes the nervous system to relay information. Describe the specific organs, structures, cells or molecules (receptors, neurons, CNS structures, effectors, neurotransmitters) included in the feedback loop.; B04.01 Provide specific examples to demonstrate how organ systems respond to maintain homeostasis.; B03.02 Provide an example of a negative feedback loop that utilizes the endocrine system to relay information. Describe the specific cells or molecules (production cells, hormones, target cells) included in the feedback loop.
48) As soon as a person sees a cup of lemon juice, they start to salivate. This is an example of A) negative feedback. B) positive feedback. C) feedforward regulation. D) adaptation. E) None of the choices are correct. Answer: C Section: 01.05 Topic: Types of homeostatic mechanisms Bloom's: Level 3. Apply HAPS Topic: Module B04 Application of homeostatic mechanisms HAPS Outcome: B04.01 Provide specific examples to demonstrate how organ systems respond to maintain homeostasis. 49) Differentiation is necessary before a cell can exchange material with its environment. Answer: FALSE Section: 01.02 Topic: Levels of organization Bloom's: Level 2. Understand HAPS Topic: Module A06 Levels of organization. HAPS Outcome: A06.01 Describe, in order from simplest to most complex, the major levels of organization in the human organism. 50) The number of distinct cell types in the human body is about twenty. Answer: FALSE Section: 01.02 Topic: Levels of organization Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module A06 Levels of organization. HAPS Outcome: A06.01 Describe, in order from simplest to most complex, the major levels of organization in the human organism. 51) One function of epithelial cells is to form selective barriers regulating exchange of materials across them. Answer: TRUE Section: 01.02 Topic: Levels of organization Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module A06 Levels of organization. HAPS Outcome: A06.02 Give an example of each level of organization.
52) Organs are generally composed of only one kind of tissue. Answer: FALSE Section: 01.02 Topic: Levels of organization Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module A06 Levels of organization. HAPS Outcome: A06.01 Describe, in order from simplest to most complex, the major levels of organization in the human organism. 53) The respiratory system is primarily responsible for transporting blood to the body's tissues. Answer: FALSE Section: 01.02 Topic: Survey of body systems Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module A07 Survey of body systems. HAPS Outcome: A07.02 Describe the major functions of each organ system. 54) Homeostasis refers to the relative constancy of the external environment. Answer: FALSE Section: 01.04 Topic: Definition of homeostasis Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module B01 Definition. HAPS Outcome: B01.01 Define homeostasis. 55) The composition of the fluid bathing the cells of the body is the same as that within the cells. Answer: FALSE Section: 01.03 Topic: Survey of body systems Bloom's: Level 2. Understand HAPS Topic: Module Q03 Chemical composition of the major compartment fluids. HAPS Outcome: Q03.02 Compare and contrast the relative concentrations of major electrolytes in intracellular and extracellular fluids.
56) The extracellular fluid compartment includes the interstitial fluid and plasma. Answer: TRUE Section: 01.03 Topic: Survey of body systems Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module Q02 Description of the major fluid compartments. HAPS Outcome: Q02.01 Describe the fluid compartments (including the subdivisions of the extracellular fluid) and state the relative volumes of each. 57) Homeostatic control systems and acclimatization are examples of biological adaptations. Answer: TRUE Section: 01.08 Topic: Examples of homeostatic mechanisms Bloom's: Level 2. Understand HAPS Topic: Module B04 Application of homeostatic mechanisms HAPS Outcome: B04.01 Provide specific examples to demonstrate how organ systems respond to maintain homeostasis. 58) A person who is acclimated to a hot environment will begin to react physiologically to a decreased environmental temperature faster than a person who is not. Answer: FALSE Section: 01.08 Topic: Examples of homeostatic mechanisms Bloom's: Level 2. Understand HAPS Topic: Module B03 Examples of homeostatic mechanisms. HAPS Outcome: B04.01 Provide specific examples to demonstrate how organ systems respond to maintain homeostasis. 59) When loss of a substance from the body exceeds gain, the body is said to be in positive balance for that substance. Answer: FALSE Section: 01.08 Topic: Examples of homeostatic mechanisms Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module B05 Predictions related to homeostatic imbalance, including disease states and disorders.; Module O07 Predictions related to homeostatic imbalance, including disease states & disorders HAPS Outcome: O07.01 Predict factors or situations affecting metabolism that could disrupt homeostasis.; B05.01 Predict factors or situations affecting various organ systems that could disrupt homeostasis.
60) The negative feedback system is much more common than the positive feedback system. Answer: TRUE Section: 01.05 Topic: Types of homeostatic mechanisms Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module B02 General types of homeostatic mechanisms. HAPS Outcome: B02.02 Compare and contrast positive and negative feedback in terms of the relationship between stimulus and response. 61) is the general term for a chemical released by the endings of neurons onto other neurons, muscle cells, or gland cells. Answer: Neurotransmitter Section: 01.07 Topic: Survey of body systems Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module A07 Survey of body systems.; Module J01 General functions of the endocrine system. HAPS Outcome: J01.03 Compare and contrast how the nervous and endocrine systems control body function, with emphasis on the mechanisms by which the controlling signals are transferred through the body and the time course of the response(s) and action(s).; A07.02 Describe the major functions of each organ system. 62) is the general term for a chemical released by the endings of neurons into the bloodstream. Answer: Neurohormone Section: 01.07 Topic: Survey of body systems Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module A07 Survey of body systems. HAPS Outcome: J01.03 Compare and contrast how the nervous and endocrine systems control body function, with emphasis on the mechanisms by which the controlling signals are transferred through the body and the time course of the response(s) and action(s). 63) cells.
regulation describes regulation of cellular activity by messengers from nearby
Answer: Paracrine Section: 01.07 Topic: Examples of homeostatic mechanisms Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module J06 Local hormones (paracrines and autocrines) and growth factors. HAPS Outcome: J06.01 Define the terms paracrine and autocrine.
64) is the term describing regulation of cellular activity by chemical mediators produced by that same cell. Answer: Autocrine Section: 01.07 Topic: Examples of homeostatic mechanisms Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module J06 Local hormones (paracrines and autocrines) and growth factors. HAPS Outcome: J06.01 Define the terms paracrine and autocrine.
Vander's Human Physiology, 15e (Widmaier) Chapter 2 Chemical Composition of the Body and Its Relation to Physiology 1) Which correctly describes the structure of an atom? A) There are the same number of protons and neutrons. B) There are the same number of protons and electrons. C) There are the same number of neutrons and electrons. D) The number of protons, neutrons, and electrons never changes. E) There are never the same number of neutrons and protons. 2) Which of the following is unique to atoms of each element? A) The number of electrons B) The number of neutrons C) The number of protons D) The number of bonds it can form E) The ratio of protons to electrons 3) Carbon-12 and carbon-14 are isotopes. How are they different from each other? A) They have different numbers of protons. B) They have different numbers of neutrons. C) They have different numbers of electrons. D) They can form different numbers of chemical bonds. E) They have different number of energy shells 4) Which describes a covalent bond? A) The positive side of one molecule is attracted to the negative side of another B) A bond between water molecules C) A bond between two oppositely charged ions D) A bond between two free radicals E) Two atoms share electrons with each other from their outermost shell 5) Ions are . A) electrically neutral B) electrically charged C) formed by the gain or loss of protons from the nucleus D) not soluble in water E) nonpolar atoms 6) When magnesium loses electrons to become an ion, what does it become? A) A covalent molecule B) A cation C) An anion D) A new element E) A free radical
7) If a sports beverage advertises that it replaces the body's electrolytes, what does the drink contain? A) Sugars that were broken down for energy B) Ionic forms of mineral elements C) Lipids that form the membranes of cells D) Oxygen and gases used by metabolism E) Vitamins 8) Of these major ions found in the body, which one carries a negative charge? A) Chloride B) Sodium C) Potassium D) Hydrogen E) Calcium 9) Sodium ions have a single positive charge. Table salt is formed by the ionic bond between sodium ions and ions of chloride. Which of the following must be true of chloride? A) It is an anion. B) It is a cation. C) It is electrically neutral. D) It is non-polar. E) It is a free radical. 10) Which describes a characteristic of free radicals? A) They rapidly oxidize other atoms by removing an electron. B) They are inert molecules that don't interact readily with other molecules. C) They contain two electrons in the outermost orbital. D) They have extra neutrons in their nuclei. E) They are found in high quantities in most sports drinks. 11) Oxygen forms covalent bonds with two atoms of hydrogen to form H2O (water). How many electrons are found in oxygen's outer shell? A) 1 B) 2 C) 4 D) 6 E) 8 12) Muscle cell contraction is facilitated by a small electrical current. Which types of molecules are likely involved? A) Free radicals B) Isotopes C) Electrolytes D) Gasses E) Vitamins
13) Which of the following is not true of a polar chemical bond? A) It is covalent. B) It is ionized. C) It has opposite electrical charge at each end. D) It has no net electrical charge. 14) Which best describes a hydrolysis reaction? A) Molecules are broken down into smaller ones by breaking covalent bonds within water molecules and transferring hydrogen atoms and hydroxyl groups to the smaller ones. B) Electrically charged molecules separate into ions when they dissolve in water, and then hydrogen ions and hydroxyl groups covalently attach themselves to the oppositely charged ions. C) Large molecules are assembled from smaller ones by breaking water into hydrogen and hydroxyl ions. D) Dissolving a large molecule in water reduces it to its individual atoms. E) The breaking of hydrogen bonds between any two molecules. 15) Oil is spilled into the ocean. What do you expect will happen? A) Most of the oil will quickly disperse and mix in with water and form hydrogen bonds. B) Most of the oil molecules will clump and exclude water. C) Most of the oil will form bonds with the water molecules to form new covalently bonded structures. D) Water molecules will absorb the oil molecules and break them apart. E) The hydrogen and oxygen atoms within the oil will become water. 16) Molecules that have properties of both polar and nonpolar molecules are called A) hydrophobic. B) hydrophilic. C) amphipathic. D) unipolar. E) bipolar. 17) You're designing a new drug to treat allergies. You'd like for your therapy to be able to dissolve through the lipid bilayers of cell membranes; therefore, molecules will make excellent drug choices. A) polar B) ionic C) electrolyte D) non-polar E) radioactive 18) The pH of a solution A) is a measure of the concentration of hydrogen atoms in the solution. B) is a measure of the concentration of hydrogen ions bound to other molecules in the solution. C) is a measure of the concentration of free hydrogen ions in the solution. D) increases as the acidity of the solution increases. E) increases as the free hydrogen ion concentration in the solution increases.
19) Most of the body weight of an average human is what substance? A) Water B) Protein C) Minerals D) Lipids E) Carbohydrates 20) Which chemical group does glucose best fit into? A) Monosaccharides B) Disaccharides C) Polysaccharides D) Glycoproteins E) Phospholipids 21) Carbohydrates are stored in animal cells in the form of A) cellulose. B) starch. C) triacylglycerol. D) glycogen. E) protein. 22) Hydrolysis of glycogen will have what effect on blood glucose level? A) Increase blood glucose level B) Decrease blood glucose level C) No effect on blood glucose level 23) What are the two main atoms in lipids, and what type of bonds connect them? A) Carbon and oxygen, connected by polar covalent bonds. B) Carbon and hydrogen, connected by non-polar covalent bonds C) Carbon and hydrogen, connected by ionic bonds D) Carbon and hydrogen, connected by hydrogen bonds E) Oxygen and hydrogen, connected by hydrogen bonds 24) Which statement is FALSE with regard to proteins? A) Their roles in the body include acting as enzymes, providing structural support, and signaling between cells. B) They make up a greater percentage of body mass than carbohydrates do. C) They are composed of nucleic acids. D) They are macromolecules with subunits linked by polypeptide bonds. E) They are polymers made up of amino acids.
25) What best describes the main determinant of the secondary structure of a protein? A) The sequence of the various amino acids that make up a polypeptide chain B) The total number of amino acids that make up a polypeptide chain, and its overall resulting length C) The total number of polypeptide chains that combine to determine the overall size of the protein D) Molecular interactions between widely separated regions of a polypeptide, such as disulfide bonds, that stabilize the folded conformation E) Molecular interactions along a polypeptide chain that fold various regions into alpha helices or beta sheets 26) Within a single protein, which of the following are you likely to find? A) Ionic bonds B) Hydrogen bonds C) Disulfide bridges D) Hydrophobic interactions E) You are likely to find all of these within a single protein. 27) Which of the following is NOT a type of molecular interaction that determines the tertiary structure of a protein? A) Covalent bonds between purine and pyrimidine bases B) Ionic bonds C) Van der Waals forces D) Covalent bonds between two cysteine amino acids E) Hydrogen bonds 28) What is the term describing the covalent bond formed between two amino acids? A) Glycosidic bond B) Peptide bond C) Phosphodiester bond D) Ester bond E) Hydrolytic bond 29) A single genetic mutation will change a protein at what level of structure? A) Primary B) Secondary C) Tertiary D) Quaternary E) A single genetic mutation could change all of these
30) Which is a correct description of nucleic acids? A) They are polymers of subunits containing glucose and amino acids. B) They are polymers of subunits containing glucose, a phosphate group, and an amino acid. C) They are polymers of subunits containing a phosphate group, a sugar, and a purine or pyrimidine base. D) They are polymers of subunits containing a phosphate group, a sugar, and an amino acid. E) They are long polymers of amino acids, folded into an alpha helix. 31) The atomic number of an element is given by the number of electrons in the atom. 32) The atomic number of an element refers to the number of particles in its atomic nucleus. 33) Trace elements such as zinc and manganese are found in minute quantities in the body but do not serve any known function. 34) The number of covalent bonds that can be formed by a given atom depends upon the number of electrons present in the outermost orbit. 35) Nitrogen atoms can form a maximum of four covalent bonds with other atoms. 36) The shape of a molecule may change as atoms rotate about their covalent bonds. 37) All of the physiologically important atoms of the body readily form ions. 38) Water molecules can form covalent bonds with other water molecules. 39) The carboxyl ion is an anion. 40) NaCl is a molecule formed by the covalent bonding of a sodium atom to a chlorine atom. 41) All covalent bonds are polar. 42) During hydrolysis, hydrogen ions and hydroxyl groups are formed. 43) In general, polar molecules will dissolve in polar solvents, while nonpolar molecules cannot. 44) Solutes that do not dissolve in water are called hydrophilic. 45) Phospholipids are examples of amphipathic molecules. 46) Comparing two cups of coffee, one with no sugar added and the other has had a packet of sugar dissolved in it, we can say that the coffee with sugar is more concentrated. 47) A solution with a pH of 8 is more acidic than one with a pH of 3. 48) A solution with a pH of 8 contains more H+ ions than a solution with a pH of 3.
49) Fatty acids are examples of organic molecules. 50) When multiple repeating simple sugar molecules combine to form a larger molecule, it is called a polysaccharide. 51) The term "blood sugar level" refers to the concentration of disaccharides in the blood. 52) Saturated fats contain carbon atoms linked by double bonds. 53) Cholesterol is a phospholipid. 54) Glycoproteins are protein molecules with molecules of glycogen attached to the amino acid side chains. 55) A molecule composed of two atoms of the same element, such as fluorine (Fl2), can be formed by a polar covalent bond. 56) The majority of the molecules in the human body are polar. 57) The sequence of amino acids in a protein is known as the secondary structure. 58) A protein may consist of more than one polypeptide chain. 59) If a protein's conformation changes it is likely that its function will change as well. 60) Substitution of one amino acid for a different one in a given protein always significantly alters the conformation of that protein. 61) In DNA, thymine binds with adenine and cytosine binds with uracil. 62) Water is only lost from the body in urine formation. 63) Dehydration reactions among glucose monomers will produce polysaccharides such as glycogen. 64) Dehydration reactions between carboxyl groups and phosphate groups result in peptide bond formation. 65) A 1 molar solution of glucose and 1 molar solution of NaCl have the same number of glucose and NaCl molecules. 66) A person experiencing liver failure is likely to have lower levels of triglycerides in their body than a person with a healthy liver. 67) Simple macromolecules with fewer numbers of bonds yield more energy to fuel cell processes than large macromolecules.
68) Estrogen is a steroid hormone, therefore it will readily dissolve through a lipid bilayer. 69) Which of the following words can be used to describe water? A) Ion B) Polar C) Molecule D) Atom E) Lipophilic 70) Hydrogen bonds can break in high temperature conditions. Which of the following molecules is likely to break apart or change shape at high temperatures? A) DNA B) RNA C) Triglycerides D) Proteins E) Polysaccharides 71) Which of the following contain phosphate groups? A) Amino acids B) Monosaccharides C) Nucleotides D) Phospholipids E) Cholesterol 72) Dehydration reactions are involved in the production of A) polysaccharides B) monosaccharides C) triglycerides D) polypeptides E) nitrogenous Bases
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Vander's Human Physiology, 15e (Widmaier) Chapter 2 Chemical Composition of the Body and Its Relation to Physiology 1) Which correctly describes the structure of an atom? A) There are the same number of protons and neutrons. B) There are the same number of protons and electrons. C) There are the same number of neutrons and electrons. D) The number of protons, neutrons, and electrons never changes. E) There are never the same number of neutrons and protons. Answer: B Section: 02.01 Topic: Atoms and molecules Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module C01 Atoms and molecules. HAPS Outcome: C01.01a Describe the charge, mass, and relative location of electrons, protons and neutrons with respect to the structure of an atom. 2) Which of the following is unique to atoms of each element? A) The number of electrons B) The number of neutrons C) The number of protons D) The number of bonds it can form E) The ratio of protons to electrons Answer: C Section: 02.01 Topic: Atoms and molecules Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module C01 Atoms and molecules. HAPS Outcome: C01.01a Describe the charge, mass, and relative location of electrons, protons and neutrons with respect to the structure of an atom.
3) Carbon-12 and carbon-14 are isotopes. How are they different from each other? A) They have different numbers of protons. B) They have different numbers of neutrons. C) They have different numbers of electrons. D) They can form different numbers of chemical bonds. E) They have different number of energy shells Answer: B Section: 02.01 Topic: Atoms and molecules Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module C01 Atoms and molecules. HAPS Outcome: C01.01c Explain how ions and isotopes are produced by changing the relative number of specific subatomic particles with respect to the structure of an atom. 4) Which describes a covalent bond? A) The positive side of one molecule is attracted to the negative side of another B) A bond between water molecules C) A bond between two oppositely charged ions D) A bond between two free radicals E) Two atoms share electrons with each other from their outermost shell Answer: E Section: 02.02 Topic: Chemical bonding Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module C02 Chemical bonding. HAPS Outcome: C02.01b Explain the mechanism of each type of non-polar covalent, polar covalent, ionic, and hydrogen bonds. 5) Ions are . A) electrically neutral B) electrically charged C) formed by the gain or loss of protons from the nucleus D) not soluble in water E) nonpolar atoms Answer: B Section: 02.01 Topic: Atoms and molecules Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module C01 Atoms and molecules. HAPS Outcome: C01.01c Explain how ions and isotopes are produced by changing the relative number of specific subatomic particles with respect to the structure of an atom.; C01.02 Compare and contrast the terms ions, electrolytes, free radicals, isotopes and radioisotopes.
6) When magnesium loses electrons to become an ion, what does it become? A) A covalent molecule B) A cation C) An anion D) A new element E) A free radical Answer: B Section: 02.01 Topic: Atoms and molecules Bloom's: Level 2. Understand HAPS Topic: Module C01 Atoms and molecules. HAPS Outcome: C01.01c Explain how ions and isotopes are produced by changing the relative number of specific subatomic particles with respect to the structure of an atom. 7) If a sports beverage advertises that it replaces the body's electrolytes, what does the drink contain? A) Sugars that were broken down for energy B) Ionic forms of mineral elements C) Lipids that form the membranes of cells D) Oxygen and gases used by metabolism E) Vitamins Answer: B Section: 02.01 Topic: Atoms and molecules; Inorganic compounds and solutions Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module C01 Atoms and molecules.; Module C03 Inorganic compounds and solutions. HAPS Outcome: C01.02 Compare and contrast the terms ions, electrolytes, free radicals, isotopes and radioisotopes.; Q03.01 Define electrolyte. 8) Of these major ions found in the body, which one carries a negative charge? A) Chloride B) Sodium C) Potassium D) Hydrogen E) Calcium Answer: A Section: 02.01 Topic: Atoms and molecules; Inorganic compounds and solutions Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module C01 Atoms and molecules. HAPS Outcome: C01.01c Explain how ions and isotopes are produced by changing the relative number of specific subatomic particles with respect to the structure of an atom.
9) Sodium ions have a single positive charge. Table salt is formed by the ionic bond between sodium ions and ions of chloride. Which of the following must be true of chloride? A) It is an anion. B) It is a cation. C) It is electrically neutral. D) It is non-polar. E) It is a free radical. Answer: A Section: 02.01 Topic: Atoms and molecules; Chemical bonding Bloom's: Level 4. Analyze HAPS Topic: Module C01 Atoms and molecules.; Module C02 Chemical bonding. HAPS Outcome: C02.01b Explain the mechanism of each type of non-polar covalent, polar covalent, ionic, and hydrogen bonds.; C01.01a Describe the charge, mass, and relative location of electrons, protons and neutrons with respect to the structure of an atom. 10) Which describes a characteristic of free radicals? A) They rapidly oxidize other atoms by removing an electron. B) They are inert molecules that don't interact readily with other molecules. C) They contain two electrons in the outermost orbital. D) They have extra neutrons in their nuclei. E) They are found in high quantities in most sports drinks. Answer: A Section: 02.02 Topic: Atoms and molecules Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module C01 Atoms and molecules. HAPS Outcome: C01.02 Compare and contrast the terms ions, electrolytes, free radicals, isotopes and radioisotopes.
11) Oxygen forms covalent bonds with two atoms of hydrogen to form H2O (water). How many electrons are found in oxygen's outer shell? A) 1 B) 2 C) 4 D) 6 E) 8 Answer: D Section: 02.02 Topic: Chemical bonding Bloom's: Level 3. Apply HAPS Topic: Module C01 Atoms and molecules.; Module C02 Chemical bonding. HAPS Outcome: C02.01b Explain the mechanism of each type of non-polar covalent, polar covalent, ionic, and hydrogen bonds.; C01.01b Relate the number of electrons in an electron shell to an atoms chemical stability and its ability to form chemical bonds with respect to the structure of an atom. 12) Muscle cell contraction is facilitated by a small electrical current. Which types of molecules are likely involved? A) Free radicals B) Isotopes C) Electrolytes D) Gasses E) Vitamins Answer: C Section: 02.01 Topic: Inorganic compounds and solutions Bloom's: Level 3. Apply HAPS Topic: Module C01 Atoms and molecules. HAPS Outcome: C01.02 Compare and contrast the terms ions, electrolytes, free radicals, isotopes and radioisotopes.
13) Which of the following is not true of a polar chemical bond? A) It is covalent. B) It is ionized. C) It has opposite electrical charge at each end. D) It has no net electrical charge. Answer: B Section: 02.02 Topic: Chemical bonding Bloom's: Level 2. Understand HAPS Topic: Module C02 Chemical bonding. HAPS Outcome: C02.01b Explain the mechanism of each type of non-polar covalent, polar covalent, ionic, and hydrogen bonds. 14) Which best describes a hydrolysis reaction? A) Molecules are broken down into smaller ones by breaking covalent bonds within water molecules and transferring hydrogen atoms and hydroxyl groups to the smaller ones. B) Electrically charged molecules separate into ions when they dissolve in water, and then hydrogen ions and hydroxyl groups covalently attach themselves to the oppositely charged ions. C) Large molecules are assembled from smaller ones by breaking water into hydrogen and hydroxyl ions. D) Dissolving a large molecule in water reduces it to its individual atoms. E) The breaking of hydrogen bonds between any two molecules. Answer: A Section: 02.03 Topic: Chemical bonding Bloom's: Level 2. Understand HAPS Topic: Module C02 Chemical bonding.; Module C04 Organic compounds. HAPS Outcome: C04.03 Define and give examples of dehydration synthesis and hydrolysis reactions.
15) Oil is spilled into the ocean. What do you expect will happen? A) Most of the oil will quickly disperse and mix in with water and form hydrogen bonds. B) Most of the oil molecules will clump and exclude water. C) Most of the oil will form bonds with the water molecules to form new covalently bonded structures. D) Water molecules will absorb the oil molecules and break them apart. E) The hydrogen and oxygen atoms within the oil will become water. Answer: B Section: 02.03 Topic: Chemical bonding; Inorganic compounds and solutions Bloom's: Level 3. Apply HAPS Topic: Module C02 Chemical bonding.; Module C03 Inorganic compounds and solutions. HAPS Outcome: C02.01c Provide biologically significant examples of each type of non-polar covalent, polar covalent, ionic, and hydrogen bonds.; C03.01 Discuss the physiologically important properties of water. 16) Molecules that have properties of both polar and nonpolar molecules are called A) hydrophobic. B) hydrophilic. C) amphipathic. D) unipolar. E) bipolar. Answer: C Section: 02.03 Topic: Chemical bonding; Membrane structure and function Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module C02 Chemical bonding.; Module C07 Membrane structure and function. HAPS Outcome: C02.01c Provide biologically significant examples of each type of non-polar covalent, polar covalent, ionic, and hydrogen bonds.
17) You're designing a new drug to treat allergies. You'd like for your therapy to be able to dissolve through the lipid bilayers of cell membranes; therefore, molecules will make excellent drug choices. A) polar B) ionic C) electrolyte D) non-polar E) radioactive Answer: D Section: 02.03 Topic: Inorganic compounds and solutions; Mechanisms for movement across cell membranes Bloom's: Level 4. Analyze HAPS Topic: Module C03 Inorganic compounds and solutions.; Module C08 Mechanisms for movement of materials across cell membranes. HAPS Outcome: C08.03 Demonstrate various cell transport processes and, given appropriate information, predict the outcomes of these demonstrations.; C03.01 Discuss the physiologically important properties of water. 18) The pH of a solution A) is a measure of the concentration of hydrogen atoms in the solution. B) is a measure of the concentration of hydrogen ions bound to other molecules in the solution. C) is a measure of the concentration of free hydrogen ions in the solution. D) increases as the acidity of the solution increases. E) increases as the free hydrogen ion concentration in the solution increases. Answer: C Section: 02.03 Topic: Inorganic compounds and solutions Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module C03 Inorganic compounds and solutions. HAPS Outcome: C03.04 Define the terms pH, acid, base, and buffer and give examples of physiological significance.
19) Most of the body weight of an average human is what substance? A) Water B) Protein C) Minerals D) Lipids E) Carbohydrates Answer: A Section: 02.03 Topic: Inorganic compounds and solutions Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module Q02 Description of the major fluid compartments. HAPS Outcome: Q02.01 Describe the fluid compartments (including the subdivisions of the extracellular fluid) and state the relative volumes of each. 20) Which chemical group does glucose best fit into? A) Monosaccharides B) Disaccharides C) Polysaccharides D) Glycoproteins E) Phospholipids Answer: A Section: 02.04 Topic: Organic compounds Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module C04 Organic compounds. HAPS Outcome: C04.04c Provide specific examples of carbohydrates, proteins, lipids and nucleic acids. 21) Carbohydrates are stored in animal cells in the form of A) cellulose. B) starch. C) triacylglycerol. D) glycogen. E) protein. Answer: D Section: 02.04 Topic: Organic compounds Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module C04 Organic compounds. HAPS Outcome: C04.04c Provide specific examples of carbohydrates, proteins, lipids and nucleic acids.; C04.04e Discuss physiological and structural roles in the human body of carbohydrates, proteins, lipids and nucleic acids.
22) Hydrolysis of glycogen will have what effect on blood glucose level? A) Increase blood glucose level B) Decrease blood glucose level C) No effect on blood glucose level Answer: A Section: 02.04 Topic: Organic compounds Bloom's: Level 3. Apply HAPS Topic: Module C04 Organic compounds. HAPS Outcome: C04.03 Define and give examples of dehydration synthesis and hydrolysis reactions.; C04.04e Discuss physiological and structural roles in the human body of carbohydrates, proteins, lipids and nucleic acids. 23) What are the two main atoms in lipids, and what type of bonds connect them? A) Carbon and oxygen, connected by polar covalent bonds. B) Carbon and hydrogen, connected by non-polar covalent bonds C) Carbon and hydrogen, connected by ionic bonds D) Carbon and hydrogen, connected by hydrogen bonds E) Oxygen and hydrogen, connected by hydrogen bonds Answer: B Section: 02.04 Topic: Organic compounds Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module C04 Organic compounds. HAPS Outcome: C04.04b Compare and contrast general molecular structure of carbohydrates, proteins, lipids and nucleic acids. 24) Which statement is FALSE with regard to proteins? A) Their roles in the body include acting as enzymes, providing structural support, and signaling between cells. B) They make up a greater percentage of body mass than carbohydrates do. C) They are composed of nucleic acids. D) They are macromolecules with subunits linked by polypeptide bonds. E) They are polymers made up of amino acids. Answer: C Section: 02.04 Topic: Organic compounds Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module C04 Organic compounds. HAPS Outcome: C04.04b Compare and contrast general molecular structure of carbohydrates, proteins, lipids and nucleic acids.
25) What best describes the main determinant of the secondary structure of a protein? A) The sequence of the various amino acids that make up a polypeptide chain B) The total number of amino acids that make up a polypeptide chain, and its overall resulting length C) The total number of polypeptide chains that combine to determine the overall size of the protein D) Molecular interactions between widely separated regions of a polypeptide, such as disulfide bonds, that stabilize the folded conformation E) Molecular interactions along a polypeptide chain that fold various regions into alpha helices or beta sheets Answer: E Section: 02.04 Topic: Organic compounds Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module C04 Organic compounds. HAPS Outcome: C04.05 Describe the four levels of protein structure and discuss the importance of protein shape for protein function. 26) Within a single protein, which of the following are you likely to find? A) Ionic bonds B) Hydrogen bonds C) Disulfide bridges D) Hydrophobic interactions E) You are likely to find all of these within a single protein. Answer: E Section: 02.04 Topic: Organic compounds Bloom's: Level 2. Understand HAPS Topic: Module C04 Organic compounds. HAPS Outcome: C04.05 Describe the four levels of protein structure and discuss the importance of protein shape for protein function.
27) Which of the following is NOT a type of molecular interaction that determines the tertiary structure of a protein? A) Covalent bonds between purine and pyrimidine bases B) Ionic bonds C) Van der Waals forces D) Covalent bonds between two cysteine amino acids E) Hydrogen bonds Answer: A Section: 02.04 Topic: Organic compounds Bloom's: Level 2. Understand HAPS Topic: Module C04 Organic compounds. HAPS Outcome: C04.04b Compare and contrast general molecular structure of carbohydrates, proteins, lipids and nucleic acids.; C04.05 Describe the four levels of protein structure and discuss the importance of protein shape for protein function. 28) What is the term describing the covalent bond formed between two amino acids? A) Glycosidic bond B) Peptide bond C) Phosphodiester bond D) Ester bond E) Hydrolytic bond Answer: B Section: 02.04 Topic: Organic compounds Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module C04 Organic compounds. HAPS Outcome: C04.04b Compare and contrast general molecular structure of carbohydrates, proteins, lipids and nucleic acids. 29) A single genetic mutation will change a protein at what level of structure? A) Primary B) Secondary C) Tertiary D) Quaternary E) A single genetic mutation could change all of these Answer: E Section: 02.04 Topic: Organic compounds Bloom's: Level 3. Apply HAPS Topic: Module C04 Organic compounds. HAPS Outcome: C04.05 Describe the four levels of protein structure and discuss the importance of protein shape for protein function.
30) Which is a correct description of nucleic acids? A) They are polymers of subunits containing glucose and amino acids. B) They are polymers of subunits containing glucose, a phosphate group, and an amino acid. C) They are polymers of subunits containing a phosphate group, a sugar, and a purine or pyrimidine base. D) They are polymers of subunits containing a phosphate group, a sugar, and an amino acid. E) They are long polymers of amino acids, folded into an alpha helix. Answer: C Section: 02.04 Topic: Nucleic acids: DNA and RNA Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module C04 Organic compounds. HAPS Outcome: C04.04b Compare and contrast general molecular structure of carbohydrates, proteins, lipids and nucleic acids. 31) The atomic number of an element is given by the number of electrons in the atom. Answer: FALSE Section: 02.01 Topic: Atoms and molecules Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module C01 Atoms and molecules. HAPS Outcome: C01.01d Distinguish among the terms atomic number, mass number and atomic weight with respect to the structure of an atom. 32) The atomic number of an element refers to the number of particles in its atomic nucleus. Answer: FALSE Section: 02.01 Topic: Atoms and molecules Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module C01 Atoms and molecules. HAPS Outcome: C01.01a Describe the charge, mass, and relative location of electrons, protons and neutrons with respect to the structure of an atom.; C01.01d Distinguish among the terms atomic number, mass number and atomic weight with respect to the structure of an atom.
33) Trace elements such as zinc and manganese are found in minute quantities in the body but do not serve any known function. Answer: FALSE Section: 02.01 Topic: Inorganic compounds and solutions Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module O01 Nutrition. HAPS Outcome: List the important dietary minerals and describe the major uses of each mineral in the body. 34) The number of covalent bonds that can be formed by a given atom depends upon the number of electrons present in the outermost orbit. Answer: TRUE Section: 02.02 Topic: Chemical bonding Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module C02 Chemical bonding. HAPS Outcome: C01.01b Relate the number of electrons in an electron shell to an atoms chemical stability and its ability to form chemical bonds with respect to the structure of an atom. 35) Nitrogen atoms can form a maximum of four covalent bonds with other atoms. Answer: FALSE Section: 02.01; 02.02 Topic: Chemical bonding Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module C02 Chemical bonding. HAPS Outcome: C02.01b Explain the mechanism of each type of non-polar covalent, polar covalent, ionic, and hydrogen bonds. 36) The shape of a molecule may change as atoms rotate about their covalent bonds. Answer: TRUE Section: 02.02 Topic: Chemical bonding Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module C02 Chemical bonding. HAPS Outcome: C02.01b Explain the mechanism of each type of non-polar covalent, polar covalent, ionic, and hydrogen bonds.
37) All of the physiologically important atoms of the body readily form ions. Answer: FALSE Section: 02.01 Topic: Atoms and molecules Bloom's: Level 2. Understand HAPS Topic: Module C01 Atoms and molecules. HAPS Outcome: C02.01c Provide biologically significant examples of each type of non-polar covalent, polar covalent, ionic, and hydrogen bonds. 38) Water molecules can form covalent bonds with other water molecules. Answer: FALSE Section: 02.02 Topic: Chemical bonding Bloom's: Level 2. Understand HAPS Topic: Module C02 Chemical bonding. HAPS Outcome: C02.01c Provide biologically significant examples of each type of non-polar covalent, polar covalent, ionic, and hydrogen bonds.; C03.01 Discuss the physiologically important properties of water. 39) The carboxyl ion is an anion. Answer: TRUE Section: 02.02 Topic: Organic compounds Bloom's: Level 2. Understand HAPS Topic: Module C01 Atoms and molecules.; Module C04 Organic compounds. HAPS Outcome: C04.04b Compare and contrast general molecular structure of carbohydrates, proteins, lipids and nucleic acids.; C01.01c Explain how ions and isotopes are produced by changing the relative number of specific subatomic particles with respect to the structure of an atom. 40) NaCl is a molecule formed by the covalent bonding of a sodium atom to a chlorine atom. Answer: FALSE Section: 02.02 Topic: Chemical bonding Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module C02 Chemical bonding. HAPS Outcome: C02.01b Explain the mechanism of each type of non-polar covalent, polar covalent, ionic, and hydrogen bonds.
41) All covalent bonds are polar. Answer: FALSE Section: 02.02 Topic: Chemical bonding Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module C02 Chemical bonding. HAPS Outcome: C02.01b Explain the mechanism of each type of non-polar covalent, polar covalent, ionic, and hydrogen bonds. 42) During hydrolysis, hydrogen ions and hydroxyl groups are formed. Answer: TRUE Section: 02.03 Topic: Organic compounds Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module C04 Organic compounds. HAPS Outcome: C04.03 Define and give examples of dehydration synthesis and hydrolysis reactions. 43) In general, polar molecules will dissolve in polar solvents, while nonpolar molecules cannot. Answer: TRUE Section: 02.03 Topic: Chemical bonding Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module C02 Chemical bonding. HAPS Outcome: C03.01 Discuss the physiologically important properties of water. 44) Solutes that do not dissolve in water are called hydrophilic. Answer: FALSE Section: 02.03 Topic: Inorganic compounds and solutions Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module C03 Inorganic compounds and solutions. HAPS Outcome: C02.01c Provide biologically significant examples of each type of non-polar covalent, polar covalent, ionic, and hydrogen bonds.
45) Phospholipids are examples of amphipathic molecules. Answer: TRUE Section: 02.04 Topic: Organic compounds Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module C04 Organic compounds. HAPS Outcome: C04.04c Provide specific examples of carbohydrates, proteins, lipids and nucleic acids. 46) Comparing two cups of coffee, one with no sugar added and the other has had a packet of sugar dissolved in it, we can say that the coffee with sugar is more concentrated. Answer: TRUE Section: 02.03 Topic: Inorganic compounds and solutions Bloom's: Level 3. Apply HAPS Topic: Module C03 Inorganic compounds and solutions. HAPS Outcome: C03.02 Distinguish among the terms solution, solute, solvent, colloid suspension, and emulsion. 47) A solution with a pH of 8 is more acidic than one with a pH of 3. Answer: FALSE Section: 02.03 Topic: Inorganic compounds and solutions Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module C03 Inorganic compounds and solutions. HAPS Outcome: C03.05 State acidic, neutral, and alkaline pH values. 48) A solution with a pH of 8 contains more H+ ions than a solution with a pH of 3. Answer: FALSE Section: 02.03 Topic: Inorganic compounds and solutions Bloom's: Level 2. Understand HAPS Topic: Module C03 Inorganic compounds and solutions. HAPS Outcome: C03.05 State acidic, neutral, and alkaline pH values.
49) Fatty acids are examples of organic molecules. Answer: TRUE Section: 02.04 Topic: Organic compounds Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module C04 Organic compounds. HAPS Outcome: C04.04a Identify the monomers and polymers of carbohydrates, proteins, lipids and nucleic acids. 50) When multiple repeating simple sugar molecules combine to form a larger molecule, it is called a polysaccharide. Answer: TRUE Section: 02.04 Topic: Organic compounds Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module C04 Organic compounds. HAPS Outcome: C04.04b Compare and contrast general molecular structure of carbohydrates, proteins, lipids and nucleic acids. 51) The term "blood sugar level" refers to the concentration of disaccharides in the blood. Answer: FALSE Section: 02.04 Topic: Organic compounds Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module C04 Organic compounds. HAPS Outcome: C04.04e Discuss physiological and structural roles in the human body of carbohydrates, proteins, lipids and nucleic acids. 52) Saturated fats contain carbon atoms linked by double bonds. Answer: FALSE Section: 02.04 Topic: Organic compounds Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module C04 Organic compounds. HAPS Outcome: C04.04b Compare and contrast general molecular structure of carbohydrates, proteins, lipids and nucleic acids.; C04.04c Provide specific examples of carbohydrates, proteins, lipids and nucleic acids.
53) Cholesterol is a phospholipid. Answer: FALSE Section: 02.04 Topic: Organic compounds Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module C04 Organic compounds. HAPS Outcome: C04.04c Provide specific examples of carbohydrates, proteins, lipids and nucleic acids. 54) Glycoproteins are protein molecules with molecules of glycogen attached to the amino acid side chains. Answer: FALSE Section: 02.04 Topic: Organic compounds Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module C04 Organic compounds. HAPS Outcome: C04.04c Provide specific examples of carbohydrates, proteins, lipids and nucleic acids. 55) A molecule composed of two atoms of the same element, such as fluorine (Fl2), can be formed by a polar covalent bond. Answer: FALSE Section: 02.02 Topic: Chemical bonding Bloom's: Level 3. Apply HAPS Topic: Module C02 Chemical bonding. HAPS Outcome: C02.01b Explain the mechanism of each type of non-polar covalent, polar covalent, ionic, and hydrogen bonds. 56) The majority of the molecules in the human body are polar. Answer: TRUE Section: 02.03 Topic: Inorganic compounds and solutions Bloom's: Level 2. Understand HAPS Topic: Module C03 Inorganic compounds and solutions. HAPS Outcome: C02.01c Provide biologically significant examples of each type of non-polar covalent, polar covalent, ionic, and hydrogen bonds.; C03.01 Discuss the physiologically important properties of water.
57) The sequence of amino acids in a protein is known as the secondary structure. Answer: FALSE Section: 02.04 Topic: Organic compounds Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module C04 Organic compounds. HAPS Outcome: C04.05 Describe the four levels of protein structure and discuss the importance of protein shape for protein function. 58) A protein may consist of more than one polypeptide chain. Answer: TRUE Section: 02.04 Topic: Organic compounds Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module C04 Organic compounds. HAPS Outcome: C04.05 Describe the four levels of protein structure and discuss the importance of protein shape for protein function. 59) If a protein's conformation changes it is likely that its function will change as well. Answer: TRUE Section: 02.04 Topic: Organic compounds Bloom's: Level 2. Understand HAPS Topic: Module C04 Organic compounds. HAPS Outcome: C04.05 Describe the four levels of protein structure and discuss the importance of protein shape for protein function. 60) Substitution of one amino acid for a different one in a given protein always significantly alters the conformation of that protein. Answer: FALSE Section: 02.04 Topic: Organic compounds Bloom's: Level 2. Understand HAPS Topic: Module C04 Organic compounds. HAPS Outcome: C04.05 Describe the four levels of protein structure and discuss the importance of protein shape for protein function.
61) In DNA, thymine binds with adenine and cytosine binds with uracil. Answer: FALSE Section: 02.04 Topic: Nucleic acids: DNA and RNA Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module C04 Organic compounds. HAPS Outcome: C04.04c Provide specific examples of carbohydrates, proteins, lipids and nucleic acids.; C04.04a Identify the monomers and polymers of carbohydrates, proteins, lipids and nucleic acids. 62) Water is only lost from the body in urine formation. Answer: FALSE Section: 02.03 Topic: Inorganic compounds and solutions Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module C03 Inorganic compounds and solutions. HAPS Outcome: C03.01 Discuss the physiologically important properties of water. 63) Dehydration reactions among glucose monomers will produce polysaccharides such as glycogen. Answer: TRUE Section: 02.04 Topic: Organic compounds Bloom's: Level 3. Apply HAPS Topic: Module C04 Organic compounds. HAPS Outcome: C04.02 Explain the relationship between monomers and polymers.; C04.03 Define and give examples of dehydration synthesis and hydrolysis reactions. 64) Dehydration reactions between carboxyl groups and phosphate groups result in peptide bond formation. Answer: FALSE Section: 02.04 Topic: Organic compounds Bloom's: Level 2. Understand HAPS Topic: Module C04 Organic compounds. HAPS Outcome: C04.02 Explain the relationship between monomers and polymers.; C04.03 Define and give examples of dehydration synthesis and hydrolysis reactions.
65) A 1 molar solution of glucose and 1 molar solution of NaCl have the same number of glucose and NaCl molecules. Answer: TRUE Section: 02.03 Topic: Inorganic compounds and solutions Bloom's: Level 3. Apply HAPS Topic: Module C03 Inorganic compounds and solutions. HAPS Outcome: C03.02 Distinguish among the terms solution, solute, solvent, colloid suspension, and emulsion. 66) A person experiencing liver failure is likely to have lower levels of triglycerides in their body than a person with a healthy liver. Answer: TRUE Section: 02.04 Topic: Organic compounds Bloom's: Level 3. Apply HAPS Topic: Module C04 Organic compounds. HAPS Outcome: C04.04e Discuss physiological and structural roles in the human body of carbohydrates, proteins, lipids and nucleic acids. 67) Simple macromolecules with fewer numbers of bonds yield more energy to fuel cell processes than large macromolecules. Answer: FALSE Section: 02.04 Topic: Organic compounds Bloom's: Level 3. Apply HAPS Topic: Module C04 Organic compounds. HAPS Outcome: C04.04d Identify dietary sources of carbohydrates, proteins, lipids and nucleic acids.; C04.04e Discuss physiological and structural roles in the human body of carbohydrates, proteins, lipids and nucleic acids. 68) Estrogen is a steroid hormone, therefore it will readily dissolve through a lipid bilayer. Answer: TRUE Section: 02.04 Topic: Organic compounds Bloom's: Level 3. Apply HAPS Topic: Module C04 Organic compounds. HAPS Outcome: C04.04b Compare and contrast general molecular structure of carbohydrates, proteins, lipids and nucleic acids.
69) Which of the following words can be used to describe water? A) Ion B) Polar C) Molecule D) Atom E) Lipophilic Answer: B, C Section: 02.03 Topic: Inorganic compounds and solutions Bloom's: Level 2. Understand HAPS Topic: Module C03 Inorganic compounds and solutions. HAPS Outcome: C03.01 Discuss the physiologically important properties of water. 70) Hydrogen bonds can break in high temperature conditions. Which of the following molecules is likely to break apart or change shape at high temperatures? A) DNA B) RNA C) Triglycerides D) Proteins E) Polysaccharides Answer: A, D Section: 02.04 Topic: Chemical bonding; Organic compounds Bloom's: Level 3. Apply HAPS Topic: Module C02 Chemical bonding.; Module C04 Organic compounds. HAPS Outcome: C02.01c Provide biologically significant examples of each type of non-polar covalent, polar covalent, ionic, and hydrogen bonds.; C04.04b Compare and contrast general molecular structure of carbohydrates, proteins, lipids and nucleic acids. 71) Which of the following contain phosphate groups? A) Amino acids B) Monosaccharides C) Nucleotides D) Phospholipids E) Cholesterol Answer: C, D Section: 02.04 Topic: Organic compounds Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module C04 Organic compounds. HAPS Outcome: C04.04b Compare and contrast general molecular structure of carbohydrates, proteins, lipids and nucleic acids.
72) Dehydration reactions are involved in the production of A) polysaccharides B) monosaccharides C) triglycerides D) polypeptides E) nitrogenous Bases
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Answer: A, C, D, E Section: 02.04 Topic: Organic compounds Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module C04 Organic compounds. HAPS Outcome: C04.03 Define and give examples of dehydration synthesis and hydrolysis reactions.
Vander's Human Physiology, 15e (Widmaier) Chapter 3 Cellular Structure, Proteins, and Metabolic Pathways 1) You are performing an experiment in a research lab. In this experiment you take cells and remove all of their cell membranes, in order to collect all the internal contents into a tube. What is the most accurate term for the content of your tube? A) Cell organelles B) Nuclei C) Phospholipids D) Cytoplasm E) Intracellular fluid 2) Which is a major function of the plasma membrane? A) Storing calcium ions B) Storing organic chemicals for metabolism C) Providing genetic information D) Generating ATP E) Regulating the passage of molecules into and out of the cell 3) If you add a single cholesterol molecule into the plasma membrane, do you expect that, several hours later, it will be in the same place (i.e., adjacent to the same exact phospholipid molecules). A) Cholesterol will be excluded from the bilayer and will no longer be associated with phospholipids because they have different properties. B) Cholesterol will migrate away from phospholipids and toward proteins. C) Cholesterol will associate with adjacent phospholipid molecules and stay near them. D) All of the molecules will move freely in the lipid bilayer. 4) The cell membrane is composed mainly of A) cytosol. B) phospholipids and proteins. C) phospholipids and nucleic acids. D) water. E) proteins and glycocalyx. 5) You are learning about an integral membrane protein. This protein has a region that is exposed to the extracellular fluid, a region that spans the membrane, and another region that is exposed to the intracellular fluid. Which of the following is likely TRUE of this protein? A) It is a polar molecule. B) It is a nonpolar molecule. C) It is an amphipathic molecule.
6) In order to break up the molecules that compose the cell membrane, you need to A) break covalent bonds among the phospholipid molecules. B) break hydrogen bonds among the phospholipid molecules. C) break covalent bonds between the phospholipid molecules and proteins. D) break hydrogen bonds between the phospholipid molecules and proteins. E) disrupt the organization of polar and non-polar regions of the phospholipids. 7) In a species of insect that lives at cold temperatures, which of the following adaptations to the plasma membrane would help promote membrane fluidity? A) More integral membrane proteins B) More cholesterol in the membrane C) More transmembrane proteins D) Thinner glycocalyx E) More cell junctions 8) The wall of the intestines needs to form an impenetrable barrier that prevents the passage of molecules through the extracellular space (the only route of passage must be for molecules to move through the cells). What type of cellular junction would be most appropriate for this task? A) Desmosomes B) Tight junctions C) Gap junctions D) All of the answer choices are correct E) None of the answer choices are correct 9) What are desmosomes? A) Low-resistance channel-like passages that let ions travel between the interiors of adjacent cells B) Cell organelles that contain enzymes for digesting cellular debris and foreign microbes C) Cellular organelles that transcribe RNA into DNA D) Membrane-bound vesicles that pinch off from the plasma membrane and enter the cell E) Dense plaques of proteins that maintain firm attachments between adjacent cells 10) Which type of cellular junction would allow glucose molecules to diffuse from the cytosol of one cell to the cytosol of a neighboring cell? A) Cadherins B) Tight C) Gap D) Conjunction E) Nexuses 11) Which best describes functions of the smooth (agranular) endoplasmic reticulum? A) Transcription of DNA into RNA B) Generation of ATP C) Digestion of engulfed bacteria and cellular debris D) Synthesis and packaging of proteins for secretion from the cell or export to other organelles E) Synthesis of lipids and intracellular storage of calcium ions
12) Macrophages are cells that engulf and digest bacteria and cell debris. To perform the digestive function, macrophages tend to have more than other cells. A) peroxisomes B) endosomes C) lysosomes D) ribosomes E) mitochondria 13) Which organelles would you expect to be especially numerous in cells such as muscle cells that have a tremendous demand for energy in the form of ATP? A) Peroxisomes B) Endosomes C) Lysosomes D) Ribosomes E) Mitochondria 14) Which of these are functions of the Golgi apparatus? A) Modifying proteins synthesized on free ribosomes and storing calcium ions B) Digestion of engulfed bacteria and using oxygen to generate ATP C) Synthesizing lipids and intracellular storage of calcium ions D) Modifying proteins synthesized on free ribosomes and allowing the distribution of modified proteins throughout the cell in vesicles E) Modifying proteins synthesized on ribosomes associated with granular endoplasmic reticulum and allowing the distribution of modified proteins throughout the cell in vesicles 15) Which of the following is not true of the cytoskeleton? A) It refers to the cellular components of bone. B) It refers to a network of cytoplasmic filaments. C) It is important for cellular movement. D) It helps to determine a cell's shape. E) It includes actin filaments. 16) Macrophages are motile cells that crawl within tissues of the cells. Hepatocytes are stationary cells that are anchored in place within the tissue. Compared to hepatocytes, macrophages would likely have more of which cytoskeletal filament? A) Actin filaments B) Intermediate filaments C) Microtubules D) Myosin filaments E) Cilia
17) Neurons have extremely long cytoplasmic extensions. Their chemical signals are produced in one portion of the cell, but released from a distant location. How are the chemicals transported? A) On myosin filaments B) On intermediate filaments C) On microtubules D) On the Golgi apparatus E) Via lysosomes 18) Cell A is a gland cell that makes and secretes proteins. Cell B is another type of cell that synthesizes and secretes steroids. If you were to look at electron micrographs of the two cells, what differences would you expect to see? A) Cell A would have more granular endoplasmic reticulum than cell B. B) Cell A would have fewer secretion granules than cell B. C) Cell A would have more agranular endoplasmic reticulum than cell B. D) Cell B would have more granular endoplasmic reticulum than cell A. E) The two cells would most likely look identical. 19) Neurons have a very prominent nucleolus, which indicates that they are actively performing what function? A) Making ATP B) Synthesizing lipids C) Manufacturing ribosomes D) Breaking down carbohydrates E) Dividing by mitosis 20) In which organelle are carbohydrate chains added to glycoproteins? A) Golgi apparatus B) Smooth endoplasmic reticulum C) Nucleus D) Lysosome E) Mitochondrion 21) Which is true about the structure and function of a gene? A) It is an uncoiled protein that contains information necessary for the synthesis of other proteins. B) It is a sequence of nucleotides in DNA that acts as an enzyme to digest proteins. C) It is composed of many molecules of DNA and contains information needed to make RNA. D) It is a sequence of nucleotides in DNA that contains information necessary for the synthesis of proteins. 22) What is a genome? A) A cluster of genes that are all regulated in the same manner B) A measure of the genetic variability in a population C) A region of DNA that codes for a single protein D) All of the protein in a cell at a given point in time E) The total genetic information in a typical cell of an organism
23) If you were given the sequence of nucleotides in a single gene and the total number of nucleotides was 90 (excluding start and stop signals); how many amino acids would you expect to find in the protein that is made from this gene? A) 90 B) 30 C) 10 D) 1 E) 0 24) RNA synthesis from a DNA template A) is called translation of the message. B) requires DNA polymerase. C) is called transcription of the message. D) occurs in the nucleolus. E) occurs in the cytoplasm. 25) What is the term for the segments of primary RNA that are cleaved and discarded by spliceosomes? A) Codons B) Introns C) Exons D) Anticodons E) Genes 26) In an experiment, you have isolated amino acids from the cytosol of a cell. You discover that nucleic acid molecules appear to be attached to the amino acids. It is most likely that you have isolated what type of nucleic acid? A) DNA B) mRNA C) rRNA D) tRNA E) Double-stranded RNA 27) How does the synthesis of proteins that are destined to be secreted differ from that of proteins destined to remain inside the cell? A) Proteins destined to be secreted have a signal sequence. B) Proteins destined to be secreted are synthesized on free ribosomes. C) Proteins destined to be secreted are packaged into secretory vesicles in the granular endoplasmic reticulum. D) Only proteins destined for secretion need transfer RNA to be synthesized. E) Genes for proteins with functions inside the cell are located in the cytoplasm.
28) Which is NOT a function of the Golgi apparatus? A) Sorting of proteins destined for various locations in the cell B) Modifying proteins destined for secretion C) Packaging enzymes destined for lysosomes D) Addition of carbohydrate groups to proteins E) Transcribing a signal sequence onto proteins destined for secretion 29) You're researching a steroid hormone that binds to a receptor inside the cell. Once the receptor binds to its hormone, the receptor moves into the nucleus of the cell. The result of hormone-receptor binding is that new mRNA molecules are made. The receptor is also a A) ribosome. B) transcription factor. C) tRNA molecule. D) promoter. E) splicosome. 30) Which is the best definition of the term ligand? A) A receptor composed of protein B) A molecule or ion that binds to a protein C) Any molecule found in the intracellular fluid D) Any molecule found in the extracellular fluid E) A carbohydrate molecule that binds weakly to membrane phospholipids 31) Which is NOT true about a binding site on a protein? A) It is an area of the protein with a shape complementary to that of a ligand. B) It is determined by the amino acid sequence of the protein. C) The binding of a ligand to a binding site typically changes the conformation of the protein. D) There can only be one binding site on a given protein. E) Binding of a ligand to the binding site typically activates or inactivates a protein's specific function. 32) A certain protein receptor is capable of binding the neurotransmitter epinephrine but does not bind to the neurotransmitters dopamine, glutamate, or serotonin. This is because the receptor displays what characteristic? A) Saturation B) Inhibition C) Specificity D) Acclimatization E) Accommodation
33) A solution containing proteins of a particular type is exposed to the same concentrations of ligands X and Y, but the percent saturation of molecule X is greater than the percent saturation of molecule Y. Which is most likely to be a true statement? A) The binding sites for ligand X are 100% saturated. B) The binding sites for ligand X have greater specificity than the binding site for ligand Y. C) Ligand X must be a competitive inhibitor of ligand Y. D) Both ligands must bind to the same binding site on the protein. E) The protein has a higher affinity for ligand X than for ligand Y. 34) Tamoxifen is a breast-cancer drug that binds to the estrogen receptor. When in the body, tamoxifen binds to the estrogen receptor for much longer than the patient's own estrogen. Tamoxifen stays bound for so long that it prevents the binding of circulating estrogen to its receptor. Tamoxifen must have a higher for the estrogen receptor than estrogen. A) saturation B) inhibition C) specificity D) affinity E) accommodation 35) Two receptors, A and B, can bind the same chemical signaling molecules but the concentration of those molecules required to reach 50% saturation is twice as great for receptor B. Therefore, the receptors have the same , but different _. A) specificity; affinity B) specificity; saturation C) affinity; specificity D) affinity; competition E) competition; affinity 36) Which describes the action of a ligand's competitive antagonist? A) It decreases the amount of ligand required to activate the protein. B) It blocks the binding of the ligand to its binding site and prevents activation of the protein. C) It binds to a different binding site on the protein, altering the protein shape so that a ligand cannot bind. D) When present, it increases the binding of a ligand to its receptor. 37) What is the defining characteristic of an allosteric protein? A) They contain two polypeptide chains, with each being an exact mirror image of the other. B) They contain only one ligand-binding site, but because the specificity is low, many different ligands can bind to it. C) They contain two ligand-binding sites, one that activates the protein when a ligand binds, and the other that inactivates the protein when the same ligand binds. D) They contain more than one ligand-binding site, and noncovalent binding of a ligand to one site alters the shape of other ligand-binding sites. E) They contain no binding sites of their own, but act by modulating the activity of other proteins.
38) What is "allosteric modulation"? A) Regulation of physiological functions by the sympathetic division of the autonomic nervous system B) Modification of the functional state of a protein by temperature or pH C) The change in the shape and functional state of a protein that occurs when a ligand binds to a regulatory site D) The fact that all binding sites on a protein must be occupied to have a biological effect E) The ability of a single ligand-binding site to bind to molecularly similar ligands 39) Which of these covalently modifies proteins by phosphorylation? A) Enzymes called protein phosphatases B) Other proteins called allosteric proteins C) Any ligand that can bind to specific binding sites D) Enzymes called protein kinases E) Metal ions, such as Fe2+ 40) In skeletal muscle, when calcium binds to the regulatory protein troponin, it increases the affinity of neighboring troponin molecules for calcium. This is an example of A) allosteric modulation. B) cooperativity. C) covalent modulation. D) phosphorylation. E) saturation. 41) Which is NOT true about protein kinases? A) They add phosphate groups to proteins. B) They produce effects similar to allosteric modulation. C) They perform the opposite function as phosphatases. D) They use ATP to carry out their reactions. E) They remove phosphate groups from proteins. 42) The term "metabolism" A) is synonymous with the term "catabolism." B) is synonymous with the term "anabolism." C) refers to any chemical reaction that involves the production of energy. D) is defined as the covalent modification and activation of a protein with binding sites for organic molecules. E) refers to the synthesis and breakdown of organic molecules involved in cell structure and function. 43) The rate of a reaction occurring in the absence of its enzyme is one molecule of product made per second. Which of the following is likely in the presence of its enzyme? A) No change to the rate of the reaction B) One molecule per minute C) One molecule per ten minutes D) One hundred molecules per minute
44) How does a chemical catalyst increase the rate of a reaction? A) By acting as one of the reactant molecules B) By decreasing the energy of activation C) By increasing the energy content of the product molecules D) By increasing the temperature of a solution E) By phosphorylating a reactant 45) With regard to reversible chemical reaction rates, which of the following statements is true? A) Decreasing the concentration of the reactants will increase the forward reaction rate. B) Increasing the temperature will increase the forward and reverse reaction rate. C) Increasing the activation energy will increase the forward reaction rate. D) Increasing the concentration of the products will increase the forward reaction rate. E) As a reaction progresses, the rate of the forward reaction increases as the concentration of reactants decreases. 46) When a reversible chemical reaction is at equilibrium, A) the rate of the reaction in one direction is equal to the rate in the reverse direction. B) the concentration of the reactants is equal to the concentration of the products. C) both the forward and reverse reactions stop occurring. D) the supply of reactants has become exhausted, so the forward reaction ceases and the rate of the reverse reaction increases. E) catalysts no longer influence either the forward or reverse reaction rates. 47) Which would be true about the following reaction? M+N ↔Y+Z A) Adding a catalyst would alter the final concentrations of products and reactants at equilibrium. B) Starting at chemical equilibrium, increasing the concentration of M will transiently increase the rate of formation of Y and Z. C) Starting at chemical equilibrium, decreasing the concentration of M will increase the concentration of Y and Z. D) Both: the reaction is reversible and at chemical equilibrium AND increasing the concentration of M will drive the reaction to the left are correct. E) Because the reactants and products are different molecules, this is not a reversible reaction.
48) Consider the reaction below, which of the following is TRUE? H2CO3 ↔ CO2 + H2O + 4 kcal/mol. A) The reaction is anabolic and the energy content of the reactant is greater than that of the products. B) The reaction is catabolic and the energy content of the reactant is greater than that of the products. C) The reaction is anabolic and the energy content of the products is greater than that of the reactant. D) The reaction is catabolic and the energy content of the products is greater than that of the reactant. E) The reaction is catabolic and the energy content of the products are equal to that of the reactant. 49) At equilibrium, in an irreversible reaction A) almost all of the reactants will have been converted to products. B) there will be an equal number of products and reactants. C) there will be very few molecules of product. D) small amounts of energy will have been released. E) large amounts of energy must have been input to reach that state. 50) What is the function of a catalyst in a chemical reaction? A) It lowers the activation energy of the reaction. B) It is split into individual molecules that are products of the reaction. C) It changes the energy content of the reactants. D) It generates heat that makes the reaction proceed. E) It ensures that the reaction can proceed only in one direction, from reactants to products. 51) Enzymes A) are catalysts in chemical reactions. B) can be carbohydrate molecules. C) are broken down during chemical reactions they catalyze. D) have names generally ending in the suffix "-ose." E) are polymers of ATP that store large amounts of energy. 52) Which is NOT true about cofactors involved in enzymatic reactions? A) They may alter the conformation of the enzyme. B) They may be a metal such as iron. C) They may be a substrate in a catalyzed reaction. D) There must be equal quantities of enzyme and cofactor molecules for a reaction to proceed. E) Only a small number of cofactor molecules may be needed to maintain enzyme activity.
53) What is a coenzyme? A) An organic cofactor that directly participates as one of the substrates in an enzymatic reaction B) A metal, such as zinc, that participates in enzymatic reactions C) A term regarding enzymatic reactions that is synonymous with "cofactor" D) Any ligand that binds to a specific site on a protein receptor E) An inorganic molecule that catalyzes enzymatic reactions 54) Which of the following is true concerning the rate-limiting step in a metabolic pathway? A) It is likely to be the slowest reaction in the pathway, and it is always the last step in a metabolic pathway. B) It is likely to be the fastest reaction in the pathway, and it is always the last step in a metabolic pathway. C) It is always the first step in the pathway, and may be subject to end-product inhibition. D) It is likely to be the slowest reaction in the pathway, and it may be subject to end-product inhibition. E) It is likely to be the fastest reaction in the pathway, and it may be subject to end-product inhibition. 55) In order to increase the overall rate of a metabolic pathway consisting of five reactions catalyzed by five different enzymes, which must occur? A) Increasing the reaction rate of all five enzymes B) Increasing the reaction rate of the fastest enzyme C) Increasing the reaction rate of the slowest enzyme D) Increasing the reaction rate of the first enzyme in the pathway E) Increasing the reaction rate of the last enzyme in the pathway 56) In a blood cell, water and carbon dioxide can combine in a reversible reaction to form carbonic acid. If the concentration of carbonic acid increases, which direction will the net reaction proceed in? A) The forward direction (toward more carbonic acid accumulation) B) The reverse direction (toward more water and carbon dioxide accumulation) C) The net rate will be unaffected by an increase in carbonic acid concentration. 57) ATP is A) formed during the hydrolysis of ADP. B) used by cells for the storage of energy. C) used to transfer energy within a cell. D) a protein. E) a molecule with less total energy content than ADP. 58) The site where most of the ATP is generated in a cell is the A) nucleus. B) plasma membrane. C) endoplasmic reticulum. D) Golgi apparatus. E) mitochondria.
59) ATP is A) a nucleotide. B) a lipid. C) an amino acid. D) a carbohydrate. E) a steroid. 60) Which is TRUE about glycolysis? A) It does not occur in the absence of O2. B) It does not occur in the presence of O2. C) It may result in the formation of two molecules of lactate for each molecule of glucose. D) It is a series of metabolic reactions that occur mainly inside the inner membrane of a mitochondrion. E) It is a metabolic reaction in which glucose is manufactured from large carbohydrates like glycogen. 61) Which of the following metabolic pathways can proceed in the absence of oxygen? A) Glycolysis B) Oxidative phosphorylation C) Krebs cycle D) The breakdown of fatty acids to CO2 and H2O E) None of the choices are correct. 62) What are the products of glycolysis under anaerobic conditions? A) 2 molecules of NADH and 2 molecules of water B) 2 molecules of pyruvate, 2 molecules of lactate, and 2 ATP C) 2 molecules of pyruvate and 36 molecules of ATP D) 2 molecules of ATP, 2 molecules of water, and 2 molecules of lactate E) 2 molecules of pyruvate, 2 molecules of water, and 2 NADH 63) Which of the following is NOT a product of glycolysis? A) Carbon dioxide B) ATP C) Pyruvate D) NADH 64) Cyanide is a molecule that binds irreversibly to and acts as an allosteric inhibitor for one of the cytochromes in the electron transport chain. Which of the following molecules would you see increased in the cells of a person suffering from cyanide poisoning? A) ATP B) Glucose C) Pyruvate D) NAD+ E) NADH
65) The reactions of the Krebs cycle A) take place in the cytosol of human cells. B) generate ATP directly by substrate-level phosphorylation. C) are important for the metabolism of carbohydrates but not other molecules. D) take place only when no oxygen is present. E) produce pyruvate and lactate as end products. 66) Which is a series of reactions by which fatty acid catabolism occurs? A) Glycolysis B) Lipogenesis C) Beta-oxidation D) Glycogenolysis E) Phosphorylation 67) Which is NOT true about fatty acid synthesis? A) Takes place in the cytosol of cells B) Results in molecules with an even number of carbon atoms only C) Requires more energy than is produced by the catabolism of the same fatty acid D) Begins with a molecule of acetyl coenzyme A E) The enzymes that catalyze it are in the same location as those that mediate fatty acid catabolism 68) Most energy in the body is stored in what form? A) ATP B) Glucose C) Fat D) Protein E) DNA 69) Ammonia is A) a waste product of fatty acid metabolism. B) exhaled by the lungs into the air. C) processed by the liver to form urea, a less toxic compound. D) a waste product of fatty acid metabolism and is excreted by the kidneys into urine. E) a polypeptide containing many amino acids. 70) Before an amino acid can be broken down for energy A) the side chain must be removed. B) the carboxyl group must be removed. C) it must be converted to NAD+. D) the amino group must be removed. E) it must be phosphorylated.
71) Many popular diet trends involve severe reductions in dietary carbohydrates so that the body must utilize fats and lipids as energy sources. Under these conditions, which of the following would be an enhanced entry pathway in cellular respiration? A) Glycolysis B) Krebs cycle C) Oxidative phosphorylation D) Cellular respiration could begin with any of these processes. 72) Many popular diet trends involve severe reductions in dietary carbohydrates so that the body must utilize fats and lipids as energy sources. Under these conditions, a greater than usual rate of protein deamination occurs. Which of the following could be expected? A) More volume or more concentrated urine B) Headaches C) Increased rate for all enzymes in the body D) Decreased rate for all enzymes in the body E) A change in membrane fluidity 73) Electrons transferred along the electron transport chain can be used to form A) water. B) glucose. C) ATP. D) NADH. E) acetyl coenzyme A. 74) Your colleague has discovered a new species and you are viewing one of the cells under the electron microscope. You see a large, oval-shaped structure in the center of the cell, surrounded by a membrane. After this observation, you hypothesize that the cells of this species are prokaryotic cells. 75) A light microscope can be used to view very large proteins in a cell. 76) Living cells cannot be viewed under an electron microscope. 77) One striking feature of plasma membrane structure is its symmetry, with the extracellular and cytoplasmic surfaces virtual mirror images of each other. 78) Intracellular fluid is defined as the fluid in the cytosol and organelles. 79) The major lipids in cellular membranes are phospholipids. 80) The special functions of plasma and organelle membranes depend primarily on the specific composition of the phospholipids of those membranes. 81) One function of integral membrane proteins in the plasma membrane of cells is to form channels to allow passage of nonpolar solutes into the cell.
82) Peripheral membrane proteins are involved in regulating cell shape and motility. 83) Desmosomes are structures that permit direct communication between cells by allowing the cells to exchange small molecules in their cytoplasms. 84) Chromosomes are composed mainly of DNA. 85) Free ribosomes differ from membrane-bound ribosomes in that free ribosomes specialize in synthesizing proteins for export (secretion) from the cell. 86) Lysosomes are organelles specialized for breaking down intracellular debris or malfunctioning parts of cells. 87) The promoter sequence of nucleotides in a gene is present on both strands of the DNA molecule, allowing transcription of both strands. 88) Ribosomes transcribe DNA into RNA. 89) You are isolating molecules from different parts of a cell in the lab. You find that you've mixed up your tubes. In one tube, you've identified RNA. Therefore this tube must be from the nucleus, it could not be from the cytosol. 90) The nucleotide triplet in tRNA that base-pairs with a complementary triplet in mRNA is called the codon. 91) There are twenty different aminoacyl-tRNA synthetases. 92) Once protein synthesis is completed, the protein that was synthesized may undergo further changes prior to its secretion or use within the cell. 93) Transcription factors activate or repress the transcription of specific genes by binding to regions of DNA that interact with the promoter region of a gene. 94) All proteins exist in the cell for the same length of time before being destroyed. 95) Proteins destined to become integral membrane proteins have a signal sequence. 96) The consequences of mutations are invariably harmful. 97) The deletion of a single base in a gene would alter the structure of the gene's protein more than the substitution of one base for another. 98) In general, the larger the number of different ligands that can bind to a particular binding site on a protein, the less the specificity of that binding site.
99) The shape of a ligand and the shape of its binding site influence both the specificity and the affinity of binding. 100) Any given protein contains binding sites for only one kind of ligand. 101) The greater the ligand concentration needed to achieve 50% saturation of a particular binding site, the higher the affinity of the binding site for that ligand. 102) Allosteric modulation of a protein involves noncovalent binding of a ligand to a regulatory binding site. 103) The only role of modulator molecules is to enhance the binding affinity of the functional site of an allosteric protein. 104) Proteins that mediate or catalyze reactions in which the covalent bonding of the reactant molecules changes are called substrates. 105) Coenzymes are organic cofactors. 106) An important function of coenzymes is to act as carriers to transport hydrogen atoms. 107) The active site of an enzyme is a functional binding site. 108) The enzyme carbonic anhydrase catalyzes the catabolism of H2CO3 to H2O and CO2. 109) In the lab you are re-creating the metabolic pathway that produces the hormone testosterone. Unfortunately, you've run out of the enzyme that catalyzes the third reaction. It's no problem, though, because you can substitute any of the other enzymes as all enzymes in a metabolic pathway are interchangeable. 110) The rate-limiting reaction in a metabolic pathway is one that occurs at a faster rate than the other steps in the pathway. 111) Allosteric inhibition of rate-limiting enzymes is a common means of regulating anabolic pathways. 112) During oxidative phosphorylation, hydrogen atoms are passed serially from a coenzyme down a chain of molecules called cytochromes. 113) In the absence of oxygen, cells can derive energy to form ATP from the metabolism of fatty acids. 114) The first step in glycogen synthesis is the phosphorylation of glucose. 115) Glucose cannot be synthesized from fatty acids because the reaction converting pyruvic acid to acetyl coenzyme A is not reversible.
116) Substrate-level phosphorylation takes place in the ribosomes of cells, whereas oxidative phosphorylation takes place in mitochondria. 117) During anaerobic glycolysis, a net of two molecules of ATP are generated for each molecule of glucose broken down. 118) NAD+ is a byproduct of cellular respiration that diffuses out of the cell and is eliminated from the body in urine. 119) In the Krebs cycle, an acetyl fragment is broken down to CO2 and H+ ions. 120) The major waste product of metabolism is H2O. 121) Most of the energy stored in the body is in the form of glycogen. 122) All water in the human body comes from dietary sources. 123) Proteins are broken down to amino acids by enzymes called transaminases. 124) Removal of the amino group from an amino acid is necessary before the amino acid can be metabolized for energy. 125) Human beings can synthesize all twenty amino acids the body must have. 126) An essential nutrient is one necessary for good health that is not synthesized by the body. 127) Glucose is not considered an essential nutrient because it is not essential for good health. 128) A clinical disease that results in an inability to absorb fats will not result in malnutrition. 129) Tom tries a new diet that involves no food intake. Instead of eating, he takes plenty of multivitamin pills. This is OK because vitamins are a significant source of energy. 130) You are observing the rate of an enzymatic reaction. You continue to add substrate in higher and higher concentrations, but eventually you see the rate of reaction plateau, no further increases in the rate of the reaction could be observed. Which of the following are plausible explanations for your observation (select all that apply)? A) The enzyme has become saturated. B) The substrate solution has become contaminated with an allosteric inhibitor. C) The enzyme molecules are being used up and broken down by the reaction. D) Over time, the substrate molecules are denaturing. E) The temperature of the room needs to increase to increase the rate of reaction.
131) A metabolic pathway results in the synthesis of a hormone. The presence of that hormone inhibits the second reaction in the pathway. Which of the following terms are appropriate descriptions of this inhibition? A) End-product inhibition B) Negative feedback C) Covalent modification D) Catabolic inhibition E) Affinity 132) Which of the following are TRUE of the Krebs cycle? A) Oxygen is required. B) Fats can be utilized as an energy source through conversion to acetyl-coA. C) Carbohydrates can be utilized as an energy source through conversion to acetyl-coA. D) It takes place in the cytosol. E) Only muscle cells utilize it as a way to make ATP.
Vander's Human Physiology, 15e (Widmaier) Chapter 3 Cellular Structure, Proteins, and Metabolic Pathways 1) You are performing an experiment in a research lab. In this experiment you take cells and remove all of their cell membranes, in order to collect all the internal contents into a tube. What is the most accurate term for the content of your tube? A) Cell organelles B) Nuclei C) Phospholipids D) Cytoplasm E) Intracellular fluid Answer: D Section: 03.01 Topic: Intracellular organization of nucleus and cytoplasm. Bloom's: Level 3. Apply HAPS Topic: Module C06 Intracellular organization of nucleus and cytoplasm. HAPS Outcome: C06.01 Identify the three main parts of a cell, and list the general functions of each. 2) Which is a major function of the plasma membrane? A) Storing calcium ions B) Storing organic chemicals for metabolism C) Providing genetic information D) Generating ATP E) Regulating the passage of molecules into and out of the cell Answer: E Section: 03.02 Topic: Membrane structure and function Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module C06 Intracellular organization of nucleus and cytoplasm. HAPS Outcome: C06.01 Identify the three main parts of a cell, and list the general functions of each.
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3) If you add a single cholesterol molecule into the plasma membrane, do you expect that, several hours later, it will be in the same place (i.e., adjacent to the same exact phospholipid molecules). A) Cholesterol will be excluded from the bilayer and will no longer be associated with phospholipids because they have different properties. B) Cholesterol will migrate away from phospholipids and toward proteins. C) Cholesterol will associate with adjacent phospholipid molecules and stay near them. D) All of the molecules will move freely in the lipid bilayer. Answer: D Section: 03.02 Topic: Membrane structure and function Bloom's: Level 3. Apply HAPS Topic: Module C06 Intracellular organization of nucleus and cytoplasm. HAPS Outcome: C06.01 Identify the three main parts of a cell, and list the general functions of each. 4) The cell membrane is composed mainly of A) cytosol. B) phospholipids and proteins. C) phospholipids and nucleic acids. D) water. E) proteins and glycocalyx. Answer: B Section: 03.02 Topic: Membrane structure and function Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module C06 Intracellular organization of nucleus and cytoplasm. HAPS Outcome: C06.01 Identify the three main parts of a cell, and list the general functions of each. 5) You are learning about an integral membrane protein. This protein has a region that is exposed to the extracellular fluid, a region that spans the membrane, and another region that is exposed tothe intracellular fluid. Which of the following is likely TRUE of this protein? A) It is a polar molecule. B) It is a nonpolar molecule. C) It is an amphipathic molecule. Answer: C Section: 03.02 Topic: Membrane structure and function Bloom's: Level 3. Apply HAPS Topic: Module C07 Membrane structure and function. HAPS Outcome: C07.03 Describe how proteins are distributed in a cell membrane, and explain their functions. 2 Copyright 2019 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.
6) In order to break up the molecules that compose the cell membrane, you need to A) break covalent bonds among the phospholipid molecules. B) break hydrogen bonds among the phospholipid molecules. C) break covalent bonds between the phospholipid molecules and proteins. D) break hydrogen bonds between the phospholipid molecules and proteins. E) disrupt the organization of polar and non-polar regions of the phospholipids. Answer: E Section: 03.02 Topic: Membrane structure and function Bloom's: Level 2. Understand HAPS Topic: Module C07 Membrane structure and function. HAPS Outcome: C07.01 Describe how lipids are distributed in a cell membrane, and explain their functions. 7) In a species of insect that lives at cold temperatures, which of the following adaptations to the plasma membrane would help promote membrane fluidity? A) More integral membrane proteins B) More cholesterol in the membrane C) More transmembrane proteins D) Thinner glycocalyx E) More cell junctions Answer: B Section: 03.02 Topic: Membrane structure and function Bloom's: Level 3. Apply HAPS Topic: Module C07 Membrane structure and function. HAPS Outcome: C07.01 Describe how lipids are distributed in a cell membrane, and explain their functions.
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8) The wall of the intestines needs to form an impenetrable barrier that prevents the passage of molecules through the extracellular space (the only route of passage must be for molecules to move through the cells). What type of cellular junction would be most appropriate for this task? A) Desmosomes B) Tight junctions C) Gap junctions D) All of the answer choices are correct E) None of the answer choices are correct Answer: B Section: 03.02 Topic: Membrane structure and function Bloom's: Level 3. Apply HAPS Topic: Module C07 Membrane structure and function. HAPS Outcome: C07.03 Describe how proteins are distributed in a cell membrane, and explain their functions. 9) What are desmosomes? A) Low-resistance channel-like passages that let ions travel between the interiors of adjacent cells B) Cell organelles that contain enzymes for digesting cellular debris and foreign microbes C) Cellular organelles that transcribe RNA into DNA D) Membrane-bound vesicles that pinch off from the plasma membrane and enter the cell E) Dense plaques of proteins that maintain firm attachments between adjacent cells Answer: E Section: 03.02 Topic: Membrane structure and function Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module C07 Membrane structure and function. HAPS Outcome: C07.03 Describe how proteins are distributed in a cell membrane, and explain their functions.
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10) Which type of cellular junction would allow glucose molecules to diffuse from the cytosol of one cell to the cytosol of a neighboring cell? A) Cadherins B) Tight C) Gap D) Conjunction E) Nexuses Answer: C Section: 03.02 Topic: Membrane structure and function Bloom's: Level 3. Apply HAPS Topic: Module C07 Membrane structure and function. HAPS Outcome: C07.03 Describe how proteins are distributed in a cell membrane, and explain their functions. 11) Which best describes functions of the smooth (agranular) endoplasmic reticulum? A) Transcription of DNA into RNA B) Generation of ATP C) Digestion of engulfed bacteria and cellular debris D) Synthesis and packaging of proteins for secretion from the cell or export to other organelles E) Synthesis of lipids and intracellular storage of calcium ions Answer: E Section: 03.03 Topic: Organelles Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module C09 Organelles. HAPS Outcome: C09.02c Describe the function of each different type of organelle associated with human cells. 12) Macrophages are cells that engulf and digest bacteria and cell debris. To perform the digestive function, macrophages tend to have more than other cells. A) peroxisomes B) endosomes C) lysosomes D) ribosomes E) mitochondria Answer: C Section: 03.03 Topic: Organelles Bloom's: Level 3. Apply HAPS Topic: Module C09 Organelles. HAPS Outcome: C09.02c Describe the function of each different type of organelle associated with human cells. 5 Copyright 2019 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.
13) Which organelles would you expect to be especially numerous in cells such as muscle cells that have a tremendous demand for energy in the form of ATP? A) Peroxisomes B) Endosomes C) Lysosomes D) Ribosomes E) Mitochondria Answer: E Section: 03.03 Topic: Organelles Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module C09 Organelles. HAPS Outcome: C09.02c Describe the function of each different type of organelle associated with human cells. 14) Which of these are functions of the Golgi apparatus? A) Modifying proteins synthesized on free ribosomes and storing calcium ions B) Digestion of engulfed bacteria and using oxygen to generate ATP C) Synthesizing lipids and intracellular storage of calcium ions D) Modifying proteins synthesized on free ribosomes and allowing the distribution of modified proteins throughout the cell in vesicles E) Modifying proteins synthesized on ribosomes associated with granular endoplasmic reticulum and allowing the distribution of modified proteins throughout the cell in vesicles Answer: E Section: 03.03 Topic: Organelles Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module C09 Organelles. HAPS Outcome: C09.02c Describe the function of each different type of organelle associated with human cells.
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15) Which of the following is not true of the cytoskeleton? A) It refers to the cellular components of bone. B) It refers to a network of cytoplasmic filaments. C) It is important for cellular movement. D) It helps to determine a cell's shape. E) It includes actin filaments. Answer: A Section: 03.03 Topic: Organelles Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module C09 Organelles. HAPS Outcome: C09.02c Describe the function of each different type of organelle associated with human cells. 16) Macrophages are motile cells that crawl within tissues of the cells. Hepatocytes are stationary cells that are anchored in place within the tissue. Compared to hepatocytes, macrophages would likely have more of which cytoskeletal filament? A) Actin filaments B) Intermediate filaments C) Microtubules D) Myosin filaments E) Cilia Answer: A Section: 03.03 Topic: Organelles Bloom's: Level 3. Apply HAPS Topic: Module C09 Organelles. HAPS Outcome: C09.02c Describe the function of each different type of organelle associated with human cells.
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17) Neurons have extremely long cytoplasmic extensions. Their chemical signals are produced in one portion of the cell, but released from a distant location. How are the chemicals transported? A) On myosin filaments B) On intermediate filaments C) On microtubules D) On the Golgi apparatus E) Via lysosomes Answer: C Section: 03.03 Topic: Organelles Bloom's: Level 3. Apply HAPS Topic: Module C09 Organelles. HAPS Outcome: C09.02c Describe the function of each different type of organelle associated with human cells. 18) Cell A is a gland cell that makes and secretes proteins. Cell B is another type of cell that synthesizes and secretes steroids. If you were to look at electron micrographs of the two cells, what differences would you expect to see? A) Cell A would have more granular endoplasmic reticulum than cell B. B) Cell A would have fewer secretion granules than cell B. C) Cell A would have more agranular endoplasmic reticulum than cell B. D) Cell B would have more granular endoplasmic reticulum than cell A. E) The two cells would most likely look identical. Answer: A Section: 03.03 Topic: Organelles Bloom's: Level 3. Apply HAPS Topic: Module C09 Organelles. HAPS Outcome: C09.02c Describe the function of each different type of organelle associated with human cells.
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19) Neurons have a very prominent nucleolus, which indicates that they are actively performing what function? A) Making ATP B) Synthesizing lipids C) Manufacturing ribosomes D) Breaking down carbohydrates E) Dividing by mitosis Answer: C Section: 03.03 Topic: Organelles Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module C09 Organelles. HAPS Outcome: C09.02c Describe the function of each different type of organelle associated with human cells. 20) In which organelle are carbohydrate chains added to glycoproteins? A) Golgi apparatus B) Smooth endoplasmic reticulum C) Nucleus D) Lysosome E) Mitochondrion Answer: A Section: 03.03 Topic: Organelles Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module C09 Organelles. HAPS Outcome: C09.02c Describe the function of each different type of organelle associated with human cells. 21) Which is true about the structure and function of a gene? A) It is an uncoiled protein that contains information necessary for the synthesis of other proteins. B) It is a sequence of nucleotides in DNA that acts as an enzyme to digest proteins. C) It is composed of many molecules of DNA and contains information needed to make RNA. D) It is a sequence of nucleotides in DNA that contains information necessary for the synthesis of proteins. Answer: D Section: 03.04 Topic: Genes and their action Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module C04 Organic compounds. HAPS Outcome: C04.04e Discuss physiological and structural roles in the human body of carbohydrates, proteins, lipids and nucleic acids. 9 Copyright 2019 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.
22) What is a genome? A) A cluster of genes that are all regulated in the same manner B) A measure of the genetic variability in a population C) A region of DNA that codes for a single protein D) All of the protein in a cell at a given point in time E) The total genetic information in a typical cell of an organism Answer: E Section: 03.04 Topic: Genes and their action Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module C10 Protein synthesis. HAPS Outcome: C10.01 Define the terms genetic code, transcription and translation. 23) If you were given the sequence of nucleotides in a single gene and the total number of nucleotides was 90 (excluding start and stop signals); how many amino acids would you expect to find in the protein that is made from this gene? A) 90 B) 30 C) 10 D) 1 E) 0 Answer: B Section: 03.05 Topic: Protein synthesis Bloom's: Level 3. Apply HAPS Topic: Module C10 Protein synthesis. HAPS Outcome: C10.03 Explain the roles of tRNA, mRNA, and rRNA in protein synthesis. 24) RNA synthesis from a DNA template A) is called translation of the message. B) requires DNA polymerase. C) is called transcription of the message. D) occurs in the nucleolus. E) occurs in the cytoplasm. Answer: C Section: 03.05 Topic: Protein synthesis Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module C10 Protein synthesis. HAPS Outcome: C10.01 Define the terms genetic code, transcription and translation.
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25) What is the term for the segments of primary RNA that are cleaved and discarded by spliceosomes? A) Codons B) Introns C) Exons D) Anticodons E) Genes Answer: B Section: 03.05 Topic: Protein synthesis Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module C10 Protein synthesis. HAPS Outcome: C10.02 Explain how and why RNA is synthesized. 26) In an experiment, you have isolated amino acids from the cytosol of a cell. You discover that nucleic acid molecules appear to be attached to the amino acids. It is most likely that you have isolated what type of nucleic acid? A) DNA B) mRNA C) rRNA D) tRNA E) Double-stranded RNA Answer: D Section: 03.05 Topic: Protein synthesis Bloom's: Level 3. Apply HAPS Topic: Module C10 Protein synthesis. HAPS Outcome: C10.03 Explain the roles of tRNA, mRNA, and rRNA in protein synthesis.
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27) How does the synthesis of proteins that are destined to be secreted differ from that of proteins destined to remain inside the cell? A) Proteins destined to be secreted have a signal sequence. B) Proteins destined to be secreted are synthesized on free ribosomes. C) Proteins destined to be secreted are packaged into secretory vesicles in the granular endoplasmic reticulum. D) Only proteins destined for secretion need transfer RNA to be synthesized. E) Genes for proteins with functions inside the cell are located in the cytoplasm. Answer: A Section: 03.07 Topic: Organelles Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module C09 Organelles. HAPS Outcome: C09.02c Describe the function of each different type of organelle associated with human cells. 28) Which is NOT a function of the Golgi apparatus? A) Sorting of proteins destined for various locations in the cell B) Modifying proteins destined for secretion C) Packaging enzymes destined for lysosomes D) Addition of carbohydrate groups to proteins E) Transcribing a signal sequence onto proteins destined for secretion Answer: E Section: 03.03; 03.07 Topic: Organelles Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module C09 Organelles. HAPS Outcome: C09.02c Describe the function of each different type of organelle associated with human cells.
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29) You're researching a steroid hormone that binds to a receptor inside the cell. Once the receptor binds to its hormone, the receptor moves into the nucleus of the cell. The result of hormone-receptor binding is that new mRNA molecules are made. The receptor is also a A) ribosome. B) transcription factor. C) tRNA molecule. D) promoter. E) splicosome. Answer: B Section: 03.05 Topic: Protein synthesis Bloom's: Level 3. Apply HAPS Topic: Module C10 Protein synthesis. HAPS Outcome: C10.02 Explain how and why RNA is synthesized. 30) Which is the best definition of the term ligand? A) A receptor composed of protein B) A molecule or ion that binds to a protein C) Any molecule found in the intracellular fluid D) Any molecule found in the extracellular fluid E) A carbohydrate molecule that binds weakly to membrane phospholipids Answer: B Section: 03.08 Topic: Protein synthesis Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module C04 Organic compounds. HAPS Outcome: C04.04e Discuss physiological and structural roles in the human body of carbohydrates, proteins, lipids and nucleic acids. 31) Which is NOT true about a binding site on a protein? A) It is an area of the protein with a shape complementary to that of a ligand. B) It is determined by the amino acid sequence of the protein. C) The binding of a ligand to a binding site typically changes the conformation of the protein. D) There can only be one binding site on a given protein. E) Binding of a ligand to the binding site typically activates or inactivates a protein's specific function. Answer: D Section: 03.08 Topic: Protein synthesis Bloom's: Level 2. Understand HAPS Topic: Module C04 Organic compounds. HAPS Outcome: C04.04e Discuss physiological and structural roles in the human body of carbohydrates, proteins, lipids and nucleic acids. 13 Copyright 2019 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.
32) A certain protein receptor is capable of binding the neurotransmitter epinephrine but does not bind to the neurotransmitters dopamine, glutamate, or serotonin. This is because the receptor displays what characteristic? A) Saturation B) Inhibition C) Specificity D) Acclimatization E) Accommodation Answer: C Section: 03.08 Topic: Protein synthesis Bloom's: Level 2. Understand HAPS Topic: Module C04 Organic compounds. HAPS Outcome: C04.04e Discuss physiological and structural roles in the human body of carbohydrates, proteins, lipids and nucleic acids. 33) A solution containing proteins of a particular type is exposed to the same concentrations of ligands X and Y, but the percent saturation of molecule X is greater than the percent saturation of molecule Y. Which is most likely to be a true statement? A) The binding sites for ligand X are 100% saturated. B) The binding sites for ligand X have greater specificity than the binding site for ligand Y. C) Ligand X must be a competitive inhibitor of ligand Y. D) Both ligands must bind to the same binding site on the protein. E) The protein has a higher affinity for ligand X than for ligand Y. Answer: E Section: 03.08 Topic: Protein synthesis Bloom's: Level 3. Apply HAPS Topic: Module C04 Organic compounds. HAPS Outcome: C04.04e Discuss physiological and structural roles in the human body of carbohydrates, proteins, lipids and nucleic acids.
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34) Tamoxifen is a breast-cancer drug that binds to the estrogen receptor. When in the body, tamoxifen binds to the estrogen receptor for much longer than the patient's own estrogen. Tamoxifen stays bound for so long that it prevents the binding of circulating estrogen to its receptor. Tamoxifen must have a higher for the estrogen receptor than estrogen. A) saturation B) inhibition C) specificity D) affinity E) accommodation Answer: D Section: 03.08 Topic: Organic compounds Bloom's: Level 3. Apply HAPS Topic: Module C04 Organic compounds. HAPS Outcome: C04.04e Discuss physiological and structural roles in the human body of carbohydrates, proteins, lipids and nucleic acids. 35) Two receptors, A and B, can bind the same chemical signaling molecules but the concentration of those molecules required to reach 50% saturation is twice as great for receptor B. Therefore, the receptors have the same , but different _. A) specificity; affinity B) specificity; saturation C) affinity; specificity D) affinity; competition E) competition; affinity Answer: A Section: 03.08 Topic: Organic compounds Bloom's: Level 3. Apply HAPS Topic: Module C04 Organic compounds. HAPS Outcome: C04.04e Discuss physiological and structural roles in the human body of carbohydrates, proteins, lipids and nucleic acids.
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36) Which describes the action of a ligand's competitive antagonist? A) It decreases the amount of ligand required to activate the protein. B) It blocks the binding of the ligand to its binding site and prevents activation of the protein. C) It binds to a different binding site on the protein, altering the protein shape so that a ligand cannot bind. D) When present, it increases the binding of a ligand to its receptor. Answer: B Section: 03.08 Topic: Organic compounds Bloom's: Level 2. Understand HAPS Topic: Module C04 Organic compounds. HAPS Outcome: C04.04e Discuss physiological and structural roles in the human body of carbohydrates, proteins, lipids and nucleic acids. 37) What is the defining characteristic of an allosteric protein? A) They contain two polypeptide chains, with each being an exact mirror image of the other. B) They contain only one ligand-binding site, but because the specificity is low, many different ligands can bind to it. C) They contain two ligand-binding sites, one that activates the protein when a ligand binds, and the other that inactivates the protein when the same ligand binds. D) They contain more than one ligand-binding site, and noncovalent binding of a ligand to one site alters the shape of other ligand-binding sites. E) They contain no binding sites of their own, but act by modulating the activity of other proteins. Answer: D Section: 03.09 Topic: Organic compounds Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module C04 Organic compounds. HAPS Outcome: C04.04e Discuss physiological and structural roles in the human body of carbohydrates, proteins, lipids and nucleic acids.
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38) What is "allosteric modulation"? A) Regulation of physiological functions by the sympathetic division of the autonomic nervous system B) Modification of the functional state of a protein by temperature or pH C) The change in the shape and functional state of a protein that occurs when a ligand binds to a regulatory site D) The fact that all binding sites on a protein must be occupied to have a biological effect E) The ability of a single ligand-binding site to bind to molecularly similar ligands Answer: C Section: 03.09 Topic: Organic compounds Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module C04 Organic compounds. HAPS Outcome: C04.04e Discuss physiological and structural roles in the human body of carbohydrates, proteins, lipids and nucleic acids. 39) Which of these covalently modifies proteins by phosphorylation? A) Enzymes called protein phosphatases B) Other proteins called allosteric proteins C) Any ligand that can bind to specific binding sites D) Enzymes called protein kinases E) Metal ions, such as Fe2+ Answer: D
Section: 03.09 Topic: Organic compounds Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module C04 Organic compounds. HAPS Outcome: C04.04e Discuss physiological and structural roles in the human body of carbohydrates, proteins, lipids and nucleic acids.
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40) In skeletal muscle, when calcium binds to the regulatory protein troponin, it increases the affinity of neighboring troponin molecules for calcium. This is an example of A) allosteric modulation. B) cooperativity. C) covalent modulation. D) phosphorylation. E) saturation. Answer: B Section: 03.09 Topic: Clinical applications of homeostatic mechanisms of the cell Bloom's: Level 3. Apply HAPS Topic: Module C04 Organic compounds. HAPS Outcome: C04.04e Discuss physiological and structural roles in the human body of carbohydrates, proteins, lipids and nucleic acids. 41) Which is NOT true about protein kinases? A) They add phosphate groups to proteins. B) They produce effects similar to allosteric modulation. C) They perform the opposite function as phosphatases. D) They use ATP to carry out their reactions. E) They remove phosphate groups from proteins. Answer: E Section: 03.09 Topic: Organic compounds Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module C04 Organic compounds. HAPS Outcome: C04.04e Discuss physiological and structural roles in the human body of carbohydrates, proteins, lipids and nucleic acids. 42) The term "metabolism" A) is synonymous with the term "catabolism." B) is synonymous with the term "anabolism." C) refers to any chemical reaction that involves the production of energy. D) is defined as the covalent modification and activation of a protein with binding sites for organic molecules. E) refers to the synthesis and breakdown of organic molecules involved in cell structure and function. Answer: E Section: 03.10 Topic: Introduction to metabolism Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module O02 Introduction to Metabolism. HAPS Outcome: O02.01 Define metabolism, anabolism and catabolism. 18 Copyright 2019 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.
43) The rate of a reaction occurring in the absence of its enzyme is one molecule of product made per second. Which of the following is likely in the presence of its enzyme? A) No change to the rate of the reaction B) One molecule per minute C) One molecule per ten minutes D) One hundred molecules per minute Answer: D Section: 03.10 Topic: Clinical applications of homeostatic mechanisms of the cell Bloom's: Level 3. Apply HAPS Topic: Module O02 Introduction to Metabolism. HAPS Outcome: O02.02 Provide examples of anabolic and catabolic reactions. 44) How does a chemical catalyst increase the rate of a reaction? A) By acting as one of the reactant molecules B) By decreasing the energy of activation C) By increasing the energy content of the product molecules D) By increasing the temperature of a solution E) By phosphorylating a reactant Answer: B Section: 03.10 Topic: Clinical applications of homeostatic mechanisms of the cell Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module O02 Introduction to Metabolism. HAPS Outcome: O02.03 Compare and contrast the roles of enzymes and coenzymes in metabolism. 45) With regard to reversible chemical reaction rates, which of the following statements is true? A) Decreasing the concentration of the reactants will increase the forward reaction rate. B) Increasing the temperature will increase the forward and reverse reaction rate. C) Increasing the activation energy will increase the forward reaction rate. D) Increasing the concentration of the products will increase the forward reaction rate. E) As a reaction progresses, the rate of the forward reaction increases as the concentration of reactants decreases. Answer: B Section: 03.10 Topic: Clinical applications of homeostatic mechanisms of the cell Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module O02 Introduction to Metabolism. HAPS Outcome: O02.02 Provide examples of anabolic and catabolic reactions.
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46) When a reversible chemical reaction is at equilibrium, A) the rate of the reaction in one direction is equal to the rate in the reverse direction. B) the concentration of the reactants is equal to the concentration of the products. C) both the forward and reverse reactions stop occurring. D) the supply of reactants has become exhausted, so the forward reaction ceases and the rate of the reverse reaction increases. E) catalysts no longer influence either the forward or reverse reaction rates. Answer: A Section: 03.10 Topic: Clinical applications of homeostatic mechanisms of the cell Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module O02 Introduction to Metabolism. HAPS Outcome: O02.02 Provide examples of anabolic and catabolic reactions. 47) Which would be true about the following reaction? M+N ↔Y+Z A) Adding a catalyst would alter the final concentrations of products and reactants at equilibrium. B) Starting at chemical equilibrium, increasing the concentration of M will transiently increase the rate of formation of Y and Z. C) Starting at chemical equilibrium, decreasing the concentration of M will increase the concentration of Y and Z. D) Both: the reaction is reversible and at chemical equilibrium AND increasing the concentration of M will drive the reaction to the left are correct. E) Because the reactants and products are different molecules, this is not a reversible reaction. Answer: B Section: 03.10 Topic: Introduction to metabolism Bloom's: Level 2. Understand HAPS Topic: Module O02 Introduction to Metabolism. HAPS Outcome: O02.02 Provide examples of anabolic and catabolic reactions.
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48) Consider the reaction below, which of the following is TRUE? H2CO3 ↔ CO2 + H2O + 4 kcal/mol. A) The reaction is anabolic and the energy content of the reactant is greater than that of the products. B) The reaction is catabolic and the energy content of the reactant is greater than that of the products. C) The reaction is anabolic and the energy content of the products is greater than that of the reactant. D) The reaction is catabolic and the energy content of the products is greater than that of the reactant. E) The reaction is catabolic and the energy content of the products are equal to that of the reactant. Answer: B Section: 03.10 Topic: Introduction to metabolism Bloom's: Level 2. Understand HAPS Topic: Module O02 Introduction to Metabolism. HAPS Outcome: O02.02 Provide examples of anabolic and catabolic reactions. 49) At equilibrium, in an irreversible reaction A) almost all of the reactants will have been converted to products. B) there will be an equal number of products and reactants. C) there will be very few molecules of product. D) small amounts of energy will have been released. E) large amounts of energy must have been input to reach that state. Answer: A Section: 03.10 Topic: Introduction to metabolism Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module O02 Introduction to Metabolism. HAPS Outcome: O02.02 Provide examples of anabolic and catabolic reactions.
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50) What is the function of a catalyst in a chemical reaction? A) It lowers the activation energy of the reaction. B) It is split into individual molecules that are products of the reaction. C) It changes the energy content of the reactants. D) It generates heat that makes the reaction proceed. E) It ensures that the reaction can proceed only in one direction, from reactants to products. Answer: A Section: 03.10 Topic: Introduction to metabolism Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module O02 Introduction to Metabolism. HAPS Outcome: O02.03 Compare and contrast the roles of enzymes and coenzymes in metabolism. 51) Enzymes A) are catalysts in chemical reactions. B) can be carbohydrate molecules. C) are broken down during chemical reactions they catalyze. D) have names generally ending in the suffix "-ose." E) are polymers of ATP that store large amounts of energy. Answer: A Section: 03.11 Topic: Introduction to metabolism Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module O02 Introduction to Metabolism. HAPS Outcome: O02.03 Compare and contrast the roles of enzymes and coenzymes in metabolism. 52) Which is NOT true about cofactors involved in enzymatic reactions? A) They may alter the conformation of the enzyme. B) They may be a metal such as iron. C) They may be a substrate in a catalyzed reaction. D) There must be equal quantities of enzyme and cofactor molecules for a reaction to proceed. E) Only a small number of cofactor molecules may be needed to maintain enzyme activity. Answer: D Section: 03.11 Topic: Introduction to metabolism Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module C04 Organic compounds.; Module O02 Introduction to Metabolism. HAPS Outcome: O02.03 Compare and contrast the roles of enzymes and coenzymes in metabolism.; C04.06 Demonstrate factors that affect enzyme activity, including denaturation, and interpret graphs showing the effects of various factors on the rate of enzyme- catalyzed reactions. 22 Copyright 2019 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.
53) What is a coenzyme? A) An organic cofactor that directly participates as one of the substrates in an enzymatic reaction B) A metal, such as zinc, that participates in enzymatic reactions C) A term regarding enzymatic reactions that is synonymous with "cofactor" D) Any ligand that binds to a specific site on a protein receptor E) An inorganic molecule that catalyzes enzymatic reactions Answer: A Section: 03.11 Topic: Introduction to metabolism Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module C04 Organic compounds.; Module O02 Introduction to Metabolism. HAPS Outcome: O02.03 Compare and contrast the roles of enzymes and coenzymes in metabolism.; C04.06 Demonstrate factors that affect enzyme activity, including denaturation, and interpret graphs showing the effects of various factors on the rate of enzyme- catalyzed reactions. 54) Which of the following is true concerning the rate-limiting step in a metabolic pathway? A) It is likely to be the slowest reaction in the pathway, and it is always the last step in a metabolic pathway. B) It is likely to be the fastest reaction in the pathway, and it is always the last step in a metabolic pathway. C) It is always the first step in the pathway, and may be subject to end-product inhibition. D) It is likely to be the slowest reaction in the pathway, and it may be subject to end-product inhibition. E) It is likely to be the fastest reaction in the pathway, and it may be subject to end-product inhibition. Answer: D Section: 03.13 Topic: Introduction to metabolism Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module O02 Introduction to Metabolism. HAPS Outcome: O02.01 Define metabolism, anabolism and catabolism.
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55) In order to increase the overall rate of a metabolic pathway consisting of five reactions catalyzed by five different enzymes, which must occur? A) Increasing the reaction rate of all five enzymes B) Increasing the reaction rate of the fastest enzyme C) Increasing the reaction rate of the slowest enzyme D) Increasing the reaction rate of the first enzyme in the pathway E) Increasing the reaction rate of the last enzyme in the pathway Answer: C Section: 03.13 Topic: Introduction to metabolism Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module O02 Introduction to Metabolism. HAPS Outcome: O02.03 Compare and contrast the roles of enzymes and coenzymes in metabolism. 56) In a blood cell, water and carbon dioxide can combine in a reversible reaction to form carbonic acid. If the concentration of carbonic acid increases, which direction will the net reaction proceed in? A) The forward direction (toward more carbonic acid accumulation) B) The reverse direction (toward more water and carbon dioxide accumulation) C) The net rate will be unaffected by an increase in carbonic acid concentration. Answer: B Section: 03.10 Topic: Clinical applications of homeostatic mechanisms of the cell Bloom's: Level 3. Apply HAPS Topic: Module O02 Introduction to Metabolism. HAPS Outcome: O02.03 Compare and contrast the roles of enzymes and coenzymes in metabolism. 57) ATP is A) formed during the hydrolysis of ADP. B) used by cells for the storage of energy. C) used to transfer energy within a cell. D) a protein. E) a molecule with less total energy content than ADP. Answer: C Section: 03.14 Topic: Energy transfer using ATP Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module C05 Energy transfer using ATP. HAPS Outcome: C05.01 Describe the generalized reversible reaction for release of energy from ATP and explain the role of ATP in the cell.
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58) The site where most of the ATP is generated in a cell is the A) nucleus. B) plasma membrane. C) endoplasmic reticulum. D) Golgi apparatus. E) mitochondria. Answer: E Section: 03.03 Topic: Organelles Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module C09 Organelles. HAPS Outcome: C09.02c Describe the function of each different type of organelle associated with human cells. 59) ATP is A) a nucleotide. B) a lipid. C) an amino acid. D) a carbohydrate. E) a steroid. Answer: A Section: 03.14 Topic: Energy transfer using ATP Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module C05 Energy transfer using ATP. HAPS Outcome: C04.04e Discuss physiological and structural roles in the human body of carbohydrates, proteins, lipids and nucleic acids.; C04.04c Provide specific examples of carbohydrates, proteins, lipids and nucleic acids.
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60) Which is TRUE about glycolysis? A) It does not occur in the absence of O2. B) It does not occur in the presence of O2. C) It may result in the formation of two molecules of lactate for each molecule of glucose. D) It is a series of metabolic reactions that occur mainly inside the inner membrane of a mitochondrion. E) It is a metabolic reaction in which glucose is manufactured from large carbohydrates like glycogen. Answer: C Section: 03.14 Topic: Cellular respiration Bloom's: Level 2. Understand HAPS Topic: Module C11 Cellular respiration.; Module O03 Cellular respiration and the catabolism and anabolism of carbohydrates, lipids, and proteins. HAPS Outcome: C11.02 With respect to glycolysis, the Krebs (citric acid or TCA) cycle, and the electron transport chain: compare and contrast energy input, efficiency of energy production, oxygen use, by-products and cellular location.; O03.01d With respect to carbohydrate metabolism, describe the anaerobic process for generating ATP, including conditions under which it occurs and its products and their functions. 61) Which of the following metabolic pathways can proceed in the absence of oxygen? A) Glycolysis B) Oxidative phosphorylation C) Krebs cycle D) The breakdown of fatty acids to CO2 and H2O E) None of the choices are correct. Answer: A Section: 03.14 Topic: Cellular respiration Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module C11 Cellular respiration.; Module O03 Cellular respiration and the catabolism and anabolism of carbohydrates, lipids, and proteins. HAPS Outcome: C11.02 With respect to glycolysis, the Krebs (citric acid or TCA) cycle, and the electron transport chain: compare and contrast energy input, efficiency of energy production, oxygen use, by-products and cellular location.; O03.01d With respect to carbohydrate metabolism, describe the anaerobic process for generating ATP, including conditions under which it occurs and its products and their functions.
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62) What are the products of glycolysis under anaerobic conditions? A) 2 molecules of NADH and 2 molecules of water B) 2 molecules of pyruvate, 2 molecules of lactate, and 2 ATP C) 2 molecules of pyruvate and 36 molecules of ATP D) 2 molecules of ATP, 2 molecules of water, and 2 molecules of lactate E) 2 molecules of pyruvate, 2 molecules of water, and 2 NADH Answer: D Section: 03.14 Topic: Cellular respiration Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module C11 Cellular respiration.; Module O03 Cellular respiration and the catabolism and anabolism of carbohydrates, lipids, and proteins. HAPS Outcome: C11.02 With respect to glycolysis, the Krebs (citric acid or TCA) cycle, and the electron transport chain: compare and contrast energy input, efficiency of energy production, oxygen use, by-products and cellular location.; O03.01d With respect to carbohydrate metabolism, describe the anaerobic process for generating ATP, including conditions under which it occurs and its products and their functions. 63) Which of the following is NOT a product of glycolysis? A) Carbon dioxide B) ATP C) Pyruvate D) NADH Answer: A Section: 03.14 Topic: Cellular respiration Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module C11 Cellular respiration.; Module O03 Cellular respiration and the catabolism and anabolism of carbohydrates, lipids, and proteins. HAPS Outcome: C11.02 With respect to glycolysis, the Krebs (citric acid or TCA) cycle, and the electron transport chain: compare and contrast energy input, efficiency of energy production, oxygen use, by-products and cellular location.; O03.01b With respect to carbohydrate metabolism, describe the processes of glycolysis, formation of acetyl CoA, the Krebs (TCA) cycle, and the electron transport chain, including the substrates and products of each, their locations within the cell and the energy yield of each process.
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64) Cyanide is a molecule that binds irreversibly to and acts as an allosteric inhibitor for one of the cytochromes in the electron transport chain. Which of the following molecules would you see increased in the cells of a person suffering from cyanide poisoning? A) ATP B) Glucose C) Pyruvate D) NAD+ E) NADH Answer: E Section: 03.14 Topic: Cellular respiration Bloom's: Level 3. Apply HAPS Topic: Module C11 Cellular respiration. HAPS Outcome: C11.02 With respect to glycolysis, the Krebs (citric acid or TCA) cycle, and the electron transport chain: compare and contrast energy input, efficiency of energy production, oxygen use, by-products and cellular location. 65) The reactions of the Krebs cycle A) take place in the cytosol of human cells. B) generate ATP directly by substrate-level phosphorylation. C) are important for the metabolism of carbohydrates but not other molecules. D) take place only when no oxygen is present. E) produce pyruvate and lactate as end products. Answer: B Section: 03.14 Topic: Cellular respiration Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module C11 Cellular respiration.; Module O03 Cellular respiration and the catabolism and anabolism of carbohydrates, lipids, and proteins. HAPS Outcome: C11.02 With respect to glycolysis, the Krebs (citric acid or TCA) cycle, and the electron transport chain: compare and contrast energy input, efficiency of energy production, oxygen use, by-products and cellular location.; O03.01b With respect to carbohydrate metabolism, describe the processes of glycolysis, formation of acetyl CoA, the Krebs (TCA) cycle, and the electron transport chain, including the substrates and products of each, their locations within the cell and the energy yield of each process.
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66) Which is a series of reactions by which fatty acid catabolism occurs? A) Glycolysis B) Lipogenesis C) Beta-oxidation D) Glycogenolysis E) Phosphorylation Answer: C Section: 03.15 Topic: Metabolism of lipids Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module O03 Cellular respiration and the catabolism and anabolism of carbohydrates, lipids, and proteins. HAPS Outcome: O03.03d With respect to fat metabolism, summarize the overall process of the beta oxidation of fatty acids and explain how it relates to ketogenesis and ketoacidosis. 67) Which is NOT true about fatty acid synthesis? A) Takes place in the cytosol of cells B) Results in molecules with an even number of carbon atoms only C) Requires more energy than is produced by the catabolism of the same fatty acid D) Begins with a molecule of acetyl coenzyme A E) The enzymes that catalyze it are in the same location as those that mediate fatty acid catabolism Answer: E Section: 03.15 Topic: Metabolism of lipids Bloom's: Level 2. Understand HAPS Topic: Module O03 Cellular respiration and the catabolism and anabolism of carbohydrates, lipids, and proteins. HAPS Outcome: O03.03e With respect to fat metabolism, describe the nutrient interconversion pathways that involve fats.
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68) Most energy in the body is stored in what form? A) ATP B) Glucose C) Fat D) Protein E) DNA Answer: C Section: 03.15 Topic: Metabolic roles of body organs Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module C04 Organic compounds.; Module O04 Metabolic roles of body organs. HAPS Outcome: C04.04e Discuss physiological and structural roles in the human body of carbohydrates, proteins, lipids and nucleic acids.; O04.02 Explain the role of adipose tissue in metabolism. 69) Ammonia is A) a waste product of fatty acid metabolism. B) exhaled by the lungs into the air. C) processed by the liver to form urea, a less toxic compound. D) a waste product of fatty acid metabolism and is excreted by the kidneys into urine. E) a polypeptide containing many amino acids. Answer: C Section: 03.15 Topic: Metabolism of proteins Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module O03 Cellular respiration and the catabolism and anabolism of carbohydrates, lipids, and proteins. HAPS Outcome: O03.02e With respect to protein and amino acid metabolism, describe the effect of protein metabolism on ammonia and urea production.
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70) Before an amino acid can be broken down for energy A) the side chain must be removed. B) the carboxyl group must be removed. C) it must be converted to NAD+. D) the amino group must be removed. E) it must be phosphorylated. Answer: D Section: 03.15 Topic: Metabolism of proteins Bloom's: Level 2. Understand HAPS Topic: Module O03 Cellular respiration and the catabolism and anabolism of carbohydrates, lipids, and proteins. HAPS Outcome: O03.02d With respect to protein and amino acid metabolism, explain how protein catabolism leads to ATP production.; O03.02b With respect to protein and amino acid metabolism, describe the process of deamination and its importance in gluconeogenesis and the interconversion of nutrients.; O03.02c With respect to protein and amino acid metabolism, describe the process of transamination in the interconversion of nutrients. 71) Many popular diet trends involve severe reductions in dietary carbohydrates so that the body must utilize fats and lipids as energy sources. Under these conditions, which of the following would be an enhanced entry pathway in cellular respiration? A) Glycolysis B) Krebs cycle C) Oxidative phosphorylation D) Cellular respiration could begin with any of these processes. Answer: B Section: 03.14 Topic: Cellular respiration Bloom's: Level 3. Apply HAPS Topic: Module O03 Cellular respiration and the catabolism and anabolism of carbohydrates, lipids, and proteins. HAPS Outcome: O03.01b With respect to carbohydrate metabolism, describe the processes of glycolysis, formation of acetyl CoA, the Krebs (TCA) cycle, and the electron transport chain, including the substrates and products of each, their locations within the cell and the energy yield of each process.
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72) Many popular diet trends involve severe reductions in dietary carbohydrates so that the body must utilize fats and lipids as energy sources. Under these conditions, a greater than usual rate of protein deamination occurs. Which of the following could be expected? A) More volume or more concentrated urine B) Headaches C) Increased rate for all enzymes in the body D) Decreased rate for all enzymes in the body E) A change in membrane fluidity Answer: A Section: 03.15 Topic: Cellular respiration Bloom's: Level 5. Evaluate HAPS Topic: Module O03 Cellular respiration and the catabolism and anabolism of carbohydrates, lipids, and proteins. HAPS Outcome: O03.02d With respect to protein and amino acid metabolism, explain how protein catabolism leads to ATP production. 73) Electrons transferred along the electron transport chain can be used to form A) water. B) glucose. C) ATP. D) NADH. E) acetyl coenzyme A. Answer: A Section: 03.14 Topic: Cellular respiration Bloom's: Level 2. Understand HAPS Topic: Module O03 Cellular respiration and the catabolism and anabolism of carbohydrates, lipids, and proteins. HAPS Outcome: O03.01b With respect to carbohydrate metabolism, describe the processes of glycolysis, formation of acetyl CoA, the Krebs (TCA) cycle, and the electron transport chain, including the substrates and products of each, their locations within the cell and the energy yield of each process.
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74) Your colleague has discovered a new species and you are viewing one of the cells under the electron microscope. You see a large, oval-shaped structure in the center of the cell, surrounded by a membrane. After this observation, you hypothesize that the cells of this species are prokaryotic cells. Answer: FALSE Section: 03.01 Topic: Intracellular organization of nucleus and cytoplasm. Bloom's: Level 3. Apply HAPS Topic: Module C06 Intracellular organization of nucleus and cytoplasm. HAPS Outcome: C06.01 Identify the three main parts of a cell, and list the general functions of each. 75) A light microscope can be used to view very large proteins in a cell. Answer: FALSE Section: 03.01 Topic: Microscope Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module C04 Organic compounds. HAPS Outcome: C04.04b Compare and contrast general molecular structure of carbohydrates, proteins, lipids and nucleic acids. 76) Living cells cannot be viewed under an electron microscope. Answer: TRUE Section: 03.01 Topic: Microscope Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module A06 Levels of organization. HAPS Outcome: A06.01 Describe, in order from simplest to most complex, the major levels of organization in the human organism. 77) One striking feature of plasma membrane structure is its symmetry, with the extracellular and cytoplasmic surfaces virtual mirror images of each other. Answer: FALSE Section: 03.02 Topic: Membrane structure and function Bloom's: Level 2. Understand HAPS Topic: Module C07 Membrane structure and function. HAPS Outcome: C07.03 Describe how proteins are distributed in a cell membrane, and explain their functions.; C07.01 Describe how lipids are distributed in a cell membrane, and explain their functions.; C07.02 Describe how carbohydrates are distributed in a cell membrane, and explain their functions.
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78) Intracellular fluid is defined as the fluid in the cytosol and organelles. Answer: TRUE Section: 03.01 Topic: Intracellular organization Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module C06 Intracellular organization of nucleus and cytoplasm. HAPS Outcome: C06.01 Identify the three main parts of a cell, and list the general functions of each. 79) The major lipids in cellular membranes are phospholipids. Answer: TRUE Section: 03.02 Topic: Membrane structure and function Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module C07 Membrane structure and function. HAPS Outcome: C07.01 Describe how lipids are distributed in a cell membrane, and explain their functions. 80) The special functions of plasma and organelle membranes depend primarily on the specific composition of the phospholipids of those membranes. Answer: FALSE Section: 03.02 Topic: Membrane structure and function Bloom's: Level 2. Understand HAPS Topic: Module C07 Membrane structure and function. HAPS Outcome: C07.03 Describe how proteins are distributed in a cell membrane, and explain their functions.; C07.01 Describe how lipids are distributed in a cell membrane, and explain their functions.; C07.02 Describe how carbohydrates are distributed in a cell membrane, and explain their functions. 81) One function of integral membrane proteins in the plasma membrane of cells is to form channels to allow passage of nonpolar solutes into the cell. Answer: FALSE Section: 03.02 Topic: Membrane structure and function Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module C07 Membrane structure and function. HAPS Outcome: C07.03 Describe how proteins are distributed in a cell membrane, and explain their functions.
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82) Peripheral membrane proteins are involved in regulating cell shape and motility. Answer: TRUE Section: 03.02 Topic: Membrane structure and function Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module C07 Membrane structure and function. HAPS Outcome: C07.03 Describe how proteins are distributed in a cell membrane, and explain their functions. 83) Desmosomes are structures that permit direct communication between cells by allowing the cells to exchange small molecules in their cytoplasms. Answer: FALSE Section: 03.02 Topic: Membrane structure and function Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module C07 Membrane structure and function. HAPS Outcome: C07.03 Describe how proteins are distributed in a cell membrane, and explain their functions. 84) Chromosomes are composed mainly of DNA. Answer: TRUE Section: 03.03 Topic: Organelles Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module C09 Organelles. HAPS Outcome: C09.02b Describe the structure of each different type of organelle associated with human cells.; C12.04 Analyze the interrelationships among chromatin, chromosomes and chromatids. 85) Free ribosomes differ from membrane-bound ribosomes in that free ribosomes specialize in synthesizing proteins for export (secretion) from the cell. Answer: FALSE Section: 03.03 Topic: Organelles Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module C09 Organelles. HAPS Outcome: C09.02c Describe the function of each different type of organelle associated with human cells.
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86) Lysosomes are organelles specialized for breaking down intracellular debris or malfunctioning parts of cells. Answer: TRUE Section: 03.03 Topic: Organelles Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module C09 Organelles. HAPS Outcome: C09.02c Describe the function of each different type of organelle associated with human cells. 87) The promoter sequence of nucleotides in a gene is present on both strands of the DNA molecule, allowing transcription of both strands. Answer: FALSE Section: 03.05 Topic: Protein synthesis Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module C10 Protein synthesis. HAPS Outcome: C10.02 Explain how and why RNA is synthesized. 88) Ribosomes transcribe DNA into RNA. Answer: FALSE Section: 03.03; 03.05 Topic: Protein synthesis Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module C10 Protein synthesis. HAPS Outcome: C10.01 Define the terms genetic code, transcription and translation. 89) You are isolating molecules from different parts of a cell in the lab. You find that you've mixed up your tubes. In one tube, you've identified RNA. Therefore this tube must be from the nucleus, it could not be from the cytosol. Answer: FALSE Section: 03.03 Topic: Organelles Bloom's: Level 3. Apply HAPS Topic: Module C09 Organelles. HAPS Outcome: C09.02b Describe the structure of each different type of organelle associated with human cells.
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90) The nucleotide triplet in tRNA that base-pairs with a complementary triplet in mRNA is called the codon. Answer: FALSE Section: 03.05 Topic: Protein synthesis Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module C10 Protein synthesis. HAPS Outcome: C10.03 Explain the roles of tRNA, mRNA, and rRNA in protein synthesis. 91) There are twenty different aminoacyl-tRNA synthetases. Answer: TRUE Section: 03.05 Topic: Protein synthesis Bloom's: Level 2. Understand HAPS Topic: Module C10 Protein synthesis.; Module O03 Cellular respiration and the catabolism and anabolism of carbohydrates, lipids, and proteins. HAPS Outcome: C10.03 Explain the roles of tRNA, mRNA, and rRNA in protein synthesis.; O03.02a With respect to protein and amino acid metabolism, describe the basic process of protein synthesis. 92) Once protein synthesis is completed, the protein that was synthesized may undergo further changes prior to its secretion or use within the cell. Answer: TRUE Section: 03.05 Topic: Protein synthesis Bloom's: Level 2. Understand HAPS Topic: Module C10 Protein synthesis. HAPS Outcome: O03.02a With respect to protein and amino acid metabolism, describe the basic process of protein synthesis. 93) Transcription factors activate or repress the transcription of specific genes by binding to regions of DNA that interact with the promoter region of a gene. Answer: TRUE Section: 03.05 Topic: Protein synthesis Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module C10 Protein synthesis. HAPS Outcome: O03.02a With respect to protein and amino acid metabolism, describe the basic process of protein synthesis.; C10.02 Explain how and why RNA is synthesized.
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94) All proteins exist in the cell for the same length of time before being destroyed. Answer: FALSE Section: 03.06 Topic: Protein synthesis Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module O03 Cellular respiration and the catabolism and anabolism of carbohydrates, lipids, and proteins. HAPS Outcome: O03.02a With respect to protein and amino acid metabolism, describe the basic process of protein synthesis. 95) Proteins destined to become integral membrane proteins have a signal sequence. Answer: TRUE Section: 03.07 Topic: Protein synthesis Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module O03 Cellular respiration and the catabolism and anabolism of carbohydrates, lipids, and proteins. HAPS Outcome: O03.02a With respect to protein and amino acid metabolism, describe the basic process of protein synthesis. 96) The consequences of mutations are invariably harmful. Answer: FALSE Section: 03.05 Topic: Protein synthesis Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module O03 Cellular respiration and the catabolism and anabolism of carbohydrates, lipids, and proteins. HAPS Outcome: O03.02a With respect to protein and amino acid metabolism, describe the basic process of protein synthesis. 97) The deletion of a single base in a gene would alter the structure of the gene's protein more than the substitution of one base for another. Answer: TRUE Section: 03.05 Topic: Protein synthesis Bloom's: Level 2. Understand HAPS Topic: Module O03 Cellular respiration and the catabolism and anabolism of carbohydrates, lipids, and proteins. HAPS Outcome: O03.02a With respect to protein and amino acid metabolism, describe the basic process of protein synthesis.
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98) In general, the larger the number of different ligands that can bind to a particular binding site on a protein, the less the specificity of that binding site. Answer: TRUE Section: 03.08 Topic: Organic compounds Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module C04 Organic compounds. HAPS Outcome: C04.04e Discuss physiological and structural roles in the human body of carbohydrates, proteins, lipids and nucleic acids. 99) The shape of a ligand and the shape of its binding site influence both the specificity and the affinity of binding. Answer: TRUE Section: 03.08 Topic: Organic compounds Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module C04 Organic compounds. HAPS Outcome: C04.04e Discuss physiological and structural roles in the human body of carbohydrates, proteins, lipids and nucleic acids. 100) Any given protein contains binding sites for only one kind of ligand. Answer: FALSE Section: 03.08 Topic: Organic compounds Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module C04 Organic compounds. HAPS Outcome: C04.04e Discuss physiological and structural roles in the human body of carbohydrates, proteins, lipids and nucleic acids. 101) The greater the ligand concentration needed to achieve 50% saturation of a particular binding site, the higher the affinity of the binding site for that ligand. Answer: FALSE Section: 03.08 Topic: Organic compounds Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module C04 Organic compounds. HAPS Outcome: C04.04e Discuss physiological and structural roles in the human body of carbohydrates, proteins, lipids and nucleic acids.
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102) Allosteric modulation of a protein involves noncovalent binding of a ligand to a regulatory binding site. Answer: TRUE Section: 03.09 Topic: Organic compounds Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module C04 Organic compounds. HAPS Outcome: C04.04e Discuss physiological and structural roles in the human body of carbohydrates, proteins, lipids and nucleic acids.; C04.06 Demonstrate factors that affect enzyme activity, including denaturation, and interpret graphs showing the effects of various factors on the rate of enzyme- catalyzed reactions. 103) The only role of modulator molecules is to enhance the binding affinity of the functional site of an allosteric protein. Answer: FALSE Section: 03.09 Topic: Organic compounds Bloom's: Level 2. Understand HAPS Topic: Module C04 Organic compounds. HAPS Outcome: C04.04e Discuss physiological and structural roles in the human body of carbohydrates, proteins, lipids and nucleic acids. 104) Proteins that mediate or catalyze reactions in which the covalent bonding of the reactant molecules changes are called substrates. Answer: FALSE Section: 03.09 Topic: Organic compounds Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module O02 Introduction to Metabolism. HAPS Outcome: O02.03 Compare and contrast the roles of enzymes and coenzymes in metabolism. 105) Coenzymes are organic cofactors. Answer: TRUE Section: 03.11 Topic: Organic compounds Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module C04 Organic compounds.; Module O02 Introduction to Metabolism. HAPS Outcome: O02.03 Compare and contrast the roles of enzymes and coenzymes in metabolism.; C04.06 Demonstrate factors that affect enzyme activity, including denaturation, and interpret graphs showing the effects of various factors on the rate of enzyme- catalyzed reactions. 40 Copyright 2019 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.
106) An important function of coenzymes is to act as carriers to transport hydrogen atoms. Answer: TRUE Section: 03.11 Topic: Organic compounds Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module O02 Introduction to Metabolism. HAPS Outcome: O02.03 Compare and contrast the roles of enzymes and coenzymes in metabolism.; O02.04 Explain the roles of coenzyme A, NAD, and FAD in metabolism. 107) The active site of an enzyme is a functional binding site. Answer: TRUE Section: 03.09 Topic: Organic compounds Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module O02 Introduction to Metabolism. HAPS Outcome: O02.03 Compare and contrast the roles of enzymes and coenzymes in metabolism. 108) The enzyme carbonic anhydrase catalyzes the catabolism of H2CO3 to H2O and CO2. Answer: TRUE Section: 03.11 Topic: Organic compounds Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module O02 Introduction to Metabolism. HAPS Outcome: O02.03 Compare and contrast the roles of enzymes and coenzymes in metabolism.; O02.01 Define metabolism, anabolism and catabolism. 109) In the lab you are re-creating the metabolic pathway that produces the hormone testosterone. Unfortunately, you've run out of the enzyme that catalyzes the third reaction. It's no problem, though, because you can substitute any of the other enzymes as all enzymes in a metabolic pathway are interchangeable. Answer: FALSE Section: 03.11 Topic: Introduction to metabolism Bloom's: Level 3. Apply HAPS Topic: Module O02 Introduction to Metabolism. HAPS Outcome: O02.03 Compare and contrast the roles of enzymes and coenzymes in metabolism.
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110) The rate-limiting reaction in a metabolic pathway is one that occurs at a faster rate than the other steps in the pathway. Answer: FALSE Section: 03.13 Topic: Introduction to metabolism Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module O02 Introduction to Metabolism. HAPS Outcome: O02.03 Compare and contrast the roles of enzymes and coenzymes in metabolism. 111) Allosteric inhibition of rate-limiting enzymes is a common means of regulating anabolic pathways. Answer: TRUE Section: 03.09; 03.13 Topic: Introduction to metabolism Bloom's: Level 2. Understand HAPS Topic: Module C04 Organic compounds.; Module O02 Introduction to Metabolism. HAPS Outcome: O02.03 Compare and contrast the roles of enzymes and coenzymes in metabolism.; C04.06 Demonstrate factors that affect enzyme activity, including denaturation, and interpret graphs showing the effects of various factors on the rate of enzyme- catalyzed reactions. 112) During oxidative phosphorylation, hydrogen atoms are passed serially from a coenzyme down a chain of molecules called cytochromes. Answer: FALSE Section: 03.14 Topic: Cellular respiration Bloom's: Level 2. Understand HAPS Topic: Module C11 Cellular respiration.; Module O03 Cellular respiration and the catabolism and anabolism of carbohydrates, lipids, and proteins. HAPS Outcome: C11.02 With respect to glycolysis, the Krebs (citric acid or TCA) cycle, and the electron transport chain: compare and contrast energy input, efficiency of energy production, oxygen use, by-products and cellular location.; O03.01b With respect to carbohydrate metabolism, describe the processes of glycolysis, formation of acetyl CoA, the Krebs (TCA) cycle, and the electron transport chain, including the substrates and products of each, their locations within the cell and the energy yield of each process.
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113) In the absence of oxygen, cells can derive energy to form ATP from the metabolism of fatty acids. Answer: FALSE Section: 03.14 Topic: Cellular respiration Bloom's: Level 2. Understand HAPS Topic: Module O03 Cellular respiration and the catabolism and anabolism of carbohydrates, lipids, and proteins. HAPS Outcome: O03.03e With respect to fat metabolism, describe the nutrient interconversion pathways that involve fats.; O03.01d With respect to carbohydrate metabolism, describe the anaerobic process for generating ATP, including conditions under which it occurs and its products and their functions. 114) The first step in glycogen synthesis is the phosphorylation of glucose. Answer: TRUE Section: 03.15 Topic: Metabolic roles of body organs Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module O03 Cellular respiration and the catabolism and anabolism of carbohydrates, lipids, and proteins. HAPS Outcome: O03.01e With respect to carbohydrate metabolism, describe the processes of glycogenesis, glycogenolysis, and gluconeogenesis, including the substrates and products of each. 115) Glucose cannot be synthesized from fatty acids because the reaction converting pyruvic acid to acetyl coenzyme A is not reversible. Answer: TRUE Section: 03.15 Topic: Cellular respiration Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module O03 Cellular respiration and the catabolism and anabolism of carbohydrates, lipids, and proteins. HAPS Outcome: O03.01e With respect to carbohydrate metabolism, describe the processes of glycogenesis, glycogenolysis, and gluconeogenesis, including the substrates and products of each.
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116) Substrate-level phosphorylation takes place in the ribosomes of cells, whereas oxidative phosphorylation takes place in mitochondria. Answer: FALSE Section: 03.14 Topic: Cellular respiration Bloom's: Level 2. Understand HAPS Topic: Module C11 Cellular respiration.; Module O03 Cellular respiration and the catabolism and anabolism of carbohydrates, lipids, and proteins. HAPS Outcome: C11.02 With respect to glycolysis, the Krebs (citric acid or TCA) cycle, and the electron transport chain: compare and contrast energy input, efficiency of energy production, oxygen use, by-products and cellular location.; O03.01b With respect to carbohydrate metabolism, describe the processes of glycolysis, formation of acetyl CoA, the Krebs (TCA) cycle, and the electron transport chain, including the substrates and products of each, their locations within the cell and the energy yield of each process. 117) During anaerobic glycolysis, a net of two molecules of ATP are generated for each molecule of glucose broken down. Answer: TRUE Section: 03.14 Topic: Cellular respiration Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module O03 Cellular respiration and the catabolism and anabolism of carbohydrates, lipids, and proteins. HAPS Outcome: O03.01d With respect to carbohydrate metabolism, describe the anaerobic process for generating ATP, including conditions under which it occurs and its products and their functions. 118) NAD+ is a byproduct of cellular respiration that diffuses out of the cell and is eliminated from the body in urine. Answer: FALSE Section: 03.14 Topic: Cellular respiration Bloom's: Level 2. Understand HAPS Topic: Module O03 Cellular respiration and the catabolism and anabolism of carbohydrates, lipids, and proteins. HAPS Outcome: O03.01d With respect to carbohydrate metabolism, describe the anaerobic process for generating ATP, including conditions under which it occurs and its products and their functions.
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119) In the Krebs cycle, an acetyl fragment is broken down to CO2 and H+ ions. Answer: TRUE Section: 03.14 Topic: Cellular respiration Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module O03 Cellular respiration and the catabolism and anabolism of carbohydrates, lipids, and proteins. HAPS Outcome: O03.01b With respect to carbohydrate metabolism, describe the processes of glycolysis, formation of acetyl CoA, the Krebs (TCA) cycle, and the electron transport chain, including the substrates and products of each, their locations within the cell and the energy yield of each process. 120) The major waste product of metabolism is H2O. Answer: FALSE Section: 03.14 Topic: Cellular respiration Bloom's: Level 2. Understand HAPS Topic: Module C11 Cellular respiration.; Module O03 Cellular respiration and the catabolism and anabolism of carbohydrates, lipids, and proteins. HAPS Outcome: C11.02 With respect to glycolysis, the Krebs (citric acid or TCA) cycle, and the electron transport chain: compare and contrast energy input, efficiency of energy production, oxygen use, by-products and cellular location.; O03.01b With respect to carbohydrate metabolism, describe the processes of glycolysis, formation of acetyl CoA, the Krebs (TCA) cycle, and the electron transport chain, including the substrates and products of each, their locations within the cell and the energy yield of each process. 121) Most of the energy stored in the body is in the form of glycogen. Answer: FALSE Section: 03.15 Topic: Metabolic roles of body organs Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module O03 Cellular respiration and the catabolism and anabolism of carbohydrates, lipids, and proteins. HAPS Outcome: C04.04e Discuss physiological and structural roles in the human body of carbohydrates, proteins, lipids and nucleic acids.
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122) All water in the human body comes from dietary sources. Answer: FALSE Section: 03.14 Topic: Cellular respiration Bloom's: Level 3. Apply HAPS Topic: Module C11 Cellular respiration. HAPS Outcome: C11.02 With respect to glycolysis, the Krebs (citric acid or TCA) cycle, and the electron transport chain: compare and contrast energy input, efficiency of energy production, oxygen use, by-products and cellular location. 123) Proteins are broken down to amino acids by enzymes called transaminases. Answer: FALSE Section: 03.15 Topic: Metabolism of proteins Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module O03 Cellular respiration and the catabolism and anabolism of carbohydrates, lipids, and proteins. HAPS Outcome: O03.02d With respect to protein and amino acid metabolism, explain how protein catabolism leads to ATP production. 124) Removal of the amino group from an amino acid is necessary before the amino acid can be metabolized for energy. Answer: TRUE Section: 03.15 Topic: Metabolism of proteins Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module O03 Cellular respiration and the catabolism and anabolism of carbohydrates, lipids, and proteins. HAPS Outcome: O03.02d With respect to protein and amino acid metabolism, explain how protein catabolism leads to ATP production. 125) Human beings can synthesize all twenty amino acids the body must have. Answer: FALSE Section: 03.16 Topic: Introduction to nutrition Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module O01 Nutrition. HAPS Outcome: O01.01b With respect to nutrients, list the six main classes of nutrients.
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126) An essential nutrient is one necessary for good health that is not synthesized by the body. Answer: TRUE Section: 03.16 Topic: Introduction to nutrition Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module O01 Nutrition. HAPS Outcome: O01.01a With respect to nutrients, define nutrient, essential nutrient and nonessential nutrient. 127) Glucose is not considered an essential nutrient because it is not essential for good health. Answer: FALSE Section: 03.16 Topic: Introduction to nutrition Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module O01 Nutrition. HAPS Outcome: O01.01a With respect to nutrients, define nutrient, essential nutrient and nonessential nutrient. 128) A clinical disease that results in an inability to absorb fats will not result in malnutrition. Answer: FALSE Section: 03.16 Topic: Introduction to nutrition; Clinical applications of nutrition and metabolism Bloom's: Level 3. Apply HAPS Topic: Module O01 Nutrition. HAPS Outcome: O01.01b With respect to nutrients, list the six main classes of nutrients. 129) Tom tries a new diet that involves no food intake. Instead of eating, he takes plenty of multivitamin pills. This is OK because vitamins are a significant source of energy. Answer: FALSE Section: 03.16 Topic: Introduction to nutrition; Clinical applications of nutrition and metabolism Bloom's: Level 3. Apply HAPS Topic: Module O01 Nutrition. HAPS Outcome: O01.01b With respect to nutrients, list the six main classes of nutrients.
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130) You are observing the rate of an enzymatic reaction. You continue to add substrate in higher and higher concentrations, but eventually you see the rate of reaction plateau, no further increases in the rate of the reaction could be observed. Which of the following are plausible explanations for your observation (select all that apply)? A) The enzyme has become saturated. B) The substrate solution has become contaminated with an allosteric inhibitor. C) The enzyme molecules are being used up and broken down by the reaction. D) Over time, the substrate molecules are denaturing. E) The temperature of the room needs to increase to increase the rate of reaction. Answer: A, B Section: 03.08 Topic: Protein synthesis Bloom's: Level 4. Analyze HAPS Topic: Module C14 Application of homeostatic mechanisms. HAPS Outcome: C14.01 Provide specific examples to demonstrate how individual cells respond to their environment (e.g., in terms of organelle function, transport processes, protein synthesis, or regulation of cell cycle) in order to maintain homeostasis in the body. 131) A metabolic pathway results in the synthesis of a hormone. The presence of that hormone inhibits the second reaction in the pathway. Which of the following terms are appropriate descriptions of this inhibition? A) End-product inhibition B) Negative feedback C) Covalent modification D) Catabolic inhibition E) Affinity Answer: A, B Section: 03.13 Topic: Introduction to metabolism Bloom's: Level 2. Understand HAPS Topic: Module O02 Introduction to Metabolism. HAPS Outcome: O02.03 Compare and contrast the roles of enzymes and coenzymes in metabolism.
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132) Which of the following are TRUE of the Krebs cycle? A) Oxygen is required. B) Fats can be utilized as an energy source through conversion to acetyl-coA. C) Carbohydrates can be utilized as an energy source through conversion to acetyl-coA. D) It takes place in the cytosol. E) Only muscle cells utilize it as a way to make ATP. Answer: A, B, C Section: 03.13 Topic: Cellular respiration Bloom's: Level 2. Understand HAPS Topic: Module C11 Cellular respiration. HAPS Outcome: C11.02 With respect to glycolysis, the Krebs (citric acid or TCA) cycle, and the electron transport chain: compare and contrast energy input, efficiency of energy production, oxygen use, by-products and cellular location.
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Vander's Human Physiology, 15e (Widmaier) Chapter 4 Movement of Solutes and Water Across Cell Membranes 1) Which of the following statements regarding the structure and function of cell membranes is correct? A) The phospholipid bilayer is arranged so that the hydrophilic heads of the phospholipid molecule face the extra- and intracellular fluids. B) Some proteins integrated into the membrane serve as channels for the passage of nonpolar molecules through the membrane. C) Peripheral membrane proteins function as channels associated with transport of ions through the membrane. D) Cholesterol molecules function to transport ions from one side of the plasma membrane to the other. E) The plasma membrane is a layer of phospholipid molecules with their hyrophilic head groups in contact with the extracellular solution and the hydrophobic tail groups in contact with the intracellular solution. 2) CO2 is a small, non-polar molecule. It will cross the cell membrane by A) simple diffusion. B) diffusion through a channel. C) active transport. D) diffusion using a pump. 3) At a very low temperature known as absolute zero, there is no random molecular motion. At absolute zero, would diffusion occur? A) No, because diffusion depends upon the random motion of molecules. B) Yes, because diffusion rates are temperature-independent. C) Yes, as long as concentration gradients still exist. D) Yes, because diffusion can use energy in the form of ATP. E) Yes, as long as integral membrane proteins are still intact. 4) A solute, X, is placed in compartment A of a two compartment container and allowed to diffuse to compartment B and attain diffusion equilibrium. At that point in time, A) there will be no further movement of any solute molecules between compartments. B) solutes will be moving in both directions equally. C) solutes will only continue to move from A to B. D) solutes will only continue to move from B to A. E) the concentration in compartment B will be much higher than that in compartment A.
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5) Which of the following statements regarding the diffusion of a nonpolar solute X across a cell membrane is correct? A) At equilibrium, the net flux of X across the cell membrane is zero. B) At equilibrium, X will cease moving across the cell membrane. C) Solute X will be unable to reach equilibrium because it is nonpolar. D) Solute X will reach equilibrium, but the concentration will be much higher on the inside of the cell because of the smaller volume. E) At equilibrium, movement of X across the membrane will be much faster in one direction than in the other. 6) Substance A, a penetrating solute, crosses the membrane at a rate of 10 molecules per second. When a patient has a fever and body temperature is elevated, we would expect the cell to have a rate of A) less than 10 molecules per second. B) 10 molecules per second. C) more than 10 molecules per second. 7) Equal amounts of two solutes, A and B, are placed into the same beaker of water at the same time. Solute A reaches diffusion equilibrium faster than solute B. What is the most likely explanation for this observation? A) The temperature was greater for solute A than solute B. B) The concentration gradient for A was greater than B. C) Solute A is smaller than solute B. D) Solute A traveled a shorter distance than solute B. E) Solute B is more soluble in water than solute A. 8) In general, polar molecules diffuse more rapidly through the lipid bilayer part of cell membranes than do nonpolar molecules. This statement is A) true. B) false, because polar molecules diffuse through less rapidly because the bilayer is polar throughout its width. C) false, because polar molecules diffuse through less rapidly because the bilayer is nonpolar throughout its width. D) false, because nonpolar molecules diffuse through more rapidly because much of the bilayer is nonpolar. E) false, because the rate of diffusion of nonpolar and polar molecules through the bilayer is essentially the same as long as the molecules are the same size. 9) Substance X is a mostly polar molecule and Substance Y is a mostly non-polar molecule of a similar size. Which will diffuse from the extracellular fluid to the intracellular fluid faster if they are in equal concentrations outside and inside the cell? A) Substance X will diffuse faster. B) Substance Y will diffuse faster. C) Substance X and Substance Y will diffuse at the same rate, as they are of equal size and concentration.
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10) Red blood cells have a higher proportion of aquaporins on the membrane than skin cells do. Assuming equal osmotic pressures, which is true? A) The rate of osmosis is faster in skin cells than red blood cells. B) The rate of osmosis is faster in red blood cells than in skin cells. C) The rate of diffusion for non-polar molecules is faster in red blood cells than skin cells. D) The rate of diffusion for non-polar molecules is faster in skin cells than red blood cells. E) No significant differences in osmosis or diffusion rates between these cells. 11) The concentrations of two substances are increasing outside the cell. For substance A, transport into the cell increases proportionally as the concentration outside increases. For substance B transport into the cell increases but then levels off despite the concentration outside continuing to increase. What is the explanation for this? A) Competition B) Saturation C) Specificity D) Affinity 12) The human hormone estrogen is highly nonpolar. After being secreted, estrogen will be found A) at low concentrations in all cells of the body. B) at high concentrations just in the cells that express a membrane-bound receptor. C) trapped in endocytic vesicles in cells that express a membrane-bound receptor. D) in the lysosome of all cells of the body. 13) You are designing a drug. You'd like to deliver the drug by creating a skin patch that is impregnated with the drug and allowing the drug to diffuse through the layers of the skin to reach the underlying tissues and bloodstream. Which of these chemical changes might you make to increase the number of drug molecules that diffuse through the layers of skin cells? A) Increasing the number of ionized groups in the drug B) Increasing the number of nitrogen atoms in the drug C) Decreasing the number of nonpolar groups in the drug D) Decreasing the number of polar groups in the drug E) Increasing the number of oxygen atoms in the drug 14) The permeability of the plasma membrane to mineral ions A) is not influenced by channels formed by proteins. B) is the same in all cell types. C) is affected by differences in electrical charge on the two sides of the membrane. D) is zero in all living cells. E) is only possible because of the hydrophobic interior of the lipid bilayer.
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15) Ion channels in cell membranes A) are nonspecific. B) are not affected by differences in electrical potential across the membrane. C) may open in response to binding a ligand. D) only allow ions to move from the extracellular fluid into the cell. E) only allow ions to move from the intracellular fluid out of the cell. 16) Which is true about mediated transport across cell membranes? A) It refers to the movement of ions through protein channels. B) It refers both to simple diffusion and to the active transport of molecules. C) It is characterized by saturable carriers and a maximum velocity of transport. D) As the concentration gradient across a membrane increases, the transport rate always increases. E) It is nonspecific; any transporter can transport any molecule across the cell membrane. 17) Which is true about mediated transport of substances across cell membranes? A) It involves a specific membrane protein that functions as a carrier molecule. B) It always involves the movement of substances against a concentration gradient. C) It is always directly coupled to the splitting of ATP molecules. D) There is no limit to how fast it can occur as the concentration gradient becomes larger. E) It is the main mechanism for transporting hydrophobic molecules across membranes. 18) Which of the following is a feature that distinguishes active transport from facilitated diffusion? A) Saturation of transport rate B) Requirement for a carrier molecule C) Carrier molecules have specificity D) Presence of a transport maximum E) Requirement for metabolic energy 19) Which is true regarding the mediated transport of a substance across a plasma membrane? A) It depends upon the binding of that substance to a specific site on the membrane protein. B) It depends upon movement of proteins from one side of the membrane to the other. C) It always increases in direct proportion to the increasing concentration of the substance on one side of the membrane. D) Both "depends upon the binding of that substance to a specific site on the membrane protein" and "depends upon movement of proteins from one side of the membrane to the other" are correct. E) All of the choices are correct.
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20) You examine a cell by electron microscopy and find a molecule on the outside of the cell and in vesicles in the cytoplasm. The most likely explanation is that this substance moved into the cell by A) diffusion. B) osmosis. C) facilitated diffusion. D) endocytosis. E) apoptosis. 21) By what transport mechanism does glucose enter most cells? A) Diffusion through the lipid bilayer B) Primary active transport C) Secondary active transport D) Diffusion through a protein channel E) Facilitated diffusion 22) You are examining the data from two time points taken in an experiment. At time 1 there was an extracellular concentration of Na+ of 115 mM outside the cell and 8mM inside the cell. An amino acid, lycine, is at 20mM outside and 40mM inside. At the second time measured Na+ is 100mM outside the cell and 23 mM inside the cell. Lycine is 15 mM outside the cell and 45mM inside. What is the best explanation? A) Both Na+ and the amino acid bind on the side of the membrane where the Na+ concentration is lowest, and undergo net movement to the other side of the membrane. B) Na+ and the amino acid bind to opposite sides of the membrane, and Na+ undergoes net transport from the side of the membrane with higher Na+ concentration toward the side with lower concentration, while the amino acid moves in the opposite direction. C) Both Na+ and the amino acid bind on the side of the membrane where the Na+ concentration is higher, and both are transported to the side of the membrane where the Na+ concentration is lower. D) Both Na+ and the amino acid bind to the side of the membrane where the amino acid concentration is lower and are transported toward the side of the membrane where the amino acid concentration is higher. E) Na+ and the amino acid bind to opposite sides of the membrane, and the amino acid undergoes net transport from the side of the membrane with lower Na+ concentration to the side of the membrane where the Na+ concentration is higher. 23) Which of the following statements about the Na+-K+ ATPase pump is false? A) It transports Na+ out of cells and K+ into cells. B) It binds to, and hydrolyzes, ATP. C) It is constantly active in all cells. D) Its activity requires the expenditure of metabolic energy. E) It transports Na+ and K+ in a 1:1 ratio.
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24) Which would be true if substance X was moving into a cell by primary active transport? A) A cell is placed into a 1 millimolar solution of substance X and over time you witness the concentration of X inside the cell increase to 5 millimolar. B) A cell is placed into a 1 millimolar solution of substance X and over time you witness the concentration of X inside the cell increase to 1 millimolar. C) A cell is placed into a 1 millimolar solution of substance X and over time you witness the concentration of X inside the cell decrease to 0.5 millimolar. D) A cell is placed into a 1 millimolar solution of substance X and over time you witness the size of the cell shrink. E) A cell is placed into a 1 millimolar solution of substance X and over time you witness the size of the cell swell. 25) If the ATP-generating mechanisms in a cell are poisoned and the cell depletes its ATP reserves, which would occur first? A) Primary active transport of molecules would cease. B) Secondary active transport of molecules would cease. C) Facilitated diffusion of molecules would cease. D) Ion concentration gradients would reach equilibrium across the cell membrane. E) All transport processes would cease immediately when the ATP was depleted. 26) "Osmosis" refers to the movement of what substance across semipermeable membranes? A) Glucose B) Charged particles C) Lipid molecules D) Water E) Solutes 27) If pure water and a solution containing a nonpenetrating solute are separated by a membrane that is permeable only to water, what would occur? A) Water will diffuse by osmosis until the water concentrations in the two compartments become equal. B) Water will diffuse by osmosis until all of the water is on the same side as the solute. C) Water will diffuse by osmosis toward the side with the solute, until stopped by opposing hydrostatic pressure. D) No movement will occur between the compartments. E) Water will diffuse by osmosis away from the side with the solute, until stopped by hydrostatic pressure. 28) If all other conditions remain the same and the concentration of a nonpenetrating solute increases inside a cell, which is most likely to occur? A) Water will tend to enter the cell because the interior has an increased osmolarity. B) Water will tend to leave the cell because the interior has an increased osmolarity. C) Water will tend to enter the cell because the interior has a decreased osmolarity. D) Water will tend to leave the cell because the interior has a decreased osmolarity. E) The solute will diffuse across the membrane until its concentration is equal on both sides of the membrane. 6 Copyright 2019 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.
29) What will happen if a normal cell is placed in a hypotonic solution? A) It will swell in size. B) It will shrink in size. C) It will stay the same size. D) The result can't be predicted. 30) What will happen if a normal cell is placed in a hyperosmotic solution? A) It will swell in size. B) It will shrink in size. C) It will stay the same size. D) It may swell, shrink, or stay the same size, depending upon the concentration of penetrating and nonpenetrating solutes in the solution. 31) During a lab experiment, you forgot to label your solution containers. You see that red blood cells were placed into an unlabeled solution and they shrunk. What can be concluded about the unknown solution? A) Its nonpenetrating solute concentration is greater than that of a normal cell. B) Its nonpenetrating solute concentration is less than that of a normal cell. C) Its nonpenetrating solute concentration is equal to that of a normal cell. D) Its penetrating solute concentration is less than that of a normal cell. E) Its penetrating solute concentration is greater than that of a normal cell. 32) Why do solutions for injection or infusion into people with low blood volume normally contain 150 mM NaCl? A) This is a hypotonic solution, which will cause water movement into dehydrated blood cells. B) This is an isotonic solution, and the water in it will follow Na and Cl into the intracellular fluid compartment. C) This is a hypertonic solution, which will raise the blood volume and pressure more rapidly than an isotonic solution would. D) This is an isotonic solution, and NaCl will keep the added volume in the extracellular fluid compartment. E) NaCl are penetrating solutes, which will get them more quickly into blood cells to increase their volume. 33) Which of these is an example of a hypertonic solution? A) 200 mM NaCl B) 300 mM glucose C) 100 mM MgCl2 D) 400 mM urea E) 100 mM NaCl 34) Which of the following solutions is not isotonic to human cells? A) 150 mM NaCl B) 300 mM urea C) 100 mM MgCl2 D) 300 mOsm NaCl 7 Copyright 2019 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.
35) Regarding the tonicity and osmolarity of solutions, which of the following statements is not true? A) The term "tonicity" refers to the effect that a solution has on the degree of stretch or shrinking of the cell membrane. B) The term "osmolarity" refers to the osmotic properties of a solution, regardless of its tonicity. C) Isotonic solutions are always isoosmotic. D) Hypoosmotic solutions are always hypotonic. E) Hypertonic solutions are always hyperosmotic. 36) Which of the following statements regarding endocytosis or exocytosis is correct? A) Endocytosis is a method by which large molecules may be secreted from a cell. B) Exocytosis is a method by which large molecules may be secreted from a cell. C) Pinocytosis is a form of endocytosis; phagocytosis is a type of exocytosis. D) Pinocytosis is a form of exocytosis; phagocytosis is a type of endocytosis. E) Pinocytosis and phagocytosis are both types of exocytosis. 37) Which form of endocytosis is nonspecific, in that it occurs by the formation of an invagination of the plasma membrane, which then fills with interstitial fluid of the immediate area? A) Active transport B) Hyperosmotic vesicular entrapment C) Phagocytosis D) Pinocytosis E) Hydrosmosis 38) What type of cellular transport involves the cytosolic protein clathrin? A) Exocytosis B) Receptor-mediated endocytosis C) Primary active transport D) Secondary active transport E) Pinocytosis 39) Cholesterol-containing lipoproteins are cleared from the blood by which process? A) Second messenger-activated, sterol transgenesis B) Hydrophobic phagocytosis C) Simple, transcellular membrane diffusion D) Na+ gradient-dependent, secondary active transport E) Clathrin-dependent, receptor-mediated endocytosis 40) Once formed inside of the cell, most endocytic vesicles will fuse with which organelle for sorting? A) Endoplasmic reticulum B) Golgi apparatus C) Endosome D) Nucleus E) Mitochondria 8 Copyright 2019 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.
41) At any given time it is possible to see endocytotic vesicles docked to intracellular organelles such as those that may receive their contents for modification, synthesis, packaging, and then release. Which organelle would most likely be involved in this process as a destination for a transport vesicle formed for this purpose along the plasma membrane? A) Golgi apparatus B) Peroxisome C) Lysosome D) Mitochondrion E) Ribosome 42) Which of the following statements about epithelial cells or epithelial transport is NOT correct? A) Epithelial cell membranes express different transport proteins on different cell surfaces. B) Epithelial cells lining the small intestine have Na+-K+-ATPase pumps only in their basolateral membranes. C) The plasma membrane of epithelial cells that face the inside of a hollow or fluid-filled chamber in the body is called the basolateral membrane. D) The pathway taken by substances that flow between epithelial cells is called the paracellular pathway. E) When substances cross epithelial barriers by going through the cell membranes and cytosol, it is called the transcellular pathway. 43) Which lists the epithelial cell barrier compartments in the order of the typical Na+ concentrations, from highest to lowest? A) Intracellular, lumen side, blood side B) Blood side, lumen side, intracellular C) Blood side, intracellular, lumen side D) Lumen side, intracellular, blood side E) Lumen side, blood side, intracellular 44) What is the most common transport mechanism by which glucose and other organic solutes cross the luminal membrane of an epithelial cell layer? A) Secondary active cotransport with Na+ B) Glucose ATPase pump C) Facilitated diffusion D) Simple diffusion through the paracellular pathway E) Through an ion channel 45) The Greater the Concentration Difference of a Substance Between Two Solutions Separated by a Permeable Membrane, the Lesser the Magnitude of the Net Flux of the Substance. 46) All other factors being equal, the rate of diffusion across a permeable surface will be greater for small molecules than for larger ones. 47) Molecules increase their rate of diffusion as temperature increases.
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48) In general, polar molecules diffuse more rapidly across cell membranes than do nonpolar molecules. 49) The component of the plasma membrane that acts as a selective barrier to diffusion of polar molecules is the integral proteins. 50) Although permeability to mineral ions does not vary much from one cell to another, different cells vary considerably in their permeability to nonpolar molecules. 51) Specific proteins in the membranes mediate movement of lipid-soluble molecules into cells. 52) Integral membrane proteins can form channels through which ions such as Na+ and K+ can diffuse. 53) Mediated transport is required in order for glucose, amino acids, and fatty acids to pass into cells because none of these substances can diffuse through plasma membranes. 54) In active transport, the affinity of any given binding site for the molecule to be transported changes as the site goes from facing one side of the membrane to facing the other side. 55) The final equilibrium state reached by a molecule that enters a cell by facilitated diffusion is the same as that for a molecule that enters the cell by diffusion. 56) The Na/K ATPase pump is an enzyme that phosphorylates itself. 57) In most of the cells in the body there is an electrical difference such that the inside of cells is positive with respect to the outside. 58) The concentration of calcium in the cytosol of most resting cells is very much lower than the concentration of extracellular calcium. 59) Because of the active transport of Na+ and K+, the intracellular concentration of Na+ is lower than the extracellular concentration, whereas the reverse is true for K+. 60) The Na+-K+-ATPase carrier transports sodium ions out of cells and potassium ions into cells on a one-to-one basis. 61) Active transport, facilitated diffusion, and osmosis all directly require the expenditure of metabolic energy. 62) Both primary and secondary active transport require the expenditure of metabolic energy. 63) Adding one mole of NaCl to one liter of water will lower the water concentration twice as much as adding one mole of glucose.
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64) Adding one gram of NaCl to one liter of water will lower the water concentration twice as much as adding one gram of glucose. 65) The higher the osmolarity of a solution, the higher the concentration of water in it. 66) A woman is participating in a competition held by a local radio station. To win, she must drink 8 gallons of pure water within a few hours. As the osmolarity of her body fluids decreases, it is possible that her cells, including cells in the brain, may swell and burst. 67) If a cell were placed in a solution of 0.15 M NaCl, it would shrink. 68) In the body, Na+ ions behave as if they are nonpenetrating solutes because they are actively transported out of cells. 69) In the body, K+ ions behave as if they are penetrating solutes because they are actively transported into cells. 70) The fate of all endocytotic vesicles is digestion of their contents by lysosomal enzymes. 71) A portion of cell's plasma membrane is removed during endocytosis. 72) Endocytosis of any kind requires metabolic energy. 73) Most cells can perform pinocytosis, but only a few kinds can perform phagocytosis. 74) A pediatric patient presents with recurring bacterial infections. This could be due to a defect in phagocytosis. 75) Pinocytosis is a method by which molecules can leave cells whose membranes are impermeable to the molecules. 76) The clathrin protein involved in carrying out receptor-mediated transport remains with an endosome as it moves deep within the cell and is degraded entirely along with the ingested internal contents. 77) In any given tissue, the side of an epithelial cell further from the nearest blood vessel would be the basolateral side. 78) A disease that resulted in defective Na+/K+ pumps would have no effect on the absorption of water across an epithelial surface. 79) Most organic solutes cross epithelial membranes by simple diffusion on the lumen side followed by active transport across the blood side of the membrane. 80) Transport of solute molecules across an epithelium is often used to create osmotic pressure and therefore direct the movement of water molecules. 11 Copyright 2019 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.
81) Which of the following are triggers for ion channels to open? A) Ligand binding B) Change in membrane potential C) Stretching of membrane D) Movement of solutes across the membrane E) Change in water molecule concentration 82) Which of these proteins might undergo a conformational change to allow or disallow movement of a molecule across the membrane? A) Calcium active transporters B) Membrane channel proteins C) Gap junctions D) Na+/K+ pump E) Clathrin 83) Which of these processes can occur without the direct use of ATP? A) Simple diffusion B) Facilitated diffusion C) Primary active transport D) Secondary active transport E) None of these can occur without the direct use of ATP 84) Which of the following is true about the actions of the sodium-potassium pump? A) The Na+/K+ pump directly uses ATP B) The Na+/K+ pump creates an electrical disequilibrium. C) The Na+/K+ pump creates chemical disequilibrium. D) It is expressed only on select cell types E) The Na+/K+ pump is an example of counter transport. 85) Which of the following would achieve the absorption of water across the epithelial lining toward the blood vessels of the small intestine? A) Active transport of Na+ from the lumen to the basolateral side B) Facilitated diffusion of glucose to the bloodstream from the lumen C) Active transport of H+ from the basolateral side to the lumen D) Tightening the tight junctions between epithelial cells E) Opening of aquaporins on the apical membrane
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Vander's Human Physiology, 15e (Widmaier) Chapter 4 Movement of Solutes and Water Across Cell Membranes 1) Which of the following statements regarding the structure and function of cell membranes is correct? A) The phospholipid bilayer is arranged so that the hydrophilic heads of the phospholipid molecule face the extra- and intracellular fluids. B) Some proteins integrated into the membrane serve as channels for the passage of nonpolar molecules through the membrane. C) Peripheral membrane proteins function as channels associated with transport of ions through the membrane. D) Cholesterol molecules function to transport ions from one side of the plasma membrane to the other. E) The plasma membrane is a layer of phospholipid molecules with their hyrophilic head groups in contact with the extracellular solution and the hydrophobic tail groups in contact with the intracellular solution. Answer: A Section: 04.01 Topic: Membrane structure and function Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module C07 Membrane structure and function.; Module C07 Membrane structure & function; Module C06 Intracellular organization of nucleus & cytoplasm HAPS Outcome: C07.01 Describe how lipids are distributed in a cell membrane, and explain their functions.; C06.01 Identify the three main parts of a cell, and list the general functions of each. 2) CO2 is a small, non-polar molecule. It will cross the cell membrane by A) simple diffusion. B) diffusion through a channel. C) active transport. D) diffusion using a pump. Answer: A Section: 04.01 Topic: Membrane structure and function Bloom's: Level 3. Apply HAPS Topic: Module C08 Mechanisms for movement of materials across cell membranes. HAPS Outcome: C08.01b Describe the mechanism by which movement of material occurs in each membrane transport process simple diffusion, facilitated diffusion, osmosis, active transport, exocytosis, endocytosis, phagocytosis, pinocytosis, and filtration.
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3) At a very low temperature known as absolute zero, there is no random molecular motion. At absolute zero, would diffusion occur? A) No, because diffusion depends upon the random motion of molecules. B) Yes, because diffusion rates are temperature-independent. C) Yes, as long as concentration gradients still exist. D) Yes, because diffusion can use energy in the form of ATP. E) Yes, as long as integral membrane proteins are still intact. Answer: A Section: 04.01 Topic: Mechanisms for movement across cell membranes Bloom's: Level 4. Analyze HAPS Topic: Module C08 Mechanisms for movement of materials across cell membranes. HAPS Outcome: C08.01b Describe the mechanism by which movement of material occurs in each membrane transport process simple diffusion, facilitated diffusion, osmosis, active transport, exocytosis, endocytosis, phagocytosis, pinocytosis, and filtration. 4) A solute, X, is placed in compartment A of a two compartment container and allowed to diffuse to compartment B and attain diffusion equilibrium. At that point in time, A) there will be no further movement of any solute molecules between compartments. B) solutes will be moving in both directions equally. C) solutes will only continue to move from A to B. D) solutes will only continue to move from B to A. E) the concentration in compartment B will be much higher than that in compartment A. Answer: B Section: 04.01 Topic: Mechanisms for movement across cell membranes Bloom's: Level 2. Understand HAPS Topic: Module C08 Mechanisms for movement of materials across cell membranes. HAPS Outcome: C08.01b Describe the mechanism by which movement of material occurs in each membrane transport process simple diffusion, facilitated diffusion, osmosis, active transport, exocytosis, endocytosis, phagocytosis, pinocytosis, and filtration.
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5) Which of the following statements regarding the diffusion of a nonpolar solute X across a cell membrane is correct? A) At equilibrium, the net flux of X across the cell membrane is zero. B) At equilibrium, X will cease moving across the cell membrane. C) Solute X will be unable to reach equilibrium because it is nonpolar. D) Solute X will reach equilibrium, but the concentration will be much higher on the inside of the cell because of the smaller volume. E) At equilibrium, movement of X across the membrane will be much faster in one direction than in the other. Answer: A Section: 04.01 Topic: Mechanisms for movement across cell membranes Bloom's: Level 2. Understand HAPS Topic: Module C08 Mechanisms for movement of materials across cell membranes. HAPS Outcome: C08.01b Describe the mechanism by which movement of material occurs in each membrane transport process simple diffusion, facilitated diffusion, osmosis, active transport, exocytosis, endocytosis, phagocytosis, pinocytosis, and filtration.; C08.01a State the type of material moving in each of the membrane transport process simple diffusion, facilitated diffusion, osmosis, active transport, exocytosis, endocytosis, phagocytosis, pinocytosis, and filtration. 6) Substance A, a penetrating solute, crosses the membrane at a rate of 10 molecules per second. When a patient has a fever and body temperature is elevated, we would expect the cell to have arate of A) less than 10 molecules per second. B) 10 molecules per second. C) more than 10 molecules per second. Answer: C Section: 04.01 Topic: Mechanisms for movement across cell membranes Bloom's: Level 3. Apply HAPS Topic: Module C08 Mechanisms for movement of materials across cell membranes. HAPS Outcome: C08.01b Describe the mechanism by which movement of material occurs in each membrane transport process simple diffusion, facilitated diffusion, osmosis, active transport, exocytosis, endocytosis, phagocytosis, pinocytosis, and filtration.
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7) Equal amounts of two solutes, A and B, are placed into the same beaker of water at the same time. Solute A reaches diffusion equilibrium faster than solute B. What is the most likely explanation for this observation? A) The temperature was greater for solute A than solute B. B) The concentration gradient for A was greater than B. C) Solute A is smaller than solute B. D) Solute A traveled a shorter distance than solute B. E) Solute B is more soluble in water than solute A. Answer: C Section: 04.01 Topic: Mechanisms for movement across cell membranes Bloom's: Level 2. Understand HAPS Topic: Module C08 Mechanisms for movement of materials across cell membranes. HAPS Outcome: C08.01b Describe the mechanism by which movement of material occurs in each membrane transport process simple diffusion, facilitated diffusion, osmosis, active transport, exocytosis, endocytosis, phagocytosis, pinocytosis, and filtration. 8) In general, polar molecules diffuse more rapidly through the lipid bilayer part of cell membranes than do nonpolar molecules. This statement is A) true. B) false, because polar molecules diffuse through less rapidly because the bilayer is polar throughout its width. C) false, because polar molecules diffuse through less rapidly because the bilayer is nonpolar throughout its width. D) false, because nonpolar molecules diffuse through more rapidly because much of the bilayer is nonpolar. E) false, because the rate of diffusion of nonpolar and polar molecules through the bilayer is essentially the same as long as the molecules are the same size. Answer: D Section: 04.01 Topic: Mechanisms for movement across cell membranes Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module C08 Mechanisms for movement of materials across cell membranes. HAPS Outcome: C08.01a State the type of material moving in each of the membrane transport process simple diffusion, facilitated diffusion, osmosis, active transport, exocytosis, endocytosis, phagocytosis, pinocytosis, and filtration.
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9) Substance X is a mostly polar molecule and Substance Y is a mostly non-polar molecule of a similar size. Which will diffuse from the extracellular fluid to the intracellular fluid faster if they are in equal concentrations outside and inside the cell? A) Substance X will diffuse faster. B) Substance Y will diffuse faster. C) Substance X and Substance Y will diffuse at the same rate, as they are of equal size and concentration. Answer: B Section: 04.01 Topic: Mechanisms for movement across cell membranes Bloom's: Level 3. Apply HAPS Topic: Module C08 Mechanisms for movement of materials across cell membranes. HAPS Outcome: C08.01a State the type of material moving in each of the membrane transport process simple diffusion, facilitated diffusion, osmosis, active transport, exocytosis, endocytosis, phagocytosis, pinocytosis, and filtration. 10) Red blood cells have a higher proportion of aquaporins on the membrane than skin cells do. Assuming equal osmotic pressures, which is true? A) The rate of osmosis is faster in skin cells than red blood cells. B) The rate of osmosis is faster in red blood cells than in skin cells. C) The rate of diffusion for non-polar molecules is faster in red blood cells than skin cells. D) The rate of diffusion for non-polar molecules is faster in skin cells than red blood cells. E) No significant differences in osmosis or diffusion rates between these cells. Answer: B Section: 04.03 Topic: Mechanisms for movement across cell membranes Bloom's: Level 3. Apply HAPS Topic: Module C08 Mechanisms for movement of materials across cell membranes. HAPS Outcome: C08.03 Demonstrate various cell transport processes and, given appropriate information, predict the outcomes of these demonstrations.
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11) The concentrations of two substances are increasing outside the cell. For substance A, transport into the cell increases proportionally as the concentration outside increases. For substance B transport into the cell increases but then levels off despite the concentration outside continuing to increase. What is the explanation for this? A) Competition B) Saturation C) Specificity D) Affinity Answer: B Section: 04.02 Topic: Mechanisms for movement across cell membranes Bloom's: Level 3. Apply HAPS Topic: Module C08 Mechanisms for movement of materials across cell membranes. HAPS Outcome: C08.03 Demonstrate various cell transport processes and, given appropriate information, predict the outcomes of these demonstrations. 12) The human hormone estrogen is highly nonpolar. After being secreted, estrogen will be found A) at low concentrations in all cells of the body. B) at high concentrations just in the cells that express a membrane-bound receptor. C) trapped in endocytic vesicles in cells that express a membrane-bound receptor. D) in the lysosome of all cells of the body. Answer: A Section: 04.02 Topic: Mechanisms for movement across cell membranes Bloom's: Level 3. Apply HAPS Topic: Module C08 Mechanisms for movement of materials across cell membranes. HAPS Outcome: C08.03 Demonstrate various cell transport processes and, given appropriate information, predict the outcomes of these demonstrations.
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13) You are designing a drug. You'd like to deliver the drug by creating a skin patch that is impregnated with the drug and allowing the drug to diffuse through the layers of the skin to reach the underlying tissues and bloodstream. Which of these chemical changes might you make to increase the number of drug molecules that diffuse through the layers of skin cells? A) Increasing the number of ionized groups in the drug B) Increasing the number of nitrogen atoms in the drug C) Decreasing the number of nonpolar groups in the drug D) Decreasing the number of polar groups in the drug E) Increasing the number of oxygen atoms in the drug Answer: D Section: 04.02 Topic: Mechanisms for movement across cell membranes Bloom's: Level 3. Apply HAPS Topic: Module C08 Mechanisms for movement of materials across cell membranes. HAPS Outcome: C08.03 Demonstrate various cell transport processes and, given appropriate information, predict the outcomes of these demonstrations. 14) The permeability of the plasma membrane to mineral ions A) is not influenced by channels formed by proteins. B) is the same in all cell types. C) is affected by differences in electrical charge on the two sides of the membrane. D) is zero in all living cells. E) is only possible because of the hydrophobic interior of the lipid bilayer. Answer: C Section: 04.01 Topic: Mechanisms for movement across cell membranes Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module C08 Mechanisms for movement of materials across cell membranes. HAPS Outcome: C08.01a State the type of material moving in each of the membrane transport process simple diffusion, facilitated diffusion, osmosis, active transport, exocytosis, endocytosis, phagocytosis, pinocytosis, and filtration.
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15) Ion channels in cell membranes A) are nonspecific. B) are not affected by differences in electrical potential across the membrane. C) may open in response to binding a ligand. D) only allow ions to move from the extracellular fluid into the cell. E) only allow ions to move from the intracellular fluid out of the cell. Answer: C Section: 04.01 Topic: Mechanisms for movement across cell membranes Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module C08 Mechanisms for movement of materials across cell membranes. HAPS Outcome: C08.01a State the type of material moving in each of the membrane transport process simple diffusion, facilitated diffusion, osmosis, active transport, exocytosis, endocytosis, phagocytosis, pinocytosis, and filtration. 16) Which is true about mediated transport across cell membranes? A) It refers to the movement of ions through protein channels. B) It refers both to simple diffusion and to the active transport of molecules. C) It is characterized by saturable carriers and a maximum velocity of transport. D) As the concentration gradient across a membrane increases, the transport rate always increases. E) It is nonspecific; any transporter can transport any molecule across the cell membrane. Answer: C Section: 04.02 Topic: Mechanisms for movement across cell membranes Bloom's: Level 2. Understand HAPS Topic: Module C08 Mechanisms for movement of materials across cell membranes. HAPS Outcome: C08.01b Describe the mechanism by which movement of material occurs in each membrane transport process simple diffusion, facilitated diffusion, osmosis, active transport, exocytosis, endocytosis, phagocytosis, pinocytosis, and filtration.; C08.01a State the type of material moving in each of the membrane transport process simple diffusion, facilitated diffusion, osmosis, active transport, exocytosis, endocytosis, phagocytosis, pinocytosis, and filtration.
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17) Which is true about mediated transport of substances across cell membranes? A) It involves a specific membrane protein that functions as a carrier molecule. B) It always involves the movement of substances against a concentration gradient. C) It is always directly coupled to the splitting of ATP molecules. D) There is no limit to how fast it can occur as the concentration gradient becomes larger. E) It is the main mechanism for transporting hydrophobic molecules across membranes. Answer: A Section: 04.02 Topic: Mechanisms for movement across cell membranes Bloom's: Level 2. Understand HAPS Topic: Module C08 Mechanisms for movement of materials across cell membranes. HAPS Outcome: C08.01b Describe the mechanism by which movement of material occurs in each membrane transport process simple diffusion, facilitated diffusion, osmosis, active transport, exocytosis, endocytosis, phagocytosis, pinocytosis, and filtration.; C08.01c Discuss the energy requirements and, if applicable, the sources of energy for each process simple diffusion, facilitated diffusion, osmosis, active transport, exocytosis, endocytosis, phagocytosis, pinocytosis, and filtration. 18) Which of the following is a feature that distinguishes active transport from facilitated diffusion? A) Saturation of transport rate B) Requirement for a carrier molecule C) Carrier molecules have specificity D) Presence of a transport maximum E) Requirement for metabolic energy Answer: E Section: 04.02 Topic: Mechanisms for movement across cell membranes Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module C08 Mechanisms for movement of materials across cell membranes. HAPS Outcome: C08.01b Describe the mechanism by which movement of material occurs in each membrane transport process simple diffusion, facilitated diffusion, osmosis, active transport, exocytosis, endocytosis, phagocytosis, pinocytosis, and filtration.; C08.01c Discuss the energy requirements and, if applicable, the sources of energy for each process simple diffusion, facilitated diffusion, osmosis, active transport, exocytosis, endocytosis, phagocytosis, pinocytosis, and filtration.
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19) Which is true regarding the mediated transport of a substance across a plasma membrane? A) It depends upon the binding of that substance to a specific site on the membrane protein. B) It depends upon movement of proteins from one side of the membrane to the other. C) It always increases in direct proportion to the increasing concentration of the substance on one side of the membrane. D) Both "depends upon the binding of that substance to a specific site on the membrane protein" and "depends upon movement of proteins from one side of the membrane to the other" are correct. E) All of the choices are correct. Answer: A Section: 04.02 Topic: Mechanisms for movement across cell membranes Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module C08 Mechanisms for movement of materials across cell membranes. HAPS Outcome: C08.01b Describe the mechanism by which movement of material occurs in each membrane transport process simple diffusion, facilitated diffusion, osmosis, active transport, exocytosis, endocytosis, phagocytosis, pinocytosis, and filtration. 20) You examine a cell by electron microscopy and find a molecule on the outside of the cell and in vesicles in the cytoplasm. The most likely explanation is that this substance moved into the cell by A) diffusion. B) osmosis. C) facilitated diffusion. D) endocytosis. E) apoptosis. Answer: D Section: 04.04 Topic: Mechanisms for movement across cell membranes Bloom's: Level 3. Apply HAPS Topic: Module C08 Mechanisms for movement of materials across cell membranes. HAPS Outcome: C08.01b Describe the mechanism by which movement of material occurs in each membrane transport process simple diffusion, facilitated diffusion, osmosis, active transport, exocytosis, endocytosis, phagocytosis, pinocytosis, and filtration.
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21) By what transport mechanism does glucose enter most cells? A) Diffusion through the lipid bilayer B) Primary active transport C) Secondary active transport D) Diffusion through a protein channel E) Facilitated diffusion Answer: E Section: 04.02 Topic: Mechanisms for movement across cell membranes Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module C08 Mechanisms for movement of materials across cell membranes. HAPS Outcome: C08.01b Describe the mechanism by which movement of material occurs in each membrane transport process simple diffusion, facilitated diffusion, osmosis, active transport, exocytosis, endocytosis, phagocytosis, pinocytosis, and filtration.; C08.01a State the type of material moving in each of the membrane transport process simple diffusion, facilitated diffusion, osmosis, active transport, exocytosis, endocytosis, phagocytosis, pinocytosis, and filtration.
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22) You are examining the data from two time points taken in an experiment. At time 1 there was an extracellular concentration of Na+ of 115 mM outside the cell and 8mM inside the cell. An amino acid, lycine, is at 20mM outside and 40mM inside. At the second time measured Na+ is 100mM outside the cell and 23 mM inside the cell. Lycine is 15 mM outside the cell and 45mM inside. What is the best explanation? A) Both Na+ and the amino acid bind on the side of the membrane where the Na+ concentration is lowest, and undergo net movement to the other side of the membrane. B) Na+ and the amino acid bind to opposite sides of the membrane, and Na+ undergoes net transport from the side of the membrane with higher Na+ concentration toward the side with lower concentration, while the amino acid moves in the opposite direction. C) Both Na+ and the amino acid bind on the side of the membrane where the Na+ concentration is higher, and both are transported to the side of the membrane where the Na+ concentration is lower. D) Both Na+ and the amino acid bind to the side of the membrane where the amino acid concentration is lower and are transported toward the side of the membrane where the amino acid concentration is higher. E) Na+ and the amino acid bind to opposite sides of the membrane, and the amino acid undergoes net transport from the side of the membrane with lower Na+ concentration to the side of the membrane where the Na+ concentration is higher. Answer: D Section: 04.02 Topic: Mechanisms for movement across cell membranes Bloom's: Level 4. Analyze HAPS Topic: Module C08 Mechanisms for movement of materials across cell membranes. HAPS Outcome: C08.01b Describe the mechanism by which movement of material occurs in each membrane transport process simple diffusion, facilitated diffusion, osmosis, active transport, exocytosis, endocytosis, phagocytosis, pinocytosis, and filtration.; C08.01a State the type of material moving in each of the membrane transport process simple diffusion, facilitated diffusion, osmosis, active transport, exocytosis, endocytosis, phagocytosis, pinocytosis, and filtration.
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23) Which of the following statements about the Na+-K+ ATPase pump is false? A) It transports Na+ out of cells and K+ into cells. B) It binds to, and hydrolyzes, ATP. C) It is constantly active in all cells. D) Its activity requires the expenditure of metabolic energy. E) It transports Na+ and K+ in a 1:1 ratio. Answer: E Section: 04.02 Topic: Mechanisms for movement across cell membranes Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module C08 Mechanisms for movement of materials across cell membranes. HAPS Outcome: C08.01b Describe the mechanism by which movement of material occurs in each membrane transport process simple diffusion, facilitated diffusion, osmosis, active transport, exocytosis, endocytosis, phagocytosis, pinocytosis, and filtration.; C08.01c Discuss the energy requirements and, if applicable, the sources of energy for each process simple diffusion, facilitated diffusion, osmosis, active transport, exocytosis, endocytosis, phagocytosis, pinocytosis, and filtration. 24) Which would be true if substance X was moving into a cell by primary active transport? A) A cell is placed into a 1 millimolar solution of substance X and over time you witness the concentration of X inside the cell increase to 5 millimolar. B) A cell is placed into a 1 millimolar solution of substance X and over time you witness the concentration of X inside the cell increase to 1 millimolar. C) A cell is placed into a 1 millimolar solution of substance X and over time you witness the concentration of X inside the cell decrease to 0.5 millimolar. D) A cell is placed into a 1 millimolar solution of substance X and over time you witness the size of the cell shrink. E) A cell is placed into a 1 millimolar solution of substance X and over time you witness the size of the cell swell. Answer: A Section: 04.02 Topic: Mechanisms for movement across cell membranes Bloom's: Level 3. Apply HAPS Topic: Module C08 Mechanisms for movement of materials across cell membranes. HAPS Outcome: C08.01d Give examples of each membrane transport process in the human body simple diffusion, facilitated diffusion, osmosis, active transport, exocytosis, endocytosis, phagocytosis, pinocytosis, and filtration.; C08.01b Describe the mechanism by which movement of material occurs in each membrane transport process simple diffusion, facilitated diffusion, osmosis, active transport, exocytosis, endocytosis, phagocytosis, pinocytosis, and filtration.; C08.01a State the type of material moving in each of the membrane transport process simple diffusion, facilitated diffusion, osmosis, active transport, exocytosis, endocytosis, phagocytosis, pinocytosis, and filtration.
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25) If the ATP-generating mechanisms in a cell are poisoned and the cell depletes its ATP reserves, which would occur first? A) Primary active transport of molecules would cease. B) Secondary active transport of molecules would cease. C) Facilitated diffusion of molecules would cease. D) Ion concentration gradients would reach equilibrium across the cell membrane. E) All transport processes would cease immediately when the ATP was depleted. Answer: A Section: 04.02 Topic: Mechanisms for movement across cell membranes Bloom's: Level 3. Apply HAPS Topic: Module C08 Mechanisms for movement of materials across cell membranes. HAPS Outcome: C08.01c Discuss the energy requirements and, if applicable, the sources of energy for each process simple diffusion, facilitated diffusion, osmosis, active transport, exocytosis, endocytosis, phagocytosis, pinocytosis, and filtration. 26) "Osmosis" refers to the movement of what substance across semipermeable membranes? A) Glucose B) Charged particles C) Lipid molecules D) Water E) Solutes Answer: D Section: 04.03 Topic: Mechanisms for movement across cell membranes Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module C08 Mechanisms for movement of materials across cell membranes. HAPS Outcome: C08.01a State the type of material moving in each of the membrane transport process simple diffusion, facilitated diffusion, osmosis, active transport, exocytosis, endocytosis, phagocytosis, pinocytosis, and filtration.
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27) If pure water and a solution containing a nonpenetrating solute are separated by a membrane that is permeable only to water, what would occur? A) Water will diffuse by osmosis until the water concentrations in the two compartments become equal. B) Water will diffuse by osmosis until all of the water is on the same side as the solute. C) Water will diffuse by osmosis toward the side with the solute, until stopped by opposing hydrostatic pressure. D) No movement will occur between the compartments. E) Water will diffuse by osmosis away from the side with the solute, until stopped by hydrostatic pressure. Answer: C Section: 04.03 Topic: Mechanisms for movement across cell membranes Bloom's: Level 2. Understand HAPS Topic: Module C08 Mechanisms for movement of materials across cell membranes. HAPS Outcome: C08.01d Give examples of each membrane transport process in the human body simple diffusion, facilitated diffusion, osmosis, active transport, exocytosis, endocytosis, phagocytosis, pinocytosis, and filtration.; C08.03 Demonstrate various cell transport processes and, given appropriate information, predict the outcomes of these demonstrations.; C08.01a State the type of material moving in each of the membrane transport process simple diffusion, facilitated diffusion, osmosis, active transport, exocytosis, endocytosis, phagocytosis, pinocytosis, and filtration. 28) If all other conditions remain the same and the concentration of a nonpenetrating solute increases inside a cell, which is most likely to occur? A) Water will tend to enter the cell because the interior has an increased osmolarity. B) Water will tend to leave the cell because the interior has an increased osmolarity. C) Water will tend to enter the cell because the interior has a decreased osmolarity. D) Water will tend to leave the cell because the interior has a decreased osmolarity. E) The solute will diffuse across the membrane until its concentration is equal on both sides of the membrane. Answer: A Section: 04.03 Topic: Mechanisms for movement across cell membranes Bloom's: Level 2. Understand HAPS Topic: Module C08 Mechanisms for movement of materials across cell membranes. HAPS Outcome: C08.03 Demonstrate various cell transport processes and, given appropriate information, predict the outcomes of these demonstrations.; C08.02 Describe the effects of hypertonic, isotonic, and hypotonic conditions on cells.
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29) What will happen if a normal cell is placed in a hypotonic solution? A) It will swell in size. B) It will shrink in size. C) It will stay the same size. D) The result can't be predicted. Answer: A Section: 04.03 Topic: Mechanisms for movement across cell membranes Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module C08 Mechanisms for movement of materials across cell membranes. HAPS Outcome: C08.03 Demonstrate various cell transport processes and, given appropriate information, predict the outcomes of these demonstrations.; C08.02 Describe the effects of hypertonic, isotonic, and hypotonic conditions on cells. 30) What will happen if a normal cell is placed in a hyperosmotic solution? A) It will swell in size. B) It will shrink in size. C) It will stay the same size. D) It may swell, shrink, or stay the same size, depending upon the concentration of penetrating and nonpenetrating solutes in the solution. Answer: D Section: 04.03 Topic: Mechanisms for movement across cell membranes Bloom's: Level 2. Understand HAPS Topic: Module C08 Mechanisms for movement of materials across cell membranes. HAPS Outcome: C08.03 Demonstrate various cell transport processes and, given appropriate information, predict the outcomes of these demonstrations.; C08.02 Describe the effects of hypertonic, isotonic, and hypotonic conditions on cells.
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31) During a lab experiment, you forgot to label your solution containers. You see that red blood cells were placed into an unlabeled solution and they shrunk. What can be concluded about the unknown solution? A) Its nonpenetrating solute concentration is greater than that of a normal cell. B) Its nonpenetrating solute concentration is less than that of a normal cell. C) Its nonpenetrating solute concentration is equal to that of a normal cell. D) Its penetrating solute concentration is less than that of a normal cell. E) Its penetrating solute concentration is greater than that of a normal cell. Answer: A Section: 04.03 Topic: Mechanisms for movement across cell membranes Bloom's: Level 3. Apply HAPS Topic: Module C08 Mechanisms for movement of materials across cell membranes. HAPS Outcome: C08.02 Describe the effects of hypertonic, isotonic, and hypotonic conditions on cells. 32) Why do solutions for injection or infusion into people with low blood volume normally contain 150 mM NaCl? A) This is a hypotonic solution, which will cause water movement into dehydrated blood cells. B) This is an isotonic solution, and the water in it will follow Na and Cl into the intracellular fluid compartment. C) This is a hypertonic solution, which will raise the blood volume and pressure more rapidly than an isotonic solution would. D) This is an isotonic solution, and NaCl will keep the added volume in the extracellular fluid compartment. E) NaCl are penetrating solutes, which will get them more quickly into blood cells to increase their volume. Answer: D Section: 04.03 Topic: Mechanisms for movement across cell membranes Bloom's: Level 3. Apply HAPS Topic: Module C08 Mechanisms for movement of materials across cell membranes. HAPS Outcome: C08.03 Demonstrate various cell transport processes and, given appropriate information, predict the outcomes of these demonstrations.; C08.02 Describe the effects of hypertonic, isotonic, and hypotonic conditions on cells.
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33) Which of these is an example of a hypertonic solution? A) 200 mM NaCl B) 300 mM glucose C) 100 mM MgCl2 D) 400 mM urea E) 100 mM NaCl Answer: A Section: 04.03 Topic: Mechanisms for movement across cell membranes Bloom's: Level 2. Understand HAPS Topic: Module C08 Mechanisms for movement of materials across cell membranes. HAPS Outcome: C08.01b Describe the mechanism by which movement of material occurs in each membrane transport process simple diffusion, facilitated diffusion, osmosis, active transport, exocytosis, endocytosis, phagocytosis, pinocytosis, and filtration. 34) Which of the following solutions is not isotonic to human cells? A) 150 mM NaCl B) 300 mM urea C) 100 mM MgCl2 D) 300 mOsm NaCl Answer: B Section: 04.03 Topic: Mechanisms for movement across cell membranes Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module C08 Mechanisms for movement of materials across cell membranes. HAPS Outcome: C08.01b Describe the mechanism by which movement of material occurs in each membrane transport process simple diffusion, facilitated diffusion, osmosis, active transport, exocytosis, endocytosis, phagocytosis, pinocytosis, and filtration.
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35) Regarding the tonicity and osmolarity of solutions, which of the following statements is not true? A) The term "tonicity" refers to the effect that a solution has on the degree of stretch or shrinking of the cell membrane. B) The term "osmolarity" refers to the osmotic properties of a solution, regardless of its tonicity. C) Isotonic solutions are always isoosmotic. D) Hypoosmotic solutions are always hypotonic. E) Hypertonic solutions are always hyperosmotic. Answer: C Section: 04.03 Topic: Mechanisms for movement across cell membranes Bloom's: Level 2. Understand HAPS Topic: Module C08 Mechanisms for movement of materials across cell membranes. HAPS Outcome: C08.02 Describe the effects of hypertonic, isotonic, and hypotonic conditions on cells. 36) Which of the following statements regarding endocytosis or exocytosis is correct? A) Endocytosis is a method by which large molecules may be secreted from a cell. B) Exocytosis is a method by which large molecules may be secreted from a cell. C) Pinocytosis is a form of endocytosis; phagocytosis is a type of exocytosis. D) Pinocytosis is a form of exocytosis; phagocytosis is a type of endocytosis. E) Pinocytosis and phagocytosis are both types of exocytosis. Answer: B Section: 04.04 Topic: Mechanisms for movement across cell membranes Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module C08 Mechanisms for movement of materials across cell membranes. HAPS Outcome: C08.01d Give examples of each membrane transport process in the human body simple diffusion, facilitated diffusion, osmosis, active transport, exocytosis, endocytosis, phagocytosis, pinocytosis, and filtration.; C08.01a State the type of material moving in each of the membrane transport process simple diffusion, facilitated diffusion, osmosis, active transport, exocytosis, endocytosis, phagocytosis, pinocytosis, and filtration.
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37) Which form of endocytosis is nonspecific, in that it occurs by the formation of an invagination of the plasma membrane, which then fills with interstitial fluid of the immediate area? A) Active transport B) Hyperosmotic vesicular entrapment C) Phagocytosis D) Pinocytosis E) Hydrosmosis Answer: D Section: 04.04 Topic: Mechanisms for movement across cell membranes Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module C08 Mechanisms for movement of materials across cell membranes. HAPS Outcome: C08.01d Give examples of each membrane transport process in the human body simple diffusion, facilitated diffusion, osmosis, active transport, exocytosis, endocytosis, phagocytosis, pinocytosis, and filtration. 38) What type of cellular transport involves the cytosolic protein clathrin? A) Exocytosis B) Receptor-mediated endocytosis C) Primary active transport D) Secondary active transport E) Pinocytosis Answer: B Section: 04.04 Topic: Mechanisms for movement across cell membranes Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module C08 Mechanisms for movement of materials across cell membranes. HAPS Outcome: C08.01d Give examples of each membrane transport process in the human body simple diffusion, facilitated diffusion, osmosis, active transport, exocytosis, endocytosis, phagocytosis, pinocytosis, and filtration.
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39) Cholesterol-containing lipoproteins are cleared from the blood by which process? A) Second messenger-activated, sterol transgenesis B) Hydrophobic phagocytosis C) Simple, transcellular membrane diffusion D) Na+ gradient-dependent, secondary active transport E) Clathrin-dependent, receptor-mediated endocytosis Answer: E Section: 04.04 Topic: Mechanisms for movement across cell membranes Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module C08 Mechanisms for movement of materials across cell membranes. HAPS Outcome: C08.01d Give examples of each membrane transport process in the human body simple diffusion, facilitated diffusion, osmosis, active transport, exocytosis, endocytosis, phagocytosis, pinocytosis, and filtration. 40) Once formed inside of the cell, most endocytic vesicles will fuse with which organelle for sorting? A) Endoplasmic reticulum B) Golgi apparatus C) Endosome D) Nucleus E) Mitochondria Answer: C Section: 04.04 Topic: Mechanisms for movement across cell membranes Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module C08 Mechanisms for movement of materials across cell membranes. HAPS Outcome: C08.01d Give examples of each membrane transport process in the human body simple diffusion, facilitated diffusion, osmosis, active transport, exocytosis, endocytosis, phagocytosis, pinocytosis, and filtration.
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41) At any given time it is possible to see endocytotic vesicles docked to intracellular organelles such as those that may receive their contents for modification, synthesis, packaging, and then release. Which organelle would most likely be involved in this process as a destination for a transport vesicle formed for this purpose along the plasma membrane? A) Golgi apparatus B) Peroxisome C) Lysosome D) Mitochondrion E) Ribosome Answer: A Section: 04.04 Topic: Mechanisms for movement across cell membranes; Organelles Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module C08 Mechanisms for movement of materials across cell membranes.; Module C09 Organelles. HAPS Outcome: C08.01d Give examples of each membrane transport process in the human body simple diffusion, facilitated diffusion, osmosis, active transport, exocytosis, endocytosis, phagocytosis, pinocytosis, and filtration.; C09.02c Describe the function of each different type of organelle associated with human cells. 42) Which of the following statements about epithelial cells or epithelial transport is NOT correct? A) Epithelial cell membranes express different transport proteins on different cell surfaces. B) Epithelial cells lining the small intestine have Na+-K+-ATPase pumps only in their basolateral membranes. C) The plasma membrane of epithelial cells that face the inside of a hollow or fluid-filled chamber in the body is called the basolateral membrane. D) The pathway taken by substances that flow between epithelial cells is called the paracellular pathway. E) When substances cross epithelial barriers by going through the cell membranes and cytosol, it is called the transcellular pathway. Answer: C Section: 04.05 Topic: Mechanisms for movement across cell membranes Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module C08 Mechanisms for movement of materials across cell membranes. HAPS Outcome: C08.01d Give examples of each membrane transport process in the human body simple diffusion, facilitated diffusion, osmosis, active transport, exocytosis, endocytosis, phagocytosis, pinocytosis, and filtration.; C08.01b Describe the mechanism by which movement of material occurs in each membrane transport process simple diffusion, facilitated diffusion, osmosis, active transport, exocytosis, endocytosis, phagocytosis, pinocytosis, and filtration.
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43) Which lists the epithelial cell barrier compartments in the order of the typical Na+ concentrations, from highest to lowest? A) Intracellular, lumen side, blood side B) Blood side, lumen side, intracellular C) Blood side, intracellular, lumen side D) Lumen side, intracellular, blood side E) Lumen side, blood side, intracellular Answer: B Section: 04.05 Topic: Mechanisms for movement across cell membranes Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module C08 Mechanisms for movement of materials across cell membranes. HAPS Outcome: C08.01d Give examples of each membrane transport process in the human body simple diffusion, facilitated diffusion, osmosis, active transport, exocytosis, endocytosis, phagocytosis, pinocytosis, and filtration.; C08.01b Describe the mechanism by which movement of material occurs in each membrane transport process simple diffusion, facilitated diffusion, osmosis, active transport, exocytosis, endocytosis, phagocytosis, pinocytosis, and filtration. 44) What is the most common transport mechanism by which glucose and other organic solutes cross the luminal membrane of an epithelial cell layer? A) Secondary active cotransport with Na+ B) Glucose ATPase pump C) Facilitated diffusion D) Simple diffusion through the paracellular pathway E) Through an ion channel Answer: A Section: 04.02 Topic: Mechanisms for movement across cell membranes Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module C08 Mechanisms for movement of materials across cell membranes. HAPS Outcome: C08.01b Describe the mechanism by which movement of material occurs in each membrane transport process simple diffusion, facilitated diffusion, osmosis, active transport, exocytosis, endocytosis, phagocytosis, pinocytosis, and filtration.; C08.01a State the type of material moving in each of the membrane transport process simple diffusion, facilitated diffusion, osmosis, active transport, exocytosis, endocytosis, phagocytosis, pinocytosis, and filtration.
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45) The Greater the Concentration Difference of a Substance Between Two Solutions Separated by a Permeable Membrane, the Lesser the Magnitude of the Net Flux of the Substance. Answer: FALSE Section: 04.01 Topic: Mechanisms for movement across cell membranes Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module C08 Mechanisms for movement of materials across cell membranes. HAPS Outcome: C08.01b Describe the mechanism by which movement of material occurs in each membrane transport process simple diffusion, facilitated diffusion, osmosis, active transport, exocytosis, endocytosis, phagocytosis, pinocytosis, and filtration. 46) All other factors being equal, the rate of diffusion across a permeable surface will be greater for small molecules than for larger ones. Answer: TRUE Section: 04.01 Topic: Mechanisms for movement across cell membranes Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module C08 Mechanisms for movement of materials across cell membranes. HAPS Outcome: C08.01b Describe the mechanism by which movement of material occurs in each membrane transport process simple diffusion, facilitated diffusion, osmosis, active transport, exocytosis, endocytosis, phagocytosis, pinocytosis, and filtration.; C08.01a State the type of material moving in each of the membrane transport process simple diffusion, facilitated diffusion, osmosis, active transport, exocytosis, endocytosis, phagocytosis, pinocytosis, and filtration. 47) Molecules increase their rate of diffusion as temperature increases. Answer: TRUE Section: 04.01 Topic: Mechanisms for movement across cell membranes Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module C08 Mechanisms for movement of materials across cell membranes. HAPS Outcome: C08.01b Describe the mechanism by which movement of material occurs in each membrane transport process simple diffusion, facilitated diffusion, osmosis, active transport, exocytosis, endocytosis, phagocytosis, pinocytosis, and filtration.
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48) In general, polar molecules diffuse more rapidly across cell membranes than do nonpolar molecules. Answer: FALSE Section: 04.01 Topic: Mechanisms for movement across cell membranes Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module C08 Mechanisms for movement of materials across cell membranes. HAPS Outcome: C08.01a State the type of material moving in each of the membrane transport process simple diffusion, facilitated diffusion, osmosis, active transport, exocytosis, endocytosis, phagocytosis, pinocytosis, and filtration. 49) The component of the plasma membrane that acts as a selective barrier to diffusion of polar molecules is the integral proteins. Answer: FALSE Section: 04.01 Topic: Mechanisms for movement across cell membranes Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module C08 Mechanisms for movement of materials across cell membranes. HAPS Outcome: C08.01b Describe the mechanism by which movement of material occurs in each membrane transport process simple diffusion, facilitated diffusion, osmosis, active transport, exocytosis, endocytosis, phagocytosis, pinocytosis, and filtration.; C08.01a State the type of material moving in each of the membrane transport process simple diffusion, facilitated diffusion, osmosis, active transport, exocytosis, endocytosis, phagocytosis, pinocytosis, and filtration. 50) Although permeability to mineral ions does not vary much from one cell to another, different cells vary considerably in their permeability to nonpolar molecules. Answer: FALSE Section: 04.01 Topic: Mechanisms for movement across cell membranes Bloom's: Level 2. Understand HAPS Topic: Module C08 Mechanisms for movement of materials across cell membranes. HAPS Outcome: C08.01b Describe the mechanism by which movement of material occurs in each membrane transport process simple diffusion, facilitated diffusion, osmosis, active transport, exocytosis, endocytosis, phagocytosis, pinocytosis, and filtration.; C08.01a State the type of material moving in each of the membrane transport process simple diffusion, facilitated diffusion, osmosis, active transport, exocytosis, endocytosis, phagocytosis, pinocytosis, and filtration.
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51) Specific proteins in the membranes mediate movement of lipid-soluble molecules into cells. Answer: FALSE Section: 04.01 Topic: Mechanisms for movement across cell membranes Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module C08 Mechanisms for movement of materials across cell membranes. HAPS Outcome: C08.01a State the type of material moving in each of the membrane transport process simple diffusion, facilitated diffusion, osmosis, active transport, exocytosis, endocytosis, phagocytosis, pinocytosis, and filtration. 52) Integral membrane proteins can form channels through which ions such as Na+ and K+ can diffuse. Answer: TRUE Section: 04.01 Topic: Mechanisms for movement across cell membranes Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module C08 Mechanisms for movement of materials across cell membranes. HAPS Outcome: C08.01b Describe the mechanism by which movement of material occurs in each membrane transport process simple diffusion, facilitated diffusion, osmosis, active transport, exocytosis, endocytosis, phagocytosis, pinocytosis, and filtration.; C08.01a State the type of material moving in each of the membrane transport process simple diffusion, facilitated diffusion, osmosis, active transport, exocytosis, endocytosis, phagocytosis, pinocytosis, and filtration. 53) Mediated transport is required in order for glucose, amino acids, and fatty acids to pass into cells because none of these substances can diffuse through plasma membranes. Answer: FALSE Section: 04.01; 04.02 Topic: Mechanisms for movement across cell membranes Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module C08 Mechanisms for movement of materials across cell membranes. HAPS Outcome: C08.01b Describe the mechanism by which movement of material occurs in each membrane transport process simple diffusion, facilitated diffusion, osmosis, active transport, exocytosis, endocytosis, phagocytosis, pinocytosis, and filtration.; C08.01a State the type of material moving in each of the membrane transport process simple diffusion, facilitated diffusion, osmosis, active transport, exocytosis, endocytosis, phagocytosis, pinocytosis, and filtration.
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54) In active transport, the affinity of any given binding site for the molecule to be transported changes as the site goes from facing one side of the membrane to facing the other side. Answer: TRUE Section: 04.02 Topic: Mechanisms for movement across cell membranes Bloom's: Level 2. Understand HAPS Topic: Module C08 Mechanisms for movement of materials across cell membranes. HAPS Outcome: C08.01b Describe the mechanism by which movement of material occurs in each membrane transport process simple diffusion, facilitated diffusion, osmosis, active transport, exocytosis, endocytosis, phagocytosis, pinocytosis, and filtration. 55) The final equilibrium state reached by a molecule that enters a cell by facilitated diffusion is the same as that for a molecule that enters the cell by diffusion. Answer: TRUE Section: 04.01; 04.02 Topic: Mechanisms for movement across cell membranes Bloom's: Level 2. Understand HAPS Topic: Module C08 Mechanisms for movement of materials across cell membranes. HAPS Outcome: C08.03 Demonstrate various cell transport processes and, given appropriate information, predict the outcomes of these demonstrations. 56) The Na/K ATPase pump is an enzyme that phosphorylates itself. Answer: TRUE Section: 04.02 Topic: Mechanisms for movement across cell membranes Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module C08 Mechanisms for movement of materials across cell membranes. HAPS Outcome: C08.01b Describe the mechanism by which movement of material occurs in each membrane transport process simple diffusion, facilitated diffusion, osmosis, active transport, exocytosis, endocytosis, phagocytosis, pinocytosis, and filtration. 57) In most of the cells in the body there is an electrical difference such that the inside of cells is positive with respect to the outside. Answer: FALSE Section: 04.01 Topic: Membrane structure and function Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module H04 Neurophysiology, including mechanism of resting membrane potential, production of action potentials, and impulse transmission. HAPS Outcome: H04.06b Explain how passive ion channels cause development of the resting membrane potential in neurons.
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58) The concentration of calcium in the cytosol of most resting cells is very much lower than the concentration of extracellular calcium. Answer: TRUE Section: 04.02 Topic: Mechanisms for movement across cell membranes Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module H04 Neurophysiology, including mechanism of resting membrane potential, production of action potentials, and impulse transmission. HAPS Outcome: H04.03 Contrast the relative concentrations of sodium, potassium and chloride ions inside and outside of a cell. 59) Because of the active transport of Na+ and K+, the intracellular concentration of Na+ is lower than the extracellular concentration, whereas the reverse is true for K+. Answer: TRUE Section: 04.02 Topic: Mechanisms for movement across cell membranes Bloom's: Level 2. Understand HAPS Topic: Module C08 Mechanisms for movement of materials across cell membranes.; Module H04 Neurophysiology, including mechanism of resting membrane potential, production of action potentials, and impulse transmission. HAPS Outcome: C08.03 Demonstrate various cell transport processes and, given appropriate information, predict the outcomes of these demonstrations.; H04.08 Describe the role of the sodium-potassium exchange pump in maintaining the resting membrane potential and making continued action potentials possible.; H04.03 Contrast the relative concentrations of sodium, potassium and chloride ions inside and outside of a cell. 60) The Na+-K+-ATPase carrier transports sodium ions out of cells and potassium ions into cells on a one-to-one basis. Answer: FALSE Section: 04.02 Topic: Mechanisms for movement across cell membranes Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module C08 Mechanisms for movement of materials across cell membranes.; Module H04 Neurophysiology, including mechanism of resting membrane potential, production of action potentials, and impulse transmission. HAPS Outcome: C08.01d Give examples of each membrane transport process in the human body simple diffusion, facilitated diffusion, osmosis, active transport, exocytosis, endocytosis, phagocytosis, pinocytosis, and filtration.; H04.08 Describe the role of the sodium-potassium exchange pump in maintaining the resting membrane potential and making continued action potentials possible.
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61) Active transport, facilitated diffusion, and osmosis all directly require the expenditure of metabolic energy. Answer: FALSE Section: 04.02; 04.03 Topic: Mechanisms for movement across cell membranes Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module C08 Mechanisms for movement of materials across cell membranes. HAPS Outcome: C08.01c Discuss the energy requirements and, if applicable, the sources of energy for each process simple diffusion, facilitated diffusion, osmosis, active transport, exocytosis, endocytosis, phagocytosis, pinocytosis, and filtration. 62) Both primary and secondary active transport require the expenditure of metabolic energy. Answer: TRUE Section: 04.02 Topic: Mechanisms for movement across cell membranes Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module C08 Mechanisms for movement of materials across cell membranes. HAPS Outcome: C08.01c Discuss the energy requirements and, if applicable, the sources of energy for each process simple diffusion, facilitated diffusion, osmosis, active transport, exocytosis, endocytosis, phagocytosis, pinocytosis, and filtration. 63) Adding one mole of NaCl to one liter of water will lower the water concentration twice as much as adding one mole of glucose. Answer: TRUE Section: 04.03 Topic: Inorganic compounds and solutions Bloom's: Level 2. Understand HAPS Topic: Module C03 Inorganic compounds and solutions. HAPS Outcome: C03.02 Distinguish among the terms solution, solute, solvent, colloid suspension, and emulsion. 64) Adding one gram of NaCl to one liter of water will lower the water concentration twice as much as adding one gram of glucose. Answer: FALSE Section: 04.03 Topic: Inorganic compounds and solutions Bloom's: Level 2. Understand HAPS Topic: Module C03 Inorganic compounds and solutions. HAPS Outcome: C03.02 Distinguish among the terms solution, solute, solvent, colloid suspension, and emulsion.
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65) The higher the osmolarity of a solution, the higher the concentration of water in it. Answer: FALSE Section: 04.03 Topic: Inorganic compounds and solutions; Mechanisms for movement across cell membranes Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module C03 Inorganic compounds and solutions.; Module C08 Mechanisms for movement of materials across cell membranes. HAPS Outcome: C08.01b Describe the mechanism by which movement of material occurs in each membrane transport process simple diffusion, facilitated diffusion, osmosis, active transport, exocytosis, endocytosis, phagocytosis, pinocytosis, and filtration. 66) A woman is participating in a competition held by a local radio station. To win, she must drink 8 gallons of pure water within a few hours. As the osmolarity of her body fluids decreases, it is possible that her cells, including cells in the brain, may swell and burst. Answer: TRUE Section: 04.03 Topic: Mechanisms for movement across cell membranes Bloom's: Level 3. Apply HAPS Topic: Module C08 Mechanisms for movement of materials across cell membranes. HAPS Outcome: C08.01d Give examples of each membrane transport process in the human body simple diffusion, facilitated diffusion, osmosis, active transport, exocytosis, endocytosis, phagocytosis, pinocytosis, and filtration. 67) If a cell were placed in a solution of 0.15 M NaCl, it would shrink. Answer: FALSE Section: 04.03 Topic: Mechanisms for movement across cell membranes Bloom's: Level 2. Understand HAPS Topic: Module C08 Mechanisms for movement of materials across cell membranes. HAPS Outcome: C08.01b Describe the mechanism by which movement of material occurs in each membrane transport process simple diffusion, facilitated diffusion, osmosis, active transport, exocytosis, endocytosis, phagocytosis, pinocytosis, and filtration.; C08.03 Demonstrate various cell transport processes and, given appropriate information, predict the outcomes of these demonstrations.
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68) In the body, Na+ ions behave as if they are nonpenetrating solutes because they are actively transported out of cells. Answer: TRUE Section: 04.02; 04.03 Topic: Mechanisms for movement across cell membranes Bloom's: Level 2. Understand HAPS Topic: Module C08 Mechanisms for movement of materials across cell membranes. HAPS Outcome: C08.01b Describe the mechanism by which movement of material occurs in each membrane transport process simple diffusion, facilitated diffusion, osmosis, active transport, exocytosis, endocytosis, phagocytosis, pinocytosis, and filtration. 69) In the body, K+ ions behave as if they are penetrating solutes because they are actively transported into cells. Answer: FALSE Section: 04.02; 04.03 Topic: Mechanisms for movement across cell membranes Bloom's: Level 2. Understand HAPS Topic: Module C08 Mechanisms for movement of materials across cell membranes. HAPS Outcome: C08.01b Describe the mechanism by which movement of material occurs in each membrane transport process simple diffusion, facilitated diffusion, osmosis, active transport, exocytosis, endocytosis, phagocytosis, pinocytosis, and filtration. 70) The fate of all endocytotic vesicles is digestion of their contents by lysosomal enzymes. Answer: FALSE Section: 04.04 Topic: Mechanisms for movement across cell membranes; Organelles Bloom's: Level 2. Understand HAPS Topic: Module C08 Mechanisms for movement of materials across cell membranes.; Module C09 Organelles. HAPS Outcome: C09.02c Describe the function of each different type of organelle associated with human cells.; C08.03 Demonstrate various cell transport processes and, given appropriate information, predict the outcomes of these demonstrations. 71) A portion of cell's plasma membrane is removed during endocytosis. Answer: TRUE Section: 04.04 Topic: Mechanisms for movement across cell membranes Bloom's: Level 3. Apply HAPS Topic: Module C08 Mechanisms for movement of materials across cell membranes. HAPS Outcome: C08.01b Describe the mechanism by which movement of material occurs in each membrane transport process simple diffusion, facilitated diffusion, osmosis, active transport, exocytosis, endocytosis, phagocytosis, pinocytosis, and filtration. 31 Copyright 2019 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.
72) Endocytosis of any kind requires metabolic energy. Answer: TRUE Section: 04.04 Topic: Mechanisms for movement across cell membranes Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module C08 Mechanisms for movement of materials across cell membranes. HAPS Outcome: C08.01c Discuss the energy requirements and, if applicable, the sources of energy for each process simple diffusion, facilitated diffusion, osmosis, active transport, exocytosis, endocytosis, phagocytosis, pinocytosis, and filtration. 73) Most cells can perform pinocytosis, but only a few kinds can perform phagocytosis. Answer: TRUE Section: 04.04 Topic: Mechanisms for movement across cell membranes Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module C08 Mechanisms for movement of materials across cell membranes. HAPS Outcome: C08.01d Give examples of each membrane transport process in the human body simple diffusion, facilitated diffusion, osmosis, active transport, exocytosis, endocytosis, phagocytosis, pinocytosis, and filtration. 74) A pediatric patient presents with recurring bacterial infections. This could be due to a defect in phagocytosis. Answer: TRUE Section: 04.04 Topic: Mechanisms for movement across cell membranes; Organelles Bloom's: Level 3. Apply HAPS Topic: Module C08 Mechanisms for movement of materials across cell membranes.; Module C09 Organelles. HAPS Outcome: C09.02c Describe the function of each different type of organelle associated with human cells.; C08.03 Demonstrate various cell transport processes and, given appropriate information, predict the outcomes of these demonstrations. 75) Pinocytosis is a method by which molecules can leave cells whose membranes are impermeable to the molecules. Answer: FALSE Section: 04.04 Topic: Mechanisms for movement across cell membranes Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module C08 Mechanisms for movement of materials across cell membranes. HAPS Outcome: C08.01b Describe the mechanism by which movement of material occurs in each membrane transport process simple diffusion, facilitated diffusion, osmosis, active transport, exocytosis, endocytosis, phagocytosis, pinocytosis, and filtration. 32 Copyright 2019 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.
76) The clathrin protein involved in carrying out receptor-mediated transport remains with an endosome as it moves deep within the cell and is degraded entirely along with the ingested internal contents. Answer: FALSE Section: 04.04 Topic: Mechanisms for movement across cell membranes Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module C08 Mechanisms for movement of materials across cell membranes. HAPS Outcome: C08.01b Describe the mechanism by which movement of material occurs in each membrane transport process simple diffusion, facilitated diffusion, osmosis, active transport, exocytosis, endocytosis, phagocytosis, pinocytosis, and filtration. 77) In any given tissue, the side of an epithelial cell further from the nearest blood vessel would be the basolateral side. Answer: FALSE Section: 04.05 Topic: Mechanisms for movement across cell membranes Bloom's: Level 3. Apply HAPS Topic: Module C08 Mechanisms for movement of materials across cell membranes. HAPS Outcome: C08.01a State the type of material moving in each of the membrane transport process simple diffusion, facilitated diffusion, osmosis, active transport, exocytosis, endocytosis, phagocytosis, pinocytosis, and filtration. 78) A disease that resulted in defective Na+/K+ pumps would have no effect on the absorption of water across an epithelial surface. Answer: FALSE Section: 04.05 Topic: Mechanisms for movement across cell membranes Bloom's: Level 3. Apply HAPS Topic: Module C08 Mechanisms for movement of materials across cell membranes. HAPS Outcome: C08.03 Demonstrate various cell transport processes and, given appropriate information, predict the outcomes of these demonstrations. 79) Most organic solutes cross epithelial membranes by simple diffusion on the lumen side followed by active transport across the blood side of the membrane. Answer: FALSE Section: 04.05 Topic: Mechanisms for movement across cell membranes Bloom's: Level 2. Understand HAPS Topic: Module C08 Mechanisms for movement of materials across cell membranes. HAPS Outcome: C08.03 Demonstrate various cell transport processes and, given appropriate information, predict the outcomes of these demonstrations. 33 Copyright 2019 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.
80) Transport of solute molecules across an epithelium is often used to create osmotic pressure and therefore direct the movement of water molecules. Answer: TRUE Section: 04.05 Topic: Mechanisms for movement across cell membranes Bloom's: Level 2. Understand HAPS Topic: Module C08 Mechanisms for movement of materials across cell membranes. HAPS Outcome: C08.01a State the type of material moving in each of the membrane transport process simple diffusion, facilitated diffusion, osmosis, active transport, exocytosis, endocytosis, phagocytosis, pinocytosis, and filtration. 81) Which of the following are triggers for ion channels to open? A) Ligand binding B) Change in membrane potential C) Stretching of membrane D) Movement of solutes across the membrane E) Change in water molecule concentration Answer: A, B, C Section: 04.01 Topic: Membrane structure and function Bloom's: Level 3. Apply HAPS Topic: Module C08 Mechanisms for movement of materials across cell membranes. HAPS Outcome: C08.01b Describe the mechanism by which movement of material occurs in each membrane transport process simple diffusion, facilitated diffusion, osmosis, active transport, exocytosis, endocytosis, phagocytosis, pinocytosis, and filtration. 82) Which of these proteins might undergo a conformational change to allow or disallow movement of a molecule across the membrane? A) Calcium active transporters B) Membrane channel proteins C) Gap junctions D) Na+/K+ pump E) Clathrin Answer: A, B, D Section: 04.02 Topic: Membrane structure and function Bloom's: Level 3. Apply HAPS Topic: Module C08 Mechanisms for movement of materials across cell membranes. HAPS Outcome: C08.01b Describe the mechanism by which movement of material occurs in each membrane transport process simple diffusion, facilitated diffusion, osmosis, active transport, exocytosis, endocytosis, phagocytosis, pinocytosis, and filtration.
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83) Which of these processes can occur without the direct use of ATP? A) Simple diffusion B) Facilitated diffusion C) Primary active transport D) Secondary active transport E) None of these can occur without the direct use of ATP Answer: A, B, D Section: 04.02 Topic: Mechanisms for movement across cell membranes Bloom's: Level 2. Understand HAPS Topic: Module C08 Mechanisms for movement of materials across cell membranes. HAPS Outcome: C08.01c Discuss the energy requirements and, if applicable, the sources of energy for each process simple diffusion, facilitated diffusion, osmosis, active transport, exocytosis, endocytosis, phagocytosis, pinocytosis, and filtration.; C08.01a State the type of material moving in each of the membrane transport process simple diffusion, facilitated diffusion, osmosis, active transport, exocytosis, endocytosis, phagocytosis, pinocytosis, and filtration. 84) Which of the following is true about the actions of the sodium-potassium pump? A) The Na+/K+ pump directly uses ATP B) The Na+/K+ pump creates an electrical disequilibrium. C) The Na+/K+ pump creates chemical disequilibrium. D) It is expressed only on select cell types E) The Na+/K+ pump is an example of counter transport. Answer: A, B, C, E Section: 04.02 Topic: Mechanisms for movement across cell membranes Bloom's: Level 2. Understand HAPS Topic: Module C08 Mechanisms for movement of materials across cell membranes. HAPS Outcome: C08.01c Discuss the energy requirements and, if applicable, the sources of energy for each process simple diffusion, facilitated diffusion, osmosis, active transport, exocytosis, endocytosis, phagocytosis, pinocytosis, and filtration.; C08.01a State the type of material moving in each of the membrane transport process simple diffusion, facilitated diffusion, osmosis, active transport, exocytosis, endocytosis, phagocytosis, pinocytosis, and filtration.
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85) Which of the following would achieve the absorption of water across the epithelial lining toward the blood vessels of the small intestine? A) Active transport of Na+ from the lumen to the basolateral side B) Facilitated diffusion of glucose to the bloodstream from the lumen C) Active transport of H+ from the basolateral side to the lumen D) Tightening the tight junctions between epithelial cells E) Opening of aquaporins on the apical membrane Answer: A, B, E Section: 04.05 Topic: Mechanisms for movement across cell membranes Bloom's: Level 3. Apply HAPS Topic: Module C08 Mechanisms for movement of materials across cell membranes. HAPS Outcome: C08.03 Demonstrate various cell transport processes and, given appropriate information, predict the outcomes of these demonstrations.
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Vander's Human Physiology, 15e (Widmaier) Chapter 5 Cell Signalling in Physiology 1) Insulin is a protein hormone with mostly hydrophilic amino acids. Which is the most likely description of its receptor? A) Peripheral membrane protein B) Integral membrane protein C) Specialized phospholipids within the membrane D) Nucleic acids E) Intracellular proteins 2) Some glucose transport proteins can also bind fructose, another six-carbon monosaccharide, but not lycine, an amino acid, because transport proteins exhibit for their ligands. A) saturation B) competition C) affinity D) affiliation E) specificity 3) Which of the following are ways in which binding of a chemical messenger with a cell's receptor can bring about a cellular response? A) Opening or closing of specific ionic channels in the plasma membrane B) Activation of an intracellular second-messenger system C) Promoting or inhibiting the transcription of genes that code for the synthesis of cellular proteins D) Activating or inhibiting intracellular enzymes E) All of the choices are correct. 4) Which of these is a lipid-soluble messenger? A) Thyroid hormone B) Protein kinase C) Glucose D) Sodium E) Cyclic AMP 5) The process whereby repeated exposure to a hormone can cause a decrease in the number of receptors for that hormone is called A) competition. B) inhibition. C) down-regulation. D) antagonism. E) saturation.
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6) Molecule X is some sort of chemical messenger. Its receptor resides within the nucleus and once the receptor is bound to X, gene transcription occurs. Molecule X might be a(n) A) ion. B) lipid/steroid. C) hydrophilic protein. D) large protein. E) hydrophilic carbohydrate. 7) Researchers have found that enkephalin receptors are upregulated in cocaine addicts when compared to non-users. It is likely that the action of cocaine A) increases enkephalin in the brain. B) decreases enkephalin in the brain. C) increases enkephalin's affinity for its receptor. D) is an agonist to the enkephalin receptor. 8) Naloxone (Narcan) is an antagonist to the opioid receptor, the same receptor to which heroin is an agonist. If both heroin and naloxone were in the bloodstream, what would the user experience? A) A decrease in the effects of heroin B) An increase in the effects of heroin C) The same effects from heroin plus additional effects of naloxone D) A new set of effects unlike those of heroin alone 9) Epinephrine activates the cyclic AMP pathway in liver cells. In this example, epinephrine is a(n) and cAMP is a(n) . A) ligand; receptor B) first messenger; hydrophobic hormone C) second messenger; ion channel D) first messenger; second messenger E) enzyme; second messenger 10) At very low concentrations, epinephrine causes an artery to dilate. At higher concentrations epinephrine causes the same artery to constrict. How can these different effects be explained? A) There is one type of epinephrine receptor that uses two second-messenger systems. B) There are two types of epinephrine receptors with different affinities for epinephrine that use two different second-messenger systems. C) There are two types of receptors for epinephrine that use the same second-messenger system. D) At higher concentrations epinephrine can pass through the plasma membrane and directly stimulate contraction within the cell.
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11) With regard to the action of hormones and neurotransmitters on cellular receptors, which of these describes "amplification"? A) When the extracellular concentration of a chemical messenger reaches a very high level, it overwhelms transporter molecules and the chemical floods into the cell. B) Only hydrophilic first-messenger molecules can activate second-messenger molecules within the cell cytosol. C) A single first-messenger molecule activates multiple second-messenger molecules, each of which activate thousands of enzymes. D) Some cellular receptors have such low affinity for chemical ligands that it can require a million or more molecules to activate them. 12) One way that cells can increase their responsiveness to an external chemical regulator is by A) increasing the number of their transmembrane receptors by exocytosis. B) decreasing the number of their transmembrane receptors by endocytosis. C) uncoupling their receptors from the second message generator. D) increasing the number of their transmembrane receptors by endocytosis. E) mutating their extracellular receptors so that the affinity for the chemical regulator is reduced. 13) In which situation would an injected drug be the most effective agonist for an endogenous chemical messenger? A) The drug has a lower affinity for the messenger's receptors than the messenger does. B) The drug achieves 50% saturation of the messenger's receptors at a lower concentration than that required by the messenger. C) The drug does not couple to the binding site of the messenger's receptor. D) The drug binds to an alternate binding site on the protein receptor and reduces its affinity for the endogenous chemical messenger. 14) An adipose (fat) cell responds to the presence of the hormone epinephrine by increasing cytosolic cyclic AMP production, which leads to the catabolism of both glycogen and fat. What is the most likely explanation for this phenomenon? A) Epinephrine is binding to two types of receptors in the plasma membrane. B) The activated receptor complex stimulates production of two different second messengers. C) Cyclic AMP directly activates enzymes that catabolize glycogen and fat. D) Cyclic AMP-dependent protein kinase activates two kinds of enzymes. 15) Which of the following is NOT typically true about G proteins? A) They act as second messengers. B) They can be stimulatory for second-messenger production. C) They can be inhibitory for second-messenger production. D) They can act as transducers for activated receptors by opening or closing ion channels.
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16) Which is NOT typically a step in the cAMP second-messenger system? A) A first messenger binds to a transmembrane receptor. B) There is dissociation of G-protein subunits. C) An activated G-protein subunit phosphorylates cAMP-dependent protein kinase. D) Adenylyl cyclase converts ATP into cAMP. E) Active cAMP-dependent protein kinase phosphorylates cell proteins. 17) Second messengers A) are necessary for all receptor signal transduction mechanisms. B) act in the cell cytoplasm. C) only function as intercellular messengers. D) always function to activate enzymes. E) are always proteins. 18) Which of the following statements is TRUE? A) Phosphorylation by protein kinases can stimulate or inhibit the activity of effector proteins. B) Ca2+ is not a second messenger. C) Phosphodiesterase converts GMP into cGMP D) Conversion of ATP to cAMP is a phosphorylation reaction. E) Phospholipase C converts ATP to cAMP. 19) Which of the following is known to be a second messenger? A) Diacylglycerol B) Phospholipase C C) ATP D) Adenylyl cyclase E) Epinephrine 20) Amplification during a second-messenger cascade is beneficial because amplification A) takes small molecules and makes polymers out of them. B) results in the production of more of the first messenger. C) allows a cell to respond to more different hormones. D) allows small amounts of hormones to produce large responses in target cells. 21) Amplification of a second-messenger cascade can take place at which level of a signal cascade? A) One activated receptor can activate numerous G proteins. B) One activated G protein can activate numerous effector enzymes. C) One active effector enzyme can catalyze numerous reactions. D) One activated protein kinase can allosterically modulate numerous proteins. E) All of the choices are correct.
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22) What is a role of calcium ions in the second-messenger cascade involving phospholipase C, diacylglycerol, and inositol trisphosphate? A) It splits and activates G-protein subunits. B) It binds to the endoplasmic reticulum and causes the release of inositol trisphosphate. C) It phosphorylates cell proteins. D) It is the first messenger that binds to the integral membrane protein receptor. E) Along with diacylglycerol, it activates protein kinase C. 23) What second messenger most directly causes calcium ions to be released from intracellular stores? A) Diacylglycerol B) Adenylyl cyclase C) inositol trisphosphate D) Phospholipase A E) Phospholipase C 24) First messengers may bind to a membrane receptor that is an ion channel, which promotes a change in membrane polarity. 25) Designing a drug that blocked the release of eicosanoids would be an effective therapy for both pain and inflammation. 26) Aspirin and other nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs are more specific in their effects on eicosanoid synthesis than are steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs. 27) Two cell types having the same type of receptor for a chemical messenger will always respond to that messenger in the same way. 28) Competition for receptors is strictly a pharmacological phenomenon, since naturally occurring chemical messengers do not compete with each other for the same receptor site. 29) Endogenous opioid molecules reduce pain sensation. Morphine, a common analgesic, is an agonist for endogenous opioid receptors. 30) Phosphorylation is a necessary component of any enzyme activation. 31) The enzyme that catalyzes the production of cAMP from ATP is phosphodiesterase. 32) Cyclic AMP activates allosteric proteins. 33) Activated calmodulin functions to activate or inactivate cytosolic enzymes.
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34) Type 2 diabetes mellitus is a disease in which the effect insulin has on the cell is reduced, despite consistent levels of circulating insulin (in the beginning of the disease). Which of the following could possibly explain this phenomenon? A) Upregulation of insulin receptors B) Downregulation of insulin receptors C) Increased affinity of insulin for its receptor D) Decreased expression of the second messenger in the insulin pathway E) Saturation of the insulin receptor 35) Drug Y is a drug that is used to increase the force of contraction achieved by heart muscle tissue. In the absence of the drug, epinephrine increases heart contractility through a signaling pathway that involves a receptor and cAMP. Which of the following are plausible mechanisms of action for Y? A) Acting as an agonist on the receptor for epinephrine, a hormone that increases heart contractility B) Increasing the expression of cAMP C) Inhibiting phosphodiesterase activity D) Increasing the availability of phosphodiesterase molecules E) Decreasing the activity of cAMP-dependent protein kinase 36) Which of the following might be phosphorylated in a signaling pathway? A) G-protein coupled receptor B) cAMP C) Enzymes D) Ca2+ E) Tyrosine residues
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Vander's Human Physiology, 15e (Widmaier) Chapter 5 Cell Signalling in Physiology 1) Insulin is a protein hormone with mostly hydrophilic amino acids. Which is the most likely description of its receptor? A) Peripheral membrane protein B) Integral membrane protein C) Specialized phospholipids within the membrane D) Nucleic acids E) Intracellular proteins Answer: B Section: 05.01 Topic: Membrane structure and function Bloom's: Level 3. Apply HAPS Topic: Module J02 Chemical classification of hormones and mechanism of hormone actions at receptors; Module C07 Membrane structure and function HAPS Outcome: H05.01 Identify the presynaptic and postsynaptic cells at a synapse.; J02.03 Compare and contrast the types of receptors (cell membrane or intracellular) that each class binds to.; C07.03 Describe how proteins are distributed in a cell membrane, and explain their functions. 2) Some glucose transport proteins can also bind fructose, another six-carbon monosaccharide, but not lycine, an amino acid, because transport proteins exhibit for their ligands. A) saturation B) competition C) affinity D) affiliation E) specificity Answer: E Section: 05.01 Topic: Membrane structure and function Bloom's: Level 3. Apply HAPS Topic: Module C07 Membrane structure and function HAPS Outcome: C07.03 Describe how proteins are distributed in a cell membrane, and explain their functions.
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3) Which of the following are ways in which binding of a chemical messenger with a cell's receptor can bring about a cellular response? A) Opening or closing of specific ionic channels in the plasma membrane B) Activation of an intracellular second-messenger system C) Promoting or inhibiting the transcription of genes that code for the synthesis of cellular proteins D) Activating or inhibiting intracellular enzymes E) All of the choices are correct. Answer: E Section: 05.02 Topic: Mechanisms for movement across cell membranes; Genes and their action Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module H05 Neurotransmitters and their roles in synaptic transmission.; Module J02 Chemical classification of hormones and mechanism of hormone actions at receptors HAPS Outcome: H05.06 Explain how the receptors for neurotransmitters are related to chemically- gated ion channels.; H05.14 Describe the mechanism by which neurotransmitters may have indirect (metabotropic) effects on postsynaptic cells.; J02.04 Compare and contrast the mechanism of response that each class elicits (i.e., change in gene expression or change in an intracellular pathway via phosphorylation mechanism) and relate the response mechanism to the biochemical nature of the hormone molecule. 4) Which of these is a lipid-soluble messenger? A) Thyroid hormone B) Protein kinase C) Glucose D) Sodium E) Cyclic AMP Answer: A Section: 05.02 Topic: Organic compounds Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module J02 Chemical classification of hormones and mechanism of hormone actions at receptors HAPS Outcome: J02.01 List the major chemical classes of hormones found in the human body.
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5) The process whereby repeated exposure to a hormone can cause a decrease in the number of receptors for that hormone is called A) competition. B) inhibition. C) down-regulation. D) antagonism. E) saturation. Answer: C Section: 05.01 Topic: Clinical applications of homeostatic mechanisms of the cell Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module C14 Application of homeostatic mechanisms; Module C15 Predictions related to homeostatic imbalance, including disease states and disorders HAPS Outcome: C14.01 Provide specific examples to demonstrate how individual cells respond to their environment (e.g., in terms of organelle function, transport processes, protein synthesis, or regulation of cell cycle) in order to maintain homeostasis in the body.; C15.01 Predict factors or situations that could disrupt organelle function, transport processes, protein synthesis, or the cell cycle. 6) Molecule X is some sort of chemical messenger. Its receptor resides within the nucleus and once the receptor is bound to X, gene transcription occurs. Molecule X might be a(n) A) ion. B) lipid/steroid. C) hydrophilic protein. D) large protein. E) hydrophilic carbohydrate. Answer: B Section: 05.02 Topic: Mechanisms for movement across cell membranes Bloom's: Level 3. Apply HAPS Topic: Module J02 Chemical classification of hormones and mechanism of hormone actions at receptors HAPS Outcome: J02.04 Compare and contrast the mechanism of response that each class elicits (i.e., change in gene expression or change in an intracellular pathway via phosphorylation mechanism) and relate the response mechanism to the biochemical nature of the hormone molecule.
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7) Researchers have found that enkephalin receptors are upregulated in cocaine addicts when compared to non-users. It is likely that the action of cocaine A) increases enkephalin in the brain. B) decreases enkephalin in the brain. C) increases enkephalin's affinity for its receptor. D) is an agonist to the enkephalin receptor. Answer: B Section: 05.01 Topic: Clinical applications of homeostatic mechanisms of the cell Bloom's: Level 3. Apply HAPS Topic: Module H16 Predictions related to homeostatic imbalance, including disease states and disorders.; Module C14 Application of homeostatic mechanisms HAPS Outcome: H16.01 Predict factors or situations affecting the nervous system that could disrupt homeostasis.; C14.01 Provide specific examples to demonstrate how individual cells respond to their environment (e.g., in terms of organelle function, transport processes, protein synthesis, or regulation of cell cycle) in order to maintain homeostasis in the body. 8) Naloxone (Narcan) is an antagonist to the opioid receptor, the same receptor to which heroin is an agonist. If both heroin and naloxone were in the bloodstream, what would the user experience? A) A decrease in the effects of heroin B) An increase in the effects of heroin C) The same effects from heroin plus additional effects of naloxone D) A new set of effects unlike those of heroin alone Answer: A Section: 05.01 Topic: Clinical applications of homeostatic mechanisms of the cell Bloom's: Level 3. Apply HAPS Topic: Module H16 Predictions related to homeostatic imbalance, including disease states and disorders. HAPS Outcome: H16.01 Predict factors or situations affecting the nervous system that could disrupt homeostasis.
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9) Epinephrine activates the cyclic AMP pathway in liver cells. In this example, epinephrine is a(n) and cAMP is a(n) . A) ligand; receptor B) first messenger; hydrophobic hormone C) second messenger; ion channel D) first messenger; second messenger E) enzyme; second messenger Answer: D Section: 05.02 Topic: Clinical applications of homeostatic mechanisms of the cell Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module J02 Chemical classification of hormones and mechanism of hormone actions at receptors; Module J05 Identity, source, secretory control, and functional roles of the major hormones produced by the body HAPS Outcome: J02.04 Compare and contrast the mechanism of response that each class elicits (i.e., change in gene expression or change in an intracellular pathway via phosphorylation mechanism) and relate the response mechanism to the biochemical nature of the hormone molecule.; J05.04c In the adrenal gland, name the target tissue or cells for the hormone and describe the effect(s) of glucocorticoids (cortisol), mineralocorticoids (aldosterone), gonadocorticoids, epinephrine and norepinephrine on the target tissue or cells.
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10) At very low concentrations, epinephrine causes an artery to dilate. At higher concentrations epinephrine causes the same artery to constrict. How can these different effects be explained? A) There is one type of epinephrine receptor that uses two second-messenger systems. B) There are two types of epinephrine receptors with different affinities for epinephrine that use two different second-messenger systems. C) There are two types of receptors for epinephrine that use the same second-messenger system. D) At higher concentrations epinephrine can pass through the plasma membrane and directly stimulate contraction within the cell. Answer: B Section: 05.02 Topic: Clinical applications of homeostatic mechanisms of the cell Bloom's: Level 2. Understand HAPS Topic: Module H13 Functions of the autonomic nervous system.; Module J02 Chemical classification of hormones and mechanism of hormone actions at receptors; Module J05 Identity, source, secretory control, and functional roles of the major hormones produced by the body; Module K14 Blood pressure and its functional interrelationships with cardiac output, peripheral resistance, and hemodynamics HAPS Outcome: H13.07 Differentiate between cholinergic and adrenergic nerve fibers and discuss the physiological interactions of transmitters released by these neurons with specific cholinergic and adrenergic receptor subtypes.; J02.04 Compare and contrast the mechanism of response that each class elicits (i.e., change in gene expression or change in an intracellular pathway via phosphorylation mechanism) and relate the response mechanism to the biochemical nature of the hormone molecule.; J05.04c In the adrenal gland, name the target tissue or cells for the hormone and describe the effect(s) of glucocorticoids (cortisol), mineralocorticoids (aldosterone), gonadocorticoids, epinephrine and norepinephrine on the target tissue or cells.; K14.10d Explain the role of hormones in regulation of blood pressure, including the mechanism by which specific hormones affect preload, heart rate, inotropic state or vascular resistance.
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11) With regard to the action of hormones and neurotransmitters on cellular receptors, which of these describes "amplification"? A) When the extracellular concentration of a chemical messenger reaches a very high level, it overwhelms transporter molecules and the chemical floods into the cell. B) Only hydrophilic first-messenger molecules can activate second-messenger molecules within the cell cytosol. C) A single first-messenger molecule activates multiple second-messenger molecules, each of which activate thousands of enzymes. D) Some cellular receptors have such low affinity for chemical ligands that it can require a million or more molecules to activate them. Answer: C Section: 05.02 Topic: Clinical applications of homeostatic mechanisms of the cell Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module H05 Neurotransmitters and their roles in synaptic transmission.; Module J02 Chemical classification of hormones and mechanism of hormone actions at receptors HAPS Outcome: H05.14 Describe the mechanism by which neurotransmitters may have indirect (metabotropic) effects on postsynaptic cells.; J02.04 Compare and contrast the mechanism of response that each class elicits (i.e., change in gene expression or change in an intracellular pathway via phosphorylation mechanism) and relate the response mechanism to the biochemical nature of the hormone molecule. 12) One way that cells can increase their responsiveness to an external chemical regulator is by A) increasing the number of their transmembrane receptors by exocytosis. B) decreasing the number of their transmembrane receptors by endocytosis. C) uncoupling their receptors from the second message generator. D) increasing the number of their transmembrane receptors by endocytosis. E) mutating their extracellular receptors so that the affinity for the chemical regulator is reduced. Answer: A Section: 05.01 Topic: Clinical applications of homeostatic mechanisms of the cell Bloom's: Level 2. Understand HAPS Topic: Module H05 Neurotransmitters and their roles in synaptic transmission.; Module J02 Chemical classification of hormones and mechanism of hormone actions at receptors; Module C14 Application of homeostatic mechanisms HAPS Outcome: H05.14 Describe the mechanism by which neurotransmitters may have indirect (metabotropic) effects on postsynaptic cells.; J02.03 Compare and contrast the types of receptors (cell membrane or intracellular) that each class binds to.; J02.04 Compare and contrast the mechanism of response that each class elicits (i.e., change in gene expression or change in an intracellular pathway via phosphorylation mechanism) and relate the response mechanism to the biochemical nature of the hormone molecule.; C14.01 Provide specific examples to demonstrate how individual cells respond to their environment (e.g., in terms of organelle function, transport processes, protein synthesis, or regulation of cell cycle) in order to maintain homeostasis in the body. 7 Copyright 2019 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.
13) In which situation would an injected drug be the most effective agonist for an endogenous chemical messenger? A) The drug has a lower affinity for the messenger's receptors than the messenger does. B) The drug achieves 50% saturation of the messenger's receptors at a lower concentration than that required by the messenger. C) The drug does not couple to the binding site of the messenger's receptor. D) The drug binds to an alternate binding site on the protein receptor and reduces its affinity for the endogenous chemical messenger. Answer: B Section: 05.01 Topic: Clinical applications of homeostatic mechanisms of the cell Bloom's: Level 3. Apply HAPS Topic: Module H16 Predictions related to homeostatic imbalance, including disease states and disorders.; Module C15 Predictions related to homeostatic imbalance, including disease states and disorders HAPS Outcome: H16.01 Predict factors or situations affecting the nervous system that could disrupt homeostasis.; C15.01 Predict factors or situations that could disrupt organelle function, transport processes, protein synthesis, or the cell cycle. 14) An adipose (fat) cell responds to the presence of the hormone epinephrine by increasing cytosolic cyclic AMP production, which leads to the catabolism of both glycogen and fat. What is the most likely explanation for this phenomenon? A) Epinephrine is binding to two types of receptors in the plasma membrane. B) The activated receptor complex stimulates production of two different second messengers. C) Cyclic AMP directly activates enzymes that catabolize glycogen and fat. D) Cyclic AMP-dependent protein kinase activates two kinds of enzymes. Answer: D Section: 05.02 Topic: Clinical applications of homeostatic mechanisms of the cell Bloom's: Level 2. Understand HAPS Topic: Module J02 Chemical classification of hormones and mechanism of hormone actions at receptors; Module J05 Identity, source, secretory control, and functional roles of the major hormones produced by the body; Module O02 Introduction to metabolism; Module C04 Organic compounds HAPS Outcome: J02.03 Compare and contrast the types of receptors (cell membrane or intracellular) that each class binds to.; J02.04 Compare and contrast the mechanism of response that each class elicits (i.e., change in gene expression or change in an intracellular pathway via phosphorylation mechanism) and relate the response mechanism to the biochemical nature of the hormone molecule.; J05.04c In the adrenal gland, name the target tissue or cells for the hormone and describe the effect(s) of glucocorticoids (cortisol), mineralocorticoids (aldosterone), gonadocorticoids, epinephrine and norepinephrine on the target tissue or cells.; O02.01 Define metabolism, anabolism and catabolism.; C04.06 Demonstrate factors that affect enzyme activity, including denaturation, and interpret graphs showing the effects of various factors on the rate of enzyme-catalyzed reactions. 8 Copyright 2019 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.
15) Which of the following is NOT typically true about G proteins? A) They act as second messengers. B) They can be stimulatory for second-messenger production. C) They can be inhibitory for second-messenger production. D) They can act as transducers for activated receptors by opening or closing ion channels. Answer: A Section: 05.02 Topic: Clinical applications of homeostatic mechanisms of the cell Bloom's: Level 2. Understand HAPS Topic: Module H05 Neurotransmitters and their roles in synaptic transmission.; Module J02 Chemical classification of hormones and mechanism of hormone actions at receptors HAPS Outcome: H05.06 Explain how the receptors for neurotransmitters are related to chemically- gated ion channels.; H05.14 Describe the mechanism by which neurotransmitters may have indirect (metabotropic) effects on postsynaptic cells.; J02.04 Compare and contrast the mechanism of response that each class elicits (i.e., change in gene expression or change in an intracellular pathway via phosphorylation mechanism) and relate the response mechanism to the biochemical nature of the hormone molecule. 16) Which is NOT typically a step in the cAMP second-messenger system? A) A first messenger binds to a transmembrane receptor. B) There is dissociation of G-protein subunits. C) An activated G-protein subunit phosphorylates cAMP-dependent protein kinase. D) Adenylyl cyclase converts ATP into cAMP. E) Active cAMP-dependent protein kinase phosphorylates cell proteins. Answer: C Section: 05.02 Topic: Clinical applications of homeostatic mechanisms of the cell Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module H05 Neurotransmitters and their roles in synaptic transmission.; Module J02 Chemical classification of hormones and mechanism of hormone actions at receptors; Module C04 Organic compounds HAPS Outcome: H05.14 Describe the mechanism by which neurotransmitters may have indirect (metabotropic) effects on postsynaptic cells.; J02.03 Compare and contrast the types of receptors (cell membrane or intracellular) that each class binds to.; J02.04 Compare and contrast the mechanism of response that each class elicits (i.e., change in gene expression or change in an intracellular pathway via phosphorylation mechanism) and relate the response mechanism to the biochemical nature of the hormone molecule.; C04.06 Demonstrate factors that affect enzyme activity, including denaturation, and interpret graphs showing the effects of various factors on the rate of enzyme-catalyzed reactions.
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17) Second messengers A) are necessary for all receptor signal transduction mechanisms. B) act in the cell cytoplasm. C) only function as intercellular messengers. D) always function to activate enzymes. E) are always proteins. Answer: B Section: 05.02 Topic: Clinical applications of homeostatic mechanisms of the cell Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module H05 Neurotransmitters and their roles in synaptic transmission.; Module J02 Chemical classification of hormones and mechanism of hormone actions at receptors; Module C04 Organic compounds HAPS Outcome: H05.14 Describe the mechanism by which neurotransmitters may have indirect (metabotropic) effects on postsynaptic cells.; J02.04 Compare and contrast the mechanism of response that each class elicits (i.e., change in gene expression or change in an intracellular pathway via phosphorylation mechanism) and relate the response mechanism to the biochemical nature of the hormone molecule.; C04.06 Demonstrate factors that affect enzyme activity, including denaturation, and interpret graphs showing the effects of various factors on the rate of enzyme-catalyzed reactions. 18) Which of the following statements is TRUE? A) Phosphorylation by protein kinases can stimulate or inhibit the activity of effector proteins. B) Ca2+ is not a second messenger. C) Phosphodiesterase converts GMP into cGMP D) Conversion of ATP to cAMP is a phosphorylation reaction. E) Phospholipase C converts ATP to cAMP. Answer: A Section: 05.02 Topic: Clinical applications of homeostatic mechanisms of the cell Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module H05 Neurotransmitters and their roles in synaptic transmission.; Module J02 Chemical classification of hormones and mechanism of hormone actions at receptors; Module C04 Organic compounds HAPS Outcome: H05.14 Describe the mechanism by which neurotransmitters may have indirect (metabotropic) effects on postsynaptic cells.; J02.04 Compare and contrast the mechanism of response that each class elicits (i.e., change in gene expression or change in an intracellular pathway via phosphorylation mechanism) and relate the response mechanism to the biochemical nature of the hormone molecule.; C04.06 Demonstrate factors that affect enzyme activity, including denaturation, and interpret graphs showing the effects of various factors on the rate of enzyme-catalyzed reactions.
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19) Which of the following is known to be a second messenger? A) Diacylglycerol B) Phospholipase C C) ATP D) Adenylyl cyclase E) Epinephrine Answer: A Section: 05.02 Topic: Clinical applications of homeostatic mechanisms of the cell Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module H05 Neurotransmitters and their roles in synaptic transmission.; Module J02 Chemical classification of hormones and mechanism of hormone actions at receptors; Module J05 Identity, source, secretory control, and functional roles of the major hormones produced by the body HAPS Outcome: H05.14 Describe the mechanism by which neurotransmitters may have indirect (metabotropic) effects on postsynaptic cells.; J02.04 Compare and contrast the mechanism of response that each class elicits (i.e., change in gene expression or change in an intracellular pathway via phosphorylation mechanism) and relate the response mechanism to the biochemical nature of the hormone molecule.; J05.04c In the adrenal gland, name the target tissue or cells for the hormone and describe the effect(s) of glucocorticoids (cortisol), mineralocorticoids (aldosterone), gonadocorticoids, epinephrine and norepinephrine on the target tissue or cells. 20) Amplification during a second-messenger cascade is beneficial because amplification A) takes small molecules and makes polymers out of them. B) results in the production of more of the first messenger. C) allows a cell to respond to more different hormones. D) allows small amounts of hormones to produce large responses in target cells. Answer: D Section: 05.02 Topic: Clinical applications of homeostatic mechanisms of the cell Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module H05 Neurotransmitters and their roles in synaptic transmission.; Module J02 Chemical classification of hormones and mechanism of hormone actions at receptors HAPS Outcome: H05.14 Describe the mechanism by which neurotransmitters may have indirect (metabotropic) effects on postsynaptic cells.; J02.04 Compare and contrast the mechanism of response that each class elicits (i.e., change in gene expression or change in an intracellular pathway via phosphorylation mechanism) and relate the response mechanism to the biochemical nature of the hormone molecule.
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21) Amplification of a second-messenger cascade can take place at which level of a signal cascade? A) One activated receptor can activate numerous G proteins. B) One activated G protein can activate numerous effector enzymes. C) One active effector enzyme can catalyze numerous reactions. D) One activated protein kinase can allosterically modulate numerous proteins. E) All of the choices are correct. Answer: E Section: 05.02 Topic: Clinical applications of homeostatic mechanisms of the cell Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module H05 Neurotransmitters and their roles in synaptic transmission.; Module J02 Chemical classification of hormones and mechanism of hormone actions at receptors; Module C04 Organic compounds HAPS Outcome: H05.14 Describe the mechanism by which neurotransmitters may have indirect (metabotropic) effects on postsynaptic cells.; J02.04 Compare and contrast the mechanism of response that each class elicits (i.e., change in gene expression or change in an intracellular pathway via phosphorylation mechanism) and relate the response mechanism to the biochemical nature of the hormone molecule.; C04.06 Demonstrate factors that affect enzyme activity, including denaturation, and interpret graphs showing the effects of various factors on the rate of enzyme-catalyzed reactions. 22) What is a role of calcium ions in the second-messenger cascade involving phospholipase C, diacylglycerol, and inositol trisphosphate? A) It splits and activates G-protein subunits. B) It binds to the endoplasmic reticulum and causes the release of inositol trisphosphate. C) It phosphorylates cell proteins. D) It is the first messenger that binds to the integral membrane protein receptor. E) Along with diacylglycerol, it activates protein kinase C. Answer: E Section: 05.02 Topic: Clinical applications of homeostatic mechanisms of the cell Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module H05 Neurotransmitters and their roles in synaptic transmission.; Module J02 Chemical classification of hormones and mechanism of hormone actions at receptors HAPS Outcome: H05.14 Describe the mechanism by which neurotransmitters may have indirect (metabotropic) effects on postsynaptic cells.; J02.04 Compare and contrast the mechanism of response that each class elicits (i.e., change in gene expression or change in an intracellular pathway via phosphorylation mechanism) and relate the response mechanism to the biochemical nature of the hormone molecule.
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23) What second messenger most directly causes calcium ions to be released from intracellular stores? A) Diacylglycerol B) Adenylyl cyclase C) inositol trisphosphate D) Phospholipase A E) Phospholipase C Answer: C Section: 05.02 Topic: Organelles; Clinical applications of homeostatic mechanisms of the cell Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module H05 Neurotransmitters and their roles in synaptic transmission.; Module J02 Chemical classification of hormones and mechanism of hormone actions at receptors HAPS Outcome: H05.14 Describe the mechanism by which neurotransmitters may have indirect (metabotropic) effects on postsynaptic cells.; J02.04 Compare and contrast the mechanism of response that each class elicits (i.e., change in gene expression or change in an intracellular pathway via phosphorylation mechanism) and relate the response mechanism to the biochemical nature of the hormone molecule. 24) First messengers may bind to a membrane receptor that is an ion channel, which promotes a change in membrane polarity. Answer: TRUE Section: 05.02 Topic: Membrane structure and function; Mechanisms for movement across cell membranes Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module H05 Neurotransmitters and their roles in synaptic transmission.; Module J02 Chemical classification of hormones and mechanism of hormone actions at receptors HAPS Outcome: H05.06 Explain how the receptors for neurotransmitters are related to chemically- gated ion channels.; H05.14 Describe the mechanism by which neurotransmitters may have indirect (metabotropic) effects on postsynaptic cells.; J02.03 Compare and contrast the types of receptors (cell membrane or intracellular) that each class binds to.; J02.04 Compare and contrast the mechanism of response that each class elicits (i.e., change in gene expression or change in an intracellular pathway via phosphorylation mechanism) and relate the response mechanism to the biochemical nature of the hormone molecule.
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25) Designing a drug that blocked the release of eicosanoids would be an effective therapy for both pain and inflammation. Answer: TRUE Section: 05.02 Topic: Membrane structure and function; Clinical applications of homeostatic mechanisms of the cell Bloom's: Level 3. Apply HAPS Topic: Module J06 Local hormones (paracrines and autocrines) and growth factors HAPS Outcome: J06.02 List two major types of eicosanoids and discuss their production and functions. 26) Aspirin and other nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs are more specific in their effects on eicosanoid synthesis than are steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs. Answer: TRUE Section: 05.02 Topic: Clinical applications of homeostatic mechanisms of the cell Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module J06 Local hormones (paracrines and autocrines) and growth factors; Module J09 Predictions related to homeostatic imbalance, including disease states and disorders HAPS Outcome: J06.02 List two major types of eicosanoids and discuss their production and functions.; J09.01 Predict factors or situations affecting the endocrine organs that could disrupt homeostasis. 27) Two cell types having the same type of receptor for a chemical messenger will always respond to that messenger in the same way. Answer: FALSE Section: 05.01 Topic: Clinical applications of homeostatic mechanisms of the cell Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module H05 Neurotransmitters and their roles in synaptic transmission.; Module J02 Chemical classification of hormones and mechanism of hormone actions at receptors HAPS Outcome: H05.06 Explain how the receptors for neurotransmitters are related to chemically- gated ion channels.; H05.13 Explain how a single neurotransmitter may be excitatory at one synapse and inhibitory at another.; H05.14 Describe the mechanism by which neurotransmitters may have indirect (metabotropic) effects on postsynaptic cells.; J02.04 Compare and contrast the mechanism of response that each class elicits (i.e., change in gene expression or change in an intracellular pathway via phosphorylation mechanism) and relate the response mechanism to the biochemical nature of the hormone molecule.
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28) Competition for receptors is strictly a pharmacological phenomenon, since naturally occurring chemical messengers do not compete with each other for the same receptor site. Answer: FALSE Section: 05.01 Topic: Clinical applications of homeostatic mechanisms of the cell Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module C15 Predictions related to homeostatic imbalance, including disease states and disorders HAPS Outcome: C15.01 Predict factors or situations that could disrupt organelle function, transport processes, protein synthesis, or the cell cycle. 29) Endogenous opioid molecules reduce pain sensation. Morphine, a common analgesic, is an agonist for endogenous opioid receptors. Answer: TRUE Section: 05.01 Topic: Clinical applications of homeostatic mechanisms of the cell Bloom's: Level 3. Apply HAPS Topic: Module C15 Predictions related to homeostatic imbalance, including disease states and disorders HAPS Outcome: C15.01 Predict factors or situations that could disrupt organelle function, transport processes, protein synthesis, or the cell cycle. 30) Phosphorylation is a necessary component of any enzyme activation. Answer: FALSE Section: 05.02 Topic: Clinical applications of homeostatic mechanisms of the cell Bloom's: Level 2. Understand HAPS Topic: Module H05 Neurotransmitters and their roles in synaptic transmission.; Module J02 Chemical classification of hormones and mechanism of hormone actions at receptors; Module C04 Organic compounds HAPS Outcome: H05.14 Describe the mechanism by which neurotransmitters may have indirect (metabotropic) effects on postsynaptic cells.; J02.04 Compare and contrast the mechanism of response that each class elicits (i.e., change in gene expression or change in an intracellular pathway via phosphorylation mechanism) and relate the response mechanism to the biochemical nature of the hormone molecule.; C04.06 Demonstrate factors that affect enzyme activity, including denaturation, and interpret graphs showing the effects of various factors on the rate of enzyme-catalyzed reactions.
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31) The enzyme that catalyzes the production of cAMP from ATP is phosphodiesterase. Answer: FALSE Section: 05.02 Topic: Clinical applications of homeostatic mechanisms of the cell Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module H05 Neurotransmitters and their roles in synaptic transmission.; Module J02 Chemical classification of hormones and mechanism of hormone actions at receptors HAPS Outcome: H05.14 Describe the mechanism by which neurotransmitters may have indirect (metabotropic) effects on postsynaptic cells.; J02.04 Compare and contrast the mechanism of response that each class elicits (i.e., change in gene expression or change in an intracellular pathway via phosphorylation mechanism) and relate the response mechanism to the biochemical nature of the hormone molecule. 32) Cyclic AMP activates allosteric proteins. Answer: TRUE Section: 05.02 Topic: Clinical applications of homeostatic mechanisms of the cell Bloom's: Level 2. Understand HAPS Topic: Module H05 Neurotransmitters and their roles in synaptic transmission.; Module J02 Chemical classification of hormones and mechanism of hormone actions at receptors HAPS Outcome: H05.14 Describe the mechanism by which neurotransmitters may have indirect (metabotropic) effects on postsynaptic cells.; J02.04 Compare and contrast the mechanism of response that each class elicits (i.e., change in gene expression or change in an intracellular pathway via phosphorylation mechanism) and relate the response mechanism to the biochemical nature of the hormone molecule. 33) Activated calmodulin functions to activate or inactivate cytosolic enzymes. Answer: TRUE Section: 05.02 Topic: Clinical applications of homeostatic mechanisms of the cell Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module H05 Neurotransmitters and their roles in synaptic transmission.; Module J02 Chemical classification of hormones and mechanism of hormone actions at receptors; Module C04 Organic compounds HAPS Outcome: H05.14 Describe the mechanism by which neurotransmitters may have indirect (metabotropic) effects on postsynaptic cells.; J02.04 Compare and contrast the mechanism of response that each class elicits (i.e., change in gene expression or change in an intracellular pathway via phosphorylation mechanism) and relate the response mechanism to the biochemical nature of the hormone molecule.; C04.06 Demonstrate factors that affect enzyme activity, including denaturation, and interpret graphs showing the effects of various factors on the rate of enzyme-catalyzed reactions.
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34) Type 2 diabetes mellitus is a disease in which the effect insulin has on the cell is reduced, despite consistent levels of circulating insulin (in the beginning of the disease). Which of the following could possibly explain this phenomenon? A) Upregulation of insulin receptors B) Downregulation of insulin receptors C) Increased affinity of insulin for its receptor D) Decreased expression of the second messenger in the insulin pathway E) Saturation of the insulin receptor Answer: B, D Section: 05.02 Topic: Clinical applications of homeostatic mechanisms of the cell Bloom's: Level 3. Apply HAPS Topic: Module J02 Chemical classification of hormones and mechanism of hormone actions at receptors HAPS Outcome: J02.04 Compare and contrast the mechanism of response that each class elicits (i.e., change in gene expression or change in an intracellular pathway via phosphorylation mechanism) and relate the response mechanism to the biochemical nature of the hormone molecule. 35) Drug Y is a drug that is used to increase the force of contraction achieved by heart muscle tissue. In the absence of the drug, epinephrine increases heart contractility through a signaling pathway that involves a receptor and cAMP. Which of the following are plausible mechanisms of action for Y? A) Acting as an agonist on the receptor for epinephrine, a hormone that increases heart contractility B) Increasing the expression of cAMP C) Inhibiting phosphodiesterase activity D) Increasing the availability of phosphodiesterase molecules E) Decreasing the activity of cAMP-dependent protein kinase Answer: A, B, C Section: 05.02 Topic: Clinical applications of homeostatic mechanisms of the cell Bloom's: Level 3. Apply HAPS Topic: Module J02 Chemical classification of hormones and mechanism of hormone actions at receptors HAPS Outcome: J02.04 Compare and contrast the mechanism of response that each class elicits (i.e., change in gene expression or change in an intracellular pathway via phosphorylation mechanism) and relate the response mechanism to the biochemical nature of the hormone molecule.
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36) Which of the following might be phosphorylated in a signaling pathway? A) G-protein coupled receptor B) cAMP C) Enzymes D) Ca2+ E) Tyrosine residues Answer: C, E Section: 05.02 Topic: Clinical applications of homeostatic mechanisms of the cell Bloom's: Level 2. Understand HAPS Topic: Module J02 Chemical classification of hormones and mechanism of hormone actions at receptors HAPS Outcome: J02.04 Compare and contrast the mechanism of response that each class elicits (i.e., change in gene expression or change in an intracellular pathway via phosphorylation mechanism) and relate the response mechanism to the biochemical nature of the hormone molecule.
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Vander's Human Physiology, 15e (Widmaier) Chapter 6 Neuronal Signaling and the Structure of the Nervous System 1) You are studying a cross-sectional tissue slice of a nerve using a transmission electron microscope. You find an area where there appears to be a small amount of cytoplasm surrounded by about 100 layers of stacked cell membranes. You conclude that you have found A) a neuron cell body. B) a synapse. C) an unmyelinated axon. D) a myelinated axon. 2) Which of the following is NOT true about axon transport? A) It refers to the passage of materials from the cell body of a neuron to the axon terminals. B) It refers to the passage of materials from axon terminals to the cell body of a neuron. C) It refers to the transport of materials from the inside to the outside across the axonal membrane. D) It is especially important for maintaining the integrity of neurons with long axons. 3) Some viruses can hide from the immune system by retrograde transport from axonal terminals in the skin to the cell body of a neuron. Which of the following might be an effective preventative therapy? A) A kinesin inhibitor B) A dynein inhibitor C) Actin polymerization inhibitor D) Myosin inhibitor E) None of these would prevent this type of infection 4) Which is FALSE about neurons? A) A given neuron can be either a presynaptic neuron or a postsynaptic neuron. B) An individual neuron can receive information from multiple other neurons. C) An individual neuron can transmit information to multiple other neurons. D) A neuron can simultaneously release more than one type of neurotransmitter. E) A neuron receives information on its axons and delivers it to other neurons through its dendrites. 5) Which of the following is NOT true of glial cells? A) They form the myelin for axons. B) They are outnumbered 10 to 1 by neurons in the nervous system. C) They deliver fuel molecules to neurons and remove the waste products of metabolism. D) They are important for the growth and development of the nervous system. E) They regulate the composition of the extracellular fluid in the CNS.
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6) The difference in electrical charge between two points A) is called the potential difference between those points. B) is called the diffusion potential between those points. C) is called the current, and is expressed in the units of millimoles. D) is the same for all ions. 7) According to the equation expressed as Ohm's law, which of these would cause the greatest increase in current? A) Doubling both voltage and resistance B) Reducing both voltage and resistance by half C) Doubling voltage and reducing resistance by half D) Reducing voltage by half and doubling resistance E) Quadrupling both voltage and resistance 8) Compartments A and B are separated by a membrane that is permeable to K+ but not to Na+ or Cl-. At time zero, a solution of KCl is poured into compartment A and an equally concentrated solution of NaCl is poured into compartment B. Which would be true once equilibrium is reached? A) The concentration of Na+ in A will be higher than it was at time zero. B) Diffusion of K+ from A to B will be greater than the diffusion of K+ from B to A. C) There will be a potential difference across the membrane, with side B negative relative to side A. D) The electrical potential difference and diffusion potential due to the concentration gradient for K+ will be equal in magnitude and opposite in direction. E) The concentration of Cl- will be higher in B than it was at time zero. 9) Which is TRUE about the resting membrane potential? A) It requires very few ions to be distributed unevenly. B) It has the same value in all cells. C) It is oriented so that the cell's interior is positive with respect to the extracellular fluid. D) Only nerve and muscle cells have a potential difference across the membrane at rest. E) It is not altered by changing concentration gradients of permeating ions. 10) Which is TRUE about typical, resting neurons? A) The plasma membrane is most permeable to sodium ions. B) The concentration of sodium ion is greater inside the cell than outside. C) The permeability of the plasma membrane to potassium ions is much greater than its permeability to sodium ions. D) The plasma membrane is completely impermeable to sodium ions. E) The plasma membrane is completely impermeable to potassium ions.
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11) The membrane potential of most neurons at rest is A) equal to the equilibrium potential for potassium. B) equal to the equilibrium potential for sodium. C) slightly more negative than the equilibrium potential of potassium ion. D) more positive than the equilibrium potential for potassium. E) more positive than the equilibrium potential for sodium. 12) Which of the following is TRUE about the concentration gradient of Na+ in a neuron at rest? A) It favors its movement into the cell at the resting membrane potential. B) It favors its movement out of the cell at the resting membrane potential. C) It is equal and opposite to the electrical potential acting on Na+ at the resting membrane potential. D) It is in the same direction as the diffusion potential due to the concentration gradient for K+. E) It favors movement of Na+ in the opposite direction as the electrical potential acting on Na+ at the resting membrane potential. 13) If there was an increased concentration of K+ outside of the neuron, which would be TRUE? A) Neurons would spontaneously depolarize. B) Neurons would spontaneously hyperpolarize. C) The potassium equilibrium potential of nerve cells would become more negative. D) The sodium equilibrium potential would become less positive. E) During an action potential, the neuron would repolarize slowly or stay depolarized. 14) Which is TRUE about the Na+, K+ ATPase pump in neurons? A) It generates a small electrical potential such that the inside is made negative with respect to the outside. B) It maintains a concentration gradient for K+ such that diffusion forces favor movement of K+ into the cell. C) It maintains an electrical gradient at the equilibrium potential of K+. D) It transports equal numbers of sodium and potassium ions with each pump cycle. E) It pumps 3 Na+ ions into the cell for every 2 K+ ions it pumps out. 15) Which of these would occur if the concentration of ATP were depleted in a typical nerve cell? A) Resting membrane potential would become more negative. B) Resting membrane potential would become less negative. C) The concentration gradient for Na+ would remain the same. D) The resting membrane potential would eventually become positive inside with respect to outside. E) There would be no change in the resting membrane potential.
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16) Which is FALSE about the equilibrium potential of a given ion across a membrane? A) It is a function of the concentration of that ion on both sides of the membrane. B) It is the potential at which there is no net movement of that ion across the membrane. C) It is the potential difference across the membrane at which an electric force favoring movement of the ion in one direction is equal in magnitude and opposite in direction to the diffusion force provided by the concentration difference of the ion across the membrane. D) A permeable ion will move in the direction that will tend to bring the membrane potential toward that ion's equilibrium potential. E) An anion that is in higher concentration inside the cell than outside the cell will have a negative equilibrium potential. 17) Two neighboring neurons are at rest. Neuron A has a resting membrane potential of -80mV, Neuron B has a resting membrane potential of -70mV. Which is likely to be TRUE? A) Neuron A has more K+ channels open than Neuron B. B) Neuron B has more K+ channels open than Neuron A. C) Neuron A has more Na+ channels open than Neuron B. D) Neuron B has more Na+ channels open than Neuron A. E) None of the answer choices are correct. 18) Which of the following statements concerning the permeability of a typical neuron membrane at rest is TRUE? A) The permeability to Na+ is much greater than the permeability to K+. B) All of the K+ channels in the membrane are open. C) The voltage-gated Na+ channels are in the inactivated state. D) Most of the voltage-gated Na+ channels are in the closed state. E) There is equal permeability to Na+ and K+. 19) Which is NOT an example of a graded potential? A) A receptor potential in a sensory receptor cell B) A depolarizing excitatory postsynaptic potential (EPSP) C) A hyperpolarizing inhibitory postsynaptic potential (IPSP) D) A depolarizing pacemaker potential E) A depolarizing action potential 20) An action potential in a neuronal membrane differs from a graded potential in that A) an action potential requires the opening of Ca2+ channels, whereas a graded potential does not. B) an action potential is propagated without decrement, whereas a graded potential decrements with distance. C) an action potential has a threshold, whereas a graded potential is an all-or-none phenomenon. D) movement of Na+ and K+ across cell membranes mediate action potentials, while graded potentials do not involve movement of Na+ and K+. E) action potentials vary in size with the size of a stimulus, while graded potentials do not.
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21) A threshold stimulus applied to an excitable membrane is one that is just sufficient to A) trigger an excitatory postsynaptic potential. B) cause a change in membrane potential. C) trigger an action potential. D) be conducted to the axon hillock. E) depolarize a dendrite. 22) Using a micropipette, a neuroscientist injects an axon with enough Na+ ions to move the membrane potential +25mV (from resting). What happens next? A) The membrane potential will be at the Na+ equilibrium potential. B) Voltage-gated Na+ will be triggered to open. C) The neuron membrane will be hyperpolarized. D) Na+ channels will all be inactivated. E) None of the answer choices are correct. 23) Which describes the response of the voltage-gated channels when an axon is stimulated to threshold? A) K+ channels open before the Na+ channels. B) Na+ channels are activated and then inactivated. C) K+ channels open at the same time as the Na+ channels. D) K+ channels are opened when Na+ binds to the channel. E) K+ influx causes Na+ channels to inactivate. 24) During the rising (depolarizing) phase of a neuronal action potential, A) PK+ becomes much greater than PNa+. B) PNa+ becomes much greater than PK+. C) PK+ is the same as PNa+. D) Na+ efflux (flow out of the cell) occurs. E) K+ flows rapidly into the cell. 25) Procaine (Novocain) is a drug that blocks voltage-gated Na+ channels. When present, what would happen in a neuron? A) Graded potentials are possible, but the neuron will not have the depolarizing phase of the action potential. B) Neither graded potentials nor action potentials will occur. C) Graded potentials are possible and the neuron will have the depolarizing phase of the action potential, but will be unable to repolarize. D) No phase of the action potential will be affected.
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26) Which is TRUE about neuronal membrane electrical and concentration gradients at the peak of the action potential? A) The electrical gradient is in a direction that would tend to move K+ out of the cell. B) The concentration gradient for K+ is in a direction that would tend to move it into the cell. C) The concentration gradient for K+ greatly increases compared to at rest. D) The concentration gradient for Na+ is in a direction that would tend to move it out of the cell. E) The electrical gradient for Na+ is in a direction that would tend to move it into the cell. 27) Which is most directly responsible for the falling (repolarizing) phase of the action potential? A) Voltage-gated Na+ channels are opened. B) The Na+, K+ pump restores the ions to their original locations inside and outside of the cell. C) The permeability to Na+ increases greatly. D) ATPase destroys the energy supply that was maintaining the action potential at its peak. E) The permeability to K+ increases greatly while that to Na+ decreases. 28) Two stimuli occur on the same neuron more than a minute apart. The second stimulus is more than ten times greater than the first. If we compare the two resulting action potentials, which is TRUE? A) The second stimulus will lead to an action potential with higher amplitude. B) The second stimulus will lead to an action potential with a longer duration. C) The second stimulus will lead to an action potential with a longer hyperpolarization at the end. D) The amplitude of the two action potentials will be the same. E) The amplitude and duration of the second action potential will be greater than the first. 29) Which of the following statements about the refractory period of a membrane is TRUE? A) The absolute refractory period refers to the period of time during which another action potential cannot be initiated in that part of the membrane that is undergoing an action potential, no matter how great the strength of the stimulus. B) The relative refractory period refers to the period of time during which another action potential can be initiated in that part of the membrane that has just undergone an action potential if a stronger than normal stimulus is applied. C) The refractory period prevents the action potential from spreading back over the part of the membrane that just underwent an action potential. D) The refractory period places an upper limit on the frequency with which a nerve cell can conduct action potentials. E) All of the answer choices are correct. 30) The relative refractory period of an axon coincides with the period of A) activation and inactivation of voltage-dependent Na+ channels. B) Na+ permeability that is greater than that during the depolarization phase. C) increased K+ flux into the cell. D) increased K+ permeability of the cell. E) Increased Na+ flux through K+ channels.
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31) Neuronal axons typically have abundant A) voltage-gated channels for Na+ that open in response to depolarization. B) voltage-gated channels for K+ that open in response to hyperpolarization. C) ligand-gated channels for Na+. D) ligand-gated channels for K+. E) voltage-gated channels for Ca2+. 32) Which of the following statements regarding action potentials generated in a neuronal membrane is FALSE? A) Action potentials travel in both directions along the axon. B) An action potential generates a new action potential in an adjacent area of membrane. C) An action potential generates a local current that depolarizes adjacent membrane to threshold potential. D) Action potentials are usually initiated at the axon hillock of a neuron. E) An action potential generated by a threshold stimulus is the same size as one generated by a supra-threshold stimulus. 33) Which of the following statements concerning the properties of action potentials is TRUE? A) The rate of propagation of an action potential down an axon is independent of stimulus strength. B) Action potentials can undergo summation. C) A supra-threshold stimulus can stimulate an action potential during the absolute refractory period. D) Action potentials generally propagate from the axon terminal toward the axon hillock. E) Increasing the size of a stimulus will increase the amplitude of an action potential. 34) How is the strength of a stimulus encoded by neurons? A) By the size of action potentials B) By the frequency of action potentials C) By the duration of action potentials D) By whether the action potential peak is positive or negative 35) Visual signals travel on myelinated axons. While most pain signals travel on unmyelinated axons. If you get a paper cut, will you see the cut happen or feel the pain first? A) Both sensations will occur at the same time. B) You will feel the pain sensation before the visual sensation. C) You will experience the visual sensation before the pain sensation. D) It depends on the magnitude of the pain sensation, it may reach the brain first or second.
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36) An action potential does not re-stimulate the adjacent membrane that was previously depolarized because A) stimulation is inhibited by the myelin sheath. B) it is impossible for an action potential to be propagated along an axon toward the nerve cell body. C) the resting membrane potential of the axon is too positive. D) the resting membrane potential of the axon is too negative. E) that area of the membrane is in the absolutely refractory period. 37) The regions of myelinated axon membrane that have the highest permeability to ions are the A) ganglia. B) nodes of Ranvier. C) synaptic membranes. D) glial cells. E) pia mater. 38) Which is FALSE about interneurons? A) They receive synaptic input from other neurons in the CNS. B) They sum excitatory and inhibitory synaptic inputs. C) They deliver synaptic input on other neurons. D) They make synapses on effector organs in the PNS. E) They can transmit information between afferent neurons and efferent neurons. 39) If you block Ca2+ channels on an axon, which will not occur? A) The depolarization phase of the action potential B) The repolarization phase of the action potential C) The exocytosis of neurotransmitter D) The graded potential E) All of these will not occur 40) Inside a neuron, calcium binding sites are likely found on A) smooth endoplasmic reticulum. B) kinesin proteins. C) proteins associated with synaptic vesicles. D) dyenin proteins. E) lysosomal proteins. 41) At an excitatory chemical synapse between two neurons A) there is increased permeability of the postsynaptic cell to both Na+ and K+. B) a small hyperpolarization of the postsynaptic membrane occurs when the synapse is activated. C) an action potential in the presynaptic neuron always causes an action potential in the postsynaptic neuron. D) excitation occurs because K+ enters the postsynaptic cell. E) action potentials spread through gap junctions between cells.
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42) You are studying the role of a newly discovered neurotransmitter. You find that there are receptors for this neurotransmitter on interneurons in the brain and that when it binds, it causes the opening of K+ channels. What can we expect of the postsynaptic cells under influence of this neurostransmitter? A) The postsynaptic cell will immediately undergo an action potential. B) The postsynaptic cell will undergo an IPSP. C) The postsynaptic cell will undergo an EPSP. D) There will be no change to the membrane potential in the postsynaptic cell. 43) Which of the following statements about EPSPs is FALSE? A) They are produced by the opening of ligand-gated sodium channels. B) They transmit signals over relatively short distances. C) They depolarize postsynaptic cell membranes. D) They are able to summate. E) They are always the same amplitude. 44) An EPSP A) is a direct result of the opening of ligand-gated channels permeable to both Na+ and K+ ions. B) is a direct result of the opening of voltage-gated channels permeable to both Na+ and K+ ions. C) stabilizes the membrane to remain at its resting potential. D) opens voltage-gated Ca2+ channels in the presynaptic membrane. E) occurs when voltage-gated Cl- channels open in a postsynaptic cell membrane. 45) Which best describes temporal summation? A) A synapse is stimulated a second time before the effect of a first stimulus at the synapse has terminated. B) It only refers to addition of EPSPs. C) Two synapses on different regions of a cell are stimulated at the same time. D) It always brings a postsynaptic cell to threshold. E) The size of an EPSP depends on the size of the stimulus. 46) A postsynaptic neuron has three presynaptic inputs—from neurons X, Y, and Z. Stimulation of neuron X causes the postsynaptic neuron to depolarize by 0.5 mV. When X and Y are stimulated simultaneously, the postsynaptic neuron depolarizes by 1 mV. When X and Z are stimulated simultaneously, however, there is no change in the membrane potential of the postsynaptic neuron. What is most likely true about presynaptic neurons Y and Z? A) They are both excitatory. B) They are both inhibitory. C) Y is excitatory and Z is inhibitory. D) Z is excitatory and Y is inhibitory.
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47) A postsynaptic neuron has an RMP of -70mV and a typical threshold of -55mV. It has three presynaptic inputs—from neurons X, Y, and Z. Stimulation of neuron X causes the postsynaptic neuron to depolarize by 0.5 mV. When X and Y are stimulated simultaneously, the postsynaptic neuron depolarizes by 1 mV. If X fires 10 times and Y fires 10 times the result will be A) a subthreshold summation. B) presynaptic inhibition. C) threshold is reached and an AP is fired. D) many APs are fired. E) the membrane depolarizes. 48) Which is TRUE about the axon hillock of an axon? A) Its membrane potential at threshold is more positive than that of the cell body and dendrites. B) Its membrane potential at threshold is more negative than that of the cell body and dendrites. C) Synapses far from the axon hillock are more effective in influencing whether an action potential will be generated in the axon than are synapses close to the axon hillock. D) It is the region where neurotransmitter vesicles are docked and ready to be released by exocytosis. E) It can only conduct graded potentials because it lacks voltage-gated Na+ channels. 49) A presynaptic (axo-axonal) synapse A) is a synapse between an axon terminal and a dendrite that can be either excitatory or inhibitory. B) is a synapse between an axon terminal and another axon's terminal that can be either excitatory or inhibitory. C) is any synapse onto a cell body, and they can be either stimulatory or inhibitory. D) is a synapse between an axon terminal and a dendrite of the same cell, which is always inhibitory. E) is a synapse between an axon terminal and another axon's terminal that is always inhibitory. 50) Neuron X makes inhibitory axon-axonal synaptic contact with neuron Y at the synapse of Y and neuron Z. Which will occur when action potentials are stimulated in neuron X? A) Neuron Y will be inhibited from reaching the threshold to fire an action potential. B) The release of neurotransmitter by neuron Y will be inhibited. C) The synapse between neurons Y and Z will be changed from an excitatory synapse to an inhibitory one. D) Neurons Y and Z will both be more likely to reach threshold and fire an action potential. E) Neurons Y and Z will both be less likely to reach threshold and fire an action potential. 51) Which of the following is NOT known to be an important neurotransmitter in the CNS? A) Dopamine B) Acetylcholine C) Morphine D) Glutamate E) Substance P
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52) Heroin causes similar, but much stronger effects to the nervous system as endogenous opioids. Heroin's mechanism of action might be that it acts as an: A) agonist to serotonin receptors. B) agonist to the endogenous opioid receptors. C) agonist to glycine receptors. D) agonist to epinephrine receptors. E) Any of these are possible 53) Nicotinic receptors are expressed on skeletal muscle cells. Which of the following would likely be a side-effect of the use of nicotine, an agonist for those receptors? A) Muscle relaxation B) Muscle cell twitches (contractions) C) Muscle paralysis D) Drowsiness E) None of the answer choices are correct 54) Which of the following statements regarding neurotransmitters is TRUE? A) Acetylcholine is broken down by enzymes present on postsynaptic cell membranes. B) Acetylcholine that is released at synapses binds to adrenergic receptors in the postsynaptic cell membrane. C) Catecholamines are the most abundant neurotransmitters in the central nervous system. D) Opiate drugs, such as morphine, are antagonists of a class of neurotransmitters called endorphins. E) Gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA) is a major excitatory transmitter in the central nervous system. 55) Acetylcholine is the main neurotransmitter released by A) preganglionic sympathetic neurons and cells of the adrenal medulla. B) cells of the adrenal medulla and postganglionic parasympathetic neurons. C) motor neurons and postganglionic sympathetic neurons. D) preganglionic sympathetic neurons and postganglionic sympathetic neurons. E) preganglionic sympathetic neurons and motor neurons. 56) Which of the following statements about norepinephrine is FALSE? A) Norepinephrine is a neurotransmitter. B) Norepinephrine binds to adrenergic receptors. C) Norepinephrine is a catecholamine. D) Dopamine is a precursor to norepinephrine. E) Epinephrine is a precursor to norepinephrine. 57) Which of the following enzymes is important for the metabolism of catecholamines? A) Tyrosine hydroxylase B) Acetylcholinesterase C) Superoxide dismutase D) Trypsin E) Adenylyl cyclase 11 Copyright 2019 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.
58) Nicotine is A) a cholinergic antagonist. B) a beta-adrenergic agonist. C) a cholinergic agonist. D) an alpha-adrenergic antagonist. E) a neurotransmitter. 59) Serotonin A) acts as a neuromodulator. B) is a catecholamine neurotransmitter. C) is a neuropeptide. D) has an inhibitory effect on pathways that are involved in the control of muscles. E) has an excitatory effect on pathways that mediate sensations. 60) Alzheimer's disease is thought to involve primarily A) loss of neurons that secrete or respond to catecholamines. B) loss of adrenergic neurons. C) loss of cholinergic neurons. D) loss of neurons that secrete or respond to dopamine. E) tumors that produce excess serotonin. 61) Which is one of the major inhibitory neurotransmitters in the CNS? A) Glutamate B) Dopamine C) Norepinephrine D) Gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA) E) Beta-endorphin 62) You are studying a disease in which inhibition of sensory neurons is diminished, leading to more dramatic sensory sensations than are appropriate for stimulus strength. For example, when a person with this disease listens to a person talking in a normal voice, it sounds like they are yelling. Which neurotransmitter might be expressed at lower levels in this disease compared to a healthy individual? A) Glutamate B) Dopamine C) Norepinephrine D) Gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA) E) Beta-endorphin 63) Which is one of the most abundant excitatory neurotransmitters in the CNS? A) Glutamate B) Dopamine C) Norepinephrine D) Gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA) E) Endorphin
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64) The central nervous system includes the A) afferent nerves and spinal cord. B) efferent nerves and spinal cord. C) autonomic nervous system and the brain. D) brain stem and the autonomic nervous system. E) brain and spinal cord. 65) The portion of the peripheral nervous system that is composed of nerve fibers that innervate skeletal muscle is called the A) afferent nervous system. B) sympathetic nervous system. C) parasympathetic nervous system. D) somatic motor nervous system. E) autonomic nervous system. 66) Multiple sclerosis is a disease that primarily effects the somatic motor nervous system. Which of the following might be symptoms of multiple sclerosis? A) Difficulty controlling muscle movements, such as using a fork and knife to cut food B) Inappropriate sensory sensation, such as hearing voices when in a silent room C) Difficulty expressing appropriate emotional responses D) Cognitive and memory decline E) Difficulty digesting foods due to inactivity of the muscles in the walls of abdominal organs 67) A patient has been experiencing difficulty with homeostatic regulation. An MRI scan reveals a brain tumor. Which brain region is the tumor likely in? A) The thalamus B) The hippocampus C) The cerebrum D) The cerebellum E) The hypothalamus 68) Which of the following kinds of neurons are NOT generally cholinergic? A) Somatic motor neurons B) Postganglionic sympathetic neurons C) Postganglionic parasympathetic neurons D) Preganglionic sympathetic neurons E) Preganglionic parasympathetic neurons 69) Which of the following does NOT result from the binding of nicotine with nicotinic acetylcholine receptors? A) A mild form of skeletal muscle paralysis that creates a more relaxed state B) Signal transmission at neuromuscular junctions C) Generation of excitatory signals within autonomic ganglia D) The release of norepinephrine, dopamine, and epinephrine E) Facilitation of the release of multiple neurotransmitters within the brain, including the "reward pathway" involving dopamine 13 Copyright 2019 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.
70) In clinical trials, scientists discover that use of drug X results in a decrease in norepinephrine signaling. In the process of making a list of possible mechanisms of this drug to test, which of the following is NOT a plausible explanation for the effects of drug X? A) X inhibits synthesis of norepinephrine at the axon terminal. B) X inhibits norepinephrine release from the terminal. C) X blocks reuptake of norepinephrine by the terminal. D) X is an adrenergic receptor antagonist. E) X stimulates the catabolism of norepinephrine. 71) Synthesis of neuropeptides differs from that of other neurotransmitters because it A) takes place in the axon terminals of neurons. B) takes place in the cell bodies of neurons. C) takes place on ribosomes in the postsynaptic cell's membrane. D) uses amino acids as precursor molecules. E) only takes place at synapses outside the central nervous system. 72) Which best describes the reticular formation of the brain? A) It is mainly involved in motor coordination and balance. B) It is the master endocrine gland of the brain. C) It is primarily responsible for visual perception. D) It integrates information from all regions of the CNS, and incorporates the mechanisms that regulate sleep and wakefulness. E) It is the primary synaptic relay station for sensory information entering the CNS. 73) Excessive alcohol intake can cause difficulty maintaining posture and coordinating body movements. This is likely due to alcohol's effect stimulatory effect on GABA-releasing neurons in the A) cerebellum. B) diencephalon. C) medulla oblongata. D) eyes. E) cerebrum. 74) When you have a negative experience, your brain ties the emotion to the memory so that you avoid similar experiences in the future. If you were in a bike accident, and were afraid to get on a bike again, which brain structure functional group is active in guiding your fear? A) Diencephalon B) Cerebrum C) Limbic system D) Reticular formation E) Cerebellum
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75) Which is a FALSE statement about the cerebrospinal fluid? A) It has the same composition as blood plasma. B) It acts as a cushion for the brain and spinal cord. C) It is secreted by cells lining the ventricles of the brain. D) It circulates within and between brain ventricles and surrounds the spinal cord. E) It is in diffusion equilibrium with the extracellular fluid of the central nervous system. 76) Which of the following is NOT characteristic of the sympathetic division of the autonomic nervous system? A) Preganglionic neurons tend to be long, with the ganglion located in or near the effector target tissue(s). B) Preganglionic neurons are short and synapse in ganglia located near the spinal cord. C) Preganglionic neurons release acetylcholine at synapses with postganglionic neurons. D) Postganglionic neurons release norepinephrine at their neuroeffector junctions. E) Postganglionic neuron cell bodies are located in the collateral chain ganglia (sympathetic trunk). 77) Postganglionic neuron cell bodies of the autonomic nervous system have which category of neurotransmitter receptor? A) Adrenergic receptors B) Serotonin receptors C) Muscarinic acetylcholine receptors D) Nicotinic acetylcholine receptors E) Dopamine receptors 78) The fire alarm in your building is sounding off and you are hurriedly collecting your belongings before evacuating. Which portion of the nervous system is dominant? A) Afferent nervous system B) Sympathetic nervous system C) Parasympathetic nervous system D) Somatic motor nervous system E) Autonomic nervous system 79) A myelinated axon is shielded from direct contact with the extracellular fluid all along its length. 80) The lipid portion of a cell's plasma membrane constitutes a barrier to current. 81) Ions other than K+ play no role in generating the resting membrane potential of a cell. 82) The maintenance of a resting potential in a neuron depends indirectly upon the functioning of the Na+, K+-ATPase pumps in the membrane. 83) If a graded potential on a dendrite results in a 5mV depolarization, the depolarization at the axon hillock of the axon might be less than 5mV. 15 Copyright 2019 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.
84) During a hyperpolarizing graded potential, positively charged ions flow away from the site of the initial hyperpolarization on the outside of membrane and toward this site on the inside. 85) Because so many Na+ ions move into a cell during an action potential and so many K+ ions move out, no further action potentials can be generated in a given membrane until the Na+, K+ATPase pumps can restore the concentration gradient. 86) The Na+ and K+ channels that open during an action potential are voltage-regulated, both opening in response to depolarization of the membrane. 87) SNARE receptor protein complexes in presynaptic neurons function as inhibitors of calcium transport to dampen or reduce the amount of neurotransmitter vesicles that participate in exocytosis. 88) A genetic mutation that results in faulty SNARE receptor protein complexes would have only very mild effects on the nervous system. 89) The action potential elicited by a supra-threshold stimulus is larger than one elicited by a threshold stimulus. 90) The relative refractory period of an excitable membrane refers to the period of time during which no stimulus, however strong, will elicit a second action potential in the membrane. 91) The absolute refractory period of an excitable membrane roughly corresponds to the period when sodium channels are opening and inactivated. 92) Because all parts of a neuronal cell body have the same threshold, no one synapse on the cell is more important than any other. 93) Drug Z is an agonist for a neurotransmitter receptor. It has a much higher affinity for the receptor and binds four times longer than the endogenous neurotransmitter. If you compare drug Z with the endogenous neurotransmitter, it's likely that drug Z will cause more frequent action potentials than the endogenous ligand. 94) Catecholamines are the most abundant neurotransmitters in the CNS. 95) Opioid drugs, such as morphine, are agonists of the receptors for a class of neurotransmitters called endorphins. 96) The most common neurotransmitters for neuroeffector communication are dopamine and acetylcholine. 97) Dorsal root ganglia contain the cell bodies of efferent neurons. 98) You have a patient who severed a spinal nerve in an accident. She will only lose sensory sensation, but all motor innervation to that area will remain intact. 16 Copyright 2019 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.
99) Although nerve cells in each cerebral hemisphere make connections with other cells in the same hemisphere, there is no crossover of information between the two hemispheres. 100) The cerebrum consists only of gray matter. 101) The basal nuclei are important subcortical nuclei in the cerebrum. 102) The thalamus is the single most important control area for regulating the homeostasis of the internal environment. 103) The efferent division of the peripheral nervous system consists of the somatic nervous system and the autonomic nervous system. 104) You pass by the office of a practitioner of alternative medicine. A poster hanging in the window offers therapies that result in "activation of the brainstem and sacral portions of the spinal cord." The poster is promoting methods that will result in enhanced activation of the parasympathetic nervous system. 105) Most of the parasympathetic ganglia lie in chains along the spinal cord called sympathetic trunks. 106) The neurons connecting the adrenal medulla to the brain have been severed during surgery. The result will be a significant decrease in parasympathetic signaling. 107) The sympathetic division of the autonomic nervous system is arranged so that it acts largely as a unit, whereas the components of the parasympathetic division generally act as discrete, independent components. 108) "Dual innervation of effectors" refers to the innervation of the same effector organs by somatic and autonomic nerves. 109) Which of the following is/are functions of the human nervous system? A) Receiving, storing, and processing information regarding the internal and external environments B) Bringing about changes in physiology and/or behavior to promote homeostasis C) Filtering the blood D) Coordination of movement E) Secreting plasma proteins 110) During which of the following phases is K+ permeability greater than at rest? A) During the after-hyperpolarization phase of an AP B) During vesicular release of neurotransmitter from the presynaptic neuron C) During the repolarizing phase of an AP D) During the depolarizating phase of an AP E) None of these, K+ permeability is greatest at rest 17 Copyright 2019 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.
111) The heart is linked to the brain by neurons that belong to the A) afferent division of the nervous system. B) sympathetic nervous system. C) parasympathetic nervous system. D) somatic motor nervous system. E) autonomic nervous system.
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Vander's Human Physiology, 15e (Widmaier) Chapter 6 Neuronal Signaling and the Structure of the Nervous System 1) You are studying a cross-sectional tissue slice of a nerve using a transmission electron microscope. You find an area where there appears to be a small amount of cytoplasm surrounded by about 100 layers of stacked cell membranes. You conclude that you have found A) a neuron cell body. B) a synapse. C) an unmyelinated axon. D) a myelinated axon. Answer: D Section: 06.01; 06.07 Topic: Microscopic anatomy of glial cells; Physiology of nerve impulse transmission Bloom's: Level 3. Apply HAPS Topic: Module H03 Gross and microscopic anatomy of nervous tissue.; Module H04 Neurophysiology, including mechanism of resting membrane potential, production of action potentials, and impulse transmission. HAPS Outcome: H03.03b Describe functions for each of the glial cells found in the CNS.; H03.03c Explain how the anatomy of each CNS glial cell supports its function.; H03.04b Describe functions for each type of glial cell found in the PNS.; H03.04c Explain how the anatomy of each PNS glial cell supports its function.; H04.13b Explain how axon diameter and myelination affect impulse conduction velocity. 2) Which of the following is NOT true about axon transport? A) It refers to the passage of materials from the cell body of a neuron to the axon terminals. B) It refers to the passage of materials from axon terminals to the cell body of a neuron. C) It refers to the transport of materials from the inside to the outside across the axonal membrane. D) It is especially important for maintaining the integrity of neurons with long axons. Answer: C Section: 06.01 Topic: Microscopic anatomy of neurons Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module H03 Gross and microscopic anatomy of nervous tissue. HAPS Outcome: H03.02b Identify soma (cell body), axon, and dendrites in each of the three structural types of neurons (unipolar, bipolar and multipolar).; H03.02c State which parts of each of the three structural types of neurons (unipolar, bipolar and multipolar) receive information, which parts integrate information, and which parts conduct the output signal of the neuron.
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3) Some viruses can hide from the immune system by retrograde transport from axonal terminals in the skin to the cell body of a neuron. Which of the following might be an effective preventative therapy? A) A kinesin inhibitor B) A dynein inhibitor C) Actin polymerization inhibitor D) Myosin inhibitor E) None of these would prevent this type of infection Answer: B Section: 06.01 Topic: Microscopic anatomy of neurons Bloom's: Level 3. Apply HAPS Topic: Module H03 Gross and microscopic anatomy of nervous tissue. HAPS Outcome: H03.02b Identify soma (cell body), axon, and dendrites in each of the three structural types of neurons (unipolar, bipolar and multipolar).; H03.02c State which parts of each of the three structural types of neurons (unipolar, bipolar and multipolar) receive information, which parts integrate information, and which parts conduct the output signal of the neuron. 4) Which is FALSE about neurons? A) A given neuron can be either a presynaptic neuron or a postsynaptic neuron. B) An individual neuron can receive information from multiple other neurons. C) An individual neuron can transmit information to multiple other neurons. D) A neuron can simultaneously release more than one type of neurotransmitter. E) A neuron receives information on its axons and delivers it to other neurons through its dendrites. Answer: E Section: 06.01; 06.02; 06.08 Topic: Anatomical and functional organization of the nervous system; Neurotransmitters and their roles in synaptic transmission Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module H03 Gross and microscopic anatomy of nervous tissue.; Module H05 Neurotransmitters and their roles in synaptic transmission. HAPS Outcome: H03.02c State which parts of each of the three structural types of neurons (unipolar, bipolar and multipolar) receive information, which parts integrate information, and which parts conduct the output signal of the neuron.; H05.01 Identify the presynaptic and postsynaptic cells at a synapse.
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5) Which of the following is NOT true of glial cells? A) They form the myelin for axons. B) They are outnumbered 10 to 1 by neurons in the nervous system. C) They deliver fuel molecules to neurons and remove the waste products of metabolism. D) They are important for the growth and development of the nervous system. E) They regulate the composition of the extracellular fluid in the CNS. Answer: B Section: 06.03 Topic: Anatomical and functional organization of the nervous system; Microscopic anatomy of glial cells Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module H03 Gross and microscopic anatomy of nervous tissue. HAPS Outcome: H03.03b Describe functions for each of the glial cells found in the CNS.; H03.04b Describe functions for each type of glial cell found in the PNS. 6) The difference in electrical charge between two points A) is called the potential difference between those points. B) is called the diffusion potential between those points. C) is called the current, and is expressed in the units of millimoles. D) is the same for all ions. Answer: A Section: 06.05 Topic: Physiology of nerve impulse transmission Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module H04 Neurophysiology, including mechanism of resting membrane potential, production of action potentials, and impulse transmission. HAPS Outcome: H04.04 Differentiate between a concentration gradient and an electrical potential.
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7) According to the equation expressed as Ohm's law, which of these would cause the greatest increase in current? A) Doubling both voltage and resistance B) Reducing both voltage and resistance by half C) Doubling voltage and reducing resistance by half D) Reducing voltage by half and doubling resistance E) Quadrupling both voltage and resistance Answer: C Section: 06.05 Topic: Physiology of nerve impulse transmission Bloom's: Level 2. Understand HAPS Topic: Module H04 Neurophysiology, including mechanism of resting membrane potential, production of action potentials, and impulse transmission. HAPS Outcome: H04.04 Differentiate between a concentration gradient and an electrical potential. 8) Compartments A and B are separated by a membrane that is permeable to K+ but not to Na+ or Cl-. At time zero, a solution of KCl is poured into compartment A and an equally concentrated solution of NaCl is poured into compartment B. Which would be true once equilibrium is reached? A) The concentration of Na+ in A will be higher than it was at time zero. B) Diffusion of K+ from A to B will be greater than the diffusion of K+ from B to A. C) There will be a potential difference across the membrane, with side B negative relative to side A. D) The electrical potential difference and diffusion potential due to the concentration gradient for K+ will be equal in magnitude and opposite in direction. E) The concentration of Cl- will be higher in B than it was at time zero. Answer: D Section: 06.06 Topic: Physiology of nerve impulse transmission Bloom's: Level 2. Understand HAPS Topic: Module H04 Neurophysiology, including mechanism of resting membrane potential, production of action potentials, and impulse transmission. HAPS Outcome: H04.04 Differentiate between a concentration gradient and an electrical potential.; H04.05 Define electrochemical gradient.
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9) Which is TRUE about the resting membrane potential? A) It requires very few ions to be distributed unevenly. B) It has the same value in all cells. C) It is oriented so that the cell's interior is positive with respect to the extracellular fluid. D) Only nerve and muscle cells have a potential difference across the membrane at rest. E) It is not altered by changing concentration gradients of permeating ions. Answer: A Section: 06.06 Topic: Physiology of nerve impulse transmission Bloom's: Level 2. Understand HAPS Topic: Module H04 Neurophysiology, including mechanism of resting membrane potential, production of action potentials, and impulse transmission. HAPS Outcome: H04.06b Explain how passive ion channels cause development of the resting membrane potential in neurons. 10) Which is TRUE about typical, resting neurons? A) The plasma membrane is most permeable to sodium ions. B) The concentration of sodium ion is greater inside the cell than outside. C) The permeability of the plasma membrane to potassium ions is much greater than its permeability to sodium ions. D) The plasma membrane is completely impermeable to sodium ions. E) The plasma membrane is completely impermeable to potassium ions. Answer: C Section: 06.06 Topic: Physiology of nerve impulse transmission Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module H04 Neurophysiology, including mechanism of resting membrane potential, production of action potentials, and impulse transmission.; Module Q03 Chemical composition of the major compartment fluids. HAPS Outcome: H04.01 Define permeability.; H04.03 Contrast the relative concentrations of sodium, potassium and chloride ions inside and outside of a cell.; Q03.02 Compare and contrast the relative concentrations of major electrolytes in intracellular and extracellular fluids.
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11) The membrane potential of most neurons at rest is A) equal to the equilibrium potential for potassium. B) equal to the equilibrium potential for sodium. C) slightly more negative than the equilibrium potential of potassium ion. D) more positive than the equilibrium potential for potassium. E) more positive than the equilibrium potential for sodium. Answer: D Section: 06.06 Topic: Physiology of nerve impulse transmission Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module H04 Neurophysiology, including mechanism of resting membrane potential, production of action potentials, and impulse transmission. HAPS Outcome: H04.03 Contrast the relative concentrations of sodium, potassium and chloride ions inside and outside of a cell.; H04.05 Define electrochemical gradient.; H04.06b Explain how passive ion channels cause development of the resting membrane potential in neurons. 12) Which of the following is TRUE about the concentration gradient of Na+ in a neuron at rest? A) It favors its movement into the cell at the resting membrane potential. B) It favors its movement out of the cell at the resting membrane potential. C) It is equal and opposite to the electrical potential acting on Na+ at the resting membrane potential. D) It is in the same direction as the diffusion potential due to the concentration gradient for K+. E) It favors movement of Na+ in the opposite direction as the electrical potential acting on Na+ at the resting membrane potential. Answer: A Section: 06.06 Topic: Physiology of nerve impulse transmission Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module H04 Neurophysiology, including mechanism of resting membrane potential, production of action potentials, and impulse transmission.; Module Q03 Chemical composition of the major compartment fluids. HAPS Outcome: H04.03 Contrast the relative concentrations of sodium, potassium and chloride ions inside and outside of a cell.; H04.04 Differentiate between a concentration gradient and an electrical potential.; H04.05 Define electrochemical gradient.; Q03.02 Compare and contrast the relative concentrations of major electrolytes in intracellular and extracellular fluids.
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13) If there was an increased concentration of K+ outside of the neuron, which would be TRUE? A) Neurons would spontaneously depolarize. B) Neurons would spontaneously hyperpolarize. C) The potassium equilibrium potential of nerve cells would become more negative. D) The sodium equilibrium potential would become less positive. E) During an action potential, the neuron would repolarize slowly or stay depolarized. Answer: E Section: 06.06 Topic: Physiology of nerve impulse transmission Bloom's: Level 3. Apply HAPS Topic: Module H04 Neurophysiology, including mechanism of resting membrane potential, production of action potentials, and impulse transmission. HAPS Outcome: H04.04 Differentiate between a concentration gradient and an electrical potential.; H04.05 Define electrochemical gradient.; H04.06b Explain how passive ion channels cause development of the resting membrane potential in neurons. 14) Which is TRUE about the Na+, K+ ATPase pump in neurons? A) It generates a small electrical potential such that the inside is made negative with respect to the outside. B) It maintains a concentration gradient for K+ such that diffusion forces favor movement of K+ into the cell. C) It maintains an electrical gradient at the equilibrium potential of K+. D) It transports equal numbers of sodium and potassium ions with each pump cycle. E) It pumps 3 Na+ ions into the cell for every 2 K+ ions it pumps out. Answer: A Section: 06.06 Topic: Physiology of nerve impulse transmission Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module H04 Neurophysiology, including mechanism of resting membrane potential, production of action potentials, and impulse transmission.; Module Q03 Chemical composition of the major compartment fluids. HAPS Outcome: H04.03 Contrast the relative concentrations of sodium, potassium and chloride ions inside and outside of a cell.; H04.04 Differentiate between a concentration gradient and an electrical potential.; H04.08 Describe the role of the sodium-potassium exchange pump in maintaining the resting membrane potential and making continued action potentials possible.; Q03.02 Compare and contrast the relative concentrations of major electrolytes in intracellular and extracellular fluids.
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15) Which of these would occur if the concentration of ATP were depleted in a typical nerve cell? A) Resting membrane potential would become more negative. B) Resting membrane potential would become less negative. C) The concentration gradient for Na+ would remain the same. D) The resting membrane potential would eventually become positive inside with respect to outside. E) There would be no change in the resting membrane potential. Answer: B Section: 06.06 Topic: Physiology of nerve impulse transmission Bloom's: Level 3. Apply HAPS Topic: Module H04 Neurophysiology, including mechanism of resting membrane potential, production of action potentials, and impulse transmission. HAPS Outcome: H04.08 Describe the role of the sodium-potassium exchange pump in maintaining the resting membrane potential and making continued action potentials possible. 16) Which is FALSE about the equilibrium potential of a given ion across a membrane? A) It is a function of the concentration of that ion on both sides of the membrane. B) It is the potential at which there is no net movement of that ion across the membrane. C) It is the potential difference across the membrane at which an electric force favoring movement of the ion in one direction is equal in magnitude and opposite in direction to the diffusion force provided by the concentration difference of the ion across the membrane. D) A permeable ion will move in the direction that will tend to bring the membrane potential toward that ion's equilibrium potential. E) An anion that is in higher concentration inside the cell than outside the cell will have a negative equilibrium potential. Answer: E Section: 06.06 Topic: Physiology of nerve impulse transmission Bloom's: Level 2. Understand HAPS Topic: Module H04 Neurophysiology, including mechanism of resting membrane potential, production of action potentials, and impulse transmission. HAPS Outcome: H04.04 Differentiate between a concentration gradient and an electrical potential.; H04.05 Define electrochemical gradient.
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17) Two neighboring neurons are at rest. Neuron A has a resting membrane potential of -80mV, Neuron B has a resting membrane potential of -70mV. Which is likely to be TRUE? A) Neuron A has more K+ channels open than Neuron B. B) Neuron B has more K+ channels open than Neuron A. C) Neuron A has more Na+ channels open than Neuron B. D) Neuron B has more Na+ channels open than Neuron A. E) None of the answer choices are correct. Answer: A Section: 06.06 Topic: Physiology of nerve impulse transmission Bloom's: Level 3. Apply HAPS Topic: Module H04 Neurophysiology, including mechanism of resting membrane potential, production of action potentials, and impulse transmission. HAPS Outcome: H04.04 Differentiate between a concentration gradient and an electrical potential.; H04.05 Define electrochemical gradient.; H04.06b Explain how passive ion channels cause development of the resting membrane potential in neurons. 18) Which of the following statements concerning the permeability of a typical neuron membrane at rest is TRUE? A) The permeability to Na+ is much greater than the permeability to K+. B) All of the K+ channels in the membrane are open. C) The voltage-gated Na+ channels are in the inactivated state. D) Most of the voltage-gated Na+ channels are in the closed state. E) There is equal permeability to Na+ and K+. Answer: D Section: 06.06 Topic: Physiology of nerve impulse transmission Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module H04 Neurophysiology, including mechanism of resting membrane potential, production of action potentials, and impulse transmission. HAPS Outcome: H04.01 Define permeability.; H04.02 Explain how ion channels affect neuron selective permeability.; H04.06b Explain how passive ion channels cause development of the resting membrane potential in neurons.; H04.06d Describe the voltage-gated ion channels that are essential for development of the action potential.
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19) Which is NOT an example of a graded potential? A) A receptor potential in a sensory receptor cell B) A depolarizing excitatory postsynaptic potential (EPSP) C) A hyperpolarizing inhibitory postsynaptic potential (IPSP) D) A depolarizing pacemaker potential E) A depolarizing action potential Answer: E Section: 06.07 Topic: Physiology of nerve impulse transmission Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module H05 Neurotransmitters and their roles in synaptic transmission.; Module H06 Sensory receptors and their roles. HAPS Outcome: H05.08 Define excitatory postsynaptic potential (EPSP) and inhibitory postsynaptic potential (IPSP) and interpret graphs showing the voltage vs. time relationship of an EPSP and an IPSP.; H05.12 Compare and contrast synaptic potentials with action potentials.; H06.03 Explain the generator potential that occurs when receptors for general senses are stimulated. 20) An action potential in a neuronal membrane differs from a graded potential in that A) an action potential requires the opening of Ca2+ channels, whereas a graded potential does not. B) an action potential is propagated without decrement, whereas a graded potential decrements with distance. C) an action potential has a threshold, whereas a graded potential is an all-or-none phenomenon. D) movement of Na+ and K+ across cell membranes mediate action potentials, while graded potentials do not involve movement of Na+ and K+. E) action potentials vary in size with the size of a stimulus, while graded potentials do not. Answer: B Section: 06.07 Topic: Physiology of nerve impulse transmission Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module H04 Neurophysiology, including mechanism of resting membrane potential, production of action potentials, and impulse transmission.; Module H05 Neurotransmitters and their roles in synaptic transmission. HAPS Outcome: H04.07 Discuss the sequence of events that must occur for an action potential to be generated.; H04.09 Define threshold.; H04.10 Discuss the role of positive feedback in generation of the action potential.; H04.13a Describe how local circuit currents cause impulse conduction in an unmyelinated axon.; H04.13c Describe saltatory conduction.; H05.10 Explain how movement of sodium ions alone, or movement of both sodium and potassium ions, across the postsynaptic cell membrane can excite a neuron.; H05.11 Explain how movement of potassium or chloride ions across the postsynaptic cell membrane can inhibit a neuron.; H05.12 Compare and contrast synaptic potentials with action potentials.
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21) A threshold stimulus applied to an excitable membrane is one that is just sufficient to A) trigger an excitatory postsynaptic potential. B) cause a change in membrane potential. C) trigger an action potential. D) be conducted to the axon hillock. E) depolarize a dendrite. Answer: C Section: 06.07 Topic: Physiology of nerve impulse transmission Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module H04 Neurophysiology, including mechanism of resting membrane potential, production of action potentials, and impulse transmission.; Module H05 Neurotransmitters and their roles in synaptic transmission. HAPS Outcome: H04.09 Define threshold.; H05.08 Define excitatory postsynaptic potential (EPSP) and inhibitory postsynaptic potential (IPSP) and interpret graphs showing the voltage vs. time relationship of an EPSP and an IPSP.; H05.12 Compare and contrast synaptic potentials with action potentials. 22) Using a micropipette, a neuroscientist injects an axon with enough Na+ ions to move the membrane potential +25mV (from resting). What happens next? A) The membrane potential will be at the Na+ equilibrium potential. B) Voltage-gated Na+ will be triggered to open. C) The neuron membrane will be hyperpolarized. D) Na+ channels will all be inactivated. E) None of the answer choices are correct. Answer: B Section: 06.07 Topic: Physiology of nerve impulse transmission Bloom's: Level 3. Apply HAPS Topic: Module H04 Neurophysiology, including mechanism of resting membrane potential, production of action potentials, and impulse transmission.; Module H05 Neurotransmitters and their roles in synaptic transmission. HAPS Outcome: H04.06d Describe the voltage-gated ion channels that are essential for development of the action potential.; H04.07 Discuss the sequence of events that must occur for an action potential to be generated.; H04.09 Define threshold.; H04.12a Define absolute and relative refractory periods.; H05.08 Define excitatory postsynaptic potential (EPSP) and inhibitory postsynaptic potential (IPSP) and interpret graphs showing the voltage vs. time relationship of an EPSP and an IPSP.
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23) Which describes the response of the voltage-gated channels when an axon is stimulated to threshold? A) K+ channels open before the Na+ channels. B) Na+ channels are activated and then inactivated. C) K+ channels open at the same time as the Na+ channels. D) K+ channels are opened when Na+ binds to the channel. E) K+ influx causes Na+ channels to inactivate. Answer: B Section: 06.07 Topic: Physiology of nerve impulse transmission Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module H04 Neurophysiology, including mechanism of resting membrane potential, production of action potentials, and impulse transmission. HAPS Outcome: H04.06d Describe the voltage-gated ion channels that are essential for development of the action potential.; H04.07 Discuss the sequence of events that must occur for an action potential to be generated. 24) During the rising (depolarizing) phase of a neuronal action potential, A) PK+ becomes much greater than PNa+. B) PNa+ becomes much greater than PK+. C) PK+ is the same as PNa+. D) Na+ efflux (flow out of the cell) occurs. E) K+ flows rapidly into the cell. Answer: B Section: 06.07 Topic: Physiology of nerve impulse transmission Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module H04 Neurophysiology, including mechanism of resting membrane potential, production of action potentials, and impulse transmission. HAPS Outcome: H04.01 Define permeability.; H04.07 Discuss the sequence of events that must occur for an action potential to be generated.; H04.10 Discuss the role of positive feedback in generation of the action potential.; H04.11 Interpret a graph showing the voltage vs. time relationship of an action potential, and relate the terms depolarize, repolarize, and hyperpolarize to the events of an action potential.
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25) Procaine (Novocain) is a drug that blocks voltage-gated Na+ channels. When present, what would happen in a neuron? A) Graded potentials are possible, but the neuron will not have the depolarizing phase of the action potential. B) Neither graded potentials nor action potentials will occur. C) Graded potentials are possible and the neuron will have the depolarizing phase of the action potential, but will be unable to repolarize. D) No phase of the action potential will be affected. Answer: A Section: 06.07 Topic: Physiology of nerve impulse transmission Bloom's: Level 3. Apply HAPS Topic: Module H04 Neurophysiology, including mechanism of resting membrane potential, production of action potentials, and impulse transmission. HAPS Outcome: H04.07 Discuss the sequence of events that must occur for an action potential to be generated.; H04.10 Discuss the role of positive feedback in generation of the action potential.; H04.11 Interpret a graph showing the voltage vs. time relationship of an action potential, and relate the terms depolarize, repolarize, and hyperpolarize to the events of an action potential. 26) Which is TRUE about neuronal membrane electrical and concentration gradients at the peak of the action potential? A) The electrical gradient is in a direction that would tend to move K+ out of the cell. B) The concentration gradient for K+ is in a direction that would tend to move it into the cell. C) The concentration gradient for K+ greatly increases compared to at rest. D) The concentration gradient for Na+ is in a direction that would tend to move it out of the cell. E) The electrical gradient for Na+ is in a direction that would tend to move it into the cell. Answer: A Section: 06.07 Topic: Physiology of nerve impulse transmission Bloom's: Level 2. Understand HAPS Topic: Module H04 Neurophysiology, including mechanism of resting membrane potential, production of action potentials, and impulse transmission.; Module Q03 Chemical composition of the major compartment fluids. HAPS Outcome: H04.03 Contrast the relative concentrations of sodium, potassium and chloride ions inside and outside of a cell.; H04.04 Differentiate between a concentration gradient and an electrical potential.; H04.05 Define electrochemical gradient.; H04.07 Discuss the sequence of events that must occur for an action potential to be generated.; H04.11 Interpret a graph showing the voltage vs. time relationship of an action potential, and relate the terms depolarize, repolarize, and hyperpolarize to the events of an action potential.; Q03.02 Compare and contrast the relative concentrations of major electrolytes in intracellular and extracellular fluids.
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27) Which is most directly responsible for the falling (repolarizing) phase of the action potential? A) Voltage-gated Na+ channels are opened. B) The Na+, K+ pump restores the ions to their original locations inside and outside of the cell. C) The permeability to Na+ increases greatly. D) ATPase destroys the energy supply that was maintaining the action potential at its peak. E) The permeability to K+ increases greatly while that to Na+ decreases. Answer: E Section: 06.07 Topic: Physiology of nerve impulse transmission Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module H04 Neurophysiology, including mechanism of resting membrane potential, production of action potentials, and impulse transmission. HAPS Outcome: H04.01 Define permeability.; H04.06d Describe the voltage-gated ion channels that are essential for development of the action potential.; H04.07 Discuss the sequence of events that must occur for an action potential to be generated.; H04.08 Describe the role of the sodium-potassium exchange pump in maintaining the resting membrane potential and making continued action potentials possible.; H04.11 Interpret a graph showing the voltage vs. time relationship of an action potential, and relate the terms depolarize, repolarize, and hyperpolarize to the events of an action potential. 28) Two stimuli occur on the same neuron more than a minute apart. The second stimulus is more than ten times greater than the first. If we compare the two resulting action potentials, which is TRUE? A) The second stimulus will lead to an action potential with higher amplitude. B) The second stimulus will lead to an action potential with a longer duration. C) The second stimulus will lead to an action potential with a longer hyperpolarization at the end. D) The amplitude of the two action potentials will be the same. E) The amplitude and duration of the second action potential will be greater than the first. Answer: B Section: 06.07 Topic: Physiology of nerve impulse transmission Bloom's: Level 3. Apply HAPS Topic: Module H04 Neurophysiology, including mechanism of resting membrane potential, production of action potentials, and impulse transmission.; Module H05 Neurotransmitters and their roles in synaptic transmission. HAPS Outcome: H04.07 Discuss the sequence of events that must occur for an action potential to be generated.; H04.09 Define threshold.; H04.10 Discuss the role of positive feedback in generation of the action potential.; H04.11 Interpret a graph showing the voltage vs. time relationship of an action potential, and relate the terms depolarize, repolarize, and hyperpolarize to the events of an action potential.; H04.12a Define absolute and relative refractory periods.; H04.13b Explain how axon diameter and myelination affect impulse conduction velocity.; H05.12 Compare and contrast synaptic potentials with action potentials. 14 Copyright 2019 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.
29) Which of the following statements about the refractory period of a membrane is TRUE? A) The absolute refractory period refers to the period of time during which another action potential cannot be initiated in that part of the membrane that is undergoing an action potential, no matter how great the strength of the stimulus. B) The relative refractory period refers to the period of time during which another action potential can be initiated in that part of the membrane that has just undergone an action potential if a stronger than normal stimulus is applied. C) The refractory period prevents the action potential from spreading back over the part of the membrane that just underwent an action potential. D) The refractory period places an upper limit on the frequency with which a nerve cell can conduct action potentials. E) All of the answer choices are correct. Answer: E Section: 06.07 Topic: Physiology of nerve impulse transmission Bloom's: Level 2. Understand HAPS Topic: Module H04 Neurophysiology, including mechanism of resting membrane potential, production of action potentials, and impulse transmission. HAPS Outcome: H04.12a Define absolute and relative refractory periods.; H04.12c Discuss the consequence of a neuron having an absolute refractory period. 30) The relative refractory period of an axon coincides with the period of A) activation and inactivation of voltage-dependent Na+ channels. B) Na+ permeability that is greater than that during the depolarization phase. C) increased K+ flux into the cell. D) increased K+ permeability of the cell. E) Increased Na+ flux through K+ channels. Answer: D Section: 06.07 Topic: Physiology of nerve impulse transmission Bloom's: Level 2. Understand HAPS Topic: Module H04 Neurophysiology, including mechanism of resting membrane potential, production of action potentials, and impulse transmission. HAPS Outcome: H04.12b Explain the physiological basis of the absolute and relative refractory periods.
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31) Neuronal axons typically have abundant A) voltage-gated channels for Na+ that open in response to depolarization. B) voltage-gated channels for K+ that open in response to hyperpolarization. C) ligand-gated channels for Na+. D) ligand-gated channels for K+. E) voltage-gated channels for Ca2+. Answer: A Section: 06.07 Topic: Physiology of nerve impulse transmission Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module H03 Gross and microscopic anatomy of nervous tissue.; Module H04 Neurophysiology, including mechanism of resting membrane potential, production of action potentials, and impulse transmission. HAPS Outcome: H03.02c State which parts of each of the three structural types of neurons (unipolar, bipolar and multipolar) receive information, which parts integrate information, and which parts conduct the output signal of the neuron.; H04.06c Differentiate between voltagegated and chemically-gated ion channels.; H04.06d Describe the voltage-gated ion channels that are essential for development of the action potential. 32) Which of the following statements regarding action potentials generated in a neuronal membrane is FALSE? A) Action potentials travel in both directions along the axon. B) An action potential generates a new action potential in an adjacent area of membrane. C) An action potential generates a local current that depolarizes adjacent membrane to threshold potential. D) Action potentials are usually initiated at the axon hillock of a neuron. E) An action potential generated by a threshold stimulus is the same size as one generated by a supra-threshold stimulus. Answer: A Section: 06.07 Topic: Physiology of nerve impulse transmission Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module H03 Gross and microscopic anatomy of nervous tissue.; Module H04 Neurophysiology, including mechanism of resting membrane potential, production of action potentials, and impulse transmission.; Module H05 Neurotransmitters and their roles in synaptic transmission. HAPS Outcome: H03.02c State which parts of each of the three structural types of neurons (unipolar, bipolar and multipolar) receive information, which parts integrate information, and which parts conduct the output signal of the neuron.; H04.07 Discuss the sequence of events that must occur for an action potential to be generated.; H04.09 Define threshold.; H04.10 Discuss the role of positive feedback in generation of the action potential.; H04.13a Describe how local circuit currents cause impulse conduction in an unmyelinated axon.; H04.13c Describe saltatory conduction.; H05.12 Compare and contrast synaptic potentials with action potentials. 16 Copyright 2019 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.
33) Which of the following statements concerning the properties of action potentials is TRUE? A) The rate of propagation of an action potential down an axon is independent of stimulus strength. B) Action potentials can undergo summation. C) A supra-threshold stimulus can stimulate an action potential during the absolute refractory period. D) Action potentials generally propagate from the axon terminal toward the axon hillock. E) Increasing the size of a stimulus will increase the amplitude of an action potential. Answer: A Section: 06.07 Topic: Physiology of nerve impulse transmission Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module H03 Gross and microscopic anatomy of nervous tissue.; Module H04 Neurophysiology, including mechanism of resting membrane potential, production of action potentials, and impulse transmission.; Module H05 Neurotransmitters and their roles in synaptic transmission. HAPS Outcome: H03.02c State which parts of each of the three structural types of neurons (unipolar, bipolar and multipolar) receive information, which parts integrate information, and which parts conduct the output signal of the neuron.; H04.07 Discuss the sequence of events that must occur for an action potential to be generated.; H04.09 Define threshold.; H04.10 Discuss the role of positive feedback in generation of the action potential.; H04.12a Define absolute and relative refractory periods.; H04.12c Discuss the consequence of a neuron having an absolute refractory period.; H04.13b Explain how axon diameter and myelination affect impulse conduction velocity.; H05.12 Compare and contrast synaptic potentials with action potentials. 34) How is the strength of a stimulus encoded by neurons? A) By the size of action potentials B) By the frequency of action potentials C) By the duration of action potentials D) By whether the action potential peak is positive or negative Answer: B Section: 06.07 Topic: Physiology of nerve impulse transmission Bloom's: Level 2. Understand HAPS Topic: Module H04 Neurophysiology, including mechanism of resting membrane potential, production of action potentials, and impulse transmission.; Module H05 Neurotransmitters and their roles in synaptic transmission. HAPS Outcome: H04.07 Discuss the sequence of events that must occur for an action potential to be generated.; H04.09 Define threshold.; H04.10 Discuss the role of positive feedback in generation of the action potential.; H04.11 Interpret a graph showing the voltage vs. time relationship of an action potential, and relate the terms depolarize, repolarize, and hyperpolarize to the events of an action potential.; H04.12c Discuss the consequence of a neuron having an absolute refractory period.; H05.12 Compare and contrast synaptic potentials with action potentials. 17 Copyright 2019 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.
35) Visual signals travel on myelinated axons. While most pain signals travel on unmyelinated axons. If you get a paper cut, will you see the cut happen or feel the pain first? A) Both sensations will occur at the same time. B) You will feel the pain sensation before the visual sensation. C) You will experience the visual sensation before the pain sensation. D) It depends on the magnitude of the pain sensation, it may reach the brain first or second. Answer: C Section: 06.07 Topic: Physiology of nerve impulse transmission Bloom's: Level 3. Apply HAPS Topic: Module H04 Neurophysiology, including mechanism of resting membrane potential, production of action potentials, and impulse transmission. HAPS Outcome: H04.13b Explain how axon diameter and myelination affect impulse conduction velocity. 36) An action potential does not re-stimulate the adjacent membrane that was previously depolarized because A) stimulation is inhibited by the myelin sheath. B) it is impossible for an action potential to be propagated along an axon toward the nerve cell body. C) the resting membrane potential of the axon is too positive. D) the resting membrane potential of the axon is too negative. E) that area of the membrane is in the absolutely refractory period. Answer: E Section: 06.07 Topic: Physiology of nerve impulse transmission Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module H04 Neurophysiology, including mechanism of resting membrane potential, production of action potentials, and impulse transmission. HAPS Outcome: H04.12a Define absolute and relative refractory periods.; H04.12b Explain the physiological basis of the absolute and relative refractory periods.; H04.12c Discuss the consequence of a neuron having an absolute refractory period.
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37) The regions of myelinated axon membrane that have the highest permeability to ions are the A) ganglia. B) nodes of Ranvier. C) synaptic membranes. D) glial cells. E) pia mater. Answer: B Section: 06.01; 06.07 Topic: Physiology of nerve impulse transmission Bloom's: Level 3. Apply HAPS Topic: Module H03 Gross and microscopic anatomy of nervous tissue.; Module H04 Neurophysiology, including mechanism of resting membrane potential, production of action potentials, and impulse transmission.; Module H05 Neurotransmitters and their roles in synaptic transmission. HAPS Outcome: H03.03c Explain how the anatomy of each CNS glial cell supports its function.; H03.04c Explain how the anatomy of each PNS glial cell supports its function.; H04.13c Describe saltatory conduction.; H05.02 List the structures that comprise a chemical synapse. 38) Which is FALSE about interneurons? A) They receive synaptic input from other neurons in the CNS. B) They sum excitatory and inhibitory synaptic inputs. C) They deliver synaptic input on other neurons. D) They make synapses on effector organs in the PNS. E) They can transmit information between afferent neurons and efferent neurons. Answer: D Section: 06.02 Topic: Anatomical and functional organization of the nervous system Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module H02 Organization of the nervous system from both anatomical and functional perspectives. HAPS Outcome: H02.01 Describe the nervous system as a control system identifying nervous system elements that are sensory receptors, the afferent pathway, control centers, the efferent pathway, and effector organs.
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39) If you block Ca2+ channels on an axon, which will not occur? A) The depolarization phase of the action potential B) The repolarization phase of the action potential C) The exocytosis of neurotransmitter D) The graded potential E) All of these will not occur Answer: C Section: 06.09 Topic: Neurotransmitters and their roles in synaptic transmission Bloom's: Level 3. Apply HAPS Topic: Module H05 Neurotransmitters and their roles in synaptic transmission. HAPS Outcome: H05.04 Restate the steps that lead from the action potential arriving in the synaptic terminal to the release of neurotransmitter from synaptic vesicles. 40) Inside a neuron, calcium binding sites are likely found on A) smooth endoplasmic reticulum. B) kinesin proteins. C) proteins associated with synaptic vesicles. D) dyenin proteins. E) lysosomal proteins. Answer: C Section: 06.09 Topic: Neurotransmitters and their roles in synaptic transmission Bloom's: Level 3. Apply HAPS Topic: Module H05 Neurotransmitters and their roles in synaptic transmission. HAPS Outcome: H05.04 Restate the steps that lead from the action potential arriving in the synaptic terminal to the release of neurotransmitter from synaptic vesicles.; H05.07 Describe the events of synaptic transmission in proper chronological order.
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41) At an excitatory chemical synapse between two neurons A) there is increased permeability of the postsynaptic cell to both Na+ and K+. B) a small hyperpolarization of the postsynaptic membrane occurs when the synapse is activated. C) an action potential in the presynaptic neuron always causes an action potential in the postsynaptic neuron. D) excitation occurs because K+ enters the postsynaptic cell. E) action potentials spread through gap junctions between cells. Answer: A Section: 06.10; 06.11 Topic: Neurotransmitters and their roles in synaptic transmission Bloom's: Level 2. Understand HAPS Topic: Module H05 Neurotransmitters and their roles in synaptic transmission. HAPS Outcome: H05.07 Describe the events of synaptic transmission in proper chronological order.; H05.08 Define excitatory postsynaptic potential (EPSP) and inhibitory postsynaptic potential (IPSP) and interpret graphs showing the voltage vs. time relationship of an EPSP and an IPSP.; H05.09 Explain temporal and spatial summation of synaptic potentials.; H05.10 Explain how movement of sodium ions alone, or movement of both sodium and potassium ions, across the postsynaptic cell membrane can excite a neuron.; H05.11 Explain how movement of potassium or chloride ions across the postsynaptic cell membrane can inhibit a neuron.; H05.17 Compare and contrast chemical and electrical synapses. 42) You are studying the role of a newly discovered neurotransmitter. You find that there are receptors for this neurotransmitter on interneurons in the brain and that when it binds, it causes the opening of K+ channels. What can we expect of the postsynaptic cells under influence of this neurostransmitter? A) The postsynaptic cell will immediately undergo an action potential. B) The postsynaptic cell will undergo an IPSP. C) The postsynaptic cell will undergo an EPSP. D) There will be no change to the membrane potential in the postsynaptic cell. Answer: B Section: 06.10; 06.11 Topic: Neurotransmitters and their roles in synaptic transmission Bloom's: Level 3. Apply HAPS Topic: Module H05 Neurotransmitters and their roles in synaptic transmission. HAPS Outcome: H05.08 Define excitatory postsynaptic potential (EPSP) and inhibitory postsynaptic potential (IPSP) and interpret graphs showing the voltage vs. time relationship of an EPSP and an IPSP.; H05.09 Explain temporal and spatial summation of synaptic potentials.; H05.10 Explain how movement of sodium ions alone, or movement of both sodium and potassium ions, across the postsynaptic cell membrane can excite a neuron.; H05.11 Explain how movement of potassium or chloride ions across the postsynaptic cell membrane can inhibit a neuron.
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43) Which of the following statements about EPSPs is FALSE? A) They are produced by the opening of ligand-gated sodium channels. B) They transmit signals over relatively short distances. C) They depolarize postsynaptic cell membranes. D) They are able to summate. E) They are always the same amplitude. Answer: E Section: 06.10; 06.11 Topic: Neurotransmitters and their roles in synaptic transmission Bloom's: Level 2. Understand HAPS Topic: Module H05 Neurotransmitters and their roles in synaptic transmission. HAPS Outcome: H05.06 Explain how the receptors for neurotransmitters are related to chemically- gated ion channels.; H05.08 Define excitatory postsynaptic potential (EPSP) and inhibitory postsynaptic potential (IPSP) and interpret graphs showing the voltage vs. time relationship of an EPSP and an IPSP.; H05.09 Explain temporal and spatial summation of synaptic potentials.; H05.10 Explain how movement of sodium ions alone, or movement of both sodium and potassium ions, across the postsynaptic cell membrane can excite a neuron.; H05.12 Compare and contrast synaptic potentials with action potentials. 44) An EPSP A) is a direct result of the opening of ligand-gated channels permeable to both Na+ and K+ ions. B) is a direct result of the opening of voltage-gated channels permeable to both Na+ and K+ ions. C) stabilizes the membrane to remain at its resting potential. D) opens voltage-gated Ca2+ channels in the presynaptic membrane. E) occurs when voltage-gated Cl- channels open in a postsynaptic cell membrane. Answer: A Section: 06.10 Topic: Neurotransmitters and their roles in synaptic transmission Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module H05 Neurotransmitters and their roles in synaptic transmission. HAPS Outcome: H05.04 Restate the steps that lead from the action potential arriving in the synaptic terminal to the release of neurotransmitter from synaptic vesicles.; H05.06 Explain how the receptors for neurotransmitters are related to chemically- gated ion channels.; H05.08 Define excitatory postsynaptic potential (EPSP) and inhibitory postsynaptic potential (IPSP) and interpret graphs showing the voltage vs. time relationship of an EPSP and an IPSP.; H05.10 Explain how movement of sodium ions alone, or movement of both sodium and potassium ions, across the postsynaptic cell membrane can excite a neuron.; H05.11 Explain how movement of potassium or chloride ions across the postsynaptic cell membrane can inhibit a neuron.
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45) Which best describes temporal summation? A) A synapse is stimulated a second time before the effect of a first stimulus at the synapse has terminated. B) It only refers to addition of EPSPs. C) Two synapses on different regions of a cell are stimulated at the same time. D) It always brings a postsynaptic cell to threshold. E) The size of an EPSP depends on the size of the stimulus. Answer: A Section: 06.11 Topic: Neurotransmitters and their roles in synaptic transmission Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module H04 Neurophysiology, including mechanism of resting membrane potential, production of action potentials, and impulse transmission.; Module H05 Neurotransmitters and their roles in synaptic transmission. HAPS Outcome: H04.09 Define threshold.; H05.08 Define excitatory postsynaptic potential (EPSP) and inhibitory postsynaptic potential (IPSP) and interpret graphs showing the voltage vs. time relationship of an EPSP and an IPSP.; H05.09 Explain temporal and spatial summation of synaptic potentials.; H05.12 Compare and contrast synaptic potentials with action potentials. 46) A postsynaptic neuron has three presynaptic inputs—from neurons X, Y, and Z. Stimulation of neuron X causes the postsynaptic neuron to depolarize by 0.5 mV. When X and Y are stimulated simultaneously, the postsynaptic neuron depolarizes by 1 mV. When X and Z are stimulated simultaneously, however, there is no change in the membrane potential of the postsynaptic neuron. What is most likely true about presynaptic neurons Y and Z? A) They are both excitatory. B) They are both inhibitory. C) Y is excitatory and Z is inhibitory. D) Z is excitatory and Y is inhibitory. Answer: C Section: 06.11 Topic: Neurotransmitters and their roles in synaptic transmission Bloom's: Level 3. Apply HAPS Topic: Module H05 Neurotransmitters and their roles in synaptic transmission. HAPS Outcome: H05.09 Explain temporal and spatial summation of synaptic potentials.
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47) A postsynaptic neuron has an RMP of -70mV and a typical threshold of -55mV. It has three presynaptic inputs—from neurons X, Y, and Z. Stimulation of neuron X causes the postsynaptic neuron to depolarize by 0.5 mV. When X and Y are stimulated simultaneously, the postsynaptic neuron depolarizes by 1 mV. If X fires 10 times and Y fires 10 times the result will be A) a subthreshold summation. B) presynaptic inhibition. C) threshold is reached and an AP is fired. D) many APs are fired. E) the membrane depolarizes. Answer: A Section: 06.08; 06.11; 06.12 Topic: Neurotransmitters and their roles in synaptic transmission Bloom's: Level 3. Apply HAPS Topic: Module H05 Neurotransmitters and their roles in synaptic transmission. HAPS Outcome: H05.09 Explain temporal and spatial summation of synaptic potentials. 48) Which is TRUE about the axon hillock of an axon? A) Its membrane potential at threshold is more positive than that of the cell body and dendrites. B) Its membrane potential at threshold is more negative than that of the cell body and dendrites. C) Synapses far from the axon hillock are more effective in influencing whether an action potential will be generated in the axon than are synapses close to the axon hillock. D) It is the region where neurotransmitter vesicles are docked and ready to be released by exocytosis. E) It can only conduct graded potentials because it lacks voltage-gated Na+ channels. Answer: B Section: 06.07; 06.08; 06.11 Topic: Physiology of nerve impulse transmission; Neurotransmitters and their roles in synaptic transmission Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module H03 Gross and microscopic anatomy of nervous tissue.; Module H04 Neurophysiology, including mechanism of resting membrane potential, production of action potentials, and impulse transmission.; Module H05 Neurotransmitters and their roles in synaptic transmission. HAPS Outcome: H03.02b Identify soma (cell body), axon, and dendrites in each of the three structural types of neurons (unipolar, bipolar and multipolar).; H04.06d Describe the voltagegated ion channels that are essential for development of the action potential.; H04.09 Define threshold.; H05.03 Describe the synaptic (axon) terminal.; H05.09 Explain temporal and spatial summation of synaptic potentials.
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49) A presynaptic (axo-axonal) synapse A) is a synapse between an axon terminal and a dendrite that can be either excitatory or inhibitory. B) is a synapse between an axon terminal and another axon's terminal that can be either excitatory or inhibitory. C) is any synapse onto a cell body, and they can be either stimulatory or inhibitory. D) is a synapse between an axon terminal and a dendrite of the same cell, which is always inhibitory. E) is a synapse between an axon terminal and another axon's terminal that is always inhibitory. Answer: B Section: 06.12 Topic: Neurotransmitters and their roles in synaptic transmission Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module H05 Neurotransmitters and their roles in synaptic transmission. HAPS Outcome: H05.01 Identify the presynaptic and postsynaptic cells at a synapse. 50) Neuron X makes inhibitory axon-axonal synaptic contact with neuron Y at the synapse of Y and neuron Z. Which will occur when action potentials are stimulated in neuron X? A) Neuron Y will be inhibited from reaching the threshold to fire an action potential. B) The release of neurotransmitter by neuron Y will be inhibited. C) The synapse between neurons Y and Z will be changed from an excitatory synapse to an inhibitory one. D) Neurons Y and Z will both be more likely to reach threshold and fire an action potential. E) Neurons Y and Z will both be less likely to reach threshold and fire an action potential. Answer: B Section: 06.12 Topic: Neurotransmitters and their roles in synaptic transmission Bloom's: Level 3. Apply HAPS Topic: Module H05 Neurotransmitters and their roles in synaptic transmission. HAPS Outcome: H05.01 Identify the presynaptic and postsynaptic cells at a synapse.; H05.04 Restate the steps that lead from the action potential arriving in the synaptic terminal to the release of neurotransmitter from synaptic vesicles.; H05.07 Describe the events of synaptic transmission in proper chronological order.
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51) Which of the following is NOT known to be an important neurotransmitter in the CNS? A) Dopamine B) Acetylcholine C) Morphine D) Glutamate E) Substance P Answer: C Section: 06.13 Topic: Neurotransmitters and their roles in synaptic transmission Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module H05 Neurotransmitters and their roles in synaptic transmission.; Module H16 Predictions related to homeostatic imbalance, including disease states and disorders. HAPS Outcome: H05.15 List the most common excitatory neurotransmitter(s) in the CNS and the most common inhibitory neurotransmitter(s) in the CNS.; H16.01 Predict factors or situations affecting the nervous system that could disrupt homeostasis. 52) Heroin causes similar, but much stronger effects to the nervous system as endogenous opioids. Heroin's mechanism of action might be that it acts as an: A) agonist to serotonin receptors. B) agonist to the endogenous opioid receptors. C) agonist to glycine receptors. D) agonist to epinephrine receptors. E) Any of these are possible Answer: B Section: 06.13 Topic: Neurotransmitters and their roles in synaptic transmission Bloom's: Level 3. Apply HAPS Topic: Module H05 Neurotransmitters and their roles in synaptic transmission.; Module H16 Predictions related to homeostatic imbalance, including disease states and disorders. HAPS Outcome: H05.15 List the most common excitatory neurotransmitter(s) in the CNS and the most common inhibitory neurotransmitter(s) in the CNS.; H16.01 Predict factors or situations affecting the nervous system that could disrupt homeostasis.
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53) Nicotinic receptors are expressed on skeletal muscle cells. Which of the following would likely be a side-effect of the use of nicotine, an agonist for those receptors? A) Muscle relaxation B) Muscle cell twitches (contractions) C) Muscle paralysis D) Drowsiness E) None of the answer choices are correct Answer: B Section: 06.13 Topic: Neurotransmitters and their roles in synaptic transmission; Comparisons of somatic and autonomic nervous systems Bloom's: Level 3. Apply HAPS Topic: Module H13 Functions of the autonomic nervous system.; Module H14 Comparisons of somatic and autonomic nervous systems. HAPS Outcome: H13.02 Contrast the anatomy of the parasympathetic and sympathetic systems, including central nervous system outflow locations, ganglia locations, pre- and postganglionic neuron relative lengths, and ganglionic and effector neurotransmitters.; H13.07 Differentiate between cholinergic and adrenergic nerve fibers and discuss the physiological interactions of transmitters released by these neurons with specific cholinergic and adrenergic receptor subtypes.; H14.03 Name the neurotransmitters released at synapses with effector organs in the somatic and autonomic motor pathways and classify each effector response as excitatory or inhibitory.
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54) Which of the following statements regarding neurotransmitters is TRUE? A) Acetylcholine is broken down by enzymes present on postsynaptic cell membranes. B) Acetylcholine that is released at synapses binds to adrenergic receptors in the postsynaptic cell membrane. C) Catecholamines are the most abundant neurotransmitters in the central nervous system. D) Opiate drugs, such as morphine, are antagonists of a class of neurotransmitters called endorphins. E) Gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA) is a major excitatory transmitter in the central nervous system. Answer: A Section: 06.13 Topic: Neurotransmitters and their roles in synaptic transmission; Clinical applications of the nervous system Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module H05 Neurotransmitters and their roles in synaptic transmission.; Module H13 Functions of the autonomic nervous system.; Module H16 Predictions related to homeostatic imbalance, including disease states and disorders. HAPS Outcome: H05.15 List the most common excitatory neurotransmitter(s) in the CNS and the most common inhibitory neurotransmitter(s) in the CNS.; H13.02 Contrast the anatomy of the parasympathetic and sympathetic systems, including central nervous system outflow locations, ganglia locations, pre- and post- ganglionic neuron relative lengths, and ganglionic and effector neurotransmitters.; H13.07 Differentiate between cholinergic and adrenergic nerve fibers and discuss the physiological interactions of transmitters released by these neurons with specific cholinergic and adrenergic receptor subtypes.; H16.01 Predict factors or situations affecting the nervous system that could disrupt homeostasis. 55) Acetylcholine is the main neurotransmitter released by A) preganglionic sympathetic neurons and cells of the adrenal medulla. B) cells of the adrenal medulla and postganglionic parasympathetic neurons. C) motor neurons and postganglionic sympathetic neurons. D) preganglionic sympathetic neurons and postganglionic sympathetic neurons. E) preganglionic sympathetic neurons and motor neurons. Answer: E Section: 06.13; 06.18 Topic: Neurotransmitters and their roles in synaptic transmission; Comparisons of somatic and autonomic nervous systems Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module H13 Functions of the autonomic nervous system.; Module H14 Comparisons of somatic and autonomic nervous systems. HAPS Outcome: H13.02 Contrast the anatomy of the parasympathetic and sympathetic systems, including central nervous system outflow locations, ganglia locations, pre- and postganglionic neuron relative lengths, and ganglionic and effector neurotransmitters.; H14.03 Name the neurotransmitters released at synapses with effector organs in the somatic and autonomic motor pathways and classify each effector response as excitatory or inhibitory. 28 Copyright 2019 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.
56) Which of the following statements about norepinephrine is FALSE? A) Norepinephrine is a neurotransmitter. B) Norepinephrine binds to adrenergic receptors. C) Norepinephrine is a catecholamine. D) Dopamine is a precursor to norepinephrine. E) Epinephrine is a precursor to norepinephrine. Answer: E Section: 06.13 Topic: Neurotransmitters and their roles in synaptic transmission; Functions of the autonomic nervous system Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module H13 Functions of the autonomic nervous system. HAPS Outcome: H13.02 Contrast the anatomy of the parasympathetic and sympathetic systems, including central nervous system outflow locations, ganglia locations, pre- and postganglionic neuron relative lengths, and ganglionic and effector neurotransmitters.; H13.07 Differentiate between cholinergic and adrenergic nerve fibers and discuss the physiological interactions of transmitters released by these neurons with specific cholinergic and adrenergic receptor subtypes. 57) Which of the following enzymes is important for the metabolism of catecholamines? A) Tyrosine hydroxylase B) Acetylcholinesterase C) Superoxide dismutase D) Trypsin E) Adenylyl cyclase Answer: A Section: 06.13 Topic: Neurotransmitters and their roles in synaptic transmission; Functions of the autonomic nervous system Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module H13 Functions of the autonomic nervous system. HAPS Outcome: H13.02 Contrast the anatomy of the parasympathetic and sympathetic systems, including central nervous system outflow locations, ganglia locations, pre- and postganglionic neuron relative lengths, and ganglionic and effector neurotransmitters.
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58) Nicotine is A) a cholinergic antagonist. B) a beta-adrenergic agonist. C) a cholinergic agonist. D) an alpha-adrenergic antagonist. E) a neurotransmitter. Answer: C Section: 06.13 Topic: Functions of the autonomic nervous system; Clinical applications of the nervous system Bloom's: Level 2. Understand HAPS Topic: Module H13 Functions of the autonomic nervous system.; Module H16 Predictions related to homeostatic imbalance, including disease states and disorders. HAPS Outcome: H13.08 Propose clinical uses of specific drugs that act at cholinergic and adrenergic receptor subtypes.; H16.01 Predict factors or situations affecting the nervous system that could disrupt homeostasis. 59) Serotonin A) acts as a neuromodulator. B) is a catecholamine neurotransmitter. C) is a neuropeptide. D) has an inhibitory effect on pathways that are involved in the control of muscles. E) has an excitatory effect on pathways that mediate sensations. Answer: A Section: 06.13 Topic: Neurotransmitters and their roles in synaptic transmission Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module H05 Neurotransmitters and their roles in synaptic transmission. HAPS Outcome: H05.14 Describe the mechanism by which neurotransmitters may have indirect (metabotropic) effects on postsynaptic cells.; H05.16 Propose a possible CNS function for each biogenic amine neurotransmitter.
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60) Alzheimer's disease is thought to involve primarily A) loss of neurons that secrete or respond to catecholamines. B) loss of adrenergic neurons. C) loss of cholinergic neurons. D) loss of neurons that secrete or respond to dopamine. E) tumors that produce excess serotonin. Answer: C Section: 06.13 Topic: Clinical applications of the nervous system Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module H16 Predictions related to homeostatic imbalance, including disease states and disorders. HAPS Outcome: H16.01 Predict factors or situations affecting the nervous system that could disrupt homeostasis. 61) Which is one of the major inhibitory neurotransmitters in the CNS? A) Glutamate B) Dopamine C) Norepinephrine D) Gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA) E) Beta-endorphin Answer: D Section: 06.13 Topic: Neurotransmitters and their roles in synaptic transmission Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module H05 Neurotransmitters and their roles in synaptic transmission. HAPS Outcome: H05.15 List the most common excitatory neurotransmitter(s) in the CNS and the most common inhibitory neurotransmitter(s) in the CNS.
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62) You are studying a disease in which inhibition of sensory neurons is diminished, leading to more dramatic sensory sensations than are appropriate for stimulus strength. For example, when a person with this disease listens to a person talking in a normal voice, it sounds like they are yelling. Which neurotransmitter might be expressed at lower levels in this disease compared to a healthy individual? A) Glutamate B) Dopamine C) Norepinephrine D) Gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA) E) Beta-endorphin Answer: D Section: 06.13 Topic: Neurotransmitters and their roles in synaptic transmission Bloom's: Level 3. Apply HAPS Topic: Module H05 Neurotransmitters and their roles in synaptic transmission. HAPS Outcome: H05.15 List the most common excitatory neurotransmitter(s) in the CNS and the most common inhibitory neurotransmitter(s) in the CNS. 63) Which is one of the most abundant excitatory neurotransmitters in the CNS? A) Glutamate B) Dopamine C) Norepinephrine D) Gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA) E) Endorphin Answer: A Section: 06.13 Topic: Neurotransmitters and their roles in synaptic transmission Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module H05 Neurotransmitters and their roles in synaptic transmission. HAPS Outcome: H05.15 List the most common excitatory neurotransmitter(s) in the CNS and the most common inhibitory neurotransmitter(s) in the CNS.
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64) The central nervous system includes the A) afferent nerves and spinal cord. B) efferent nerves and spinal cord. C) autonomic nervous system and the brain. D) brain stem and the autonomic nervous system. E) brain and spinal cord. Answer: E Section: 06.15 Topic: Anatomical and functional organization of the nervous system Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module H03 Gross and microscopic anatomy of nervous tissue. HAPS Outcome: H03.01 List the parts of the nervous system that constitute the central nervous system (CNS) and those that constitute the peripheral nervous system (PNS). 65) The portion of the peripheral nervous system that is composed of nerve fibers that innervate skeletal muscle is called the A) afferent nervous system. B) sympathetic nervous system. C) parasympathetic nervous system. D) somatic motor nervous system. E) autonomic nervous system. Answer: D Section: 06.07 Topic: Anatomical and functional organization of the nervous system; Comparisons of somatic and autonomic nervous systems Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module H02 Organization of the nervous system from both anatomical and functional perspectives.; Module H14 Comparisons of somatic and autonomic nervous systems. HAPS Outcome: H02.01 Describe the nervous system as a control system identifying nervous system elements that are sensory receptors, the afferent pathway, control centers, the efferent pathway, and effector organs.; H02.02 Differentiate between the somatic and autonomic divisions of the nervous system.; H14.01 Distinguish between the effectors of the somatic and autonomic nervous systems.
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66) Multiple sclerosis is a disease that primarily effects the somatic motor nervous system. Which of the following might be symptoms of multiple sclerosis? A) Difficulty controlling muscle movements, such as using a fork and knife to cut food B) Inappropriate sensory sensation, such as hearing voices when in a silent room C) Difficulty expressing appropriate emotional responses D) Cognitive and memory decline E) Difficulty digesting foods due to inactivity of the muscles in the walls of abdominal organs Answer: A Section: 06.17 Topic: Anatomical and functional organization of the nervous system; Comparisons of somatic and autonomic nervous systems Bloom's: Level 3. Apply HAPS Topic: Module H02 Organization of the nervous system from both anatomical and functional perspectives.; Module H14 Comparisons of somatic and autonomic nervous systems. HAPS Outcome: H02.02 Differentiate between the somatic and autonomic divisions of the nervous system.; H14.01 Distinguish between the effectors of the somatic and autonomic nervous systems. 67) A patient has been experiencing difficulty with homeostatic regulation. An MRI scan reveals a brain tumor. Which brain region is the tumor likely in? A) The thalamus B) The hippocampus C) The cerebrum D) The cerebellum E) The hypothalamus Answer: E Section: 06.15 Topic: Division, origin, and function of parts of the brain Bloom's: Level 3. Apply HAPS Topic: Module H07 Division, origin, and function of component parts of the brain. HAPS Outcome: H07.02 Correlate functions with each major area of the adult brain.
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68) Which of the following kinds of neurons are NOT generally cholinergic? A) Somatic motor neurons B) Postganglionic sympathetic neurons C) Postganglionic parasympathetic neurons D) Preganglionic sympathetic neurons E) Preganglionic parasympathetic neurons Answer: B Section: 06.18 Topic: Comparisons of somatic and autonomic nervous systems; Functions of the autonomic nervous system Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module H13 Functions of the autonomic nervous system.; Module H14 Comparisons of somatic and autonomic nervous systems. HAPS Outcome: H13.02 Contrast the anatomy of the parasympathetic and sympathetic systems, including central nervous system outflow locations, ganglia locations, pre- and postganglionic neuron relative lengths, and ganglionic and effector neurotransmitters.; H14.03 Name the neurotransmitters released at synapses with effector organs in the somatic and autonomic motor pathways and classify each effector response as excitatory or inhibitory.
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69) Which of the following does NOT result from the binding of nicotine with nicotinic acetylcholine receptors? A) A mild form of skeletal muscle paralysis that creates a more relaxed state B) Signal transmission at neuromuscular junctions C) Generation of excitatory signals within autonomic ganglia D) The release of norepinephrine, dopamine, and epinephrine E) Facilitation of the release of multiple neurotransmitters within the brain, including the "reward pathway" involving dopamine Answer: A Section: 06.13 Topic: Neurotransmitters and their roles in synaptic transmission; Comparisons of somatic and autonomic nervous systems Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module H13 Functions of the autonomic nervous system.; Module H14 Comparisons of somatic and autonomic nervous systems.; Module H16 Predictions related to homeostatic imbalance, including disease states and disorders.; Module G04 Physiology of skeletal muscle contraction HAPS Outcome: G04.04 Describe, in order, the events that occur at the neuromuscular junction that elicit an action potential in the muscle fiber.; H13.02 Contrast the anatomy of the parasympathetic and sympathetic systems, including central nervous system outflow locations, ganglia locations, pre- and post- ganglionic neuron relative lengths, and ganglionic and effector neurotransmitters.; H13.07 Differentiate between cholinergic and adrenergic nerve fibers and discuss the physiological interactions of transmitters released by these neurons with specific cholinergic and adrenergic receptor subtypes.; H14.03 Name the neurotransmitters released at synapses with effector organs in the somatic and autonomic motor pathways and classify each effector response as excitatory or inhibitory.; H13.08 Propose clinical uses of specific drugs that act at cholinergic and adrenergic receptor subtypes.; H16.01 Predict factors or situations affecting the nervous system that could disrupt homeostasis.
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70) In clinical trials, scientists discover that use of drug X results in a decrease in norepinephrine signaling. In the process of making a list of possible mechanisms of this drug to test, which of the following is NOT a plausible explanation for the effects of drug X? A) X inhibits synthesis of norepinephrine at the axon terminal. B) X inhibits norepinephrine release from the terminal. C) X blocks reuptake of norepinephrine by the terminal. D) X is an adrenergic receptor antagonist. E) X stimulates the catabolism of norepinephrine. Answer: C Section: 06.13 Topic: Neurotransmitters and their roles in synaptic transmission Bloom's: Level 3. Apply HAPS Topic: Module H05 Neurotransmitters and their roles in synaptic transmission.; Module H13 Functions of the autonomic nervous system. HAPS Outcome: H05.07 Describe the events of synaptic transmission in proper chronological order.; H13.07 Differentiate between cholinergic and adrenergic nerve fibers and discuss the physiological interactions of transmitters released by these neurons with specific cholinergic and adrenergic receptor subtypes. 71) Synthesis of neuropeptides differs from that of other neurotransmitters because it A) takes place in the axon terminals of neurons. B) takes place in the cell bodies of neurons. C) takes place on ribosomes in the postsynaptic cell's membrane. D) uses amino acids as precursor molecules. E) only takes place at synapses outside the central nervous system. Answer: B Section: 06.13 Topic: Microscopic anatomy of neurons; Neurotransmitters and their roles in synaptic transmission Bloom's: Level 2. Understand HAPS Topic: Module H03 Gross and microscopic anatomy of nervous tissue.; Module H05 Neurotransmitters and their roles in synaptic transmission. HAPS Outcome: H03.02b Identify soma (cell body), axon, and dendrites in each of the three structural types of neurons (unipolar, bipolar and multipolar).; H03.02c State which parts of each of the three structural types of neurons (unipolar, bipolar and multipolar) receive information, which parts integrate information, and which parts conduct the output signal of the neuron.; H05.03 Describe the synaptic (axon) terminal.
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72) Which best describes the reticular formation of the brain? A) It is mainly involved in motor coordination and balance. B) It is the master endocrine gland of the brain. C) It is primarily responsible for visual perception. D) It integrates information from all regions of the CNS, and incorporates the mechanisms that regulate sleep and wakefulness. E) It is the primary synaptic relay station for sensory information entering the CNS. Answer: D Section: 06.15 Topic: Division, origin, and function of parts of the brain Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module H07 Division, origin, and function of component parts of the brain. HAPS Outcome: H07.02 Correlate functions with each major area of the adult brain.; H07.09 Describe the location and functions of the reticular activating system. 73) Excessive alcohol intake can cause difficulty maintaining posture and coordinating body movements. This is likely due to alcohol's effect stimulatory effect on GABA-releasing neurons in the A) cerebellum. B) diencephalon. C) medulla oblongata. D) eyes. E) cerebrum. Answer: A Section: 06.15 Topic: Division, origin, and function of parts of the brain; Gross anatomy of the components of the brain Bloom's: Level 3. Apply HAPS Topic: Module H07 Division, origin, and function of component parts of the brain. HAPS Outcome: H07.02 Correlate functions with each major area of the adult brain.
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74) When you have a negative experience, your brain ties the emotion to the memory so that you avoid similar experiences in the future. If you were in a bike accident, and were afraid to get on a bike again, which brain structure functional group is active in guiding your fear? A) Diencephalon B) Cerebrum C) Limbic system D) Reticular formation E) Cerebellum Answer: C Section: 06.15 Topic: Division, origin, and function of parts of the brain Bloom's: Level 3. Apply HAPS Topic: Module H07 Division, origin, and function of component parts of the brain. HAPS Outcome: H07.02 Correlate functions with each major area of the adult brain.; H07.07 Describe the location and functions of the limbic system. 75) Which is a FALSE statement about the cerebrospinal fluid? A) It has the same composition as blood plasma. B) It acts as a cushion for the brain and spinal cord. C) It is secreted by cells lining the ventricles of the brain. D) It circulates within and between brain ventricles and surrounds the spinal cord. E) It is in diffusion equilibrium with the extracellular fluid of the central nervous system. Answer: A Section: 06.19 Topic: Protective roles of cranial bones, meninges, and cerebrospinal fluid Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module H08 Protective roles of the cranial bones, meninges, and cerebrospinal fluid. HAPS Outcome: H08.03 Describe the functions of cerebrospinal fluid, as well as the details of its production, its circulation within the central nervous system, and its ultimate reabsorption into the bloodstream.
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76) Which of the following is NOT characteristic of the sympathetic division of the autonomic nervous system? A) Preganglionic neurons tend to be long, with the ganglion located in or near the effector target tissue(s). B) Preganglionic neurons are short and synapse in ganglia located near the spinal cord. C) Preganglionic neurons release acetylcholine at synapses with postganglionic neurons. D) Postganglionic neurons release norepinephrine at their neuroeffector junctions. E) Postganglionic neuron cell bodies are located in the collateral chain ganglia (sympathetic trunk). Answer: A Section: 06.18 Topic: Anatomy of the sympathetic division of the ANS; Functions of the autonomic nervous system Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module H13 Functions of the autonomic nervous system. HAPS Outcome: H13.02 Contrast the anatomy of the parasympathetic and sympathetic systems, including central nervous system outflow locations, ganglia locations, pre- and postganglionic neuron relative lengths, and ganglionic and effector neurotransmitters. 77) Postganglionic neuron cell bodies of the autonomic nervous system have which category of neurotransmitter receptor? A) Adrenergic receptors B) Serotonin receptors C) Muscarinic acetylcholine receptors D) Nicotinic acetylcholine receptors E) Dopamine receptors Answer: D Section: 06.18 Topic: Functions of the autonomic nervous system Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module H13 Functions of the autonomic nervous system. HAPS Outcome: H13.02 Contrast the anatomy of the parasympathetic and sympathetic systems, including central nervous system outflow locations, ganglia locations, pre- and postganglionic neuron relative lengths, and ganglionic and effector neurotransmitters.; H13.07 Differentiate between cholinergic and adrenergic nerve fibers and discuss the physiological interactions of transmitters released by these neurons with specific cholinergic and adrenergic receptor subtypes.
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78) The fire alarm in your building is sounding off and you are hurriedly collecting your belongings before evacuating. Which portion of the nervous system is dominant? A) Afferent nervous system B) Sympathetic nervous system C) Parasympathetic nervous system D) Somatic motor nervous system E) Autonomic nervous system Answer: B Section: 06.17 Topic: Anatomical and functional organization of the nervous system; Comparisons of somatic and autonomic nervous systems Bloom's: Level 3. Apply HAPS Topic: Module H02 Organization of the nervous system from both anatomical and functional perspectives.; Module H14 Comparisons of somatic and autonomic nervous systems. HAPS Outcome: H02.01 Describe the nervous system as a control system identifying nervous system elements that are sensory receptors, the afferent pathway, control centers, the efferent pathway, and effector organs.; H02.02 Differentiate between the somatic and autonomic divisions of the nervous system.; H14.01 Distinguish between the effectors of the somatic and autonomic nervous systems. 79) A myelinated axon is shielded from direct contact with the extracellular fluid all along its length. Answer: FALSE Section: 06.01 Topic: Microscopic anatomy of neurons; Physiology of nerve impulse transmission Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module H03 Gross and microscopic anatomy of nervous tissue.; Module H04 Neurophysiology, including mechanism of resting membrane potential, production of action potentials, and impulse transmission. HAPS Outcome: H03.03c Explain how the anatomy of each CNS glial cell supports its function.; H03.04c Explain how the anatomy of each PNS glial cell supports its function.; H04.13c Describe saltatory conduction. 80) The lipid portion of a cell's plasma membrane constitutes a barrier to current. Answer: TRUE Section: 06.05 Topic: Physiology of nerve impulse transmission Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module H04 Neurophysiology, including mechanism of resting membrane potential, production of action potentials, and impulse transmission.; Module C07 Membrane structure and function HAPS Outcome: H04.02 Explain how ion channels affect neuron selective permeability.; C07.01 Describe how lipids are distributed in the cell membrane, and explain their functions. 41 Copyright 2019 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.
81) Ions other than K+ play no role in generating the resting membrane potential of a cell. Answer: FALSE Section: 06.06 Topic: Physiology of nerve impulse transmission Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module H04 Neurophysiology, including mechanism of resting membrane potential, production of action potentials, and impulse transmission. HAPS Outcome: H04.06b Explain how passive ion channels cause development of the resting membrane potential in neurons. 82) The maintenance of a resting potential in a neuron depends indirectly upon the functioning of the Na+, K+-ATPase pumps in the membrane. Answer: TRUE Section: 06.06 Topic: Physiology of nerve impulse transmission Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module H04 Neurophysiology, including mechanism of resting membrane potential, production of action potentials, and impulse transmission. HAPS Outcome: H04.08 Describe the role of the sodium-potassium exchange pump in maintaining the resting membrane potential and making continued action potentials possible. 83) If a graded potential on a dendrite results in a 5mV depolarization, the depolarization at the axon hillock of the axon might be less than 5mV. Answer: TRUE Section: 06.07 Topic: Physiology of nerve impulse transmission Bloom's: Level 3. Apply HAPS Topic: Module H05 Neurotransmitters and their roles in synaptic transmission. HAPS Outcome: H05.12 Compare and contrast synaptic potentials with action potentials. 84) During a hyperpolarizing graded potential, positively charged ions flow away from the site of the initial hyperpolarization on the outside of membrane and toward this site on the inside. Answer: TRUE Section: 06.07 Topic: Physiology of nerve impulse transmission Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module H05 Neurotransmitters and their roles in synaptic transmission. HAPS Outcome: H05.08 Define excitatory postsynaptic potential (EPSP) and inhibitory postsynaptic potential (IPSP) and interpret graphs showing the voltage vs. time relationship of an EPSP and an IPSP.; H05.11 Explain how movement of potassium or chloride ions across the postsynaptic cell membrane can inhibit a neuron. 42 Copyright 2019 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.
85) Because so many Na+ ions move into a cell during an action potential and so many K+ ions move out, no further action potentials can be generated in a given membrane until the Na+, K+ATPase pumps can restore the concentration gradient. Answer: FALSE Section: 06.07 Topic: Physiology of nerve impulse transmission Bloom's: Level 2. Understand HAPS Topic: Module H04 Neurophysiology, including mechanism of resting membrane potential, production of action potentials, and impulse transmission. HAPS Outcome: H04.07 Discuss the sequence of events that must occur for an action potential to be generated.; H04.08 Describe the role of the sodium-potassium exchange pump in maintaining the resting membrane potential and making continued action potentials possible. 86) The Na+ and K+ channels that open during an action potential are voltage-regulated, both opening in response to depolarization of the membrane. Answer: TRUE Section: 06.07 Topic: Physiology of nerve impulse transmission Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module H04 Neurophysiology, including mechanism of resting membrane potential, production of action potentials, and impulse transmission. HAPS Outcome: H04.06d Describe the voltage-gated ion channels that are essential for development of the action potential.; H04.07 Discuss the sequence of events that must occur for an action potential to be generated. 87) SNARE receptor protein complexes in presynaptic neurons function as inhibitors of calcium transport to dampen or reduce the amount of neurotransmitter vesicles that participate in exocytosis. Answer: FALSE Section: 06.09 Topic: Neurotransmitters and their roles in synaptic transmission Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module H05 Neurotransmitters and their roles in synaptic transmission. HAPS Outcome: H05.03 Describe the synaptic (axon) terminal.; H05.04 Restate the steps that lead from the action potential arriving in the synaptic terminal to the release of neurotransmitter from synaptic vesicles.
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88) A genetic mutation that results in faulty SNARE receptor protein complexes would have only very mild effects on the nervous system. Answer: FALSE Section: 06.09 Topic: Neurotransmitters and their roles in synaptic transmission Bloom's: Level 3. Apply HAPS Topic: Module H05 Neurotransmitters and their roles in synaptic transmission. HAPS Outcome: H05.03 Describe the synaptic (axon) terminal.; H05.04 Restate the steps that lead from the action potential arriving in the synaptic terminal to the release of neurotransmitter from synaptic vesicles. 89) The action potential elicited by a supra-threshold stimulus is larger than one elicited by a threshold stimulus. Answer: FALSE Section: 06.07 Topic: Physiology of nerve impulse transmission Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module H04 Neurophysiology, including mechanism of resting membrane potential, production of action potentials, and impulse transmission. HAPS Outcome: H04.07 Discuss the sequence of events that must occur for an action potential to be generated.; H04.09 Define threshold.; H04.10 Discuss the role of positive feedback in generation of the action potential. 90) The relative refractory period of an excitable membrane refers to the period of time during which no stimulus, however strong, will elicit a second action potential in the membrane. Answer: FALSE Section: 06.07 Topic: Physiology of nerve impulse transmission Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module H04 Neurophysiology, including mechanism of resting membrane potential, production of action potentials, and impulse transmission. HAPS Outcome: H04.12a Define absolute and relative refractory periods.
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91) The absolute refractory period of an excitable membrane roughly corresponds to the period when sodium channels are opening and inactivated. Answer: TRUE Section: 06.07 Topic: Physiology of nerve impulse transmission Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module H04 Neurophysiology, including mechanism of resting membrane potential, production of action potentials, and impulse transmission. HAPS Outcome: H04.06d Describe the voltage-gated ion channels that are essential for development of the action potential.; H04.12b Explain the physiological basis of the absolute and relative refractory periods. 92) Because all parts of a neuronal cell body have the same threshold, no one synapse on the cell is more important than any other. Answer: FALSE Section: 06.07; 06.11 Topic: Physiology of nerve impulse transmission; Neurotransmitters and their roles in synaptic transmission Bloom's: Level 2. Understand HAPS Topic: Module H04 Neurophysiology, including mechanism of resting membrane potential, production of action potentials, and impulse transmission.; Module H05 Neurotransmitters and their roles in synaptic transmission. HAPS Outcome: H04.09 Define threshold.; H05.09 Explain temporal and spatial summation of synaptic potentials. 93) Drug Z is an agonist for a neurotransmitter receptor. It has a much higher affinity for the receptor and binds four times longer than the endogenous neurotransmitter. If you compare drug Z with the endogenous neurotransmitter, it's likely that drug Z will cause more frequent action potentials than the endogenous ligand. Answer: TRUE Section: 06.07 Topic: Physiology of nerve impulse transmission Bloom's: Level 3. Apply HAPS Topic: Module H04 Neurophysiology, including mechanism of resting membrane potential, production of action potentials, and impulse transmission. HAPS Outcome: H04.07 Discuss the sequence of events that must occur for an action potential to be generated.; H04.09 Define threshold.
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94) Catecholamines are the most abundant neurotransmitters in the CNS. Answer: FALSE Section: 06.13 Topic: Neurotransmitters and their roles in synaptic transmission Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module H05 Neurotransmitters and their roles in synaptic transmission. HAPS Outcome: H05.15 List the most common excitatory neurotransmitter(s) in the CNS and the most common inhibitory neurotransmitter(s) in the CNS. 95) Opioid drugs, such as morphine, are agonists of the receptors for a class of neurotransmitters called endorphins. Answer: TRUE Section: 06.13 Topic: Neurotransmitters and their roles in synaptic transmission; Clinical applications of the nervous system Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module H05 Neurotransmitters and their roles in synaptic transmission.; Module H16 Predictions related to homeostatic imbalance, including disease states and disorders. HAPS Outcome: H05.15 List the most common excitatory neurotransmitter(s) in the CNS and the most common inhibitory neurotransmitter(s) in the CNS.; H16.01 Predict factors or situations affecting the nervous system that could disrupt homeostasis. 96) The most common neurotransmitters for neuroeffector communication are dopamine and acetylcholine. Answer: FALSE Section: 06.14; 06.17; 06.18 Topic: Neurotransmitters and their roles in synaptic transmission; Comparisons of somatic and autonomic nervous systems Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module H14 Comparisons of somatic and autonomic nervous systems. HAPS Outcome: H14.03 Name the neurotransmitters released at synapses with effector organs in the somatic and autonomic motor pathways and classify each effector response as excitatory or inhibitory. 97) Dorsal root ganglia contain the cell bodies of efferent neurons. Answer: FALSE Section: 06.16 Topic: Anatomy of the spinal cord and spinal nerves Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module H10 Anatomy of the spinal cord and spinal nerves. HAPS Outcome: H10.04 Identify the dorsal root ganglia, dorsal and ventral roots, and spinal nerves. 46 Copyright 2019 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.
98) You have a patient who severed a spinal nerve in an accident. She will only lose sensory sensation, but all motor innervation to that area will remain intact. Answer: FALSE Section: 06.16 Topic: Anatomy of the spinal cord and spinal nerves Bloom's: Level 3. Apply HAPS Topic: Module H10 Anatomy of the spinal cord and spinal nerves. HAPS Outcome: H10.04 Identify the dorsal root ganglia, dorsal and ventral roots, and spinal nerves.; H10.01 Describe the gross anatomy of the spinal cord and spinal nerves and specify their location relative to the anatomy of the skeletal system. 99) Although nerve cells in each cerebral hemisphere make connections with other cells in the same hemisphere, there is no crossover of information between the two hemispheres. Answer: FALSE Section: 06.15 Topic: Division, origin, and function of parts of the brain; Gross anatomy of the components of the brain Bloom's: Level 2. Understand HAPS Topic: Module H07 Division, origin, and function of component parts of the brain. HAPS Outcome: H07.06 Discuss the concept of cerebral hemispheric specialization and the role of the corpus callosum in connecting the two halves of the cerebrum. 100) The cerebrum consists only of gray matter. Answer: FALSE Section: 06.15 Topic: Gross anatomy of the components of the brain Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module H10 Anatomy of the spinal cord and spinal nerves. HAPS Outcome: H10.03 Contrast the relative position of gray matter and white matter in the spinal cord with the corresponding arrangement of gray and white matter in the brain. 101) The basal nuclei are important subcortical nuclei in the cerebrum. Answer: TRUE Section: 06.15 Topic: Division, origin, and function of parts of the brain; Gross anatomy of the components of the brain Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module H07 Division, origin, and function of component parts of the brain. HAPS Outcome: H07.02 Correlate functions with each major area of the adult brain.
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102) The thalamus is the single most important control area for regulating the homeostasis of the internal environment. Answer: FALSE Section: 06.15 Topic: Division, origin, and function of parts of the brain Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module H07 Division, origin, and function of component parts of the brain. HAPS Outcome: H07.02 Correlate functions with each major area of the adult brain. 103) The efferent division of the peripheral nervous system consists of the somatic nervous system and the autonomic nervous system. Answer: TRUE Section: 06.17 Topic: Anatomical and functional organization of the nervous system Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module H02 Organization of the nervous system from both anatomical and functional perspectives. HAPS Outcome: H02.01 Describe the nervous system as a control system identifying nervous system elements that are sensory receptors, the afferent pathway, control centers, the efferent pathway, and effector organs.; H02.02 Differentiate between the somatic and autonomic divisions of the nervous system. 104) You pass by the office of a practitioner of alternative medicine. A poster hanging in the window offers therapies that result in "activation of the brainstem and sacral portions of the spinal cord." The poster is promoting methods that will result in enhanced activation of the parasympathetic nervous system. Answer: TRUE Section: 06.18 Topic: Anatomy of the parasympathetic division of the ANS Bloom's: Level 3. Apply HAPS Topic: Module H13 Functions of the autonomic nervous system. HAPS Outcome: H13.02 Contrast the anatomy of the parasympathetic and sympathetic systems, including central nervous system outflow locations, ganglia locations, pre- and postganglionic neuron relative lengths, and ganglionic and effector neurotransmitters.
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105) Most of the parasympathetic ganglia lie in chains along the spinal cord called sympathetic trunks. Answer: FALSE Section: 06.18 Topic: Anatomy of the parasympathetic division of the ANS Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module H13 Functions of the autonomic nervous system. HAPS Outcome: H13.02 Contrast the anatomy of the parasympathetic and sympathetic systems, including central nervous system outflow locations, ganglia locations, pre- and postganglionic neuron relative lengths, and ganglionic and effector neurotransmitters. 106) The neurons connecting the adrenal medulla to the brain have been severed during surgery. The result will be a significant decrease in parasympathetic signaling. Answer: FALSE Section: 06.18 Topic: Anatomy of the parasympathetic division of the ANS; Functions of the autonomic nervous system Bloom's: Level 3. Apply HAPS Topic: Module H13 Functions of the autonomic nervous system. HAPS Outcome: H13.02 Contrast the anatomy of the parasympathetic and sympathetic systems, including central nervous system outflow locations, ganglia locations, pre- and postganglionic neuron relative lengths, and ganglionic and effector neurotransmitters.; H13.01 Discuss the two divisions of the autonomic nervous system and the general physiological roles of each. 107) The sympathetic division of the autonomic nervous system is arranged so that it acts largely as a unit, whereas the components of the parasympathetic division generally act as discrete, independent components. Answer: TRUE Section: 06.18 Topic: Functions of the autonomic nervous system Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module H13 Functions of the autonomic nervous system. HAPS Outcome: H13.02 Contrast the anatomy of the parasympathetic and sympathetic systems, including central nervous system outflow locations, ganglia locations, pre- and postganglionic neuron relative lengths, and ganglionic and effector neurotransmitters.; H13.01 Discuss the two divisions of the autonomic nervous system and the general physiological roles of each.; H13.09 Describe major parasympathetic and/or sympathetic physiological effects on target organs.
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108) "Dual innervation of effectors" refers to the innervation of the same effector organs by somatic and autonomic nerves. Answer: FALSE Section: 06.18 Topic: Comparisons of somatic and autonomic nervous systems; Functions of the autonomic nervous system Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module H13 Functions of the autonomic nervous system.; Module H14 Comparisons of somatic and autonomic nervous systems. HAPS Outcome: H13.03 Describe examples of specific effectors dually innervated by the two branches of the autonomic nervous system and explain how each branch influences function in a given effector.; H14.01 Distinguish between the effectors of the somatic and autonomic nervous systems. 109) Which of the following is/are functions of the human nervous system? A) Receiving, storing, and processing information regarding the internal and external environments B) Bringing about changes in physiology and/or behavior to promote homeostasis C) Filtering the blood D) Coordination of movement E) Secreting plasma proteins Answer: A, B, D, E Section: 06.01; 06.15 Topic: General functions of the nervous system; Neural integration in the CNS Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module H01 General functions of the nervous system. HAPS Outcome: H01.01 Describe the major functions of the nervous system.
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110) During which of the following phases is K+ permeability greater than at rest? A) During the after-hyperpolarization phase of an AP B) During vesicular release of neurotransmitter from the presynaptic neuron C) During the repolarizing phase of an AP D) During the depolarizating phase of an AP E) None of these, K+ permeability is greatest at rest Answer: C Section: 06.07 Topic: Physiology of nerve impulse transmission Bloom's: Level 2. Understand HAPS Topic: Module H04 Neurophysiology, including mechanism of resting membrane potential, production of action potentials, and impulse transmission. HAPS Outcome: H04.01 Define permeability.; H04.06d Describe the voltage-gated ion channels that are essential for development of the action potential.; H04.07 Discuss the sequence of events that must occur for an action potential to be generated.; H04.11 Interpret a graph showing the voltage vs. time relationship of an action potential, and relate the terms depolarize, repolarize, and hyperpolarize to the events of an action potential. 111) The heart is linked to the brain by neurons that belong to the A) afferent division of the nervous system. B) sympathetic nervous system. C) parasympathetic nervous system. D) somatic motor nervous system. E) autonomic nervous system. Answer: A, B, C, E Section: 06.17 Topic: Anatomical and functional organization of the nervous system; Comparisons of somatic and autonomic nervous systems Bloom's: Level 2. Understand HAPS Topic: Module H02 Organization of the nervous system from both anatomical and functional perspectives.; Module H14 Comparisons of somatic and autonomic nervous systems. HAPS Outcome: H02.01 Describe the nervous system as a control system identifying nervous system elements that are sensory receptors, the afferent pathway, control centers, the efferent pathway, and effector organs.; H02.02 Differentiate between the somatic and autonomic divisions of the nervous system.; H14.01 Distinguish between the effectors of the somatic and autonomic nervous systems.
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Vander's Human Physiology, 15e (Widmaier) Chapter 7 Sensory Physiology 1) Which of the following statements regarding sensory systems is correct? A) All sensory information that reaches the brain can be experienced as a conscious sensation. B) Sensory information that leads to conscious awareness of the stimulus is called transduction. C) The term "sensory unit" refers to a group of receptors that receive a particular stimulus and the afferent neuron associated with those receptors. D) The term "adequate stimulus" means that a stimulus is strong enough to be detected. E) Some sensory receptors are modifications of the peripheral endings of efferent neurons. 2) Which is TRUE about receptor potentials? A) They are action potentials. B) They always trigger action potentials. C) They vary in magnitude with stimulus strength. D) They propagate without decrement. E) They generally occur at the axon hillock of afferent neurons. 3) Your friend is poking your skin with two pins a few millimeters apart at the same time. Visually, you can see there are two pins, but you can only feel a single pen poke. This is probably because: A) both pens are activating the same receptor. B) both afferent neurons converge on the same interneuron. C) the receptors in both skin areas utilize the same afferent neuron. D) both sensations are grouped together in the somatosensory cortex. 4) What is the best definition of the "receptive field" of an afferent neuron? A) The number of interneurons with which the central process of the afferent neuron makes synaptic contact via divergence B) The type of stimulus energy to which the afferent neuron is most sensitive C) All of the interneuron cell bodies and dendrites onto which the afferent neuron synapses D) The area of the cerebral cortex in which information from that afferent neuron is initially received E) The area of the body that, when stimulated, leads to activity in that particular afferent neuron 5) Which best describes the process of "adaptation" in sensory receptors? A) Information from sensory receptors reaches the cerebral cortex and the person becomes aware of it B) Conversion of the energy of a stimulus into a pattern of electrical activity C) Persistence of the sensation of a limb even after it has been severed from the body D) A decrease in receptor sensitivity despite continuation of a stimulus E) A depolarization of receptive membrane that increase in magnitude as the stimulus intensity increases
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6) Certain smells can trigger shifts in emotional state (for example, the smell of a familiar place or a loved one's clothing) because specific olfactory pathways synapse in the . A) frontal lobes of the cerebral cortex B) somatosensory cortex C) limbic system D) temporal lobes of the cerebral cortex E) occipital lobes of the cerebral cortex 7) Polymodal neurons are A) afferent neurons. B) interneurons that receive synaptic input from different kinds of sensory units. C) part of specific ascending sensory pathways. D) interneurons that receive synaptic input from only one type of sensory unit. E) efferent neurons. 8) Which is an accurate description of the cortical association areas? A) They are all found in the parietal lobe of the cerebral cortex. B) They integrate multiple types of sensory information and are responsible for complex processing of sensory information. C) They are the cortical locations where primary sensory information first arrives from specific ascending pathways. D) They are found deep in the cerebrum, surrounding the thalamus. E) Their main input is sensory information arriving along neurons that project directly from the thalamus. 9) When you eat a spicy pepper, such as a jalepeño, why do you perceive heat in your mouth? A) A chemical within the jalepeño acts as a stimulus for thermoreceptors. B) The breakdown of chemicals within the pepper causes exothermic reactions in the mouth. C) Friction while chewing activates thermoreceptors. D) Chemoreceptors can activate heat sensing parts of the brain. E) All of the answer choices are correct. 10) Which of these is one reason you can distinguish between a needle prick on the foot and an ice cube on the wrist? A) The ice cube stimulates a different class of receptors than the needle prick, even though both signals go to exactly the same location in the brain. B) The action potentials from the needle prick are inherently different from the impulse generated by the ice cube. C) The region of the brain to which one receptor pathway leads is different from the region to which the other pathway leads. D) The needle prick generates a stronger action potential in any one neuron than an ice cube does. E) The needle prick generates a higher frequency of action potentials than the ice cube does.
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11) If, during awake brain surgery, a doctor accidentally depolarized a neuron within the somatosensory cortex, which of these is most likely? A) The patient would perceive a specific, localized sensation in one body area. B) The patient would perceive a general sensation all over the body. C) The patient would perceive a general sensation over one side of the body. D) The patient would perceive nothing. 12) Which of the following statements regarding the determination of stimulus intensity is true? A) Stronger intensity stimuli cause rapid adaptation, while weaker stimuli cause slower adaptation. B) The amplitude of action potentials increases with increasing stimulus intensity. C) The duration of receptor potentials decreases with increasing stimulus intensity. D) The frequency of action potentials increases with increasing stimulus intensity. E) The only means of detecting intensity changes is through recruitment of greater numbers of sensory units. 13) Which of the following statements regarding the precision of locating a somatic stimulus is FALSE? A) The precision is greater in areas of the body that have small, overlapping receptive fields than in areas with large, nonoverlapping receptive fields. B) The precision is greater in the lips and fingers than on the back. C) The precision is greater for the skin than for the internal organs. D) Lateral inhibition of parallel afferent pathways increases the precision of locating a stimulus. E) Convergence of afferent neurons onto common ascending pathways increases acuity. 14) Which best describes lateral inhibition in the somatic sensory system? A) The frequency of action potentials along pathways from the site of a stimulus is increased by lateral inhibition. B) The precision of locating a stimulus is increased by inhibiting signaling along nearby, parallel pathways. C) The precision of locating a stimulus is enhanced by increasing the frequency of action potentials in nearby, parallel pathways. D) Stimuli of one particular modality in a region of the body block transmission of action potentials coding for other modalities generated in the same region of the body. E) Lateral inhibition reduces the contrast between the frequency of action potentials generated at the center of a stimulus and the frequency of action potentials in surrounding pathways. 15) X, Y, and Z are adjacent sensory receptors in the skin. During administration of the flu shot, a needle is inserted in the middle of Y's receptive field. All three receptors are activated. Which of the following is likely to be true? A) The receptor potential in neurons X and Z will be more depolarized than in neuron Y. B) It won't be possible to discriminate which neuron's receptive field was stimulated at its center. C) The frequency of action potentials in the afferent pathway from neuron Y will be increased by excitatory interneurons projecting from the afferent pathways from neurons X and Z. D) The frequency of action potentials in neuron Y will be greater than that in neurons X and Z. E) The receptor potentials in all three neurons will achieve the same, average value. 3 Copyright 2019 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.
16) Which of the following would NOT be categorized as a "somatic" sensation? A) Pressure B) Cold and warmth C) Sound D) Proprioception E) Kinesthesia 17) You are dissecting a cadaver. You are tracing an individual neuron as it ascends the spinal cord to the brain. You know that this neuron carries somatic sensory information from an afferent presynaptic neuron. Where will you find its axon terminal? A) All somatic sensory information that reaches the cerebral cortex is first processed in the thalamus. B) Somatic sensory information from the left side of the body projects to the left side of the somatosensory cortex. C) All somatic sensory information travels together in a single tract in the spinal cord. D) Ascending pathways in the anterolateral column of the spinal cord carry information about fine touch discrimination. E) Ascending pathways in the dorsal column of the spinal cord carry information about pain from the back muscles. 18) If an individual was lacking a key amino acid and so couldn't make and release substance P, what would happen? A) They would experience a lack of sensation in some pain pathways. B) There would be a surge in activity in neurons that synthesize opiate neurotransmitters. C) Synaptic activity in afferent neurons associated with pain receptors can be inhibited by axonaxon synapses with neurons from descending pathways. D) There would be an increase in activity in neurons that detect painful stimuli in internal organs. E) There would be increasing sensation of pain generated by the brain, with or without any damage to structures in the periphery. 19) Which of the following symptoms would a patient with a lesion (injury) that destroyed the right side of the spinal cord in the region of the upper back be most likely to experience? A) Loss of both pressure sense and pain in the right foot B) Loss of both pressure sense and pain in the left foot C) Loss of pressure sense in the right foot and pain in the left foot D) Loss of pressure sense in the left foot and pain in the right foot 20) Accommodation for near vision requires A) flattening of the lens. B) contraction of the ciliary muscles. C) activation of the sympathetic nervous system. D) increased rounding of the cornea. E) dilation of the pupil.
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21) If the lens flattened with age, what type of vision would become easier over time for this individual? A) Both near and distance vision are fine, but changing back and forth between them becomes difficult B) Near vision (e.g., reading a book) C) Distance vision (e.g., reading a street sign) D) Both near and distance vision are compromised E) No light will enter the eye and blindness will result 22) A person whose lens focuses light from distant objects in front of (rather than on) the retina has a condition called A) presbyopia. B) hyperopia. C) myopia. D) cataract. E) glaucoma. 23) Which of the following statements regarding vision is FALSE? A) The cornea refracts light rays more strongly than the lens. B) Presbyopia is a condition in which the lens cannot accommodate adequately for near vision. C) Myopia is a condition in which the lens focuses light from distant objects behind the retina. D) Cataract is an increase in opacity (clouding) of the lens. E) The image of an object that is focused on the retina is upside down relative to the object's actual position in space. 24) A person struggling with a stressful exam question might experience difficulty focusing her eyes on the paper because A) she suddenly develops presbyopia. B) activation of her parasympathetic nerves causes sudden contraction of her ciliary muscles. C) activation of her sympathetic nerves causes sudden contraction of her ciliary muscles. D) activation of her parasympathetic nerves inhibits contraction of her ciliary muscles. E) activation of her sympathetic nerves inhibits contraction of her ciliary muscles. 25) Which of the following statements with regard to vision is FALSE? A) Photoreceptors are neurons. B) There are two basic types of photoreceptors in the retina, rods, and cones. C) There are normally four different photopigments in the retina. D) There are four different chromophore molecules in the retina. E) There are four different opsins in the retina.
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26) Which of the following statements about rods and cones in the retina is TRUE? A) Cones enable us to see in dim light; rods provide color vision. B) Rods and cones all have the same kind of opsin. C) Cones are found in highest density in the fovea; rods are more prevalent near the edges of the retina. D) Rods require brighter light to activate them than do cones. E) Rods provide higher visual acuity than do cones. 27) Which of these occurs when light strikes photoreceptors? A) The chromophore retinal undergoes a change of shape. B) There is an increase in neurotransmitter release from photoreceptor cells. C) The photoreceptor cell membrane becomes depolarized. D) The concentration of cyclic GMP inside cells increases. E) The photoreceptor cells are stimulated and fire action potentials. 28) The membrane potential of rod and cone cells is around A) -70 mV in the dark, and the cells depolarize in the light. B) -70 mV in the dark, and the cells hyperpolarize in the light. C) -35 mV in the dark, and the cells hyperpolarize in the light. D) -35 mV in the dark, and the cells depolarize in the light. 29) Compared to humans, cats have excellent night vision. Which of the following might contribute to their ability to see in the dark? A) Compared to the human eye, cats have more kinds of cone photoreceptors. B) The lateral geniculate nucleus of a cat contains opponent color cells. C) Cats have more kinds of rod photoreceptors than humans. D) Cats have more kinds of chromophores. E) In cats, cone photoreceptors are concentrated in the fovea. 30) In cells, invaginations of the external plasma membrane and proteins found there allow us to detect different colors of light. A) bipolar B) rod C) ganglion D) cone E) pigment epithelial 31) Vitamin A deficiencies could lead to A) a decrease in rhodopsin and therefore a decrease in night vision. B) a decrease in opsins and therefore a decrease in night vision. C) a decrease in rhodopsin and therefore a decrease in color vision. D) a decrease in opsins and therefore a decrease in color vision. E) None of the above would be affected by a vitamin A deficiency.
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32) Which of these is most responsible for "light adaptation"—the process by which we only gradually become able to see objects in a brightly lit place after being in the dark? A) Cone receptors are very hyperpolarized in the dark, and they must be exposed to bright light for awhile before they will depolarize. B) Rhodopsin is quickly inactivated in the presence of bright light so rods become unresponsive, and the higher-acuity cones then become the main detectors of vision. C) Because rods are more sensitive to light than cones, they gradually become extremely activated in bright light. D) Cones and rods are stimulated equally, leading to difficulties in interpreting the sensory inputs to the brain. E) Rhodopsin is not activated by colored light, and the lack of stimulation causes rods to gradually depolarize when we are exposed to bright light. 33) In the visual pathway providing sensory action potentials to the brain, the first cells that are capable of initiating action potentials are A) cone cells. B) rod cells. C) lateral geniculate cells. D) ganglion cells. E) bipolar cells. 34) If the pH of the vitreous humor decreased, the first cells that would be effected are A) cone cells. B) rod cells. C) lateral geniculate cells. D) ganglion cells. E) bipolar cells. 35) Which of the following statements related to the "ON pathway" of the visual system is correct? A) Bipolar cells fire action potentials only when bright light strikes the photoreceptors linked to them. B) Bipolar cells spontaneously depolarize in the absence of input from photoreceptor cells. C) Bipolar cells hyperpolarize in the absence of input from photoreceptor cells. D) Glutamate receptors on bipolar cells are excitatory. E) Only cones are associated with bipolar cells of the "ON pathway," rods are not. 36) Which of the following statements regarding hearing is TRUE? A) The pitch of sounds is conveyed by the amplitude of the vibration of the oval window. B) Low-pitched tones selectively cause vibration of the basilar membrane at a point closer to the oval window than high-pitched tones do. C) Sound is amplified as it is conducted from the oval window to the tympanic membrane. D) The loudness of a sound is conveyed by the frequency of action potentials generated in the cochlear nerve.
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37) The incus, malleus, and stapes of the middle ear A) serve to keep the pressure on the two sides of the tympanic membrane equal. B) are part of the vestibular apparatus. C) are in direct contact with both the tympanic membrane and the round window. D) serve to amplify the pressure of sound vibrations from the air in the outer ear to the fluid in the inner ear. E) are found inside the cochlear duct. 38) The actual receptors for hearing are called A) baroreceptors. B) nociceptors. C) hair cells. D) Pacinian corpuscles. E) somatic receptors. 39) The receptors for hearing are found on the A) tympanic membrane. B) basilar membrane. C) stapes. D) oval window. E) scala vestibuli. 40) Distinguishing the pitch of sounds is possible because A) different frequencies of sounds make the eardrum vibrate with different amplitudes. B) different frequencies of sounds stimulate different regions of the basilar membrane in the cochlear duct. C) different frequencies of sounds cause different kinds of action potentials in neurons in the auditory nerve. D) different frequencies of sounds cause different frequencies of action potentials in neurons in the auditory nerve. E) there are many different types of receptors for sound, each of which responds to a single frequency. 41) As the pitch of a sound gets higher, displacements of the basilar membrane A) occur closer to the oval window. B) occur closer to the helicotrema. C) occur uniformly throughout the membrane. D) become greater in amplitude. E) become smaller in amplitude. 42) Which of the following is NOT a function of the tensor tympani and stapedius muscles? A) Protection of the inner ear against continuous loud sounds B) Protection of the delicate inner ear from sudden intermittent loud sounds C) Reflexive contraction when vocalizing to reduce the loudness of your own voice D) Optimization of the state of the inner ear for hearing over certain frequency ranges
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43) Which of the following statements regarding the vestibular system is TRUE? A) Hair cells in the cochlea are involved in the detection of movement and position of the head. B) The utricle and saccule are mainly responsible for detecting angular rotation of the head. C) The vestibular apparatus is principally involved in our ability to detect and interpret sound. D) Deflection of the basilar membrane by fluid moving within the semicircular canals allows us to detect rotational movement of the head. E) Receptors in the utricle and saccule detect changes in the position of the head with respect to gravity. 44) You are in a car that stops suddenly. Your head jerks forward, then returns to its original position. Your brain is able to interpret this motion because of the action of cells in the . A) retinal; cochlea B) hair; saccule C) hair; semicircular canals D) ganglion; olfactory mucosa E) basiliar; tectorial membrane 45) Which of the following are classified as "mechanoreceptors"? A) Cone cells in the eye B) Taste buds on the tongue C) Hair cells in the olfactory mucosa D) Hair cells in the cochlea 46) Due to anatomical pathways that involve the limbic system, which type of sensation can lead to the most immediate emotional reactions? A) Taste B) Smell C) Touch D) Hearing E) Equilibrium 47) Which is TRUE about information from the vestibular system? A) It is conveyed in the form of action potentials in the optic nerve. B) It is conveyed to nerves that control eye movements. C) It does not reach the level of conscious perception. D) It is primarily conveyed to the cortex of the occipital lobe of the brain. E) It is interpreted as sound in the temporal lobes of the brain. 48) Which of the following correctly pairs a chemical with its associated taste modality? A) Poisonous alkaloids, sour B) Acids, bitter C) Sugars, salty D) Glutamate, umami E) Lipids, sweet
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49) The phenomenon known as referred pain: A) is a perception of a false painful stimulus with no initiating stimulus; it is created in the mind. B) is the projected perception of pain as a sensation being experienced at a site other than that of the actual injured or diseased tissue. C) involves a descending pathway that blocks the release of substance P in the spinal cord. D) is synonymous with the persistence of perceptions of painful stimuli long after the activity responsible for triggering them has ceased. 50) What category of receptors do Pacinian corpuscles belong to? A) Mechanoreceptors B) Chemoreceptors C) Nociceptors D) Photoreceptors 51) What category do hair cells in the organ of Corti belong to? A) Mechanoreceptors B) Chemoreceptors C) Nociceptors D) Photoreceptors E) Proprioceptors 52) Cone cells belong to what category of sensory receptors? A) Mechanoreceptors B) Chemoreceptors C) Nociceptors D) Photoreceptors E) Proprioceptors 53) In what category of sensory receptors are the receptor cells in taste buds? A) Mechanoreceptors B) Chemoreceptors C) Nociceptors D) Photoreceptors E) Proprioceptors 54) Hair cells in semicircular canals are A) mechanoreceptors. B) chemoreceptors. C) nociceptors. D) photoreceptors. E) audioreceptors. 55) A "sensation" is any sensory information that reaches the brain. 56) Perceptions are derived from higher-order processing of sensory information.
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57) The process by which sensory receptors change various forms of energy into electrical energy is called translation. 58) The greater the magnitude of the receptor potential generated by a stimulus, the greater the amplitude of the action potentials the receptor potential induces. 59) Rapidly adapting receptors are important for detecting the continued presence of a stimulus. 60) "Somatosensory" refers to the part of the cerebral cortex that receives synaptic input from specific ascending pathways originating only with receptors for touch. 61) Sensory information is invested with emotional significance in association areas in the frontal lobes and limbic system. 62) Information about the location of a given stimulus on or in the body is conveyed by the same mechanism that conveys information about stimulus intensity, namely action potential frequency. 63) The density of receptors in a receptive field is usually greatest in the periphery of the field. 64) Your fingertips are highly sensitive, yet geographically small areas of your body. You expect the area of the somatosensory cortex that receives afferent stimuli from them to be quite small as well. 65) The precision of locating a somatosensory stimulus is greater in areas of the body that have small, overlapping receptive fields than in areas with large, non-overlapping fields. 66) The afferent pathways for pain differ from those for other somatic sensations in that they are highly influenced by repeated exposure and they are significantly modulated by descending neuronal pathways. 67) The sensation of itch is communicated to the brain on dedicated itch receptors. 68) A drug that inhibits prostaglandin synthesis would have a side effect of exaggerated pain perception. 69) The phenomenon of referred pain may occur because an ascending pathway for pain receives input from both visceral and somatic afferent fibers. 70) In the phenomenon of phantom limb, a person can perceive tingling, touch, pressure, warmth, itch, and other sensations in a body part that has been lost by amputation or accident. 71) Useful therapy for phantom limb pain includes injections of pain killers at the site of pain. 72) Presbyopia is correctable using eyeglasses that converge light rays.
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73) Increased pressure in the eye caused by an accumulation of aqueous humor is called astigmatism. 74) Vitamin A deficiency can lead to blindness. 75) The optic nerves from each eye cross at the optic chiasm, so all visual information from the right eye is received by the left side of the brain. 76) "Left neglect" is a phenomenon where the entire left visual field is ignored by the brain. This can be caused by damage to the left hemisphere where visual information is processed. 77) Axons of ganglion cells from the retina synapse in the medial geniculate nucleus of the thalamus on the way to the occipital lobes. 78) The greatest concentration of cones is in the fovea centralis of the retina. 79) In an individual with macular degeneration, night vision would be impaired. 80) Photoreceptor cells (rods and cones) are different from other sensory receptors in that they are the only type that is relatively depolarized at rest. 81) In both ON and OFF visual pathways, light stimulates the release of glutamate onto bipolar cells. 82) The response of a bipolar cell, that is whether it acts to bring about an "ON pathway" or an "OFF pathway," depends on the amount of glutamate released by photoreceptor cells. 83) One function of saccades is to prevent adaptation of photoreceptors to a visual image. 84) A sound with a frequency of 4000 Hz has a lower pitch than a sound with a frequency of 1000 Hz. 85) The tympanic membrane separates an air-filled chamber from a fluid-filled chamber. 86) Fluid accumulating in the middle ear cavity would cause a decrease in hearing sensation. 87) The vibration of the tympanic membrane varies in frequency according to the pitch of the sound it receives. 88) The function of the tympanic membrane is to amplify sound waves on their way to the middle ear. 89) A tone caused by striking one of the lowest notes on a piano keyboard will cause vibration of the basilar membrane at a point closer to the helicotrema than to the oval window.
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90) Unlike information from the eyes, information from the ears bypasses the thalamus on its way to the cerebral cortex. 91) Hair cells in the semicircular canals detect changes in the rate of angular motion of the head, while the same kinds of cells in the utricle and saccule detect changes in the head's rate of linear motion. 92) A decrease in the viscosity of the fluid in the semicircular canals may lead to a sense of motion even when the body is still. 93) When you turn your head to the left to look over your left shoulder, the hairs in the cupula of the horizontal semicircular canals will be bent to the left. 94) Olfactory receptors are neurons. 95) Opponent color ganglion cells that respond to blue light by increasing their rate of firing will respond to yellow light by decreasing their rate of firing. 96) To see an object, for example a cat, and know that it is a cat that you have seen before, your brain receives and associates the visual input. Which brain areas are involved? A) Auditory cortex B) Somatosensory cortex C) Visual cortex D) Occipital lobe association area E) Parietal lobe association area 97) Syndrome R involves a genetic mutation that affects all chemoreceptors in the body. Which sensations are affected in Syndrome R? A) Hearing B) Taste C) Pain D) Smell E) Touch 98) Of which categories of receptor types are nociceptors? A) Mechanoreceptors B) Proprioceptors C) Chemoreceptors D) Photoreceptors E) None of these
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Vander's Human Physiology, 15e (Widmaier) Chapter 7 Sensory Physiology 1) Which of the following statements regarding sensory systems is correct? A) All sensory information that reaches the brain can be experienced as a conscious sensation. B) Sensory information that leads to conscious awareness of the stimulus is called transduction. C) The term "sensory unit" refers to a group of receptors that receive a particular stimulus and the afferent neuron associated with those receptors. D) The term "adequate stimulus" means that a stimulus is strong enough to be detected. E) Some sensory receptors are modifications of the peripheral endings of efferent neurons. Answer: C Section: 07.02 Topic: Introduction to sensory receptors; Physiology of sensory and motor pathways in the brain and spinal cord Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module H02 Organization of the nervous system from both anatomical and functional perspectives.; Module H06 Sensory receptors and their roles.; Module H07 Division, origin, and function of component parts of the brain. HAPS Outcome: H07.02 Correlate functions with each major area of the adult brain.; H02.01 Describe the nervous system as a control system identifying nervous system elements that are sensory receptors, the afferent pathway, control centers, the efferent pathway, and effector organs.; H06.03 Explain the generator potential that occurs when receptors for general senses are stimulated.; H06.04 Describe the relationship between unipolar neurons and receptors for general senses.
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2) Which is TRUE about receptor potentials? A) They are action potentials. B) They always trigger action potentials. C) They vary in magnitude with stimulus strength. D) They propagate without decrement. E) They generally occur at the axon hillock of afferent neurons. Answer: C Section: 07.01 Topic: Introduction to sensory receptors Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module H02 Organization of the nervous system from both anatomical and functional perspectives.; Module H03 Grossand microscopic anatomy of nervous tissue.; Module H04 Neurophysiology, including mechanism of resting membrane potential, production of action potentials, and impulse transmission.; Module H06 Sensory receptors and their roles. HAPS Outcome: H02.01 Describe the nervous system as a control system identifying nervous system elements that are sensory receptors, the afferent pathway, control centers, the efferent pathway, and effector organs.; H03.02b Identify soma (cell body), axon, and dendrites in each of the three structural types of neurons (unipolar, bipolar and multipolar).; H03.02c State which parts of each of the three structural types of neurons (unipolar, bipolar and multipolar) receive information, which parts integrate information, and which parts conduct the output signal of the neuron.; H04.07 Discuss the sequence of events that must occur for an action potential to be generated.; H04.09 Define threshold.; H06.03 Explain the generator potential that occurs when receptors for general senses are stimulated.; H06.05 Differentiate between the site of action potential generation in a unipolar neuron and a multipolar neuron. 3) Your friend is poking your skin with two pins a few millimeters apart at the same time. Visually, you can see there are two pins, but you can only feel a single pen poke. This is probably because: A) both pens are activating the same receptor. B) both afferent neurons converge on the same interneuron. C) the receptors in both skin areas utilize the same afferent neuron. D) both sensations are grouped together in the somatosensory cortex. Answer: C Section: 07.02 Topic: Introduction to sensory receptors Bloom's: Level 3. Apply HAPS Topic: Module H02 Organization of the nervous system from both anatomical and functional perspectives.; Module H12 Physiology of sensory and motor pathways in the brain and spinal cord. HAPS Outcome: H12.01 Describe the locations and functions of the first-, second- and thirdorder neurons in a sensory pathway.; H02.01 Describe the nervous system as a control system identifying nervous system elements that are sensory receptors, the afferent pathway, control centers, the efferent pathway, and effector organs.
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4) What is the best definition of the "receptive field" of an afferent neuron? A) The number of interneurons with which the central process of the afferent neuron makes synaptic contact via divergence B) The type of stimulus energy to which the afferent neuron is most sensitive C) All of the interneuron cell bodies and dendrites onto which the afferent neuron synapses D) The area of the cerebral cortex in which information from that afferent neuron is initially received E) The area of the body that, when stimulated, leads to activity in that particular afferent neuron Answer: E Section: 07.02 Topic: Introduction to sensory receptors Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module H02 Organization of the nervous system from both anatomical and functional perspectives.; Module H07 Division, origin, and function of component parts of the brain.; Module H12 Physiology of sensory and motor pathways in the brain and spinal cord. HAPS Outcome: H07.04 Identify the five lobes of the cerebral cortex and describe how the motor and sensory functions of the cerebrum are distributed among the lobes.; H12.01 Describe the locations and functions of the first-, second- and third-order neurons in a sensory pathway.; H02.01 Describe the nervous system as a control system identifying nervous system elements that are sensory receptors, the afferent pathway, control centers, the efferent pathway, and effector organs. 5) Which best describes the process of "adaptation" in sensory receptors? A) Information from sensory receptors reaches the cerebral cortex and the person becomes aware of it B) Conversion of the energy of a stimulus into a pattern of electrical activity C) Persistence of the sensation of a limb even after it has been severed from the body D) A decrease in receptor sensitivity despite continuation of a stimulus E) A depolarization of receptive membrane that increase in magnitude as the stimulus intensity increases Answer: D Section: 07.01 Topic: Introduction to sensory receptors Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module H06 Sensory receptors and their roles. HAPS Outcome: H06.03 Explain the generator potential that occurs when receptors for general senses are stimulated.; H06.06 Explain the phenomenon of adaptation.
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6) Certain smells can trigger shifts in emotional state (for example, the smell of a familiar place or a loved one's clothing) because specific olfactory pathways synapse in the . A) frontal lobes of the cerebral cortex B) somatosensory cortex C) limbic system D) temporal lobes of the cerebral cortex E) occipital lobes of the cerebral cortex Answer: C Section: 07.03 Topic: Physiology of sensory and motor pathways in the brain and spinal cord; Division, origin, and function of parts of the brain Bloom's: Level 3. Apply HAPS Topic: Module H07 Division, origin, and function of component parts of the brain.; Module H12 Physiology of sensory and motor pathways in the brain and spinal cord.; Module I02 Roles of specific tissues of the eye in vision.; Module I03 Olfactory receptors and their role in smell. HAPS Outcome: H07.02 Correlate functions with each major area of the adult brain.; H07.04 Identify the five lobes of the cerebral cortex and describe how the motor and sensory functions of the cerebrum are distributed among the lobes.; H07.07 Describe the location and functions of the limbic system.; H12.01 Describe the locations and functions of the first-, second- and third-order neurons in a sensory pathway.; I03.03 Describe the path of nerve impulses from the olfactory receptors to various parts of the brain. 7) Polymodal neurons are A) afferent neurons. B) interneurons that receive synaptic input from different kinds of sensory units. C) part of specific ascending sensory pathways. D) interneurons that receive synaptic input from only one type of sensory unit. E) efferent neurons. Answer: B Section: 07.03 Topic: Physiology of sensory and motor pathways in the brain and spinal cord Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module H02 Organization of the nervous system from both anatomical and functional perspectives.; Module H10 Anatomy of the spinal cord and spinal nerves.; Module H12 Physiology of sensory and motor pathways in the brain and spinal cord. HAPS Outcome: H12.01 Describe the locations and functions of the first-, second- and thirdorder neurons in a sensory pathway.; H10.07 Distinguish between ascending and descending tracts in the spinal cord.; H02.01 Describe the nervous system as a control system identifying nervous system elements that are sensory receptors, the afferent pathway, control centers, the efferent pathway, and effector organs.
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8) Which is an accurate description of the cortical association areas? A) They are all found in the parietal lobe of the cerebral cortex. B) They integrate multiple types of sensory information and are responsible for complex processing of sensory information. C) They are the cortical locations where primary sensory information first arrives from specific ascending pathways. D) They are found deep in the cerebrum, surrounding the thalamus. E) Their main input is sensory information arriving along neurons that project directly from the thalamus. Answer: B Section: 07.04 Topic: Division, origin, and function of parts of the brain Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module H07 Division, origin, and function of component parts of the brain.; Module H10 Anatomy of the spinal cord and spinal nerves.; Module H12 Physiology of sensory and motor pathways in the brain and spinal cord. HAPS Outcome: H07.02 Correlate functions with each major area of the adult brain.; H12.01 Describe the locations and functions of the first-, second- and third-order neurons in a sensory pathway.; H10.07 Distinguish between ascending and descending tracts in the spinal cord. 9) When you eat a spicy pepper, such as a jalepeño, why do you perceive heat in your mouth? A) A chemical within the jalepeño acts as a stimulus for thermoreceptors. B) The breakdown of chemicals within the pepper causes exothermic reactions in the mouth. C) Friction while chewing activates thermoreceptors. D) Chemoreceptors can activate heat sensing parts of the brain. E) All of the answer choices are correct. Answer: A Section: 07.02 Topic: Introduction to sensory receptors Bloom's: Level 3. Apply HAPS Topic: Module H06 Sensory receptors and their roles. HAPS Outcome: H06.02 Describe each of the following types of receptors, indicating what sensation it detects and giving an example of where it can be found in the body- pain receptors (nociceptors), temperature receptors, mechanoreceptors (including proprioceptors and barorceptors/pressoreceptors), chemoreceptors, and photoreceptors.; H06.03 Explain the generator potential that occurs when receptors for general senses are stimulated.
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10) Which of these is one reason you can distinguish between a needle prick on the foot and an ice cube on the wrist? A) The ice cube stimulates a different class of receptors than the needle prick, even though both signals go to exactly the same location in the brain. B) The action potentials from the needle prick are inherently different from the impulse generated by the ice cube. C) The region of the brain to which one receptor pathway leads is different from the region to which the other pathway leads. D) The needle prick generates a stronger action potential in any one neuron than an ice cube does. E) The needle prick generates a higher frequency of action potentials than the ice cube does. Answer: C Section: 07.02; 07.05 Topic: Introduction to sensory receptors; Physiology of sensory and motor pathways in the brain and spinal cord Bloom's: Level 2. Understand HAPS Topic: Module H06 Sensory receptors and their roles.; Module H07 Division, origin, and function of component parts of the brain.; Module H10 Anatomy of the spinal cord and spinal nerves.; Module H12 Physiology of sensory and motor pathways in the brain and spinal cord. HAPS Outcome: H06.02 Describe each of the following types of receptors, indicating what sensation it detects and giving an example of where it can be found in the body- pain receptors (nociceptors), temperature receptors, mechanoreceptors (including proprioceptors and barorceptors/pressoreceptors), chemoreceptors, and photoreceptors.; H07.04 Identify the five lobes of the cerebral cortex and describe how the motor and sensory functions of the cerebrum are distributed among the lobes.; H12.01 Describe the locations and functions of the first-, second- and third-order neurons in a sensory pathway.; H07.05 Explain why the sensory and motor homunculi are relevant clinically.; H10.07 Distinguish between ascending and descending tracts in the spinal cord. 11) If, during awake brain surgery, a doctor accidentally depolarized a neuron within the somatosensory cortex, which of these is most likely? A) The patient would perceive a specific, localized sensation in one body area. B) The patient would perceive a general sensation all over the body. C) The patient would perceive a general sensation over one side of the body. D) The patient would perceive nothing. Answer: A Section: 07.05 Topic: Physiology of sensory and motor pathways in the brain and spinal cord Bloom's: Level 3. Apply HAPS Topic: Module H07 Division, origin, and function of component parts of the brain. HAPS Outcome: H07.05 Explain why the sensory and motor homunculi are relevant clinically.
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12) Which of the following statements regarding the determination of stimulus intensity is true? A) Stronger intensity stimuli cause rapid adaptation, while weaker stimuli cause slower adaptation. B) The amplitude of action potentials increases with increasing stimulus intensity. C) The duration of receptor potentials decreases with increasing stimulus intensity. D) The frequency of action potentials increases with increasing stimulus intensity. E) The only means of detecting intensity changes is through recruitment of greater numbers of sensory units. Answer: D Section: 07.01; 07.02 Topic: Introduction to sensory receptors Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module H04 Neurophysiology, including mechanism of resting membrane potential, production of action potentials, and impulse transmission.; Module H06 Sensory receptors and their roles. HAPS Outcome: H04.07 Discuss the sequence of events that must occur for an action potential to be generated.; H04.09 Define threshold.; H06.03 Explain the generator potential that occurs when receptors for general senses are stimulated.; H04.10 Discuss the role of positive feedback in generation of the action potential.; H06.06 Explain the phenomenon of adaptation. 13) Which of the following statements regarding the precision of locating a somatic stimulus is FALSE? A) The precision is greater in areas of the body that have small, overlapping receptive fields than in areas with large, nonoverlapping receptive fields. B) The precision is greater in the lips and fingers than on the back. C) The precision is greater for the skin than for the internal organs. D) Lateral inhibition of parallel afferent pathways increases the precision of locating a stimulus. E) Convergence of afferent neurons onto common ascending pathways increases acuity. Answer: E Section: 07.02 Topic: Introduction to sensory receptors; Physiology of sensory and motor pathways in the brain and spinal cord Bloom's: Level 2. Understand HAPS Topic: Module H10 Anatomy of the spinal cord and spinal nerves.; Module H12 Physiology of sensory and motor pathways in the brain and spinal cord. HAPS Outcome: H12.01 Describe the locations and functions of the first-, second- and thirdorder neurons in a sensory pathway.; H10.07 Distinguish between ascending and descending tracts in the spinal cord.
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14) Which best describes lateral inhibition in the somatic sensory system? A) The frequency of action potentials along pathways from the site of a stimulus is increased by lateral inhibition. B) The precision of locating a stimulus is increased by inhibiting signaling along nearby, parallel pathways. C) The precision of locating a stimulus is enhanced by increasing the frequency of action potentials in nearby, parallel pathways. D) Stimuli of one particular modality in a region of the body block transmission of action potentials coding for other modalities generated in the same region of the body. E) Lateral inhibition reduces the contrast between the frequency of action potentials generated at the center of a stimulus and the frequency of action potentials in surrounding pathways. Answer: B Section: 07.02 Topic: Physiology of sensory and motor pathways in the brain and spinal cord Bloom's: Level 2. Understand HAPS Topic: Module H12 Physiology of sensory and motor pathways in the brain and spinal cord. HAPS Outcome: H12.01 Describe the locations and functions of the first-, second- and thirdorder neurons in a sensory pathway. 15) X, Y, and Z are adjacent sensory receptors in the skin. During administration of the flu shot, a needle is inserted in the middle of Y's receptive field. All three receptors are activated. Which of the following is likely to be true? A) The receptor potential in neurons X and Z will be more depolarized than in neuron Y. B) It won't be possible to discriminate which neuron's receptive field was stimulated at its center. C) The frequency of action potentials in the afferent pathway from neuron Y will be increased by excitatory interneurons projecting from the afferent pathways from neurons X and Z. D) The frequency of action potentials in neuron Y will be greater than that in neurons X and Z. E) The receptor potentials in all three neurons will achieve the same, average value. Answer: D Section: 07.02 Topic: Physiology of sensory and motor pathways in the brain and spinal cord Bloom's: Level 3. Apply HAPS Topic: Module H06 Sensory receptors and their roles.; Module H12 Physiology of sensory and motor pathways in the brain and spinal cord. HAPS Outcome: H12.01 Describe the locations and functions of the first-, second- and thirdorder neurons in a sensory pathway.; H06.03 Explain the generator potential that occurs when receptors for general senses are stimulated.
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16) Which of the following would NOT be categorized as a "somatic" sensation? A) Pressure B) Cold and warmth C) Sound D) Proprioception E) Kinesthesia Answer: C Section: 07.05 Topic: Introduction to sensory receptors Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module H06 Sensory receptors and their roles.; Module E04 Anatomy and functional roles of accessory structures HAPS Outcome: H06.02 Describe each of the following types of receptors, indicating what sensation it detects and giving an example of where it can be found in the body- pain receptors (nociceptors), temperature receptors, mechanoreceptors (including proprioceptors and barorceptors/pressoreceptors), chemoreceptors, and photoreceptors.; E04.01b With respect to the following - sweat glands (eccrine and apocrine), sebaceous glands, nails, hair (follicle and arrector pili muscle), and sensory receptors (Merkel cell, Meissner's and Pacinian corpuscles, hair follicle receptor, and temperature receptors), describe the location of each structure in the body. 17) You are dissecting a cadaver. You are tracing an individual neuron as it ascends the spinal cord to the brain. You know that this neuron carries somatic sensory information from an afferent presynaptic neuron. Where will you find its axon terminal? A) All somatic sensory information that reaches the cerebral cortex is first processed in the thalamus. B) Somatic sensory information from the left side of the body projects to the left side of the somatosensory cortex. C) All somatic sensory information travels together in a single tract in the spinal cord. D) Ascending pathways in the anterolateral column of the spinal cord carry information about fine touch discrimination. E) Ascending pathways in the dorsal column of the spinal cord carry information about pain from the back muscles. Answer: A Section: 07.05 Topic: Physiology of sensory and motor pathways in the brain and spinal cord Bloom's: Level 3. Apply HAPS Topic: Module H07 Division, origin, and function of component parts of the brain.; Module H10 Anatomy of the spinal cord and spinal nerves.; Module H12 Physiology of sensory and motor pathways in the brain and spinal cord. HAPS Outcome: H07.02 Correlate functions with each major area of the adult brain.; H12.01 Describe the locations and functions of the first-, second- and third-order neurons in a sensory pathway.; H10.07 Distinguish between ascending and descending tracts in the spinal cord.
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18) If an individual was lacking a key amino acid and so couldn't make and release substance P, what would happen? A) They would experience a lack of sensation in some pain pathways. B) There would be a surge in activity in neurons that synthesize opiate neurotransmitters. C) Synaptic activity in afferent neurons associated with pain receptors can be inhibited by axonaxon synapses with neurons from descending pathways. D) There would be an increase in activity in neurons that detect painful stimuli in internal organs. E) There would be increasing sensation of pain generated by the brain, with or without any damage to structures in the periphery. Answer: A Section: 07.05 Topic: Physiology of sensory and motor pathways in the brain and spinal cord Bloom's: Level 3. Apply HAPS Topic: Module H05 Neurotransmitters and their roles in synaptic transmission.; Module H10 Anatomy of the spinal cord and spinal nerves.; Module H12 Physiology of sensory and motor pathways in the brain and spinal cord.; Module H15 Application of homeostatic mechanisms. HAPS Outcome: H12.01 Describe the locations and functions of the first-, second- and thirdorder neurons in a sensory pathway.; H05.15 List the most common excitatory neurotransmitter(s) in the CNS and the most common inhibitory neurotransmitter(s) in the CNS.; H10.07 Distinguish between ascending and descending tracts in the spinal cord.; H15.01 Provide specific examples to demonstrate how the nervous system responds to maintain homeostasis in the body.
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19) Which of the following symptoms would a patient with a lesion (injury) that destroyed the right side of the spinal cord in the region of the upper back be most likely to experience? A) Loss of both pressure sense and pain in the right foot B) Loss of both pressure sense and pain in the left foot C) Loss of pressure sense in the right foot and pain in the left foot D) Loss of pressure sense in the left foot and pain in the right foot Answer: C Section: 07.05 Topic: Physiology of sensory and motor pathways in the brain and spinal cord; Clinical applications of the nervous system Bloom's: Level 3. Apply HAPS Topic: Module H10 Anatomy of the spinal cord and spinal nerves.; Module H12 Physiology of sensory and motor pathways in the brain and spinal cord.; Module H16 Predictions related to homeostatic imbalance, including disease states and disorders. HAPS Outcome: H12.01 Describe the locations and functions of the first-, second- and thirdorder neurons in a sensory pathway.; H16.01 Predict factors or situations affecting the nervous system that could disrupt homeostasis.; H16.02 Predict the types of problems that would occur in the body if the nervous system could not maintain homeostasis.; H10.07 Distinguish between ascending and descending tracts in the spinal cord.; H12.03 Explain how decussation occurs in sensory and motor pathways and predict how decussation impacts the correlation of brain damage and symptoms in stroke patients. 20) Accommodation for near vision requires A) flattening of the lens. B) contraction of the ciliary muscles. C) activation of the sympathetic nervous system. D) increased rounding of the cornea. E) dilation of the pupil. Answer: B Section: 07.06 Topic: Gross anatomy of the eye; Physiology of vision Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module H13 Functions of the autonomic nervous system.; Module I01 Gross and microscopic anatomy of the eye.; Module I02 Roles of specific tissues of the eye in vision.; Module I09 Application of homeostatic mechanisms. HAPS Outcome: I01.01 Identify the accessory eye structures, the tunics, the optical components and the neural components of the eye.; I02.05 Explain how the optical system of the eye creates an image on the retina.; I02.08 Relate changes in the anatomy of the eye to changes in vision.; H13.03 Describe examples of specific effectors dually innervated by the two branches of the autonomic nervous system and explain how each branch influences function in a given effector.; I09.01 Provide specific examples to demonstrate how the special sense organs respond to maintain homeostasis in the body.
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21) If the lens flattened with age, what type of vision would become easier over time for this individual? A) Both near and distance vision are fine, but changing back and forth between them becomes difficult B) Near vision (e.g., reading a book) C) Distance vision (e.g., reading a street sign) D) Both near and distance vision are compromised E) No light will enter the eye and blindness will result Answer: C Section: 07.06 Topic: Gross anatomy of the eye; Physiology of vision Bloom's: Level 3. Apply HAPS Topic: Module H13 Functions of the autonomic nervous system.; Module I01 Gross and microscopic anatomy of the eye.; Module I02 Roles of specific tissues of the eye in vision.; Module I09 Application of homeostatic mechanisms. HAPS Outcome: I01.01 Identify the accessory eye structures, the tunics, the optical components and the neural components of the eye.; I02.05 Explain how the optical system of the eye creates an image on the retina.; I02.08 Relate changes in the anatomy of the eye to changes in vision.; H13.03 Describe examples of specific effectors dually innervated by the two branches of the autonomic nervous system and explain how each branch influences function in a given effector.; I09.01 Provide specific examples to demonstrate how the special sense organs respond to maintain homeostasis in the body. 22) A person whose lens focuses light from distant objects in front of (rather than on) the retina has a condition called A) presbyopia. B) hyperopia. C) myopia. D) cataract. E) glaucoma. Answer: C Section: 07.06 Topic: Physiology of vision; Clinical applications of the special senses Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module I02 Roles of specific tissues of the eye in vision.; Module I10 Predictions related to homeostatic imbalance, including disease states and disorders. HAPS Outcome: I02.05 Explain how the optical system of the eye creates an image on the retina.; I02.08 Relate changes in the anatomy of the eye to changes in vision.; I10.01 Predict factors or situations affecting the special sense organs that could disrupt homeostasis.; I10.02 Predict the types of problems that would occur in the body if the special sense organs could not maintain homeostasis.
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23) Which of the following statements regarding vision is FALSE? A) The cornea refracts light rays more strongly than the lens. B) Presbyopia is a condition in which the lens cannot accommodate adequately for near vision. C) Myopia is a condition in which the lens focuses light from distant objects behind the retina. D) Cataract is an increase in opacity (clouding) of the lens. E) The image of an object that is focused on the retina is upside down relative to the object's actual position in space. Answer: C Section: 07.06 Topic: Physiology of vision; Clinical applications of the special senses Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module I01 Gross and microscopic anatomy of the eye.; Module I02 Roles of specific tissues of the eye in vision.; Module I10 Predictions related to homeostatic imbalance, including disease states and disorders. HAPS Outcome: I01.01 Identify the accessory eye structures, the tunics, the optical components and the neural components of the eye.; I02.05 Explain how the optical system of the eye creates an image on the retina.; I02.08 Relate changes in the anatomy of the eye to changes in vision.; I10.01 Predict factors or situations affecting the special sense organs that could disrupt homeostasis.; I10.02 Predict the types of problems that would occur in the body if the special sense organs could not maintain homeostasis.
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24) A person struggling with a stressful exam question might experience difficulty focusing her eyes on the paper because A) she suddenly develops presbyopia. B) activation of her parasympathetic nerves causes sudden contraction of her ciliary muscles. C) activation of her sympathetic nerves causes sudden contraction of her ciliary muscles. D) activation of her parasympathetic nerves inhibits contraction of her ciliary muscles. E) activation of her sympathetic nerves inhibits contraction of her ciliary muscles. Answer: E Section: 07.06 Topic: Gross anatomy of the eye; Physiology of vision; Clinical applications of the special senses Bloom's: Level 3. Apply HAPS Topic: Module H13 Functions of the autonomic nervous system.; Module H15 Application of homeostatic mechanisms.; Module I01 Gross and microscopic anatomy of the eye.; Module I02 Roles of specific tissues of the eye in vision.; Module I10 Predictions related to homeostatic imbalance, including disease states and disorders. HAPS Outcome: I01.01 Identify the accessory eye structures, the tunics, the optical components and the neural components of the eye.; I02.05 Explain how the optical system of the eye creates an image on the retina.; I02.08 Relate changes in the anatomy of the eye to changes in vision.; I10.01 Predict factors or situations affecting the special sense organs that could disrupt homeostasis.; I10.02 Predict the types of problems that would occur in the body if the special sense organs could not maintain homeostasis.; H15.01 Provide specific examples to demonstrate how the nervous system responds to maintain homeostasis in the body.; H13.03 Describe examples of specific effectors dually innervated by the two branches of the autonomic nervous system and explain how each branch influences function in a given effector. 25) Which of the following statements with regard to vision is FALSE? A) Photoreceptors are neurons. B) There are two basic types of photoreceptors in the retina, rods, and cones. C) There are normally four different photopigments in the retina. D) There are four different chromophore molecules in the retina. E) There are four different opsins in the retina. Answer: D Section: 07.06 Topic: Physiology of vision Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module I01 Gross and microscopic anatomy of the eye.; Module I02 Roles of specific tissues of the eye in vision. HAPS Outcome: I01.01 Identify the accessory eye structures, the tunics, the optical components and the neural components of the eye.; I02.03 Describe the structure of the retina and the cells that compose it.; I02.04 Describe how light activates photoreceptors.
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26) Which of the following statements about rods and cones in the retina is TRUE? A) Cones enable us to see in dim light; rods provide color vision. B) Rods and cones all have the same kind of opsin. C) Cones are found in highest density in the fovea; rods are more prevalent near the edges of the retina. D) Rods require brighter light to activate them than do cones. E) Rods provide higher visual acuity than do cones. Answer: C Section: 07.06 Topic: Physiology of vision Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module I01 Gross and microscopic anatomy of the eye.; Module I02 Roles of specific tissues of the eye in vision. HAPS Outcome: I01.01 Identify the accessory eye structures, the tunics, the optical components and the neural components of the eye.; I02.03 Describe the structure of the retina and the cells that compose it.; I02.04 Describe how light activates photoreceptors.; I02.06 Compare and contrast the function of rods and cones in vision. 27) Which of these occurs when light strikes photoreceptors? A) The chromophore retinal undergoes a change of shape. B) There is an increase in neurotransmitter release from photoreceptor cells. C) The photoreceptor cell membrane becomes depolarized. D) The concentration of cyclic GMP inside cells increases. E) The photoreceptor cells are stimulated and fire action potentials. Answer: A Section: 07.06 Topic: Physiology of vision Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module I02 Roles of specific tissues of the eye in vision. HAPS Outcome: I02.04 Describe how light activates photoreceptors. 28) The membrane potential of rod and cone cells is around A) -70 mV in the dark, and the cells depolarize in the light. B) -70 mV in the dark, and the cells hyperpolarize in the light. C) -35 mV in the dark, and the cells hyperpolarize in the light. D) -35 mV in the dark, and the cells depolarize in the light. Answer: C Section: 07.06 Topic: Physiology of vision Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module I02 Roles of specific tissues of the eye in vision. HAPS Outcome: I02.04 Describe how light activates photoreceptors.
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29) Compared to humans, cats have excellent night vision. Which of the following might contribute to their ability to see in the dark? A) Compared to the human eye, cats have more kinds of cone photoreceptors. B) The lateral geniculate nucleus of a cat contains opponent color cells. C) Cats have more kinds of rod photoreceptors than humans. D) Cats have more kinds of chromophores. E) In cats, cone photoreceptors are concentrated in the fovea. Answer: C Section: 07.06 Topic: Physiology of vision Bloom's: Level 3. Apply HAPS Topic: Module I02 Roles of specific tissues of the eye in vision. HAPS Outcome: I02.03 Describe the structure of the retina and the cells that compose it.; I02.04 Describe how light activates photoreceptors.; I02.06 Compare and contrast the function of rods and cones in vision. 30) In cells, invaginations of the external plasma membrane and proteins found there allow us to detect different colors of light. A) bipolar B) rod C) ganglion D) cone E) pigment epithelial Answer: D Section: 07.06 Topic: Gross anatomy of the eye; Physiology of vision Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module I01 Gross and microscopic anatomy of the eye.; Module I02 Roles of specific tissues of the eye in vision. HAPS Outcome: I01.01 Identify the accessory eye structures, the tunics, the optical components and the neural components of the eye.; I02.03 Describe the structure of the retina and the cells that compose it.; I02.06 Compare and contrast the function of rods and cones in vision.
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31) Vitamin A deficiencies could lead to A) a decrease in rhodopsin and therefore a decrease in night vision. B) a decrease in opsins and therefore a decrease in night vision. C) a decrease in rhodopsin and therefore a decrease in color vision. D) a decrease in opsins and therefore a decrease in color vision. E) None of the above would be affected by a vitamin A deficiency. Answer: A Section: 07.06 Topic: Physiology of vision Bloom's: Level 3. Apply HAPS Topic: Module I02 Roles of specific tissues of the eye in vision.; Module O01 Nutrition HAPS Outcome: I02.03 Describe the structure of the retina and the cells that compose it.; I02.04 Describe how light activates photoreceptors.; O01.01d Classify vitamins as either fatsoluble or water-soluble and discuss the major uses of each vitamin in the body.; I02.07 Explain the process of light and dark adaptation. 32) Which of these is most responsible for "light adaptation"—the process by which we only gradually become able to see objects in a brightly lit place after being in the dark? A) Cone receptors are very hyperpolarized in the dark, and they must be exposed to bright light for awhile before they will depolarize. B) Rhodopsin is quickly inactivated in the presence of bright light so rods become unresponsive, and the higher-acuity cones then become the main detectors of vision. C) Because rods are more sensitive to light than cones, they gradually become extremely activated in bright light. D) Cones and rods are stimulated equally, leading to difficulties in interpreting the sensory inputs to the brain. E) Rhodopsin is not activated by colored light, and the lack of stimulation causes rods to gradually depolarize when we are exposed to bright light. Answer: B Section: 07.06 Topic: Physiology of vision Bloom's: Level 2. Understand HAPS Topic: Module I02 Roles of specific tissues of the eye in vision.; Module I09 Application of homeostatic mechanisms. HAPS Outcome: I02.03 Describe the structure of the retina and the cells that compose it.; I02.04 Describe how light activates photoreceptors.; I09.01 Provide specific examples to demonstrate how the special sense organs respond to maintain homeostasis in the body.; I02.07 Explain the process of light and dark adaptation.
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33) In the visual pathway providing sensory action potentials to the brain, the first cells that are capable of initiating action potentials are A) cone cells. B) rod cells. C) lateral geniculate cells. D) ganglion cells. E) bipolar cells. Answer: D Section: 07.06 Topic: Physiology of vision Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module I01 Gross and microscopic anatomy of the eye.; Module I02 Roles of specific tissues of the eye in vision. HAPS Outcome: I01.01 Identify the accessory eye structures, the tunics, the optical components and the neural components of the eye.; I02.03 Describe the structure of the retina and the cells that compose it.; I02.02 Trace the path of light as it passes through the eye to the retina and the path of nerve impulses from the retina to various parts of the brain. 34) If the pH of the vitreous humor decreased, the first cells that would be effected are A) cone cells. B) rod cells. C) lateral geniculate cells. D) ganglion cells. E) bipolar cells. Answer: D Section: 07.06 Topic: Physiology of vision Bloom's: Level 3. Apply HAPS Topic: Module I01 Gross and microscopic anatomy of the eye.; Module I02 Roles of specific tissues of the eye in vision. HAPS Outcome: I01.01 Identify the accessory eye structures, the tunics, the optical components and the neural components of the eye.; I02.03 Describe the structure of the retina and the cells that compose it.; I02.02 Trace the path of light as it passes through the eye to the retina and the path of nerve impulses from the retina to various parts of the brain.
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35) Which of the following statements related to the "ON pathway" of the visual system is correct? A) Bipolar cells fire action potentials only when bright light strikes the photoreceptors linked to them. B) Bipolar cells spontaneously depolarize in the absence of input from photoreceptor cells. C) Bipolar cells hyperpolarize in the absence of input from photoreceptor cells. D) Glutamate receptors on bipolar cells are excitatory. E) Only cones are associated with bipolar cells of the "ON pathway," rods are not. Answer: B Section: 07.06 Topic: Physiology of vision Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module I01 Gross and microscopic anatomy of the eye.; Module I02 Roles of specific tissues of the eye in vision. HAPS Outcome: I01.01 Identify the accessory eye structures, the tunics, the optical components and the neural components of the eye.; I02.03 Describe the structure of the retina and the cells that compose it.; I02.02 Trace the path of light as it passes through the eye to the retina and the path of nerve impulses from the retina to various parts of the brain. 36) Which of the following statements regarding hearing is TRUE? A) The pitch of sounds is conveyed by the amplitude of the vibration of the oval window. B) Low-pitched tones selectively cause vibration of the basilar membrane at a point closer to the oval window than high-pitched tones do. C) Sound is amplified as it is conducted from the oval window to the tympanic membrane. D) The loudness of a sound is conveyed by the frequency of action potentials generated in the cochlear nerve. Answer: D Section: 07.07 Topic: Gross anatomy of the ear; Physiology of hearing Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module I05 General gross and microscopic anatomy of the hearing and accessory structures of the ear.; Module I06 Roles of specific tissues of the ear in hearing. HAPS Outcome: I05.01 Identify the hearing structures of the outer, middle and inner ear.; I06.01 Describe how the various structures of the outer, middle and inner ear function in hearing.; I06.03 Explain how the structures of the ear enable differentiation of pitch and loudness of sounds.
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37) The incus, malleus, and stapes of the middle ear A) serve to keep the pressure on the two sides of the tympanic membrane equal. B) are part of the vestibular apparatus. C) are in direct contact with both the tympanic membrane and the round window. D) serve to amplify the pressure of sound vibrations from the air in the outer ear to the fluid in the inner ear. E) are found inside the cochlear duct. Answer: D Section: 07.07 Topic: Gross anatomy of the ear; Physiology of hearing Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module I05 General gross and microscopic anatomy of the hearing and accessory structures of the ear.; Module I06 Roles of specific tissues of the ear in hearing.; Module I07 Roles of the accessory structures. HAPS Outcome: I05.01 Identify the hearing structures of the outer, middle and inner ear.; I06.01 Describe how the various structures of the outer, middle and inner ear function in hearing.; I06.02 Describe the sound conduction pathway from the auricle to the fluids of the inner ear and the path of nerve impulses from the spiral organ to various parts of the brain.; I07.02 Describe the role of the auditory tube in drainage and equalization of pressure in the middle ear.
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38) The actual receptors for hearing are called A) baroreceptors. B) nociceptors. C) hair cells. D) Pacinian corpuscles. E) somatic receptors. Answer: C Section: 07.07 Topic: Physiology of hearing Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module H06 Sensory receptors and their roles.; Module I05 General gross and microscopic anatomy of the hearing and accessory structures of the ear.; Module I06 Roles of specific tissues of the ear in hearing.; Module E04 Anatomy and functional roles of accessory structures HAPS Outcome: H06.02 Describe each of the following types of receptors, indicating what sensation it detects and giving an example of where it can be found in the body- pain receptors (nociceptors), temperature receptors, mechanoreceptors (including proprioceptors and barorceptors/pressoreceptors), chemoreceptors, and photoreceptors.; E04.01b With respect to the following - sweat glands (eccrine and apocrine), sebaceous glands, nails, hair (follicle and arrector pili muscle), and sensory receptors (Merkel cell, Meissner's and Pacinian corpuscles, hair follicle receptor, and temperature receptors), describe the location of each structure in the body.; I05.01 Identify the hearing structures of the outer, middle and inner ear.; I06.01 Describe how the various structures of the outer, middle and inner ear function in hearing.; I06.02 Describe the sound conduction pathway from the auricle to the fluids of the inner ear and the path of nerve impulses from the spiral organ to various parts of the brain. 39) The receptors for hearing are found on the A) tympanic membrane. B) basilar membrane. C) stapes. D) oval window. E) scala vestibuli. Answer: B Section: 07.07 Topic: Gross anatomy of the ear; Physiology of hearing Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module I05 General gross and microscopic anatomy of the hearing and accessory structures of the ear.; Module I06 Roles of specific tissues of the ear in hearing. HAPS Outcome: I05.01 Identify the hearing structures of the outer, middle and inner ear.; I06.01 Describe how the various structures of the outer, middle and inner ear function in hearing.; I06.02 Describe the sound conduction pathway from the auricle to the fluids of the inner ear and the path of nerve impulses from the spiral organ to various parts of the brain.
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40) Distinguishing the pitch of sounds is possible because A) different frequencies of sounds make the eardrum vibrate with different amplitudes. B) different frequencies of sounds stimulate different regions of the basilar membrane in the cochlear duct. C) different frequencies of sounds cause different kinds of action potentials in neurons in the auditory nerve. D) different frequencies of sounds cause different frequencies of action potentials in neurons in the auditory nerve. E) there are many different types of receptors for sound, each of which responds to a single frequency. Answer: B Section: 07.07 Topic: Physiology of hearing Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module I05 General gross and microscopic anatomy of the hearing and accessory structures of the ear.; Module I06 Roles of specific tissues of the ear in hearing. HAPS Outcome: I05.01 Identify the hearing structures of the outer, middle and inner ear.; I06.01 Describe how the various structures of the outer, middle and inner ear function in hearing.; I06.02 Describe the sound conduction pathway from the auricle to the fluids of the inner ear and the path of nerve impulses from the spiral organ to various parts of the brain.; I06.03 Explain how the structures of the ear enable differentiation of pitch and loudness of sounds. 41) As the pitch of a sound gets higher, displacements of the basilar membrane A) occur closer to the oval window. B) occur closer to the helicotrema. C) occur uniformly throughout the membrane. D) become greater in amplitude. E) become smaller in amplitude. Answer: A Section: 07.07 Topic: Gross anatomy of the ear; Physiology of hearing Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module I05 General gross and microscopic anatomy of the hearing and accessory structures of the ear.; Module I06 Roles of specific tissues of the ear in hearing. HAPS Outcome: I05.01 Identify the hearing structures of the outer, middle and inner ear.; I06.01 Describe how the various structures of the outer, middle and inner ear function in hearing.; I06.03 Explain how the structures of the ear enable differentiation of pitch and loudness of sounds.
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42) Which of the following is NOT a function of the tensor tympani and stapedius muscles? A) Protection of the inner ear against continuous loud sounds B) Protection of the delicate inner ear from sudden intermittent loud sounds C) Reflexive contraction when vocalizing to reduce the loudness of your own voice D) Optimization of the state of the inner ear for hearing over certain frequency ranges Answer: B Section: 07.07 Topic: Gross anatomy of the ear; Physiology of hearing Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module I05 General gross and microscopic anatomy of the hearing and accessory structures of the ear.; Module I06 Roles of specific tissues of the ear in hearing.; Module I09 Application of homeostatic mechanisms. HAPS Outcome: I05.01 Identify the hearing structures of the outer, middle and inner ear.; I06.01 Describe how the various structures of the outer, middle and inner ear function in hearing.; I09.01 Provide specific examples to demonstrate how the special sense organs respond to maintain homeostasis in the body.; I06.03 Explain how the structures of the ear enable differentiation of pitch and loudness of sounds. 43) Which of the following statements regarding the vestibular system is TRUE? A) Hair cells in the cochlea are involved in the detection of movement and position of the head. B) The utricle and saccule are mainly responsible for detecting angular rotation of the head. C) The vestibular apparatus is principally involved in our ability to detect and interpret sound. D) Deflection of the basilar membrane by fluid moving within the semicircular canals allows us to detect rotational movement of the head. E) Receptors in the utricle and saccule detect changes in the position of the head with respect to gravity. Answer: E Section: 07.08 Topic: Gross anatomy of the ear; Physiology of equilibrium Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module I05 General gross and microscopic anatomy of the hearing and accessory structures of the ear.; Module I06 Roles of specific tissues of the ear in hearing.; Module I08 Role of the ear in equilibrium. HAPS Outcome: I05.01 Identify the hearing structures of the outer, middle and inner ear.; I08.02 Describe the structure of the maculae and their function in static equilibrium.; I08.03 Describe the structure of the crista ampullaris and its function in dynamic equilibrium.; I06.01 Describe how the various structures of the outer, middle and inner ear function in hearing.; I08.01 Distinguish between static and dynamic equilibrium.
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44) You are in a car that stops suddenly. Your head jerks forward, then returns to its original position. Your brain is able to interpret this motion because of the action of cells in the . A) retinal; cochlea B) hair; saccule C) hair; semicircular canals D) ganglion; olfactory mucosa E) basiliar; tectorial membrane Answer: C Section: 07.08 Topic: Gross anatomy of the ear; Physiology of equilibrium Bloom's: Level 3. Apply HAPS Topic: Module I03 Olfactory receptors and their role in smell.; Module I05 General gross and microscopic anatomy of the hearing and accessory structures of the ear.; Module I06 Roles of specific tissues of the ear in hearing.; Module I08 Role of the ear in equilibrium. HAPS Outcome: I05.01 Identify the hearing structures of the outer, middle and inner ear.; I08.03 Describe the structure of the crista ampullaris and its function in dynamic equilibrium.; I06.01 Describe how the various structures of the outer, middle and inner ear function in hearing.; I03.02 Explain how odorants activate olfactory receptors.; I03.01 Identify the location of olfactory receptors.; I08.01 Distinguish between static and dynamic equilibrium. 45) Which of the following are classified as "mechanoreceptors"? A) Cone cells in the eye B) Taste buds on the tongue C) Hair cells in the olfactory mucosa D) Hair cells in the cochlea Answer: D Section: 07.01; 07.06; 07.07; 07.09 Topic: Introduction to sensory receptors; Physiology of vision; Olfactory receptors and their role in smell; Gustatory receptors and their role in taste; Physiology of hearing Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module H06 Sensory receptors and their roles.; Module I02 Roles of specific tissues of the eye in vision.; Module I03 Olfactory receptors and their role in smell.; Module I04 Gustatory receptors and their role in taste.; Module I06 Roles of specific tissues of the ear in hearing. HAPS Outcome: H06.02 Describe each of the following types of receptors, indicating what sensation it detects and giving an example of where it can be found in the body- pain receptors (nociceptors), temperature receptors, mechanoreceptors (including proprioceptors and barorceptors/pressoreceptors), chemoreceptors, and photoreceptors.; I02.04 Describe how light activates photoreceptors.; I06.01 Describe how the various structures of the outer, middle and inner ear function in hearing.; I03.02 Explain how odorants activate olfactory receptors.; I04.02 Explain how dissolved chemicals activate gustatory receptors.
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46) Due to anatomical pathways that involve the limbic system, which type of sensation can lead to the most immediate emotional reactions? A) Taste B) Smell C) Touch D) Hearing E) Equilibrium Answer: B Section: 07.09 Topic: Olfactory receptors and their role in smell; Physiology of sensory and motor pathways in the brain and spinal cord Bloom's: Level 3. Apply HAPS Topic: Module I03 Olfactory receptors and their role in smell. HAPS Outcome: I03.03 Describe the path of nerve impulses from the olfactory receptors to various parts of the brain.; I03.02 Explain how odorants activate olfactory receptors.; I03.01 Identify the location of olfactory receptors. 47) Which is TRUE about information from the vestibular system? A) It is conveyed in the form of action potentials in the optic nerve. B) It is conveyed to nerves that control eye movements. C) It does not reach the level of conscious perception. D) It is primarily conveyed to the cortex of the occipital lobe of the brain. E) It is interpreted as sound in the temporal lobes of the brain. Answer: B Section: 07.08 Topic: Physiology of equilibrium; Physiology of sensory and motor pathways in the brain and spinal cord Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module H07 Division, origin, and function of component parts of the brain.; Module H09 Structure and function of cranial nerves.; Module I02 Roles of specific tissues of the eye in vision.; Module I06 Roles of specific tissues of the ear in hearing.; Module I08 Role of the ear in equilibrium.; Module I09 Application of homeostatic mechanisms. HAPS Outcome: H07.04 Identify the five lobes of the cerebral cortex and describe how the motor and sensory functions of the cerebrum are distributed among the lobes.; I08.02 Describe the structure of the maculae and their function in static equilibrium.; I08.03 Describe the structure of the crista ampullaris and its function in dynamic equilibrium.; I06.02 Describe the sound conduction pathway from the auricle to the fluids of the inner ear and the path of nerve impulses from the spiral organ to various parts of the brain.; I02.02 Trace the path of light as it passes through the eye to the retina and the path of nerve impulses from the retina to various parts of the brain.; H09.02 Describe the specific functions of each of the cranial nerves and classify each as sensory, motor or mixed.; I09.02 Explain how the special sense organs relate to other body organs and systems to maintain homeostasis.
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48) Which of the following correctly pairs a chemical with its associated taste modality? A) Poisonous alkaloids, sour B) Acids, bitter C) Sugars, salty D) Glutamate, umami E) Lipids, sweet Answer: D Section: 07.09 Topic: Gustatory receptors and their role in taste Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module I04 Gustatory receptors and their role in taste. HAPS Outcome: I04.04 Describe the five primary taste sensations. 49) The phenomenon known as referred pain: A) is a perception of a false painful stimulus with no initiating stimulus; it is created in the mind. B) is the projected perception of pain as a sensation being experienced at a site other than that of the actual injured or diseased tissue. C) involves a descending pathway that blocks the release of substance P in the spinal cord. D) is synonymous with the persistence of perceptions of painful stimuli long after the activity responsible for triggering them has ceased. Answer: B Section: 07.05 Topic: Physiology of sensory and motor pathways in the brain and spinal cord; Clinical applications of the nervous system Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module H10 Anatomy of the spinal cord and spinal nerves.; Module H12 Physiology of sensory and motor pathways in the brain and spinal cord.; Module H16 Predictions related to homeostatic imbalance, including disease states and disorders. HAPS Outcome: H12.01 Describe the locations and functions of the first-, second- and thirdorder neurons in a sensory pathway.; H16.01 Predict factors or situations affecting the nervous system that could disrupt homeostasis.; H16.02 Predict the types of problems that would occur in the body if the nervous system could not maintain homeostasis.; H10.07 Distinguish between ascending and descending tracts in the spinal cord.; H10.08 Describe the concept of dermatomes and explain why they are clinically significant.
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50) What category of receptors do Pacinian corpuscles belong to? A) Mechanoreceptors B) Chemoreceptors C) Nociceptors D) Photoreceptors Answer: A Section: 07.05 Topic: Introduction to sensory receptors Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module H06 Sensory receptors and their roles.; Module E04 Anatomy and functional roles of accessory structures HAPS Outcome: H06.02 Describe each of the following types of receptors, indicating what sensation it detects and giving an example of where it can be found in the body- pain receptors (nociceptors), temperature receptors, mechanoreceptors (including proprioceptors and barorceptors/pressoreceptors), chemoreceptors, and photoreceptors.; E04.01b With respect to the following - sweat glands (eccrine and apocrine), sebaceous glands, nails, hair (follicle and arrector pili muscle), and sensory receptors (Merkel cell, Meissner's and Pacinian corpuscles, hair follicle receptor, and temperature receptors), describe the location of each structure in the body. 51) What category do hair cells in the organ of Corti belong to? A) Mechanoreceptors B) Chemoreceptors C) Nociceptors D) Photoreceptors E) Proprioceptors Answer: A Section: 07.07 Topic: Physiology of hearing Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module H06 Sensory receptors and their roles.; Module I05 General gross and microscopic anatomy of the hearing and accessory structures of the ear.; Module I06 Roles of specific tissues of the ear in hearing. HAPS Outcome: H06.02 Describe each of the following types of receptors, indicating what sensation it detects and giving an example of where it can be found in the body- pain receptors (nociceptors), temperature receptors, mechanoreceptors (including proprioceptors and barorceptors/pressoreceptors), chemoreceptors, and photoreceptors.; I05.01 Identify the hearing structures of the outer, middle and inner ear.; I06.01 Describe how the various structures of the outer, middle and inner ear function in hearing.
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52) Cone cells belong to what category of sensory receptors? A) Mechanoreceptors B) Chemoreceptors C) Nociceptors D) Photoreceptors E) Proprioceptors Answer: D Section: 07.06 Topic: Physiology of vision Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module H06 Sensory receptors and their roles.; Module I02 Roles of specific tissues of the eye in vision. HAPS Outcome: H06.02 Describe each of the following types of receptors, indicating what sensation it detects and giving an example of where it can be found in the body- pain receptors (nociceptors), temperature receptors, mechanoreceptors (including proprioceptors and barorceptors/pressoreceptors), chemoreceptors, and photoreceptors.; I02.03 Describe the structure of the retina and the cells that compose it.; I02.04 Describe how light activates photoreceptors. 53) In what category of sensory receptors are the receptor cells in taste buds? A) Mechanoreceptors B) Chemoreceptors C) Nociceptors D) Photoreceptors E) Proprioceptors Answer: B Section: 07.09 Topic: Gustatory receptors and their role in taste Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module H06 Sensory receptors and their roles.; Module I04 Gustatory receptors and their role in taste. HAPS Outcome: H06.02 Describe each of the following types of receptors, indicating what sensation it detects and giving an example of where it can be found in the body- pain receptors (nociceptors), temperature receptors, mechanoreceptors (including proprioceptors and barorceptors/pressoreceptors), chemoreceptors, and photoreceptors.; I04.02 Explain how dissolved chemicals activate gustatory receptors.
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54) Hair cells in semicircular canals are A) mechanoreceptors. B) chemoreceptors. C) nociceptors. D) photoreceptors. E) audioreceptors. Answer: A Section: 07.08 Topic: Physiology of equilibrium Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module H06 Sensory receptors and their roles.; Module I08 Role of the ear in equilibrium. HAPS Outcome: H06.02 Describe each of the following types of receptors, indicating what sensation it detects and giving an example of where it can be found in the body- pain receptors (nociceptors), temperature receptors, mechanoreceptors (including proprioceptors and barorceptors/pressoreceptors), chemoreceptors, and photoreceptors.; I08.03 Describe the structure of the crista ampullaris and its function in dynamic equilibrium. 55) A "sensation" is any sensory information that reaches the brain. Answer: FALSE Section: 07.01 Topic: Physiology of sensory and motor pathways in the brain and spinal cord; Division, origin, and function of parts of the brain Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module H01 General functions of the nervous system.; Module H07 Division, origin, and function of component parts of the brain. HAPS Outcome: H07.02 Correlate functions with each major area of the adult brain.; H01.01 Describe the major functions of the nervous system. 56) Perceptions are derived from higher-order processing of sensory information. Answer: TRUE Section: 07.01 Topic: Division, origin, and function of parts of the brain Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module H01 General functions of the nervous system.; Module H07 Division, origin, and function of component parts of the brain. HAPS Outcome: H07.02 Correlate functions with each major area of the adult brain.; H01.01 Describe the major functions of the nervous system.
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57) The process by which sensory receptors change various forms of energy into electrical energy is called translation. Answer: FALSE Section: 07.01 Topic: Introduction to sensory receptors Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module H06 Sensory receptors and their roles. HAPS Outcome: H06.03 Explain the generator potential that occurs when receptors for general senses are stimulated. 58) The greater the magnitude of the receptor potential generated by a stimulus, the greater the amplitude of the action potentials the receptor potential induces. Answer: FALSE Section: 07.01; 07.02 Topic: Introduction to sensory receptors Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module H04 Neurophysiology, including mechanism of resting membrane potential, production of action potentials, and impulse transmission.; Module H06 Sensory receptors and their roles. HAPS Outcome: H04.07 Discuss the sequence of events that must occur for an action potential to be generated.; H04.09 Define threshold.; H06.03 Explain the generator potential that occurs when receptors for general senses are stimulated.; H04.10 Discuss the role of positive feedback in generation of the action potential. 59) Rapidly adapting receptors are important for detecting the continued presence of a stimulus. Answer: FALSE Section: 07.01 Topic: Introduction to sensory receptors Bloom's: Level 2. Understand HAPS Topic: Module H06 Sensory receptors and their roles. HAPS Outcome: H06.06 Explain the phenomenon of adaptation.
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60) "Somatosensory" refers to the part of the cerebral cortex that receives synaptic input from specific ascending pathways originating only with receptors for touch. Answer: FALSE Section: 07.03; 07.05 Topic: Physiology of sensory and motor pathways in the brain and spinal cord; Division, origin, and function of parts of the brain Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module H07 Division, origin, and function of component parts of the brain.; Module H10 Anatomy of the spinal cord and spinal nerves.; Module E04 Anatomy and functional roles of accessory structures HAPS Outcome: E04.01b With respect to the following - sweat glands (eccrine and apocrine), sebaceous glands, nails, hair (follicle and arrector pili muscle), and sensory receptors (Merkel cell, Meissner's and Pacinian corpuscles, hair follicle receptor, and temperature receptors), describe the location of each structure in the body.; H07.02 Correlate functions with each major area of the adult brain.; H07.04 Identify the five lobes of the cerebral cortex and describe how the motor and sensory functions of the cerebrum are distributed among the lobes.; H10.07 Distinguish between ascending and descending tracts in the spinal cord. 61) Sensory information is invested with emotional significance in association areas in the frontal lobes and limbic system. Answer: TRUE Section: 07.04 Topic: Division, origin, and function of parts of the brain Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module H07 Division, origin, and function of component parts of the brain. HAPS Outcome: H07.02 Correlate functions with each major area of the adult brain.; H07.07 Describe the location and functions of the limbic system. 62) Information about the location of a given stimulus on or in the body is conveyed by the same mechanism that conveys information about stimulus intensity, namely action potential frequency. Answer: FALSE Section: 07.02 Topic: Physiology of sensory and motor pathways in the brain and spinal cord Bloom's: Level 2. Understand HAPS Topic: Module H07 Division, origin, and function of component parts of the brain.; Module H12 Physiology of sensory and motor pathways in the brain and spinal cord. HAPS Outcome: H07.02 Correlate functions with each major area of the adult brain.; H07.04 Identify the five lobes of the cerebral cortex and describe how the motor and sensory functions of the cerebrum are distributed among the lobes.; H12.01 Describe the locations and functions of the first-, second- and third-order neurons in a sensory pathway.
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63) The density of receptors in a receptive field is usually greatest in the periphery of the field. Answer: FALSE Section: 07.02 Topic: Introduction to sensory receptors Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module H03 Grossand microscopic anatomy of nervous tissue.; Module H12 Physiology of sensory and motor pathways in the brain and spinal cord. HAPS Outcome: H12.01 Describe the locations and functions of the first-, second- and thirdorder neurons in a sensory pathway.; H03.02c State which parts of each of the three structural types of neurons (unipolar, bipolar and multipolar) receive information, which parts integrate information, and which parts conduct the output signal of the neuron. 64) Your fingertips are highly sensitive, yet geographically small areas of your body. You expect the area of the somatosensory cortex that receives afferent stimuli from them to be quite small as well. Answer: FALSE Section: 07.05 Topic: Division, origin, and function of parts of the brain Bloom's: Level 3. Apply HAPS Topic: Module H07 Division, origin, and function of component parts of the brain. HAPS Outcome: H07.04 Identify the five lobes of the cerebral cortex and describe how the motor and sensory functions of the cerebrum are distributed among the lobes.; H07.05 Explain why the sensory and motor homunculi are relevant clinically. 65) The precision of locating a somatosensory stimulus is greater in areas of the body that have small, overlapping receptive fields than in areas with large, non-overlapping fields. Answer: TRUE Section: 07.02 Topic: Introduction to sensory receptors Bloom's: Level 2. Understand HAPS Topic: Module H12 Physiology of sensory and motor pathways in the brain and spinal cord. HAPS Outcome: H12.01 Describe the locations and functions of the first-, second- and thirdorder neurons in a sensory pathway.
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66) The afferent pathways for pain differ from those for other somatic sensations in that they are highly influenced by repeated exposure and they are significantly modulated by descending neuronal pathways. Answer: TRUE Section: 07.05 Topic: Physiology of sensory and motor pathways in the brain and spinal cord Bloom's: Level 2. Understand HAPS Topic: Module H10 Anatomy of the spinal cord and spinal nerves.; Module H12 Physiology of sensory and motor pathways in the brain and spinal cord. HAPS Outcome: H12.01 Describe the locations and functions of the first-, second- and thirdorder neurons in a sensory pathway.; H10.07 Distinguish between ascending and descending tracts in the spinal cord. 67) The sensation of itch is communicated to the brain on dedicated itch receptors. Answer: TRUE Section: 07.05 Topic: Introduction to sensory receptors Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module H06 Sensory receptors and their roles. HAPS Outcome: H06.02 Describe each of the following types of receptors, indicating what sensation it detects and giving an example of where it can be found in the body- pain receptors (nociceptors), temperature receptors, mechanoreceptors (including proprioceptors and barorceptors/pressoreceptors), chemoreceptors, and photoreceptors. 68) A drug that inhibits prostaglandin synthesis would have a side effect of exaggerated pain perception. Answer: FALSE Section: 07.05 Topic: Physiology of sensory and motor pathways in the brain and spinal cord Bloom's: Level 3. Apply HAPS Topic: Module H05 Neurotransmitters and their roles in synaptic transmission.; Module H12 Physiology of sensory and motor pathways in the brain and spinal cord. HAPS Outcome: H12.01 Describe the locations and functions of the first-, second- and thirdorder neurons in a sensory pathway.; H05.15 List the most common excitatory neurotransmitter(s) in the CNS and the most common inhibitory neurotransmitter(s) in the CNS.
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69) The phenomenon of referred pain may occur because an ascending pathway for pain receives input from both visceral and somatic afferent fibers. Answer: TRUE Section: 07.05 Topic: Physiology of sensory and motor pathways in the brain and spinal cord; Clinical applications of the nervous system Bloom's: Level 2. Understand HAPS Topic: Module H10 Anatomy of the spinal cord and spinal nerves.; Module H12 Physiology of sensory and motor pathways in the brain and spinal cord.; Module H16 Predictions related to homeostatic imbalance, including disease states and disorders. HAPS Outcome: H12.01 Describe the locations and functions of the first-, second- and thirdorder neurons in a sensory pathway.; H16.01 Predict factors or situations affecting the nervous system that could disrupt homeostasis.; H16.02 Predict the types of problems that would occur in the body if the nervous system could not maintain homeostasis.; H10.07 Distinguish between ascending and descending tracts in the spinal cord.; H10.08 Describe the concept of dermatomes and explain why they are clinically significant. 70) In the phenomenon of phantom limb, a person can perceive tingling, touch, pressure, warmth, itch, and other sensations in a body part that has been lost by amputation or accident. Answer: TRUE Section: 07.05 Topic: Physiology of sensory and motor pathways in the brain and spinal cord; Clinical applications of the nervous system Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module H07 Division, origin, and function of component parts of the brain.; Module H12 Physiology of sensory and motor pathways in the brain and spinal cord.; Module H16 Predictions related to homeostatic imbalance, including disease states and disorders. HAPS Outcome: H12.01 Describe the locations and functions of the first-, second- and thirdorder neurons in a sensory pathway.; H07.05 Explain why the sensory and motor homunculi are relevant clinically.; H16.01 Predict factors or situations affecting the nervous system that could disrupt homeostasis.; H16.02 Predict the types of problems that would occur in the body if the nervous system could not maintain homeostasis.
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71) Useful therapy for phantom limb pain includes injections of pain killers at the site of pain. Answer: FALSE Section: 07.05 Topic: Physiology of sensory and motor pathways in the brain and spinal cord; Clinical applications of the nervous system Bloom's: Level 3. Apply HAPS Topic: Module H07 Division, origin, and function of component parts of the brain.; Module H12 Physiology of sensory and motor pathways in the brain and spinal cord.; Module H16 Predictions related to homeostatic imbalance, including disease states and disorders. HAPS Outcome: H12.01 Describe the locations and functions of the first-, second- and thirdorder neurons in a sensory pathway.; H07.05 Explain why the sensory and motor homunculi are relevant clinically.; H16.01 Predict factors or situations affecting the nervous system that could disrupt homeostasis.; H16.02 Predict the types of problems that would occur in the body if the nervous system could not maintain homeostasis. 72) Presbyopia is correctable using eyeglasses that converge light rays. Answer: TRUE Section: 07.06 Topic: Physiology of vision; Clinical applications of the special senses Bloom's: Level 3. Apply HAPS Topic: Module I02 Roles of specific tissues of the eye in vision.; Module I10 Predictions related to homeostatic imbalance, including disease states and disorders. HAPS Outcome: I02.05 Explain how the optical system of the eye creates an image on the retina.; I02.08 Relate changes in the anatomy of the eye to changes in vision.; I10.01 Predict factors or situations affecting the special sense organs that could disrupt homeostasis.; I10.02 Predict the types of problems that would occur in the body if the special sense organs could not maintain homeostasis. 73) Increased pressure in the eye caused by an accumulation of aqueous humor is called astigmatism. Answer: FALSE Section: 07.06 Topic: Gross anatomy of the eye; Clinical applications of the special senses Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module I01 Gross and microscopic anatomy of the eye.; Module I10 Predictions related to homeostatic imbalance, including disease states and disorders. HAPS Outcome: I01.01 Identify the accessory eye structures, the tunics, the optical components and the neural components of the eye.; I10.01 Predict factors or situations affecting the special sense organs that could disrupt homeostasis.; I10.02 Predict the types of problems that would occur in the body if the special sense organs could not maintain homeostasis.
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74) Vitamin A deficiency can lead to blindness. Answer: TRUE Section: 07.06 Topic: Physiology of vision; Clinical applications of the special senses Bloom's: Level 2. Understand HAPS Topic: Module I02 Roles of specific tissues of the eye in vision.; Module I10 Predictions related to homeostatic imbalance, including disease states and disorders.; Module O01 Nutrition HAPS Outcome: I10.01 Predict factors or situations affecting the special sense organs that could disrupt homeostasis.; I10.02 Predict the types of problems that would occur in the body if the special sense organs could not maintain homeostasis.; I02.03 Describe the structure of the retina and the cells that compose it.; I02.04 Describe how light activates photoreceptors.; O01.01d Classify vitamins as either fat-soluble or water-soluble and discuss the major uses of each vitamin in the body. 75) The optic nerves from each eye cross at the optic chiasm, so all visual information from the right eye is received by the left side of the brain. Answer: FALSE Section: 07.06 Topic: Gross anatomy of the eye; Physiology of sensory and motor pathways in the brain and spinal cord Bloom's: Level 2. Understand HAPS Topic: Module I01 Gross and microscopic anatomy of the eye.; Module I02 Roles of specific tissues of the eye in vision. HAPS Outcome: I01.01 Identify the accessory eye structures, the tunics, the optical components and the neural components of the eye.; I02.02 Trace the path of light as it passes through the eye to the retina and the path of nerve impulses from the retina to various parts of the brain. 76) "Left neglect" is a phenomenon where the entire left visual field is ignored by the brain. This can be caused by damage to the left hemisphere where visual information is processed. Answer: FALSE Section: 07.06 Topic: Gross anatomy of the eye; Physiology of sensory and motor pathways in the brain and spinal cord Bloom's: Level 3. Apply HAPS Topic: Module I01 Gross and microscopic anatomy of the eye.; Module I02 Roles of specific tissues of the eye in vision. HAPS Outcome: I01.01 Identify the accessory eye structures, the tunics, the optical components and the neural components of the eye.; I02.02 Trace the path of light as it passes through the eye to the retina and the path of nerve impulses from the retina to various parts of the brain. 77) Axons of ganglion cells from the retina synapse in the medial geniculate nucleus of the 36 Copyright 2019 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.
thalamus on the way to the occipital lobes. Answer: FALSE Section: 07.06 Topic: Gross anatomy of the eye; Physiology of vision; Physiology of sensory and motor pathways in the brain and spinal cord Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module I01 Gross and microscopic anatomy of the eye.; Module I02 Roles of specific tissues of the eye in vision. HAPS Outcome: I01.01 Identify the accessory eye structures, the tunics, the optical components and the neural components of the eye.; I02.03 Describe the structure of the retina and the cells that compose it.; I02.02 Trace the path of light as it passes through the eye to the retina and the path of nerve impulses from the retina to various parts of the brain. 78) The greatest concentration of cones is in the fovea centralis of the retina. Answer: TRUE Section: 07.06 Topic: Gross anatomy of the eye; Physiology of vision Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module I01 Gross and microscopic anatomy of the eye.; Module I02 Roles of specific tissues of the eye in vision. HAPS Outcome: I01.01 Identify the accessory eye structures, the tunics, the optical components and the neural components of the eye.; I02.03 Describe the structure of the retina and the cells that compose it. 79) In an individual with macular degeneration, night vision would be impaired. Answer: FALSE Section: 07.06 Topic: Gross anatomy of the eye; Physiology of vision Bloom's: Level 3. Apply HAPS Topic: Module I01 Gross and microscopic anatomy of the eye.; Module I02 Roles of specific tissues of the eye in vision. HAPS Outcome: I01.01 Identify the accessory eye structures, the tunics, the optical components and the neural components of the eye.; I02.03 Describe the structure of the retina and the cells that compose it.
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80) Photoreceptor cells (rods and cones) are different from other sensory receptors in that they are the only type that is relatively depolarized at rest. Answer: TRUE Section: 07.06 Topic: Physiology of vision Bloom's: Level 2. Understand HAPS Topic: Module I02 Roles of specific tissues of the eye in vision. HAPS Outcome: I02.03 Describe the structure of the retina and the cells that compose it.; I02.04 Describe how light activates photoreceptors. 81) In both ON and OFF visual pathways, light stimulates the release of glutamate onto bipolar cells. Answer: FALSE Section: 07.06 Topic: Physiology of vision Bloom's: Level 2. Understand HAPS Topic: Module I01 Gross and microscopic anatomy of the eye.; Module I02 Roles of specific tissues of the eye in vision. HAPS Outcome: I01.01 Identify the accessory eye structures, the tunics, the optical components and the neural components of the eye.; I02.03 Describe the structure of the retina and the cells that compose it.; I02.04 Describe how light activates photoreceptors.; I02.02 Trace the path of light as it passes through the eye to the retina and the path of nerve impulses from the retina to various parts of the brain. 82) The response of a bipolar cell, that is whether it acts to bring about an "ON pathway" or an "OFF pathway," depends on the amount of glutamate released by photoreceptor cells. Answer: FALSE Section: 07.06 Topic: Physiology of vision Bloom's: Level 2. Understand HAPS Topic: Module H05 Neurotransmitters and their roles in synaptic transmission.; Module I01 Gross and microscopic anatomy of the eye.; Module I02 Roles of specific tissues of the eye in vision. HAPS Outcome: I01.01 Identify the accessory eye structures, the tunics, the optical components and the neural components of the eye.; I02.03 Describe the structure of the retina and the cells that compose it.; I02.04 Describe how light activates photoreceptors.; I02.02 Trace the path of light as it passes through the eye to the retina and the path of nerve impulses from the retina to various parts of the brain.; H05.13 Explain how a single neurotransmitter may be excitatory at one synapse and inhibitory at another.
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83) One function of saccades is to prevent adaptation of photoreceptors to a visual image. Answer: TRUE Section: 07.06 Topic: Anatomy of accessory structures of the eye; Physiology of vision Bloom's: Level 2. Understand HAPS Topic: Module H06 Sensory receptors and their roles.; Module I01 Gross and microscopic anatomy of the eye.; Module I02 Roles of specific tissues of the eye in vision.; Module I09 Application of homeostatic mechanisms. HAPS Outcome: I01.01 Identify the accessory eye structures, the tunics, the optical components and the neural components of the eye.; I02.04 Describe how light activates photoreceptors.; I09.01 Provide specific examples to demonstrate how the special sense organs respond to maintain homeostasis in the body.; H06.06 Explain the phenomenon of adaptation.; I02.01 Describe the functions of the accessory structures of the eye. 84) A sound with a frequency of 4000 Hz has a lower pitch than a sound with a frequency of 1000 Hz. Answer: FALSE Section: 07.07 Topic: Physiology of hearing Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module I06 Roles of specific tissues of the ear in hearing. HAPS Outcome: I06.01 Describe how the various structures of the outer, middle and inner ear function in hearing.; I06.03 Explain how the structures of the ear enable differentiation of pitch and loudness of sounds. 85) The tympanic membrane separates an air-filled chamber from a fluid-filled chamber. Answer: FALSE Section: 07.07 Topic: Gross anatomy of the ear Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module I05 General gross and microscopic anatomy of the hearing and accessory structures of the ear. HAPS Outcome: I05.01 Identify the hearing structures of the outer, middle and inner ear. 86) Fluid accumulating in the middle ear cavity would cause a decrease in hearing sensation. Answer: TRUE Section: 07.07 Topic: Gross anatomy of the ear Bloom's: Level 3. Apply HAPS Topic: Module I05 General gross and microscopic anatomy of the hearing and accessory structures of the ear. HAPS Outcome: I05.01 Identify the hearing structures of the outer, middle and inner ear. 39 Copyright 2019 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.
87) The vibration of the tympanic membrane varies in frequency according to the pitch of the sound it receives. Answer: TRUE Section: 07.07 Topic: Gross anatomy of the ear; Physiology of hearing Bloom's: Level 2. Understand HAPS Topic: Module I05 General gross and microscopic anatomy of the hearing and accessory structures of the ear.; Module I06 Roles of specific tissues of the ear in hearing. HAPS Outcome: I05.01 Identify the hearing structures of the outer, middle and inner ear.; I06.01 Describe how the various structures of the outer, middle and inner ear function in hearing.; I06.03 Explain how the structures of the ear enable differentiation of pitch and loudness of sounds. 88) The function of the tympanic membrane is to amplify sound waves on their way to the middle ear. Answer: TRUE Section: 07.07 Topic: Gross anatomy of the ear; Physiology of hearing Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module I05 General gross and microscopic anatomy of the hearing and accessory structures of the ear.; Module I06 Roles of specific tissues of the ear in hearing. HAPS Outcome: I05.01 Identify the hearing structures of the outer, middle and inner ear.; I06.01 Describe how the various structures of the outer, middle and inner ear function in hearing.; I06.02 Describe the sound conduction pathway from the auricle to the fluids of the inner ear and the path of nerve impulses from the spiral organ to various parts of the brain. 89) A tone caused by striking one of the lowest notes on a piano keyboard will cause vibration of the basilar membrane at a point closer to the helicotrema than to the oval window. Answer: TRUE Section: 07.07 Topic: Gross anatomy of the ear; Physiology of hearing Bloom's: Level 2. Understand HAPS Topic: Module I05 General gross and microscopic anatomy of the hearing and accessory structures of the ear.; Module I06 Roles of specific tissues of the ear in hearing. HAPS Outcome: I05.01 Identify the hearing structures of the outer, middle and inner ear.; I06.01 Describe how the various structures of the outer, middle and inner ear function in hearing.; I06.02 Describe the sound conduction pathway from the auricle to the fluids of the inner ear and the path of nerve impulses from the spiral organ to various parts of the brain.; I06.03 Explain how the structures of the ear enable differentiation of pitch and loudness of sounds.
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90) Unlike information from the eyes, information from the ears bypasses the thalamus on its way to the cerebral cortex. Answer: FALSE Section: 07.06; 07.07 Topic: Physiology of vision; Physiology of hearing; Physiology of sensory and motor pathways in the brain and spinal cord Bloom's: Level 2. Understand HAPS Topic: Module H09 Structure and function of cranial nerves.; Module I02 Roles of specific tissues of the eye in vision.; Module I06 Roles of specific tissues of the ear in hearing. HAPS Outcome: I06.02 Describe the sound conduction pathway from the auricle to the fluids of the inner ear and the path of nerve impulses from the spiral organ to various parts of the brain.; I02.02 Trace the path of light as it passes through the eye to the retina and the path of nerve impulses from the retina to various parts of the brain.; H09.02 Describe the specific functions of each of the cranial nerves and classify each as sensory, motor or mixed. 91) Hair cells in the semicircular canals detect changes in the rate of angular motion of the head, while the same kinds of cells in the utricle and saccule detect changes in the head's rate of linear motion. Answer: TRUE Section: 07.08 Topic: Gross anatomy of the ear; Physiology of equilibrium Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module I08 Role of the ear in equilibrium. HAPS Outcome: I08.02 Describe the structure of the maculae and their function in static equilibrium.; I08.03 Describe the structure of the crista ampullaris and its function in dynamic equilibrium. 92) A decrease in the viscosity of the fluid in the semicircular canals may lead to a sense of motion even when the body is still. Answer: TRUE Section: 07.08 Topic: Gross anatomy of the ear; Physiology of equilibrium Bloom's: Level 3. Apply HAPS Topic: Module I08 Role of the ear in equilibrium. HAPS Outcome: I08.02 Describe the structure of the maculae and their function in static equilibrium.; I08.03 Describe the structure of the crista ampullaris and its function in dynamic equilibrium.
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93) When you turn your head to the left to look over your left shoulder, the hairs in the cupula of the horizontal semicircular canals will be bent to the left. Answer: FALSE Section: 07.08 Topic: Physiology of equilibrium Bloom's: Level 3. Apply HAPS Topic: Module I05 General gross and microscopic anatomy of the hearing and accessory structures of the ear.; Module I08 Role of the ear in equilibrium. HAPS Outcome: I05.01 Identify the hearing structures of the outer, middle and inner ear.; I08.03 Describe the structure of the crista ampullaris and its function in dynamic equilibrium. 94) Olfactory receptors are neurons. Answer: TRUE Section: 07.09 Topic: Olfactory receptors and their role in smell Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module I03 Olfactory receptors and their role in smell. HAPS Outcome: I03.03 Describe the path of nerve impulses from the olfactory receptors to various parts of the brain.; I03.02 Explain how odorants activate olfactory receptors. 95) Opponent color ganglion cells that respond to blue light by increasing their rate of firing will respond to yellow light by decreasing their rate of firing. Answer: TRUE Section: 07.06 Topic: Physiology of vision Bloom's: Level 2. Understand HAPS Topic: Module I01 Gross and microscopic anatomy of the eye.; Module I02 Roles of specific tissues of the eye in vision. HAPS Outcome: I01.01 Identify the accessory eye structures, the tunics, the optical components and the neural components of the eye.; I02.03 Describe the structure of the retina and the cells that compose it.; I02.02 Trace the path of light as it passes through the eye to the retina and the path of nerve impulses from the retina to various parts of the brain.
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96) To see an object, for example a cat, and know that it is a cat that you have seen before, your brain receives and associates the visual input. Which brain areas are involved? A) Auditory cortex B) Somatosensory cortex C) Visual cortex D) Occipital lobe association area E) Parietal lobe association area Answer: C, D Section: 07.04 Topic: Division, origin, and function of parts of the brain Bloom's: Level 3. Apply HAPS Topic: Module H07 Division, origin, and function of component parts of the brain.; Module H12 Physiology of sensory and motor pathways in the brain and spinal cord. HAPS Outcome: H07.02 Correlate functions with each major area of the adult brain.; H10.07 Distinguish between ascending and descending tracts in the spinal cord.
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97) Syndrome R involves a genetic mutation that affects all chemoreceptors in the body. Which sensations are affected in Syndrome R? A) Hearing B) Taste C) Pain D) Smell E) Touch Answer: B, C, D Section: 07.09 Topic: Olfactory receptors and their role in smell; Gustatory receptors and their role in taste Bloom's: Level 3. Apply HAPS Topic: Module H06 Sensory receptors and their roles.; Module I02 Roles of specific tissues of the eye in vision.; Module I03 Olfactory receptors and their role in smell.; Module I04 Gustatory receptors and their role in taste.; Module I06 Roles of specific tissues of the ear in hearing.; Module I08 Role of the ear in equilibrium.; Module E04 Anatomy and functional roles of accessory structures HAPS Outcome: H06.02 Describe each of the following types of receptors, indicating what sensation it detects and giving an example of where it can be found in the body- pain receptors (nociceptors), temperature receptors, mechanoreceptors (including proprioceptors and barorceptors/pressoreceptors), chemoreceptors, and photoreceptors.; E04.01b With respect to the following - sweat glands (eccrine and apocrine), sebaceous glands, nails, hair (follicle and arrector pili muscle), and sensory receptors (Merkel cell, Meissner's and Pacinian corpuscles, hair follicle receptor, and temperature receptors), describe the location of each structure in the body.; I08.02 Describe the structure of the maculae and their function in static equilibrium.; I02.03 Describe the structure of the retina and the cells that compose it.; I02.04 Describe how light activates photoreceptors.; I06.01 Describe how the various structures of the outer, middle and inner ear function in hearing.; I03.02 Explain how odorants activate olfactory receptors.; I03.01 Identify the location of olfactory receptors.; I04.01 Identify the location and structure of taste buds.; I04.02 Explain how dissolved chemicals activate gustatory receptors.
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98) Of which categories of receptor types are nociceptors? A) Mechanoreceptors B) Proprioceptors C) Chemoreceptors D) Photoreceptors E) None of these Answer: A, C Section: 07.05 Topic: Introduction to sensory receptors Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module H06 Sensory receptors and their roles. HAPS Outcome: H06.02 Describe each of the following types of receptors, indicating what sensation it detects and giving an example of where it can be found in the body- pain receptors (nociceptors), temperature receptors, mechanoreceptors (including proprioceptors and barorceptors/pressoreceptors), chemoreceptors, and photoreceptors.
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Vander's Human Physiology, 15e (Widmaier) Chapter 8 Consciousness, the Brain, and Behavior 1) It is believed that the rhythmic patterns of the EEG most likely originate from this structure in the brain. A) Hypothalamus B) Cerebral cortex C) Basal ganglia D) Cerebellum E) Hippocampus 2) The alpha rhythm is the most prominent EEG pattern when an adult is A) in REM sleep. B) in non-REM sleep. C) awake and relaxed with eyes open. D) awake and thinking hard about something. 3) If you were to record your own EEG activity while concentrating very hard on this exam, the most prominent EEG pattern would be A) alpha rhythm. B) beta rhythm. C) delta rhythm. D) theta rhythm. 4) Your alarm pulls you from sleep while you were in the middle of a vivid dream. You were most likely A) in NREM sleep. B) in REM sleep. C) exhibiting beta wave activity. D) exhibiting gamma wave activity. E) All of the answer choices are correct. 5) During paradoxical sleep A) brain neurotransmitter activity in the pathways regulating states of consciousness is similar to that in the awake state. B) brain oxygen consumption is lower than when awake. C) skeletal muscle tension is dramatically increased. D) the person is easily aroused. E) All of the choices are correct.
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6) You are a sleep lab technician and are sorting through the records obtained the previous night. You found that at 1:20 a.m. EEG tracings showed low amplitude, high-frequency activity, and subject had very low muscle tone. Which of the following is likely? A) The subject was easily awakened and did not report dreaming. B) She was difficult to awaken and did not report dreaming. C) Once she was awake she reported dreaming. D) She was already awake at 1:20am. 7) Which of the descriptions is not descriptive of REM (rapid eye movement) sleep? A) Visible movements of the eyes resembling those of one tracking the movements of objects in space, watching TV, and so on B) Difficulty arousing the sleeper C) Oxygen consumption decreases by comparison to NREM sleep and in an alert wakeful state. D) It represents 20–25% of a person's "sleeptime." E) Skeletal muscle activity is markedly reduced, except for the extraocular and respiratory muscles. 8) You are the technician running the fMRI (functional magentic resonance imaging) machine today. You have had a patient in the machine for quite a while when you notice a sudden change in electrical activity within the RAS. What might be happening? A) She is thinking about food. B) She fell asleep. C) She is moving. D) She is talking. E) She has opened her eyes and is taking in visual information. 9) You have a patient who, after undergoing treatment for a brain disease, has a high amount of protein fragments and waste products in his CSF. To aid in clearance, which might you recommend? A) A drug that increases heart rate B) Sleep C) Hanging upside down D) Ingestion of acidic foods E) None of the answer choices are correct. 10) A laboratory rat has an electrode implanted in its brain. By pressing a metal bar in its cage, the animal can activate the electrode. You are analyzing the data from the most recent experiment day and find that the rat pressed the bar over and over again. The rat did not even eat during the experimental period because it was too busy pressing the bar. In which location is the electrode likely to be implanted? A) Frontal lobe B) Mesolimbic system C) Hypothalamus D) Occipital lobe E) All of the choices are possible locations of the electrode.
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11) Which of the following statements regarding the brain areas that direct emotion is not true? A) The hypothalamus is the site of the conscious feeling of emotion. B) The hypothalamus integrates emotional behaviors. C) The limbic system delivers information about emotion from the cerebral cortex to the hypothalamus. D) The cerebral cortex is responsible for control over emotions. E) None of the choices are true. 12) During a routine brain scan it is discovered that Nick has a larger than average amygdala. How might Nick's family describe Nick? A) Fearful B) Confident C) Jovial D) Always relaxed, easy going E) Hilarious 13) You are a veterinarian and a dog is brought in that has experienced a BB gun shot to the brain. The brain scan reveals damage to the septum of the limbic system. You need to explain this injury to the owners. Which of the following is true? A) The septum is required for the expression of rage, with a damaged septum, this dog will always be docile and never aggressive. B) In a normal animal, the septum inhibits the amygdala. Without it, the dog will always be fearful and vicious. C) The septum of the limbic system is required for memory formation. The dog will be forever forgetful D) The septum of the limbic system is required for regulation of appetite. Without it, the dog may overeat. E) The septum of the limbic system is required to express affection, without it, the dog may be less affectionate. 14) You are a veterinarian and a dog is brought in that has experienced a BB gun shot to the brain. The brain scan reveals damage to the amygdala. You need to explain this injury to the owners. Which of the following is true? A) The amygdala is required for the expression of affection. B) In a normal animal, the amygdala is involved in expression of fear and rage. Without it, the dog may be docile at all times. C) The amygdala is required for memory formation. The dog will be forever forgetful. D) The amygdala is required for regulation of appetite. Without it, the dog may overeat. E) The amygdala is required to express affection, without it, the dog may be less affectionate.
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15) Regarding schizophrenia, A) it is a family of mental disorders that involves disturbances of thinking, perceiving, and control of motor activity. B) its symptoms can include paranoid delusions and hallucinations. C) it probably has a hereditary component. D) both "it is a family of mental disorders that involves disturbances of thinking, perceiving, and control of motor activity" and "its symptoms can include paranoid delusions and hallucinations" are correct. E) All of the choices are correct. 16) Regarding schizophrenia, A) people with schizophrenia frequently have disorders of sensory awareness. B) treatment of schizophrenia may result in symptoms of Parkinson's disease. C) lithium carbonate is the most common drug prescribed for schizophrenia. D) both "people with schizophrenia frequently have disorders of sensory awareness" and "treatment of schizophrenia may result in symptoms of Parkinson's disease" are correct. E) both "treatment of schizophrenia may result in symptoms of Parkinson's disease" and "lithium carbonate is the most common drug prescribed for schizophrenia" are correct. 17) You are counseling a pair of tired parents. All three of their children have been waking in the night frequently for the past few months. You ask them several questions about their parenting habits, which of the following might be the problem? A) Their kids are growing. B) Their kids are talking too much before bed and becoming excited. C) Their kids are going to bed hungry. D) Their nighttime baths are too hot, elevating their body temperatures. E) Their kids are genetically predisposed to nightwaking. 18) Would SSRIs be useful therapies for schizophrenia? A) Yes, because they increase the availability of dopamine. B) Yes, because they increase the availability of acetylcholine. C) No, because they increase the availability of norepinephrine. D) No, because they increase the availability of enkephalin. E) No, because they increase the availability of serotonin. 19) Drugs that are used to treat depression increase the levels of this neurotransmitter in the brain. A) Glutamate B) Serotonin C) GABA D) Acetylcholine E) Dopamine
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20) Psychoactive drugs A) can be taken to relieve altered states of consciousness. B) can be taken to experience altered states of consciousness. C) may stimulate neuronal activity in the "reward" areas of the brain. D) All of the choices are correct. 21) Which of the following best explains how the phenomenon of "tolerance" develops with use of psychoactive drugs over time? A) Psychoactive drugs can alter blood flow to the brain. B) Psychoactive drugs often produce euphoria. C) Psychoactive drugs can cross the blood-brain barrier. D) Psychoactive drugs can inhibit production of endogenous neurotransmitters. E) Psychoactive drugs can up-regulate receptors for endogenous neurotransmitters. 22) Which of the following molecules might be used to relieve the symptoms of opiate withdrawal when opiate use is stopped? A) A drug that causes lower-than-normal secretion of neurotransmitter B) A drug that elevates mood C) A drug that acts as an antagonist to the same receptor as the original drug D) A drug that acts as an agonist of the opioid receptor E) All of the choices are correct 23) Of the following substances, which has the greatest potential to cause dependence if used regularly? A) Nicotine B) Marijuana C) Alcohol D) Cocaine E) Heroin 24) Selective attention is facilitated, enhanced, and improved by way of the of the brainstem, which acts as the origin point of neurons, which project to the cerebral cortex and release neurotransmitter(s). A) pons, acetylcholine B) basal nuclei, dopamine C) hypothalamus, serotonin D) locus ceruleus, norepinephrine E) thalamus, melatonin 25) Attention deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD) is a neurobehavioral problem that is primarily anatomically linked to which area of dysfunction in the brain? A) Basal nuclei B) Pituitary gland C) Prefrontal cerebral cortex D) Both basal nuclei and pituitary gland E) Both basal nuclei and prefrontal cerebral cortex 5 Copyright 2019 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.
26) A person with bilateral damage to the hippocampus will probably A) suffer from aphasia. B) develop symptoms of Parkinson's disease. C) suffer impairment of consolidation of declarative memory. D) have difficulty learning new physical skills. E) experience all of the choices. 27) Anterograde amnesia is associated with damage to all of the following structures of the brain, EXCEPT the A) thalamus. B) hypothalamus. C) limbic system. D) corpus callosum. E) hippocampus. 28) You have a new patient who describes having a lot of difficulty in being able to remember meeting new people. An MRI reveals damage to which structure? A) Thalamus B) Hippocampus C) Hypothalamus D) Corpus callosum E) Broca's area 29) Which of the following is an example of declarative memory? A) Recognition of a person's face and matching a name to it B) Remembering how to ride a bicycle C) Being able to recall a phone number for only a short period of time D) Being given a specific address and being able to recall it several days or weeks later E) Responding to the sight, smell, taste, or thought of one's favorite food with salivation and hunger pangs 30) When a person loses consciousness, working memory is interrupted and memories are abolished for all that happened for a variable period of time before the blow that caused unconsciousness. Why? A) The traumatic blow to the head caused a concussion through violent displacement of the brain in the skull. B) There was a deficiency of adequate blood flow to the brain. C) There was an interruption in the constant stream of neuron potentials to memory facilitation brain areas. D) Conflicting external interference prevents conversion of short-term to long-term memory. E) This is an area of neurological research that has not achieved any satisfying conclusions at the present time.
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31) You have a patient who, following a stroke, has impaired comprehension of language. The MRI is likely to reveal damage in which area? A) Wernicke's area B) Broca's area C) Limbic system D) Hypothalamus E) Damage to any of these areas could cause this symptom 32) Damage to the part of the brain known as Broca's area is likely to A) cause difficulty in recognizing faces. B) be associated with paralysis on the left side of the body. C) impair speech. D) Both "cause difficulty in recognizing faces" and "be associated with paralysis on the left side of the body" are correct. E) Both "be associated with paralysis on the left side of the body" and "impair speech" are correct. 33) Conceptual aphasia is a result of damage to A) the mouth and vocal cords. B) the cerebellum. C) Broca's area. D) Wernicke's area. E) the primary visual cortex. 34) Which of the following statements regarding higher brain functions is true? A) A person with damage only to Broca's area of the brain will understand spoken or written speech but will have difficulty speaking. B) A person with damage only to Wernicke's area of the brain will have motor aphasia. C) A person with damage only to Wernicke's area of the brain will lose the ability to recognize faces. D) Both "a person with damage only to Broca's area of the brain will understand spoken or written speech but will have difficulty speaking" and "a person with damage only to Wernicke's area of the brain will have motor aphasia" are true. E) Both "a person with damage only to Broca's area of the brain will understand spoken or written speech but will have difficulty speaking" and "a person with damage only to Wernicke's area of the brain will lose the ability to recognize faces" are true.
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35) The most nearly correct sequence of activation of brain areas when one responds in writing to a verbal command is A) primary auditory cortex; Wernicke's area; Broca's area; supplementary motor cortex; primary motor cortex. B) primary auditory cortex; Broca's area; supplementary motor cortex; Wernicke's area; primary motor cortex. C) primary auditory cortex; Broca's area; Wernicke's area; supplementary motor cortex; primary motor cortex. D) primary auditory cortex; Broca's area; Wernicke's area; primary motor cortex; supplementary motor cortex. E) primary auditory cortex; Wernicke's area; Broca's area; primary motor cortex; supplementary motor cortex. 36) An EEG with waves of high amplitude and low frequency is descriptive of or occurs during A) slow-wave sleep. B) paradoxical sleep. C) both slow-wave sleep and paradoxical sleep. D) neither slow-wave sleep nor paradoxical sleep. 37) Rapid eye movement is descriptive of or occurs during A) slow-wave sleep. B) paradoxical sleep. C) both slow-wave sleep and paradoxical sleep. D) neither slow-wave sleep nor paradoxical sleep. 38) Alpha EEG rhythm is descriptive of or occurs during A) slow-wave sleep. B) paradoxical sleep. C) both slow-wave sleep and paradoxical sleep. D) neither slow-wave sleep nor paradoxical sleep. 39) Absence of postural muscle tone is descriptive of or occurs during A) slow-wave sleep. B) paradoxical sleep. C) both slow-wave sleep and paradoxical sleep. D) neither slow-wave sleep nor paradoxical sleep. 40) Pulsate secretion of growth hormone is descriptive of or occurs during A) slow-wave sleep. B) paradoxical sleep. C) both slow-wave sleep and paradoxical sleep. D) neither slow-wave sleep nor paradoxical sleep.
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41) Dreaming is descriptive of or occurs during A) slow-wave sleep. B) paradoxical sleep. C) both slow-wave sleep and paradoxical sleep. D) neither slow-wave sleep nor paradoxical sleep. 42) You can tell a person is in a coma and not just asleep if you see high-amplitude, spike-wave EEG pattern. 43) The EEG tracing of a relaxed individual who has closed eyes and is not concentrating on anything in particular is mainly an alpha rhythm. 44) EEG arousal is the recording of brain activity of someone who has just been awakened from sleep. 45) Dreaming occurs when one is in NREM sleep. 46) Sleep-wake cycles are produced by interactions of nuclei in the brainstem. 47) In pardoxical sleep an individual is easily aroused from a deep sleep, although the EEG pattern that is observed is consistent with that of an individual in NREM sleep. 48) Sleep deprivation is an effective method of torture because it will not affect memory retention or retrieval. 49) Lack of an adequate amount of sleep at its worst can cause death, as well as serious memory retention and learning difficulties. 50) A progressive decrease in an orienting response to a repeated stimulus is called adaptation. 51) A brainstem nucleus that is strongly implicated in the mechanism for selective attention is the locus ceruleus. 52) Primary motivated behavior is behavior that is based on changes or anticipated changes in the internal environment. 53) A drug that blocks dopamine receptors is likely to be addictive. 54) A drug manufacturer has created a new drug called "actonin" that acts as an antagonist to the adenosine receptor. This drug, like caffeine, will eliminate or reduce feelings of fatigue. 55) Administration of chlorpromazine to a rat that has an electrode implanted in the lateral hypothalamus will cause an increase in rate of the rat's self-stimulation. 56) Neurotransmitters involved in the reward pathways include enkephalin, dopamine, and epinephrine. 9 Copyright 2019 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.
57) The mood disorders are primarily disturbances of thought processes. 58) All of the psychogenic drugs that induce drug dependence act on the same neuronal system. 59) Tolerance to drugs that are neurotransmitter agonists is thought to involve increased release of the neurotransmitter in response to the drug. 60) Both short- and long-term memory are seated in and associated with the same specific functional regions of the brain. 61) Persons suffering from anterograde amnesia continually have short-lived, rapidly changing perceptions of events that they have only imagined, but then cannot recall them later as a consequence of an inability to translate these "false memories" from short-term to long-term memory. 62) Working memory is easy to change and can be lost in response to any condition that interrupts electrical activity of the brain. 63) Learning is generally facilitated if the material to be learned is emotionally neutral. 64) Retrograde amnesia is the loss of memory for all events that happened before a serious brain trauma such as a blow to the head. 65) Memory consolidation probably occurs via an increase in the effectiveness of existing synapses and also via formation of new ones. 66) Retrograde amnesia associated with a traumatic head injury can be directly related to the loss of memories considered as both short term and long term, including any events immediately related to the trauma. 67) An electroencephalogram A) is a record of action potentials in the brain. B) records the potential difference between two points on the scalp's surface. C) is a pattern of complex waves with amplitudes similar to those of action potentials. 68) Which of the following statements about sleep is correct? A) Sleep typically occurs in stages in which a subject goes through progressively deeper stages of sleep and then awakens. B) Sleep typically occurs in cycles in which a subject will cycle through various stages of slowwave sleep punctuated by paradoxical sleep several times during one bout of sleep. C) During REM sleep, blood pressure and breathing rate become elevated. D) Sleep involves a lack of neurological activity. E) All muscles are relaxed during all phases of sleep.
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69) In sleep apnea A) a person with the disorder experiences symptoms of sleep deprivation. B) periodic bouts of respiratory failure are experienced throughout the night. C) gamma waves are predominate. D) seriously low blood O2 levels can result. E) no dreaming occurs. 70) Habituation to a stimulus A) is due to receptor fatigue. B) is a result of decreased neurotransmitter release secondary to decreased calcium influx at synaptic terminals. C) can be overcome by a stronger stimulus of the same type. D) is permanent. E) is due to denaturation of the receptor. 71) Regarding its role as a neurotransmitter in the CNS, norepinephrine A) is secreted by brainstem neurons in response to sensory stimulation. B) amplifies weak sensory signals and dampens strong ones so that more information can reach conscious levels. C) is important for maintaining directed attention. D) is completely absent from the CNS, it is only used in the PNS. E) is only important for processing visual stimuli. 72) Bipolar disorders A) involve both mania and depression. B) are most effectively treated with drugs that increase availability of dopamine. C) are an exaggeration of normal changes in mood. D) involve hearing voices and other delusions. E) are caused by excessive production of dopamine.
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Vander's Human Physiology, 15e (Widmaier) Chapter 8 Consciousness, the Brain, and Behavior 1) It is believed that the rhythmic patterns of the EEG most likely originate from this structure in the brain. A) Hypothalamus B) Cerebral cortex C) Basal ganglia D) Cerebellum E) Hippocampus Answer: B Section: 08.01 Topic: Division, origin, and function of parts of the brain Bloom's: Level 2. Understand HAPS Topic: Module H07 Division, origin, and function of component parts of the brain. HAPS Outcome: H07.02 Correlate functions with each major area of the adult brain. 2) The alpha rhythm is the most prominent EEG pattern when an adult is A) in REM sleep. B) in non-REM sleep. C) awake and relaxed with eyes open. D) awake and thinking hard about something. Answer: C Section: 08.01 Topic: Clinical applications of the nervous system Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module H15 Application of homeostatic mechanisms. HAPS Outcome: H15.02 Explain how the nervous system relates to other body systems to maintain homeostasis. 3) If you were to record your own EEG activity while concentrating very hard on this exam, the most prominent EEG pattern would be A) alpha rhythm. B) beta rhythm. C) delta rhythm. D) theta rhythm. Answer: B Section: 08.01 Topic: Clinical applications of the nervous system Bloom's: Level 3. Apply HAPS Topic: Module H15 Application of homeostatic mechanisms. HAPS Outcome: H15.02 Explain how the nervous system relates to other body systems to maintain homeostasis. 1 Copyright 2019 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.
4) Your alarm pulls you from sleep while you were in the middle of a vivid dream. You were most likely A) in NREM sleep. B) in REM sleep. C) exhibiting beta wave activity. D) exhibiting gamma wave activity. E) All of the answer choices are correct. Answer: B Section: 08.01 Topic: Clinical applications of the nervous system Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module H15 Application of homeostatic mechanisms. HAPS Outcome: H15.02 Explain how the nervous system relates to other body systems to maintain homeostasis. 5) During paradoxical sleep A) brain neurotransmitter activity in the pathways regulating states of consciousness is similar to that in the awake state. B) brain oxygen consumption is lower than when awake. C) skeletal muscle tension is dramatically increased. D) the person is easily aroused. E) All of the choices are correct. Answer: A Section: 08.01 Topic: Clinical applications of the nervous system Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module H15 Application of homeostatic mechanisms. HAPS Outcome: H15.02 Explain how the nervous system relates to other body systems to maintain homeostasis.
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6) You are a sleep lab technician and are sorting through the records obtained the previous night. You found that at 1:20 a.m. EEG tracings showed low amplitude, high-frequency activity, and subject had very low muscle tone. Which of the following is likely? A) The subject was easily awakened and did not report dreaming. B) She was difficult to awaken and did not report dreaming. C) Once she was awake she reported dreaming. D) She was already awake at 1:20am. Answer: C Section: 08.01 Topic: Clinical applications of the nervous system Bloom's: Level 3. Apply HAPS Topic: Module H15 Application of homeostatic mechanisms. HAPS Outcome: H15.02 Explain how the nervous system relates to other body systems to maintain homeostasis. 7) Which of the descriptions is not descriptive of REM (rapid eye movement) sleep? A) Visible movements of the eyes resembling those of one tracking the movements of objects in space, watching TV, and so on B) Difficulty arousing the sleeper C) Oxygen consumption decreases by comparison to NREM sleep and in an alert wakeful state. D) It represents 20–25% of a person's "sleeptime." E) Skeletal muscle activity is markedly reduced, except for the extraocular and respiratory muscles. Answer: C Section: 08.01 Topic: Clinical applications of the nervous system Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module H15 Application of homeostatic mechanisms. HAPS Outcome: H15.02 Explain how the nervous system relates to other body systems to maintain homeostasis.
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8) You are the technician running the fMRI (functional magentic resonance imaging) machine today. You have had a patient in the machine for quite a while when you notice a sudden change in electrical activity within the RAS. What might be happening? A) She is thinking about food. B) She fell asleep. C) She is moving. D) She is talking. E) She has opened her eyes and is taking in visual information. Answer: E Section: 08.01 Topic: Division, origin, and function of parts of the brain Bloom's: Level 3. Apply HAPS Topic: Module H07 Division, origin, and function of component parts of the brain. HAPS Outcome: H07.02 Correlate functions with each major area of the adult brain.; H07.09 Describe the location and functions of the reticular activating system. 9) You have a patient who, after undergoing treatment for a brain disease, has a high amount of protein fragments and waste products in his CSF. To aid in clearance, which might you recommend? A) A drug that increases heart rate B) Sleep C) Hanging upside down D) Ingestion of acidic foods E) None of the answer choices are correct. Answer: B Section: 08.01 Topic: Protective roles of cranial bones, meninges, and cerebrospinal fluid Bloom's: Level 3. Apply HAPS Topic: Module H08 Protective roles of the cranial bones, meninges, and cerebrospinal fluid. HAPS Outcome: H08.03 Describe the functions of cerebrospinal fluid, as well as the details of its production, its circulation within the central nervous system, and its ultimate reabsorption into the bloodstream.
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10) A laboratory rat has an electrode implanted in its brain. By pressing a metal bar in its cage, the animal can activate the electrode. You are analyzing the data from the most recent experiment day and find that the rat pressed the bar over and over again. The rat did not even eat during the experimental period because it was too busy pressing the bar. In which location is the electrode likely to be implanted? A) Frontal lobe B) Mesolimbic system C) Hypothalamus D) Occipital lobe E) All of the choices are possible locations of the electrode. Answer: B Section: 08.03 Topic: Division, origin, and function of parts of the brain Bloom's: Level 3. Apply HAPS Topic: Module H07 Division, origin, and function of component parts of the brain HAPS Outcome: H07.07 Describe the location and functions of the limbic system. 11) Which of the following statements regarding the brain areas that direct emotion is not true? A) The hypothalamus is the site of the conscious feeling of emotion. B) The hypothalamus integrates emotional behaviors. C) The limbic system delivers information about emotion from the cerebral cortex to the hypothalamus. D) The cerebral cortex is responsible for control over emotions. E) None of the choices are true. Answer: A Section: 08.03 Topic: Division, origin, and function of parts of the brain Bloom's: Level 2. Understand HAPS Topic: Module H07 Division, origin, and function of component parts of the brain HAPS Outcome: H07.02 Correlate functions with each major area of the adult brain.
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12) During a routine brain scan it is discovered that Nick has a larger than average amygdala. How might Nick's family describe Nick? A) Fearful B) Confident C) Jovial D) Always relaxed, easy going E) Hilarious Answer: A Section: 08.03 Topic: Division, origin, and function of parts of the brain Bloom's: Level 3. Apply HAPS Topic: Module H07 Division, origin, and function of component parts of the brain. HAPS Outcome: H07.02 Correlate functions with each major area of the adult brain. 13) You are a veterinarian and a dog is brought in that has experienced a BB gun shot to the brain. The brain scan reveals damage to the septum of the limbic system. You need to explain this injury to the owners. Which of the following is true? A) The septum is required for the expression of rage, with a damaged septum, this dog will always be docile and never aggressive. B) In a normal animal, the septum inhibits the amygdala. Without it, the dog will always be fearful and vicious. C) The septum of the limbic system is required for memory formation. The dog will be forever forgetful D) The septum of the limbic system is required for regulation of appetite. Without it, the dog may overeat. E) The septum of the limbic system is required to express affection, without it, the dog may be less affectionate. Answer: B Section: 08.03 Topic: Division, origin, and function of parts of the brain Bloom's: Level 3. Apply HAPS Topic: Module H07 Division, origin, and function of component parts of the brain. HAPS Outcome: H07.07 Describe the location and functions of the limbic system.
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14) You are a veterinarian and a dog is brought in that has experienced a BB gun shot to the brain. The brain scan reveals damage to the amygdala. You need to explain this injury to the owners. Which of the following is true? A) The amygdala is required for the expression of affection. B) In a normal animal, the amygdala is involved in expression of fear and rage. Without it, the dog may be docile at all times. C) The amygdala is required for memory formation. The dog will be forever forgetful. D) The amygdala is required for regulation of appetite. Without it, the dog may overeat. E) The amygdala is required to express affection, without it, the dog may be less affectionate. Answer: B Section: 08.03 Topic: Division, origin, and function of parts of the brain Bloom's: Level 3. Apply HAPS Topic: Module H07 Division, origin, and function of component parts of the brain. HAPS Outcome: H07.07 Describe the location and functions of the limbic system. 15) Regarding schizophrenia, A) it is a family of mental disorders that involves disturbances of thinking, perceiving, and control of motor activity. B) its symptoms can include paranoid delusions and hallucinations. C) it probably has a hereditary component. D) both "it is a family of mental disorders that involves disturbances of thinking, perceiving, and control of motor activity" and "its symptoms can include paranoid delusions and hallucinations" are correct. E) All of the choices are correct. Answer: E Section: 08.04 Topic: Clinical applications of the nervous system Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module H16 Predictions related to homeostatic imbalance, including disease states and disorders. HAPS Outcome: H16.02 Predict the types of problems that would occur in the body if the nervous system could not maintain homeostasis.
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16) Regarding schizophrenia, A) people with schizophrenia frequently have disorders of sensory awareness. B) treatment of schizophrenia may result in symptoms of Parkinson's disease. C) lithium carbonate is the most common drug prescribed for schizophrenia. D) both "people with schizophrenia frequently have disorders of sensory awareness" and "treatment of schizophrenia may result in symptoms of Parkinson's disease" are correct. E) both "treatment of schizophrenia may result in symptoms of Parkinson's disease" and "lithium carbonate is the most common drug prescribed for schizophrenia" are correct. Answer: D Section: 08.04 Topic: Clinical applications of the nervous system Bloom's: Level 3. Apply HAPS Topic: Module H16 Predictions related to homeostatic imbalance, including disease states and disorders. HAPS Outcome: H16.02 Predict the types of problems that would occur in the body if the nervous system could not maintain homeostasis. 17) You are counseling a pair of tired parents. All three of their children have been waking in the night frequently for the past few months. You ask them several questions about their parenting habits, which of the following might be the problem? A) Their kids are growing. B) Their kids are talking too much before bed and becoming excited. C) Their kids are going to bed hungry. D) Their nighttime baths are too hot, elevating their body temperatures. E) Their kids are genetically predisposed to nightwaking. Answer: C Section: 08.01 Topic: Clinical applications of the nervous system Bloom's: Level 3. Apply HAPS Topic: Module H16 Predictions related to homeostatic imbalance, including disease states and disorders. HAPS Outcome: H16.01 Predict factors or situations affecting the nervous system that could disrupt homeostasis.
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18) Would SSRIs be useful therapies for schizophrenia? A) Yes, because they increase the availability of dopamine. B) Yes, because they increase the availability of acetylcholine. C) No, because they increase the availability of norepinephrine. D) No, because they increase the availability of enkephalin. E) No, because they increase the availability of serotonin. Answer: E Section: 08.04 Topic: Clinical applications of the nervous system Bloom's: Level 3. Apply HAPS Topic: Module H16 Predictions related to homeostatic imbalance, including disease states and disorders. HAPS Outcome: H16.02 Predict the types of problems that would occur in the body if the nervous system could not maintain homeostasis. 19) Drugs that are used to treat depression increase the levels of this neurotransmitter in the brain. A) Glutamate B) Serotonin C) GABA D) Acetylcholine E) Dopamine Answer: B Section: 08.04 Topic: Clinical applications of the nervous system Bloom's: Level 2. Understand HAPS Topic: Module H05 Neurotransmitters and their roles in synaptic transmission.; Module H16 Predictions related to homeostatic imbalance, including disease states and disorders. HAPS Outcome: H16.02 Predict the types of problems that would occur in the body if the nervous system could not maintain homeostasis.; H05.14 Describe the mechanism by which neurotransmitters may have indirect (metabotropic) effects on postsynaptic cells.
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20) Psychoactive drugs A) can be taken to relieve altered states of consciousness. B) can be taken to experience altered states of consciousness. C) may stimulate neuronal activity in the "reward" areas of the brain. D) All of the choices are correct. Answer: D Section: 08.04 Topic: Clinical applications of the nervous system Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module H16 Predictions related to homeostatic imbalance, including disease states and disorders. HAPS Outcome: H16.01 Predict factors or situations affecting the nervous system that could disrupt homeostasis. 21) Which of the following best explains how the phenomenon of "tolerance" develops with use of psychoactive drugs over time? A) Psychoactive drugs can alter blood flow to the brain. B) Psychoactive drugs often produce euphoria. C) Psychoactive drugs can cross the blood-brain barrier. D) Psychoactive drugs can inhibit production of endogenous neurotransmitters. E) Psychoactive drugs can up-regulate receptors for endogenous neurotransmitters. Answer: D Section: 08.04 Topic: Clinical applications of the nervous system Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module H16 Predictions related to homeostatic imbalance, including disease states and disorders. HAPS Outcome: H16.01 Predict factors or situations affecting the nervous system that could disrupt homeostasis.
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22) Which of the following molecules might be used to relieve the symptoms of opiate withdrawal when opiate use is stopped? A) A drug that causes lower-than-normal secretion of neurotransmitter B) A drug that elevates mood C) A drug that acts as an antagonist to the same receptor as the original drug D) A drug that acts as an agonist of the opioid receptor E) All of the choices are correct Answer: D Section: 08.04 Topic: Clinical applications of the nervous system Bloom's: Level 3. Apply HAPS Topic: Module H16 Predictions related to homeostatic imbalance, including disease states and disorders. HAPS Outcome: H16.01 Predict factors or situations affecting the nervous system that could disrupt homeostasis. 23) Of the following substances, which has the greatest potential to cause dependence if used regularly? A) Nicotine B) Marijuana C) Alcohol D) Cocaine E) Heroin Answer: A Section: 08.04 Topic: Clinical applications of the nervous system Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module H16 Predictions related to homeostatic imbalance, including disease states and disorders. HAPS Outcome: H16.01 Predict factors or situations affecting the nervous system that could disrupt homeostasis.
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24) Selective attention is facilitated, enhanced, and improved by way of the of the brainstem, which acts as the origin point of neurons, which project to the cerebral cortex and release neurotransmitter(s). A) pons, acetylcholine B) basal nuclei, dopamine C) hypothalamus, serotonin D) locus ceruleus, norepinephrine E) thalamus, melatonin Answer: D Section: 08.02 Topic: Division, origin, and function of parts of the brain Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module H07 Division, origin, and function of component parts of the brain. HAPS Outcome: H07.02 Correlate functions with each major area of the adult brain.; H05.15 List the most common excitatory neurotransmitter(s) in the CNS and the most common inhibitory neurotransmitter(s) in the CNS. 25) Attention deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD) is a neurobehavioral problem that is primarily anatomically linked to which area of dysfunction in the brain? A) Basal nuclei B) Pituitary gland C) Prefrontal cerebral cortex D) Both basal nuclei and pituitary gland E) Both basal nuclei and prefrontal cerebral cortex Answer: E Section: 08.05 Topic: Clinical applications of the nervous system Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module H07 Division, origin, and function of component parts of the brain. HAPS Outcome: H07.08 Describe the parts of the brain involved in storage of long term memory and discuss possible mechanisms of memory consolidation.
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26) A person with bilateral damage to the hippocampus will probably A) suffer from aphasia. B) develop symptoms of Parkinson's disease. C) suffer impairment of consolidation of declarative memory. D) have difficulty learning new physical skills. E) experience all of the choices. Answer: C Section: 08.05 Topic: Division, origin, and function of parts of the brain Bloom's: Level 3. Apply HAPS Topic: Module H07 Division, origin, and function of component parts of the brain. HAPS Outcome: H07.02 Correlate functions with each major area of the adult brain.; H07.07 Describe the location and functions of the limbic system. 27) Anterograde amnesia is associated with damage to all of the following structures of the brain, EXCEPT the A) thalamus. B) hypothalamus. C) limbic system. D) corpus callosum. E) hippocampus. Answer: D Section: 08.05 Topic: Division, origin, and function of parts of the brain; Clinical applications of the nervous system Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module H07 Division, origin, and function of component parts of the brain. HAPS Outcome: H07.08 Describe the parts of the brain involved in storage of long term memory and discuss possible mechanisms of memory consolidation.; H07.07 Describe the location and functions of the limbic system.
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28) You have a new patient who describes having a lot of difficulty in being able to remember meeting new people. An MRI reveals damage to which structure? A) Thalamus B) Hippocampus C) Hypothalamus D) Corpus callosum E) Broca's area Answer: B Section: 08.05 Topic: Clinical applications of the nervous system Bloom's: Level 3. Apply HAPS Topic: Module H07 Division, origin, and function of component parts of the brain. HAPS Outcome: H07.08 Describe the parts of the brain involved in storage of long term memory and discuss possible mechanisms of memory consolidation.; H07.07 Describe the location and functions of the limbic system. 29) Which of the following is an example of declarative memory? A) Recognition of a person's face and matching a name to it B) Remembering how to ride a bicycle C) Being able to recall a phone number for only a short period of time D) Being given a specific address and being able to recall it several days or weeks later E) Responding to the sight, smell, taste, or thought of one's favorite food with salivation and hunger pangs Answer: A Section: 08.05 Topic: Division, origin, and function of parts of the brain Bloom's: Level 2. Understand HAPS Topic: Module H07 Division, origin, and function of component parts of the brain. HAPS Outcome: H07.08 Describe the parts of the brain involved in storage of long term memory and discuss possible mechanisms of memory consolidation.
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30) When a person loses consciousness, working memory is interrupted and memories are abolished for all that happened for a variable period of time before the blow that caused unconsciousness. Why? A) The traumatic blow to the head caused a concussion through violent displacement of the brain in the skull. B) There was a deficiency of adequate blood flow to the brain. C) There was an interruption in the constant stream of neuron potentials to memory facilitation brain areas. D) Conflicting external interference prevents conversion of short-term to long-term memory. E) This is an area of neurological research that has not achieved any satisfying conclusions at the present time. Answer: C Section: 08.05 Topic: Clinical applications of the nervous system Bloom's: Level 2. Understand HAPS Topic: Module H16 Predictions related to homeostatic imbalance, including disease states and disorders. HAPS Outcome: H16.01 Predict factors or situations affecting the nervous system that could disrupt homeostasis. 31) You have a patient who, following a stroke, has impaired comprehension of language. The MRI is likely to reveal damage in which area? A) Wernicke's area B) Broca's area C) Limbic system D) Hypothalamus E) Damage to any of these areas could cause this symptom Answer: A Section: 08.06 Topic: Division, origin, and function of parts of the brain; Clinical applications of the nervous system Bloom's: Level 3. Apply HAPS Topic: Module H07 Division, origin, and function of component parts of the brain. HAPS Outcome: H07.02 Correlate functions with each major area of the adult brain.
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32) Damage to the part of the brain known as Broca's area is likely to A) cause difficulty in recognizing faces. B) be associated with paralysis on the left side of the body. C) impair speech. D) Both "cause difficulty in recognizing faces" and "be associated with paralysis on the left side of the body" are correct. E) Both "be associated with paralysis on the left side of the body" and "impair speech" are correct. Answer: C Section: 08.06 Topic: Division, origin, and function of parts of the brain; Clinical applications of the nervous system Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module H07 Division, origin, and function of component parts of the brain. HAPS Outcome: H07.02 Correlate functions with each major area of the adult brain. 33) Conceptual aphasia is a result of damage to A) the mouth and vocal cords. B) the cerebellum. C) Broca's area. D) Wernicke's area. E) the primary visual cortex. Answer: D Section: 08.06 Topic: Division, origin, and function of parts of the brain; Clinical applications of the nervous system Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module H07 Division, origin, and function of component parts of the brain. HAPS Outcome: H07.02 Correlate functions with each major area of the adult brain.
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34) Which of the following statements regarding higher brain functions is true? A) A person with damage only to Broca's area of the brain will understand spoken or written speech but will have difficulty speaking. B) A person with damage only to Wernicke's area of the brain will have motor aphasia. C) A person with damage only to Wernicke's area of the brain will lose the ability to recognize faces. D) Both "a person with damage only to Broca's area of the brain will understand spoken or written speech but will have difficulty speaking" and "a person with damage only to Wernicke's area of the brain will have motor aphasia" are true. E) Both "a person with damage only to Broca's area of the brain will understand spoken or written speech but will have difficulty speaking" and "a person with damage only to Wernicke's area of the brain will lose the ability to recognize faces" are true. Answer: A Section: 08.06 Topic: Division, origin, and function of parts of the brain; Clinical applications of the nervous system Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module H07 Division, origin, and function of component parts of the brain. HAPS Outcome: H07.02 Correlate functions with each major area of the adult brain. 35) The most nearly correct sequence of activation of brain areas when one responds in writing to a verbal command is A) primary auditory cortex; Wernicke's area; Broca's area; supplementary motor cortex; primary motor cortex. B) primary auditory cortex; Broca's area; supplementary motor cortex; Wernicke's area; primary motor cortex. C) primary auditory cortex; Broca's area; Wernicke's area; supplementary motor cortex; primary motor cortex. D) primary auditory cortex; Broca's area; Wernicke's area; primary motor cortex; supplementary motor cortex. E) primary auditory cortex; Wernicke's area; Broca's area; primary motor cortex; supplementary motor cortex. Answer: A Section: 08.06 Topic: Division, origin, and function of parts of the brain Bloom's: Level 3. Apply HAPS Topic: Module H07 Division, origin, and function of component parts of the brain. HAPS Outcome: H07.02 Correlate functions with each major area of the adult brain.
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36) An EEG with waves of high amplitude and low frequency is descriptive of or occurs during A) slow-wave sleep. B) paradoxical sleep. C) both slow-wave sleep and paradoxical sleep. D) neither slow-wave sleep nor paradoxical sleep. Answer: A Section: 08.01 Topic: Clinical applications of the nervous system Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module H15 Application of homeostatic mechanisms. HAPS Outcome: H15.02 Explain how the nervous system relates to other body systems to maintain homeostasis. 37) Rapid eye movement is descriptive of or occurs during A) slow-wave sleep. B) paradoxical sleep. C) both slow-wave sleep and paradoxical sleep. D) neither slow-wave sleep nor paradoxical sleep. Answer: B Section: 08.01 Topic: Clinical applications of the nervous system Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module H15 Application of homeostatic mechanisms. HAPS Outcome: H15.02 Explain how the nervous system relates to other body systems to maintain homeostasis. 38) Alpha EEG rhythm is descriptive of or occurs during A) slow-wave sleep. B) paradoxical sleep. C) both slow-wave sleep and paradoxical sleep. D) neither slow-wave sleep nor paradoxical sleep. Answer: D Section: 08.01 Topic: Clinical applications of the nervous system Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module H15 Application of homeostatic mechanisms. HAPS Outcome: H15.02 Explain how the nervous system relates to other body systems to maintain homeostasis.
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39) Absence of postural muscle tone is descriptive of or occurs during A) slow-wave sleep. B) paradoxical sleep. C) both slow-wave sleep and paradoxical sleep. D) neither slow-wave sleep nor paradoxical sleep. Answer: B Section: 08.01 Topic: Clinical applications of the nervous system Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module H15 Application of homeostatic mechanisms. HAPS Outcome: H15.02 Explain how the nervous system relates to other body systems to maintain homeostasis. 40) Pulsate secretion of growth hormone is descriptive of or occurs during A) slow-wave sleep. B) paradoxical sleep. C) both slow-wave sleep and paradoxical sleep. D) neither slow-wave sleep nor paradoxical sleep. Answer: A Section: 08.01 Topic: Clinical applications of the nervous system Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module H15 Application of homeostatic mechanisms. HAPS Outcome: H15.02 Explain how the nervous system relates to other body systems to maintain homeostasis. 41) Dreaming is descriptive of or occurs during A) slow-wave sleep. B) paradoxical sleep. C) both slow-wave sleep and paradoxical sleep. D) neither slow-wave sleep nor paradoxical sleep. Answer: B Section: 08.01 Topic: Clinical applications of the nervous system Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module H15 Application of homeostatic mechanisms. HAPS Outcome: H15.02 Explain how the nervous system relates to other body systems to maintain homeostasis.
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42) You can tell a person is in a coma and not just asleep if you see high-amplitude, spike-wave EEG pattern. Answer: FALSE Section: 08.01 Topic: Clinical applications of the nervous system Bloom's: Level 3. Apply HAPS Topic: Module H16 Predictions related to homeostatic imbalance, including disease states and disorders. HAPS Outcome: H16.01 Predict factors or situations affecting the nervous system that could disrupt homeostasis. 43) The EEG tracing of a relaxed individual who has closed eyes and is not concentrating on anything in particular is mainly an alpha rhythm. Answer: TRUE Section: 08.01 Topic: Clinical applications of the nervous system Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module H15 Application of homeostatic mechanisms. HAPS Outcome: H15.02 Explain how the nervous system relates to other body systems to maintain homeostasis. 44) EEG arousal is the recording of brain activity of someone who has just been awakened from sleep. Answer: FALSE Section: 08.01 Topic: Clinical applications of the nervous system Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module H15 Application of homeostatic mechanisms. HAPS Outcome: H15.02 Explain how the nervous system relates to other body systems to maintain homeostasis. 45) Dreaming occurs when one is in NREM sleep. Answer: FALSE Section: 08.01 Topic: Clinical applications of the nervous system Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module H15 Application of homeostatic mechanisms. HAPS Outcome: H15.02 Explain how the nervous system relates to other body systems to maintain homeostasis.
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46) Sleep-wake cycles are produced by interactions of nuclei in the brainstem. Answer: TRUE Section: 08.01 Topic: Division, origin, and function of parts of the brain Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module H07 Division, origin, and function of component parts of the brain. HAPS Outcome: H07.02 Correlate functions with each major area of the adult brain. 47) In pardoxical sleep an individual is easily aroused from a deep sleep, although the EEG pattern that is observed is consistent with that of an individual in NREM sleep. Answer: FALSE Section: 08.01 Topic: Clinical applications of the nervous system Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module H15 Application of homeostatic mechanisms. HAPS Outcome: H15.02 Explain how the nervous system relates to other body systems to maintain homeostasis. 48) Sleep deprivation is an effective method of torture because it will not affect memory retention or retrieval. Answer: FALSE Section: 08.01 Topic: Clinical applications of the nervous system Bloom's: Level 3. Apply HAPS Topic: Module H16 Predictions related to homeostatic imbalance, including disease states and disorders. HAPS Outcome: H16.01 Predict factors or situations affecting the nervous system that could disrupt homeostasis. 49) Lack of an adequate amount of sleep at its worst can cause death, as well as serious memory retention and learning difficulties. Answer: TRUE Section: 08.01 Topic: Clinical applications of the nervous system Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module H16 Predictions related to homeostatic imbalance, including disease states and disorders. HAPS Outcome: H16.01 Predict factors or situations affecting the nervous system that could disrupt homeostasis.
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50) A progressive decrease in an orienting response to a repeated stimulus is called adaptation. Answer: FALSE Section: 08.02 Topic: Clinical applications of the nervous system Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module H16 Predictions related to homeostatic imbalance, including disease states and disorders. HAPS Outcome: H16.01 Predict factors or situations affecting the nervous system that could disrupt homeostasis. 51) A brainstem nucleus that is strongly implicated in the mechanism for selective attention is the locus ceruleus. Answer: TRUE Section: 08.02 Topic: Division, origin, and function of parts of the brain Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module H07 Division, origin, and function of component parts of the brain. HAPS Outcome: H07.02 Correlate functions with each major area of the adult brain. 52) Primary motivated behavior is behavior that is based on changes or anticipated changes in the internal environment. Answer: TRUE Section: 08.03 Topic: Clinical applications of the nervous system Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module H15 Application of homeostatic mechanisms. HAPS Outcome: H15.02 Explain how the nervous system relates to other body systems to maintain homeostasis. 53) A drug that blocks dopamine receptors is likely to be addictive. Answer: FALSE Section: 08.03 Topic: Neurotransmitters and their roles in synaptic transmission Bloom's: Level 3. Apply HAPS Topic: Module H05 Neurotransmitters and their roles in synaptic transmission. HAPS Outcome: H05.05 Discuss the relationship between a neurotransmitter and its receptor.
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54) A drug manufacturer has created a new drug called "actonin" that acts as an antagonist to the adenosine receptor. This drug, like caffeine, will eliminate or reduce feelings of fatigue. Answer: TRUE Section: 08.03 Topic: Neurotransmitters and their roles in synaptic transmission Bloom's: Level 3. Apply HAPS Topic: Module H05 Neurotransmitters and their roles in synaptic transmission. HAPS Outcome: H05.05 Discuss the relationship between a neurotransmitter and its receptor. 55) Administration of chlorpromazine to a rat that has an electrode implanted in the lateral hypothalamus will cause an increase in rate of the rat's self-stimulation. Answer: FALSE Section: 08.03 Topic: Clinical applications of the nervous system Bloom's: Level 2. Understand HAPS Topic: Module H16 Predictions related to homeostatic imbalance, including disease states and disorders. HAPS Outcome: H16.01 Predict factors or situations affecting the nervous system that could disrupt homeostasis. 56) Neurotransmitters involved in the reward pathways include enkephalin, dopamine, and epinephrine. Answer: FALSE Section: 08.03 Topic: Neurotransmitters and their roles in synaptic transmission Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module H05 Neurotransmitters and their roles in synaptic transmission. HAPS Outcome: H05.15 List the most common excitatory neurotransmitter(s) in the CNS and the most common inhibitory neurotransmitter(s) in the CNS. 57) The mood disorders are primarily disturbances of thought processes. Answer: FALSE Section: 08.04 Topic: Clinical applications of the nervous system Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module H16 Predictions related to homeostatic imbalance, including disease states and disorders. HAPS Outcome: H16.01 Predict factors or situations affecting the nervous system that could disrupt homeostasis.
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58) All of the psychogenic drugs that induce drug dependence act on the same neuronal system. Answer: FALSE Section: 08.04 Topic: Division, origin, and function of parts of the brain Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module H07 Division, origin, and function of component parts of the brain. HAPS Outcome: H07.02 Correlate functions with each major area of the adult brain. 59) Tolerance to drugs that are neurotransmitter agonists is thought to involve increased release of the neurotransmitter in response to the drug. Answer: FALSE Section: 08.04 Topic: Clinical applications of the nervous system Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module H16 Predictions related to homeostatic imbalance, including disease states and disorders. HAPS Outcome: H16.01 Predict factors or situations affecting the nervous system that could disrupt homeostasis. 60) Both short- and long-term memory are seated in and associated with the same specific functional regions of the brain. Answer: FALSE Section: 08.05 Topic: Division, origin, and function of parts of the brain Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module H07 Division, origin, and function of component parts of the brain. HAPS Outcome: H07.08 Describe the parts of the brain involved in storage of long term memory and discuss possible mechanisms of memory consolidation. 61) Persons suffering from anterograde amnesia continually have short-lived, rapidly changing perceptions of events that they have only imagined, but then cannot recall them later as a consequence of an inability to translate these "false memories" from short-term to long-term memory. Answer: FALSE Section: 08.05 Topic: Clinical applications of the nervous system Bloom's: Level 2. Understand HAPS Topic: Module H07 Division, origin, and function of component parts of the brain. HAPS Outcome: H07.08 Describe the parts of the brain involved in storage of long term memory and discuss possible mechanisms of memory consolidation.
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62) Working memory is easy to change and can be lost in response to any condition that interrupts electrical activity of the brain. Answer: TRUE Section: 08.05 Topic: Clinical applications of the nervous system Bloom's: Level 2. Understand HAPS Topic: Module H07 Division, origin, and function of component parts of the brain. HAPS Outcome: H07.08 Describe the parts of the brain involved in storage of long term memory and discuss possible mechanisms of memory consolidation. 63) Learning is generally facilitated if the material to be learned is emotionally neutral. Answer: FALSE Section: 08.05 Topic: Clinical applications of the nervous system Bloom's: Level 2. Understand HAPS Topic: Module H07 Division, origin, and function of component parts of the brain. HAPS Outcome: H07.08 Describe the parts of the brain involved in storage of long term memory and discuss possible mechanisms of memory consolidation. 64) Retrograde amnesia is the loss of memory for all events that happened before a serious brain trauma such as a blow to the head. Answer: FALSE Section: 08.05 Topic: Clinical applications of the nervous system Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module H07 Division, origin, and function of component parts of the brain. HAPS Outcome: H07.08 Describe the parts of the brain involved in storage of long term memory and discuss possible mechanisms of memory consolidation. 65) Memory consolidation probably occurs via an increase in the effectiveness of existing synapses and also via formation of new ones. Answer: TRUE Section: 08.05 Topic: Clinical applications of the nervous system Bloom's: Level 2. Understand HAPS Topic: Module H07 Division, origin, and function of component parts of the brain. HAPS Outcome: H07.08 Describe the parts of the brain involved in storage of long term memory and discuss possible mechanisms of memory consolidation.
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66) Retrograde amnesia associated with a traumatic head injury can be directly related to the loss of memories considered as both short term and long term, including any events immediately related to the trauma. Answer: FALSE Section: 08.05 Topic: Clinical applications of the nervous system Bloom's: Level 2. Understand HAPS Topic: Module H07 Division, origin, and function of component parts of the brain. HAPS Outcome: H07.08 Describe the parts of the brain involved in storage of long term memory and discuss possible mechanisms of memory consolidation. 67) An electroencephalogram A) is a record of action potentials in the brain. B) records the potential difference between two points on the scalp's surface. C) is a pattern of complex waves with amplitudes similar to those of action potentials. Answer: A, B Section: 08.01 Topic: Clinical applications of the nervous system Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module H16 Predictions related to homeostatic imbalance, including disease states and disorders. HAPS Outcome: H16.01 Predict factors or situations affecting the nervous system that could disrupt homeostasis. 68) Which of the following statements about sleep is correct? A) Sleep typically occurs in stages in which a subject goes through progressively deeper stages of sleep and then awakens. B) Sleep typically occurs in cycles in which a subject will cycle through various stages of slowwave sleep punctuated by paradoxical sleep several times during one bout of sleep. C) During REM sleep, blood pressure and breathing rate become elevated. D) Sleep involves a lack of neurological activity. E) All muscles are relaxed during all phases of sleep. Answer: B, C Section: 08.01 Topic: Clinical applications of the nervous system Bloom's: Level 2. Understand HAPS Topic: Module H15 Application of homeostatic mechanisms. HAPS Outcome: H15.02 Explain how the nervous system relates to other body systems to maintain homeostasis.
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69) In sleep apnea A) a person with the disorder experiences symptoms of sleep deprivation. B) periodic bouts of respiratory failure are experienced throughout the night. C) gamma waves are predominate. D) seriously low blood O2 levels can result. E) no dreaming occurs. Answer: A, B, D Section: 08.01 Topic: Clinical applications of the nervous system Bloom's: Level 2. Understand HAPS Topic: Module H15 Application of homeostatic mechanisms. HAPS Outcome: H15.02 Explain how the nervous system relates to other body systems to maintain homeostasis. 70) Habituation to a stimulus A) is due to receptor fatigue. B) is a result of decreased neurotransmitter release secondary to decreased calcium influx at synaptic terminals. C) can be overcome by a stronger stimulus of the same type. D) is permanent. E) is due to denaturation of the receptor. Answer: B, C Section: 08.02 Topic: Clinical applications of the nervous system Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module H16 Predictions related to homeostatic imbalance, including disease states and disorders. HAPS Outcome: H16.01 Predict factors or situations affecting the nervous system that could disrupt homeostasis.
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71) Regarding its role as a neurotransmitter in the CNS, norepinephrine A) is secreted by brainstem neurons in response to sensory stimulation. B) amplifies weak sensory signals and dampens strong ones so that more information can reach conscious levels. C) is important for maintaining directed attention. D) is completely absent from the CNS, it is only used in the PNS. E) is only important for processing visual stimuli. Answer: A, C Section: 08.02 Topic: Neurotransmitters and their roles in synaptic transmission Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module H05 Neurotransmitters and their roles in synaptic transmission. HAPS Outcome: H05.15 List the most common excitatory neurotransmitter(s) in the CNS and the most common inhibitory neurotransmitter(s) in the CNS. 72) Bipolar disorders A) involve both mania and depression. B) are most effectively treated with drugs that increase availability of dopamine. C) are an exaggeration of normal changes in mood. D) involve hearing voices and other delusions. E) are caused by excessive production of dopamine. Answer: A, C Section: 08.04 Topic: Clinical applications of the nervous system Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module H16 Predictions related to homeostatic imbalance, including disease states and disorders. HAPS Outcome: H16.02 Predict the types of problems that would occur in the body if the nervous system could not maintain homeostasis.
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Vander's Human Physiology, 15e (Widmaier) Chapter 9 Muscle 1) Which best describes a "myofibril"? A) It is a single skeletal muscle cell. B) It is a cylindrical cellular organelle composed of myofilaments. C) It is a hollow membranous structure that stores calcium. D) It is composed of a single type of protein and forms cross-bridges. E) It is a fibrous junction between a muscle cell and a tendon. 2) What protein is the principal component of skeletal muscle thick filaments? A) Actin B) Myosin C) Troponin D) Calmodulin E) Tropomyosin 3) During concentric isotonic contraction of a skeletal muscle fiber, which of these occurs? A) Sarcomeres lengthen B) A bands shorten C) I bands shorten D) A bands lengthen E) Thin filaments shorten 4) Which of the following statements regarding contraction of a skeletal muscle fiber is TRUE? A) Thick filaments shorten when muscle cells contract. B) Some contractions occur without cross-bridge activation. C) Contracting muscle fibers do not always shorten. D) Contraction does not always require the occurrence of an action potential. E) Contraction only occurs following summation of action potentials from many motor neurons. 5) In skeletal muscle cells, calcium initiates contraction by binding to A) tropomyosin. B) actin. C) troponin. D) myosin. E) the thick filament. 6) Binding of to myosin permits cross-bridge skeletal muscle cells. A) ATP; attachment B) ATP; detachment C) calcium; attachment D) calcium; detachment E) actin; detachment
between actin and myosin in
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7) Which occurs FIRST as a result of ATP binding to myosin? A) Cross-bridge heads are cocked into an "energized" state. B) Actin dissociates from myosin. C) Ca2+ is released from the sarcoplasmic reticulum. D) Actin binds to myosin. E) Cross-bridges rotate, sliding past the thin filament. 8) What would be the result if the administration of a drug sequesters all the ATP in a cell? A) All cross-bridges will remain tightly bound to actin. B) Calcium will remain in the cytosol, continuously stimulating cross-bridge cycling. C) Repeated, high-frequency action potentials will be fired at a skeletal muscle fiber causing sustained contraction. D) Calcium-activated proteases degrade all proteins in skeletal muscle fibers, making muscles limp. E) A build-up of K+ in T-tubules will cause constant, tetanic contractions of skeletal muscles. 9) Rigor mortis is caused by A) buildup of lactic acid. B) lack of Ca2+. C) depletion of glycogen. D) lack of ATP. E) deficient acetylcholine receptors. 10) You have designed a drug that is supposed to bind to the myosin binding sites on actin. You inject it into a relaxed muscle, but find that none of the drug bound. Which of the following explains why? A) There are no myosin binding sites on actin. B) Troponin molecules are covering myosin binding sites on actin. C) The myosin binding sites are covered by ATP. D) The myosin binding sites on actin are covered by tropomyosin. E) None of the choices are correct. 11) In a laboratory experiment you have treated a muscle cell with a calcium channel blocker. The membrane still depolarizes, but the concentration of calcium never increases in the cytosol. Which of the following describes what will happen next? A) Only one cross-bridge cycle will occur but no second cycle. B) Binding of myosin to actin will take place. C) Tropomyosin will continue to cover the myosin binding sites on actin and no cross-bridges will form. D) A single twitch in skeletal muscle but no sustained contraction. E) Contraction will occur, but the muscle will be stuck in the contracted state and unable to relax.
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12) What is the definition of a "motor unit"? A) A single motor neuron plus all the muscle fibers it innervates B) A single muscle fiber plus all of the motor neurons that innervate it C) All of the motor neurons supplying a single muscle D) A pair of antagonistic muscles E) All of the muscles that affect the movement of any given joint 13) With an implanted electrode you are able to cause an individual motor neuron that connects to the bicep muscle to fire an action potential. Which of the following is the most likely result? A) The entire bicep muscle contracts. B) A single muscle cell within the bicep muscle contracts. C) Between 10–1,000 muscle cells within the bicep muscle contract. D) It is impossible to predict based on this information alone. 14) What is the function of the transverse tubules in a skeletal muscle fiber? A) They store the calcium ions that are the main source of activation for the cross-bridge cycle. B) They form the Z lines that mark the end of each sarcomere. C) They allow action potentials to propagate deep into the center of skeletal muscle cells. D) They manufacture and store ATP. E) They run in parallel with the myofibrils, and have abundant Ca2+-ATPase proteins for pumping Ca2+ back into the sarcoplasmic reticulum. 15) A build-up of K+ in the T-tubules can occur during periods of frequent muscle cell potentials. What will be the result? A) Inhibition of neurotransmitter release from the motor neuron B) Inhibition of muscle cell depolarization and contraction C) Inhibition of relaxation, muscle stays in contracted state D) None of the answer choices are correct 16) Based on its molecular properties, nicotine will have what effect on skeletal muscle contraction? A) Increases in contraction or contraction is more likely to happen B) Decreases in contraction or contraction is less likely to happen C) Effects on the motor neuron, but not on the muscle tissue itself D) Nicotine has no effect on muscle cells 17) As a muscle gets stronger the diameter of its individual muscle cells becomes larger. Which of the following structures ensures that the membrane potential change is translated into the depth of the cell? A) Z lines B) Sarcoplasmic reticulum C) H zone D) Transverse tubules E) Pores in the plasma membrane
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18) If a muscle cell expressed muscarinic ACh channels, which are only permeable to Na+ instead of nicotinic ACh channels, which are permeable to both Na+ and K+, which portion of a muscle cell would be inhibited? A) Neurotransmitter release from the motor neuron B) Muscle cell depolarization C) Cross-bridge cycling D) Relaxation E) None of the answer choices are correct 19) A scientist labels ACh with fluorescent dye to be able to visualize under the microscope where ACh travels and binds. She takes an image of the motor end plate and see that ACh is A) bound to muscarinic receptors at the end plate. B) inside the muscle cell sarcoplasm. C) bound to acetylcholinesterase in the end plate membrane. D) bound to receptors on the sarcoplasmic reticulum. E) bound to Ca2+ ions. 20) The chemical curare is a nicotinic receptor antagonist. How will curare affect skeletal muscle function? A) It activates an autoimmune disease that destroys myelin. B) It will cause persistent twitches with short periods of rest in between. C) It will cause spastic paralysis (sustained, unwanted muscle contraction). D) It will cause flaccid paralysis (no muscle contraction possible). E) Muscle function is fine, but it will cause a loss of voluntary control. 21) Tetanus toxin inhibits acetylcholinesterase activity. What will a person suffering from tetanus toxin poisoning look like? A) All muscles of the body might exhibit frequent small twitches. B) All muscles of the body might present a tense, fully contracted state. C) All muscles of the body might present a limp, relaxed state known as flaccid paralysis. D) All muscles of the body will be completely normal in function. 22) Myasthenia gravis is an autoimmune disease in which the immune system gradually destroys the receptors for acetylcholine at the neuromuscular junction. Which of the following drugs might initially be useful in treating the symptoms of this disease? A) A drug that inhibits acetylcholinesterase B) A drug that inhibits release of acetylcholine C) Curare D) Atropine (a muscarinic acetylcholine receptor antagonist) E) A nicotinic acetylcholine receptor antagonist
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23) Which of these occurs during an isometric contraction of a skeletal muscle? A) The I bands shorten and the A bands stay the same length. B) The thick and thin filaments slide past each other. C) Sarcomere length does not change significantly. D) The A bands shorten and the I bands stay the same length. E) Cross-bridges lock onto actin, similar to what occurs in rigor mortis. 24) During an isometric twitch in a skeletal muscle A) tension generated by the muscle always exceeds the load on the muscle. B) tetanus occurs. C) sarcomeres do not significantly shorten. D) the whole muscle shortens. E) H zones shorten. 25) Which of the following statements regarding skeletal muscle contraction is true? A) During a lengthening contraction, the tension exerted by the muscle exceeds the load on the muscle. B) In every isotonic muscle contraction, the length of the muscle remains constant. C) During every muscle contraction, muscle fibers change length. D) During every muscle contraction, tension is developed in the muscle. E) Cross-bridges cycle faster during isometric contractions than during isotonic contractions. 26) What is the best description of a tetanic contraction in a skeletal muscle cell? A) A single action potential in the motor neuron causes a sustained contraction. B) Multiple action potentials in the motor neuron cause a sustained contraction. C) The action potential in the muscle cell is prolonged to last as long as the contraction. D) Repeated action potentials from the motor neuron summate into a sustained depolarization of the motor end plate, causing a sustained contraction. E) A very large amplitude action potential in the motor neuron causes a very strong contraction in the skeletal muscle cell. 27) How is the length of a skeletal muscle cell related to the force it can generate? A) The tension in a skeletal muscle cell is greatest when contractions occur at either very short or very long lengths. B) Skeletal muscle cells generate the same amount of force, regardless of their length. C) The shorter a skeletal muscle cell is when it begins to contract, the stronger the force generation will be. D) The longer a skeletal muscle cell is when it begins to contract, the stronger the force generation will be. E) Skeletal muscle cells generate the most force when the contraction occurs at an intermediate length.
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28) The optimal length (Lo) of a skeletal muscle cell is A) the length at which the muscle can generate its maximum tetanic tension. B) the shortest length the muscle can achieve while attached to bone, because the amount of overlap between thick and thin filaments is maximal then. C) generally the length attained when the joint it crosses is fully extended. D) the only length at which any tension can be generated by the muscle cell. E) the length at which thin filaments from opposite sides of a sarcomere overlap. 29) In the first few seconds of skeletal muscle contraction, what is the main mechanism by which ATP is replenished? A) Energy and phosphate are transferred from creatine phosphate to ADP. B) Oxidative phosphorylation rapidly generates ATP from glucose. C) Glycolysis produces ATP from glycogen. D) Oxidation of fatty acids into ATP occurs in the mitochondria. E) Myoglobin catalysis produces ATP. 30) When a muscle has been repeatedly contracting at a moderate intensity for an extended period of time (more than a few minutes), what is the primary source of ATP? A) Transfer of energy and phosphate from creatine phosphate to ADP B) Glycolysis C) Oxidative phosphorylation D) Breakdown of myosin E) Uptake of ATP from the blood plasma 31) Which of the following statements regarding myosin in skeletal muscle is TRUE? A) Myosin cross-bridge heads contain two binding sites, one for actin and one for tropomyosin. B) Myosin is an ATPase. C) The rate of ATP hydrolysis by myosin is the same in all types of skeletal muscle. D) All of the myosin cross-bridge heads in a thick filament are oriented and rotate in the same direction. E) Troponin covers the binding site on myosin molecules until Ca2+ binds to troponin to remove it from its blocking position. 32) Compared to type 1 (slow oxidative) skeletal muscle fibers, how are type 2X (fastglycolytic) skeletal muscle fibers different? A) Type 2X fibers have more abundant mitochondria. B) Type 2X fibers fatigue more readily. C) Type 2X fibers have more abundant myoglobin. D) Type 2X fibers are smaller in diameter. E) Type 2X motor units contain fewer fibers per alpha motor neuron.
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33) Unlike humans, cows eat all day. They spend hours and hours chewing with very little rest from the task in a 24-hour period. The food they eat (grass) is difficult to break down, requiring a lot of chewing. Understanding the endurance required for these chewing muscles, what fiber type would you expect to be predominant in their chewing muscles? A) Type 1 B) Type 2A C) Type 2X D) Type 3 E) There is not enough information to predict a dominant muscle fiber type 34) The muscles in your fingers have a predominance of fast-glycolytic fibers, whereas the muscles of your feet have a predominance of slow-oxidative fibers. Which of the following statements accurately describes their differences? A) The muscle fibers of the feet have a greater abundance of glycogen than do the muscle fibers of the hands. B) Muscle fibers of the feet have a greater abundance of myoglobin than do muscle fibers of the hands. C) Muscle fibers of the hands can generate greater tension than muscle fibers of the feet. D) Muscle fibers in both locations are innervated by alpha motor neurons of the same diameter. E) More oxidative phosphorylation occurs in the hands than the feet. 35) Sarah is a girl with dreams of becoming an Olympic marathon runner. She just learned that she has a rare genetic mutation and does not produce functional creatine phosphate. What portion of Sarah's marathon experience will be effected? A) Just the first few seconds of exercise B) All muscle contractions after Sarah reaches her maximum heart rate (about 10 minutes into her run) C) All muscle contractions after Sarah reaches fatigue (about an hour into her run) D) Every moment of Sarah's runs E) No effects on her running 36) Which of the following is NOT a determinant of whole-muscle tension? A) The number of muscle fibers contracting B) The tension produced by each contracting fiber C) The numbers of motor units recruited D) The frequency of motor neuron stimulation E) The proportion of the muscle fibers within each motor unit that are contracting at any given time
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37) Which of the following statements regarding skeletal muscle is TRUE? A) Skeletal muscle fibers have pacemaker activity. B) Skeletal muscle fibers are joined together by gap junctions. C) A given skeletal muscle fiber will contract when excitatory nervous stimuli sufficiently exceed inhibitory nervous stimuli at the motor end plate. D) A given skeletal muscle fiber will contract if excitatory synaptic inputs sufficiently exceed inhibitory synaptic inputs on the motor neuron that innervates that fiber and the motor neuron fires an action potential. E) Skeletal muscle contraction is inhibited by inhibitory motor neurons that synapse onto skeletalmuscle fibers. 38) Which of these would increase the tension generated in a skeletal muscle? A) Increasing the frequency of firing in alpha motor neurons innervating the muscle B) Stretching the muscle to very long lengths C) Resting the muscle for several weeks D) Switching off fast-glycolytic motor units and activating an equal number of slow-oxidative motor units E) Increasing the amplitude of action potentials in the alpha motor neurons that innervate the muscle 39) Which of the following statements regarding whole-muscle contraction is TRUE? A) The order of recruitment of motor units in a muscle is such that the last units recruited are those that fatigue most readily. B) The order of recruitment of motor units in a muscle is such that the first units recruited generate the most tension. C) Motor units whose motor neurons have large-diameter cell bodies are recruited first, while motor units with smaller-diameter motor neurons are only activated as the level of activation in the spinal cord increases. D) The order of motor unit recruitment is independent of the size of the alpha motor neuron that innervates them. E) Recruitment of one fast-glycolytic motor unit provides a smaller increment in whole-muscle tension than recruitment of one slow-oxidative motor unit. 40) Sarah is a sprinter who specializes in quick and powerful bursts of speed followed by periods of rest. Priya is a marathon runner who specializes in long, steady runs. Compared to Priya, Sarah is likely to have A) leg muscles with a larger diameter. B) leg muscles with a smaller diameter. C) hypertrophy of type I muscle fibers. D) a higher density of capillaries in her leg muscles. E) lower concentrations of glycolytic enzymes in her leg muscles.
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41) Sarah is a sprinter who specializes in quick and powerful bursts of speed followed by periods of rest. Priya is a marathon runner who specializes in long, steady runs. Compared to Sarah's muscles, how are Priya's most likely to differ? A) Priya muscles will have more glycogen stored in her type 2X muscle fibers. B) Priya's muscles will have more mitochondria in her type 1 and 2A muscle fibers. C) Priya's muscles will have less myoglobin in her type 1 muscle fibers. D) Priya's type 2X fibers will be larger in diameter. E) Priya will have a greater proportion of type 2 muscle fibers and a lower proportion of type 1 fibers than Sarah. 42) If a biopsy of the quadriceps muscles (muscles on the front of the thigh) were taken from gold medal-winning speed skaters in the four following events, which would most likely have the SMALLEST percentage of type 1 muscle fibers? A) 10,000 meters B) 5,000 meters C) 1,000 meters D) 500 meters 43) Which of the following statements is FALSE? A) Synaptic input onto skeletal muscle cells is always excitatory, whereas inputs to smooth muscle cells may be either excitatory or inhibitory. B) A single smooth muscle cell may be innervated by both a sympathetic neuron and a parasympathetic neuron. C) Contractile activity of smooth muscle cells does not normally require Ca2+. D) In the absence of any neural input, skeletal muscle cannot generate tension. E) Ca2+ that activates contraction of smooth muscles can come from either the ECF or from the sarcoplasmic reticulum. 44) Which of these is a major difference between smooth muscle and skeletal muscle? A) Myosin is the main regulatory protein in smooth muscle. B) Myosin is the main regulatory protein in skeletal muscle. C) Skeletal muscle usually exhibits spontaneous activity, while smooth muscle cannot contract spontaneously. D) Only skeletal muscle requires increased calcium ion concentration in the cytosol for contraction. E) Only skeletal muscle has both actin and myosin. 45) Which is a TRUE statement about smooth muscle? A) Smooth muscle is striated. B) Smooth muscle does not have thick and thin filaments. C) Smooth muscle does not use troponin-tropomyosin to regulate cross-bridge activity. D) Changes in cytosolic calcium do not regulate cross-bridge activity in smooth muscle. E) The myosin in smooth muscle requires phosphorylation before it can bind to ATP.
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46) Which is a TRUE statement about excitation-contraction coupling? A) In skeletal muscle cells, it requires the influx of extracellular calcium ion. B) In smooth muscle cells, it must be preceded by an action potential in the cell membrane. C) In all kinds of muscle it requires the entry of calcium from the extracellular fluid. D) Calcium-induced calcium release plays a role in cardiac muscle cells, as well as in some smooth muscle cells. E) In skeletal muscle cells, excitation-contraction coupling begins when an action potential propagates along the sarcoplasmic reticulum membrane. 47) Which of the following statements regarding contraction in skeletal and smooth muscle is TRUE? A) In skeletal muscle, calcium initiates contraction by binding to troponin, while in smooth muscle calcium initiates contraction by binding directly to myosin. B) In skeletal muscle, calcium ions bind to a regulatory protein on thin filaments; in smooth muscle, calcium ions bind to a regulatory protein on thick filaments. C) In skeletal muscle, calcium initiates contraction by binding to myosin light-chain kinase, while in smooth muscle calcium initiates contraction by binding directly to tropomyosin. D) In skeletal muscle, calcium initiates contraction by binding to troponin, while in smooth muscle calcium initiates contraction by binding to calmodulin. E) All of the choices are true. 48) Which of the following is FALSE regarding single-unit smooth muscle cells? A) They have an individual neuron innervating each individual smooth-muscle cell. B) They have many gap junctions between cells. C) They may have pacemaker activity. D) They may respond to stretch by contracting. E) They exhibit tone. 49) Which of the following properties of smooth muscle helps us to understand why, as pregnancy advances, women get more and more Braxton-Hicks (smooth muscle) contractions in the uterine wall? A) Smooth muscle cells contract in response to stretch. B) Smooth muscle cells contract in response to NO. C) Smooth muscle cells contract in response to CO2. D) Smooth muscle cells contract in response to changes in pH. 50) Multiunit smooth muscle cells A) generally have individual innervation of each cell. B) have many gap junctions between cells. C) respond to stretch by relaxing. D) can only be excited, and not inhibited. E) have abundant T-tubules.
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51) Which of the following does NOT correctly describe cardiac muscle cells? A) They are arranged in layers surrounding hollow cavities in the heart. B) They are much shorter than skeletal muscle fibers, and generally have a single nucleus. C) Their membranes are depolarized initially by the influx of sodium ions. D) They depolarize prior to contraction. E) They can contract in the absence of external calcium. 52) Which of the following choices lists a correct sequence of events following the depolarization of transverse tubules in excitation-contraction coupling in cardiac muscle? A) Calcium release into cytosol, calcium ion influx through sarcolemma, actin and myosin attach, thin filaments slide toward the middle of sarcomeres B) Actin and myosin attach, thin filaments slide toward the middle of sarcomeres, calcium release into cytosol C) Calcium release into cytosol, actin and myosin attach, calcium ion influx through sarcolemma, thin myofilaments slide toward the middle of sarcomeres D) Calcium release into cytosol, actin and myosin attach, thin filaments slide toward the middle of sarcomeres, calcium ion influx through sarcolemma E) Calcium ion influx through sarcolemma, calcium release into cytosol, actin and myosin attach, thin myofilaments slide toward the middle of sarcomeres 53) The prolonged electrical depolarization of cardiac muscle cells that occurs during contraction is due primarily to the persistent influx of what ion? A) Sodium B) Calcium C) Nitrate D) Chloride E) Potassium 54) You are trying to design a new drug to painlessly euthanize animals. Your plan is to design a molecule that blocks the action of one of the following pumps so that heart muscle stays contracted and blood movement is stopped. Which would be effective? A) Ca 2+-ATPase pumps on the cell membrane B) Na+/K+-ATPase pumps on the cell membrane C) Ca2+-ATPase pumps on the sarcoplasmic reticulum D) Na+/Ca2+-exchangers on the cell membrane E) None of these would result in sustained muscle contraction 55) Which best describes a role of L-type Ca2+ channels in cardiac muscle cells? A) They function exactly the same in cardiac muscle cells as they do in skeletal muscle. B) They are directly responsible for making cardiac muscle fatigue-resistant. C) They are responsible for preventing tetanic contractions. D) They cause the absolute refractory period to be very brief. E) They act as non-conducting voltage sensors that mediate excitation-contraction coupling.
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56) Which dietary supplement is most likely to contribute to greater skeletal muscle ATP availability in the first few seconds of skeletal muscle contraction? A) Fatty acids B) Sports drinks with electrolytes C) Sugar D) Protein E) Creatine 57) Myasthenia gravis is a collection of muscle disorders that cause muscle fatigue and weakness. What is the major mechanism? A) Overproduction of acetylcholinesterase B) Autoimmune destruction of nicotinic acetylcholine receptors C) Demyelination of axons in motor pathways D) Autoimmune destruction of L-type Ca2+ channels. E) A tumor that overproduces acetylcholine 58) Skeletal muscles are made up of bundles of muscle fibers attached to bone by connective tissue called tendons. 59) The name given to the repeating functional units that cause striations in a skeletal muscle myofibril is "sarcomere." 60) The force-generating sites in a myofibril are the Z lines. 61) During skeletal muscle contraction, the distance between the Z lines of a sarcomere decreases because of shortening of the thick and thin filaments. 62) During concentric contractions of skeletal muscle, the I band and H zone shorten but the A band stays the same. 63) The step of the cross-bridge cycle that immediately follows the attachment of ATP to the myosin head is referred to as the "powerstroke." 64) The energy for muscle contraction is provided by the hydrolysis of ATP. 65) Actin has an ATPase enzyme. 66) If you tagged all ATPase enzymes in the muscle cell with fluorescent dye you would see tagging on both myosin and on the surface of the sarcoplasmic reticulum. 67) The binding of ATP to myosin causes an allosteric change in myosin's actin-binding site such that the affinity of myosin for actin is decreased. 68) In the absence of ATP, myosin can remain bound to actin; this can occur during times when there is a significant reduction in intracellular ATP.
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69) Binding of myosin to actin in skeletal muscle cells does not normally take place in the absence of Ca2+. 70) Ca2+ or any other positive ion can enable cross-bridge cycling to begin. 71) "Excitation-contraction coupling" refers to the binding of energized myosin to actin. 72) The site of Ca2+ storage in muscle cells is the lateral sacs of the transverse tubules. 73) Curare blocks neuromuscular transmission by preventing the release of neurotransmitters from the motor neuron. 74) Organophosphate "nerve gases" induce paralysis by blocking neural stimulation of the neuromuscular junctions, while botulinum toxin produces the same effect by inhibiting acetylcholinesterase. 75) The term "twitch" refers to the mechanical response of a muscle fiber during one crossbridge cycle. 76) When the load on a skeletal muscle is less than the tension the muscle generates, a concentric contraction results. 77) During isometric contraction of a skeletal muscle fiber, tension increases but the fiber length stays the same. 78) The latent period of an isotonic twitch is shorter than the latent period of an isometric twitch. 79) Sustained contraction and tension in a skeletal muscle is called tetanus. 80) A skeletal muscle generates its greatest twitch tension when it is stretched to twice its resting length. 81) Fast fibers can be distinguished from slow fibers by the rate at which their myosin-ATPases split ATP. 82) Characteristics of slow-oxidative fibers include numerous mitochondria, abundant myoglobin, and large stores of glycogen. 83) The difference in color between white muscle and red muscle is accounted for by the greater abundance of glycogen in white muscle. 84) The fiber type intermediate between the two extremes of fast-glycolytic and slow-oxidative is slow-glycolytic. 85) Muscles used for delicate, finely controlled movements have smaller motor units than muscles used for high power activities. 13 Copyright 2019 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.
86) In general, activating a slow-oxidative motor unit in a muscle will generate more tension than activating a fast-glycolytic motor unit. 87) Endurance exercise, such as long-distance swimming, causes a preferential increase in glycolytic enzymes and increased mass of the exercising muscles. 88) If you took a drug that acts as an inhibitor of creatine kinase, you would still be able to contract your muscles, but in order to sustain a contraction you may notice an increase in ventilatory and heart rates. 89) The larger the diameter of a skeletal muscle fiber, the greater the tension it can generate. 90) Recruitment of different types of motor units in a muscle is one means of varying the amount of tension generated in that muscle. 91) Being able to generate more force with a muscle could include variations in motor unit recruitment or muscle cell hypertrophy. 92) The shortening velocity of a skeletal muscle fiber increases with decreasing load because the rate at which the cross-bridge cycle can occur increases with decreasing load. 93) Flexor muscles generally pull on bone and decrease the angle at a joint, whereas extensor muscles push the bone to increase the angle. 94) The decrease in mass and strength of muscle as a result of damage to the nerves innervating the muscle is called disuse atrophy. 95) A Ca2+-binding protein in smooth muscle is calmodulin. 96) The myosin in smooth muscle cells differs from that in skeletal muscle in that smooth muscle myosin requires phosphorylation before it can bind to actin. 97) In smooth muscle cells that can produce action potentials, cell membrane depolarization usually opens voltage-sensitive sodium channels. 98) Neuronal stimulation of skeletal muscle is always excitatory, whereas neuronal stimulation of smooth muscle may be excitatory or inhibitory. 99) Smooth muscle cells may contract in the absence of neuronal stimulation. 100) Multiunit smooth muscle is characterized by many gap junctions between cells. 101) In cardiac muscle cells, the release of Ca2+ through L-type Ca2+ channels depolarizes the sarcoplasmic reticulum and inhibits the release of any additional Ca2+ necessary for excitationcontraction coupling. 14 Copyright 2019 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.
102) More mitochondria are typically found in type 1 muscle fibers. 103) More myoglobin is typically found in type 2X skeletal muscle fibers. 104) Compared to type 1, both forms of type 2 muscle fibers usually have a large diameter. 105) Type 2X skeletal muscle fibers have fast myosin ATPase activity. 106) Type 2 muscle fibers are generally recruited first during a muscle contraction. 107) You're holding a pose for a photograph. Your cheek muscles fatigue quickly from smiling, meanwhile your neck muscles feel fine from holding your head up. This is because your cheek muscles are predominantly type 2 muscle fibers. 108) Type 2 muscle fibers typically have the fewer mitochondria than type 1. 109) With athletic conditioning, type 2 muscle fibers can gain myoglobin. 110) A lack of ATP in the muscle cell will lead to A) calcium build-up in the cytosol. B) myosin heads becoming "stuck" in a bound configuration with actin. C) troponin unbinding from tropomyosin. D) frequent twitches with short periods of relaxation in between. E) sustained flaccid paralysis. 111) Extracellular calcium plays a role in contraction in A) skeletal muscle cells. B) smooth muscle cells. C) cardiac muscle cells. D) None of these types of cells. 112) Why does breathing continue to be rapid and deep for a time after heavy exercise? A) Extra oxygen is needed to restore muscle creatine phosphate concentration. B) The respiratory system is slow to increase and decrease its function before and after exercise, which is why it takes awhile for breathing to slow down. C) Lactic acid that builds up during heavy exercise must be exhaled into the air, so heavy breathing must continue for awhile after exercise to eliminate it. D) The ATP level in muscle cells falls drastically during heavy exercise, and extra oxygen is needed to restore it. E) The extra ventilation is not needed to replenish energy stores in muscle fibers, but rather simply to restore the blood pH to normal after the production of excess lactic acid during the exercise.
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113) You are training for a marathon. As you increase your level of physical fitness, you've noticed that the time spent recovering (breathing heavily after stopping running) is decreasing. What change to your muscle cells might account for this? A) Increase in actin concentration B) Increase in muscle size (hypertrophy) C) Increase in myoglobin concentration D) Increase in creatine concentration E) Increase in myosin concentration
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Vander's Human Physiology, 15e (Widmaier) Chapter 9 Muscle 1) Which best describes a "myofibril"? A) It is a single skeletal muscle cell. B) It is a cylindrical cellular organelle composed of myofilaments. C) It is a hollow membranous structure that stores calcium. D) It is composed of a single type of protein and forms cross-bridges. E) It is a fibrous junction between a muscle cell and a tendon. Answer: B Section: 09.01 Topic: Microscopic anatomy of skeletal muscle Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module G03 Detailed gross and microscopic anatomy of skeletal muscle HAPS Outcome: G03.04 Explain the organization of a myofibril.; G03.03 Describe a skeletal muscle fiber including the transverse (T) tubules, sarcoplasmic reticulum and myofibrils. 2) What protein is the principal component of skeletal muscle thick filaments? A) Actin B) Myosin C) Troponin D) Calmodulin E) Tropomyosin Answer: B Section: 09.01 Topic: Microscopic anatomy of skeletal muscle Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module G03 Detailed gross and microscopic anatomy of skeletal muscle HAPS Outcome: G03.05 Name, and describe the function of, each of the contractile, regulatory, and structural protein components of a sarcomere.
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3) During concentric isotonic contraction of a skeletal muscle fiber, which of these occurs? A) Sarcomeres lengthen B) A bands shorten C) I bands shorten D) A bands lengthen E) Thin filaments shorten Answer: C Section: 09.02; 09.03 Topic: Microscopic anatomy of skeletal muscle; Physiology of skeletal muscle contraction Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module G03 Detailed gross and microscopic anatomy of skeletal muscle; Module G04 Physiology of skeletal muscle contraction; Module G06 Principles and types of whole muscle contraction HAPS Outcome: G03.04 Explain the organization of a myofibril.; G04.01 Explain the sliding filament theory of muscle contraction.; G06.06 Demonstrate concentric and eccentric contraction and contrast the relative tension and resistance that exists, as well as the change in muscle length that occurs, in each type of contraction. 4) Which of the following statements regarding contraction of a skeletal muscle fiber is TRUE? A) Thick filaments shorten when muscle cells contract. B) Some contractions occur without cross-bridge activation. C) Contracting muscle fibers do not always shorten. D) Contraction does not always require the occurrence of an action potential. E) Contraction only occurs following summation of action potentials from many motor neurons. Answer: C Section: 09.02; 09.03 Topic: Physiology of skeletal muscle contraction Bloom's: Level 2. Understand HAPS Topic: Module G04 Physiology of skeletal muscle contraction; Module G06 Principles and types of whole muscle contraction HAPS Outcome: G04.01 Explain the sliding filament theory of muscle contraction.; G04.02 Describe the sequence of events involved in the contraction cycle of skeletal muscle.; G04.05 Explain what is meant by the expression "excitation-contraction coupling".; G06.05 Demonstrate isotonic and isometric contraction and interpret graphs of tension vs. time and muscle length vs. time for each type of contraction.; G06.02 Define the terms tension and contraction, with respect to muscles.
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5) In skeletal muscle cells, calcium initiates contraction by binding to A) tropomyosin. B) actin. C) troponin. D) myosin. E) the thick filament. Answer: C Section: 09.02 Topic: Physiology of skeletal muscle contraction Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module G03 Detailed gross and microscopic anatomy of skeletal muscle; Module G04 Physiology of skeletal muscle contraction HAPS Outcome: G03.05 Name, and describe the function of, each of the contractile, regulatory, and structural protein components of a sarcomere.; G04.05 Explain what is meant by the expression "excitation-contraction coupling". 6) Binding of to myosin permits cross-bridge skeletal muscle cells. A) ATP; attachment B) ATP; detachment C) calcium; attachment D) calcium; detachment E) actin; detachment
between actin and myosin in
Answer: B Section: 09.02 Topic: Physiology of skeletal muscle contraction Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module G04 Physiology of skeletal muscle contraction HAPS Outcome: G04.02 Describe the sequence of events involved in the contraction cycle of skeletal muscle.
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7) Which occurs FIRST as a result of ATP binding to myosin? A) Cross-bridge heads are cocked into an "energized" state. B) Actin dissociates from myosin. C) Ca2+ is released from the sarcoplasmic reticulum. D) Actin binds to myosin. E) Cross-bridges rotate, sliding past the thin filament. Answer: B Section: 09.02 Topic: Physiology of skeletal muscle contraction Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module G04 Physiology of skeletal muscle contraction HAPS Outcome: G04.02 Describe the sequence of events involved in the contraction cycle of skeletal muscle. 8) What would be the result if the administration of a drug sequesters all the ATP in a cell? A) All cross-bridges will remain tightly bound to actin. B) Calcium will remain in the cytosol, continuously stimulating cross-bridge cycling. C) Repeated, high-frequency action potentials will be fired at a skeletal muscle fiber causing sustained contraction. D) Calcium-activated proteases degrade all proteins in skeletal muscle fibers, making muscles limp. E) A build-up of K+ in T-tubules will cause constant, tetanic contractions of skeletal muscles. Answer: A Section: 09.02 Topic: Physiology of skeletal muscle contraction; Clinical applications of the muscular system Bloom's: Level 3. Apply HAPS Topic: Module G04 Physiology of skeletal muscle contraction; Module G12 Predictions related to homeostatic imbalance, including disease states and disorders HAPS Outcome: G04.02 Describe the sequence of events involved in the contraction cycle of skeletal muscle.; G12.01 Predict factors or situations affecting the muscular system that could disrupt homeostasis.
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9) Rigor mortis is caused by A) buildup of lactic acid. B) lack of Ca2+. C) depletion of glycogen. D) lack of ATP. E) deficient acetylcholine receptors. Answer: D Section: 09.02 Topic: Physiology of skeletal muscle contraction; Clinical applications of the muscular system Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module G04 Physiology of skeletal muscle contraction; Module G12 Predictions related to homeostatic imbalance, including disease states and disorders HAPS Outcome: G04.02 Describe the sequence of events involved in the contraction cycle of skeletal muscle.; G12.01 Predict factors or situations affecting the muscular system that could disrupt homeostasis. 10) You have designed a drug that is supposed to bind to the myosin binding sites on actin. You inject it into a relaxed muscle, but find that none of the drug bound. Which of the following explains why? A) There are no myosin binding sites on actin. B) Troponin molecules are covering myosin binding sites on actin. C) The myosin binding sites are covered by ATP. D) The myosin binding sites on actin are covered by tropomyosin. E) None of the choices are correct. Answer: D Section: 09.02 Topic: Physiology of skeletal muscle contraction Bloom's: Level 3. Apply HAPS Topic: Module G04 Physiology of skeletal muscle contraction HAPS Outcome: G04.05 Explain what is meant by the expression "excitation-contraction coupling".
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11) In a laboratory experiment you have treated a muscle cell with a calcium channel blocker. The membrane still depolarizes, but the concentration of calcium never increases in the cytosol. Which of the following describes what will happen next? A) Only one cross-bridge cycle will occur but no second cycle. B) Binding of myosin to actin will take place. C) Tropomyosin will continue to cover the myosin binding sites on actin and no cross-bridges will form. D) A single twitch in skeletal muscle but no sustained contraction. E) Contraction will occur, but the muscle will be stuck in the contracted state and unable to relax. Answer: C Section: 09.02 Topic: Physiology of skeletal muscle contraction Bloom's: Level 3. Apply HAPS Topic: Module G04 Physiology of skeletal muscle contraction; Module G06 Principles and types of whole muscle contraction HAPS Outcome: G04.02 Describe the sequence of events involved in the contraction cycle of skeletal muscle.; G04.05 Explain what is meant by the expression "excitation-contraction coupling".; G06.01 Interpret a myogram of a twitch contraction with respect to the duration of the latent, contraction and relaxation periods and describe the events that occur in each period. 12) What is the definition of a "motor unit"? A) A single motor neuron plus all the muscle fibers it innervates B) A single muscle fiber plus all of the motor neurons that innervate it C) All of the motor neurons supplying a single muscle D) A pair of antagonistic muscles E) All of the muscles that affect the movement of any given joint Answer: A Section: 09.02 Topic: Physiology of skeletal muscle contraction Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module G06 Principles and types of whole muscle contraction HAPS Outcome: G06.03 Define the term motor unit.
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13) With an implanted electrode you are able to cause an individual motor neuron that connects to the bicep muscle to fire an action potential. Which of the following is the most likely result? A) The entire bicep muscle contracts. B) A single muscle cell within the bicep muscle contracts. C) Between 10–1,000 muscle cells within the bicep muscle contract. D) It is impossible to predict based on this information alone. Answer: D Section: 09.02 Topic: Physiology of skeletal muscle contraction Bloom's: Level 3. Apply HAPS Topic: Module G06 Principles and types of whole muscle contraction HAPS Outcome: G06.03 Define the term motor unit. 14) What is the function of the transverse tubules in a skeletal muscle fiber? A) They store the calcium ions that are the main source of activation for the cross-bridge cycle. B) They form the Z lines that mark the end of each sarcomere. C) They allow action potentials to propagate deep into the center of skeletal muscle cells. D) They manufacture and store ATP. E) They run in parallel with the myofibrils, and have abundant Ca2+-ATPase proteins for pumping Ca2+ back into the sarcoplasmic reticulum. Answer: C Section: 09.01; 09.02 Topic: Microscopic anatomy of skeletal muscle; Physiology of skeletal muscle contraction Bloom's: Level 2. Understand HAPS Topic: Module G03 Detailed gross and microscopic anatomy of skeletal muscle; Module G04 Physiology of skeletal muscle contraction HAPS Outcome: G04.05 Explain what is meant by the expression "excitation-contraction coupling".; G03.03 Describe a skeletal muscle fiber including the transverse (T) tubules, sarcoplasmic reticulum and myofibrils.
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15) A build-up of K+ in the T-tubules can occur during periods of frequent muscle cell potentials. What will be the result? A) Inhibition of neurotransmitter release from the motor neuron B) Inhibition of muscle cell depolarization and contraction C) Inhibition of relaxation, muscle stays in contracted state D) None of the answer choices are correct Answer: C Section: 09.01; 09.02 Topic: Microscopic anatomy of skeletal muscle; Physiology of skeletal muscle contraction Bloom's: Level 3. Apply HAPS Topic: Module G04 Physiology of skeletal muscle contraction HAPS Outcome: G04.05 Explain what is meant by the expression "excitation-contraction coupling".; G03.03 Describe a skeletal muscle fiber including the transverse (T) tubules, sarcoplasmic reticulum and myofibrils. 16) Based on its molecular properties, nicotine will have what effect on skeletal muscle contraction? A) Increases in contraction or contraction is more likely to happen B) Decreases in contraction or contraction is less likely to happen C) Effects on the motor neuron, but not on the muscle tissue itself D) Nicotine has no effect on muscle cells Answer: A Section: 09.02 Topic: Physiology of skeletal muscle contraction; Clinical applications of the muscular system Bloom's: Level 3. Apply HAPS Topic: Module G04 Physiology of skeletal muscle contraction; Module G12 Predictions related to homeostatic imbalance, including disease states and disorders; Module H13 Functions of the autonomic nervous system HAPS Outcome: G12.01 Predict factors or situations affecting the muscular system that could disrupt homeostasis.; G04.04 Describe, in order, the events that occur at the neuromuscular junction that elicit an action potential in the muscle fiber.; H13.07 Differentiate between cholinergic and adrenergic nerve fibers and discuss the physiological interactions of transmitters released by these neurons with specific cholinergic and adrenergic receptor subtypes.; H13.08 Propose clinical uses of specific drugs that act at cholinergic and adrenergic receptor subtypes.
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17) As a muscle gets stronger the diameter of its individual muscle cells becomes larger. Which of the following structures ensures that the membrane potential change is translated into the depth of the cell? A) Z lines B) Sarcoplasmic reticulum C) H zone D) Transverse tubules E) Pores in the plasma membrane Answer: D Section: 09.01; 09.02 Topic: Microscopic anatomy of skeletal muscle; Physiology of skeletal muscle contraction Bloom's: Level 3. Apply HAPS Topic: Module G03 Detailed gross and microscopic anatomy of skeletal muscle; Module G04 Physiology of skeletal muscle contraction HAPS Outcome: G04.05 Explain what is meant by the expression "excitation-contraction coupling".; G03.03 Describe a skeletal muscle fiber including the transverse (T) tubules, sarcoplasmic reticulum and myofibrils. 18) If a muscle cell expressed muscarinic ACh channels, which are only permeable to Na+ instead of nicotinic ACh channels, which are permeable to both Na+ and K+, which portion of a muscle cell would be inhibited? A) Neurotransmitter release from the motor neuron B) Muscle cell depolarization C) Cross-bridge cycling D) Relaxation E) None of the answer choices are correct Answer: E Section: 09.02 Topic: Physiology of skeletal muscle contraction Bloom's: Level 3. Apply HAPS Topic: Module G03 Detailed gross and microscopic anatomy of skeletal muscle; Module G04 Physiology of skeletal muscle contraction HAPS Outcome: G03.06 Describe the anatomy of the neuromuscular junction.; G04.04 Describe, in order, the events that occur at the neuromuscular junction that elicit an action potential in the muscle fiber.
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19) A scientist labels ACh with fluorescent dye to be able to visualize under the microscope where ACh travels and binds. She takes an image of the motor end plate and see that ACh is A) bound to muscarinic receptors at the end plate. B) inside the muscle cell sarcoplasm. C) bound to acetylcholinesterase in the end plate membrane. D) bound to receptors on the sarcoplasmic reticulum. E) bound to Ca2+ ions. Answer: C Section: 09.02 Topic: Physiology of skeletal muscle contraction Bloom's: Level 3. Apply HAPS Topic: Module G03 Detailed gross and microscopic anatomy of skeletal muscle; Module G04 Physiology of skeletal muscle contraction; Module H13 Functions of the autonomic nervous system; Module H14 Comparisons of somatic and autonomic nervous systems; Module H05 Neurotransmitters and their roles in synaptic transmission HAPS Outcome: G03.06 Describe the anatomy of the neuromuscular junction.; G04.04 Describe, in order, the events that occur at the neuromuscular junction that elicit an action potential in the muscle fiber.; H05.09 Explain temporal and spatial summation of synaptic potentials.; H13.07 Differentiate between cholinergic and adrenergic nerve fibers and discuss the physiological interactions of transmitters released by these neurons with specific cholinergic and adrenergic receptor subtypes.; H14.01 Distinguish between the effectors of the somatic and autonomic nervous systems. 20) The chemical curare is a nicotinic receptor antagonist. How will curare affect skeletal muscle function? A) It activates an autoimmune disease that destroys myelin. B) It will cause persistent twitches with short periods of rest in between. C) It will cause spastic paralysis (sustained, unwanted muscle contraction). D) It will cause flaccid paralysis (no muscle contraction possible). E) Muscle function is fine, but it will cause a loss of voluntary control. Answer: D Section: 09.02 Topic: Physiology of skeletal muscle contraction; Clinical applications of the muscular system Bloom's: Level 3. Apply HAPS Topic: Module G04 Physiology of skeletal muscle contraction; Module G12 Predictions related to homeostatic imbalance, including disease states and disorders; Module H13 Functions of the autonomic nervous system HAPS Outcome: G12.01 Predict factors or situations affecting the muscular system that could disrupt homeostasis.; G04.04 Describe, in order, the events that occur at the neuromuscular junction that elicit an action potential in the muscle fiber.; H13.07 Differentiate between cholinergic and adrenergic nerve fibers and discuss the physiological interactions of transmitters released by these neurons with specific cholinergic and adrenergic receptor subtypes.; H13.08 Propose clinical uses of specific drugs that act at cholinergic and adrenergic receptor subtypes.
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21) Tetanus toxin inhibits acetylcholinesterase activity. What will a person suffering from tetanus toxin poisoning look like? A) All muscles of the body might exhibit frequent small twitches. B) All muscles of the body might present a tense, fully contracted state. C) All muscles of the body might present a limp, relaxed state known as flaccid paralysis. D) All muscles of the body will be completely normal in function. Answer: B Section: 09.02 Topic: Physiology of skeletal muscle contraction; Clinical applications of the muscular system Bloom's: Level 3. Apply HAPS Topic: Module G04 Physiology of skeletal muscle contraction; Module G12 Predictions related to homeostatic imbalance, including disease states and disorders; Module H13 Functions of the autonomic nervous system HAPS Outcome: G12.01 Predict factors or situations affecting the muscular system that could disrupt homeostasis.; G04.04 Describe, in order, the events that occur at the neuromuscular junction that elicit an action potential in the muscle fiber.; H13.07 Differentiate between cholinergic and adrenergic nerve fibers and discuss the physiological interactions of transmitters released by these neurons with specific cholinergic and adrenergic receptor subtypes.; H13.08 Propose clinical uses of specific drugs that act at cholinergic and adrenergic receptor subtypes. 22) Myasthenia gravis is an autoimmune disease in which the immune system gradually destroys the receptors for acetylcholine at the neuromuscular junction. Which of the following drugs might initially be useful in treating the symptoms of this disease? A) A drug that inhibits acetylcholinesterase B) A drug that inhibits release of acetylcholine C) Curare D) Atropine (a muscarinic acetylcholine receptor antagonist) E) A nicotinic acetylcholine receptor antagonist Answer: A Section: 09.07 Topic: Physiology of skeletal muscle contraction; Clinical applications of the muscular system Bloom's: Level 3. Apply HAPS Topic: Module G04 Physiology of skeletal muscle contraction; Module G12 Predictions related to homeostatic imbalance, including disease states and disorders; Module H13 Functions of the autonomic nervous system HAPS Outcome: G12.01 Predict factors or situations affecting the muscular system that could disrupt homeostasis.; G04.04 Describe, in order, the events that occur at the neuromuscular junction that elicit an action potential in the muscle fiber.; H13.07 Differentiate between cholinergic and adrenergic nerve fibers and discuss the physiological interactions of transmitters released by these neurons with specific cholinergic and adrenergic receptor subtypes.; H13.08 Propose clinical uses of specific drugs that act at cholinergic and adrenergic receptor subtypes.
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23) Which of these occurs during an isometric contraction of a skeletal muscle? A) The I bands shorten and the A bands stay the same length. B) The thick and thin filaments slide past each other. C) Sarcomere length does not change significantly. D) The A bands shorten and the I bands stay the same length. E) Cross-bridges lock onto actin, similar to what occurs in rigor mortis. Answer: C Section: 09.03 Topic: Physiology of skeletal muscle contraction Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module G04 Physiology of skeletal muscle contraction; Module G06 Principles and types of whole muscle contraction HAPS Outcome: G04.01 Explain the sliding filament theory of muscle contraction.; G06.05 Demonstrate isotonic and isometric contraction and interpret graphs of tension vs. time and muscle length vs. time for each type of contraction. 24) During an isometric twitch in a skeletal muscle A) tension generated by the muscle always exceeds the load on the muscle. B) tetanus occurs. C) sarcomeres do not significantly shorten. D) the whole muscle shortens. E) H zones shorten. Answer: C Section: 09.03 Topic: Physiology of skeletal muscle contraction Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module G06 Principles and types of whole muscle contraction HAPS Outcome: G06.05 Demonstrate isotonic and isometric contraction and interpret graphs of tension vs. time and muscle length vs. time for each type of contraction.
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25) Which of the following statements regarding skeletal muscle contraction is true? A) During a lengthening contraction, the tension exerted by the muscle exceeds the load on the muscle. B) In every isotonic muscle contraction, the length of the muscle remains constant. C) During every muscle contraction, muscle fibers change length. D) During every muscle contraction, tension is developed in the muscle. E) Cross-bridges cycle faster during isometric contractions than during isotonic contractions. Answer: D Section: 09.03 Topic: Physiology of skeletal muscle contraction Bloom's: Level 2. Understand HAPS Topic: Module G06 Principles and types of whole muscle contraction HAPS Outcome: G06.05 Demonstrate isotonic and isometric contraction and interpret graphs of tension vs. time and muscle length vs. time for each type of contraction.; G06.06 Demonstrate concentric and eccentric contraction and contrast the relative tension and resistance that exists, as well as the change in muscle length that occurs, in each type of contraction.; G06.02 Define the terms tension and contraction, with respect to muscles. 26) What is the best description of a tetanic contraction in a skeletal muscle cell? A) A single action potential in the motor neuron causes a sustained contraction. B) Multiple action potentials in the motor neuron cause a sustained contraction. C) The action potential in the muscle cell is prolonged to last as long as the contraction. D) Repeated action potentials from the motor neuron summate into a sustained depolarization of the motor end plate, causing a sustained contraction. E) A very large amplitude action potential in the motor neuron causes a very strong contraction in the skeletal muscle cell. Answer: B Section: 09.03 Topic: Physiology of skeletal muscle contraction Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module G06 Principles and types of whole muscle contraction HAPS Outcome: G06.04a Interpret a myogram or graph of tension vs. stimulus frequency and explain the physiological basis for the phenomena of treppe, summation and tetanus.
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27) How is the length of a skeletal muscle cell related to the force it can generate? A) The tension in a skeletal muscle cell is greatest when contractions occur at either very short or very long lengths. B) Skeletal muscle cells generate the same amount of force, regardless of their length. C) The shorter a skeletal muscle cell is when it begins to contract, the stronger the force generation will be. D) The longer a skeletal muscle cell is when it begins to contract, the stronger the force generation will be. E) Skeletal muscle cells generate the most force when the contraction occurs at an intermediate length. Answer: E Section: 09.03 Topic: Physiology of skeletal muscle contraction Bloom's: Level 2. Understand HAPS Topic: Module G06 Principles and types of whole muscle contraction HAPS Outcome: G06.04c Interpret a graph of the length-tension relationship and discuss the anatomical basis for that relationship. 28) The optimal length (Lo) of a skeletal muscle cell is A) the length at which the muscle can generate its maximum tetanic tension. B) the shortest length the muscle can achieve while attached to bone, because the amount of overlap between thick and thin filaments is maximal then. C) generally the length attained when the joint it crosses is fully extended. D) the only length at which any tension can be generated by the muscle cell. E) the length at which thin filaments from opposite sides of a sarcomere overlap. Answer: A Section: 09.03 Topic: Physiology of skeletal muscle contraction Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module G06 Principles and types of whole muscle contraction HAPS Outcome: G06.04c Interpret a graph of the length-tension relationship and discuss the anatomical basis for that relationship.
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29) In the first few seconds of skeletal muscle contraction, what is the main mechanism by which ATP is replenished? A) Energy and phosphate are transferred from creatine phosphate to ADP. B) Oxidative phosphorylation rapidly generates ATP from glucose. C) Glycolysis produces ATP from glycogen. D) Oxidation of fatty acids into ATP occurs in the mitochondria. E) Myoglobin catalysis produces ATP. Answer: A Section: 09.04 Topic: Skeletal muscle metabolism Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module G05 Skeletal muscle metabolism HAPS Outcome: G05.02 Describe the mechanisms that muscle fibers use to obtain ATP for muscle contraction. 30) When a muscle has been repeatedly contracting at a moderate intensity for an extended period of time (more than a few minutes), what is the primary source of ATP? A) Transfer of energy and phosphate from creatine phosphate to ADP B) Glycolysis C) Oxidative phosphorylation D) Breakdown of myosin E) Uptake of ATP from the blood plasma Answer: C Section: 09.04 Topic: Skeletal muscle metabolism Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module G05 Skeletal muscle metabolism HAPS Outcome: G05.02 Describe the mechanisms that muscle fibers use to obtain ATP for muscle contraction.
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31) Which of the following statements regarding myosin in skeletal muscle is TRUE? A) Myosin cross-bridge heads contain two binding sites, one for actin and one for tropomyosin. B) Myosin is an ATPase. C) The rate of ATP hydrolysis by myosin is the same in all types of skeletal muscle. D) All of the myosin cross-bridge heads in a thick filament are oriented and rotate in the same direction. E) Troponin covers the binding site on myosin molecules until Ca2+ binds to troponin to remove it from its blocking position. Answer: B Section: 09.01; 09.02 Topic: Microscopic anatomy of skeletal muscle; Physiology of skeletal muscle contraction Bloom's: Level 2. Understand HAPS Topic: Module G03 Detailed gross and microscopic anatomy of skeletal muscle; Module G04 Physiology of skeletal muscle contraction HAPS Outcome: G03.04 Explain the organization of a myofibril.; G03.05 Name, and describe the function of, each of the contractile, regulatory, and structural protein components of a sarcomere.; G03.07 List the anatomical and metabolic characteristics of fast, slow and intermediate muscle fibers.; G04.01 Explain the sliding filament theory of muscle contraction.; G04.02 Describe the sequence of events involved in the contraction cycle of skeletal muscle.; G04.05 Explain what is meant by the expression "excitation-contraction coupling". 32) Compared to type 1 (slow oxidative) skeletal muscle fibers, how are type 2X (fastglycolytic) skeletal muscle fibers different? A) Type 2X fibers have more abundant mitochondria. B) Type 2X fibers fatigue more readily. C) Type 2X fibers have more abundant myoglobin. D) Type 2X fibers are smaller in diameter. E) Type 2X motor units contain fewer fibers per alpha motor neuron. Answer: B Section: 09.05 Topic: Physiology of skeletal muscle contraction Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module G03 Detailed gross and microscopic anatomy of skeletal muscle HAPS Outcome: G03.07 List the anatomical and metabolic characteristics of fast, slow and intermediate muscle fibers.
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33) Unlike humans, cows eat all day. They spend hours and hours chewing with very little rest from the task in a 24-hour period. The food they eat (grass) is difficult to break down, requiring a lot of chewing. Understanding the endurance required for these chewing muscles, what fiber type would you expect to be predominant in their chewing muscles? A) Type 1 B) Type 2A C) Type 2X D) Type 3 E) There is not enough information to predict a dominant muscle fiber type Answer: A Section: 09.05 Topic: Physiology of skeletal muscle contraction Bloom's: Level 3. Apply HAPS Topic: Module G03 Detailed gross and microscopic anatomy of skeletal muscle; Module G06 Principles and types of whole muscle contraction HAPS Outcome: G03.07 List the anatomical and metabolic characteristics of fast, slow and intermediate muscle fibers.; G05.01 List the sources of energy stored in a typical muscle fiber.; G05.02 Describe the mechanisms that muscle fibers use to obtain ATP for muscle contraction. 34) The muscles in your fingers have a predominance of fast-glycolytic fibers, whereas the muscles of your feet have a predominance of slow-oxidative fibers. Which of the following statements accurately describes their differences? A) The muscle fibers of the feet have a greater abundance of glycogen than do the muscle fibers of the hands. B) Muscle fibers of the feet have a greater abundance of myoglobin than do muscle fibers of the hands. C) Muscle fibers of the hands can generate greater tension than muscle fibers of the feet. D) Muscle fibers in both locations are innervated by alpha motor neurons of the same diameter. E) More oxidative phosphorylation occurs in the hands than the feet. Answer: C Section: 09.05 Topic: Physiology of skeletal muscle contraction Bloom's: Level 3. Apply HAPS Topic: Module G03 Detailed gross and microscopic anatomy of skeletal muscle; Module G06 Principles and types of whole muscle contraction HAPS Outcome: G03.07 List the anatomical and metabolic characteristics of fast, slow and intermediate muscle fibers.; G05.01 List the sources of energy stored in a typical muscle fiber.; G05.02 Describe the mechanisms that muscle fibers use to obtain ATP for muscle contraction.
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35) Sarah is a girl with dreams of becoming an Olympic marathon runner. She just learned that she has a rare genetic mutation and does not produce functional creatine phosphate. What portion of Sarah's marathon experience will be effected? A) Just the first few seconds of exercise B) All muscle contractions after Sarah reaches her maximum heart rate (about 10 minutes into her run) C) All muscle contractions after Sarah reaches fatigue (about an hour into her run) D) Every moment of Sarah's runs E) No effects on her running Answer: A Section: 09.04 Topic: Skeletal muscle metabolism Bloom's: Level 3. Apply HAPS Topic: Module G05 Skeletal muscle metabolism HAPS Outcome: G05.02 Describe the mechanisms that muscle fibers use to obtain ATP for muscle contraction. 36) Which of the following is NOT a determinant of whole-muscle tension? A) The number of muscle fibers contracting B) The tension produced by each contracting fiber C) The numbers of motor units recruited D) The frequency of motor neuron stimulation E) The proportion of the muscle fibers within each motor unit that are contracting at any given time Answer: E Section: 09.06 Topic: Physiology of skeletal muscle contraction Bloom's: Level 2. Understand HAPS Topic: Module G06 Principles and types of whole muscle contraction HAPS Outcome: G06.03 Define the term motor unit.; G06.04b Interpret a myogram or graph of tension vs. stimulus intensity and explain the physiological basis for the phenomenon of recruitment.; G06.04a Interpret a myogram or graph of tension vs. stimulus frequency and explain the physiological basis for the phenomena of treppe, summation and tetanus.
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37) Which of the following statements regarding skeletal muscle is TRUE? A) Skeletal muscle fibers have pacemaker activity. B) Skeletal muscle fibers are joined together by gap junctions. C) A given skeletal muscle fiber will contract when excitatory nervous stimuli sufficiently exceed inhibitory nervous stimuli at the motor end plate. D) A given skeletal muscle fiber will contract if excitatory synaptic inputs sufficiently exceed inhibitory synaptic inputs on the motor neuron that innervates that fiber and the motor neuronfires an action potential. E) Skeletal muscle contraction is inhibited by inhibitory motor neurons that synapse onto skeletal muscle fibers. Answer: D Section: 09.02 Topic: Microscopic anatomy of skeletal muscle; Physiology of skeletal muscle contraction Bloom's: Level 2. Understand HAPS Topic: Module G02 Identification, general location, and comparative characteristics of skeletal, smooth, and cardiac muscle; Module G03 Detailed gross and microscopic anatomy of skeletal muscle; Module G04 Physiology of skeletal muscle contraction; Module K07 Physiology of cardiac muscle contraction; Module H14 Comparisons of somatic and autonomic nervous systems; Module H12 Physiology of sensory and motor pathways in the brain and spinal cord HAPS Outcome: G02.03 Compare and contrast the characteristics of skeletal, cardiac and smooth muscle; G04.04 Describe, in order, the events that occur at the neuromuscular junction that elicit an action potential in the muscle fiber.; G03.01 Describe the organization of muscle tissue from cell to whole muscle to groups of muscles; H12.02 Describe the locations and functions of the upper and lower motor neurons in a motor pathway.; H14.03 Name the neurotransmitters released at synapses with effector organs in the somatic and autonomic motor pathways and classify each effector response as excitatory or inhibitory; K07.02 Contrast the way action potentials are generated in cardiac pacemaker cells, in cardiac contractile cells and in skeletal muscle cells.; K07.05 Compare and contrast the role of nerves in the depolarization of cardiac pacemaker cells, ventricular contractile cells, and skeletal muscle cells.
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38) Which of these would increase the tension generated in a skeletal muscle? A) Increasing the frequency of firing in alpha motor neurons innervating the muscle B) Stretching the muscle to very long lengths C) Resting the muscle for several weeks D) Switching off fast-glycolytic motor units and activating an equal number of slow-oxidative motor units E) Increasing the amplitude of action potentials in the alpha motor neurons that innervate the muscle Answer: A Section: 09.06 Topic: Physiology of skeletal muscle contraction; Clinical applications of the muscular system Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module G03 Detailed gross and microscopic anatomy of skeletal muscle; Module G06 Principles and types of whole muscle contraction; Module G12 Predictions related to homeostatic imbalance, including disease states and disorders HAPS Outcome: G06.03 Define the term motor unit.; G03.07 List the anatomical and metabolic characteristics of fast, slow and intermediate muscle fibers.; G06.04a Interpret a myogram or graph of tension vs. stimulus frequency and explain the physiological basis for the phenomena of treppe, summation and tetanus.; G12.01 Predict factors or situations affecting the muscular system that could disrupt homeostasis.; G06.04c Interpret a graph of the length-tension relationship and discuss the anatomical basis for that relationship. 39) Which of the following statements regarding whole-muscle contraction is TRUE? A) The order of recruitment of motor units in a muscle is such that the last units recruited are those that fatigue most readily. B) The order of recruitment of motor units in a muscle is such that the first units recruited generate the most tension. C) Motor units whose motor neurons have large-diameter cell bodies are recruited first, while motor units with smaller-diameter motor neurons are only activated as the level of activation in the spinal cord increases. D) The order of motor unit recruitment is independent of the size of the alpha motor neuron that innervates them. E) Recruitment of one fast-glycolytic motor unit provides a smaller increment in whole-muscle tension than recruitment of one slow-oxidative motor unit. Answer: A Section: 09.06 Topic: Physiology of skeletal muscle contraction Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module G03 Detailed gross and microscopic anatomy of skeletal muscle; Module G06 Principles and types of whole muscle contraction HAPS Outcome: G06.03 Define the term motor unit.; G06.04b Interpret a myogram or graph of tension vs. stimulus intensity and explain the physiological basis for the phenomenon of recruitment.; G03.07 List the anatomical and metabolic characteristics of fast, slow and intermediate muscle fibers. 20 Copyright 2019 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.
40) Sarah is a sprinter who specializes in quick and powerful bursts of speed followed by periods of rest. Priya is a marathon runner who specializes in long, steady runs. Compared to Priya, Sarah is likely to have A) leg muscles with a larger diameter. B) leg muscles with a smaller diameter. C) hypertrophy of type I muscle fibers. D) a higher density of capillaries in her leg muscles. E) lower concentrations of glycolytic enzymes in her leg muscles. Answer: A Section: 09.05 Topic: Physiology of skeletal muscle contraction; Effects of aging and exercise on the muscular system Bloom's: Level 3. Apply HAPS Topic: Module G03 Detailed gross and microscopic anatomy of skeletal muscle; Module G05 Skeletal muscle metabolism; Module G11 Application of homeostatic mechanisms HAPS Outcome: G11.01 Provide specific examples to demonstrate how the muscular system responds to maintain homeostasis in the body.; G03.07 List the anatomical and metabolic characteristics of fast, slow and intermediate muscle fibers.; G05.02 Describe the mechanisms that muscle fibers use to obtain ATP for muscle contraction. 41) Sarah is a sprinter who specializes in quick and powerful bursts of speed followed by periods of rest. Priya is a marathon runner who specializes in long, steady runs. Compared to Sarah's muscles, how are Priya's most likely to differ? A) Priya muscles will have more glycogen stored in her type 2X muscle fibers. B) Priya's muscles will have more mitochondria in her type 1 and 2A muscle fibers. C) Priya's muscles will have less myoglobin in her type 1 muscle fibers. D) Priya's type 2X fibers will be larger in diameter. E) Priya will have a greater proportion of type 2 muscle fibers and a lower proportion of type 1 fibers than Sarah. Answer: B Section: 09.05 Topic: Physiology of skeletal muscle contraction; Effects of aging and exercise on the muscular system Bloom's: Level 3. Apply HAPS Topic: Module G03 Detailed gross and microscopic anatomy of skeletal muscle; Module G05 Skeletal muscle metabolism; Module G11 Application of homeostatic mechanisms HAPS Outcome: G11.01 Provide specific examples to demonstrate how the muscular system responds to maintain homeostasis in the body.; G03.07 List the anatomical and metabolic characteristics of fast, slow and intermediate muscle fibers.; G05.01 List the sources of energy stored in a typical muscle fiber.
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42) If a biopsy of the quadriceps muscles (muscles on the front of the thigh) were taken from gold medal-winning speed skaters in the four following events, which would most likely have the SMALLEST percentage of type 1 muscle fibers? A) 10,000 meters B) 5,000 meters C) 1,000 meters D) 500 meters Answer: D Section: 09.05 Topic: Physiology of skeletal muscle contraction Bloom's: Level 3. Apply HAPS Topic: Module G03 Detailed gross and microscopic anatomy of skeletal muscle HAPS Outcome: G03.07 List the anatomical and metabolic characteristics of fast, slow and intermediate muscle fibers. 43) Which of the following statements is FALSE? A) Synaptic input onto skeletal muscle cells is always excitatory, whereas inputs to smooth muscle cells may be either excitatory or inhibitory. B) A single smooth muscle cell may be innervated by both a sympathetic neuron and a parasympathetic neuron. C) Contractile activity of smooth muscle cells does not normally require Ca2+. D) In the absence of any neural input, skeletal muscle cannot generate tension. E) Ca2+ that activates contraction of smooth muscles can come from either the ECF or from the sarcoplasmic reticulum. Answer: C Section: 09.02; 09.09 Topic: Identification, location, and comparison of three types of muscle tissue; Physiology of skeletal muscle contraction Bloom's: Level 2. Understand HAPS Topic: Module G02 Identification, general location, and comparative characteristics of skeletal, smooth, and cardiac muscle; Module G04 Physiology of skeletal muscle contraction; Module H14 Comparisons of somatic and autonomic nervous systems HAPS Outcome: G04.05 Explain what is meant by the expression "excitation-contraction coupling".; G02.03 Compare and contrast the characteristics of skeletal, cardiac and smooth muscle; H14.03 Name the neurotransmitters released at synapses with effector organs in the somatic and autonomic motor pathways and classify each effector response as excitatory or inhibitory
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44) Which of these is a major difference between smooth muscle and skeletal muscle? A) Myosin is the main regulatory protein in smooth muscle. B) Myosin is the main regulatory protein in skeletal muscle. C) Skeletal muscle usually exhibits spontaneous activity, while smooth muscle cannot contract spontaneously. D) Only skeletal muscle requires increased calcium ion concentration in the cytosol for contraction. E) Only skeletal muscle has both actin and myosin. Answer: A Section: 09.01; 09.02; 09.09 Topic: Identification, location, and comparison of three types of muscle tissue; Physiology of skeletal muscle contraction Bloom's: Level 2. Understand HAPS Topic: Module G02 Identification, general location, and comparative characteristics of skeletal, smooth, and cardiac muscle; Module G03 Detailed gross and microscopic anatomy of skeletal muscle; Module G04 Physiology of skeletal muscle contraction HAPS Outcome: G03.05 Name, and describe the function of, each of the contractile, regulatory, and structural protein components of a sarcomere.; G04.05 Explain what is meant by the expression "excitation-contraction coupling".; G02.03 Compare and contrast the characteristics of skeletal, cardiac and smooth muscle 45) Which is a TRUE statement about smooth muscle? A) Smooth muscle is striated. B) Smooth muscle does not have thick and thin filaments. C) Smooth muscle does not use troponin-tropomyosin to regulate cross-bridge activity. D) Changes in cytosolic calcium do not regulate cross-bridge activity in smooth muscle. E) The myosin in smooth muscle requires phosphorylation before it can bind to ATP. Answer: C Section: 09.09 Topic: Identification, location, and comparison of three types of muscle tissue Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module G02 Identification, general location, and comparative characteristics of skeletal, smooth, and cardiac muscle HAPS Outcome: G02.03 Compare and contrast the characteristics of skeletal, cardiac and smooth muscle
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46) Which is a TRUE statement about excitation-contraction coupling? A) In skeletal muscle cells, it requires the influx of extracellular calcium ion. B) In smooth muscle cells, it must be preceded by an action potential in the cell membrane. C) In all kinds of muscle it requires the entry of calcium from the extracellular fluid. D) Calcium-induced calcium release plays a role in cardiac muscle cells, as well as in some smooth muscle cells. E) In skeletal muscle cells, excitation-contraction coupling begins when an action potential propagates along the sarcoplasmic reticulum membrane. Answer: D Section: 09.02; 09.09; 09.10 Topic: Identification, location, and comparison of three types of muscle tissue; Physiology of skeletal muscle contraction Bloom's: Level 2. Understand HAPS Topic: Module G02 Identification, general location, and comparative characteristics of skeletal, smooth, and cardiac muscle; Module G04 Physiology of skeletal muscle contraction; Module K07 Physiology of cardiac muscle contraction HAPS Outcome: G04.05 Explain what is meant by the expression "excitation-contraction coupling".; G02.03 Compare and contrast the characteristics of skeletal, cardiac and smooth muscle; K07.04 Compare and contrast cardiac muscle contraction and skeletal muscle contraction. 47) Which of the following statements regarding contraction in skeletal and smooth muscle is TRUE? A) In skeletal muscle, calcium initiates contraction by binding to troponin, while in smooth muscle calcium initiates contraction by binding directly to myosin. B) In skeletal muscle, calcium ions bind to a regulatory protein on thin filaments; in smooth muscle, calcium ions bind to a regulatory protein on thick filaments. C) In skeletal muscle, calcium initiates contraction by binding to myosin light-chain kinase, while in smooth muscle calcium initiates contraction by binding directly to tropomyosin. D) In skeletal muscle, calcium initiates contraction by binding to troponin, while in smooth muscle calcium initiates contraction by binding to calmodulin. E) All of the choices are true. Answer: D Section: 09.02; 09.09 Topic: Identification, location, and comparison of three types of muscle tissue; Physiology of skeletal muscle contraction Bloom's: Level 2. Understand HAPS Topic: Module G02 Identification, general location, and comparative characteristics of skeletal, smooth, and cardiac muscle; Module G04 Physiology of skeletal muscle contraction HAPS Outcome: G04.05 Explain what is meant by the expression "excitation-contraction coupling".; G02.03 Compare and contrast the characteristics of skeletal, cardiac and smooth muscle
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48) Which of the following is FALSE regarding single-unit smooth muscle cells? A) They have an individual neuron innervating each individual smooth-muscle cell. B) They have many gap junctions between cells. C) They may have pacemaker activity. D) They may respond to stretch by contracting. E) They exhibit tone. Answer: A Section: 09.09 Topic: Identification, location, and comparison of three types of muscle tissue Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module G02 Identification, general location, and comparative characteristics of skeletal, smooth, and cardiac muscle HAPS Outcome: G02.03 Compare and contrast the characteristics of skeletal, cardiac and smooth muscle; G02.02 Describe the structure, location in the body and function of skeletal, cardiac and smooth muscle 49) Which of the following properties of smooth muscle helps us to understand why, as pregnancy advances, women get more and more Braxton-Hicks (smooth muscle) contractions in the uterine wall? A) Smooth muscle cells contract in response to stretch. B) Smooth muscle cells contract in response to NO. C) Smooth muscle cells contract in response to CO2. D) Smooth muscle cells contract in response to changes in pH. Answer: A Section: 09.09 Topic: Identification, location, and comparison of three types of muscle tissue Bloom's: Level 3. Apply HAPS Topic: Module G02 Identification, general location, and comparative characteristics of skeletal, smooth, and cardiac muscle HAPS Outcome: G02.03 Compare and contrast the characteristics of skeletal, cardiac and smooth muscle; G02.02 Describe the structure, location in the body and function of skeletal, cardiac and smooth muscle
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50) Multiunit smooth muscle cells A) generally have individual innervation of each cell. B) have many gap junctions between cells. C) respond to stretch by relaxing. D) can only be excited, and not inhibited. E) have abundant T-tubules. Answer: A Section: 09.09 Topic: Identification, location, and comparison of three types of muscle tissue Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module G02 Identification, general location, and comparative characteristics of skeletal, smooth, and cardiac muscle HAPS Outcome: G02.03 Compare and contrast the characteristics of skeletal, cardiac and smooth muscle; G02.02 Describe the structure, location in the body and function of skeletal, cardiac and smooth muscle 51) Which of the following does NOT correctly describe cardiac muscle cells? A) They are arranged in layers surrounding hollow cavities in the heart. B) They are much shorter than skeletal muscle fibers, and generally have a single nucleus. C) Their membranes are depolarized initially by the influx of sodium ions. D) They depolarize prior to contraction. E) They can contract in the absence of external calcium. Answer: E Section: 09.10 Topic: Identification, location, and comparison of three types of muscle tissue Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module G02 Identification, general location, and comparative characteristics of skeletal, smooth, and cardiac muscle; Module K07 Physiology of cardiac muscle contraction; Module K06 Gross and microscopic anatomy of the heart HAPS Outcome: K07.04 Compare and contrast cardiac muscle contraction and skeletal muscle contraction.; G02.02 Describe the structure, location in the body and function of skeletal, cardiac and smooth muscle; K06.06 Identify myocardium and describe its histological structure, including the significance of intercalated discs.; K07.01 List the phases of the cardiac muscle action potential and explain the ion movements that occur in each phase.
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52) Which of the following choices lists a correct sequence of events following the depolarization of transverse tubules in excitation-contraction coupling in cardiac muscle? A) Calcium release into cytosol, calcium ion influx through sarcolemma, actin and myosin attach, thin filaments slide toward the middle of sarcomeres B) Actin and myosin attach, thin filaments slide toward the middle of sarcomeres, calcium release into cytosol C) Calcium release into cytosol, actin and myosin attach, calcium ion influx through sarcolemma, thin myofilaments slide toward the middle of sarcomeres D) Calcium release into cytosol, actin and myosin attach, thin filaments slide toward the middle of sarcomeres, calcium ion influx through sarcolemma E) Calcium ion influx through sarcolemma, calcium release into cytosol, actin and myosin attach, thin myofilaments slide toward the middle of sarcomeres Answer: E Section: 09.10 Topic: Identification, location, and comparison of three types of muscle tissue Bloom's: Level 2. Understand HAPS Topic: Module G02 Identification, general location, and comparative characteristics of skeletal, smooth, and cardiac muscle; Module K07 Physiology of cardiac muscle contraction HAPS Outcome: G02.03 Compare and contrast the characteristics of skeletal, cardiac and smooth muscle; K07.04 Compare and contrast cardiac muscle contraction and skeletal muscle contraction. 53) The prolonged electrical depolarization of cardiac muscle cells that occurs during contraction is due primarily to the persistent influx of what ion? A) Sodium B) Calcium C) Nitrate D) Chloride E) Potassium Answer: B Section: 09.10 Topic: Identification, location, and comparison of three types of muscle tissue Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module K07 Physiology of cardiac muscle contraction HAPS Outcome: K07.01 List the phases of the cardiac muscle action potential and explain the ion movements that occur in each phase.
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54) You are trying to design a new drug to painlessly euthanize animals. Your plan is to design a molecule that blocks the action of one of the following pumps so that heart muscle stays contracted and blood movement is stopped. Which would be effective? A) Ca 2+-ATPase pumps on the cell membrane B) Na+/K+-ATPase pumps on the cell membrane C) Ca2+-ATPase pumps on the sarcoplasmic reticulum D) Na+/Ca2+-exchangers on the cell membrane E) None of these would result in sustained muscle contraction Answer: C Section: 09.10 Topic: Identification, location, and comparison of three types of muscle tissue Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module K07 Physiology of cardiac muscle contraction HAPS Outcome: K07.04 Compare and contrast cardiac muscle contraction and skeletal muscle contraction. 55) Which best describes a role of L-type Ca2+ channels in cardiac muscle cells? A) They function exactly the same in cardiac muscle cells as they do in skeletal muscle. B) They are directly responsible for making cardiac muscle fatigue-resistant. C) They are responsible for preventing tetanic contractions. D) They cause the absolute refractory period to be very brief. E) They act as non-conducting voltage sensors that mediate excitation-contraction coupling. Answer: C Section: 09.10 Topic: Identification, location, and comparison of three types of muscle tissue Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module G04 Physiology of skeletal muscle contraction; Module K07 Physiology of cardiac muscle contraction HAPS Outcome: G04.05 Explain what is meant by the expression "excitation-contraction coupling".; K07.04 Compare and contrast cardiac muscle contraction and skeletal muscle contraction.; K07.01 List the phases of the cardiac muscle action potential and explain the ion movements that occur in each phase.; K07.03 Explain the significance of the plateau phase in the action potential of a cardiac contractile cell.
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56) Which dietary supplement is most likely to contribute to greater skeletal muscle ATP availability in the first few seconds of skeletal muscle contraction? A) Fatty acids B) Sports drinks with electrolytes C) Sugar D) Protein E) Creatine Answer: E Section: 09.04 Topic: Skeletal muscle metabolism Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module G05 Skeletal muscle metabolism HAPS Outcome: G05.02 Describe the mechanisms that muscle fibers use to obtain ATP for muscle contraction. 57) Myasthenia gravis is a collection of muscle disorders that cause muscle fatigue and weakness. What is the major mechanism? A) Overproduction of acetylcholinesterase B) Autoimmune destruction of nicotinic acetylcholine receptors C) Demyelination of axons in motor pathways D) Autoimmune destruction of L-type Ca2+ channels. E) A tumor that overproduces acetylcholine Answer: B Section: 09.07 Topic: Physiology of skeletal muscle contraction; Clinical applications of the muscular system Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module G04 Physiology of skeletal muscle contraction; Module G12 Predictions related to homeostatic imbalance, including disease states and disorders HAPS Outcome: G12.01 Predict factors or situations affecting the muscular system that could disrupt homeostasis.; G04.04 Describe, in order, the events that occur at the neuromuscular junction that elicit an action potential in the muscle fiber.; G12.02 Predict the types of problems that would occur in the body if the muscular system could not maintain homeostasis. 58) Skeletal muscles are made up of bundles of muscle fibers attached to bone by connective tissue called tendons. Answer: TRUE Section: 09.01 Topic: Gross anatomy of skeletal muscle Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module G03 Detailed gross and microscopic anatomy of skeletal muscle HAPS Outcome: G03.01 Describe the organization of muscle tissue from cell to whole muscle to groups of muscles
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59) The name given to the repeating functional units that cause striations in a skeletal muscle myofibril is "sarcomere." Answer: TRUE Section: 09.01 Topic: Microscopic anatomy of skeletal muscle Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module G03 Detailed gross and microscopic anatomy of skeletal muscle HAPS Outcome: G03.04 Explain the organization of a myofibril. 60) The force-generating sites in a myofibril are the Z lines. Answer: FALSE Section: 09.01; 09.02 Topic: Microscopic anatomy of skeletal muscle; Physiology of skeletal muscle contraction Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module G03 Detailed gross and microscopic anatomy of skeletal muscle; Module G04 Physiology of skeletal muscle contraction HAPS Outcome: G03.04 Explain the organization of a myofibril.; G04.02 Describe the sequence of events involved in the contraction cycle of skeletal muscle. 61) During skeletal muscle contraction, the distance between the Z lines of a sarcomere decreases because of shortening of the thick and thin filaments. Answer: FALSE Section: 09.02 Topic: Physiology of skeletal muscle contraction Bloom's: Level 1. Remember; Level 2. Understand HAPS Topic: Module G04 Physiology of skeletal muscle contraction HAPS Outcome: G04.01 Explain the sliding filament theory of muscle contraction. 62) During concentric contractions of skeletal muscle, the I band and H zone shorten but the A band stays the same. Answer: TRUE Section: 09.02; 09.03 Topic: Physiology of skeletal muscle contraction Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module G03 Detailed gross and microscopic anatomy of skeletal muscle; Module G04 Physiology of skeletal muscle contraction; Module G06 Principles and types of whole muscle contraction HAPS Outcome: G03.04 Explain the organization of a myofibril.; G04.01 Explain the sliding filament theory of muscle contraction.; G06.06 Demonstrate concentric and eccentric contraction and contrast the relative tension and resistance that exists, as well as the change in muscle length that occurs, in each type of contraction.
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63) The step of the cross-bridge cycle that immediately follows the attachment of ATP to the myosin head is referred to as the "powerstroke." Answer: FALSE Section: 09.02 Topic: Physiology of skeletal muscle contraction Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module G04 Physiology of skeletal muscle contraction HAPS Outcome: G04.02 Describe the sequence of events involved in the contraction cycle of skeletal muscle. 64) The energy for muscle contraction is provided by the hydrolysis of ATP. Answer: TRUE Section: 09.02 Topic: Physiology of skeletal muscle contraction Bloom's: Level 2. Understand HAPS Topic: Module G04 Physiology of skeletal muscle contraction HAPS Outcome: G04.02 Describe the sequence of events involved in the contraction cycle of skeletal muscle. 65) Actin has an ATPase enzyme. Answer: FALSE Section: 09.02 Topic: Physiology of skeletal muscle contraction Bloom's: Level 2. Understand HAPS Topic: Module G03 Detailed gross and microscopic anatomy of skeletal muscle; Module G04 Physiology of skeletal muscle contraction HAPS Outcome: G03.05 Name, and describe the function of, each of the contractile, regulatory, and structural protein components of a sarcomere.; G04.02 Describe the sequence of events involved in the contraction cycle of skeletal muscle. 66) If you tagged all ATPase enzymes in the muscle cell with fluorescent dye you would see tagging on both myosin and on the surface of the sarcoplasmic reticulum. Answer: TRUE Section: 09.02 Topic: Physiology of skeletal muscle contraction Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module G04 Physiology of skeletal muscle contraction HAPS Outcome: G04.02 Describe the sequence of events involved in the contraction cycle of skeletal muscle.
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67) The binding of ATP to myosin causes an allosteric change in myosin's actin-binding site such that the affinity of myosin for actin is decreased. Answer: TRUE Section: 09.02 Topic: Physiology of skeletal muscle contraction Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module G04 Physiology of skeletal muscle contraction HAPS Outcome: G04.02 Describe the sequence of events involved in the contraction cycle of skeletal muscle. 68) In the absence of ATP, myosin can remain bound to actin; this can occur during times when there is a significant reduction in intracellular ATP. Answer: TRUE Section: 09.02 Topic: Physiology of skeletal muscle contraction; Clinical applications of the muscular system Bloom's: Level 3. Apply HAPS Topic: Module G04 Physiology of skeletal muscle contraction; Module G12 Predictions related to homeostatic imbalance, including disease states and disorders HAPS Outcome: G04.02 Describe the sequence of events involved in the contraction cycle of skeletal muscle.; G12.01 Predict factors or situations affecting the muscular system that could disrupt homeostasis.; G12.02 Predict the types of problems that would occur in the body if the muscular system could not maintain homeostasis. 69) Binding of myosin to actin in skeletal muscle cells does not normally take place in the absence of Ca2+. Answer: TRUE Section: 09.02 Topic: Physiology of skeletal muscle contraction Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module G04 Physiology of skeletal muscle contraction HAPS Outcome: G04.05 Explain what is meant by the expression "excitation-contraction coupling". 70) Ca2+ or any other positive ion can enable cross-bridge cycling to begin. Answer: FALSE Section: 09.02 Topic: Physiology of skeletal muscle contraction Bloom's: Level 2. Understand HAPS Topic: Module G04 Physiology of skeletal muscle contraction HAPS Outcome: G04.05 Explain what is meant by the expression "excitation-contraction coupling". 32 Copyright 2019 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.
71) "Excitation-contraction coupling" refers to the binding of energized myosin to actin. Answer: FALSE Section: 09.02 Topic: Physiology of skeletal muscle contraction Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module G04 Physiology of skeletal muscle contraction HAPS Outcome: G04.05 Explain what is meant by the expression "excitation-contraction coupling". 72) The site of Ca2+ storage in muscle cells is the lateral sacs of the transverse tubules. Answer: FALSE Section: 09.01 Topic: Microscopic anatomy of skeletal muscle; Physiology of skeletal muscle contraction Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module G03 Detailed gross and microscopic anatomy of skeletal muscle; Module G04 Physiology of skeletal muscle contraction HAPS Outcome: G04.05 Explain what is meant by the expression "excitation-contraction coupling".; G03.03 Describe a skeletal muscle fiber including the transverse (T) tubules, sarcoplasmic reticulum and myofibrils. 73) Curare blocks neuromuscular transmission by preventing the release of neurotransmitters from the motor neuron. Answer: FALSE Section: 09.02 Topic: Physiology of skeletal muscle contraction; Clinical applications of the muscular system Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module G12 Predictions related to homeostatic imbalance, including disease states and disorders; Module H13 Functions of the autonomic nervous system HAPS Outcome: G12.01 Predict factors or situations affecting the muscular system that could disrupt homeostasis.; H13.08 Propose clinical uses of specific drugs that act at cholinergic and adrenergic receptor subtypes.
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74) Organophosphate "nerve gases" induce paralysis by blocking neural stimulation of the neuromuscular junctions, while botulinum toxin produces the same effect by inhibiting acetylcholinesterase. Answer: FALSE Section: 09.02 Topic: Clinical applications of the muscular system Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module G12 Predictions related to homeostatic imbalance, including disease states and disorders HAPS Outcome: G12.01 Predict factors or situations affecting the muscular system that could disrupt homeostasis. 75) The term "twitch" refers to the mechanical response of a muscle fiber during one crossbridge cycle. Answer: FALSE Section: 09.03 Topic: Physiology of skeletal muscle contraction Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module G06 Principles and types of whole muscle contraction HAPS Outcome: G06.01 Interpret a myogram of a twitch contraction with respect to the duration of the latent, contraction and relaxation periods and describe the events that occur in each period. 76) When the load on a skeletal muscle is less than the tension the muscle generates, a concentric contraction results. Answer: TRUE Section: 09.03 Topic: Physiology of skeletal muscle contraction Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module G06 Principles and types of whole muscle contraction HAPS Outcome: G06.05 Demonstrate isotonic and isometric contraction and interpret graphs of tension vs. time and muscle length vs. time for each type of contraction.; G06.06 Demonstrate concentric and eccentric contraction and contrast the relative tension and resistance that exists, as well as the change in muscle length that occurs, in each type of contraction.
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77) During isometric contraction of a skeletal muscle fiber, tension increases but the fiber length stays the same. Answer: TRUE Section: 09.03 Topic: Physiology of skeletal muscle contraction Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module G06 Principles and types of whole muscle contraction HAPS Outcome: G06.05 Demonstrate isotonic and isometric contraction and interpret graphs of tension vs. time and muscle length vs. time for each type of contraction. 78) The latent period of an isotonic twitch is shorter than the latent period of an isometric twitch. Answer: FALSE Section: 09.03 Topic: Physiology of skeletal muscle contraction Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module G06 Principles and types of whole muscle contraction HAPS Outcome: G06.05 Demonstrate isotonic and isometric contraction and interpret graphs of tension vs. time and muscle length vs. time for each type of contraction.; G06.01 Interpret a myogram of a twitch contraction with respect to the duration of the latent, contraction and relaxation periods and describe the events that occur in each period. 79) Sustained contraction and tension in a skeletal muscle is called tetanus. Answer: TRUE Section: 09.03 Topic: Physiology of skeletal muscle contraction Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module G06 Principles and types of whole muscle contraction HAPS Outcome: G06.04a Interpret a myogram or graph of tension vs. stimulus frequency and explain the physiological basis for the phenomena of treppe, summation and tetanus. 80) A skeletal muscle generates its greatest twitch tension when it is stretched to twice its resting length. Answer: FALSE Section: 09.03 Topic: Physiology of skeletal muscle contraction Bloom's: Level 2. Understand HAPS Topic: Module G06 Principles and types of whole muscle contraction HAPS Outcome: G06.04c Interpret a graph of the length-tension relationship and discuss the anatomical basis for that relationship.
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81) Fast fibers can be distinguished from slow fibers by the rate at which their myosin-ATPases split ATP. Answer: TRUE Section: 09.05 Topic: Physiology of skeletal muscle contraction Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module G03 Detailed gross and microscopic anatomy of skeletal muscle HAPS Outcome: G03.05 Name, and describe the function of, each of the contractile, regulatory, and structural protein components of a sarcomere.; G03.07 List the anatomical and metabolic characteristics of fast, slow and intermediate muscle fibers. 82) Characteristics of slow-oxidative fibers include numerous mitochondria, abundant myoglobin, and large stores of glycogen. Answer: FALSE Section: 09.05 Topic: Physiology of skeletal muscle contraction Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module G03 Detailed gross and microscopic anatomy of skeletal muscle; Module G05 Skeletal muscle metabolism HAPS Outcome: G03.07 List the anatomical and metabolic characteristics of fast, slow and intermediate muscle fibers.; G05.01 List the sources of energy stored in a typical muscle fiber. 83) The difference in color between white muscle and red muscle is accounted for by the greater abundance of glycogen in white muscle. Answer: FALSE Section: 09.05 Topic: Physiology of skeletal muscle contraction Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module G03 Detailed gross and microscopic anatomy of skeletal muscle; Module G05 Skeletal muscle metabolism HAPS Outcome: G03.07 List the anatomical and metabolic characteristics of fast, slow and intermediate muscle fibers.; G05.01 List the sources of energy stored in a typical muscle fiber. 84) The fiber type intermediate between the two extremes of fast-glycolytic and slow-oxidative is slow-glycolytic. Answer: FALSE Section: 09.05 Topic: Physiology of skeletal muscle contraction Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module G03 Detailed gross and microscopic anatomy of skeletal muscle HAPS Outcome: G03.07 List the anatomical and metabolic characteristics of fast, slow and intermediate muscle fibers. 36 Copyright 2019 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.
85) Muscles used for delicate, finely controlled movements have smaller motor units than muscles used for high power activities. Answer: TRUE Section: 09.06 Topic: Physiology of skeletal muscle contraction Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module G06 Principles and types of whole muscle contraction; Module G11 Application of homeostatic mechanisms HAPS Outcome: G06.03 Define the term motor unit.; G11.01 Provide specific examples to demonstrate how the muscular system responds to maintain homeostasis in the body. 86) In general, activating a slow-oxidative motor unit in a muscle will generate more tension than activating a fast-glycolytic motor unit. Answer: FALSE Section: 09.06 Topic: Physiology of skeletal muscle contraction Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module G03 Detailed gross and microscopic anatomy of skeletal muscle; Module G06 Principles and types of whole muscle contraction; Module G11 Application of homeostatic mechanisms HAPS Outcome: G06.03 Define the term motor unit.; G11.01 Provide specific examples to demonstrate how the muscular system responds to maintain homeostasis in the body.; G03.07 List the anatomical and metabolic characteristics of fast, slow and intermediate muscle fibers. 87) Endurance exercise, such as long-distance swimming, causes a preferential increase in glycolytic enzymes and increased mass of the exercising muscles. Answer: FALSE Section: 09.06 Topic: Effects of aging and exercise on the muscular system Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module G11 Application of homeostatic mechanisms HAPS Outcome: G11.01 Provide specific examples to demonstrate how the muscular system responds to maintain homeostasis in the body.
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88) If you took a drug that acts as an inhibitor of creatine kinase, you would still be able to contract your muscles, but in order to sustain a contraction you may notice an increase in ventilatory and heart rates. Answer: TRUE Section: 09.04 Topic: Skeletal muscle metabolism Bloom's: Level 3. Apply HAPS Topic: Module G05 Skeletal muscle metabolism HAPS Outcome: G05.02 Describe the mechanisms that muscle fibers use to obtain ATP for muscle contraction. 89) The larger the diameter of a skeletal muscle fiber, the greater the tension it can generate. Answer: TRUE Section: 09.06 Topic: Physiology of skeletal muscle contraction Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module G03 Detailed gross and microscopic anatomy of skeletal muscle HAPS Outcome: G03.07 List the anatomical and metabolic characteristics of fast, slow and intermediate muscle fibers. 90) Recruitment of different types of motor units in a muscle is one means of varying the amount of tension generated in that muscle. Answer: TRUE Section: 09.06 Topic: Physiology of skeletal muscle contraction Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module G06 Principles and types of whole muscle contraction; Module G11 Application of homeostatic mechanisms HAPS Outcome: G06.03 Define the term motor unit.; G06.04b Interpret a myogram or graph of tension vs. stimulus intensity and explain the physiological basis for the phenomenon of recruitment.; G11.01 Provide specific examples to demonstrate how the muscular system responds to maintain homeostasis in the body.
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91) Being able to generate more force with a muscle could include variations in motor unit recruitment or muscle cell hypertrophy. Answer: TRUE Section: 09.06 Topic: Physiology of skeletal muscle contraction Bloom's: Level 3. Apply HAPS Topic: Module G06 Principles and types of whole muscle contraction; Module G11 Application of homeostatic mechanisms HAPS Outcome: G06.03 Define the term motor unit.; G06.04b Interpret a myogram or graph of tension vs. stimulus intensity and explain the physiological basis for the phenomenon of recruitment.; G11.01 Provide specific examples to demonstrate how the muscular system responds to maintain homeostasis in the body. 92) The shortening velocity of a skeletal muscle fiber increases with decreasing load because the rate at which the cross-bridge cycle can occur increases with decreasing load. Answer: TRUE Section: 09.03 Topic: Physiology of skeletal muscle contraction Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module G04 Physiology of skeletal muscle contraction; Module G06 Principles and types of whole muscle contraction; Module G11 Application of homeostatic mechanisms HAPS Outcome: G11.01 Provide specific examples to demonstrate how the muscular system responds to maintain homeostasis in the body.; G04.02 Describe the sequence of events involved in the contraction cycle of skeletal muscle.; G06.05 Demonstrate isotonic and isometric contraction and interpret graphs of tension vs. time and muscle length vs. time for each type of contraction.; G06.01 Interpret a myogram of a twitch contraction with respect to the duration of the latent, contraction and relaxation periods and describe the events that occur in each period. 93) Flexor muscles generally pull on bone and decrease the angle at a joint, whereas extensor muscles push the bone to increase the angle. Answer: FALSE Section: 09.06 Topic: Physiology of skeletal muscle contraction; How skeletal muscles are named Bloom's: Level 2. Understand HAPS Topic: Module G04 Physiology of skeletal muscle contraction; Module G07 Nomenclature of skeletal muscles HAPS Outcome: G04.01 Explain the sliding filament theory of muscle contraction.; G07.01 Explain how the name of a muscle can help identify its action, appearance, or location.
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94) The decrease in mass and strength of muscle as a result of damage to the nerves innervating the muscle is called disuse atrophy. Answer: FALSE Section: 09.06 Topic: Clinical applications of the muscular system Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module G12 Predictions related to homeostatic imbalance, including disease states and disorders HAPS Outcome: G12.01 Predict factors or situations affecting the muscular system that could disrupt homeostasis. 95) A Ca2+-binding protein in smooth muscle is calmodulin. Answer: TRUE Section: 09.09 Topic: Identification, location, and comparison of three types of muscle tissue Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module G02 Identification, general location, and comparative characteristics of skeletal, smooth, and cardiac muscle HAPS Outcome: G02.03 Compare and contrast the characteristics of skeletal, cardiac and smooth muscle 96) The myosin in smooth muscle cells differs from that in skeletal muscle in that smooth muscle myosin requires phosphorylation before it can bind to actin. Answer: TRUE Section: 09.09 Topic: Identification, location, and comparison of three types of muscle tissue Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module G02 Identification, general location, and comparative characteristics of skeletal, smooth, and cardiac muscle; Module G04 Physiology of skeletal muscle contraction HAPS Outcome: G04.05 Explain what is meant by the expression "excitation-contraction coupling".; G02.03 Compare and contrast the characteristics of skeletal, cardiac and smooth muscle
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97) In smooth muscle cells that can produce action potentials, cell membrane depolarization usually opens voltage-sensitive sodium channels. Answer: FALSE Section: 09.09 Topic: Identification, location, and comparison of three types of muscle tissue Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module G02 Identification, general location, and comparative characteristics of skeletal, smooth, and cardiac muscle HAPS Outcome: G02.03 Compare and contrast the characteristics of skeletal, cardiac and smooth muscle 98) Neuronal stimulation of skeletal muscle is always excitatory, whereas neuronal stimulation of smooth muscle may be excitatory or inhibitory. Answer: TRUE Section: 09.02; 09.09 Topic: Identification, location, and comparison of three types of muscle tissue Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module G02 Identification, general location, and comparative characteristics of skeletal, smooth, and cardiac muscle; Module H14 Comparisons of somatic and autonomic nervous systems HAPS Outcome: G02.03 Compare and contrast the characteristics of skeletal, cardiac and smooth muscle; H14.03 Name the neurotransmitters released at synapses with effector organs in the somatic and autonomic motor pathways and classify each effector response as excitatory or inhibitory 99) Smooth muscle cells may contract in the absence of neuronal stimulation. Answer: TRUE Section: 09.09 Topic: Identification, location, and comparison of three types of muscle tissue Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module G02 Identification, general location, and comparative characteristics of skeletal, smooth, and cardiac muscle HAPS Outcome: G02.03 Compare and contrast the characteristics of skeletal, cardiac and smooth muscle
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100) Multiunit smooth muscle is characterized by many gap junctions between cells. Answer: FALSE Section: 09.09 Topic: Identification, location, and comparison of three types of muscle tissue Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module G02 Identification, general location, and comparative characteristics of skeletal, smooth, and cardiac muscle HAPS Outcome: G02.03 Compare and contrast the characteristics of skeletal, cardiac and smooth muscle; G02.02 Describe the structure, location in the body and function of skeletal, cardiac and smooth muscle 101) In cardiac muscle cells, the release of Ca2+ through L-type Ca2+ channels depolarizes the sarcoplasmic reticulum and inhibits the release of any additional Ca2+ necessary for excitationcontraction coupling. Answer: FALSE Section: 09.10 Topic: Identification, location, and comparison of three types of muscle tissue Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module G02 Identification, general location, and comparative characteristics of skeletal, smooth, and cardiac muscle; Module K07 Physiology of cardiac muscle contraction HAPS Outcome: G02.03 Compare and contrast the characteristics of skeletal, cardiac and smooth muscle; K07.04 Compare and contrast cardiac muscle contraction and skeletal muscle contraction. 102) More mitochondria are typically found in type 1 muscle fibers. Answer: TRUE Section: 09.05 Topic: Microscopic anatomy of skeletal muscle Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module G03 Detailed gross and microscopic anatomy of skeletal muscle HAPS Outcome: G03.07 List the anatomical and metabolic characteristics of fast, slow and intermediate muscle fibers. 103) More myoglobin is typically found in type 2X skeletal muscle fibers. Answer: FALSE Section: 09.05 Topic: Physiology of skeletal muscle contraction Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module G03 Detailed gross and microscopic anatomy of skeletal muscle HAPS Outcome: G03.07 List the anatomical and metabolic characteristics of fast, slow and intermediate muscle fibers. 42 Copyright 2019 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.
104) Compared to type 1, both forms of type 2 muscle fibers usually have a large diameter. Answer: TRUE Section: 09.05 Topic: Microscopic anatomy of skeletal muscle Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module G03 Detailed gross and microscopic anatomy of skeletal muscle HAPS Outcome: G03.07 List the anatomical and metabolic characteristics of fast, slow and intermediate muscle fibers. 105) Type 2X skeletal muscle fibers have fast myosin ATPase activity. Answer: TRUE Section: 09.05 Topic: Physiology of skeletal muscle contraction Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module G03 Detailed gross and microscopic anatomy of skeletal muscle HAPS Outcome: G03.07 List the anatomical and metabolic characteristics of fast, slow and intermediate muscle fibers. 106) Type 2 muscle fibers are generally recruited first during a muscle contraction. Answer: FALSE Section: 09.05; 09.06 Topic: Physiology of skeletal muscle contraction Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module G03 Detailed gross and microscopic anatomy of skeletal muscle; Module G06 Principles and types of whole muscle contraction; Module G11 Application of homeostatic mechanisms HAPS Outcome: G06.04b Interpret a myogram or graph of tension vs. stimulus intensity and explain the physiological basis for the phenomenon of recruitment.; G11.01 Provide specific examples to demonstrate how the muscular system responds to maintain homeostasis in the body.; G03.07 List the anatomical and metabolic characteristics of fast, slow and intermediate muscle fibers.
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107) You're holding a pose for a photograph. Your cheek muscles fatigue quickly from smiling, meanwhile your neck muscles feel fine from holding your head up. This is because your cheek muscles are predominantly type 2 muscle fibers. Answer: TRUE Section: 09.05 Topic: Physiology of skeletal muscle contraction; Skeletal muscle metabolism Bloom's: Level 3. Apply HAPS Topic: Module G03 Detailed gross and microscopic anatomy of skeletal muscle; Module G05 Skeletal muscle metabolism HAPS Outcome: G03.07 List the anatomical and metabolic characteristics of fast, slow and intermediate muscle fibers.; G05.03 Explain the factors that contribute to muscle fatigue. 108) Type 2 muscle fibers typically have the fewer mitochondria than type 1. Answer: TRUE Section: 09.05 Topic: Microscopic anatomy of skeletal muscle Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module G03 Detailed gross and microscopic anatomy of skeletal muscle HAPS Outcome: G03.07 List the anatomical and metabolic characteristics of fast, slow and intermediate muscle fibers. 109) With athletic conditioning, type 2 muscle fibers can gain myoglobin. Answer: TRUE Section: 09.05 Topic: Physiology of skeletal muscle contraction Bloom's: Level 2. Understand HAPS Topic: Module G03 Detailed gross and microscopic anatomy of skeletal muscle HAPS Outcome: G03.07 List the anatomical and metabolic characteristics of fast, slow and intermediate muscle fibers.; K07.04 Compare and contrast cardiac muscle contraction and skeletal muscle contraction.
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110) A lack of ATP in the muscle cell will lead to A) calcium build-up in the cytosol. B) myosin heads becoming "stuck" in a bound configuration with actin. C) troponin unbinding from tropomyosin. D) frequent twitches with short periods of relaxation in between. E) sustained flaccid paralysis. Answer: A, B Section: 09.02 Topic: Physiology of skeletal muscle contraction Bloom's: Level 2. Understand HAPS Topic: Module G04 Physiology of skeletal muscle contraction HAPS Outcome: G04.02 Describe the sequence of events involved in the contraction cycle of skeletal muscle. 111) Extracellular calcium plays a role in contraction in A) skeletal muscle cells. B) smooth muscle cells. C) cardiac muscle cells. D) None of these types of cells. Answer: B, C Section: 09.02 Topic: Physiology of skeletal muscle contraction Bloom's: Level 2. Understand HAPS Topic: Module G04 Physiology of skeletal muscle contraction HAPS Outcome: G04.02 Describe the sequence of events involved in the contraction cycle of skeletal muscle.
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112) Why does breathing continue to be rapid and deep for a time after heavy exercise? A) Extra oxygen is needed to restore muscle creatine phosphate concentration. B) The respiratory system is slow to increase and decrease its function before and after exercise, which is why it takes awhile for breathing to slow down. C) Lactic acid that builds up during heavy exercise must be exhaled into the air, so heavy breathing must continue for awhile after exercise to eliminate it. D) The ATP level in muscle cells falls drastically during heavy exercise, and extra oxygen is needed to restore it. E) The extra ventilation is not needed to replenish energy stores in muscle fibers, but rather simply to restore the blood pH to normal after the production of excess lactic acid during the exercise. Answer: A, E Section: 09.04 Topic: Skeletal muscle metabolism Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module G05 Skeletal muscle metabolism; Module G11 Application of homeostatic mechanisms HAPS Outcome: G11.01 Provide specific examples to demonstrate how the muscular system responds to maintain homeostasis in the body.; G05.04 Summarize the events that occur during the recovery period of muscle contraction.; G11.02 Explain how the muscular system relates to other body systems to maintain homeostasis. 113) You are training for a marathon. As you increase your level of physical fitness, you've noticed that the time spent recovering (breathing heavily after stopping running) is decreasing. What change to your muscle cells might account for this? A) Increase in actin concentration B) Increase in muscle size (hypertrophy) C) Increase in myoglobin concentration D) Increase in creatine concentration E) Increase in myosin concentration Answer: C, D Section: 09.04 Topic: Skeletal muscle metabolism Bloom's: Level 3. Apply HAPS Topic: Module G05 Skeletal muscle metabolism; Module G11 Application of homeostatic mechanisms HAPS Outcome: G11.01 Provide specific examples to demonstrate how the muscular system responds to maintain homeostasis in the body.; G05.04 Summarize the events that occur during the recovery period of muscle contraction.; G11.02 Explain how the muscular system relates to other body systems to maintain homeostasis.
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Vander's Human Physiology, 15e (Widmaier) Chapter 10 Control Body Movement 1) Which of the following statements is TRUE with regard to the motor control hierarchy? A) The highest level of the hierarchy of motor control includes the frontal lobe cortex, the primary motor cortex, muscle sensory receptors, and the basal nuclei. B) The highest level of the hierarchy of motor control is composed entirely of areas of cerebral cortex, and its main purpose is to create a conscious plan to move that depends on the initial position of the parts of the body in space. C) Neurons of the middle level of the hierarchy integrate afferent information with signals from higher center command neurons to create a motor program—a pattern of neural activity required to properly perform a desired movement. D) The local level of the motor control hierarchy includes the premotor and primary motor regions of the cerebral cortex, as well as the alpha motor neurons and muscle fibers themselves. E) Reflexes that include local-level receptors and muscle fibers cannot occur without input from the higher centers of the motor control hierarchy. 2) According to the hierarchy of motor control, A) the highest level of control consists entirely of neurons in the primary motor region of the cerebral cortex. B) the middle level of control does not involve any areas of the cerebral cortex. C) the local level of control includes the cerebellum and basal nuclei. D) structures in the middle level receive information from both the higher and the local levels of the hierarchy. E) afferent information from skin, joint, and muscle receptors cannot modify a movement once it has been initiated by a motor program from the middle level of the hierarchy. 3) Your company wants to design a drug that inhibits unwanted motor contraction. Which is the best target for the drug? A) The muscle fiber's motor neuron B) Descending inputs at the middle level of the motor control hierarchy C) The antagonistic muscle's fibers D) Golgi tendon organs E) Interneurons in the local spinal cord region 4) Stretch reflexes A) occur only in the legs. B) inhibit antagonistic muscles. C) mediate flexor activation and withdrawal from a painful stimulus. D) are initiated by stimulation of Golgi tendon organs. E) are initiated by stretching of extrafusal muscle fibers.
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5) Intrafusal muscle fibers A) are found in muscle spindles. B) are innervated by alpha motor neurons. C) generate most of the tension in a skeletal muscle. D) fire continuously at a constant rate. E) are only found in extensor muscles. 6) Which is TRUE about the muscle fibers found in a muscle spindle? A) They are not true muscle fibers because they cannot contract. B) They are innervated by alpha motor neurons. C) They function to maintain tension on spindle receptors. D) When stimulated to fire, they always inhibit flexor muscles. E) Their contraction is stimulated by alpha motor neurons and inhibited by gamma motor neurons. 7) What occurs when gamma motor neurons to a muscle are activated? A) The muscle spindle goes slack. B) The contractile ends of intrafusal fibers elongate. C) The muscle lengthens. D) Extrafusal muscle fibers within that muscle are inhibited from contracting. E) Action potential firing increases in afferent neurons from the muscle spindles. 8) You are studying the electrical properties of a bicep muscle and find that when the arm is in a neutral position there is some degree of alpha motor neuron activity, but no other activity. You conclude A) the bicep has muscle tone but is otherwise relaxed. B) the bicep muscle is completely relaxed. C) the bicep muscle is half contracted and carrying a light weight. D) the bicep muscle is complete contracted. 9) Which of the following normally occurs when a doctor's reflex hammer taps a patient's patellar tendon? A) Alpha motor neurons stimulate contraction of intrafusal fibers in extensor muscles. B) Alpha motor neurons stimulate contraction of extrafusal fibers in extensor muscles. C) Alpha motor neurons that innervate ipsilateral flexor muscles are stimulated. D) Inhibitory interneurons reduce action potential firing in alpha motor neurons to extrafusal fibers of extensor muscles. E) Golgi tendon organs in the patellar tendon stimulate the contraction of extrafusal fibers of extensor muscles.
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10) Ouch! You accidentally touched a hot pan on the stove and pull your hand away quickly. Physiologically speaking, what just occurred? A) An afferent neuron sent a signal in a monosynaptic reflex arc. B) A nociceptor initiated muscle spindle fibers. C) A nociceptor stimulated the local Golgi tendon organ. D) A nociceptor stimulated contraction of the ipsilateral flexor muscle and inhibited contraction of the ipsilateral extensor muscle. E) A nociceptor stimulated contraction of the contralateral flexor muscle and inhibits contraction of the contralateral extensor muscle. 11) Which best describes an event that occurs as part of the crossed-extensor reflex? A) It stimulates contraction of the contralateral flexor and inhibits contraction of the contralateral extensor. B) It stimulates contraction of the contralateral extensor and inhibits contraction of the contralateral flexor. C) It is initiated by stretch in the ipsilateral extensor muscle. D) Inhibitory interneurons are activated, which synapse onto contralateral extensor muscles. E) Monosynaptic excitatory stimulation of ipsilateral extensor muscles occurs. 12) What is the function of Golgi tendon organs? A) They detect stretch within tendons and inhibit the activation of alpha motor neurons to extrafusal muscle fibers in antagonistic muscles. B) They detect painful stimuli within tendons and inhibit gamma motor neurons to intrafusal muscle fibers in muscles attached to those tendons. C) They detect the angle of joints, and thus provide proprioceptive inputs about the position of the limbs in space. D) They detect stretch within tendons and inhibit the activation of alpha motor neurons to extrafusal muscle fibers in the muscle attached to those tendons. E) They stimulate the ends of intrafusal muscle fibers, ensuring that sensory information about muscle length is provided, even when a muscle shortens rapidly. 13) Which of the following would occur if you touched a hot object with your right hand? A) A stretch reflex would be triggered that would cause contraction of extensor muscles in the right arm. B) A withdrawal reflex would be triggered by nociceptors that would stimulate contraction of flexor muscles in the right arm. C) Reflex mechanisms would stimulate contraction of the extensor muscles of the right arm. D) A withdrawal reflex would be triggered by stretch receptors that would inhibit contraction of extensor muscles of the right arm. E) Nociceptors send pain information to the cerebral cortex, and descending activation of alpha motor neurons to extensor muscles would make you withdraw your right hand from the object.
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14) Which of the following does NOT describe the highest hierarchical level of motor control? A) It creates a "motor program" that uses afferent information to generate a pattern of neural activity required to carry out a given action. B) It involves brain regions that include the sensorimotor and cortical association areas. C) It sends signals along "command neurons" to parts of the brain that make up the middle level of the motor control hierarchy. D) It involves brain regions that function in memory, emotions, and motivation. E) It initiates consciously planned movements. 15) What is the importance of reciprocal innervation in muscular reflexes? A) It prevents simultaneous activity of antagonistic muscle groups that would impede limb movement. B) It ensures that limbs on the contralateral side of the body perform the same movements as those on the ipsilateral side. C) It maintains signaling along afferent neurons from stretch receptors, even when a muscle shortens rapidly. D) It prevents excessive force on a muscle from resulting in tearing of fibers, or damage to the tendon. E) It recruits synergistic muscles to come to the aid of a muscle that help it generate force and limb motion. 16) You have an accident in an organic chemistry lab and end up with a novel compound. This compound, when fed to rats, appears to stimulate dopamine secretion from the substantia nigra. You decide to try to market the drug to humans as a therapy to treat . A) nicotine addiction B) vertigo C) Parkinson's disease D) cerebellar disease E) loss of voluntary motor movement following a stroke 17) What is the function of the basal nuclei in normal motor control? A) They provide a perceptual awareness related to specific sensory inputs from the eyes, nose, and mouth. B) They provide a general perceptual awareness associated with somatosensory inputs from the skin, muscles, and joints. C) They provide a sense of the cause-and-effect relationships between muscle actions and the consequences of taking these actions before executing them. D) They participate in a looping neuronal circuit through which motor impulses are sent to facilitate or suppress movements. E) They form an initial intention to move, such as when you decide to pick up an object.
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18) Which is a symptom of Parkinson's disease? A) Flaccid paralysis B) Intention tremor C) Resting tremor D) Memory loss E) Loss of proprioception 19) What are the symptoms of patients with cerebellar disease? A) They cannot initiate movements, but will sit as though frozen for extended periods of time. B) They have resting tremors, in which the head or limbs will continuously oscillate when no movement is intended. C) They lose the ability to comprehend language, although they are still fully capable of speaking words. D) All reflexes governing unconscious reactions to muscle stretch, muscle force, and nociceptor input are lost. E) They cannot perform limb or eye movements smoothly, showing intention tremors that increase as a movement nears its final destination. 20) You are a scientist at a pharmaceutical company. You know that treating Parkinson's disease patients with dopamine has been ineffective in the past, however, your company has recently developed a method to modify drugs that can help them cross the blood-brain barrier. If you modified dopamine in this way, would it make dopamine treatment of Parkinson's more effective? A) No, because acetylcholine is the main neurotransmitter that is deficient. B) No, because injecting dopamine only makes the substantia nigra down-regulate its own production of dopamine. C) No, because dopamine will be broken down in the body before reaching the brain. D) Yes, a central issue with dopamine treatment is that dopamine cannot cross the blood-brain barrier. 21) Which best describes the specific cause of Parkinson's disease? A) Enhanced sensitivity of cholinergic receptors to acetylcholine B) Reduced ability of neurons in the substantia nigra to release dopamine C) Failure of serotonin receptors to bind with these neurohormones D) Hyperactivity of metabolic enzymes that degrade dopamine E) Natural tendency of basal nuclei to follow a daily recurring, oscillating cycle of rising and falling norepinephrine release 22) Why do people with Parkinson's disease experience resting tremors? A) Damage to the cerebellum alternately activates agonist/antagonist muscle pairs. B) Excess glutamate is released in the premotor areas of the motor cortex. C) Dopamine-secreting tumors directly activate alpha motor neurons. D) Acetylcholinesterase at neuromuscular junctions is inactivated. E) Activation of the sensorimotor cortex is reduced when the substantia nigra fails to deliver dopamine to the basal nuclei.
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23) Which is TRUE about the function of the cerebellum? A) It helps to coordinate body movements. B) It is important in maintaining posture. C) It receives input from sensory pathways. D) It stores the memory of motor movements that involve several joints. E) All of the choices are correct. 24) Which of the following symptoms is common following damage to the cerebellum? A) Flaccid paralysis B) Violent, uncontrolled body movements called chorea C) Intention tremors D) Resting tremors E) Spastic paralysis 25) You are a surgeon who is implanting a medical device in the brain of a patient with a persistent tremor in his right hand that obstructs his ability to write. Where do you implant the device that has been shown to dampen these tremors? A) In the left corticospinal motor pathways because they control most fine, discrete muscle activity. B) In the brainstem pathways because they control postural and most other coordinated body movements. C) In the left somatosensory cortex because it initiates motor activity. D) In the left corticospinal pathway or the left sensorimotor cortex that control movements of limbs on the right side of the body. 26) The corticospinal pathways A) are descending motor pathways. B) begin in the cortex of the cerebellum. C) consist of many interneurons linked synaptically. D) are composed of alpha motor neurons. E) bring sensory information from the spinal cord to the somatosensory region of the cerebral cortex. 27) Which of the following is NOT true of corticospinal fibers? A) They may synapse directly on alpha motor neurons. B) They may synapse directly on gamma motor neurons. C) They may synapse directly on interneurons. D) They are collectively sometimes called the extrapyramidal system. E) They may synapse with afferent neurons in ascending pathways. 28) What is the definition of "muscle tone"? A) The resistance of muscle to continuous passive stretch B) The sound made by a muscle at rest C) The maximum contraction strength that a muscle is capable of D) The tension in a muscle that is only due to the passive resistance of elastic structures E) The average length of the muscle fibers in a given motor unit 6 Copyright 2019 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.
29) A young man is having trouble maintaining his posture after drinking too much at a party. The afferent pathways of the postural reflexes most likely affected in this man is the A) cerebellum. B) vestibular apparatus. C) muscle spindles and temperature receptors. D) nociceptors and chemoreceptors. E) the somatosensory cortex. 30) When a walking person lifts one foot off of the ground, which of these happens? A) The body leans so that the center of gravity shifts over the foot that is lifted off the ground. B) The body only accelerates forward, so the center of gravity remains directly between the two feet. C) The body accelerates forward, but the center of gravity shifts over the foot that is lifted off the ground. D) The body leans so that the center of gravity shifts over the foot that is on the ground. E) The center of mass is left behind by the acceleration of the body, so the body must lean forward to compensate. 31) The motor neuron pool of a skeletal muscle consists of the neurons of all of the motor units of that muscle. 32) Inhibitory input to motor neurons is as important for normal muscle function as excitatory input. 33) Once a planned movement is under way, it is usually carried out with no further modifications until it is finished. 34) Practicing a movement allows for "fine-tuning" the original program so that the movement can be executed with fewer corrections. 35) Afferent information about body movement is in part integrated at the level of the interneurons controlling the firing of alpha motor neurons. 36) Afferent fibers from muscle spindle stretch receptors in a muscle make excitatory synaptic contact with motor neurons that innervate the extrafusal fibers of the same muscle. 37) Information from the muscle spindle stretch receptors is not conveyed above the level of the spinal cord and thus does not reach consciousness. 38) During motor activity, alpha-gamma coactivation provides important information regarding muscle length to the higher motor control centers. 39) Stimulation of a Golgi tendon organ causes a reflex contraction of the muscle whose tension the receptor is monitoring.
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40) The activity of alpha motor neurons innervating an extensor muscle can be inhibited by activation of the Golgi tendon organs in the tendon that attaches that muscle to bone. 41) When a person steps on a piece of glass with their right foot, flexor muscles on the left leg and extensor muscles on the right leg will be stimulated to contract. 42) You are a neurosurgeon mapping a patient's primary motor cortex. You know that the region dedicated to the quadriceps muscles will be larger than the region dedicated to the hand muscle because the quadriceps are larger than the hand muscles. 43) You are a neurosurgeon exploring a patient's right primary motor cortex during awake brain surgery. As you stimulate various areas, you are asking the operating room nurses to watch for the resulting muscle contractions on the left side of the patient's body. 44) The thalamus is an important relay station for feedback of information to the basal nuclei from the motor cortex. 45) As you learn to perfect your tennis serve, your brain is comparing the muscle contraction program for the tennis serve with the actual movement as it occurs and making adjustments in the movements. This activity is primarily occurring in your cerebellum. 46) In general, the brainstem descending pathways have greater influence over motor neurons controlling muscles involved in fine movements and the corticospinal pathways are more involved in the coordination of large muscle groups and postural muscles. 47) Crossed-extensor reflexes, but not stretch reflexes, are important postural reflexes. 48) Motor pathways extending from the central nervous system to muscle fibers are subject to control by both excitatory and inhibitory interneurons. 49) Sensory neurons that are part of the stretch reflex synapse directly onto the motor neurons of antagonist muscles, and inhibit them. 50) Motor neurons that innervate skeletal muscle fibers are subject to the summative effects of interneurons that release excitatory neurotransmitters and interneurons that release inhibitory neurotransmitters. 51) Which of the following functions are controlled by the higher centers in the motor control hierarchy? A) Forming a complex plan of footsteps while learning salsa dancing B) Trying to remember the motions involved in writing the second character in the Chinese alphabet C) Specifying tension of specific muscles involved in a soccer kick D) Comparing muscle contraction program with the initial plan while mastering a golf swing E) None of these functions are controlled by higher centers.
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52) Which of these pathways involves brain structures? A) The corticospinal pathway B) The extrapyramidal system C) The Golgi tendon organs D) The knee-jerk reflex E) All of these 53) Which is TRUE about reflexes initiated by muscle spindle activation? A) They have a monosynaptic component. B) They result in activation of gamma motor neurons. C) They result in activation of extrafusal muscle fibers. D) The "knee-jerk" reflex is an example. E) They inhibit the activation of muscles that are stretched.
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Vander's Human Physiology, 15e (Widmaier) Chapter 10 Control Body Movement 1) Which of the following statements is TRUE with regard to the motor control hierarchy? A) The highest level of the hierarchy of motor control includes the frontal lobe cortex, the primary motor cortex, muscle sensory receptors, and the basal nuclei. B) The highest level of the hierarchy of motor control is composed entirely of areas of cerebral cortex, and its main purpose is to create a conscious plan to move that depends on the initial position of the parts of the body in space. C) Neurons of the middle level of the hierarchy integrate afferent information with signals from higher center command neurons to create a motor program—a pattern of neural activity required to properly perform a desired movement. D) The local level of the motor control hierarchy includes the premotor and primary motor regions of the cerebral cortex, as well as the alpha motor neurons and muscle fibers themselves. E) Reflexes that include local-level receptors and muscle fibers cannot occur without input from the higher centers of the motor control hierarchy. Answer: C Section: 10.01 Topic: Division, origin, and function of parts of the brain; Integrative functions of the brain; Physiology of sensory and motor pathways in the brain and spinal cord Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module H07 Division, origin, and function of component parts of the brain.; Module H11 Reflexes and their roles in nervous system function.; Module H12 Physiology of sensory and motor pathways in the brain and spinal cord. HAPS Outcome: H07.02 Correlate functions with each major area of the adult brain.; H12.02 Describe the locations and functions of the upper and lower motor neurons in a motor pathway.; H11.02 Describe reflex responses in terms of the major structural and functional components of a reflex arc.
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2) According to the hierarchy of motor control, A) the highest level of control consists entirely of neurons in the primary motor region of the cerebral cortex. B) the middle level of control does not involve any areas of the cerebral cortex. C) the local level of control includes the cerebellum and basal nuclei. D) structures in the middle level receive information from both the higher and the local levels of the hierarchy. E) afferent information from skin, joint, and muscle receptors cannot modify a movement once it has been initiated by a motor program from the middle level of the hierarchy. Answer: D Section: 10.01 Topic: Division, origin, and function of parts of the brain; Integrative functions of the brain; Physiology of sensory and motor pathways in the brain and spinal cord Bloom's: Level 2. Understand HAPS Topic: Module H07 Division, origin, and function of component parts of the brain.; Module H12 Physiology of sensory and motor pathways in the brain and spinal cord. HAPS Outcome: H07.02 Correlate functions with each major area of the adult brain.; H12.01 Describe the locations and functions of the first-, second- and third-order neurons in a sensory pathway.
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3) Your company wants to design a drug that inhibits unwanted motor contraction. Which is the best target for the drug? A) The muscle fiber's motor neuron B) Descending inputs at the middle level of the motor control hierarchy C) The antagonistic muscle's fibers D) Golgi tendon organs E) Interneurons in the local spinal cord region Answer: A Section: 10.02; 10.03 Topic: Neural integration in the CNS; Physiology of sensory and motor pathways in the brain and spinal cord Bloom's: Level 3. Apply HAPS Topic: Module H05 Neurotransmitters and their roles in synaptic transmission.; Module H06 Sensory receptors and their roles.; Module H11 Reflexes and their roles in nervous system function.; Module H12 Physiology of sensory and motor pathways in the brain and spinal cord.; Module H14 Comparisons of somatic and autonomic nervous systems.; Module G09 Group actions of skeletal muscles. HAPS Outcome: H12.02 Describe the locations and functions of the upper and lower motor neurons in a motor pathway.; H06.02 Describe each of the following types of receptors, indicating what sensation it detects and giving an example of where it can be found in the bodypain receptors (nociceptors), temperature receptors, mechanoreceptors (including proprioceptors and barorceptors/pressoreceptors), chemoreceptors, and photoreceptors.; H11.02 Describe reflex responses in terms of the major structural and functional components of a reflex arc.; H05.09 Explain temporal and spatial summation of synaptic potentials.; G09.01 Define the terms prime mover (or agonist), antagonist, synergist and fixator.; H14.03 Name the neurotransmitters released at synapses with effector organs in the somatic and autonomic motor pathways and classify each effector response as excitatory or inhibitory.
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4) Stretch reflexes A) occur only in the legs. B) inhibit antagonistic muscles. C) mediate flexor activation and withdrawal from a painful stimulus. D) are initiated by stimulation of Golgi tendon organs. E) are initiated by stretching of extrafusal muscle fibers. Answer: B Section: 10.02 Topic: Reflexes and their roles in nervous system function Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module H06 Sensory receptors and their roles.; Module H11 Reflexes and their roles in nervous system function.; Module H15 Application of homeostatic mechanisms.; Module G09 Group actions of skeletal muscles. HAPS Outcome: H11.05 Describe a stretch reflex, a flexor (withdrawal) reflex, and a crossedextensor reflex, and name all components of each reflex arc.; H11.03 Distinguish between each of the following pairs of reflexes - intrinsic (inborn) reflexes vs. learned reflexes, somatic vs. visceral reflexes, monosynaptic vs. polysynaptic reflexes, and ipsilateral vs. contralateral reflexes.; H06.02 Describe each of the following types of receptors, indicating what sensation it detects and giving an example of where it can be found in the body- pain receptors (nociceptors), temperature receptors, mechanoreceptors (including proprioceptors and barorceptors/pressoreceptors), chemoreceptors, and photoreceptors.; H15.01 Provide specific examples to demonstrate how the nervous system responds to maintain homeostasis in the body.; H15.02 Explain how the nervous system relates to other body systems to maintain homeostasis.; G09.01 Define the terms prime mover (or agonist), antagonist, synergist and fixator. 5) Intrafusal muscle fibers A) are found in muscle spindles. B) are innervated by alpha motor neurons. C) generate most of the tension in a skeletal muscle. D) fire continuously at a constant rate. E) are only found in extensor muscles. Answer: A Section: 10.02 Topic: Reflexes and their roles in nervous system function Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module H11 Reflexes and their roles in nervous system function. HAPS Outcome: H11.05 Describe a stretch reflex, a flexor (withdrawal) reflex, and a crossedextensor reflex, and name all components of each reflex arc.
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6) Which is TRUE about the muscle fibers found in a muscle spindle? A) They are not true muscle fibers because they cannot contract. B) They are innervated by alpha motor neurons. C) They function to maintain tension on spindle receptors. D) When stimulated to fire, they always inhibit flexor muscles. E) Their contraction is stimulated by alpha motor neurons and inhibited by gamma motor neurons. Answer: C Section: 10.02 Topic: Reflexes and their roles in nervous system function Bloom's: Level 2. Understand HAPS Topic: Module H11 Reflexes and their roles in nervous system function. HAPS Outcome: H11.05 Describe a stretch reflex, a flexor (withdrawal) reflex, and a crossedextensor reflex, and name all components of each reflex arc. 7) What occurs when gamma motor neurons to a muscle are activated? A) The muscle spindle goes slack. B) The contractile ends of intrafusal fibers elongate. C) The muscle lengthens. D) Extrafusal muscle fibers within that muscle are inhibited from contracting. E) Action potential firing increases in afferent neurons from the muscle spindles. Answer: E Section: 10.02 Topic: Reflexes and their roles in nervous system function Bloom's: Level 2. Understand HAPS Topic: Module H06 Sensory receptors and their roles.; Module H11 Reflexes and their roles in nervous system function. HAPS Outcome: H11.05 Describe a stretch reflex, a flexor (withdrawal) reflex, and a crossedextensor reflex, and name all components of each reflex arc.; H06.02 Describe each of the following types of receptors, indicating what sensation it detects and giving an example of where it can be found in the body- pain receptors (nociceptors), temperature receptors, mechanoreceptors (including proprioceptors and barorceptors/pressoreceptors), chemoreceptors, and photoreceptors.
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8) You are studying the electrical properties of a bicep muscle and find that when the arm is in a neutral position there is some degree of alpha motor neuron activity, but no other activity. You conclude A) the bicep has muscle tone but is otherwise relaxed. B) the bicep muscle is completely relaxed. C) the bicep muscle is half contracted and carrying a light weight. D) the bicep muscle is complete contracted. Answer: A Section: 10.04 Topic: Physiology of skeletal muscle contraction; Physiology of sensory and motor pathways in the brain and spinal cord Bloom's: Level 3. Apply HAPS Topic: Module H12 Physiology of sensory and motor pathways in the brain and spinal cord.; Module G01 General functions of muscle tissue.; Module G04 Physiology of skeletal muscle contraction. HAPS Outcome: H12.02 Describe the locations and functions of the upper and lower motor neurons in a motor pathway.; G01.01 Describe the major functions of muscle tissue.; G04.02 Describe the sequence of events involved in the contraction cycle of skeletal muscle.; G04.05 Explain what is meant by the expression "excitation-contraction coupling".
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9) Which of the following normally occurs when a doctor's reflex hammer taps a patient's patellar tendon? A) Alpha motor neurons stimulate contraction of intrafusal fibers in extensor muscles. B) Alpha motor neurons stimulate contraction of extrafusal fibers in extensor muscles. C) Alpha motor neurons that innervate ipsilateral flexor muscles are stimulated. D) Inhibitory interneurons reduce action potential firing in alpha motor neurons to extrafusal fibers of extensor muscles. E) Golgi tendon organs in the patellar tendon stimulate the contraction of extrafusal fibers of extensor muscles. Answer: B Section: 10.02 Topic: Reflexes and their roles in nervous system function Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module H06 Sensory receptors and their roles.; Module H11 Reflexes and their roles in nervous system function.; Module H15 Application of homeostatic mechanisms. HAPS Outcome: H11.05 Describe a stretch reflex, a flexor (withdrawal) reflex, and a crossedextensor reflex, and name all components of each reflex arc.; H11.03 Distinguish between each of the following pairs of reflexes - intrinsic (inborn) reflexes vs. learned reflexes, somatic vs. visceral reflexes, monosynaptic vs. polysynaptic reflexes, and ipsilateral vs. contralateral reflexes.; H06.02 Describe each of the following types of receptors, indicating what sensation it detects and giving an example of where it can be found in the body- pain receptors (nociceptors), temperature receptors, mechanoreceptors (including proprioceptors and barorceptors/pressoreceptors), chemoreceptors, and photoreceptors.; H15.01 Provide specific examples to demonstrate how the nervous system responds to maintain homeostasis in the body.; H15.02 Explain how the nervous system relates to other body systems to maintain homeostasis.
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10) Ouch! You accidentally touched a hot pan on the stove and pull your hand away quickly. Physiologically speaking, what just occurred? A) An afferent neuron sent a signal in a monosynaptic reflex arc. B) A nociceptor initiated muscle spindle fibers. C) A nociceptor stimulated the local Golgi tendon organ. D) A nociceptor stimulated contraction of the ipsilateral flexor muscle and inhibited contraction of the ipsilateral extensor muscle. E) A nociceptor stimulated contraction of the contralateral flexor muscle and inhibits contraction of the contralateral extensor muscle. Answer: D Section: 10.02 Topic: Reflexes and their roles in nervous system function Bloom's: Level 3. Apply HAPS Topic: Module H06 Sensory receptors and their roles.; Module H11 Reflexes and their roles in nervous system function.; Module H15 Application of homeostatic mechanisms. HAPS Outcome: H11.05 Describe a stretch reflex, a flexor (withdrawal) reflex, and a crossedextensor reflex, and name all components of each reflex arc.; H11.03 Distinguish between each of the following pairs of reflexes - intrinsic (inborn) reflexes vs. learned reflexes, somatic vs. visceral reflexes, monosynaptic vs. polysynaptic reflexes, and ipsilateral vs. contralateral reflexes.; H06.02 Describe each of the following types of receptors, indicating what sensation it detects and giving an example of where it can be found in the body- pain receptors (nociceptors), temperature receptors, mechanoreceptors (including proprioceptors and barorceptors/pressoreceptors), chemoreceptors, and photoreceptors.; H15.01 Provide specific examples to demonstrate how the nervous system responds to maintain homeostasis in the body.; H15.02 Explain how the nervous system relates to other body systems to maintain homeostasis.
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11) Which best describes an event that occurs as part of the crossed-extensor reflex? A) It stimulates contraction of the contralateral flexor and inhibits contraction of the contralateral extensor. B) It stimulates contraction of the contralateral extensor and inhibits contraction of the contralateral flexor. C) It is initiated by stretch in the ipsilateral extensor muscle. D) Inhibitory interneurons are activated, which synapse onto contralateral extensor muscles. E) Monosynaptic excitatory stimulation of ipsilateral extensor muscles occurs. Answer: B Section: 10.02 Topic: Reflexes and their roles in nervous system function Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module H06 Sensory receptors and their roles.; Module H11 Reflexes and their roles in nervous system function.; Module H15 Application of homeostatic mechanisms. HAPS Outcome: H11.05 Describe a stretch reflex, a flexor (withdrawal) reflex, and a crossedextensor reflex, and name all components of each reflex arc.; H11.03 Distinguish between each of the following pairs of reflexes - intrinsic (inborn) reflexes vs. learned reflexes, somatic vs. visceral reflexes, monosynaptic vs. polysynaptic reflexes, and ipsilateral vs. contralateral reflexes.; H06.02 Describe each of the following types of receptors, indicating what sensation it detects and giving an example of where it can be found in the body- pain receptors (nociceptors), temperature receptors, mechanoreceptors (including proprioceptors and barorceptors/pressoreceptors), chemoreceptors, and photoreceptors.; H15.01 Provide specific examples to demonstrate how the nervous system responds to maintain homeostasis in the body.; H15.02 Explain how the nervous system relates to other body systems to maintain homeostasis.
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12) What is the function of Golgi tendon organs? A) They detect stretch within tendons and inhibit the activation of alpha motor neurons to extrafusal muscle fibers in antagonistic muscles. B) They detect painful stimuli within tendons and inhibit gamma motor neurons to intrafusal muscle fibers in muscles attached to those tendons. C) They detect the angle of joints, and thus provide proprioceptive inputs about the position of the limbs in space. D) They detect stretch within tendons and inhibit the activation of alpha motor neurons to extrafusal muscle fibers in the muscle attached to those tendons. E) They stimulate the ends of intrafusal muscle fibers, ensuring that sensory information about muscle length is provided, even when a muscle shortens rapidly. Answer: D Section: 10.02 Topic: Reflexes and their roles in nervous system function Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module H06 Sensory receptors and their roles.; Module H11 Reflexes and their roles in nervous system function.; Module H15 Application of homeostatic mechanisms. HAPS Outcome: H11.05 Describe a stretch reflex, a flexor (withdrawal) reflex, and a crossedextensor reflex, and name all components of each reflex arc.; H11.03 Distinguish between each of the following pairs of reflexes - intrinsic (inborn) reflexes vs. learned reflexes, somatic vs. visceral reflexes, monosynaptic vs. polysynaptic reflexes, and ipsilateral vs. contralateral reflexes.; H06.02 Describe each of the following types of receptors, indicating what sensation it detects and giving an example of where it can be found in the body- pain receptors (nociceptors), temperature receptors, mechanoreceptors (including proprioceptors and barorceptors/pressoreceptors), chemoreceptors, and photoreceptors.; H15.01 Provide specific examples to demonstrate how the nervous system responds to maintain homeostasis in the body.; H15.02 Explain how the nervous system relates to other body systems to maintain homeostasis.
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13) Which of the following would occur if you touched a hot object with your right hand? A) A stretch reflex would be triggered that would cause contraction of extensor muscles in the right arm. B) A withdrawal reflex would be triggered by nociceptors that would stimulate contraction of flexor muscles in the right arm. C) Reflex mechanisms would stimulate contraction of the extensor muscles of the right arm. D) A withdrawal reflex would be triggered by stretch receptors that would inhibit contraction of extensor muscles of the right arm. E) Nociceptors send pain information to the cerebral cortex, and descending activation of alpha motor neurons to extensor muscles would make you withdraw your right hand from the object. Answer: B Section: 10.02 Topic: Reflexes and their roles in nervous system function Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module H06 Sensory receptors and their roles.; Module H11 Reflexes and their roles in nervous system function.; Module H15 Application of homeostatic mechanisms. HAPS Outcome: H11.05 Describe a stretch reflex, a flexor (withdrawal) reflex, and a crossedextensor reflex, and name all components of each reflex arc.; H11.03 Distinguish between each of the following pairs of reflexes - intrinsic (inborn) reflexes vs. learned reflexes, somatic vs. visceral reflexes, monosynaptic vs. polysynaptic reflexes, and ipsilateral vs. contralateral reflexes.; H06.02 Describe each of the following types of receptors, indicating what sensation it detects and giving an example of where it can be found in the body- pain receptors (nociceptors), temperature receptors, mechanoreceptors (including proprioceptors and barorceptors/pressoreceptors), chemoreceptors, and photoreceptors.; H15.01 Provide specific examples to demonstrate how the nervous system responds to maintain homeostasis in the body.; H15.02 Explain how the nervous system relates to other body systems to maintain homeostasis.
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14) Which of the following does NOT describe the highest hierarchical level of motor control? A) It creates a "motor program" that uses afferent information to generate a pattern of neural activity required to carry out a given action. B) It involves brain regions that include the sensorimotor and cortical association areas. C) It sends signals along "command neurons" to parts of the brain that make up the middle level of the motor control hierarchy. D) It involves brain regions that function in memory, emotions, and motivation. E) It initiates consciously planned movements. Answer: A Section: 10.01 Topic: Division, origin, and function of parts of the brain; Integrative functions of the brain Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module H07 Division, origin, and function of component parts of the brain.; Module H12 Physiology of sensory and motor pathways in the brain and spinal cord. HAPS Outcome: H07.02 Correlate functions with each major area of the adult brain.; H12.01 Describe the locations and functions of the first-, second- and third-order neurons in a sensory pathway. 15) What is the importance of reciprocal innervation in muscular reflexes? A) It prevents simultaneous activity of antagonistic muscle groups that would impede limb movement. B) It ensures that limbs on the contralateral side of the body perform the same movements as those on the ipsilateral side. C) It maintains signaling along afferent neurons from stretch receptors, even when a muscle shortens rapidly. D) It prevents excessive force on a muscle from resulting in tearing of fibers, or damage to the tendon. E) It recruits synergistic muscles to come to the aid of a muscle that help it generate force and limb motion. Answer: A Section: 10.02 Topic: Reflexes and their roles in nervous system function Bloom's: Level 2. Understand HAPS Topic: Module H11 Reflexes and their roles in nervous system function.; Module G09 Group actions of skeletal muscles. HAPS Outcome: H11.05 Describe a stretch reflex, a flexor (withdrawal) reflex, and a crossedextensor reflex, and name all components of each reflex arc.; H11.03 Distinguish between each of the following pairs of reflexes - intrinsic (inborn) reflexes vs. learned reflexes, somatic vs. visceral reflexes, monosynaptic vs. polysynaptic reflexes, and ipsilateral vs. contralateral reflexes.; G09.01 Define the terms prime mover (or agonist), antagonist, synergist and fixator.
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16) You have an accident in an organic chemistry lab and end up with a novel compound. This compound, when fed to rats, appears to stimulate dopamine secretion from the substantia nigra. You decide to try to market the drug to humans as a therapy to treat . A) nicotine addiction B) vertigo C) Parkinson's disease D) cerebellar disease E) loss of voluntary motor movement following a stroke Answer: C Section: 10.03 Topic: Division, origin, and function of parts of the brain; Clinical applications of the nervous system Bloom's: Level 3. Apply HAPS Topic: Module H07 Division, origin, and function of component parts of the brain.; Module H16 Predictions related to homeostatic imbalance, including disease states and disorders. HAPS Outcome: H07.02 Correlate functions with each major area of the adult brain.; H16.01 Predict factors or situations affecting the nervous system that could disrupt homeostasis.; H16.02 Predict the types of problems that would occur in the body if the nervous system could not maintain homeostasis. 17) What is the function of the basal nuclei in normal motor control? A) They provide a perceptual awareness related to specific sensory inputs from the eyes, nose, and mouth. B) They provide a general perceptual awareness associated with somatosensory inputs from the skin, muscles, and joints. C) They provide a sense of the cause-and-effect relationships between muscle actions and the consequences of taking these actions before executing them. D) They participate in a looping neuronal circuit through which motor impulses are sent to facilitate or suppress movements. E) They form an initial intention to move, such as when you decide to pick up an object. Answer: D Section: 10.03 Topic: Division, origin, and function of parts of the brain Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module H07 Division, origin, and function of component parts of the brain. HAPS Outcome: H07.02 Correlate functions with each major area of the adult brain.
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18) Which is a symptom of Parkinson's disease? A) Flaccid paralysis B) Intention tremor C) Resting tremor D) Memory loss E) Loss of proprioception Answer: C Section: 10.03 Topic: Division, origin, and function of parts of the brain; Clinical applications of the nervous system Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module H07 Division, origin, and function of component parts of the brain.; Module H16 Predictions related to homeostatic imbalance, including disease states and disorders. HAPS Outcome: H07.02 Correlate functions with each major area of the adult brain.; H16.01 Predict factors or situations affecting the nervous system that could disrupt homeostasis.; H16.02 Predict the types of problems that would occur in the body if the nervous system could not maintain homeostasis. 19) What are the symptoms of patients with cerebellar disease? A) They cannot initiate movements, but will sit as though frozen for extended periods of time. B) They have resting tremors, in which the head or limbs will continuously oscillate when no movement is intended. C) They lose the ability to comprehend language, although they are still fully capable of speaking words. D) All reflexes governing unconscious reactions to muscle stretch, muscle force, and nociceptor input are lost. E) They cannot perform limb or eye movements smoothly, showing intention tremors that increase as a movement nears its final destination. Answer: E Section: 10.03 Topic: Division, origin, and function of parts of the brain; Clinical applications of the nervous system Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module H07 Division, origin, and function of component parts of the brain.; Module H16 Predictions related to homeostatic imbalance, including disease states and disorders. HAPS Outcome: H07.02 Correlate functions with each major area of the adult brain.; H16.01 Predict factors or situations affecting the nervous system that could disrupt homeostasis.; H16.02 Predict the types of problems that would occur in the body if the nervous system could not maintain homeostasis.
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20) You are a scientist at a pharmaceutical company. You know that treating Parkinson's disease patients with dopamine has been ineffective in the past, however, your company has recently developed a method to modify drugs that can help them cross the blood-brain barrier. If you modified dopamine in this way, would it make dopamine treatment of Parkinson's more effective? A) No, because acetylcholine is the main neurotransmitter that is deficient. B) No, because injecting dopamine only makes the substantia nigra down-regulate its own production of dopamine. C) No, because dopamine will be broken down in the body before reaching the brain. D) Yes, a central issue with dopamine treatment is that dopamine cannot cross the blood-brain barrier. Answer: D Section: 10.03 Topic: Clinical applications of the nervous system Bloom's: Level 3. Apply HAPS Topic: Module H08 Protective roles of the cranial bones, meninges, and cerebrospinal fluid.; Module H16 Predictions related to homeostatic imbalance, including disease states and disorders.; Module K12 Anatomy and functional roles of the different types of blood vessels HAPS Outcome: H16.01 Predict factors or situations affecting the nervous system that could disrupt homeostasis.; H08.04 Describe the structural basis for, and the importance of the blood brain barrier.; K12.04b List types of capillaries and state where in the body each type is found.; K12.04c Correlate the anatomical structure of capillaries with their functions. 21) Which best describes the specific cause of Parkinson's disease? A) Enhanced sensitivity of cholinergic receptors to acetylcholine B) Reduced ability of neurons in the substantia nigra to release dopamine C) Failure of serotonin receptors to bind with these neurohormones D) Hyperactivity of metabolic enzymes that degrade dopamine E) Natural tendency of basal nuclei to follow a daily recurring, oscillating cycle of rising and falling norepinephrine release Answer: B Section: 10.03 Topic: Clinical applications of the nervous system Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module H16 Predictions related to homeostatic imbalance, including disease states and disorders. HAPS Outcome: H16.01 Predict factors or situations affecting the nervous system that could disrupt homeostasis.
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22) Why do people with Parkinson's disease experience resting tremors? A) Damage to the cerebellum alternately activates agonist/antagonist muscle pairs. B) Excess glutamate is released in the premotor areas of the motor cortex. C) Dopamine-secreting tumors directly activate alpha motor neurons. D) Acetylcholinesterase at neuromuscular junctions is inactivated. E) Activation of the sensorimotor cortex is reduced when the substantia nigra fails to deliver dopamine to the basal nuclei. Answer: E Section: 10.03 Topic: Division, origin, and function of parts of the brain; Clinical applications of the nervous system Bloom's: Level 2. Understand HAPS Topic: Module H07 Division, origin, and function of component parts of the brain.; Module H16 Predictions related to homeostatic imbalance, including disease states and disorders. HAPS Outcome: H07.02 Correlate functions with each major area of the adult brain.; H16.01 Predict factors or situations affecting the nervous system that could disrupt homeostasis.; H16.02 Predict the types of problems that would occur in the body if the nervous system could not maintain homeostasis. 23) Which is TRUE about the function of the cerebellum? A) It helps to coordinate body movements. B) It is important in maintaining posture. C) It receives input from sensory pathways. D) It stores the memory of motor movements that involve several joints. E) All of the choices are correct. Answer: E Section: 10.03 Topic: Division, origin, and function of parts of the brain Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module H07 Division, origin, and function of component parts of the brain. HAPS Outcome: H07.02 Correlate functions with each major area of the adult brain.
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24) Which of the following symptoms is common following damage to the cerebellum? A) Flaccid paralysis B) Violent, uncontrolled body movements called chorea C) Intention tremors D) Resting tremors E) Spastic paralysis Answer: C Section: 10.03 Topic: Division, origin, and function of parts of the brain; Clinical applications of the nervous system Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module H07 Division, origin, and function of component parts of the brain.; Module H16 Predictions related to homeostatic imbalance, including disease states and disorders. HAPS Outcome: H07.02 Correlate functions with each major area of the adult brain.; H16.01 Predict factors or situations affecting the nervous system that could disrupt homeostasis.; H16.02 Predict the types of problems that would occur in the body if the nervous system could not maintain homeostasis. 25) You are a surgeon who is implanting a medical device in the brain of a patient with a persistent tremor in his right hand that obstructs his ability to write. Where do you implant the device that has been shown to dampen these tremors? A) In the left corticospinal motor pathways because they control most fine, discrete muscle activity. B) In the brainstem pathways because they control postural and most other coordinated body movements. C) In the left somatosensory cortex because it initiates motor activity. D) In the left corticospinal pathway or the left sensorimotor cortex that control movements of limbs on the right side of the body. Answer: D Section: 10.03 Topic: Division, origin, and function of parts of the brain; Physiology of sensory and motor pathways in the brain and spinal cord Bloom's: Level 3. Apply HAPS Topic: Module H07 Division, origin, and function of component parts of the brain.; Module H12 Physiology of sensory and motor pathways in the brain and spinal cord. HAPS Outcome: H07.02 Correlate functions with each major area of the adult brain.; H12.02 Describe the locations and functions of the upper and lower motor neurons in a motor pathway.; H12.03 Explain how decussation occurs in sensory and motor pathways and predict how decussation impacts the correlation of brain damage and symptoms in stroke patients.
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26) The corticospinal pathways A) are descending motor pathways. B) begin in the cortex of the cerebellum. C) consist of many interneurons linked synaptically. D) are composed of alpha motor neurons. E) bring sensory information from the spinal cord to the somatosensory region of the cerebral cortex. Answer: A Section: 10.03 Topic: Physiology of sensory and motor pathways in the brain and spinal cord Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module H12 Physiology of sensory and motor pathways in the brain and spinal cord. HAPS Outcome: H12.01 Describe the locations and functions of the first-, second- and thirdorder neurons in a sensory pathway.; H12.02 Describe the locations and functions of the upper and lower motor neurons in a motor pathway. 27) Which of the following is NOT true of corticospinal fibers? A) They may synapse directly on alpha motor neurons. B) They may synapse directly on gamma motor neurons. C) They may synapse directly on interneurons. D) They are collectively sometimes called the extrapyramidal system. E) They may synapse with afferent neurons in ascending pathways. Answer: D Section: 10.03 Topic: Physiology of sensory and motor pathways in the brain and spinal cord Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module H12 Physiology of sensory and motor pathways in the brain and spinal cord. HAPS Outcome: H12.02 Describe the locations and functions of the upper and lower motor neurons in a motor pathway.
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28) What is the definition of "muscle tone"? A) The resistance of muscle to continuous passive stretch B) The sound made by a muscle at rest C) The maximum contraction strength that a muscle is capable of D) The tension in a muscle that is only due to the passive resistance of elastic structures E) The average length of the muscle fibers in a given motor unit Answer: A Section: 10.04 Topic: General functions of muscle tissue Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module G01 General functions of muscle tissue.; Module G06 Principles and types of whole muscle contraction. HAPS Outcome: G01.01 Describe the major functions of muscle tissue.; G06.03 Define the term motor unit. 29) A young man is having trouble maintaining his posture after drinking too much at a party. The afferent pathways of the postural reflexes most likely affected in this man is the A) cerebellum. B) vestibular apparatus. C) muscle spindles and temperature receptors. D) nociceptors and chemoreceptors. E) the somatosensory cortex. Answer: B Section: 10.05 Topic: Division, origin, and function of parts of the brain; Reflexes and their roles in nervous system function; Physiology of sensory and motor pathways in the brain and spinal cord Bloom's: Level 3. Apply HAPS Topic: Module H06 Sensory receptors and their roles.; Module H07 Division, origin, and function of component parts of the brain.; Module H11 Reflexes and their roles in nervous system function. HAPS Outcome: H07.02 Correlate functions with each major area of the adult brain.; H06.02 Describe each of the following types of receptors, indicating what sensation it detects and giving an example of where it can be found in the body- pain receptors (nociceptors), temperature receptors, mechanoreceptors (including proprioceptors and barorceptors/pressoreceptors), chemoreceptors, and photoreceptors.; H11.02 Describe reflex responses in terms of the major structural and functional components of a reflex arc.
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30) When a walking person lifts one foot off of the ground, which of these happens? A) The body leans so that the center of gravity shifts over the foot that is lifted off the ground. B) The body only accelerates forward, so the center of gravity remains directly between the two feet. C) The body accelerates forward, but the center of gravity shifts over the foot that is lifted off the ground. D) The body leans so that the center of gravity shifts over the foot that is on the ground. E) The center of mass is left behind by the acceleration of the body, so the body must lean forward to compensate. Answer: D Section: 10.06 Topic: Clinical applications of the muscular system; Clinical applications of the nervous system Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module H15 Application of homeostatic mechanisms. HAPS Outcome: H15.01 Provide specific examples to demonstrate how the nervous system responds to maintain homeostasis in the body. 31) The motor neuron pool of a skeletal muscle consists of the neurons of all of the motor units of that muscle. Answer: TRUE Section: 10.01 Topic: Physiology of sensory and motor pathways in the brain and spinal cord Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module H12 Physiology of sensory and motor pathways in the brain and spinal cord.; Module G06 Principles and types of whole muscle contraction. HAPS Outcome: H12.02 Describe the locations and functions of the upper and lower motor neurons in a motor pathway.; G06.03 Define the term motor unit. 32) Inhibitory input to motor neurons is as important for normal muscle function as excitatory input. Answer: TRUE Section: 10.01 Topic: Neural integration in the CNS; Physiology of sensory and motor pathways in the brain and spinal cord Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module H05 Neurotransmitters and their roles in synaptic transmission.; Module H12 Physiology of sensory and motor pathways in the brain and spinal cord. HAPS Outcome: H12.02 Describe the locations and functions of the upper and lower motor neurons in a motor pathway.; H05.09 Explain temporal and spatial summation of synaptic potentials.
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33) Once a planned movement is under way, it is usually carried out with no further modifications until it is finished. Answer: FALSE Section: 10.01 Topic: Integrative functions of the brain; Physiology of sensory and motor pathways in the brain and spinal cord Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module H02 Organization of the nervous system from both anatomical and functional perspectives.; Module H12 Physiology of sensory and motor pathways in the brain and spinal cord. HAPS Outcome: H12.01 Describe the locations and functions of the first-, second- and thirdorder neurons in a sensory pathway.; H12.02 Describe the locations and functions of the upper and lower motor neurons in a motor pathway.; H02.01 Describe the nervous system as a control system identifying nervous system elements that are sensory receptors, the afferent pathway, control centers, the efferent pathway, and effector organs. 34) Practicing a movement allows for "fine-tuning" the original program so that the movement can be executed with fewer corrections. Answer: TRUE Section: 10.01 Topic: Integrative functions of the brain Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module H07 Division, origin, and function of component parts of the brain. HAPS Outcome: H07.08 Describe the parts of the brain involved in storage of long term memory and discuss possible mechanisms of memory consolidation. 35) Afferent information about body movement is in part integrated at the level of the interneurons controlling the firing of alpha motor neurons. Answer: TRUE Section: 10.02 Topic: Neural integration in the CNS; Physiology of sensory and motor pathways in the brain and spinal cord Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module H02 Organization of the nervous system from both anatomical and functional perspectives.; Module H05 Neurotransmitters and their roles in synaptic transmission.; Module H12 Physiology of sensory and motor pathways in the brain and spinal cord. HAPS Outcome: H12.01 Describe the locations and functions of the first-, second- and thirdorder neurons in a sensory pathway.; H12.02 Describe the locations and functions of the upper and lower motor neurons in a motor pathway.; H02.01 Describe the nervous system as a control system identifying nervous system elements that are sensory receptors, the afferent pathway, control centers, the efferent pathway, and effector organs.; H05.09 Explain temporal and spatial summation of synaptic potentials.
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36) Afferent fibers from muscle spindle stretch receptors in a muscle make excitatory synaptic contact with motor neurons that innervate the extrafusal fibers of the same muscle. Answer: TRUE Section: 10.02 Topic: Reflexes and their roles in nervous system function Bloom's: Level 2. Understand HAPS Topic: Module H11 Reflexes and their roles in nervous system function. HAPS Outcome: H11.05 Describe a stretch reflex, a flexor (withdrawal) reflex, and a crossedextensor reflex, and name all components of each reflex arc.; H11.03 Distinguish between each of the following pairs of reflexes - intrinsic (inborn) reflexes vs. learned reflexes, somatic vs. visceral reflexes, monosynaptic vs. polysynaptic reflexes, and ipsilateral vs. contralateral reflexes. 37) Information from the muscle spindle stretch receptors is not conveyed above the level of the spinal cord and thus does not reach consciousness. Answer: FALSE Section: 10.02 Topic: Reflexes and their roles in nervous system function Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module H07 Division, origin, and function of component parts of the brain.; Module H11 Reflexes and their roles in nervous system function. HAPS Outcome: H11.05 Describe a stretch reflex, a flexor (withdrawal) reflex, and a crossedextensor reflex, and name all components of each reflex arc.; H07.02 Correlate functions with each major area of the adult brain. 38) During motor activity, alpha-gamma coactivation provides important information regarding muscle length to the higher motor control centers. Answer: TRUE Section: 10.02 Topic: Physiology of sensory and motor pathways in the brain and spinal cord Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module H11 Reflexes and their roles in nervous system function. HAPS Outcome: H11.05 Describe a stretch reflex, a flexor (withdrawal) reflex, and a crossedextensor reflex, and name all components of each reflex arc.
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39) Stimulation of a Golgi tendon organ causes a reflex contraction of the muscle whose tension the receptor is monitoring. Answer: FALSE Section: 10.02 Topic: Reflexes and their roles in nervous system function Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module H06 Sensory receptors and their roles.; Module H11 Reflexes and their roles in nervous system function. HAPS Outcome: H11.03 Distinguish between each of the following pairs of reflexes - intrinsic (inborn) reflexes vs. learned reflexes, somatic vs. visceral reflexes, monosynaptic vs. polysynaptic reflexes, and ipsilateral vs. contralateral reflexes.; H06.02 Describe each of the following types of receptors, indicating what sensation it detects and giving an example of where it can be found in the body- pain receptors (nociceptors), temperature receptors, mechanoreceptors (including proprioceptors and barorceptors/pressoreceptors), chemoreceptors, and photoreceptors. 40) The activity of alpha motor neurons innervating an extensor muscle can be inhibited by activation of the Golgi tendon organs in the tendon that attaches that muscle to bone. Answer: TRUE Section: 10.02 Topic: Reflexes and their roles in nervous system function Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module H06 Sensory receptors and their roles.; Module H11 Reflexes and their roles in nervous system function. HAPS Outcome: H11.03 Distinguish between each of the following pairs of reflexes - intrinsic (inborn) reflexes vs. learned reflexes, somatic vs. visceral reflexes, monosynaptic vs. polysynaptic reflexes, and ipsilateral vs. contralateral reflexes.; H06.02 Describe each of the following types of receptors, indicating what sensation it detects and giving an example of where it can be found in the body- pain receptors (nociceptors), temperature receptors, mechanoreceptors (including proprioceptors and barorceptors/pressoreceptors), chemoreceptors, and photoreceptors.
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41) When a person steps on a piece of glass with their right foot, flexor muscles on the left leg and extensor muscles on the right leg will be stimulated to contract. Answer: FALSE Section: 10.02 Topic: Reflexes and their roles in nervous system function Bloom's: Level 3. Apply HAPS Topic: Module H06 Sensory receptors and their roles.; Module H11 Reflexes and their roles in nervous system function.; Module H15 Application of homeostatic mechanisms. HAPS Outcome: H11.05 Describe a stretch reflex, a flexor (withdrawal) reflex, and a crossedextensor reflex, and name all components of each reflex arc.; H11.03 Distinguish between each of the following pairs of reflexes - intrinsic (inborn) reflexes vs. learned reflexes, somatic vs. visceral reflexes, monosynaptic vs. polysynaptic reflexes, and ipsilateral vs. contralateral reflexes.; H06.02 Describe each of the following types of receptors, indicating what sensation it detects and giving an example of where it can be found in the body- pain receptors (nociceptors), temperature receptors, mechanoreceptors (including proprioceptors and barorceptors/pressoreceptors), chemoreceptors, and photoreceptors.; H15.01 Provide specific examples to demonstrate how the nervous system responds to maintain homeostasis in the body.; H15.02 Explain how the nervous system relates to other body systems to maintain homeostasis. 42) You are a neurosurgeon mapping a patient's primary motor cortex. You know that the region dedicated to the quadriceps muscles will be larger than the region dedicated to the hand muscle because the quadriceps are larger than the hand muscles. Answer: FALSE Section: 10.03 Topic: Division, origin, and function of parts of the brain Bloom's: Level 3. Apply HAPS Topic: Module H07 Division, origin, and function of component parts of the brain. HAPS Outcome: H07.04 Identify the five lobes of the cerebral cortex and describe how the motor and sensory functions of the cerebrum are distributed among the lobes.
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43) You are a neurosurgeon exploring a patient's right primary motor cortex during awake brain surgery. As you stimulate various areas, you are asking the operating room nurses to watch for the resulting muscle contractions on the left side of the patient's body. Answer: TRUE Section: 10.03 Topic: Division, origin, and function of parts of the brain; Physiology of sensory and motor pathways in the brain and spinal cord Bloom's: Level 3. Apply HAPS Topic: Module H07 Division, origin, and function of component parts of the brain.; Module H12 Physiology of sensory and motor pathways in the brain and spinal cord. HAPS Outcome: H07.04 Identify the five lobes of the cerebral cortex and describe how the motor and sensory functions of the cerebrum are distributed among the lobes.; H12.03 Explain how decussation occurs in sensory and motor pathways and predict how decussation impacts the correlation of brain damage and symptoms in stroke patients. 44) The thalamus is an important relay station for feedback of information to the basal nuclei from the motor cortex. Answer: FALSE Section: 10.01; 10.03 Topic: Division, origin, and function of parts of the brain; Integrative functions of the brain Bloom's: Level 2. Understand HAPS Topic: Module H07 Division, origin, and function of component parts of the brain. HAPS Outcome: H07.02 Correlate functions with each major area of the adult brain. 45) As you learn to perfect your tennis serve, your brain is comparing the muscle contraction program for the tennis serve with the actual movement as it occurs and making adjustments in the movements. This activity is primarily occurring in your cerebellum. Answer: TRUE Section: 10.03 Topic: Division, origin, and function of parts of the brain; Integrative functions of the brain Bloom's: Level 3. Apply HAPS Topic: Module H07 Division, origin, and function of component parts of the brain. HAPS Outcome: H07.02 Correlate functions with each major area of the adult brain.
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46) In general, the brainstem descending pathways have greater influence over motor neurons controlling muscles involved in fine movements and the corticospinal pathways are more involved in the coordination of large muscle groups and postural muscles. Answer: FALSE Section: 10.03 Topic: Physiology of sensory and motor pathways in the brain and spinal cord Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module H12 Physiology of sensory and motor pathways in the brain and spinal cord. HAPS Outcome: H12.02 Describe the locations and functions of the upper and lower motor neurons in a motor pathway. 47) Crossed-extensor reflexes, but not stretch reflexes, are important postural reflexes. Answer: FALSE Section: 10.05 Topic: Reflexes and their roles in nervous system function Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module H11 Reflexes and their roles in nervous system function. HAPS Outcome: H11.05 Describe a stretch reflex, a flexor (withdrawal) reflex, and a crossedextensor reflex, and name all components of each reflex arc.; H11.03 Distinguish between each of the following pairs of reflexes - intrinsic (inborn) reflexes vs. learned reflexes, somatic vs. visceral reflexes, monosynaptic vs. polysynaptic reflexes, and ipsilateral vs. contralateral reflexes. 48) Motor pathways extending from the central nervous system to muscle fibers are subject to control by both excitatory and inhibitory interneurons. Answer: TRUE Section: 10.02 Topic: Neural integration in the CNS; Physiology of sensory and motor pathways in the brain and spinal cord Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module H05 Neurotransmitters and their roles in synaptic transmission.; Module H12 Physiology of sensory and motor pathways in the brain and spinal cord. HAPS Outcome: H12.02 Describe the locations and functions of the upper and lower motor neurons in a motor pathway.; H05.09 Explain temporal and spatial summation of synaptic potentials.
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49) Sensory neurons that are part of the stretch reflex synapse directly onto the motor neurons of antagonist muscles, and inhibit them. Answer: FALSE Section: 10.02 Topic: Reflexes and their roles in nervous system function Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module H11 Reflexes and their roles in nervous system function.; Module G09 Group actions of skeletal muscles. HAPS Outcome: H11.05 Describe a stretch reflex, a flexor (withdrawal) reflex, and a crossedextensor reflex, and name all components of each reflex arc.; H11.03 Distinguish between each of the following pairs of reflexes - intrinsic (inborn) reflexes vs. learned reflexes, somatic vs. visceral reflexes, monosynaptic vs. polysynaptic reflexes, and ipsilateral vs. contralateral reflexes.; G09.01 Define the terms prime mover (or agonist), antagonist, synergist and fixator. 50) Motor neurons that innervate skeletal muscle fibers are subject to the summative effects of interneurons that release excitatory neurotransmitters and interneurons that release inhibitory neurotransmitters. Answer: TRUE Section: 10.02 Topic: Neurotransmitters and their roles in synaptic transmission; Physiology of sensory and motor pathways in the brain and spinal cord Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module H05 Neurotransmitters and their roles in synaptic transmission.; Module H12 Physiology of sensory and motor pathways in the brain and spinal cord. HAPS Outcome: H12.02 Describe the locations and functions of the upper and lower motor neurons in a motor pathway.; H05.09 Explain temporal and spatial summation of synaptic potentials.
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51) Which of the following functions are controlled by the higher centers in the motor control hierarchy? A) Forming a complex plan of footsteps while learning salsa dancing B) Trying to remember the motions involved in writing the second character in the Chinese alphabet C) Specifying tension of specific muscles involved in a soccer kick D) Comparing muscle contraction program with the initial plan while mastering a golf swing E) None of these functions are controlled by higher centers. Answer: A, B Section: 10.01 Topic: Physiology of sensory and motor pathways in the brain and spinal cord Bloom's: Level 3. Apply HAPS Topic: Module H12 Physiology of sensory and motor pathways in the brain and spinal cord. HAPS Outcome: H12.02 Describe the locations and functions of the upper and lower motor neurons in a motor pathway. 52) Which of these pathways involves brain structures? A) The corticospinal pathway B) The extrapyramidal system C) The Golgi tendon organs D) The knee-jerk reflex E) All of these Answer: A, B Section: 10.02 Topic: Reflexes and their roles in nervous system function Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module H11 Reflexes and their roles in nervous system function. HAPS Outcome: H11.05 Describe a stretch reflex, a flexor (withdrawal) reflex, and a crossedextensor reflex, and name all components of each reflex arc.
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53) Which is TRUE about reflexes initiated by muscle spindle activation? A) They have a monosynaptic component. B) They result in activation of gamma motor neurons. C) They result in activation of extrafusal muscle fibers. D) The "knee-jerk" reflex is an example. E) They inhibit the activation of muscles that are stretched. Answer: A, C, D Section: 10.02 Topic: Reflexes and their roles in nervous system function Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module H11 Reflexes and their roles in nervous system function.; Module H15 Application of homeostatic mechanisms. HAPS Outcome: H11.05 Describe a stretch reflex, a flexor (withdrawal) reflex, and a crossedextensor reflex, and name all components of each reflex arc.; H11.03 Distinguish between each of the following pairs of reflexes - intrinsic (inborn) reflexes vs. learned reflexes, somatic vs. visceral reflexes, monosynaptic vs. polysynaptic reflexes, and ipsilateral vs. contralateral reflexes.; H15.01 Provide specific examples to demonstrate how the nervous system responds to maintain homeostasis in the body.
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Vander's Human Physiology, 15e (Widmaier) Chapter 11 The Endocrine System 1) Which of the following statements is NOT true of the endocrine system? A) It is one of two major regulatory systems of the body. B) It is composed of glands that secrete chemical messengers into the blood. C) It is an important regulator of homeostatic mechanisms. D) It influences and is influenced by the nervous system. E) Most of its components are anatomically connected, like most other systems of the body. 2) Which does NOT apply to hormones? A) They are chemical regulators that are conveyed from one organ to another via the bloodstream. B) In some cases, the same chemical substances can also function as local regulators and/or neurotransmitters. C) All hormones are derived from cholesterol. D) They are secreted into the blood by ductless glands. E) They are sometimes secreted by neural tissue. 3) When examining an endocrine cell from a new species of mammal under the microscope you find that it contains an abundance of rough endoplasmic reticulum, a large Golgi apparatus, and secretory granules. Which of the following is most likely to be true about these cells? A) It secretes a peptide/protein hormone. B) It secretes its product by diffusion through the lipid bilayer of the plasma membrane. C) It secretes by endocytosis. D) Its hormone product is synthesized from cholesterol. E) It secretes a hormone with a hydrophobic structure. 4) Which is most likely a characteristic of cells that secrete steroid hormones? A) They store large amounts of hormone. B) They are characterized by abundant smooth endoplasmic reticulum and few secretory granules. C) They contain large numbers of secretory granules. D) They are found in the anterior pituitary gland. E) They are found in the medulla of the adrenal gland. 5) Which is TRUE regarding the structure and synthesis of hormones? A) Steroid hormones are synthesized from cholesterol. B) Thyroid hormones are catecholamines. C) The hormones of the adrenal cortex have the same structure as the neurotransmitters of adrenergic neurons. D) Most peptide hormones require binding proteins for transport in the blood. E) Vasopressin is synthesized in the posterior pituitary.
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6) What is the definition of a prohormone? A) Hormones that bind to endocrine glands and stimulate the secretion of a second hormone B) Hormones that bind to endocrine glands and inhibit the secretion of a second hormone C) A longer protein or peptide that is cleaved into shorter ones, at least one of which is a peptide or protein hormone D) Hormones that stimulate the expression of receptors for a second hormone, promoting their action E) Steroid hormones that are inactivated by having hydroxyl groups removed from their structure 7) Which of the following statements about hormone synthesis is NOT correct? A) Progesterone can be a precursor of cortisol. B) Progesterone is a precursor of mineralocorticoid and glucocorticoid hormones. C) Pregnenolone is a precursor for all steroid hormones. D) Tryptophan is a precursor for thyroid hormones. E) Peptide hormones are polymers of amino acids. 8) Which would most directly decrease the production of aldosterone? A) Going on a low-salt diet B) Ingesting extra dietary vitamin D C) Reducing dietary tyrosine D) Increasing dietary cholesterol E) Injecting a drug that blocks the production of angiotensin II 9) In a hypothetical rare genetic disease in which the ribosomes in some cells of the anterior pituitary are malformed. Which hormone, if any, would you expect missing from a patient with this disease? A) Anti-diuretic hormone B) Thyroid hormone C) Progesterone D) Estrogen E) Oxytocin 10) A hormone may be A) inactivated by its target cell. B) activated by its target cell. C) inactivated by nontarget cells. D) excreted before it has a chance to act on a target cell. E) All of the choices could be correct. 11) How is the concentration of a hormone in plasma determined? A) Only by its rate of secretion B) By the number of its target cells in the body C) Only by its rate of synthesis D) By its secretion and clearance rates, and whether or not it binds to carriers and/or other plasma proteins E) Only by the rate of its degradation by the liver and kidneys 2 Copyright 2019 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.
12) Your patient has advanced stage cancer and her liver is starting to fail. One consequence is markedly reduced plasma proteins. In what way might this affect her endocrine system? A) Transport of all hormones in the blood is compromised B) No change to endocrine system function C) A reduction in the synthesis of steroid hormones by the liver D) A reduction in the rate of hydrophobic hormones like steroid and thyroid hormones reaching their target tissues E) A reduction in the rate of peptide-type hormones reaching their target tissues 13) Which is NOT an endocrine function performed by the liver? A) Secreting insulin-like growth factor 1 B) Clearing hormones from plasma C) Secreting angiotensinogen D) Producing plasma proteins that bind hormones E) Secreting insulin 14) What is a main difference between the modes of action of peptide hormones and steroid hormones? A) Peptide hormones bind to intracellular receptors, whereas steroid hormones bind to receptors on the cell surface. B) Peptide hormones act as second messengers, whereas steroid hormones bind to receptors in the cytosol. C) Peptide hormones bind to receptors on the cell surface, whereas steroid hormones act as second messengers. D) Peptide hormones bind to receptors on the cell surface, whereas steroid hormones bind to intracellular receptors. E) There are no differences; both act by binding to intracellular receptors. 15) You have discovered a novel steroid hormone. You'd like to isolate its receptor as part of your next project. Where should you look first? A) On the cell surface B) In the blood stream C) In the cytoplasm D) Any of these might be places where the receptor could be found. 16) Which is NOT true about receptors for steroid hormones? A) They may be proteins found in the nucleus. B) They undergo allosteric modulation when they bind to the hormone. C) They regulate gene transcription. D) They may be found in the nucleus. E) They are synthesized from cholesterol.
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17) You have discovered a novel hormone. Early experiments have shown that it is quite hydrophobic. Which of the following is likely to also be TRUE of these hormones? A) They mostly bind to receptor proteins in the surface membrane of target cells. B) They are generally polar molecules. C) They usually have very rapid effects on target cells. D) Their mechanism of action generally involves altering protein synthesis. E) They are highly soluble in blood plasma. 18) Acting alone, epinephrine and thyroid hormone each stimulates release of only a small amount of fatty acids from adipose cells. In the presence of thyroid hormone, epinephrine causes a much more substantial release of fatty acids from the cells. What is the term describing the effect of thyroid hormone on epinephrine's actions? A) Antagonistic B) Agonistic C) Permissive D) Direct E) Paracrine 19) What term describes hormones that influence the secretion of other hormones? A) Mineralocorticoids B) Antagonistic C) Tropic D) Allosteric E) Teratogen 20) Which of the following statements about oxytocin is TRUE? A) Target cells of oxytocin have receptors for the hormone in their nucleus. B) Oxytocin is synthesized in the hypothalamus. C) Oxytocin is secreted by the anterior pituitary gland. D) Oxytocin's main function is to increase the rate of respiration. E) Oxytocin keeps uterine smooth muscle from contracting, so it prolongs pregnancy. 21) Which accurately describes the median eminence of the hypothalamus? A) It is the site of synthesis of adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH). B) It is a site where neurohormones are released into blood vessels. C) It is the site where vasopressin is released into blood vessels. D) It is the stalk connecting the hypothalamus to the posterior pituitary. E) It is the main site where thyroid-stimulating hormone first enters the bloodstream.
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22) Sally is a 10-year-old girl going through a growth spurt. Her blood levels of growth hormone are two-fold higher than at the same time last week. Which other hormones are likely to also be elevated? A) Insulin-like growth factor 1 B) Prolactin C) Cortisol D) ACTH E) Follicle-stimulating hormone 23) Which of these describes secondary hypersecretion of hormone X? A) A growing tumor secretes hormone Y, which stimulates the gland that secretes hormone X. B) Cells of a growing tumor manufacture hormone X in unregulated fashion. C) Negative feedback from a tumor that hypersecretes hormone Z inhibits the gland that secretes hormone X. D) Hormone X is secreted by a growing tumor that is in the anterior pituitary gland. E) Hormone X is secreted in unregulated fashion by a tumor growing in a tissue that does not normally secrete hormone X. 24) Which of the following hormones is NOT secreted by the anterior pituitary gland? A) Somatotropin B) Prolactin C) Corticotropin D) Erythropoietin E) Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) 25) What term describes hormones secreted by the hypothalamus that regulate the secretion of hormones from the anterior pituitary gland? A) Growth factors B) Paracrine factors C) Hypophysiotropic hormones D) Metabotrobic-releasing factors E) Cerebrovitalistic hormones 26) Which is an example of long-loop negative feedback? A) Stimulation of dopamine release by prolactin B) Inhibition of growth hormone-releasing hormone (GHRH) release by growth hormone (GH) C) Inhibition of growth hormone-releasing hormone (GHRH) release by insulin-like growth factor-1 D) Inhibition of corticotropin-releasing hormone by adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) E) Stimulation of thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) release by thyrotropin-releasing hormone (TRH)
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27) Which of the following statements about hormones is correct? A) Anterior pituitary hormones are synthesized in the hypothalamus. B) All hormones secreted by the anterior and posterior pituitary glands are peptides. C) IGF-1 stimulates growth by increasing growth hormone secretion through positive feedback. D) All of the hypophysiotropic hormones are peptides. E) Only steroid hormones can regulate the secretion of steroid hormones. 28) A chemical precursor for cortisol is , which is made from . Cortisol is secreted by when stimulated by from the anterior pituitary. A) androstenedione; progesterone; adrenal cortex; corticotropin-releasing hormone (CRH) B) progesterone; cholesterol; adrenal medulla; adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) C) testosterone; cholesterol; adrenal medulla; adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) D) progesterone; cholesterol; adrenal cortex; adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) E) estradiol; cholesterol; adrenal medulla; corticotropin-releasing hormone (CRH) 29) Which is an accurate description of the posterior pituitary and its functions? A) It is glandular tissue and secretes vasopressin and prolactin. B) It is neural tissue and is stimulated to secrete oxytocin and vasopressin by hypophysiotropic hormones. C) It is neural tissue, and vesicles containing oxytocin and vasopressin are transported to axon terminals there. D) It is glandular tissue and releases oxytocin and somatostatin when action potentials arrive along axons from the hypothalamus. E) It is neural tissue that secretes hypophysiotropic hormones that control the secretion of the anterior pituitary hormones. 30) Which is a function of the gonadotropic hormones? A) Stimulating the release of follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) and luteinizing hormone (LH) B) Inhibiting the release of growth hormone C) Inhibiting the release of prolactin D) Inducing the secretion of steroid hormones by the gonads in both males and females E) Stimulating the release of gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH) 31) If the adrenal glands were removed from a patient, his plasma cortisol levels would , secretion of CRH by the would , and secretion of ACTH by the would . A) increase; hypothalamus; decrease; anterior pituitary gland; decrease B) decrease; hypothalamus; increase; adenohypophysis; increase C) decrease; anterior pituitary gland; increase; hypothalamus; increase D) increase; hypothalamus; increase; adenohypophysis; increase E) decrease; adenohypophysis; increase; anterior pituitary gland; increase
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32) Which of these could be a cause of hypertrophy of the adrenal cortex? A) Autoimmune destruction of receptors for adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) B) Autoimmune destruction of hypothalamic cells that secrete corticotropin-releasing hormone C) Injection of an excess of cortisol D) Destruction of the anterior pituitary by a stroke E) Low levels of cortisol in the circulation 33) You have a patient complaining of fatigue and lethargy. She mentions that she recently went on a low-salt, all carbohydrate diet and consumes mostly rice. You notice a swelling in her neck. You order some blood work. Which of the following do you expect? A) Low plasma concentration of thyroid hormones and thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) B) Low plasma concentration of thyroid hormones C) High plasma concentration of thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) but low thyrotropinreleasing hormone (TRH) D) High plasma concentration of thyroid hormones due to increased secretion of TSH by the pituitary gland E) Low plasma concentration of thyroid hormones and atrophy of the thyroid gland due to reduced concentrations of thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) 34) Which would be the effect of a blood clot that blocked the vessels of the hypothalamopituitary portal system in the infundibulum between the hypothalamus and the anterior pituitary gland? A) Secretion of adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) would decrease and the adrenal cortex would atrophy B) Secretion of gonadotropins will decrease and the gonads will hypertrophy C) Secretion of corticotropin-releasing hormone (CRH) would decrease D) Secretion of prolactin would decrease E) Secretion of follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) would increase 35) It's final exam time and you're finding yourself extremely stressed out. If we examined your blood, which of the following would we be likely to find? A) Increased secretion of corticotropin from the anterior pituitary B) Increased secretion of corticotropin from the hypothalamus C) Increased secretion of adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) from the hypothalamus D) Negative feedback to the adrenal cortex by adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) E) Decreased secretion of corticotropin-releasing hormone (CRH) by the hypothalamus 36) Short-loop negative feedback occurs when hormones from the secretion by the . A) hypothalamus; anterior pituitary B) adrenal cortex; hypothalamus C) anterior pituitary; hypothalamus D) adrenal cortex; anterior pituitary E) anterior pituitary; adrenal cortex
_ inhibit hormone
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37) If the pituitary gland is removed from a human subject, which of the following is likely to occur? A) The adrenal gland will hypertrophy to increase cortisol production. B) The adrenal gland will atrophy and plasma cortisol levels will be reduced. C) The hypothalamus will secrete less CRH. D) The subject will remain euthyroid. E) There will be increased negative feedback on growth hormone by insulin-like growth factor 1 (IGF-1). 38) Which are hormones secreted by the posterior pituitary? A) Vasopressin and dopamine B) Corticotropin and dopamine C) Oxytocin and prolactin D) Vasopressin and corticotropin E) Antidiuretic hormone (ADH) and oxytocin 39) Which stimulates the secretion of growth hormone? A) Waking from sleep B) Exercise C) Increased levels of IGF-I in blood D) High plasma glucose E) Increased somatostatin secretion 40) Deficiency of iodine in the diet results in caused by _. A) a goiter; increased production of thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) and increased thyroid hormone levels B) atrophy of the thyroid gland; loss of negative feedback by thyroid hormones and increased thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) levels C) a goiter; loss of negative feedback by thyroid hormones and increased thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) levels D) atrophy of the thyroid gland; decreased sensitivity of receptors for thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) E) atrophy of the anterior pituitary gland; loss of negative feedback by thyroid hormones 41) A patient goes to her doctor, complaining of fatigue, weight gain, and intolerance to cold. She also has a noticeable goiter in her neck. Which of the following is a most likely diagnosis and cause? A) She has hypothyroidism, possibly due to destruction of thyrotrope cells of her anterior pituitary gland. B) She has hyperthyroidism, possibly due to Graves' disease. C) She has hypothyroidism, possibly due to low iodine in her diet. D) She has hyperthyroidism, possibly due to a hypersecreting tumor of the anterior pituitary gland.
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42) Which is most likely a result of hypersecretion of growth hormone? A) Acromegaly B) Dwarfism C) Decreased plasma concentration of IGF-I D) Decreased secretion of somatostatin E) Increased secretion of growth hormone-releasing hormone (GHRH) 43) A patient appears in a clinic complaining of irritability and chronic sweatiness. He also has a lump in his neck near his larynx. Blood tests show he has low levels of thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) in his plasma. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis? A) Primary hypothyroidism B) An iodine-insufficient diet C) Secondary hypothyroidism D) Hyposecretion of TRH E) Graves' disease 44) To synthesize thyroid hormones, iodine is attached to A) cholesterol. B) the amino acid tyrosine. C) the amino acid tryptophan. D) acetyl coenzyme A. E) the amino acid phenylalanine. 45) Which is a result of elevated thyroid hormone levels? A) An increase in triglyceride storage B) Increased Na+/K+ ATPase activity C) Decreased body temperature D) Mental lethargy 46) Which is a result of an absence of thyroid hormones during fetal development? A) Acromegaly B) Cushing's syndrome C) Congenital hypothyroidism (cretinism) D) Graves' disease E) Addison's disease 47) You are designing an experiment to quantify the levels of stress experienced by different individuals. Which of the following tests would reveal insight as to a patient's chronic stress? A) Testing plasma levels of growth hormone B) Testing plasma levels of parathyroid hormone C) Testing plasma levels of dopamine D) Testing plasma levels of follicle-stimulating hormone E) Testing plasma levels of cortisol
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48) What is the major hormone responsible for mediating the body's general response to stress? A) Thyroid hormone B) Growth hormone C) Testosterone D) Aldosterone E) Cortisol 49) Which of the following is NOT stimulated by cortisol during stress? A) Gluconeogenesis B) Protein catabolism C) Glucose uptake into muscle cells D) Triglyceride catabolism in adipose cells E) Decreased sensitivity to insulin 50) You're studying long-term stress in foster children. One thing you find is that, among the children experiencing the most significant stress for the longest period of time is decreases in . A) circulating cortisol levels B) bone and muscle density C) blood glucose levels D) adrenal gland function 51) Which of the following is an action of the sympathetic nervous system during stress? A) It increases the ability to respond to situations where physical activity is required. B) It increases blood flow to the skeletal muscles and viscera. C) It inhibits blood clotting. D) It decreases ventilation of the lungs to save oxygen. E) It increases glycogen synthesis in the liver. 52) Which of the following hormones is NOT usually secreted at higher levels in response to stress? A) Aldosterone B) Gonadotropins C) Vasopressin D) Antidiuretic hormone (ADH) E) Beta-endorphin 53) Which statement best describes the manner in which growth hormone stimulates cell proliferation? A) It directly stimulates cell division in most tissues. B) It stimulates the release of insulin-like growth factor I (IGF-1) from the liver and other target tissues of growth hormone. C) It stimulates metabolism. D) It stimulates the release of eicosanoids from lymphoid tissues. E) It stimulates sleep.
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54) At what time in the lifespan is growth hormone secretion rate highest? A) In utero B) During childhood C) During adolescence D) During adulthood E) During senescence 55) Which is true about the growth of long bones? A) Osteoblasts dissolve bone tissue when bones remodel in response to sex hormones. B) Osteoclasts are responsible for depositing new bone tissue at the epiphyseal growth plate before puberty. C) Before adolescence, bones are completely made up of cartilage; after puberty they ossify and harden. D) Growth in length occurs at a single epiphyseal growth plate in the center of the shaft of long bones. E) Growth in length occurs at two epiphyseal growth plates near the ends of long bones. 56) In what form is the body's largest pool of calcium? A) Embedded in collagen in many types of connective tissue B) Blood, dissolved within the plasma C) Skeletal muscle, stored in terminal cisternae D) Bones, in the form of hydroxyapatites E) Liver, inside the endoplasmic reticulum 57) During a long illness, Terrell has not been eating much. As a result, his plasma Ca2+ levels decrease. Which hormone would we expect to see in higher levels than usual in his blood? A) Thyroxine B) Parathyroid hormone C) Calcitonin D) Growth hormone E) Insulin 58) Which is NOT an effect of parathyroid hormone? A) Increases the bone-degrading activity of osteoclasts B) Decreases reabsorption of calcium by the kidneys C) Promotes vitamin D synthesis, leading to increased intestinal absorption of calcium D) Increases plasma [Ca2+] E) Decreases reabsorption of phosphate by the kidneys 59) Which would result from a vitamin D deficiency? A) Hypercalcemia B) An increase in bone mass C) An increase in parathyroid hormone levels D) Increased intestinal absorption of calcium
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60) Which of the following is TRUE regarding pituitary growth hormone (GH)? A) The liver produces a factor that mediates the metabolic actions of GH. B) GH stimulates insulin-like growth factor-1 (IGF-1) production by the liver and by many other cells. C) GH increases the sensitivity of tissues to the action of insulin. D) GH exerts negative feedback on its own production by inhibiting the hypothalamic secretion of somatostatin. E) IGF-1 stimulates the secretion of GH by anterior pituitary gland cells. 61) Which of the following is NOT true of pituitary growth hormone? A) It directly promotes protein anabolism in many cells. B) It causes differentiation of precursor cells that then respond to IGF-I by proliferating. C) Hypersecretion of growth hormone in adults leads to acromegaly. D) It is absent or deficient in pituitary dwarfs. E) It is necessary for fetal growth. 62) Baby Sylvia is born with a thyroid deficiency. Which of the following can we expect for Sylvia if it goes untreated? A) Gigantism B) Acromegaly C) Growth rate will be faster than normal. D) Growth rate will be slower than normal. E) Body temperature will be above normal. 63) A deficiency in dietary iodine can cause A) congenital hypothyroidism (cretinism). B) a slowing of mental functions. C) a low metabolic rate. D) a goiter. E) All of the choices are correct. 64) Which correctly lists a function of estrogens in females and testosterone in males? A) They prevent the pubertal growth spurt. B) They are responsible for epiphyseal plate closure. C) They stimulate the secretion of gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH). D) They stimulate the secretion of luteinizing hormone (LH). E) They stimulate the reabsorption of bone. 65) An endocrine cell that contains an abundance of rough endoplasmic reticulum, a large Golgi apparatus, and many secretory granules is likely to secrete a peptide hormone. 66) Steroid hormones are stored in the cells that synthesize them until a stimulus is received that provokes their secretion. 67) A patient with low circulating androgen levels may have experienced damage to the adrenal gland. 12 Copyright 2019 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.
68) Some women (including Angelina Jolie) with mutations in tumor suppressor genes, opt for oophorectomy (removal of their ovaries) to decrease their risk of some types of cancer. Unless they take supplements, they probably will have lower circulating levels of both androgens and estrogen. 69) Most amine and peptide hormones circulate in the plasma as free hormones, whereas steroid hormones are mostly bound to circulating binding proteins. 70) In general, steroid hormones bind to receptors on cell membranes, whereas peptide hormones bind to receptors inside of cells. 71) In general, the metabolism and excretion rates of steroid hormones are higher than those of peptide hormones. 72) The concentration of a hormone in the blood can affect the number of receptors for that hormone on or in a target cell. 73) Thyroid hormones exert a permissive effect on the actions of epinephrine. 74) Both thyroxine and thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) are amine hormones. 75) Stimuli for the secretion of hormones include changes in plasma concentrations of ions, nutrients, and other hormones. 76) The mechanism of action of lipid-soluble hormones is generally via the stimulation or inhibition of specific DNA-dependent protein synthesis. 77) Binding of hydrophilic hormones to their receptors often results in the formation of one or more second messengers that lead to alterations of the cell's activity. 78) A precursor of cortisol is cholesterol. 79) The adrenal cortex is part of the autonomic nervous system. 80) The receptors for estradiol, T3, and vasopressin are all located in the nuclei of target cells. 81) Unlike neurons, endocrine cells generally do not act as integrators of various kinds of positive or negative inputs. 82) In cases where the plasma concentration of an ion or nutrient affects the secretion rate of a hormone, the affected hormone is usually a regulator of the homeostasis of that ion or nutrient. 83) Hormones of the posterior lobe of the pituitary are synthesized in neuronal cell bodies of the hypothalamus and transported to the pituitary by axonal transport.
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84) Damage to the hypothalamus would impact the function of the anterior pituitary, but not the posterior pituitary. 85) The pituitary portal circulation refers to the blood vessels linking the anterior pituitary with the target glands of anterior pituitary hormones. 86) The primary function of thyrotropin is to stimulate secretion of thyroid hormones. 87) The liver is a target gland of growth hormone. 88) A general name for a hormone that regulates mineral ion homeostasis is "tropic hormone." 89) The effect of some tropic hormones is to stimulate release of other tropic hormones. 90) In bone, osteoblasts serve mainly to dissolve bone and mobilize Ca2+. 91) The net intake and output of calcium for the entire body is regulated most directly by the activities of the kidneys and the gastrointestinal tract. 92) The amount of Ca2+ within the extracellular fluid is greater than that in the bones at any given time. 93) In order for growth to occur, the overall rate of anabolism must be greater than the overall rate of catabolism. 94) Dietary protein is necessary to achieve normal growth in infants and children. 95) A child's growth would be stunted by thyroid hormone deficiency. 96) A hypothalamic tumor that secretes large amounts of somatostatin may cause dwarfism in a young child. 97) Growth hormone secretion is stimulated by exercise. 98) The actions of thyroid hormones in stimulating body growth are permissive to the actions of growth hormone. 99) Insulin is important for growth both before and after birth. 100) Kevin, a young child with elevated plasma cortisol concentration, is is likely to have reduced height. 101) Depressed levels of thyroid hormones in blood resulting from a defect in the cells that secrete TSH is an example of primary hyposecretion of thyroid hormones.
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102) Hormones can be A) peptides. B) fatty acids. C) steroids. D) amines. E) phospholipids. 103) You have a 12-year-old patient who is hoping to be a professional basketball player. As part of her dream, she is hoping to grow as much as possible before her growth plates fuse. As her doctor, you recommend which of the following to help her grow? A) Always getting a good night's sleep B) Frequent exercise C) Drinking lots of water D) Eating twice as much protein as is recommended for a person her size E) None of these will help her grow 104) You have a pediatric patient who does not seem to be growing at the same rate as his peers. You test the blood levels of growth hormone and find them to be within the healthy range. What else could be a factor? A) Low thyroid hormone levels B) Low IGF-1 levels C) High cortisol levels D) Low FSH levels E) All of these
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Vander's Human Physiology, 15e (Widmaier) Chapter 11 The Endocrine System 1) Which of the following statements is NOT true of the endocrine system? A) It is one of two major regulatory systems of the body. B) It is composed of glands that secrete chemical messengers into the blood. C) It is an important regulator of homeostatic mechanisms. D) It influences and is influenced by the nervous system. E) Most of its components are anatomically connected, like most other systems of the body. Answer: E Section: 11.01 Topic: General functions of the endocrine system Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module J01 General functions of the endocrine system. HAPS Outcome: J01.01 Describe the major functions of the endocrine system.; J01.03 Compare and contrast how the nervous and endocrine systems control body function, with emphasis on the mechanisms by which the controlling signals are transferred through the body and the time course of the response(s) and action(s). 2) Which does NOT apply to hormones? A) They are chemical regulators that are conveyed from one organ to another via the bloodstream. B) In some cases, the same chemical substances can also function as local regulators and/or neurotransmitters. C) All hormones are derived from cholesterol. D) They are secreted into the blood by ductless glands. E) They are sometimes secreted by neural tissue. Answer: C Section: 11.01; 11.02 Topic: General functions of the endocrine system; Physiology of hormones and hormone secretion Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module J01 General functions of the endocrine system.; Module J02 Chemical classification of hormones and mechanism of hormone actions at receptors. HAPS Outcome: J02.01 List the major chemical classes of hormones found in the human body.; J01.01 Describe the major functions of the endocrine system.; J01.02 Define the terms hormone, endocrine gland, endocrine tissue (organ), and target cell.; J01.03 Compare and contrast how the nervous and endocrine systems control body function, with emphasis on the mechanisms by which the controlling signals are transferred through the body and the time course of the response(s) and action(s).
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3) When examining an endocrine cell from a new species of mammal under the microscope you find that it contains an abundance of rough endoplasmic reticulum, a large Golgi apparatus, and secretory granules. Which of the following is most likely to be true about these cells? A) It secretes a peptide/protein hormone. B) It secretes its product by diffusion through the lipid bilayer of the plasma membrane. C) It secretes by endocytosis. D) Its hormone product is synthesized from cholesterol. E) It secretes a hormone with a hydrophobic structure. Answer: A Section: 11.02 Topic: Physiology of hormones and hormone secretion Bloom's: Level 3. Apply HAPS Topic: Module J02 Chemical classification of hormones and mechanism of hormone actions at receptors. HAPS Outcome: J02.01 List the major chemical classes of hormones found in the human body. 4) Which is most likely a characteristic of cells that secrete steroid hormones? A) They store large amounts of hormone. B) They are characterized by abundant smooth endoplasmic reticulum and few secretory granules. C) They contain large numbers of secretory granules. D) They are found in the anterior pituitary gland. E) They are found in the medulla of the adrenal gland. Answer: B Section: 11.01; 11.02 Topic: Physiology of hormones and hormone secretion; Hormones of the hypothalamus and pituitary glands and their functions; Hormones from other endocrine glands and their functions Bloom's: Level 3. Apply HAPS Topic: Module J02 Chemical classification of hormones and mechanism of hormone actions at receptors.; Module J05 Identity, source, secretory control, and functional roles of the major hormones produced by the body. HAPS Outcome: J02.01 List the major chemical classes of hormones found in the human body.; J05.01b Identify the gland or endocrine tissue/organ and the cells within that gland/tissue/organ that produce growth hormone, thyroid-stimulating hormone, luteinizing hormone, follicle stimulating hormone, prolactin, adrenocorticotropic hormone, oxytocin, and antidiuretic hormone (or vasopressin).; J05.04b In the adrenal gland, identify the gland or endocrine tissue/organ and the cells within that gland/tissue/organ that produce glucocorticoids (cortisol), mineralocorticoids (aldosterone), gonadocorticoids, epinephrine and norepinephrine.
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5) Which is TRUE regarding the structure and synthesis of hormones? A) Steroid hormones are synthesized from cholesterol. B) Thyroid hormones are catecholamines. C) The hormones of the adrenal cortex have the same structure as the neurotransmitters of adrenergic neurons. D) Most peptide hormones require binding proteins for transport in the blood. E) Vasopressin is synthesized in the posterior pituitary. Answer: A Section: 11.02; 11.03; 11.08 Topic: Physiology of hormones and hormone secretion; Hormones of the hypothalamus and pituitary glands and their functions; Hormones from other endocrine glands and their functions Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module J02 Chemical classification of hormones and mechanism of hormone actions at receptors.; Module J05 Identity, source, secretory control, and functional roles of the major hormones produced by the body.; Module H13 Functions of the autonomic nervous system HAPS Outcome: J02.01 List the major chemical classes of hormones found in the human body.; J05.01b Identify the gland or endocrine tissue/organ and the cells within that gland/tissue/organ that produce growth hormone, thyroid-stimulating hormone, luteinizing hormone, follicle stimulating hormone, prolactin, adrenocorticotropic hormone, oxytocin, and antidiuretic hormone (or vasopressin).; J05.04b In the adrenal gland, identify the gland or endocrine tissue/organ and the cells within that gland/tissue/organ that produce glucocorticoids (cortisol), mineralocorticoids (aldosterone), gonadocorticoids, epinephrine and norepinephrine.; H13.02 Contrast the anatomy of the parasympathetic and sympathetic systems, including central nervous system outflow locations, ganglia locations, pre- and post-ganglionic neuron relative lengths, and ganglionic and effector neurotransmitters.; J02.02 Describe how each class is transported in the blood. 6) What is the definition of a prohormone? A) Hormones that bind to endocrine glands and stimulate the secretion of a second hormone B) Hormones that bind to endocrine glands and inhibit the secretion of a second hormone C) A longer protein or peptide that is cleaved into shorter ones, at least one of which is a peptide or protein hormone D) Hormones that stimulate the expression of receptors for a second hormone, promoting their action E) Steroid hormones that are inactivated by having hydroxyl groups removed from their structure Answer: C Section: 11.02 Topic: Physiology of hormones and hormone secretion Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module J02 Chemical classification of hormones and mechanism of hormone actions at receptors. HAPS Outcome: J02.01 List the major chemical classes of hormones found in the human body.
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7) Which of the following statements about hormone synthesis is NOT correct? A) Progesterone can be a precursor of cortisol. B) Progesterone is a precursor of mineralocorticoid and glucocorticoid hormones. C) Pregnenolone is a precursor for all steroid hormones. D) Tryptophan is a precursor for thyroid hormones. E) Peptide hormones are polymers of amino acids. Answer: D Section: 11.02 Topic: Physiology of hormones and hormone secretion Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module J02 Chemical classification of hormones and mechanism of hormone actions at receptors. HAPS Outcome: J02.01 List the major chemical classes of hormones found in the human body. 8) Which would most directly decrease the production of aldosterone? A) Going on a low-salt diet B) Ingesting extra dietary vitamin D C) Reducing dietary tyrosine D) Increasing dietary cholesterol E) Injecting a drug that blocks the production of angiotensin II Answer: E Section: 11.02 Topic: Hormones from other endocrine glands and their functions; Clinical applications of the endocrine system Bloom's: Level 3. Apply HAPS Topic: Module J05 Identity, source, secretory control, and functional roles of the major hormones produced by the body.; Module J08 Application of homeostatic mechanisms.; Module J09 Predictions related to homeostatic imbalance, including disease states and disorders.; Module Q03 Chemical composition of the major compartment fluids; Module Q08 Predictions related to homeostatic imbalance, including disease states and disorders HAPS Outcome: J09.01 Predict factors or situations affecting the endocrine organs that could disrupt homeostasis.; J08.01 Provide specific examples to demonstrate how the endocrine organs respond to maintain homeostasis in the body.; J05.04a In the adrenal gland, describe the stimulus for release of glucocorticoids (cortisol), mineralocorticoids (aldosterone), gonadocorticoids, epinephrine and norepinephrine.; Q03.04 Describe hormonal regulation of electrolyte levels in the plasma, including sodium, chloride, potassium, phosphate and calcium.; Q08.01 Predict factors or situations that would lead to a disruption of homeostasis by affecting the volume or composition of body fluids.
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9) In a hypothetical rare genetic disease in which the ribosomes in some cells of the anterior pituitary are malformed. Which hormone, if any, would you expect missing from a patient with this disease? A) Anti-diuretic hormone B) Thyroid hormone C) Progesterone D) Estrogen E) Oxytocin Answer: A Section: 11.02 Topic: Physiology of hormones and hormone secretion Bloom's: Level 3. Apply HAPS Topic: Module J02 Chemical classification of hormones and mechanism of hormone actions at receptors. HAPS Outcome: J02.01 List the major chemical classes of hormones found in the human body. 10) A hormone may be A) inactivated by its target cell. B) activated by its target cell. C) inactivated by nontarget cells. D) excreted before it has a chance to act on a target cell. E) All of the choices could be correct. Answer: E Section: 11.04 Topic: Physiology of hormones and hormone secretion Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module J03 Control of hormone secretion. HAPS Outcome: J03.01 List and describe several types of stimuli that control production and secretion of hormones.
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11) How is the concentration of a hormone in plasma determined? A) Only by its rate of secretion B) By the number of its target cells in the body C) Only by its rate of synthesis D) By its secretion and clearance rates, and whether or not it binds to carriers and/or other plasma proteins E) Only by the rate of its degradation by the liver and kidneys Answer: D Section: 11.03; 11.04 Topic: Physiology of hormones and hormone secretion Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module J02 Chemical classification of hormones and mechanism of hormone actions at receptors.; Module J03 Control of hormone secretion. HAPS Outcome: J03.01 List and describe several types of stimuli that control production and secretion of hormones.; J02.02 Describe how each class is transported in the blood. 12) Your patient has advanced stage cancer and her liver is starting to fail. One consequence is markedly reduced plasma proteins. In what way might this affect her endocrine system? A) Transport of all hormones in the blood is compromised B) No change to endocrine system function C) A reduction in the synthesis of steroid hormones by the liver D) A reduction in the rate of hydrophobic hormones like steroid and thyroid hormones reaching their target tissues E) A reduction in the rate of peptide-type hormones reaching their target tissues Answer: D Section: 11.03 Topic: Physiology of hormones and hormone secretion Bloom's: Level 3. Apply HAPS Topic: Module J02 Chemical classification of hormones and mechanism of hormone actions at receptors. HAPS Outcome: J02.02 Describe how each class is transported in the blood.
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13) Which is NOT an endocrine function performed by the liver? A) Secreting insulin-like growth factor 1 B) Clearing hormones from plasma C) Secreting angiotensinogen D) Producing plasma proteins that bind hormones E) Secreting insulin Answer: E Section: 11.01; 11.04; 11.19 Topic: Hormones from other endocrine glands and their functions Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module J05 Identity, source, secretory control, and functional roles of the major hormones produced by the body.; Module J06 Local hormones (paracrines and autocrines) and growth factors.; Module K02 Composition of blood plasma HAPS Outcome: J05.04a In the adrenal gland, describe the stimulus for release of glucocorticoids (cortisol), mineralocorticoids (aldosterone), gonadocorticoids, epinephrine and norepinephrine.; J05.07b In the pancreas, identify the gland or endocrine tissue/organ and the cells within that gland/tissue/organ that produce insulin and glucagon.; J06.03 Discuss the production and function of growth factors.; K02.01 Describe the overall composition of plasma, including the major types of plasma proteins, their functions and where in the body they are produced. 14) What is a main difference between the modes of action of peptide hormones and steroid hormones? A) Peptide hormones bind to intracellular receptors, whereas steroid hormones bind to receptors on the cell surface. B) Peptide hormones act as second messengers, whereas steroid hormones bind to receptors in the cytosol. C) Peptide hormones bind to receptors on the cell surface, whereas steroid hormones act as second messengers. D) Peptide hormones bind to receptors on the cell surface, whereas steroid hormones bind to intracellular receptors. E) There are no differences; both act by binding to intracellular receptors. Answer: D Section: 11.05 Topic: Physiology of hormones and hormone secretion Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module J02 Chemical classification of hormones and mechanism of hormone actions at receptors. HAPS Outcome: J02.03 Compare and contrast the types of receptors (cell membrane or intracellular) that each class binds to.
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15) You have discovered a novel steroid hormone. You'd like to isolate its receptor as part of your next project. Where should you look first? A) On the cell surface B) In the blood stream C) In the cytoplasm D) Any of these might be places where the receptor could be found. Answer: C Section: 11.05 Topic: Physiology of hormones and hormone secretion Bloom's: Level 3. Apply HAPS Topic: Module J02 Chemical classification of hormones and mechanism of hormone actions at receptors. HAPS Outcome: J02.03 Compare and contrast the types of receptors (cell membrane or intracellular) that each class binds to. 16) Which is NOT true about receptors for steroid hormones? A) They may be proteins found in the nucleus. B) They undergo allosteric modulation when they bind to the hormone. C) They regulate gene transcription. D) They may be found in the nucleus. E) They are synthesized from cholesterol. Answer: E Section: 11.05 Topic: Physiology of hormones and hormone secretion Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module J02 Chemical classification of hormones and mechanism of hormone actions at receptors. HAPS Outcome: J02.03 Compare and contrast the types of receptors (cell membrane or intracellular) that each class binds to.; J02.04 Compare and contrast the mechanism of response that each class elicits (i.e., change in gene expression or change in an intracellular pathway via phosphorylation mechanism) and relate the response mechanism to the biochemical nature of the hormone molecule.
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17) You have discovered a novel hormone. Early experiments have shown that it is quite hydrophobic. Which of the following is likely to also be TRUE of these hormones? A) They mostly bind to receptor proteins in the surface membrane of target cells. B) They are generally polar molecules. C) They usually have very rapid effects on target cells. D) Their mechanism of action generally involves altering protein synthesis. E) They are highly soluble in blood plasma. Answer: D Section: 11.05 Topic: Physiology of hormones and hormone secretion Bloom's: Level 3. Apply HAPS Topic: Module J02 Chemical classification of hormones and mechanism of hormone actions at receptors. HAPS Outcome: J02.03 Compare and contrast the types of receptors (cell membrane or intracellular) that each class binds to.; J02.04 Compare and contrast the mechanism of response that each class elicits (i.e., change in gene expression or change in an intracellular pathway via phosphorylation mechanism) and relate the response mechanism to the biochemical nature of the hormone molecule. 18) Acting alone, epinephrine and thyroid hormone each stimulates release of only a small amount of fatty acids from adipose cells. In the presence of thyroid hormone, epinephrine causes a much more substantial release of fatty acids from the cells. What is the term describing the effect of thyroid hormone on epinephrine's actions? A) Antagonistic B) Agonistic C) Permissive D) Direct E) Paracrine Answer: C Section: 11.05; 11.11 Topic: Hormones from other endocrine glands and their functions Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module J05 Identity, source, secretory control, and functional roles of the major hormones produced by the body.; Module O03 Cellular respiration and the catabolism and anabolism of carbohydrates, lipids, and proteins; Module O04 Metabolic roles of body organs HAPS Outcome: J05.04c In the adrenal gland, name the target tissue or cells for the hormone and describe the effect(s) of glucocorticoids (cortisol), mineralocorticoids (aldosterone), gonadocorticoids, epinephrine and norepinephrine on the target tissue or cells.; O03.03c With respect to fat metabolism, describe the role of hormones (such as cortisol, human growth hormone and thyroid hormone) in regulation of lipogenesis and lipolysis.; O04.02 Explain the role of adipose tissue in metabolism.; J05.02c In the thyroid gland, name the target tissue or cells for the hormone and describe the effect(s) of the hormone on the target tissue or cells from thyroxine, triiodothyronine, calcitonin.
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19) What term describes hormones that influence the secretion of other hormones? A) Mineralocorticoids B) Antagonistic C) Tropic D) Allosteric E) Teratogen Answer: C Section: 11.06 Topic: Physiology of hormones and hormone secretion Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module J03 Control of hormone secretion. HAPS Outcome: J03.01 List and describe several types of stimuli that control production and secretion of hormones. 20) Which of the following statements about oxytocin is TRUE? A) Target cells of oxytocin have receptors for the hormone in their nucleus. B) Oxytocin is synthesized in the hypothalamus. C) Oxytocin is secreted by the anterior pituitary gland. D) Oxytocin's main function is to increase the rate of respiration. E) Oxytocin keeps uterine smooth muscle from contracting, so it prolongs pregnancy. Answer: B Section: 11.08 Topic: Hormones of the hypothalamus and pituitary glands and their functions Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module J02 Chemical classification of hormones and mechanism of hormone actions at receptors.; Module J04 Control by the hypothalamus and pituitary gland.; Module J05 Identity, source, secretory control, and functional roles of the major hormones produced by the body.; Module R08 Parturition and labor HAPS Outcome: J05.01c Name the target tissue or cells for the hormone and describe the effect(s) of the hormone on the target tissue or cells of growth hormone, thyroid-stimulating hormone, luteinizing hormone, follicle stimulating hormone, prolactin, adrenocorticotropic hormone, oxytocin, and antidiuretic hormone (or vasopressin.; J05.01b Identify the gland or endocrine tissue/organ and the cells within that gland/tissue/organ that produce growth hormone, thyroid-stimulating hormone, luteinizing hormone, follicle stimulating hormone, prolactin, adrenocorticotropic hormone, oxytocin, and antidiuretic hormone (or vasopressin).; J02.03 Compare and contrast the types of receptors (cell membrane or intracellular) that each class binds to.; J04.04 Explain the role of the hypothalamus in the production and release of posterior pituitary hormones.; R08.01 Explain the hormonal events that initiate and regulate labor.
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21) Which accurately describes the median eminence of the hypothalamus? A) It is the site of synthesis of adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH). B) It is a site where neurohormones are released into blood vessels. C) It is the site where vasopressin is released into blood vessels. D) It is the stalk connecting the hypothalamus to the posterior pituitary. E) It is the main site where thyroid-stimulating hormone first enters the bloodstream. Answer: B Section: 11.08 Topic: Hormones of the hypothalamus and pituitary glands and their functions Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module J04 Control by the hypothalamus and pituitary gland.; Module J05 Identity, source, secretory control, and functional roles of the major hormones produced by the body. HAPS Outcome: J04.03 Explain the role of the hypothalamus in the release of anterior pituitary hormones.; J05.01b Identify the gland or endocrine tissue/organ and the cells within that gland/tissue/organ that produce growth hormone, thyroid-stimulating hormone, luteinizing hormone, follicle stimulating hormone, prolactin, adrenocorticotropic hormone, oxytocin, and antidiuretic hormone (or vasopressin).; J04.01 Describe the locations of and the anatomical relationships between the hypothalamus, anterior pituitary and posterior pituitary glands.; J04.04 Explain the role of the hypothalamus in the production and release of posterior pituitary hormones. 22) Sally is a 10-year-old girl going through a growth spurt. Her blood levels of growth hormone are two-fold higher than at the same time last week. Which other hormones are likely to also be elevated? A) Insulin-like growth factor 1 B) Prolactin C) Cortisol D) ACTH E) Follicle-stimulating hormone Answer: A Section: 11.08 Topic: Hormones of the hypothalamus and pituitary glands and their functions Bloom's: Level 3. Apply HAPS Topic: Module J03 Control of hormone secretion.; Module J05 Identity, source, secretory control, and functional roles of the major hormones produced by the body. HAPS Outcome: J03.02 Describe the roles of negative and positive feedback in controlling hormone release.; J05.01a Describe the stimulus for release of growth hormone, thyroidstimulating hormone, luteinizing hormone, follicle stimulating hormone, prolactin, adrenocorticotropic hormone, oxytocin, and antidiuretic hormone (or vasopressin).; J05.01c Name the target tissue or cells for the hormone and describe the effect(s) of the hormone on the target tissue or cells of growth hormone, thyroid-stimulating hormone, luteinizing hormone, follicle stimulating hormone, prolactin, adrenocorticotropic hormone, oxytocin, and antidiuretic hormone (or vasopressin. 11 Copyright 2019 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.
23) Which of these describes secondary hypersecretion of hormone X? A) A growing tumor secretes hormone Y, which stimulates the gland that secretes hormone X. B) Cells of a growing tumor manufacture hormone X in unregulated fashion. C) Negative feedback from a tumor that hypersecretes hormone Z inhibits the gland that secretes hormone X. D) Hormone X is secreted by a growing tumor that is in the anterior pituitary gland. E) Hormone X is secreted in unregulated fashion by a tumor growing in a tissue that does not normally secrete hormone X. Answer: A Section: 11.07 Topic: Clinical applications of the endocrine system Bloom's: Level 2. Understand HAPS Topic: Module J09 Predictions related to homeostatic imbalance, including disease states and disorders. HAPS Outcome: J09.01 Predict factors or situations affecting the endocrine organs that could disrupt homeostasis. 24) Which of the following hormones is NOT secreted by the anterior pituitary gland? A) Somatotropin B) Prolactin C) Corticotropin D) Erythropoietin E) Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) Answer: D Section: 11.01; 11.08 Topic: Hormones of the hypothalamus and pituitary glands and their functions; Hormones from other endocrine glands and their functions Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module J05 Identity, source, secretory control, and functional roles of the major hormones produced by the body.; Module P05 Additional endocrine activities of the kidney. HAPS Outcome: J05.01b Identify the gland or endocrine tissue/organ and the cells within that gland/tissue/organ that produce growth hormone, thyroid-stimulating hormone, luteinizing hormone, follicle stimulating hormone, prolactin, adrenocorticotropic hormone, oxytocin, and antidiuretic hormone (or vasopressin).; J05.08b In the kidney, identify the gland or endocrine tissue/organ and the cells within that gland/tissue/organ that produce erythropoietin and calcitrol (Vitamin D).; P05.02 Describe the role of kidney in regulating erythropoiesis.
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25) What term describes hormones secreted by the hypothalamus that regulate the secretion of hormones from the anterior pituitary gland? A) Growth factors B) Paracrine factors C) Hypophysiotropic hormones D) Metabotrobic-releasing factors E) Cerebrovitalistic hormones Answer: C Section: 11.08 Topic: Hormones of the hypothalamus and pituitary glands and their functions Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module J04 Control by the hypothalamus and pituitary gland. HAPS Outcome: J04.02 Define the terms releasing hormone, inhibiting hormone and tropic hormone. 26) Which is an example of long-loop negative feedback? A) Stimulation of dopamine release by prolactin B) Inhibition of growth hormone-releasing hormone (GHRH) release by growth hormone (GH) C) Inhibition of growth hormone-releasing hormone (GHRH) release by insulin-like growth factor-1 D) Inhibition of corticotropin-releasing hormone by adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) E) Stimulation of thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) release by thyrotropin-releasing hormone (TRH) Answer: C Section: 11.08 Topic: Hormones of the hypothalamus and pituitary glands and their functions Bloom's: Level 2. Understand HAPS Topic: Module J03 Control of hormone secretion.; Module J05 Identity, source, secretory control, and functional roles of the major hormones produced by the body. HAPS Outcome: J03.02 Describe the roles of negative and positive feedback in controlling hormone release.; J05.01a Describe the stimulus for release of growth hormone, thyroidstimulating hormone, luteinizing hormone, follicle stimulating hormone, prolactin, adrenocorticotropic hormone, oxytocin, and antidiuretic hormone (or vasopressin).
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27) Which of the following statements about hormones is correct? A) Anterior pituitary hormones are synthesized in the hypothalamus. B) All hormones secreted by the anterior and posterior pituitary glands are peptides. C) IGF-1 stimulates growth by increasing growth hormone secretion through positive feedback. D) All of the hypophysiotropic hormones are peptides. E) Only steroid hormones can regulate the secretion of steroid hormones. Answer: B Section: 11.01; 11.02; 11.08; 11.18 Topic: Physiology of hormones and hormone secretion; Hormones of the hypothalamus and pituitary glands and their functions Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module J02 Chemical classification of hormones and mechanism of hormone actions at receptors.; Module J03 Control of hormone secretion.; Module J04 Control by the hypothalamus and pituitary gland.; Module J05 Identity, source, secretory control, and functional roles of the major hormones produced by the body. HAPS Outcome: J05.01a Describe the stimulus for release of growth hormone, thyroidstimulating hormone, luteinizing hormone, follicle stimulating hormone, prolactin, adrenocorticotropic hormone, oxytocin, and antidiuretic hormone (or vasopressin).; J02.01 List the major chemical classes of hormones found in the human body.; J04.03 Explain the role of the hypothalamus in the release of anterior pituitary hormones.; J05.01b Identify the gland or endocrine tissue/organ and the cells within that gland/tissue/organ that produce growth hormone, thyroid-stimulating hormone, luteinizing hormone, follicle stimulating hormone, prolactin, adrenocorticotropic hormone, oxytocin, and antidiuretic hormone (or vasopressin).; J03.01 List and describe several types of stimuli that control production and secretion of hormones.
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28) A chemical precursor for cortisol is , which is made from . Cortisol is secreted by when stimulated by from the anterior pituitary. A) androstenedione; progesterone; adrenal cortex; corticotropin-releasing hormone (CRH) B) progesterone; cholesterol; adrenal medulla; adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) C) testosterone; cholesterol; adrenal medulla; adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) D) progesterone; cholesterol; adrenal cortex; adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) E) estradiol; cholesterol; adrenal medulla; corticotropin-releasing hormone (CRH) Answer: D Section: 11.02; 11.08 Topic: Physiology of hormones and hormone secretion; Hormones of the hypothalamus and pituitary glands and their functions; Hormones from other endocrine glands and their functions Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module J02 Chemical classification of hormones and mechanism of hormone actions at receptors.; Module J05 Identity, source, secretory control, and functional roles of the major hormones produced by the body. HAPS Outcome: J02.01 List the major chemical classes of hormones found in the human body.; J05.04a In the adrenal gland, describe the stimulus for release of glucocorticoids (cortisol), mineralocorticoids (aldosterone), gonadocorticoids, epinephrine and norepinephrine.; J05.04b In the adrenal gland, identify the gland or endocrine tissue/organ and the cells within that gland/tissue/organ that produce glucocorticoids (cortisol), mineralocorticoids (aldosterone), gonadocorticoids, epinephrine and norepinephrine.
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29) Which is an accurate description of the posterior pituitary and its functions? A) It is glandular tissue and secretes vasopressin and prolactin. B) It is neural tissue and is stimulated to secrete oxytocin and vasopressin by hypophysiotropic hormones. C) It is neural tissue, and vesicles containing oxytocin and vasopressin are transported to axon terminals there. D) It is glandular tissue and releases oxytocin and somatostatin when action potentials arrive along axons from the hypothalamus. E) It is neural tissue that secretes hypophysiotropic hormones that control the secretion of the anterior pituitary hormones. Answer: C Section: 11.08 Topic: Hormones of the hypothalamus and pituitary glands and their functions Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module J04 Control by the hypothalamus and pituitary gland.; Module J05 Identity, source, secretory control, and functional roles of the major hormones produced by the body. HAPS Outcome: J04.03 Explain the role of the hypothalamus in the release of anterior pituitary hormones.; J05.01b Identify the gland or endocrine tissue/organ and the cells within that gland/tissue/organ that produce growth hormone, thyroid-stimulating hormone, luteinizing hormone, follicle stimulating hormone, prolactin, adrenocorticotropic hormone, oxytocin, and antidiuretic hormone (or vasopressin).; J04.01 Describe the locations of and the anatomical relationships between the hypothalamus, anterior pituitary and posterior pituitary glands.; J04.04 Explain the role of the hypothalamus in the production and release of posterior pituitary hormones.
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30) Which is a function of the gonadotropic hormones? A) Stimulating the release of follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) and luteinizing hormone (LH) B) Inhibiting the release of growth hormone C) Inhibiting the release of prolactin D) Inducing the secretion of steroid hormones by the gonads in both males and females E) Stimulating the release of gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH) Answer: D Section: 11.08 Topic: Hormones of the hypothalamus and pituitary glands and their functions Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module J05 Identity, source, secretory control, and functional roles of the major hormones produced by the body.; Module R06 Regulation of reproductive system functions HAPS Outcome: J05.01a Describe the stimulus for release of growth hormone, thyroidstimulating hormone, luteinizing hormone, follicle stimulating hormone, prolactin, adrenocorticotropic hormone, oxytocin, and antidiuretic hormone (or vasopressin).; J05.01c Name the target tissue or cells for the hormone and describe the effect(s) of the hormone on the target tissue or cells of growth hormone, thyroid-stimulating hormone, luteinizing hormone, follicle stimulating hormone, prolactin, adrenocorticotropic hormone, oxytocin, and antidiuretic hormone (or vasopressin.; R06.01 State the functions of gonadotropin releasing hormone, follicle stimulating hormone, luteinizing hormone, inhibin, testosterone, estrogen and progesterone.
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31) If the adrenal glands were removed from a patient, his plasma cortisol levels would , secretion of CRH by the would , and secretion of ACTH by the would . A) increase; hypothalamus; decrease; anterior pituitary gland; decrease B) decrease; hypothalamus; increase; adenohypophysis; increase C) decrease; anterior pituitary gland; increase; hypothalamus; increase D) increase; hypothalamus; increase; adenohypophysis; increase E) decrease; adenohypophysis; increase; anterior pituitary gland; increase Answer: B Section: 11.13; 11.15 Topic: Hormones of the hypothalamus and pituitary glands and their functions; Hormones from other endocrine glands and their functions; Clinical applications of the endocrine system Bloom's: Level 3. Apply HAPS Topic: Module J03 Control of hormone secretion.; Module J04 Control by the hypothalamus and pituitary gland.; Module J05 Identity, source, secretory control, and functional roles of the major hormones produced by the body.; Module J09 Predictions related to homeostatic imbalance, including disease states and disorders. HAPS Outcome: J03.02 Describe the roles of negative and positive feedback in controlling hormone release.; J05.01a Describe the stimulus for release of growth hormone, thyroidstimulating hormone, luteinizing hormone, follicle stimulating hormone, prolactin, adrenocorticotropic hormone, oxytocin, and antidiuretic hormone (or vasopressin).; J09.01 Predict factors or situations affecting the endocrine organs that could disrupt homeostasis.; J09.02 Predict the types of problems that would occur in the body if the various endocrine organs could not maintain homeostasis.; J05.04a In the adrenal gland, describe the stimulus for release of glucocorticoids (cortisol), mineralocorticoids (aldosterone), gonadocorticoids, epinephrine and norepinephrine.; J04.03 Explain the role of the hypothalamus in the release of anterior pituitary hormones.
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32) Which of these could be a cause of hypertrophy of the adrenal cortex? A) Autoimmune destruction of receptors for adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) B) Autoimmune destruction of hypothalamic cells that secrete corticotropin-releasing hormone C) Injection of an excess of cortisol D) Destruction of the anterior pituitary by a stroke E) Low levels of cortisol in the circulation Answer: E Section: 11.08; 11.13; 11.15 Topic: Hormones from other endocrine glands and their functions; Clinical applications of the endocrine system Bloom's: Level 3. Apply HAPS Topic: Module J03 Control of hormone secretion.; Module J04 Control by the hypothalamus and pituitary gland.; Module J05 Identity, source, secretory control, and functional roles of the major hormones produced by the body.; Module J08 Application of homeostatic mechanisms.; Module J09 Predictions related to homeostatic imbalance, including disease states and disorders. HAPS Outcome: J03.02 Describe the roles of negative and positive feedback in controlling hormone release.; J05.01a Describe the stimulus for release of growth hormone, thyroidstimulating hormone, luteinizing hormone, follicle stimulating hormone, prolactin, adrenocorticotropic hormone, oxytocin, and antidiuretic hormone (or vasopressin).; J09.01 Predict factors or situations affecting the endocrine organs that could disrupt homeostasis.; J09.02 Predict the types of problems that would occur in the body if the various endocrine organs could not maintain homeostasis.; J08.01 Provide specific examples to demonstrate how the endocrine organs respond to maintain homeostasis in the body.; J05.04a In the adrenal gland, describe the stimulus for release of glucocorticoids (cortisol), mineralocorticoids (aldosterone), gonadocorticoids, epinephrine and norepinephrine.; J04.03 Explain the role of the hypothalamus in the release of anterior pituitary hormones.
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33) You have a patient complaining of fatigue and lethargy. She mentions that she recently went on a low-salt, all carbohydrate diet and consumes mostly rice. You notice a swelling in her neck. You order some blood work. Which of the following do you expect? A) Low plasma concentration of thyroid hormones and thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) B) Low plasma concentration of thyroid hormones C) High plasma concentration of thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) but low thyrotropinreleasing hormone (TRH) D) High plasma concentration of thyroid hormones due to increased secretion of TSH by the pituitary gland E) Low plasma concentration of thyroid hormones and atrophy of the thyroid gland due to reduced concentrations of thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) Answer: B Section: 11.09; 11.10; 11.12 Topic: Clinical applications of the endocrine system Bloom's: Level 3. Apply HAPS Topic: Module J03 Control of hormone secretion.; Module J05 Identity, source, secretory control, and functional roles of the major hormones produced by the body.; Module J08 Application of homeostatic mechanisms.; Module J09 Predictions related to homeostatic imbalance, including disease states and disorders. HAPS Outcome: J03.02 Describe the roles of negative and positive feedback in controlling hormone release.; J05.01a Describe the stimulus for release of growth hormone, thyroidstimulating hormone, luteinizing hormone, follicle stimulating hormone, prolactin, adrenocorticotropic hormone, oxytocin, and antidiuretic hormone (or vasopressin).; J05.01c Name the target tissue or cells for the hormone and describe the effect(s) of the hormone on the target tissue or cells of growth hormone, thyroid-stimulating hormone, luteinizing hormone, follicle stimulating hormone, prolactin, adrenocorticotropic hormone, oxytocin, and antidiuretic hormone (or vasopressin.; J09.01 Predict factors or situations affecting the endocrine organs that could disrupt homeostasis.; J09.02 Predict the types of problems that would occur in the body if the various endocrine organs could not maintain homeostasis.; J08.01 Provide specific examples to demonstrate how the endocrine organs respond to maintain homeostasis in the body.; J05.02a In the thyroid gland, describe the stimulus for release of the hormones thyroxine, triiodothyronine, calcitonin.
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34) Which would be the effect of a blood clot that blocked the vessels of the hypothalamopituitary portal system in the infundibulum between the hypothalamus and the anterior pituitary gland? A) Secretion of adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) would decrease and the adrenal cortex would atrophy B) Secretion of gonadotropins will decrease and the gonads will hypertrophy C) Secretion of corticotropin-releasing hormone (CRH) would decrease D) Secretion of prolactin would decrease E) Secretion of follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) would increase Answer: A Section: 11.08 Topic: Hormones of the hypothalamus and pituitary glands and their functions; Clinical applications of the endocrine system Bloom's: Level 3. Apply HAPS Topic: Module J03 Control of hormone secretion.; Module J04 Control by the hypothalamus and pituitary gland.; Module J05 Identity, source, secretory control, and functional roles of the major hormones produced by the body.; Module J09 Predictions related to homeostatic imbalance, including disease states and disorders.; Module R06 Regulation of reproductive system functions HAPS Outcome: J03.02 Describe the roles of negative and positive feedback in controlling hormone release.; J05.01a Describe the stimulus for release of growth hormone, thyroidstimulating hormone, luteinizing hormone, follicle stimulating hormone, prolactin, adrenocorticotropic hormone, oxytocin, and antidiuretic hormone (or vasopressin).; J05.01c Name the target tissue or cells for the hormone and describe the effect(s) of the hormone on the target tissue or cells of growth hormone, thyroid-stimulating hormone, luteinizing hormone, follicle stimulating hormone, prolactin, adrenocorticotropic hormone, oxytocin, and antidiuretic hormone (or vasopressin.; J09.01 Predict factors or situations affecting the endocrine organs that could disrupt homeostasis.; J09.02 Predict the types of problems that would occur in the body if the various endocrine organs could not maintain homeostasis.; J04.03 Explain the role of the hypothalamus in the release of anterior pituitary hormones.; R06.01 State the functions of gonadotropin releasing hormone, follicle stimulating hormone, luteinizing hormone, inhibin, testosterone, estrogen and progesterone.; J04.01 Describe the locations of and the anatomical relationships between the hypothalamus, anterior pituitary and posterior pituitary glands.
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35) It's final exam time and you're finding yourself extremely stressed out. If we examined your blood, which of the following would we be likely to find? A) Increased secretion of corticotropin from the anterior pituitary B) Increased secretion of corticotropin from the hypothalamus C) Increased secretion of adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) from the hypothalamus D) Negative feedback to the adrenal cortex by adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) E) Decreased secretion of corticotropin-releasing hormone (CRH) by the hypothalamus Answer: A Section: 11.13 Topic: Hormones of the hypothalamus and pituitary glands and their functions; Hormonal response to stress Bloom's: Level 3. Apply HAPS Topic: Module J05 Identity, source, secretory control, and functional roles of the major hormones produced by the body.; Module J07 Hormonal response to stress.; Module J08 Application of homeostatic mechanisms. HAPS Outcome: J05.01a Describe the stimulus for release of growth hormone, thyroidstimulating hormone, luteinizing hormone, follicle stimulating hormone, prolactin, adrenocorticotropic hormone, oxytocin, and antidiuretic hormone (or vasopressin).; J05.01c Name the target tissue or cells for the hormone and describe the effect(s) of the hormone on the target tissue or cells of growth hormone, thyroid-stimulating hormone, luteinizing hormone, follicle stimulating hormone, prolactin, adrenocorticotropic hormone, oxytocin, and antidiuretic hormone (or vasopressin.; J07.02 List the hormones released during short-term stress and describe the hormonal actions.; J07.03 List the major hormones released during long-term stress and describe the hormonal actions.; J08.01 Provide specific examples to demonstrate how the endocrine organs respond to maintain homeostasis in the body.; J05.01b Identify the gland or endocrine tissue/organ and the cells within that gland/tissue/organ that produce growth hormone, thyroid-stimulating hormone, luteinizing hormone, follicle stimulating hormone, prolactin, adrenocorticotropic hormone, oxytocin, and antidiuretic hormone (or vasopressin).
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36) Short-loop negative feedback occurs when hormones from the secretion by the . A) hypothalamus; anterior pituitary B) adrenal cortex; hypothalamus C) anterior pituitary; hypothalamus D) adrenal cortex; anterior pituitary E) anterior pituitary; adrenal cortex
_ inhibit hormone
Answer: C Section: 11.08 Topic: Hormones of the hypothalamus and pituitary glands and their functions Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module J03 Control of hormone secretion.; Module J08 Application of homeostatic mechanisms. HAPS Outcome: J03.02 Describe the roles of negative and positive feedback in controlling hormone release.; J08.01 Provide specific examples to demonstrate how the endocrine organs respond to maintain homeostasis in the body.
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37) If the pituitary gland is removed from a human subject, which of the following is likely to occur? A) The adrenal gland will hypertrophy to increase cortisol production. B) The adrenal gland will atrophy and plasma cortisol levels will be reduced. C) The hypothalamus will secrete less CRH. D) The subject will remain euthyroid. E) There will be increased negative feedback on growth hormone by insulin-like growth factor 1 (IGF-1). Answer: B Section: 11.08 Topic: Hormones of the hypothalamus and pituitary glands and their functions; Clinical applications of the endocrine system Bloom's: Level 3. Apply HAPS Topic: Module J03 Control of hormone secretion.; Module J05 Identity, source, secretory control, and functional roles of the major hormones produced by the body.; Module J09 Predictions related to homeostatic imbalance, including disease states and disorders. HAPS Outcome: J03.02 Describe the roles of negative and positive feedback in controlling hormone release.; J05.01c Name the target tissue or cells for the hormone and describe the effect(s) of the hormone on the target tissue or cells of growth hormone, thyroid-stimulating hormone, luteinizing hormone, follicle stimulating hormone, prolactin, adrenocorticotropic hormone, oxytocin, and antidiuretic hormone (or vasopressin.; J09.01 Predict factors or situations affecting the endocrine organs that could disrupt homeostasis.; J09.02 Predict the types of problems that would occur in the body if the various endocrine organs could not maintain homeostasis.; J05.04a In the adrenal gland, describe the stimulus for release of glucocorticoids (cortisol), mineralocorticoids (aldosterone), gonadocorticoids, epinephrine and norepinephrine.; J05.01b Identify the gland or endocrine tissue/organ and the cells within that gland/tissue/organ that produce growth hormone, thyroid-stimulating hormone, luteinizing hormone, follicle stimulating hormone, prolactin, adrenocorticotropic hormone, oxytocin, and antidiuretic hormone (or vasopressin).; J05.02a In the thyroid gland, describe the stimulus for release of the hormones thyroxine, triiodothyronine, calcitonin.
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38) Which are hormones secreted by the posterior pituitary? A) Vasopressin and dopamine B) Corticotropin and dopamine C) Oxytocin and prolactin D) Vasopressin and corticotropin E) Antidiuretic hormone (ADH) and oxytocin Answer: E Section: 11.08 Topic: Hormones of the hypothalamus and pituitary glands and their functions Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module J05 Identity, source, secretory control, and functional roles of the major hormones produced by the body. HAPS Outcome: J05.01b Identify the gland or endocrine tissue/organ and the cells within that gland/tissue/organ that produce growth hormone, thyroid-stimulating hormone, luteinizing hormone, follicle stimulating hormone, prolactin, adrenocorticotropic hormone, oxytocin, and antidiuretic hormone (or vasopressin). 39) Which stimulates the secretion of growth hormone? A) Waking from sleep B) Exercise C) Increased levels of IGF-I in blood D) High plasma glucose E) Increased somatostatin secretion Answer: B Section: 11.19 Topic: Hormones of the hypothalamus and pituitary glands and their functions Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module J05 Identity, source, secretory control, and functional roles of the major hormones produced by the body.; Module J07 Hormonal response to stress.; Module J08 Application of homeostatic mechanisms. HAPS Outcome: J05.01a Describe the stimulus for release of growth hormone, thyroidstimulating hormone, luteinizing hormone, follicle stimulating hormone, prolactin, adrenocorticotropic hormone, oxytocin, and antidiuretic hormone (or vasopressin).; J07.02 List the hormones released during short-term stress and describe the hormonal actions.; J07.03 List the major hormones released during long-term stress and describe the hormonal actions.; J08.01 Provide specific examples to demonstrate how the endocrine organs respond to maintain homeostasis in the body.
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40) Deficiency of iodine in the diet results in caused by _. A) a goiter; increased production of thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) and increased thyroid hormone levels B) atrophy of the thyroid gland; loss of negative feedback by thyroid hormones and increased thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) levels C) a goiter; loss of negative feedback by thyroid hormones and increased thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) levels D) atrophy of the thyroid gland; decreased sensitivity of receptors for thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) E) atrophy of the anterior pituitary gland; loss of negative feedback by thyroid hormones Answer: C Section: 11.12 Topic: Hormones of the hypothalamus and pituitary glands and their functions; Hormones from other endocrine glands and their functions; Clinical applications of the endocrine system Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module J03 Control of hormone secretion.; Module J05 Identity, source, secretory control, and functional roles of the major hormones produced by the body.; Module J08 Application of homeostatic mechanisms.; Module J09 Predictions related to homeostatic imbalance, including disease states and disorders. HAPS Outcome: J03.02 Describe the roles of negative and positive feedback in controlling hormone release.; J05.01a Describe the stimulus for release of growth hormone, thyroidstimulating hormone, luteinizing hormone, follicle stimulating hormone, prolactin, adrenocorticotropic hormone, oxytocin, and antidiuretic hormone (or vasopressin).; J05.01c Name the target tissue or cells for the hormone and describe the effect(s) of the hormone on the target tissue or cells of growth hormone, thyroid-stimulating hormone, luteinizing hormone, follicle stimulating hormone, prolactin, adrenocorticotropic hormone, oxytocin, and antidiuretic hormone (or vasopressin.; J09.01 Predict factors or situations affecting the endocrine organs that could disrupt homeostasis.; J09.02 Predict the types of problems that would occur in the body if the various endocrine organs could not maintain homeostasis.; J08.01 Provide specific examples to demonstrate how the endocrine organs respond to maintain homeostasis in the body.; J05.02a In the thyroid gland, describe the stimulus for release of the hormones thyroxine, triiodothyronine, calcitonin.; J05.02c In the thyroid gland, name the target tissue or cells for the hormone and describe the effect(s) of the hormone on the target tissue or cells from thyroxine, triiodothyronine, calcitonin.
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41) A patient goes to her doctor, complaining of fatigue, weight gain, and intolerance to cold. She also has a noticeable goiter in her neck. Which of the following is a most likely diagnosis and cause? A) She has hypothyroidism, possibly due to destruction of thyrotrope cells of her anterior pituitary gland. B) She has hyperthyroidism, possibly due to Graves' disease. C) She has hypothyroidism, possibly due to low iodine in her diet. D) She has hyperthyroidism, possibly due to a hypersecreting tumor of the anterior pituitary gland. Answer: C Section: 11.12 Topic: Hormones of the hypothalamus and pituitary glands and their functions; Hormones from other endocrine glands and their functions; Clinical applications of the endocrine system Bloom's: Level 3. Apply HAPS Topic: Module J03 Control of hormone secretion.; Module J05 Identity, source, secretory control, and functional roles of the major hormones produced by the body.; Module J08 Application of homeostatic mechanisms.; Module J09 Predictions related to homeostatic imbalance, including disease states and disorders. HAPS Outcome: J03.02 Describe the roles of negative and positive feedback in controlling hormone release.; J05.01c Name the target tissue or cells for the hormone and describe the effect(s) of the hormone on the target tissue or cells of growth hormone, thyroid-stimulating hormone, luteinizing hormone, follicle stimulating hormone, prolactin, adrenocorticotropic hormone, oxytocin, and antidiuretic hormone (or vasopressin.; J05.02d In the thyroid gland, predict the larger effect that fluctuations in the hormone level will have on conditions (variables) within the body for thyroxine, triiodothyronine, calcitonin.; J09.01 Predict factors or situations affecting the endocrine organs that could disrupt homeostasis.; J09.02 Predict the types of problems that would occur in the body if the various endocrine organs could not maintain homeostasis.; J08.01 Provide specific examples to demonstrate how the endocrine organs respond to maintain homeostasis in the body.; J05.01b Identify the gland or endocrine tissue/organ and the cells within that gland/tissue/organ that produce growth hormone, thyroidstimulating hormone, luteinizing hormone, follicle stimulating hormone, prolactin, adrenocorticotropic hormone, oxytocin, and antidiuretic hormone (or vasopressin).; J05.02a In the thyroid gland, describe the stimulus for release of the hormones thyroxine, triiodothyronine, calcitonin.; J05.02c In the thyroid gland, name the target tissue or cells for the hormone and describe the effect(s) of the hormone on the target tissue or cells from thyroxine, triiodothyronine, calcitonin.
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42) Which is most likely a result of hypersecretion of growth hormone? A) Acromegaly B) Dwarfism C) Decreased plasma concentration of IGF-I D) Decreased secretion of somatostatin E) Increased secretion of growth hormone-releasing hormone (GHRH) Answer: A Section: 11.19; Clinical Case Study Topic: Hormones of the hypothalamus and pituitary glands and their functions; Clinical applications of the endocrine system Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module J03 Control of hormone secretion.; Module J05 Identity, source, secretory control, and functional roles of the major hormones produced by the body.; Module J09 Predictions related to homeostatic imbalance, including disease states and disorders.; Module F05 Physiology of bone growth, repair, and remodeling. HAPS Outcome: J03.02 Describe the roles of negative and positive feedback in controlling hormone release.; J05.01c Name the target tissue or cells for the hormone and describe the effect(s) of the hormone on the target tissue or cells of growth hormone, thyroid-stimulating hormone, luteinizing hormone, follicle stimulating hormone, prolactin, adrenocorticotropic hormone, oxytocin, and antidiuretic hormone (or vasopressin.; F05.02 Explain the hormonal regulation of skeleton growth.; J05.01d Predict the larger effect that fluctuations in the hormone level will have on conditions (variables) within the body for growth hormone, thyroidstimulating hormone, luteinizing hormone, follicle stimulating hormone, prolactin, adrenocorticotropic hormone, oxytocin, and antidiuretic hormone (or vasopressin).; J09.01 Predict factors or situations affecting the endocrine organs that could disrupt homeostasis.; J09.02 Predict the types of problems that would occur in the body if the various endocrine organs could not maintain homeostasis.
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43) A patient appears in a clinic complaining of irritability and chronic sweatiness. He also has a lump in his neck near his larynx. Blood tests show he has low levels of thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) in his plasma. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis? A) Primary hypothyroidism B) An iodine-insufficient diet C) Secondary hypothyroidism D) Hyposecretion of TRH E) Graves' disease Answer: E Section: 11.12 Topic: Hormones of the hypothalamus and pituitary glands and their functions; Hormones from other endocrine glands and their functions; Clinical applications of the endocrine system Bloom's: Level 3. Apply HAPS Topic: Module J03 Control of hormone secretion.; Module J05 Identity, source, secretory control, and functional roles of the major hormones produced by the body.; Module J09 Predictions related to homeostatic imbalance, including disease states and disorders. HAPS Outcome: J03.02 Describe the roles of negative and positive feedback in controlling hormone release.; J05.01a Describe the stimulus for release of growth hormone, thyroidstimulating hormone, luteinizing hormone, follicle stimulating hormone, prolactin, adrenocorticotropic hormone, oxytocin, and antidiuretic hormone (or vasopressin).; J05.02d In the thyroid gland, predict the larger effect that fluctuations in the hormone level will have on conditions (variables) within the body for thyroxine, triiodothyronine, calcitonin.; J09.01 Predict factors or situations affecting the endocrine organs that could disrupt homeostasis.; J09.02 Predict the types of problems that would occur in the body if the various endocrine organs could not maintain homeostasis.; J05.02a In the thyroid gland, describe the stimulus for release of the hormones thyroxine, triiodothyronine, calcitonin.; J05.02c In the thyroid gland, name the target tissue or cells for the hormone and describe the effect(s) of the hormone on the target tissue or cells from thyroxine, triiodothyronine, calcitonin. 44) To synthesize thyroid hormones, iodine is attached to A) cholesterol. B) the amino acid tyrosine. C) the amino acid tryptophan. D) acetyl coenzyme A. E) the amino acid phenylalanine. Answer: B Section: 11.09 Topic: Physiology of hormones and hormone secretion Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module J02 Chemical classification of hormones and mechanism of hormone actions at receptors. HAPS Outcome: J02.01 List the major chemical classes of hormones found in the human body.
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45) Which is a result of elevated thyroid hormone levels? A) An increase in triglyceride storage B) Increased Na+/K+ ATPase activity C) Decreased body temperature D) Mental lethargy Answer: B Section: 11.11 Topic: Hormones from other endocrine glands and their functions; Clinical applications of the endocrine system Bloom's: Level 3. Apply HAPS Topic: Module J05 Identity, source, secretory control, and functional roles of the major hormones produced by the body.; Module J09 Predictions related to homeostatic imbalance, including disease states and disorders.; Module O03 Cellular respiration and the catabolism and anabolism of carbohydrates, lipids, and proteins HAPS Outcome: J05.02d In the thyroid gland, predict the larger effect that fluctuations in the hormone level will have on conditions (variables) within the body for thyroxine, triiodothyronine, calcitonin.; J09.01 Predict factors or situations affecting the endocrine organs that could disrupt homeostasis.; J09.02 Predict the types of problems that would occur in the body if the various endocrine organs could not maintain homeostasis.; O03.03c With respect to fat metabolism, describe the role of hormones (such as cortisol, human growth hormone and thyroid hormone) in regulation of lipogenesis and lipolysis.; J05.02c In the thyroid gland, name the target tissue or cells for the hormone and describe the effect(s) of the hormone on the target tissue or cells from thyroxine, triiodothyronine, calcitonin. 46) Which is a result of an absence of thyroid hormones during fetal development? A) Acromegaly B) Cushing's syndrome C) Congenital hypothyroidism (cretinism) D) Graves' disease E) Addison's disease Answer: C Section: 11.11; 11.12; 11.15; Clinical Case Study Topic: Hormones from other endocrine glands and their functions; Clinical applications of the endocrine system Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module J09 Predictions related to homeostatic imbalance, including disease states and disorders. HAPS Outcome: J09.01 Predict factors or situations affecting the endocrine organs that could disrupt homeostasis.; J09.02 Predict the types of problems that would occur in the body if the various endocrine organs could not maintain homeostasis.
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47) You are designing an experiment to quantify the levels of stress experienced by different individuals. Which of the following tests would reveal insight as to a patient's chronic stress? A) Testing plasma levels of growth hormone B) Testing plasma levels of parathyroid hormone C) Testing plasma levels of dopamine D) Testing plasma levels of follicle-stimulating hormone E) Testing plasma levels of cortisol Answer: E Section: 11.13; 11.14 Topic: Hormones of the hypothalamus and pituitary glands and their functions; Hormones from other endocrine glands and their functions; Hormonal response to stress Bloom's: Level 3. Apply HAPS Topic: Module J03 Control of hormone secretion.; Module J05 Identity, source, secretory control, and functional roles of the major hormones produced by the body.; Module J07 Hormonal response to stress.; Module J08 Application of homeostatic mechanisms. HAPS Outcome: J03.02 Describe the roles of negative and positive feedback in controlling hormone release.; J05.01a Describe the stimulus for release of growth hormone, thyroidstimulating hormone, luteinizing hormone, follicle stimulating hormone, prolactin, adrenocorticotropic hormone, oxytocin, and antidiuretic hormone (or vasopressin).; J07.02 List the hormones released during short-term stress and describe the hormonal actions.; J07.03 List the major hormones released during long-term stress and describe the hormonal actions.; J08.01 Provide specific examples to demonstrate how the endocrine organs respond to maintain homeostasis in the body.; J05.04a In the adrenal gland, describe the stimulus for release of glucocorticoids (cortisol), mineralocorticoids (aldosterone), gonadocorticoids, epinephrine and norepinephrine.; J05.04c In the adrenal gland, name the target tissue or cells for the hormone and describe the effect(s) of glucocorticoids (cortisol), mineralocorticoids (aldosterone), gonadocorticoids, epinephrine and norepinephrine on the target tissue or cells.
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48) What is the major hormone responsible for mediating the body's general response to stress? A) Thyroid hormone B) Growth hormone C) Testosterone D) Aldosterone E) Cortisol Answer: E Section: 11.13; 11.14 Topic: Hormones from other endocrine glands and their functions; Hormonal response to stress Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module J05 Identity, source, secretory control, and functional roles of the major hormones produced by the body.; Module J07 Hormonal response to stress.; Module J08 Application of homeostatic mechanisms. HAPS Outcome: J07.02 List the hormones released during short-term stress and describe the hormonal actions.; J07.03 List the major hormones released during long-term stress and describe the hormonal actions.; J08.01 Provide specific examples to demonstrate how the endocrine organs respond to maintain homeostasis in the body.; J05.04d In the adrenal gland, predict the larger effect that fluctuations in glucocorticoids (cortisol), mineralocorticoids (aldosterone), gonadocorticoids, epinephrine and norepinephrine levels will have on conditions (variables) within the body.
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49) Which of the following is NOT stimulated by cortisol during stress? A) Gluconeogenesis B) Protein catabolism C) Glucose uptake into muscle cells D) Triglyceride catabolism in adipose cells E) Decreased sensitivity to insulin Answer: C Section: 11.13 Topic: Hormones from other endocrine glands and their functions; Hormonal response to stress Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module J05 Identity, source, secretory control, and functional roles of the major hormones produced by the body.; Module J07 Hormonal response to stress.; Module J08 Application of homeostatic mechanisms.; Module O02 Introduction to metabolism; Module O03 Cellular respiration and the catabolism and anabolism of carbohydrates, lipids, and proteins; Module O04 Metabolic roles of body organs HAPS Outcome: J07.02 List the hormones released during short-term stress and describe the hormonal actions.; J07.03 List the major hormones released during long-term stress and describe the hormonal actions.; J08.01 Provide specific examples to demonstrate how the endocrine organs respond to maintain homeostasis in the body.; J05.04c In the adrenal gland, name the target tissue or cells for the hormone and describe the effect(s) of glucocorticoids (cortisol), mineralocorticoids (aldosterone), gonadocorticoids, epinephrine and norepinephrine on the target tissue or cells.; J05.04d In the adrenal gland, predict the larger effect that fluctuations in glucocorticoids (cortisol), mineralocorticoids (aldosterone), gonadocorticoids, epinephrine and norepinephrine levels will have on conditions (variables) within the body.; J08.02 Explain how the endocrine organs relate to other body organs and systems to maintain homeostasis.; O02.01 Define metabolism, anabolism and catabolism; O03.01f With respect to carbohydrate metabolism, describe the role of hormones (such as cortisol, growth hormone, thyroid hormone, insulin, glucagon and norepinephrine) in regulation of carbohydrate catabolism and anabolism.; O03.02f With respect to protein and amino acid metabolism, describe the role of hormones (such as cortisol, human growth hormone and insulin) in regulation of protein catabolism and anabolism.; O03.03c With respect to fat metabolism, describe the role of hormones (such as cortisol, human growth hormone and thyroid hormone) in regulation of lipogenesis and lipolysis.; O04.02 Explain the role of adipose tissue in metabolism.; O04.03 Describe the role of skeletal muscle in metabolism.
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50) You're studying long-term stress in foster children. One thing you find is that, among the children experiencing the most significant stress for the longest period of time is decreases in . A) circulating cortisol levels B) bone and muscle density C) blood glucose levels D) adrenal gland function Answer: B Section: 11.13 Topic: Hormones from other endocrine glands and their functions; Hormonal response to stress Bloom's: Level 3. Apply HAPS Topic: Module J05 Identity, source, secretory control, and functional roles of the major hormones produced by the body.; Module J07 Hormonal response to stress.; Module O03 Cellular respiration and the catabolism and anabolism of carbohydrates, lipids, and proteins; Module O04 Metabolic roles of body organs HAPS Outcome: J07.02 List the hormones released during short-term stress and describe the hormonal actions.; J07.03 List the major hormones released during long-term stress and describe the hormonal actions.; J05.04c In the adrenal gland, name the target tissue or cells for the hormone and describe the effect(s) of glucocorticoids (cortisol), mineralocorticoids (aldosterone), gonadocorticoids, epinephrine and norepinephrine on the target tissue or cells.; J05.04d In the adrenal gland, predict the larger effect that fluctuations in glucocorticoids (cortisol), mineralocorticoids (aldosterone), gonadocorticoids, epinephrine and norepinephrine levels will have on conditions (variables) within the body.; O03.01f With respect to carbohydrate metabolism, describe the role of hormones (such as cortisol, growth hormone, thyroid hormone, insulin, glucagon and norepinephrine) in regulation of carbohydrate catabolism and anabolism.; O03.02f With respect to protein and amino acid metabolism, describe the role of hormones (such as cortisol, human growth hormone and insulin) in regulation of protein catabolism and anabolism.; O03.03c With respect to fat metabolism, describe the role of hormones (such as cortisol, human growth hormone and thyroid hormone) in regulation of lipogenesis and lipolysis.; O04.02 Explain the role of adipose tissue in metabolism.; O04.03 Describe the role of skeletal muscle in metabolism.
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51) Which of the following is an action of the sympathetic nervous system during stress? A) It increases the ability to respond to situations where physical activity is required. B) It increases blood flow to the skeletal muscles and viscera. C) It inhibits blood clotting. D) It decreases ventilation of the lungs to save oxygen. E) It increases glycogen synthesis in the liver. Answer: A Section: 11.16 Topic: Hormonal response to stress Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module J05 Identity, source, secretory control, and functional roles of the major hormones produced by the body.; Module J07 Hormonal response to stress.; Module J08 Application of homeostatic mechanisms.; Module H13 Functions of the autonomic nervous system; Module H15 Application of homeostatic mechanisms; Module O03 Cellular respiration and the catabolism and anabolism of carbohydrates, lipids, and proteins; Module O04 Metabolic roles of body organs HAPS Outcome: J07.02 List the hormones released during short-term stress and describe the hormonal actions.; J07.03 List the major hormones released during long-term stress and describe the hormonal actions.; J08.01 Provide specific examples to demonstrate how the endocrine organs respond to maintain homeostasis in the body.; J05.04c In the adrenal gland, name the target tissue or cells for the hormone and describe the effect(s) of glucocorticoids (cortisol), mineralocorticoids (aldosterone), gonadocorticoids, epinephrine and norepinephrine on the target tissue or cells.; J05.04d In the adrenal gland, predict the larger effect that fluctuations in glucocorticoids (cortisol), mineralocorticoids (aldosterone), gonadocorticoids, epinephrine and norepinephrine levels will have on conditions (variables) within the body.; J08.02 Explain how the endocrine organs relate to other body organs and systems to maintain homeostasis.; O03.01f With respect to carbohydrate metabolism, describe the role of hormones (such as cortisol, growth hormone, thyroid hormone, insulin, glucagon and norepinephrine) in regulation of carbohydrate catabolism and anabolism.; H13.09 Describe major parasympathetic and/or sympathetic physiological effects on target organs.; H15.01 Provide specific examples to demonstrate how the nervous system responds to maintain homeostasis in the body.; H15.02 Explain how the nervous system relates to other body systems to maintain homeostasis.; O04.01 Describe the role of the liver in metabolism.
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52) Which of the following hormones is NOT usually secreted at higher levels in response to stress? A) Aldosterone B) Gonadotropins C) Vasopressin D) Antidiuretic hormone (ADH) E) Beta-endorphin Answer: B Section: 11.16 Topic: Hormonal response to stress Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module J05 Identity, source, secretory control, and functional roles of the major hormones produced by the body.; Module J07 Hormonal response to stress.; Module J08 Application of homeostatic mechanisms. HAPS Outcome: J05.01a Describe the stimulus for release of growth hormone, thyroidstimulating hormone, luteinizing hormone, follicle stimulating hormone, prolactin, adrenocorticotropic hormone, oxytocin, and antidiuretic hormone (or vasopressin).; J07.02 List the hormones released during short-term stress and describe the hormonal actions.; J07.03 List the major hormones released during long-term stress and describe the hormonal actions.; J08.01 Provide specific examples to demonstrate how the endocrine organs respond to maintain homeostasis in the body.; J05.04a In the adrenal gland, describe the stimulus for release of glucocorticoids (cortisol), mineralocorticoids (aldosterone), gonadocorticoids, epinephrine and norepinephrine.
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53) Which statement best describes the manner in which growth hormone stimulates cell proliferation? A) It directly stimulates cell division in most tissues. B) It stimulates the release of insulin-like growth factor I (IGF-1) from the liver and other target tissues of growth hormone. C) It stimulates metabolism. D) It stimulates the release of eicosanoids from lymphoid tissues. E) It stimulates sleep. Answer: B Section: 11.19 Topic: Hormones of the hypothalamus and pituitary glands and their functions Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module J05 Identity, source, secretory control, and functional roles of the major hormones produced by the body.; Module J06 Local hormones (paracrines and autocrines) and growth factors. HAPS Outcome: J05.01c Name the target tissue or cells for the hormone and describe the effect(s) of the hormone on the target tissue or cells of growth hormone, thyroid-stimulating hormone, luteinizing hormone, follicle stimulating hormone, prolactin, adrenocorticotropic hormone, oxytocin, and antidiuretic hormone (or vasopressin.; J05.01d Predict the larger effect that fluctuations in the hormone level will have on conditions (variables) within the body for growth hormone, thyroid-stimulating hormone, luteinizing hormone, follicle stimulating hormone, prolactin, adrenocorticotropic hormone, oxytocin, and antidiuretic hormone (or vasopressin).; J06.03 Discuss the production and function of growth factors.; J06.02 List two major types of eicosanoids and discuss their production and functions. 54) At what time in the lifespan is growth hormone secretion rate highest? A) In utero B) During childhood C) During adolescence D) During adulthood E) During senescence Answer: C Section: 11.19 Topic: Hormones of the hypothalamus and pituitary glands and their functions; Effects of aging on the endocrine system Bloom's: Level 2. Understand HAPS Topic: Module J05 Identity, source, secretory control, and functional roles of the major hormones produced by the body.; Module R06 Regulation of reproductive system functions HAPS Outcome: J05.01a Describe the stimulus for release of growth hormone, thyroidstimulating hormone, luteinizing hormone, follicle stimulating hormone, prolactin, adrenocorticotropic hormone, oxytocin, and antidiuretic hormone (or vasopressin).; R06.03 Compare and contrast the events and endocrine regulation of female and male puberty.
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55) Which is true about the growth of long bones? A) Osteoblasts dissolve bone tissue when bones remodel in response to sex hormones. B) Osteoclasts are responsible for depositing new bone tissue at the epiphyseal growth plate before puberty. C) Before adolescence, bones are completely made up of cartilage; after puberty they ossify and harden. D) Growth in length occurs at a single epiphyseal growth plate in the center of the shaft of long bones. E) Growth in length occurs at two epiphyseal growth plates near the ends of long bones. Answer: E Section: 11.17 Topic: General functions of the endocrine system Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module F03 Structural components – gross anatomy.; Module F05 Physiology of bone growth, repair, and remodeling. HAPS Outcome: F05.01 Compare and contrast the function of osteoblasts and osteoclasts during bone growth, repair, and remodeling.; F03.01 Identify the structural components of a long bone, with emphasis on region of longitudinal growth.; F03.02 Explain the functions of those structural components in the context of a whole bone. 56) In what form is the body's largest pool of calcium? A) Embedded in collagen in many types of connective tissue B) Blood, dissolved within the plasma C) Skeletal muscle, stored in terminal cisternae D) Bones, in the form of hydroxyapatites E) Liver, inside the endoplasmic reticulum Answer: D Section: 11.20 Topic: General functions of the endocrine system Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module F02 Structural components – microscopic anatomy. HAPS Outcome: F02.01 List and describe the cellular and extracellular components of bone tissue.
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57) During a long illness, Terrell has not been eating much. As a result, his plasma Ca2+ levels decrease. Which hormone would we expect to see in higher levels than usual in his blood? A) Thyroxine B) Parathyroid hormone C) Calcitonin D) Growth hormone E) Insulin Answer: B Section: 11.20; 11.21 Topic: Hormones from other endocrine glands and their functions Bloom's: Level 3. Apply HAPS Topic: Module J05 Identity, source, secretory control, and functional roles of the major hormones produced by the body.; Module J08 Application of homeostatic mechanisms.; Module F05 Physiology of bone growth, repair, and remodeling. HAPS Outcome: F05.02 Explain the hormonal regulation of skeleton growth.; J08.01 Provide specific examples to demonstrate how the endocrine organs respond to maintain homeostasis in the body.; F05.03 Explain the roles of calcitonin, parathyroid hormone and calcitriol in bone remodeling and blood calcium regulation.; J05.03c In the parathyroid gland, name the target tissue or cells for the hormone and describe the effect(s) of the parathyroid hormone on the target tissue or cells.; J05.03d In the parathyroid gland, predict the larger effect that fluctuations in the parathyroid hormone level will have on conditions (variables) within the body.; J05.04c In the adrenal gland, name the target tissue or cells for the hormone and describe the effect(s) of glucocorticoids (cortisol), mineralocorticoids (aldosterone), gonadocorticoids, epinephrine and norepinephrine on the target tissue or cells.; J08.02 Explain how the endocrine organs relate to other body organs and systems to maintain homeostasis.; J05.02c In the thyroid gland, name the target tissue or cells for the hormone and describe the effect(s) of the hormone on the target tissue or cells from thyroxine, triiodothyronine, calcitonin.; J05.07c In the pancreas, name the target tissue or cells for insulin and glucagon and describe the effect(s) of the hormone on the target tissue or cells.
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58) Which is NOT an effect of parathyroid hormone? A) Increases the bone-degrading activity of osteoclasts B) Decreases reabsorption of calcium by the kidneys C) Promotes vitamin D synthesis, leading to increased intestinal absorption of calcium D) Increases plasma [Ca2+] E) Decreases reabsorption of phosphate by the kidneys Answer: B Section: 11.21 Topic: Hormones from other endocrine glands and their functions Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module J05 Identity, source, secretory control, and functional roles of the major hormones produced by the body.; Module F05 Physiology of bone growth, repair, and remodeling.; Module Q03 Chemical composition of the major compartment fluids HAPS Outcome: F05.01 Compare and contrast the function of osteoblasts and osteoclasts during bone growth, repair, and remodeling.; F05.03 Explain the roles of calcitonin, parathyroid hormone and calcitriol in bone remodeling and blood calcium regulation.; J05.03c In the parathyroid gland, name the target tissue or cells for the hormone and describe the effect(s) of the parathyroid hormone on the target tissue or cells.; J05.03d In the parathyroid gland, predict the larger effect that fluctuations in the parathyroid hormone level will have on conditions (variables) within the body.; Q03.04 Describe hormonal regulation of electrolyte levels in the plasma, including sodium, chloride, potassium, phosphate and calcium.
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59) Which would result from a vitamin D deficiency? A) Hypercalcemia B) An increase in bone mass C) An increase in parathyroid hormone levels D) Increased intestinal absorption of calcium Answer: C Section: 11.21 Topic: Hormones from other endocrine glands and their functions; Clinical applications of the endocrine system Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module J05 Identity, source, secretory control, and functional roles of the major hormones produced by the body.; Module J08 Application of homeostatic mechanisms.; Module J09 Predictions related to homeostatic imbalance, including disease states and disorders.; Module F05 Physiology of bone growth, repair, and remodeling.; Module O01 Nutrition HAPS Outcome: J09.01 Predict factors or situations affecting the endocrine organs that could disrupt homeostasis.; J09.02 Predict the types of problems that would occur in the body if the various endocrine organs could not maintain homeostasis.; J08.01 Provide specific examples to demonstrate how the endocrine organs respond to maintain homeostasis in the body.; F05.03 Explain the roles of calcitonin, parathyroid hormone and calcitriol in bone remodeling and blood calcium regulation.; J08.02 Explain how the endocrine organs relate to other body organs and systems to maintain homeostasis.; J05.03a In the parathyroid gland, describe the stimulus for release of the parathyroid hormone.; J05.08c In the kidney, name the target tissue or cells for erythropoietin and calcitrol (Vitamin D) and describe the effect(s) of the hormone on the target tissue or cells.; J05.08d In the kidney, predict the larger effect that fluctuations in erythropoietin and calcitrol (Vitamin D) levels will have on conditions (variables) within the body.; O01.01d With respect to nutrients, classify vitamins as either fat-soluble or water-soluble and discuss the major uses of each vitamin in the body.
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60) Which of the following is TRUE regarding pituitary growth hormone (GH)? A) The liver produces a factor that mediates the metabolic actions of GH. B) GH stimulates insulin-like growth factor-1 (IGF-1) production by the liver and by many other cells. C) GH increases the sensitivity of tissues to the action of insulin. D) GH exerts negative feedback on its own production by inhibiting the hypothalamic secretion of somatostatin. E) IGF-1 stimulates the secretion of GH by anterior pituitary gland cells. Answer: B Section: 11.19 Topic: Hormones of the hypothalamus and pituitary glands and their functions Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module J03 Control of hormone secretion.; Module J05 Identity, source, secretory control, and functional roles of the major hormones produced by the body.; Module J06 Local hormones (paracrines and autocrines) and growth factors. HAPS Outcome: J03.02 Describe the roles of negative and positive feedback in controlling hormone release.; J05.01a Describe the stimulus for release of growth hormone, thyroidstimulating hormone, luteinizing hormone, follicle stimulating hormone, prolactin, adrenocorticotropic hormone, oxytocin, and antidiuretic hormone (or vasopressin).; J05.01c Name the target tissue or cells for the hormone and describe the effect(s) of the hormone on the target tissue or cells of growth hormone, thyroid-stimulating hormone, luteinizing hormone, follicle stimulating hormone, prolactin, adrenocorticotropic hormone, oxytocin, and antidiuretic hormone (or vasopressin.; J05.01d Predict the larger effect that fluctuations in the hormone level will have on conditions (variables) within the body for growth hormone, thyroid-stimulating hormone, luteinizing hormone, follicle stimulating hormone, prolactin, adrenocorticotropic hormone, oxytocin, and antidiuretic hormone (or vasopressin).; J06.03 Discuss the production and function of growth factors.
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61) Which of the following is NOT true of pituitary growth hormone? A) It directly promotes protein anabolism in many cells. B) It causes differentiation of precursor cells that then respond to IGF-I by proliferating. C) Hypersecretion of growth hormone in adults leads to acromegaly. D) It is absent or deficient in pituitary dwarfs. E) It is necessary for fetal growth. Answer: E Section: 11.19 Topic: Hormones of the hypothalamus and pituitary glands and their functions; Clinical applications of the endocrine system Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module J05 Identity, source, secretory control, and functional roles of the major hormones produced by the body.; Module J06 Local hormones (paracrines and autocrines) and growth factors.; Module J09 Predictions related to homeostatic imbalance, including disease states and disorders.; Module F05 Physiology of bone growth, repair, and remodeling.; Module O02 Introduction to metabolism HAPS Outcome: J05.01c Name the target tissue or cells for the hormone and describe the effect(s) of the hormone on the target tissue or cells of growth hormone, thyroid-stimulating hormone, luteinizing hormone, follicle stimulating hormone, prolactin, adrenocorticotropic hormone, oxytocin, and antidiuretic hormone (or vasopressin.; F05.02 Explain the hormonal regulation of skeleton growth.; J05.01d Predict the larger effect that fluctuations in the hormone level will have on conditions (variables) within the body for growth hormone, thyroidstimulating hormone, luteinizing hormone, follicle stimulating hormone, prolactin, adrenocorticotropic hormone, oxytocin, and antidiuretic hormone (or vasopressin).; J09.01 Predict factors or situations affecting the endocrine organs that could disrupt homeostasis.; J09.02 Predict the types of problems that would occur in the body if the various endocrine organs could not maintain homeostasis.; O02.01 Define metabolism, anabolism and catabolism; J06.03 Discuss the production and function of growth factors.
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62) Baby Sylvia is born with a thyroid deficiency. Which of the following can we expect for Sylvia if it goes untreated? A) Gigantism B) Acromegaly C) Growth rate will be faster than normal. D) Growth rate will be slower than normal. E) Body temperature will be above normal. Answer: D Section: 11.11; Clinical Case Study Topic: Hormones of the hypothalamus and pituitary glands and their functions; Hormones from other endocrine glands and their functions; Clinical applications of the endocrine system Bloom's: Level 3. Apply HAPS Topic: Module J05 Identity, source, secretory control, and functional roles of the major hormones produced by the body.; Module J09 Predictions related to homeostatic imbalance, including disease states and disorders.; Module F05 Physiology of bone growth, repair, and remodeling. HAPS Outcome: F05.02 Explain the hormonal regulation of skeleton growth.; J05.01d Predict the larger effect that fluctuations in the hormone level will have on conditions (variables) within the body for growth hormone, thyroid-stimulating hormone, luteinizing hormone, follicle stimulating hormone, prolactin, adrenocorticotropic hormone, oxytocin, and antidiuretic hormone (or vasopressin).; J05.02d In the thyroid gland, predict the larger effect that fluctuations in the hormone level will have on conditions (variables) within the body for thyroxine, triiodothyronine, calcitonin.; J09.01 Predict factors or situations affecting the endocrine organs that could disrupt homeostasis.; J09.02 Predict the types of problems that would occur in the body if the various endocrine organs could not maintain homeostasis.
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63) A deficiency in dietary iodine can cause A) congenital hypothyroidism (cretinism). B) a slowing of mental functions. C) a low metabolic rate. D) a goiter. E) All of the choices are correct. Answer: E Section: 11.11; 11.12 Topic: Hormones from other endocrine glands and their functions; Clinical applications of the endocrine system Bloom's: Level 2. Understand HAPS Topic: Module J05 Identity, source, secretory control, and functional roles of the major hormones produced by the body.; Module J09 Predictions related to homeostatic imbalance, including disease states and disorders. HAPS Outcome: J05.02d In the thyroid gland, predict the larger effect that fluctuations in the hormone level will have on conditions (variables) within the body for thyroxine, triiodothyronine, calcitonin.; J09.01 Predict factors or situations affecting the endocrine organs that could disrupt homeostasis.; J09.02 Predict the types of problems that would occur in the body if the various endocrine organs could not maintain homeostasis.
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64) Which correctly lists a function of estrogens in females and testosterone in males? A) They prevent the pubertal growth spurt. B) They are responsible for epiphyseal plate closure. C) They stimulate the secretion of gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH). D) They stimulate the secretion of luteinizing hormone (LH). E) They stimulate the reabsorption of bone. Answer: B Section: 11.08; 11.19 Topic: Hormones of the hypothalamus and pituitary glands and their functions; Hormones from other endocrine glands and their functions; Effects of aging on the endocrine system Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module J03 Control of hormone secretion.; Module J05 Identity, source, secretory control, and functional roles of the major hormones produced by the body.; Module F05 Physiology of bone growth, repair, and remodeling.; Module R06 Regulation of reproductive system functions HAPS Outcome: J03.02 Describe the roles of negative and positive feedback in controlling hormone release.; J05.01a Describe the stimulus for release of growth hormone, thyroidstimulating hormone, luteinizing hormone, follicle stimulating hormone, prolactin, adrenocorticotropic hormone, oxytocin, and antidiuretic hormone (or vasopressin).; F05.02 Explain the hormonal regulation of skeleton growth.; J05.06c In the ovary, name the target tissue or cells for estrogen, progesterone and inhibin and describe the effect(s) of the hormone on the target tissue or cells.; R06.03 Compare and contrast the events and endocrine regulation of female and male puberty.; J05.05c In the testis, name the target tissue or cells for testosterone and inhibin and describe the effect(s) of the hormone on the target tissue or cells.; J05.05d In the testis, predict the larger effect that fluctuations in testosterone and inhibin level will have on conditions (variables) within the body.; J05.06d In the ovary, predict the larger effect that fluctuations in estrogen, progesterone and inhibin levels will have on conditions (variables) within the body. 65) An endocrine cell that contains an abundance of rough endoplasmic reticulum, a large Golgi apparatus, and many secretory granules is likely to secrete a peptide hormone. Answer: TRUE Section: 11.02 Topic: Physiology of hormones and hormone secretion Bloom's: Level 2. Understand HAPS Topic: Module J02 Chemical classification of hormones and mechanism of hormone actions at receptors. HAPS Outcome: J02.01 List the major chemical classes of hormones found in the human body.
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66) Steroid hormones are stored in the cells that synthesize them until a stimulus is received that provokes their secretion. Answer: FALSE Section: 11.02 Topic: Physiology of hormones and hormone secretion Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module J02 Chemical classification of hormones and mechanism of hormone actions at receptors. HAPS Outcome: J02.01 List the major chemical classes of hormones found in the human body. 67) A patient with low circulating androgen levels may have experienced damage to the adrenal gland. Answer: TRUE Section: 11.07 Topic: Hormones from other endocrine glands and their functions Bloom's: Level 3. Apply HAPS Topic: Module J05 Identity, source, secretory control, and functional roles of the major hormones produced by the body. HAPS Outcome: J05.04b In the adrenal gland, identify the gland or endocrine tissue/organ and the cells within that gland/tissue/organ that produce glucocorticoids (cortisol), mineralocorticoids (aldosterone), gonadocorticoids, epinephrine and norepinephrine. 68) Some women (including Angelina Jolie) with mutations in tumor suppressor genes, opt for oophorectomy (removal of their ovaries) to decrease their risk of some types of cancer. Unless they take supplements, they probably will have lower circulating levels of both androgens and estrogen. Answer: TRUE Section: 11.02 Topic: Hormones from other endocrine glands and their functions Bloom's: Level 3. Apply HAPS Topic: Module J02 Chemical classification of hormones and mechanism of hormone actions at receptors.; Module J05 Identity, source, secretory control, and functional roles of the major hormones produced by the body.; Module R06 Regulation of reproductive system functions HAPS Outcome: J02.01 List the major chemical classes of hormones found in the human body.; J05.06b In the ovary, identify the gland or endocrine tissue/organ and the cells within that gland/tissue/organ that produce estrogen, progesterone and inhibin.; J05.06c In the ovary, name the target tissue or cells for estrogen, progesterone and inhibin and describe the effect(s) of the hormone on the target tissue or cells.; R06.01 State the functions of gonadotropin releasing hormone, follicle stimulating hormone, luteinizing hormone, inhibin, testosterone, estrogen and progesterone.
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69) Most amine and peptide hormones circulate in the plasma as free hormones, whereas steroid hormones are mostly bound to circulating binding proteins. Answer: TRUE Section: 11.02; 11.03 Topic: Physiology of hormones and hormone secretion Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module J02 Chemical classification of hormones and mechanism of hormone actions at receptors. HAPS Outcome: J02.02 Describe how each class is transported in the blood. 70) In general, steroid hormones bind to receptors on cell membranes, whereas peptide hormones bind to receptors inside of cells. Answer: FALSE Section: 11.05 Topic: Physiology of hormones and hormone secretion Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module J02 Chemical classification of hormones and mechanism of hormone actions at receptors. HAPS Outcome: J02.03 Compare and contrast the types of receptors (cell membrane or intracellular) that each class binds to. 71) In general, the metabolism and excretion rates of steroid hormones are higher than those of peptide hormones. Answer: FALSE Section: 11.03; 11.04 Topic: Physiology of hormones and hormone secretion Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module J02 Chemical classification of hormones and mechanism of hormone actions at receptors. HAPS Outcome: J02.01 List the major chemical classes of hormones found in the human body.; J02.02 Describe how each class is transported in the blood.
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72) The concentration of a hormone in the blood can affect the number of receptors for that hormone on or in a target cell. Answer: TRUE Section: 11.05 Topic: Physiology of hormones and hormone secretion Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module J02 Chemical classification of hormones and mechanism of hormone actions at receptors.; Module J08 Application of homeostatic mechanisms.; Module J09 Predictions related to homeostatic imbalance, including disease states and disorders. HAPS Outcome: J09.01 Predict factors or situations affecting the endocrine organs that could disrupt homeostasis.; J08.01 Provide specific examples to demonstrate how the endocrine organs respond to maintain homeostasis in the body.; J02.04 Compare and contrast the mechanism of response that each class elicits (i.e., change in gene expression or change in an intracellular pathway via phosphorylation mechanism) and relate the response mechanism to the biochemical nature of the hormone molecule. 73) Thyroid hormones exert a permissive effect on the actions of epinephrine. Answer: TRUE Section: 11.05 Topic: Hormones from other endocrine glands and their functions Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module J05 Identity, source, secretory control, and functional roles of the major hormones produced by the body. HAPS Outcome: J05.02d In the thyroid gland, predict the larger effect that fluctuations in the hormone level will have on conditions (variables) within the body for thyroxine, triiodothyronine, calcitonin.; J05.02c In the thyroid gland, name the target tissue or cells for the hormone and describe the effect(s) of the hormone on the target tissue or cells from thyroxine, triiodothyronine, calcitonin. 74) Both thyroxine and thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) are amine hormones. Answer: FALSE Section: 11.02; 11.08 Topic: Physiology of hormones and hormone secretion; Hormones of the hypothalamus and pituitary glands and their functions; Hormones from other endocrine glands and their functions Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module J02 Chemical classification of hormones and mechanism of hormone actions at receptors. HAPS Outcome: J02.01 List the major chemical classes of hormones found in the human body.
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75) Stimuli for the secretion of hormones include changes in plasma concentrations of ions, nutrients, and other hormones. Answer: TRUE Section: 11.06 Topic: Physiology of hormones and hormone secretion Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module J03 Control of hormone secretion. HAPS Outcome: J03.01 List and describe several types of stimuli that control production and secretion of hormones. 76) The mechanism of action of lipid-soluble hormones is generally via the stimulation or inhibition of specific DNA-dependent protein synthesis. Answer: TRUE Section: 11.05 Topic: Physiology of hormones and hormone secretion Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module J02 Chemical classification of hormones and mechanism of hormone actions at receptors. HAPS Outcome: J02.04 Compare and contrast the mechanism of response that each class elicits (i.e., change in gene expression or change in an intracellular pathway via phosphorylation mechanism) and relate the response mechanism to the biochemical nature of the hormone molecule. 77) Binding of hydrophilic hormones to their receptors often results in the formation of one or more second messengers that lead to alterations of the cell's activity. Answer: TRUE Section: 11.05 Topic: Physiology of hormones and hormone secretion Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module J02 Chemical classification of hormones and mechanism of hormone actions at receptors. HAPS Outcome: J02.04 Compare and contrast the mechanism of response that each class elicits (i.e., change in gene expression or change in an intracellular pathway via phosphorylation mechanism) and relate the response mechanism to the biochemical nature of the hormone molecule.
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78) A precursor of cortisol is cholesterol. Answer: TRUE Section: 11.02 Topic: Physiology of hormones and hormone secretion; Hormones from other endocrine glands and their functions Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module J02 Chemical classification of hormones and mechanism of hormone actions at receptors. HAPS Outcome: J02.01 List the major chemical classes of hormones found in the human body. 79) The adrenal cortex is part of the autonomic nervous system. Answer: FALSE Section: 11.02 Topic: Anatomy of endocrine glands Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module J05 Identity, source, secretory control, and functional roles of the major hormones produced by the body.; Module H13 Functions of the autonomic nervous system HAPS Outcome: J05.04a In the adrenal gland, describe the stimulus for release of glucocorticoids (cortisol), mineralocorticoids (aldosterone), gonadocorticoids, epinephrine and norepinephrine.; H13.05 Contrast sympathetic innervation of the adrenal gland with sympathetic innervation of other effectors. 80) The receptors for estradiol, T3, and vasopressin are all located in the nuclei of target cells. Answer: FALSE Section: 11.02; 11.05 Topic: Physiology of hormones and hormone secretion; Hormones of the hypothalamus and pituitary glands and their functions; Hormones from other endocrine glands and their functions Bloom's: Level 2. Understand HAPS Topic: Module J02 Chemical classification of hormones and mechanism of hormone actions at receptors. HAPS Outcome: J02.01 List the major chemical classes of hormones found in the human body.; J02.03 Compare and contrast the types of receptors (cell membrane or intracellular) that each class binds to.
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81) Unlike neurons, endocrine cells generally do not act as integrators of various kinds of positive or negative inputs. Answer: FALSE Section: 11.06 Topic: General functions of the endocrine system; Physiology of hormones and hormone secretion Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module J01 General functions of the endocrine system. HAPS Outcome: J01.01 Describe the major functions of the endocrine system.; J01.03 Compare and contrast how the nervous and endocrine systems control body function, with emphasis on the mechanisms by which the controlling signals are transferred through the body and the time course of the response(s) and action(s). 82) In cases where the plasma concentration of an ion or nutrient affects the secretion rate of a hormone, the affected hormone is usually a regulator of the homeostasis of that ion or nutrient. Answer: TRUE Section: 11.06 Topic: Physiology of hormones and hormone secretion Bloom's: Level 2. Understand HAPS Topic: Module J03 Control of hormone secretion.; Module J08 Application of homeostatic mechanisms. HAPS Outcome: J08.01 Provide specific examples to demonstrate how the endocrine organs respond to maintain homeostasis in the body.; J03.01 List and describe several types of stimuli that control production and secretion of hormones. 83) Hormones of the posterior lobe of the pituitary are synthesized in neuronal cell bodies of the hypothalamus and transported to the pituitary by axonal transport. Answer: TRUE Section: 11.08 Topic: Hormones of the hypothalamus and pituitary glands and their functions Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module J04 Control by the hypothalamus and pituitary gland. HAPS Outcome: J04.04 Explain the role of the hypothalamus in the production and release of posterior pituitary hormones.
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84) Damage to the hypothalamus would impact the function of the anterior pituitary, but not the posterior pituitary. Answer: FALSE Section: 11.08 Topic: Hormones of the hypothalamus and pituitary glands and their functions Bloom's: Level 3. Apply HAPS Topic: Module J04 Control by the hypothalamus and pituitary gland. HAPS Outcome: J04.04 Explain the role of the hypothalamus in the production and release of posterior pituitary hormones. 85) The pituitary portal circulation refers to the blood vessels linking the anterior pituitary with the target glands of anterior pituitary hormones. Answer: FALSE Section: 11.08 Topic: Hormones of the hypothalamus and pituitary glands and their functions Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module J04 Control by the hypothalamus and pituitary gland. HAPS Outcome: J04.01 Describe the locations of and the anatomical relationships between the hypothalamus, anterior pituitary and posterior pituitary glands. 86) The primary function of thyrotropin is to stimulate secretion of thyroid hormones. Answer: TRUE Section: 11.08 Topic: Hormones of the hypothalamus and pituitary glands and their functions; Hormones from other endocrine glands and their functions Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module J05 Identity, source, secretory control, and functional roles of the major hormones produced by the body. HAPS Outcome: J05.01c Name the target tissue or cells for the hormone and describe the effect(s) of the hormone on the target tissue or cells of growth hormone, thyroid-stimulating hormone, luteinizing hormone, follicle stimulating hormone, prolactin, adrenocorticotropic hormone, oxytocin, and antidiuretic hormone (or vasopressin.; J05.02a In the thyroid gland, describe the stimulus for release of the hormones thyroxine, triiodothyronine, calcitonin.
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87) The liver is a target gland of growth hormone. Answer: TRUE Section: 11.08; 11.18 Topic: Hormones of the hypothalamus and pituitary glands and their functions Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module J05 Identity, source, secretory control, and functional roles of the major hormones produced by the body. HAPS Outcome: J05.01c Name the target tissue or cells for the hormone and describe the effect(s) of the hormone on the target tissue or cells of growth hormone, thyroid-stimulating hormone, luteinizing hormone, follicle stimulating hormone, prolactin, adrenocorticotropic hormone, oxytocin, and antidiuretic hormone (or vasopressin. 88) A general name for a hormone that regulates mineral ion homeostasis is "tropic hormone." Answer: FALSE Section: 11.06 Topic: Physiology of hormones and hormone secretion; Hormones of the hypothalamus and pituitary glands and their functions Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module J04 Control by the hypothalamus and pituitary gland. HAPS Outcome: J04.02 Define the terms releasing hormone, inhibiting hormone and tropic hormone. 89) The effect of some tropic hormones is to stimulate release of other tropic hormones. Answer: TRUE Section: 11.06; 11.08 Topic: Physiology of hormones and hormone secretion; Hormones of the hypothalamus and pituitary glands and their functions Bloom's: Level 2. Understand HAPS Topic: Module J04 Control by the hypothalamus and pituitary gland. HAPS Outcome: J04.03 Explain the role of the hypothalamus in the release of anterior pituitary hormones.; J04.02 Define the terms releasing hormone, inhibiting hormone and tropic hormone. 90) In bone, osteoblasts serve mainly to dissolve bone and mobilize Ca2+. Answer: FALSE Section: 11.17; 11.20 Topic: Physiology of hormones and hormone secretion Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module F05 Physiology of bone growth, repair, and remodeling. HAPS Outcome: F05.01 Compare and contrast the function of osteoblasts and osteoclasts during bone growth, repair, and remodeling. 91) The net intake and output of calcium for the entire body is regulated most directly by the 54 Copyright 2019 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.
activities of the kidneys and the gastrointestinal tract. Answer: TRUE Section: 11.20 Topic: Hormones from other endocrine glands and their functions Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module F05 Physiology of bone growth, repair, and remodeling.; Module P01 General functions of the urinary system.; Module P07 Application of homeostatic mechanisms.; Module Q03 Chemical composition of the major compartment fluids HAPS Outcome: F05.03 Explain the roles of calcitonin, parathyroid hormone and calcitriol in bone remodeling and blood calcium regulation.; Q03.04 Describe hormonal regulation of electrolyte levels in the plasma, including sodium, chloride, potassium, phosphate and calcium.; P01.01 Describe the major functions of the urinary system.; P07.01 Provide specific examples to demonstrate how the urinary system responds to maintain homeostasis in the body. 92) The amount of Ca2+ within the extracellular fluid is greater than that in the bones at any given time. Answer: FALSE Section: 11.20 Topic: Physiology of hormones and hormone secretion Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module F02 Structural components – microscopic anatomy.; Module Q03 Chemical composition of the major compartment fluids HAPS Outcome: F02.01 List and describe the cellular and extracellular components of bone tissue.; Q03.02 Compare and contrast the relative concentrations of major electrolytes in intracellular and extracellular fluids. 93) In order for growth to occur, the overall rate of anabolism must be greater than the overall rate of catabolism. Answer: TRUE Section: 11.19 Topic: General functions of the endocrine system Bloom's: Level 2. Understand HAPS Topic: Module O02 Introduction to metabolism HAPS Outcome: O02.01 Define metabolism, anabolism and catabolism
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94) Dietary protein is necessary to achieve normal growth in infants and children. Answer: TRUE Section: 11.18 Topic: General functions of the endocrine system Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module O01 Nutrition HAPS Outcome: O01.01c With respect to nutrients, for carbohydrates, fats, and proteins - list their dietary sources, state their energy yields per gram, and discuss their common uses in the body. 95) A child's growth would be stunted by thyroid hormone deficiency. Answer: TRUE Section: 11.11; 11.19 Topic: Hormones from other endocrine glands and their functions; Clinical applications of the endocrine system Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module J05 Identity, source, secretory control, and functional roles of the major hormones produced by the body.; Module J09 Predictions related to homeostatic imbalance, including disease states and disorders.; Module F05 Physiology of bone growth, repair, and remodeling. HAPS Outcome: F05.02 Explain the hormonal regulation of skeleton growth.; J05.02d In the thyroid gland, predict the larger effect that fluctuations in the hormone level will have on conditions (variables) within the body for thyroxine, triiodothyronine, calcitonin.; J09.01 Predict factors or situations affecting the endocrine organs that could disrupt homeostasis.; J09.02 Predict the types of problems that would occur in the body if the various endocrine organs could not maintain homeostasis.
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96) A hypothalamic tumor that secretes large amounts of somatostatin may cause dwarfism in a young child. Answer: TRUE Section: 11.19 Topic: Hormones of the hypothalamus and pituitary glands and their functions; Clinical applications of the endocrine system Bloom's: Level 3. Apply HAPS Topic: Module J04 Control by the hypothalamus and pituitary gland.; Module J05 Identity, source, secretory control, and functional roles of the major hormones produced by the body.; Module J09 Predictions related to homeostatic imbalance, including disease states and disorders.; Module F05 Physiology of bone growth, repair, and remodeling. HAPS Outcome: J05.01a Describe the stimulus for release of growth hormone, thyroidstimulating hormone, luteinizing hormone, follicle stimulating hormone, prolactin, adrenocorticotropic hormone, oxytocin, and antidiuretic hormone (or vasopressin).; F05.02 Explain the hormonal regulation of skeleton growth.; J05.01d Predict the larger effect that fluctuations in the hormone level will have on conditions (variables) within the body for growth hormone, thyroid-stimulating hormone, luteinizing hormone, follicle stimulating hormone, prolactin, adrenocorticotropic hormone, oxytocin, and antidiuretic hormone (or vasopressin).; J09.01 Predict factors or situations affecting the endocrine organs that could disrupt homeostasis.; J09.02 Predict the types of problems that would occur in the body if the various endocrine organs could not maintain homeostasis.; J04.03 Explain the role of the hypothalamus in the release of anterior pituitary hormones. 97) Growth hormone secretion is stimulated by exercise. Answer: TRUE Section: 11.19 Topic: Hormones of the hypothalamus and pituitary glands and their functions; Hormonal response to stress Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module J05 Identity, source, secretory control, and functional roles of the major hormones produced by the body.; Module J07 Hormonal response to stress.; Module J08 Application of homeostatic mechanisms. HAPS Outcome: J05.01a Describe the stimulus for release of growth hormone, thyroidstimulating hormone, luteinizing hormone, follicle stimulating hormone, prolactin, adrenocorticotropic hormone, oxytocin, and antidiuretic hormone (or vasopressin).; J07.02 List the hormones released during short-term stress and describe the hormonal actions.; J07.03 List the major hormones released during long-term stress and describe the hormonal actions.; J08.01 Provide specific examples to demonstrate how the endocrine organs respond to maintain homeostasis in the body.
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98) The actions of thyroid hormones in stimulating body growth are permissive to the actions of growth hormone. Answer: TRUE Section: 11.19 Topic: Hormones of the hypothalamus and pituitary glands and their functions; Hormones from other endocrine glands and their functions Bloom's: Level 3. Apply HAPS Topic: Module J05 Identity, source, secretory control, and functional roles of the major hormones produced by the body.; Module F05 Physiology of bone growth, repair, and remodeling. HAPS Outcome: J05.01c Name the target tissue or cells for the hormone and describe the effect(s) of the hormone on the target tissue or cells of growth hormone, thyroid-stimulating hormone, luteinizing hormone, follicle stimulating hormone, prolactin, adrenocorticotropic hormone, oxytocin, and antidiuretic hormone (or vasopressin.; F05.02 Explain the hormonal regulation of skeleton growth.; J05.01d Predict the larger effect that fluctuations in the hormone level will have on conditions (variables) within the body for growth hormone, thyroidstimulating hormone, luteinizing hormone, follicle stimulating hormone, prolactin, adrenocorticotropic hormone, oxytocin, and antidiuretic hormone (or vasopressin).; J05.02d In the thyroid gland, predict the larger effect that fluctuations in the hormone level will have on conditions (variables) within the body for thyroxine, triiodothyronine, calcitonin. 99) Insulin is important for growth both before and after birth. Answer: TRUE Section: 11.19 Topic: Hormones from other endocrine glands and their functions Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module J05 Identity, source, secretory control, and functional roles of the major hormones produced by the body.; Module F05 Physiology of bone growth, repair, and remodeling. HAPS Outcome: F05.02 Explain the hormonal regulation of skeleton growth.; J05.07d In the pancreas, predict the larger effect that fluctuations in insulin and glucagon levels will have on conditions (variables) within the body.
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100) Kevin, a young child with elevated plasma cortisol concentration, is is likely to have reduced height. Answer: TRUE Section: 11.19 Topic: Hormones of the hypothalamus and pituitary glands and their functions; Hormones from other endocrine glands and their functions Bloom's: Level 3. Apply HAPS Topic: Module J05 Identity, source, secretory control, and functional roles of the major hormones produced by the body.; Module F05 Physiology of bone growth, repair, and remodeling. HAPS Outcome: J05.01c Name the target tissue or cells for the hormone and describe the effect(s) of the hormone on the target tissue or cells of growth hormone, thyroid-stimulating hormone, luteinizing hormone, follicle stimulating hormone, prolactin, adrenocorticotropic hormone, oxytocin, and antidiuretic hormone (or vasopressin.; F05.02 Explain the hormonal regulation of skeleton growth.; J05.01d Predict the larger effect that fluctuations in the hormone level will have on conditions (variables) within the body for growth hormone, thyroidstimulating hormone, luteinizing hormone, follicle stimulating hormone, prolactin, adrenocorticotropic hormone, oxytocin, and antidiuretic hormone (or vasopressin).; J05.04d In the adrenal gland, predict the larger effect that fluctuations in glucocorticoids (cortisol), mineralocorticoids (aldosterone), gonadocorticoids, epinephrine and norepinephrine levels will have on conditions (variables) within the body. 101) Depressed levels of thyroid hormones in blood resulting from a defect in the cells that secrete TSH is an example of primary hyposecretion of thyroid hormones. Answer: FALSE Section: 11.07 Topic: Hormones from other endocrine glands and their functions; Clinical applications of the endocrine system Bloom's: Level 2. Understand HAPS Topic: Module J05 Identity, source, secretory control, and functional roles of the major hormones produced by the body.; Module J09 Predictions related to homeostatic imbalance, including disease states and disorders. HAPS Outcome: J09.01 Predict factors or situations affecting the endocrine organs that could disrupt homeostasis.; J05.02a In the thyroid gland, describe the stimulus for release of the hormones thyroxine, triiodothyronine, calcitonin.
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102) Hormones can be A) peptides. B) fatty acids. C) steroids. D) amines. E) phospholipids. Answer: A, C, D Section: 11.01; 11.02 Topic: General functions of the endocrine system; Physiology of hormones and hormone secretion Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module J02 Chemical classification of hormones and mechanism of hormone actions at receptors. HAPS Outcome: J02.01 List the major chemical classes of hormones found in the human body. 103) You have a 12-year-old patient who is hoping to be a professional basketball player. As part of her dream, she is hoping to grow as much as possible before her growth plates fuse. As her doctor, you recommend which of the following to help her grow? A) Always getting a good night's sleep B) Frequent exercise C) Drinking lots of water D) Eating twice as much protein as is recommended for a person her size E) None of these will help her grow Answer: A, B Section: 11.19 Topic: Hormones of the hypothalamus and pituitary glands and their functions Bloom's: Level 3. Apply HAPS Topic: Module J05 Identity, source, secretory control, and functional roles of the major hormones produced by the body.; Module J07 Hormonal response to stress.; Module J08 Application of homeostatic mechanisms. HAPS Outcome: J05.01a Describe the stimulus for release of growth hormone, thyroidstimulating hormone, luteinizing hormone, follicle stimulating hormone, prolactin, adrenocorticotropic hormone, oxytocin, and antidiuretic hormone (or vasopressin).; J02.01 List the major chemical classes of hormones found in the human body.; J07.02 List the hormones released during short-term stress and describe the hormonal actions.; J07.03 List the major hormones released during long-term stress and describe the hormonal actions.; J08.01 Provide specific examples to demonstrate how the endocrine organs respond to maintain homeostasis in the body.
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104) You have a pediatric patient who does not seem to be growing at the same rate as his peers. You test the blood levels of growth hormone and find them to be within the healthy range. What else could be a factor? A) Low thyroid hormone levels B) Low IGF-1 levels C) High cortisol levels D) Low FSH levels E) All of these Answer: A, B, C Section: 11.19 Topic: Hormones of the hypothalamus and pituitary glands and their functions Bloom's: Level 3. Apply HAPS Topic: Module J05 Identity, source, secretory control, and functional roles of the major hormones produced by the body.; Module J07 Hormonal response to stress.; Module J08 Application of homeostatic mechanisms. HAPS Outcome: J05.01a Describe the stimulus for release of growth hormone, thyroidstimulating hormone, luteinizing hormone, follicle stimulating hormone, prolactin, adrenocorticotropic hormone, oxytocin, and antidiuretic hormone (or vasopressin).; J07.02 List the hormones released during short-term stress and describe the hormonal actions.; J07.03 List the major hormones released during long-term stress and describe the hormonal actions.; J08.01 Provide specific examples to demonstrate how the endocrine organs respond to maintain homeostasis in the body.
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Vander's Human Physiology, 15e (Widmaier) Chapter 12 Cardiovascular Physiology 1) Which of the following is NOT primarily a function of blood plasma? A) Transport of hormones B) Being in osmotic balance with red blood cells C) Having plasma proteins that exert an osmotic pressure favoring fluid absorption into the capillaries D) Providing clotting factors that are ready to be activated E) Transport of oxygen 2) What is the term that describes the production of red blood cells? A) Hemaglutination B) Erythrocytosis C) Erythropoiesis D) Erythroblastosis E) Hemostasis 3) Which is TRUE about the condition anemia? A) It can be caused by too little iron in the diet. B) It can be caused by kidney failure. C) It can be caused by abnormal hemoglobin. D) It results in reduced oxygen-carrying capacity of the blood. E) All of the answers are true. 4) A female has a blood test. One mL of her blood is drawn, spun in a centrifuge, and the plasma volume is measured and found to be 0.6 mL. Two months later the same patient returns to the doctor and, after doing another blood test, the doctor tells the patient that she has become anemic compared to her previous visit. Which of the following is most likely to be the woman's hematocrit on the second visit? A) 35% B) 50% C) 70% D) 100% E) 0.6 mL 5) A male patient complains of physical weakness and fatigue. A blood test shows his hematocrit to be 30%. Which of the following diagnoses is the least likely to explain his symptoms? A) Internal bleeding B) Dietary iron deficiency C) Dietary vitamin B12 deficiency D) Lung disease E) Kidney disease
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6) Where is most of the iron in a person's body located? A) In the bone marrow B) In the liver C) In the cytochromes D) In erythrocytes E) In the kidneys 7) You have a patient who has pernicious anemia. Which of the following supplements should she take to improve her symptoms? A) Iron B) Vitamin B12 C) Vitamin E D) Vitamin D E) Bilirubin 8) Consider the equation F = ΔP/R. It describes the flow (F) of fluid in a tube in which there is a pressure difference (ΔP) between the two ends and a resistance (R) to flow. Based on this equation, which is a correct conclusion? 8-15-2013 A) The flow of fluid in a tube depends upon the absolute pressure at the beginning of the tube. B) The rate of fluid flow in a tube will increase if the pressure at the beginning is increased while the pressure at the end of the tube stays the same. C) The greater the resistance to flow in a tube, the greater the rate of flow for any given pressure difference. D) If both the resistance and the pressure gradient in a tube increase, the flow must also increase. E) The rate of flow in a tube will decrease if the resistance to flow is decreased. 9) Which of the following changes would most increase the resistance to blood flow in a blood vessel? A) Halving the diameter of the vessel B) Doubling the diameter of the vessel C) Halving the length of the vessel D) Doubling the length of the vessel E) Decreasing the hematocrit from 50% to 40% 10) Action potentials in the heart spread from cell to cell through A) desmosomes. B) gap junctions. C) interneurons. D) valves. E) coronary vessels.
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11) Elizabeth had heart surgery to repair the pacemaker of her heart. Into which structure did the surgeon need access? A) Sinoatrial node B) Atrioventricular node C) Mitral valve D) Bundle of His E) Left ventricle 12) Which is correct about the contraction sequence of the heart? A) The contraction and relaxation of all four chambers happen at the same time. B) The right atrium and ventricle contract at the same time, and as they are relaxing, the left atrium and left ventricle begin to contract. C) Contraction begins in the order: right atrium, then right ventricle, then left atrium, then left ventricle. D) The two atria contract at the same time, and as they are relaxing, the two ventricles contract together. E) The atria and ventricles begin their contractions at the exact same time, but the atrial contraction only lasts half as long as the ventricle contraction. 13) Which of the following statements concerning the differences between action potentials in skeletal muscle cells and in ventricular cardiac muscle cells is TRUE? A) Like skeletal muscle cells, ventricular cardiac muscle cells have a resting membrane potential closer to the sodium equilibrium potential than to the potassium equilibrium potential. B) Unlike skeletal muscle cells, the initial depolarization of ventricular cells is mainly due to calcium influx, not sodium influx. C) After sodium influx through voltage-gated channels occurs in ventricular cells, prolonged influx of calcium from the extracellular fluid occurs. No such calcium influx occurs in skeletal muscle cells. D) Action potentials in skeletal muscle cells are longer in duration than action potentials in cardiac muscle cells. E) The efflux of K+ repolarizes skeletal muscle cells after an action potential, while repolarization in cardiac muscle cells is due to the efflux of Ca2+. 14) You are a synthetic chemist and have created a compound that appears to bind to acetylcholine receptors. When applied to the inside of the right atrium, what will the affect be? A) Increased force of atrial contraction B) Decreased force of atrial contraction C) Decreased heart rate D) Increased heart rate E) No effects on heart function
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15) The plateau of the action potential in cardiac ventricular cells results from the opening of voltage-gated long-lasting channels in the plasma membrane of the cell. A) Na+ B) K+ C) Ca2+ D) ClE) glucose 16) Which of the following statements about membrane potentials in different types of cardiac cells is TRUE? A) Myocardial cells have a resting membrane potential of about -90 mV; pacemaker cells do not have a true resting membrane potential. B) Once threshold depolarization is reached in both myocardial and pacemaker cells, the rapid upswing of the action potential is caused by the opening of voltage-gated Na+ channels C) Voltage-gated transient (T-type) Ca2+ channels are present in all of the different types of cells of the heart. D) There are no L-type Ca2+ channels in cardiac muscle cells. E) The upstroke of the action potential is steeper in SA node cells than it is in Purkinje cells. 17) You are learning to read electrocardiograms. You know that the patient you are examining has a pathology affecting the depolarization of his ventricles, therefore you're looking for a change in what portion of his EKG? A) The P wave B) The T wave C) The QRS complex D) "The P wave" or "The T wave" but not "The QRS complex". E) None of these would be altered 18) Which of the following would be most likely to be determined with a patient's ECG recording? A) A heart murmur B) Stroke volume C) Cardiac output D) Blockage of conduction of electrical signals between the atria and the ventricles E) A leaky atrioventricular valve
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19) Which is TRUE about the comparison of excitation-contraction coupling in cardiac muscle with that in skeletal muscle? A) Extracellular Ca2+ plays a major role in cardiac but not skeletal muscle. B) The mechanism for Ca2+ release from the sarcoplasmic reticulum is the same in both types of muscle. C) Troponin sites are completely saturated immediately after Ca2+ release in both types of muscle. D) There is no net change in total intracellular Ca2+ concentration in either muscle. E) Intracellular Ca2+ stores are necessary for contraction in skeletal muscle, but not in cardiac muscle. 20) You and your lab partner are doing an experiment in physiology lab. Each of you has an isolated muscle cell and you are supposed to stimulate it with an electrode as soon as its absolute refractory period ends. You're watching an electromyograph tracing to know when to use the electrode. Your partner has a cardiac muscle cell and you have a skeletal muscle cell. Which one of you will use your electrode more times in one minute? A) Your partner will use the electrode more times in a minute than you will. B) You will use the electrode more times in a minute than your partner will. C) You both will use the electrode the same number of times. D) The number of times you will use the electrode in a minute cannot be determined by this information alone. 21) Which of the following statements about the refractory period of neuronal or muscle membranes is TRUE? A) In nerve cells, the absolute refractory period coincides with the period of increased K+ permeability. B) In skeletal muscle cells, the absolute refractory period lasts about as long as the twitch. C) In ventricular cells, the absolute refractory period coincides with the period of increased Na+ and Ca2+ permeability. D) The relative refractory period in neuronal membranes lasts about the same length of time as the absolute refractory period in cardiac muscle cell membranes. E) The refractory period in an alpha-motor neuron membrane is much briefer than the refractory period in a skeletal muscle cell membrane. 22) Which of the following statements about the cardiac cycle is TRUE? A) The duration of systole is greater than that of diastole in a subject at rest. B) During isovolumetric ventricular relaxation, blood flows from the atria into the ventricles. C) Closure of the atrioventricular valves occurs at the beginning of ventricular systole. D) The QRS complex occurs at approximately the same time as the closure of the semilunar valves. E) The first valves to go from closed to open after the atrial kick are the atrioventricular valves.
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23) You and your colleague are medical technicians in a cardiac function lab. You are reading the ECG of a patient and your friend is trying to capture an image of the AV valves opening using an ultrasound. At what point should you tell your friend to start recording images? A) Just before the P wave B) Just after the P wave C) At the beginning of the QRS complex D) Just before the T wave E) After the T wave 24) During the cardiac cycle of an individual at rest A) the volume of blood leaving the left side of the heart is greater than that leaving the right side. B) the pressure of blood leaving the right ventricle is greater than that leaving the left ventricle. C) the duration of systole is greater than that of diastole. D) the duration of diastole is greater than that of systole. E) the contraction of the atria overlaps in time with the ventricular systole. 25) In a patient with an abnormally leaky aortic valve, what would you expect? A) Some backflow of blood into the aorta during ventricular diastole B) Some backflow of blood into the left ventricle during ventricular diastole C) Some backflow of blood into the left ventricle during ventricular ejection D) Some backflow of blood into the aorta during ventricular ejection E) Some backflow of blood into the left atrium during ventricular systole 26) Which occurs during isovolumetric ventricular contraction? A) Rapid filling of the ventricles occurs. B) No blood enters or leaves the ventricles. C) The maximum volume of blood is ejected. D) Ventricular pressure reaches its maximum value of the cardiac cycle. E) The pressure in the ventricles decreases while the pressure in the atria increases. 27) What causes the opening and closing of the heart valves? A) Stimulation by the sympathetic and parasympathetic nerves B) A pressure difference on the two sides of the valve C) Na+ and K+ fluxes during ventricular depolarization D) Turbulent flow in the atria and ventricles E) The action of the papillary muscles and chordae tendineae 28) You've just been told by your doctor that you have a heart murmur between the first and second heart sounds. You go home to search for more information on this condition on the Internet and find that you have A) insufficiency of a semilunar valve or stenosis of an AV valve. B) insufficiency of an AV valve or stenosis of a semilunar valve. C) heart failure. D) AV nodal conduction block. E) a myocardial infarction.
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29) Which best defines cardiac output? A) The end-diastolic volume minus the end-systolic volume B) The output of the aortic arch baroreceptors C) The volume of blood in the arterial tree at any moment in time D) The stroke volume divided by the heart rate E) The product of the heart rate and the volume ejected from the ventricle during a cardiac cycle 30) Sinoatrial node cells A) reach threshold only when action potentials generated by the AV node arrive through gap junctions. B) exhibit spontaneous depolarization that is speeded by activation of their cholinergic receptors. C) exhibit spontaneous depolarization that is speeded by activation of their beta-adrenergic receptors. D) exhibit a steep upstroke due to the presence of the same type of Na+ channels found in neuronal membranes. E) are between atrial muscle cells and cells of the bundle of His. 31) Which is TRUE regarding the regulation of heart rate? A) Stimulation of parasympathetic nerves to the heart causes a slowing of heart rate. B) Stimulation of sympathetic nerves to the heart causes an increase in heart rate. C) A person whose heart lacks autonomic innervation has a faster heart rate at rest than a person with a normally innervated heart. D) The slope of diastolic depolarization in SA node cell action potentials determines the heart rate. E) All of the choices are true. 32) What is described by the Frank-Starling mechanism of the heart? A) The relationship between end-diastolic volume and heart rate B) The relationship between end-systolic volume and stroke volume C) The relationship between length and tension in cardiac muscle cells D) The relationship between sympathetic stimulation and stroke volume E) The relationship between arterial blood pressure and stroke volume 33) According to the Frank-Starling mechanism of the heart A) the left ventricle ejects a larger volume of blood with each systole than the right ventricle. B) the intrinsic rate of the heart's pacemaker is 100 beats/min. C) cardiac output increases with increased heart rate. D) stroke volume increases with increased venous return. E) both ventricles contract simultaneously. 34) During the course of a ride on a roller coaster, what would be FALSE regarding your heart? A) An increase in heart rate B) A decrease in the duration of systole C) A decrease in the slope of the pacemaker potential D) An increase in the amount of Ca2+ entering cardiac muscle cells E) An increase in the rate of cross-bridge cycling in ventricular muscle cells 7 Copyright 2019 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.
35) You are dissecting a species of amphibian that has just been discovered in the rainforest. You find a blood vessel where the blood travels at a low pressure and velocity. If the frog is in an upright position, blood flow through this vessel would also be against gravity. Anatomically, what do you expect of this blood vessel? A) A high degree of compliance B) A thick muscular wall C) Large wall to lumen ratio D) Valves that allow only one-way flow of blood E) All of the answers are correct 36) Which of the following statements concerning regulation of blood flow is TRUE? A) In the systemic circuit, increased levels of metabolic waste products and decreased oxygen concentration in tissues promote hyperemia through the tissues. B) If blood flow to a tissue is blocked for a period of time and then the block is removed, the result is a reactive hyperemia in which blood flow through the affected tissue remains low. C) According to flow autoregulation, if blood pressure to an arteriole is decreased, blood flow will not return toward its original level until the original blood pressure is restored. D) In the systemic circuit, high levels of CO2 and metabolites tend to cause contraction in the smooth muscle of arteriole walls. E) The resistance to blood flow in brain and heart vascular beds does not vary in response to changes in local gas or metabolite concentrations. 37) You've been sitting cross-legged on the floor of your dorm room while studying. As you stand up to go get a snack, you realize that you've lost feeling in one of your feet. A minute later, all feeling is restored. Being a physiology student, you understand that blood flow was occluded during the time that you were sitting, and that blood flow was restored as you stood up. What else is TRUE? A) The decreased oxygen content of the foot tissues and the increased levels of metabolic wastes both acted as vasodilators, increasing the flow of blood through the tissues upon standing. B) As you stood, vasoconstriction occurred in the foot's blood vessels to protect them from shock. C) High levels of built up CO2 acted as vasoconstrictors in the foot's blood vessels. D) The resistance of the blood vessels did not change from sitting to standing, but gravity helped in blood flow. E) All of these are true. 38) In the systemic circuit, which of these best describes active hyperemia? A) Increased metabolic activity that results in vasoconstriction B) Increased metabolic activity that results in vasodilation C) Decreased blood flow to tissues that results in vasoconstriction D) Decreased blood flow to tissues that results in vasodilation E) Increased blood pressure that drives blood more rapidly through tissues
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39) Which of the following statements concerning control of blood flow through arterioles is TRUE? A) Beta-adrenergic receptors are more abundant on most arteriolar smooth muscle than are alpha-adrenergic receptors. B) Binding of epinephrine to alpha-adrenergic receptors causes vasodilation. C) Increased stimulation of vascular smooth muscle by the parasympathetic nervous system causes increased vasoconstriction. D) If the arterial blood pressure to an organ suddenly decreases, arterioles in the organ will dilate in response. E) Body-wide constriction of arterioles results in a decrease in the total peripheral resistance (TPR). 40) Blood flow through most organs in the systemic circuit is regulated primarily by increasing or decreasing the activity to arteriolar smooth muscles in the organ. Another form of regulation, called , depends upon the metabolic activity of the organ. Increased activity leads to increased interstitial fluid metabolites, which cause of the arterioles. The former is a type of regulation of blood flow; the latter is an example of regulation. A) sympathetic; active hyperemia; dilation; extrinsic; intrinsic B) sympathetic; reactive hyperemia; dilation; intrinsic; extrinsic C) parasympathetic; active hyperemia; constriction; extrinsic; intrinsic D) sympathetic; flow autoregulation; constriction; intrinsic; extrinsic E) parasympathetic; reactive hyperemia; dilation; extrinsic; intrinsic 41) If the arterial blood pressure in the brain is suddenly decreased, the flow through arterioles in the brain will immediately fall and then which of these will occur next? A) Brain arterioles will constrict to accelerate blood flow through the brain capillaries. B) Brain arterioles will dilate due to a decrease in levels of CO2. C) Blood flow will remain at the new, lower level due to reactive hyperemia. D) Blood flow will rise to levels above normal due to excess O2 levels. E) Blood flow will return toward its original level due to flow autoregulation. 42) Normally, the hydrostatic pressure difference between capillary fluid and interstitial fluid favors movement of fluid a tissue capillary. The protein osmotic pressure difference between capillary fluid and interstitial fluid normally favors movement of fluid a tissue capillary. A) into; into B) into; out of C) out of; out of D) out of; into
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43) In a patient with decreased production of plasma proteins, which of the following would be TRUE? A) More fluid than usual will flow out of the capillary based on the osmotic pressure. B) Less fluid than usual will flow out of the capillary based on the osmotic pressure. C) More fluid than usual will flow out of the capillary based on the hydrostatic pressure. D) Less fluid than usual will flow out of the capillary based on the hydrostatic pressure. 44) Which of the following statements concerning the capillaries is FALSE? A) Increasing capillary hydrostatic pressure decreases the likelihood that filtration will occur. B) Velocity of blood flow is slower in the capillaries than in the arteries. C) It is possible for a capillary to filter fluid at its arterial end and absorb fluid at its venous end. D) Large capillary pores are more likely to be found in liver capillaries than in brain capillaries. E) Large proteins that escape capillaries and enter the interstitial fluid are returned to the circulation via the lymphatic system. 45) Which of the following correctly compares the factors involved in bulk flow of fluid in systemic and pulmonary capillaries? A) The protein oncotic pressure inside pulmonary capillaries is significantly greater. B) There are no lymphatic vessels to remove fluid from lung interstitial fluid. C) The hydrostatic pressure inside pulmonary capillaries is significantly lower. D) The protein oncotic pressure is lower in pulmonary interstitial fluid than in typical systemic interstitial fluid. E) The Starling's forces overwhelmingly favor reabsorption all along the length of pulmonary capillaries. 46) A patient comes in to your office with dramatically high blood pressure. Which of the following symptoms might turn up in your exam? A) Tissue swelling due to increased fluid leaving the capillaries B) Skin bruising due to blood leaving the capillaries C) Rapid breathing due to increased need for oxygen D) Lethargy E) None of these 47) You have a patient who is showing signs of edema (tissue swelling) all over his body. In addition to visible swelling in his hands, feet, and face, you can also see evidence of swelling around his organs when viewing his CAT scan images. Thinking about what you know about the factors that regulate fluid flow from the blood vessels. Which of the following causes of edema seem most likely? A) Low red and white blood cell counts due to cancer in the bone marrow B) Low plasma protein concentration due to liver failure C) High blood solute concentration due to kidney failure D) Low blood pressure due to severe dehydration
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48) Distinguishing characteristics of veins include which of the following? A) All veins carry deoxygenated blood. B) All veins carry blood toward the heart. C) All veins have thick, elastic walls. D) Veins have walls consisting only of endothelial cells. E) All veins have valves to ensure one-way movement of blood. 49) What determines the movement of blood in systemic veins? A) The blood pressure difference between systemic capillaries and the right atrium B) The contraction and relaxation of skeletal muscles C) The decrease of thoracic pressure and increase of abdominal pressure due to diaphragm movement D) Valves in the veins E) All of the these 50) Sarah is resting in a chair for a long period of time; her calf and thigh muscles are totally relaxed. Next to her, Priya is also resting in a chair, but she is wiggling, kicking, tapping, and vibrating her legs; resulting in an pattern where her calf and thigh muscles are alternating between relaxed and contracted states. If all else is equal, who has the higher stroke volume, Sarah or Priya? A) Sarah has a higher stroke volume. B) Priya has a higher stroke volume. C) Sarah and Priya have the same stroke volume because they are both seated. D) No significant difference in the stroke volume between Sarah and Priya can be predicted based on this information. 51) Tina is a hard-working sales clerk in a busy department store. She has stood completely still behind the check-out counter for an 8-hour shift. At the end of Tina's shift she finds that she feels somewhat dizzy and guesses that her blood pressure is quite low. All of the following factors normally contribute to homeostatic blood pressure regulation. Which one is most likely contributing to her symptoms? A) Decreased skeletal muscle pump B) Increased activity of the pulmonary pump C) Defective baroreceptor detection in the carotid artery D) Increased sympathetic tone E) All of these
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52) Tina is a hard-working sales clerk in a busy department store. She has stood completely still behind the check-out counter for an 8-hour shift. At the end of Tina's shift, she finds that she feels somewhat dizzy and guesses that her blood pressure is quite low. When Tina gets home she also notices that her ankles are swollen. What physiological issue is most likely to blame in this scenario? A) Lymphatic blockage in her lower legs B) High osmotic pressure in her lower leg capillaries C) High hydrostatic pressure in lower leg capillaries D) Reactive hyperemia to lower leg tissues E) None of these, the swelling is unrelated to cardiovascular issues 53) Which of the following is a result of increased sympathetic stimulation of vascular smooth muscle? A) Filtration of fluid from capillaries to interstitial fluid increases. B) Total peripheral resistance (TPR) decreases. C) The percentage of blood volume in the veins increases. D) Blood flow to the brain decreases. E) Venous return of blood to the heart increases. 54) Sally has had too many alcoholic drinks. Alcohol is a systemic vasodilator and it increases urine volume, thereby decreasing blood volume. In order to maintain cardiac output, what can her body do? A) Decrease heart rate B) Increase heart rate C) Increase stroke volume D) Decrease stroke volume E) Increase total peripheral resistance (TPR) 55) Which of the following factors would NOT tend to increase systemic arterial blood pressure? A) Increased sympathetic stimulation B) Increased blood volume C) Increased venous return D) Increased parasympathetic stimulation E) Increased activity of the skeletal muscle pump 56) After a long fever Carl finds himself sweating profusely. He ends up requiring several changes of clothing before his skin begins to dry off. After this sweating event, what can we expect of Carl's physiological state? A) An increase in blood volume B) Hypotension C) Decreased firing of the arterial baroreceptors D) Increased stroke volume E) All of these
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57) Jane donates a pint of blood to a blood bank. A few minutes later, which of the following would be increased compared to pre-donation values? A) Her stroke volume and total peripheral resistance B) Her heart rate and total peripheral resistance C) Her heart rate and mean arterial pressure D) The percentage of her cardiac output flowing to her kidneys E) The blood flow to her brain 58) Jane donates a pint of blood to a blood bank. A few minutes later, which of the following would be decreased compared to pre-donation values? A) Her stroke volume and total peripheral resistance B) Her heart rate and total peripheral resistance C) Her heart rate and mean arterial pressure D) The percentage of her cardiac output flowing to her kidneys E) Blood flow to her brain 59) Jane donates a pint of blood to a blood bank. A few minutes later, which of the following would be increased compared to pre-donation values? A) Heart rate B) Stroke volume C) Mean arterial pressure D) Cardiac output E) Hydrostatic pressure in the capillaries 60) Following hemorrhage, reflexes are triggered that attempt to compensate for the blood loss. As a result of the blood loss and the reflex mechanisms, which of the following will be TRUE, compared to pre-hemorrhage values? A) Both cardiac output and total peripheral resistance will be increased. B) Both cardiac output and total peripheral resistance will be decreased. C) Cardiac output will be increased and total peripheral resistance will be decreased. D) Cardiac output will be decreased and total peripheral resistance will be increased. E) Hematocrit will be increased. 61) How would a hemorrhage immediately affect the activity of the baroreceptors? A) The baroreceptors would increase their rate of firing to all medullary cardiovascular center cell types. B) The baroreceptors would increase their rate of firing to cells in the medulla oblongata that activate sympathetic pathways and decrease their rate of firing to cells in the medulla oblongata that activate parasympathetic pathways. C) The baroreceptors would decrease their rate of firing to all medullary cardiovascular center cell types. D) The baroreceptors would decrease their rate of firing to cells in the medulla oblongata that activate sympathetic pathways and increase their rate of firing to cells in the medulla oblongata that activate parasympathetic pathways. E) A hemorrhage would not affect the activity of the baroreceptors.
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62) Which of the following is most likely to occur when a soldier stands at attention—very still, with legs and spine straight? A) Decreased pressure in the capillaries of the feet B) Increased absorption of interstitial fluid by the capillaries of the feet C) Increased storage of blood in the veins of the feet and legs D) Increased venous return E) Increased blood flow to the brain 63) During exercise, there is a decreased flow of blood to A) the brain. B) the skin. C) the abdominal organs. D) the skeletal muscles E) the heart. 64) You just ate a huge, delicious breakfast and now are going to head out for your morning run. As you try picking up the pace, you find running to be quite difficult because A) blood flow to the abdominal organs is dominant. B) stroke volume is decreased. C) everywhere in the systemic circuit, blood vessels are constricted. D) your heart rate is too high. E) your mean arterial pressure is too high. 65) Which of the following does NOT contribute to increased stroke volume during exercise? A) Increased contractility of cardiac muscle B) Increased venous return C) Increased length of filling time during diastole D) Increased sympathetic stimulation of ventricular muscle E) Increased end-diastolic volume 66) Which is the most likely effect of physical endurance training on a person's cardiac performance? A) A decrease in cardiac output B) An increase in maximal stroke volume C) An increase in maximal heart rate D) An increase in resting heart rate E) An increase in cardiac output when the person is at rest 67) Which of these correctly states differences between a trained athlete and a sedentary individual at rest? A) The athlete would have a lower heart rate and larger stroke volume. B) The athlete would have a higher heart rate and larger stroke volume. C) The athlete would have a lower heart rate and smaller stroke volume. D) The athlete would have a higher heart rate and smaller stroke volume. E) There would be no differences when the individuals were at rest.
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68) Which of the following does NOT describe hypertension? Hypertension A) refers to a chronic state of elevated blood pressure. B) is usually defined as a systolic pressure greater than 140 mmHg and a diastolic pressure greater than 90 mmHg. C) is usually a result of chronically elevated cardiac output. D) may be caused by kidney disease. E) can sometimes be treated with drugs that increase excretion of water in the urine. 69) Arterial systolic pressure occurs while arterial diastolic pressure occurs . A) at the same time as closure of the semilunar valves; at the same time as closure of the atrioventricular valves B) during the isovolumetric contraction phase of the cardiac cycle; during the isovolumetric relaxation phase of the cardiac cycle C) at the same time as the P-wave of the electrocardiogram; at the same time as the T-wave of the electrocardiogram D) when the ventricle reaches end-systolic volume; when the ventricle reaches end-diastolic volume E) during the middle of the phase of ventricular ejection; just before the semilunar valve opens 70) Which of the following drugs might be prescribed to alleviate hypertension? A) Alpha-adrenergic receptor agonists B) Beta-adrenergic receptor antagonists C) Cholinergic antagonist D) A drug that increases L-type Ca2+ channel currents E) A drug that increases T-type Ca2+ channel currents 71) Which of the drug treatments listed below is INCORRECTLY matched to a mode of action in treating hypertension? A) Alpha-adrenergic receptor blockers—reduce TPR by decreased stimulation of arteriolar smooth muscle B) Beta-adrenergic receptor antagonists—reduce cardiac output by slowing heart rate and reducing contractility C) Antagonists of parasympathetic receptors—reduce TPR by decreased stimulation of arteriolar smooth muscle D) Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors—reduce TPR by reducing angiotensin II concentrations E) Diuretics—reduce blood volume by increasing excretion of sodium and water in urine F) Calcium channel blockers—reduce speed and force of contraction in vascular smooth muscle G) ACE inhibitors—lowers peripheral resistance by promoting vasodilation 72) Atherosclerosis is A) the major cause of heart attacks. B) a thinning in the walls of arteries. C) associated with low blood levels of cholesterol and heavy exercise. D) a disease in which the walls of arteries become more compliant. E) more common in younger people than in older people. 15 Copyright 2019 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.
73) What is hemostasis? A) The maintenance of relatively stable conditions in the internal environment B) The prevention or stoppage of blood loss C) A disease in which blood clot formation is impaired D) A protein inside red blood cells that binds oxygen with high affinity E) The set point for normal arterial blood pressure 74) Which of the following occurs first in hemostasis? A) Activation of the fibrinolytic system B) Platelet aggregation C) A clotting cascade that leads to the conversion of fibrinogen to stable fibrin D) Conversion of prothrombin to thrombin E) Conversion of plasminogen to plasmin 75) Platelets participate in hemostasis by A) aggregating to form a plug and manufacturing fibrinogen. B) secreting nitric oxide and releasing chemicals that promote vasoconstriction. C) secreting prostacyclin, which prevents platelet aggregation on blood vessel endothelium. D) aggregating to form a plug and releasing chemicals that promote vasoconstriction. E) secreting tissue plasminogen activator (t-PA) whenever they come into contact with collagen. 76) Which is an intermediary protein that enables platelets to adhere to collagen? A) Tissue plasminogen activator (t-PA) B) ATP C) von Willebrand factor (vWF) D) Arachidonic acid E) Activated protein C 77) In a patient with a mutation that causes an inactive von Willebrand factor (vWF), which of the following would be TRUE? A) Platelets will not adhere to collagen. B) Fibrinogen cannot polymerize. C) Thrombin will never be activated. D) Clots will be stronger than typical. E) None of the answers will be true. 78) Which of the following statements regarding blood clotting is TRUE? A) Blood clotting requires activation of thrombin. B) Blood clotting is enhanced by prostaglandin I2 (PGI2) and nitric oxide. C) A blood clot is a network of interlacing strands of fibrinogen. D) Blood clotting occurs too rapidly in individuals with the disease hemophilia. E) Injecting tissue plasminogen activator (t-PA) into a patient who is bleeding will aid blood clotting.
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79) Which of the following statements about blood clotting is FALSE? A) It is the formation of a thrombus. B) It occurs after formation of a platelet plug in a damaged vessel. C) It requires the presence of erythrocytes. D) It is a result of a cascade of enzyme activation. E) It involves positive feedback by thrombin. 80) Which of the following statements regarding the dissolving of blood clots is FALSE? A) Activation of the reactions that lead to blood clotting ultimately lead to blood clot dissolution. B) Tissue plasminogen activator (t-PA) is secreted by endothelial cells. C) Blood clots are digested by plasmin. D) Plasminogen is an inactive precursor of the enzyme plasmin. E) It involves aggregation of soluble fibrin fragments into fibrin. 81) Which of the following is NOT an anticoagulant or stimulator of blood clot dissolution? A) Vitamin K B) Aspirin C) Thrombin D) Heparin E) Tissue plasminogen activator (t-PA) 82) Which correctly describes functions of protein C? A) It activates platelets and converts prothrombin to thrombin. B) It activates clotting factor XII and platelets. C) It binds to tissue factor and activates clotting factor VII. D) It inactivates thrombin and converts fibrinogen to fibrin. E) It inhibits clot formation and inactivates factors Va and VIIIa. 83) Blood loss is likely to stimulate the secretion of higher than normal plasma levels of erythropoietin. 84) After physical conditioning at a high altitude, the blood levels of oxygen have been frequently low. In response, the kidneys are secreting higher than normal levels of erythropoietin. 85) The primary stimulus for erythropoietin secretion is decreased iron concentrations in the liver. 86) All blood vessels that carry well-oxygenated blood are called arteries. 87) At rest, more blood flows per minute to the kidneys and abdominal organs than to the muscles and skin. 88) At rest, more blood flows to the skin and abdominal organs than to the lungs.
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89) The myocardial cells receive their blood supply from the coronary arteries that branch off from the aorta. 90) An obstruction in one of the coronary arteries would compromise the ability of the myocardial cells to undergo cellular respiration. 91) A major difference between cardiac muscle cells and the cells in the cardiac conducting system is that the contractile cells do not undergo spontaneous depolarization. 92) The sinoatrial node is normally the heart's pacemaker because it has the fastest spontaneous rate of diastolic depolarization. 93) The wave of ventricular contraction starts at the apex of the heart and travels up toward the base. 94) An ectopic pacemaker is an area of the myocardial conducting system, other than the atrioventricular node, that initiates cardiac depolarization. 95) The QRS wave of the ECG corresponds to depolarization of the atria. 96) An electrocardiogram would be definitive for diagnosing diseases involving the valves of the heart. 97) Your doctor has determined that you have a leaky right atrioventricular valve. This defect will be detected by an ECG. 98) Cardiac muscle cannot undergo tetanus because its absolute refractory period lasts almost as long as the muscle twitch. 99) Sympathetic stimulation of cardiac muscle cells produces stronger and faster contractions because proteins that pump Ca2+ out of the cell are inhibited, which reduces Ca2+ concentration in the sarcoplasm. 100) Parasympathetic neurons release acetylcholine onto cells in the atria of the heart, but not onto cells of the ventricles. 101) A beta-adrenergic receptor blocker will work to both lower the heart rate and the force of ventricular contraction. 102) The determinant of whether heart valves are open or closed is the pressure difference across them. 103) The left ventricle has to pump more blood than the right ventricle because the left ventricle has to pump blood through the systemic circulation, which is much larger than the pulmonary circulation.
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104) The left ventricle has a thicker wall than the right ventricle because the left ventricle has to pump blood against a higher pressure. 105) The only time during the cardiac cycle that the AV valves are open is systole. 106) During most of systole, left ventricular pressure exceeds aortic pressure, causing blood ejection. 107) Long-term studies show that the risk for heart attack and stroke doubles for every 20 mm increase in diastolic pressure and 10 mmHg in systolic pressure. 108) Normal heart sounds are produced by vibrations caused by the closing of the AV valves at the end of diastole and the closing of the aortic and pulmonary valves at the end of systole. 109) The inherent pacemaker discharge rate of the sinoatrial node is 72 beats per minute. 110) Stimulation of parasympathetic nerves releases epinephrine into the blood plasma. 111) Sympathetic stimulation of the heart increases action potential conduction velocity through the AV node. 112) The Frank-Starling mechanism of the heart states that an increased venous return will normally result in a higher heart rate. 113) The stroke volume of the heart can be increased by recruiting more cardiac muscle fibers into activity. 114) The Frank-Starling curve for heart muscle is analogous to a length-tension curve in skeletal muscle. 115) Ventricular contractility is the strength of ventricular contraction at any given end-diastolic volume. 116) Systolic pressure is the peak pressure in systemic arteries and occurs at the beginning of systole. 117) Mean arterial pressure is most accurately calculated by determining the average of the systolic and diastolic pressures. 118) The flow rate of blood through an organ is in part determined by the relative dilation or constriction of arterioles in that organ. 119) The smooth muscle in arteriole walls can be stimulated either to contract or to relax, thereby either decreasing or increasing the amount of blood flowing through arteriolar beds.
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120) The hydrostatic pressure difference between the plasma inside the capillary beds and the interstitial fluid surrounding the cells favors filtration of fluid. 121) The protein osmotic pressure difference between the plasma inside the capillary beds and the interstitial fluid surrounding the cells favors filtration of fluid. 122) The amount of nutrients and waste products moved across the capillary wall by bulk flow is greater than the amount that diffuses across under normal conditions. 123) Strong vasoconstriction of arterioles will probably result in greater filtration of fluid from the plasma of capillary beds downstream. 124) Valves are important for promoting one-way flow of blood through the heart and some large veins. 125) The main homeostatically regulated variable of the cardiovascular system is the mean systemic arterial blood pressure. 126) Total peripheral resistance in the circulatory system is primarily determined by the degree of vasoconstriction in the veins. 127) Increasing the mean arterial pressure or the pulse pressure in the carotid artery will cause decreased firing of action potentials in the afferent neurons associated with the baroreceptors. 128) The medullary cardiovascular center is the only part of the brain involved with the regulation of blood pressure. 129) The condition of shock is an example of failure of homeostatic mechanisms to compensate when one or more parts of the reflex control system are damaged. 130) An athlete who is nearing the end of a 2-kilometer run would be expected to have both an increased mean arterial blood pressure and an increased total peripheral resistance. 131) During exercise, sympathetic stimulation of the heart and arteriolar smooth muscle is enhanced because of reflexes triggered by elevated mean arterial pressure and elevated pulse pressure. 132) Hypertension is often treated with drugs that increase total peripheral resistance. 133) In a failing heart, stroke volume does not increase as steeply when end-diastolic volume increases. 134) In a patient with heart failure, doctors are likely to observe a lower ejection fraction. 135) Sarah was in a bike accident and is bleeding severely. In order to maintain blood pressure and compensate for the blood loss, her heart rate will increase. 20 Copyright 2019 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.
136) Left ventricular failure often results in increased net pulmonary capillary filtration into the interstitial fluid of the lungs and decreased diffusional exchange of O2 and CO2 between lung and blood. 137) Increased concentrations of plasma proteins, increased venous pressure, and lymphatic obstruction all tend to cause tissue edema. 138) Hemostatic mechanisms can generally stop blood loss from a small vein that is cut. 139) The function of the platelet plug is to block the blood vessel so that blood cannot flow through it. 140) Chemical mediators released from platelet granules and plasma membranes stimulate contraction of vascular smooth muscle. 141) A blood clot is essentially an intricate network of interlacing strands of thrombin. 142) In the clotting cascade, thrombin feeds back and further stimulates its own activation, which is a positive feedback mechanism. 143) In the clotting cascade, factor Xa helps convert prothrombin to thrombin. 144) The Starling forces, which influence bulk flow of fluid between capillary plasma and interstitial fluid, are identical everywhere in the body. 145) When arterioles constrict, it raises arterial blood pressure and increases the volume of forward flow into the veins, while constriction in veins reduces forward flow by decreasing pressure in the atria. 146) The term AED (Automatic Electronic Defibrillator) refers to a recently developed device used to regulate blood pressure with the surprise benefit of being useful in contraception with some individuals within a narrowly defined age group. 147) Thrombin is inactivated when it binds to heparin. 148) The adaptive value of having a complex cascade system for blood clotting is that a defect of one participant in the cascade can be corrected by another enzyme later in the cascade. 149) Which of the following is a feature of erythrocytes? A) Produce infection-fighting proteins B) Have a high surface-to-volume ratio C) Carry oxygen and carbon dioxide in blood D) Are large in size E) When mature, have no nucleus
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150) Mr. Saunders has been diagnosed with bundle branch block following an infection in his heart. This means that action potential propagation through the bundle of His is compromised. Which of the following would be TRUE? A) There would be a slowing of the frequency of contraction of the ventricles. B) The ventricles would contract more frequently than the atria. C) The SA node would no longer set the pace for ventricular contraction. D) The atria and ventricles would no longer beat in synchrony. E) The Purkinje fibers would not receive their typical action potential frequency from the bundle branches. 151) The frequency of action potentials generated by the SA node will be increased by which of the following factors? A) Parasympathetic stimulation B) Sympathetic stimulation C) Acetylcholine D) Epinephrine E) All of these would increase the frequency. 152) You have a patient who comes in with uncomfortable edema in his lower right leg. Which of the following are possible causes? A) Blockage of lymph vessels B) Prolonged standing C) Liver disease D) Decreased local metabolism E) Elevated plasma protein concentrations 153) Jane donates a pint of blood to a blood bank. A few minutes later, which of the following would be increased compared to pre-donation values? A) Heart rate B) Total peripheral resistance C) Mean arterial pressure D) Cardiac output E) Hydrostatic pressure in the capillaries
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Vander's Human Physiology, 15e (Widmaier) Chapter 12 Cardiovascular Physiology 1) Which of the following is NOT primarily a function of blood plasma? A) Transport of hormones B) Being in osmotic balance with red blood cells C) Having plasma proteins that exert an osmotic pressure favoring fluid absorption into the capillaries D) Providing clotting factors that are ready to be activated E) Transport of oxygen Answer: E Section: 12.01 Topic: Composition of blood plasma Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module K02 Composition of blood plasma.; Module K04 Hemostasis, including coagulation of blood.; Module K14 Blood pressure and its functional interrelationships with cardiac output, peripheral resistance, and hemodynamics.; Module Q04 Movements between the major fluid compartments.; Module M06 Mechanisms of gas transport in blood HAPS Outcome: K04.02c Describe the basic steps involved in the formation of the insoluble fibrin clot of hemostasis.; K02.01 Describe the overall composition of plasma, including the major types of plasma proteins, their functions and where in the body they are produced.; K14.07b Explain the roles of filtration and reabsorption in capillary exchange of fluid.; M06.01a With respect to oxygen transport, describe the ways in which oxygen is transported in blood and discuss the relative importance of each to total oxygen transport.; Q04.01 Explain the role of electrolytes and non-electrolytes in the determination of osmotic pressure.; Q04.03 Compare and contrast the roles that osmosis and capillary filtration play in the movement of fluids between compartments. 2) What is the term that describes the production of red blood cells? A) Hemaglutination B) Erythrocytosis C) Erythropoiesis D) Erythroblastosis E) Hemostasis Answer: C Section: 12.01 Topic: Microscopic anatomy of formed elements of blood Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module K03 Identity, microscopic anatomy, numbers, formation, and functional roles of the formed elements of blood. HAPS Outcome: K03.02b With respect to development of formed elements, explain the basic process of erythropoiesis, the significance of the reticulocyte, and regulation through erythropoietin.
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3) Which is TRUE about the condition anemia? A) It can be caused by too little iron in the diet. B) It can be caused by kidney failure. C) It can be caused by abnormal hemoglobin. D) It results in reduced oxygen-carrying capacity of the blood. E) All of the answers are true. Answer: E Section: 12.01 Topic: Clinical applications of the cardiovascular system Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module K03 Identity, microscopic anatomy, numbers, formation, and functional roles of the formed elements of blood.; Module K16 Predictions related to homeostatic imbalance, including disease states and disorders.; Module M06 Mechanisms of gas transport in blood HAPS Outcome: K03.02b With respect to development of formed elements, explain the basic process of erythropoiesis, the significance of the reticulocyte, and regulation through erythropoietin.; K16.01 Predict factors or situations affecting the cardiovascular system that could disrupt homeostasis.; K16.02 Predict the types of problems that would occur in the body if the cardiovascular system could not maintain homeostasis.; M06.01a With respect to oxygen transport, describe the ways in which oxygen is transported in blood and discuss the relative importance of each to total oxygen transport. 4) A female has a blood test. One mL of her blood is drawn, spun in a centrifuge, and the plasma volume is measured and found to be 0.6 mL. Two months later the same patient returns to the doctor and, after doing another blood test, the doctor tells the patient that she has become anemic compared to her previous visit. Which of the following is most likely to be the woman's hematocrit on the second visit? A) 35% B) 50% C) 70% D) 100% E) 0.6 mL Answer: A Section: 12.01 Topic: Clinical applications of the cardiovascular system Bloom's: Level 3. Apply HAPS Topic: Module K03 Identity, microscopic anatomy, numbers, formation, and functional roles of the formed elements of blood.; Module K16 Predictions related to homeostatic imbalance, including disease states and disorders. HAPS Outcome: K16.01 Predict factors or situations affecting the cardiovascular system that could disrupt homeostasis.; K03.01c With respect to the structure and numbers of formed elements in blood, state the normal ranges for erythrocyte counts and hematocrit (both male and female), total leukocyte count, and platelet count.
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5) A male patient complains of physical weakness and fatigue. A blood test shows his hematocrit to be 30%. Which of the following diagnoses is the least likely to explain his symptoms? A) Internal bleeding B) Dietary iron deficiency C) Dietary vitamin B12 deficiency D) Lung disease E) Kidney disease Answer: D Section: 12.01 Topic: Clinical applications of the cardiovascular system Bloom's: Level 3. Apply HAPS Topic: Module K03 Identity, microscopic anatomy, numbers, formation, and functional roles of the formed elements of blood.; Module K16 Predictions related to homeostatic imbalance, including disease states and disorders. HAPS Outcome: K03.02b With respect to development of formed elements, explain the basic process of erythropoiesis, the significance of the reticulocyte, and regulation through erythropoietin.; K16.01 Predict factors or situations affecting the cardiovascular system that could disrupt homeostasis.; K16.02 Predict the types of problems that would occur in the body if the cardiovascular system could not maintain homeostasis. 6) Where is most of the iron in a person's body located? A) In the bone marrow B) In the liver C) In the cytochromes D) In erythrocytes E) In the kidneys Answer: D Section: 12.01 Topic: Functional roles of formed elements of blood Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module K03 Identity, microscopic anatomy, numbers, formation, and functional roles of the formed elements of blood. HAPS Outcome: K03.03a With respect to the functional roles of formed elements, state the function of red blood cells.; K03.03b With respect to the functional roles of formed elements, discuss the structure and function of hemoglobin, as well as its breakdown products.
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7) You have a patient who has pernicious anemia. Which of the following supplements should she take to improve her symptoms? A) Iron B) Vitamin B12 C) Vitamin E D) Vitamin D E) Bilirubin Answer: B Section: 12.01 Topic: Clinical applications of the cardiovascular system Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module K03 Identity, microscopic anatomy, numbers, formation, and functional roles of the formed elements of blood.; Module K16 Predictions related to homeostatic imbalance, including disease states and disorders. HAPS Outcome: K03.02b With respect to development of formed elements, explain the basic process of erythropoiesis, the significance of the reticulocyte, and regulation through erythropoietin.; K16.01 Predict factors or situations affecting the cardiovascular system that could disrupt homeostasis.; K16.02 Predict the types of problems that would occur in the body if the cardiovascular system could not maintain homeostasis. 8) Consider the equation F = ΔP/R. It describes the flow (F) of fluid in a tube in which there is a pressure difference (ΔP) between the two ends and a resistance (R) to flow. Based on this equation, which is a correct conclusion? 8-15-2013 A) The flow of fluid in a tube depends upon the absolute pressure at the beginning of the tube. B) The rate of fluid flow in a tube will increase if the pressure at the beginning is increased while the pressure at the end of the tube stays the same. C) The greater the resistance to flow in a tube, the greater the rate of flow for any given pressure difference. D) If both the resistance and the pressure gradient in a tube increase, the flow must also increase. E) The rate of flow in a tube will decrease if the resistance to flow is decreased. Answer: B Section: 12.02 Topic: Blood pressure, peripheral resistance, and hemodynamics Bloom's: Level 2. Understand HAPS Topic: Module K14 Blood pressure and its functional interrelationships with cardiac output, peripheral resistance, and hemodynamics. HAPS Outcome: K14.02 State and interpret the equation that relates blood flow to pressure and resistance.
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9) Which of the following changes would most increase the resistance to blood flow in a blood vessel? A) Halving the diameter of the vessel B) Doubling the diameter of the vessel C) Halving the length of the vessel D) Doubling the length of the vessel E) Decreasing the hematocrit from 50% to 40% Answer: A Section: 12.02 Topic: Blood pressure, peripheral resistance, and hemodynamics Bloom's: Level 3. Apply HAPS Topic: Module K14 Blood pressure and its functional interrelationships with cardiac output, peripheral resistance, and hemodynamics. HAPS Outcome: K14.02 State and interpret the equation that relates blood flow to pressure and resistance. 10) Action potentials in the heart spread from cell to cell through A) desmosomes. B) gap junctions. C) interneurons. D) valves. E) coronary vessels. Answer: B Section: 12.04 Topic: Physiology of cardiac muscle contraction and the electrocardiogram Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module K06 Gross and microscopic anatomy of the heart.; Module G02 Identification, general location, and comparative characteristics of skeletal, smooth, and cardiac muscle tissue HAPS Outcome: G02.02 Describe the structure, location in the body and function of skeletal, cardiac and smooth muscle.; K06.06 Identify myocardium and describe its histological structure, including the significance of intercalated discs.
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11) Elizabeth had heart surgery to repair the pacemaker of her heart. Into which structure did the surgeon need access? A) Sinoatrial node B) Atrioventricular node C) Mitral valve D) Bundle of His E) Left ventricle Answer: A Section: 12.04 Topic: Conduction system of the heart Bloom's: Level 3. Apply HAPS Topic: Module K06 Gross and microscopic anatomy of the heart.; Module K09 Conduction system of the heart and the electrocardiogram. HAPS Outcome: K06.03 Identify and describe the function of the primary internal structures of the heart, including chambers, septa, valves, papillary muscles, chordae tendineae, and venous and arterial openings.; K09.01a List the parts of the conduction system of the heart and explain how the system functions.; K09.01b In the conduction system of the heart, define automaticity and explain why the SA node normally paces the heart. 12) Which is correct about the contraction sequence of the heart? A) The contraction and relaxation of all four chambers happen at the same time. B) The right atrium and ventricle contract at the same time, and as they are relaxing, the left atrium and left ventricle begin to contract. C) Contraction begins in the order: right atrium, then right ventricle, then left atrium, then left ventricle. D) The two atria contract at the same time, and as they are relaxing, the two ventricles contract together. E) The atria and ventricles begin their contractions at the exact same time, but the atrial contraction only lasts half as long as the ventricle contraction. Answer: D Section: 12.03; 12.04 Topic: Cardiac cycle Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module K09 Conduction system of the heart and the electrocardiogram.; Module K10 Cardiac cycle. HAPS Outcome: K09.01c Explain how the cardiac conduction system produces efficient pumping of blood.; K10.04 Explain how atrial systole is related to ventricular filling.
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13) Which of the following statements concerning the differences between action potentials in skeletal muscle cells and in ventricular cardiac muscle cells is TRUE? A) Like skeletal muscle cells, ventricular cardiac muscle cells have a resting membrane potential closer to the sodium equilibrium potential than to the potassium equilibrium potential. B) Unlike skeletal muscle cells, the initial depolarization of ventricular cells is mainly due to calcium influx, not sodium influx. C) After sodium influx through voltage-gated channels occurs in ventricular cells, prolonged influx of calcium from the extracellular fluid occurs. No such calcium influx occurs in skeletal muscle cells. D) Action potentials in skeletal muscle cells are longer in duration than action potentials in cardiac muscle cells. E) The efflux of K+ repolarizes skeletal muscle cells after an action potential, while repolarization in cardiac muscle cells is due to the efflux of Ca2+. Answer: C Section: 12.04 Topic: Physiology of cardiac muscle contraction and the electrocardiogram Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module K07 Physiology of cardiac muscle contraction.; Module G02 Identification, general location, and comparative characteristics of skeletal, smooth, and cardiac muscle tissue HAPS Outcome: K07.01 List the phases of the cardiac muscle action potential and explain the ion movements that occur in each phase.; G02.03 Compare and contrast the characteristics of skeletal, cardiac and smooth muscle; K07.02 Contrast the way action potentials are generated in cardiac pacemaker cells, in cardiac contractile cells and in skeletal muscle cells.
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14) You are a synthetic chemist and have created a compound that appears to bind to acetylcholine receptors. When applied to the inside of the right atrium, what will the affect be? A) Increased force of atrial contraction B) Decreased force of atrial contraction C) Decreased heart rate D) Increased heart rate E) No effects on heart function Answer: C Section: 12.04 Topic: Conduction system of the heart Bloom's: Level 3. Apply HAPS Topic: Module K07 Physiology of cardiac muscle contraction.; Module K09 Conduction system of the heart and the electrocardiogram.; Module K11 Regulation of cardiac output, stroke volume, and heart rate.; Module H13 Functions of the autonomic nervous system HAPS Outcome: K11.03a Discuss the influence of positive and negative chronotropic agents on HR.; K07.02 Contrast the way action potentials are generated in cardiac pacemaker cells, in cardiac contractile cells and in skeletal muscle cells.; K09.01d Describe the role of the autonomic nervous system in the regulation of cardiac function related to the conduction system of the heart.; H13.09 Describe major parasympathetic and/or sympathetic physiological effects on target organs.; K07.05 Compare and contrast the role of nerves in the depolarization of cardiac pacemaker cells, ventricular contractile cells, and skeletal muscle cells. 15) The plateau of the action potential in cardiac ventricular cells results from the opening of voltage-gated long-lasting channels in the plasma membrane of the cell. + A) Na B) K+ C) Ca2+ D) ClE) glucose Answer: C Section: 12.04 Topic: Physiology of cardiac muscle contraction and the electrocardiogram Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module K07 Physiology of cardiac muscle contraction. HAPS Outcome: K07.01 List the phases of the cardiac muscle action potential and explain the ion movements that occur in each phase.
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16) Which of the following statements about membrane potentials in different types of cardiac cells is TRUE? A) Myocardial cells have a resting membrane potential of about -90 mV; pacemaker cells do not have a true resting membrane potential. B) Once threshold depolarization is reached in both myocardial and pacemaker cells, the rapid upswing of the action potential is caused by the opening of voltage-gated Na+ channels C) Voltage-gated transient (T-type) Ca2+ channels are present in all of the different types of cells of the heart. D) There are no L-type Ca2+ channels in cardiac muscle cells. E) The upstroke of the action potential is steeper in SA node cells than it is in Purkinje cells. Answer: A Section: 12.04 Topic: Physiology of cardiac muscle contraction and the electrocardiogram; Conduction system of the heart Bloom's: Level 2. Understand HAPS Topic: Module K07 Physiology of cardiac muscle contraction. HAPS Outcome: K07.02 Contrast the way action potentials are generated in cardiac pacemaker cells, in cardiac contractile cells and in skeletal muscle cells. 17) You are learning to read electrocardiograms. You know that the patient you are examining has a pathology affecting the depolarization of his ventricles, therefore you're looking for a change in what portion of his EKG? A) The P wave B) The T wave C) The QRS complex D) "The P wave" or "The T wave" but not "The QRS complex". E) None of these would be altered Answer: C Section: 12.04 Topic: Physiology of cardiac muscle contraction and the electrocardiogram Bloom's: Level 3. Apply HAPS Topic: Module K09 Conduction system of the heart and the electrocardiogram. HAPS Outcome: K09.02b In the electrocardiogram (EKG or ECG), relate the waveforms to atrial and ventricular depolarization and repolarization and to the activity of the conduction system.
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18) Which of the following would be most likely to be determined with a patient's ECG recording? A) A heart murmur B) Stroke volume C) Cardiac output D) Blockage of conduction of electrical signals between the atria and the ventricles E) A leaky atrioventricular valve Answer: D Section: 12.04 Topic: Physiology of cardiac muscle contraction and the electrocardiogram; Clinical applications of the cardiovascular system Bloom's: Level 2. Understand HAPS Topic: Module K09 Conduction system of the heart and the electrocardiogram. HAPS Outcome: K09.02b In the electrocardiogram (EKG or ECG), relate the waveforms to atrial and ventricular depolarization and repolarization and to the activity of the conduction system. 19) Which is TRUE about the comparison of excitation-contraction coupling in cardiac muscle with that in skeletal muscle? A) Extracellular Ca2+ plays a major role in cardiac but not skeletal muscle. B) The mechanism for Ca2+ release from the sarcoplasmic reticulum is the same in both types of muscle. C) Troponin sites are completely saturated immediately after Ca2+ release in both types of muscle. D) There is no net change in total intracellular Ca2+ concentration in either muscle. E) Intracellular Ca2+ stores are necessary for contraction in skeletal muscle, but not in cardiac muscle. Answer: A Section: 12.04 Topic: Physiology of cardiac muscle contraction and the electrocardiogram Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module K07 Physiology of cardiac muscle contraction.; Module G02 Identification, general location, and comparative characteristics of skeletal, smooth, and cardiac muscle tissue; Module G04 Physiology of skeletal muscle contraction HAPS Outcome: G02.03 Compare and contrast the characteristics of skeletal, cardiac and smooth muscle; K07.04 Compare and contrast cardiac muscle contraction and skeletal muscle contraction.; G04.05 Explain what is meant by the expression excitation-contraction coupling.
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20) You and your lab partner are doing an experiment in physiology lab. Each of you has an isolated muscle cell and you are supposed to stimulate it with an electrode as soon as its absolute refractory period ends. You're watching an electromyograph tracing to know when to use the electrode. Your partner has a cardiac muscle cell and you have a skeletal muscle cell. Which one of you will use your electrode more times in one minute? A) Your partner will use the electrode more times in a minute than you will. B) You will use the electrode more times in a minute than your partner will. C) You both will use the electrode the same number of times. D) The number of times you will use the electrode in a minute cannot be determined by this information alone. Answer: B Section: 12.04 Topic: Physiology of cardiac muscle contraction and the electrocardiogram Bloom's: Level 3. Apply HAPS Topic: Module K07 Physiology of cardiac muscle contraction.; Module G02 Identification, general location, and comparative characteristics of skeletal, smooth, and cardiac muscle tissue; Module H04 Neurophysiology, including mechanism of resting membrane potential, production of action potentials and impulse transmission HAPS Outcome: G02.03 Compare and contrast the characteristics of skeletal, cardiac and smooth muscle; H04.12a With respect to the refractory periods, define absolute and relative periods.; K07.04 Compare and contrast cardiac muscle contraction and skeletal muscle contraction.
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21) Which of the following statements about the refractory period of neuronal or muscle membranes is TRUE? A) In nerve cells, the absolute refractory period coincides with the period of increased K+ permeability. B) In skeletal muscle cells, the absolute refractory period lasts about as long as the twitch. C) In ventricular cells, the absolute refractory period coincides with the period of increased Na+ and Ca2+ permeability. D) The relative refractory period in neuronal membranes lasts about the same length of time as the absolute refractory period in cardiac muscle cell membranes. E) The refractory period in an alpha-motor neuron membrane is much briefer than the refractory period in a skeletal muscle cell membrane. Answer: C Section: 12.04 Topic: Physiology of cardiac muscle contraction and the electrocardiogram Bloom's: Level 2. Understand HAPS Topic: Module K07 Physiology of cardiac muscle contraction.; Module H04 Neurophysiology, including mechanism of resting membrane potential, production of action potentials and impulse transmission HAPS Outcome: K07.03 Explain the significance of the plateau phase in the action potential of a cardiac contractile cell.; K07.01 List the phases of the cardiac muscle action potential and explain the ion movements that occur in each phase.; H04.12a With respect to the refractory periods, define absolute and relative periods.; H04.12b With respect to the refractory periods, explain the physiological basis of the absolute and relative refractory periods. 22) Which of the following statements about the cardiac cycle is TRUE? A) The duration of systole is greater than that of diastole in a subject at rest. B) During isovolumetric ventricular relaxation, blood flows from the atria into the ventricles. C) Closure of the atrioventricular valves occurs at the beginning of ventricular systole. D) The QRS complex occurs at approximately the same time as the closure of the semilunar valves. E) The first valves to go from closed to open after the atrial kick are the atrioventricular valves. Answer: C Section: 12.05 Topic: Physiology of cardiac muscle contraction and the electrocardiogram; Cardiac cycle Bloom's: Level 2. Understand HAPS Topic: Module K10 Cardiac cycle. HAPS Outcome: K10.02 Describe the phases of the cardiac cycle including ventricular filling, isovolumetric contraction, ventricular ejection, and isovolumetric relaxation.; K10.03 Relate the EKG waveforms to the normal mechanical events of the cardiac cycle.
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23) You and your colleague are medical technicians in a cardiac function lab. You are reading the ECG of a patient and your friend is trying to capture an image of the AV valves opening using an ultrasound. At what point should you tell your friend to start recording images? A) Just before the P wave B) Just after the P wave C) At the beginning of the QRS complex D) Just before the T wave E) After the T wave Answer: C Section: 12.05 Topic: Cardiac cycle Bloom's: Level 3. Apply HAPS Topic: Module K06 Gross and microscopic anatomy of the heart.; Module K10 Cardiac cycle. HAPS Outcome: K06.03 Identify and describe the function of the primary internal structures of the heart, including chambers, septa, valves, papillary muscles, chordae tendineae, and venous and arterial openings.; K10.02 Describe the phases of the cardiac cycle including ventricular filling, isovolumetric contraction, ventricular ejection, and isovolumetric relaxation.; K10.06 Relate the heart sounds to the events of the cardiac cycle. 24) During the cardiac cycle of an individual at rest A) the volume of blood leaving the left side of the heart is greater than that leaving the right side. B) the pressure of blood leaving the right ventricle is greater than that leaving the left ventricle. C) the duration of systole is greater than that of diastole. D) the duration of diastole is greater than that of systole. E) the contraction of the atria overlaps in time with the ventricular systole. Answer: D Section: 12.05 Topic: Cardiac cycle Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module K10 Cardiac cycle. HAPS Outcome: K10.01 Define cardiac cycle, systole, and diastole.; K10.08 Compare and contrast pressure and volume changes of the left and right ventricles during one cardiac cycle.; K10.04 Explain how atrial systole is related to ventricular filling.
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25) In a patient with an abnormally leaky aortic valve, what would you expect? A) Some backflow of blood into the aorta during ventricular diastole B) Some backflow of blood into the left ventricle during ventricular diastole C) Some backflow of blood into the left ventricle during ventricular ejection D) Some backflow of blood into the aorta during ventricular ejection E) Some backflow of blood into the left atrium during ventricular systole Answer: B Section: 12.03; 12.05 Topic: Gross anatomy of the heart; Cardiac cycle Bloom's: Level 3. Apply HAPS Topic: Module K06 Gross and microscopic anatomy of the heart.; Module K10 Cardiac cycle. HAPS Outcome: K06.03 Identify and describe the function of the primary internal structures of the heart, including chambers, septa, valves, papillary muscles, chordae tendineae, and venous and arterial openings.; K10.02 Describe the phases of the cardiac cycle including ventricular filling, isovolumetric contraction, ventricular ejection, and isovolumetric relaxation.; K10.06 Relate the heart sounds to the events of the cardiac cycle.; K10.01 Define cardiac cycle, systole, and diastole.; K10.05 Relate the opening and closing of specific heart valves in each phase of the cardiac cycle to pressure changes in the heart chambers. 26) Which occurs during isovolumetric ventricular contraction? A) Rapid filling of the ventricles occurs. B) No blood enters or leaves the ventricles. C) The maximum volume of blood is ejected. D) Ventricular pressure reaches its maximum value of the cardiac cycle. E) The pressure in the ventricles decreases while the pressure in the atria increases. Answer: B Section: 12.05 Topic: Cardiac cycle Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module K10 Cardiac cycle. HAPS Outcome: K10.02 Describe the phases of the cardiac cycle including ventricular filling, isovolumetric contraction, ventricular ejection, and isovolumetric relaxation.
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27) What causes the opening and closing of the heart valves? A) Stimulation by the sympathetic and parasympathetic nerves B) A pressure difference on the two sides of the valve C) Na+ and K+ fluxes during ventricular depolarization D) Turbulent flow in the atria and ventricles E) The action of the papillary muscles and chordae tendineae Answer: B Section: 12.05 Topic: Cardiac cycle Bloom's: Level 2. Understand HAPS Topic: Module K06 Gross and microscopic anatomy of the heart.; Module K10 Cardiac cycle.; Module H13 Functions of the autonomic nervous system HAPS Outcome: K06.03 Identify and describe the function of the primary internal structures of the heart, including chambers, septa, valves, papillary muscles, chordae tendineae, and venous and arterial openings.; K10.05 Relate the opening and closing of specific heart valves in each phase of the cardiac cycle to pressure changes in the heart chambers.; H13.09 Describe major parasympathetic and/or sympathetic physiological effects on target organs. 28) You've just been told by your doctor that you have a heart murmur between the first and second heart sounds. You go home to search for more information on this condition on the Internet and find that you have A) insufficiency of a semilunar valve or stenosis of an AV valve. B) insufficiency of an AV valve or stenosis of a semilunar valve. C) heart failure. D) AV nodal conduction block. E) a myocardial infarction. Answer: B Section: 12.05 Topic: Cardiac cycle; Clinical applications of the cardiovascular system Bloom's: Level 3. Apply HAPS Topic: Module K10 Cardiac cycle.; Module K16 Predictions related to homeostatic imbalance, including disease states and disorders. HAPS Outcome: K16.01 Predict factors or situations affecting the cardiovascular system that could disrupt homeostasis.; K10.06 Relate the heart sounds to the events of the cardiac cycle.; K16.02 Predict the types of problems that would occur in the body if the cardiovascular system could not maintain homeostasis.
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29) Which best defines cardiac output? A) The end-diastolic volume minus the end-systolic volume B) The output of the aortic arch baroreceptors C) The volume of blood in the arterial tree at any moment in time D) The stroke volume divided by the heart rate E) The product of the heart rate and the volume ejected from the ventricle during a cardiac cycle Answer: E Section: 12.06 Topic: Regulation of cardiac output, stroke volume, and heart rate Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module K11 Regulation of cardiac output, stroke volume, and heart rate. HAPS Outcome: K11.02a Define end diastolic volume (EDV) and end systolic volume (ESV) and calculate stroke volume (SV) given values for EDV and ESV.; K11.01a Define cardiac output, and state its units of measurement. 30) Sinoatrial node cells A) reach threshold only when action potentials generated by the AV node arrive through gap junctions. B) exhibit spontaneous depolarization that is speeded by activation of their cholinergic receptors. C) exhibit spontaneous depolarization that is speeded by activation of their beta-adrenergic receptors. D) exhibit a steep upstroke due to the presence of the same type of Na+ channels found in neuronal membranes. E) are between atrial muscle cells and cells of the bundle of His. Answer: C Section: 12.04; 12.06 Topic: Conduction system of the heart; Regulation of cardiac output, stroke volume, and heart rate Bloom's: Level 2. Understand HAPS Topic: Module K07 Physiology of cardiac muscle contraction.; Module K09 Conduction system of the heart and the electrocardiogram.; Module K11 Regulation of cardiac output, stroke volume, and heart rate.; Module H13 Functions of the autonomic nervous system HAPS Outcome: K11.03a Discuss the influence of positive and negative chronotropic agents on HR.; H13.07 Differentiate between cholinergic and adrenergic nerve fibers and discuss the physiological interactions of transmitters released by these neurons with specific cholinergic and adrenergic receptor subtypes.; K07.02 Contrast the way action potentials are generated in cardiac pacemaker cells, in cardiac contractile cells and in skeletal muscle cells.; K09.01a List the parts of the conduction system of the heart and explain how the system functions.; K09.01d Describe the role of the autonomic nervous system in the regulation of cardiac function related to the conduction system of the heart.
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31) Which is TRUE regarding the regulation of heart rate? A) Stimulation of parasympathetic nerves to the heart causes a slowing of heart rate. B) Stimulation of sympathetic nerves to the heart causes an increase in heart rate. C) A person whose heart lacks autonomic innervation has a faster heart rate at rest than a person with a normally innervated heart. D) The slope of diastolic depolarization in SA node cell action potentials determines the heart rate. E) All of the choices are true. Answer: E Section: 12.04; 12.06 Topic: Conduction system of the heart; Regulation of cardiac output, stroke volume, and heart rate Bloom's: Level 2. Understand HAPS Topic: Module K09 Conduction system of the heart and the electrocardiogram.; Module K11 Regulation of cardiac output, stroke volume, and heart rate.; Module H13 Functions of the autonomic nervous system HAPS Outcome: K11.03a Discuss the influence of positive and negative chronotropic agents on HR.; K09.01d Describe the role of the autonomic nervous system in the regulation of cardiac function related to the conduction system of the heart.; H13.09 Describe major parasympathetic and/or sympathetic physiological effects on target organs.; K09.01b In the conduction system of the heart, define automaticity and explain why the SA node normally paces the heart. 32) What is described by the Frank-Starling mechanism of the heart? A) The relationship between end-diastolic volume and heart rate B) The relationship between end-systolic volume and stroke volume C) The relationship between length and tension in cardiac muscle cells D) The relationship between sympathetic stimulation and stroke volume E) The relationship between arterial blood pressure and stroke volume Answer: C Section: 12.06 Topic: Regulation of cardiac output, stroke volume, and heart rate Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module K11 Regulation of cardiac output, stroke volume, and heart rate. HAPS Outcome: K11.02c Explain the significance of the Frank-Starling Law of the heart in relation to stroke volume.
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33) According to the Frank-Starling mechanism of the heart A) the left ventricle ejects a larger volume of blood with each systole than the right ventricle. B) the intrinsic rate of the heart's pacemaker is 100 beats/min. C) cardiac output increases with increased heart rate. D) stroke volume increases with increased venous return. E) both ventricles contract simultaneously. Answer: D Section: 12.06 Topic: Regulation of cardiac output, stroke volume, and heart rate Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module K11 Regulation of cardiac output, stroke volume, and heart rate. HAPS Outcome: K11.02b Define venous return, preload and afterload, and explain the factors that affect them as well as how each of them affects EDV, ESV and SV.; K11.02c Explain the significance of the Frank-Starling Law of the heart in relation to stroke volume. 34) During the course of a ride on a roller coaster, what would be FALSE regarding your heart? A) An increase in heart rate B) A decrease in the duration of systole C) A decrease in the slope of the pacemaker potential D) An increase in the amount of Ca2+ entering cardiac muscle cells E) An increase in the rate of cross-bridge cycling in ventricular muscle cells Answer: C Section: 12.06 Topic: Regulation of cardiac output, stroke volume, and heart rate Bloom's: Level 3. Apply HAPS Topic: Module K09 Conduction system of the heart and the electrocardiogram.; Module K10 Cardiac cycle.; Module K11 Regulation of cardiac output, stroke volume, and heart rate. HAPS Outcome: K10.01 Define cardiac cycle, systole, and diastole.; K11.02d Discuss the influence of positive and negative inotropic agents on stroke volume (SV).; K11.03a Discuss the influence of positive and negative chronotropic agents on HR.; K09.01d Describe the role of the autonomic nervous system in the regulation of cardiac function related to the conduction system of the heart.; K12.04a Explain how the composition of capillary walls differs from that of other blood vessels.
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35) You are dissecting a species of amphibian that has just been discovered in the rainforest. You find a blood vessel where the blood travels at a low pressure and velocity. If the frog is in an upright position, blood flow through this vessel would also be against gravity. Anatomically, what do you expect of this blood vessel? A) A high degree of compliance B) A thick muscular wall C) Large wall to lumen ratio D) Valves that allow only one-way flow of blood E) All of the answers are correct Answer: D Section: 12.08; 12.09; 12.10; 12.11 Topic: Anatomy and functional roles of blood vessel types Bloom's: Level 3. Apply HAPS Topic: Module K12 Anatomy and functional roles of the different types of blood vessels. HAPS Outcome: K12.02b Correlate the anatomical structure of each type of blood vessel with its function. 36) Which of the following statements concerning regulation of blood flow is TRUE? A) In the systemic circuit, increased levels of metabolic waste products and decreased oxygen concentration in tissues promote hyperemia through the tissues. B) If blood flow to a tissue is blocked for a period of time and then the block is removed, the result is a reactive hyperemia in which blood flow through the affected tissue remains low. C) According to flow autoregulation, if blood pressure to an arteriole is decreased, blood flow will not return toward its original level until the original blood pressure is restored. D) In the systemic circuit, high levels of CO2 and metabolites tend to cause contraction in the smooth muscle of arteriole walls. E) The resistance to blood flow in brain and heart vascular beds does not vary in response to changes in local gas or metabolite concentrations. Answer: A Section: 12.09 Topic: Systemic blood circulation; Blood pressure, peripheral resistance, and hemodynamics Bloom's: Level 2. Understand HAPS Topic: Module K14 Blood pressure and its functional interrelationships with cardiac output, peripheral resistance, and hemodynamics.; Module K15 Application of homeostatic mechanisms.; Module K16 Predictions related to homeostatic imbalance, including disease states and disorders. HAPS Outcome: K15.01 Provide specific examples to demonstrate how the cardiovascular system responds to maintain homeostasis in the body.; K16.01 Predict factors or situations affecting the cardiovascular system that could disrupt homeostasis.; K14.09a Explain how autoregulation controls blood flow to individual tissues.; K14.09c List some chemicals that cause vasodilation and explain when they are active in relation to autoregulation.; K14.09d List some chemicals that cause vasoconstriction and explain when they are active in relation to autoregulation. 19 Copyright 2019 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.
37) You've been sitting cross-legged on the floor of your dorm room while studying. As you stand up to go get a snack, you realize that you've lost feeling in one of your feet. A minute later, all feeling is restored. Being a physiology student, you understand that blood flow was occluded during the time that you were sitting, and that blood flow was restored as you stood up. What else is TRUE? A) The decreased oxygen content of the foot tissues and the increased levels of metabolic wastes both acted as vasodilators, increasing the flow of blood through the tissues upon standing. B) As you stood, vasoconstriction occurred in the foot's blood vessels to protect them from shock. C) High levels of built up CO2 acted as vasoconstrictors in the foot's blood vessels. D) The resistance of the blood vessels did not change from sitting to standing, but gravity helped in blood flow. E) All of these are true. Answer: A Section: 12.09 Topic: Systemic blood circulation; Blood pressure, peripheral resistance, and hemodynamics Bloom's: Level 3. Apply HAPS Topic: Module K14 Blood pressure and its functional interrelationships with cardiac output, peripheral resistance, and hemodynamics.; Module K15 Application of homeostatic mechanisms.; Module K16 Predictions related to homeostatic imbalance, including disease states and disorders. HAPS Outcome: K15.01 Provide specific examples to demonstrate how the cardiovascular system responds to maintain homeostasis in the body.; K16.01 Predict factors or situations affecting the cardiovascular system that could disrupt homeostasis.; K14.09a Explain how autoregulation controls blood flow to individual tissues.; K14.09c List some chemicals that cause vasodilation and explain when they are active in relation to autoregulation.; K14.09d List some chemicals that cause vasoconstriction and explain when they are active in relation to autoregulation.
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38) In the systemic circuit, which of these best describes active hyperemia? A) Increased metabolic activity that results in vasoconstriction B) Increased metabolic activity that results in vasodilation C) Decreased blood flow to tissues that results in vasoconstriction D) Decreased blood flow to tissues that results in vasodilation E) Increased blood pressure that drives blood more rapidly through tissues Answer: B Section: 12.09 Topic: Anatomy and functional roles of blood vessel types; Systemic blood circulation; Blood pressure, peripheral resistance, and hemodynamics Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module K12 Anatomy and functional roles of the different types of blood vessels.; Module K14 Blood pressure and its functional interrelationships with cardiac output, peripheral resistance, and hemodynamics. HAPS Outcome: K14.09a Explain how autoregulation controls blood flow to individual tissues.; K12.02c Define vasoconstriction, vasodilation, and venoconstriction. 39) Which of the following statements concerning control of blood flow through arterioles is TRUE? A) Beta-adrenergic receptors are more abundant on most arteriolar smooth muscle than are alpha-adrenergic receptors. B) Binding of epinephrine to alpha-adrenergic receptors causes vasodilation. C) Increased stimulation of vascular smooth muscle by the parasympathetic nervous system causes increased vasoconstriction. D) If the arterial blood pressure to an organ suddenly decreases, arterioles in the organ will dilate in response. E) Body-wide constriction of arterioles results in a decrease in the total peripheral resistance (TPR). Answer: D Section: 12.09 Topic: Blood pressure, peripheral resistance, and hemodynamics Bloom's: Level 2. Understand HAPS Topic: Module K12 Anatomy and functional roles of the different types of blood vessels.; Module K14 Blood pressure and its functional interrelationships with cardiac output, peripheral resistance, and hemodynamics.; Module H13 Functions of the autonomic nervous system HAPS Outcome: H13.07 Differentiate between cholinergic and adrenergic nerve fibers and discuss the physiological interactions of transmitters released by these neurons with specific cholinergic and adrenergic receptor subtypes.; K14.09a Explain how autoregulation controls blood flow to individual tissues.; K12.03 Describe the role of arterioles in regulating tissue blood flow and systemic arterial blood pressure.; K14.03 List the local, hormonal and neuronal factors that affect peripheral resistance and explain the importance of each.; K14.10d Explain the role of hormones in regulation of blood pressure, including the mechanism by which specific hormones affect preload, heart rate, inotropic state or vascular resistance. 21 Copyright 2019 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.
40) Blood flow through most organs in the systemic circuit is regulated primarily by increasing or decreasing the activity to arteriolar smooth muscles in the organ. Another form of regulation, called , depends upon the metabolic activity of the organ. Increased activity leads to increased interstitial fluid metabolites, which cause of the arterioles. The former is a type of regulation of blood flow; the latter is an example of regulation. A) sympathetic; active hyperemia; dilation; extrinsic; intrinsic B) sympathetic; reactive hyperemia; dilation; intrinsic; extrinsic C) parasympathetic; active hyperemia; constriction; extrinsic; intrinsic D) sympathetic; flow autoregulation; constriction; intrinsic; extrinsic E) parasympathetic; reactive hyperemia; dilation; extrinsic; intrinsic Answer: A Section: 12.09 Topic: Anatomy and functional roles of blood vessel types; Systemic blood circulation; Blood pressure, peripheral resistance, and hemodynamics Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module K14 Blood pressure and its functional interrelationships with cardiac output, peripheral resistance, and hemodynamics.; Module K15 Application of homeostatic mechanisms.; Module K16 Predictions related to homeostatic imbalance, including disease states and disorders. HAPS Outcome: K15.01 Provide specific examples to demonstrate how the cardiovascular system responds to maintain homeostasis in the body.; K16.01 Predict factors or situations affecting the cardiovascular system that could disrupt homeostasis.; K14.09a Explain how autoregulation controls blood flow to individual tissues.; K12.03 Describe the role of arterioles in regulating tissue blood flow and systemic arterial blood pressure.; K14.03 List the local, hormonal and neuronal factors that affect peripheral resistance and explain the importance of each.
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41) If the arterial blood pressure in the brain is suddenly decreased, the flow through arterioles in the brain will immediately fall and then which of these will occur next? A) Brain arterioles will constrict to accelerate blood flow through the brain capillaries. B) Brain arterioles will dilate due to a decrease in levels of CO2. C) Blood flow will remain at the new, lower level due to reactive hyperemia. D) Blood flow will rise to levels above normal due to excess O2 levels. E) Blood flow will return toward its original level due to flow autoregulation. Answer: E Section: 12.09 Topic: Systemic blood circulation; Blood pressure, peripheral resistance, and hemodynamics Bloom's: Level 2. Understand HAPS Topic: Module K12 Anatomy and functional roles of the different types of blood vessels.; Module K14 Blood pressure and its functional interrelationships with cardiac output, peripheral resistance, and hemodynamics.; Module K15 Application of homeostatic mechanisms.; Module K16 Predictions related to homeostatic imbalance, including disease states and disorders. HAPS Outcome: K15.01 Provide specific examples to demonstrate how the cardiovascular system responds to maintain homeostasis in the body.; K16.01 Predict factors or situations affecting the cardiovascular system that could disrupt homeostasis.; K14.09a Explain how autoregulation controls blood flow to individual tissues.; K14.09c List some chemicals that cause vasodilation and explain when they are active in relation to autoregulation.; K14.09d List some chemicals that cause vasoconstriction and explain when they are active in relation to autoregulation.; K12.03 Describe the role of arterioles in regulating tissue blood flow and systemic arterial blood pressure. 42) Normally, the hydrostatic pressure difference between capillary fluid and interstitial fluid favors movement of fluid a tissue capillary. The protein osmotic pressure difference between capillary fluid and interstitial fluid normally favors movement of fluid a tissue capillary. A) into; into B) into; out of C) out of; out of D) out of; into Answer: D Section: 12.10 Topic: Capillary exchange Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module K14 Blood pressure and its functional interrelationships with cardiac output, peripheral resistance, and hemodynamics.; Module Q04 Movements between the major fluid compartments. HAPS Outcome: Q04.02 Describe the forces that affect capillary filtration, including the determinants of each force.; K14.07b Explain the roles of filtration and reabsorption in capillary exchange of fluid. 23 Copyright 2019 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.
43) In a patient with decreased production of plasma proteins, which of the following would be TRUE? A) More fluid than usual will flow out of the capillary based on the osmotic pressure. B) Less fluid than usual will flow out of the capillary based on the osmotic pressure. C) More fluid than usual will flow out of the capillary based on the hydrostatic pressure. D) Less fluid than usual will flow out of the capillary based on the hydrostatic pressure. Answer: A Section: 12.10 Topic: Capillary exchange Bloom's: Level 3. Apply HAPS Topic: Module K14 Blood pressure and its functional interrelationships with cardiac output, peripheral resistance, and hemodynamics.; Module Q04 Movements between the major fluid compartments. HAPS Outcome: Q04.02 Describe the forces that affect capillary filtration, including the determinants of each force.; K14.07b Explain the roles of filtration and reabsorption in capillary exchange of fluid. 44) Which of the following statements concerning the capillaries is FALSE? A) Increasing capillary hydrostatic pressure decreases the likelihood that filtration will occur. B) Velocity of blood flow is slower in the capillaries than in the arteries. C) It is possible for a capillary to filter fluid at its arterial end and absorb fluid at its venous end. D) Large capillary pores are more likely to be found in liver capillaries than in brain capillaries. E) Large proteins that escape capillaries and enter the interstitial fluid are returned to the circulation via the lymphatic system. Answer: A Section: 12.10 Topic: Anatomy and functional roles of blood vessel types; Capillary exchange Bloom's: Level 2. Understand HAPS Topic: Module K12 Anatomy and functional roles of the different types of blood vessels.; Module K14 Blood pressure and its functional interrelationships with cardiac output, peripheral resistance, and hemodynamics.; Module L01 General functions of the lymphatic system. HAPS Outcome: K14.07c Describe how net filtration pressure across the capillary wall determines movement of fluid across the capillary wall.; K14.07b Explain the roles of filtration and reabsorption in capillary exchange of fluid.; K14.07d Relate net filtration pressure to potential edema and the need for a functional lymphatic system.; K12.04b List types of capillaries and state where in the body each type is found.; K12.04c Correlate the anatomical structure of capillaries with their functions.; L01.01 Describe the major functions of the lymphatic system.
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45) Which of the following correctly compares the factors involved in bulk flow of fluid in systemic and pulmonary capillaries? A) The protein oncotic pressure inside pulmonary capillaries is significantly greater. B) There are no lymphatic vessels to remove fluid from lung interstitial fluid. C) The hydrostatic pressure inside pulmonary capillaries is significantly lower. D) The protein oncotic pressure is lower in pulmonary interstitial fluid than in typical systemic interstitial fluid. E) The Starling's forces overwhelmingly favor reabsorption all along the length of pulmonary capillaries. Answer: C Section: 12.10 Topic: Capillary exchange Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module K14 Blood pressure and its functional interrelationships with cardiac output, peripheral resistance, and hemodynamics. HAPS Outcome: K14.07c Describe how net filtration pressure across the capillary wall determines movement of fluid across the capillary wall.; K14.07b Explain the roles of filtration and reabsorption in capillary exchange of fluid.; K14.07d Relate net filtration pressure to potential edema and the need for a functional lymphatic system. 46) A patient comes in to your office with dramatically high blood pressure. Which of the following symptoms might turn up in your exam? A) Tissue swelling due to increased fluid leaving the capillaries B) Skin bruising due to blood leaving the capillaries C) Rapid breathing due to increased need for oxygen D) Lethargy E) None of these Answer: A Section: 12.10 Topic: Capillary exchange Bloom's: Level 3. Apply HAPS Topic: Module K14 Blood pressure and its functional interrelationships with cardiac output, peripheral resistance, and hemodynamics. HAPS Outcome: K14.07c Describe how net filtration pressure across the capillary wall determines movement of fluid across the capillary wall.; K14.07b Explain the roles of filtration and reabsorption in capillary exchange of fluid.; K14.07d Relate net filtration pressure to potential edema and the need for a functional lymphatic system.
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47) You have a patient who is showing signs of edema (tissue swelling) all over his body. In addition to visible swelling in his hands, feet, and face, you can also see evidence of swelling around his organs when viewing his CAT scan images. Thinking about what you know about the factors that regulate fluid flow from the blood vessels. Which of the following causes of edema seem most likely? A) Low red and white blood cell counts due to cancer in the bone marrow B) Low plasma protein concentration due to liver failure C) High blood solute concentration due to kidney failure D) Low blood pressure due to severe dehydration Answer: B Section: 12.10 Topic: Capillary exchange Bloom's: Level 3. Apply HAPS Topic: Module K14 Blood pressure and its functional interrelationships with cardiac output, peripheral resistance, and hemodynamics. HAPS Outcome: K14.07c Describe how net filtration pressure across the capillary wall determines movement of fluid across the capillary wall.; K14.07b Explain the roles of filtration and reabsorption in capillary exchange of fluid.; K14.07d Relate net filtration pressure to potential edema and the need for a functional lymphatic system. 48) Distinguishing characteristics of veins include which of the following? A) All veins carry deoxygenated blood. B) All veins carry blood toward the heart. C) All veins have thick, elastic walls. D) Veins have walls consisting only of endothelial cells. E) All veins have valves to ensure one-way movement of blood. Answer: B Section: 12.11 Topic: Anatomy and functional roles of blood vessel types; Venous blood return Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module K12 Anatomy and functional roles of the different types of blood vessels.; Module K13 Pattern of blood circulation throughout the body, including systemic, pulmonary, coronary, hepatic portal, and fetal circulations. HAPS Outcome: K13.01b State which blood vessel type carries oxygen-rich blood and which type carries oxygen-poor blood in systemic and pulmonary circuits.; K12.02b Correlate the anatomical structure of each type of blood vessel with its function.
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49) What determines the movement of blood in systemic veins? A) The blood pressure difference between systemic capillaries and the right atrium B) The contraction and relaxation of skeletal muscles C) The decrease of thoracic pressure and increase of abdominal pressure due to diaphragm movement D) Valves in the veins E) All of the these Answer: E Section: 12.11 Topic: Anatomy and functional roles of blood vessel types; Venous blood return Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module K12 Anatomy and functional roles of the different types of blood vessels.; Module K14 Blood pressure and its functional interrelationships with cardiac output, peripheral resistance, and hemodynamics. HAPS Outcome: K12.02b Correlate the anatomical structure of each type of blood vessel with its function.; K14.08 Discuss how muscular compression and the respiratory pump aid venous return.; K14.02 State and interpret the equation that relates blood flow to pressure and resistance.; K14.05 Using a graph of pressures within the systemic circuit, interpret the pressure changes that occur in the arteries, capillaries, and veins. 50) Sarah is resting in a chair for a long period of time; her calf and thigh muscles are totally relaxed. Next to her, Priya is also resting in a chair, but she is wiggling, kicking, tapping, and vibrating her legs; resulting in an pattern where her calf and thigh muscles are alternating between relaxed and contracted states. If all else is equal, who has the higher stroke volume, Sarah or Priya? A) Sarah has a higher stroke volume. B) Priya has a higher stroke volume. C) Sarah and Priya have the same stroke volume because they are both seated. D) No significant difference in the stroke volume between Sarah and Priya can be predicted based on this information. Answer: B Section: 12.11 Topic: Venous blood return Bloom's: Level 3. Apply HAPS Topic: Module K14 Blood pressure and its functional interrelationships with cardiac output, peripheral resistance, and hemodynamics. HAPS Outcome: K14.08 Discuss how muscular compression and the respiratory pump aid venous return.
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51) Tina is a hard-working sales clerk in a busy department store. She has stood completely still behind the check-out counter for an 8-hour shift. At the end of Tina's shift she finds that she feels somewhat dizzy and guesses that her blood pressure is quite low. All of the following factors normally contribute to homeostatic blood pressure regulation. Which one is most likely contributing to her symptoms? A) Decreased skeletal muscle pump B) Increased activity of the pulmonary pump C) Defective baroreceptor detection in the carotid artery D) Increased sympathetic tone E) All of these Answer: A Section: 12.11 Topic: Venous blood return Bloom's: Level 3. Apply HAPS Topic: Module K14 Blood pressure and its functional interrelationships with cardiac output, peripheral resistance, and hemodynamics. HAPS Outcome: K14.08 Discuss how muscular compression and the respiratory pump aid venous return. 52) Tina is a hard-working sales clerk in a busy department store. She has stood completely still behind the check-out counter for an 8-hour shift. At the end of Tina's shift, she finds that she feels somewhat dizzy and guesses that her blood pressure is quite low. When Tina gets home she also notices that her ankles are swollen. What physiological issue is most likely to blame in this scenario? A) Lymphatic blockage in her lower legs B) High osmotic pressure in her lower leg capillaries C) High hydrostatic pressure in lower leg capillaries D) Reactive hyperemia to lower leg tissues E) None of these, the swelling is unrelated to cardiovascular issues Answer: C Section: 12.11 Topic: Venous blood return Bloom's: Level 3. Apply HAPS Topic: Module K14 Blood pressure and its functional interrelationships with cardiac output, peripheral resistance, and hemodynamics. HAPS Outcome: K14.08 Discuss how muscular compression and the respiratory pump aid venous return.
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53) Which of the following is a result of increased sympathetic stimulation of vascular smooth muscle? A) Filtration of fluid from capillaries to interstitial fluid increases. B) Total peripheral resistance (TPR) decreases. C) The percentage of blood volume in the veins increases. D) Blood flow to the brain decreases. E) Venous return of blood to the heart increases. Answer: E Section: 12.09; 12.10; 12.11 Topic: Venous blood return; Blood pressure, peripheral resistance, and hemodynamics Bloom's: Level 2. Understand HAPS Topic: Module K14 Blood pressure and its functional interrelationships with cardiac output, peripheral resistance, and hemodynamics. HAPS Outcome: K14.07c Describe how net filtration pressure across the capillary wall determines movement of fluid across the capillary wall.; K14.10c Explain the role of the sympathetic nervous system in regulation of blood pressure and volume.; K14.03 List the local, hormonal and neuronal factors that affect peripheral resistance and explain the importance of each.; K14.10d Explain the role of hormones in regulation of blood pressure, including the mechanism by which specific hormones affect preload, heart rate, inotropic state or vascular resistance. 54) Sally has had too many alcoholic drinks. Alcohol is a systemic vasodilator and it increases urine volume, thereby decreasing blood volume. In order to maintain cardiac output, what canher body do? A) Decrease heart rate B) Increase heart rate C) Increase stroke volume D) Decrease stroke volume E) Increase total peripheral resistance (TPR) Answer: B Section: 12.09; 12.10; 12.11 Topic: Blood pressure, peripheral resistance, and hemodynamics Bloom's: Level 3. Apply HAPS Topic: Module K14 Blood pressure and its functional interrelationships with cardiac output, peripheral resistance, and hemodynamics. HAPS Outcome: K14.03 List the local, hormonal and neuronal factors that affect peripheral resistance and explain the importance of each.; K14.10d Explain the role of hormones in regulation of blood pressure, including the mechanism by which specific hormones affect preload, heart rate, inotropic state or vascular resistance.
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55) Which of the following factors would NOT tend to increase systemic arterial blood pressure? A) Increased sympathetic stimulation B) Increased blood volume C) Increased venous return D) Increased parasympathetic stimulation E) Increased activity of the skeletal muscle pump Answer: D Section: 12.06; 12.08; 12.09; 12.11; 12.13 Topic: Conduction system of the heart; Venous blood return; Blood pressure, peripheral resistance, and hemodynamics Bloom's: Level 2. Understand HAPS Topic: Module K09 Conduction system of the heart and the electrocardiogram.; Module K11 Regulation of cardiac output, stroke volume, and heart rate.; Module K14 Blood pressure and its functional interrelationships with cardiac output, peripheral resistance, and hemodynamics. HAPS Outcome: K11.02b Define venous return, preload and afterload, and explain the factors that affect them as well as how each of them affects EDV, ESV and SV.; K14.08 Discuss how muscular compression and the respiratory pump aid venous return.; K11.01c Predict how changes in heart rate (HR) and/or stroke volume (SV) will affect cardiac output (CO).; K14.10c Explain the role of the sympathetic nervous system in regulation of blood pressure and volume.; K09.01d Describe the role of the autonomic nervous system in the regulation of cardiac function related to the conduction system of the heart.; K14.03 List the local, hormonal and neuronal factors that affect peripheral resistance and explain the importance of each.; K14.10d Explain the role of hormones in regulation of blood pressure, including the mechanism by which specific hormones affect preload, heart rate, inotropic state or vascular resistance.
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56) After a long fever Carl finds himself sweating profusely. He ends up requiring several changes of clothing before his skin begins to dry off. After this sweating event, what can we expect of Carl's physiological state? A) An increase in blood volume B) Hypotension C) Decreased firing of the arterial baroreceptors D) Increased stroke volume E) All of these Answer: B Section: 12.16 Topic: Regulation of cardiac output, stroke volume, and heart rate; Blood pressure, peripheral resistance, and hemodynamics; Clinical applications of the cardiovascular system Bloom's: Level 3. Apply HAPS Topic: Module K11 Regulation of cardiac output, stroke volume, and heart rate.; Module K16 Predictions related to homeostatic imbalance, including disease states and disorders. HAPS Outcome: K16.01 Predict factors or situations affecting the cardiovascular system that could disrupt homeostasis.; K16.02 Predict the types of problems that would occur in the body if the cardiovascular system could not maintain homeostasis.; K11.01c Predict how changes in heart rate (HR) and/or stroke volume (SV) will affect cardiac output (CO).; K11.02d Discuss the influence of positive and negative inotropic agents on stroke volume (SV).; K11.03a Discuss the influence of positive and negative chronotropic agents on HR.
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57) Jane donates a pint of blood to a blood bank. A few minutes later, which of the following would be increased compared to pre-donation values? A) Her stroke volume and total peripheral resistance B) Her heart rate and total peripheral resistance C) Her heart rate and mean arterial pressure D) The percentage of her cardiac output flowing to her kidneys E) The blood flow to her brain Answer: B Section: 12.13; 12.16 Topic: Regulation of cardiac output, stroke volume, and heart rate; Blood pressure, peripheral resistance, and hemodynamics; Clinical applications of the cardiovascular system Bloom's: Level 3. Apply HAPS Topic: Module K14 Blood pressure and its functional interrelationships with cardiac output, peripheral resistance, and hemodynamics.; Module K15 Application of homeostatic mechanisms.; Module K16 Predictions related to homeostatic imbalance, including disease states and disorders. HAPS Outcome: K15.01 Provide specific examples to demonstrate how the cardiovascular system responds to maintain homeostasis in the body.; K16.01 Predict factors or situations affecting the cardiovascular system that could disrupt homeostasis.; K14.10a During the baroreceptor reflex, explain how cardiac output and peripheral resistance are regulated to maintain adequate blood pressure on a moment-to-moment basis.; K14.10c Explain the role of the sympathetic nervous system in regulation of blood pressure and volume.
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58) Jane donates a pint of blood to a blood bank. A few minutes later, which of the following would be decreased compared to pre-donation values? A) Her stroke volume and total peripheral resistance B) Her heart rate and total peripheral resistance C) Her heart rate and mean arterial pressure D) The percentage of her cardiac output flowing to her kidneys E) Blood flow to her brain Answer: D Section: 12.13; 12.16 Topic: Regulation of cardiac output, stroke volume, and heart rate; Blood pressure, peripheral resistance, and hemodynamics; Clinical applications of the cardiovascular system Bloom's: Level 3. Apply HAPS Topic: Module K14 Blood pressure and its functional interrelationships with cardiac output, peripheral resistance, and hemodynamics.; Module K15 Application of homeostatic mechanisms.; Module K16 Predictions related to homeostatic imbalance, including disease states and disorders. HAPS Outcome: K15.01 Provide specific examples to demonstrate how the cardiovascular system responds to maintain homeostasis in the body.; K16.01 Predict factors or situations affecting the cardiovascular system that could disrupt homeostasis.; K14.10a During the baroreceptor reflex, explain how cardiac output and peripheral resistance are regulated to maintain adequate blood pressure on a moment-to-moment basis.; K14.10c Explain the role of the sympathetic nervous system in regulation of blood pressure and volume.
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59) Jane donates a pint of blood to a blood bank. A few minutes later, which of the following would be increased compared to pre-donation values? A) Heart rate B) Stroke volume C) Mean arterial pressure D) Cardiac output E) Hydrostatic pressure in the capillaries Answer: A Section: 12.10; 12.13; 12.16 Topic: Regulation of cardiac output, stroke volume, and heart rate; Capillary exchange; Blood pressure, peripheral resistance, and hemodynamics; Clinical applications of the cardiovascular system Bloom's: Level 3. Apply HAPS Topic: Module K14 Blood pressure and its functional interrelationships with cardiac output, peripheral resistance, and hemodynamics.; Module K15 Application of homeostatic mechanisms.; Module K16 Predictions related to homeostatic imbalance, including disease states and disorders.; Module Q04 Movements between the major fluid compartments. HAPS Outcome: K15.01 Provide specific examples to demonstrate how the cardiovascular system responds to maintain homeostasis in the body.; K16.01 Predict factors or situations affecting the cardiovascular system that could disrupt homeostasis.; K14.07c Describe how net filtration pressure across the capillary wall determines movement of fluid across the capillary wall.; Q04.02 Describe the forces that affect capillary filtration, including the determinants of each force.; K14.10a During the baroreceptor reflex, explain how cardiac output and peripheral resistance are regulated to maintain adequate blood pressure on a moment-to-moment basis.; K14.10c Explain the role of the sympathetic nervous system in regulation of blood pressure and volume.
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60) Following hemorrhage, reflexes are triggered that attempt to compensate for the blood loss. As a result of the blood loss and the reflex mechanisms, which of the following will be TRUE, compared to pre-hemorrhage values? A) Both cardiac output and total peripheral resistance will be increased. B) Both cardiac output and total peripheral resistance will be decreased. C) Cardiac output will be increased and total peripheral resistance will be decreased. D) Cardiac output will be decreased and total peripheral resistance will be increased. E) Hematocrit will be increased. Answer: D Section: 12.13; 12.16 Topic: Regulation of cardiac output, stroke volume, and heart rate; Blood pressure, peripheral resistance, and hemodynamics; Clinical applications of the cardiovascular system Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module K14 Blood pressure and its functional interrelationships with cardiac output, peripheral resistance, and hemodynamics.; Module K15 Application of homeostatic mechanisms.; Module K16 Predictions related to homeostatic imbalance, including disease states and disorders.; Module Q04 Movements between the major fluid compartments. HAPS Outcome: K15.01 Provide specific examples to demonstrate how the cardiovascular system responds to maintain homeostasis in the body.; K16.01 Predict factors or situations affecting the cardiovascular system that could disrupt homeostasis.; K14.07c Describe how net filtration pressure across the capillary wall determines movement of fluid across the capillary wall.; Q04.02 Describe the forces that affect capillary filtration, including the determinants of each force.; K14.10a During the baroreceptor reflex, explain how cardiac output and peripheral resistance are regulated to maintain adequate blood pressure on a moment-to-moment basis.; K14.10c Explain the role of the sympathetic nervous system in regulation of blood pressure and volume.
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61) How would a hemorrhage immediately affect the activity of the baroreceptors? A) The baroreceptors would increase their rate of firing to all medullary cardiovascular center cell types. B) The baroreceptors would increase their rate of firing to cells in the medulla oblongata that activate sympathetic pathways and decrease their rate of firing to cells in the medulla oblongata that activate parasympathetic pathways. C) The baroreceptors would decrease their rate of firing to all medullary cardiovascular center cell types. D) The baroreceptors would decrease their rate of firing to cells in the medulla oblongata that activate sympathetic pathways and increase their rate of firing to cells in the medulla oblongata that activate parasympathetic pathways. E) A hemorrhage would not affect the activity of the baroreceptors. Answer: C Section: 12.13; 12.16 Topic: Blood pressure, peripheral resistance, and hemodynamics; Clinical applications of the cardiovascular system Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module K14 Blood pressure and its functional interrelationships with cardiac output, peripheral resistance, and hemodynamics.; Module K15 Application of homeostatic mechanisms.; Module K16 Predictions related to homeostatic imbalance, including disease states and disorders. HAPS Outcome: K15.01 Provide specific examples to demonstrate how the cardiovascular system responds to maintain homeostasis in the body.; K16.01 Predict factors or situations affecting the cardiovascular system that could disrupt homeostasis.; K14.10a During the baroreceptor reflex, explain how cardiac output and peripheral resistance are regulated to maintain adequate blood pressure on a moment-to-moment basis.; K14.10c Explain the role of the sympathetic nervous system in regulation of blood pressure and volume.
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62) Which of the following is most likely to occur when a soldier stands at attention—very still, with legs and spine straight? A) Decreased pressure in the capillaries of the feet B) Increased absorption of interstitial fluid by the capillaries of the feet C) Increased storage of blood in the veins of the feet and legs D) Increased venous return E) Increased blood flow to the brain Answer: C Section: 12.10; 12.11; 12.17 Topic: Anatomy and functional roles of blood vessel types; Capillary exchange; Venous blood return; Blood pressure, peripheral resistance, and hemodynamics; Clinical applications of the cardiovascular system Bloom's: Level 3. Apply HAPS Topic: Module K11 Regulation of cardiac output, stroke volume, and heart rate.; Module K12 Anatomy and functional roles of the different types of blood vessels.; Module K14 Blood pressure and its functional interrelationships with cardiac output, peripheral resistance, and hemodynamics.; Module K16 Predictions related to homeostatic imbalance, including disease states and disorders.; Module Q04 Movements between the major fluid compartments. HAPS Outcome: K16.01 Predict factors or situations affecting the cardiovascular system that could disrupt homeostasis.; K11.02b Define venous return, preload and afterload, and explain the factors that affect them as well as how each of them affects EDV, ESV and SV.; K16.02 Predict the types of problems that would occur in the body if the cardiovascular system could not maintain homeostasis.; K12.02b Correlate the anatomical structure of each type of blood vessel with its function.; K14.07c Describe how net filtration pressure across the capillary wall determines movement of fluid across the capillary wall.; K14.08 Discuss how muscular compression and the respiratory pump aid venous return.; Q04.02 Describe the forces that affect capillary filtration, including the determinants of each force.
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63) During exercise, there is a decreased flow of blood to A) the brain. B) the skin. C) the abdominal organs. D) the skeletal muscles E) the heart. Answer: C Section: 12.18 Topic: Blood pressure, peripheral resistance, and hemodynamics Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module K14 Blood pressure and its functional interrelationships with cardiac output, peripheral resistance, and hemodynamics.; Module K15 Application of homeostatic mechanisms. HAPS Outcome: K15.01 Provide specific examples to demonstrate how the cardiovascular system responds to maintain homeostasis in the body.; K14.10a During the baroreceptor reflex, explain how cardiac output and peripheral resistance are regulated to maintain adequate blood pressure on a moment-to-moment basis.; K14.10c Explain the role of the sympathetic nervous system in regulation of blood pressure and volume.; K14.09a Explain how autoregulation controls blood flow to individual tissues. 64) You just ate a huge, delicious breakfast and now are going to head out for your morning run. As you try picking up the pace, you find running to be quite difficult because A) blood flow to the abdominal organs is dominant. B) stroke volume is decreased. C) everywhere in the systemic circuit, blood vessels are constricted. D) your heart rate is too high. E) your mean arterial pressure is too high. Answer: A Section: 12.18 Topic: Blood pressure, peripheral resistance, and hemodynamics Bloom's: Level 3. Apply HAPS Topic: Module K14 Blood pressure and its functional interrelationships with cardiac output, peripheral resistance, and hemodynamics.; Module K15 Application of homeostatic mechanisms. HAPS Outcome: K15.01 Provide specific examples to demonstrate how the cardiovascular system responds to maintain homeostasis in the body.; K14.10a During the baroreceptor reflex, explain how cardiac output and peripheral resistance are regulated to maintain adequate blood pressure on a moment-to-moment basis.; K14.10c Explain the role of the sympathetic nervous system in regulation of blood pressure and volume.; K14.09a Explain how autoregulation controls blood flow to individual tissues.
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65) Which of the following does NOT contribute to increased stroke volume during exercise? A) Increased contractility of cardiac muscle B) Increased venous return C) Increased length of filling time during diastole D) Increased sympathetic stimulation of ventricular muscle E) Increased end-diastolic volume Answer: C Section: 12.06; 12.18 Topic: Regulation of cardiac output, stroke volume, and heart rate; Venous blood return Bloom's: Level 2. Understand HAPS Topic: Module K10 Cardiac cycle.; Module K11 Regulation of cardiac output, stroke volume, and heart rate.; Module K14 Blood pressure and its functional interrelationships with cardiac output, peripheral resistance, and hemodynamics.; Module K15 Application of homeostatic mechanisms. HAPS Outcome: K15.01 Provide specific examples to demonstrate how the cardiovascular system responds to maintain homeostasis in the body.; K10.01 Define cardiac cycle, systole, and diastole.; K11.02b Define venous return, preload and afterload, and explain the factors that affect them as well as how each of them affects EDV, ESV and SV.; K14.08 Discuss how muscular compression and the respiratory pump aid venous return.; K11.02d Discuss the influence of positive and negative inotropic agents on stroke volume (SV).; K14.10d Explain the role of hormones in regulation of blood pressure, including the mechanism by which specific hormones affect preload, heart rate, inotropic state or vascular resistance.; K11.03b Explain the relationship between changes in HR and changes in filling time and EDV. 66) Which is the most likely effect of physical endurance training on a person's cardiac performance? A) A decrease in cardiac output B) An increase in maximal stroke volume C) An increase in maximal heart rate D) An increase in resting heart rate E) An increase in cardiac output when the person is at rest Answer: B Section: 12.18 Topic: Regulation of cardiac output, stroke volume, and heart rate; Clinical applications of the cardiovascular system Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module K11 Regulation of cardiac output, stroke volume, and heart rate.; Module K15 Application of homeostatic mechanisms. HAPS Outcome: K15.01 Provide specific examples to demonstrate how the cardiovascular system responds to maintain homeostasis in the body.; K11.02b Define venous return, preload and afterload, and explain the factors that affect them as well as how each of them affects EDV, ESV and SV.
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67) Which of these correctly states differences between a trained athlete and a sedentary individual at rest? A) The athlete would have a lower heart rate and larger stroke volume. B) The athlete would have a higher heart rate and larger stroke volume. C) The athlete would have a lower heart rate and smaller stroke volume. D) The athlete would have a higher heart rate and smaller stroke volume. E) There would be no differences when the individuals were at rest. Answer: A Section: 12.18 Topic: Regulation of cardiac output, stroke volume, and heart rate Bloom's: Level 2. Understand HAPS Topic: Module K11 Regulation of cardiac output, stroke volume, and heart rate.; Module K15 Application of homeostatic mechanisms. HAPS Outcome: K15.01 Provide specific examples to demonstrate how the cardiovascular system responds to maintain homeostasis in the body.; K11.02b Define venous return, preload and afterload, and explain the factors that affect them as well as how each of them affects EDV, ESV and SV. 68) Which of the following does NOT describe hypertension? Hypertension A) refers to a chronic state of elevated blood pressure. B) is usually defined as a systolic pressure greater than 140 mmHg and a diastolic pressure greater than 90 mmHg. C) is usually a result of chronically elevated cardiac output. D) may be caused by kidney disease. E) can sometimes be treated with drugs that increase excretion of water in the urine. Answer: C Section: 12.19 Topic: Blood pressure, peripheral resistance, and hemodynamics; Clinical applications of the cardiovascular system Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module K16 Predictions related to homeostatic imbalance, including disease states and disorders.; Module Q07 Application of homeostatic mechanisms.; Module Q08 Predictions related to homeostatic imbalance, including disease states and disorders.; Module P07 Application of homeostatic mechanisms.; Module P08 Predictions related to homeostatic imbalance, including disease states and disorders. HAPS Outcome: K16.01 Predict factors or situations affecting the cardiovascular system that could disrupt homeostasis.; K16.02 Predict the types of problems that would occur in the body if the cardiovascular system could not maintain homeostasis.; P07.02 Explain how the urinary system relates to other body systems to maintain homeostasis.; P08.02 Predict the types of problems that would occur in the body if the urinary system could not maintain homeostasis.; Q07.03 Explain how fluid volumes and distribution contribute to the maintenance of homeostasis in other body systems.; Q08.03 Predict the types of problems that would occur in the body if the volume and composition of body fluids were not maintained within normal homeostatic ranges.
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69) Arterial systolic pressure occurs while arterial diastolic pressure occurs . A) at the same time as closure of the semilunar valves; at the same time as closure of the atrioventricular valves B) during the isovolumetric contraction phase of the cardiac cycle; during the isovolumetric relaxation phase of the cardiac cycle C) at the same time as the P-wave of the electrocardiogram; at the same time as the T-wave of the electrocardiogram D) when the ventricle reaches end-systolic volume; when the ventricle reaches end-diastolic volume E) during the middle of the phase of ventricular ejection; just before the semilunar valve opens Answer: E Section: 12.05; 12.08 Topic: Cardiac cycle; Blood pressure, peripheral resistance, and hemodynamics Bloom's: Level 2. Understand HAPS Topic: Module K06 Gross and microscopic anatomy of the heart.; Module K10 Cardiac cycle. HAPS Outcome: K06.03 Identify and describe the function of the primary internal structures of the heart, including chambers, septa, valves, papillary muscles, chordae tendineae, and venous and arterial openings.; K10.02 Describe the phases of the cardiac cycle including ventricular filling, isovolumetric contraction, ventricular ejection, and isovolumetric relaxation.; K10.01 Define cardiac cycle, systole, and diastole.; K10.03 Relate the EKG waveforms to the normal mechanical events of the cardiac cycle.; K10.07 Define systolic and diastolic blood pressure and interpret a graph of aortic pressure versus time during the cardiac cycle.
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70) Which of the following drugs might be prescribed to alleviate hypertension? A) Alpha-adrenergic receptor agonists B) Beta-adrenergic receptor antagonists C) Cholinergic antagonist D) A drug that increases L-type Ca2+ channel currents E) A drug that increases T-type Ca2+ channel currents Answer: B Section: 12.19 Topic: Regulation of cardiac output, stroke volume, and heart rate; Blood pressure, peripheral resistance, and hemodynamics; Clinical applications of the cardiovascular system Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module K07 Physiology of cardiac muscle contraction.; Module K09 Conduction system of the heart and the electrocardiogram.; Module K11 Regulation of cardiac output, stroke volume, and heart rate.; Module K14 Blood pressure and its functional interrelationships with cardiac output, peripheral resistance, and hemodynamics.; Module K16 Predictions related to homeostatic imbalance, including disease states and disorders.; Module H13 Functions of the autonomic nervous system HAPS Outcome: K16.01 Predict factors or situations affecting the cardiovascular system that could disrupt homeostasis.; K11.02d Discuss the influence of positive and negative inotropic agents on stroke volume (SV).; K11.03a Discuss the influence of positive and negative chronotropic agents on HR.; K14.10c Explain the role of the sympathetic nervous system in regulation of blood pressure and volume.; K07.01 List the phases of the cardiac muscle action potential and explain the ion movements that occur in each phase.; H13.07 Differentiate between cholinergic and adrenergic nerve fibers and discuss the physiological interactions of transmitters released by these neurons with specific cholinergic and adrenergic receptor subtypes.; K09.01d Describe the role of the autonomic nervous system in the regulation of cardiac function related to the conduction system of the heart.; K14.03 List the local, hormonal and neuronal factors that affect peripheral resistance and explain the importance of each.; K14.10d Explain the role of hormones in regulation of blood pressure, including the mechanism by which specific hormones affect preload, heart rate, inotropic state or vascular resistance.; H13.08 Propose clinical uses of specific drugs that act at cholinergic and adrenergic receptor subtypes.
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71) Which of the drug treatments listed below is INCORRECTLY matched to a mode of action in treating hypertension? A) Alpha-adrenergic receptor blockers—reduce TPR by decreased stimulation of arteriolar smooth muscle B) Beta-adrenergic receptor antagonists—reduce cardiac output by slowing heart rate and reducing contractility C) Antagonists of parasympathetic receptors—reduce TPR by decreased stimulation of arteriolar smooth muscle D) Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors—reduce TPR by reducing angiotensin II concentrations E) Diuretics—reduce blood volume by increasing excretion of sodium and water in urine F) Calcium channel blockers—reduce speed and force of contraction in vascular smooth muscle G) ACE inhibitors—lowers peripheral resistance by promoting vasodilation Answer: C Section: 12.19 Topic: Regulation of cardiac output, stroke volume, and heart rate; Blood pressure, peripheral resistance, and hemodynamics; Clinical applications of the cardiovascular system Bloom's: Level 2. Understand HAPS Topic: Module K09 Conduction system of the heart and the electrocardiogram.; Module K11 Regulation of cardiac output, stroke volume, and heart rate.; Module K12 Anatomy and functional roles of the different types of blood vessels.; Module K14 Blood pressure and its functional interrelationships with cardiac output, peripheral resistance, and hemodynamics.; Module K16 Predictions related to homeostatic imbalance, including disease states and disorders.; Module P04 Factors regulating and altering urine volume and composition, including the renin- angiotensin system and the roles of aldosterone, antidiuretic hormone, and the natriuretic peptides.; Module P07 Application of homeostatic mechanisms.; Module P08 Predictions related to homeostatic imbalance, including disease states and disorders.; Module H13 Functions of the autonomic nervous system HAPS Outcome: K16.01 Predict factors or situations affecting the cardiovascular system that could disrupt homeostasis.; K11.02d Discuss the influence of positive and negative inotropic agents on stroke volume (SV).; K11.03a Discuss the influence of positive and negative chronotropic agents on HR.; K14.10c Explain the role of the sympathetic nervous system in regulation of blood pressure and volume.; P07.02 Explain how the urinary system relates to other body systems to maintain homeostasis.; P08.02 Predict the types of problems that would occur in the body if the urinary system could not maintain homeostasis.; H13.07 Differentiate between cholinergic and adrenergic nerve fibers and discuss the physiological interactions of transmitters released by these neurons with specific cholinergic and adrenergic receptor subtypes.; K09.01d Describe the role of the autonomic nervous system in the regulation of cardiac function related to the conduction system of the heart.; K12.03 Describe the role of arterioles in regulating tissue blood flow and systemic arterial blood pressure.; K14.03 List the local, hormonal and neuronal factors that affect peripheral resistance and explain the importance of each.; K14.10d Explain the role of hormones in regulation of blood pressure, including the mechanism by which specific hormones affect preload, heart rate, inotropic state or vascular resistance.; H13.08 Propose clinical uses of specific drugs that act at cholinergic and adrenergic receptor subtypes.; P04.03 Describe how each of the following works to regulate reabsorption and secretion, so as to affect 43 Copyright 2019 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.
urine volume and composition- renin- angiotensin system, aldosterone, antidiuretic hormone, and natriuretic peptides.; P04.05 Explain the mechanism of action of diuretics. 72) Atherosclerosis is A) the major cause of heart attacks. B) a thinning in the walls of arteries. C) associated with low blood levels of cholesterol and heavy exercise. D) a disease in which the walls of arteries become more compliant. E) more common in younger people than in older people. Answer: A Section: 12.22 Topic: Clinical applications of the cardiovascular system Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module K16 Predictions related to homeostatic imbalance, including disease states and disorders. HAPS Outcome: K16.01 Predict factors or situations affecting the cardiovascular system that could disrupt homeostasis.; K16.02 Predict the types of problems that would occur in the body if the cardiovascular system could not maintain homeostasis. 73) What is hemostasis? A) The maintenance of relatively stable conditions in the internal environment B) The prevention or stoppage of blood loss C) A disease in which blood clot formation is impaired D) A protein inside red blood cells that binds oxygen with high affinity E) The set point for normal arterial blood pressure Answer: B Section: 12.23; 12.24 Topic: Hemostasis, including coagulation of blood Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module K04 Hemostasis, including coagulation of blood. HAPS Outcome: K04.01 Distinguish between the terms hemostasis and coagulation.
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74) Which of the following occurs first in hemostasis? A) Activation of the fibrinolytic system B) Platelet aggregation C) A clotting cascade that leads to the conversion of fibrinogen to stable fibrin D) Conversion of prothrombin to thrombin E) Conversion of plasminogen to plasmin Answer: B Section: 12.23 Topic: Hemostasis, including coagulation of blood Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module K04 Hemostasis, including coagulation of blood. HAPS Outcome: K04.02b Describe the role of platelets and the steps involved in the formation of the platelet plug of hemostasis. 75) Platelets participate in hemostasis by A) aggregating to form a plug and manufacturing fibrinogen. B) secreting nitric oxide and releasing chemicals that promote vasoconstriction. C) secreting prostacyclin, which prevents platelet aggregation on blood vessel endothelium. D) aggregating to form a plug and releasing chemicals that promote vasoconstriction. E) secreting tissue plasminogen activator (t-PA) whenever they come into contact with collagen. Answer: D Section: 12.23 Topic: Hemostasis, including coagulation of blood Bloom's: Level 2. Understand HAPS Topic: Module K04 Hemostasis, including coagulation of blood. HAPS Outcome: K04.02b Describe the role of platelets and the steps involved in the formation of the platelet plug of hemostasis. 76) Which is an intermediary protein that enables platelets to adhere to collagen? A) Tissue plasminogen activator (t-PA) B) ATP C) von Willebrand factor (vWF) D) Arachidonic acid E) Activated protein C Answer: C Section: 12.23 Topic: Hemostasis, including coagulation of blood Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module K04 Hemostasis, including coagulation of blood. HAPS Outcome: K04.02b Describe the role of platelets and the steps involved in the formation of the platelet plug of hemostasis.
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77) In a patient with a mutation that causes an inactive von Willebrand factor (vWF), which of the following would be TRUE? A) Platelets will not adhere to collagen. B) Fibrinogen cannot polymerize. C) Thrombin will never be activated. D) Clots will be stronger than typical. E) None of the answers will be true. Answer: A Section: 12.23 Topic: Hemostasis, including coagulation of blood Bloom's: Level 3. Apply HAPS Topic: Module K04 Hemostasis, including coagulation of blood. HAPS Outcome: K04.02b Describe the role of platelets and the steps involved in the formation of the platelet plug of hemostasis. 78) Which of the following statements regarding blood clotting is TRUE? A) Blood clotting requires activation of thrombin. B) Blood clotting is enhanced by prostaglandin I2 (PGI2) and nitric oxide. C) A blood clot is a network of interlacing strands of fibrinogen. D) Blood clotting occurs too rapidly in individuals with the disease hemophilia. E) Injecting tissue plasminogen activator (t-PA) into a patient who is bleeding will aid blood clotting. Answer: A Section: 12.24; 12.25 Topic: Hemostasis, including coagulation of blood; Clinical applications of the cardiovascular system Bloom's: Level 2. Understand HAPS Topic: Module K04 Hemostasis, including coagulation of blood.; Module K16 Predictions related to homeostatic imbalance, including disease states and disorders. HAPS Outcome: K16.01 Predict factors or situations affecting the cardiovascular system that could disrupt homeostasis.; K04.02c Describe the basic steps involved in the formation of the insoluble fibrin clot of hemostasis.; K04.05 Discuss the process of fibrinolysis, including the roles of plasminogen, tissue plasminogen activator and plasmin.
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79) Which of the following statements about blood clotting is FALSE? A) It is the formation of a thrombus. B) It occurs after formation of a platelet plug in a damaged vessel. C) It requires the presence of erythrocytes. D) It is a result of a cascade of enzyme activation. E) It involves positive feedback by thrombin. Answer: C Section: 12.24 Topic: Hemostasis, including coagulation of blood Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module K04 Hemostasis, including coagulation of blood. HAPS Outcome: K04.02c Describe the basic steps involved in the formation of the insoluble fibrin clot of hemostasis. 80) Which of the following statements regarding the dissolving of blood clots is FALSE? A) Activation of the reactions that lead to blood clotting ultimately lead to blood clot dissolution. B) Tissue plasminogen activator (t-PA) is secreted by endothelial cells. C) Blood clots are digested by plasmin. D) Plasminogen is an inactive precursor of the enzyme plasmin. E) It involves aggregation of soluble fibrin fragments into fibrin. Answer: E Section: 12.25 Topic: Hemostasis, including coagulation of blood Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module K04 Hemostasis, including coagulation of blood. HAPS Outcome: K04.02c Describe the basic steps involved in the formation of the insoluble fibrin clot of hemostasis.; K04.05 Discuss the process of fibrinolysis, including the roles of plasminogen, tissue plasminogen activator and plasmin.
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81) Which of the following is NOT an anticoagulant or stimulator of blood clot dissolution? A) Vitamin K B) Aspirin C) Thrombin D) Heparin E) Tissue plasminogen activator (t-PA) Answer: A Section: 12.24; 12.25; 12.26 Topic: Hemostasis, including coagulation of blood; Clinical applications of the cardiovascular system Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module K04 Hemostasis, including coagulation of blood. HAPS Outcome: K04.06 Explain the mechanisms of action and give examples of procoagulants, anticoagulants and fibrinolytic drugs.; K04.04 Explain the role of calcium ions and vitamin K in blood clotting.; K04.05 Discuss the process of fibrinolysis, including the roles of plasminogen, tissue plasminogen activator and plasmin. 82) Which correctly describes functions of protein C? A) It activates platelets and converts prothrombin to thrombin. B) It activates clotting factor XII and platelets. C) It binds to tissue factor and activates clotting factor VII. D) It inactivates thrombin and converts fibrinogen to fibrin. E) It inhibits clot formation and inactivates factors Va and VIIIa. Answer: E Section: 12.24; 12.25 Topic: Hemostasis, including coagulation of blood Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module K04 Hemostasis, including coagulation of blood. HAPS Outcome: K04.02c Describe the basic steps involved in the formation of the insoluble fibrin clot of hemostasis.; K04.06 Explain the mechanisms of action and give examples of procoagulants, anticoagulants and fibrinolytic drugs.
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83) Blood loss is likely to stimulate the secretion of higher than normal plasma levels of erythropoietin. Answer: TRUE Section: 12.01 Topic: Clinical applications of the cardiovascular system Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module K03 Identity, microscopic anatomy, numbers, formation, and functional roles of the formed elements of blood.; Module K15 Application of homeostatic mechanisms.; Module K16 Predictions related to homeostatic imbalance, including disease states and disorders.; Module J05 Identity, source, secretory control, and functional roles of the major hormones produced by the body.; Module P05 Additional endocrine activities of the kidney. HAPS Outcome: J05.08a In the kidney, describe the stimulus for release of erythropoietin and calcitrol (Vitamin D).; K03.02b With respect to development of formed elements, explain the basic process of erythropoiesis, the significance of the reticulocyte, and regulation through erythropoietin.; K15.01 Provide specific examples to demonstrate how the cardiovascular system responds to maintain homeostasis in the body.; K15.02 Explain how the cardiovascular system relates to other body systems to maintain homeostasis.; K16.01 Predict factors or situations affecting the cardiovascular system that could disrupt homeostasis.; P05.02 Describe the role of kidney in regulating erythropoiesis. 84) After physical conditioning at a high altitude, the blood levels of oxygen have been frequently low. In response, the kidneys are secreting higher than normal levels of erythropoietin. Answer: TRUE Section: 12.01 Topic: Clinical applications of the cardiovascular system Bloom's: Level 3. Apply HAPS Topic: Module K03 Identity, microscopic anatomy, numbers, formation, and functional roles of the formed elements of blood.; Module K15 Application of homeostatic mechanisms.; Module K16 Predictions related to homeostatic imbalance, including disease states and disorders.; Module J05 Identity, source, secretory control, and functional roles of the major hormones produced by the body.; Module P05 Additional endocrine activities of the kidney. HAPS Outcome: J05.08a In the kidney, describe the stimulus for release of erythropoietin and calcitrol (Vitamin D).; K03.02b With respect to development of formed elements, explain the basic process of erythropoiesis, the significance of the reticulocyte, and regulation through erythropoietin.; K15.01 Provide specific examples to demonstrate how the cardiovascular system responds to maintain homeostasis in the body.; K15.02 Explain how the cardiovascular system relates to other body systems to maintain homeostasis.; K16.01 Predict factors or situations affecting the cardiovascular system that could disrupt homeostasis.; P05.02 Describe the role of kidney in regulating erythropoiesis.
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85) The primary stimulus for erythropoietin secretion is decreased iron concentrations in the liver. Answer: FALSE Section: 12.01 Topic: Clinical applications of the cardiovascular system Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module K03 Identity, microscopic anatomy, numbers, formation, and functional roles of the formed elements of blood.; Module K15 Application of homeostatic mechanisms.; Module J05 Identity, source, secretory control, and functional roles of the major hormones produced by the body.; Module P05 Additional endocrine activities of the kidney. HAPS Outcome: J05.08a In the kidney, describe the stimulus for release of erythropoietin and calcitrol (Vitamin D).; K03.02b With respect to development of formed elements, explain the basic process of erythropoiesis, the significance of the reticulocyte, and regulation through erythropoietin.; K15.01 Provide specific examples to demonstrate how the cardiovascular system responds to maintain homeostasis in the body.; P05.02 Describe the role of kidney in regulating erythropoiesis. 86) All blood vessels that carry well-oxygenated blood are called arteries. Answer: FALSE Section: 12.01; 12.08 Topic: Anatomy and functional roles of blood vessel types; Pulmonary blood circulation; Systemic blood circulation Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module K08 Blood flow through the heart.; Module K13 Pattern of blood circulation throughout the body, including systemic, pulmonary, coronary, hepatic portal, and fetal circulations. HAPS Outcome: K08.01 Identify the major blood vessels entering and leaving the heart and classify them as either an artery or a vein and as containing either oxygen- rich or oxygen-poor blood.; K13.01b State which blood vessel type carries oxygen-rich blood and which type carries oxygen-poor blood in systemic and pulmonary circuits. 87) At rest, more blood flows per minute to the kidneys and abdominal organs than to the muscles and skin. Answer: TRUE Section: 12.01 Topic: Systemic blood circulation Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module K13 Pattern of blood circulation throughout the body, including systemic, pulmonary, coronary, hepatic portal, and fetal circulations. HAPS Outcome: K13.01a Describe the systemic and pulmonary circuits and discuss the functions of each.
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88) At rest, more blood flows to the skin and abdominal organs than to the lungs. Answer: FALSE Section: 12.01 Topic: Pulmonary blood circulation; Systemic blood circulation Bloom's: Level 2. Understand HAPS Topic: Module K13 Pattern of blood circulation throughout the body, including systemic, pulmonary, coronary, hepatic portal, and fetal circulations. HAPS Outcome: K13.01a Describe the systemic and pulmonary circuits and discuss the functions of each. 89) The myocardial cells receive their blood supply from the coronary arteries that branch off from the aorta. Answer: TRUE Section: 12.03 Topic: Coronary blood circulation Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module K13 Pattern of blood circulation throughout the body, including systemic, pulmonary, coronary, hepatic portal, and fetal circulations. HAPS Outcome: K13.02a Trace blood flow through the coronary circulation from the aorta to the right atrium. 90) An obstruction in one of the coronary arteries would compromise the ability of the myocardial cells to undergo cellular respiration. Answer: TRUE Section: 12.03 Topic: Coronary blood circulation Bloom's: Level 3. Apply HAPS Topic: Module K13 Pattern of blood circulation throughout the body, including systemic, pulmonary, coronary, hepatic portal, and fetal circulations. HAPS Outcome: K13.02a Trace blood flow through the coronary circulation from the aorta to the right atrium. 91) A major difference between cardiac muscle cells and the cells in the cardiac conducting system is that the contractile cells do not undergo spontaneous depolarization. Answer: TRUE Section: 12.04 Topic: Physiology of cardiac muscle contraction and the electrocardiogram; Conduction system of the heart Bloom's: Level 2. Understand HAPS Topic: Module K07 Physiology of cardiac muscle contraction. HAPS Outcome: K07.02 Contrast the way action potentials are generated in cardiac pacemaker cells, in cardiac contractile cells and in skeletal muscle cells. 51 Copyright 2019 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.
92) The sinoatrial node is normally the heart's pacemaker because it has the fastest spontaneous rate of diastolic depolarization. Answer: TRUE Section: 12.04 Topic: Conduction system of the heart Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module K09 Conduction system of the heart and the electrocardiogram. HAPS Outcome: K09.01b In the conduction system of the heart, define automaticity and explain why the SA node normally paces the heart. 93) The wave of ventricular contraction starts at the apex of the heart and travels up toward the base. Answer: TRUE Section: 12.04 Topic: Conduction system of the heart Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module K09 Conduction system of the heart and the electrocardiogram. HAPS Outcome: K09.01c Explain how the cardiac conduction system produces efficient pumping of blood. 94) An ectopic pacemaker is an area of the myocardial conducting system, other than the atrioventricular node, that initiates cardiac depolarization. Answer: FALSE Section: 12.04 Topic: Conduction system of the heart; Clinical applications of the cardiovascular system Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module K09 Conduction system of the heart and the electrocardiogram.; Module K16 Predictions related to homeostatic imbalance, including disease states and disorders. HAPS Outcome: K16.01 Predict factors or situations affecting the cardiovascular system that could disrupt homeostasis.; K09.01a List the parts of the conduction system of the heart and explain how the system functions.; K09.01b In the conduction system of the heart, define automaticity and explain why the SA node normally paces the heart.
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95) The QRS wave of the ECG corresponds to depolarization of the atria. Answer: FALSE Section: 12.04 Topic: Physiology of cardiac muscle contraction and the electrocardiogram; Conduction system of the heart Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module K09 Conduction system of the heart and the electrocardiogram. HAPS Outcome: K09.02b In the electrocardiogram (EKG or ECG), relate the waveforms to atrial and ventricular depolarization and repolarization and to the activity of the conduction system. 96) An electrocardiogram would be definitive for diagnosing diseases involving the valves of the heart. Answer: FALSE Section: 12.04 Topic: Physiology of cardiac muscle contraction and the electrocardiogram; Conduction system of the heart; Clinical applications of the cardiovascular system Bloom's: Level 2. Understand HAPS Topic: Module K09 Conduction system of the heart and the electrocardiogram. HAPS Outcome: K09.02b In the electrocardiogram (EKG or ECG), relate the waveforms to atrial and ventricular depolarization and repolarization and to the activity of the conduction system. 97) Your doctor has determined that you have a leaky right atrioventricular valve. This defect will be detected by an ECG. Answer: FALSE Section: 12.04 Topic: Physiology of cardiac muscle contraction and the electrocardiogram; Conduction system of the heart; Clinical applications of the cardiovascular system Bloom's: Level 3. Apply HAPS Topic: Module K09 Conduction system of the heart and the electrocardiogram. HAPS Outcome: K09.02b In the electrocardiogram (EKG or ECG), relate the waveforms to atrial and ventricular depolarization and repolarization and to the activity of the conduction system.
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98) Cardiac muscle cannot undergo tetanus because its absolute refractory period lasts almost as long as the muscle twitch. Answer: TRUE Section: 12.04 Topic: Physiology of cardiac muscle contraction and the electrocardiogram Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module K07 Physiology of cardiac muscle contraction. HAPS Outcome: K07.03 Explain the significance of the plateau phase in the action potential of a cardiac contractile cell. 99) Sympathetic stimulation of cardiac muscle cells produces stronger and faster contractions because proteins that pump Ca2+ out of the cell are inhibited, which reduces Ca2+ concentration in the sarcoplasm. Answer: FALSE Section: 12.06 Topic: Regulation of cardiac output, stroke volume, and heart rate Bloom's: Level 2. Understand HAPS Topic: Module K09 Conduction system of the heart and the electrocardiogram.; Module K11 Regulation of cardiac output, stroke volume, and heart rate.; Module K14 Blood pressure and its functional interrelationships with cardiac output, peripheral resistance, and hemodynamics. HAPS Outcome: K11.02d Discuss the influence of positive and negative inotropic agents on stroke volume (SV).; K11.03a Discuss the influence of positive and negative chronotropic agents on HR.; K14.10c Explain the role of the sympathetic nervous system in regulation of blood pressure and volume.; K09.01d Describe the role of the autonomic nervous system in the regulation of cardiac function related to the conduction system of the heart. 100) Parasympathetic neurons release acetylcholine onto cells in the atria of the heart, but not onto cells of the ventricles. Answer: TRUE Section: 12.06 Topic: Gross anatomy of the heart; Regulation of cardiac output, stroke volume, and heart rate Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module K11 Regulation of cardiac output, stroke volume, and heart rate.; Module H13 Functions of the autonomic nervous system HAPS Outcome: K11.02d Discuss the influence of positive and negative inotropic agents on stroke volume (SV).; H13.02 Contrast the anatomy of the parasympathetic and sympathetic systems, including central nervous system outflow locations, ganglia locations, pre- and postganglionic neuron relative lengths, and ganglionic and effector neurotransmitters.
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101) A beta-adrenergic receptor blocker will work to both lower the heart rate and the force of ventricular contraction. Answer: TRUE Section: 12.06 Topic: Gross anatomy of the heart; Regulation of cardiac output, stroke volume, and heart rate Bloom's: Level 3. Apply HAPS Topic: Module K11 Regulation of cardiac output, stroke volume, and heart rate.; Module H13 Functions of the autonomic nervous system HAPS Outcome: K11.02d Discuss the influence of positive and negative inotropic agents on stroke volume (SV).; H13.02 Contrast the anatomy of the parasympathetic and sympathetic systems, including central nervous system outflow locations, ganglia locations, pre- and postganglionic neuron relative lengths, and ganglionic and effector neurotransmitters. 102) The determinant of whether heart valves are open or closed is the pressure difference across them. Answer: TRUE Section: 12.05 Topic: Cardiac cycle Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module K10 Cardiac cycle. HAPS Outcome: K10.05 Relate the opening and closing of specific heart valves in each phase of the cardiac cycle to pressure changes in the heart chambers. 103) The left ventricle has to pump more blood than the right ventricle because the left ventricle has to pump blood through the systemic circulation, which is much larger than the pulmonary circulation. Answer: FALSE Section: 12.05; 12.06 Topic: Regulation of cardiac output, stroke volume, and heart rate; Pulmonary blood circulation; Systemic blood circulation Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module K10 Cardiac cycle.; Module K13 Pattern of blood circulation throughout the body, including systemic, pulmonary, coronary, hepatic portal, and fetal circulations. HAPS Outcome: K10.08 Compare and contrast pressure and volume changes of the left and right ventricles during one cardiac cycle.; K13.01a Describe the systemic and pulmonary circuits and discuss the functions of each.
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104) The left ventricle has a thicker wall than the right ventricle because the left ventricle has to pump blood against a higher pressure. Answer: TRUE Section: 12.05 Topic: Gross anatomy of the heart; Cardiac cycle; Pulmonary blood circulation; Systemic blood circulation Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module K10 Cardiac cycle. HAPS Outcome: K10.08 Compare and contrast pressure and volume changes of the left and right ventricles during one cardiac cycle. 105) The only time during the cardiac cycle that the AV valves are open is systole. Answer: FALSE Section: 12.05 Topic: Cardiac cycle Bloom's: Level 2. Understand HAPS Topic: Module K06 Gross and microscopic anatomy of the heart.; Module K10 Cardiac cycle. HAPS Outcome: K06.03 Identify and describe the function of the primary internal structures of the heart, including chambers, septa, valves, papillary muscles, chordae tendineae, and venous and arterial openings.; K10.02 Describe the phases of the cardiac cycle including ventricular filling, isovolumetric contraction, ventricular ejection, and isovolumetric relaxation.; K10.01 Define cardiac cycle, systole, and diastole.; K10.05 Relate the opening and closing of specific heart valves in each phase of the cardiac cycle to pressure changes in the heart chambers. 106) During most of systole, left ventricular pressure exceeds aortic pressure, causing blood ejection. Answer: TRUE Section: 12.05 Topic: Cardiac cycle Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module K10 Cardiac cycle. HAPS Outcome: K10.02 Describe the phases of the cardiac cycle including ventricular filling, isovolumetric contraction, ventricular ejection, and isovolumetric relaxation.; K10.01 Define cardiac cycle, systole, and diastole.; K10.05 Relate the opening and closing of specific heart valves in each phase of the cardiac cycle to pressure changes in the heart chambers.
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107) Long-term studies show that the risk for heart attack and stroke doubles for every 20 mm increase in diastolic pressure and 10 mmHg in systolic pressure. Answer: TRUE Section: 12.19 Topic: Blood pressure, peripheral resistance, and hemodynamics; Clinical applications of the cardiovascular system Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module K16 Predictions related to homeostatic imbalance, including disease states and disorders. HAPS Outcome: K16.01 Predict factors or situations affecting the cardiovascular system that could disrupt homeostasis.; K16.02 Predict the types of problems that would occur in the body if the cardiovascular system could not maintain homeostasis. 108) Normal heart sounds are produced by vibrations caused by the closing of the AV valves at the end of diastole and the closing of the aortic and pulmonary valves at the end of systole. Answer: TRUE Section: 12.05 Topic: Cardiac cycle Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module K06 Gross and microscopic anatomy of the heart.; Module K10 Cardiac cycle. HAPS Outcome: K06.03 Identify and describe the function of the primary internal structures of the heart, including chambers, septa, valves, papillary muscles, chordae tendineae, and venous and arterial openings.; K10.06 Relate the heart sounds to the events of the cardiac cycle.; K10.01 Define cardiac cycle, systole, and diastole. 109) The inherent pacemaker discharge rate of the sinoatrial node is 72 beats per minute. Answer: FALSE Section: 12.04 Topic: Conduction system of the heart; Regulation of cardiac output, stroke volume, and heart rate Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module K09 Conduction system of the heart and the electrocardiogram. HAPS Outcome: K09.01b In the conduction system of the heart, define automaticity and explain why the SA node normally paces the heart.
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110) Stimulation of parasympathetic nerves releases epinephrine into the blood plasma. Answer: FALSE Section: 12.03 Topic: Functions of the autonomic nervous system Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module H13 Functions of the autonomic nervous system HAPS Outcome: H13.02 Contrast the anatomy of the parasympathetic and sympathetic systems, including central nervous system outflow locations, ganglia locations, pre- and postganglionic neuron relative lengths, and ganglionic and effector neurotransmitters. 111) Sympathetic stimulation of the heart increases action potential conduction velocity through the AV node. Answer: TRUE Section: 12.04; 12.06 Topic: Conduction system of the heart; Regulation of cardiac output, stroke volume, and heart rate Bloom's: Level 2. Understand HAPS Topic: Module K09 Conduction system of the heart and the electrocardiogram. HAPS Outcome: K09.01d Describe the role of the autonomic nervous system in the regulation of cardiac function related to the conduction system of the heart. 112) The Frank-Starling mechanism of the heart states that an increased venous return will normally result in a higher heart rate. Answer: FALSE Section: 12.06 Topic: Regulation of cardiac output, stroke volume, and heart rate; Venous blood return Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module K11 Regulation of cardiac output, stroke volume, and heart rate. HAPS Outcome: K11.02c Explain the significance of the Frank-Starling Law of the heart in relation to stroke volume. 113) The stroke volume of the heart can be increased by recruiting more cardiac muscle fibers into activity. Answer: FALSE Section: 12.06 Topic: Regulation of cardiac output, stroke volume, and heart rate Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module K11 Regulation of cardiac output, stroke volume, and heart rate. HAPS Outcome: K11.02b Define venous return, preload and afterload, and explain the factors that affect them as well as how each of them affects EDV, ESV and SV.
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114) The Frank-Starling curve for heart muscle is analogous to a length-tension curve in skeletal muscle. Answer: TRUE Section: 12.06 Topic: Regulation of cardiac output, stroke volume, and heart rate Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module K11 Regulation of cardiac output, stroke volume, and heart rate.; Module G06 Principles and types of whole muscle contraction HAPS Outcome: K11.02b Define venous return, preload and afterload, and explain the factors that affect them as well as how each of them affects EDV, ESV and SV.; K11.02c Explain the significance of the Frank-Starling Law of the heart in relation to stroke volume.; G06.04c With respect to the mechanisms by which muscles generate variable amounts of tension, interpret a graph of the length-tension relationship and discuss the anatomical basis for that relationship. 115) Ventricular contractility is the strength of ventricular contraction at any given end-diastolic volume. Answer: TRUE Section: 12.06 Topic: Regulation of cardiac output, stroke volume, and heart rate Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module K11 Regulation of cardiac output, stroke volume, and heart rate. HAPS Outcome: K11.02a Define end diastolic volume (EDV) and end systolic volume (ESV) and calculate stroke volume (SV) given values for EDV and ESV.; K11.02d Discuss the influence of positive and negative inotropic agents on stroke volume (SV). 116) Systolic pressure is the peak pressure in systemic arteries and occurs at the beginning of systole. Answer: FALSE Section: 12.05; 12.08 Topic: Cardiac cycle; Blood pressure, peripheral resistance, and hemodynamics Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module K10 Cardiac cycle. HAPS Outcome: K10.01 Define cardiac cycle, systole, and diastole.; K10.07 Define systolic and diastolic blood pressure and interpret a graph of aortic pressure versus time during the cardiac cycle.
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117) Mean arterial pressure is most accurately calculated by determining the average of the systolic and diastolic pressures. Answer: FALSE Section: 12.08 Topic: Blood pressure, peripheral resistance, and hemodynamics Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module K14 Blood pressure and its functional interrelationships with cardiac output, peripheral resistance, and hemodynamics. HAPS Outcome: K14.06 Given values for systolic and diastolic blood pressure, calculate pulse pressure (PP) and mean arterial pressure (MAP). 118) The flow rate of blood through an organ is in part determined by the relative dilation or constriction of arterioles in that organ. Answer: TRUE Section: 12.02; 12.09 Topic: Anatomy and functional roles of blood vessel types; Blood pressure, peripheral resistance, and hemodynamics Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module K12 Anatomy and functional roles of the different types of blood vessels.; Module K14 Blood pressure and its functional interrelationships with cardiac output, peripheral resistance, and hemodynamics. HAPS Outcome: K14.02 State and interpret the equation that relates blood flow to pressure and resistance.; K12.03 Describe the role of arterioles in regulating tissue blood flow and systemic arterial blood pressure. 119) The smooth muscle in arteriole walls can be stimulated either to contract or to relax, thereby either decreasing or increasing the amount of blood flowing through arteriolar beds. Answer: TRUE Section: 12.02; 12.09 Topic: Anatomy and functional roles of blood vessel types; Blood pressure, peripheral resistance, and hemodynamics Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module K12 Anatomy and functional roles of the different types of blood vessels.; Module K14 Blood pressure and its functional interrelationships with cardiac output, peripheral resistance, and hemodynamics. HAPS Outcome: K14.02 State and interpret the equation that relates blood flow to pressure and resistance.; K12.03 Describe the role of arterioles in regulating tissue blood flow and systemic arterial blood pressure.
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120) The hydrostatic pressure difference between the plasma inside the capillary beds and the interstitial fluid surrounding the cells favors filtration of fluid. Answer: TRUE Section: 12.10 Topic: Capillary exchange Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module K14 Blood pressure and its functional interrelationships with cardiac output, peripheral resistance, and hemodynamics.; Module Q04 Movements between the major fluid compartments. HAPS Outcome: K14.07c Describe how net filtration pressure across the capillary wall determines movement of fluid across the capillary wall.; Q04.02 Describe the forces that affect capillary filtration, including the determinants of each force.; K14.07b Explain the roles of filtration and reabsorption in capillary exchange of fluid. 121) The protein osmotic pressure difference between the plasma inside the capillary beds and the interstitial fluid surrounding the cells favors filtration of fluid. Answer: FALSE Section: 12.01; 12.10 Topic: Composition of blood plasma; Capillary exchange Bloom's: Level 2. Understand HAPS Topic: Module K02 Composition of blood plasma.; Module K14 Blood pressure and its functional interrelationships with cardiac output, peripheral resistance, and hemodynamics.; Module Q04 Movements between the major fluid compartments.; Module L02 Lymph and lymphatic vessels. HAPS Outcome: K14.07c Describe how net filtration pressure across the capillary wall determines movement of fluid across the capillary wall.; Q04.02 Describe the forces that affect capillary filtration, including the determinants of each force.; K02.01 Describe the overall composition of plasma, including the major types of plasma proteins, their functions and where in the body they are produced.; K14.07b Explain the roles of filtration and reabsorption in capillary exchange of fluid.; L02.01 Compare and contrast whole blood, plasma, interstitial fluid, and lymph. 122) The amount of nutrients and waste products moved across the capillary wall by bulk flow is greater than the amount that diffuses across under normal conditions. Answer: FALSE Section: 12.10 Topic: Capillary exchange Bloom's: Level 2. Understand HAPS Topic: Module K14 Blood pressure and its functional interrelationships with cardiac output, peripheral resistance, and hemodynamics. HAPS Outcome: K14.07a Explain the role of diffusion in capillary exchange of gases, nutrients, and wastes.
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123) Strong vasoconstriction of arterioles will probably result in greater filtration of fluid from the plasma of capillary beds downstream. Answer: FALSE Section: 12.02; 12.09; 12.10 Topic: Anatomy and functional roles of blood vessel types; Capillary exchange Bloom's: Level 2. Understand HAPS Topic: Module K12 Anatomy and functional roles of the different types of blood vessels.; Module K14 Blood pressure and its functional interrelationships with cardiac output, peripheral resistance, and hemodynamics.; Module Q04 Movements between the major fluid compartments. HAPS Outcome: K14.07c Describe how net filtration pressure across the capillary wall determines movement of fluid across the capillary wall.; Q04.02 Describe the forces that affect capillary filtration, including the determinants of each force.; K12.02c Define vasoconstriction, vasodilation, and venoconstriction.; K12.03 Describe the role of arterioles in regulating tissue blood flow and systemic arterial blood pressure. 124) Valves are important for promoting one-way flow of blood through the heart and some large veins. Answer: TRUE Section: 12.03; 12.11 Topic: Gross anatomy of the heart; Blood flow through the heart; Anatomy and functional roles of blood vessel types Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module K06 Gross and microscopic anatomy of the heart.; Module K08 Blood flow through the heart.; Module K12 Anatomy and functional roles of the different types of blood vessels. HAPS Outcome: K06.03 Identify and describe the function of the primary internal structures of the heart, including chambers, septa, valves, papillary muscles, chordae tendineae, and venous and arterial openings.; K12.02b Correlate the anatomical structure of each type of blood vessel with its function.; K08.03 Explain the major factors that aid in movement of blood through the heart and produce one-way flow.
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125) The main homeostatically regulated variable of the cardiovascular system is the mean systemic arterial blood pressure. Answer: TRUE Section: 12.08; 12.13 Topic: Blood pressure, peripheral resistance, and hemodynamics Bloom's: Level 2. Understand HAPS Topic: Module K14 Blood pressure and its functional interrelationships with cardiac output, peripheral resistance, and hemodynamics.; Module K15 Application of homeostatic mechanisms. HAPS Outcome: K15.01 Provide specific examples to demonstrate how the cardiovascular system responds to maintain homeostasis in the body.; K14.10a During the baroreceptor reflex, explain how cardiac output and peripheral resistance are regulated to maintain adequate blood pressure on a moment-to-moment basis. 126) Total peripheral resistance in the circulatory system is primarily determined by the degree of vasoconstriction in the veins. Answer: FALSE Section: 12.09; 12.11; 12.13 Topic: Anatomy and functional roles of blood vessel types; Blood pressure, peripheral resistance, and hemodynamics Bloom's: Level 2. Understand HAPS Topic: Module K12 Anatomy and functional roles of the different types of blood vessels.; Module K14 Blood pressure and its functional interrelationships with cardiac output, peripheral resistance, and hemodynamics. HAPS Outcome: K12.02b Correlate the anatomical structure of each type of blood vessel with its function.; K14.10a During the baroreceptor reflex, explain how cardiac output and peripheral resistance are regulated to maintain adequate blood pressure on a moment-to-moment basis.; K12.02c Define vasoconstriction, vasodilation, and venoconstriction.; K12.03 Describe the role of arterioles in regulating tissue blood flow and systemic arterial blood pressure.
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127) Increasing the mean arterial pressure or the pulse pressure in the carotid artery will cause decreased firing of action potentials in the afferent neurons associated with the baroreceptors. Answer: FALSE Section: 12.13 Topic: Blood pressure, peripheral resistance, and hemodynamics Bloom's: Level 2. Understand HAPS Topic: Module K14 Blood pressure and its functional interrelationships with cardiac output, peripheral resistance, and hemodynamics.; Module K15 Application of homeostatic mechanisms.; Module H06.02 Sensory receptors and their roles HAPS Outcome: K15.01 Provide specific examples to demonstrate how the cardiovascular system responds to maintain homeostasis in the body.; K14.10a During the baroreceptor reflex, explain how cardiac output and peripheral resistance are regulated to maintain adequate blood pressure on a moment-to-moment basis.; H06.02 Describe each of the following types of receptors, indicating what sensation it detects and giving an example of where it can be found in the body: pain receptors (nociceptors), temperature receptors, mechanoreceptors (including proprioceptors and baroreceptors/pressoreceptors), chemoreceptors, and photoreceptors. 128) The medullary cardiovascular center is the only part of the brain involved with the regulation of blood pressure. Answer: FALSE Section: 12.13; 12.15 Topic: Blood pressure, peripheral resistance, and hemodynamics Bloom's: Level 2. Understand HAPS Topic: Module K14 Blood pressure and its functional interrelationships with cardiac output, peripheral resistance, and hemodynamics.; Module K15 Application of homeostatic mechanisms.; Module H07 Division, origin, and function of component parts of the brain HAPS Outcome: K15.02 Explain how the cardiovascular system relates to other body systems to maintain homeostasis.; K14.10a During the baroreceptor reflex, explain how cardiac output and peripheral resistance are regulated to maintain adequate blood pressure on a moment-tomoment basis.; K14.10c Explain the role of the sympathetic nervous system in regulation of blood pressure and volume.; H07.02 Correlate functions with each major area of the adult brain.
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129) The condition of shock is an example of failure of homeostatic mechanisms to compensate when one or more parts of the reflex control system are damaged. Answer: TRUE Section: 12.16 Topic: Blood pressure, peripheral resistance, and hemodynamics; Clinical applications of the cardiovascular system Bloom's: Level 3. Apply HAPS Topic: Module K14 Blood pressure and its functional interrelationships with cardiac output, peripheral resistance, and hemodynamics.; Module K16 Predictions related to homeostatic imbalance, including disease states and disorders. HAPS Outcome: K16.01 Predict factors or situations affecting the cardiovascular system that could disrupt homeostasis.; K16.02 Predict the types of problems that would occur in the body if the cardiovascular system could not maintain homeostasis.; K14.10a During the baroreceptor reflex, explain how cardiac output and peripheral resistance are regulated to maintain adequate blood pressure on a moment-to-moment basis. 130) An athlete who is nearing the end of a 2-kilometer run would be expected to have both an increased mean arterial blood pressure and an increased total peripheral resistance. Answer: FALSE Section: 12.18 Topic: Blood pressure, peripheral resistance, and hemodynamics Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module K14 Blood pressure and its functional interrelationships with cardiac output, peripheral resistance, and hemodynamics.; Module K15 Application of homeostatic mechanisms. HAPS Outcome: K15.01 Provide specific examples to demonstrate how the cardiovascular system responds to maintain homeostasis in the body.; K14.10a During the baroreceptor reflex, explain how cardiac output and peripheral resistance are regulated to maintain adequate blood pressure on a moment-to-moment basis.
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131) During exercise, sympathetic stimulation of the heart and arteriolar smooth muscle is enhanced because of reflexes triggered by elevated mean arterial pressure and elevated pulse pressure. Answer: FALSE Section: 12.18 Topic: Blood pressure, peripheral resistance, and hemodynamics Bloom's: Level 3. Apply HAPS Topic: Module K14 Blood pressure and its functional interrelationships with cardiac output, peripheral resistance, and hemodynamics.; Module K15 Application of homeostatic mechanisms. HAPS Outcome: K15.01 Provide specific examples to demonstrate how the cardiovascular system responds to maintain homeostasis in the body.; K14.10a During the baroreceptor reflex, explain how cardiac output and peripheral resistance are regulated to maintain adequate blood pressure on a moment-to-moment basis.; K14.10c Explain the role of the sympathetic nervous system in regulation of blood pressure and volume. 132) Hypertension is often treated with drugs that increase total peripheral resistance. Answer: FALSE Section: 12.19 Topic: Blood pressure, peripheral resistance, and hemodynamics; Clinical applications of the cardiovascular system Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module K14 Blood pressure and its functional interrelationships with cardiac output, peripheral resistance, and hemodynamics.; Module K16 Predictions related to homeostatic imbalance, including disease states and disorders. HAPS Outcome: K16.01 Predict factors or situations affecting the cardiovascular system that could disrupt homeostasis.; K16.02 Predict the types of problems that would occur in the body if the cardiovascular system could not maintain homeostasis.; K14.10a During the baroreceptor reflex, explain how cardiac output and peripheral resistance are regulated to maintain adequate blood pressure on a moment-to-moment basis.; K14.10c Explain the role of the sympathetic nervous system in regulation of blood pressure and volume.; K14.10d Explain the role of hormones in regulation of blood pressure, including the mechanism by which specific hormones affect preload, heart rate, inotropic state or vascular resistance.
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133) In a failing heart, stroke volume does not increase as steeply when end-diastolic volume increases. Answer: TRUE Section: 12.20 Topic: Regulation of cardiac output, stroke volume, and heart rate; Clinical applications of the cardiovascular system Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module K11 Regulation of cardiac output, stroke volume, and heart rate.; Module K16 Predictions related to homeostatic imbalance, including disease states and disorders. HAPS Outcome: K16.01 Predict factors or situations affecting the cardiovascular system that could disrupt homeostasis.; K11.02a Define end diastolic volume (EDV) and end systolic volume (ESV) and calculate stroke volume (SV) given values for EDV and ESV.; K11.02b Define venous return, preload and afterload, and explain the factors that affect them as well as how each of them affects EDV, ESV and SV.; K16.02 Predict the types of problems that would occur in the body if the cardiovascular system could not maintain homeostasis. 134) In a patient with heart failure, doctors are likely to observe a lower ejection fraction. Answer: TRUE Section: 12.20 Topic: Regulation of cardiac output, stroke volume, and heart rate; Clinical applications of the cardiovascular system Bloom's: Level 3. Apply HAPS Topic: Module K11 Regulation of cardiac output, stroke volume, and heart rate.; Module K16 Predictions related to homeostatic imbalance, including disease states and disorders. HAPS Outcome: K16.01 Predict factors or situations affecting the cardiovascular system that could disrupt homeostasis.; K11.02a Define end diastolic volume (EDV) and end systolic volume (ESV) and calculate stroke volume (SV) given values for EDV and ESV.; K11.02b Define venous return, preload and afterload, and explain the factors that affect them as well as how each of them affects EDV, ESV and SV.; K16.02 Predict the types of problems that would occur in the body if the cardiovascular system could not maintain homeostasis.
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135) Sarah was in a bike accident and is bleeding severely. In order to maintain blood pressure and compensate for the blood loss, her heart rate will increase. Answer: TRUE Section: 12.19 Topic: Blood pressure, peripheral resistance, and hemodynamics; Clinical applications of the cardiovascular system Bloom's: Level 3. Apply HAPS Topic: Module K14 Blood pressure and its functional interrelationships with cardiac output, peripheral resistance, and hemodynamics.; Module K16 Predictions related to homeostatic imbalance, including disease states and disorders. HAPS Outcome: K16.01 Predict factors or situations affecting the cardiovascular system that could disrupt homeostasis.; K14.10a During the baroreceptor reflex, explain how cardiac output and peripheral resistance are regulated to maintain adequate blood pressure on a moment-tomoment basis.; K14.10c Explain the role of the sympathetic nervous system in regulation of blood pressure and volume. 136) Left ventricular failure often results in increased net pulmonary capillary filtration into the interstitial fluid of the lungs and decreased diffusional exchange of O2 and CO2 between lung and blood. Answer: TRUE Section: 12.20 Topic: Capillary exchange; Clinical applications of the cardiovascular system Bloom's: Level 2. Understand HAPS Topic: Module K08 Blood flow through the heart.; Module K14 Blood pressure and its functional interrelationships with cardiac output, peripheral resistance, and hemodynamics.; Module K16 Predictions related to homeostatic imbalance, including disease states and disorders.; Module Q04 Movements between the major fluid compartments.; Module M05 Mechanisms of gas exchange in the lungs and tissues HAPS Outcome: K16.01 Predict factors or situations affecting the cardiovascular system that could disrupt homeostasis.; K16.02 Predict the types of problems that would occur in the body if the cardiovascular system could not maintain homeostasis.; K14.07c Describe how net filtration pressure across the capillary wall determines movement of fluid across the capillary wall.; Q04.02 Describe the forces that affect capillary filtration, including the determinants of each force.; K14.07d Relate net filtration pressure to potential edema and the need for a functional lymphatic system.; K08.02 Describe blood flow through the heart naming all chambers and valves passed.; M05.02b With respect to external respiration, analyze how oxygen and carbon dioxide movements are affected by changes in partial pressure gradients (e.g., at high altitude), surface area, diffusion distance, and solubility and molecular weight of the gases.
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137) Increased concentrations of plasma proteins, increased venous pressure, and lymphatic obstruction all tend to cause tissue edema. Answer: FALSE Section: 12.10; 12.12 Topic: Capillary exchange; Clinical applications of the cardiovascular system Bloom's: Level 2. Understand HAPS Topic: Module K02 Composition of blood plasma.; Module K14 Blood pressure and its functional interrelationships with cardiac output, peripheral resistance, and hemodynamics.; Module K16 Predictions related to homeostatic imbalance, including disease states and disorders.; Module Q04 Movements between the major fluid compartments. HAPS Outcome: K16.01 Predict factors or situations affecting the cardiovascular system that could disrupt homeostasis.; K16.02 Predict the types of problems that would occur in the body if the cardiovascular system could not maintain homeostasis.; K14.07c Describe how net filtration pressure across the capillary wall determines movement of fluid across the capillary wall.; Q04.02 Describe the forces that affect capillary filtration, including the determinants of each force.; K02.01 Describe the overall composition of plasma, including the major types of plasma proteins, their functions and where in the body they are produced.; K14.07b Explain the roles of filtration and reabsorption in capillary exchange of fluid.; K14.07d Relate net filtration pressure to potential edema and the need for a functional lymphatic system. 138) Hemostatic mechanisms can generally stop blood loss from a small vein that is cut. Answer: TRUE Section: 12.11; 12.23; 12.24 Topic: Hemostasis, including coagulation of blood; Clinical applications of the cardiovascular system Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module K04 Hemostasis, including coagulation of blood.; Module K12 Anatomy and functional roles of the different types of blood vessels.; Module K15 Application of homeostatic mechanisms.; Module K16 Predictions related to homeostatic imbalance, including disease states and disorders. HAPS Outcome: K15.01 Provide specific examples to demonstrate how the cardiovascular system responds to maintain homeostasis in the body.; K16.01 Predict factors or situations affecting the cardiovascular system that could disrupt homeostasis.; K12.02b Correlate the anatomical structure of each type of blood vessel with its function.; K04.02b Describe the role of platelets and the steps involved in the formation of the platelet plug of hemostasis.; K04.02c Describe the basic steps involved in the formation of the insoluble fibrin clot of hemostasis.
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139) The function of the platelet plug is to block the blood vessel so that blood cannot flow through it. Answer: FALSE Section: 12.23 Topic: Hemostasis, including coagulation of blood Bloom's: Level 2. Understand HAPS Topic: Module K04 Hemostasis, including coagulation of blood. HAPS Outcome: K04.02b Describe the role of platelets and the steps involved in the formation of the platelet plug of hemostasis. 140) Chemical mediators released from platelet granules and plasma membranes stimulate contraction of vascular smooth muscle. Answer: TRUE Section: 12.23 Topic: Hemostasis, including coagulation of blood Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module K03 Identity, microscopic anatomy, numbers, formation, and functional roles of the formed elements of blood.; Module K04 Hemostasis, including coagulation of blood. HAPS Outcome: K04.02b Describe the role of platelets and the steps involved in the formation of the platelet plug of hemostasis.; K03.03d With respect to the functional roles of formed elements, state the function of platelets.; K04.02a Describe the vascular phase including the role of endothelial cells of hemostasis. 141) A blood clot is essentially an intricate network of interlacing strands of thrombin. Answer: FALSE Section: 12.24 Topic: Hemostasis, including coagulation of blood Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module K04 Hemostasis, including coagulation of blood. HAPS Outcome: K04.02c Describe the basic steps involved in the formation of the insoluble fibrin clot of hemostasis.
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142) In the clotting cascade, thrombin feeds back and further stimulates its own activation, which is a positive feedback mechanism. Answer: TRUE Section: 12.24 Topic: Hemostasis, including coagulation of blood Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module K04 Hemostasis, including coagulation of blood. HAPS Outcome: K04.02c Describe the basic steps involved in the formation of the insoluble fibrin clot of hemostasis.; K04.02d Differentiate between the intrinsic and extrinsic clotting mechanisms of hemostasis.; K04.03 Explain how the positive feedback loops in the platelet and coagulation phases promote hemostasis. 143) In the clotting cascade, factor Xa helps convert prothrombin to thrombin. Answer: TRUE Section: 12.24 Topic: Hemostasis, including coagulation of blood Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module K04 Hemostasis, including coagulation of blood. HAPS Outcome: K04.02c Describe the basic steps involved in the formation of the insoluble fibrin clot of hemostasis.; K04.02d Differentiate between the intrinsic and extrinsic clotting mechanisms of hemostasis. 144) The Starling forces, which influence bulk flow of fluid between capillary plasma and interstitial fluid, are identical everywhere in the body. Answer: FALSE Section: 12.10 Topic: Capillary exchange Bloom's: Level 2. Understand HAPS Topic: Module K14 Blood pressure and its functional interrelationships with cardiac output, peripheral resistance, and hemodynamics.; Module Q04 Movements between the major fluid compartments. HAPS Outcome: Q04.02 Describe the forces that affect capillary filtration, including the determinants of each force.; K14.07b Explain the roles of filtration and reabsorption in capillary exchange of fluid.
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145) When arterioles constrict, it raises arterial blood pressure and increases the volume of forward flow into the veins, while constriction in veins reduces forward flow by decreasing pressure in the atria. Answer: FALSE Section: 12.09; 12.11; 12.13 Topic: Anatomy and functional roles of blood vessel types; Venous blood return; Blood pressure, peripheral resistance, and hemodynamics Bloom's: Level 2. Understand HAPS Topic: Module K11 Regulation of cardiac output, stroke volume, and heart rate.; Module K12 Anatomy and functional roles of the different types of blood vessels.; Module K14 Blood pressure and its functional interrelationships with cardiac output, peripheral resistance, and hemodynamics. HAPS Outcome: K11.02b Define venous return, preload and afterload, and explain the factors that affect them as well as how each of them affects EDV, ESV and SV.; K14.02 State and interpret the equation that relates blood flow to pressure and resistance.; K12.03 Describe the role of arterioles in regulating tissue blood flow and systemic arterial blood pressure. 146) The term AED (Automatic Electronic Defibrillator) refers to a recently developed device used to regulate blood pressure with the surprise benefit of being useful in contraception with some individuals within a narrowly defined age group. Answer: FALSE Section: 12.22 Topic: Physiology of cardiac muscle contraction and the electrocardiogram; Clinical applications of the cardiovascular system Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module K16 Predictions related to homeostatic imbalance, including disease states and disorders. HAPS Outcome: K16.01 Predict factors or situations affecting the cardiovascular system that could disrupt homeostasis. 147) Thrombin is inactivated when it binds to heparin. Answer: FALSE Section: 12.25 Topic: Hemostasis, including coagulation of blood Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module K04 Hemostasis, including coagulation of blood. HAPS Outcome: K04.06 Explain the mechanisms of action and give examples of procoagulants, anticoagulants and fibrinolytic drugs.
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148) The adaptive value of having a complex cascade system for blood clotting is that a defect of one participant in the cascade can be corrected by another enzyme later in the cascade. Answer: FALSE Section: 12.24 Topic: Hemostasis, including coagulation of blood Bloom's: Level 2. Understand HAPS Topic: Module K04 Hemostasis, including coagulation of blood. HAPS Outcome: K04.02c Describe the basic steps involved in the formation of the insoluble fibrin clot of hemostasis.; K04.02d Differentiate between the intrinsic and extrinsic clotting mechanisms of hemostasis. 149) Which of the following is a feature of erythrocytes? A) Produce infection-fighting proteins B) Have a high surface-to-volume ratio C) Carry oxygen and carbon dioxide in blood D) Are large in size E) When mature, have no nucleus Answer: B, C, E Section: 12.01 Topic: Microscopic anatomy of formed elements of blood; Functional roles of formed elements of blood Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module K03 Identity, microscopic anatomy, numbers, formation, and functional roles of the formed elements of blood.; Module M06 Mechanisms of gas transport in blood HAPS Outcome: M06.01a With respect to oxygen transport, describe the ways in which oxygen is transported in blood and discuss the relative importance of each to total oxygen transport.; K03.01b With respect to the structure and numbers of formed elements in blood, compare and contrast the morphological features of erythrocytes and the five types of leukocytes.; K03.03a With respect to the functional roles of formed elements, state the function of red blood cells.; M06.03a With respect to carbon dioxide transport, describe the ways in which carbon dioxide is transported in blood and discuss the relative importance of each to total carbon dioxide transport.
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150) Mr. Saunders has been diagnosed with bundle branch block following an infection in his heart. This means that action potential propagation through the bundle of His is compromised. Which of the following would be TRUE? A) There would be a slowing of the frequency of contraction of the ventricles. B) The ventricles would contract more frequently than the atria. C) The SA node would no longer set the pace for ventricular contraction. D) The atria and ventricles would no longer beat in synchrony. E) The Purkinje fibers would not receive their typical action potential frequency from the bundle branches. Answer: A, C, D, E Section: 12.04 Topic: Conduction system of the heart; Clinical applications of the cardiovascular system Bloom's: Level 3. Apply HAPS Topic: Module K09 Conduction system of the heart and the electrocardiogram.; Module K16 Predictions related to homeostatic imbalance, including disease states and disorders. HAPS Outcome: K16.01 Predict factors or situations affecting the cardiovascular system that could disrupt homeostasis.; K16.02 Predict the types of problems that would occur in the body if the cardiovascular system could not maintain homeostasis.; K09.01a List the parts of the conduction system of the heart and explain how the system functions. 151) The frequency of action potentials generated by the SA node will be increased by which of the following factors? A) Parasympathetic stimulation B) Sympathetic stimulation C) Acetylcholine D) Epinephrine E) All of these would increase the frequency. Answer: B, D Section: 12.06 Topic: Regulation of cardiac output, stroke volume, and heart rate Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module K09 Conduction system of the heart and the electrocardiogram.; Module K11 Regulation of cardiac output, stroke volume, and heart rate.; Module K14 Blood pressure and its functional interrelationships with cardiac output, peripheral resistance, and hemodynamics.; Module H13 Functions of the autonomic nervous system HAPS Outcome: K11.03a Discuss the influence of positive and negative chronotropic agents on HR.; K14.10a During the baroreceptor reflex, explain how cardiac output and peripheral resistance are regulated to maintain adequate blood pressure on a moment-to-moment basis.; H13.02 Contrast the anatomy of the parasympathetic and sympathetic systems, including central nervous system outflow locations, ganglia locations, pre- and post-ganglionic neuron relative lengths, and ganglionic and effector neurotransmitters.; K09.01d Describe the role of the autonomic nervous system in the regulation of cardiac function related to the conduction system of the heart.; H13.09 Describe major parasympathetic and/or sympathetic physiological effects on target organs. 74 Copyright 2019 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.
152) You have a patient who comes in with uncomfortable edema in his lower right leg. Which of the following are possible causes? A) Blockage of lymph vessels B) Prolonged standing C) Liver disease D) Decreased local metabolism E) Elevated plasma protein concentrations Answer: A, B, C Section: 12.10; 12.11; 12.12; 12.20 Topic: Capillary exchange; Clinical applications of the cardiovascular system Bloom's: Level 3. Apply HAPS Topic: Module K02 Composition of blood plasma.; Module K14 Blood pressure and its functional interrelationships with cardiac output, peripheral resistance, and hemodynamics.; Module K16 Predictions related to homeostatic imbalance, including disease states and disorders.; Module Q04 Movements between the major fluid compartments.; Module L02 Lymph and lymphatic vessels. HAPS Outcome: K16.01 Predict factors or situations affecting the cardiovascular system that could disrupt homeostasis.; K16.02 Predict the types of problems that would occur in the body if the cardiovascular system could not maintain homeostasis.; K14.07c Describe how net filtration pressure across the capillary wall determines movement of fluid across the capillary wall.; Q04.02 Describe the forces that affect capillary filtration, including the determinants of each force.; K02.01 Describe the overall composition of plasma, including the major types of plasma proteins, their functions and where in the body they are produced.; K14.07d Relate net filtration pressure to potential edema and the need for a functional lymphatic system.; L02.01 Compare and contrast whole blood, plasma, interstitial fluid, and lymph.
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153) Jane donates a pint of blood to a blood bank. A few minutes later, which of the following would be increased compared to pre-donation values? A) Heart rate B) Total peripheral resistance C) Mean arterial pressure D) Cardiac output E) Hydrostatic pressure in the capillaries Answer: A, B Section: 12.10; 12.13; 12.16 Topic: Regulation of cardiac output, stroke volume, and heart rate; Capillary exchange; Blood pressure, peripheral resistance, and hemodynamics; Clinical applications of the cardiovascular system Bloom's: Level 3. Apply HAPS Topic: Module K14 Blood pressure and its functional interrelationships with cardiac output, peripheral resistance, and hemodynamics.; Module K15 Application of homeostatic mechanisms.; Module K16 Predictions related to homeostatic imbalance, including disease states and disorders.; Module Q04 Movements between the major fluid compartments. HAPS Outcome: K15.01 Provide specific examples to demonstrate how the cardiovascular system responds to maintain homeostasis in the body.; K16.01 Predict factors or situations affecting the cardiovascular system that could disrupt homeostasis.; K14.07c Describe how net filtration pressure across the capillary wall determines movement of fluid across the capillary wall.; Q04.02 Describe the forces that affect capillary filtration, including the determinants of each force.; K14.10a During the baroreceptor reflex, explain how cardiac output and peripheral resistance are regulated to maintain adequate blood pressure on a moment-to-moment basis.; K14.10c Explain the role of the sympathetic nervous system in regulation of blood pressure and volume.
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Vander's Human Physiology, 15e (Widmaier) Chapter 13 Respiratory Physiology 1) Which of the following is NOT a function of the respiratory system? A) Net uptake of carbon dioxide from the air and removal of oxygen from the blood B) Regulation of blood H+ concentration C) Trapping of blood clots D) Phonation E) Defense against microbes 2) Which is TRUE about the pleural sac? A) It is continuous with the atmosphere and protects the lungs from infection. B) It is a closed sac surrounding each lung that contains only a tiny volume of lubricating fluid. C) It is a closed sac surrounding each lung and contains a large volume of surfactant. D) It is a closed, air-filled space surrounding both lungs that has a negative pressure compared to atmospheric pressure. E) It is bounded by pleural membranes that are very thin, which allows for abundant gas exchange. 3) Which structure is NOT part of the "anatomical dead space"? A) Bronchiole B) Trachea C) Bronchus D) Respiratory bronchiole E) Terminal bronchiole 4) What is one function of the type II alveolar cells? A) Production of surfactant B) Secretion of mucus C) Phagocytizing bacteria and other foreign particles D) Make up the majority of the epithelial wall of the alveoli E) Lining the pleural space 5) Type II alveolar cells are among the last cells to mature during fetal development. In babies born prematurely, type II alveolar cells are often not ready to perform their function. Which of the following would be TRUE of these babies? A) They would be at risk of alveolar collapse due to too much surface tension in the alveoli. B) They would be at risk of bacterial infections in the lungs. C) They would be at risk of autoimmune diseases with lung complications. D) They would be more likely to have coughing fits. E) None of these would occur.
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6) Which of the following is most responsible for keeping the lung surface and the thoracic wall from separating? A) The presence of surfactant B) The negative pressure in the alveolar space C) The force exerted by the external intercostal muscles D) Subatmospheric intrapleural pressure E) Alveolar pressure is higher than atmospheric pressure 7) During a yoga class you take a deep breath, then relax and let the breath out slowly. During that exhalation, which would NOT be true? A) Alveolar pressure is greater than atmospheric pressure. B) Intrapleural pressure is greater than alveolar pressure. C) Intrapleural pressure becomes less negative. D) The diaphragm relaxes. E) Lung volume decreases. 8) Which of these causes inhalation/inspiration? A) Increase in the curvature (upward movement) of the diaphragm B) Movement of the ribs closer together due to contraction of the internal intercostal muscles C) Flattening (downward movement) of the diaphragm D) Contraction of the abdominal muscles E) Alveolar pressure increasing above atmospheric pressure 9) Which is normally TRUE about the intrapleural pressure? A) It is lower than alveolar pressure. B) It is between +5 and +10 mmHg above atmospheric pressure at functional residual capacity. C) It alternates between being less than, and greater than, atmospheric pressure. D) During a passive exhale, it increases to a value above atmospheric pressure. E) It is always the same as atmospheric pressure during a passive exhale. 10) The volume of air flowing into the alveoli during inhalation/inspiration is increased when there is an increase in which of these? A) Airway resistance B) The pressure gradient from the atmosphere to the alveoli C) The pressure in the intrapleural space D) The curvature of the diaphragm E) The volume of air in the intrapleural space 11) Under normal circumstances, which of the following would result from an increase in transpulmonary pressure? A) Inhalation/inspiration B) Exhalation/expiration C) A collapsed lung D) Pneumothorax E) Emphysema
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12) Which of the following statements regarding pulmonary surfactant is TRUE? A) It is secreted by type I alveolar cells. B) It increases the compliance of the lungs. C) It increases airway resistance. D) It is secreted into the intrapleural space. E) It can only interact with other lipid molecules. 13) Under what condition is lung compliance increased? A) Respiratory distress syndrome of the newborn B) Prolonged shallow breathing C) Cystic fibrosis D) Emphysema E) Asthma 14) Type II alveolar cells are among the last cells to mature during fetal development. In babies born prematurely, type II alveolar cells are often not ready to perform their functions. Which of the following drugs would be most likely to help an infant with immature type II alveolar cells? A) Pulmonary surfactant B) A beta-adrenergic agonist C) A muscarinic agonist D) Histamine E) A beta-adrenergic antagonist 15) Which of the following is a cause of asthma? A) Loss of alveoli B) Inflammation of the bronchioles C) Elevation of intrapleural pressure to equal atmospheric pressure D) Environmental chemicals that stimulate β2-adrenergic receptors E) Lack of pulmonary surfactant 16) Which of the following is TRUE during the initial stage of an asthma attack? A) ΔP is increased. B) ΔP is decreased. C) R is increased. D) R is decreased. E) None of these, flow rate is unchanged during an asthma attack. 17) Which of the following drugs, administered as an aerosol spray, would be most likely to help a patient during an asthmatic attack? A) Pulmonary surfactant B) A β2-adrenergic agonist C) A muscarinic agonist D) Histamine E) A β2-adrenergic antagonist
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18) During a physical examination, Joe learns that his resting tidal volume is 550 mL; his average resting respiratory rate is 15 breaths per minute; his total lung capacity is 6,000 mL; and his anatomic dead space is 150 mL. Joe's resting alveolar ventilation is A) 72.0 L/min. B) 6.0 L/min. C) 4.2 L/min. D) 1.8 L/min. E) 0.5 L/min. 19) When lying down, a subject's respiratory rate is 12 breaths per minute, his anatomical dead space is 150 mL, and his minute ventilation is 7 L/min. Which of these is closest to his alveolar ventilation in liters per minute? A) 6.0 B) 5.2 C) 4.2 D) 3.0 E) 0.583 20) Which of the following statements about the response of arteriolar smooth muscle to changing oxygen partial pressures is TRUE? A) Both systemic and pulmonary arterioles respond to a decrease in PO2 by constricting. B) Both systemic and pulmonary arterioles respond to a decrease in PO2 by dilating. C) Systemic arterioles respond to a decrease in PO2 by dilating, but pulmonary arterioles constrict in response to decreased PO2. D) Systemic arterioles respond to a decrease in PO2 by constricting, but pulmonary arterioles dilate in response to decreased PO2. E) Changes in PO2 do not affect arteriolar smooth muscle in the pulmonary system. 21) When you head to bed at night, you bring a glass of tap water with you and set it on the nightstand. Upon waking in the morning, you discover there are tiny gas bubbles along the sides of the container. The best explanation for this is A) the concentration of a particular gas in a liquid equilibrates to match the concentration of that gas in the air to which the liquid is exposed. B) different gasses have the same solubility in liquids. C) the partial pressure of a gas in a liquid is equal to the amount freely diffusing in the liquid plus the amount bound to large molecules within the liquid. D) the partial pressure of a particular gas in a liquid equilibrates to match the partial pressure of that gas in the air to which the liquid is exposed. E) as the partial pressure of a particular gas in an air sample increases, the concentration of that gas in a liquid exposed to that air sample decreases.
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22) You (a healthy individual) are swimming underwater when you can no longer resist the urge to breathe. This overwhelming urge is probably due to A) the autorhymthic cells in your diaphragm contracting. B) the decrease in O2 available to the cells of the body. C) the increase in plasma H+. D) the increase in pH has made your blood dangerously alkaline. 23) You embark on a hiking trip on Mt. Kilimanjaro (altitude = 19,000 ft; Atmospheric air pressure = 379 mmHg). As you ascend, what happens to the PO2 in the alveoli? A) No change from sea level, as long as we breathe in the same volume of air. B) Alveolar PO2 decreases. C) Alveolar PO2 increases. 24) You embark on a hiking trip on Mt. Kilimanjaro (altitude = 19,000 ft; Atmospheric air pressure = 379 mmHg).mHg). As you ascend, what are you likely to notice about your breathing? A) You need to work to exhale, using your muscles to decrease your thoracic size beyond what is normal B) You need to work harder to inhale, expanding your thoracic size beyond what is normal C) Both would happen D) Neither would happen 25) You're resting on the couch watching TV. Which of the following is the most likely reflection of the values in your body? Regarding the partial pressures of O2 and CO2, which of the following statements is true in a normal person at rest? A) Atmospheric PO2 is approximately 100 mmHg and the alveolar PO2 is approximately 160 mmHg. B) The PCO2 in the air is approximately 40 mmHg and the alveolar PCO2 is approximately 60 mmHg. C) The PO2 in the systemic arteries is approximately 100 mmHg and the alveolar PO2 is approximately 105 mmHg. D) PCO2 in the systemic veins is less than systemic arterial PCO2. E) PCO2 in the pulmonary arteries is less than pulmonary venous PCO2. 26) Regarding the relationships between the rates of oxygen consumption/carbon dioxide production and alveolar ventilation, which of these statements is TRUE? A) Increased ventilation without a similar increase in metabolism is called hypoventilation. B) In hypoventilation, alveolar PCO2 decreases below resting levels. C) In hyperventilation, alveolar PCO2 can decrease to zero. D) A decrease in metabolism without a similar decrease in alveolar ventilation would result in hyperventilation. E) An increase in ventilation with a matching increase in metabolism is called hyperventilation.
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27) A decrease in metabolism without a similar, compensatory decrease in alveolar ventilation will have what effect on the systemic pH? A) pH will decrease. B) pH will increase. C) No change to pH is expected in this circumstance. D) It is impossible to predict the effect on pH without first understanding why metabolism decreased. 28) Which of the following is NOT true regarding ventilation-perfusion inequality? A) No inequality exists in normal lungs. B) It may result from increased alveolar dead space. C) It is increased from normal in patients with emphysema. D) It is caused by too little or too much blood flow relative to ventilation. E) It is caused by too little or too much ventilation relative to blood flow. 29) In which form is most of the oxygen carried in arterial blood? A) Bound to hemoglobin B) Dissolved in the plasma C) Dissolved in the cytosol of erythrocytes D) Converted to HCO3E) Bound to myoglobin 30) If all other factors remain the same, which of these results in an increase in the amount of oxygen bound to hemoglobin? A) Increased plasma [H+] B) Increased plasma temperature C) Increased plasma [2,3 diphosphoglycerate] D) Increased plasma PO2 E) Increased plasma [carbon monoxide] 31) Which of these is demonstrated by the oxygen-hemoglobin dissociation curve? A) The greater the PO2 of the blood, the greater the dissociation of O2 from hemoglobin. B) At normal resting systemic arterial PO2, hemoglobin is almost 100% saturated with oxygen. C) At normal resting systemic venous PO2, only about 75% of the hemoglobin is in the form of deoxyhemoglobin. D) More additional oxygen binds to hemoglobin when going from a PO2 of 60 to 100 mmHg, than is added when going from a PO2 of 40 to 60 mmHg. E) As PO2 increases, the saturation of hemoglobin with oxygen increases linearly.
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32) Which of the following would cause a decrease in the binding affinity of hemoglobin for oxygen? A) Increased pH of the blood B) Increased temperature of the blood C) Decreased DPG levels in erythrocytes D) The presence of carbon monoxide E) Decreased concentration of H+ in the blood 33) During a run, your gastrocnemius (calf) muscle has a temperature of 38.5° C, while your biceps brachii (upper arm) muscle has a temperature of 37.5° C. Which of the following is TRUE of the red blood cells as they pass by these muscles? A) The hemoglobin molecules will have the same affinity for oxygen at both locations. B) The hemoglobin molecules will have a higher affinity for oxygen as they pass by the biceps brachii compared to the gastrocnemius. C) The hemoglobin molecules will have a higher affinity for oxygen as they pass by the gastrocnemius compared to the biceps brachii. D) The hemoglobin molecules may denature as they pass by the gastrocnemius. 34) Carbonic anhydrase catalyzes a reaction that combines which of the following? A) H2O and O2 B) H2O and CO2 C) H2O and CO D) H+ and HCO3E) CO2 and O2 35) After CO2 is produced by tissues, in what form is most of that carbon transported to the lungs for removal from the body? A) As dissolved CO2 B) Bound to hemoglobin C) As H2CO3 D) As dissolved HCO3E) As carbonic anhydrase 36) You walk into your dorm room and find your roommate in the midst of anxiety-induced hyperventilation. You're unable to calm her down, so you call an ambulance. When she arrives at the ER, which of the following is her likely diagnosis? A) Respiratory alkalosis B) Respiratory acidosis C) Increased blood PCO2 D) Metabolic acidosis E) Metabolic alkalosis
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37) Maria is a patient in the ward who was recently in a motor vehicle accident. Her injuries are causing her a lot of pain, and as a consequence to the morphine she's been given, her respiratory rate is quite low. Which of the following is likely to be TRUE? A) The pH of her blood has increased. B) The level of O2 in her blood has increased. C) The level of H+ ions in her blood has increased. D) The alveolar CO2 has decreased to near atmospheric levels. E) The alveolar O2 level has increased toward atmospheric levels. 38) Which of these correctly describes the chloride shift? A) In the lungs, chloride enters red blood cells in exchange for bicarbonate ions. B) In the tissues, chloride exits red blood cells in exchange for carbonic acid. C) In the tissues, chloride enters red blood cells in exchange for bicarbonate ions. D) In the lungs, chloride enters red blood cells in exchange for CO2. E) In the tissues, chloride enters red blood cells in exchange for CO2. 39) What brain center has neurons that fire mainly during inspiration and have input to the spinal motor neurons that activate the diaphragm and inspiratory intercostal muscles? A) The ventral respiratory group of the medulla oblongata B) The pre-Bötzinger complex C) The dorsal respiratory group of the medulla oblongata D) The pneumotaxic center of the pons E) The apneustic center of the pons 40) Action potentials in neurons in the inspiratory center of the medulla oblongata result in action potentials in the nerves to the diaphragm, which in turn cause of the muscle, resulting in a/an in the volume of the thoracic cage. A) motor; contraction; decrease B) parasympathetic; contraction; decrease C) sympathetic; contraction; increase D) motor; contraction; increase E) sympathetic; relaxation; increase 41) Which of the following are chemoreceptors? A) Hair cells in the cochlea B) Receptors in the aortic and carotid bodies C) Baroreceptors in the aortic and carotid arch D) Receptors that mediate the Hering-Breuer reflex
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42) Drug X is a new drug to treat Alzheimer's Disease. This drug is able to cross the blood-brain barrier and circulate in the CSF. The drug is slightly acidic and at the recommended dose it decreases the CSF pH from 7.4 to 7.3. Will Drug X have any effect on respiration? A) It will cause an increase in respiratory rate. B) It will cause a decrease in respiratory rate. C) It will have no effect on respiratory rate, but will cause an increase in depth of breathing. D) It will have no effect on respiratory rate, but will cause the patient to take shallower breaths. E) It will not impact respiratory function. 43) What is the primary regulator of the magnitude of alveolar ventilation under normal circumstances? A) The H+ concentration in the brain extracellular fluid, which is monitored by central chemoreceptors B) The PO2 of the arterial blood, which is monitored by central chemoreceptors C) The PO2 of the arterial blood, which is monitored by peripheral chemoreceptors D) The H+ concentration in the arterial blood, which is monitored by central chemoreceptors E) Stretch receptors in the lung 44) Which of the following statements regarding control of respiration is correct? A) A slight decrease in arterial PO2 is a stronger stimulus for increased ventilation than is a comparable decrease in arterial PCO2. B) The most important signal for regulating ventilation is the H+ concentration of arterial blood. C) Increased concentrations of lactic acid stimulate ventilation primarily by acting on peripheral chemoreceptors. D) An increase in the HCO3- concentration in blood stimulates ventilation. E) At high altitude, a decrease in PCO2 of the blood stimulates an increase in ventilation. 45) Which of these would tend to increase ventilation? A) Lower than normal arterial PCO2 B) Higher than normal arterial pH C) Breathing carbon monoxide D) Breathing air with increased PCO2 E) Iron-deficiency anemia 46) If the nerves from the carotid and aortic bodies are cut, which of these would occur? A) A decrease in arterial PO2 will no longer increase ventilation. B) An increase in arterial PCO2 will no longer increase ventilation. C) An increase in arterial lactic acid will inhibit ventilation. D) An increase in arterial PCO2 will inhibit ventilation. E) A decrease in arterial PO2 will inhibit ventilation.
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47) You've just stepped on the treadmill and are beginning to increase your speed. As you reach your maximum, which of the following values will NOT increase? A) Minute ventilation B) Arterial PCO2 C) Oxygen delivery to muscles D) Oxygen extraction from the blood by muscles E) Body heat production 48) Following strenuous exercise, blood levels of lactic acid are exercise levels. This change in acid concentration causes a reflex activating . A) decreased; decrease; peripheral chemoreceptors B) decreased; decrease; central chemoreceptors C) increased; increase; baroreceptors in the aortic arch D) increased; increase; central chemoreceptors E) increased; increase; peripheral chemoreceptors
compared to pre_ in ventilation by
49) Which of the following statements regarding hypoxia is correct? A) Exposure to high altitude is a form of hypoxic hypoxia. B) "Anemic hypoxia" refers to the condition of lower than normal arterial PO2. C) Carbon monoxide poisoning is an example of hypoxic hypoxia. D) Carbon monoxide poisoning is an example of ischemic hypoxia. E) Cyanide poisoning is an example of hypoxic hypoxia. 50) Which of the following conditions would result in a systemic arterial PO2 lower than is typical of a healthy person at sea level? A) Traveling to high altitude B) Breathing 100% oxygen C) Having iron-deficiency anemia D) Breathing regular air in a hyperbaric chamber (higher that normal atmospheric pressure) E) Maintaining alveolar ventilation constant while decreasing metabolic rate 51) Which is characteristic of a person chronically suffering from hypoxic hypoxia? A) Higher-than-normal alveolar PO2 B) Higher-than-normal hematocrit C) Higher-than-normal arterial PO2 D) Lower-than-normal lactic acid production E) Lower-than-normal blood flow through tissues
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52) Which correctly describes the cause of the increase in alveolar ventilation that occurs when a person ascends to high altitude? A) The decrease in PCO2 of inspired air decreases alveolar PCO2, stimulating the peripheral chemoreceptors. B) The decrease in PCO2 of inspired air decreases alveolar PCO2, stimulating the central chemoreceptors. C) The decrease in PO2 of inspired air decreases alveolar and arterial PO2, stimulating the peripheral chemoreceptors. D) The decrease in total atmospheric pressure causes a greater negative pressure in the intrapleural space, resulting in deeper and more frequent breathing. E) The decrease in the total barometric pressure at high altitude causes hypocapnea, which stimulates peripheral chemoreceptors. 53) The diaphragm is a large sheet of smooth muscle that separates the thoracic cavity from the abdomen. 54) If the parietal pleura is cut during surgery, the lung on the side of the cut will expand and the chest wall will be compressed. 55) The process of ventilation includes both the transport of gases by bulk flow and the diffusion of gases into and out of the blood. 56) According to Boyle's law, the pressure exerted by a constant number of gas molecules in a container is inversely proportional to the volume of the container. Therefore, increasing the volume of the container will cause a decrease in its pressure. 57) During inhalation/inspiration, the total alveolar volume decreases. 58) During inhalation/inspiration, the diaphragm contracts and the alveolar pressure is less than atmospheric pressure; during exhalation/expiration, the diaphragm relaxes and the alveolar pressure is greater than atmospheric pressure. 59) Susan had heart surgery in October and during the surgery, by accident, the surgeon damaged one of her phrenic nerves leading to paralysis of half of her diaphragm. Immediately upon waking up from surgery, Susan will find that her respiratory rate has decreased. 60) Susan had heart surgery in October and during the surgery, by accident, the surgeon damaged one of her phrenic nerves leading to paralysis of half of her diaphragm. The following day, lab values will indicate that her arterial PO2 is decreased. 61) In a normal person at rest, the part of the respiratory cycle in which no air is flowing through the airways and the respiratory muscles are relaxed is at the end of inhalation/inspiration, prior to exhalation/expiration. 62) Normal, resting exhalation/expiration of air from the lungs requires contraction of the exhalatory/expiratory intercostal muscles. 11 Copyright 2019 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.
63) Infants born prematurely frequently develop respiratory distress syndrome of the newborn because they have too few alveoli to exchange O2 and CO2 efficiently. 64) In an individual experiencing an asthma attack, arterial blood levels of PO2 will decrease and arterial blood levels of PCO2 will increase. 65) The diameter of the airways in normal lungs is generally great enough that little resistance is offered to airflow. 66) A disease that causes obstruction in the bronchioles is likely to result in lowered systemic arterial pH. 67) Emphysema is a disease characterized by low lung compliance, obstructed airways, and ventilation-perfusion inequality. 68) An individual with emphysema will have a lower tidal volume than an individual of the same size without emphysema. 69) A clinical sign of obstructive lung disease would be a reduced FEV1/FVC ratio, where "FVC" is "forced" VC. 70) The total dead space in the lungs includes anatomic dead space and any portion of the alveoli that has little or no blood supply. 71) Doubling the frequency of breathing will cause a greater increase in alveolar ventilation than will doubling the depth of inspiration. 72) At sea level, atmospheric PO2 is about 760 mmHg. 73) An individual in Boston (sea level) will have a lower tidal volume than an individual in Denver (5,280 feet above sea level). 74) In the systemic circulation, the PO2 of arterial blood exceeds the PO2 of venous blood, while the reverse is true for the pulmonary circulation. 75) Decreased alveolar PO2 causes reflex vasodilation of the pulmonary arterioles. 76) Most of the O2 carried in the blood is dissolved in plasma. 77) When blood flows into the systemic capillaries, the PO2 of the erythrocytes is greater than the PO2 of the interstitial fluid, causing a shift from oxyhemoglobin to deoxyhemoglobin. 78) If lung disease results in an arterial PO2 of 80 mmHg, the total amount of oxygen carried by the blood is 20% below normal. 12 Copyright 2019 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.
79) Mixed venous blood in a resting individual still contains more than double the amount of oxygen extracted by the tissues as the blood passed through them. 80) The affinity of hemoglobin for O2 is decreased in rapidly metabolizing tissues. 81) Of the CO2 returning from the tissues in venous blood, more is dissolved in plasma as CO2 than is bound to hemoglobin. 82) Deoxyhemoglobin binds bicarbonate ion better than oxyhemoglobin does. 83) Normally, all the H+ ions generated from CO2 in tissue capillaries recombine with bicarbonate in pulmonary capillaries and are removed from the body as CO2. 84) The majority of hydrogen ions generated in the formation of carbonic acid in the tissues are carried as freely dissolved H+ in the venous blood. 85) When a person hyperventilates, there are lower than normal levels of PCO2 and hydrogen ion in arterial blood, a condition called respiratory alkalosis. 86) The rhythmic contractions and relaxations of the inspiratory muscles are dependent upon spontaneous depolarizations of the diaphragm. 87) The neurons responsible for the cyclic nature of respiratory muscle function are located in the brainstem. 88) The medullary inspiratory neurons receive inhibitory neural input from the pons and also from pulmonary stretch receptors. 89) A decrease in arterial PO2 stimulates increased ventilation by causing increased firing of action potentials in the afferent neurons from the carotid and aortic body chemoreceptors. 90) A slight rise in arterial PCO2 from normal resting values at sea level is a much stronger stimulus for increasing ventilation than a comparable fall in arterial PO2 under the same conditions. 91) The most important signal for regulating normal ventilation is hydrogen ions in the blood generated by lactic acid production. 92) Increased plasma concentration of lactic acid stimulates increased ventilation primarily by means of central chemoreceptors. 93) During moderate exercise, arterial PCO2 and H+ concentration increase and arterial PO2 decreases, and these are the main stimuli causing increased ventilation.
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94) One cause of hypoxic hypoxia in disease is diffusion impairment of O2 resulting from decreased alveolar surface area. 95) Exposure to high altitude is a form of ischemic hypoxia. 96) A small amount of carbon monoxide in the air would not significantly alter the PO2 of inspired air nor the PO2 of the arterial blood. 97) The key difference between fetal hemoglobin and adult hemoglobin is that fetal hemoglobin has a lower affinity for oxygen because the levels of oxygen in placental blood is 2 to 3 times higher than other systemic arteries. 98) The control of respiration by centers in the brainstem can be over-ridden by higher brain centers when speaking, breath-holding, undergoing emotional reactions, and experiencing pain. 99) Non-respiratory functions of the lungs include acting as "filters" for removing certain chemicals and blood clots. 100) CO2 can be transported in the blood in which of the following forms? A) Dissolved in plasma B) Dissolved in the cytosol of erythrocytes C) Bound to hemoglobin D) Dissolved in the cytosol of leukocytes E) Converted to chloride 101) An individual with emphysema might experience which of the following? A) Increased arterial PCO2 B) Increased arterial PO2 C) Decreased arterial PCO2 D) Decreased arterial PO2 E) Increased respiratory rate 102) Which of these results from hyperventilation? A) Increased alveolar PO2 B) An increase in alveolar PCO2 C) Decreased alveolar PCO2 D) A decrease in alveolar PO2 E) The same alveolar PCO2 as under normal conditions
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103) Which of the following is most responsible for detecting increases in H+ concentration? A) The medulla of the brainstem B) The peripheral chemoreceptors C) The central chemoreceptors D) The diaphragm E) The dorsal respiratory group
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Vander's Human Physiology, 15e (Widmaier) Chapter 13 Respiratory Physiology 1) Which of the following is NOT a function of the respiratory system? A) Net uptake of carbon dioxide from the air and removal of oxygen from the blood B) Regulation of blood H+ concentration C) Trapping of blood clots D) Phonation E) Defense against microbes Answer: A Section: 13.09 Topic: General functions of the respiratory system Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module M01 General functions of the respiratory system. HAPS Outcome: M01.01 Describe the major functions of the respiratory system. 2) Which is TRUE about the pleural sac? A) It is continuous with the atmosphere and protects the lungs from infection. B) It is a closed sac surrounding each lung that contains only a tiny volume of lubricating fluid. C) It is a closed sac surrounding each lung and contains a large volume of surfactant. D) It is a closed, air-filled space surrounding both lungs that has a negative pressure compared to atmospheric pressure. E) It is bounded by pleural membranes that are very thin, which allows for abundant gas exchange. Answer: B Section: 13.01 Topic: Gross anatomy of the lower respiratory tract Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module M02 Gross and microscopic anatomy of the respiratory tract and related organs.; Module M03 Mechanisms of pulmonary ventilation. HAPS Outcome: M02.06c For each of the following, state the function of each structure respiratory (nasal) mucosa, the layers of the tracheal wall, the bronchi and bronchioles, the three cell types found in alveoli, and the respiratory membrane.; M03.03 Define and state relative values for atmospheric pressure, intrapulmonary pressure, intrapleural pressure, and transpulmonary pressure.; M02.04b For each of the following, describe the gross anatomical features - nasal cavities, paranasal sinuses, pharynx, larynx, trachea, bronchi, lungs, pleural membranes, pulmonary blood vessels and nerves, thoracic and pleural cavities, and diaphragm.; M02.04c For each of the following, state the function of each structure - nasal cavities, paranasal sinuses, pharynx, larynx, trachea, bronchi, lungs, pleural membranes, pulmonary blood vessels and nerves, thoracic and pleural cavities, and diaphragm.; M02.06a For each of the following, identify each structure - respiratory (nasal) mucosa, the layers of the tracheal wall, the bronchi and bronchioles, the three cell types found in alveoli, and the respiratory membrane.
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3) Which structure is NOT part of the "anatomical dead space"? A) Bronchiole B) Trachea C) Bronchus D) Respiratory bronchiole E) Terminal bronchiole Answer: D Section: 13.02 Topic: Gross anatomy of the lower respiratory tract Bloom's: Level 2. Understand HAPS Topic: Module M02 Gross and microscopic anatomy of the respiratory tract and related organs.; Module M04 Pulmonary air volumes and capacities. HAPS Outcome: M02.06c For each of the following, state the function of each structure respiratory (nasal) mucosa, the layers of the tracheal wall, the bronchi and bronchioles, the three cell types found in alveoli, and the respiratory membrane.; M04.03 Define anatomical dead space and explain the effect of anatomical dead space on alveolar ventilation and on the composition of alveolar and expired air.; M02.04c For each of the following, state the function of each structure - nasal cavities, paranasal sinuses, pharynx, larynx, trachea, bronchi, lungs, pleural membranes, pulmonary blood vessels and nerves, thoracic and pleural cavities, and diaphragm.; M02.02 Describe and distinguish between the conducting and respiratory zones of the respiratory tract. 4) What is one function of the type II alveolar cells? A) Production of surfactant B) Secretion of mucus C) Phagocytizing bacteria and other foreign particles D) Make up the majority of the epithelial wall of the alveoli E) Lining the pleural space Answer: A Section: 13.01 Topic: Microscopic anatomy of the respiratory tract Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module M02 Gross and microscopic anatomy of the respiratory tract and related organs. HAPS Outcome: M02.06c For each of the following, state the function of each structure respiratory (nasal) mucosa, the layers of the tracheal wall, the bronchi and bronchioles, the three cell types found in alveoli, and the respiratory membrane.
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5) Type II alveolar cells are among the last cells to mature during fetal development. In babies born prematurely, type II alveolar cells are often not ready to perform their function. Which of the following would be TRUE of these babies? A) They would be at risk of alveolar collapse due to too much surface tension in the alveoli. B) They would be at risk of bacterial infections in the lungs. C) They would be at risk of autoimmune diseases with lung complications. D) They would be more likely to have coughing fits. E) None of these would occur. Answer: A Section: 13.01 Topic: Microscopic anatomy of the respiratory tract Bloom's: Level 3. Apply HAPS Topic: Module M02 Gross and microscopic anatomy of the respiratory tract and related organs. HAPS Outcome: M02.06c For each of the following, state the function of each structure respiratory (nasal) mucosa, the layers of the tracheal wall, the bronchi and bronchioles, the three cell types found in alveoli, and the respiratory membrane. 6) Which of the following is most responsible for keeping the lung surface and the thoracic wall from separating? A) The presence of surfactant B) The negative pressure in the alveolar space C) The force exerted by the external intercostal muscles D) Subatmospheric intrapleural pressure E) Alveolar pressure is higher than atmospheric pressure Answer: D Section: 13.02 Topic: Mechanisms of pulmonary ventilation Bloom's: Level 2. Understand HAPS Topic: Module M03 Mechanisms of pulmonary ventilation. HAPS Outcome: M03.05 Explain how each of the following affect pulmonary ventilation bronchiolar smooth muscle contractions, lung and thoracic wall compliance and recoil, and pulmonary surfactant and alveolar surface tension.; M03.06 Describe the forces that tend to collapse the lungs and those that normally oppose or prevent collapse.; M03.04 State Boyles Law and relate this law to the specific sequence of events (muscle contractions/relaxations and pressure/volume changes) causing inspiration and expiration.; M03.03 Define and state relative values for atmospheric pressure, intrapulmonary pressure, intrapleural pressure, and transpulmonary pressure.
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7) During a yoga class you take a deep breath, then relax and let the breath out slowly. During that exhalation, which would NOT be true? A) Alveolar pressure is greater than atmospheric pressure. B) Intrapleural pressure is greater than alveolar pressure. C) Intrapleural pressure becomes less negative. D) The diaphragm relaxes. E) Lung volume decreases. Answer: B Section: 13.02 Topic: Mechanisms of pulmonary ventilation Bloom's: Level 3. Apply HAPS Topic: Module M03 Mechanisms of pulmonary ventilation. HAPS Outcome: M03.01 Define pulmonary ventilation, inspiration, and expiration.; M03.02 Identify the muscles used during quiet inspiration, during forced inspiration, and during forced expiration, as well as the nerves responsible for stimulating those muscles.; M03.04 State Boyles Law and relate this law to the specific sequence of events (muscle contractions/relaxations and pressure/volume changes) causing inspiration and expiration.; M03.03 Define and state relative values for atmospheric pressure, intrapulmonary pressure, intrapleural pressure, and transpulmonary pressure. 8) Which of these causes inhalation/inspiration? A) Increase in the curvature (upward movement) of the diaphragm B) Movement of the ribs closer together due to contraction of the internal intercostal muscles C) Flattening (downward movement) of the diaphragm D) Contraction of the abdominal muscles E) Alveolar pressure increasing above atmospheric pressure Answer: C Section: 13.02 Topic: Mechanisms of pulmonary ventilation Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module M03 Mechanisms of pulmonary ventilation. HAPS Outcome: M03.01 Define pulmonary ventilation, inspiration, and expiration.; M03.02 Identify the muscles used during quiet inspiration, during forced inspiration, and during forced expiration, as well as the nerves responsible for stimulating those muscles.; M03.04 State Boyles Law and relate this law to the specific sequence of events (muscle contractions/relaxations and pressure/volume changes) causing inspiration and expiration.; M03.03 Define and state relative values for atmospheric pressure, intrapulmonary pressure, intrapleural pressure, and transpulmonary pressure.
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9) Which is normally TRUE about the intrapleural pressure? A) It is lower than alveolar pressure. B) It is between +5 and +10 mmHg above atmospheric pressure at functional residual capacity. C) It alternates between being less than, and greater than, atmospheric pressure. D) During a passive exhale, it increases to a value above atmospheric pressure. E) It is always the same as atmospheric pressure during a passive exhale. Answer: A Section: 13.02 Topic: Mechanisms of pulmonary ventilation Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module M03 Mechanisms of pulmonary ventilation.; Module M04 Pulmonary air volumes and capacities. HAPS Outcome: M04.01 Define, identify, and determine values for the respiratory volumes (IRV, TV, ERV, and RV) and the respiratory capacities (IC, FRC, VC, and TLC).; M03.01 Define pulmonary ventilation, inspiration, and expiration.; M03.04 State Boyles Law and relate this law to the specific sequence of events (muscle contractions/relaxations and pressure/volume changes) causing inspiration and expiration.; M03.03 Define and state relative values for atmospheric pressure, intrapulmonary pressure, intrapleural pressure, and transpulmonary pressure. 10) The volume of air flowing into the alveoli during inhalation/inspiration is increased when there is an increase in which of these? A) Airway resistance B) The pressure gradient from the atmosphere to the alveoli C) The pressure in the intrapleural space D) The curvature of the diaphragm E) The volume of air in the intrapleural space Answer: B Section: 13.02 Topic: Mechanisms of pulmonary ventilation Bloom's: Level 2. Understand HAPS Topic: Module M03 Mechanisms of pulmonary ventilation. HAPS Outcome: M03.05 Explain how each of the following affect pulmonary ventilation bronchiolar smooth muscle contractions, lung and thoracic wall compliance and recoil, and pulmonary surfactant and alveolar surface tension.; M03.01 Define pulmonary ventilation, inspiration, and expiration.; M03.02 Identify the muscles used during quiet inspiration, during forced inspiration, and during forced expiration, as well as the nerves responsible for stimulating those muscles.; M03.04 State Boyles Law and relate this law to the specific sequence of events (muscle contractions/relaxations and pressure/volume changes) causing inspiration and expiration.; M03.03 Define and state relative values for atmospheric pressure, intrapulmonary pressure, intrapleural pressure, and transpulmonary pressure.
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11) Under normal circumstances, which of the following would result from an increase in transpulmonary pressure? A) Inhalation/inspiration B) Exhalation/expiration C) A collapsed lung D) Pneumothorax E) Emphysema Answer: A Section: 13.02 Topic: Mechanisms of pulmonary ventilation Bloom's: Level 2. Understand HAPS Topic: Module M03 Mechanisms of pulmonary ventilation. HAPS Outcome: M03.05 Explain how each of the following affect pulmonary ventilation bronchiolar smooth muscle contractions, lung and thoracic wall compliance and recoil, and pulmonary surfactant and alveolar surface tension.; M03.06 Describe the forces that tend to collapse the lungs and those that normally oppose or prevent collapse.; M03.01 Define pulmonary ventilation, inspiration, and expiration.; M03.04 State Boyles Law and relate this law to the specific sequence of events (muscle contractions/relaxations and pressure/volume changes) causing inspiration and expiration.; M03.03 Define and state relative values for atmospheric pressure, intrapulmonary pressure, intrapleural pressure, and transpulmonary pressure. 12) Which of the following statements regarding pulmonary surfactant is TRUE? A) It is secreted by type I alveolar cells. B) It increases the compliance of the lungs. C) It increases airway resistance. D) It is secreted into the intrapleural space. E) It can only interact with other lipid molecules. Answer: B Section: 13.02 Topic: Mechanisms of pulmonary ventilation Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module M02 Gross and microscopic anatomy of the respiratory tract and related organs.; Module M03 Mechanisms of pulmonary ventilation. HAPS Outcome: M02.06c For each of the following, state the function of each structure respiratory (nasal) mucosa, the layers of the tracheal wall, the bronchi and bronchioles, the three cell types found in alveoli, and the respiratory membrane.; M03.05 Explain how each of the following affect pulmonary ventilation - bronchiolar smooth muscle contractions, lung and thoracic wall compliance and recoil, and pulmonary surfactant and alveolar surface tension.
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13) Under what condition is lung compliance increased? A) Respiratory distress syndrome of the newborn B) Prolonged shallow breathing C) Cystic fibrosis D) Emphysema E) Asthma Answer: D Section: 13.02; 13.08 Topic: Clinical applications of the respiratory system Bloom's: Level 2. Understand HAPS Topic: Module M09 Predictions related to homeostatic imbalance, including disease states and disorders. HAPS Outcome: M09.01 Predict factors or situations affecting the respiratory system that could disrupt homeostasis.; M09.02 Predict the types of problems that would occur in the body if the respiratory system could not maintain homeostasis. 14) Type II alveolar cells are among the last cells to mature during fetal development. In babies born prematurely, type II alveolar cells are often not ready to perform their functions. Which of the following drugs would be most likely to help an infant with immature type II alveolar cells? A) Pulmonary surfactant B) A beta-adrenergic agonist C) A muscarinic agonist D) Histamine E) A beta-adrenergic antagonist Answer: A Section: 13.02 Topic: Mechanisms of pulmonary ventilation; Clinical applications of the respiratory system Bloom's: Level 3. Apply HAPS Topic: Module M03 Mechanisms of pulmonary ventilation.; Module M09 Predictions related to homeostatic imbalance, including disease states and disorders.; Module H13 Functions of the autonomic nervous system; Module L05 Innate (nonspecific) defenses HAPS Outcome: M09.01 Predict factors or situations affecting the respiratory system that could disrupt homeostasis.; M09.02 Predict the types of problems that would occur in the body if the respiratory system could not maintain homeostasis.; H13.07 Differentiate between cholinergic and adrenergic nerve fibers and discuss the physiological interactions of transmitters released by these neurons with specific cholinergic and adrenergic receptor subtypes.; H13.08 Propose clinical uses of specific drugs that act at cholinergic and adrenergic receptor subtypes.; H13.09 Describe major parasympathetic and/or sympathetic physiological effects on target organs.; M03.05 Explain how each of the following affect pulmonary ventilation - bronchiolar smooth muscle contractions, lung and thoracic wall compliance and recoil, and pulmonary surfactant and alveolar surface tension.; L05.07b With respect to the inflammatory response, summarize the cells and chemicals involved in the inflammatory process.
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15) Which of the following is a cause of asthma? A) Loss of alveoli B) Inflammation of the bronchioles C) Elevation of intrapleural pressure to equal atmospheric pressure D) Environmental chemicals that stimulate β2-adrenergic receptors E) Lack of pulmonary surfactant Answer: B Section: 13.02 Topic: Mechanisms of pulmonary ventilation; Clinical applications of the respiratory system Bloom's: Level 2. Understand HAPS Topic: Module M03 Mechanisms of pulmonary ventilation.; Module M09 Predictions related to homeostatic imbalance, including disease states and disorders.; Module H13 Functions of the autonomic nervous system HAPS Outcome: M09.01 Predict factors or situations affecting the respiratory system that could disrupt homeostasis.; M09.02 Predict the types of problems that would occur in the body if the respiratory system could not maintain homeostasis.; H13.07 Differentiate between cholinergic and adrenergic nerve fibers and discuss the physiological interactions of transmitters released by these neurons with specific cholinergic and adrenergic receptor subtypes.; H13.08 Propose clinical uses of specific drugs that act at cholinergic and adrenergic receptor subtypes.; H13.09 Describe major parasympathetic and/or sympathetic physiological effects on target organs.; M03.05 Explain how each of the following affect pulmonary ventilation - bronchiolar smooth muscle contractions, lung and thoracic wall compliance and recoil, and pulmonary surfactant and alveolar surface tension.; M03.06 Describe the forces that tend to collapse the lungs and those that normally oppose or prevent collapse.
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16) Which of the following is TRUE during the initial stage of an asthma attack? A) ΔP is increased. B) ΔP is decreased. C) R is increased. D) R is decreased. E) None of these, flow rate is unchanged during an asthma attack. Answer: C Section: 13.02 Topic: Mechanisms of pulmonary ventilation; Clinical applications of the respiratory system Bloom's: Level 3. Apply HAPS Topic: Module M03 Mechanisms of pulmonary ventilation.; Module M09 Predictions related to homeostatic imbalance, including disease states and disorders.; Module H13 Functions of the autonomic nervous system HAPS Outcome: M09.01 Predict factors or situations affecting the respiratory system that could disrupt homeostasis.; M09.02 Predict the types of problems that would occur in the body if the respiratory system could not maintain homeostasis.; H13.07 Differentiate between cholinergic and adrenergic nerve fibers and discuss the physiological interactions of transmitters released by these neurons with specific cholinergic and adrenergic receptor subtypes.; H13.08 Propose clinical uses of specific drugs that act at cholinergic and adrenergic receptor subtypes.; H13.09 Describe major parasympathetic and/or sympathetic physiological effects on target organs.; M03.05 Explain how each of the following affect pulmonary ventilation - bronchiolar smooth muscle contractions, lung and thoracic wall compliance and recoil, and pulmonary surfactant and alveolar surface tension.; M03.06 Describe the forces that tend to collapse the lungs and those that normally oppose or prevent collapse.
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17) Which of the following drugs, administered as an aerosol spray, would be most likely to help a patient during an asthmatic attack? A) Pulmonary surfactant B) A β2-adrenergic agonist C) A muscarinic agonist D) Histamine E) A β2-adrenergic antagonist Answer: B Section: 13.02 Topic: Mechanisms of pulmonary ventilation; Clinical applications of the respiratory system Bloom's: Level 2. Understand HAPS Topic: Module M03 Mechanisms of pulmonary ventilation.; Module M09 Predictions related to homeostatic imbalance, including disease states and disorders.; Module H13 Functions of the autonomic nervous system; Module L05 Innate (nonspecific) defenses HAPS Outcome: M09.01 Predict factors or situations affecting the respiratory system that could disrupt homeostasis.; M09.02 Predict the types of problems that would occur in the body if the respiratory system could not maintain homeostasis.; H13.07 Differentiate between cholinergic and adrenergic nerve fibers and discuss the physiological interactions of transmitters released by these neurons with specific cholinergic and adrenergic receptor subtypes.; H13.08 Propose clinical uses of specific drugs that act at cholinergic and adrenergic receptor subtypes.; H13.09 Describe major parasympathetic and/or sympathetic physiological effects on target organs.; M03.05 Explain how each of the following affect pulmonary ventilation - bronchiolar smooth muscle contractions, lung and thoracic wall compliance and recoil, and pulmonary surfactant and alveolar surface tension.; L05.07b With respect to the inflammatory response, summarize the cells and chemicals involved in the inflammatory process. 18) During a physical examination, Joe learns that his resting tidal volume is 550 mL; his average resting respiratory rate is 15 breaths per minute; his total lung capacity is 6,000 mL; and his anatomic dead space is 150 mL. Joe's resting alveolar ventilation is A) 72.0 L/min. B) 6.0 L/min. C) 4.2 L/min. D) 1.8 L/min. E) 0.5 L/min. Answer: B Section: 13.02 Topic: Pulmonary air volumes and capacities Bloom's: Level 3. Apply HAPS Topic: Module M04 Pulmonary air volumes and capacities. HAPS Outcome: M04.01 Define, identify, and determine values for the respiratory volumes (IRV, TV, ERV, and RV) and the respiratory capacities (IC, FRC, VC, and TLC).; M04.02 Define and calculate values for minute ventilation and alveolar ventilation.; M04.03 Define anatomical dead space and explain the effect of anatomical dead space on alveolar ventilation and on the composition of alveolar and expired air. 10 Copyright 2019 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.
19) When lying down, a subject's respiratory rate is 12 breaths per minute, his anatomical dead space is 150 mL, and his minute ventilation is 7 L/min. Which of these is closest to his alveolar ventilation in liters per minute? A) 6.0 B) 5.2 C) 4.2 D) 3.0 E) 0.583 Answer: B Section: 13.02 Topic: Pulmonary air volumes and capacities Bloom's: Level 3. Apply HAPS Topic: Module M04 Pulmonary air volumes and capacities. HAPS Outcome: M04.01 Define, identify, and determine values for the respiratory volumes (IRV, TV, ERV, and RV) and the respiratory capacities (IC, FRC, VC, and TLC).; M04.02 Define and calculate values for minute ventilation and alveolar ventilation.; M04.03 Define anatomical dead space and explain the effect of anatomical dead space on alveolar ventilation and on the composition of alveolar and expired air. 20) Which of the following statements about the response of arteriolar smooth muscle to changing oxygen partial pressures is TRUE? A) Both systemic and pulmonary arterioles respond to a decrease in PO2 by constricting. B) Both systemic and pulmonary arterioles respond to a decrease in PO2 by dilating. C) Systemic arterioles respond to a decrease in PO2 by dilating, but pulmonary arterioles constrict in response to decreased PO2. D) Systemic arterioles respond to a decrease in PO2 by constricting, but pulmonary arterioles dilate in response to decreased PO2. E) Changes in PO2 do not affect arteriolar smooth muscle in the pulmonary system. Answer: C Section: 13.03 Topic: Mechanisms of gas exchange in the lungs and tissues Bloom's: Level 2. Understand HAPS Topic: Module M05 Mechanisms of gas exchange in the lungs and tissues.; Module K14 Blood pressure and its functional interrelationships with cardiac output, peripheral resistance, and hemodynamics. HAPS Outcome: M05.02c With respect to external respiration, describe the mechanisms of ventilation-perfusion coupling and predict the effect that reduced alveolar ventilation has on pulmonary blood flow and the effect that reduced pulmonary blood flow has on bronchiole diameter and alveolar ventilation.; K14.09c List some chemicals that cause vasodilation and explain when they are active in relation to autoregulation.
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21) When you head to bed at night, you bring a glass of tap water with you and set it on the nightstand. Upon waking in the morning, you discover there are tiny gas bubbles along the sides of the container. The best explanation for this is A) the concentration of a particular gas in a liquid equilibrates to match the concentration of that gas in the air to which the liquid is exposed. B) different gasses have the same solubility in liquids. C) the partial pressure of a gas in a liquid is equal to the amount freely diffusing in the liquid plus the amount bound to large molecules within the liquid. D) the partial pressure of a particular gas in a liquid equilibrates to match the partial pressure of that gas in the air to which the liquid is exposed. E) as the partial pressure of a particular gas in an air sample increases, the concentration of that gas in a liquid exposed to that air sample decreases. Answer: D Section: 13.03 Topic: Mechanisms of gas exchange in the lungs and tissues Bloom's: Level 3. Apply HAPS Topic: Module M05 Mechanisms of gas exchange in the lungs and tissues. HAPS Outcome: M05.01 State Daltons Law and Henrys Law, and relate both laws to the events of external and internal respiration and to the amounts of oxygen and carbon dioxide dissolved in plasma.
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22) You (a healthy individual) are swimming underwater when you can no longer resist the urge to breathe. This overwhelming urge is probably due to A) the autorhymthic cells in your diaphragm contracting. B) the decrease in O2 available to the cells of the body. C) the increase in plasma H+. D) the increase in pH has made your blood dangerously alkaline. Answer: C Section: 13.07 Topic: Control of pulmonary ventilation Bloom's: Level 3. Apply HAPS Topic: Module M06 Mechanisms of gas transport in the blood.; Module M07 Control of pulmonary ventilation.; Module M08 Application of homeostatic mechanisms.; Module Q06 Role of the respiratory and urinary systems in acid/base balance.; Module Q07 Application of homeostatic mechanisms.; Module Q08 Predictions related to homeostatic imbalance, including disease states and disorders. HAPS Outcome: M07.02 List and describe the major chemical and neural stimuli to the respiratory centers.; M06.03b With respect to carbon dioxide transport, state the reversible chemical equation for the reaction of carbon dioxide and water to carbonic acid and then to hydrogen ion and bicarbonate ion.; M08.01 Provide specific examples to demonstrate how the respiratory system responds to maintain homeostasis in the body.; Q06.02 Describe the role of the respiratory system in regulation of blood pH and predict how hypo- and hyperventilation will affect blood pH.; Q08.02 Predict factors or situations that would lead to a disruption of homeostasis by causing respiratory acidosis, respiratory alkalosis, metabolic acidosis, or metabolic alkalosis.; Q07.02 Provide specific examples to demonstrate how the cardiovascular, endocrine, respiratory, and urinary systems respond to maintain homeostasis of electrolyte concentrations and pH of body fluids.
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23) You embark on a hiking trip on Mt. Kilimanjaro (altitude = 19,000 ft; Atmospheric air pressure = 379 mmHg). As you ascend, what happens to the PO2 in the alveoli? A) No change from sea level, as long as we breathe in the same volume of air. B) Alveolar PO2 decreases. C) Alveolar PO2 increases. Answer: B Section: 13.02 Topic: Mechanisms of pulmonary ventilation Bloom's: Level 3. Apply HAPS Topic: Module M03 Mechanisms of pulmonary ventilation. HAPS Outcome: M03.05 Explain how each of the following affect pulmonary ventilation bronchiolar smooth muscle contractions, lung and thoracic wall compliance and recoil, and pulmonary surfactant and alveolar surface tension.; M03.06 Describe the forces that tend to collapse the lungs and those that normally oppose or prevent collapse.; M03.01 Define pulmonary ventilation, inspiration, and expiration.; M03.04 State Boyles Law and relate this law to the specific sequence of events (muscle contractions/relaxations and pressure/volume changes) causing inspiration and expiration.; M03.03 Define and state relative values for atmospheric pressure, intrapulmonary pressure, intrapleural pressure, and transpulmonary pressure. 24) You embark on a hiking trip on Mt. Kilimanjaro (altitude = 19,000 ft; Atmospheric air pressure = 379 mmHg).mHg). As you ascend, what are you likely to notice about your breathing? A) You need to work to exhale, using your muscles to decrease your thoracic size beyond what is normal B) You need to work harder to inhale, expanding your thoracic size beyond what is normal C) Both would happen D) Neither would happen Answer: B Section: 13.09 Topic: Mechanisms of pulmonary ventilation Bloom's: Level 3. Apply HAPS Topic: Module M03 Mechanisms of pulmonary ventilation. HAPS Outcome: M03.05 Explain how each of the following affect pulmonary ventilation bronchiolar smooth muscle contractions, lung and thoracic wall compliance and recoil, and pulmonary surfactant and alveolar surface tension.; M03.06 Describe the forces that tend to collapse the lungs and those that normally oppose or prevent collapse.; M03.01 Define pulmonary ventilation, inspiration, and expiration.; M03.04 State Boyles Law and relate this law to the specific sequence of events (muscle contractions/relaxations and pressure/volume changes) causing inspiration and expiration.; M03.03 Define and state relative values for atmospheric pressure, intrapulmonary pressure, intrapleural pressure, and transpulmonary pressure.
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25) You're resting on the couch watching TV. Which of the following is the most likely reflection of the values in your body? Regarding the partial pressures of O2 and CO2, which of the following statements is true in a normal person at rest? A) Atmospheric PO2 is approximately 100 mmHg and the alveolar PO2 is approximately 160 mmHg. B) The PCO2 in the air is approximately 40 mmHg and the alveolar PCO2 is approximately 60 mmHg. C) The PO2 in the systemic arteries is approximately 100 mmHg and the alveolar PO2 is approximately 105 mmHg. D) PCO2 in the systemic veins is less than systemic arterial PCO2. E) PCO2 in the pulmonary arteries is less than pulmonary venous PCO2. Answer: C Section: 13.03 Topic: Mechanisms of gas exchange in the lungs and tissues Bloom's: Level 3. Apply HAPS Topic: Module M05 Mechanisms of gas exchange in the lungs and tissues. HAPS Outcome: M05.02a With respect to external respiration, describe oxygen and carbon dioxide concentration gradients and net gas movements.; M05.03a With respect to internal respiration, describe oxygen and carbon dioxide concentration gradients and net gas movements. 26) Regarding the relationships between the rates of oxygen consumption/carbon dioxide production and alveolar ventilation, which of these statements is TRUE? A) Increased ventilation without a similar increase in metabolism is called hypoventilation. B) In hypoventilation, alveolar PCO2 decreases below resting levels. C) In hyperventilation, alveolar PCO2 can decrease to zero. D) A decrease in metabolism without a similar decrease in alveolar ventilation would result in hyperventilation. E) An increase in ventilation with a matching increase in metabolism is called hyperventilation. Answer: D Section: 13.03; 13.07 Topic: Control of pulmonary ventilation; Clinical applications of the respiratory system Bloom's: Level 2. Understand HAPS Topic: Module M07 Control of pulmonary ventilation.; Module M09 Predictions related to homeostatic imbalance, including disease states and disorders. HAPS Outcome: M09.01 Predict factors or situations affecting the respiratory system that could disrupt homeostasis.; M07.04 Define hyperventilation, hypoventilation, panting, eupnea, hyperpnea and apnea.
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27) A decrease in metabolism without a similar, compensatory decrease in alveolar ventilation will have what effect on the systemic pH? A) pH will decrease. B) pH will increase. C) No change to pH is expected in this circumstance. D) It is impossible to predict the effect on pH without first understanding why metabolism decreased. Answer: B Section: 13.07 Topic: Control of pulmonary ventilation Bloom's: Level 3. Apply HAPS Topic: Module M06 Mechanisms of gas transport in the blood.; Module M07 Control of pulmonary ventilation.; Module M08 Application of homeostatic mechanisms.; Module Q06 Role of the respiratory and urinary systems in acid/base balance.; Module Q07 Application of homeostatic mechanisms.; Module Q08 Predictions related to homeostatic imbalance, including disease states and disorders. HAPS Outcome: M07.02 List and describe the major chemical and neural stimuli to the respiratory centers.; M06.03b With respect to carbon dioxide transport, state the reversible chemical equation for the reaction of carbon dioxide and water to carbonic acid and then to hydrogen ion and bicarbonate ion.; M08.01 Provide specific examples to demonstrate how the respiratory system responds to maintain homeostasis in the body.; Q06.02 Describe the role of the respiratory system in regulation of blood pH and predict how hypo- and hyperventilation will affect blood pH.; Q08.02 Predict factors or situations that would lead to a disruption of homeostasis by causing respiratory acidosis, respiratory alkalosis, metabolic acidosis, or metabolic alkalosis.; Q07.02 Provide specific examples to demonstrate how the cardiovascular, endocrine, respiratory, and urinary systems respond to maintain homeostasis of electrolyte concentrations and pH of body fluids.
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28) Which of the following is NOT true regarding ventilation-perfusion inequality? A) No inequality exists in normal lungs. B) It may result from increased alveolar dead space. C) It is increased from normal in patients with emphysema. D) It is caused by too little or too much blood flow relative to ventilation. E) It is caused by too little or too much ventilation relative to blood flow. Answer: A Section: 13.03; 13.08 Topic: Mechanisms of gas exchange in the lungs and tissues; Clinical applications of the respiratory system Bloom's: Level 2. Understand HAPS Topic: Module M05 Mechanisms of gas exchange in the lungs and tissues.; Module M09 Predictions related to homeostatic imbalance, including disease states and disorders. HAPS Outcome: M09.01 Predict factors or situations affecting the respiratory system that could disrupt homeostasis.; M05.02c With respect to external respiration, describe the mechanisms of ventilation-perfusion coupling and predict the effect that reduced alveolar ventilation has on pulmonary blood flow and the effect that reduced pulmonary blood flow has on bronchiole diameter and alveolar ventilation. 29) In which form is most of the oxygen carried in arterial blood? A) Bound to hemoglobin B) Dissolved in the plasma C) Dissolved in the cytosol of erythrocytes D) Converted to HCO3E) Bound to myoglobin Answer: A Section: 13.04 Topic: Mechanisms of gas transport in the blood Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module M06 Mechanisms of gas transport in the blood. HAPS Outcome: M06.01a With respect to oxygen transport, describe the ways in which oxygen is transported in blood and discuss the relative importance of each to total oxygen transport.
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30) If all other factors remain the same, which of these results in an increase in the amount of oxygen bound to hemoglobin? A) Increased plasma [H+] B) Increased plasma temperature C) Increased plasma [2,3 diphosphoglycerate] D) Increased plasma PO2 E) Increased plasma [carbon monoxide] Answer: D Section: 13.04 Topic: Mechanisms of gas transport in the blood; Clinical applications of the respiratory system Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module M06 Mechanisms of gas transport in the blood.; Module M09 Predictions related to homeostatic imbalance, including disease states and disorders. HAPS Outcome: M09.01 Predict factors or situations affecting the respiratory system that could disrupt homeostasis.; M06.02b With respect to the oxygen-hemoglobin saturation curve, list factors that shift the curve down and to the right, and explain how this results in increased oxygen delivery to the tissues.; M06.01b With respect to oxygen transport, state the reversible chemical equation for oxygen binding to hemoglobin and predict how raising or lowering the partial pressure of oxygen will shift the equilibrium.; M06.02c With respect to the oxygenhemoglobin saturation curve, list factors that shift the curve up and to the left, and explain how this facilitates oxygen binding to hemoglobin in the lungs. 31) Which of these is demonstrated by the oxygen-hemoglobin dissociation curve? A) The greater the PO2 of the blood, the greater the dissociation of O2 from hemoglobin. B) At normal resting systemic arterial PO2, hemoglobin is almost 100% saturated with oxygen. C) At normal resting systemic venous PO2, only about 75% of the hemoglobin is in the form of deoxyhemoglobin. D) More additional oxygen binds to hemoglobin when going from a PO2 of 60 to 100 mmHg, than is added when going from a PO2 of 40 to 60 mmHg. E) As PO2 increases, the saturation of hemoglobin with oxygen increases linearly. Answer: B Section: 13.04 Topic: Mechanisms of gas transport in the blood Bloom's: Level 2. Understand HAPS Topic: Module M06 Mechanisms of gas transport in the blood. HAPS Outcome: M06.02a With respect to the oxygen-hemoglobin saturation curve, interpret the curve at low and high partial pressures of oxygen.; M06.01b With respect to oxygen transport, state the reversible chemical equation for oxygen binding to hemoglobin and predict how raising or lowering the partial pressure of oxygen will shift the equilibrium.
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32) Which of the following would cause a decrease in the binding affinity of hemoglobin for oxygen? A) Increased pH of the blood B) Increased temperature of the blood C) Decreased DPG levels in erythrocytes D) The presence of carbon monoxide E) Decreased concentration of H+ in the blood Answer: B Section: 13.04 Topic: Mechanisms of gas transport in the blood Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module M06 Mechanisms of gas transport in the blood.; Module M09 Predictions related to homeostatic imbalance, including disease states and disorders. HAPS Outcome: M09.01 Predict factors or situations affecting the respiratory system that could disrupt homeostasis.; M06.02b With respect to the oxygen-hemoglobin saturation curve, list factors that shift the curve down and to the right, and explain how this results in increased oxygen delivery to the tissues.; M06.02c With respect to the oxygen-hemoglobin saturation curve, list factors that shift the curve up and to the left, and explain how this facilitates oxygen binding to hemoglobin in the lungs. 33) During a run, your gastrocnemius (calf) muscle has a temperature of 38.5° C, while your biceps brachii (upper arm) muscle has a temperature of 37.5° C. Which of the following is TRUE of the red blood cells as they pass by these muscles? A) The hemoglobin molecules will have the same affinity for oxygen at both locations. B) The hemoglobin molecules will have a higher affinity for oxygen as they pass by the biceps brachii compared to the gastrocnemius. C) The hemoglobin molecules will have a higher affinity for oxygen as they pass by the gastrocnemius compared to the biceps brachii. D) The hemoglobin molecules may denature as they pass by the gastrocnemius. Answer: B Section: 13.04 Topic: Mechanisms of gas transport in the blood Bloom's: Level 3. Apply HAPS Topic: Module M06 Mechanisms of gas transport in the blood.; Module M09 Predictions related to homeostatic imbalance, including disease states and disorders. HAPS Outcome: M09.01 Predict factors or situations affecting the respiratory system that could disrupt homeostasis.; M06.02b With respect to the oxygen-hemoglobin saturation curve, list factors that shift the curve down and to the right, and explain how this results in increased oxygen delivery to the tissues.; M06.02c With respect to the oxygen-hemoglobin saturation curve, list factors that shift the curve up and to the left, and explain how this facilitates oxygen binding to hemoglobin in the lungs.
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34) Carbonic anhydrase catalyzes a reaction that combines which of the following? A) H2O and O2 B) H2O and CO2 C) H2O and CO D) H+ and HCO3E) CO2 and O2 Answer: B
Section: 13.05 Topic: Mechanisms of gas transport in the blood Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module M06 Mechanisms of gas transport in the blood.; Module Q05 Buffer systems and their roles in acid/base balance. HAPS Outcome: M06.03b With respect to carbon dioxide transport, state the reversible chemical equation for the reaction of carbon dioxide and water to carbonic acid and then to hydrogen ion and bicarbonate ion.; M06.03g With respect to carbon dioxide transport, explain how each of the following relates to carbon dioxide transport - carbonic anhydrase, hydrogen ions binding to hemoglobin and plasma proteins, the chloride ion shift, and the oxygenhemoglobin saturation level.; Q05.03a State the chemical equation for bicarbonate buffer system, the phosphate buffer system and the protein buffer system. 35) After CO2 is produced by tissues, in what form is most of that carbon transported to the lungs for removal from the body? A) As dissolved CO2 B) Bound to hemoglobin C) As H2CO3 D) As dissolved HCO3E) As carbonic anhydrase Answer: D Section: 13.05 Topic: Mechanisms of gas transport in the blood Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module M06 Mechanisms of gas transport in the blood. HAPS Outcome: M06.03b With respect to carbon dioxide transport, state the reversible chemical equation for the reaction of carbon dioxide and water to carbonic acid and then to hydrogen ion and bicarbonate ion.; M06.03g With respect to carbon dioxide transport, explain how each of the following relates to carbon dioxide transport - carbonic anhydrase, hydrogen ions binding to hemoglobin and plasma proteins, the chloride ion shift, and the oxygenhemoglobin saturation level.; M06.03a With respect to carbon dioxide transport, describe the ways in which carbon dioxide is transported in blood and discuss the relative importance of each to total carbon dioxide transport.; M06.03f With respect to carbon dioxide transport, state the reversible chemical equation for carbon dioxide binding to deoxyhemoglobin and predict how changing carbon dioxide concentrations will affect deoxyhemoglobin levels in the tissues and the lungs. 20 Copyright 2019 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.
36) You walk into your dorm room and find your roommate in the midst of anxiety-induced hyperventilation. You're unable to calm her down, so you call an ambulance. When she arrives at the ER, which of the following is her likely diagnosis? A) Respiratory alkalosis B) Respiratory acidosis C) Increased blood PCO2 D) Metabolic acidosis E) Metabolic alkalosis Answer: A Section: 13.06 Topic: Mechanisms of gas transport in the blood; Control of pulmonary ventilation; Clinical applications of the respiratory system Bloom's: Level 3. Apply HAPS Topic: Module M06 Mechanisms of gas transport in the blood.; Module M07 Control of pulmonary ventilation.; Module M09 Predictions related to homeostatic imbalance, including disease states and disorders.; Module Q06 Role of the respiratory and urinary systems in acid/base balance.; Module Q08 Predictions related to homeostatic imbalance, including disease states and disorders. HAPS Outcome: M09.01 Predict factors or situations affecting the respiratory system that could disrupt homeostasis.; M09.02 Predict the types of problems that would occur in the body if the respiratory system could not maintain homeostasis.; M06.03b With respect to carbon dioxide transport, state the reversible chemical equation for the reaction of carbon dioxide and water to carbonic acid and then to hydrogen ion and bicarbonate ion.; M06.03c With respect to carbon dioxide transport, explain the relationship between pH and hydrogen ion concentration.; M06.03d With respect to carbon dioxide transport, predict how changing the partial pressure of carbon dioxide will affect the pH and the concentration bicarbonate ions in the plasma.; M07.04 Define hyperventilation, hypoventilation, panting, eupnea, hyperpnea and apnea.; Q06.02 Describe the role of the respiratory system in regulation of blood pH and predict how hypo- and hyperventilation will affect blood pH.; Q08.02 Predict factors or situations that would lead to a disruption of homeostasis by causing respiratory acidosis, respiratory alkalosis, metabolic acidosis, or metabolic alkalosis.
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37) Maria is a patient in the ward who was recently in a motor vehicle accident. Her injuries are causing her a lot of pain, and as a consequence to the morphine she's been given, her respiratory rate is quite low. Which of the following is likely to be TRUE? A) The pH of her blood has increased. B) The level of O2 in her blood has increased. C) The level of H+ ions in her blood has increased. D) The alveolar CO2 has decreased to near atmospheric levels. E) The alveolar O2 level has increased toward atmospheric levels. Answer: C Section: 13.06 Topic: Mechanisms of gas transport in the blood; Control of pulmonary ventilation; Clinical applications of the respiratory system Bloom's: Level 3. Apply HAPS Topic: Module M06 Mechanisms of gas transport in the blood.; Module M07 Control of pulmonary ventilation.; Module M09 Predictions related to homeostatic imbalance, including disease states and disorders.; Module Q06 Role of the respiratory and urinary systems in acid/base balance.; Module Q08 Predictions related to homeostatic imbalance, including disease states and disorders. HAPS Outcome: M09.01 Predict factors or situations affecting the respiratory system that could disrupt homeostasis.; M09.02 Predict the types of problems that would occur in the body if the respiratory system could not maintain homeostasis.; M06.03b With respect to carbon dioxide transport, state the reversible chemical equation for the reaction of carbon dioxide and water to carbonic acid and then to hydrogen ion and bicarbonate ion.; M06.03c With respect to carbon dioxide transport, explain the relationship between pH and hydrogen ion concentration.; M06.03d With respect to carbon dioxide transport, predict how changing the partial pressure of carbon dioxide will affect the pH and the concentration bicarbonate ions in the plasma.; M07.04 Define hyperventilation, hypoventilation, panting, eupnea, hyperpnea and apnea.; Q06.02 Describe the role of the respiratory system in regulation of blood pH and predict how hypo- and hyperventilation will affect blood pH.; Q08.02 Predict factors or situations that would lead to a disruption of homeostasis by causing respiratory acidosis, respiratory alkalosis, metabolic acidosis, or metabolic alkalosis.
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38) Which of these correctly describes the chloride shift? A) In the lungs, chloride enters red blood cells in exchange for bicarbonate ions. B) In the tissues, chloride exits red blood cells in exchange for carbonic acid. C) In the tissues, chloride enters red blood cells in exchange for bicarbonate ions. D) In the lungs, chloride enters red blood cells in exchange for CO2. E) In the tissues, chloride enters red blood cells in exchange for CO2. Answer: C Section: 13.05 Topic: Mechanisms of gas transport in the blood Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module M06 Mechanisms of gas transport in the blood. HAPS Outcome: M06.03g With respect to carbon dioxide transport, explain how each of the following relates to carbon dioxide transport - carbonic anhydrase, hydrogen ions binding to hemoglobin and plasma proteins, the chloride ion shift, and the oxygen- hemoglobin saturation level. 39) What brain center has neurons that fire mainly during inspiration and have input to the spinal motor neurons that activate the diaphragm and inspiratory intercostal muscles? A) The ventral respiratory group of the medulla oblongata B) The pre-Bötzinger complex C) The dorsal respiratory group of the medulla oblongata D) The pneumotaxic center of the pons E) The apneustic center of the pons Answer: C Section: 13.07 Topic: Mechanisms of pulmonary ventilation; Control of pulmonary ventilation Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module M03 Mechanisms of pulmonary ventilation.; Module M07 Control of pulmonary ventilation.; Module H07 Division, origin, and function of component parts of the brain HAPS Outcome: M03.01 Define pulmonary ventilation, inspiration, and expiration.; M03.02 Identify the muscles used during quiet inspiration, during forced inspiration, and during forced expiration, as well as the nerves responsible for stimulating those muscles.; M07.01 Describe the locations and functions of the brainstem respiratory centers.; H07.02 Correleate functions with each major area of the adult brain.
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40) Action potentials in neurons in the inspiratory center of the medulla oblongata result in action potentials in the nerves to the diaphragm, which in turn cause of the muscle, resulting in a/an in the volume of the thoracic cage. A) motor; contraction; decrease B) parasympathetic; contraction; decrease C) sympathetic; contraction; increase D) motor; contraction; increase E) sympathetic; relaxation; increase Answer: D Section: 13.07 Topic: Mechanisms of pulmonary ventilation Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module M03 Mechanisms of pulmonary ventilation. HAPS Outcome: M03.01 Define pulmonary ventilation, inspiration, and expiration.; M03.02 Identify the muscles used during quiet inspiration, during forced inspiration, and during forced expiration, as well as the nerves responsible for stimulating those muscles.; M03.04 State Boyles Law and relate this law to the specific sequence of events (muscle contractions/relaxations and pressure/volume changes) causing inspiration and expiration. 41) Which of the following are chemoreceptors? A) Hair cells in the cochlea B) Receptors in the aortic and carotid bodies C) Baroreceptors in the aortic and carotid arch D) Receptors that mediate the Hering-Breuer reflex Answer: B Section: 13.07 Topic: Control of pulmonary ventilation Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module M07 Control of pulmonary ventilation.; Module H06 Sensory receptors and their roles; Module I06 Roles of specific tissues of the ear in hearing HAPS Outcome: M07.02 List and describe the major chemical and neural stimuli to the respiratory centers.; H06.02 Describe each of the following types of receptors, indicating what sensation it detects and giving an example of where it can be found in the body: pain receptors (nociceptors), temperature receptors, mechanoreceptors (including proprioceptors and baroreceptors/pressoreceptors), chemoreceptors, and photoreceptors.; I06.01 Describe how the various structures of the outer, middle and inner ear function in hearing.
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42) Drug X is a new drug to treat Alzheimer's Disease. This drug is able to cross the blood-brain barrier and circulate in the CSF. The drug is slightly acidic and at the recommended dose it decreases the CSF pH from 7.4 to 7.3. Will Drug X have any effect on respiration? A) It will cause an increase in respiratory rate. B) It will cause a decrease in respiratory rate. C) It will have no effect on respiratory rate, but will cause an increase in depth of breathing. D) It will have no effect on respiratory rate, but will cause the patient to take shallower breaths. E) It will not impact respiratory function. Answer: A Section: 13.07 Topic: Control of pulmonary ventilation Bloom's: Level 3. Apply HAPS Topic: Module M07 Control of pulmonary ventilation.; Module H06 Sensory receptors and their roles; Module I06 Roles of specific tissues of the ear in hearing HAPS Outcome: M07.02 List and describe the major chemical and neural stimuli to the respiratory centers.; H06.02 Describe each of the following types of receptors, indicating what sensation it detects and giving an example of where it can be found in the body: pain receptors (nociceptors), temperature receptors, mechanoreceptors (including proprioceptors and baroreceptors/pressoreceptors), chemoreceptors, and photoreceptors.; I06.01 Describe how the various structures of the outer, middle and inner ear function in hearing. 43) What is the primary regulator of the magnitude of alveolar ventilation under normal circumstances? A) The H+ concentration in the brain extracellular fluid, which is monitored by central chemoreceptors B) The PO2 of the arterial blood, which is monitored by central chemoreceptors C) The PO2 of the arterial blood, which is monitored by peripheral chemoreceptors D) The H+ concentration in the arterial blood, which is monitored by central chemoreceptors E) Stretch receptors in the lung Answer: A Section: 13.07 Topic: Control of pulmonary ventilation Bloom's: Level 2. Understand HAPS Topic: Module M04 Pulmonary air volumes and capacities.; Module M07 Control of pulmonary ventilation. HAPS Outcome: M07.02 List and describe the major chemical and neural stimuli to the respiratory centers.; M04.02 Define and calculate values for minute ventilation and alveolar ventilation.; M07.01 Describe the locations and functions of the brainstem respiratory centers.; M07.03 Compare and contrast the central and peripheral chemoreceptors.
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44) Which of the following statements regarding control of respiration is correct? A) A slight decrease in arterial PO2 is a stronger stimulus for increased ventilation than is a comparable decrease in arterial PCO2. B) The most important signal for regulating ventilation is the H+ concentration of arterial blood. C) Increased concentrations of lactic acid stimulate ventilation primarily by acting on peripheral chemoreceptors. D) An increase in the HCO3- concentration in blood stimulates ventilation. E) At high altitude, a decrease in PCO2 of the blood stimulates an increase in ventilation. Answer: C Section: 13.07 Topic: Control of pulmonary ventilation Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module M06 Mechanisms of gas transport in the blood.; Module M07 Control of pulmonary ventilation.; Module M08 Application of homeostatic mechanisms.; Module Q06 Role of the respiratory and urinary systems in acid/base balance.; Module Q07 Application of homeostatic mechanisms.; Module Q08 Predictions related to homeostatic imbalance, including disease states and disorders. HAPS Outcome: M07.02 List and describe the major chemical and neural stimuli to the respiratory centers.; M06.03b With respect to carbon dioxide transport, state the reversible chemical equation for the reaction of carbon dioxide and water to carbonic acid and then to hydrogen ion and bicarbonate ion.; M08.01 Provide specific examples to demonstrate how the respiratory system responds to maintain homeostasis in the body.; Q06.02 Describe the role of the respiratory system in regulation of blood pH and predict how hypo- and hyperventilation will affect blood pH.; Q08.02 Predict factors or situations that would lead to a disruption of homeostasis by causing respiratory acidosis, respiratory alkalosis, metabolic acidosis, or metabolic alkalosis.; M07.01 Describe the locations and functions of the brainstem respiratory centers.; M07.03 Compare and contrast the central and peripheral chemoreceptors.; Q07.02 Provide specific examples to demonstrate how the cardiovascular, endocrine, respiratory, and urinary systems respond to maintain homeostasis of electrolyte concentrations and pH of body fluids.
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45) Which of these would tend to increase ventilation? A) Lower than normal arterial PCO2 B) Higher than normal arterial pH C) Breathing carbon monoxide D) Breathing air with increased PCO2 E) Iron-deficiency anemia Answer: D Section: 13.07 Topic: Control of pulmonary ventilation Bloom's: Level 2. Understand HAPS Topic: Module M07 Control of pulmonary ventilation.; Module M08 Application of homeostatic mechanisms.; Module M09 Predictions related to homeostatic imbalance, including disease states and disorders.; Module Q06 Role of the respiratory and urinary systems in acid/base balance.; Module Q07 Application of homeostatic mechanisms.; Module Q08 Predictions related to homeostatic imbalance, including disease states and disorders. HAPS Outcome: M09.01 Predict factors or situations affecting the respiratory system that could disrupt homeostasis.; M07.02 List and describe the major chemical and neural stimuli to the respiratory centers.; M08.01 Provide specific examples to demonstrate how the respiratory system responds to maintain homeostasis in the body.; Q06.02 Describe the role of the respiratory system in regulation of blood pH and predict how hypo- and hyperventilation will affect blood pH.; Q08.02 Predict factors or situations that would lead to a disruption of homeostasis by causing respiratory acidosis, respiratory alkalosis, metabolic acidosis, or metabolic alkalosis.; Q07.02 Provide specific examples to demonstrate how the cardiovascular, endocrine, respiratory, and urinary systems respond to maintain homeostasis of electrolyte concentrations and pH of body fluids. 46) If the nerves from the carotid and aortic bodies are cut, which of these would occur? A) A decrease in arterial PO2 will no longer increase ventilation. B) An increase in arterial PCO2 will no longer increase ventilation. C) An increase in arterial lactic acid will inhibit ventilation. D) An increase in arterial PCO2 will inhibit ventilation. E) A decrease in arterial PO2 will inhibit ventilation. Answer: A Section: 13.07; 13.08 Topic: Control of pulmonary ventilation; Clinical applications of the respiratory system Bloom's: Level 2. Understand HAPS Topic: Module M07 Control of pulmonary ventilation.; Module M09 Predictions related to homeostatic imbalance, including disease states and disorders. HAPS Outcome: M09.01 Predict factors or situations affecting the respiratory system that could disrupt homeostasis.; M09.02 Predict the types of problems that would occur in the body if the respiratory system could not maintain homeostasis.; M07.02 List and describe the major chemical and neural stimuli to the respiratory centers.; M07.03 Compare and contrast the central and peripheral chemoreceptors. 27 Copyright 2019 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.
47) You've just stepped on the treadmill and are beginning to increase your speed. As you reach your maximum, which of the following values will NOT increase? A) Minute ventilation B) Arterial PCO2 C) Oxygen delivery to muscles D) Oxygen extraction from the blood by muscles E) Body heat production Answer: B Section: 13.03; 13.07 Topic: Control of pulmonary ventilation Bloom's: Level 3. Apply HAPS Topic: Module M04 Pulmonary air volumes and capacities.; Module M05 Mechanisms of gas exchange in the lungs and tissues.; Module M07 Control of pulmonary ventilation.; Module M08 Application of homeostatic mechanisms.; Module K15 Application of homeostatic mechanisms. HAPS Outcome: M07.02 List and describe the major chemical and neural stimuli to the respiratory centers.; M04.02 Define and calculate values for minute ventilation and alveolar ventilation.; M08.01 Provide specific examples to demonstrate how the respiratory system responds to maintain homeostasis in the body.; K15.01 Provide specific examples to demonstrate how the cardiovascular system responds to maintain homeostasis in the body.; M05.03b With respect to internal respiration, explain the factors that maintain oxygen and carbon dioxide gradients between blood and tissue cells.
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48) Following strenuous exercise, blood levels of lactic acid are exercise levels. This change in acid concentration causes a reflex activating . A) decreased; decrease; peripheral chemoreceptors B) decreased; decrease; central chemoreceptors C) increased; increase; baroreceptors in the aortic arch D) increased; increase; central chemoreceptors E) increased; increase; peripheral chemoreceptors
compared to pre_ in ventilation by
Answer: E Section: 13.07 Topic: Control of pulmonary ventilation Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module M07 Control of pulmonary ventilation.; Module M08 Application of homeostatic mechanisms.; Module Q06 Role of the respiratory and urinary systems in acid/base balance.; Module Q07 Application of homeostatic mechanisms. HAPS Outcome: M07.02 List and describe the major chemical and neural stimuli to the respiratory centers.; M08.01 Provide specific examples to demonstrate how the respiratory system responds to maintain homeostasis in the body.; Q06.02 Describe the role of the respiratory system in regulation of blood pH and predict how hypo- and hyperventilation will affect blood pH.; M07.01 Describe the locations and functions of the brainstem respiratory centers.; M07.03 Compare and contrast the central and peripheral chemoreceptors.; Q07.02 Provide specific examples to demonstrate how the cardiovascular, endocrine, respiratory, and urinary systems respond to maintain homeostasis of electrolyte concentrations and pH of body fluids.
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49) Which of the following statements regarding hypoxia is correct? A) Exposure to high altitude is a form of hypoxic hypoxia. B) "Anemic hypoxia" refers to the condition of lower than normal arterial PO2. C) Carbon monoxide poisoning is an example of hypoxic hypoxia. D) Carbon monoxide poisoning is an example of ischemic hypoxia. E) Cyanide poisoning is an example of hypoxic hypoxia. Answer: A Section: 13.08 Topic: Mechanisms of gas exchange in the lungs and tissues; Clinical applications of the respiratory system Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module M05 Mechanisms of gas exchange in the lungs and tissues.; Module M09 Predictions related to homeostatic imbalance, including disease states and disorders. HAPS Outcome: M05.02b With respect to external respiration, analyze how oxygen and carbon dioxide movements are affected by changes in partial pressure gradients (e.g., at high altitude), surface area, diffusion distance, and solubility and molecular weight of the gases.; M09.01 Predict factors or situations affecting the respiratory system that could disrupt homeostasis.; M09.02 Predict the types of problems that would occur in the body if the respiratory system could not maintain homeostasis.; M05.01 State Daltons Law and Henrys Law, and relate both laws to the events of external and internal respiration and to the amounts of oxygen and carbon dioxide dissolved in plasma.; M05.02a With respect to external respiration, describe oxygen and carbon dioxide concentration gradients and net gas movements.
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50) Which of the following conditions would result in a systemic arterial PO2 lower than is typical of a healthy person at sea level? A) Traveling to high altitude B) Breathing 100% oxygen C) Having iron-deficiency anemia D) Breathing regular air in a hyperbaric chamber (higher that normal atmospheric pressure) E) Maintaining alveolar ventilation constant while decreasing metabolic rate Answer: A Section: 13.08 Topic: Mechanisms of gas exchange in the lungs and tissues; Clinical applications of the respiratory system Bloom's: Level 2. Understand HAPS Topic: Module M05 Mechanisms of gas exchange in the lungs and tissues.; Module M09 Predictions related to homeostatic imbalance, including disease states and disorders. HAPS Outcome: M05.02b With respect to external respiration, analyze how oxygen and carbon dioxide movements are affected by changes in partial pressure gradients (e.g., at high altitude), surface area, diffusion distance, and solubility and molecular weight of the gases.; M09.01 Predict factors or situations affecting the respiratory system that could disrupt homeostasis.; M05.01 State Daltons Law and Henrys Law, and relate both laws to the events of external and internal respiration and to the amounts of oxygen and carbon dioxide dissolved in plasma.; M05.02a With respect to external respiration, describe oxygen and carbon dioxide concentration gradients and net gas movements.
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51) Which is characteristic of a person chronically suffering from hypoxic hypoxia? A) Higher-than-normal alveolar PO2 B) Higher-than-normal hematocrit C) Higher-than-normal arterial PO2 D) Lower-than-normal lactic acid production E) Lower-than-normal blood flow through tissues Answer: B Section: 13.08 Topic: Clinical applications of the respiratory system Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module M09 Predictions related to homeostatic imbalance, including disease states and disorders.; Module K03 Identity, microscopic anatomy, numbers, formation, and functional roles of the formed elements of blood.; Module K15 Application of homeostatic mechanisms. HAPS Outcome: M09.01 Predict factors or situations affecting the respiratory system that could disrupt homeostasis.; M09.02 Predict the types of problems that would occur in the body if the respiratory system could not maintain homeostasis.; K03.01c With respect to the structure and numbers of formed elements in blood, state the normal ranges for erythrocyte counts and hematocrit (both male and female), total leukocyte count, and platelet count.; K03.02b With respect to development of formed elements, explain the basic process of erythropoiesis, the significance of the reticulocyte, and regulation through erythropoietin.; K15.01 Provide specific examples to demonstrate how the cardiovascular system responds to maintain homeostasis in the body.
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52) Which correctly describes the cause of the increase in alveolar ventilation that occurs when a person ascends to high altitude? A) The decrease in PCO2 of inspired air decreases alveolar PCO2, stimulating the peripheral chemoreceptors. B) The decrease in PCO2 of inspired air decreases alveolar PCO2, stimulating the central chemoreceptors. C) The decrease in PO2 of inspired air decreases alveolar and arterial PO2, stimulating the peripheral chemoreceptors. D) The decrease in total atmospheric pressure causes a greater negative pressure in the intrapleural space, resulting in deeper and more frequent breathing. E) The decrease in the total barometric pressure at high altitude causes hypocapnea, which stimulates peripheral chemoreceptors. Answer: C Section: 13.07; 13.08 Topic: Control of pulmonary ventilation Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module M03 Mechanisms of pulmonary ventilation.; Module M04 Pulmonary air volumes and capacities.; Module M05 Mechanisms of gas exchange in the lungs and tissues.; Module M07 Control of pulmonary ventilation.; Module M08 Application of homeostatic mechanisms. HAPS Outcome: M05.02b With respect to external respiration, analyze how oxygen and carbon dioxide movements are affected by changes in partial pressure gradients (e.g., at high altitude), surface area, diffusion distance, and solubility and molecular weight of the gases.; M07.02 List and describe the major chemical and neural stimuli to the respiratory centers.; M05.02a With respect to external respiration, describe oxygen and carbon dioxide concentration gradients and net gas movements.; M04.02 Define and calculate values for minute ventilation and alveolar ventilation.; M08.01 Provide specific examples to demonstrate how the respiratory system responds to maintain homeostasis in the body.; M03.04 State Boyles Law and relate this law to the specific sequence of events (muscle contractions/relaxations and pressure/volume changes) causing inspiration and expiration.; M03.03 Define and state relative values for atmospheric pressure, intrapulmonary pressure, intrapleural pressure, and transpulmonary pressure.; M07.03 Compare and contrast the central and peripheral chemoreceptors.
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53) The diaphragm is a large sheet of smooth muscle that separates the thoracic cavity from the abdomen. Answer: FALSE Section: 13.01 Topic: Mechanisms of pulmonary ventilation Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module M02 Gross and microscopic anatomy of the respiratory tract and related organs.; Module M03 Mechanisms of pulmonary ventilation. HAPS Outcome: M03.02 Identify the muscles used during quiet inspiration, during forced inspiration, and during forced expiration, as well as the nerves responsible for stimulating those muscles.; M02.04b For each of the following, describe the gross anatomical features - nasal cavities, paranasal sinuses, pharynx, larynx, trachea, bronchi, lungs, pleural membranes, pulmonary blood vessels and nerves, thoracic and pleural cavities, and diaphragm. 54) If the parietal pleura is cut during surgery, the lung on the side of the cut will expand and the chest wall will be compressed. Answer: FALSE Section: 13.02 Topic: Gross anatomy of the lower respiratory tract; Mechanisms of pulmonary ventilation; Clinical applications of the respiratory system Bloom's: Level 2. Understand HAPS Topic: Module M02 Gross and microscopic anatomy of the respiratory tract and related organs.; Module M03 Mechanisms of pulmonary ventilation.; Module M09 Predictions related to homeostatic imbalance, including disease states and disorders. HAPS Outcome: M09.01 Predict factors or situations affecting the respiratory system that could disrupt homeostasis.; M09.02 Predict the types of problems that would occur in the body if the respiratory system could not maintain homeostasis.; M03.06 Describe the forces that tend to collapse the lungs and those that normally oppose or prevent collapse.; M02.04b For each of the following, describe the gross anatomical features - nasal cavities, paranasal sinuses, pharynx, larynx, trachea, bronchi, lungs, pleural membranes, pulmonary blood vessels and nerves, thoracic and pleural cavities, and diaphragm.; M02.04c For each of the following, state the function of each structure - nasal cavities, paranasal sinuses, pharynx, larynx, trachea, bronchi, lungs, pleural membranes, pulmonary blood vessels and nerves, thoracic and pleural cavities, and diaphragm.
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55) The process of ventilation includes both the transport of gases by bulk flow and the diffusion of gases into and out of the blood. Answer: FALSE Section: 13.02 Topic: General functions of the respiratory system; Mechanisms of pulmonary ventilation Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module M01 General functions of the respiratory system.; Module M03 Mechanisms of pulmonary ventilation. HAPS Outcome: M03.01 Define pulmonary ventilation, inspiration, and expiration.; M01.02 Describe the four respiratory processes - ventilation, external respiration (gas exchange at lung), internal respiration (gas exchange at body tissues), and cellular respiration. 56) According to Boyle's law, the pressure exerted by a constant number of gas molecules in a container is inversely proportional to the volume of the container. Therefore, increasing the volume of the container will cause a decrease in its pressure. Answer: TRUE Section: 13.02 Topic: Mechanisms of pulmonary ventilation Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module M03 Mechanisms of pulmonary ventilation. HAPS Outcome: M03.04 State Boyles Law and relate this law to the specific sequence of events (muscle contractions/relaxations and pressure/volume changes) causing inspiration and expiration. 57) During inhalation/inspiration, the total alveolar volume decreases. Answer: FALSE Section: 13.02 Topic: Mechanisms of pulmonary ventilation Bloom's: Level 2. Understand HAPS Topic: Module M03 Mechanisms of pulmonary ventilation. HAPS Outcome: M03.01 Define pulmonary ventilation, inspiration, and expiration.; M03.04 State Boyles Law and relate this law to the specific sequence of events (muscle contractions/relaxations and pressure/volume changes) causing inspiration and expiration.
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58) During inhalation/inspiration, the diaphragm contracts and the alveolar pressure is less than atmospheric pressure; during exhalation/expiration, the diaphragm relaxes and the alveolar pressure is greater than atmospheric pressure. Answer: TRUE Section: 13.02 Topic: Mechanisms of pulmonary ventilation Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module M02 Gross and microscopic anatomy of the respiratory tract and related organs.; Module M03 Mechanisms of pulmonary ventilation. HAPS Outcome: M03.01 Define pulmonary ventilation, inspiration, and expiration.; M03.02 Identify the muscles used during quiet inspiration, during forced inspiration, and during forced expiration, as well as the nerves responsible for stimulating those muscles.; M03.04 State Boyles Law and relate this law to the specific sequence of events (muscle contractions/relaxations and pressure/volume changes) causing inspiration and expiration.; M02.04c For each of the following, state the function of each structure - nasal cavities, paranasal sinuses, pharynx, larynx, trachea, bronchi, lungs, pleural membranes, pulmonary blood vessels and nerves, thoracic and pleural cavities, and diaphragm. 59) Susan had heart surgery in October and during the surgery, by accident, the surgeon damaged one of her phrenic nerves leading to paralysis of half of her diaphragm. Immediately upon waking up from surgery, Susan will find that her respiratory rate has decreased. Answer: FALSE Section: 13.02 Topic: Mechanisms of pulmonary ventilation Bloom's: Level 3. Apply HAPS Topic: Module M03 Mechanisms of pulmonary ventilation. HAPS Outcome: M03.01 Define pulmonary ventilation, inspiration, and expiration.; M03.02 Identify the muscles used during quiet inspiration, during forced inspiration, and during forced expiration, as well as the nerves responsible for stimulating those muscles.; M03.04 State Boyles Law and relate this law to the specific sequence of events (muscle contractions/relaxations and pressure/volume changes) causing inspiration and expiration.
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60) Susan had heart surgery in October and during the surgery, by accident, the surgeon damaged one of her phrenic nerves leading to paralysis of half of her diaphragm. The following day, lab values will indicate that her arterial PO2 is decreased. Answer: TRUE Section: 13.02 Topic: Mechanisms of pulmonary ventilation Bloom's: Level 3. Apply HAPS Topic: Module M03 Mechanisms of pulmonary ventilation. HAPS Outcome: M03.01 Define pulmonary ventilation, inspiration, and expiration.; M03.02 Identify the muscles used during quiet inspiration, during forced inspiration, and during forced expiration, as well as the nerves responsible for stimulating those muscles.; M03.04 State Boyles Law and relate this law to the specific sequence of events (muscle contractions/relaxations and pressure/volume changes) causing inspiration and expiration. 61) In a normal person at rest, the part of the respiratory cycle in which no air is flowing through the airways and the respiratory muscles are relaxed is at the end of inhalation/inspiration, prior to exhalation/expiration. Answer: FALSE Section: 13.02 Topic: Mechanisms of pulmonary ventilation Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module M03 Mechanisms of pulmonary ventilation. HAPS Outcome: M03.01 Define pulmonary ventilation, inspiration, and expiration.; M03.02 Identify the muscles used during quiet inspiration, during forced inspiration, and during forced expiration, as well as the nerves responsible for stimulating those muscles.; M03.04 State Boyles Law and relate this law to the specific sequence of events (muscle contractions/relaxations and pressure/volume changes) causing inspiration and expiration. 62) Normal, resting exhalation/expiration of air from the lungs requires contraction of the exhalatory/expiratory intercostal muscles. Answer: FALSE Section: 13.02 Topic: Mechanisms of pulmonary ventilation Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module M03 Mechanisms of pulmonary ventilation. HAPS Outcome: M03.01 Define pulmonary ventilation, inspiration, and expiration.; M03.02 Identify the muscles used during quiet inspiration, during forced inspiration, and during forced expiration, as well as the nerves responsible for stimulating those muscles.; M03.04 State Boyles Law and relate this law to the specific sequence of events (muscle contractions/relaxations and pressure/volume changes) causing inspiration and expiration.
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63) Infants born prematurely frequently develop respiratory distress syndrome of the newborn because they have too few alveoli to exchange O2 and CO2 efficiently. Answer: FALSE Section: 13.02 Topic: Mechanisms of pulmonary ventilation; Clinical applications of the respiratory system Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module M03 Mechanisms of pulmonary ventilation.; Module M09 Predictions related to homeostatic imbalance, including disease states and disorders. HAPS Outcome: M09.01 Predict factors or situations affecting the respiratory system that could disrupt homeostasis.; M09.02 Predict the types of problems that would occur in the body if the respiratory system could not maintain homeostasis.; M03.05 Explain how each of the following affect pulmonary ventilation - bronchiolar smooth muscle contractions, lung and thoracic wall compliance and recoil, and pulmonary surfactant and alveolar surface tension.; M03.06 Describe the forces that tend to collapse the lungs and those that normally oppose or prevent collapse. 64) In an individual experiencing an asthma attack, arterial blood levels of PO2 will decrease and arterial blood levels of PCO2 will increase. Answer: TRUE Section: 13.02 Topic: Mechanisms of pulmonary ventilation; Clinical applications of the respiratory system Bloom's: Level 3. Apply HAPS Topic: Module M03 Mechanisms of pulmonary ventilation.; Module M09 Predictions related to homeostatic imbalance, including disease states and disorders. HAPS Outcome: M09.01 Predict factors or situations affecting the respiratory system that could disrupt homeostasis.; M09.02 Predict the types of problems that would occur in the body if the respiratory system could not maintain homeostasis.; M03.05 Explain how each of the following affect pulmonary ventilation - bronchiolar smooth muscle contractions, lung and thoracic wall compliance and recoil, and pulmonary surfactant and alveolar surface tension.
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65) The diameter of the airways in normal lungs is generally great enough that little resistance is offered to airflow. Answer: TRUE Section: 13.02 Topic: Gross anatomy of the upper respiratory tract; Gross anatomy of the lower respiratory tract; Mechanisms of pulmonary ventilation Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module M02 Gross and microscopic anatomy of the respiratory tract and related organs.; Module M03 Mechanisms of pulmonary ventilation. HAPS Outcome: M03.05 Explain how each of the following affect pulmonary ventilation bronchiolar smooth muscle contractions, lung and thoracic wall compliance and recoil, and pulmonary surfactant and alveolar surface tension.; M02.04b For each of the following, describe the gross anatomical features - nasal cavities, paranasal sinuses, pharynx, larynx, trachea, bronchi, lungs, pleural membranes, pulmonary blood vessels and nerves, thoracic and pleural cavities, and diaphragm. 66) A disease that causes obstruction in the bronchioles is likely to result in lowered systemic arterial pH. Answer: TRUE Section: 13.02; 13.05; 13.06 Topic: Mechanisms of pulmonary ventilation; Mechanisms of gas transport in the blood Bloom's: Level 3. Apply HAPS Topic: Module M03 Mechanisms of pulmonary ventilation.; Module M06 Mechanisms of gas transport in the blood. HAPS Outcome: M03.05 Explain how each of the following affect pulmonary ventilation bronchiolar smooth muscle contractions, lung and thoracic wall compliance and recoil, and pulmonary surfactant and alveolar surface tension.; M06.03b With respect to carbon dioxide transport, state the reversible chemical equation for the reaction of carbon dioxide and water to carbonic acid and then to hydrogen ion and bicarbonate ion.; M06.03g With respect to carbon dioxide transport, explain how each of the following relates to carbon dioxide transport carbonic anhydrase, hydrogen ions binding to hemoglobin and plasma proteins, the chloride ion shift, and the oxygen- hemoglobin saturation level.; M06.03a With respect to carbon dioxide transport, describe the ways in which carbon dioxide is transported in blood and discuss the relative importance of each to total carbon dioxide transport.
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67) Emphysema is a disease characterized by low lung compliance, obstructed airways, and ventilation-perfusion inequality. Answer: FALSE Section: 13.08 Topic: Mechanisms of pulmonary ventilation; Mechanisms of gas exchange in the lungs and tissues; Clinical applications of the respiratory system Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module M03 Mechanisms of pulmonary ventilation.; Module M05 Mechanisms of gas exchange in the lungs and tissues.; Module M09 Predictions related to homeostatic imbalance, including disease states and disorders. HAPS Outcome: M09.01 Predict factors or situations affecting the respiratory system that could disrupt homeostasis.; M09.02 Predict the types of problems that would occur in the body if the respiratory system could not maintain homeostasis.; M03.05 Explain how each of the following affect pulmonary ventilation - bronchiolar smooth muscle contractions, lung and thoracic wall compliance and recoil, and pulmonary surfactant and alveolar surface tension.; M05.02c With respect to external respiration, describe the mechanisms of ventilation-perfusion coupling and predict the effect that reduced alveolar ventilation has on pulmonary blood flow and the effect that reduced pulmonary blood flow has on bronchiole diameter and alveolar ventilation. 68) An individual with emphysema will have a lower tidal volume than an individual of the same size without emphysema. Answer: FALSE Section: 13.08 Topic: Mechanisms of pulmonary ventilation; Mechanisms of gas exchange in the lungs and tissues; Clinical applications of the respiratory system Bloom's: Level 3. Apply HAPS Topic: Module M03 Mechanisms of pulmonary ventilation.; Module M05 Mechanisms of gas exchange in the lungs and tissues.; Module M09 Predictions related to homeostatic imbalance, including disease states and disorders. HAPS Outcome: M09.01 Predict factors or situations affecting the respiratory system that could disrupt homeostasis.; M09.02 Predict the types of problems that would occur in the body if the respiratory system could not maintain homeostasis.; M03.05 Explain how each of the following affect pulmonary ventilation - bronchiolar smooth muscle contractions, lung and thoracic wall compliance and recoil, and pulmonary surfactant and alveolar surface tension.; M05.02c With respect to external respiration, describe the mechanisms of ventilation-perfusion coupling and predict the effect that reduced alveolar ventilation has on pulmonary blood flow and the effect that reduced pulmonary blood flow has on bronchiole diameter and alveolar ventilation.
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69) A clinical sign of obstructive lung disease would be a reduced FEV1/FVC ratio, where "FVC" is "forced" VC. Answer: TRUE Section: 13.02 Topic: Mechanisms of pulmonary ventilation; Pulmonary air volumes and capacities; Clinical applications of the respiratory system Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module M03 Mechanisms of pulmonary ventilation.; Module M04 Pulmonary air volumes and capacities.; Module M09 Predictions related to homeostatic imbalance, including disease states and disorders. HAPS Outcome: M09.01 Predict factors or situations affecting the respiratory system that could disrupt homeostasis.; M09.02 Predict the types of problems that would occur in the body if the respiratory system could not maintain homeostasis.; M03.05 Explain how each of the following affect pulmonary ventilation - bronchiolar smooth muscle contractions, lung and thoracic wall compliance and recoil, and pulmonary surfactant and alveolar surface tension.; M04.01 Define, identify, and determine values for the respiratory volumes (IRV, TV, ERV, and RV) and the respiratory capacities (IC, FRC, VC, and TLC). 70) The total dead space in the lungs includes anatomic dead space and any portion of the alveoli that has little or no blood supply. Answer: TRUE Section: 13.02 Topic: Pulmonary air volumes and capacities Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module M04 Pulmonary air volumes and capacities. HAPS Outcome: M04.03 Define anatomical dead space and explain the effect of anatomical dead space on alveolar ventilation and on the composition of alveolar and expired air. 71) Doubling the frequency of breathing will cause a greater increase in alveolar ventilation than will doubling the depth of inspiration. Answer: FALSE Section: 13.02 Topic: Pulmonary air volumes and capacities Bloom's: Level 2. Understand HAPS Topic: Module M04 Pulmonary air volumes and capacities. HAPS Outcome: M04.01 Define, identify, and determine values for the respiratory volumes (IRV, TV, ERV, and RV) and the respiratory capacities (IC, FRC, VC, and TLC).; M04.02 Define and calculate values for minute ventilation and alveolar ventilation.; M04.03 Define anatomical dead space and explain the effect of anatomical dead space on alveolar ventilation and on the composition of alveolar and expired air.
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72) At sea level, atmospheric PO2 is about 760 mmHg. Answer: FALSE Section: 13.03 Topic: Mechanisms of gas exchange in the lungs and tissues Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module M03 Mechanisms of pulmonary ventilation.; Module M05 Mechanisms of gas exchange in the lungs and tissues. HAPS Outcome: M05.01 State Daltons Law and Henrys Law, and relate both laws to the events of external and internal respiration and to the amounts of oxygen and carbon dioxide dissolved in plasma.; M03.03 Define and state relative values for atmospheric pressure, intrapulmonary pressure, intrapleural pressure, and transpulmonary pressure. 73) An individual in Boston (sea level) will have a lower tidal volume than an individual in Denver (5,280 feet above sea level). Answer: TRUE Section: 13.02 Topic: Pulmonary air volumes and capacities Bloom's: Level 3. Apply HAPS Topic: Module M04 Pulmonary air volumes and capacities. HAPS Outcome: M04.01 Define, identify, and determine values for the respiratory volumes (IRV, TV, ERV, and RV) and the respiratory capacities (IC, FRC, VC, and TLC).; M04.02 Define and calculate values for minute ventilation and alveolar ventilation.; M04.03 Define anatomical dead space and explain the effect of anatomical dead space on alveolar ventilation and on the composition of alveolar and expired air. 74) In the systemic circulation, the PO2 of arterial blood exceeds the PO2 of venous blood, while the reverse is true for the pulmonary circulation. Answer: TRUE Section: 13.03 Topic: Mechanisms of gas exchange in the lungs and tissues Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module M05 Mechanisms of gas exchange in the lungs and tissues.; Module K13 Pattern of blood circulation throughout the body, including systemic, pulmonary, coronary, hepatic portal, and fetal circulations. HAPS Outcome: M05.02a With respect to external respiration, describe oxygen and carbon dioxide concentration gradients and net gas movements.; K13.01b State which blood vessel type carries oxygen-rich blood and which type carries oxygen-poor blood in systemic and pulmonary circuits.
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75) Decreased alveolar PO2 causes reflex vasodilation of the pulmonary arterioles. Answer: FALSE Section: 13.03 Topic: Mechanisms of gas exchange in the lungs and tissues Bloom's: Level 2. Understand HAPS Topic: Module M05 Mechanisms of gas exchange in the lungs and tissues.; Module M09 Predictions related to homeostatic imbalance, including disease states and disorders. HAPS Outcome: M09.01 Predict factors or situations affecting the respiratory system that could disrupt homeostasis.; M05.02c With respect to external respiration, describe the mechanisms of ventilation-perfusion coupling and predict the effect that reduced alveolar ventilation has on pulmonary blood flow and the effect that reduced pulmonary blood flow has on bronchiole diameter and alveolar ventilation. 76) Most of the O2 carried in the blood is dissolved in plasma. Answer: FALSE Section: 13.04 Topic: Mechanisms of gas transport in the blood Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module M06 Mechanisms of gas transport in the blood. HAPS Outcome: M06.01a With respect to oxygen transport, describe the ways in which oxygen is transported in blood and discuss the relative importance of each to total oxygen transport. 77) When blood flows into the systemic capillaries, the PO2 of the erythrocytes is greater than the PO2 of the interstitial fluid, causing a shift from oxyhemoglobin to deoxyhemoglobin. Answer: TRUE Section: 13.04 Topic: Mechanisms of gas exchange in the lungs and tissues; Mechanisms of gas transport in the blood Bloom's: Level 2. Understand HAPS Topic: Module M05 Mechanisms of gas exchange in the lungs and tissues.; Module M06 Mechanisms of gas transport in the blood. HAPS Outcome: M06.01b With respect to oxygen transport, state the reversible chemical equation for oxygen binding to hemoglobin and predict how raising or lowering the partial pressure of oxygen will shift the equilibrium.; M05.03a With respect to internal respiration, describe oxygen and carbon dioxide concentration gradients and net gas movements.
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78) If lung disease results in an arterial PO2 of 80 mmHg, the total amount of oxygen carried by the blood is 20% below normal. Answer: FALSE Section: 13.04 Topic: Mechanisms of gas transport in the blood; Clinical applications of the respiratory system Bloom's: Level 3. Apply HAPS Topic: Module M06 Mechanisms of gas transport in the blood.; Module M09 Predictions related to homeostatic imbalance, including disease states and disorders. HAPS Outcome: M09.01 Predict factors or situations affecting the respiratory system that could disrupt homeostasis.; M09.02 Predict the types of problems that would occur in the body if the respiratory system could not maintain homeostasis.; M06.02a With respect to the oxygenhemoglobin saturation curve, interpret the curve at low and high partial pressures of oxygen.; M06.01a With respect to oxygen transport, describe the ways in which oxygen is transported in blood and discuss the relative importance of each to total oxygen transport. 79) Mixed venous blood in a resting individual still contains more than double the amount of oxygen extracted by the tissues as the blood passed through them. Answer: TRUE Section: 13.04 Topic: Mechanisms of gas transport in the blood Bloom's: Level 2. Understand HAPS Topic: Module M06 Mechanisms of gas transport in the blood. HAPS Outcome: M06.02a With respect to the oxygen-hemoglobin saturation curve, interpret the curve at low and high partial pressures of oxygen. 80) The affinity of hemoglobin for O2 is decreased in rapidly metabolizing tissues. Answer: TRUE Section: 13.04 Topic: Mechanisms of gas transport in the blood Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module M06 Mechanisms of gas transport in the blood. HAPS Outcome: M06.02b With respect to the oxygen-hemoglobin saturation curve, list factors that shift the curve down and to the right, and explain how this results in increased oxygen delivery to the tissues.
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81) Of the CO2 returning from the tissues in venous blood, more is dissolved in plasma as CO2 than is bound to hemoglobin. Answer: FALSE Section: 13.05 Topic: Mechanisms of gas transport in the blood Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module M06 Mechanisms of gas transport in the blood. HAPS Outcome: M06.03a With respect to carbon dioxide transport, describe the ways in which carbon dioxide is transported in blood and discuss the relative importance of each to total carbon dioxide transport.; M06.03f With respect to carbon dioxide transport, state the reversible chemical equation for carbon dioxide binding to deoxyhemoglobin and predict how changing carbon dioxide concentrations will affect deoxyhemoglobin levels in the tissues and the lungs. 82) Deoxyhemoglobin binds bicarbonate ion better than oxyhemoglobin does. Answer: FALSE Section: 13.05; 13.06 Topic: Mechanisms of gas transport in the blood Bloom's: Level 2. Understand HAPS Topic: Module M06 Mechanisms of gas transport in the blood. HAPS Outcome: M06.03f With respect to carbon dioxide transport, state the reversible chemical equation for carbon dioxide binding to deoxyhemoglobin and predict how changing carbon dioxide concentrations will affect deoxyhemoglobin levels in the tissues and the lungs. 83) Normally, all the H+ ions generated from CO2 in tissue capillaries recombine with bicarbonate in pulmonary capillaries and are removed from the body as CO2. Answer: TRUE Section: 13.05; 13.06 Topic: Mechanisms of gas transport in the blood Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module M06 Mechanisms of gas transport in the blood. HAPS Outcome: M06.03b With respect to carbon dioxide transport, state the reversible chemical equation for the reaction of carbon dioxide and water to carbonic acid and then to hydrogen ion and bicarbonate ion.; M06.03g With respect to carbon dioxide transport, explain how each of the following relates to carbon dioxide transport - carbonic anhydrase, hydrogen ions binding to hemoglobin and plasma proteins, the chloride ion shift, and the oxygenhemoglobin saturation level.; M06.03a With respect to carbon dioxide transport, describe the ways in which carbon dioxide is transported in blood and discuss the relative importance of each to total carbon dioxide transport.
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84) The majority of hydrogen ions generated in the formation of carbonic acid in the tissues are carried as freely dissolved H+ in the venous blood. Answer: FALSE Section: 13.06 Topic: Mechanisms of gas transport in the blood Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module M06 Mechanisms of gas transport in the blood. HAPS Outcome: M06.03b With respect to carbon dioxide transport, state the reversible chemical equation for the reaction of carbon dioxide and water to carbonic acid and then to hydrogen ion and bicarbonate ion.; M06.03g With respect to carbon dioxide transport, explain how each of the following relates to carbon dioxide transport - carbonic anhydrase, hydrogen ions binding to hemoglobin and plasma proteins, the chloride ion shift, and the oxygenhemoglobin saturation level.; M06.03a With respect to carbon dioxide transport, describe the ways in which carbon dioxide is transported in blood and discuss the relative importance of each to total carbon dioxide transport. 85) When a person hyperventilates, there are lower than normal levels of PCO2 and hydrogen ion in arterial blood, a condition called respiratory alkalosis. Answer: TRUE Section: 13.06 Topic: Mechanisms of gas transport in the blood; Control of pulmonary ventilation; Clinical applications of the respiratory system Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module M06 Mechanisms of gas transport in the blood.; Module M07 Control of pulmonary ventilation.; Module M09 Predictions related to homeostatic imbalance, including disease states and disorders.; Module Q06 Role of the respiratory and urinary systems in acid/base balance.; Module Q08 Predictions related to homeostatic imbalance, including disease states and disorders. HAPS Outcome: M09.01 Predict factors or situations affecting the respiratory system that could disrupt homeostasis.; M09.02 Predict the types of problems that would occur in the body if the respiratory system could not maintain homeostasis.; M06.03b With respect to carbon dioxide transport, state the reversible chemical equation for the reaction of carbon dioxide and water to carbonic acid and then to hydrogen ion and bicarbonate ion.; M06.03c With respect to carbon dioxide transport, explain the relationship between pH and hydrogen ion concentration.; M06.03d With respect to carbon dioxide transport, predict how changing the partial pressure of carbon dioxide will affect the pH and the concentration bicarbonate ions in the plasma.; M07.04 Define hyperventilation, hypoventilation, panting, eupnea, hyperpnea and apnea.; Q06.02 Describe the role of the respiratory system in regulation of blood pH and predict how hypo- and hyperventilation will affect blood pH.; Q08.02 Predict factors or situations that would lead to a disruption of homeostasis by causing respiratory acidosis, respiratory alkalosis, metabolic acidosis, or metabolic alkalosis.
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86) The rhythmic contractions and relaxations of the inspiratory muscles are dependent upon spontaneous depolarizations of the diaphragm. Answer: FALSE Section: 13.07 Topic: Mechanisms of pulmonary ventilation; Control of pulmonary ventilation Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module M03 Mechanisms of pulmonary ventilation.; Module M07 Control of pulmonary ventilation. HAPS Outcome: M03.01 Define pulmonary ventilation, inspiration, and expiration.; M03.02 Identify the muscles used during quiet inspiration, during forced inspiration, and during forced expiration, as well as the nerves responsible for stimulating those muscles.; M07.01 Describe the locations and functions of the brainstem respiratory centers. 87) The neurons responsible for the cyclic nature of respiratory muscle function are located in the brainstem. Answer: TRUE Section: 13.07 Topic: Control of pulmonary ventilation Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module M07 Control of pulmonary ventilation. HAPS Outcome: M07.01 Describe the locations and functions of the brainstem respiratory centers. 88) The medullary inspiratory neurons receive inhibitory neural input from the pons and also from pulmonary stretch receptors. Answer: TRUE Section: 13.07 Topic: Control of pulmonary ventilation Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module M07 Control of pulmonary ventilation. HAPS Outcome: M07.02 List and describe the major chemical and neural stimuli to the respiratory centers.; M07.01 Describe the locations and functions of the brainstem respiratory centers.
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89) A decrease in arterial PO2 stimulates increased ventilation by causing increased firing of action potentials in the afferent neurons from the carotid and aortic body chemoreceptors. Answer: TRUE Section: 13.07 Topic: Control of pulmonary ventilation Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module M07 Control of pulmonary ventilation.; Module M08 Application of homeostatic mechanisms.; Module H06 Sensory receptors and their roles HAPS Outcome: M07.02 List and describe the major chemical and neural stimuli to the respiratory centers.; M08.01 Provide specific examples to demonstrate how the respiratory system responds to maintain homeostasis in the body.; M07.03 Compare and contrast the central and peripheral chemoreceptors.; H06.02 Describe each of the following types of receptors, indicating what sensation it detects and giving an example of where it can be found in the body: pain receptors (nociceptors), temperature receptors, mechanoreceptors (including proprioceptors and baroreceptors/pressoreceptors), chemoreceptors, and photoreceptors. 90) A slight rise in arterial PCO2 from normal resting values at sea level is a much stronger stimulus for increasing ventilation than a comparable fall in arterial PO2 under the same conditions. Answer: TRUE Section: 13.07 Topic: Control of pulmonary ventilation Bloom's: Level 2. Understand HAPS Topic: Module M07 Control of pulmonary ventilation.; Module M08 Application of homeostatic mechanisms. HAPS Outcome: M07.02 List and describe the major chemical and neural stimuli to the respiratory centers.; M08.01 Provide specific examples to demonstrate how the respiratory system responds to maintain homeostasis in the body. 91) The most important signal for regulating normal ventilation is hydrogen ions in the blood generated by lactic acid production. Answer: FALSE Section: 13.07 Topic: Control of pulmonary ventilation Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module M07 Control of pulmonary ventilation. HAPS Outcome: M07.02 List and describe the major chemical and neural stimuli to the respiratory centers.
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92) Increased plasma concentration of lactic acid stimulates increased ventilation primarily by means of central chemoreceptors. Answer: FALSE Section: 13.07 Topic: Control of pulmonary ventilation Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module M07 Control of pulmonary ventilation.; Module M08 Application of homeostatic mechanisms.; Module M09 Predictions related to homeostatic imbalance, including disease states and disorders.; Module Q06 Role of the respiratory and urinary systems in acid/base balance.; Module Q07 Application of homeostatic mechanisms.; Module Q08 Predictions related to homeostatic imbalance, including disease states and disorders. HAPS Outcome: M09.01 Predict factors or situations affecting the respiratory system that could disrupt homeostasis.; M07.02 List and describe the major chemical and neural stimuli to the respiratory centers.; M08.01 Provide specific examples to demonstrate how the respiratory system responds to maintain homeostasis in the body.; Q06.02 Describe the role of the respiratory system in regulation of blood pH and predict how hypo- and hyperventilation will affect blood pH.; Q08.02 Predict factors or situations that would lead to a disruption of homeostasis by causing respiratory acidosis, respiratory alkalosis, metabolic acidosis, or metabolic alkalosis.; M07.03 Compare and contrast the central and peripheral chemoreceptors.; Q07.02 Provide specific examples to demonstrate how the cardiovascular, endocrine, respiratory, and urinary systems respond to maintain homeostasis of electrolyte concentrations and pH of body fluids. 93) During moderate exercise, arterial PCO2 and H+ concentration increase and arterial PO2 decreases, and these are the main stimuli causing increased ventilation. Answer: FALSE Section: 13.07 Topic: Control of pulmonary ventilation Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module M07 Control of pulmonary ventilation.; Module M08 Application of homeostatic mechanisms. HAPS Outcome: M07.02 List and describe the major chemical and neural stimuli to the respiratory centers.; M08.01 Provide specific examples to demonstrate how the respiratory system responds to maintain homeostasis in the body.
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94) One cause of hypoxic hypoxia in disease is diffusion impairment of O2 resulting from decreased alveolar surface area. Answer: TRUE Section: 13.08 Topic: Microscopic anatomy of the respiratory tract; Mechanisms of gas exchange in the lungs and tissues; Clinical applications of the respiratory system Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module M02 Gross and microscopic anatomy of the respiratory tract and related organs.; Module M05 Mechanisms of gas exchange in the lungs and tissues.; Module M09 Predictions related to homeostatic imbalance, including disease states and disorders. HAPS Outcome: M02.06c For each of the following, state the function of each structure respiratory (nasal) mucosa, the layers of the tracheal wall, the bronchi and bronchioles, the three cell types found in alveoli, and the respiratory membrane.; M05.02b With respect to external respiration, analyze how oxygen and carbon dioxide movements are affected by changes in partial pressure gradients (e.g., at high altitude), surface area, diffusion distance, and solubility and molecular weight of the gases.; M09.01 Predict factors or situations affecting the respiratory system that could disrupt homeostasis.; M09.02 Predict the types of problems that would occur in the body if the respiratory system could not maintain homeostasis. 95) Exposure to high altitude is a form of ischemic hypoxia. Answer: FALSE Section: 13.08 Topic: Mechanisms of gas exchange in the lungs and tissues Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module M05 Mechanisms of gas exchange in the lungs and tissues.; Module M09 Predictions related to homeostatic imbalance, including disease states and disorders. HAPS Outcome: M05.02b With respect to external respiration, analyze how oxygen and carbon dioxide movements are affected by changes in partial pressure gradients (e.g., at high altitude), surface area, diffusion distance, and solubility and molecular weight of the gases.; M09.01 Predict factors or situations affecting the respiratory system that could disrupt homeostasis.; M09.02 Predict the types of problems that would occur in the body if the respiratory system could not maintain homeostasis.
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96) A small amount of carbon monoxide in the air would not significantly alter the PO2 of inspired air nor the PO2 of the arterial blood. Answer: TRUE Section: 13.07 Topic: Mechanisms of gas exchange in the lungs and tissues; Mechanisms of gas transport in the blood; Clinical applications of the respiratory system Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module M05 Mechanisms of gas exchange in the lungs and tissues.; Module M06 Mechanisms of gas transport in the blood.; Module M09 Predictions related to homeostatic imbalance, including disease states and disorders. HAPS Outcome: M09.01 Predict factors or situations affecting the respiratory system that could disrupt homeostasis.; M09.02 Predict the types of problems that would occur in the body if the respiratory system could not maintain homeostasis.; M05.01 State Daltons Law and Henrys Law, and relate both laws to the events of external and internal respiration and to the amounts of oxygen and carbon dioxide dissolved in plasma.; M05.02a With respect to external respiration, describe oxygen and carbon dioxide concentration gradients and net gas movements.; M06.01a With respect to oxygen transport, describe the ways in which oxygen is transported in blood and discuss the relative importance of each to total oxygen transport. 97) The key difference between fetal hemoglobin and adult hemoglobin is that fetal hemoglobin has a lower affinity for oxygen because the levels of oxygen in placental blood is 2 to 3 times higher than other systemic arteries. Answer: FALSE Section: 13.04 Topic: Mechanisms of gas transport in the blood Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module M06 Mechanisms of gas transport in the blood.; Module K13 Pattern of blood circulation throughout the body, including systemic, pulmonary, coronary, hepatic portal, and fetal circulations. HAPS Outcome: K13.04d With respect to the fetal circulation: For each umbilical vessel and the major fetal blood vessels, state whether each vessel carries oxygen-rich, oxygen-poor or mixed blood, and explain why the different oxygen levels occur in these vessels.; M06.02d With respect to the oxygen-hemoglobin saturation curve, describe the oxygen-fetal hemoglobin saturation curve and its impact on oxygen delivery to fetal tissues.
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98) The control of respiration by centers in the brainstem can be over-ridden by higher brain centers when speaking, breath-holding, undergoing emotional reactions, and experiencing pain. Answer: TRUE Section: 13.07 Topic: Control of pulmonary ventilation Bloom's: Level 2. Understand HAPS Topic: Module M07 Control of pulmonary ventilation. HAPS Outcome: M07.02 List and describe the major chemical and neural stimuli to the respiratory centers.; M07.01 Describe the locations and functions of the brainstem respiratory centers. 99) Non-respiratory functions of the lungs include acting as "filters" for removing certain chemicals and blood clots. Answer: TRUE Section: 13.09 Topic: General functions of the respiratory system Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module M01 General functions of the respiratory system. HAPS Outcome: M01.01 Describe the major functions of the respiratory system. 100) CO2 can be transported in the blood in which of the following forms? A) Dissolved in plasma B) Dissolved in the cytosol of erythrocytes C) Bound to hemoglobin D) Dissolved in the cytosol of leukocytes E) Converted to chloride Answer: A, B, C Section: 13.05 Topic: Mechanisms of gas transport in the blood Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module M06 Mechanisms of gas transport in the blood. HAPS Outcome: M06.03b With respect to carbon dioxide transport, state the reversible chemical equation for the reaction of carbon dioxide and water to carbonic acid and then to hydrogen ion and bicarbonate ion.; M06.03g With respect to carbon dioxide transport, explain how each of the following relates to carbon dioxide transport - carbonic anhydrase, hydrogen ions binding to hemoglobin and plasma proteins, the chloride ion shift, and the oxygenhemoglobin saturation level.; M06.03a With respect to carbon dioxide transport, describe the ways in which carbon dioxide is transported in blood and discuss the relative importance of each to total carbon dioxide transport.; M06.03f With respect to carbon dioxide transport, state the reversible chemical equation for carbon dioxide binding to deoxyhemoglobin and predict how changing carbon dioxide concentrations will affect deoxyhemoglobin levels in the tissues and the lungs. 52 Copyright 2019 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.
101) An individual with emphysema might experience which of the following? A) Increased arterial PCO2 B) Increased arterial PO2 C) Decreased arterial PCO2 D) Decreased arterial PO2 E) Increased respiratory rate Answer: A, D, E Section: 13.08 Topic: Mechanisms of pulmonary ventilation; Mechanisms of gas exchange in the lungs and tissues; Clinical applications of the respiratory system Bloom's: Level 3. Apply HAPS Topic: Module M09 Predictions related to homeostatic imbalance, including disease states and disorders. HAPS Outcome: M09.01 Predict factors or situations affecting the respiratory system that could disrupt homeostasis.; M09.02 Predict the types of problems that would occur in the body if the respiratory system could not maintain homeostasis. 102) Which of these results from hyperventilation? A) Increased alveolar PO2 B) An increase in alveolar PCO2 C) Decreased alveolar PCO2 D) A decrease in alveolar PO2 E) The same alveolar PCO2 as under normal conditions Answer: A, C Section: 13.07 Topic: Control of pulmonary ventilation; Clinical applications of the respiratory system Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module M07 Control of pulmonary ventilation.; Module M09 Predictions related to homeostatic imbalance, including disease states and disorders. HAPS Outcome: M09.01 Predict factors or situations affecting the respiratory system that could disrupt homeostasis.; M07.04 Define hyperventilation, hypoventilation, panting, eupnea, hyperpnea and apnea.
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103) Which of the following is most responsible for detecting increases in H+ concentration? A) The medulla of the brainstem B) The peripheral chemoreceptors C) The central chemoreceptors D) The diaphragm E) The dorsal respiratory group Answer: B, C Section: 13.07 Topic: Control of pulmonary ventilation Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module M07 Control of pulmonary ventilation. HAPS Outcome: M07.02 List and describe the major chemical and neural stimuli to the respiratory centers.; M07.01 Describe the locations and functions of the brainstem respiratory centers.; M07.03 Compare and contrast the central and peripheral chemoreceptors.
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Vander's Human Physiology, 15e (Widmaier) Chapter 14 The Kidneys and Regulation of Water and Inorganic Ions 1) Which of the following does NOT correctly describe kidney function? A) They contribute significantly to long-term regulation of arterial blood pressure by maintaining the proper plasma volume. B) They produce urine of a constant composition at all times, in order to maintain homeostasis of extracellular fluid. C) They excrete metabolic waste products. D) They assist in maintaining proper acid-base balance in the body. E) They secrete hormones. 2) Tracey has been experiencing a fever and a feeling that she needs to urinate every few minutes, even though she has a very low urine volume. She goes to her doctor who tells her that she has a bacterial infection of her bladder. An ultrasound of her ureters indicates that there is no infection in the ureters. Where did the infection begin? A) Her urethra B) Her nephrons C) Her renal arteries D) Her renal pelvis E) None of these sites 3) Which correctly describes a basic renal process? A) Fluid is filtered from Bowman's capsule into the glomerulus. B) Substances are secreted from the tubule into the peritubular capillaries. C) Substances are reabsorbed from the peritubular capillaries into the tubular lumen. D) Substances are actively secreted from glomerular capillaries into Bowman's capsule. E) Fluid moves by bulk flow from glomerular capillaries into Bowman's space. 4) The amount of a substance that is excreted in the urine is equal to the amount that is plus the amount that is minus the amount that is . A) filtered; reabsorbed; secreted B) reabsorbed; filtered; secreted C) secreted; reabsorbed; filtered D) filtered; secreted; reabsorbed E) reabsorbed; secreted; filtered 5) Which of the following is least likely to be filtered into Bowman's capsule in a normal, healthy person? A) Glucose B) Plasma protein C) Sodium D) Urea E) Bicarbonate ion
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6) All of the following substances are present in proximal tubular fluid in the kidney, but which one is NOT normally present in urine? A) Ca2+ B) H+ C) K+ D) HPO42E) Glucose 7) Which one of the following substances is LEAST dependent on the kidney for regulation of its plasma concentration? A) Water B) Na+ C) K+ D) HPO42E) Glucose 8) You have a patient with extensive birth defects that affect the kidney anatomy. Nevertheless, she does have some kidney function. One thing you've noticed in her labs is extremely low renin secretion. Which of the following anatomical locations is likely to exhibit abnormal development? A) The ascending limb of the loop of Henle B) The glomerular capillaries C) The juxtaglomerular apparatus D) The proximal tubule E) The efferent arteriole 9) Which correctly describes the composition of the glomerular filtrate? A) It is identical to urine, but has a much smaller flow rate. B) It is identical to urine, but has a much larger flow rate. C) It is identical to blood plasma, except it lacks red blood cells. D) It is similar to plasma, except it does not contain glucose. E) It is similar to plasma, except it does not contain plasma proteins. 10) Which of the following statements concerning the process of glomerular filtration is correct? A) The hydrostatic pressure in Bowman's space opposes filtration. B) The glomerular filtration rate is limited by a transport maximum. C) All of the plasma that enters the glomerular capillaries is filtered. D) The osmotic force due to plasma proteins favors filtration. E) The hydrostatic pressure in glomerular capillaries opposes filtration.
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11) Which equation is equal to the net glomerular filtration pressure? A) GFP = hydrostatic pressure in glomerular capillaries - hydrostatic pressure in Bowman's capsule - osmotic pressure due to protein in Bowman's capsule B) GFP = osmotic pressure due to protein in plasma - hydrostatic pressure in glomerular capillaries - hydrostatic pressure in Bowman's capsule C) GFP = hydrostatic pressure in glomerular capillaries + hydrostatic pressure in Bowman's capsule + osmotic pressure due to protein in plasma D) GFP = hydrostatic pressure in glomerular capillaries + hydrostatic pressure in Bowman's capsule - osmotic pressure due to protein in plasma E) GFP = hydrostatic pressure in glomerular capillaries - hydrostatic pressure in Bowman's capsule - osmotic force due to proteins in plasma 12) Constriction of the decreases hydrostatic pressure in A) afferent arterioles; glomerular capillaries B) efferent arterioles; proximal convoluted tubules C) renal vein; peritubular capillaries D) efferent arterioles; glomerular capillaries E) efferent arterioles; Bowman's capsule
.
13) Which is TRUE regarding renal tubular reabsorption? A) Reabsorption of Na+ from the proximal tubule occurs as a result of water reabsorption. B) Reabsorption of glucose saturates at a maximum transport rate. C) Urea reabsorption cannot occur at any point along the nephron. D) Toxic substances are removed from the body by reabsorption from peritubular capillaries into the proximal tubule. E) Reabsorption of Na+ only occurs from nephron regions that come after the descending limb of the loop of Henle. 14) Which of the following describes tubular reabsorption in the kidney? A) The movement of substances from the peritubular capillaries into the tubular fluid B) The movement of substances from the proximal tubule into the loop of Henle C) Transepithelial transport from the lumen of the tubule into renal interstitial fluid D) Movement of Na+, Cl-, and water from glomerular capillaries into Bowman's capsule E) Transport of solutes from the renal medullary interstitial fluid into the collecting duct 15) Which is NOT a transport mechanism typically seen in renal tubular epithelial cells? A) Cotransport proteins in the luminal membrane of the proximal tubule that move Na+ and glucose from the proximal tubule into epithelial cells B) Transport proteins that move glucose by facilitated diffusion from inside of proximal tubule cells into the renal interstitial fluid C) Ion channels that allow Na+ to move by diffusion from the lumen of the proximal tubule into epithelial cells D) Na+-K+ ATPase pumps in the luminal membrane of proximal tubule epithelial cells that move Na+ from inside the cell into the tubule and K+ from the tubule lumen into the cell E) Countertransport proteins that move Na+ into proximal tubule epithelial cells while moving H+ from the cells into the lumen 3 Copyright 2019 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.
16) Which of the following substances undergoes renal tubular secretion? A) Ca2+ B) Na+ C) K+ D) H20 17) Tom is on a health kick and wants to make sure that he is always in balance in terms of total body water. Which of the following is important for him to keep in mind? A) He must ingest more water than is lost in the urine. B) He must ingest more water than is lost by all output pathways combined. C) He must ingest less water than is lost in the urine. D) The water filtered into Bowman's capsule must be 100% reabsorbed. E) The amount ingested plus that metabolically produced must equal the amount of water in the urine. 18) Which of the following is TRUE about how water is handled by the nephron? A) Water is filtered out of glomerular capillaries by bulk flow. B) Water is actively reabsorbed from the proximal tubule, and Na+ follows down its diffusion gradient. C) Water is actively secreted into the descending loop of Henle. D) The permeability of the ascending limb of the loop of Henle is modified by vasopressin. E) Vasopressin inserts pumps in the collecting duct membrane that move water against its concentration gradient. 19) You are a scientist for the Federal Drug Administration (FDA). An agricultural company wants to market a new pesticide they have developed for use on produce in the United States. This pesticide is hydrophilic, has a small molecular weight (it is slightly smaller than glucose), and it does not bind to any proteins. Which of the following is an appropriate hypothesis for how this drug will be found in the body? A) The pesticide will mostly be cleared in the feces as it will bind to cholesterol, which is added to the GI tract. B) The pesticide will remain in the blood for a long period as it is not filtered or secreted by the urinary tract. C) The pesticide will mostly be cleared in the urine as it will be filtered but not reabsorbed. D) The pesticide will be cleared through the skin as it will diffuse through the skin layers and evaporate from the surface. 20) Carl has hypothyroidism and therefore his Na+/K+ ATPase pumps are functioning at a reduced rate. Will there be any effect on the transport of Na+? A) There will be a reduction in Na+ transport in Bowman's capsule epithelial cells. B) There will be a reduction in ATP-dependent, Na+ transport on the apical side of the tubule epithelial cells. C) There will be a reduction in Na+ secretion on both sides of the tubule epithelial cells. D) There will be no change to Na+ transport. E) There will be a reduction in Na+ transport on the basolateral side of the tubule epithelial cells. 4 Copyright 2019 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.
21) Compared to the normal plasma osmolarity, the tubular fluid is Bowman's space, at the beginning of the loop of Henle, loop, and at the beginning of the distal convoluted tubule. A) isosmotic; hyperosmotic; hyperosmotic; isosmotic B) isosmotic; isosmotic; hypoosmotic; hypoosmotic C) isosmotic; isosmotic; hyperosmotic; hypoosmotic D) isosmotic; isosmotic; hypoosmotic; hyperosmotic E) isosmotic; isosmotic; hyperosmotic; isosmotic
as it enters at the tip of the
22) In what segment of the nephron is the greatest fraction of filtered water reabsorbed? A) The proximal tubule B) The ascending limb of the loop of Henle C) The distal convoluted tubule D) The collecting ducts E) The descending limb of the loop of Henle 23) Yolanda was born with a rare genetic disease in which the proximal tubules of her nephrons express half the number of aquaporins as is typical. What will be the result? A) Reduced reabsorption of water, although as much reabsorption of Na+ as is typical B) Reduced reabsorption of both water and Na+ in equal proportions C) Reduced reabsorption of all materials in the proximal tubules D) Reduced reabsorption of water, Na+, and glucose in the proximal tubules E) No change to reabsorption at this site 24) In which region of the nephron does the fractional reabsorption of water vary the most in response to variation in the state of hydration? A) The glomerulus B) The proximal convoluted tubule C) The loop of Henle D) The distal convoluted tubule E) The collecting duct 25) Which is NOT true about the countercurrent multiplier system of the kidney? A) It creates a hyperosmolar medullary interstitial fluid that allows the kidneys to form hypertonic urine. B) The descending loop of Henle is permeable to water. C) There is active transport of sodium and chloride out of the ascending limb of the loop of Henle. D) The ascending loop of Henle is not permeable to water. E) The fraction of filtered NaCl reabsorbed from the ascending limb equals the fraction of filtered water reabsorbed from the descending limb.
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26) How does the renal countercurrent multiplier mechanism allow the creation of a concentrated urine? A) It transports NaCl from the medullary interstitial fluid into the collecting duct, which directly increases the osmolarity of the urine. B) It transports urea from the medullary interstitial fluid into the collecting duct, which directly increases the osmolarity of the urine. C) By concentrating NaCl in the renal medullary interstitial fluid, it allows water to be reabsorbed from the collecting ducts when vasopressin is present. D) By pumping NaCl and urea into the ascending limb of the loop of Henle, it raises the solute load, which turns into a concentrated urine once water is extracted from the collecting duct. E) When anti-diuretic hormone is present, it stimulates the pumping of NaCl from the medullary interstitial fluid and water follows, concentrating the urine. 27) Water and NaCl reabsorbed from the loop of Henle directly reenter which blood vessels? A) Vasa recta B) Afferent arterioles C) Efferent arterioles D) Cortical peritubular capillaries E) Collecting ducts 28) In the condition diabetes mellitus, why does glucose appear in the urine? A) The plasma concentration of glucose becomes so high that it diffuses from peritubular capillaries into the proximal tubule, down its concentration gradient. B) The filtered load of glucose becomes greater than the tubular maximum for its reabsorption. C) Without the hormone insulin, glucose cannot enter proximal tubule epithelial cells. D) The rate of tubular secretion of glucose becomes greater than the sum of glucose filtration and reabsorption. E) Without insulin, the glomerular filtration barrier becomes extremely leaky to glucose, which is not normally filterable. 29) Which is TRUE about the hormone vasopressin (also known as antidiuretic hormone, ADH)? A) It is a peptide hormone released from the adrenal gland. B) It triggers insertion of aquaporins into the apical membranes of collecting duct cells. C) It promotes the excretion of more water in the urine. D) It stimulates the excretion of K+ in the urine. E) Its main function is to trigger the secretion of aldosterone. 30) Which of the following would occur if a person lost the ability to synthesize vasopressin? A) The ability to reabsorb water in the proximal tubule would be lost. B) The excretion of glucose in the urine would increase. C) The urine would become hypoosmotic compared to plasma. D) The urine production would decrease dramatically, and the urine osmolarity would be hypertonic compared to plasma. E) Blood pressure would increase significantly.
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31) Jerome has had too many alcoholic drinks at a party. One of the effects of alcohol is that it inhibits the release of vasopressin. Which of the following is Jerome likely to notice? A) A reduction in urine volume B) The excretion of glucose in the urine increased C) High volume of dilute urine D) Very concentrated urine E) An increase in blood pressure 32) Following a few months of noticeably high urine volume, Stephanie's doctor diagnosed her with diabetes insipidus. Stephanie's doctor prescribed her desmopressin, which is a synthetic drug form of which of these hormones? A) ACTH B) Vasopressin C) Atrial natriuretic factor D) Angiotensin II E) Insulin 33) Which of the following most accurately describes the renal transport of Na+? A) Na+ is actively transported in all segments of the tubule. B) Primary active transport of Na+ allows for secondary active transport of glucose and H+ in the proximal tubule. C) Most of the Na+ transport occurs in the distal convoluted tubule and collecting ducts. D) Na+ is actively secreted into the nephron lumen by cells in the cortical collecting ducts. E) Na+ is actively transported across the luminal membrane of proximal tubule cells in exchange for K+, by Na+/K+ ATPase pumps. 34) What region of the nephron reabsorbs about two-thirds of filtered Na+ and Cl-? A) Ascending loop of Henle B) Glomerulus C) Proximal convoluted tubule D) Distal convoluted tubule E) Collecting duct 35) After a day of fasting during Ramadan, Amira's blood Na+ level is quite low. Which of the following is likely to occur? A) An increase in plasma volume, which induces an increase in GFR and Na+ reabsorption rate B) A decrease in plasma volume, which induces an increase in GFR and Na+ reabsorption rate C) An increase in plasma volume, which induces an increase in GFR and a decrease in Na+ reabsorption rate D) A decrease in plasma volume, which induces a decrease in GFR and Na+ reabsorption rate E) A decrease in plasma volume, which induces a decrease in GFR and an increase in Na+ reabsorption rate
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36) What is the rate-limiting (regulated) step for stimulating the secretion of aldosterone? A) Conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II in the blood B) Secretion of angiotensinogen by the liver C) Conversion of angiotensinogen to angiotensin I in the blood D) Secretion of ACTH by the anterior pituitary E) Secretion of angiotensin II by the kidney 37) Which of the following statements regarding renal handling of Na+ is correct? A) In the proximal tubule, Na+ is actively transported across the luminal membrane of the tubular epithelial cells. B) Atrial natriuretic factor increases Na+ reabsorption. C) In the absence of aldosterone, Na+ will be secreted by the cortical collecting ducts. D) Na+ is actively reabsorbed in the ascending limb of the loop of Henle. E) Without vasopressin, the collecting duct is impermeable to Na+. 38) Which correctly describes renin? A) It is secreted by juxtaglomerular cells in renal afferent arterioles. B) Its secretion is enhanced by high levels of Na+ in the macula densa. C) Its secretion is stimulated by elevated blood pressure in the renal afferent arterioles. D) It acts on the adrenal cortex to stimulate aldosterone secretion. E) It is secreted by the liver in response to low blood pressure. 39) Which of the following organs is the main site of aldosterone secretion? A) Kidneys B) Adrenal glands C) Systemic and pulmonary blood vessels D) Liver E) The atria of the heart 40) You play a trick on your little brother and replace all the sugar in the sugar bowl with salt. In the morning, you find him eating a bowl full of cereal with salt on it. You realize he's eaten quite a bit of salt! Which is likely to occur? A) Urine osmolarity would decrease. B) Atrial natriuretic factor secretion would decrease. C) Firing by hypothalamic osmoreceptors would decrease. D) Secretion of atrial natriuretic factor would increase. E) Secretion of vasopressin would decrease. 41) In the presence of aldosterone, which nephron region reabsorbs the greatest fraction of the filtered Na+? A) Proximal tubule B) Macula densa C) Descending limb of the loop of Henle D) Distal convoluted tubule E) Cortical collecting duct 8 Copyright 2019 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.
42) Which of the following would cause a decrease in the excretion of Na+ and water? A) Increased hydrostatic pressure in the afferent renal arterioles B) Increased mean arterial blood pressure C) Increased atrial distension D) Decreased aldosterone secretion E) Decreased atrial natriuretic peptide secretion 43) Following a few months of noticeably high urine volume, Stephanie's doctor diagnosed her with diabetes insipidus and prescribed her desmopressin, which is a synthetic drug form of vasopressin. A few weeks later, Stephanie accidentally takes two doses instead of one. On that day, what is Stephanie likely to experience? A) An increase in the osmolarity of urine B) An increased urine volume C) A decrease in blood pressure D) A noticeable reduction in thirst and desire to drink water E) None of these would occur 44) Which stimulates vasopressin secretion? A) Increased plasma osmolarity B) Increased plasma volume C) Ingestion of alcohol D) Decreased aldosterone secretion E) Increased pressure in afferent arterioles 45) Following an intense workout your clothes are drenched in sweat. You estimate you lost at least 0.5 L of sweat. Your (similarly sized) friend skipped her workout to donate blood and you found out she donated 0.5 L of plasma. After these activities, which of you will have a greater increase in vasopressin secretion and why? A) You will have a greater vasopressin secretion because sweat is hyperosmotic to plasma. B) You will have a greater vasopressin secretion because sweat is hypoosmotic to plasma. C) Your friend will have a greater vasopressin secretion because sweat is hypoosmotic to plasma. D) Your friend will have a greater vasopressin secretion because sweat is isosmotic to plasma. E) Your friend will have a greater vasopressin secretion because sweat is hyperosmotic to plasma. 46) After prolonged exertion in a hot climate, baroreceptors would secretion of and thus renal reabsorption of + A) increase; increased; renin; increased; Na B) decrease; increased; renin; decreased; Na+ C) decrease; increased; vasopressin; increased; water D) increase; decreased; vasopressin; decreased; water E) decrease; decreased; vasopressin; increased; water
firing, leading to .
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47) Which of the following most accurately describes the actions of aldosterone? A) Aldosterone increases Na+ secretion and K+ reabsorption in the cortical collecting ducts. B) Aldosterone increases Na+ reabsorption and K+ secretion in the proximal tubule. C) Aldosterone decreases Na+ reabsorption and K+ secretion in the cortical collecting ducts. D) Aldosterone increases Na+ secretion and K+ reabsorption in the proximal tubule. E) Aldosterone increases Na+ reabsorption and K+ secretion in the cortical collecting ducts. 48) Which would result in the greatest stimulation of aldosterone secretion? A) Increasing plasma K+ concentration and decreasing plasma angiotensin II concentration B) Decreasing plasma K+ concentration and increasing plasma angiotensin II concentration C) Increasing plasma Na+ concentration and increasing plasma volume D) Increasing plasma K+ concentration and increasing plasma angiotensin II concentration E) Decreasing plasma Na+ concentration and decreasing plasma angiontensin II concentration 49) You are the CEO of a drug company where you've asked five teams of scientists to generate new drugs to decrease blood pressure. You can only send four of the drugs to market. Which of these drugs is least likely to decrease blood pressure and can be eliminated from potential development? A) A drug that interferes with aldosterone synthesis B) A drug that is an agonist of atrial natriuretic factor C) A drug that decreases sympathetic stimulation of renal arterioles D) A drug that enhances the activity of angiotensin-converting enzyme E) A drug that decreases liver production of angiotensinogen 50) Most of the reabsorption of filtered calcium is unregulated and occurs in the , but an additional amount can be reabsorbed in the , depending on the plasma concentration of parathyroid hormone. A) proximal convoluted tubule; distal convoluted tubule B) distal convoluted tubule; proximal convoluted tubule C) proximal convoluted tubule; descending loop of Henle D) distal convoluted tubule; medullary collecting ducts E) distal convoluted tubule; renal corpuscle 51) Andres has a parathyroid hormone deficiency. He first approached the doctor because he was experiencing and the early blood tests found that he had . A) decreased muscular excitability; low plasma calcium levels B) increased muscular excitability; low plasma calcium levels C) decreased muscular excitability; high plasma calcium levels D) increased muscular excitability; high plasma calcium levels E) frequent bones breaks; high plasma calcium levels
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52) When blood Ca2+ levels fall below normal, in what ways do the kidneys help restore them toward normal? A) By increasing 1,25-dihydroxyvitamin D3 formation, decreasing tubular phosphate reabsorption, and increasing tubular Ca2+ reabsorption B) By increasing 1,25-dihydroxyvitamin D3 formation, increasing tubular phosphate reabsorption, and increasing tubular Ca2+ reabsorption C) By decreasing 1,25-dihydroxyvitamin D3 formation, increasing tubular phosphate reabsorption, and increasing tubular Ca2+ reabsorption D) Increasing 1,25-dihydroxyvitamin D3 formation and increasing secretion of parathyroid hormone E) By increasing renal secretion of parathyroid hormone and increasing bone resorption 53) Which of the following statements regarding Ca2+ homeostasis is TRUE? A) Parathyroid hormone directly stimulates Ca2+ reabsorption by the kidneys. B) Parathyroid hormone directly stimulates Ca2+ absorption from the GI tract. C) In the absence of parathyroid hormone, plasma Ca2+ levels would be abnormally low, resulting in the hyperpolarization of nerve and muscle membranes. D) When plasma Ca2+ increases above normal, the secretion of parathyroid hormone increases. E) Vitamin D decreases the renal tubular reabsorption of Ca2+. 54) Which would NOT be caused by a decrease in plasma Ca2+ levels in an otherwise normal person? A) An increase in plasma parathyroid hormone levels B) An increase in plasma 1,25-dihydroxyvitamin D3 levels C) An increase in nerve and muscle excitability D) A decrease in the filtered load of Ca2+ E) An increase in bone density 55) Which of the following statements about renal control of blood acid-base balance is TRUE? A) Increased metabolism of glutamine by renal tubular cells increases the plasma bicarbonate concentration. B) Excretion in the urine of hydrogen bound to phosphate buffers decreases plasma bicarbonate concentration. C) H+ that binds to filtered bicarbonate in the tubular fluid is excreted in the urine. D) When hypoventilation occurs at the lungs, the kidneys compensate by reducing glutamine metabolism. E) The kidneys compensate for a metabolic alkalosis by increasing CO2 production.
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56) Following a series of high-intensity training runs, lactic acid was generated by the leg muscles and is now circulating in the blood. Which of the following is likely to occur? A) Decreased renal secretion of hydrogen ion B) Decreased renal reabsorption of bicarbonate ion C) Increased plasma PCO2 D) Decreased urinary pH E) Decreased urinary ammonium 57) You are an EMT and arrive at the scene of an opioid overdose. The overdose victim is breathing extremely slowly and shallowly. When you arrive at the ER, you report that the medical team should watch out for signs of A) metabolic acidosis. B) respiratory acidosis. C) metabolic alkalosis. D) respiratory alkalosis. 58) How would the kidneys respond to hypoventilation? A) Increasing secretion of H+ and increasing production of new HCO3B) Increasing secretion of H+ and decreasing reabsorption of HCO3C) Decreasing secretion of H+ and increasing production of new HCO3D) Decreasing secretion of H+ and decreasing reabsorption of HCO3E) Increasing excretion of CO2 59) If a patient with pulmonary disease began to hypoventilate, how would plasma levels of [H+], HCO3-, and PCO2 be changed, compared to normal? A) Increased [H+], increased PCO2, and increased [HCO3-] B) Increased [H+], increased PCO2, and decreased [HCO3-] C) Increased [H+], decreased PCO2, and decreased [HCO3-] D) Decreased [H+], increased PCO2, and decreased [HCO3-] E) Decreased [H+], decreased PCO2, and decreased [HCO3-] 60) A man with hypertension takes a diuretic that is not potassium-sparing, and he does not increase his ingestion of potassium. Which of the following side-effects would the drug be most likely to cause? A) Increased blood volume B) Depolarized neuronal cell membranes C) Hyperkalemia D) Cardiac arrhythmia E) All of these side effects would occur.
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61) You are a scientist at a drug company where your CEO has asked for your team to create a drug that will inhibit spontaneous emptying of the bladder (incontinence). Which of the following drugs would be effective? A) A drug that enhances the effects of parasympathetic neurons on the detrusor muscle B) A drug that blocks the effects of parasympathetic neurons on the detrusor muscle C) A drug that inhibits the effects of sympathetic neurons on the internal urethral sphincter D) A drug that inhibits the effects of somatic neurons on the bladder E) A drug that inhibits the action of sympathetic neurons on the external urethral sphincter 62) The anatomic arrangement of juxtamedullary nephrons in the kidneys is such that the glomerulus, proximal tubule, and distal convoluted tubule are in the renal cortex, while the loop of Henle and collecting ducts lie mainly in the renal medulla. 63) The three basic processes of kidney function are filtration from the glomerulus into Bowman's capsule, secretion from the tubule into the peritubular capillaries, and reabsorption from the capillaries into the tubular lumen. 64) Only substances that are filtered by the kidneys can be excreted by them. 65) A person on a high-protein diet will have high levels of protein in their urine. 66) The filtered load of water in an average person is approximately 180 L/day. 67) Water, sodium, and glucose all undergo tubular reabsorption, but urea does not. 68) The kidneys regulate the plasma concentrations of water, sodium, and glucose. 69) If water intake (ingestion) is decreased, the kidney can decrease the amount of water excreted in urine by increasing the amount of water reabsorbed at the renal corpuscle. 70) In healthy individuals, the amount of glucose present in urine will be virtually zero because the amount of glucose reabsorption from the filtrate back into the blood prevents excretion. 71) The spinal reflex for micturition involves stretch receptors in the wall of the bladder that send messages about distension to sympathetic, parasympathetic, and motor neurons in the spinal cord. 72) Voluntary control of micturition involves controlling somatic motor input to the muscles of the external urethral sphincter. 73) Total-body balance of water and Na+ is largely maintained by regulating urinary loss of these substances. 74) Most of the body's water is located inside cells, whereas most of the body's Na+ is in the interstitial fluid and plasma. 13 Copyright 2019 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.
75) The total solute concentration in the extracellular fluid is mainly dependent upon the concentration of Na+ in the extracellular fluid. 76) Water absorption from the proximal tubule is mainly driven by the active reabsorption of Na+. 77) A consequence of lack of vasopressin is excretion of sugar in the urine, which occurs in the condition diabetes mellitus. 78) A person lacking vasopressin would have to drink 180 L of water per day to make up for the water lost in the urine. 79) The countercurrent mechanism of the kidney enables the formation of hypertonic urine. 80) The walls of the ascending limb of the loop of Henle are freely permeable to water. 81) The fluid entering the distal convoluted tubule is hypoosmotic with respect to plasma. 82) At the bend of the loop of Henle, the osmolarity of the tubular fluid is more than four times greater than that of the glomerular filtrate when a person is in an antidiuretic state. 83) The main force responsible for water reabsorption from the collecting ducts is the low hydrostatic pressure in the surrounding interstitial space. 84) Unlike the renal cortical interstitial fluid, the interstitial fluid of the medulla is hyperosmotic. 85) In the absence of vasopressin, urine is isoosmotic with plasma. 86) Increasing the GFR tends to increase the excretion rate of sodium. 87) Atrial distension is a stimulus for the secretion of atrial natriuretic factor, which stimulates the reabsorption of sodium by the kidneys. 88) Following hemorrhage, vasopressin secretion increases because of increased firing of hypothalamic osmoreceptors. 89) Because fluid loss as sweat is isoosmotic, the baroreceptor reflexes are more important than osmoreceptor activity in restoring extracellular fluid volume after sweating. 90) An increase in the osmolarity of the blood supplying the hypothalamus is a powerful stimulus for thirst. 91) A patient receives an IV (intravenous) infusion of a concentrated, 9% saline solution (0.9% is considered isosmotic). Even if there was no change to the volume of blood or water in the body, this patient is likely to experience extreme thirst following the infusion. 14 Copyright 2019 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.
92) Regulation of extracellular K+ is not critical to body function because only about 2% of the total-body K+ is in the extracellular fluid. 93) Cardiac arrhythmias may be a clinical sign of either K+ depletion or excess. 94) Both Na+ and Cl- freely filter from the glomerular capillaries into Bowman's space, with no secretion along the renal tubule. 95) The reabsorption of water in the nephron is accomplished due to the generation of an osmotic gradient created by Na+ reabsorption. 96) In the proximal convoluted tubule the reabsorption of Na+ is unaffected by the presence or absence of other substances such as glucose or H+ in the filtrate. 97) Unlike Na+, K+ is secreted by the nephron tubules. 98) Ingestion of large amounts of K+ triggers reflexes to limit the amount of K+ reabsorbed by the cortical collecting ducts. 99) A misguided athlete ingests a large amount of dietary K+ because she thinks it will boost muscle performance. Instead, the majority of this extra K+ is secreted into filtrate and excreted in the urine. 100) Stimuli that cause increased Na+ reabsorption decrease K+ secretion. 101) A stimulus for increased aldosterone secretion is decreased plasma K+ concentration. 102) A substance that interferes with the active transport of Na+ in the cortical collecting ducts will also interfere with K+ reabsorption. 103) A stimulus for increased aldosterone secretion is increased plasma levels of K+. 104) If damage to the glomerular capillaries resulted in significantly enlarged filtration slits in the endothelial lining, one consequence might be loss of protein in the urine. 105) If damage to the glomerular capillaries resulted in significantly enlarged capillary pores in the endothelial lining, GFR would decrease. 106) Regulation of Ca2+ balance, like that of Na+ and K+ balance, is only determined by the kidneys. 107) Parathyroid hormone influences Ca2+ and PO4- by stimulating their resorption from bone and stimulating their reabsorption in the kidneys. 108) Most of the H+ excreted in the urine is bound to bicarbonate ion. 15 Copyright 2019 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.
109) One response to increased H+ production in the body is decreased reabsorption of HCO3by the kidneys. 110) In a person with respiratory acidosis, HCO3- is actively secreted into the urine by the tubular cells. 111) The kidneys work to rectify metabolic acidosis and alkalosis but have no effect on respiratory acidosis and alkalosis. 112) A compensation for an episode of severe vomiting is an increased alveolar ventilation rate. 113) If the plasma protein concentration decreased by half, the GFR would also decrease. 114) Diuretic drugs increase the rate of urine formation by stimulating the production of vasopressin. 115) People taking diuretics that do not spare K+ should increase their ingestion of Na+. 116) In which of the following ways do the kidneys contribute to homeostasis? A) Regulation of extracellular fluid osmolarity B) Regulation of systemic pH C) Regulation of blood glucose concentration D) Regulation of blood pressure E) Recycling of old red blood cells F) Secretion of cholesterol 117) You are designing a urinalysis test to be used in doctors' offices. You want the test to be able to indicate a variety of problems with kidney function, but you want the test to be as simple and inexpensive as possible. Testing for the presence of which of the following in the urine would indicate a potential problem with kidney function? A) Protein B) H+ C) K+ D) Na+ E) Glucose 118) Which of the following would be likely to increase GFR? A) Sympathetic stimulation of afferent arteriolar smooth muscle B) Constricting efferent arterioles C) A decrease in plasma volume D) An increase in the concentration of plasma proteins E) Dilation of the afferent arteriole
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119) What change in renal regulation of H+ would help compensate for a metabolic acidosis? A) A decrease in the filtered load of organic molecules B) An increase in the secretion of H+ C) A decrease in the tubular production of ammonia D) A decrease in the amount of H+ secreted in the proximal tubule E) An increase in the production of new plasma HCO3120) A patient has a bacterial infection in the renal tubules where it caused inflammation. The tubules narrowed due to hardening and inflammation, thereby increasing resistance. A fluid back-up ensued. Which of the following is TRUE? A) Hydrostatic pressure of Bowman's capsule will increase. B) GFR will decrease. C) Blood pressure will decrease. D) Urine volume will increase. E) Protein will be present in the urine.
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Vander's Human Physiology, 15e (Widmaier) Chapter 14 The Kidneys and Regulation of Water and Inorganic Ions 1) Which of the following does NOT correctly describe kidney function? A) They contribute significantly to long-term regulation of arterial blood pressure by maintaining the proper plasma volume. B) They produce urine of a constant composition at all times, in order to maintain homeostasis of extracellular fluid. C) They excrete metabolic waste products. D) They assist in maintaining proper acid-base balance in the body. E) They secrete hormones. Answer: B Section: 14.01 Topic: General functions of the urinary system Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module P01 General functions of the urinary system. HAPS Outcome: P01.01 Describe the major functions of the urinary system. 2) Tracey has been experiencing a fever and a feeling that she needs to urinate every few minutes, even though she has a very low urine volume. She goes to her doctor who tells her that she has a bacterial infection of her bladder. An ultrasound of her ureters indicates that there is no infection in the ureters. Where did the infection begin? A) Her urethra B) Her nephrons C) Her renal arteries D) Her renal pelvis E) None of these sites Answer: A Section: 14.02 Topic: Gross anatomy of the urinary system Bloom's: Level 3. Apply HAPS Topic: Module P02 Gross and microscopic anatomy of the urinary tract, including detailed histology of the nephron. HAPS Outcome: P02.01a Describe the external structure of the kidney, including its location, support structures and covering with respect to gross anatomy of the urinary tract.; P02.01b Identify, and describe the structure and location of, the ureters, urinary bladder and urethra with respect to gross anatomy of the urinary tract.
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3) Which correctly describes a basic renal process? A) Fluid is filtered from Bowman's capsule into the glomerulus. B) Substances are secreted from the tubule into the peritubular capillaries. C) Substances are reabsorbed from the peritubular capillaries into the tubular lumen. D) Substances are actively secreted from glomerular capillaries into Bowman's capsule. E) Fluid moves by bulk flow from glomerular capillaries into Bowman's space. Answer: E Section: 14.03 Topic: Microscopic anatomy of the urinary system; Functional process of urine formation, including filtration, reabsorption, and secretion Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module P02 Gross and microscopic anatomy of the urinary tract, including detailed histology of the nephron.; Module P03 Functional process of urine formation, including filtration reabsorption, and secretion. HAPS Outcome: P02.03a Identify the major structures and subdivisions of the renal corpuscles, renal tubules and renal capillaries in the nephron and collecting system.; P03.01 List the three major processes in urine formation and where each occurs in the nephron and collecting system.; P03.05 Compare and contrast reabsorption and tubular secretion, with respect to direction of solute movement, strength of concentration gradients, and energy required.; P02.03c Compare and contrast the structure and function of glomerular and peritubular capillaries in the nephron and collecting system. 4) The amount of a substance that is excreted in the urine is equal to the amount that is plus the amount that is minus the amount that is . A) filtered; reabsorbed; secreted B) reabsorbed; filtered; secreted C) secreted; reabsorbed; filtered D) filtered; secreted; reabsorbed E) reabsorbed; secreted; filtered Answer: D Section: 14.03 Topic: Functional process of urine formation, including filtration, reabsorption, and secretion; Regulation of urine volume and composition Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module P03 Functional process of urine formation, including filtration reabsorption, and secretion. HAPS Outcome: P03.01 List the three major processes in urine formation and where each occurs in the nephron and collecting system.; P03.06 Explain how the three processes in urine formation determine the rate of excretion of any solute.
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5) Which of the following is least likely to be filtered into Bowman's capsule in a normal, healthy person? A) Glucose B) Plasma protein C) Sodium D) Urea E) Bicarbonate ion Answer: B Section: 14.03 Topic: Microscopic anatomy of the urinary system; Functional process of urine formation, including filtration, reabsorption, and secretion Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module P02 Gross and microscopic anatomy of the urinary tract, including detailed histology of the nephron.; Module P03 Functional process of urine formation, including filtration reabsorption, and secretion. HAPS Outcome: P02.03a Identify the major structures and subdivisions of the renal corpuscles, renal tubules and renal capillaries in the nephron and collecting system.; P03.02a Describe the structure of the filtration membrane. 6) All of the following substances are present in proximal tubular fluid in the kidney, but which one is NOT normally present in urine? A) Ca2+ B) H+ C) K+ D) HPO42E) Glucose Answer: E Section: 14.03 Topic: Microscopic anatomy of the urinary system; Functional process of urine formation, including filtration, reabsorption, and secretion Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module P02 Gross and microscopic anatomy of the urinary tract, including detailed histology of the nephron.; Module P03 Functional process of urine formation, including filtration reabsorption, and secretion. HAPS Outcome: P02.03a Identify the major structures and subdivisions of the renal corpuscles, renal tubules and renal capillaries in the nephron and collecting system.; P03.03d Describe how and where water, organic compounds, and ions are reabsorbed in the nephron.; P03.07 Compare and contrast blood plasma, glomerular filtrate, and urine and then relate their differences to function of the nephron.
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7) Which one of the following substances is LEAST dependent on the kidney for regulation of its plasma concentration? A) Water B) Na+ C) K+ D) HPO42E) Glucose Answer: E Section: 14.03 Topic: Regulation of water balance; Regulation of electrolyte balances Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module P03 Functional process of urine formation, including filtration reabsorption, and secretion.; Module P04 Factors regulating and altering urine volume and composition, including the renin- angiotensin system and the roles of aldosterone, antidiuretic hormone, and the natriuretic peptides.; Module Q01 Regulation of water intake and output.; Module Q03 Chemical composition of the major compartment fluids.; Module Q06 Role of the respiratory and urinary systems in acid/base balance.; Module J05 Identity, source, secretory control, and functional roles of the major hormones produced by the body.; Module O03 Cellular respiration and the catabolism and anabolism of carbohydrates, lipids, and proteins HAPS Outcome: J05.01d Predict the larger effect that fluctuations in the hormone level will have on conditions (variables) within the body for growth hormone, thyroid-stimulating hormone, luteinizing hormone, follicle stimulating hormone, prolactin, adrenocorticotropic hormone, oxytocin, and antidiuretic hormone (or vasopressin).; J05.07d In the pancreas, predict the larger effect that fluctuations in insulin and glucagon levels will have on conditions (variables) within the body.; P04.03 Describe how each of the following works to regulate reabsorption and secretion, so as to affect urine volume and composition- renin- angiotensin system, aldosterone, antidiuretic hormone, and natriuretic peptides.; Q03.04 Describe hormonal regulation of electrolyte levels in the plasma, including sodium, chloride, potassium, phosphate and calcium.; Q01.04 Describe the mechanisms used to regulate water output.; P03.03d Describe how and where water, organic compounds, and ions are reabsorbed in the nephron.; P03.07 Compare and contrast blood plasma, glomerular filtrate, and urine and then relate their differences to function of the nephron.; Q06.03 Explain the mechanisms by which the kidneys secrete hydrogen ions, and how this process affects blood pH.; J05.04d In the adrenal gland, predict the larger effect that fluctuations in glucocorticoids (cortisol), mineralocorticoids (aldosterone), gonadocorticoids, epinephrine and norepinephrine levels will have on conditions (variables) within the body.; O03.01f With respect to carbohydrate metabolism, describe the role of hormones (such as cortisol, growth hormone, thyroid hormone, insulin, glucagon and norepinephrine) in regulation of carbohydrate catabolism and anabolism.
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8) You have a patient with extensive birth defects that affect the kidney anatomy. Nevertheless, she does have some kidney function. One thing you've noticed in her labs is extremely low renin secretion. Which of the following anatomical locations is likely to exhibit abnormal development? A) The ascending limb of the loop of Henle B) The glomerular capillaries C) The juxtaglomerular apparatus D) The proximal tubule E) The efferent arteriole Answer: C Section: 14.02; 14.08 Topic: Microscopic anatomy of the urinary system; Hormonal regulation Bloom's: Level 3. Apply HAPS Topic: Module P02 Gross and microscopic anatomy of the urinary tract, including detailed histology of the nephron.; Module P04 Factors regulating and altering urine volume and composition, including the renin- angiotensin system and the roles of aldosterone, antidiuretic hormone, and the natriuretic peptides.; Module Q03 Chemical composition of the major compartment fluids.; Module J05 Identity, source, secretory control, and functional roles of the major hormones produced by the body. HAPS Outcome: P02.03a Identify the major structures and subdivisions of the renal corpuscles, renal tubules and renal capillaries in the nephron and collecting system.; P04.03 Describe how each of the following works to regulate reabsorption and secretion, so as to affect urine volume and composition- renin- angiotensin system, aldosterone, antidiuretic hormone, and natriuretic peptides.; Q03.04 Describe hormonal regulation of electrolyte levels in the plasma, including sodium, chloride, potassium, phosphate and calcium.; P02.03d Identify the location, structures and cells of the juxtaglomerular apparatus in the nephron and collecting system.; J05.04b In the adrenal gland, identify the gland or endocrine tissue/organ and the cells within that gland/tissue/organ that produce glucocorticoids (cortisol), mineralocorticoids (aldosterone), gonadocorticoids, epinephrine and norepinephrine.; J05.10b In the heart, identify the gland or endocrine tissue/organ and the cells within that gland/tissue/organ that produce atrial natriuretic peptide.
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9) Which correctly describes the composition of the glomerular filtrate? A) It is identical to urine, but has a much smaller flow rate. B) It is identical to urine, but has a much larger flow rate. C) It is identical to blood plasma, except it lacks red blood cells. D) It is similar to plasma, except it does not contain glucose. E) It is similar to plasma, except it does not contain plasma proteins. Answer: E Section: 14.03 Topic: Functional process of urine formation, including filtration, reabsorption, and secretion Bloom's: Level 2. Understand HAPS Topic: Module P03 Functional process of urine formation, including filtration reabsorption, and secretion. HAPS Outcome: P03.07 Compare and contrast blood plasma, glomerular filtrate, and urine and then relate their differences to function of the nephron. 10) Which of the following statements concerning the process of glomerular filtration is correct? A) The hydrostatic pressure in Bowman's space opposes filtration. B) The glomerular filtration rate is limited by a transport maximum. C) All of the plasma that enters the glomerular capillaries is filtered. D) The osmotic force due to plasma proteins favors filtration. E) The hydrostatic pressure in glomerular capillaries opposes filtration. Answer: A Section: 14.03 Topic: Functional process of urine formation, including filtration, reabsorption, and secretion Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module P03 Functional process of urine formation, including filtration reabsorption, and secretion. HAPS Outcome: P03.02c Describe the hydrostatic and colloid osmotic forces that favor and oppose filtration.; P03.02b Explain the anatomical features that create high glomerular capillary blood pressure and explain why this blood pressure is significant for urine formation.; P03.02a Describe the structure of the filtration membrane.
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11) Which equation is equal to the net glomerular filtration pressure? A) GFP = hydrostatic pressure in glomerular capillaries - hydrostatic pressure in Bowman's capsule - osmotic pressure due to protein in Bowman's capsule B) GFP = osmotic pressure due to protein in plasma - hydrostatic pressure in glomerular capillaries - hydrostatic pressure in Bowman's capsule C) GFP = hydrostatic pressure in glomerular capillaries + hydrostatic pressure in Bowman's capsule + osmotic pressure due to protein in plasma D) GFP = hydrostatic pressure in glomerular capillaries + hydrostatic pressure in Bowman's capsule - osmotic pressure due to protein in plasma E) GFP = hydrostatic pressure in glomerular capillaries - hydrostatic pressure in Bowman's capsule - osmotic force due to proteins in plasma Answer: E Section: 14.03 Topic: Functional process of urine formation, including filtration, reabsorption, and secretion Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module P03 Functional process of urine formation, including filtration reabsorption, and secretion. HAPS Outcome: P03.02c Describe the hydrostatic and colloid osmotic forces that favor and oppose filtration. 12) Constriction of the decreases hydrostatic pressure in A) afferent arterioles; glomerular capillaries B) efferent arterioles; proximal convoluted tubules C) renal vein; peritubular capillaries D) efferent arterioles; glomerular capillaries E) efferent arterioles; Bowman's capsule
.
Answer: A Section: 14.03 Topic: Microscopic anatomy of the urinary system Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module P02 Gross and microscopic anatomy of the urinary tract, including detailed histology of the nephron. HAPS Outcome: P02.03a Identify the major structures and subdivisions of the renal corpuscles, renal tubules and renal capillaries in the nephron and collecting system.; P02.01e Identify the major blood vessels associated with the kidney with respect to gross anatomy of the urinary tract.; P02.02 Trace the path of blood through the kidney.
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13) Which is TRUE regarding renal tubular reabsorption? A) Reabsorption of Na+ from the proximal tubule occurs as a result of water reabsorption. B) Reabsorption of glucose saturates at a maximum transport rate. C) Urea reabsorption cannot occur at any point along the nephron. D) Toxic substances are removed from the body by reabsorption from peritubular capillaries into the proximal tubule. E) Reabsorption of Na+ only occurs from nephron regions that come after the descending limb of the loop of Henle. Answer: B Section: 14.03 Topic: Microscopic anatomy of the urinary system; Functional process of urine formation, including filtration, reabsorption, and secretion Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module P02 Gross and microscopic anatomy of the urinary tract, including detailed histology of the nephron.; Module P03 Functional process of urine formation, including filtration reabsorption, and secretion. HAPS Outcome: P02.03a Identify the major structures and subdivisions of the renal corpuscles, renal tubules and renal capillaries in the nephron and collecting system.; P03.03d Describe how and where water, organic compounds, and ions are reabsorbed in the nephron.; P03.03a With respect to reabsorption, list specific transport mechanisms occurring in different parts of the nephron, including active transport, osmosis, facilitated diffusion, passive electrochemical gradients, receptor-mediated endocytosis, and transcytosis.; P03.04b Describe the physiological processes involved in eliminating drugs, wastes and excess ions with respect to tubular secretion.
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14) Which of the following describes tubular reabsorption in the kidney? A) The movement of substances from the peritubular capillaries into the tubular fluid B) The movement of substances from the proximal tubule into the loop of Henle C) Transepithelial transport from the lumen of the tubule into renal interstitial fluid D) Movement of Na+, Cl-, and water from glomerular capillaries into Bowman's capsule E) Transport of solutes from the renal medullary interstitial fluid into the collecting duct Answer: C Section: 14.03 Topic: Microscopic anatomy of the urinary system; Functional process of urine formation, including filtration, reabsorption, and secretion Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module P02 Gross and microscopic anatomy of the urinary tract, including detailed histology of the nephron.; Module P03 Functional process of urine formation, including filtration reabsorption, and secretion. HAPS Outcome: P02.03a Identify the major structures and subdivisions of the renal corpuscles, renal tubules and renal capillaries in the nephron and collecting system.; P03.01 List the three major processes in urine formation and where each occurs in the nephron and collecting system.; P03.05 Compare and contrast reabsorption and tubular secretion, with respect to direction of solute movement, strength of concentration gradients, and energy required.
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15) Which is NOT a transport mechanism typically seen in renal tubular epithelial cells? A) Cotransport proteins in the luminal membrane of the proximal tubule that move Na+ and glucose from the proximal tubule into epithelial cells B) Transport proteins that move glucose by facilitated diffusion from inside of proximal tubule cells into the renal interstitial fluid C) Ion channels that allow Na+ to move by diffusion from the lumen of the proximal tubule into epithelial cells D) Na+-K+ ATPase pumps in the luminal membrane of proximal tubule epithelial cells that move Na+ from inside the cell into the tubule and K+ from the tubule lumen into the cell E) Countertransport proteins that move Na+ into proximal tubule epithelial cells while moving H+ from the cells into the lumen Answer: D Section: 14.07; 14.19 Topic: Microscopic anatomy of the urinary system; Functional process of urine formation, including filtration, reabsorption, and secretion Bloom's: Level 2. Understand HAPS Topic: Module P02 Gross and microscopic anatomy of the urinary tract, including detailed histology of the nephron.; Module P03 Functional process of urine formation, including filtration reabsorption, and secretion.; Module Q06 Role of the respiratory and urinary systems in acid/base balance. HAPS Outcome: P02.03a Identify the major structures and subdivisions of the renal corpuscles, renal tubules and renal capillaries in the nephron and collecting system.; P03.03d Describe how and where water, organic compounds, and ions are reabsorbed in the nephron.; Q06.03 Explain the mechanisms by which the kidneys secrete hydrogen ions, and how this process affects blood pH.; P03.03a With respect to reabsorption, list specific transport mechanisms occurring in different parts of the nephron, including active transport, osmosis, facilitated diffusion, passive electrochemical gradients, receptor-mediated endocytosis, and transcytosis.; P03.03b With respect to reabsorption, list the different membrane proteins of the nephron, including aquaporins, channels, transporters, and ATPase pumps.
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16) Which of the following substances undergoes renal tubular secretion? A) Ca2+ B) Na+ C) K+ D) H20 Answer: C Section: 14.03 Topic: Functional process of urine formation, including filtration, reabsorption, and secretion Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module P03 Functional process of urine formation, including filtration reabsorption, and secretion. HAPS Outcome: P03.03d Describe how and where water, organic compounds, and ions are reabsorbed in the nephron.; P03.04b Describe the physiological processes involved in eliminating drugs, wastes and excess ions with respect to tubular secretion. 17) Tom is on a health kick and wants to make sure that he is always in balance in terms of total body water. Which of the following is important for him to keep in mind? A) He must ingest more water than is lost in the urine. B) He must ingest more water than is lost by all output pathways combined. C) He must ingest less water than is lost in the urine. D) The water filtered into Bowman's capsule must be 100% reabsorbed. E) The amount ingested plus that metabolically produced must equal the amount of water in the urine. Answer: A Section: 14.03; 14.06; 14.07 Topic: Microscopic anatomy of the urinary system; Regulation of water balance Bloom's: Level 3. Apply HAPS Topic: Module P02 Gross and microscopic anatomy of the urinary tract, including detailed histology of the nephron.; Module Q01 Regulation of water intake and output. HAPS Outcome: P02.03a Identify the major structures and subdivisions of the renal corpuscles, renal tubules and renal capillaries in the nephron and collecting system.; Q01.01 List and describe the routes of water entry into the body and state representative volumes for each.; Q01.02 List and describe the routes of water loss from the body and state representative volumes for each.
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18) Which of the following is TRUE about how water is handled by the nephron? A) Water is filtered out of glomerular capillaries by bulk flow. B) Water is actively reabsorbed from the proximal tubule, and Na+ follows down its diffusion gradient. C) Water is actively secreted into the descending loop of Henle. D) The permeability of the ascending limb of the loop of Henle is modified by vasopressin. E) Vasopressin inserts pumps in the collecting duct membrane that move water against its concentration gradient. Answer: A Section: 14.03 Topic: Microscopic anatomy of the urinary system; Functional process of urine formation, including filtration, reabsorption, and secretion; Regulation of urine volume and composition; Regulation of water balance Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module P02 Gross and microscopic anatomy of the urinary tract, including detailed histology of the nephron.; Module P03 Functional process of urine formation, including filtration reabsorption, and secretion.; Module P04 Factors regulating and altering urine volume and composition, including the renin- angiotensin system and the roles of aldosterone, antidiuretic hormone, and the natriuretic peptides.; Module Q01 Regulation of water intake and output.; Module J05 Identity, source, secretory control, and functional roles of the major hormones produced by the body. HAPS Outcome: P02.03a Identify the major structures and subdivisions of the renal corpuscles, renal tubules and renal capillaries in the nephron and collecting system.; P03.01 List the three major processes in urine formation and where each occurs in the nephron and collecting system.; P04.03 Describe how each of the following works to regulate reabsorption and secretion, so as to affect urine volume and composition- renin- angiotensin system, aldosterone, antidiuretic hormone, and natriuretic peptides.; J05.01c Name the target tissue or cells for the hormone and describe the effect(s) of the hormone on the target tissue or cells of growth hormone, thyroidstimulating hormone, luteinizing hormone, follicle stimulating hormone, prolactin, adrenocorticotropic hormone, oxytocin, and antidiuretic hormone (or vasopressin.; Q01.04 Describe the mechanisms used to regulate water output.; P03.03d Describe how and where water, organic compounds, and ions are reabsorbed in the nephron.
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19) You are a scientist for the Federal Drug Administration (FDA). An agricultural company wants to market a new pesticide they have developed for use on produce in the United States. This pesticide is hydrophilic, has a small molecular weight (it is slightly smaller than glucose), and it does not bind to any proteins. Which of the following is an appropriate hypothesis for how this drug will be found in the body? A) The pesticide will mostly be cleared in the feces as it will bind to cholesterol, which is added to the GI tract. B) The pesticide will remain in the blood for a long period as it is not filtered or secreted by the urinary tract. C) The pesticide will mostly be cleared in the urine as it will be filtered but not reabsorbed. D) The pesticide will be cleared through the skin as it will diffuse through the skin layers and evaporate from the surface. Answer: A Section: 14.03 Topic: Microscopic anatomy of the urinary system; Functional process of urine formation, including filtration, reabsorption, and secretion; Regulation of urine volume and composition; Regulation of water balance Bloom's: Level 3. Apply HAPS Topic: Module P03 Functional process of urine formation, including filtration reabsorption, and secretion. HAPS Outcome: P03.01 List the three major processes in urine formation and where each occurs in the nephron and collecting system.
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20) Carl has hypothyroidism and therefore his Na+/K+ ATPase pumps are functioning at a reduced rate. Will there be any effect on the transport of Na+? A) There will be a reduction in Na+ transport in Bowman's capsule epithelial cells. B) There will be a reduction in ATP-dependent, Na+ transport on the apical side of the tubule epithelial cells. C) There will be a reduction in Na+ secretion on both sides of the tubule epithelial cells. D) There will be no change to Na+ transport. E) There will be a reduction in Na+ transport on the basolateral side of the tubule epithelial cells. Answer: E Section: 14.07 Topic: Microscopic anatomy of the urinary system; Functional process of urine formation, including filtration, reabsorption, and secretion Bloom's: Level 3. Apply HAPS Topic: Module P02 Gross and microscopic anatomy of the urinary tract, including detailed histology of the nephron.; Module P03 Functional process of urine formation, including filtration reabsorption, and secretion. HAPS Outcome: P02.03a Identify the major structures and subdivisions of the renal corpuscles, renal tubules and renal capillaries in the nephron and collecting system.; P03.03d Describe how and where water, organic compounds, and ions are reabsorbed in the nephron.; P03.03a With respect to reabsorption, list specific transport mechanisms occurring in different parts of the nephron, including active transport, osmosis, facilitated diffusion, passive electrochemical gradients, receptor-mediated endocytosis, and transcytosis.; P03.03b With respect to reabsorption, list the different membrane proteins of the nephron, including aquaporins, channels, transporters, and ATPase pumps.
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21) Compared to the normal plasma osmolarity, the tubular fluid is Bowman's space, at the beginning of the loop of Henle, loop, and at the beginning of the distal convoluted tubule. A) isosmotic; hyperosmotic; hyperosmotic; isosmotic B) isosmotic; isosmotic; hypoosmotic; hypoosmotic C) isosmotic; isosmotic; hyperosmotic; hypoosmotic D) isosmotic; isosmotic; hypoosmotic; hyperosmotic E) isosmotic; isosmotic; hyperosmotic; isosmotic
as it enters at the tip of the
Answer: C Section: 14.07 Topic: Microscopic anatomy of the urinary system; Functional process of urine formation, including filtration, reabsorption, and secretion Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module P02 Gross and microscopic anatomy of the urinary tract, including detailed histology of the nephron.; Module P03 Functional process of urine formation, including filtration reabsorption, and secretion. HAPS Outcome: P02.03a Identify the major structures and subdivisions of the renal corpuscles, renal tubules and renal capillaries in the nephron and collecting system.; P03.03f With respect to reabsorption, explain the role of the loop of Henle, the vasa recta, and the countercurrent multiplication mechanism in the concentration of urine.; P03.03d Describe how and where water, organic compounds, and ions are reabsorbed in the nephron.; P03.07 Compare and contrast blood plasma, glomerular filtrate, and urine and then relate their differences to function of the nephron. 22) In what segment of the nephron is the greatest fraction of filtered water reabsorbed? A) The proximal tubule B) The ascending limb of the loop of Henle C) The distal convoluted tubule D) The collecting ducts E) The descending limb of the loop of Henle Answer: A Section: 14.03; 14.07; 14.14 Topic: Microscopic anatomy of the urinary system; Functional process of urine formation, including filtration, reabsorption, and secretion Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module P02 Gross and microscopic anatomy of the urinary tract, including detailed histology of the nephron.; Module P03 Functional process of urine formation, including filtration reabsorption, and secretion. HAPS Outcome: P02.03a Identify the major structures and subdivisions of the renal corpuscles, renal tubules and renal capillaries in the nephron and collecting system.; P03.03d Describe how and where water, organic compounds, and ions are reabsorbed in the nephron.; P03.03g State the percent of filtrate that is normally reabsorbed and explain why the process of reabsorption is so important.
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23) Yolanda was born with a rare genetic disease in which the proximal tubules of her nephrons express half the number of aquaporins as is typical. What will be the result? A) Reduced reabsorption of water, although as much reabsorption of Na+ as is typical B) Reduced reabsorption of both water and Na+ in equal proportions C) Reduced reabsorption of all materials in the proximal tubules D) Reduced reabsorption of water, Na+, and glucose in the proximal tubules E) No change to reabsorption at this site Answer: A Section: 14.03; 14.07; 14.14 Topic: Microscopic anatomy of the urinary system; Functional process of urine formation, including filtration, reabsorption, and secretion Bloom's: Level 3. Apply HAPS Topic: Module P02 Gross and microscopic anatomy of the urinary tract, including detailed histology of the nephron.; Module P03 Functional process of urine formation, including filtration reabsorption, and secretion. HAPS Outcome: P02.03a Identify the major structures and subdivisions of the renal corpuscles, renal tubules and renal capillaries in the nephron and collecting system.; P03.03d Describe how and where water, organic compounds, and ions are reabsorbed in the nephron.; P03.03g State the percent of filtrate that is normally reabsorbed and explain why the process of reabsorption is so important.
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24) In which region of the nephron does the fractional reabsorption of water vary the most in response to variation in the state of hydration? A) The glomerulus B) The proximal convoluted tubule C) The loop of Henle D) The distal convoluted tubule E) The collecting duct Answer: E Section: 14.07 Topic: Microscopic anatomy of the urinary system; Functional process of urine formation, including filtration, reabsorption, and secretion; Regulation of urine volume and composition; Regulation of water balance Bloom's: Level 2. Understand HAPS Topic: Module P02 Gross and microscopic anatomy of the urinary tract, including detailed histology of the nephron.; Module P03 Functional process of urine formation, including filtration reabsorption, and secretion.; Module P04 Factors regulating and altering urine volume and composition, including the renin- angiotensin system and the roles of aldosterone, antidiuretic hormone, and the natriuretic peptides.; Module P07 Application of homeostatic mechanisms.; Module Q01 Regulation of water intake and output.; Module Q07 Application of homeostatic mechanisms.; Module J05 Identity, source, secretory control, and functional roles of the major hormones produced by the body.; Module J08 Application of homeostatic mechanisms. HAPS Outcome: P02.03a Identify the major structures and subdivisions of the renal corpuscles, renal tubules and renal capillaries in the nephron and collecting system.; P04.04 Predict specific factors involved in creating dilute versus concentrated urine.; P04.03 Describe how each of the following works to regulate reabsorption and secretion, so as to affect urine volume and composition- renin- angiotensin system, aldosterone, antidiuretic hormone, and natriuretic peptides.; J05.01c Name the target tissue or cells for the hormone and describe the effect(s) of the hormone on the target tissue or cells of growth hormone, thyroid-stimulating hormone, luteinizing hormone, follicle stimulating hormone, prolactin, adrenocorticotropic hormone, oxytocin, and antidiuretic hormone (or vasopressin.; J08.01 Provide specific examples to demonstrate how the endocrine organs respond to maintain homeostasis in the body.; Q01.04 Describe the mechanisms used to regulate water output.; Q07.01 Provide specific examples to demonstrate how the cardiovascular, endocrine, and urinary systems respond to maintain homeostasis of fluid volume in the body.; P03.03d Describe how and where water, organic compounds, and ions are reabsorbed in the nephron.; P07.01 Provide specific examples to demonstrate how the urinary system responds to maintain homeostasis in the body.; P07.02 Explain how the urinary system relates to other body systems to maintain homeostasis.
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25) Which is NOT true about the countercurrent multiplier system of the kidney? A) It creates a hyperosmolar medullary interstitial fluid that allows the kidneys to form hypertonic urine. B) The descending loop of Henle is permeable to water. C) There is active transport of sodium and chloride out of the ascending limb of the loop of Henle. D) The ascending loop of Henle is not permeable to water. E) The fraction of filtered NaCl reabsorbed from the ascending limb equals the fraction of filtered water reabsorbed from the descending limb. Answer: E Section: 14.07 Topic: Microscopic anatomy of the urinary system; Functional process of urine formation, including filtration, reabsorption, and secretion Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module P02 Gross and microscopic anatomy of the urinary tract, including detailed histology of the nephron.; Module P03 Functional process of urine formation, including filtration reabsorption, and secretion. HAPS Outcome: P02.03a Identify the major structures and subdivisions of the renal corpuscles, renal tubules and renal capillaries in the nephron and collecting system.; P03.03f With respect to reabsorption, explain the role of the loop of Henle, the vasa recta, and the countercurrent multiplication mechanism in the concentration of urine.; P03.03d Describe how and where water, organic compounds, and ions are reabsorbed in the nephron.
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26) How does the renal countercurrent multiplier mechanism allow the creation of a concentrated urine? A) It transports NaCl from the medullary interstitial fluid into the collecting duct, which directly increases the osmolarity of the urine. B) It transports urea from the medullary interstitial fluid into the collecting duct, which directly increases the osmolarity of the urine. C) By concentrating NaCl in the renal medullary interstitial fluid, it allows water to be reabsorbed from the collecting ducts when vasopressin is present. D) By pumping NaCl and urea into the ascending limb of the loop of Henle, it raises the solute load, which turns into a concentrated urine once water is extracted from the collecting duct. E) When anti-diuretic hormone is present, it stimulates the pumping of NaCl from the medullary interstitial fluid and water follows, concentrating the urine. Answer: C Section: 14.07 Topic: Microscopic anatomy of the urinary system; Functional process of urine formation, including filtration, reabsorption, and secretion; Regulation of urine volume and composition Bloom's: Level 2. Understand HAPS Topic: Module P02 Gross and microscopic anatomy of the urinary tract, including detailed histology of the nephron.; Module P03 Functional process of urine formation, including filtration reabsorption, and secretion.; Module P04 Factors regulating and altering urine volume and composition, including the renin- angiotensin system and the roles of aldosterone, antidiuretic hormone, and the natriuretic peptides.; Module J05 Identity, source, secretory control, and functional roles of the major hormones produced by the body. HAPS Outcome: P02.03a Identify the major structures and subdivisions of the renal corpuscles, renal tubules and renal capillaries in the nephron and collecting system.; P03.03f With respect to reabsorption, explain the role of the loop of Henle, the vasa recta, and the countercurrent multiplication mechanism in the concentration of urine.; P04.04 Predict specific factors involved in creating dilute versus concentrated urine.; P04.03 Describe how each of the following works to regulate reabsorption and secretion, so as to affect urine volume and composition- reninangiotensin system, aldosterone, antidiuretic hormone, and natriuretic peptides.; J05.01c Name the target tissue or cells for the hormone and describe the effect(s) of the hormone on the target tissue or cells of growth hormone, thyroid-stimulating hormone, luteinizing hormone, follicle stimulating hormone, prolactin, adrenocorticotropic hormone, oxytocin, and antidiuretic hormone (or vasopressin.; P03.03d Describe how and where water, organic compounds, and ions are reabsorbed in the nephron.
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27) Water and NaCl reabsorbed from the loop of Henle directly reenter which blood vessels? A) Vasa recta B) Afferent arterioles C) Efferent arterioles D) Cortical peritubular capillaries E) Collecting ducts Answer: A Section: 14.02; 14.03 Topic: Microscopic anatomy of the urinary system; Functional process of urine formation, including filtration, reabsorption, and secretion Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module P02 Gross and microscopic anatomy of the urinary tract, including detailed histology of the nephron.; Module P03 Functional process of urine formation, including filtration reabsorption, and secretion. HAPS Outcome: P02.03a Identify the major structures and subdivisions of the renal corpuscles, renal tubules and renal capillaries in the nephron and collecting system.; P03.03f With respect to reabsorption, explain the role of the loop of Henle, the vasa recta, and the countercurrent multiplication mechanism in the concentration of urine.
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28) In the condition diabetes mellitus, why does glucose appear in the urine? A) The plasma concentration of glucose becomes so high that it diffuses from peritubular capillaries into the proximal tubule, down its concentration gradient. B) The filtered load of glucose becomes greater than the tubular maximum for its reabsorption. C) Without the hormone insulin, glucose cannot enter proximal tubule epithelial cells. D) The rate of tubular secretion of glucose becomes greater than the sum of glucose filtration and reabsorption. E) Without insulin, the glomerular filtration barrier becomes extremely leaky to glucose, which is not normally filterable. Answer: B Section: 14.03 Topic: Microscopic anatomy of the urinary system; Functional process of urine formation, including filtration, reabsorption, and secretion; Regulation of urine volume and composition; Clinical applications of the urinary system Bloom's: Level 2. Understand HAPS Topic: Module P02 Gross and microscopic anatomy of the urinary tract, including detailed histology of the nephron.; Module P03 Functional process of urine formation, including filtration reabsorption, and secretion.; Module P08 Predictions related to homeostatic imbalance, including disease states and disorders.; Module J05 Identity, source, secretory control, and functional roles of the major hormones produced by the body. HAPS Outcome: P02.03a Identify the major structures and subdivisions of the renal corpuscles, renal tubules and renal capillaries in the nephron and collecting system.; J05.07d In the pancreas, predict the larger effect that fluctuations in insulin and glucagon levels will have on conditions (variables) within the body.; P03.03d Describe how and where water, organic compounds, and ions are reabsorbed in the nephron.; P03.03a With respect to reabsorption, list specific transport mechanisms occurring in different parts of the nephron, including active transport, osmosis, facilitated diffusion, passive electrochemical gradients, receptor-mediated endocytosis, and transcytosis.; P03.02a Describe the structure of the filtration membrane.; P08.01 Predict factors or situations affecting the urinary system that could disrupt homeostasis.; P08.02 Predict the types of problems that would occur in the body if the urinary system could not maintain homeostasis.
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29) Which is TRUE about the hormone vasopressin (also known as antidiuretic hormone, ADH)? A) It is a peptide hormone released from the adrenal gland. B) It triggers insertion of aquaporins into the apical membranes of collecting duct cells. C) It promotes the excretion of more water in the urine. D) It stimulates the excretion of K+ in the urine. E) Its main function is to trigger the secretion of aldosterone. Answer: B Section: 14.07 Topic: Regulation of urine volume and composition; Regulation of water balance; Hormonal regulation Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module P02 Gross and microscopic anatomy of the urinary tract, including detailed histology of the nephron.; Module P03 Functional process of urine formation, including filtration reabsorption, and secretion.; Module P04 Factors regulating and altering urine volume and composition, including the renin- angiotensin system and the roles of aldosterone, antidiuretic hormone, and the natriuretic peptides.; Module Q01 Regulation of water intake and output.; Module J02 Chemical classification of hormones and mechanism of hormone actions at receptors.; Module J05 Identity, source, secretory control, and functional roles of the major hormones produced by the body. HAPS Outcome: P02.03a Identify the major structures and subdivisions of the renal corpuscles, renal tubules and renal capillaries in the nephron and collecting system.; P04.04 Predict specific factors involved in creating dilute versus concentrated urine.; P04.03 Describe how each of the following works to regulate reabsorption and secretion, so as to affect urine volume and composition- renin- angiotensin system, aldosterone, antidiuretic hormone, and natriuretic peptides.; J05.01c Name the target tissue or cells for the hormone and describe the effect(s) of the hormone on the target tissue or cells of growth hormone, thyroid-stimulating hormone, luteinizing hormone, follicle stimulating hormone, prolactin, adrenocorticotropic hormone, oxytocin, and antidiuretic hormone (or vasopressin.; J05.04a In the adrenal gland, describe the stimulus for release of glucocorticoids (cortisol), mineralocorticoids (aldosterone), gonadocorticoids, epinephrine and norepinephrine.; Q01.04 Describe the mechanisms used to regulate water output.; P03.03d Describe how and where water, organic compounds, and ions are reabsorbed in the nephron.; P03.03b With respect to reabsorption, list the different membrane proteins of the nephron, including aquaporins, channels, transporters, and ATPase pumps.; J02.01 List the major chemical classes of hormones found in the human body.; J05.01b Identify the gland or endocrine tissue/organ and the cells within that gland/tissue/organ that produce growth hormone, thyroid-stimulating hormone, luteinizing hormone, follicle stimulating hormone, prolactin, adrenocorticotropic hormone, oxytocin, and antidiuretic hormone (or vasopressin).
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30) Which of the following would occur if a person lost the ability to synthesize vasopressin? A) The ability to reabsorb water in the proximal tubule would be lost. B) The excretion of glucose in the urine would increase. C) The urine would become hypoosmotic compared to plasma. D) The urine production would decrease dramatically, and the urine osmolarity would be hypertonic compared to plasma. E) Blood pressure would increase significantly. Answer: C Section: 14.07 Topic: Microscopic anatomy of the urinary system; Regulation of urine volume and composition; Regulation of water balance; Hormonal regulation; Clinical applications of fluid balance Bloom's: Level 3. Apply HAPS Topic: Module P02 Gross and microscopic anatomy of the urinary tract, including detailed histology of the nephron.; Module P03 Functional process of urine formation, including filtration reabsorption, and secretion.; Module P04 Factors regulating and altering urine volume and composition, including the renin- angiotensin system and the roles of aldosterone, antidiuretic hormone, and the natriuretic peptides.; Module P08 Predictions related to homeostatic imbalance, including disease states and disorders.; Module Q01 Regulation of water intake and output.; Module Q07 Application of homeostatic mechanisms.; Module Q08 Predictions related to homeostatic imbalance, including disease states and disorders.; Module J05 Identity, source, secretory control, and functional roles of the major hormones produced by the body.; Module J09 Predictions related to homeostatic imbalance, including disease states and disorders.; Module K14 Blood pressure and its functional interrelationships with cardiac output, peripheral resistance, and hemodynamics; Module K11 Regulation of cardiac output, stroke volume, and heart rate HAPS Outcome: P02.03a Identify the major structures and subdivisions of the renal corpuscles, renal tubules and renal capillaries in the nephron and collecting system.; P04.04 Predict specific factors involved in creating dilute versus concentrated urine.; J09.01 Predict factors or situations affecting the endocrine organs that could disrupt homeostasis.; J09.02 Predict the types of problems that would occur in the body if the various endocrine organs could not maintain homeostasis.; P04.03 Describe how each of the following works to regulate reabsorption and secretion, so as to affect urine volume and composition- renin- angiotensin system, aldosterone, antidiuretic hormone, and natriuretic peptides.; Q08.01 Predict factors or situations that would lead to a disruption of homeostasis by affecting the volume or composition of body fluids.; J05.01c Name the target tissue or cells for the hormone and describe the effect(s) of the hormone on the target tissue or cells of growth hormone, thyroid-stimulating hormone, luteinizing hormone, follicle stimulating hormone, prolactin, adrenocorticotropic hormone, oxytocin, and antidiuretic hormone (or vasopressin.; Q01.04 Describe the mechanisms used to regulate water output.; P03.07 Compare and contrast blood plasma, glomerular filtrate, and urine and then relate their differences to function of the nephron.; Q08.03 Predict the types of problems that would occur in the body if the volume and composition of body fluids were not maintained within normal homeostatic ranges.; P08.01 Predict factors or situations affecting the urinary system that could disrupt homeostasis.; P08.02 Predict the types of problems that would occur in the body if the urinary system could not maintain homeostasis.; K14.10d With respect to regulation of blood 23 Copyright 2019 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.
pressure, explain the role of hormones in regulation of blood pressure, including the mechanism by which specific hormones affect preload, heart rate, inotropic state or vascular resistance.; K11.02b With respect to stroke volume (SV), define venous return, preload and afterload, and explain the factors that affect them as well as how each of them affects EDV, ESV and SV.; Q07.03 Explain how fluid volumes and distribution contribute to the maintenance of homeostasis in other body systems.
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31) Jerome has had too many alcoholic drinks at a party. One of the effects of alcohol is that it inhibits the release of vasopressin. Which of the following is Jerome likely to notice? A) A reduction in urine volume B) The excretion of glucose in the urine increased C) High volume of dilute urine D) Very concentrated urine E) An increase in blood pressure Answer: C Section: 14.01 Topic: Microscopic anatomy of the digestive tract; Regulation of urine volume and composition; Regulation of water balance; Hormonal regulation; Clinical applications of fluid balance Bloom's: Level 3. Apply HAPS Topic: Module P02 Gross and microscopic anatomy of the urinary tract, including detailed histology of the nephron.; Module P03 Functional process of urine formation, including filtration reabsorption, and secretion.; Module P04 Factors regulating and altering urine volume and composition, including the renin- angiotensin system and the roles of aldosterone, antidiuretic hormone, and the natriuretic peptides.; Module P08 Predictions related to homeostatic imbalance, including disease states and disorders.; Module Q01 Regulation of water intake and output.; Module Q07 Application of homeostatic mechanisms.; Module Q08 Predictions related to homeostatic imbalance, including disease states and disorders.; Module J05 Identity, source, secretory control, and functional roles of the major hormones produced by the body.; Module J09 Predictions related to homeostatic imbalance, including disease states and disorders.; Module K14 Blood pressure and its functional interrelationships with cardiac output, peripheral resistance, and hemodynamics; Module K11 Regulation of cardiac output, stroke volume, and heart rate HAPS Outcome: P02.03a Identify the major structures and subdivisions of the renal corpuscles, renal tubules and renal capillaries in the nephron and collecting system.; P04.04 Predict specific factors involved in creating dilute versus concentrated urine.; J09.01 Predict factors or situations affecting the endocrine organs that could disrupt homeostasis.; J09.02 Predict the types of problems that would occur in the body if the various endocrine organs could not maintain homeostasis.; P04.03 Describe how each of the following works to regulate reabsorption and secretion, so as to affect urine volume and composition- renin- angiotensin system, aldosterone, antidiuretic hormone, and natriuretic peptides.; Q08.01 Predict factors or situations that would lead to a disruption of homeostasis by affecting the volume or composition of body fluids.; J05.01c Name the target tissue or cells for the hormone and describe the effect(s) of the hormone on the target tissue or cells of growth hormone, thyroid-stimulating hormone, luteinizing hormone, follicle stimulating hormone, prolactin, adrenocorticotropic hormone, oxytocin, and antidiuretic hormone (or vasopressin.; Q01.04 Describe the mechanisms used to regulate water output.; P03.07 Compare and contrast blood plasma, glomerular filtrate, and urine and then relate their differences to function of the nephron.; Q08.03 Predict the types of problems that would occur in the body if the volume and composition of body fluids were not maintained within normal homeostatic ranges.; P08.01 Predict factors or situations affecting the urinary system that could disrupt homeostasis.; P08.02 Predict the types of problems that would occur in the body if the urinary system could not maintain homeostasis.; K14.10d With respect to regulation of blood 25 Copyright 2019 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.
pressure, explain the role of hormones in regulation of blood pressure, including the mechanism by which specific hormones affect preload, heart rate, inotropic state or vascular resistance.; K11.02b With respect to stroke volume (SV), define venous return, preload and afterload, and explain the factors that affect them as well as how each of them affects EDV, ESV and SV.; Q07.03 Explain how fluid volumes and distribution contribute to the maintenance of homeostasis in other body systems. 32) Following a few months of noticeably high urine volume, Stephanie's doctor diagnosed her with diabetes insipidus. Stephanie's doctor prescribed her desmopressin, which is a synthetic drug form of which of these hormones? A) ACTH B) Vasopressin C) Atrial natriuretic factor D) Angiotensin II E) Insulin Answer: B Section: 14.07 Topic: Hormonal regulation; Clinical applications of fluid balance Bloom's: Level 3. Apply HAPS Topic: Module P04 Factors regulating and altering urine volume and composition, including the renin- angiotensin system and the roles of aldosterone, antidiuretic hormone, and the natriuretic peptides.; Module P08 Predictions related to homeostatic imbalance, including disease states and disorders.; Module Q01 Regulation of water intake and output.; Module Q08 Predictions related to homeostatic imbalance, including disease states and disorders.; Module J05 Identity, source, secretory control, and functional roles of the major hormones produced by the body.; Module J09 Predictions related to homeostatic imbalance, including disease states and disorders. HAPS Outcome: J09.01 Predict factors or situations affecting the endocrine organs that could disrupt homeostasis.; J09.02 Predict the types of problems that would occur in the body if the various endocrine organs could not maintain homeostasis.; P04.03 Describe how each of the following works to regulate reabsorption and secretion, so as to affect urine volume and composition- renin- angiotensin system, aldosterone, antidiuretic hormone, and natriuretic peptides.; Q08.01 Predict factors or situations that would lead to a disruption of homeostasis by affecting the volume or composition of body fluids.; J05.01c Name the target tissue or cells for the hormone and describe the effect(s) of the hormone on the target tissue or cells of growth hormone, thyroid-stimulating hormone, luteinizing hormone, follicle stimulating hormone, prolactin, adrenocorticotropic hormone, oxytocin, and antidiuretic hormone (or vasopressin.; Q01.04 Describe the mechanisms used to regulate water output.; Q08.03 Predict the types of problems that would occur in the body if the volume and composition of body fluids were not maintained within normal homeostatic ranges.; P08.01 Predict factors or situations affecting the urinary system that could disrupt homeostasis.; P08.02 Predict the types of problems that would occur in the body if the urinary system could not maintain homeostasis.
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33) Which of the following most accurately describes the renal transport of Na+? A) Na+ is actively transported in all segments of the tubule. B) Primary active transport of Na+ allows for secondary active transport of glucose and H+ in the proximal tubule. C) Most of the Na+ transport occurs in the distal convoluted tubule and collecting ducts. D) Na+ is actively secreted into the nephron lumen by cells in the cortical collecting ducts. E) Na+ is actively transported across the luminal membrane of proximal tubule cells in exchange for K+, by Na+/K+ ATPase pumps. Answer: B Section: 14.07; 14.08 Topic: Microscopic anatomy of the urinary system; Functional process of urine formation, including filtration, reabsorption, and secretion Bloom's: Level 2. Understand HAPS Topic: Module P02 Gross and microscopic anatomy of the urinary tract, including detailed histology of the nephron.; Module P03 Functional process of urine formation, including filtration reabsorption, and secretion. HAPS Outcome: P02.03a Identify the major structures and subdivisions of the renal corpuscles, renal tubules and renal capillaries in the nephron and collecting system.; P03.03d Describe how and where water, organic compounds, and ions are reabsorbed in the nephron.; P03.03a With respect to reabsorption, list specific transport mechanisms occurring in different parts of the nephron, including active transport, osmosis, facilitated diffusion, passive electrochemical gradients, receptor-mediated endocytosis, and transcytosis.; P03.03b With respect to reabsorption, list the different membrane proteins of the nephron, including aquaporins, channels, transporters, and ATPase pumps. 34) What region of the nephron reabsorbs about two-thirds of filtered Na+ and Cl-? A) Ascending loop of Henle B) Glomerulus C) Proximal convoluted tubule D) Distal convoluted tubule E) Collecting duct Answer: C Section: 14.03; 14.07 Topic: Microscopic anatomy of the urinary system; Functional process of urine formation, including filtration, reabsorption, and secretion Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module P02 Gross and microscopic anatomy of the urinary tract, including detailed histology of the nephron.; Module P03 Functional process of urine formation, including filtration reabsorption, and secretion. HAPS Outcome: P02.03a Identify the major structures and subdivisions of the renal corpuscles, renal tubules and renal capillaries in the nephron and collecting system.; P03.03d Describe how and where water, organic compounds, and ions are reabsorbed in the nephron.
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35) After a day of fasting during Ramadan, Amira's blood Na+ level is quite low. Which of the following is likely to occur? A) An increase in plasma volume, which induces an increase in GFR and Na+ reabsorption rate B) A decrease in plasma volume, which induces an increase in GFR and Na+ reabsorption rate C) An increase in plasma volume, which induces an increase in GFR and a decrease in Na+ reabsorption rate D) A decrease in plasma volume, which induces a decrease in GFR and Na+ reabsorption rate E) A decrease in plasma volume, which induces a decrease in GFR and an increase in Na+ reabsorption rate Answer: E Section: 14.08 Topic: Functional process of urine formation, including filtration, reabsorption, and secretion; Regulation of water balance; Regulation of electrolyte balances; Hormonal regulation Bloom's: Level 3. Apply HAPS Topic: Module P03 Functional process of urine formation, including filtration reabsorption, and secretion.; Module P04 Factors regulating and altering urine volume and composition, including the renin- angiotensin system and the roles of aldosterone, antidiuretic hormone, and the natriuretic peptides.; Module P07 Application of homeostatic mechanisms.; Module Q03 Chemical composition of the major compartment fluids.; Module Q07 Application of homeostatic mechanisms.; Module Q08 Predictions related to homeostatic imbalance, including disease states and disorders.; Module J05 Identity, source, secretory control, and functional roles of the major hormones produced by the body.; Module J08 Application of homeostatic mechanisms. HAPS Outcome: P03.02e Predict specific factors that will increase or decrease glomerular filtration rate (GFR).; P04.01a Describe the myogenic and tubuloglomerular feedback mechanisms in autoregulation and explain how they affect urine volume and composition.; P04.02 Describe how each of the following functions in the extrinsic control of GFR- reninangiotensin mechanism, natriuretic peptides, and sympathetic adrenergic activity.; P04.03 Describe how each of the following works to regulate reabsorption and secretion, so as to affect urine volume and composition- renin- angiotensin system, aldosterone, antidiuretic hormone, and natriuretic peptides.; Q08.01 Predict factors or situations that would lead to a disruption of homeostasis by affecting the volume or composition of body fluids.; Q03.04 Describe hormonal regulation of electrolyte levels in the plasma, including sodium, chloride, potassium, phosphate and calcium.; J05.04a In the adrenal gland, describe the stimulus for release of glucocorticoids (cortisol), mineralocorticoids (aldosterone), gonadocorticoids, epinephrine and norepinephrine.; J05.04c In the adrenal gland, name the target tissue or cells for the hormone and describe the effect(s) of glucocorticoids (cortisol), mineralocorticoids (aldosterone), gonadocorticoids, epinephrine and norepinephrine on the target tissue or cells.; J08.01 Provide specific examples to demonstrate how the endocrine organs respond to maintain homeostasis in the body.; J08.02 Explain how the endocrine organs relate to other body organs and systems to maintain homeostasis.; Q07.01 Provide specific examples to demonstrate how the cardiovascular, endocrine, and urinary systems respond to maintain homeostasis of fluid volume in the body.; P07.01 Provide specific examples to demonstrate how the urinary system responds to maintain homeostasis in the body.; Q03.03 Describe the function(s) of each abundant electrolyte found in body fluids, including sodium, chloride, potassium, phosphate and calcium.; Q08.03 Predict the 28 Copyright 2019 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.
types of problems that would occur in the body if the volume and composition of body fluids were not maintained within normal homeostatic ranges. 36) What is the rate-limiting (regulated) step for stimulating the secretion of aldosterone? A) Conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II in the blood B) Secretion of angiotensinogen by the liver C) Conversion of angiotensinogen to angiotensin I in the blood D) Secretion of ACTH by the anterior pituitary E) Secretion of angiotensin II by the kidney Answer: C Section: 14.08 Topic: Hormonal regulation Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module Q03 Chemical composition of the major compartment fluids.; Module J05 Identity, source, secretory control, and functional roles of the major hormones produced by the body. HAPS Outcome: Q03.04 Describe hormonal regulation of electrolyte levels in the plasma, including sodium, chloride, potassium, phosphate and calcium.; J05.01c Name the target tissue or cells for the hormone and describe the effect(s) of the hormone on the target tissue or cells of growth hormone, thyroid-stimulating hormone, luteinizing hormone, follicle stimulating hormone, prolactin, adrenocorticotropic hormone, oxytocin, and antidiuretic hormone (or vasopressin.; J05.04a In the adrenal gland, describe the stimulus for release of glucocorticoids (cortisol), mineralocorticoids (aldosterone), gonadocorticoids, epinephrine and norepinephrine.
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37) Which of the following statements regarding renal handling of Na+ is correct? A) In the proximal tubule, Na+ is actively transported across the luminal membrane of the tubular epithelial cells. B) Atrial natriuretic factor increases Na+ reabsorption. C) In the absence of aldosterone, Na+ will be secreted by the cortical collecting ducts. D) Na+ is actively reabsorbed in the ascending limb of the loop of Henle. E) Without vasopressin, the collecting duct is impermeable to Na+. Answer: D Section: 14.07; 14.08 Topic: Microscopic anatomy of the urinary system; Functional process of urine formation, including filtration, reabsorption, and secretion; Hormonal regulation Bloom's: Level 2. Understand HAPS Topic: Module P02 Gross and microscopic anatomy of the urinary tract, including detailed histology of the nephron.; Module P03 Functional process of urine formation, including filtration reabsorption, and secretion.; Module P04 Factors regulating and altering urine volume and composition, including the renin- angiotensin system and the roles of aldosterone, antidiuretic hormone, and the natriuretic peptides.; Module Q03 Chemical composition of the major compartment fluids.; Module J05 Identity, source, secretory control, and functional roles of the major hormones produced by the body. HAPS Outcome: P02.03a Identify the major structures and subdivisions of the renal corpuscles, renal tubules and renal capillaries in the nephron and collecting system.; P04.03 Describe how each of the following works to regulate reabsorption and secretion, so as to affect urine volume and composition- renin- angiotensin system, aldosterone, antidiuretic hormone, and natriuretic peptides.; Q03.04 Describe hormonal regulation of electrolyte levels in the plasma, including sodium, chloride, potassium, phosphate and calcium.; J05.01c Name the target tissue or cells for the hormone and describe the effect(s) of the hormone on the target tissue or cells of growth hormone, thyroid-stimulating hormone, luteinizing hormone, follicle stimulating hormone, prolactin, adrenocorticotropic hormone, oxytocin, and antidiuretic hormone (or vasopressin.; J05.04c In the adrenal gland, name the target tissue or cells for the hormone and describe the effect(s) of glucocorticoids (cortisol), mineralocorticoids (aldosterone), gonadocorticoids, epinephrine and norepinephrine on the target tissue or cells.; P03.03d Describe how and where water, organic compounds, and ions are reabsorbed in the nephron.; J05.10c In the heart, name the target tissue or cells for atrial natriuretic peptide and describe the effect(s) of the hormone on the target tissue or cells.
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38) Which correctly describes renin? A) It is secreted by juxtaglomerular cells in renal afferent arterioles. B) Its secretion is enhanced by high levels of Na+ in the macula densa. C) Its secretion is stimulated by elevated blood pressure in the renal afferent arterioles. D) It acts on the adrenal cortex to stimulate aldosterone secretion. E) It is secreted by the liver in response to low blood pressure. Answer: A Section: 14.02; 14.08 Topic: Hormonal regulation Bloom's: Level 2. Understand HAPS Topic: Module P02 Gross and microscopic anatomy of the urinary tract, including detailed histology of the nephron.; Module Q03 Chemical composition of the major compartment fluids.; Module J05 Identity, source, secretory control, and functional roles of the major hormones produced by the body. HAPS Outcome: P02.03a Identify the major structures and subdivisions of the renal corpuscles, renal tubules and renal capillaries in the nephron and collecting system.; Q03.04 Describe hormonal regulation of electrolyte levels in the plasma, including sodium, chloride, potassium, phosphate and calcium.; J05.04a In the adrenal gland, describe the stimulus for release of glucocorticoids (cortisol), mineralocorticoids (aldosterone), gonadocorticoids, epinephrine and norepinephrine.; P02.03d Identify the location, structures and cells of the juxtaglomerular apparatus in the nephron and collecting system. 39) Which of the following organs is the main site of aldosterone secretion? A) Kidneys B) Adrenal glands C) Systemic and pulmonary blood vessels D) Liver E) The atria of the heart Answer: B Section: 14.08 Topic: Hormonal regulation Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module J05 Identity, source, secretory control, and functional roles of the major hormones produced by the body. HAPS Outcome: J05.04b In the adrenal gland, identify the gland or endocrine tissue/organ and the cells within that gland/tissue/organ that produce glucocorticoids (cortisol), mineralocorticoids (aldosterone), gonadocorticoids, epinephrine and norepinephrine.
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40) You play a trick on your little brother and replace all the sugar in the sugar bowl with salt. In the morning, you find him eating a bowl full of cereal with salt on it. You realize he's eaten quite a bit of salt! Which is likely to occur? A) Urine osmolarity would decrease. B) Atrial natriuretic factor secretion would decrease. C) Firing by hypothalamic osmoreceptors would decrease. D) Secretion of atrial natriuretic factor would increase. E) Secretion of vasopressin would decrease. Answer: D Section: 14.08 Topic: Regulation of water balance; Regulation of electrolyte balances; Hormonal regulation Bloom's: Level 3. Apply HAPS Topic: Module P04 Factors regulating and altering urine volume and composition, including the renin- angiotensin system and the roles of aldosterone, antidiuretic hormone, and the natriuretic peptides.; Module Q03 Chemical composition of the major compartment fluids.; Module Q07 Application of homeostatic mechanisms.; Module Q08 Predictions related to homeostatic imbalance, including disease states and disorders.; Module J05 Identity, source, secretory control, and functional roles of the major hormones produced by the body.; Module J08 Application of homeostatic mechanisms.; Module H06 Sensory receptors and their roles HAPS Outcome: P04.04 Predict specific factors involved in creating dilute versus concentrated urine.; P04.03 Describe how each of the following works to regulate reabsorption and secretion, so as to affect urine volume and composition- renin- angiotensin system, aldosterone, antidiuretic hormone, and natriuretic peptides.; Q08.01 Predict factors or situations that would lead to a disruption of homeostasis by affecting the volume or composition of body fluids.; J05.10a In the heart, describe the stimulus for release of atrial natriuretic peptide.; Q03.04 Describe hormonal regulation of electrolyte levels in the plasma, including sodium, chloride, potassium, phosphate and calcium.; H06.02 Describe each of the following types of receptors, indicating what sensation it detects and giving an example of where it can be found in the body: pain receptors (nociceptors), temperature receptors, mechanoreceptors (including proprioceptors and baroreceptors/pressoreceptors), chemoreceptors, and photoreceptors.; J05.01a Describe the stimulus for release of growth hormone, thyroid-stimulating hormone, luteinizing hormone, follicle stimulating hormone, prolactin, adrenocorticotropic hormone, oxytocin, and antidiuretic hormone (or vasopressin).; J08.01 Provide specific examples to demonstrate how the endocrine organs respond to maintain homeostasis in the body.; Q07.01 Provide specific examples to demonstrate how the cardiovascular, endocrine, and urinary systems respond to maintain homeostasis of fluid volume in the body.; Q07.02 Provide specific examples to demonstrate how the cardiovascular, endocrine, respiratory, and urinary systems respond to maintain homeostasis of electrolyte concentrations and pH of body fluids.; Q03.03 Describe the function(s) of each abundant electrolyte found in body fluids, including sodium, chloride, potassium, phosphate and calcium.
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41) In the presence of aldosterone, which nephron region reabsorbs the greatest fraction of the filtered Na+? A) Proximal tubule B) Macula densa C) Descending limb of the loop of Henle D) Distal convoluted tubule E) Cortical collecting duct Answer: A Section: 14.03; 14.08 Topic: Microscopic anatomy of the urinary system; Hormonal regulation Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module P02 Gross and microscopic anatomy of the urinary tract, including detailed histology of the nephron.; Module P03 Functional process of urine formation, including filtration reabsorption, and secretion.; Module P04 Factors regulating and altering urine volume and composition, including the renin- angiotensin system and the roles of aldosterone, antidiuretic hormone, and the natriuretic peptides.; Module Q03 Chemical composition of the major compartment fluids.; Module J05 Identity, source, secretory control, and functional roles of the major hormones produced by the body. HAPS Outcome: P02.03a Identify the major structures and subdivisions of the renal corpuscles, renal tubules and renal capillaries in the nephron and collecting system.; P04.03 Describe how each of the following works to regulate reabsorption and secretion, so as to affect urine volume and composition- renin- angiotensin system, aldosterone, antidiuretic hormone, and natriuretic peptides.; Q03.04 Describe hormonal regulation of electrolyte levels in the plasma, including sodium, chloride, potassium, phosphate and calcium.; J05.04c In the adrenal gland, name the target tissue or cells for the hormone and describe the effect(s) of glucocorticoids (cortisol), mineralocorticoids (aldosterone), gonadocorticoids, epinephrine and norepinephrine on the target tissue or cells.; P03.03d Describe how and where water, organic compounds, and ions are reabsorbed in the nephron.
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42) Which of the following would cause a decrease in the excretion of Na+ and water? A) Increased hydrostatic pressure in the afferent renal arterioles B) Increased mean arterial blood pressure C) Increased atrial distension D) Decreased aldosterone secretion E) Decreased atrial natriuretic peptide secretion Answer: E Section: 14.08 Topic: Functional process of urine formation, including filtration, reabsorption, and secretion; Regulation of urine volume and composition; Hormonal regulation Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module P03 Functional process of urine formation, including filtration reabsorption, and secretion.; Module P04 Factors regulating and altering urine volume and composition, including the renin- angiotensin system and the roles of aldosterone, antidiuretic hormone, and the natriuretic peptides.; Module Q03 Chemical composition of the major compartment fluids.; Module J05 Identity, source, secretory control, and functional roles of the major hormones produced by the body. HAPS Outcome: P03.02c Describe the hydrostatic and colloid osmotic forces that favor and oppose filtration.; P03.02e Predict specific factors that will increase or decrease glomerular filtration rate (GFR).; P04.01a Describe the myogenic and tubuloglomerular feedback mechanisms in autoregulation and explain how they affect urine volume and composition.; P04.02 Describe how each of the following functions in the extrinsic control of GFR- reninangiotensin mechanism, natriuretic peptides, and sympathetic adrenergic activity.; P04.03 Describe how each of the following works to regulate reabsorption and secretion, so as to affect urine volume and composition- renin- angiotensin system, aldosterone, antidiuretic hormone, and natriuretic peptides.; J05.10a In the heart, describe the stimulus for release of atrial natriuretic peptide.; Q03.04 Describe hormonal regulation of electrolyte levels in the plasma, including sodium, chloride, potassium, phosphate and calcium.; J05.04c In the adrenal gland, name the target tissue or cells for the hormone and describe the effect(s) of glucocorticoids (cortisol), mineralocorticoids (aldosterone), gonadocorticoids, epinephrine and norepinephrine on the target tissue or cells.; J05.10c In the heart, name the target tissue or cells for atrial natriuretic peptide and describe the effect(s) of the hormone on the target tissue or cells.
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43) Following a few months of noticeably high urine volume, Stephanie's doctor diagnosed her with diabetes insipidus and prescribed her desmopressin, which is a synthetic drug form of vasopressin. A few weeks later, Stephanie accidentally takes two doses instead of one. On that day, what is Stephanie likely to experience? A) An increase in the osmolarity of urine B) An increased urine volume C) A decrease in blood pressure D) A noticeable reduction in thirst and desire to drink water E) None of these would occur Answer: A Section: 14.07; 14.09 Topic: Regulation of urine volume and composition; Hormonal regulation Bloom's: Level 3. Apply HAPS Topic: Module P03 Functional process of urine formation, including filtration reabsorption, and secretion.; Module P04 Factors regulating and altering urine volume and composition, including the renin- angiotensin system and the roles of aldosterone, antidiuretic hormone, and the natriuretic peptides.; Module Q01 Regulation of water intake and output.; Module J05 Identity, source, secretory control, and functional roles of the major hormones produced by the body. HAPS Outcome: P03.03f With respect to reabsorption, explain the role of the loop of Henle, the vasa recta, and the countercurrent multiplication mechanism in the concentration of urine.; P04.04 Predict specific factors involved in creating dilute versus concentrated urine.; P04.03 Describe how each of the following works to regulate reabsorption and secretion, so as to affect urine volume and composition- renin- angiotensin system, aldosterone, antidiuretic hormone, and natriuretic peptides.; J05.01c Name the target tissue or cells for the hormone and describe the effect(s) of the hormone on the target tissue or cells of growth hormone, thyroid-stimulating hormone, luteinizing hormone, follicle stimulating hormone, prolactin, adrenocorticotropic hormone, oxytocin, and antidiuretic hormone (or vasopressin.; Q01.04 Describe the mechanisms used to regulate water output.
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44) Which stimulates vasopressin secretion? A) Increased plasma osmolarity B) Increased plasma volume C) Ingestion of alcohol D) Decreased aldosterone secretion E) Increased pressure in afferent arterioles Answer: A Section: 14.09 Topic: Regulation of water balance; Hormonal regulation Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module Q01 Regulation of water intake and output.; Module J05 Identity, source, secretory control, and functional roles of the major hormones produced by the body. HAPS Outcome: J05.01a Describe the stimulus for release of growth hormone, thyroidstimulating hormone, luteinizing hormone, follicle stimulating hormone, prolactin, adrenocorticotropic hormone, oxytocin, and antidiuretic hormone (or vasopressin).; J05.04c In the adrenal gland, name the target tissue or cells for the hormone and describe the effect(s) of glucocorticoids (cortisol), mineralocorticoids (aldosterone), gonadocorticoids, epinephrine and norepinephrine on the target tissue or cells.; Q01.04 Describe the mechanisms used to regulate water output.
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45) Following an intense workout your clothes are drenched in sweat. You estimate you lost at least 0.5 L of sweat. Your (similarly sized) friend skipped her workout to donate blood and you found out she donated 0.5 L of plasma. After these activities, which of you will have a greater increase in vasopressin secretion and why? A) You will have a greater vasopressin secretion because sweat is hyperosmotic to plasma. B) You will have a greater vasopressin secretion because sweat is hypoosmotic to plasma. C) Your friend will have a greater vasopressin secretion because sweat is hypoosmotic to plasma. D) Your friend will have a greater vasopressin secretion because sweat is isosmotic to plasma. E) Your friend will have a greater vasopressin secretion because sweat is hyperosmotic to plasma. Answer: B Section: 14.07; 14.09; 14.10 Topic: Regulation of water balance; Hormonal regulation Bloom's: Level 3. Apply HAPS Topic: Module Q01 Regulation of water intake and output.; Module Q07 Application of homeostatic mechanisms.; Module Q08 Predictions related to homeostatic imbalance, including disease states and disorders.; Module J05 Identity, source, secretory control, and functional roles of the major hormones produced by the body.; Module J08 Application of homeostatic mechanisms. HAPS Outcome: Q08.01 Predict factors or situations that would lead to a disruption of homeostasis by affecting the volume or composition of body fluids.; J05.01a Describe the stimulus for release of growth hormone, thyroid-stimulating hormone, luteinizing hormone, follicle stimulating hormone, prolactin, adrenocorticotropic hormone, oxytocin, and antidiuretic hormone (or vasopressin).; J08.01 Provide specific examples to demonstrate how the endocrine organs respond to maintain homeostasis in the body.; Q01.04 Describe the mechanisms used to regulate water output.; Q07.01 Provide specific examples to demonstrate how the cardiovascular, endocrine, and urinary systems respond to maintain homeostasis of fluid volume in the body.; Q07.02 Provide specific examples to demonstrate how the cardiovascular, endocrine, respiratory, and urinary systems respond to maintain homeostasis of electrolyte concentrations and pH of body fluids.
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46) After prolonged exertion in a hot climate, baroreceptors would secretion of and thus renal reabsorption of A) increase; increased; renin; increased; Na+ B) decrease; increased; renin; decreased; Na+ C) decrease; increased; vasopressin; increased; water D) increase; decreased; vasopressin; decreased; water E) decrease; decreased; vasopressin; increased; water
firing, leading to .
Answer: C Section: 14.09 Topic: Regulation of urine volume and composition; Regulation of water balance; Regulation of electrolyte balances; Hormonal regulation Bloom's: Level 2. Understand HAPS Topic: Module P04 Factors regulating and altering urine volume and composition, including the renin- angiotensin system and the roles of aldosterone, antidiuretic hormone, and the natriuretic peptides.; Module Q01 Regulation of water intake and output.; Module Q03 Chemical composition of the major compartment fluids.; Module Q07 Application of homeostatic mechanisms.; Module Q08 Predictions related to homeostatic imbalance, including disease states and disorders.; Module J05 Identity, source, secretory control, and functional roles of the major hormones produced by the body.; Module J08 Application of homeostatic mechanisms.; Module K14 Blood pressure and its functional interrelationships with cardiac output, peripheral resistance, and hemodynamics; Module H06 Sensory receptors and their roles HAPS Outcome: P04.03 Describe how each of the following works to regulate reabsorption and secretion, so as to affect urine volume and composition- renin- angiotensin system, aldosterone, antidiuretic hormone, and natriuretic peptides.; Q08.01 Predict factors or situations that would lead to a disruption of homeostasis by affecting the volume or composition of body fluids.; Q03.04 Describe hormonal regulation of electrolyte levels in the plasma, including sodium, chloride, potassium, phosphate and calcium.; H06.02 Describe each of the following types of receptors, indicating what sensation it detects and giving an example of where it can be found in the body: pain receptors (nociceptors), temperature receptors, mechanoreceptors (including proprioceptors and baroreceptors/pressoreceptors), chemoreceptors, and photoreceptors.; J05.01a Describe the stimulus for release of growth hormone, thyroidstimulating hormone, luteinizing hormone, follicle stimulating hormone, prolactin, adrenocorticotropic hormone, oxytocin, and antidiuretic hormone (or vasopressin).; J05.01c Name the target tissue or cells for the hormone and describe the effect(s) of the hormone on the target tissue or cells of growth hormone, thyroid-stimulating hormone, luteinizing hormone, follicle stimulating hormone, prolactin, adrenocorticotropic hormone, oxytocin, and antidiuretic hormone (or vasopressin.; J05.04a In the adrenal gland, describe the stimulus for release of glucocorticoids (cortisol), mineralocorticoids (aldosterone), gonadocorticoids, epinephrine and norepinephrine.; J05.04c In the adrenal gland, name the target tissue or cells for the hormone and describe the effect(s) of glucocorticoids (cortisol), mineralocorticoids (aldosterone), gonadocorticoids, epinephrine and norepinephrine on the target tissue or cells.; J08.01 Provide specific examples to demonstrate how the endocrine organs respond to maintain homeostasis in the body.; J08.02 Explain how the endocrine organs relate to other body organs and systems to maintain homeostasis.; K14.10a With respect to regulation of blood pressure, during the baroreceptor reflex, explain how cardiac output and peripheral resistance are regulated to 38 Copyright 2019 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.
maintain adequate blood pressure on a moment-to-moment basis.; Q01.04 Describe the mechanisms used to regulate water output.; Q07.01 Provide specific examples to demonstrate how the cardiovascular, endocrine, and urinary systems respond to maintain homeostasis of fluid volume in the body.; Q07.02 Provide specific examples to demonstrate how the cardiovascular, endocrine, respiratory, and urinary systems respond to maintain homeostasis of electrolyte concentrations and pH of body fluids. 47) Which of the following most accurately describes the actions of aldosterone? A) Aldosterone increases Na+ secretion and K+ reabsorption in the cortical collecting ducts. B) Aldosterone increases Na+ reabsorption and K+ secretion in the proximal tubule. C) Aldosterone decreases Na+ reabsorption and K+ secretion in the cortical collecting ducts. D) Aldosterone increases Na+ secretion and K+ reabsorption in the proximal tubule. E) Aldosterone increases Na+ reabsorption and K+ secretion in the cortical collecting ducts. Answer: E Section: 14.08; 14.12 Topic: Regulation of urine volume and composition; Regulation of electrolyte balances; Hormonal regulation Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module P02 Gross and microscopic anatomy of the urinary tract, including detailed histology of the nephron.; Module P03 Functional process of urine formation, including filtration reabsorption, and secretion.; Module P04 Factors regulating and altering urine volume and composition, including the renin- angiotensin system and the roles of aldosterone, antidiuretic hormone, and the natriuretic peptides.; Module Q03 Chemical composition of the major compartment fluids.; Module J05 Identity, source, secretory control, and functional roles of the major hormones produced by the body. HAPS Outcome: P02.03a Identify the major structures and subdivisions of the renal corpuscles, renal tubules and renal capillaries in the nephron and collecting system.; P04.03 Describe how each of the following works to regulate reabsorption and secretion, so as to affect urine volume and composition- renin- angiotensin system, aldosterone, antidiuretic hormone, and natriuretic peptides.; Q03.04 Describe hormonal regulation of electrolyte levels in the plasma, including sodium, chloride, potassium, phosphate and calcium.; J05.04c In the adrenal gland, name the target tissue or cells for the hormone and describe the effect(s) of glucocorticoids (cortisol), mineralocorticoids (aldosterone), gonadocorticoids, epinephrine and norepinephrine on the target tissue or cells.; P03.03d Describe how and where water, organic compounds, and ions are reabsorbed in the nephron.; P03.04b Describe the physiological processes involved in eliminating drugs, wastes and excess ions with respect to tubular secretion.
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48) Which would result in the greatest stimulation of aldosterone secretion? A) Increasing plasma K+ concentration and decreasing plasma angiotensin II concentration B) Decreasing plasma K+ concentration and increasing plasma angiotensin II concentration C) Increasing plasma Na+ concentration and increasing plasma volume D) Increasing plasma K+ concentration and increasing plasma angiotensin II concentration E) Decreasing plasma Na+ concentration and decreasing plasma angiontensin II concentration Answer: D Section: 14.08; 14.12 Topic: Regulation of electrolyte balances; Hormonal regulation Bloom's: Level 2. Understand HAPS Topic: Module Q03 Chemical composition of the major compartment fluids.; Module Q07 Application of homeostatic mechanisms.; Module J05 Identity, source, secretory control, and functional roles of the major hormones produced by the body.; Module J08 Application of homeostatic mechanisms. HAPS Outcome: Q03.04 Describe hormonal regulation of electrolyte levels in the plasma, including sodium, chloride, potassium, phosphate and calcium.; J05.04a In the adrenal gland, describe the stimulus for release of glucocorticoids (cortisol), mineralocorticoids (aldosterone), gonadocorticoids, epinephrine and norepinephrine.; J08.01 Provide specific examples to demonstrate how the endocrine organs respond to maintain homeostasis in the body.; Q07.02 Provide specific examples to demonstrate how the cardiovascular, endocrine, respiratory, and urinary systems respond to maintain homeostasis of electrolyte concentrations and pH of body fluids.
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49) You are the CEO of a drug company where you've asked five teams of scientists to generate new drugs to decrease blood pressure. You can only send four of the drugs to market. Which of these drugs is least likely to decrease blood pressure and can be eliminated from potential development? A) A drug that interferes with aldosterone synthesis B) A drug that is an agonist of atrial natriuretic factor C) A drug that decreases sympathetic stimulation of renal arterioles D) A drug that enhances the activity of angiotensin-converting enzyme E) A drug that decreases liver production of angiotensinogen Answer: D Section: 14.08 Topic: Hormonal regulation; Clinical applications of fluid balance Bloom's: Level 3. Apply HAPS Topic: Module P04 Factors regulating and altering urine volume and composition, including the renin- angiotensin system and the roles of aldosterone, antidiuretic hormone, and the natriuretic peptides.; Module P08 Predictions related to homeostatic imbalance, including disease states and disorders.; Module Q08 Predictions related to homeostatic imbalance, including disease states and disorders.; Module J05 Identity, source, secretory control, and functional roles of the major hormones produced by the body.; Module J09 Predictions related to homeostatic imbalance, including disease states and disorders.; Module K14 Blood pressure and its functional interrelationships with cardiac output, peripheral resistance, and hemodynamics HAPS Outcome: P04.02 Describe how each of the following functions in the extrinsic control of GFR- renin-angiotensin mechanism, natriuretic peptides, and sympathetic adrenergic activity.; J09.01 Predict factors or situations affecting the endocrine organs that could disrupt homeostasis.; J09.02 Predict the types of problems that would occur in the body if the various endocrine organs could not maintain homeostasis.; P04.03 Describe how each of the following works to regulate reabsorption and secretion, so as to affect urine volume and compositionrenin- angiotensin system, aldosterone, antidiuretic hormone, and natriuretic peptides.; Q08.01 Predict factors or situations that would lead to a disruption of homeostasis by affecting the volume or composition of body fluids.; J05.10a In the heart, describe the stimulus for release of atrial natriuretic peptide.; J05.10d In the heart, predict the larger effect that fluctuations in atrial natriuretic peptide will have on conditions (variables) within the body.; J05.04a In the adrenal gland, describe the stimulus for release of glucocorticoids (cortisol), mineralocorticoids (aldosterone), gonadocorticoids, epinephrine and norepinephrine.; Q08.03 Predict the types of problems that would occur in the body if the volume and composition of body fluids were not maintained within normal homeostatic ranges.; J05.04d In the adrenal gland, predict the larger effect that fluctuations in glucocorticoids (cortisol), mineralocorticoids (aldosterone), gonadocorticoids, epinephrine and norepinephrine levels will have on conditions (variables) within the body.; P08.01 Predict factors or situations affecting the urinary system that could disrupt homeostasis.; P08.02 Predict the types of problems that would occur in the body if the urinary system could not maintain homeostasis.; K14.10d With respect to regulation of blood pressure, explain the role of hormones in regulation of blood pressure, including the mechanism by which specific hormones affect preload, heart rate, inotropic state or vascular resistance.
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50) Most of the reabsorption of filtered calcium is unregulated and occurs in the , but an additional amount can be reabsorbed in the , depending on the plasma concentration of parathyroid hormone. A) proximal convoluted tubule; distal convoluted tubule B) distal convoluted tubule; proximal convoluted tubule C) proximal convoluted tubule; descending loop of Henle D) distal convoluted tubule; medullary collecting ducts E) distal convoluted tubule; renal corpuscle Answer: A Section: 14.13 Topic: Microscopic anatomy of the urinary system; Regulation of electrolyte balances; Hormonal regulation Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module P02 Gross and microscopic anatomy of the urinary tract, including detailed histology of the nephron.; Module P03 Functional process of urine formation, including filtration reabsorption, and secretion.; Module Q03 Chemical composition of the major compartment fluids.; Module J05 Identity, source, secretory control, and functional roles of the major hormones produced by the body. HAPS Outcome: P02.03a Identify the major structures and subdivisions of the renal corpuscles, renal tubules and renal capillaries in the nephron and collecting system.; Q03.04 Describe hormonal regulation of electrolyte levels in the plasma, including sodium, chloride, potassium, phosphate and calcium.; P03.03d Describe how and where water, organic compounds, and ions are reabsorbed in the nephron.; J05.03c In the parathyroid gland, name the target tissue or cells for the hormone and describe the effect(s) of the parathyroid hormone on the target tissue or cells.
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51) Andres has a parathyroid hormone deficiency. He first approached the doctor because he was experiencing and the early blood tests found that he had . A) decreased muscular excitability; low plasma calcium levels B) increased muscular excitability; low plasma calcium levels C) decreased muscular excitability; high plasma calcium levels D) increased muscular excitability; high plasma calcium levels E) frequent bones breaks; high plasma calcium levels Answer: B Section: 14.13 Topic: Regulation of electrolyte balances; Hormonal regulation Bloom's: Level 3. Apply HAPS Topic: Module Q03 Chemical composition of the major compartment fluids.; Module Q07 Application of homeostatic mechanisms.; Module Q08 Predictions related to homeostatic imbalance, including disease states and disorders.; Module J05 Identity, source, secretory control, and functional roles of the major hormones produced by the body.; Module J09 Predictions related to homeostatic imbalance, including disease states and disorders.; Module F05 Physiology of bone growth, repair, and remodeling HAPS Outcome: J09.01 Predict factors or situations affecting the endocrine organs that could disrupt homeostasis.; J09.02 Predict the types of problems that would occur in the body if the various endocrine organs could not maintain homeostasis.; Q08.01 Predict factors or situations that would lead to a disruption of homeostasis by affecting the volume or composition of body fluids.; Q03.04 Describe hormonal regulation of electrolyte levels in the plasma, including sodium, chloride, potassium, phosphate and calcium.; F05.03 Explain the roles of calcitonin, parathyroid hormone and calcitriol in bone remodeling and blood calcium regulation.; Q03.03 Describe the function(s) of each abundant electrolyte found in body fluids, including sodium, chloride, potassium, phosphate and calcium.; Q07.04 Explain how electrolyte concentrations and body fluid pH contribute to the maintenance of homeostasis in other body systems.; Q08.03 Predict the types of problems that would occur in the body if the volume and composition of body fluids were not maintained within normal homeostatic ranges.; J05.03d In the parathyroid gland, predict the larger effect that fluctuations in the parathyroid hormone level will have on conditions (variables) within the body.
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52) When blood Ca2+ levels fall below normal, in what ways do the kidneys help restore them toward normal? A) By increasing 1,25-dihydroxyvitamin D3 formation, decreasing tubular phosphate reabsorption, and increasing tubular Ca2+ reabsorption B) By increasing 1,25-dihydroxyvitamin D3 formation, increasing tubular phosphate reabsorption, and increasing tubular Ca2+ reabsorption C) By decreasing 1,25-dihydroxyvitamin D3 formation, increasing tubular phosphate reabsorption, and increasing tubular Ca2+ reabsorption D) Increasing 1,25-dihydroxyvitamin D3 formation and increasing secretion of parathyroid hormone E) By increasing renal secretion of parathyroid hormone and increasing bone resorption Answer: A Section: 14.13 Topic: Regulation of electrolyte balances; Hormonal regulation Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module P05 Additional endocrine activities of the kidney.; Module P07 Application of homeostatic mechanisms.; Module Q03 Chemical composition of the major compartment fluids.; Module Q07 Application of homeostatic mechanisms.; Module J05 Identity, source, secretory control, and functional roles of the major hormones produced by the body.; Module J08 Application of homeostatic mechanisms. HAPS Outcome: Q03.04 Describe hormonal regulation of electrolyte levels in the plasma, including sodium, chloride, potassium, phosphate and calcium.; J08.01 Provide specific examples to demonstrate how the endocrine organs respond to maintain homeostasis in the body.; J08.02 Explain how the endocrine organs relate to other body organs and systems to maintain homeostasis.; Q07.02 Provide specific examples to demonstrate how the cardiovascular, endocrine, respiratory, and urinary systems respond to maintain homeostasis of electrolyte concentrations and pH of body fluids.; P07.01 Provide specific examples to demonstrate how the urinary system responds to maintain homeostasis in the body.; J05.08a In the kidney, describe the stimulus for release of erythropoietin and calcitrol (Vitamin D).; P07.02 Explain how the urinary system relates to other body systems to maintain homeostasis.; J05.03d In the parathyroid gland, predict the larger effect that fluctuations in the parathyroid hormone level will have on conditions (variables) within the body.; J05.03b In the parathyroid gland, identify the gland or endocrine tissue/organ and the cells within that gland/tissue/organ that produce the parathyroid hormone.; J05.08b In the kidney, identify the gland or endocrine tissue/organ and the cells within that gland/tissue/organ that produce erythropoietin and calcitrol (Vitamin D).; P05.01 Describe the role of kidney in vitamin D activation.
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53) Which of the following statements regarding Ca2+ homeostasis is TRUE? A) Parathyroid hormone directly stimulates Ca2+ reabsorption by the kidneys. B) Parathyroid hormone directly stimulates Ca2+ absorption from the GI tract. C) In the absence of parathyroid hormone, plasma Ca2+ levels would be abnormally low, resulting in the hyperpolarization of nerve and muscle membranes. D) When plasma Ca2+ increases above normal, the secretion of parathyroid hormone increases. E) Vitamin D decreases the renal tubular reabsorption of Ca2+. Answer: A Section: 14.13 Topic: Regulation of electrolyte balances; Hormonal regulation Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module Q03 Chemical composition of the major compartment fluids.; Module Q07 Application of homeostatic mechanisms.; Module J05 Identity, source, secretory control, and functional roles of the major hormones produced by the body.; Module J08 Application of homeostatic mechanisms.; Module F05 Physiology of bone growth, repair, and remodeling HAPS Outcome: Q03.04 Describe hormonal regulation of electrolyte levels in the plasma, including sodium, chloride, potassium, phosphate and calcium.; J08.01 Provide specific examples to demonstrate how the endocrine organs respond to maintain homeostasis in the body.; Q07.02 Provide specific examples to demonstrate how the cardiovascular, endocrine, respiratory, and urinary systems respond to maintain homeostasis of electrolyte concentrations and pH of body fluids.; F05.03 Explain the roles of calcitonin, parathyroid hormone and calcitriol in bone remodeling and blood calcium regulation.; J05.03a In the parathyroid gland, describe the stimulus for release of the parathyroid hormone.; Q03.03 Describe the function(s) of each abundant electrolyte found in body fluids, including sodium, chloride, potassium, phosphate and calcium.; Q07.04 Explain how electrolyte concentrations and body fluid pH contribute to the maintenance of homeostasis in other body systems.; J05.03d In the parathyroid gland, predict the larger effect that fluctuations in the parathyroid hormone level will have on conditions (variables) within the body.; J05.08c In the kidney, name the target tissue or cells for erythropoietin and calcitrol (Vitamin D) and describe the effect(s) of the hormone on the target tissue or cells.
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54) Which would NOT be caused by a decrease in plasma Ca2+ levels in an otherwise normal person? A) An increase in plasma parathyroid hormone levels B) An increase in plasma 1,25-dihydroxyvitamin D3 levels C) An increase in nerve and muscle excitability D) A decrease in the filtered load of Ca2+ E) An increase in bone density Answer: E Section: 14.13 Topic: Regulation of electrolyte balances; Hormonal regulation Bloom's: Level 2. Understand HAPS Topic: Module Q03 Chemical composition of the major compartment fluids.; Module Q07 Application of homeostatic mechanisms.; Module Q08 Predictions related to homeostatic imbalance, including disease states and disorders.; Module J05 Identity, source, secretory control, and functional roles of the major hormones produced by the body.; Module J08 Application of homeostatic mechanisms.; Module F05 Physiology of bone growth, repair, and remodeling HAPS Outcome: Q08.01 Predict factors or situations that would lead to a disruption of homeostasis by affecting the volume or composition of body fluids.; Q03.04 Describe hormonal regulation of electrolyte levels in the plasma, including sodium, chloride, potassium, phosphate and calcium.; J08.01 Provide specific examples to demonstrate how the endocrine organs respond to maintain homeostasis in the body.; F05.03 Explain the roles of calcitonin, parathyroid hormone and calcitriol in bone remodeling and blood calcium regulation.; J05.03a In the parathyroid gland, describe the stimulus for release of the parathyroid hormone.; J05.08a In the kidney, describe the stimulus for release of erythropoietin and calcitrol (Vitamin D).; Q03.03 Describe the function(s) of each abundant electrolyte found in body fluids, including sodium, chloride, potassium, phosphate and calcium.; Q07.04 Explain how electrolyte concentrations and body fluid pH contribute to the maintenance of homeostasis in other body systems.; Q08.03 Predict the types of problems that would occur in the body if the volume and composition of body fluids were not maintained within normal homeostatic ranges.
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55) Which of the following statements about renal control of blood acid-base balance is TRUE? A) Increased metabolism of glutamine by renal tubular cells increases the plasma bicarbonate concentration. B) Excretion in the urine of hydrogen bound to phosphate buffers decreases plasma bicarbonate concentration. C) H+ that binds to filtered bicarbonate in the tubular fluid is excreted in the urine. D) When hypoventilation occurs at the lungs, the kidneys compensate by reducing glutamine metabolism. E) The kidneys compensate for a metabolic alkalosis by increasing CO2 production. Answer: A Section: 14.18; 14.19; 14.20 Topic: Regulation of urine volume and composition; Buffer systems and their roles in acid-base balance Bloom's: Level 2. Understand HAPS Topic: Module Q06 Role of the respiratory and urinary systems in acid/base balance.; Module M07 Control of pulmonary ventilation HAPS Outcome: Q06.03 Explain the mechanisms by which the kidneys secrete hydrogen ions, and how this process affects blood pH.; Q06.04 Explain the mechanisms by which the kidneys retain bicarbonate ions, and how this process affects blood pH.; Q06.05 Discuss the concept of compensation to correct respiratory and metabolic acidosis and alkalosis.; M07.04 Define hyperventilation, hypoventilation, panting, eupnea, hyperpnea and apnea
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56) Following a series of high-intensity training runs, lactic acid was generated by the leg muscles and is now circulating in the blood. Which of the following is likely to occur? A) Decreased renal secretion of hydrogen ion B) Decreased renal reabsorption of bicarbonate ion C) Increased plasma PCO2 D) Decreased urinary pH E) Decreased urinary ammonium Answer: D Section: 14.18; 14.19; 14.20 Topic: Regulation of urine volume and composition; Clinical applications of the urinary system; Buffer systems and their roles in acid-base balance Bloom's: Level 3. Apply HAPS Topic: Module P07 Application of homeostatic mechanisms.; Module Q06 Role of the respiratory and urinary systems in acid/base balance.; Module Q07 Application of homeostatic mechanisms. HAPS Outcome: Q07.02 Provide specific examples to demonstrate how the cardiovascular, endocrine, respiratory, and urinary systems respond to maintain homeostasis of electrolyte concentrations and pH of body fluids.; Q06.03 Explain the mechanisms by which the kidneys secrete hydrogen ions, and how this process affects blood pH.; Q06.04 Explain the mechanisms by which the kidneys retain bicarbonate ions, and how this process affects blood pH.; P07.01 Provide specific examples to demonstrate how the urinary system responds to maintain homeostasis in the body.; Q06.05 Discuss the concept of compensation to correct respiratory and metabolic acidosis and alkalosis.
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57) You are an EMT and arrive at the scene of an opioid overdose. The overdose victim is breathing extremely slowly and shallowly. When you arrive at the ER, you report that the medical team should watch out for signs of A) metabolic acidosis. B) respiratory acidosis. C) metabolic alkalosis. D) respiratory alkalosis. Answer: B Section: 14.20 Topic: Buffer systems and their roles in acid-base balance Bloom's: Level 3. Apply HAPS Topic: Module Q06 Role of the respiratory and urinary systems in acid/base balance.; Module Q08 Predictions related to homeostatic imbalance, including disease states and disorders.; Module M07 Control of pulmonary ventilation; Module M09 Predictions related to homeostatic imbalance, including disease states and disorders HAPS Outcome: M07.04 Define hyperventilation, hypoventilation, panting, eupnea, hyperpnea and apnea; M09.01 Predict factors or situations affecting the respiratory system that could disrupt homeostasis.; M09.02 Predict the types of problems that would occur in the body if the respiratory system could not maintain homeostasis.; Q06.02 Describe the role of the respiratory system in regulation of blood pH and predict how hypo- and hyperventilation will affect blood pH.; Q08.02 Predict factors or situations that would lead to a disruption of homeostasis by causing respiratory acidosis, respiratory alkalosis, metabolic acidosis, or metabolic alkalosis.
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58) How would the kidneys respond to hypoventilation? A) Increasing secretion of H+ and increasing production of new HCO3B) Increasing secretion of H+ and decreasing reabsorption of HCO3C) Decreasing secretion of H+ and increasing production of new HCO3D) Decreasing secretion of H+ and decreasing reabsorption of HCO3E) Increasing excretion of CO2 Answer: A Section: 14.18; 14.19; 14.20 Topic: Regulation of urine volume and composition; Clinical applications of the urinary system; Buffer systems and their roles in acid-base balance Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module Q06 Role of the respiratory and urinary systems in acid/base balance.; Module Q07 Application of homeostatic mechanisms.; Module Q08 Predictions related to homeostatic imbalance, including disease states and disorders.; Module M07 Control of pulmonary ventilation; Module M09 Predictions related to homeostatic imbalance, including disease states and disorders HAPS Outcome: Q07.02 Provide specific examples to demonstrate how the cardiovascular, endocrine, respiratory, and urinary systems respond to maintain homeostasis of electrolyte concentrations and pH of body fluids.; Q06.03 Explain the mechanisms by which the kidneys secrete hydrogen ions, and how this process affects blood pH.; Q06.04 Explain the mechanisms by which the kidneys retain bicarbonate ions, and how this process affects blood pH.; Q06.05 Discuss the concept of compensation to correct respiratory and metabolic acidosis and alkalosis.; M07.04 Define hyperventilation, hypoventilation, panting, eupnea, hyperpnea and apnea; M09.01 Predict factors or situations affecting the respiratory system that could disrupt homeostasis.; M09.02 Predict the types of problems that would occur in the body if the respiratory system could not maintain homeostasis.; Q08.02 Predict factors or situations that would lead to a disruption of homeostasis by causing respiratory acidosis, respiratory alkalosis, metabolic acidosis, or metabolic alkalosis.
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59) If a patient with pulmonary disease began to hypoventilate, how would plasma levels of [H+], HCO3-, and PCO2 be changed, compared to normal? A) Increased [H+], increased PCO2, and increased [HCO3-] B) Increased [H+], increased PCO2, and decreased [HCO3-] C) Increased [H+], decreased PCO2, and decreased [HCO3-] D) Decreased [H+], increased PCO2, and decreased [HCO3-] E) Decreased [H+], decreased PCO2, and decreased [HCO3-] Answer: A Section: 14.18; 14.19; 14.20 Topic: Buffer systems and their roles in acid-base balance Bloom's: Level 3. Apply HAPS Topic: Module Q05 Buffer systems and their roles in acid/base balance.; Module Q06 Role of the respiratory and urinary systems in acid/base balance.; Module Q08 Predictions related to homeostatic imbalance, including disease states and disorders.; Module M07 Control of pulmonary ventilation; Module M09 Predictions related to homeostatic imbalance, including disease states and disorders; Module M06 Mechanisms of gas transport in the blood HAPS Outcome: M06.03d Predict how changing the partial pressure of carbon dioxide will affect the pH and the concentration of bicarbonate ions in the plasma.; M07.04 Define hyperventilation, hypoventilation, panting, eupnea, hyperpnea and apnea; M09.01 Predict factors or situations affecting the respiratory system that could disrupt homeostasis.; M09.02 Predict the types of problems that would occur in the body if the respiratory system could not maintain homeostasis.; Q05.03a State the chemical equation for bicarbonate buffer system, the phosphate buffer system and the protein buffer system.; Q06.02 Describe the role of the respiratory system in regulation of blood pH and predict how hypo- and hyperventilation will affect blood pH.; Q08.02 Predict factors or situations that would lead to a disruption of homeostasis by causing respiratory acidosis, respiratory alkalosis, metabolic acidosis, or metabolic alkalosis.
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60) A man with hypertension takes a diuretic that is not potassium-sparing, and he does not increase his ingestion of potassium. Which of the following side-effects would the drug be most likely to cause? A) Increased blood volume B) Depolarized neuronal cell membranes C) Hyperkalemia D) Cardiac arrhythmia E) All of these side effects would occur. Answer: D Section: 14.12; 14.15 Topic: Clinical applications of the urinary system; Regulation of electrolyte balances Bloom's: Level 3. Apply HAPS Topic: Module P04 Factors regulating and altering urine volume and composition, including the renin- angiotensin system and the roles of aldosterone, antidiuretic hormone, and the natriuretic peptides.; Module P08 Predictions related to homeostatic imbalance, including disease states and disorders.; Module Q03 Chemical composition of the major compartment fluids.; Module Q07 Application of homeostatic mechanisms.; Module Q08 Predictions related to homeostatic imbalance, including disease states and disorders. HAPS Outcome: Q08.01 Predict factors or situations that would lead to a disruption of homeostasis by affecting the volume or composition of body fluids.; Q03.03 Describe the function(s) of each abundant electrolyte found in body fluids, including sodium, chloride, potassium, phosphate and calcium.; Q07.04 Explain how electrolyte concentrations and body fluid pH contribute to the maintenance of homeostasis in other body systems.; Q08.03 Predict the types of problems that would occur in the body if the volume and composition of body fluids were not maintained within normal homeostatic ranges.; P08.01 Predict factors or situations affecting the urinary system that could disrupt homeostasis.; P08.02 Predict the types of problems that would occur in the body if the urinary system could not maintain homeostasis.; P04.05 Explain the mechanism of action of diuretics.
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61) You are a scientist at a drug company where your CEO has asked for your team to create a drug that will inhibit spontaneous emptying of the bladder (incontinence). Which of the following drugs would be effective? A) A drug that enhances the effects of parasympathetic neurons on the detrusor muscle B) A drug that blocks the effects of parasympathetic neurons on the detrusor muscle C) A drug that inhibits the effects of sympathetic neurons on the internal urethral sphincter D) A drug that inhibits the effects of somatic neurons on the bladder E) A drug that inhibits the action of sympathetic neurons on the external urethral sphincter Answer: B Section: 14.05 Topic: Urine storage and elimination; Innervation of the urinary bladder; Clinical applications of the urinary system Bloom's: Level 3. Apply HAPS Topic: Module P06 Innervation and control of the urinary bladder.; Module P08 Predictions related to homeostatic imbalance, including disease states and disorders. HAPS Outcome: P08.01 Predict factors or situations affecting the urinary system that could disrupt homeostasis.; P08.02 Predict the types of problems that would occur in the body if the urinary system could not maintain homeostasis.; P06.02 Describe the micturition reflex. 62) The anatomic arrangement of juxtamedullary nephrons in the kidneys is such that the glomerulus, proximal tubule, and distal convoluted tubule are in the renal cortex, while the loop of Henle and collecting ducts lie mainly in the renal medulla. Answer: TRUE Section: 14.02 Topic: Microscopic anatomy of the urinary system Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module P02 Gross and microscopic anatomy of the urinary tract, including detailed histology of the nephron. HAPS Outcome: P02.03a Identify the major structures and subdivisions of the renal corpuscles, renal tubules and renal capillaries in the nephron and collecting system.; P02.01d Identify the major internal divisions and structures of the renal tissue with respect to gross anatomy of the urinary tract.; P02.03b Compare and contrast cortical and juxtamedullary nephrons in the nephron and collecting system.
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63) The three basic processes of kidney function are filtration from the glomerulus into Bowman's capsule, secretion from the tubule into the peritubular capillaries, and reabsorption from the capillaries into the tubular lumen. Answer: FALSE Section: 14.03 Topic: Microscopic anatomy of the urinary system; Functional process of urine formation, including filtration, reabsorption, and secretion Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module P02 Gross and microscopic anatomy of the urinary tract, including detailed histology of the nephron.; Module P03 Functional process of urine formation, including filtration reabsorption, and secretion. HAPS Outcome: P02.03a Identify the major structures and subdivisions of the renal corpuscles, renal tubules and renal capillaries in the nephron and collecting system.; P03.01 List the three major processes in urine formation and where each occurs in the nephron and collecting system.; P03.05 Compare and contrast reabsorption and tubular secretion, with respect to direction of solute movement, strength of concentration gradients, and energy required. 64) Only substances that are filtered by the kidneys can be excreted by them. Answer: FALSE Section: 14.03 Topic: Functional process of urine formation, including filtration, reabsorption, and secretion Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module P03 Functional process of urine formation, including filtration reabsorption, and secretion. HAPS Outcome: P03.01 List the three major processes in urine formation and where each occurs in the nephron and collecting system.; P03.06 Explain how the three processes in urine formation determine the rate of excretion of any solute. 65) A person on a high-protein diet will have high levels of protein in their urine. Answer: FALSE Section: Clinical Case Study Topic: Functional process of urine formation, including filtration, reabsorption, and secretion; Clinical applications of the urinary system Bloom's: Level 3. Apply HAPS Topic: Module P03 Functional process of urine formation, including filtration reabsorption, and secretion.; Module P08 Predictions related to homeostatic imbalance, including disease states and disorders. HAPS Outcome: P03.03d Describe how and where water, organic compounds, and ions are reabsorbed in the nephron.; P03.02a Describe the structure of the filtration membrane.; P08.01 Predict factors or situations affecting the urinary system that could disrupt homeostasis.
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66) The filtered load of water in an average person is approximately 180 L/day. Answer: TRUE Section: 14.03 Topic: Functional process of urine formation, including filtration, reabsorption, and secretion Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module P03 Functional process of urine formation, including filtration reabsorption, and secretion. HAPS Outcome: P03.02d Describe glomerular filtration rate (GFR), state the average value of GFR, and explain how clearance rate can be used to measure GFR. 67) Water, sodium, and glucose all undergo tubular reabsorption, but urea does not. Answer: FALSE Section: 14.03 Topic: Functional process of urine formation, including filtration, reabsorption, and secretion Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module P03 Functional process of urine formation, including filtration reabsorption, and secretion. HAPS Outcome: P03.03d Describe how and where water, organic compounds, and ions are reabsorbed in the nephron.
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68) The kidneys regulate the plasma concentrations of water, sodium, and glucose. Answer: FALSE Section: 14.03 Topic: General functions of the urinary system; Regulation of urine volume and composition; Regulation of water balance; Regulation of electrolyte balances Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module P01 General functions of the urinary system.; Module P03 Functional process of urine formation, including filtration reabsorption, and secretion.; Module P04 Factors regulating and altering urine volume and composition, including the renin- angiotensin system and the roles of aldosterone, antidiuretic hormone, and the natriuretic peptides.; Module Q01 Regulation of water intake and output.; Module Q03 Chemical composition of the major compartment fluids.; Module J05 Identity, source, secretory control, and functional roles of the major hormones produced by the body. HAPS Outcome: J05.07d In the pancreas, predict the larger effect that fluctuations in insulin and glucagon levels will have on conditions (variables) within the body.; P04.03 Describe how each of the following works to regulate reabsorption and secretion, so as to affect urine volume and composition- renin- angiotensin system, aldosterone, antidiuretic hormone, and natriuretic peptides.; Q03.04 Describe hormonal regulation of electrolyte levels in the plasma, including sodium, chloride, potassium, phosphate and calcium.; J05.01c Name the target tissue or cells for the hormone and describe the effect(s) of the hormone on the target tissue or cells of growth hormone, thyroid-stimulating hormone, luteinizing hormone, follicle stimulating hormone, prolactin, adrenocorticotropic hormone, oxytocin, and antidiuretic hormone (or vasopressin.; J05.04c In the adrenal gland, name the target tissue or cells for the hormone and describe the effect(s) of glucocorticoids (cortisol), mineralocorticoids (aldosterone), gonadocorticoids, epinephrine and norepinephrine on the target tissue or cells.; Q01.04 Describe the mechanisms used to regulate water output.; P03.03d Describe how and where water, organic compounds, and ions are reabsorbed in the nephron.; P01.01 Describe the major functions of the urinary system.
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69) If water intake (ingestion) is decreased, the kidney can decrease the amount of water excreted in urine by increasing the amount of water reabsorbed at the renal corpuscle. Answer: FALSE Section: 14.03 Topic: Microscopic anatomy of the urinary system; Regulation of urine volume and composition; Regulation of water balance Bloom's: Level 2. Understand HAPS Topic: Module P02 Gross and microscopic anatomy of the urinary tract, including detailed histology of the nephron.; Module P03 Functional process of urine formation, including filtration reabsorption, and secretion.; Module P07 Application of homeostatic mechanisms.; Module Q01 Regulation of water intake and output.; Module Q07 Application of homeostatic mechanisms.; Module Q08 Predictions related to homeostatic imbalance, including disease states and disorders. HAPS Outcome: P02.03a Identify the major structures and subdivisions of the renal corpuscles, renal tubules and renal capillaries in the nephron and collecting system.; P03.01 List the three major processes in urine formation and where each occurs in the nephron and collecting system.; Q08.01 Predict factors or situations that would lead to a disruption of homeostasis by affecting the volume or composition of body fluids.; Q01.04 Describe the mechanisms used to regulate water output.; Q07.01 Provide specific examples to demonstrate how the cardiovascular, endocrine, and urinary systems respond to maintain homeostasis of fluid volume in the body.; P03.03d Describe how and where water, organic compounds, and ions are reabsorbed in the nephron.; P07.01 Provide specific examples to demonstrate how the urinary system responds to maintain homeostasis in the body. 70) In healthy individuals, the amount of glucose present in urine will be virtually zero because the amount of glucose reabsorption from the filtrate back into the blood prevents excretion. Answer: TRUE Section: 14.03 Topic: Functional process of urine formation, including filtration, reabsorption, and secretion Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module P03 Functional process of urine formation, including filtration reabsorption, and secretion. HAPS Outcome: P03.03d Describe how and where water, organic compounds, and ions are reabsorbed in the nephron.; P03.07 Compare and contrast blood plasma, glomerular filtrate, and urine and then relate their differences to function of the nephron.
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71) The spinal reflex for micturition involves stretch receptors in the wall of the bladder that send messages about distension to sympathetic, parasympathetic, and motor neurons in the spinal cord. Answer: TRUE Section: 14.05 Topic: Urine storage and elimination; Innervation of the urinary bladder Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module P06 Innervation and control of the urinary bladder.; Module H06 Sensory receptors and their roles; Module H11 Reflexes and their roles in nervous system function HAPS Outcome: H06.02 Describe each of the following types of receptors, indicating what sensation it detects and giving an example of where it can be found in the body: pain receptors (nociceptors), temperature receptors, mechanoreceptors (including proprioceptors and baroreceptors/pressoreceptors), chemoreceptors, and photoreceptors.; P06.02 Describe the micturition reflex.; H11.02 Describe reflex responses in terms of the major structural and functional components of a reflex arc. 72) Voluntary control of micturition involves controlling somatic motor input to the muscles of the external urethral sphincter. Answer: TRUE Section: 14.05 Topic: Urine storage and elimination; Innervation of the urinary bladder Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module P02 Gross and microscopic anatomy of the urinary tract, including detailed histology of the nephron.; Module P06 Innervation and control of the urinary bladder.; Module H11 Reflexes and their roles in nervous system function HAPS Outcome: P02.01b Identify, and describe the structure and location of, the ureters, urinary bladder and urethra with respect to gross anatomy of the urinary tract.; P06.02 Describe the micturition reflex.; H11.02 Describe reflex responses in terms of the major structural and functional components of a reflex arc.
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73) Total-body balance of water and Na+ is largely maintained by regulating urinary loss of these substances. Answer: TRUE Section: 14.06; 14.07 Topic: Regulation of urine volume and composition; Regulation of water balance; Regulation of electrolyte balances Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module P04 Factors regulating and altering urine volume and composition, including the renin- angiotensin system and the roles of aldosterone, antidiuretic hormone, and the natriuretic peptides.; Module Q01 Regulation of water intake and output.; Module Q03 Chemical composition of the major compartment fluids. HAPS Outcome: P04.03 Describe how each of the following works to regulate reabsorption and secretion, so as to affect urine volume and composition- renin- angiotensin system, aldosterone, antidiuretic hormone, and natriuretic peptides.; Q03.04 Describe hormonal regulation of electrolyte levels in the plasma, including sodium, chloride, potassium, phosphate and calcium.; Q01.04 Describe the mechanisms used to regulate water output. 74) Most of the body's water is located inside cells, whereas most of the body's Na+ is in the interstitial fluid and plasma. Answer: TRUE Section: 14.06; 14.07 Topic: Introduction to body fluids and fluid compartments Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module Q02 Description of the major fluid compartments.; Module Q03 Chemical composition of the major compartment fluids. HAPS Outcome: Q02.01 Describe the fluid compartments (including the subdivisions of the extracellular fluid) and state the relative volumes of each.; Q03.02 Compare and contrast the relative concentrations of major electrolytes in intracellular and extracellular fluids. 75) The total solute concentration in the extracellular fluid is mainly dependent upon the concentration of Na+ in the extracellular fluid. Answer: TRUE Section: 14.06; 14.07 Topic: Introduction to body fluids and fluid compartments Bloom's: Level 2. Understand HAPS Topic: Module Q03 Chemical composition of the major compartment fluids. HAPS Outcome: Q03.03 Describe the function(s) of each abundant electrolyte found in body fluids, including sodium, chloride, potassium, phosphate and calcium.; Q03.02 Compare and contrast the relative concentrations of major electrolytes in intracellular and extracellular fluids.
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76) Water absorption from the proximal tubule is mainly driven by the active reabsorption of Na+. Answer: TRUE Section: 14.07 Topic: Microscopic anatomy of the urinary system; Functional process of urine formation, including filtration, reabsorption, and secretion Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module P02 Gross and microscopic anatomy of the urinary tract, including detailed histology of the nephron.; Module P03 Functional process of urine formation, including filtration reabsorption, and secretion. HAPS Outcome: P02.03a Identify the major structures and subdivisions of the renal corpuscles, renal tubules and renal capillaries in the nephron and collecting system.; P03.03d Describe how and where water, organic compounds, and ions are reabsorbed in the nephron. 77) A consequence of lack of vasopressin is excretion of sugar in the urine, which occurs in the condition diabetes mellitus. Answer: FALSE Section: 14.07 Topic: Regulation of urine volume and composition; Clinical applications of the urinary system; Hormonal regulation Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module P04 Factors regulating and altering urine volume and composition, including the renin- angiotensin system and the roles of aldosterone, antidiuretic hormone, and the natriuretic peptides.; Module Q08 Predictions related to homeostatic imbalance, including disease states and disorders.; Module J05 Identity, source, secretory control, and functional roles of the major hormones produced by the body.; Module J09 Predictions related to homeostatic imbalance, including disease states and disorders. HAPS Outcome: J05.01d Predict the larger effect that fluctuations in the hormone level will have on conditions (variables) within the body for growth hormone, thyroid-stimulating hormone, luteinizing hormone, follicle stimulating hormone, prolactin, adrenocorticotropic hormone, oxytocin, and antidiuretic hormone (or vasopressin).; J05.07d In the pancreas, predict the larger effect that fluctuations in insulin and glucagon levels will have on conditions (variables) within the body.; J09.01 Predict factors or situations affecting the endocrine organs that could disrupt homeostasis.; J09.02 Predict the types of problems that would occur in the body if the various endocrine organs could not maintain homeostasis.; P04.03 Describe how each of the following works to regulate reabsorption and secretion, so as to affect urine volume and composition- renin- angiotensin system, aldosterone, antidiuretic hormone, and natriuretic peptides.; Q08.01 Predict factors or situations that would lead to a disruption of homeostasis by affecting the volume or composition of body fluids.
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78) A person lacking vasopressin would have to drink 180 L of water per day to make up for the water lost in the urine. Answer: FALSE Section: 14.07; 14.09 Topic: Clinical applications of the urinary system; Regulation of water balance; Hormonal regulation Bloom's: Level 2. Understand HAPS Topic: Module P03 Functional process of urine formation, including filtration reabsorption, and secretion.; Module P04 Factors regulating and altering urine volume and composition, including the renin- angiotensin system and the roles of aldosterone, antidiuretic hormone, and the natriuretic peptides.; Module Q01 Regulation of water intake and output.; Module Q08 Predictions related to homeostatic imbalance, including disease states and disorders.; Module J05 Identity, source, secretory control, and functional roles of the major hormones produced by the body.; Module J09 Predictions related to homeostatic imbalance, including disease states and disorders. HAPS Outcome: J05.01d Predict the larger effect that fluctuations in the hormone level will have on conditions (variables) within the body for growth hormone, thyroid-stimulating hormone, luteinizing hormone, follicle stimulating hormone, prolactin, adrenocorticotropic hormone, oxytocin, and antidiuretic hormone (or vasopressin).; J09.01 Predict factors or situations affecting the endocrine organs that could disrupt homeostasis.; J09.02 Predict the types of problems that would occur in the body if the various endocrine organs could not maintain homeostasis.; P04.03 Describe how each of the following works to regulate reabsorption and secretion, so as to affect urine volume and composition- renin- angiotensin system, aldosterone, antidiuretic hormone, and natriuretic peptides.; Q08.01 Predict factors or situations that would lead to a disruption of homeostasis by affecting the volume or composition of body fluids.; Q01.04 Describe the mechanisms used to regulate water output.; P03.03d Describe how and where water, organic compounds, and ions are reabsorbed in the nephron.; P03.03g State the percent of filtrate that is normally reabsorbed and explain why the process of reabsorption is so important. 79) The countercurrent mechanism of the kidney enables the formation of hypertonic urine. Answer: TRUE Section: 14.07 Topic: Functional process of urine formation, including filtration, reabsorption, and secretion; Regulation of urine volume and composition Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module P03 Functional process of urine formation, including filtration reabsorption, and secretion.; Module P04 Factors regulating and altering urine volume and composition, including the renin- angiotensin system and the roles of aldosterone, antidiuretic hormone, and the natriuretic peptides. HAPS Outcome: P03.03f With respect to reabsorption, explain the role of the loop of Henle, the vasa recta, and the countercurrent multiplication mechanism in the concentration of urine.; P04.04 Predict specific factors involved in creating dilute versus concentrated urine.
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80) The walls of the ascending limb of the loop of Henle are freely permeable to water. Answer: FALSE Section: 14.07 Topic: Microscopic anatomy of the urinary system; Functional process of urine formation, including filtration, reabsorption, and secretion Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module P02 Gross and microscopic anatomy of the urinary tract, including detailed histology of the nephron.; Module P03 Functional process of urine formation, including filtration reabsorption, and secretion. HAPS Outcome: P02.03a Identify the major structures and subdivisions of the renal corpuscles, renal tubules and renal capillaries in the nephron and collecting system.; P03.03f With respect to reabsorption, explain the role of the loop of Henle, the vasa recta, and the countercurrent multiplication mechanism in the concentration of urine.; P03.03d Describe how and where water, organic compounds, and ions are reabsorbed in the nephron.; P03.03e With respect to reabsorption, explain why the differential permeability or impermeability of specific sections of the nephron tubules is necessary for urine formation. 81) The fluid entering the distal convoluted tubule is hypoosmotic with respect to plasma. Answer: TRUE Section: 14.07 Topic: Microscopic anatomy of the urinary system; Functional process of urine formation, including filtration, reabsorption, and secretion Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module P02 Gross and microscopic anatomy of the urinary tract, including detailed histology of the nephron.; Module P03 Functional process of urine formation, including filtration reabsorption, and secretion. HAPS Outcome: P02.03a Identify the major structures and subdivisions of the renal corpuscles, renal tubules and renal capillaries in the nephron and collecting system.; P03.03f With respect to reabsorption, explain the role of the loop of Henle, the vasa recta, and the countercurrent multiplication mechanism in the concentration of urine.; P03.03d Describe how and where water, organic compounds, and ions are reabsorbed in the nephron.; P03.07 Compare and contrast blood plasma, glomerular filtrate, and urine and then relate their differences to function of the nephron.
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82) At the bend of the loop of Henle, the osmolarity of the tubular fluid is more than four times greater than that of the glomerular filtrate when a person is in an antidiuretic state. Answer: TRUE Section: 14.07 Topic: Microscopic anatomy of the urinary system; Functional process of urine formation, including filtration, reabsorption, and secretion; Regulation of urine volume and composition Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module P02 Gross and microscopic anatomy of the urinary tract, including detailed histology of the nephron.; Module P03 Functional process of urine formation, including filtration reabsorption, and secretion.; Module P04 Factors regulating and altering urine volume and composition, including the renin- angiotensin system and the roles of aldosterone, antidiuretic hormone, and the natriuretic peptides. HAPS Outcome: P02.03a Identify the major structures and subdivisions of the renal corpuscles, renal tubules and renal capillaries in the nephron and collecting system.; P03.03f With respect to reabsorption, explain the role of the loop of Henle, the vasa recta, and the countercurrent multiplication mechanism in the concentration of urine.; P04.04 Predict specific factors involved in creating dilute versus concentrated urine.; P03.03d Describe how and where water, organic compounds, and ions are reabsorbed in the nephron.; P03.07 Compare and contrast blood plasma, glomerular filtrate, and urine and then relate their differences to function of the nephron. 83) The main force responsible for water reabsorption from the collecting ducts is the low hydrostatic pressure in the surrounding interstitial space. Answer: FALSE Section: 14.07 Topic: Microscopic anatomy of the urinary system; Functional process of urine formation, including filtration, reabsorption, and secretion; Regulation of urine volume and composition Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module P02 Gross and microscopic anatomy of the urinary tract, including detailed histology of the nephron.; Module P03 Functional process of urine formation, including filtration reabsorption, and secretion.; Module P04 Factors regulating and altering urine volume and composition, including the renin- angiotensin system and the roles of aldosterone, antidiuretic hormone, and the natriuretic peptides. HAPS Outcome: P02.03a Identify the major structures and subdivisions of the renal corpuscles, renal tubules and renal capillaries in the nephron and collecting system.; P03.03f With respect to reabsorption, explain the role of the loop of Henle, the vasa recta, and the countercurrent multiplication mechanism in the concentration of urine.; P04.04 Predict specific factors involved in creating dilute versus concentrated urine.; P03.03d Describe how and where water, organic compounds, and ions are reabsorbed in the nephron.
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84) Unlike the renal cortical interstitial fluid, the interstitial fluid of the medulla is hyperosmotic. Answer: TRUE Section: 14.07 Topic: Microscopic anatomy of the urinary system; Functional process of urine formation, including filtration, reabsorption, and secretion Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module P02 Gross and microscopic anatomy of the urinary tract, including detailed histology of the nephron.; Module P03 Functional process of urine formation, including filtration reabsorption, and secretion. HAPS Outcome: P03.03f With respect to reabsorption, explain the role of the loop of Henle, the vasa recta, and the countercurrent multiplication mechanism in the concentration of urine.; P02.01d Identify the major internal divisions and structures of the renal tissue with respect to gross anatomy of the urinary tract. 85) In the absence of vasopressin, urine is isoosmotic with plasma. Answer: FALSE Section: 14.07 Topic: Regulation of urine volume and composition; Hormonal regulation Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module P03 Functional process of urine formation, including filtration reabsorption, and secretion.; Module P04 Factors regulating and altering urine volume and composition, including the renin- angiotensin system and the roles of aldosterone, antidiuretic hormone, and the natriuretic peptides.; Module Q01 Regulation of water intake and output.; Module J05 Identity, source, secretory control, and functional roles of the major hormones produced by the body. HAPS Outcome: P04.04 Predict specific factors involved in creating dilute versus concentrated urine.; P04.03 Describe how each of the following works to regulate reabsorption and secretion, so as to affect urine volume and composition- renin- angiotensin system, aldosterone, antidiuretic hormone, and natriuretic peptides.; J05.01c Name the target tissue or cells for the hormone and describe the effect(s) of the hormone on the target tissue or cells of growth hormone, thyroidstimulating hormone, luteinizing hormone, follicle stimulating hormone, prolactin, adrenocorticotropic hormone, oxytocin, and antidiuretic hormone (or vasopressin.; Q01.04 Describe the mechanisms used to regulate water output.; P03.07 Compare and contrast blood plasma, glomerular filtrate, and urine and then relate their differences to function of the nephron.
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86) Increasing the GFR tends to increase the excretion rate of sodium. Answer: TRUE Section: 14.03 Topic: Functional process of urine formation, including filtration, reabsorption, and secretion Bloom's: Level 2. Understand HAPS Topic: Module P03 Functional process of urine formation, including filtration reabsorption, and secretion. HAPS Outcome: P03.06 Explain how the three processes in urine formation determine the rate of excretion of any solute. 87) Atrial distension is a stimulus for the secretion of atrial natriuretic factor, which stimulates the reabsorption of sodium by the kidneys. Answer: FALSE Section: 14.08 Topic: Regulation of urine volume and composition; Regulation of electrolyte balances; Hormonal regulation Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module P04 Factors regulating and altering urine volume and composition, including the renin- angiotensin system and the roles of aldosterone, antidiuretic hormone, and the natriuretic peptides.; Module Q03 Chemical composition of the major compartment fluids.; Module J05 Identity, source, secretory control, and functional roles of the major hormones produced by the body. HAPS Outcome: P04.03 Describe how each of the following works to regulate reabsorption and secretion, so as to affect urine volume and composition- renin- angiotensin system, aldosterone, antidiuretic hormone, and natriuretic peptides.; J05.10a In the heart, describe the stimulus for release of atrial natriuretic peptide.; J05.10d In the heart, predict the larger effect that fluctuations in atrial natriuretic peptide will have on conditions (variables) within the body.; Q03.04 Describe hormonal regulation of electrolyte levels in the plasma, including sodium, chloride, potassium, phosphate and calcium.
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88) Following hemorrhage, vasopressin secretion increases because of increased firing of hypothalamic osmoreceptors. Answer: FALSE Section: 14.09 Topic: Hormonal regulation; Clinical applications of fluid balance Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module Q07 Application of homeostatic mechanisms.; Module Q08 Predictions related to homeostatic imbalance, including disease states and disorders.; Module J05 Identity, source, secretory control, and functional roles of the major hormones produced by the body.; Module J08 Application of homeostatic mechanisms.; Module K14 Blood pressure and its functional interrelationships with cardiac output, peripheral resistance, and hemodynamics; Module H06 Sensory receptors and their roles HAPS Outcome: Q08.01 Predict factors or situations that would lead to a disruption of homeostasis by affecting the volume or composition of body fluids.; H06.02 Describe each of the following types of receptors, indicating what sensation it detects and giving an example of where it can be found in the body: pain receptors (nociceptors), temperature receptors, mechanoreceptors (including proprioceptors and baroreceptors/pressoreceptors), chemoreceptors, and photoreceptors.; J05.01a Describe the stimulus for release of growth hormone, thyroid-stimulating hormone, luteinizing hormone, follicle stimulating hormone, prolactin, adrenocorticotropic hormone, oxytocin, and antidiuretic hormone (or vasopressin).; J08.01 Provide specific examples to demonstrate how the endocrine organs respond to maintain homeostasis in the body.; Q07.01 Provide specific examples to demonstrate how the cardiovascular, endocrine, and urinary systems respond to maintain homeostasis of fluid volume in the body.; K14.10d With respect to regulation of blood pressure, explain the role of hormones in regulation of blood pressure, including the mechanism by which specific hormones affect preload, heart rate, inotropic state or vascular resistance.
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89) Because fluid loss as sweat is isoosmotic, the baroreceptor reflexes are more important than osmoreceptor activity in restoring extracellular fluid volume after sweating. Answer: FALSE Section: 14.09; 14.10 Topic: Regulation of water balance Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module Q01 Regulation of water intake and output.; Module Q07 Application of homeostatic mechanisms.; Module Q08 Predictions related to homeostatic imbalance, including disease states and disorders. HAPS Outcome: Q08.01 Predict factors or situations that would lead to a disruption of homeostasis by affecting the volume or composition of body fluids.; Q01.04 Describe the mechanisms used to regulate water output.; Q07.01 Provide specific examples to demonstrate how the cardiovascular, endocrine, and urinary systems respond to maintain homeostasis of fluid volume in the body.; Q07.02 Provide specific examples to demonstrate how the cardiovascular, endocrine, respiratory, and urinary systems respond to maintain homeostasis of electrolyte concentrations and pH of body fluids. 90) An increase in the osmolarity of the blood supplying the hypothalamus is a powerful stimulus for thirst. Answer: TRUE Section: 14.11 Topic: Regulation of water balance; Regulation of electrolyte balances Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module Q01 Regulation of water intake and output.; Module Q08 Predictions related to homeostatic imbalance, including disease states and disorders. HAPS Outcome: Q08.01 Predict factors or situations that would lead to a disruption of homeostasis by affecting the volume or composition of body fluids.; Q01.03 Describe the mechanisms used to regulate water intake. 91) A patient receives an IV (intravenous) infusion of a concentrated, 9% saline solution (0.9% is considered isosmotic). Even if there was no change to the volume of blood or water in the body, this patient is likely to experience extreme thirst following the infusion. Answer: TRUE Section: 14.11 Topic: Regulation of water balance; Regulation of electrolyte balances Bloom's: Level 3. Apply HAPS Topic: Module Q01 Regulation of water intake and output.; Module Q08 Predictions related to homeostatic imbalance, including disease states and disorders. HAPS Outcome: Q08.01 Predict factors or situations that would lead to a disruption of homeostasis by affecting the volume or composition of body fluids.; Q01.03 Describe the mechanisms used to regulate water intake.
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92) Regulation of extracellular K+ is not critical to body function because only about 2% of the total-body K+ is in the extracellular fluid. Answer: FALSE Section: 14.12 Topic: Introduction to body fluids and fluid compartments Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module Q03 Chemical composition of the major compartment fluids. HAPS Outcome: Q03.03 Describe the function(s) of each abundant electrolyte found in body fluids, including sodium, chloride, potassium, phosphate and calcium. 93) Cardiac arrhythmias may be a clinical sign of either K+ depletion or excess. Answer: TRUE Section: 14.12 Topic: Regulation of electrolyte balances Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module Q03 Chemical composition of the major compartment fluids.; Module Q08 Predictions related to homeostatic imbalance, including disease states and disorders. HAPS Outcome: Q08.01 Predict factors or situations that would lead to a disruption of homeostasis by affecting the volume or composition of body fluids.; Q03.03 Describe the function(s) of each abundant electrolyte found in body fluids, including sodium, chloride, potassium, phosphate and calcium.; Q08.03 Predict the types of problems that would occur in the body if the volume and composition of body fluids were not maintained within normal homeostatic ranges. 94) Both Na+ and Cl- freely filter from the glomerular capillaries into Bowman's space, with no secretion along the renal tubule. Answer: TRUE Section: 14.03; 14.08 Topic: Functional process of urine formation, including filtration, reabsorption, and secretion Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module P03 Functional process of urine formation, including filtration reabsorption, and secretion. HAPS Outcome: P03.03d Describe how and where water, organic compounds, and ions are reabsorbed in the nephron.; P03.02a Describe the structure of the filtration membrane.
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95) The reabsorption of water in the nephron is accomplished due to the generation of an osmotic gradient created by Na+ reabsorption. Answer: TRUE Section: 14.07 Topic: Functional process of urine formation, including filtration, reabsorption, and secretion Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module P03 Functional process of urine formation, including filtration reabsorption, and secretion. HAPS Outcome: P03.03d Describe how and where water, organic compounds, and ions are reabsorbed in the nephron.; P03.03a With respect to reabsorption, list specific transport mechanisms occurring in different parts of the nephron, including active transport, osmosis, facilitated diffusion, passive electrochemical gradients, receptor-mediated endocytosis, and transcytosis. 96) In the proximal convoluted tubule the reabsorption of Na+ is unaffected by the presence or absence of other substances such as glucose or H+ in the filtrate. Answer: FALSE Section: 14.03; 14.07 Topic: Microscopic anatomy of the urinary system; Functional process of urine formation, including filtration, reabsorption, and secretion Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module P02 Gross and microscopic anatomy of the urinary tract, including detailed histology of the nephron.; Module P03 Functional process of urine formation, including filtration reabsorption, and secretion. HAPS Outcome: P02.03a Identify the major structures and subdivisions of the renal corpuscles, renal tubules and renal capillaries in the nephron and collecting system.; P03.03a With respect to reabsorption, list specific transport mechanisms occurring in different parts of the nephron, including active transport, osmosis, facilitated diffusion, passive electrochemical gradients, receptor-mediated endocytosis, and transcytosis.; P03.03b With respect to reabsorption, list the different membrane proteins of the nephron, including aquaporins, channels, transporters, and ATPase pumps.
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97) Unlike Na+, K+ is secreted by the nephron tubules. Answer: TRUE Section: 14.03; 14.12 Topic: Functional process of urine formation, including filtration, reabsorption, and secretion Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module P03 Functional process of urine formation, including filtration reabsorption, and secretion. HAPS Outcome: P03.03d Describe how and where water, organic compounds, and ions are reabsorbed in the nephron.; P03.04b Describe the physiological processes involved in eliminating drugs, wastes and excess ions with respect to tubular secretion. 98) Ingestion of large amounts of K+ triggers reflexes to limit the amount of K+ reabsorbed by the cortical collecting ducts. Answer: FALSE Section: 14.12 Topic: Microscopic anatomy of the urinary system; Regulation of electrolyte balances Bloom's: Level 2. Understand HAPS Topic: Module P04 Factors regulating and altering urine volume and composition, including the renin- angiotensin system and the roles of aldosterone, antidiuretic hormone, and the natriuretic peptides.; Module P07 Application of homeostatic mechanisms.; Module Q03 Chemical composition of the major compartment fluids.; Module Q07 Application of homeostatic mechanisms.; Module Q08 Predictions related to homeostatic imbalance, including disease states and disorders.; Module J05 Identity, source, secretory control, and functional roles of the major hormones produced by the body. HAPS Outcome: P02.03a Identify the major structures and subdivisions of the renal corpuscles, renal tubules and renal capillaries in the nephron and collecting system.; P04.03 Describe how each of the following works to regulate reabsorption and secretion, so as to affect urine volume and composition- renin- angiotensin system, aldosterone, antidiuretic hormone, and natriuretic peptides.; Q08.01 Predict factors or situations that would lead to a disruption of homeostasis by affecting the volume or composition of body fluids.; Q03.04 Describe hormonal regulation of electrolyte levels in the plasma, including sodium, chloride, potassium, phosphate and calcium.; J05.04c In the adrenal gland, name the target tissue or cells for the hormone and describe the effect(s) of glucocorticoids (cortisol), mineralocorticoids (aldosterone), gonadocorticoids, epinephrine and norepinephrine on the target tissue or cells.; Q07.02 Provide specific examples to demonstrate how the cardiovascular, endocrine, respiratory, and urinary systems respond to maintain homeostasis of electrolyte concentrations and pH of body fluids.; P07.01 Provide specific examples to demonstrate how the urinary system responds to maintain homeostasis in the body.
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99) A misguided athlete ingests a large amount of dietary K+ because she thinks it will boost muscle performance. Instead, the majority of this extra K+ is secreted into filtrate and excreted in the urine. Answer: TRUE Section: 14.12 Topic: Regulation of electrolyte balances Bloom's: Level 3. Apply HAPS Topic: Module P04 Factors regulating and altering urine volume and composition, including the renin- angiotensin system and the roles of aldosterone, antidiuretic hormone, and the natriuretic peptides.; Module P07 Application of homeostatic mechanisms.; Module Q03 Chemical composition of the major compartment fluids.; Module Q07 Application of homeostatic mechanisms.; Module Q08 Predictions related to homeostatic imbalance, including disease states and disorders. HAPS Outcome: P04.03 Describe how each of the following works to regulate reabsorption and secretion, so as to affect urine volume and composition- renin- angiotensin system, aldosterone, antidiuretic hormone, and natriuretic peptides.; Q08.01 Predict factors or situations that would lead to a disruption of homeostasis by affecting the volume or composition of body fluids.; Q03.04 Describe hormonal regulation of electrolyte levels in the plasma, including sodium, chloride, potassium, phosphate and calcium.; Q07.02 Provide specific examples to demonstrate how the cardiovascular, endocrine, respiratory, and urinary systems respond to maintain homeostasis of electrolyte concentrations and pH of body fluids.; P07.01 Provide specific examples to demonstrate how the urinary system responds to maintain homeostasis in the body.
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100) Stimuli that cause increased Na+ reabsorption decrease K+ secretion. Answer: FALSE Section: 14.07; 14.08; 14.12 Topic: Functional process of urine formation, including filtration, reabsorption, and secretion; Regulation of electrolyte balances Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module P03 Functional process of urine formation, including filtration reabsorption, and secretion.; Module P04 Factors regulating and altering urine volume and composition, including the renin- angiotensin system and the roles of aldosterone, antidiuretic hormone, and the natriuretic peptides.; Module Q03 Chemical composition of the major compartment fluids.; Module J05 Identity, source, secretory control, and functional roles of the major hormones produced by the body. HAPS Outcome: P04.03 Describe how each of the following works to regulate reabsorption and secretion, so as to affect urine volume and composition- renin- angiotensin system, aldosterone, antidiuretic hormone, and natriuretic peptides.; Q03.04 Describe hormonal regulation of electrolyte levels in the plasma, including sodium, chloride, potassium, phosphate and calcium.; J05.04c In the adrenal gland, name the target tissue or cells for the hormone and describe the effect(s) of glucocorticoids (cortisol), mineralocorticoids (aldosterone), gonadocorticoids, epinephrine and norepinephrine on the target tissue or cells.; P03.03d Describe how and where water, organic compounds, and ions are reabsorbed in the nephron.; P03.03a With respect to reabsorption, list specific transport mechanisms occurring in different parts of the nephron, including active transport, osmosis, facilitated diffusion, passive electrochemical gradients, receptor-mediated endocytosis, and transcytosis.; P03.04b Describe the physiological processes involved in eliminating drugs, wastes and excess ions with respect to tubular secretion. 101) A stimulus for increased aldosterone secretion is decreased plasma K+ concentration. Answer: FALSE Section: 14.12 Topic: Regulation of electrolyte balances; Hormonal regulation Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module Q03 Chemical composition of the major compartment fluids.; Module Q07 Application of homeostatic mechanisms.; Module J05 Identity, source, secretory control, and functional roles of the major hormones produced by the body.; Module J08 Application of homeostatic mechanisms. HAPS Outcome: Q03.04 Describe hormonal regulation of electrolyte levels in the plasma, including sodium, chloride, potassium, phosphate and calcium.; J05.04a In the adrenal gland, describe the stimulus for release of glucocorticoids (cortisol), mineralocorticoids (aldosterone), gonadocorticoids, epinephrine and norepinephrine.; J08.01 Provide specific examples to demonstrate how the endocrine organs respond to maintain homeostasis in the body.; Q07.02 Provide specific examples to demonstrate how the cardiovascular, endocrine, respiratory, and urinary systems respond to maintain homeostasis of electrolyte concentrations and pH of body fluids.
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102) A substance that interferes with the active transport of Na+ in the cortical collecting ducts will also interfere with K+ reabsorption. Answer: FALSE Section: 14.07; 14.08; 14.12 Topic: Microscopic anatomy of the urinary system; Functional process of urine formation, including filtration, reabsorption, and secretion Bloom's: Level 2. Understand HAPS Topic: Module P02 Gross and microscopic anatomy of the urinary tract, including detailed histology of the nephron.; Module P03 Functional process of urine formation, including filtration reabsorption, and secretion. HAPS Outcome: P02.03a Identify the major structures and subdivisions of the renal corpuscles, renal tubules and renal capillaries in the nephron and collecting system.; P03.03d Describe how and where water, organic compounds, and ions are reabsorbed in the nephron.; P03.03a With respect to reabsorption, list specific transport mechanisms occurring in different parts of the nephron, including active transport, osmosis, facilitated diffusion, passive electrochemical gradients, receptor-mediated endocytosis, and transcytosis.; P03.04b Describe the physiological processes involved in eliminating drugs, wastes and excess ions with respect to tubular secretion. 103) A stimulus for increased aldosterone secretion is increased plasma levels of K+. Answer: TRUE Section: 14.12 Topic: Regulation of electrolyte balances; Hormonal regulation Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module Q03 Chemical composition of the major compartment fluids.; Module Q07 Application of homeostatic mechanisms.; Module J05 Identity, source, secretory control, and functional roles of the major hormones produced by the body.; Module J08 Application of homeostatic mechanisms. HAPS Outcome: Q03.04 Describe hormonal regulation of electrolyte levels in the plasma, including sodium, chloride, potassium, phosphate and calcium.; J05.04a In the adrenal gland, describe the stimulus for release of glucocorticoids (cortisol), mineralocorticoids (aldosterone), gonadocorticoids, epinephrine and norepinephrine.; J08.01 Provide specific examples to demonstrate how the endocrine organs respond to maintain homeostasis in the body.; Q07.02 Provide specific examples to demonstrate how the cardiovascular, endocrine, respiratory, and urinary systems respond to maintain homeostasis of electrolyte concentrations and pH of body fluids.
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104) If damage to the glomerular capillaries resulted in significantly enlarged filtration slits in the endothelial lining, one consequence might be loss of protein in the urine. Answer: TRUE Section: 14.13 Topic: Microscopic anatomy of the urinary system; Gross anatomy of the urinary system; Functional process of urine formation, including filtration, reabsorption, and secretion; Regulation of urine volume and composition; Urine and renal function tests Bloom's: Level 3. Apply HAPS Topic: Module P02 Gross and microscopic anatomy of the urinary tract, including detailed histology of the nephron.; Module P03 Functional process of urine formation, including filtration reabsorption, and secretion. HAPS Outcome: P03.07 Compare and contrast blood plasma, glomerular filtrate, and urine and then relate their differences to function of the nephron.; P02.01e Identify the major blood vessels associated with the kidney with respect to gross anatomy of the urinary tract.; P03.02a Describe the structure of the filtration membrane. 105) If damage to the glomerular capillaries resulted in significantly enlarged capillary pores in the endothelial lining, GFR would decrease. Answer: FALSE Section: 14.13 Topic: Microscopic anatomy of the urinary system; Gross anatomy of the urinary system; Functional process of urine formation, including filtration, reabsorption, and secretion; Regulation of urine volume and composition; Urine and renal function tests Bloom's: Level 3. Apply HAPS Topic: Module P02 Gross and microscopic anatomy of the urinary tract, including detailed histology of the nephron.; Module P03 Functional process of urine formation, including filtration reabsorption, and secretion. HAPS Outcome: P03.02e Predict specific factors that will increase or decrease glomerular filtration rate (GFR).; P03.07 Compare and contrast blood plasma, glomerular filtrate, and urine and then relate their differences to function of the nephron.; P02.01e Identify the major blood vessels associated with the kidney with respect to gross anatomy of the urinary tract.; P03.02a Describe the structure of the filtration membrane.
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106) Regulation of Ca2+ balance, like that of Na+ and K+ balance, is only determined by the kidneys. Answer: FALSE Section: 14.13 Topic: Regulation of electrolyte balances; Hormonal regulation Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module Q03 Chemical composition of the major compartment fluids.; Module J05 Identity, source, secretory control, and functional roles of the major hormones produced by the body.; Module F05 Physiology of bone growth, repair, and remodeling HAPS Outcome: Q03.04 Describe hormonal regulation of electrolyte levels in the plasma, including sodium, chloride, potassium, phosphate and calcium.; F05.03 Explain the roles of calcitonin, parathyroid hormone and calcitriol in bone remodeling and blood calcium regulation.; J05.04d In the adrenal gland, predict the larger effect that fluctuations in glucocorticoids (cortisol), mineralocorticoids (aldosterone), gonadocorticoids, epinephrine and norepinephrine levels will have on conditions (variables) within the body.; J05.03d In the parathyroid gland, predict the larger effect that fluctuations in the parathyroid hormone level will have on conditions (variables) within the body.; J05.08d In the kidney, predict the larger effect that fluctuations in erythropoietin and calcitrol (Vitamin D) levels will have on conditions (variables) within the body. 107) Parathyroid hormone influences Ca2+ and PO4- by stimulating their resorption from bone and stimulating their reabsorption in the kidneys. Answer: FALSE Section: 14.13 Topic: Regulation of electrolyte balances; Hormonal regulation Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module Q03 Chemical composition of the major compartment fluids.; Module J05 Identity, source, secretory control, and functional roles of the major hormones produced by the body.; Module F05 Physiology of bone growth, repair, and remodeling HAPS Outcome: Q03.04 Describe hormonal regulation of electrolyte levels in the plasma, including sodium, chloride, potassium, phosphate and calcium.; F05.03 Explain the roles of calcitonin, parathyroid hormone and calcitriol in bone remodeling and blood calcium regulation.; J05.03d In the parathyroid gland, predict the larger effect that fluctuations in the parathyroid hormone level will have on conditions (variables) within the body.
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108) Most of the H+ excreted in the urine is bound to bicarbonate ion. Answer: FALSE Section: 14.19 Topic: Regulation of urine volume and composition; Buffer systems and their roles in acid-base balance Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module Q06 Role of the respiratory and urinary systems in acid/base balance. HAPS Outcome: Q06.03 Explain the mechanisms by which the kidneys secrete hydrogen ions, and how this process affects blood pH. 109) One response to increased H+ production in the body is decreased reabsorption of HCO3by the kidneys. Answer: FALSE Section: 14.19 Topic: Regulation of urine volume and composition; Buffer systems and their roles in acid-base balance Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module Q06 Role of the respiratory and urinary systems in acid/base balance.; Module Q07 Application of homeostatic mechanisms. HAPS Outcome: Q07.02 Provide specific examples to demonstrate how the cardiovascular, endocrine, respiratory, and urinary systems respond to maintain homeostasis of electrolyte concentrations and pH of body fluids.; Q06.03 Explain the mechanisms by which the kidneys secrete hydrogen ions, and how this process affects blood pH.; Q06.04 Explain the mechanisms by which the kidneys retain bicarbonate ions, and how this process affects blood pH. 110) In a person with respiratory acidosis, HCO3- is actively secreted into the urine by the tubular cells. Answer: FALSE Section: 14.19; 14.20 Topic: Regulation of urine volume and composition; Clinical applications of the urinary system; Buffer systems and their roles in acid-base balance Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module Q06 Role of the respiratory and urinary systems in acid/base balance.; Module Q07 Application of homeostatic mechanisms. HAPS Outcome: Q07.02 Provide specific examples to demonstrate how the cardiovascular, endocrine, respiratory, and urinary systems respond to maintain homeostasis of electrolyte concentrations and pH of body fluids.; Q06.03 Explain the mechanisms by which the kidneys secrete hydrogen ions, and how this process affects blood pH.; Q06.04 Explain the mechanisms by which the kidneys retain bicarbonate ions, and how this process affects blood pH.; Q06.05 Discuss the concept of compensation to correct respiratory and metabolic acidosis and alkalosis.
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111) The kidneys work to rectify metabolic acidosis and alkalosis but have no effect on respiratory acidosis and alkalosis. Answer: FALSE Section: 14.19; 14.20 Topic: Clinical applications of the urinary system; Buffer systems and their roles in acid-base balance Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module Q06 Role of the respiratory and urinary systems in acid/base balance.; Module Q07 Application of homeostatic mechanisms. HAPS Outcome: Q07.02 Provide specific examples to demonstrate how the cardiovascular, endocrine, respiratory, and urinary systems respond to maintain homeostasis of electrolyte concentrations and pH of body fluids.; Q06.05 Discuss the concept of compensation to correct respiratory and metabolic acidosis and alkalosis. 112) A compensation for an episode of severe vomiting is an increased alveolar ventilation rate. Answer: FALSE Section: 14.18; 14.20 Topic: Buffer systems and their roles in acid-base balance Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module Q06 Role of the respiratory and urinary systems in acid/base balance.; Module Q07 Application of homeostatic mechanisms.; Module Q08 Predictions related to homeostatic imbalance, including disease states and disorders.; Module M07 Control of pulmonary ventilation; Module M04 Pulmonary volumes and capacities; Module M08 Application of homeostatic mechanisms HAPS Outcome: Q07.02 Provide specific examples to demonstrate how the cardiovascular, endocrine, respiratory, and urinary systems respond to maintain homeostasis of electrolyte concentrations and pH of body fluids.; Q06.05 Discuss the concept of compensation to correct respiratory and metabolic acidosis and alkalosis.; Q06.02 Describe the role of the respiratory system in regulation of blood pH and predict how hypo- and hyperventilation will affect blood pH.; Q08.02 Predict factors or situations that would lead to a disruption of homeostasis by causing respiratory acidosis, respiratory alkalosis, metabolic acidosis, or metabolic alkalosis.; M04.02 Define and calculate values for minute ventilation and alveolar ventilation.; M07.02 List and describe the major chemical and neural stimuli to the respiratory centers.; M08.01 Provide specific examples to demonstrate how the respiratory system responds to maintain homeostasis in the body.
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113) If the plasma protein concentration decreased by half, the GFR would also decrease. Answer: FALSE Section: 14.13 Topic: Microscopic anatomy of the urinary system; Gross anatomy of the urinary system; Functional process of urine formation, including filtration, reabsorption, and secretion; Regulation of urine volume and composition; Urine and renal function tests Bloom's: Level 3. Apply HAPS Topic: Module P02 Gross and microscopic anatomy of the urinary tract, including detailed histology of the nephron.; Module P03 Functional process of urine formation, including filtration reabsorption, and secretion. HAPS Outcome: P03.07 Compare and contrast blood plasma, glomerular filtrate, and urine and then relate their differences to function of the nephron.; P02.01e Identify the major blood vessels associated with the kidney with respect to gross anatomy of the urinary tract.; P03.02a Describe the structure of the filtration membrane. 114) Diuretic drugs increase the rate of urine formation by stimulating the production of vasopressin. Answer: FALSE Section: 14.15 Topic: Clinical applications of the urinary system Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module P04 Factors regulating and altering urine volume and composition, including the renin- angiotensin system and the roles of aldosterone, antidiuretic hormone, and the natriuretic peptides.; Module J05 Identity, source, secretory control, and functional roles of the major hormones produced by the body. HAPS Outcome: J05.01a Describe the stimulus for release of growth hormone, thyroidstimulating hormone, luteinizing hormone, follicle stimulating hormone, prolactin, adrenocorticotropic hormone, oxytocin, and antidiuretic hormone (or vasopressin).; P04.05 Explain the mechanism of action of diuretics. 115) People taking diuretics that do not spare K+ should increase their ingestion of Na+. Answer: FALSE Section: 14.15 Topic: Clinical applications of the urinary system Bloom's: Level 2. Understand HAPS Topic: Module P04 Factors regulating and altering urine volume and composition, including the renin- angiotensin system and the roles of aldosterone, antidiuretic hormone, and the natriuretic peptides.; Module Q03 Chemical composition of the major compartment fluids. HAPS Outcome: Q03.03 Describe the function(s) of each abundant electrolyte found in body fluids, including sodium, chloride, potassium, phosphate and calcium.; P04.05 Explain the mechanism of action of diuretics.
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116) In which of the following ways do the kidneys contribute to homeostasis? A) Regulation of extracellular fluid osmolarity B) Regulation of systemic pH C) Regulation of blood glucose concentration D) Regulation of blood pressure E) Recycling of old red blood cells F) Secretion of cholesterol Answer: A, B, C, D Section: 14.01; 14.03; 14.08; 14.09; 14.12; 14.18 Topic: General functions of the urinary system Bloom's: Level 2. Understand HAPS Topic: Module P01 General functions of the urinary system. HAPS Outcome: P01.01 Describe the major functions of the urinary system. 117) You are designing a urinalysis test to be used in doctors' offices. You want the test to be able to indicate a variety of problems with kidney function, but you want the test to be as simple and inexpensive as possible. Testing for the presence of which of the following in the urine would indicate a potential problem with kidney function? A) Protein B) H+ C) K+ D) Na+ E) Glucose Answer: A, E Section: 14.03 Topic: Microscopic anatomy of the urinary system; Functional process of urine formation, including filtration, reabsorption, and secretion Bloom's: Level 3. Apply HAPS Topic: Module P02 Gross and microscopic anatomy of the urinary tract, including detailed histology of the nephron.; Module P03 Functional process of urine formation, including filtration reabsorption, and secretion. HAPS Outcome: P02.03a Identify the major structures and subdivisions of the renal corpuscles, renal tubules and renal capillaries in the nephron and collecting system.; P03.03d Describe how and where water, organic compounds, and ions are reabsorbed in the nephron.; P03.07 Compare and contrast blood plasma, glomerular filtrate, and urine and then relate their differences to function of the nephron.
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118) Which of the following would be likely to increase GFR? A) Sympathetic stimulation of afferent arteriolar smooth muscle B) Constricting efferent arterioles C) A decrease in plasma volume D) An increase in the concentration of plasma proteins E) Dilation of the afferent arteriole Answer: B, E Section: 14.03 Topic: Microscopic anatomy of the urinary system; Functional process of urine formation, including filtration, reabsorption, and secretion Bloom's: Level 2. Understand HAPS Topic: Module P02 Gross and microscopic anatomy of the urinary tract, including detailed histology of the nephron.; Module P03 Functional process of urine formation, including filtration reabsorption, and secretion.; Module P04 Factors regulating and altering urine volume and composition, including the renin- angiotensin system and the roles of aldosterone, antidiuretic hormone, and the natriuretic peptides. HAPS Outcome: P02.03a Identify the major structures and subdivisions of the renal corpuscles, renal tubules and renal capillaries in the nephron and collecting system.; P03.02c Describe the hydrostatic and colloid osmotic forces that favor and oppose filtration.; P03.02e Predict specific factors that will increase or decrease glomerular filtration rate (GFR).; P04.01a Describe the myogenic and tubuloglomerular feedback mechanisms in autoregulation and explain how they affect urine volume and composition.; P04.02 Describe how each of the following functions in the extrinsic control of GFR- renin-angiotensin mechanism, natriuretic peptides, and sympathetic adrenergic activity.
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119) What change in renal regulation of H+ would help compensate for a metabolic acidosis? A) A decrease in the filtered load of organic molecules B) An increase in the secretion of H+ C) A decrease in the tubular production of ammonia D) A decrease in the amount of H+ secreted in the proximal tubule E) An increase in the production of new plasma HCO3Answer: B, E Section: 14.16; 14.18; 14.19; 14.20 Topic: Regulation of urine volume and composition; Clinical applications of the urinary system; Buffer systems and their roles in acid-base balance Bloom's: Level 2. Understand HAPS Topic: Module P02 Gross and microscopic anatomy of the urinary tract, including detailed histology of the nephron.; Module P07 Application of homeostatic mechanisms.; Module Q05 Buffer systems and their roles in acid/base balance.; Module Q06 Role of the respiratory and urinary systems in acid/base balance.; Module Q07 Application of homeostatic mechanisms. HAPS Outcome: P02.03a Identify the major structures and subdivisions of the renal corpuscles, renal tubules and renal capillaries in the nephron and collecting system.; Q07.02 Provide specific examples to demonstrate how the cardiovascular, endocrine, respiratory, and urinary systems respond to maintain homeostasis of electrolyte concentrations and pH of body fluids.; Q06.03 Explain the mechanisms by which the kidneys secrete hydrogen ions, and how this process affects blood pH.; Q06.04 Explain the mechanisms by which the kidneys retain bicarbonate ions, and how this process affects blood pH.; P07.01 Provide specific examples to demonstrate how the urinary system responds to maintain homeostasis in the body.; Q06.05 Discuss the concept of compensation to correct respiratory and metabolic acidosis and alkalosis.; Q05.03b Explain the role of the bicarbonate buffer system, the phosphate buffer system and the protein buffer system in regulation of blood, interstitial fluid, and intracellular pH, including how each system responds to increases or decreases in pH.
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120) A patient has a bacterial infection in the renal tubules where it caused inflammation. The tubules narrowed due to hardening and inflammation, thereby increasing resistance. A fluid back-up ensued. Which of the following is TRUE? A) Hydrostatic pressure of Bowman's capsule will increase. B) GFR will decrease. C) Blood pressure will decrease. D) Urine volume will increase. E) Protein will be present in the urine. Answer: A, B Section: 14.03 Topic: Functional process of urine formation, including filtration, reabsorption, and secretion; Clinical applications of the urinary system Bloom's: Level 3. Apply HAPS Topic: Module P02 Gross and microscopic anatomy of the urinary tract, including detailed histology of the nephron.; Module P03 Functional process of urine formation, including filtration reabsorption, and secretion. HAPS Outcome: P03.02e Predict specific factors that will increase or decrease glomerular filtration rate (GFR).; P03.01 List the three major processes in urine formation and where each occurs in the nephron and collecting system.; P02.05 Trace the path of filtrate/urine from the renal corpuscle to the urethral opening.; P03.02b Explain the anatomical features that create high glomerular capillary blood pressure and explain why this blood pressure is significant for urine formation.
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Vander's Human Physiology, 15e (Widmaier) Chapter 15 The Digestion and Absorption of Food 1) Which of the following processes is NOT associated with gastrointestinal function? A) Digestion B) Filtration C) Secretion D) Motility E) Absorption 2) Which is NOT a function performed by saliva? A) Moistening and lubricating food for swallowing B) Starch digestion C) Enabling the sense of taste D) Killing bacteria E) Emulsifying lipids 3) Susan recently had bariatric surgery which removed 85% of her stomach tissue and left her with a much reduced stomach volume. Which of the following is TRUE of Susan post-surgery? A) She is not able to completely digest proteins and amino acids. B) Her chyme will tend to become more acidic than before the surgery. C) She will have a reduced ability to absorb water from her meals. D) She will have a reduced ability to form her food into a bolus. E) She will be able to store less ingested foods and will require smaller, more frequent meals. 4) Which occurs mainly in the small intestine? A) Gastrin is secreted. B) H+ is secreted from epithelial cells into the lumen. C) Pepsinogen is activated. D) Acidic chyme is neutralized. E) Bile salts are manufactured. 5) What structure secretes the enzyme that breaks down starch to smaller carbohydrates? A) The esophagus B) Pancreatic exocrine cells C) Pancreatic duct cells D) The liver E) The large intestine 6) Sarah has been diagnosed with pancreatic cancer. The first treatment is to remove 90% of her pancreatic tissue surgically. Due to the loss of exocrine tissue, which of the following foods will Sarah have more difficulty digesting post-surgery? A) Lipids B) Proteins and peptides C) Starches D) All of these 1 Copyright 2019 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.
7) Which of the following statements regarding digestion and absorption of carbohydrates is TRUE? A) Carbohydrate digestion begins in the stomach. B) Lactose intolerance results from an insufficiency of the enzyme amylase. C) Digestible polysaccharides are broken down into the monosaccharides glucose, galactose, and fructose, which can be absorbed. D) Sucrose is the main form of carbohydrate that can be absorbed by active transport across the intestinal epithelium. E) Cellulose from plants is a polymer of glucose that can be easily digested and absorbed by the human GI tract. 8) You're going hiking and want to pack emergency food in case you get lost or the hike takes longer than you anticipate. Your goal is to pack a food that will have the biggest increase on your blood glucose level to be able to supply your hiking muscles with glucose for cellular respiration. Which of the following foods will lead to the biggest and most immediate increase in blood glucose? A) A snack rich in lipids, such as slices of cheese B) A snack rich in protein, such as a dried meat stick C) A snack rich in digestible polysaccharides such as a cooked potato D) All of these will have equal impacts on blood glucose level E) A snack rich in cellulose, such as a bag of celery 9) The main source of enzymes that cleave disaccharides into monosaccharides is A) the pancreas. B) the liver. C) gastric secretory cells. D) the luminal membrane of epithelial cells in the small intestine. E) the salivary glands. 10) Which of the following molecules crosses the luminal membrane of intestinal cells by facilitated diffusion? A) Glucose B) Lactose C) Fructose D) Galactose E) Maltose 11) Sarah is taking antacids every day. This habit is raising her stomach and duodenal pH close to neutral. Which of the following enzymes may have decreased activity? A) Amylase B) Lipase C) Trypsin D) Pepsin E) Chymotrypsin
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12) Which of the following statements regarding protein digestion and absorption is TRUE? A) Only the exocrine pancreas produces enzymes that can digest proteins. B) After absorption, the products of protein digestion are carried by blood directly to the liver. C) Pepsin digests protein mainly in the small intestine. D) The enzymes that digest protein are secreted in active form. E) Free amino acids are the only product of protein digestion that can be absorbed from the lumen into intestinal epithelial cells. 13) Andrew has his gall bladder removed after developing several large gall stones. After surgery, he cannot release large batches of bile into the duodenum, instead, bile is added slowly in small amounts. What nutrient group might Andrew have trouble digesting when consumed in larger quantities? A) Lipids B) Proteins C) Carbohydrates D) Nucleic acids E) None of these 14) Which accurately describes lipase? A) It is mainly produced in the liver, and secreted into the small intestine. B) It emulsifies lipids. C) It is secreted by the endocrine pancreas. D) It is produced in the exocrine pancreas, and catalyzes the degradation of chylomicrons into proteins and fats. E) It catalyzes the breakdown of triglycerides into monoglycerides and free fatty acids. 15) Which of the following statements about the transport of the absorbed products of fat digestion is TRUE? A) Free fatty acids and monoglycerides are transported to the liver via the hepatic portal vein. B) Products of fat digestion first go to the lymph system, and then to the veins leading to the heart. C) Triglycerides are transported to the liver via the hepatic portal vein to be processed. D) Free fatty acids and monoglycerides are assembled into triglycerides before they are absorbed from the lumen of the gut into epithelial cells lining the tract. E) Products of fat digestion are absorbed in the distal portion of the ileum, bound to intrinsic factor. 16) Andrew has his gall bladder removed after developing several large gall stones. After surgery, he cannot release large batches of bile into the duodenum, instead, bile is added slowly in small amounts. Which of the following might be TRUE? A) Carbohydrate digestion may be compromised. B) He may become deficient in water-soluble vitamins such as B12. C) He may become deficient in fat-soluble vitamins such as vitamin E. D) He may start to suffer from protein deficiency. E) None of these would occur. 3 Copyright 2019 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.
17) Which of these is a function of intrinsic factor? A) It is secreted by salivary glands, and is necessary for digestion of vitamin B12. B) It is secreted by parietal cells in the gastric mucosa, and its main function is causing insulin release. C) It is secreted in the stomach, and its main function is activating pepsinogen into pepsin. D) It is secreted by the small intestine mucosa, and its main function is initiating the intrinsic electrical activity of the pacemaker cells in the stomach. E) It is secreted in the stomach, and a deficiency of it would cause anemia. 18) Julia has just been diagnosed with anemia. Oddly, during her appointment her doctor kept talking about her digestive system and some item that was not being produced in adequate amounts. Julia can't remember what digestive secretion is to blame for her anemia. Which of the following is the most likely culprit? A) HCl B) Lipase C) Bile D) Amylase E) Intrinsic factor 19) Iron is stored in the body mainly as a protein-iron storage complex called A) glycogen. B) hemochromatosis. C) myoglobin. D) transferrin. E) ferritin. 20) Which is NOT true about receptors that mediate digestive reflexes? A) They are located in the gastrointestinal tract wall. B) They include chemoreceptors, osmoreceptors, and mechanoreceptors. C) They may relay information to integrative centers in the CNS or to the enteric plexuses. D) They may be endocrine cells. E) They only activate feedforward pathways. 21) Which of the following statements about neural control of digestion is FALSE? A) Parasympathetic stimulation is excitatory to digestion. B) Sympathetic stimulation is generally inhibitory to digestion. C) Local neural networks (nerve plexuses) regulate digestive functions. D) Nerve plexuses receive input from the autonomic nervous system E) Parasympathetic stimulation inhibits GI exocrine gland secretions.
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22) Which of the following statements regarding neural regulation of gastrointestinal function is TRUE? A) Networks of neurons in the wall of the GI tract innervate the wall's smooth muscle. B) Smooth muscle of the GI tract is innervated by both sympathetic and somatic motor nerves. C) If the autonomic nerves to the GI tract were cut, digestion and absorption of food could no longer take place. D) The nerve plexus of the GI tract exists in a single layer, just outside of the serosa. E) There are no afferent neuronal pathways from the GI tract to the central nervous system. 23) You are a new pediatrician at an office where you've inherited cases from a previous doctor and are sitting down to go through case files. Today you'll be seeing Trevor, a toddler who has been diagnosed with a disease called megacolon. Back in medical school you learned that megacolon can be characterized by partial paralysis of the the nerves found within the wall of the GI system. Which of the following is likely to be among Trevor's symptoms? A) Incomplete denaturation of ingested proteins B) Discolored feces due to lack of Bile C) Diarrhea D) Constipation and a swollen-looking belly E) Abnormal blood glucose regulation 24) Which of the following statements regarding hormonal regulation of gastrointestinal function is TRUE? A) An increase of H+ in the small intestine stimulates secretion of the hormone secretin, which in turn stimulates HCO3- secretion by the pancreas. B) The presence of fatty acids in the stomach stimulates secretion of CCK, which in turn stimulates enzyme secretion by cells in the antrum of the stomach. C) The presence of amino acids in the small intestine stimulates secretion of gastrin, which in turn stimulates HCl secretion by parietal cells. D) The presence of fatty acids in the small intestine stimulates the secretion of the hormone secretin, which causes contraction of the gallbladder. E) The hormone somatostatin stimulates the secretion of H+ into the lumen of the stomach. 25) Which of the following plays a central role in stimulating the secretion of the hormone gastrin? A) The hormone secretin B) The hormone cholecystokinin (CCK) C) Distention of the stomach D) An increase in [H+] in the lumen of the stomach E) Histamine 26) Which of the following would lead to an increase in the secretion of gastrin? A) Adding chyme to the duodenum B) An increase in the presence of starch in the lumen of the stomach C) An increase in the presence of lipids in the duodenum D) An increase in the presence of peptides in the duodenum E) An increase in the presence of peptides in the stomach 5 Copyright 2019 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.
27) Which is caused by increased levels of the hormone cholecystokinin? A) Contraction of the sphincter of Oddi B) Inhibition of pancreatic enzyme secretion C) Contraction of the gallbladder D) Secretion of HCO3- from the pancreatic duct cells E) Secretion of gastric H+ 28) Which of the following statements concerning secretin is correct? A) The most potent stimulus for secretin secretion is the presence of fat in the duodenum. B) Secretin is the most potent stimulus for pancreatic digestive enzyme secretion. C) Secretin is the most potent stimulus for pancreatic HCO3- secretion. D) Secretin stimulates secretion by the parietal and chief cells. E) Secretin stimulates gastrin secretion by parietal cells. 29) Which of the following statements regarding lipid digestion and absorption is TRUE? A) The presence of fatty acids in the duodenum stimulates the secretion of CCK, which in turn stimulates secretion of pancreatic enzymes. B) The presence of fatty acids in the duodenum stimulates the secretion of secretin, which in turn stimulates contraction of the gallbladder. C) The presence of fatty acids in the duodenum stimulates the secretion of gastrin, which in turn stimulates bile synthesis in the gallbladder. D) The presence of fatty acids in the duodenum stimulates emptying of the stomach. E) The presence of fatty acids in the stomach stimulates the secretion of secretin, which inhibits motility of the large intestine. 30) Anders is born with a mutation in the gene for CCK and he produces and secretes an inactive form of this hormone. Which of the following would be TRUE of Anders' digestion? A) A reduction in the release of pancreatic enzymes B) A reduction in the release of HCl C) An increase in the release of bile D) An increase in the amount of bile salts present in the bile E) None of these would occur 31) Which is TRUE regarding the three phases of the control of HCl secretion? A) In the intestinal phase, an increase in osmolarity of the contents of the duodenum decreases HCl secretion. B) In the gastric phase, distension of the stomach decreases HCl secretion. C) In the cephalic phase, increased nutrient concentration in the duodenum stimulates HCl secretion. D) In the intestinal phase, increased peptide concentration in the stomach inhibits HCl secretion. E) In the gastric phase, decreased H+ concentration in the stomach inhibits HCl secretion.
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32) Which of the following pathways is activated during the cephalic phase of gastrointestinal control? A) Sympathetic nerves to enteric nervous system B) Secretion of cholecystokinin C) Secretion of secretin D) Parasympathetic nerves to enteric nervous system E) Short reflexes between the small intestine and stomach 33) During the cephalic phase of gastric stimulation, which of the following does NOT occur? A) Seeing, smelling, and/or tasting food reflexively increase(s) gastric acid secretion. B) Parasympathetic stimulation of secretory cells in the gastric mucosa occurs. C) Gastrin is secreted into the gastric lumen. D) HCl is secreted into the gastric lumen. E) Pepsinogen is secreted into the gastric lumen. 34) Which of the following is NOT a part of the swallowing reflex? A) Respiration is inhibited. B) The glottis closes. C) The upper esophageal sphincter relaxes. D) The lower esophageal sphincter relaxes. E) The pyloric sphincter relaxes. 35) The type of smooth muscle contraction occurring in the esophagus during swallowing is called A) peristalsis. B) mass movement. C) segmentation. D) distension. E) eccentric. 36) Which of these are secretions of the parietal cells of the gastric mucosa? A) HCl and pepsinogen B) pepsinogen and intrinsic factor C) gastrin and intrinsic factor D) HCl and gastrin E) HCl and intrinsic factor 37) Which of the following is secreted by the chief cells of the gastric mucosa? A) Pepsinogen B) HCl C) Intrinsic factor D) Gastrin E) Pepsin
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38) Which occurs during the secretion of hydrochloric acid by gastric epithelial cells? A) There is a decrease in the pH of blood in the hepatic portal circulation. B) Bicarbonate ions are secreted into the hepatic portal circulation. C) Chloride ions are pumped from the cytosol of the gastric epithelial cells into the hepatic portal circulation blood. D) Both H+ and K+ are actively pumped from the epithelial cell cytosol into the lumen of the stomach. E) Vesicles containing H+/K+ -ATP-ase proteins are endocytosed into vesicles within the gastric epithelial cells. 39) Which is TRUE regarding the secretion of HCl in the stomach? A) H+ is actively transported into the gastric lumen by ATPase pumps in the mucosal membrane. B) H+ is actively cotransported into the lumen by secondary active transporters coupled to K+. C) The pH of the blood leaving the area of the parietal cells is lower than the normal ECF value of 7.4. D) H+ diffuses passively from mucosal epithelial cells into the lumen of the stomach, following Cl-. E) Cl- and HCO3- are exchanged across the luminal membrane of epithelial cells via a passive transport protein. 40) During the contractions of gastric emptying A) the stomach is induced to contract by increased sympathetic activity. B) the pyloric sphincter opens to allow stomach contents to pass quickly and completely into the duodenum. C) the pyloric sphincter closes to allow only a small amount of liquefied chyme to pass into the duodenum with each contraction of the stomach. D) the strength of stomach wall contractions is increased when the duodenum secretes cholecystokinin. E) the strongest contractions are in the antrum of the stomach because the intrinsic pacemaker frequency is fastest there. 41) Which of the following is the most potent inhibitor (directly or indirectly) of gastric motility and emptying? A) Fat in the duodenum B) Acid in the stomach C) Carbohydrate in the stomach D) Gastrin E) Distension of the stomach 42) Which of the following breakfasts would likely remain in the stomach longest? A) Toast, orange juice, and coffee B) Fried eggs, bacon, and hash browns C) A bowl of cereal with skim milk D) A boiled egg, toast, and juice E) The type of meal has no effect on the rate of gastric emptying. 8 Copyright 2019 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.
43) Segmentation of the small intestine A) occurs only between meals, and functions to stimulate the secretion of gastrin and the resulting mass movements that empty the large intestine. B) occurs at a rate of 3 contractions per minute throughout the small intestine, although the strength of contractions is much greater in the ileum, which has a much thicker layer of smooth muscle in its walls. C) functions mainly to prevent any forward movement of chyme, so that all digestion and absorption is complete before undigestible materials move into the jejunum. D) are peristaltic movements that sweep undigestible materials out of the small intestine between meals. E) mixes chyme with digestive enzymes, brings food molecules near the wall for absorption, and slowly moves small intestine contents toward the cecum. 44) The primary kind of motility in the stomach during digestion of a meal is A) peristalsis. B) segmentation. C) relaxation of the pyloric sphincter. D) mass movement. E) regurgitation. 45) You are working for an educational video company and you've been asked to go to the hospital imaging center to obtain video of segmentation. The imaging center technician asks you where in the GI tract she should image and when during digestion? You tell her that to obtain the best video of segmentation she should record A) the esophagus during swallowing. B) the stomach during digestion of a meal. C) the small intestine as chyme moves past the pyloric sphincter. D) the large intestine during fecal compaction. 46) Which is TRUE about gastric motility? A) The basic electrical rhythm of the gastric smooth muscle (three depolarizations per minute) is the same regardless of whether or not food is present. B) Gastric contractions are strongest in the fundus of the stomach. C) The force of contraction is decreased by gastrin and increased by enterogastrones. D) When a wave of excitation reaches the pyloric sphincter, action potentials become inhibitory and the sphincter opens wide to allow chyme to exit. E) The term "slow waves" refer to gastric contractions, while "pacemaker" refers to gastric action potentials.
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47) Bicarbonate is A) secreted into the lumen by gastric epithelial cells and into the interstitial fluid by pancreatic duct cells. B) secreted into the lumen by pancreatic acinar (exocrine) cells, and into the interstitial fluid by pancreatic duct cells. C) secreted into the lumen by pancreatic duct cells, and into the interstitial fluid by pancreatic acinar (exocrine) cells. D) secreted into the interstitial fluid by gastric epithelial cells, and into the lumen by pancreatic duct cells. E) secreted into the lumen by both gastric epithelial cells and pancreatic duct cells. 48) Following diagnosis with pancreatic cancer, Neil had a large portion of his pancreas removed. All of the following will now be found in lower amounts in Neil's GI tract, except one. Which of the following will NOT be affected? A) Bicarbonate ions B) Amylase C) Bile salts D) Trypsinogen E) Lipase 49) Which of the following statements about pancreatic enzymes is FALSE? A) Trypsinogen is secreted in an inactive form. B) Pancreatic amylase digests carbohydrates. C) Pancreatic lipase digests fats. D) Except for trypsinogen, other proteolytic enzymes are secreted in active form. E) Trypsinogen is activated by enterokinase. 50) Following diagnosis with pancreatic cancer, Neil had a large portion of his pancreas removed. Which of the following hormones will now be found in lower amounts? A) Vasopressin B) Thryoid hormone C) CCK D) Oxytocin E) Insulin 51) Elizabeth suffers from a gastric ulcer. She experiences pain during the times when acid is released into the stomach. Which of the following times is Elizabeth likely to experience the most pain? A) Elizabeth is likely to be in the same amount of pain all the time. B) During the digestion of a high-fat meal, such as greasy French fries. C) During the digestion of a high-protein meal, such as a steak. D) During periods of hunger. E) During digestion of a high-carbohydrate meal, such as a bagel.
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52) Bile is synthesized and secreted by the A) gallbladder. B) gastric mucosa. C) pancreas. D) duodenum. E) liver. 53) A person without a gallbladder A) cannot secrete bile. B) cannot store bile. C) will have no difficulty digesting a large, fat-rich meal. D) cannot digest fats. E) cannot store lipase. 54) Kim had her gallbladder removed last month and has been experiencing some changes to her digestion. One thing that is particularly noticeable is that she has noticed A) she has trouble digesting high-protein foods such as egg whites. B) she has trouble digesting high-carbohydrate foods such as rice and pasta. C) her feces have a different color. D) she feels more energetic and healthy. E) an increase in her appetite. 55) In which region(s) of the GI tract do peristaltic contractions occur? A) The small intestine B) The large intestine C) The stomach D) The esophagus E) All of these options are correct. 56) The primary kind of motility in the small intestine during digestion of a meal is A) peristalsis. B) segmentation. C) receptive relaxation. D) migrating motility complex. E) mass movement. 57) Elizabeth has been diagnosed with a gastric ulcer. Carl has been diagnosed with a duodenal ulcer. Both of them are A) treated by interventions that inhibit digestive enzymes. B) caused by hypersecretion of gastric acid. C) treated by interventions that inhibit acid secretion. D) caused by removal of the gallbladder. E) found in the large intestine.
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58) Julia comes to see her doctor with a variety of symptoms. Her doctor eventually diagnoses her with gallstones. Which of the following was NOT one of Julia's symptoms? A) Lactose intolerance B) Abdominal pain C) Difficulty digesting high-fat meals D) Nutritional deficiencies E) Jaundice 59) Which of the following would be most likely to cause metabolic alkalosis? A) Severe vomiting B) Severe diarrhea C) Hyperventilation D) Strenuous exercise E) Hypoventilation 60) There is an E. coli outbreak in the town of Springfield when almost all the Springfield residents contracted food poisoning at a town hall meeting. E. coli causes severe diarrhea. The local Springfield pharmacy is ordering supplies to stock its shelves as its customers work their way through the outbreak. Which of the following would be helpful for the pharmacy to stock? A) Antacids to help the residents recover from acidosis B) Acidic foods such lemonade to help the residents recover from alkalosis C) Diuretic drugs to help the residents recover from high blood pressure D) Vitamin B12 supplements to help the residents recover from this specific deficiency E) All of these would be helpful 61) Which of the following would be most likely to cause metabolic acidosis? A) Severe vomiting B) Severe diarrhea C) Hyperventilation D) Hypoventilation E) Traveling to high altitude 62) Lactose intolerance A) is an inability to digest milk sugar. B) is most common in very young children. C) results from the inability to secrete insulin. D) results from removal of the gallbladder. E) is an inability to digest proteins.
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63) Barry's children seem to be struggling often with constipation. To help prevent it, their pediatrician recommends A) avoiding foods that can lead to accumulation of toxins in feces. B) making the children sit on the toilet until they defecate at least once a day. C) feeding the children foods with a high proportion of cellulose and other indigestible carbohydrates. D) feeding the children foods with more lipid content. E) avoiding milk, the children may be lactose intolerant. 64) A bacterium that has been associated with ulcers is A) Eschericia coli. B) Clostridium difficile. C) Staphylococcus aureus. D) Helicobacter pylori. E) Streptococcus pyogenes. 65) The enzyme lactase A) is involved directly in the digestion of proteins. B) is necessary for the breakdown of milk fats. C) is embedded in the luminal plasma membranes of intestinal epithelial cells. D) promotes the formation of and storage of bile by the gallbladder. E) is overproduced and released by secretory cells in the small intestine in the condition known as lactose intolerance. 66) Which of the following is NOT characteristic of inflammatory bowel disease (IBD)? A) Bleeding, edema, and ulceration anywhere along the gastrointestinal tract B) Pain relief when changing to a diet higher in fiber C) Perforations in the mucosa and intestinal wall, leading to infection by bacteria, which are normally present and benign D) Inflammation and thickening of the bowel wall to the point of preventing the usual passage of feces E) Pain in the lower right abdomen frequently mistaken for appendicitis 67) The exact causes of inflammatory bowel diseases continue to be explored, but it is relatively clear that A) it is equally common among people of all ages and racial groups within the population. B) it is likely to result from a combination of environmental and genetic factors. C) individuals suffering from its effects are largely experiencing the consequences of the absence of immune mechanisms in the gastrointestinal tract. D) it can be easily diagnosed since its symptoms are always very specific and the affected areas are always limited to a very focused area within the small intestine. E) the cause is allergy to a single particular food, and patients get immediate relief by simply not eating that food. 68) The lumen of the gastrointestinal tract is continuous with the external environment.
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69) The liver contributes to GI function, although it is not technically part of the gastrointestinal tract. 70) The pH of the contents of the stomach lumen is considerably higher than that of interstitial fluid. 71) The volume of fluids secreted by the gastrointestinal tract in a typical day is far greater than the volume of food and drink ingested. 72) During cholera infection, which causes severe diarrhea, the primary acute danger to one's health is dehydration. In terms of water balance, this is due to the loss of fluids added to the GI tract more than due to a decreased volume of ingested fluids. 73) Glucose absorption across the luminal membrane of intestinal epithelial cells occurs by secondary active transport. 74) Polysaccharides must be broken down to disaccharides in order to be absorbed. 75) The products of lipid digestion diffuse into the intestinal epithelium as micelles. 76) In patients lacking exocrine pancreas secretion, fat digestion is normal provided bile is still produced. 77) The breakdown products of dietary triglycerides are resynthesized into triglycerides by intestinal cells and pass from these cells into lacteals. 78) Due to the route of fat absorption and transport in the body, fat-soluble toxins could have a greater effect on the body and brain than water-soluble toxins which are filtered first by the liver. 79) Contraction of the circular smooth muscle in the gastrointestinal tract wall decreases the diameter of the lumen, while contraction of the longitudinal smooth muscle shortens the tract. 80) Amino acids are mainly absorbed across the epithelial wall in the stomach. 81) Short chains of amino acids and some intact proteins are absorbed from the small intestine. 82) Three enzymes important for protein digestion are trypsin, chymotrypsin, and pepsin. 83) The function of micelles is to store the products of lipid digestion, facilitating their absorption. 84) Food mixed with digestive juices in the stomach is called chyme. 85) Neural regulation of digestive processes is accomplished exclusively by the enteric nervous system of the gastrointestinal tract.
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86) The presence of acid and peptides in the stomach stimulates the gastric phase of gastrointestinal control. 87) The presence of food in the mouth stimulates salivary gland secretion. 88) Rebecca is fasting today. She can expect less saliva secretion on a fasting day than on a day when she is snacking every few hours. 89) Suzanne is really into yoga. She has a goal of spending an entire day in an inverted (upside down) position. To do this, she'll need to eat in the inverted position. Unfortunately, because food moves from the pharynx to the stomach by gravity alone, she will find it impossible to eat while inverted. 90) The amount of HCl secreted by the stomach during the digestion of a meal is dependent upon the type of food ingested. 91) In general, sympathetic stimulation increases gastric secretion and motility, while parasympathetic stimulation decreases these two processes. 92) Susan recently had bariatric surgery, removing 85% of her stomach tissue. After surgery, she should expect reduced absorption of vitamin B12. 93) Cindy suffers from chronic "heartburn." Cindy's helpful aunt suggests that the cause is that Cindy's cat often sits on her stomach following a large meal and the "heartburn" is due to pressure of the stomach against the heart. Indeed, this is the typical cause of heartburn. 94) Gastric chief cells secrete pepsin. 95) Normally, the amount of bicarbonate ions secreted into the intestine nearly equals the amount of acid secreted by the stomach during digestion. 96) About 95% of the bile salts secreted by the liver are recycled back to the liver by the enterohepatic circulation. 97) As part of a fad diet, George cuts out all salt intake. As a consequence, George has markedly reduced bile salt functionality in digestive processes. 98) The hormone that stimulates secretion of bicarbonate by the pancreas is also the hormone principally responsible for stimulating contraction of the gallbladder. 99) The same hormone that stimulates pancreatic enzyme secretion stimulates pancreatic bicarbonate secretion. 100) Bile secreted by the liver contains the major enzymes for digesting fats. 101) During a meal, peristalsis is the predominant form of movement in the small intestine. 15 Copyright 2019 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.
102) The presence of high-osmolarity chyme in the small intestine stimulates both water movement into the intestinal lumen from the blood and the discharge of more chyme from the stomach into the duodenum. 103) The primary function of the large intestine is to store and dilute unabsorbed fecal material. 104) Because the large intestine has a greater diameter than the small intestine, the large intestine has a greater surface area. 105) Flatus is primarily a result of air being swallowed with food. 106) Voluntary control of defecation requires learning to keep the external anal sphincter smooth muscle contracted. 107) Lactose intolerance is caused by an amylase deficiency. 108) Josh eats at a food truck and contracts food poisoning with severe diarrhea. Josh will likely suffer from metabolic acidosis. 109) Cholera toxin, the toxin released by the bacteria that cause cholera disease, interferes with water absorption and causes water secretion into the gastrointestinal tract. Even in the absence of bacteria, this toxin can cause diarrhea. 110) Regurgitation of food from the stomach into the esophagus A) is ordinarily inhibited by the upper esophageal sphincter. B) causes irritation of the esophageal mucosa. C) is called retropulsion, and is essential for gastric digestion. D) is ordinarily prevented by the lower esophageal sphincter. E) is called secondary peristalsis. 111) Which substances would cause stimulation of gastric HCl secretion when applied to parietal cells? A) Gastrin B) Histamine C) Somatostatin D) Acetylcholine E) CCK 112) The small intestine A) is the main site of fat digestion. B) secretes amylase, lipase, and various proteases from its epithelial cells. C) is the main site of gastrin secretion. D) absorbs a larger volume of fluid than any other region of the GI tract. E) undergoes only peristaltic contractions, both during the digestion of meals and between meals.
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Vander's Human Physiology, 15e (Widmaier) Chapter 15 The Digestion and Absorption of Food 1) Which of the following processes is NOT associated with gastrointestinal function? A) Digestion B) Filtration C) Secretion D) Motility E) Absorption Answer: B Section: 15.01 Topic: General functions of the digestive system Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module N01 General functions of the digestive system. HAPS Outcome: N01.01 Describe the major functions of the digestive system. 2) Which is NOT a function performed by saliva? A) Moistening and lubricating food for swallowing B) Starch digestion C) Enabling the sense of taste D) Killing bacteria E) Emulsifying lipids Answer: E Section: 15.03; 15.04 Topic: Mechanical digestion; Chemical digestion Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module N03 Gross and microscopic anatomy of the accessory glands and organs.; Module N06 Mechanical and chemical processes of digestion.; Module I04 Gustatory receptors and their role in taste HAPS Outcome: N03.01b Contrast the histology and the products of the serous cells and the mucous cells in the salivary glands.; N06.02b List the organs and structures of the digestive system that function in enzymatic hydrolysis.; N06.04b List the organs and structures of the digestive system that function in the process of emulsification.; I04.02 Explain how dissolved chemicals activate gustatory receptors.
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3) Susan recently had bariatric surgery which removed 85% of her stomach tissue and left her with a much reduced stomach volume. Which of the following is TRUE of Susan post-surgery? A) She is not able to completely digest proteins and amino acids. B) Her chyme will tend to become more acidic than before the surgery. C) She will have a reduced ability to absorb water from her meals. D) She will have a reduced ability to form her food into a bolus. E) She will be able to store less ingested foods and will require smaller, more frequent meals. Answer: E Section: 15.03; 15.05 Topic: Gross anatomy of the digestive tract; Chemical digestion Bloom's: Level 3. Apply HAPS Topic: Module N02 Gross and microscopic anatomy of the alimentary canal.; Module N06 Mechanical and chemical processes of digestion.; Module N07 Processes of absorption. HAPS Outcome: N02.05b Identify the structure and discuss the function of the cardiac region, the fundus, the body and the pyloric region of the stomach.; N02.05e Identify the structure of a gastric gland including the location of the chief (zymogenic) cells, parietal (oxynic) cells, enteroendocrine cells, and mucous cells, and discuss the functions of these different cell types in the stomach.; N06.02b List the organs and structures of the digestive system that function in enzymatic hydrolysis.; N06.03 Discuss the function, production, and regulation of secretion of hydrochloric acid (HCl).; N07.01a List the organs and specific structures involved in the absorption monosaccharides, peptides and amino acids, and fatty acids and monoglycerides.
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4) Which occurs mainly in the small intestine? A) Gastrin is secreted. B) H+ is secreted from epithelial cells into the lumen. C) Pepsinogen is activated. D) Acidic chyme is neutralized. E) Bile salts are manufactured. Answer: D Section: 15.03; 15.05 Topic: Gross anatomy of the digestive tract; Chemical digestion Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module N02 Gross and microscopic anatomy of the alimentary canal.; Module N03 Gross and microscopic anatomy of the accessory glands and organs.; Module N06 Mechanical and chemical processes of digestion.; Module N08 Hormonal and neural regulation of digestive processes.; Module J05 Identity, source, secretory control, and functional roles of the major hormones produced by the body. HAPS Outcome: N03.02d Identify the histological components of a liver lobule (including hepatocytes, hepatic sinusoids, Kupffer cells, bile canaliculi, central vein, and the components of a hepatic triad) and discuss the function of each.; J05.11b In the gastrointestinal tract, identify the gland or endocrine tissue/organ and the cells within that gland/tissue/organ that produce gastrin, secretin, cholecystokinin, motilin and gastric inhibiting peptide.; N02.06a Identify the location and discuss the relative length and the functions of the duodenum, jejunum, and ileum in the small intestine.; N08.06a For each of the following, state the organ or structure that produces the following hormones or paracrine agents gastrin, cholecystokinin, secretin, glucose-dependent insulinotropic peptide, histamine, somatostatin, and motilin.; N06.03 Discuss the function, production, and regulation of secretion of hydrochloric acid (HCl).; N02.01a Identify, and describe the histological structure and the function of, each of the four layers of the alimentary canal wall - the mucosa, the submucosa, the muscularis externa, and the serosa (visceral peritoneum).; N06.04b List the organs and structures of the digestive system that function in the process of emulsification.; N02.06c Identify Brunners glands (duodenal glands) in the duodenum and Crypts of Leiberkuhn (intestinal glands) in all portions of the small intestine, and discuss the function of these glands.
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5) What structure secretes the enzyme that breaks down starch to smaller carbohydrates? A) The esophagus B) Pancreatic exocrine cells C) Pancreatic duct cells D) The liver E) The large intestine Answer: B Section: 15.03; 15.05 Topic: Gross anatomy of the digestive tract; Gross anatomy of accessory digestive glands and organs; Chemical digestion Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module N02 Gross and microscopic anatomy of the alimentary canal.; Module N03 Gross and microscopic anatomy of the accessory glands and organs.; Module N05 Motility in the alimentary canal.; Module N06 Mechanical and chemical processes of digestion. HAPS Outcome: N03.02d Identify the histological components of a liver lobule (including hepatocytes, hepatic sinusoids, Kupffer cells, bile canaliculi, central vein, and the components of a hepatic triad) and discuss the function of each.; N03.03b Identify the pancreatic acini and discuss their functions.; N06.02b List the organs and structures of the digestive system that function in enzymatic hydrolysis.; N03.03d Identify the pancreatic duct and the hepatopancreatic sphincter and discuss their roles in the flow of pancreatic enzymes.; N06.02e List the substrates and products of enzymatic hydrolysis for each enzyme.; N02.07b Identify the location and discuss the functions of the cecum and appendix, the ascending, transverse, descending, and sigmoid colon, the rectum, and the anus in the large intestine.; N05.01 List the structures involved in the process of deglutition and explain how they function, including the changes in position of the glottis and larynx that prevent aspiration. 6) Sarah has been diagnosed with pancreatic cancer. The first treatment is to remove 90% of her pancreatic tissue surgically. Due to the loss of exocrine tissue, which of the following foods will Sarah have more difficulty digesting post-surgery? A) Lipids B) Proteins and peptides C) Starches D) All of these Answer: D Section: 15.03; 15.05 Topic: Gross anatomy of accessory digestive glands and organs; Chemical digestion Bloom's: Level 3. Apply HAPS Topic: Module N03 Gross and microscopic anatomy of the accessory glands and organs.; Module N06 Mechanical and chemical processes of digestion. HAPS Outcome: N03.03b Identify the pancreatic acini and discuss their functions.; N06.02b List the organs and structures of the digestive system that function in enzymatic hydrolysis.; N03.03d Identify the pancreatic duct and the hepatopancreatic sphincter and discuss their roles in the flow of pancreatic enzymes.; N06.02e List the substrates and products of enzymatic hydrolysis for each enzyme. 4 Copyright 2019 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.
7) Which of the following statements regarding digestion and absorption of carbohydrates is TRUE? A) Carbohydrate digestion begins in the stomach. B) Lactose intolerance results from an insufficiency of the enzyme amylase. C) Digestible polysaccharides are broken down into the monosaccharides glucose, galactose, and fructose, which can be absorbed. D) Sucrose is the main form of carbohydrate that can be absorbed by active transport across the intestinal epithelium. E) Cellulose from plants is a polymer of glucose that can be easily digested and absorbed by the human GI tract. Answer: C Section: 15.04; 15.06 Topic: Gross anatomy of the digestive tract; Chemical digestion; Processes of absorption; Clinical applications of the digestive system Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module N02 Gross and microscopic anatomy of the alimentary canal.; Module N06 Mechanical and chemical processes of digestion.; Module N07 Processes of absorption.; Module N10 Predictions related to homeostatic imbalance, including disease states and disorders. HAPS Outcome: N10.01 Predict factors or situations affecting the digestive system that could disrupt homeostasis.; N06.02b List the organs and structures of the digestive system that function in enzymatic hydrolysis.; N02.01a Identify, and describe the histological structure and the function of, each of the four layers of the alimentary canal wall - the mucosa, the submucosa, the muscularis externa, and the serosa (visceral peritoneum).; N06.02e List the substrates and products of enzymatic hydrolysis for each enzyme.; N07.01b Explain the processes involved in absorption of monosaccharides, peptides and amino acids, and fatty acids and monoglycerides.; N07.01a List the organs and specific structures involved in the absorption monosaccharides, peptides and amino acids, and fatty acids and monoglycerides.
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8) You're going hiking and want to pack emergency food in case you get lost or the hike takes longer than you anticipate. Your goal is to pack a food that will have the biggest increase on your blood glucose level to be able to supply your hiking muscles with glucose for cellular respiration. Which of the following foods will lead to the biggest and most immediate increase in blood glucose? A) A snack rich in lipids, such as slices of cheese B) A snack rich in protein, such as a dried meat stick C) A snack rich in digestible polysaccharides such as a cooked potato D) All of these will have equal impacts on blood glucose level E) A snack rich in cellulose, such as a bag of celery Answer: C Section: 15.04; 15.06 Topic: Gross anatomy of the digestive tract; Chemical digestion; Processes of absorption; Clinical applications of the digestive system Bloom's: Level 3. Apply HAPS Topic: Module N06 Mechanical and chemical processes of digestion.; Module N07 Processes of absorption.; Module N10 Predictions related to homeostatic imbalance, including disease states and disorders. HAPS Outcome: N10.01 Predict factors or situations affecting the digestive system that could disrupt homeostasis.; N06.02b List the organs and structures of the digestive system that function in enzymatic hydrolysis.; N06.02e List the substrates and products of enzymatic hydrolysis for each enzyme.; N07.01b Explain the processes involved in absorption of monosaccharides, peptides and amino acids, and fatty acids and monoglycerides.
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9) The main source of enzymes that cleave disaccharides into monosaccharides is A) the pancreas. B) the liver. C) gastric secretory cells. D) the luminal membrane of epithelial cells in the small intestine. E) the salivary glands. Answer: D Section: 15.04 Topic: Gross anatomy of the digestive tract; Gross anatomy of accessory digestive glands and organs; Chemical digestion Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module N02 Gross and microscopic anatomy of the alimentary canal.; Module N03 Gross and microscopic anatomy of the accessory glands and organs.; Module N06 Mechanical and chemical processes of digestion. HAPS Outcome: N03.02d Identify the histological components of a liver lobule (including hepatocytes, hepatic sinusoids, Kupffer cells, bile canaliculi, central vein, and the components of a hepatic triad) and discuss the function of each.; N02.05e Identify the structure of a gastric gland including the location of the chief (zymogenic) cells, parietal (oxynic) cells, enteroendocrine cells, and mucous cells, and discuss the functions of these different cell types in the stomach.; N02.06a Identify the location and discuss the relative length and the functions of the duodenum, jejunum, and ileum in the small intestine.; N03.01b Contrast the histology and the products of the serous cells and the mucous cells in the salivary glands.; N03.03b Identify the pancreatic acini and discuss their functions.; N06.02b List the organs and structures of the digestive system that function in enzymatic hydrolysis.; N02.01a Identify, and describe the histological structure and the function of, each of the four layers of the alimentary canal wall the mucosa, the submucosa, the muscularis externa, and the serosa (visceral peritoneum).; N06.02e List the substrates and products of enzymatic hydrolysis for each enzyme.; N02.06b Identify and discuss the histology and functions of the plicae circulares, villi, and microvilli in the small intestine.
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10) Which of the following molecules crosses the luminal membrane of intestinal cells by facilitated diffusion? A) Glucose B) Lactose C) Fructose D) Galactose E) Maltose Answer: C Section: 15.04 Topic: Microscopic anatomy of the digestive tract; Processes of absorption Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module N02 Gross and microscopic anatomy of the alimentary canal.; Module N07 Processes of absorption. HAPS Outcome: N02.01a Identify, and describe the histological structure and the function of, each of the four layers of the alimentary canal wall - the mucosa, the submucosa, the muscularis externa, and the serosa (visceral peritoneum).; N07.01b Explain the processes involved in absorption of monosaccharides, peptides and amino acids, and fatty acids and monoglycerides.; N02.06b Identify and discuss the histology and functions of the plicae circulares, villi, and microvilli in the small intestine.; N07.01a List the organs and specific structures involved in the absorption monosaccharides, peptides and amino acids, and fatty acids and monoglycerides. 11) Sarah is taking antacids every day. This habit is raising her stomach and duodenal pH close to neutral. Which of the following enzymes may have decreased activity? A) Amylase B) Lipase C) Trypsin D) Pepsin E) Chymotrypsin Answer: D Section: 15.05 Topic: Chemical digestion Bloom's: Level 3. Apply HAPS Topic: Module N06 Mechanical and chemical processes of digestion. HAPS Outcome: N06.02d Discuss the activation of specific enzymes, where applicable in enzymatic hydrolysis.; N06.02f Discuss the mechanisms used to regulate secretion and/or activation of each enzyme in enzymatic hydrolysis.
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12) Which of the following statements regarding protein digestion and absorption is TRUE? A) Only the exocrine pancreas produces enzymes that can digest proteins. B) After absorption, the products of protein digestion are carried by blood directly to the liver. C) Pepsin digests protein mainly in the small intestine. D) The enzymes that digest protein are secreted in active form. E) Free amino acids are the only product of protein digestion that can be absorbed from the lumen into intestinal epithelial cells. Answer: B Section: 15.02; 15.04; 15.05 Topic: Microscopic anatomy of the digestive tract; Gross anatomy of the digestive tract; Gross anatomy of accessory digestive glands and organs; Chemical digestion; Processes of absorption Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module N02 Gross and microscopic anatomy of the alimentary canal.; Module N03 Gross and microscopic anatomy of the accessory glands and organs.; Module N06 Mechanical and chemical processes of digestion.; Module N07 Processes of absorption.; Module K13 Pattern of blood circulation throughout the body, including systemic, pulmonary, coronary, hepatic portal, and fetal circulations. HAPS Outcome: N03.02c Identify the hepatic artery, hepatic portal vein, and hepatic vein and discuss the function of each of those blood vessels in the liver.; N02.05e Identify the structure of a gastric gland including the location of the chief (zymogenic) cells, parietal (oxynic) cells, enteroendocrine cells, and mucous cells, and discuss the functions of these different cell types in the stomach.; N02.06a Identify the location and discuss the relative length and the functions of the duodenum, jejunum, and ileum in the small intestine.; N03.03b Identify the pancreatic acini and discuss their functions.; N06.02b List the organs and structures of the digestive system that function in enzymatic hydrolysis.; N02.01a Identify, and describe the histological structure and the function of, each of the four layers of the alimentary canal wall - the mucosa, the submucosa, the muscularis externa, and the serosa (visceral peritoneum).; N07.01b Explain the processes involved in absorption of monosaccharides, peptides and amino acids, and fatty acids and monoglycerides.; N02.06b Identify and discuss the histology and functions of the plicae circulares, villi, and microvilli in the small intestine.; N07.01a List the organs and specific structures involved in the absorption monosaccharides, peptides and amino acids, and fatty acids and monoglycerides.; K13.03b Explain how the anatomical design of the hepatic portal circulation serves its function.; N06.02d Discuss the activation of specific enzymes, where applicable in enzymatic hydrolysis.; N06.02f Discuss the mechanisms used to regulate secretion and/or activation of each enzyme in enzymatic hydrolysis.
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13) Andrew has his gall bladder removed after developing several large gall stones. After surgery, he cannot release large batches of bile into the duodenum, instead, bile is added slowly in small amounts. What nutrient group might Andrew have trouble digesting when consumed in larger quantities? A) Lipids B) Proteins C) Carbohydrates D) Nucleic acids E) None of these Answer: A Section: 15.04 Topic: Gross anatomy of accessory digestive glands and organs; Mechanical digestion; Chemical digestion Bloom's: Level 3. Apply HAPS Topic: Module N03 Gross and microscopic anatomy of the accessory glands and organs.; Module N06 Mechanical and chemical processes of digestion. HAPS Outcome: N03.02d Identify the histological components of a liver lobule (including hepatocytes, hepatic sinusoids, Kupffer cells, bile canaliculi, central vein, and the components of a hepatic triad) and discuss the function of each.; N03.02e Identify the hepatic duct, cystic duct, gallbladder, common bile duct, sphincter of the hepatopancreatic ampulla (ampulla of Vater and sphincter of Oddi) and discuss the roles of those structures in the flow of bile.; N06.04b List the organs and structures of the digestive system that function in the process of emulsification.; N06.02e List the substrates and products of enzymatic hydrolysis for each enzyme.; N06.02c List the enzymes used in enzymatic hydrolysis.; N06.04a Define emulsification and describe the process.
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14) Which accurately describes lipase? A) It is mainly produced in the liver, and secreted into the small intestine. B) It emulsifies lipids. C) It is secreted by the endocrine pancreas. D) It is produced in the exocrine pancreas, and catalyzes the degradation of chylomicrons into proteins and fats. E) It catalyzes the breakdown of triglycerides into monoglycerides and free fatty acids. Answer: E Section: 15.04 Topic: Gross anatomy of the digestive tract; Gross anatomy of accessory digestive glands and organs; Chemical digestion Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module N03 Gross and microscopic anatomy of the accessory glands and organs.; Module N06 Mechanical and chemical processes of digestion.; Module O03 Cellular respiration and the catabolism and anabolism of carbohydrates, lipids, and proteins. HAPS Outcome: N03.02d Identify the histological components of a liver lobule (including hepatocytes, hepatic sinusoids, Kupffer cells, bile canaliculi, central vein, and the components of a hepatic triad) and discuss the function of each.; N03.03b Identify the pancreatic acini and discuss their functions.; N06.02b List the organs and structures of the digestive system that function in enzymatic hydrolysis.; N06.02e List the substrates and products of enzymatic hydrolysis for each enzyme.; N06.02c List the enzymes used in enzymatic hydrolysis.; N06.04a Define emulsification and describe the process.; N03.03c Identify the pancreatic islets and discuss their functions.; O03.03b With respect to fat metabolism, describe the basic process of lipogenesis and lipolysis.
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15) Which of the following statements about the transport of the absorbed products of fat digestion is TRUE? A) Free fatty acids and monoglycerides are transported to the liver via the hepatic portal vein. B) Products of fat digestion first go to the lymph system, and then to the veins leading to the heart. C) Triglycerides are transported to the liver via the hepatic portal vein to be processed. D) Free fatty acids and monoglycerides are assembled into triglycerides before they are absorbed from the lumen of the gut into epithelial cells lining the tract. E) Products of fat digestion are absorbed in the distal portion of the ileum, bound to intrinsic factor. Answer: B Section: 15.04 Topic: Gross anatomy of the digestive tract; Gross anatomy of accessory digestive glands and organs; Processes of absorption Bloom's: Level 2. Understand HAPS Topic: Module N02 Gross and microscopic anatomy of the alimentary canal.; Module N03 Gross and microscopic anatomy of the accessory glands and organs.; Module N06 Mechanical and chemical processes of digestion.; Module N07 Processes of absorption.; Module K13 Pattern of blood circulation throughout the body, including systemic, pulmonary, coronary, hepatic portal, and fetal circulations.; Module L02 Lymph and lymphatic vessels HAPS Outcome: N03.02c Identify the hepatic artery, hepatic portal vein, and hepatic vein and discuss the function of each of those blood vessels in the liver.; N02.06a Identify the location and discuss the relative length and the functions of the duodenum, jejunum, and ileum in the small intestine.; N02.01a Identify, and describe the histological structure and the function of, each of the four layers of the alimentary canal wall - the mucosa, the submucosa, the muscularis externa, and the serosa (visceral peritoneum).; N06.02e List the substrates and products of enzymatic hydrolysis for each enzyme.; N07.01b Explain the processes involved in absorption of monosaccharides, peptides and amino acids, and fatty acids and monoglycerides.; N07.01a List the organs and specific structures involved in the absorption monosaccharides, peptides and amino acids, and fatty acids and monoglycerides.; K13.03b Explain how the anatomical design of the hepatic portal circulation serves its function.; L02.03 Describe the path of lymph circulation.; N07.02 Discuss the absorption of fat-soluble and water-soluble vitamins and the absorption of vitamin B12.
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16) Andrew has his gall bladder removed after developing several large gall stones. After surgery, he cannot release large batches of bile into the duodenum, instead, bile is added slowly in small amounts. Which of the following might be TRUE? A) Carbohydrate digestion may be compromised. B) He may become deficient in water-soluble vitamins such as B12. C) He may become deficient in fat-soluble vitamins such as vitamin E. D) He may start to suffer from protein deficiency. E) None of these would occur. Answer: C Section: 15.04 Topic: Gross anatomy of accessory digestive glands and organs; Processes of absorption Bloom's: Level 3. Apply HAPS Topic: Module N03 Gross and microscopic anatomy of the accessory glands and organs.; Module N06 Mechanical and chemical processes of digestion.; Module N07 Processes of absorption.; Module O01 Nutrition.; Module K13 Pattern of blood circulation throughout the body, including systemic, pulmonary, coronary, hepatic portal, and fetal circulations. HAPS Outcome: N03.02c Identify the hepatic artery, hepatic portal vein, and hepatic vein and discuss the function of each of those blood vessels in the liver.; N06.04a Define emulsification and describe the process.; K13.03b Explain how the anatomical design of the hepatic portal circulation serves its function.; N07.02 Discuss the absorption of fat-soluble and water-soluble vitamins and the absorption of vitamin B12.; O01.01d With respect to nutrients, classify vitamins as either fat-soluble or water-soluble and discuss the major uses of each vitamin in the body.
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17) Which of these is a function of intrinsic factor? A) It is secreted by salivary glands, and is necessary for digestion of vitamin B12. B) It is secreted by parietal cells in the gastric mucosa, and its main function is causing insulin release. C) It is secreted in the stomach, and its main function is activating pepsinogen into pepsin. D) It is secreted by the small intestine mucosa, and its main function is initiating the intrinsic electrical activity of the pacemaker cells in the stomach. E) It is secreted in the stomach, and a deficiency of it would cause anemia. Answer: E Section: 15.04 Topic: Microscopic anatomy of the digestive tract; Gross anatomy of accessory digestive glands and organs; Processes of absorption Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module N02 Gross and microscopic anatomy of the alimentary canal.; Module N03 Gross and microscopic anatomy of the accessory glands and organs.; Module N06 Mechanical and chemical processes of digestion.; Module N07 Processes of absorption.; Module N10 Predictions related to homeostatic imbalance, including disease states and disorders.; Module J05 Identity, source, secretory control, and functional roles of the major hormones produced by the body. HAPS Outcome: N02.05b Identify the structure and discuss the function of the cardiac region, the fundus, the body and the pyloric region of the stomach.; N10.01 Predict factors or situations affecting the digestive system that could disrupt homeostasis.; N10.02 Predict the types of problems that would occur in the body if the digestive system could not maintain homeostasis.; N02.05e Identify the structure of a gastric gland including the location of the chief (zymogenic) cells, parietal (oxynic) cells, enteroendocrine cells, and mucous cells, and discuss the functions of these different cell types in the stomach.; N02.06a Identify the location and discuss the relative length and the functions of the duodenum, jejunum, and ileum in the small intestine.; N03.01b Contrast the histology and the products of the serous cells and the mucous cells in the salivary glands.; N02.01a Identify, and describe the histological structure and the function of, each of the four layers of the alimentary canal wall - the mucosa, the submucosa, the muscularis externa, and the serosa (visceral peritoneum).; N06.02d Discuss the activation of specific enzymes, where applicable in enzymatic hydrolysis.; N07.02 Discuss the absorption of fatsoluble and water-soluble vitamins and the absorption of vitamin B12.; J05.07a In the pancreas, describe the stimulus for release of insulin and glucagon.
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18) Julia has just been diagnosed with anemia. Oddly, during her appointment her doctor kept talking about her digestive system and some item that was not being produced in adequate amounts. Julia can't remember what digestive secretion is to blame for her anemia. Which of the following is the most likely culprit? A) HCl B) Lipase C) Bile D) Amylase E) Intrinsic factor Answer: E Section: 15.04 Topic: Microscopic anatomy of the digestive tract; Gross anatomy of accessory digestive glands and organs; Processes of absorption Bloom's: Level 3. Apply HAPS Topic: Module N02 Gross and microscopic anatomy of the alimentary canal.; Module N06 Mechanical and chemical processes of digestion.; Module N07 Processes of absorption.; Module N10 Predictions related to homeostatic imbalance, including disease states and disorders. HAPS Outcome: N10.01 Predict factors or situations affecting the digestive system that could disrupt homeostasis.; N10.02 Predict the types of problems that would occur in the body if the digestive system could not maintain homeostasis.; N02.05e Identify the structure of a gastric gland including the location of the chief (zymogenic) cells, parietal (oxynic) cells, enteroendocrine cells, and mucous cells, and discuss the functions of these different cell types in the stomach.; N06.02d Discuss the activation of specific enzymes, where applicable in enzymatic hydrolysis.; N07.02 Discuss the absorption of fat-soluble and water-soluble vitamins and the absorption of vitamin B12. 19) Iron is stored in the body mainly as a protein-iron storage complex called A) glycogen. B) hemochromatosis. C) myoglobin. D) transferrin. E) ferritin. Answer: E Section: 15.04 Topic: Processes of absorption Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module N09 Application of homeostatic mechanisms.; Module O01 Nutrition. HAPS Outcome: N09.01 Provide specific examples to demonstrate how the digestive system responds to maintain homeostasis in the body.; O01.01e With respect to nutrients, list the important dietary minerals and describe the major uses of each mineral in the body.
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20) Which is NOT true about receptors that mediate digestive reflexes? A) They are located in the gastrointestinal tract wall. B) They include chemoreceptors, osmoreceptors, and mechanoreceptors. C) They may relay information to integrative centers in the CNS or to the enteric plexuses. D) They may be endocrine cells. E) They only activate feedforward pathways. Answer: E Section: 15.05 Topic: Hormonal and neural regulation of digestive processes Bloom's: Level 2. Understand HAPS Topic: Module N05 Motility in the alimentary canal.; Module N08 Hormonal and neural regulation of digestive processes. HAPS Outcome: N05.03 Explain how volume, chemical composition, and osmolarity of the chyme affect motility in the stomach and in the duodenum.; N08.01 List the components of both a short reflex and a long reflex in the digestive system. 21) Which of the following statements about neural control of digestion is FALSE? A) Parasympathetic stimulation is excitatory to digestion. B) Sympathetic stimulation is generally inhibitory to digestion. C) Local neural networks (nerve plexuses) regulate digestive functions. D) Nerve plexuses receive input from the autonomic nervous system E) Parasympathetic stimulation inhibits GI exocrine gland secretions. Answer: E Section: 15.05 Topic: Hormonal and neural regulation of digestive processes Bloom's: Level 2. Understand HAPS Topic: Module N08 Hormonal and neural regulation of digestive processes.; Module H13 Functions of the autonomic nervous system HAPS Outcome: N08.04 Explain the effect of the cephalic phase, gastric phase, and intestinal phase on the functions of the stomach and give examples for each phase.; N08.05 Explain the effect of the cephalic phase, gastric phase, and intestinal phase on the functions of the small intestine and give examples for each phase.; N08.01 List the components of both a short reflex and a long reflex in the digestive system.; N08.02 Discuss regulation of reflexes by the enteric nervous system and the parasympathetic nervous system.; H13.09 Describe major parasympathetic and/or sympathetic physiological effects on target organs.
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22) Which of the following statements regarding neural regulation of gastrointestinal function is TRUE? A) Networks of neurons in the wall of the GI tract innervate the wall's smooth muscle. B) Smooth muscle of the GI tract is innervated by both sympathetic and somatic motor nerves. C) If the autonomic nerves to the GI tract were cut, digestion and absorption of food could no longer take place. D) The nerve plexus of the GI tract exists in a single layer, just outside of the serosa. E) There are no afferent neuronal pathways from the GI tract to the central nervous system. Answer: A Section: 15.05 Topic: Hormonal and neural regulation of digestive processes Bloom's: Level 2. Understand HAPS Topic: Module N02 Gross and microscopic anatomy of the alimentary canal.; Module N08 Hormonal and neural regulation of digestive processes.; Module H14 Comparisons of somatic and autonomic nervous systems HAPS Outcome: N08.01 List the components of both a short reflex and a long reflex in the digestive system.; N02.01a Identify, and describe the histological structure and the function of, each of the four layers of the alimentary canal wall - the mucosa, the submucosa, the muscularis externa, and the serosa (visceral peritoneum).; H14.01 Distinguish between the effectors of the somatic and autonomic nervous systems.; N08.02 Discuss regulation of reflexes by the enteric nervous system and the parasympathetic nervous system.
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23) You are a new pediatrician at an office where you've inherited cases from a previous doctor and are sitting down to go through case files. Today you'll be seeing Trevor, a toddler who has been diagnosed with a disease called megacolon. Back in medical school you learned that megacolon can be characterized by partial paralysis of the the nerves found within the wall of the GI system. Which of the following is likely to be among Trevor's symptoms? A) Incomplete denaturation of ingested proteins B) Discolored feces due to lack of Bile C) Diarrhea D) Constipation and a swollen-looking belly E) Abnormal blood glucose regulation Answer: D Section: 15.05 Topic: Hormonal and neural regulation of digestive processes Bloom's: Level 3. Apply HAPS Topic: Module N02 Gross and microscopic anatomy of the alimentary canal.; Module N08 Hormonal and neural regulation of digestive processes.; Module H14 Comparisons of somatic and autonomic nervous systems HAPS Outcome: N08.01 List the components of both a short reflex and a long reflex in the digestive system.; N02.01a Identify, and describe the histological structure and the function of, each of the four layers of the alimentary canal wall - the mucosa, the submucosa, the muscularis externa, and the serosa (visceral peritoneum).; H14.01 Distinguish between the effectors of the somatic and autonomic nervous systems.; N08.02 Discuss regulation of reflexes by the enteric nervous system and the parasympathetic nervous system.
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24) Which of the following statements regarding hormonal regulation of gastrointestinal function is TRUE? A) An increase of H+ in the small intestine stimulates secretion of the hormone secretin, which in turn stimulates HCO3- secretion by the pancreas. B) The presence of fatty acids in the stomach stimulates secretion of CCK, which in turn stimulates enzyme secretion by cells in the antrum of the stomach. C) The presence of amino acids in the small intestine stimulates secretion of gastrin, which in turn stimulates HCl secretion by parietal cells. D) The presence of fatty acids in the small intestine stimulates the secretion of the hormone secretin, which causes contraction of the gallbladder. E) The hormone somatostatin stimulates the secretion of H+ into the lumen of the stomach. Answer: A Section: 15.05 Topic: Hormonal and neural regulation of digestive processes Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module N02 Gross and microscopic anatomy of the alimentary canal.; Module N03 Gross and microscopic anatomy of the accessory glands and organs.; Module N06 Mechanical and chemical processes of digestion.; Module N08 Hormonal and neural regulation of digestive processes.; Module N09 Application of homeostatic mechanisms.; Module J05 Identity, source, secretory control, and functional roles of the major hormones produced by the body. HAPS Outcome: N02.05b Identify the structure and discuss the function of the cardiac region, the fundus, the body and the pyloric region of the stomach.; N08.06c Describe the action of the following hormones or paracrine agents gastrin, cholecystokinin, secretin, glucose-dependent insulinotropic peptide, histamine, somatostatin, and motilin.; J05.11a In the gastrointestinal tract, describe the stimulus for release of gastrin, secretin, cholecystokinin, motilin and gastric inhibiting peptide.; J05.11c In the gastrointestinal tract, name the target tissue or cells for gastrin, secretin, cholecystokinin, motilin and gastric inhibiting peptide hormone and describe the effect(s) of the hormone on the target tissue or cells.; N02.05e Identify the structure of a gastric gland including the location of the chief (zymogenic) cells, parietal (oxynic) cells, enteroendocrine cells, and mucous cells, and discuss the functions of these different cell types in the stomach.; N02.06a Identify the location and discuss the relative length and the functions of the duodenum, jejunum, and ileum in the small intestine.; N08.04 Explain the effect of the cephalic phase, gastric phase, and intestinal phase on the functions of the stomach and give examples for each phase.; N08.05 Explain the effect of the cephalic phase, gastric phase, and intestinal phase on the functions of the small intestine and give examples for each phase.; N08.06a For each of the following, state the organ or structure that produces the following hormones or paracrine agents gastrin, cholecystokinin, secretin, glucose-dependent insulinotropic peptide, histamine, somatostatin, and motilin.; N08.06b State the target organ of each of the following hormones or paracrine agents gastrin, cholecystokinin, secretin, glucosedependent insulinotropic peptide, histamine, somatostatin, and motilin.; N09.01 Provide specific examples to demonstrate how the digestive system responds to maintain homeostasis in the body.; N03.03b Identify the pancreatic acini and discuss their functions.; N06.02b List the organs and structures of the digestive system that function in enzymatic hydrolysis.; N06.03 Discuss the function, production, and regulation of secretion of hydrochloric acid (HCl). 19 Copyright 2019 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.
25) Which of the following plays a central role in stimulating the secretion of the hormone gastrin? A) The hormone secretin B) The hormone cholecystokinin (CCK) C) Distention of the stomach D) An increase in [H+] in the lumen of the stomach E) Histamine Answer: C Section: 15.05 Topic: Hormonal and neural regulation of digestive processes Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module N06 Mechanical and chemical processes of digestion.; Module N08 Hormonal and neural regulation of digestive processes.; Module N09 Application of homeostatic mechanisms.; Module J05 Identity, source, secretory control, and functional roles of the major hormones produced by the body. HAPS Outcome: N08.06c Describe the action of the following hormones or paracrine agents gastrin, cholecystokinin, secretin, glucose-dependent insulinotropic peptide, histamine, somatostatin, and motilin.; J05.11a In the gastrointestinal tract, describe the stimulus for release of gastrin, secretin, cholecystokinin, motilin and gastric inhibiting peptide.; J05.11c In the gastrointestinal tract, name the target tissue or cells for gastrin, secretin, cholecystokinin, motilin and gastric inhibiting peptide hormone and describe the effect(s) of the hormone on the target tissue or cells.; N08.04 Explain the effect of the cephalic phase, gastric phase, and intestinal phase on the functions of the stomach and give examples for each phase.; N08.06a For each of the following, state the organ or structure that produces the following hormones or paracrine agents gastrin, cholecystokinin, secretin, glucose-dependent insulinotropic peptide, histamine, somatostatin, and motilin.; N09.01 Provide specific examples to demonstrate how the digestive system responds to maintain homeostasis in the body.; N06.03 Discuss the function, production, and regulation of secretion of hydrochloric acid (HCl).
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26) Which of the following would lead to an increase in the secretion of gastrin? A) Adding chyme to the duodenum B) An increase in the presence of starch in the lumen of the stomach C) An increase in the presence of lipids in the duodenum D) An increase in the presence of peptides in the duodenum E) An increase in the presence of peptides in the stomach Answer: E Section: 15.05 Topic: Gross anatomy of the digestive tract; Hormonal and neural regulation of digestive processes Bloom's: Level 3. Apply HAPS Topic: Module N02 Gross and microscopic anatomy of the alimentary canal.; Module N08 Hormonal and neural regulation of digestive processes.; Module N09 Application of homeostatic mechanisms.; Module J05 Identity, source, secretory control, and functional roles of the major hormones produced by the body. HAPS Outcome: J05.11d In the gastrointestinal tract, predict the larger effect that fluctuations in gastrin, secretin, cholecystokinin, motilin, gastric inhibiting peptide levels will have on conditions (variables) within the body.; N08.06c Describe the action of the following hormones or paracrine agents gastrin, cholecystokinin, secretin, glucose-dependent insulinotropic peptide, histamine, somatostatin, and motilin.; J05.11a In the gastrointestinal tract, describe the stimulus for release of gastrin, secretin, cholecystokinin, motilin and gastric inhibiting peptide.; J05.11b In the gastrointestinal tract, identify the gland or endocrine tissue/organ and the cells within that gland/tissue/organ that produce gastrin, secretin, cholecystokinin, motilin and gastric inhibiting peptide.; N02.05e Identify the structure of a gastric gland including the location of the chief (zymogenic) cells, parietal (oxynic) cells, enteroendocrine cells, and mucous cells, and discuss the functions of these different cell types in the stomach.; N02.06a Identify the location and discuss the relative length and the functions of the duodenum, jejunum, and ileum in the small intestine.; N08.04 Explain the effect of the cephalic phase, gastric phase, and intestinal phase on the functions of the stomach and give examples for each phase.; N08.06a For each of the following, state the organ or structure that produces the following hormones or paracrine agents gastrin, cholecystokinin, secretin, glucose-dependent insulinotropic peptide, histamine, somatostatin, and motilin.; N09.01 Provide specific examples to demonstrate how the digestive system responds to maintain homeostasis in the body.
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27) Which is caused by increased levels of the hormone cholecystokinin? A) Contraction of the sphincter of Oddi B) Inhibition of pancreatic enzyme secretion C) Contraction of the gallbladder D) Secretion of HCO3- from the pancreatic duct cells E) Secretion of gastric H+ Answer: C Section: 15.05 Topic: Gross anatomy of accessory digestive glands and organs; Hormonal and neural regulation of digestive processes Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module N03 Gross and microscopic anatomy of the accessory glands and organs.; Module N08 Hormonal and neural regulation of digestive processes.; Module J05 Identity, source, secretory control, and functional roles of the major hormones produced by the body. HAPS Outcome: N08.06c Describe the action of the following hormones or paracrine agents gastrin, cholecystokinin, secretin, glucose-dependent insulinotropic peptide, histamine, somatostatin, and motilin.; J05.11c In the gastrointestinal tract, name the target tissue or cells for gastrin, secretin, cholecystokinin, motilin and gastric inhibiting peptide hormone and describe the effect(s) of the hormone on the target tissue or cells.; N03.02e Identify the hepatic duct, cystic duct, gallbladder, common bile duct, sphincter of the hepatopancreatic ampulla (ampulla of Vater and sphincter of Oddi) and discuss the roles of those structures in the flow of bile.; N08.04 Explain the effect of the cephalic phase, gastric phase, and intestinal phase on the functions of the stomach and give examples for each phase.
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28) Which of the following statements concerning secretin is correct? A) The most potent stimulus for secretin secretion is the presence of fat in the duodenum. B) Secretin is the most potent stimulus for pancreatic digestive enzyme secretion. C) Secretin is the most potent stimulus for pancreatic HCO3- secretion. D) Secretin stimulates secretion by the parietal and chief cells. E) Secretin stimulates gastrin secretion by parietal cells. Answer: C Section: 15.05 Topic: Microscopic anatomy of the digestive tract; Hormonal and neural regulation of digestive processes Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module N02 Gross and microscopic anatomy of the alimentary canal.; Module N03 Gross and microscopic anatomy of the accessory glands and organs.; Module N08 Hormonal and neural regulation of digestive processes.; Module J05 Identity, source, secretory control, and functional roles of the major hormones produced by the body. HAPS Outcome: N08.06c Describe the action of the following hormones or paracrine agents gastrin, cholecystokinin, secretin, glucose-dependent insulinotropic peptide, histamine, somatostatin, and motilin.; J05.11a In the gastrointestinal tract, describe the stimulus for release of gastrin, secretin, cholecystokinin, motilin and gastric inhibiting peptide.; J05.11b In the gastrointestinal tract, identify the gland or endocrine tissue/organ and the cells within that gland/tissue/organ that produce gastrin, secretin, cholecystokinin, motilin and gastric inhibiting peptide.; J05.11c In the gastrointestinal tract, name the target tissue or cells for gastrin, secretin, cholecystokinin, motilin and gastric inhibiting peptide hormone and describe the effect(s) of the hormone on the target tissue or cells.; N02.05e Identify the structure of a gastric gland including the location of the chief (zymogenic) cells, parietal (oxynic) cells, enteroendocrine cells, and mucous cells, and discuss the functions of these different cell types in the stomach.; N08.04 Explain the effect of the cephalic phase, gastric phase, and intestinal phase on the functions of the stomach and give examples for each phase.; N08.05 Explain the effect of the cephalic phase, gastric phase, and intestinal phase on the functions of the small intestine and give examples for each phase.; N08.06a For each of the following, state the organ or structure that produces the following hormones or paracrine agents gastrin, cholecystokinin, secretin, glucose-dependent insulinotropic peptide, histamine, somatostatin, and motilin.; N03.03b Identify the pancreatic acini and discuss their functions.; N03.03d Identify the pancreatic duct and the hepatopancreatic sphincter and discuss their roles in the flow of pancreatic enzymes.
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29) Which of the following statements regarding lipid digestion and absorption is TRUE? A) The presence of fatty acids in the duodenum stimulates the secretion of CCK, which in turn stimulates secretion of pancreatic enzymes. B) The presence of fatty acids in the duodenum stimulates the secretion of secretin, which in turn stimulates contraction of the gallbladder. C) The presence of fatty acids in the duodenum stimulates the secretion of gastrin, which in turn stimulates bile synthesis in the gallbladder. D) The presence of fatty acids in the duodenum stimulates emptying of the stomach. E) The presence of fatty acids in the stomach stimulates the secretion of secretin, which inhibits motility of the large intestine. Answer: A Section: 15.05 Topic: Gross anatomy of the digestive tract; Gross anatomy of accessory digestive glands and organs; Hormonal and neural regulation of digestive processes Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module N02 Gross and microscopic anatomy of the alimentary canal.; Module N03 Gross and microscopic anatomy of the accessory glands and organs.; Module N05 Motility in the alimentary canal.; Module N08 Hormonal and neural regulation of digestive processes.; Module N09 Application of homeostatic mechanisms.; Module J05 Identity, source, secretory control, and functional roles of the major hormones produced by the body. HAPS Outcome: N08.06c Describe the action of the following hormones or paracrine agents gastrin, cholecystokinin, secretin, glucose-dependent insulinotropic peptide, histamine, somatostatin, and motilin.; N03.02d Identify the histological components of a liver lobule (including hepatocytes, hepatic sinusoids, Kupffer cells, bile canaliculi, central vein, and the components of a hepatic triad) and discuss the function of each.; J05.11a In the gastrointestinal tract, describe the stimulus for release of gastrin, secretin, cholecystokinin, motilin and gastric inhibiting peptide.; J05.11b In the gastrointestinal tract, identify the gland or endocrine tissue/organ and the cells within that gland/tissue/organ that produce gastrin, secretin, cholecystokinin, motilin and gastric inhibiting peptide.; J05.11c In the gastrointestinal tract, name the target tissue or cells for gastrin, secretin, cholecystokinin, motilin and gastric inhibiting peptide hormone and describe the effect(s) of the hormone on the target tissue or cells.; N02.05e Identify the structure of a gastric gland including the location of the chief (zymogenic) cells, parietal (oxynic) cells, enteroendocrine cells, and mucous cells, and discuss the functions of these different cell types in the stomach.; N02.06a Identify the location and discuss the relative length and the functions of the duodenum, jejunum, and ileum in the small intestine.; N03.02e Identify the hepatic duct, cystic duct, gallbladder, common bile duct, sphincter of the hepatopancreatic ampulla (ampulla of Vater and sphincter of Oddi) and discuss the roles of those structures in the flow of bile.; N05.03 Explain how volume, chemical composition, and osmolarity of the chyme affect motility in the stomach and in the duodenum.; N08.04 Explain the effect of the cephalic phase, gastric phase, and intestinal phase on the functions of the stomach and give examples for each phase.; N08.05 Explain the effect of the cephalic phase, gastric phase, and intestinal phase on the functions of the small intestine and give examples for each phase.; N08.06a For each of the following, state the organ or structure that produces the following hormones or paracrine agents gastrin, cholecystokinin, secretin, glucose-dependent insulinotropic peptide, histamine, somatostatin, and motilin.; N08.06b State the target organ of 24 Copyright 2019 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.
each of the following hormones or paracrine agents gastrin, cholecystokinin, secretin, glucosedependent insulinotropic peptide, histamine, somatostatin, and motilin.; N09.01 Provide specific examples to demonstrate how the digestive system responds to maintain homeostasis in the body. 30) Anders is born with a mutation in the gene for CCK and he produces and secretes an inactive form of this hormone. Which of the following would be TRUE of Anders' digestion? A) A reduction in the release of pancreatic enzymes B) A reduction in the release of HCl C) An increase in the release of bile D) An increase in the amount of bile salts present in the bile E) None of these would occur Answer: A Section: 15.05 Topic: Gross anatomy of the digestive tract; Gross anatomy of accessory digestive glands and organs; Hormonal and neural regulation of digestive processes Bloom's: Level 3. Apply HAPS Topic: Module N02 Gross and microscopic anatomy of the alimentary canal.; Module N03 Gross and microscopic anatomy of the accessory glands and organs.; Module N05 Motility in the alimentary canal.; Module N08 Hormonal and neural regulation of digestive processes.; Module N09 Application of homeostatic mechanisms.; Module J05 Identity, source, secretory control, and functional roles of the major hormones produced by the body. HAPS Outcome: N08.06c Describe the action of the following hormones or paracrine agents gastrin, cholecystokinin, secretin, glucose-dependent insulinotropic peptide, histamine, somatostatin, and motilin.; J05.11a In the gastrointestinal tract, describe the stimulus for release of gastrin, secretin, cholecystokinin, motilin and gastric inhibiting peptide.; J05.11b In the gastrointestinal tract, identify the gland or endocrine tissue/organ and the cells within that gland/tissue/organ that produce gastrin, secretin, cholecystokinin, motilin and gastric inhibiting peptide.; J05.11c In the gastrointestinal tract, name the target tissue or cells for gastrin, secretin, cholecystokinin, motilin and gastric inhibiting peptide hormone and describe the effect(s) of the hormone on the target tissue or cells.; N02.05e Identify the structure of a gastric gland including the location of the chief (zymogenic) cells, parietal (oxynic) cells, enteroendocrine cells, and mucous cells, and discuss the functions of these different cell types in the stomach.; N03.02e Identify the hepatic duct, cystic duct, gallbladder, common bile duct, sphincter of the hepatopancreatic ampulla (ampulla of Vater and sphincter of Oddi) and discuss the roles of those structures in the flow of bile.; N05.03 Explain how volume, chemical composition, and osmolarity of the chyme affect motility in the stomach and in the duodenum.; N08.04 Explain the effect of the cephalic phase, gastric phase, and intestinal phase on the functions of the stomach and give examples for each phase.; N08.05 Explain the effect of the cephalic phase, gastric phase, and intestinal phase on the functions of the small intestine and give examples for each phase.; N08.06a For each of the following, state the organ or structure that produces the following hormones or paracrine agents gastrin, cholecystokinin, secretin, glucose-dependent insulinotropic peptide, histamine, somatostatin, and motilin.; N08.06b State the target organ of each of the following hormones or paracrine agents gastrin, cholecystokinin, secretin, glucosedependent insulinotropic peptide, histamine, somatostatin, and motilin.; N09.01 Provide specific examples to demonstrate how the digestive system responds to maintain homeostasis in the body. 25 Copyright 2019 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.
31) Which is TRUE regarding the three phases of the control of HCl secretion? A) In the intestinal phase, an increase in osmolarity of the contents of the duodenum decreases HCl secretion. B) In the gastric phase, distension of the stomach decreases HCl secretion. C) In the cephalic phase, increased nutrient concentration in the duodenum stimulates HCl secretion. D) In the intestinal phase, increased peptide concentration in the stomach inhibits HCl secretion. E) In the gastric phase, decreased H+ concentration in the stomach inhibits HCl secretion. Answer: A Section: 15.05 Topic: Hormonal and neural regulation of digestive processes Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module N02 Gross and microscopic anatomy of the alimentary canal.; Module N06 Mechanical and chemical processes of digestion.; Module N08 Hormonal and neural regulation of digestive processes.; Module N09 Application of homeostatic mechanisms. HAPS Outcome: N02.05e Identify the structure of a gastric gland including the location of the chief (zymogenic) cells, parietal (oxynic) cells, enteroendocrine cells, and mucous cells, and discuss the functions of these different cell types in the stomach.; N08.04 Explain the effect of the cephalic phase, gastric phase, and intestinal phase on the functions of the stomach and give examples for each phase.; N09.01 Provide specific examples to demonstrate how the digestive system responds to maintain homeostasis in the body.; N06.03 Discuss the function, production, and regulation of secretion of hydrochloric acid (HCl).
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32) Which of the following pathways is activated during the cephalic phase of gastrointestinal control? A) Sympathetic nerves to enteric nervous system B) Secretion of cholecystokinin C) Secretion of secretin D) Parasympathetic nerves to enteric nervous system E) Short reflexes between the small intestine and stomach Answer: D Section: 15.05 Topic: Hormonal and neural regulation of digestive processes Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module N08 Hormonal and neural regulation of digestive processes.; Module N09 Application of homeostatic mechanisms.; Module J05 Identity, source, secretory control, and functional roles of the major hormones produced by the body. HAPS Outcome: J05.11a In the gastrointestinal tract, describe the stimulus for release of gastrin, secretin, cholecystokinin, motilin and gastric inhibiting peptide.; N08.04 Explain the effect of the cephalic phase, gastric phase, and intestinal phase on the functions of the stomach and give examples for each phase.; N08.05 Explain the effect of the cephalic phase, gastric phase, and intestinal phase on the functions of the small intestine and give examples for each phase.; N09.01 Provide specific examples to demonstrate how the digestive system responds to maintain homeostasis in the body.; N08.01 List the components of both a short reflex and a long reflex in the digestive system.; N08.02 Discuss regulation of reflexes by the enteric nervous system and the parasympathetic nervous system.
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33) During the cephalic phase of gastric stimulation, which of the following does NOT occur? A) Seeing, smelling, and/or tasting food reflexively increase(s) gastric acid secretion. B) Parasympathetic stimulation of secretory cells in the gastric mucosa occurs. C) Gastrin is secreted into the gastric lumen. D) HCl is secreted into the gastric lumen. E) Pepsinogen is secreted into the gastric lumen. Answer: C Section: 15.05 Topic: Gross anatomy of the digestive tract; Hormonal and neural regulation of digestive processes Bloom's: Level 2. Understand HAPS Topic: Module N02 Gross and microscopic anatomy of the alimentary canal.; Module N06 Mechanical and chemical processes of digestion.; Module N08 Hormonal and neural regulation of digestive processes.; Module N09 Application of homeostatic mechanisms.; Module J05 Identity, source, secretory control, and functional roles of the major hormones produced by the body. HAPS Outcome: J05.11a In the gastrointestinal tract, describe the stimulus for release of gastrin, secretin, cholecystokinin, motilin and gastric inhibiting peptide.; J05.11b In the gastrointestinal tract, identify the gland or endocrine tissue/organ and the cells within that gland/tissue/organ that produce gastrin, secretin, cholecystokinin, motilin and gastric inhibiting peptide.; N02.05e Identify the structure of a gastric gland including the location of the chief (zymogenic) cells, parietal (oxynic) cells, enteroendocrine cells, and mucous cells, and discuss the functions of these different cell types in the stomach.; N08.04 Explain the effect of the cephalic phase, gastric phase, and intestinal phase on the functions of the stomach and give examples for each phase.; N08.06a For each of the following, state the organ or structure that produces the following hormones or paracrine agents gastrin, cholecystokinin, secretin, glucose-dependent insulinotropic peptide, histamine, somatostatin, and motilin.; N09.01 Provide specific examples to demonstrate how the digestive system responds to maintain homeostasis in the body.; N06.02b List the organs and structures of the digestive system that function in enzymatic hydrolysis.; N06.03 Discuss the function, production, and regulation of secretion of hydrochloric acid (HCl).; N02.01a Identify, and describe the histological structure and the function of, each of the four layers of the alimentary canal wall - the mucosa, the submucosa, the muscularis externa, and the serosa (visceral peritoneum).; N08.02 Discuss regulation of reflexes by the enteric nervous system and the parasympathetic nervous system.
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34) Which of the following is NOT a part of the swallowing reflex? A) Respiration is inhibited. B) The glottis closes. C) The upper esophageal sphincter relaxes. D) The lower esophageal sphincter relaxes. E) The pyloric sphincter relaxes. Answer: E Section: 15.05 Topic: Gross anatomy of the digestive tract; Hormonal and neural regulation of digestive processes Bloom's: Level 2. Understand HAPS Topic: Module N02 Gross and microscopic anatomy of the alimentary canal.; Module N05 Motility in the alimentary canal. HAPS Outcome: N02.05a Describe the structure and discuss the function of the cardiac and pyloric sphincters of the stomach.; N02.04a Describe the structure and discuss the function of the upper esophageal and lower esophageal (cardiac) sphincters.; N05.01 List the structures involved in the process of deglutition and explain how they function, including the changes in position of the glottis and larynx that prevent aspiration. 35) The type of smooth muscle contraction occurring in the esophagus during swallowing is called A) peristalsis. B) mass movement. C) segmentation. D) distension. E) eccentric. Answer: A Section: 15.05 Topic: Hormonal and neural regulation of digestive processes Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module N05 Motility in the alimentary canal. HAPS Outcome: N05.02 Define the terms peristalsis, segmentation, migrating myoelectric complex, and mass movement, and discuss the role that these activities play in the function of various regions of the alimentary canal.; N05.01 List the structures involved in the process of deglutition and explain how they function, including the changes in position of the glottis and larynx that prevent aspiration.
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36) Which of these are secretions of the parietal cells of the gastric mucosa? A) HCl and pepsinogen B) pepsinogen and intrinsic factor C) gastrin and intrinsic factor D) HCl and gastrin E) HCl and intrinsic factor Answer: E Section: 15.05 Topic: Microscopic anatomy of accessory digestive glands and organs; Chemical digestion; Hormonal and neural regulation of digestive processes Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module N02 Gross and microscopic anatomy of the alimentary canal.; Module N06 Mechanical and chemical processes of digestion.; Module N07 Processes of absorption.; Module N08 Hormonal and neural regulation of digestive processes.; Module J05 Identity, source, secretory control, and functional roles of the major hormones produced by the body. HAPS Outcome: J05.11b In the gastrointestinal tract, identify the gland or endocrine tissue/organ and the cells within that gland/tissue/organ that produce gastrin, secretin, cholecystokinin, motilin and gastric inhibiting peptide.; N02.05e Identify the structure of a gastric gland including the location of the chief (zymogenic) cells, parietal (oxynic) cells, enteroendocrine cells, and mucous cells, and discuss the functions of these different cell types in the stomach.; N08.06a For each of the following, state the organ or structure that produces the following hormones or paracrine agents gastrin, cholecystokinin, secretin, glucose-dependent insulinotropic peptide, histamine, somatostatin, and motilin.; N06.02b List the organs and structures of the digestive system that function in enzymatic hydrolysis.; N06.03 Discuss the function, production, and regulation of secretion of hydrochloric acid (HCl).; N07.02 Discuss the absorption of fat-soluble and water-soluble vitamins and the absorption of vitamin B12.
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37) Which of the following is secreted by the chief cells of the gastric mucosa? A) Pepsinogen B) HCl C) Intrinsic factor D) Gastrin E) Pepsin Answer: A Section: 15.05 Topic: Microscopic anatomy of accessory digestive glands and organs; Chemical digestion; Hormonal and neural regulation of digestive processes Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module N02 Gross and microscopic anatomy of the alimentary canal.; Module N06 Mechanical and chemical processes of digestion.; Module N07 Processes of absorption.; Module N08 Hormonal and neural regulation of digestive processes.; Module J05 Identity, source, secretory control, and functional roles of the major hormones produced by the body. HAPS Outcome: J05.11b In the gastrointestinal tract, identify the gland or endocrine tissue/organ and the cells within that gland/tissue/organ that produce gastrin, secretin, cholecystokinin, motilin and gastric inhibiting peptide.; N02.05e Identify the structure of a gastric gland including the location of the chief (zymogenic) cells, parietal (oxynic) cells, enteroendocrine cells, and mucous cells, and discuss the functions of these different cell types in the stomach.; N08.06a For each of the following, state the organ or structure that produces the following hormones or paracrine agents gastrin, cholecystokinin, secretin, glucose-dependent insulinotropic peptide, histamine, somatostatin, and motilin.; N06.02b List the organs and structures of the digestive system that function in enzymatic hydrolysis.; N06.03 Discuss the function, production, and regulation of secretion of hydrochloric acid (HCl).; N06.02d Discuss the activation of specific enzymes, where applicable in enzymatic hydrolysis.; N07.02 Discuss the absorption of fat-soluble and water-soluble vitamins and the absorption of vitamin B12.
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38) Which occurs during the secretion of hydrochloric acid by gastric epithelial cells? A) There is a decrease in the pH of blood in the hepatic portal circulation. B) Bicarbonate ions are secreted into the hepatic portal circulation. C) Chloride ions are pumped from the cytosol of the gastric epithelial cells into the hepatic portal circulation blood. D) Both H+ and K+ are actively pumped from the epithelial cell cytosol into the lumen of the stomach. E) Vesicles containing H+/K+ -ATP-ase proteins are endocytosed into vesicles within the gastric epithelial cells. Answer: B Section: 15.05 Topic: Microscopic anatomy of the digestive tract; Gross anatomy of accessory digestive glands and organs; Chemical digestion Bloom's: Level 2. Understand HAPS Topic: Module N02 Gross and microscopic anatomy of the alimentary canal.; Module N03 Gross and microscopic anatomy of the accessory glands and organs.; Module N06 Mechanical and chemical processes of digestion. HAPS Outcome: N03.02c Identify the hepatic artery, hepatic portal vein, and hepatic vein and discuss the function of each of those blood vessels in the liver.; N02.05e Identify the structure of a gastric gland including the location of the chief (zymogenic) cells, parietal (oxynic) cells, enteroendocrine cells, and mucous cells, and discuss the functions of these different cell types in the stomach.; N06.03 Discuss the function, production, and regulation of secretion of hydrochloric acid (HCl).; N02.01a Identify, and describe the histological structure and the function of, each of the four layers of the alimentary canal wall - the mucosa, the submucosa, the muscularis externa, and the serosa (visceral peritoneum).
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39) Which is TRUE regarding the secretion of HCl in the stomach? A) H+ is actively transported into the gastric lumen by ATPase pumps in the mucosal membrane. B) H+ is actively cotransported into the lumen by secondary active transporters coupled to K+. C) The pH of the blood leaving the area of the parietal cells is lower than the normal ECF value of 7.4. D) H+ diffuses passively from mucosal epithelial cells into the lumen of the stomach, following Cl-. E) Cl- and HCO3- are exchanged across the luminal membrane of epithelial cells via a passive transport protein. Answer: A Section: 15.05 Topic: Microscopic anatomy of the digestive tract; Chemical digestion Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module N02 Gross and microscopic anatomy of the alimentary canal.; Module N06 Mechanical and chemical processes of digestion. HAPS Outcome: N02.05e Identify the structure of a gastric gland including the location of the chief (zymogenic) cells, parietal (oxynic) cells, enteroendocrine cells, and mucous cells, and discuss the functions of these different cell types in the stomach.; N06.03 Discuss the function, production, and regulation of secretion of hydrochloric acid (HCl).; N02.01a Identify, and describe the histological structure and the function of, each of the four layers of the alimentary canal wall - the mucosa, the submucosa, the muscularis externa, and the serosa (visceral peritoneum).
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40) During the contractions of gastric emptying A) the stomach is induced to contract by increased sympathetic activity. B) the pyloric sphincter opens to allow stomach contents to pass quickly and completely into the duodenum. C) the pyloric sphincter closes to allow only a small amount of liquefied chyme to pass into the duodenum with each contraction of the stomach. D) the strength of stomach wall contractions is increased when the duodenum secretes cholecystokinin. E) the strongest contractions are in the antrum of the stomach because the intrinsic pacemaker frequency is fastest there. Answer: C Section: 15.05 Topic: Gross anatomy of the digestive tract; Mechanical digestion; Hormonal and neural regulation of digestive processes Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module N02 Gross and microscopic anatomy of the alimentary canal.; Module N05 Motility in the alimentary canal.; Module N06 Mechanical and chemical processes of digestion.; Module N08 Hormonal and neural regulation of digestive processes.; Module J05 Identity, source, secretory control, and functional roles of the major hormones produced by the body. HAPS Outcome: J05.11d In the gastrointestinal tract, predict the larger effect that fluctuations in gastrin, secretin, cholecystokinin, motilin, gastric inhibiting peptide levels will have on conditions (variables) within the body.; N02.05a Describe the structure and discuss the function of the cardiac and pyloric sphincters of the stomach.; N02.05b Identify the structure and discuss the function of the cardiac region, the fundus, the body and the pyloric region of the stomach.; N05.02 Define the terms peristalsis, segmentation, migrating myoelectric complex, and mass movement, and discuss the role that these activities play in the function of various regions of the alimentary canal.; N06.01b List the organs and structures of the digestive system that function in mechanical digestion and explain the details of the process for each.; N08.06c Describe the action of the following hormones or paracrine agents gastrin, cholecystokinin, secretin, glucosedependent insulinotropic peptide, histamine, somatostatin, and motilin.; N08.04 Explain the effect of the cephalic phase, gastric phase, and intestinal phase on the functions of the stomach and give examples for each phase.; N08.02 Discuss regulation of reflexes by the enteric nervous system and the parasympathetic nervous system.
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41) Which of the following is the most potent inhibitor (directly or indirectly) of gastric motility and emptying? A) Fat in the duodenum B) Acid in the stomach C) Carbohydrate in the stomach D) Gastrin E) Distension of the stomach Answer: A Section: 15.05 Topic: Gross anatomy of the digestive tract; Mechanical digestion; Hormonal and neural regulation of digestive processes Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module N05 Motility in the alimentary canal.; Module N06 Mechanical and chemical processes of digestion.; Module N08 Hormonal and neural regulation of digestive processes.; Module J05 Identity, source, secretory control, and functional roles of the major hormones produced by the body. HAPS Outcome: J05.11d In the gastrointestinal tract, predict the larger effect that fluctuations in gastrin, secretin, cholecystokinin, motilin, gastric inhibiting peptide levels will have on conditions (variables) within the body.; N06.01b List the organs and structures of the digestive system that function in mechanical digestion and explain the details of the process for each.; N08.06c Describe the action of the following hormones or paracrine agents gastrin, cholecystokinin, secretin, glucose-dependent insulinotropic peptide, histamine, somatostatin, and motilin.; N05.03 Explain how volume, chemical composition, and osmolarity of the chyme affect motility in the stomach and in the duodenum.; N08.04 Explain the effect of the cephalic phase, gastric phase, and intestinal phase on the functions of the stomach and give examples for each phase. 42) Which of the following breakfasts would likely remain in the stomach longest? A) Toast, orange juice, and coffee B) Fried eggs, bacon, and hash browns C) A bowl of cereal with skim milk D) A boiled egg, toast, and juice E) The type of meal has no effect on the rate of gastric emptying. Answer: B Section: 15.05 Topic: Gross anatomy of the digestive tract; Hormonal and neural regulation of digestive processes Bloom's: Level 3. Apply HAPS Topic: Module N05 Motility in the alimentary canal.; Module N08 Hormonal and neural regulation of digestive processes. HAPS Outcome: N05.03 Explain how volume, chemical composition, and osmolarity of the chyme affect motility in the stomach and in the duodenum.; N08.04 Explain the effect of the cephalic phase, gastric phase, and intestinal phase on the functions of the stomach and give examples for each phase. 35 Copyright 2019 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.
43) Segmentation of the small intestine A) occurs only between meals, and functions to stimulate the secretion of gastrin and the resulting mass movements that empty the large intestine. B) occurs at a rate of 3 contractions per minute throughout the small intestine, although the strength of contractions is much greater in the ileum, which has a much thicker layer of smooth muscle in its walls. C) functions mainly to prevent any forward movement of chyme, so that all digestion and absorption is complete before undigestible materials move into the jejunum. D) are peristaltic movements that sweep undigestible materials out of the small intestine between meals. E) mixes chyme with digestive enzymes, brings food molecules near the wall for absorption, and slowly moves small intestine contents toward the cecum. Answer: E Section: 15.05 Topic: Gross anatomy of the digestive tract; Mechanical digestion Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module N02 Gross and microscopic anatomy of the alimentary canal.; Module N05 Motility in the alimentary canal.; Module N06 Mechanical and chemical processes of digestion.; Module J05 Identity, source, secretory control, and functional roles of the major hormones produced by the body. HAPS Outcome: N05.02 Define the terms peristalsis, segmentation, migrating myoelectric complex, and mass movement, and discuss the role that these activities play in the function of various regions of the alimentary canal.; N06.01b List the organs and structures of the digestive system that function in mechanical digestion and explain the details of the process for each.; J05.11a In the gastrointestinal tract, describe the stimulus for release of gastrin, secretin, cholecystokinin, motilin and gastric inhibiting peptide.; N02.06a Identify the location and discuss the relative length and the functions of the duodenum, jejunum, and ileum in the small intestine.; N05.04a Describe the defecation reflex and the function of the internal and external anal sphincters.
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44) The primary kind of motility in the stomach during digestion of a meal is A) peristalsis. B) segmentation. C) relaxation of the pyloric sphincter. D) mass movement. E) regurgitation. Answer: A Section: 15.05 Topic: Gross anatomy of the digestive tract; Mechanical digestion Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module N02 Gross and microscopic anatomy of the alimentary canal.; Module N05 Motility in the alimentary canal.; Module N06 Mechanical and chemical processes of digestion. HAPS Outcome: N02.05a Describe the structure and discuss the function of the cardiac and pyloric sphincters of the stomach.; N05.02 Define the terms peristalsis, segmentation, migrating myoelectric complex, and mass movement, and discuss the role that these activities play in the function of various regions of the alimentary canal.; N06.01b List the organs and structures of the digestive system that function in mechanical digestion and explain the details of the process for each. 45) You are working for an educational video company and you've been asked to go to the hospital imaging center to obtain video of segmentation. The imaging center technician asks you where in the GI tract she should image and when during digestion? You tell her that to obtain the best video of segmentation she should record A) the esophagus during swallowing. B) the stomach during digestion of a meal. C) the small intestine as chyme moves past the pyloric sphincter. D) the large intestine during fecal compaction. Answer: C Section: 15.05 Topic: Gross anatomy of the digestive tract; Mechanical digestion Bloom's: Level 3. Apply HAPS Topic: Module N02 Gross and microscopic anatomy of the alimentary canal.; Module N05 Motility in the alimentary canal.; Module N06 Mechanical and chemical processes of digestion. HAPS Outcome: N02.05a Describe the structure and discuss the function of the cardiac and pyloric sphincters of the stomach.; N05.02 Define the terms peristalsis, segmentation, migrating myoelectric complex, and mass movement, and discuss the role that these activities play in the function of various regions of the alimentary canal.; N06.01b List the organs and structures of the digestive system that function in mechanical digestion and explain the details of the process for each.
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46) Which is TRUE about gastric motility? A) The basic electrical rhythm of the gastric smooth muscle (three depolarizations per minute) is the same regardless of whether or not food is present. B) Gastric contractions are strongest in the fundus of the stomach. C) The force of contraction is decreased by gastrin and increased by enterogastrones. D) When a wave of excitation reaches the pyloric sphincter, action potentials become inhibitory and the sphincter opens wide to allow chyme to exit. E) The term "slow waves" refer to gastric contractions, while "pacemaker" refers to gastric action potentials. Answer: A Section: 15.05 Topic: Gross anatomy of the digestive tract; Mechanical digestion Bloom's: Level 2. Understand HAPS Topic: Module N02 Gross and microscopic anatomy of the alimentary canal.; Module N05 Motility in the alimentary canal.; Module N06 Mechanical and chemical processes of digestion.; Module N08 Hormonal and neural regulation of digestive processes.; Module J05 Identity, source, secretory control, and functional roles of the major hormones produced by the body. HAPS Outcome: J05.11d In the gastrointestinal tract, predict the larger effect that fluctuations in gastrin, secretin, cholecystokinin, motilin, gastric inhibiting peptide levels will have on conditions (variables) within the body.; N02.05a Describe the structure and discuss the function of the cardiac and pyloric sphincters of the stomach.; N02.05b Identify the structure and discuss the function of the cardiac region, the fundus, the body and the pyloric region of the stomach.; N05.02 Define the terms peristalsis, segmentation, migrating myoelectric complex, and mass movement, and discuss the role that these activities play in the function of various regions of the alimentary canal.; N06.01b List the organs and structures of the digestive system that function in mechanical digestion and explain the details of the process for each.; N08.06c Describe the action of the following hormones or paracrine agents gastrin, cholecystokinin, secretin, glucosedependent insulinotropic peptide, histamine, somatostatin, and motilin.
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47) Bicarbonate is A) secreted into the lumen by gastric epithelial cells and into the interstitial fluid by pancreatic duct cells. B) secreted into the lumen by pancreatic acinar (exocrine) cells, and into the interstitial fluid by pancreatic duct cells. C) secreted into the lumen by pancreatic duct cells, and into the interstitial fluid by pancreatic acinar (exocrine) cells. D) secreted into the interstitial fluid by gastric epithelial cells, and into the lumen by pancreatic duct cells. E) secreted into the lumen by both gastric epithelial cells and pancreatic duct cells. Answer: D Section: 15.05 Topic: Microscopic anatomy of the digestive tract; Microscopic anatomy of accessory digestive glands and organs; Chemical digestion Bloom's: Level 2. Understand HAPS Topic: Module N02 Gross and microscopic anatomy of the alimentary canal.; Module N03 Gross and microscopic anatomy of the accessory glands and organs.; Module N06 Mechanical and chemical processes of digestion. HAPS Outcome: N02.05e Identify the structure of a gastric gland including the location of the chief (zymogenic) cells, parietal (oxynic) cells, enteroendocrine cells, and mucous cells, and discuss the functions of these different cell types in the stomach.; N03.03b Identify the pancreatic acini and discuss their functions.; N06.03 Discuss the function, production, and regulation of secretion of hydrochloric acid (HCl).; N02.01a Identify, and describe the histological structure and the function of, each of the four layers of the alimentary canal wall the mucosa, the submucosa, the muscularis externa, and the serosa (visceral peritoneum).; N03.03d Identify the pancreatic duct and the hepatopancreatic sphincter and discuss their roles in the flow of pancreatic enzymes.
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48) Following diagnosis with pancreatic cancer, Neil had a large portion of his pancreas removed. All of the following will now be found in lower amounts in Neil's GI tract, except one. Which of the following will NOT be affected? A) Bicarbonate ions B) Amylase C) Bile salts D) Trypsinogen E) Lipase Answer: C Section: 15.01; 15.03; 15.04; 15.05 Topic: Microscopic anatomy of accessory digestive glands and organs; Chemical digestion Bloom's: Level 3. Apply HAPS Topic: Module N03 Gross and microscopic anatomy of the accessory glands and organs.; Module N06 Mechanical and chemical processes of digestion. HAPS Outcome: N03.02d Identify the histological components of a liver lobule (including hepatocytes, hepatic sinusoids, Kupffer cells, bile canaliculi, central vein, and the components of a hepatic triad) and discuss the function of each.; N03.03b Identify the pancreatic acini and discuss their functions.; N06.02b List the organs and structures of the digestive system that function in enzymatic hydrolysis.; N03.03d Identify the pancreatic duct and the hepatopancreatic sphincter and discuss their roles in the flow of pancreatic enzymes.; N06.04b List the organs and structures of the digestive system that function in the process of emulsification. 49) Which of the following statements about pancreatic enzymes is FALSE? A) Trypsinogen is secreted in an inactive form. B) Pancreatic amylase digests carbohydrates. C) Pancreatic lipase digests fats. D) Except for trypsinogen, other proteolytic enzymes are secreted in active form. E) Trypsinogen is activated by enterokinase. Answer: D Section: 15.05 Topic: Gross anatomy of accessory digestive glands and organs; Chemical digestion Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module N03 Gross and microscopic anatomy of the accessory glands and organs.; Module N06 Mechanical and chemical processes of digestion. HAPS Outcome: N03.03b Identify the pancreatic acini and discuss their functions.; N06.02b List the organs and structures of the digestive system that function in enzymatic hydrolysis.; N06.02e List the substrates and products of enzymatic hydrolysis for each enzyme.; N06.02c List the enzymes used in enzymatic hydrolysis.; N06.02d Discuss the activation of specific enzymes, where applicable in enzymatic hydrolysis.
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50) Following diagnosis with pancreatic cancer, Neil had a large portion of his pancreas removed. Which of the following hormones will now be found in lower amounts? A) Vasopressin B) Thryoid hormone C) CCK D) Oxytocin E) Insulin Answer: E Section: 15.05 Topic: Microscopic anatomy of accessory digestive glands and organs Bloom's: Level 3. Apply HAPS Topic: Module N02 Gross and microscopic anatomy of the alimentary canal.; Module N03 Gross and microscopic anatomy of the accessory glands and organs.; Module J05 Identity, source, secretory control, and functional roles of the major hormones produced by the body. HAPS Outcome: N02.06a Identify the location and discuss the relative length and the functions of the duodenum, jejunum, and ileum in the small intestine.; N03.03b Identify the pancreatic acini and discuss their functions.; J05.07b In the pancreas, identify the gland or endocrine tissue/organ and the cells within that gland/tissue/organ that produce insulin and glucagon.; N03.03c Identify the pancreatic islets and discuss their functions.
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51) Elizabeth suffers from a gastric ulcer. She experiences pain during the times when acid is released into the stomach. Which of the following times is Elizabeth likely to experience the most pain? A) Elizabeth is likely to be in the same amount of pain all the time. B) During the digestion of a high-fat meal, such as greasy French fries. C) During the digestion of a high-protein meal, such as a steak. D) During periods of hunger. E) During digestion of a high-carbohydrate meal, such as a bagel. Answer: C Section: 15.04; 15.05 Topic: Gross anatomy of the digestive tract; Chemical digestion; Hormonal and neural regulation of digestive processes Bloom's: Level 3. Apply HAPS Topic: Module N02 Gross and microscopic anatomy of the alimentary canal.; Module N06 Mechanical and chemical processes of digestion.; Module N08 Hormonal and neural regulation of digestive processes.; Module N09 Application of homeostatic mechanisms.; Module J05 Identity, source, secretory control, and functional roles of the major hormones produced by the body. HAPS Outcome: N02.05a Describe the structure and discuss the function of the cardiac and pyloric sphincters of the stomach.; J05.11a In the gastrointestinal tract, describe the stimulus for release of gastrin, secretin, cholecystokinin, motilin and gastric inhibiting peptide.; N02.05e Identify the structure of a gastric gland including the location of the chief (zymogenic) cells, parietal (oxynic) cells, enteroendocrine cells, and mucous cells, and discuss the functions of these different cell types in the stomach.; N02.06a Identify the location and discuss the relative length and the functions of the duodenum, jejunum, and ileum in the small intestine.; N08.04 Explain the effect of the cephalic phase, gastric phase, and intestinal phase on the functions of the stomach and give examples for each phase.; N09.01 Provide specific examples to demonstrate how the digestive system responds to maintain homeostasis in the body.; N06.02b List the organs and structures of the digestive system that function in enzymatic hydrolysis.; N06.03 Discuss the function, production, and regulation of secretion of hydrochloric acid (HCl).; N06.02d Discuss the activation of specific enzymes, where applicable in enzymatic hydrolysis.; N06.02f Discuss the mechanisms used to regulate secretion and/or activation of each enzyme in enzymatic hydrolysis.
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52) Bile is synthesized and secreted by the A) gallbladder. B) gastric mucosa. C) pancreas. D) duodenum. E) liver. Answer: E Section: 15.03; 15.05 Topic: Gross anatomy of the digestive tract; Gross anatomy of accessory digestive glands and organs; Chemical digestion Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module N02 Gross and microscopic anatomy of the alimentary canal.; Module N03 Gross and microscopic anatomy of the accessory glands and organs.; Module N06 Mechanical and chemical processes of digestion. HAPS Outcome: N03.02d Identify the histological components of a liver lobule (including hepatocytes, hepatic sinusoids, Kupffer cells, bile canaliculi, central vein, and the components of a hepatic triad) and discuss the function of each.; N02.05e Identify the structure of a gastric gland including the location of the chief (zymogenic) cells, parietal (oxynic) cells, enteroendocrine cells, and mucous cells, and discuss the functions of these different cell types in the stomach.; N02.06a Identify the location and discuss the relative length and the functions of the duodenum, jejunum, and ileum in the small intestine.; N03.02e Identify the hepatic duct, cystic duct, gallbladder, common bile duct, sphincter of the hepatopancreatic ampulla (ampulla of Vater and sphincter of Oddi) and discuss the roles of those structures in the flow of bile.; N03.03b Identify the pancreatic acini and discuss their functions.; N02.01a Identify, and describe the histological structure and the function of, each of the four layers of the alimentary canal wall - the mucosa, the submucosa, the muscularis externa, and the serosa (visceral peritoneum).; N06.04b List the organs and structures of the digestive system that function in the process of emulsification.
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53) A person without a gallbladder A) cannot secrete bile. B) cannot store bile. C) will have no difficulty digesting a large, fat-rich meal. D) cannot digest fats. E) cannot store lipase. Answer: B Section: 15.03; 15.05; 15.06 Topic: Gross anatomy of accessory digestive glands and organs; Mechanical digestion; Chemical digestion; Clinical applications of the digestive system Bloom's: Level 2. Understand HAPS Topic: Module N03 Gross and microscopic anatomy of the accessory glands and organs.; Module N06 Mechanical and chemical processes of digestion.; Module N10 Predictions related to homeostatic imbalance, including disease states and disorders. HAPS Outcome: N03.02d Identify the histological components of a liver lobule (including hepatocytes, hepatic sinusoids, Kupffer cells, bile canaliculi, central vein, and the components of a hepatic triad) and discuss the function of each.; N10.01 Predict factors or situations affecting the digestive system that could disrupt homeostasis.; N03.02e Identify the hepatic duct, cystic duct, gallbladder, common bile duct, sphincter of the hepatopancreatic ampulla (ampulla of Vater and sphincter of Oddi) and discuss the roles of those structures in the flow of bile.; N03.03b Identify the pancreatic acini and discuss their functions.; N06.04b List the organs and structures of the digestive system that function in the process of emulsification.; N06.04a Define emulsification and describe the process. 54) Kim had her gallbladder removed last month and has been experiencing some changes to her digestion. One thing that is particularly noticeable is that she has noticed A) she has trouble digesting high-protein foods such as egg whites. B) she has trouble digesting high-carbohydrate foods such as rice and pasta. C) her feces have a different color. D) she feels more energetic and healthy. E) an increase in her appetite. Answer: C Section: 15.05 Topic: General functions of the digestive system; Chemical digestion Bloom's: Level 3. Apply HAPS Topic: Module N02 Gross and microscopic anatomy of the alimentary canal.; Module N06 Mechanical and chemical processes of digestion.; Module N07 Processes of absorption.; Module K03 Identity, microscopic anatomy, numbers, formation, and functional roles of the formed elements of blood. HAPS Outcome: N02.06a Identify the location and discuss the relative length and the functions of the duodenum, jejunum, and ileum in the small intestine.; N07.03 Discuss the enterohepatic circulation of bile salts.; N06.04a Define emulsification and describe the process.; K03.03b With respect to the functional roles of formed elements, discuss the structure and function of hemoglobin, as well as its breakdown products. 44 Copyright 2019 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.
55) In which region(s) of the GI tract do peristaltic contractions occur? A) The small intestine B) The large intestine C) The stomach D) The esophagus E) All of these options are correct. Answer: E Section: 15.01; 15.02; 15.05 Topic: Gross anatomy of the digestive tract; Mechanical digestion Bloom's: Level 2. Understand HAPS Topic: Module N05 Motility in the alimentary canal.; Module N06 Mechanical and chemical processes of digestion. HAPS Outcome: N05.02 Define the terms peristalsis, segmentation, migrating myoelectric complex, and mass movement, and discuss the role that these activities play in the function of various regions of the alimentary canal.; N06.01b List the organs and structures of the digestive system that function in mechanical digestion and explain the details of the process for each. 56) The primary kind of motility in the small intestine during digestion of a meal is A) peristalsis. B) segmentation. C) receptive relaxation. D) migrating motility complex. E) mass movement. Answer: B Section: 15.05 Topic: Gross anatomy of the digestive tract; Mechanical digestion Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module N05 Motility in the alimentary canal.; Module N06 Mechanical and chemical processes of digestion. HAPS Outcome: N05.02 Define the terms peristalsis, segmentation, migrating myoelectric complex, and mass movement, and discuss the role that these activities play in the function of various regions of the alimentary canal.; N06.01b List the organs and structures of the digestive system that function in mechanical digestion and explain the details of the process for each.
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57) Elizabeth has been diagnosed with a gastric ulcer. Carl has been diagnosed with a duodenal ulcer. Both of them are A) treated by interventions that inhibit digestive enzymes. B) caused by hypersecretion of gastric acid. C) treated by interventions that inhibit acid secretion. D) caused by removal of the gallbladder. E) found in the large intestine. Answer: C Section: 15.06 Topic: Gross anatomy of the digestive tract; Clinical applications of the digestive system Bloom's: Level 3. Apply HAPS Topic: Module N02 Gross and microscopic anatomy of the alimentary canal.; Module N06 Mechanical and chemical processes of digestion.; Module N10 Predictions related to homeostatic imbalance, including disease states and disorders. HAPS Outcome: N10.01 Predict factors or situations affecting the digestive system that could disrupt homeostasis.; N10.02 Predict the types of problems that would occur in the body if the digestive system could not maintain homeostasis.; N06.03 Discuss the function, production, and regulation of secretion of hydrochloric acid (HCl).; N02.01a Identify, and describe the histological structure and the function of, each of the four layers of the alimentary canal wall the mucosa, the submucosa, the muscularis externa, and the serosa (visceral peritoneum). 58) Julia comes to see her doctor with a variety of symptoms. Her doctor eventually diagnoses her with gallstones. Which of the following was NOT one of Julia's symptoms? A) Lactose intolerance B) Abdominal pain C) Difficulty digesting high-fat meals D) Nutritional deficiencies E) Jaundice Answer: A Section: 15.06 Topic: Gross anatomy of accessory digestive glands and organs; Clinical applications of the digestive system Bloom's: Level 3. Apply HAPS Topic: Module N03 Gross and microscopic anatomy of the accessory glands and organs.; Module N06 Mechanical and chemical processes of digestion.; Module N10 Predictions related to homeostatic imbalance, including disease states and disorders. HAPS Outcome: N10.01 Predict factors or situations affecting the digestive system that could disrupt homeostasis.; N10.02 Predict the types of problems that would occur in the body if the digestive system could not maintain homeostasis.; N03.02e Identify the hepatic duct, cystic duct, gallbladder, common bile duct, sphincter of the hepatopancreatic ampulla (ampulla of Vater and sphincter of Oddi) and discuss the roles of those structures in the flow of bile.; N06.04b List the organs and structures of the digestive system that function in the process of emulsification.
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59) Which of the following would be most likely to cause metabolic alkalosis? A) Severe vomiting B) Severe diarrhea C) Hyperventilation D) Strenuous exercise E) Hypoventilation Answer: A Section: 15.06 Topic: Clinical applications of the digestive system Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module N06 Mechanical and chemical processes of digestion.; Module N10 Predictions related to homeostatic imbalance, including disease states and disorders.; Module M07 Control of pulmonary ventilation; Module Q06 Role of the respiratory and urinary systems in acid/base balance; Module Q08 Predicitons related to homeostatic imbalance, including disease states and disorders. HAPS Outcome: N10.01 Predict factors or situations affecting the digestive system that could disrupt homeostasis.; N10.02 Predict the types of problems that would occur in the body if the digestive system could not maintain homeostasis.; N06.03 Discuss the function, production, and regulation of secretion of hydrochloric acid (HCl).; M07.04 Define hyperventilation, hypoventilation, panting, eupnea, hyperpnea and apnea.; Q06.02 Describe the role of the respiratory system in regulation of blood pH and predict how hypo- and hyperventilation will affect blood pH.; Q08.02 Predict factors or situations that would lead to a disruption of homeostasis by causing respiratory acidosis, respiratory alkalosis, metabolic acidosis, or metabolic alkalosis.
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60) There is an E. coli outbreak in the town of Springfield when almost all the Springfield residents contracted food poisoning at a town hall meeting. E. coli causes severe diarrhea. The local Springfield pharmacy is ordering supplies to stock its shelves as its customers work their way through the outbreak. Which of the following would be helpful for the pharmacy to stock? A) Antacids to help the residents recover from acidosis B) Acidic foods such lemonade to help the residents recover from alkalosis C) Diuretic drugs to help the residents recover from high blood pressure D) Vitamin B12 supplements to help the residents recover from this specific deficiency E) All of these would be helpful Answer: A Section: 15.06 Topic: Clinical applications of the digestive system Bloom's: Level 3. Apply HAPS Topic: Module N06 Mechanical and chemical processes of digestion.; Module N10 Predictions related to homeostatic imbalance, including disease states and disorders.; Module M07 Control of pulmonary ventilation; Module Q08 Predicitons related to homeostatic imbalance, including disease states and disorders. HAPS Outcome: N10.01 Predict factors or situations affecting the digestive system that could disrupt homeostasis.; N10.02 Predict the types of problems that would occur in the body if the digestive system could not maintain homeostasis.; N06.03 Discuss the function, production, and regulation of secretion of hydrochloric acid (HCl).; M07.04 Define hyperventilation, hypoventilation, panting, eupnea, hyperpnea and apnea.; Q08.02 Predict factors or situations that would lead to a disruption of homeostasis by causing respiratory acidosis, respiratory alkalosis, metabolic acidosis, or metabolic alkalosis.
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61) Which of the following would be most likely to cause metabolic acidosis? A) Severe vomiting B) Severe diarrhea C) Hyperventilation D) Hypoventilation E) Traveling to high altitude Answer: B Section: 15.06 Topic: Clinical applications of the digestive system Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module N06 Mechanical and chemical processes of digestion.; Module N10 Predictions related to homeostatic imbalance, including disease states and disorders.; Module M07 Control of pulmonary ventilation; Module Q06 Role of the respiratory and urinary systems in acid/base balance; Module Q08 Predicitons related to homeostatic imbalance, including disease states and disorders. HAPS Outcome: N10.01 Predict factors or situations affecting the digestive system that could disrupt homeostasis.; N10.02 Predict the types of problems that would occur in the body if the digestive system could not maintain homeostasis.; N06.03 Discuss the function, production, and regulation of secretion of hydrochloric acid (HCl).; M07.04 Define hyperventilation, hypoventilation, panting, eupnea, hyperpnea and apnea.; Q06.02 Describe the role of the respiratory system in regulation of blood pH and predict how hypo- and hyperventilation will affect blood pH.; Q08.02 Predict factors or situations that would lead to a disruption of homeostasis by causing respiratory acidosis, respiratory alkalosis, metabolic acidosis, or metabolic alkalosis.
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62) Lactose intolerance A) is an inability to digest milk sugar. B) is most common in very young children. C) results from the inability to secrete insulin. D) results from removal of the gallbladder. E) is an inability to digest proteins. Answer: A Section: 15.06 Topic: Chemical digestion; Clinical applications of the digestive system Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module N03 Gross and microscopic anatomy of the accessory glands and organs.; Module N06 Mechanical and chemical processes of digestion.; Module N10 Predictions related to homeostatic imbalance, including disease states and disorders.; Module J05 Identity, source, secretory control, and functional roles of the major hormones produced by the body. HAPS Outcome: N10.01 Predict factors or situations affecting the digestive system that could disrupt homeostasis.; N03.02e Identify the hepatic duct, cystic duct, gallbladder, common bile duct, sphincter of the hepatopancreatic ampulla (ampulla of Vater and sphincter of Oddi) and discuss the roles of those structures in the flow of bile.; N06.02e List the substrates and products of enzymatic hydrolysis for each enzyme.; N06.02c List the enzymes used in enzymatic hydrolysis.; J05.07d In the pancreas, predict the larger effect that fluctuations in insulin and glucagon levels will have on conditions (variables) within the body. 63) Barry's children seem to be struggling often with constipation. To help prevent it, their pediatrician recommends A) avoiding foods that can lead to accumulation of toxins in feces. B) making the children sit on the toilet until they defecate at least once a day. C) feeding the children foods with a high proportion of cellulose and other indigestible carbohydrates. D) feeding the children foods with more lipid content. E) avoiding milk, the children may be lactose intolerant. Answer: C Section: 15.06 Topic: Gross anatomy of the digestive tract; Mechanical digestion; Clinical applications of the digestive system Bloom's: Level 3. Apply HAPS Topic: Module N05 Motility in the alimentary canal.; Module N10 Predictions related to homeostatic imbalance, including disease states and disorders. HAPS Outcome: N10.01 Predict factors or situations affecting the digestive system that could disrupt homeostasis.; N10.02 Predict the types of problems that would occur in the body if the digestive system could not maintain homeostasis.; N05.04b Explain the effect of rectal distension in the defecation reflex.
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64) A bacterium that has been associated with ulcers is A) Eschericia coli. B) Clostridium difficile. C) Staphylococcus aureus. D) Helicobacter pylori. E) Streptococcus pyogenes. Answer: D Section: 15.06 Topic: Clinical applications of the digestive system Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module N10 Predictions related to homeostatic imbalance, including disease states and disorders. HAPS Outcome: N10.01 Predict factors or situations affecting the digestive system that could disrupt homeostasis.; N10.02 Predict the types of problems that would occur in the body if the digestive system could not maintain homeostasis. 65) The enzyme lactase A) is involved directly in the digestion of proteins. B) is necessary for the breakdown of milk fats. C) is embedded in the luminal plasma membranes of intestinal epithelial cells. D) promotes the formation of and storage of bile by the gallbladder. E) is overproduced and released by secretory cells in the small intestine in the condition known as lactose intolerance. Answer: C Section: 15.06 Topic: Microscopic anatomy of the digestive tract; Chemical digestion Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module N02 Gross and microscopic anatomy of the alimentary canal.; Module N06 Mechanical and chemical processes of digestion.; Module N10 Predictions related to homeostatic imbalance, including disease states and disorders. HAPS Outcome: N10.01 Predict factors or situations affecting the digestive system that could disrupt homeostasis.; N02.06a Identify the location and discuss the relative length and the functions of the duodenum, jejunum, and ileum in the small intestine.; N06.02b List the organs and structures of the digestive system that function in enzymatic hydrolysis.; N02.01a Identify, and describe the histological structure and the function of, each of the four layers of the alimentary canal wall - the mucosa, the submucosa, the muscularis externa, and the serosa (visceral peritoneum).; N06.04b List the organs and structures of the digestive system that function in the process of emulsification.; N06.02e List the substrates and products of enzymatic hydrolysis for each enzyme.; N06.02c List the enzymes used in enzymatic hydrolysis.
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66) Which of the following is NOT characteristic of inflammatory bowel disease (IBD)? A) Bleeding, edema, and ulceration anywhere along the gastrointestinal tract B) Pain relief when changing to a diet higher in fiber C) Perforations in the mucosa and intestinal wall, leading to infection by bacteria, which are normally present and benign D) Inflammation and thickening of the bowel wall to the point of preventing the usual passage of feces E) Pain in the lower right abdomen frequently mistaken for appendicitis Answer: B Section: 15.08 Topic: Microscopic anatomy of the digestive tract; Clinical applications of the digestive system Bloom's: Level 2. Understand HAPS Topic: Module N02 Gross and microscopic anatomy of the alimentary canal.; Module N10 Predictions related to homeostatic imbalance, including disease states and disorders. HAPS Outcome: N10.01 Predict factors or situations affecting the digestive system that could disrupt homeostasis.; N10.02 Predict the types of problems that would occur in the body if the digestive system could not maintain homeostasis.; N02.01a Identify, and describe the histological structure and the function of, each of the four layers of the alimentary canal wall the mucosa, the submucosa, the muscularis externa, and the serosa (visceral peritoneum). 67) The exact causes of inflammatory bowel diseases continue to be explored, but it is relatively clear that A) it is equally common among people of all ages and racial groups within the population. B) it is likely to result from a combination of environmental and genetic factors. C) individuals suffering from its effects are largely experiencing the consequences of the absence of immune mechanisms in the gastrointestinal tract. D) it can be easily diagnosed since its symptoms are always very specific and the affected areas are always limited to a very focused area within the small intestine. E) the cause is allergy to a single particular food, and patients get immediate relief by simply not eating that food. Answer: B Section: 15.08 Topic: Clinical applications of the digestive system Bloom's: Level 2. Understand HAPS Topic: Module N10 Predictions related to homeostatic imbalance, including disease states and disorders. HAPS Outcome: N10.01 Predict factors or situations affecting the digestive system that could disrupt homeostasis.; N10.02 Predict the types of problems that would occur in the body if the digestive system could not maintain homeostasis.
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68) The lumen of the gastrointestinal tract is continuous with the external environment. Answer: TRUE Section: 15.01 Topic: Microscopic anatomy of the digestive tract; Gross anatomy of the digestive tract Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module N02 Gross and microscopic anatomy of the alimentary canal. HAPS Outcome: N02.01a Identify, and describe the histological structure and the function of, each of the four layers of the alimentary canal wall - the mucosa, the submucosa, the muscularis externa, and the serosa (visceral peritoneum). 69) The liver contributes to GI function, although it is not technically part of the gastrointestinal tract. Answer: TRUE Section: 15.01; 15.05 Topic: Gross anatomy of the digestive tract Bloom's: Level 2. Understand HAPS Topic: Module N03 Gross and microscopic anatomy of the accessory glands and organs. HAPS Outcome: N03.02c Identify the hepatic artery, hepatic portal vein, and hepatic vein and discuss the function of each of those blood vessels in the liver.; N03.02d Identify the histological components of a liver lobule (including hepatocytes, hepatic sinusoids, Kupffer cells, bile canaliculi, central vein, and the components of a hepatic triad) and discuss the function of each. 70) The pH of the contents of the stomach lumen is considerably higher than that of interstitial fluid. Answer: FALSE Section: 15.05 Topic: Gross anatomy of the digestive tract; Chemical digestion Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module N02 Gross and microscopic anatomy of the alimentary canal.; Module N06 Mechanical and chemical processes of digestion. HAPS Outcome: N02.05e Identify the structure of a gastric gland including the location of the chief (zymogenic) cells, parietal (oxynic) cells, enteroendocrine cells, and mucous cells, and discuss the functions of these different cell types in the stomach.; N06.03 Discuss the function, production, and regulation of secretion of hydrochloric acid (HCl).
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71) The volume of fluids secreted by the gastrointestinal tract in a typical day is far greater than the volume of food and drink ingested. Answer: TRUE Section: 15.03 Topic: General functions of the digestive system Bloom's: Level 2. Understand HAPS Topic: Module N02 Gross and microscopic anatomy of the alimentary canal.; Module N03 Gross and microscopic anatomy of the accessory glands and organs.; Module Q01 Regulation of water intake and output HAPS Outcome: N02.05b Identify the structure and discuss the function of the cardiac region, the fundus, the body and the pyloric region of the stomach.; N03.02d Identify the histological components of a liver lobule (including hepatocytes, hepatic sinusoids, Kupffer cells, bile canaliculi, central vein, and the components of a hepatic triad) and discuss the function of each.; N02.06a Identify the location and discuss the relative length and the functions of the duodenum, jejunum, and ileum in the small intestine.; N03.01b Contrast the histology and the products of the serous cells and the mucous cells in the salivary glands.; N03.03d Identify the pancreatic duct and the hepatopancreatic sphincter and discuss their roles in the flow of pancreatic enzymes.; Q01.01 List and describe the routes of water entry into the body and state representative volumes for each.; Q01.02 List and describe the routes of water loss from the body and state representative volumes for each. 72) During cholera infection, which causes severe diarrhea, the primary acute danger to one's health is dehydration. In terms of water balance, this is due to the loss of fluids added to the GI tract more than due to a decreased volume of ingested fluids. Answer: TRUE Section: 15.03 Topic: General functions of the digestive system Bloom's: Level 3. Apply HAPS Topic: Module N02 Gross and microscopic anatomy of the alimentary canal.; Module N03 Gross and microscopic anatomy of the accessory glands and organs.; Module Q01 Regulation of water intake and output HAPS Outcome: N02.05b Identify the structure and discuss the function of the cardiac region, the fundus, the body and the pyloric region of the stomach.; N03.02d Identify the histological components of a liver lobule (including hepatocytes, hepatic sinusoids, Kupffer cells, bile canaliculi, central vein, and the components of a hepatic triad) and discuss the function of each.; N02.06a Identify the location and discuss the relative length and the functions of the duodenum, jejunum, and ileum in the small intestine.; N03.01b Contrast the histology and the products of the serous cells and the mucous cells in the salivary glands.; N03.03d Identify the pancreatic duct and the hepatopancreatic sphincter and discuss their roles in the flow of pancreatic enzymes.; Q01.01 List and describe the routes of water entry into the body and state representative volumes for each.; Q01.02 List and describe the routes of water loss from the body and state representative volumes for each.
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73) Glucose absorption across the luminal membrane of intestinal epithelial cells occurs by secondary active transport. Answer: TRUE Section: 15.04 Topic: Microscopic anatomy of the digestive tract; Processes of absorption Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module N02 Gross and microscopic anatomy of the alimentary canal.; Module N07 Processes of absorption. HAPS Outcome: N02.06a Identify the location and discuss the relative length and the functions of the duodenum, jejunum, and ileum in the small intestine.; N02.01a Identify, and describe the histological structure and the function of, each of the four layers of the alimentary canal wall the mucosa, the submucosa, the muscularis externa, and the serosa (visceral peritoneum).; N07.01b Explain the processes involved in absorption of monosaccharides, peptides and amino acids, and fatty acids and monoglycerides.; N02.06b Identify and discuss the histology and functions of the plicae circulares, villi, and microvilli in the small intestine.; N07.01a List the organs and specific structures involved in the absorption monosaccharides, peptides and amino acids, and fatty acids and monoglycerides. 74) Polysaccharides must be broken down to disaccharides in order to be absorbed. Answer: FALSE Section: 15.04 Topic: Chemical digestion; Processes of absorption Bloom's: Level 2. Understand HAPS Topic: Module N06 Mechanical and chemical processes of digestion.; Module N07 Processes of absorption. HAPS Outcome: N06.02e List the substrates and products of enzymatic hydrolysis for each enzyme.; N07.01b Explain the processes involved in absorption of monosaccharides, peptides and amino acids, and fatty acids and monoglycerides.
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75) The products of lipid digestion diffuse into the intestinal epithelium as micelles. Answer: FALSE Section: 15.04 Topic: Microscopic anatomy of the digestive tract; Processes of absorption Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module N02 Gross and microscopic anatomy of the alimentary canal.; Module N07 Processes of absorption. HAPS Outcome: N02.06a Identify the location and discuss the relative length and the functions of the duodenum, jejunum, and ileum in the small intestine.; N02.01a Identify, and describe the histological structure and the function of, each of the four layers of the alimentary canal wall the mucosa, the submucosa, the muscularis externa, and the serosa (visceral peritoneum).; N07.01b Explain the processes involved in absorption of monosaccharides, peptides and amino acids, and fatty acids and monoglycerides.; N02.06b Identify and discuss the histology and functions of the plicae circulares, villi, and microvilli in the small intestine.; N07.01a List the organs and specific structures involved in the absorption monosaccharides, peptides and amino acids, and fatty acids and monoglycerides. 76) In patients lacking exocrine pancreas secretion, fat digestion is normal provided bile is still produced. Answer: FALSE Section: 15.04 Topic: Microscopic anatomy of accessory digestive glands and organs; Chemical digestion Bloom's: Level 3. Apply HAPS Topic: Module N03 Gross and microscopic anatomy of the accessory glands and organs.; Module N06 Mechanical and chemical processes of digestion. HAPS Outcome: N03.03b Identify the pancreatic acini and discuss their functions.; N06.02b List the organs and structures of the digestive system that function in enzymatic hydrolysis.; N06.02c List the enzymes used in enzymatic hydrolysis.; N06.04a Define emulsification and describe the process.
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77) The breakdown products of dietary triglycerides are resynthesized into triglycerides by intestinal cells and pass from these cells into lacteals. Answer: TRUE Section: 15.04 Topic: Microscopic anatomy of the digestive tract; Processes of absorption Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module N02 Gross and microscopic anatomy of the alimentary canal.; Module N07 Processes of absorption. HAPS Outcome: N07.01b Explain the processes involved in absorption of monosaccharides, peptides and amino acids, and fatty acids and monoglycerides.; N02.06b Identify and discuss the histology and functions of the plicae circulares, villi, and microvilli in the small intestine.; N07.01a List the organs and specific structures involved in the absorption monosaccharides, peptides and amino acids, and fatty acids and monoglycerides.; N02.01b Describe regional specializations in the histological structure of the alimentary canal and relate these specializations to the functions of the particular organs in which they are located. 78) Due to the route of fat absorption and transport in the body, fat-soluble toxins could have a greater effect on the body and brain than water-soluble toxins which are filtered first by the liver. Answer: TRUE Section: 15.04 Topic: Microscopic anatomy of the digestive tract; Processes of absorption Bloom's: Level 3. Apply HAPS Topic: Module N02 Gross and microscopic anatomy of the alimentary canal.; Module N07 Processes of absorption. HAPS Outcome: N07.01b Explain the processes involved in absorption of monosaccharides, peptides and amino acids, and fatty acids and monoglycerides.; N02.06b Identify and discuss the histology and functions of the plicae circulares, villi, and microvilli in the small intestine.; N07.01a List the organs and specific structures involved in the absorption monosaccharides, peptides and amino acids, and fatty acids and monoglycerides.; N02.01b Describe regional specializations in the histological structure of the alimentary canal and relate these specializations to the functions of the particular organs in which they are located. 79) Contraction of the circular smooth muscle in the gastrointestinal tract wall decreases the diameter of the lumen, while contraction of the longitudinal smooth muscle shortens the tract. Answer: TRUE Section: 15.02 Topic: Microscopic anatomy of the digestive tract Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module N02 Gross and microscopic anatomy of the alimentary canal. HAPS Outcome: N02.01a Identify, and describe the histological structure and the function of, each of the four layers of the alimentary canal wall - the mucosa, the submucosa, the muscularis externa, and the serosa (visceral peritoneum).
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80) Amino acids are mainly absorbed across the epithelial wall in the stomach. Answer: FALSE Section: 15.04 Topic: Microscopic anatomy of the digestive tract; Gross anatomy of the digestive tract; Processes of absorption Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module N02 Gross and microscopic anatomy of the alimentary canal.; Module N07 Processes of absorption. HAPS Outcome: N02.05b Identify the structure and discuss the function of the cardiac region, the fundus, the body and the pyloric region of the stomach.; N02.06a Identify the location and discuss the relative length and the functions of the duodenum, jejunum, and ileum in the small intestine.; N02.01a Identify, and describe the histological structure and the function of, each of the four layers of the alimentary canal wall - the mucosa, the submucosa, the muscularis externa, and the serosa (visceral peritoneum).; N02.06b Identify and discuss the histology and functions of the plicae circulares, villi, and microvilli in the small intestine.; N07.01a List the organs and specific structures involved in the absorption monosaccharides, peptides and amino acids, and fatty acids and monoglycerides. 81) Short chains of amino acids and some intact proteins are absorbed from the small intestine. Answer: TRUE Section: 15.04 Topic: Gross anatomy of the digestive tract; Processes of absorption Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module N02 Gross and microscopic anatomy of the alimentary canal.; Module N07 Processes of absorption. HAPS Outcome: N02.06a Identify the location and discuss the relative length and the functions of the duodenum, jejunum, and ileum in the small intestine.; N07.01b Explain the processes involved in absorption of monosaccharides, peptides and amino acids, and fatty acids and monoglycerides.; N02.06b Identify and discuss the histology and functions of the plicae circulares, villi, and microvilli in the small intestine.; N07.01a List the organs and specific structures involved in the absorption monosaccharides, peptides and amino acids, and fatty acids and monoglycerides.
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82) Three enzymes important for protein digestion are trypsin, chymotrypsin, and pepsin. Answer: TRUE Section: 15.05 Topic: Gross anatomy of accessory digestive glands and organs; Chemical digestion Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module N02 Gross and microscopic anatomy of the alimentary canal.; Module N03 Gross and microscopic anatomy of the accessory glands and organs.; Module N06 Mechanical and chemical processes of digestion. HAPS Outcome: N02.05e Identify the structure of a gastric gland including the location of the chief (zymogenic) cells, parietal (oxynic) cells, enteroendocrine cells, and mucous cells, and discuss the functions of these different cell types in the stomach.; N03.03b Identify the pancreatic acini and discuss their functions.; N06.02b List the organs and structures of the digestive system that function in enzymatic hydrolysis.; N06.02c List the enzymes used in enzymatic hydrolysis. 83) The function of micelles is to store the products of lipid digestion, facilitating their absorption. Answer: TRUE Section: 15.04 Topic: Processes of absorption Bloom's: Level 2. Understand HAPS Topic: Module N07 Processes of absorption. HAPS Outcome: N07.01b Explain the processes involved in absorption of monosaccharides, peptides and amino acids, and fatty acids and monoglycerides. 84) Food mixed with digestive juices in the stomach is called chyme. Answer: TRUE Section: 15.02 Topic: Gross anatomy of the digestive tract; Mechanical digestion Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module N02 Gross and microscopic anatomy of the alimentary canal.; Module N06 Mechanical and chemical processes of digestion. HAPS Outcome: N02.05b Identify the structure and discuss the function of the cardiac region, the fundus, the body and the pyloric region of the stomach.; N06.01b List the organs and structures of the digestive system that function in mechanical digestion and explain the details of the process for each.
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85) Neural regulation of digestive processes is accomplished exclusively by the enteric nervous system of the gastrointestinal tract. Answer: FALSE Section: 15.05 Topic: Hormonal and neural regulation of digestive processes Bloom's: Level 2. Understand HAPS Topic: Module N08 Hormonal and neural regulation of digestive processes. HAPS Outcome: N08.01 List the components of both a short reflex and a long reflex in the digestive system.; N08.02 Discuss regulation of reflexes by the enteric nervous system and the parasympathetic nervous system. 86) The presence of acid and peptides in the stomach stimulates the gastric phase of gastrointestinal control. Answer: TRUE Section: 15.05 Topic: Hormonal and neural regulation of digestive processes Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module N05 Motility in the alimentary canal.; Module N08 Hormonal and neural regulation of digestive processes.; Module N09 Application of homeostatic mechanisms. HAPS Outcome: N05.03 Explain how volume, chemical composition, and osmolarity of the chyme affect motility in the stomach and in the duodenum.; N08.04 Explain the effect of the cephalic phase, gastric phase, and intestinal phase on the functions of the stomach and give examples for each phase.; N08.05 Explain the effect of the cephalic phase, gastric phase, and intestinal phase on the functions of the small intestine and give examples for each phase.; N09.01 Provide specific examples to demonstrate how the digestive system responds to maintain homeostasis in the body. 87) The presence of food in the mouth stimulates salivary gland secretion. Answer: TRUE Section: 15.05 Topic: Gross anatomy of accessory digestive glands and organs; Hormonal and neural regulation of digestive processes Bloom's: Level 2. Understand HAPS Topic: Module N03 Gross and microscopic anatomy of the accessory glands and organs.; Module N08 Hormonal and neural regulation of digestive processes.; Module N09 Application of homeostatic mechanisms. HAPS Outcome: N09.01 Provide specific examples to demonstrate how the digestive system responds to maintain homeostasis in the body.; N03.01b Contrast the histology and the products of the serous cells and the mucous cells in the salivary glands.; N08.01 List the components of both a short reflex and a long reflex in the digestive system.
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88) Rebecca is fasting today. She can expect less saliva secretion on a fasting day than on a day when she is snacking every few hours. Answer: TRUE Section: 15.05 Topic: Gross anatomy of accessory digestive glands and organs; Hormonal and neural regulation of digestive processes Bloom's: Level 3. Apply HAPS Topic: Module N03 Gross and microscopic anatomy of the accessory glands and organs.; Module N08 Hormonal and neural regulation of digestive processes.; Module N09 Application of homeostatic mechanisms. HAPS Outcome: N09.01 Provide specific examples to demonstrate how the digestive system responds to maintain homeostasis in the body.; N03.01b Contrast the histology and the products of the serous cells and the mucous cells in the salivary glands.; N08.01 List the components of both a short reflex and a long reflex in the digestive system. 89) Suzanne is really into yoga. She has a goal of spending an entire day in an inverted (upside down) position. To do this, she'll need to eat in the inverted position. Unfortunately, because food moves from the pharynx to the stomach by gravity alone, she will find it impossible to eat while inverted. Answer: FALSE Section: 15.05 Topic: Gross anatomy of the digestive tract; Mechanical digestion Bloom's: Level 3. Apply HAPS Topic: Module N05 Motility in the alimentary canal. HAPS Outcome: N05.02 Define the terms peristalsis, segmentation, migrating myoelectric complex, and mass movement, and discuss the role that these activities play in the function of various regions of the alimentary canal.; N05.01 List the structures involved in the process of deglutition and explain how they function, including the changes in position of the glottis and larynx that prevent aspiration.
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90) The amount of HCl secreted by the stomach during the digestion of a meal is dependent upon the type of food ingested. Answer: TRUE Section: 15.05 Topic: Gross anatomy of the digestive tract; Chemical digestion; Hormonal and neural regulation of digestive processes Bloom's: Level 2. Understand HAPS Topic: Module N06 Mechanical and chemical processes of digestion.; Module N08 Hormonal and neural regulation of digestive processes.; Module N09 Application of homeostatic mechanisms. HAPS Outcome: N08.04 Explain the effect of the cephalic phase, gastric phase, and intestinal phase on the functions of the stomach and give examples for each phase.; N09.01 Provide specific examples to demonstrate how the digestive system responds to maintain homeostasis in the body.; N06.03 Discuss the function, production, and regulation of secretion of hydrochloric acid (HCl). 91) In general, sympathetic stimulation increases gastric secretion and motility, while parasympathetic stimulation decreases these two processes. Answer: FALSE Section: 15.05 Topic: Gross anatomy of the digestive tract; Hormonal and neural regulation of digestive processes Bloom's: Level 2. Understand HAPS Topic: Module N06 Mechanical and chemical processes of digestion.; Module N08 Hormonal and neural regulation of digestive processes.; Module H13 Functions of the autonomic nervous system HAPS Outcome: N06.01b List the organs and structures of the digestive system that function in mechanical digestion and explain the details of the process for each.; N08.04 Explain the effect of the cephalic phase, gastric phase, and intestinal phase on the functions of the stomach and give examples for each phase.; N08.01 List the components of both a short reflex and a long reflex in the digestive system.; N06.02b List the organs and structures of the digestive system that function in enzymatic hydrolysis.; N06.03 Discuss the function, production, and regulation of secretion of hydrochloric acid (HCl).; N08.02 Discuss regulation of reflexes by the enteric nervous system and the parasympathetic nervous system.; N06.02f Discuss the mechanisms used to regulate secretion and/or activation of each enzyme in enzymatic hydrolysis.; H13.03 Describe examples of specific effectors dually innervated by the two branches of the autonomic nervous system and explain how each branch influences functions in a given effector.; H13.09 Describe major parasympathetic and/or sympathetic physiological effects on target organs.
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92) Susan recently had bariatric surgery, removing 85% of her stomach tissue. After surgery, she should expect reduced absorption of vitamin B12. Answer: TRUE Section: 15.04 Topic: Gross anatomy of the digestive tract; Processes of absorption; Clinical applications of the digestive system Bloom's: Level 3. Apply HAPS Topic: Module N02 Gross and microscopic anatomy of the alimentary canal.; Module N07 Processes of absorption.; Module N10 Predictions related to homeostatic imbalance, including disease states and disorders. HAPS Outcome: N02.05b Identify the structure and discuss the function of the cardiac region, the fundus, the body and the pyloric region of the stomach.; N10.01 Predict factors or situations affecting the digestive system that could disrupt homeostasis.; N10.02 Predict the types of problems that would occur in the body if the digestive system could not maintain homeostasis.; N02.05e Identify the structure of a gastric gland including the location of the chief (zymogenic) cells, parietal (oxynic) cells, enteroendocrine cells, and mucous cells, and discuss the functions of these different cell types in the stomach.; N07.02 Discuss the absorption of fat-soluble and water-soluble vitamins and the absorption of vitamin B12. 93) Cindy suffers from chronic "heartburn." Cindy's helpful aunt suggests that the cause is that Cindy's cat often sits on her stomach following a large meal and the "heartburn" is due to pressure of the stomach against the heart. Indeed, this is the typical cause of heartburn. Answer: FALSE Section: 15.04 Topic: Gross anatomy of the digestive tract; Clinical applications of the digestive system Bloom's: Level 3. Apply HAPS Topic: Module N02 Gross and microscopic anatomy of the alimentary canal.; Module N10 Predictions related to homeostatic imbalance, including disease states and disorders. HAPS Outcome: N02.05a Describe the structure and discuss the function of the cardiac and pyloric sphincters of the stomach.; N10.01 Predict factors or situations affecting the digestive system that could disrupt homeostasis.; N10.02 Predict the types of problems that would occur in the body if the digestive system could not maintain homeostasis.
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94) Gastric chief cells secrete pepsin. Answer: FALSE Section: 15.05 Topic: Microscopic anatomy of the digestive tract; Chemical digestion Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module N02 Gross and microscopic anatomy of the alimentary canal.; Module N06 Mechanical and chemical processes of digestion. HAPS Outcome: N02.05e Identify the structure of a gastric gland including the location of the chief (zymogenic) cells, parietal (oxynic) cells, enteroendocrine cells, and mucous cells, and discuss the functions of these different cell types in the stomach.; N06.02b List the organs and structures of the digestive system that function in enzymatic hydrolysis.; N06.02d Discuss the activation of specific enzymes, where applicable in enzymatic hydrolysis. 95) Normally, the amount of bicarbonate ions secreted into the intestine nearly equals the amount of acid secreted by the stomach during digestion. Answer: TRUE Section: 15.05 Topic: Hormonal and neural regulation of digestive processes Bloom's: Level 2. Understand HAPS Topic: Module N03 Gross and microscopic anatomy of the accessory glands and organs.; Module N08 Hormonal and neural regulation of digestive processes.; Module N09 Application of homeostatic mechanisms.; Module J05 Identity, source, secretory control, and functional roles of the major hormones produced by the body. HAPS Outcome: J05.11d In the gastrointestinal tract, predict the larger effect that fluctuations in gastrin, secretin, cholecystokinin, motilin, gastric inhibiting peptide levels will have on conditions (variables) within the body.; N08.06c Describe the action of the following hormones or paracrine agents gastrin, cholecystokinin, secretin, glucose-dependent insulinotropic peptide, histamine, somatostatin, and motilin.; N08.05 Explain the effect of the cephalic phase, gastric phase, and intestinal phase on the functions of the small intestine and give examples for each phase.; N09.01 Provide specific examples to demonstrate how the digestive system responds to maintain homeostasis in the body.; N08.01 List the components of both a short reflex and a long reflex in the digestive system.; N03.03d Identify the pancreatic duct and the hepatopancreatic sphincter and discuss their roles in the flow of pancreatic enzymes.
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96) About 95% of the bile salts secreted by the liver are recycled back to the liver by the enterohepatic circulation. Answer: TRUE Section: 15.05 Topic: Gross anatomy of accessory digestive glands and organs; Processes of absorption Bloom's: Level 2. Understand HAPS Topic: Module N03 Gross and microscopic anatomy of the accessory glands and organs.; Module N07 Processes of absorption. HAPS Outcome: N03.02d Identify the histological components of a liver lobule (including hepatocytes, hepatic sinusoids, Kupffer cells, bile canaliculi, central vein, and the components of a hepatic triad) and discuss the function of each.; N07.03 Discuss the enterohepatic circulation of bile salts. 97) As part of a fad diet, George cuts out all salt intake. As a consequence, George has markedly reduced bile salt functionality in digestive processes. Answer: FALSE Section: 15.05 Topic: Gross anatomy of accessory digestive glands and organs; Processes of absorption Bloom's: Level 3. Apply HAPS Topic: Module N03 Gross and microscopic anatomy of the accessory glands and organs.; Module N07 Processes of absorption. HAPS Outcome: N03.02d Identify the histological components of a liver lobule (including hepatocytes, hepatic sinusoids, Kupffer cells, bile canaliculi, central vein, and the components of a hepatic triad) and discuss the function of each.; N07.03 Discuss the enterohepatic circulation of bile salts.
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98) The hormone that stimulates secretion of bicarbonate by the pancreas is also the hormone principally responsible for stimulating contraction of the gallbladder. Answer: FALSE Section: 15.03 Topic: Gross anatomy of accessory digestive glands and organs; Hormonal and neural regulation of digestive processes Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module N03 Gross and microscopic anatomy of the accessory glands and organs.; Module N08 Hormonal and neural regulation of digestive processes.; Module J05 Identity, source, secretory control, and functional roles of the major hormones produced by the body. HAPS Outcome: J05.11d In the gastrointestinal tract, predict the larger effect that fluctuations in gastrin, secretin, cholecystokinin, motilin, gastric inhibiting peptide levels will have on conditions (variables) within the body.; N08.06c Describe the action of the following hormones or paracrine agents gastrin, cholecystokinin, secretin, glucose-dependent insulinotropic peptide, histamine, somatostatin, and motilin.; N03.02e Identify the hepatic duct, cystic duct, gallbladder, common bile duct, sphincter of the hepatopancreatic ampulla (ampulla of Vater and sphincter of Oddi) and discuss the roles of those structures in the flow of bile.; N08.06b State the target organ of each of the following hormones or paracrine agents gastrin, cholecystokinin, secretin, glucosedependent insulinotropic peptide, histamine, somatostatin, and motilin.; N03.03d Identify the pancreatic duct and the hepatopancreatic sphincter and discuss their roles in the flow of pancreatic enzymes. 99) The same hormone that stimulates pancreatic enzyme secretion stimulates pancreatic bicarbonate secretion. Answer: FALSE Section: 15.05 Topic: Gross anatomy of accessory digestive glands and organs; Hormonal and neural regulation of digestive processes Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module N03 Gross and microscopic anatomy of the accessory glands and organs.; Module N08 Hormonal and neural regulation of digestive processes.; Module J05 Identity, source, secretory control, and functional roles of the major hormones produced by the body. HAPS Outcome: J05.11d In the gastrointestinal tract, predict the larger effect that fluctuations in gastrin, secretin, cholecystokinin, motilin, gastric inhibiting peptide levels will have on conditions (variables) within the body.; N08.06c Describe the action of the following hormones or paracrine agents gastrin, cholecystokinin, secretin, glucose-dependent insulinotropic peptide, histamine, somatostatin, and motilin.; N08.06b State the target organ of each of the following hormones or paracrine agents gastrin, cholecystokinin, secretin, glucose-dependent insulinotropic peptide, histamine, somatostatin, and motilin.; N03.03b Identify the pancreatic acini and discuss their functions.; N03.03d Identify the pancreatic duct and the hepatopancreatic sphincter and discuss their roles in the flow of pancreatic enzymes.
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100) Bile secreted by the liver contains the major enzymes for digesting fats. Answer: FALSE Section: 15.05 Topic: Chemical digestion Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module N03 Gross and microscopic anatomy of the accessory glands and organs.; Module N06 Mechanical and chemical processes of digestion. HAPS Outcome: N03.02d Identify the histological components of a liver lobule (including hepatocytes, hepatic sinusoids, Kupffer cells, bile canaliculi, central vein, and the components of a hepatic triad) and discuss the function of each.; N03.03b Identify the pancreatic acini and discuss their functions.; N06.02b List the organs and structures of the digestive system that function in enzymatic hydrolysis.; N06.04b List the organs and structures of the digestive system that function in the process of emulsification.; N06.02c List the enzymes used in enzymatic hydrolysis.; N06.04a Define emulsification and describe the process. 101) During a meal, peristalsis is the predominant form of movement in the small intestine. Answer: FALSE Section: 15.05 Topic: Gross anatomy of the digestive tract; Mechanical digestion Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module N05 Motility in the alimentary canal.; Module N06 Mechanical and chemical processes of digestion. HAPS Outcome: N05.02 Define the terms peristalsis, segmentation, migrating myoelectric complex, and mass movement, and discuss the role that these activities play in the function of various regions of the alimentary canal.; N06.01b List the organs and structures of the digestive system that function in mechanical digestion and explain the details of the process for each. 102) The presence of high-osmolarity chyme in the small intestine stimulates both water movement into the intestinal lumen from the blood and the discharge of more chyme from the stomach into the duodenum. Answer: FALSE Section: 15.05 Topic: Gross anatomy of the digestive tract; Hormonal and neural regulation of digestive processes Bloom's: Level 2. Understand HAPS Topic: Module N05 Motility in the alimentary canal.; Module N08 Hormonal and neural regulation of digestive processes. HAPS Outcome: N05.03 Explain how volume, chemical composition, and osmolarity of the chyme affect motility in the stomach and in the duodenum.; N08.04 Explain the effect of the cephalic phase, gastric phase, and intestinal phase on the functions of the stomach and give examples for each phase.; N08.05 Explain the effect of the cephalic phase, gastric phase, and intestinal phase on the functions of the small intestine and give examples for each phase.
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103) The primary function of the large intestine is to store and dilute unabsorbed fecal material. Answer: FALSE Section: 15.05 Topic: General functions of the digestive system; Gross anatomy of the digestive tract Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module N02 Gross and microscopic anatomy of the alimentary canal. HAPS Outcome: N02.07b Identify the location and discuss the functions of the cecum and appendix, the ascending, transverse, descending, and sigmoid colon, the rectum, and the anus in the large intestine. 104) Because the large intestine has a greater diameter than the small intestine, the large intestine has a greater surface area. Answer: FALSE Section: 15.05 Topic: Microscopic anatomy of the digestive tract; Gross anatomy of the digestive tract Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module N02 Gross and microscopic anatomy of the alimentary canal. HAPS Outcome: N02.06b Identify and discuss the histology and functions of the plicae circulares, villi, and microvilli in the small intestine.; N02.01b Describe regional specializations in the histological structure of the alimentary canal and relate these specializations to the functions of the particular organs in which they are located. 105) Flatus is primarily a result of air being swallowed with food. Answer: FALSE Section: 15.05 Topic: Gross anatomy of the digestive tract; Clinical applications of the digestive system Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module N02 Gross and microscopic anatomy of the alimentary canal.; Module N10 Predictions related to homeostatic imbalance, including disease states and disorders. HAPS Outcome: N10.01 Predict factors or situations affecting the digestive system that could disrupt homeostasis.; N10.02 Predict the types of problems that would occur in the body if the digestive system could not maintain homeostasis.; N02.07b Identify the location and discuss the functions of the cecum and appendix, the ascending, transverse, descending, and sigmoid colon, the rectum, and the anus in the large intestine.
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106) Voluntary control of defecation requires learning to keep the external anal sphincter smooth muscle contracted. Answer: FALSE Section: 15.05 Topic: Gross anatomy of the digestive tract; Hormonal and neural regulation of digestive processes Bloom's: Level 2. Understand HAPS Topic: Module N02 Gross and microscopic anatomy of the alimentary canal.; Module N05 Motility in the alimentary canal. HAPS Outcome: N05.04a Describe the defecation reflex and the function of the internal and external anal sphincters.; N02.07a Describe the structure and discuss the function of the ileocecal valve and the internal and external anal sphincters in the large intestine.; N05.04c Discuss the conscious control of the defecation reflex. 107) Lactose intolerance is caused by an amylase deficiency. Answer: FALSE Section: 15.06 Topic: Chemical digestion; Clinical applications of the digestive system Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module N06 Mechanical and chemical processes of digestion.; Module N10 Predictions related to homeostatic imbalance, including disease states and disorders. HAPS Outcome: N10.01 Predict factors or situations affecting the digestive system that could disrupt homeostasis.; N06.02e List the substrates and products of enzymatic hydrolysis for each enzyme.; N06.02c List the enzymes used in enzymatic hydrolysis. 108) Josh eats at a food truck and contracts food poisoning with severe diarrhea. Josh will likely suffer from metabolic acidosis. Answer: TRUE Section: 15.06 Topic: Clinical applications of the digestive system Bloom's: Level 3. Apply HAPS Topic: Module N10 Predictions related to homeostatic imbalance, including disease states and disorders.; Module Q08 Predicitons related to homeostatic imbalance, including disease states and disorders. HAPS Outcome: N10.01 Predict factors or situations affecting the digestive system that could disrupt homeostasis.; N10.02 Predict the types of problems that would occur in the body if the digestive system could not maintain homeostasis.; Q08.02 Predict factors or situations that would lead to a disruption of homeostasis by causing respiratory acidosis, respiratory alkalosis, metabolic acidosis, or metabolic alkalosis.
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109) Cholera toxin, the toxin released by the bacteria that cause cholera disease, interferes with water absorption and causes water secretion into the gastrointestinal tract. Even in the absence of bacteria, this toxin can cause diarrhea. Answer: TRUE Section: 15.06 Topic: Processes of absorption; Clinical applications of the digestive system Bloom's: Level 3. Apply HAPS Topic: Module N10 Predictions related to homeostatic imbalance, including disease states and disorders. HAPS Outcome: N10.01 Predict factors or situations affecting the digestive system that could disrupt homeostasis.; N10.02 Predict the types of problems that would occur in the body if the digestive system could not maintain homeostasis. 110) Regurgitation of food from the stomach into the esophagus A) is ordinarily inhibited by the upper esophageal sphincter. B) causes irritation of the esophageal mucosa. C) is called retropulsion, and is essential for gastric digestion. D) is ordinarily prevented by the lower esophageal sphincter. E) is called secondary peristalsis. Answer: B, D Section: 15.05 Topic: Gross anatomy of the digestive tract; Clinical applications of the digestive system Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module N02 Gross and microscopic anatomy of the alimentary canal.; Module N05 Motility in the alimentary canal.; Module N10 Predictions related to homeostatic imbalance, including disease states and disorders. HAPS Outcome: N02.05a Describe the structure and discuss the function of the cardiac and pyloric sphincters of the stomach.; N05.02 Define the terms peristalsis, segmentation, migrating myoelectric complex, and mass movement, and discuss the role that these activities play in the function of various regions of the alimentary canal.; N10.01 Predict factors or situations affecting the digestive system that could disrupt homeostasis.; N02.04a Describe the structure and discuss the function of the upper esophageal and lower esophageal (cardiac) sphincters.
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111) Which substances would cause stimulation of gastric HCl secretion when applied to parietal cells? A) Gastrin B) Histamine C) Somatostatin D) Acetylcholine E) CCK Answer: A, B, D Section: 15.05 Topic: Microscopic anatomy of the digestive tract; Hormonal and neural regulation of digestive processes Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module N02 Gross and microscopic anatomy of the alimentary canal.; Module N06 Mechanical and chemical processes of digestion.; Module N08 Hormonal and neural regulation of digestive processes.; Module J05 Identity, source, secretory control, and functional roles of the major hormones produced by the body. HAPS Outcome: N08.06c Describe the action of the following hormones or paracrine agents gastrin, cholecystokinin, secretin, glucose-dependent insulinotropic peptide, histamine, somatostatin, and motilin.; J05.11c In the gastrointestinal tract, name the target tissue or cells for gastrin, secretin, cholecystokinin, motilin and gastric inhibiting peptide hormone and describe the effect(s) of the hormone on the target tissue or cells.; N02.05e Identify the structure of a gastric gland including the location of the chief (zymogenic) cells, parietal (oxynic) cells, enteroendocrine cells, and mucous cells, and discuss the functions of these different cell types in the stomach.; N08.04 Explain the effect of the cephalic phase, gastric phase, and intestinal phase on the functions of the stomach and give examples for each phase.; N06.03 Discuss the function, production, and regulation of secretion of hydrochloric acid (HCl).
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112) The small intestine A) is the main site of fat digestion. B) secretes amylase, lipase, and various proteases from its epithelial cells. C) is the main site of gastrin secretion. D) absorbs a larger volume of fluid than any other region of the GI tract. E) undergoes only peristaltic contractions, both during the digestion of meals and between meals. Answer: A, D Section: 15.03; 15.05 Topic: Gross anatomy of the digestive tract; Mechanical digestion; Chemical digestion; Processes of absorption Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module N02 Gross and microscopic anatomy of the alimentary canal.; Module N03 Gross and microscopic anatomy of the accessory glands and organs.; Module N05 Motility in the alimentary canal.; Module N06 Mechanical and chemical processes of digestion.; Module N08 Hormonal and neural regulation of digestive processes.; Module J05 Identity, source, secretory control, and functional roles of the major hormones produced by the body.; Module Q01 Regulation of water intake and output HAPS Outcome: N05.02 Define the terms peristalsis, segmentation, migrating myoelectric complex, and mass movement, and discuss the role that these activities play in the function of various regions of the alimentary canal.; N06.01b List the organs and structures of the digestive system that function in mechanical digestion and explain the details of the process for each.; J05.11b In the gastrointestinal tract, identify the gland or endocrine tissue/organ and the cells within that gland/tissue/organ that produce gastrin, secretin, cholecystokinin, motilin and gastric inhibiting peptide.; N02.06a Identify the location and discuss the relative length and the functions of the duodenum, jejunum, and ileum in the small intestine.; N08.06a For each of the following, state the organ or structure that produces the following hormones or paracrine agents gastrin, cholecystokinin, secretin, glucose-dependent insulinotropic peptide, histamine, somatostatin, and motilin.; N03.03b Identify the pancreatic acini and discuss their functions.; N06.02b List the organs and structures of the digestive system that function in enzymatic hydrolysis.; N02.07b Identify the location and discuss the functions of the cecum and appendix, the ascending, transverse, descending, and sigmoid colon, the rectum, and the anus in the large intestine.; Q01.01 List and describe the routes of water entry into the body and state representative volumes for each.; Q01.02 List and describe the routes of water loss from the body and state representative volumes for each.
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Vander's Human Physiology, 15e (Widmaier) Chapter 16 Regulation of Organic Metabolism and Energy Balance 1) Which of the these events follows the absorption of glucose? A) Glucose is stored as fat in skeletal muscle. B) Glucose is stored as glycogen in adipose tissue. C) Glucose is converted to fat in the liver. D) Glucose is used to make energy by only the brain. E) Glucose is converted to amino acids in the muscles. 2) Which of the following is NOT a fate of absorbed glucose? A) It is converted to glycogen by liver cells. B) It is converted to fatty acids and alpha-glycerol phosphate in adipose cells. C) It is converted to glycogen in muscle cells. D) It is converted to urea by liver cells. E) It is converted to fatty acids and alpha-glycerol phosphate by liver cells. 3) During the absorptive state of metabolism A) liver glycogen is broken down to glucose, which is released into the blood. B) glycogen in muscle cells is broken down to glucose, which is used for energy. C) lipoprotein lipase breaks down triacylglycerols in adipose tissue capillaries. D) fatty acids and glycerol are released from adipose tissue. E) lactate and pyruvate secretion into the bloodstream by the muscles increases. 4) Which is TRUE regarding chylomicrons? A) They readily cross the plasma membrane of adipocytes. B) They are converted to monoglycerides and fatty acids by an enzyme inside muscle cells. C) They are converted to monoglycerides and fatty acids by an enzyme found inside capillaries. D) They are formed in the lumen of the GI tract by the action of bile salts. E) They are too large to enter lacteals. 5) What enzyme converts chylomicron triacylglycerols into fatty acids and monoglycerides? A) Pancreatic lipase B) Pancreatic amylase C) Lipoprotein lipase D) Pepsin E) Hexokinase 6) Excess absorbed glucose is initially converted to triacylglycerides and very low-density lipoprotein by A) adipose cells. B) liver cells. C) intestinal mucosa cells. D) muscle cells. E) lymphoid cells.
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7) Dietary amino acids in a meal that are in excess of the body's need to make protein are A) converted to glucose in the liver. B) converted to fatty acids in the liver. C) excreted without being absorbed. D) converted to fatty acids in adipose cells. E) burned for fuel by cells of the nervous system. 8) You are guaranteed to not gain body fat in a diet that is entirely composed of A) carbohydrates. B) None of these answers are correct. C) fats. D) protein. 9) During the absorptive state of metabolism, amino acids A) are used for protein synthesis in most body cells. B) are used for glycogen synthesis in the liver. C) may be converted to ketones in the liver. D) are burned as fuel in muscles, creating urea as a waste product. E) are mobilized from muscle and other tissues faster than they are taken up by those tissues. 10) Which of the following tissues is most dependent upon a constant blood supply of glucose? A) Liver B) Brain C) Adipose D) Skeletal muscle E) Cardiac muscle 11) During the postabsorptive phase of metabolism A) glycogen in muscle cells is broken down to glucose, which is released into the blood. B) liver glycogen is broken down to glucose, which is released into the blood. C) triacylglycerols in adipose tissue are broken down to glucose by lipolysis. D) the liver exports lactate to the muscles, which use it for fuel. E) glycerol and fatty acids are rapidly assembled into triglycerides in adipose tissue. 12) Which correctly describes an action of the hormone insulin? A) It increases the uptake and utilization of glucose by muscle and adipose tissue cells. B) It is required for the uptake and utilization of glucose by nervous tissue. C) It decreases the uptake of amino acids by muscle cells. D) It stimulates the breakdown of glycogen in the liver. E) It inhibits the action of lipoprotein lipase in the capillaries of adipose tissue.
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13) Sarah is a type 1 diabetic who forgot to bring insulin with her today. Which of the following will be TRUE of Sarah? A) Her muscle and adipose tissue cells will not be able to take up as much glucose from the bloodstream. B) Her brain cells will not be able to take up as much glucose from the bloodstream. C) Her muscle cells will not be able to take up as many amino acids from the bloodstream. D) Her liver will not breakdown glycogen. E) None of these will occur. 14) Which results from insulin binding to its receptor in skeletal muscle plasma membranes? A) Glycogen synthase is stimulated. B) Glycogen phosphorylase is stimulated. C) Lipoprotein lipase is inhibited. D) Glucose transport into the cell is inhibited. E) Protein catabolism is stimulated. 15) With regard to fat metabolism, insulin increases A) the activity of lipoprotein lipase, which leads to increased triglyceride synthesis. B) the export of fatty acids and monoglyceride from adipocytes. C) the activity of hormone-sensitive lipase, which synthesizes triglycerides. D) the activity of hormone-sensitive lipase, which catabolizes triglycerides. 16) When plasma glucose concentration increases, the secretion of insulin is secretion of glucagon is . An increase in sympathetic activity will cause secretion of insulin and secretion of glucagon. A) decreased; increased; increased; decreased B) increased; decreased; decreased; increased C) increased; decreased; increased; decreased D) increased; increased; decreased; increased E) decreased; decreased; increased; unchanged
and the
17) Glucagon secretion is stimulated by A) hypoglycemia and parasympathetic nerve firing. B) hyperglycemia and a high concentration of epinephrine. C) high plasma epinephrine and high plasma incretin concentrations. D) hypoglycemia and high plasma epinephrine concentration. E) hyperglycemia and high plasma incretin concentration. 18) You go see a scary movie. By the end of the movie your heart is racing thanks to high levels of epinephrine in your bloodstream. You ate nothing during the movie, but your blood glucose level is likely A) low due to an overall lack of nutrients. B) low due to the action of cortisol on blood glucose regulation. C) elevated due to healthy post-absorptive state mechanisms. D) elevated due to the action of epinephrine on blood glucose regulation. E) elevated due to the pasta meal consumed at home before the movie. 3 Copyright 2019 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.
19) The major metabolic effects of glucagon include A) stimulating glycogenolysis and gluconeogenesis in the liver. B) stimulating triglyceride synthesis in adipose tissue. C) stimulating glucose uptake into skeletal muscle cells. D) stimulating the activity of glycogen synthase in the liver. E) inhibiting the enzyme glycogen phosphorylase in the liver. 20) Talia is a busy store clerk on Black Friday. She ate breakfast at 7 am but was not able to take a lunch break because the store was too busy. Its now 3 pm and she's beginning to feel a bit odd.Which of the following does NOT describe Talia's physiological state? A) Hyperglycemia is occurring. B) Gluconeogenesis is occurring. C) Glucose-sparing reactions are occurring. D) Insulin secretion is lower than in the absorptive state. E) Glucagon secretion is higher than in the absorptive state. 21) Which of the following is a major metabolic effect of glucagon? A) Increased glucose uptake by muscle cells B) Increased triglyceride synthesis in adipose tissue C) Decreased glycogenolysis in muscle D) Decreased gluconeogenesis in liver E) Increased glycogenolysis in liver 22) Sarah is a type 1 diabetic. She recently refilled her prescription, but was given glucagon instead of insulin. After her first glucagon injection, which of the following is likely TRUE? A) Increased glucose uptake by muscle cells B) Increased triglyceride synthesis in adipose tissue C) Decreased glycogenolysis in muscle D) Decreased gluconeogenesis in liver E) Increased glycogenolysis in liver 23) Which of the following would increase gluconeogenesis? A) Increased plasma insulin levels B) Increased plasma incretin levels C) Increased plasma cortisol levels D) Decreased plasma growth hormone levels E) Decreased plasma glucagon levels 24) Gluconeogenesis is stimulated by decreased levels of A) epinephrine. B) insulin. C) glucocorticoids. D) growth hormone. E) glucagon.
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25) Which of the following acts to decrease blood glucose levels? A) Glucagon B) Insulin C) Growth hormone D) Epinephrine E) Cortisol 26) A group of students has declared a hunger strike to protest a perception of low-quality dorm food. Jose is one of the protesting students and he has not eaten for three days. Which of the following is likely TRUE of Jose's physiological state? A) The secretion of insulin, glucagon, ACTH, and cortisol are all increased. B) Brain metabolism has shifted to increase utilization of glucose and to decrease oxidation of ketones. C) Muscle protein is broken down to provide substrates for hepatic and renal gluconeogenesis. D) The secretion of insulin, glucagon, ACTH, and cortisol are all decreased. E) The secretion of insulin and cortisol are increased, while glucagon and ACTH secretion are decreased. 27) Which accurately describes the metabolic actions of cortisol during fasting? A) It decreases blood glucose by increasing the sensitivity of muscle and adipose tissue to insulin. B) It stimulates protein synthesis in muscle cells, and is permissive of triglyceride synthesis by adipocytes. C) It increases sensitivity of muscle and adipose to insulin, and inhibits gluconeogenesis in the liver. D) It directly stimulates gluconeogenesis and lipolysis, and increases sensitivity of muscle and adipose tissue to insulin. E) It is permissive of gluconeogenesis and lipolysis, and reduces sensitivity of muscle and adipose tissue to insulin. 28) A group of students has declared a hunger strike to protest a perception of low-quality dorm food. Jose is one of the protesting students and he has not eaten for three days. A blood test reveals that there are high levels of ketones in Jose's blood. These ketones A) are a waste product of amino acid metabolism that the kidneys must excrete. B) can be used by the brain as an energy source. C) are a by-product of anaerobic metabolism. D) are converted to fatty acids and released into the blood. E) are used to synthesize glucose by gluconeogenesis. 29) During exercise A) blood glucose levels fall dramatically. B) epinephrine and glucagon stimulate glycogenolysis in liver cells. C) decreased blood glucose and increased epinephrine stimulate insulin secretion. D) epinephrine stimulates glucagon secretion and inhibits skeletal muscle uptake of glucose. E) cortisol and growth hormone secretion are decreased.
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30) Which event occurs during exercise but NOT during fasting? A) Increased breakdown of triglycerides B) Increased glycogenolysis C) Increased glucose uptake by muscle D) Increased fatty acid oxidation E) Increased cortisol secretion 31) In Addison's disease, the adrenal cortices degenerate. Which will result if a patient with this disease undergoes prolonged fasting? A) Hypoglycemia B) Hyperglycemia C) Excessive lipolysis D) Decreased insulin sensitivity E) Excessive liver gluconeogenesis 32) In untreated type 1 diabetes mellitus (insulin-dependent diabetes mellitus), acidosis occurs because A) dehydration concentrates the blood so even though H+ production is normal, its concentration is high. B) kidney failure results in a decreased ability to excrete the normal amount of H+. C) excess plasma glucose is taken up by the liver and converted to fatty acids. D) insulin levels are extremely high, and insulin is an acidic protein hormone. E) excessive lipolysis results in increased plasma fatty acid levels, which the liver converts to acidic ketones. 33) Sarah is a type 1 diabetic who forgot to bring her insulin today. By the end of the day, Sarah is not feeling well. Which would NOT be a characteristic of Sarah at the end of the day with no insulin injections? A) Decreased glycogen stores in muscles B) Increased glucose-bound hemoglobin C) Decreased blood pH D) Increased urination frequency E) Decreased thirst 34) Sarah is a type 1 diabetic who forgot to bring her insulin today. By the end of the day, Sarah is not feeling well. She stops at the campus health center on her way back to her dorm, where they run a few tests on her blood. Which of these test results is likely? A) Low plasma ketone levels B) Increased blood volume C) Decreased oxygen levels in Sarah's blood D) Hyperglycemia E) Decreased blood pressure
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35) In subjects with type 2 (non-insulin-dependent) diabetes mellitus, which of these occurs? A) Pancreatic beta cell responses to increased plasma glucose concentration are normal. B) Target tissues respond poorly to insulin. C) Hypoglycemia is typically the first symptom. D) Severe ketoacidosis is common. 36) Cholesterol is a A) precursor of steroid hormones. B) component of DNA. C) precursor of bile pigments. D) carbohydrate. E) vitamin. 37) Which of these is found in chylomicrons and plasma membranes, and is a precursor for bile salts and steroid hormones? A) Amino acids B) Cholesterol C) Phospholipids D) Monoglycerides E) Protein 38) Aziz goes to the doctor and has a blood cholesterol test done. The results show that his total cholesterol is slightly high, his HDLs are very high, and his LDLs are low. Aziz is alarmed by the numbers because his father had atherosclerosis. Aziz's doctor gives him more information. Which of the following statements is the doctor likely to make? A) It is preferable to have a high concentration of low-density lipoproteins (LDLs) in the plasma because LDLs operate to remove cholesterol from the peripheral tissues and carry it to the liver, which secretes it into the small intestine. B) It is preferable to have a high concentration of high-density lipoproteins (HDLs) in the plasma because HDLs operate to remove cholesterol from the peripheral tissues and carry it to the liver, which secretes it into the small intestine. C) It is preferable to have equal concentrations of LDL and HDL. D) Neither LDL nor HDL are involved in cholesterol regulation. E) Plasma cholesterol concentration has no relationship to atherosclerosis. 39) Which of the following leads to an increase in the ratio of LDL cholesterol to HDL cholesterol? A) Estrogens B) Cigarette smoking C) Exercise D) Weight reduction E) All of these increase the LDL:HDL ratio.
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40) Which is NOT stimulated by the hormone insulin? A) An increase in the number of glucose transporters in cell membranes B) An increase in amino acid uptake by cells C) An increase in glycogen synthesis D) An increase in triglyceride synthesis E) An increase in ketone synthesis 41) Which of the following contributes to a catabolic state? A) Increased plasma cortisol concentration B) Hypothyroidism C) Increased plasma androgen concentrations D) Increased plasma insulin concentration E) Decreased plasma glucagon concentration 42) You are a pediatrician. You have a young patient who does not seem to be growing. You suspect that there might be stress in the home. You decide to perform a blood test for cortisol and expect to find A) high plasma cortisol levels have led to overall state of catabolism. B) high plasma cortisol levels have led to a decrease in available fuel in the bloodstream. C) high plasma cortisol levels have led to a decrease in blood calcium levels. D) high plasma cortisol levels have led to an increased skeletal muscle metabolic rate, there are no nutrients left for growth. E) None of these answers are correct. 43) During normal metabolism of the human body, about 60% of the energy released from organic molecules A) is used to perform internal work. B) is stored as ATP. C) appears immediately as heat. D) is stored as triglycerides. E) is used to perform external work. 44) A person's lowest metabolic rate A) occurs during sleep. B) occurs when they are younger. C) occurs during exercise. D) occurs after a meal. E) occurs when body temperature increases.
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45) You are volunteering at a weight-loss clinic. You're in charge of a station that makes individualized recommendations for increasing daily metabolic rate. Which of the following lifestyle changes can increase metabolic rate to the greatest extent? A) Increasing skeletal muscle activity B) Increasing mental activity C) Increasing dietary caloric intake D) Increasing environmental temperature E) Increasing blood glucose levels 46) A person who has hypothyroidism would be expected to A) have an increased basal metabolic rate. B) have reduced tolerance for cold temperatures. C) lose body weight. D) be restless and irritable. E) have symptoms similar to over-activation of the sympathetic nervous system. 47) If more calories are ingested in food than are expended by metabolism A) a person will gain weight. B) a person will lose weight. C) a person will stay the same weight because the excess energy is destroyed. D) whether weight is gained or lost depends upon whether the calories are in the form of proteins, carbohydrates, or fat. 48) The subjective feeling of hunger is stimulated when A) plasma insulin concentration increases. B) plasma ghrelin concentration decreases. C) plasma leptin concentration decreases. D) plasma glucose concentration increases. E) body temperature increases. 49) Ghrelin is secreted by , and increases while decreasing A) cells in the stomach; neuropeptide Y secretion; hunger B) adipose tissue; growth hormone secretion; leptin secretion C) muscle tissue; hunger; growth hormone secretion D) cells in the stomach; hunger; fat breakdown E) adipose tissue; hunger; fat breakdown
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50) The thermoneutral zone is defined as A) the region in the central core of the body where temperature never changes. B) the core body temperature at which no energy is expended to maintain homeostasis. C) the environmental temperature range over which the changes in skin blood flow alone can regulate body temperature. D) the region of the body halfway between the high-temperature core and the low-temperature skin. E) the environmental temperature range in which shivering, changes in blood flow, and changes in thyroid hormone concentrations can maintain homeostasis of the body's core temperature. 9 Copyright 2019 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.
51) The principal means of increasing heat production in response to a cold environment is A) vasoconstriction of blood vessels in the skin. B) wearing warm clothing. C) shivering thermogenesis and increased voluntary activity. D) vasodilation of blood vessels in skin. E) increasing food intake to elevate the metabolic rate. 52) The primary integrator of body temperature control reflexes is the A) medullary cardiovascular center. B) cerebral cortex. C) thyroid gland. D) hypothalamus. E) adrenal medulla. 53) Acclimatization to a hot environment includes which of these physiological changes? A) A decrease in the set point temperature regulated by the hypothalamus B) Decreased volume and increased salt concentration of sweat glands C) Decreased volume and salt concentration of sweat from the sweat glands D) Increased volume and salt concentration of sweat from the sweat glands E) Increased volume and decreased salt concentration of sweat from the sweat glands 54) Endogenous pyrogen A) is released by infection-fighting leukocytes and acts on muscle tissue. B) is released by the hypothalamus and acts on infection-fighting leukocytes. C) is released by infection-fighting leukocytes and has the same action as aspirin. D) is released by infection-fighting leukocytes and acts on the temperature-integrating centers of the hypothalamus. E) is released by the pyloric region of the stomach and raises the temperature of digestion. 55) It is not possible to gain body fat if you eat a non-fat diet. 56) During the absorptive state, the body makes use of stored nutrients for energy. 57) The source of the triglycerides used for synthesis of very low-density lipoproteins in the liver is fatty acids and glycerol absorbed from the bloodstream by the liver. 58) You just enjoyed a delicious holiday meal with your family. You ate mashed potatoes, pasta, rice, and squash and topped it off with three slices of cake. Most of the glucose stored after the meal will be stored in the form of glycogen. 59) Most of the triglycerides absorbed as chylomicrons are ultimately stored as fat in the adipose tissue. 60) During the absorptive state, there is net synthesis of fat, glycogen, and protein, but this process is reversed during the postabsorptive state.
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61) A group of students has declared a hunger strike to protest a perception of low-quality dorm food. Jose is one of the protesting students and he has not eaten for three days. Most of the energy available in Jose's body is provided by gluconeogenesis. 62) Fatty acids released by lipolysis of triglycerides in adipose tissue travel in the plasma as VLDL. 63) Talia is a busy store clerk on Black Friday. She ate breakfast at 7 am but was not able to take a lunch break because the store was too busy. Its now 3 pm and she's beginning to feel a bit odd.Her non-nervous tissues are probably utilizing fatty acids and ketones as energy sources. 64) Insulin has no effect on the carrier-mediated transport of glucose in the liver; therefore, insulin does not stimulate the uptake of glucose by that organ. 65) Insulin inhibits the enzymes in the liver that catalyze reactions leading to gluconeogenesis. 66) The metabolic events characteristic of the absorptive state can be attributed to the presence of large amounts of insulin in the blood, whereas the events of the postabsorptive state can be attributed largely to decreased insulin levels. 67) The release of epinephrine during exercise contributes to an increase in nutrient levels in the blood. 68) The chemoreceptors for the reflexes that stimulate sympathetic activity and epinephrine secretion in response to hypoglycemia are located in the carotid and aortic bodies. 69) Pituitary growth hormone has effects on protein metabolism similar to those of insulin, but its effects on carbohydrate and lipid metabolism are similar to those of elevated cortisol. 70) During stress, elevated levels of plasma cortisol stimulate the catabolism of muscle protein and the conversion of alpha-keto acids to glucose in the liver. 71) Chronic long-term stress could lead to weakening of cardiac and skeletal muscle tissues. 72) During exercise, glucose uptake by muscle cells is increased because of increased insulin secretion. 73) During exercise, skeletal muscle cells can upregulate alternative glucose transporters which are independent of insulin signaling, therefore exercise is useful for individuals with type 2 diabetes. 74) In untreated type 1 (insulin-dependent) diabetes mellitus, the liver converts fatty acids into ketones, which are released into the blood. 75) Sarah is a type 1 diabetic who forgot to bring insulin with her today. Due to high circulating ketone levels, it is likely that Sarah's blood pH may decrease. 11 Copyright 2019 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.
76) One consequence of insulin deficiency is the decreased ability of the brain to take up blood glucose, a condition that can lead to brain dysfunction and death. 77) The excretion of glucose in the urine of a diabetic patient is a result of the inability of the kidney tubules to reabsorb a normal amount of glucose in the absence of insulin. 78) Cholesterol is metabolized to bile salts in the liver. 79) Lisa is on a low-cholesterol diet. She ingests almost no dietary cholesterol. When she goes into her doctor's office for a blood test, we expect her plasma cholesterol concentration to be almost zero as well. 80) All other things being equal, a person who has hypothyroidism will have a higher BMR than a person whose thyroid function is normal. 81) The calorigenic effect of thyroid hormones refers to their effect in increasing the rate at which the body synthesizes protein and fat. 82) When total-body energy balance is positive in an adult, energy is being stored as fat. 83) When Sarah, a type 1 diabetic, injects insulin she finds that her appetite disappears entirely. 84) Anorexia nervosa is excessive thinness usually caused by hyperthyroidism. 85) In response to cold stimuli, human beings increase their rate of heat production primarily by increasing basal metabolic rate. 86) The body's most effective mechanism for reducing heat loss is vasoconstriction of blood vessels in the skin. 87) Heat loss from evaporation occurs only when one is sweating. 88) The reason high humidity plays such a significant role in increasing the discomfort felt on very hot days is that it decreases the cooling properties of conduction. 89) Receptors for the regulation of body temperature are heat and cold receptors in the skin, the CNS, and internal organs. 90) The integrating centers for temperature-regulating reflexes are located in the brain stem. 91) Fever differs from other forms of hyperthermia in that it results from resetting the hypothalamic "thermostat" to a higher level.
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92) Sarah is a type 1 diabetic who forgot to bring insulin with her today. By the end of the day, Sarah is not feeling well. Which of the following is she likely experiencing? A) Hypoglycemia B) Metabolic alkalosis C) Dehydration D) Glucosuria (glucose in urine) E) Increased lipolysis 93) You are volunteering at a weight-loss clinic. You're in charge of a station that calculates each participant's basal metabolic rate. Which of the following pieces of information are useful to collect? A) Gender B) Recent ingestion of food C) Body surface area and emotional state D) Age E) Circulating levels of thyroid hormone 94) Susan recently had bariatric surgery which removed 85% of her stomach cells. Which of the following would you expect to decrease immediately after surgery? A) Hunger B) Ghrelin C) Leptin D) Thyroid hormone E) Basal metabolic rate
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Vander's Human Physiology, 15e (Widmaier) Chapter 16 Regulation of Organic Metabolism and Energy Balance 1) Which of the these events follows the absorption of glucose? A) Glucose is stored as fat in skeletal muscle. B) Glucose is stored as glycogen in adipose tissue. C) Glucose is converted to fat in the liver. D) Glucose is used to make energy by only the brain. E) Glucose is converted to amino acids in the muscles. Answer: C Section: 16.01 Topic: Metabolism of carbohydrates; Metabolic roles of body organs Bloom's: Level 2. Understand HAPS Topic: Module O03 Cellular respiration and the catabolism and anabolism of carbohydrates, lipids, and proteins.; Module O04 Metabolic roles of body organs.; Module O05 Energy balance and thermoregulation. HAPS Outcome: O04.01 Describe the role of the liver in metabolism.; O04.03 Describe the role of skeletal muscle in metabolism.; O03.01g With respect to carbohydrate metabolism, predict the metabolic conditions that would favor each of the following processes: glycogenesis, glycogenolysis and gluconeogenesis.; O03.01e With respect to carbohydrate metabolism, describe the processes of glycogenesis, glycogenolysis, and gluconeogenesis, including the substrates and products of each.; O03.03e With respect to fat metabolism, describe the nutrient interconversion pathways that involve fats.; O04.02 Explain the role of adipose tissue in metabolism.; O05.01 Compare and contrast the processes that occur in the absorptive and postabsorptive states.
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2) Which of the following is NOT a fate of absorbed glucose? A) It is converted to glycogen by liver cells. B) It is converted to fatty acids and alpha-glycerol phosphate in adipose cells. C) It is converted to glycogen in muscle cells. D) It is converted to urea by liver cells. E) It is converted to fatty acids and alpha-glycerol phosphate by liver cells. Answer: D Section: 16.01 Topic: Metabolism of carbohydrates; Metabolic roles of body organs Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module O03 Cellular respiration and the catabolism and anabolism of carbohydrates, lipids, and proteins.; Module O04 Metabolic roles of body organs.; Module O05 Energy balance and thermoregulation. HAPS Outcome: O04.01 Describe the role of the liver in metabolism.; O04.03 Describe the role of skeletal muscle in metabolism.; O03.01g With respect to carbohydrate metabolism, predict the metabolic conditions that would favor each of the following processes: glycogenesis, glycogenolysis and gluconeogenesis.; O03.01e With respect to carbohydrate metabolism, describe the processes of glycogenesis, glycogenolysis, and gluconeogenesis, including the substrates and products of each.; O03.03e With respect to fat metabolism, describe the nutrient interconversion pathways that involve fats.; O04.02 Explain the role of adipose tissue in metabolism.; O05.01 Compare and contrast the processes that occur in the absorptive and postabsorptive states.; O03.02e With respect to protein and amino acid metabolism, describe the effect of protein metabolism on ammonia and urea production.
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3) During the absorptive state of metabolism A) liver glycogen is broken down to glucose, which is released into the blood. B) glycogen in muscle cells is broken down to glucose, which is used for energy. C) lipoprotein lipase breaks down triacylglycerols in adipose tissue capillaries. D) fatty acids and glycerol are released from adipose tissue. E) lactate and pyruvate secretion into the bloodstream by the muscles increases. Answer: C Section: 16.01 Topic: Metabolism of carbohydrates; Metabolism of lipids; Metabolic roles of body organs Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module O03 Cellular respiration and the catabolism and anabolism of carbohydrates, lipids, and proteins.; Module O04 Metabolic roles of body organs.; Module O05 Energy balance and thermoregulation. HAPS Outcome: O04.01 Describe the role of the liver in metabolism.; O04.03 Describe the role of skeletal muscle in metabolism.; O03.01g With respect to carbohydrate metabolism, predict the metabolic conditions that would favor each of the following processes: glycogenesis, glycogenolysis and gluconeogenesis.; O03.01b With respect to carbohydrate metabolism, describe the processes of glycolysis, formation of acetyl CoA, the Krebs (TCA) cycle, and the electron transport chain, including the substrates and products of each, their locations within the cell and the energy yield of each process.; O03.01e With respect to carbohydrate metabolism, describe the processes of glycogenesis, glycogenolysis, and gluconeogenesis, including the substrates and products of each.; O03.03b With respect to fat metabolism, describe the basic process of lipogenesis and lipolysis.; O03.03e With respect to fat metabolism, describe the nutrient interconversion pathways that involve fats.; O04.02 Explain the role of adipose tissue in metabolism.; O05.01 Compare and contrast the processes that occur in the absorptive and postabsorptive states.
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4) Which is TRUE regarding chylomicrons? A) They readily cross the plasma membrane of adipocytes. B) They are converted to monoglycerides and fatty acids by an enzyme inside muscle cells. C) They are converted to monoglycerides and fatty acids by an enzyme found inside capillaries. D) They are formed in the lumen of the GI tract by the action of bile salts. E) They are too large to enter lacteals. Answer: C Section: 16.01 Topic: Metabolism of lipids; Metabolic roles of body organs Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module O03 Cellular respiration and the catabolism and anabolism of carbohydrates, lipids, and proteins.; Module O04 Metabolic roles of body organs.; Module N07 Process of absorption HAPS Outcome: O04.03 Describe the role of skeletal muscle in metabolism.; O03.03b With respect to fat metabolism, describe the basic process of lipogenesis and lipolysis.; O03.03e With respect to fat metabolism, describe the nutrient interconversion pathways that involve fats.; O04.02 Explain the role of adipose tissue in metabolism.; N07.01b With respect to monosaccharides, peptides and amino acids, and fatty acids and monoglycerides, explain the processes involved in absorption of each type of nutrient. 5) What enzyme converts chylomicron triacylglycerols into fatty acids and monoglycerides? A) Pancreatic lipase B) Pancreatic amylase C) Lipoprotein lipase D) Pepsin E) Hexokinase Answer: C Section: 16.01 Topic: Metabolism of lipids Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module O03 Cellular respiration and the catabolism and anabolism of carbohydrates, lipids, and proteins.; Module N06 Mechanical and chemical processes of digestion HAPS Outcome: O03.03b With respect to fat metabolism, describe the basic process of lipogenesis and lipolysis.; N06.02e With respect to enzymatic hydrolysis, list the substrates and products of enzymatic hydrolysis for each enzyme.
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6) Excess absorbed glucose is initially converted to triacylglycerides and very low-density lipoprotein by A) adipose cells. B) liver cells. C) intestinal mucosa cells. D) muscle cells. E) lymphoid cells. Answer: B Section: 16.01 Topic: Metabolism of carbohydrates; Metabolism of lipids; Metabolic roles of body organs Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module O03 Cellular respiration and the catabolism and anabolism of carbohydrates, lipids, and proteins.; Module O04 Metabolic roles of body organs. HAPS Outcome: O04.01 Describe the role of the liver in metabolism.; O04.03 Describe the role of skeletal muscle in metabolism.; O03.03b With respect to fat metabolism, describe the basic process of lipogenesis and lipolysis.; O03.03e With respect to fat metabolism, describe the nutrient interconversion pathways that involve fats.; O04.02 Explain the role of adipose tissue in metabolism. 7) Dietary amino acids in a meal that are in excess of the body's need to make protein are A) converted to glucose in the liver. B) converted to fatty acids in the liver. C) excreted without being absorbed. D) converted to fatty acids in adipose cells. E) burned for fuel by cells of the nervous system. Answer: B Section: 16.01 Topic: Metabolism of proteins; Metabolic roles of body organs Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module O03 Cellular respiration and the catabolism and anabolism of carbohydrates, lipids, and proteins.; Module O04 Metabolic roles of body organs.; Module O05 Energy balance and thermoregulation. HAPS Outcome: O03.02b With respect to protein and amino acid metabolism, describe the process of deamination and its importance in gluconeogenesis and the interconversion of nutrients.; O04.01 Describe the role of the liver in metabolism.; O03.03e With respect to fat metabolism, describe the nutrient interconversion pathways that involve fats.; O04.02 Explain the role of adipose tissue in metabolism.; O05.01 Compare and contrast the processes that occur in the absorptive and post-absorptive states.
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8) You are guaranteed to not gain body fat in a diet that is entirely composed of A) carbohydrates. B) None of these answers are correct. C) fats. D) protein. Answer: B Section: 16.01 Topic: Metabolism of proteins; Metabolic roles of body organs Bloom's: Level 3. Apply HAPS Topic: Module O03 Cellular respiration and the catabolism and anabolism of carbohydrates, lipids, and proteins.; Module O04 Metabolic roles of body organs.; Module O05 Energy balance and thermoregulation. HAPS Outcome: O03.02b With respect to protein and amino acid metabolism, describe the process of deamination and its importance in gluconeogenesis and the interconversion of nutrients.; O04.01 Describe the role of the liver in metabolism.; O03.03e With respect to fat metabolism, describe the nutrient interconversion pathways that involve fats.; O04.02 Explain the role of adipose tissue in metabolism.; O05.01 Compare and contrast the processes that occur in the absorptive and post-absorptive states. 9) During the absorptive state of metabolism, amino acids A) are used for protein synthesis in most body cells. B) are used for glycogen synthesis in the liver. C) may be converted to ketones in the liver. D) are burned as fuel in muscles, creating urea as a waste product. E) are mobilized from muscle and other tissues faster than they are taken up by those tissues. Answer: A Section: 16.01 Topic: Metabolism of proteins; Metabolic roles of body organs Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module O01 Nutrition.; Module O03 Cellular respiration and the catabolism and anabolism of carbohydrates, lipids, and proteins.; Module O04 Metabolic roles of body organs.; Module O05 Energy balance and thermoregulation. HAPS Outcome: O03.02b With respect to protein and amino acid metabolism, describe the process of deamination and its importance in gluconeogenesis and the interconversion of nutrients.; O04.01 Describe the role of the liver in metabolism.; O04.03 Describe the role of skeletal muscle in metabolism.; O05.01 Compare and contrast the processes that occur in the absorptive and post-absorptive states.; O01.01c With respect to nutrients, for carbohydrates, fats, and proteins - list their dietary sources, state their energy yields per gram, and discuss their common uses in the body.; O03.03d With respect to fat metabolism, summarize the overall process of the beta oxidation of fatty acids and explain how it relates to ketogenesis and ketoacidosis.
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10) Which of the following tissues is most dependent upon a constant blood supply of glucose? A) Liver B) Brain C) Adipose D) Skeletal muscle E) Cardiac muscle Answer: B Section: 16.01 Topic: Metabolic roles of body organs Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module O05 Energy balance and thermoregulation. HAPS Outcome: O05.03 Explain the significance of glucose-sparing for neural tissue in the post-absorptive state. 11) During the postabsorptive phase of metabolism A) glycogen in muscle cells is broken down to glucose, which is released into the blood. B) liver glycogen is broken down to glucose, which is released into the blood. C) triacylglycerols in adipose tissue are broken down to glucose by lipolysis. D) the liver exports lactate to the muscles, which use it for fuel. E) glycerol and fatty acids are rapidly assembled into triglycerides in adipose tissue. Answer: B Section: 16.01 Topic: Metabolism of carbohydrates; Metabolism of lipids; Metabolic roles of body organs Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module O03 Cellular respiration and the catabolism and anabolism of carbohydrates, lipids, and proteins.; Module O04 Metabolic roles of body organs.; Module O05 Energy balance and thermoregulation. HAPS Outcome: O04.01 Describe the role of the liver in metabolism.; O04.03 Describe the role of skeletal muscle in metabolism.; O03.01g With respect to carbohydrate metabolism, predict the metabolic conditions that would favor each of the following processes: glycogenesis, glycogenolysis and gluconeogenesis.; O03.01e With respect to carbohydrate metabolism, describe the processes of glycogenesis, glycogenolysis, and gluconeogenesis, including the substrates and products of each.; O03.03b With respect to fat metabolism, describe the basic process of lipogenesis and lipolysis.; O04.02 Explain the role of adipose tissue in metabolism.; O05.01 Compare and contrast the processes that occur in the absorptive and post-absorptive states.
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12) Which correctly describes an action of the hormone insulin? A) It increases the uptake and utilization of glucose by muscle and adipose tissue cells. B) It is required for the uptake and utilization of glucose by nervous tissue. C) It decreases the uptake of amino acids by muscle cells. D) It stimulates the breakdown of glycogen in the liver. E) It inhibits the action of lipoprotein lipase in the capillaries of adipose tissue. Answer: A Section: 16.02 Topic: Metabolism of carbohydrates; Metabolism of lipids; Metabolism of proteins; Metabolic roles of body organs; Hormones from other endocrine glands and their functions Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module O03 Cellular respiration and the catabolism and anabolism of carbohydrates, lipids, and proteins.; Module O04 Metabolic roles of body organs.; Module J05 Identity, source, secretory control, and functional roles of the major hormones produced by the body. HAPS Outcome: O03.01f With respect to carbohydrate metabolism, describe the role of hormones (such as cortisol, growth hormone, thyroid hormone, insulin, glucagon and norepinephrine) in regulation of carbohydrate catabolism and anabolism.; O03.02f With respect to protein and amino acid metabolism, describe the role of hormones (such as cortisol, human growth hormone and insulin) in regulation of protein catabolism and anabolism.; O04.01 Describe the role of the liver in metabolism.; O04.03 Describe the role of skeletal muscle in metabolism.; J05.07c In the pancreas, name the target tissue or cells for insulin and glucagon and describe the effect(s) of the hormone on the target tissue or cells.; O04.02 Explain the role of adipose tissue in metabolism.; O03.03c With respect to fat metabolism, describe the role of hormones (such as cortisol, human growth hormone and thyroid hormone) in regulation of lipogenesis and lipolysis.
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13) Sarah is a type 1 diabetic who forgot to bring insulin with her today. Which of the following will be TRUE of Sarah? A) Her muscle and adipose tissue cells will not be able to take up as much glucose from the bloodstream. B) Her brain cells will not be able to take up as much glucose from the bloodstream. C) Her muscle cells will not be able to take up as many amino acids from the bloodstream. D) Her liver will not breakdown glycogen. E) None of these will occur. Answer: A Section: 16.02 Topic: Metabolism of carbohydrates; Metabolism of lipids; Metabolism of proteins; Metabolic roles of body organs; Hormones from other endocrine glands and their functions Bloom's: Level 3. Apply HAPS Topic: Module O03 Cellular respiration and the catabolism and anabolism of carbohydrates, lipids, and proteins.; Module O04 Metabolic roles of body organs.; Module J05 Identity, source, secretory control, and functional roles of the major hormones produced by the body. HAPS Outcome: O03.01f With respect to carbohydrate metabolism, describe the role of hormones (such as cortisol, growth hormone, thyroid hormone, insulin, glucagon and norepinephrine) in regulation of carbohydrate catabolism and anabolism.; O03.02f With respect to protein and amino acid metabolism, describe the role of hormones (such as cortisol, human growth hormone and insulin) in regulation of protein catabolism and anabolism.; O04.01 Describe the role of the liver in metabolism.; O04.03 Describe the role of skeletal muscle in metabolism.; J05.07c In the pancreas, name the target tissue or cells for insulin and glucagon and describe the effect(s) of the hormone on the target tissue or cells.; O04.02 Explain the role of adipose tissue in metabolism.; O03.03c With respect to fat metabolism, describe the role of hormones (such as cortisol, human growth hormone and thyroid hormone) in regulation of lipogenesis and lipolysis.
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14) Which results from insulin binding to its receptor in skeletal muscle plasma membranes? A) Glycogen synthase is stimulated. B) Glycogen phosphorylase is stimulated. C) Lipoprotein lipase is inhibited. D) Glucose transport into the cell is inhibited. E) Protein catabolism is stimulated. Answer: A Section: 16.02 Topic: Metabolism of carbohydrates; Metabolism of lipids; Metabolism of proteins; Metabolic roles of body organs; Hormones from other endocrine glands and their functions Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module O02 Introduction to Metabolism.; Module O03 Cellular respiration and the catabolism and anabolism of carbohydrates, lipids, and proteins.; Module O04 Metabolic roles of body organs.; Module J05 Identity, source, secretory control, and functional roles of the major hormones produced by the body. HAPS Outcome: O03.01f With respect to carbohydrate metabolism, describe the role of hormones (such as cortisol, growth hormone, thyroid hormone, insulin, glucagon and norepinephrine) in regulation of carbohydrate catabolism and anabolism.; O03.02f With respect to protein and amino acid metabolism, describe the role of hormones (such as cortisol, human growth hormone and insulin) in regulation of protein catabolism and anabolism.; O04.03 Describe the role of skeletal muscle in metabolism.; J05.07c In the pancreas, name the target tissue or cells for insulin and glucagon and describe the effect(s) of the hormone on the target tissue or cells.; O03.01e With respect to carbohydrate metabolism, describe the processes of glycogenesis, glycogenolysis, and gluconeogenesis, including the substrates and products of each.; O03.03b With respect to fat metabolism, describe the basic process of lipogenesis and lipolysis.; O03.03c With respect to fat metabolism, describe the role of hormones (such as cortisol, human growth hormone and thyroid hormone) in regulation of lipogenesis and lipolysis.; O02.01 Define metabolism, anabolism and catabolism.
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15) With regard to fat metabolism, insulin increases A) the activity of lipoprotein lipase, which leads to increased triglyceride synthesis. B) the export of fatty acids and monoglyceride from adipocytes. C) the activity of hormone-sensitive lipase, which synthesizes triglycerides. D) the activity of hormone-sensitive lipase, which catabolizes triglycerides. Answer: A Section: 16.02 Topic: Metabolism of lipids; Hormones from other endocrine glands and their functions Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module O02 Introduction to Metabolism.; Module O03 Cellular respiration and the catabolism and anabolism of carbohydrates, lipids, and proteins.; Module J05 Identity, source, secretory control, and functional roles of the major hormones produced by the body. HAPS Outcome: J05.07c In the pancreas, name the target tissue or cells for insulin and glucagon and describe the effect(s) of the hormone on the target tissue or cells.; O03.03b With respect to fat metabolism, describe the basic process of lipogenesis and lipolysis.; O03.03c With respect to fat metabolism, describe the role of hormones (such as cortisol, human growth hormone and thyroid hormone) in regulation of lipogenesis and lipolysis.; O02.01 Define metabolism, anabolism and catabolism. 16) When plasma glucose concentration increases, the secretion of insulin is secretion of glucagon is . An increase in sympathetic activity will cause secretion of insulin and secretion of glucagon. A) decreased; increased; increased; decreased B) increased; decreased; decreased; increased C) increased; decreased; increased; decreased D) increased; increased; decreased; increased E) decreased; decreased; increased; unchanged
and the
Answer: B Section: 16.02 Topic: Metabolism of carbohydrates; Hormones from other endocrine glands and their functions Bloom's: Level 2. Understand HAPS Topic: Module O03 Cellular respiration and the catabolism and anabolism of carbohydrates, lipids, and proteins.; Module O06 Application of homeostatic mechanisms.; Module J05 Identity, source, secretory control, and functional roles of the major hormones produced by the body.; Module J08 Application of homeostatic mechanisms. HAPS Outcome: O06.01 Provide specific examples to demonstrate how metabolic processes respond to maintain homeostasis in the body.; J08.01 Provide specific examples to demonstrate how the endocrine organs respond to maintain homeostasis in the body.; O03.01f With respect to carbohydrate metabolism, describe the role of hormones (such as cortisol, growth hormone, thyroid hormone, insulin, glucagon and norepinephrine) in regulation of carbohydrate catabolism and anabolism.; J05.07a In the pancreas, describe the stimulus for release of insulin and glucagon.
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17) Glucagon secretion is stimulated by A) hypoglycemia and parasympathetic nerve firing. B) hyperglycemia and a high concentration of epinephrine. C) high plasma epinephrine and high plasma incretin concentrations. D) hypoglycemia and high plasma epinephrine concentration. E) hyperglycemia and high plasma incretin concentration. Answer: D Section: 16.02 Topic: Metabolism of carbohydrates; Hormones from other endocrine glands and their functions Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module O03 Cellular respiration and the catabolism and anabolism of carbohydrates, lipids, and proteins.; Module O06 Application of homeostatic mechanisms.; Module J05 Identity, source, secretory control, and functional roles of the major hormones produced by the body.; Module J08 Application of homeostatic mechanisms.; Module N08 Hormonal and neural regulation of digestive processes HAPS Outcome: O06.01 Provide specific examples to demonstrate how metabolic processes respond to maintain homeostasis in the body.; J05.04c In the adrenal gland, name the target tissue or cells for the hormone and describe the effect(s) of glucocorticoids (cortisol), mineralocorticoids (aldosterone), gonadocorticoids, epinephrine and norepinephrine on the target tissue or cells.; J08.01 Provide specific examples to demonstrate how the endocrine organs respond to maintain homeostasis in the body.; O03.01f With respect to carbohydrate metabolism, describe the role of hormones (such as cortisol, growth hormone, thyroid hormone, insulin, glucagon and norepinephrine) in regulation of carbohydrate catabolism and anabolism.; J05.07a In the pancreas, describe the stimulus for release of insulin and glucagon.; J05.11c In the gastrointestinal tract, name the target tissue or cells for gastrin, secretin, cholecystokinin, motilin and gastric inhibiting peptide hormone and describe the effect(s) of the hormone on the target tissue or cells.; N08.06c With respect to the following hormones or paracrine agents - gastrin, cholecystokinin, secretin, glucose-dependent insulinotropic peptide, histamine, somatostatin, and motilin, describe the action of each hormone or agent.; N08.06b With respect to the following hormones or paracrine agents - gastrin, cholecystokinin, secretin, glucose-dependent insulinotropic peptide, histamine, somatostatin, and motilin, state the target organ for each hormone or agent.
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18) You go see a scary movie. By the end of the movie your heart is racing thanks to high levels of epinephrine in your bloodstream. You ate nothing during the movie, but your blood glucose level is likely A) low due to an overall lack of nutrients. B) low due to the action of cortisol on blood glucose regulation. C) elevated due to healthy post-absorptive state mechanisms. D) elevated due to the action of epinephrine on blood glucose regulation. E) elevated due to the pasta meal consumed at home before the movie. Answer: D Section: 16.02 Topic: Metabolism of carbohydrates; Hormones from other endocrine glands and their functions Bloom's: Level 3. Apply HAPS Topic: Module O03 Cellular respiration and the catabolism and anabolism of carbohydrates, lipids, and proteins.; Module O06 Application of homeostatic mechanisms.; Module J05 Identity, source, secretory control, and functional roles of the major hormones produced by the body.; Module J08 Application of homeostatic mechanisms. HAPS Outcome: O06.01 Provide specific examples to demonstrate how metabolic processes respond to maintain homeostasis in the body.; J05.04c In the adrenal gland, name the target tissue or cells for the hormone and describe the effect(s) of glucocorticoids (cortisol), mineralocorticoids (aldosterone), gonadocorticoids, epinephrine and norepinephrine on the target tissue or cells.; J08.01 Provide specific examples to demonstrate how the endocrine organs respond to maintain homeostasis in the body.; O03.01f With respect to carbohydrate metabolism, describe the role of hormones (such as cortisol, growth hormone, thyroid hormone, insulin, glucagon and norepinephrine) in regulation of carbohydrate catabolism and anabolism.; J05.07a In the pancreas, describe the stimulus for release of insulin and glucagon.
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19) The major metabolic effects of glucagon include A) stimulating glycogenolysis and gluconeogenesis in the liver. B) stimulating triglyceride synthesis in adipose tissue. C) stimulating glucose uptake into skeletal muscle cells. D) stimulating the activity of glycogen synthase in the liver. E) inhibiting the enzyme glycogen phosphorylase in the liver. Answer: A Section: 16.02 Topic: Metabolism of carbohydrates; Metabolism of lipids; Hormones from other endocrine glands and their functions Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module O03 Cellular respiration and the catabolism and anabolism of carbohydrates, lipids, and proteins.; Module O04 Metabolic roles of body organs.; Module J05 Identity, source, secretory control, and functional roles of the major hormones produced by the body. HAPS Outcome: O03.01f With respect to carbohydrate metabolism, describe the role of hormones (such as cortisol, growth hormone, thyroid hormone, insulin, glucagon and norepinephrine) in regulation of carbohydrate catabolism and anabolism.; O04.01 Describe the role of the liver in metabolism.; O04.03 Describe the role of skeletal muscle in metabolism.; J05.07c In the pancreas, name the target tissue or cells for insulin and glucagon and describe the effect(s) of the hormone on the target tissue or cells.; O03.01e With respect to carbohydrate metabolism, describe the processes of glycogenesis, glycogenolysis, and gluconeogenesis, including the substrates and products of each.; O04.02 Explain the role of adipose tissue in metabolism.; O03.03c With respect to fat metabolism, describe the role of hormones (such as cortisol, human growth hormone and thyroid hormone) in regulation of lipogenesis and lipolysis.
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20) Talia is a busy store clerk on Black Friday. She ate breakfast at 7 am but was not able to take a lunch break because the store was too busy. Its now 3 pm and she's beginning to feel a bit odd.Which of the following does NOT describe Talia's physiological state? A) Hyperglycemia is occurring. B) Gluconeogenesis is occurring. C) Glucose-sparing reactions are occurring. D) Insulin secretion is lower than in the absorptive state. E) Glucagon secretion is higher than in the absorptive state. Answer: A Section: 16.01; 16.02 Topic: Metabolism of carbohydrates; Hormones from other endocrine glands and their functions Bloom's: Level 3. Apply HAPS Topic: Module O03 Cellular respiration and the catabolism and anabolism of carbohydrates, lipids, and proteins.; Module O05 Energy balance and thermoregulation.; Module J05 Identity, source, secretory control, and functional roles of the major hormones produced by the body. HAPS Outcome: J05.07a In the pancreas, describe the stimulus for release of insulin and glucagon.; O03.01g With respect to carbohydrate metabolism, predict the metabolic conditions that would favor each of the following processes: glycogenesis, glycogenolysis and gluconeogenesis.; O05.02 Explain the role of cortisol, human growth hormone, thyroid hormone, insulin and glucagon in the absorptive and post-absorptive states.; O05.03 Explain the significance of glucose-sparing for neural tissue in the post-absorptive state.; O05.01 Compare and contrast the processes that occur in the absorptive and post-absorptive states.
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21) Which of the following is a major metabolic effect of glucagon? A) Increased glucose uptake by muscle cells B) Increased triglyceride synthesis in adipose tissue C) Decreased glycogenolysis in muscle D) Decreased gluconeogenesis in liver E) Increased glycogenolysis in liver Answer: E Section: 16.02 Topic: Metabolism of carbohydrates; Metabolic roles of body organs; Hormones from other endocrine glands and their functions Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module O03 Cellular respiration and the catabolism and anabolism of carbohydrates, lipids, and proteins.; Module O04 Metabolic roles of body organs.; Module J05 Identity, source, secretory control, and functional roles of the major hormones produced by the body. HAPS Outcome: O03.01f With respect to carbohydrate metabolism, describe the role of hormones (such as cortisol, growth hormone, thyroid hormone, insulin, glucagon and norepinephrine) in regulation of carbohydrate catabolism and anabolism.; O04.01 Describe the role of the liver in metabolism.; O04.03 Describe the role of skeletal muscle in metabolism.; J05.07c In the pancreas, name the target tissue or cells for insulin and glucagon and describe the effect(s) of the hormone on the target tissue or cells.; O04.02 Explain the role of adipose tissue in metabolism.; O03.03c With respect to fat metabolism, describe the role of hormones (such as cortisol, human growth hormone and thyroid hormone) in regulation of lipogenesis and lipolysis.
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22) Sarah is a type 1 diabetic. She recently refilled her prescription, but was given glucagon instead of insulin. After her first glucagon injection, which of the following is likely TRUE? A) Increased glucose uptake by muscle cells B) Increased triglyceride synthesis in adipose tissue C) Decreased glycogenolysis in muscle D) Decreased gluconeogenesis in liver E) Increased glycogenolysis in liver Answer: E Section: 16.02 Topic: Metabolism of carbohydrates; Metabolic roles of body organs; Hormones from other endocrine glands and their functions Bloom's: Level 3. Apply HAPS Topic: Module O03 Cellular respiration and the catabolism and anabolism of carbohydrates, lipids, and proteins.; Module O04 Metabolic roles of body organs.; Module J05 Identity, source, secretory control, and functional roles of the major hormones produced by the body. HAPS Outcome: O03.01f With respect to carbohydrate metabolism, describe the role of hormones (such as cortisol, growth hormone, thyroid hormone, insulin, glucagon and norepinephrine) in regulation of carbohydrate catabolism and anabolism.; O04.01 Describe the role of the liver in metabolism.; O04.03 Describe the role of skeletal muscle in metabolism.; J05.07c In the pancreas, name the target tissue or cells for insulin and glucagon and describe the effect(s) of the hormone on the target tissue or cells.; O04.02 Explain the role of adipose tissue in metabolism.; O03.03c With respect to fat metabolism, describe the role of hormones (such as cortisol, human growth hormone and thyroid hormone) in regulation of lipogenesis and lipolysis.
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23) Which of the following would increase gluconeogenesis? A) Increased plasma insulin levels B) Increased plasma incretin levels C) Increased plasma cortisol levels D) Decreased plasma growth hormone levels E) Decreased plasma glucagon levels Answer: C Section: 16.02 Topic: Metabolism of carbohydrates; Hormones from other endocrine glands and their functions; Hormones of the hypothalamus and pituitary glands and their functions Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module O03 Cellular respiration and the catabolism and anabolism of carbohydrates, lipids, and proteins.; Module J05 Identity, source, secretory control, and functional roles of the major hormones produced by the body.; Module N08 Hormonal and neural regulation of digestive processes HAPS Outcome: J05.04c In the adrenal gland, name the target tissue or cells for the hormone and describe the effect(s) of glucocorticoids (cortisol), mineralocorticoids (aldosterone), gonadocorticoids, epinephrine and norepinephrine on the target tissue or cells.; O03.01f With respect to carbohydrate metabolism, describe the role of hormones (such as cortisol, growth hormone, thyroid hormone, insulin, glucagon and norepinephrine) in regulation of carbohydrate catabolism and anabolism.; J05.01c Name the target tissue or cells for the hormone and describe the effect(s) of the hormone on the target tissue or cells of growth hormone, thyroid-stimulating hormone, luteinizing hormone, follicle stimulating hormone, prolactin, adrenocorticotropic hormone, oxytocin, and antidiuretic hormone (or vasopressin.; J05.07c In the pancreas, name the target tissue or cells for insulin and glucagon and describe the effect(s) of the hormone on the target tissue or cells.; J05.11c In the gastrointestinal tract, name the target tissue or cells for gastrin, secretin, cholecystokinin, motilin and gastric inhibiting peptide hormone and describe the effect(s) of the hormone on the target tissue or cells.; N08.06c With respect to the following hormones or paracrine agents - gastrin, cholecystokinin, secretin, glucose-dependent insulinotropic peptide, histamine, somatostatin, and motilin, describe the action of each hormone or agent.
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24) Gluconeogenesis is stimulated by decreased levels of A) epinephrine. B) insulin. C) glucocorticoids. D) growth hormone. E) glucagon. Answer: B Section: 16.02 Topic: Metabolism of carbohydrates; Hormones from other endocrine glands and their functions; Hormones of the hypothalamus and pituitary glands and their functions Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module O03 Cellular respiration and the catabolism and anabolism of carbohydrates, lipids, and proteins.; Module J05 Identity, source, secretory control, and functional roles of the major hormones produced by the body. HAPS Outcome: J05.04c In the adrenal gland, name the target tissue or cells for the hormone and describe the effect(s) of glucocorticoids (cortisol), mineralocorticoids (aldosterone), gonadocorticoids, epinephrine and norepinephrine on the target tissue or cells.; O03.01f With respect to carbohydrate metabolism, describe the role of hormones (such as cortisol, growth hormone, thyroid hormone, insulin, glucagon and norepinephrine) in regulation of carbohydrate catabolism and anabolism.; J05.01c Name the target tissue or cells for the hormone and describe the effect(s) of the hormone on the target tissue or cells of growth hormone, thyroid-stimulating hormone, luteinizing hormone, follicle stimulating hormone, prolactin, adrenocorticotropic hormone, oxytocin, and antidiuretic hormone (or vasopressin.; J05.07c In the pancreas, name the target tissue or cells for insulin and glucagon and describe the effect(s) of the hormone on the target tissue or cells.
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25) Which of the following acts to decrease blood glucose levels? A) Glucagon B) Insulin C) Growth hormone D) Epinephrine E) Cortisol Answer: B Section: 16.02 Topic: Metabolism of carbohydrates; Hormones from other endocrine glands and their functions; Hormones of the hypothalamus and pituitary glands and their functions Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module O03 Cellular respiration and the catabolism and anabolism of carbohydrates, lipids, and proteins.; Module J05 Identity, source, secretory control, and functional roles of the major hormones produced by the body. HAPS Outcome: O03.01f With respect to carbohydrate metabolism, describe the role of hormones (such as cortisol, growth hormone, thyroid hormone, insulin, glucagon and norepinephrine) in regulation of carbohydrate catabolism and anabolism.; J05.04d In the adrenal gland, predict the larger effect that fluctuations in glucocorticoids (cortisol), mineralocorticoids (aldosterone), gonadocorticoids, epinephrine and norepinephrine levels will have on conditions (variables) within the body.; J05.07d In the pancreas, predict the larger effect that fluctuations in insulin and glucagon levels will have on conditions (variables) within the body.; J05.01d Predict the larger effect that fluctuations in the hormone level will have on conditions (variables) within the body for growth hormone, thyroid-stimulating hormone, luteinizing hormone, follicle stimulating hormone, prolactin, adrenocorticotropic hormone, oxytocin, and antidiuretic hormone (or vasopressin).
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26) A group of students has declared a hunger strike to protest a perception of low-quality dorm food. Jose is one of the protesting students and he has not eaten for three days. Which of the following is likely TRUE of Jose's physiological state? A) The secretion of insulin, glucagon, ACTH, and cortisol are all increased. B) Brain metabolism has shifted to increase utilization of glucose and to decrease oxidation of ketones. C) Muscle protein is broken down to provide substrates for hepatic and renal gluconeogenesis. D) The secretion of insulin, glucagon, ACTH, and cortisol are all decreased. E) The secretion of insulin and cortisol are increased, while glucagon and ACTH secretion are decreased. Answer: C Section: 16.01; 16.02 Topic: Metabolism of carbohydrates; Metabolism of proteins; Metabolic roles of body organs; Clinical applications of nutrition and metabolism; Hormones from other endocrine glands and their functions; Hormones of the hypothalamus and pituitary glands and their functions Bloom's: Level 3. Apply HAPS Topic: Module O03 Cellular respiration and the catabolism and anabolism of carbohydrates, lipids, and proteins.; Module O04 Metabolic roles of body organs.; Module O05 Energy balance and thermoregulation.; Module O06 Application of homeostatic mechanisms.; Module O07 Predictions related to homeostatic imbalance, including disease states and disorders.; Module J05 Identity, source, secretory control, and functional roles of the major hormones produced by the body.; Module J07 Hormonal response to stress.; Module J08 Application of homeostatic mechanisms. HAPS Outcome: O06.01 Provide specific examples to demonstrate how metabolic processes respond to maintain homeostasis in the body.; J07.03 List the major hormones released during long-term stress and describe the hormonal actions.; J08.01 Provide specific examples to demonstrate how the endocrine organs respond to maintain homeostasis in the body.; O03.02b With respect to protein and amino acid metabolism, describe the process of deamination and its importance in gluconeogenesis and the interconversion of nutrients.; O03.02f With respect to protein and amino acid metabolism, describe the role of hormones (such as cortisol, human growth hormone and insulin) in regulation of protein catabolism and anabolism.; O04.01 Describe the role of the liver in metabolism.; O04.03 Describe the role of skeletal muscle in metabolism.; J05.01a Describe the stimulus for release of growth hormone, thyroid-stimulating hormone, luteinizing hormone, follicle stimulating hormone, prolactin, adrenocorticotropic hormone, oxytocin, and antidiuretic hormone (or vasopressin).; J05.04a In the adrenal gland, describe the stimulus for release of glucocorticoids (cortisol), mineralocorticoids (aldosterone), gonadocorticoids, epinephrine and norepinephrine.; J05.07a In the pancreas, describe the stimulus for release of insulin and glucagon.; O03.01g With respect to carbohydrate metabolism, predict the metabolic conditions that would favor each of the following processes: glycogenesis, glycogenolysis and gluconeogenesis.; O05.02 Explain the role of cortisol, human growth hormone, thyroid hormone, insulin and glucagon in the absorptive and post-absorptive states.; O05.03 Explain the significance of glucose-sparing for neural tissue in the post-absorptive state.; O07.01 Predict factors or situations affecting metabolism that could disrupt homeostasis.; O07.02 Predict the types of problems that would occur in the body metabolic processes could not maintain homeostasis. 21 Copyright 2019 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.
27) Which accurately describes the metabolic actions of cortisol during fasting? A) It decreases blood glucose by increasing the sensitivity of muscle and adipose tissue to insulin. B) It stimulates protein synthesis in muscle cells, and is permissive of triglyceride synthesis by adipocytes. C) It increases sensitivity of muscle and adipose to insulin, and inhibits gluconeogenesis in the liver. D) It directly stimulates gluconeogenesis and lipolysis, and increases sensitivity of muscle and adipose tissue to insulin. E) It is permissive of gluconeogenesis and lipolysis, and reduces sensitivity of muscle and adipose tissue to insulin. Answer: E Section: 16.02 Topic: Metabolism of carbohydrates; Metabolism of lipids; Metabolism of proteins; Metabolic roles of body organs; Hormones from other endocrine glands and their functions Bloom's: Level 2. Understand HAPS Topic: Module O03 Cellular respiration and the catabolism and anabolism of carbohydrates, lipids, and proteins.; Module O04 Metabolic roles of body organs.; Module O05 Energy balance and thermoregulation.; Module O06 Application of homeostatic mechanisms.; Module J05 Identity, source, secretory control, and functional roles of the major hormones produced by the body.; Module J07 Hormonal response to stress.; Module J08 Application of homeostatic mechanisms. HAPS Outcome: O06.01 Provide specific examples to demonstrate how metabolic processes respond to maintain homeostasis in the body.; J05.04c In the adrenal gland, name the target tissue or cells for the hormone and describe the effect(s) of glucocorticoids (cortisol), mineralocorticoids (aldosterone), gonadocorticoids, epinephrine and norepinephrine on the target tissue or cells.; J07.03 List the major hormones released during long-term stress and describe the hormonal actions.; J08.01 Provide specific examples to demonstrate how the endocrine organs respond to maintain homeostasis in the body.; O03.01f With respect to carbohydrate metabolism, describe the role of hormones (such as cortisol, growth hormone, thyroid hormone, insulin, glucagon and norepinephrine) in regulation of carbohydrate catabolism and anabolism.; O03.02f With respect to protein and amino acid metabolism, describe the role of hormones (such as cortisol, human growth hormone and insulin) in regulation of protein catabolism and anabolism.; O04.01 Describe the role of the liver in metabolism.; O04.03 Describe the role of skeletal muscle in metabolism.; O05.02 Explain the role of cortisol, human growth hormone, thyroid hormone, insulin and glucagon in the absorptive and post-absorptive states.; J05.07c In the pancreas, name the target tissue or cells for insulin and glucagon and describe the effect(s) of the hormone on the target tissue or cells.; O04.02 Explain the role of adipose tissue in metabolism.; O03.03c With respect to fat metabolism, describe the role of hormones (such as cortisol, human growth hormone and thyroid hormone) in regulation of lipogenesis and lipolysis.
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28) A group of students has declared a hunger strike to protest a perception of low-quality dorm food. Jose is one of the protesting students and he has not eaten for three days. A blood test reveals that there are high levels of ketones in Jose's blood. These ketones A) are a waste product of amino acid metabolism that the kidneys must excrete. B) can be used by the brain as an energy source. C) are a by-product of anaerobic metabolism. D) are converted to fatty acids and released into the blood. E) are used to synthesize glucose by gluconeogenesis. Answer: B Section: 16.01 Topic: Metabolism of lipids; Metabolic roles of body organs Bloom's: Level 3. Apply HAPS Topic: Module O03 Cellular respiration and the catabolism and anabolism of carbohydrates, lipids, and proteins.; Module O04 Metabolic roles of body organs.; Module O05 Energy balance and thermoregulation.; Module O06 Application of homeostatic mechanisms. HAPS Outcome: O06.01 Provide specific examples to demonstrate how metabolic processes respond to maintain homeostasis in the body.; O04.01 Describe the role of the liver in metabolism.; O05.03 Explain the significance of glucose-sparing for neural tissue in the postabsorptive state.; O03.01e With respect to carbohydrate metabolism, describe the processes of glycogenesis, glycogenolysis, and gluconeogenesis, including the substrates and products of each.; O03.03e With respect to fat metabolism, describe the nutrient interconversion pathways that involve fats.; O03.03d With respect to fat metabolism, summarize the overall process of the beta oxidation of fatty acids and explain how it relates to ketogenesis and ketoacidosis.; O03.01d With respect to carbohydrate metabolism, describe the anaerobic process for generating ATP, including conditions under which it occurs and its products and their functions.
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29) During exercise A) blood glucose levels fall dramatically. B) epinephrine and glucagon stimulate glycogenolysis in liver cells. C) decreased blood glucose and increased epinephrine stimulate insulin secretion. D) epinephrine stimulates glucagon secretion and inhibits skeletal muscle uptake of glucose. E) cortisol and growth hormone secretion are decreased. Answer: B Section: 16.02; 16.03 Topic: Metabolism of carbohydrates; Metabolic roles of body organs; Hormones from other endocrine glands and their functions; Hormones of the hypothalamus and pituitary glands and their functions Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module O03 Cellular respiration and the catabolism and anabolism of carbohydrates, lipids, and proteins.; Module O04 Metabolic roles of body organs.; Module O06 Application of homeostatic mechanisms.; Module J05 Identity, source, secretory control, and functional roles of the major hormones produced by the body.; Module J07 Hormonal response to stress.; Module J08 Application of homeostatic mechanisms. HAPS Outcome: O06.01 Provide specific examples to demonstrate how metabolic processes respond to maintain homeostasis in the body.; J05.04c In the adrenal gland, name the target tissue or cells for the hormone and describe the effect(s) of glucocorticoids (cortisol), mineralocorticoids (aldosterone), gonadocorticoids, epinephrine and norepinephrine on the target tissue or cells.; J07.02 List the hormones released during short-term stress and describe the hormonal actions.; J08.01 Provide specific examples to demonstrate how the endocrine organs respond to maintain homeostasis in the body.; O03.01f With respect to carbohydrate metabolism, describe the role of hormones (such as cortisol, growth hormone, thyroid hormone, insulin, glucagon and norepinephrine) in regulation of carbohydrate catabolism and anabolism.; O04.01 Describe the role of the liver in metabolism.; O04.03 Describe the role of skeletal muscle in metabolism.; J05.01a Describe the stimulus for release of growth hormone, thyroid-stimulating hormone, luteinizing hormone, follicle stimulating hormone, prolactin, adrenocorticotropic hormone, oxytocin, and antidiuretic hormone (or vasopressin).; J05.04a In the adrenal gland, describe the stimulus for release of glucocorticoids (cortisol), mineralocorticoids (aldosterone), gonadocorticoids, epinephrine and norepinephrine.; J05.07a In the pancreas, describe the stimulus for release of insulin and glucagon.; O03.01g With respect to carbohydrate metabolism, predict the metabolic conditions that would favor each of the following processes: glycogenesis, glycogenolysis and gluconeogenesis.; J05.07c In the pancreas, name the target tissue or cells for insulin and glucagon and describe the effect(s) of the hormone on the target tissue or cells.
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30) Which event occurs during exercise but NOT during fasting? A) Increased breakdown of triglycerides B) Increased glycogenolysis C) Increased glucose uptake by muscle D) Increased fatty acid oxidation E) Increased cortisol secretion Answer: C Section: 16.03 Topic: Metabolism of carbohydrates; Metabolism of lipids; Metabolic roles of body organs; Hormones from other endocrine glands and their functions Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module O03 Cellular respiration and the catabolism and anabolism of carbohydrates, lipids, and proteins.; Module O04 Metabolic roles of body organs.; Module O05 Energy balance and thermoregulation.; Module O06 Application of homeostatic mechanisms.; Module J05 Identity, source, secretory control, and functional roles of the major hormones produced by the body.; Module J07 Hormonal response to stress.; Module J08 Application of homeostatic mechanisms. HAPS Outcome: O06.01 Provide specific examples to demonstrate how metabolic processes respond to maintain homeostasis in the body.; J07.02 List the hormones released during shortterm stress and describe the hormonal actions.; J07.03 List the major hormones released during long-term stress and describe the hormonal actions.; J08.01 Provide specific examples to demonstrate how the endocrine organs respond to maintain homeostasis in the body.; O04.03 Describe the role of skeletal muscle in metabolism.; J05.04a In the adrenal gland, describe the stimulus for release of glucocorticoids (cortisol), mineralocorticoids (aldosterone), gonadocorticoids, epinephrine and norepinephrine.; O03.01g With respect to carbohydrate metabolism, predict the metabolic conditions that would favor each of the following processes: glycogenesis, glycogenolysis and gluconeogenesis.; O05.02 Explain the role of cortisol, human growth hormone, thyroid hormone, insulin and glucagon in the absorptive and post-absorptive states.; O05.01 Compare and contrast the processes that occur in the absorptive and postabsorptive states.
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31) In Addison's disease, the adrenal cortices degenerate. Which will result if a patient with this disease undergoes prolonged fasting? A) Hypoglycemia B) Hyperglycemia C) Excessive lipolysis D) Decreased insulin sensitivity E) Excessive liver gluconeogenesis Answer: A Section: 16.02 Topic: Metabolism of carbohydrates; Metabolism of lipids; Clinical applications of nutrition and metabolism; Hormones from other endocrine glands and their functions Bloom's: Level 3. Apply HAPS Topic: Module O03 Cellular respiration and the catabolism and anabolism of carbohydrates, lipids, and proteins.; Module O05 Energy balance and thermoregulation.; Module O07 Predictions related to homeostatic imbalance, including disease states and disorders.; Module J05 Identity, source, secretory control, and functional roles of the major hormones produced by the body.; Module J09 Predictions related to homeostatic imbalance, including disease states and disorders. HAPS Outcome: O03.01f With respect to carbohydrate metabolism, describe the role of hormones (such as cortisol, growth hormone, thyroid hormone, insulin, glucagon and norepinephrine) in regulation of carbohydrate catabolism and anabolism.; O03.01g With respect to carbohydrate metabolism, predict the metabolic conditions that would favor each of the following processes: glycogenesis, glycogenolysis and gluconeogenesis.; O05.02 Explain the role of cortisol, human growth hormone, thyroid hormone, insulin and glucagon in the absorptive and post-absorptive states.; O07.01 Predict factors or situations affecting metabolism that could disrupt homeostasis.; O07.02 Predict the types of problems that would occur in the body metabolic processes could not maintain homeostasis.; J05.04d In the adrenal gland, predict the larger effect that fluctuations in glucocorticoids (cortisol), mineralocorticoids (aldosterone), gonadocorticoids, epinephrine and norepinephrine levels will have on conditions (variables) within the body.; O03.03c With respect to fat metabolism, describe the role of hormones (such as cortisol, human growth hormone and thyroid hormone) in regulation of lipogenesis and lipolysis.; J09.01 Predict factors or situations affecting the endocrine organs that could disrupt homeostasis.; J09.02 Predict the types of problems that would occur in the body if the various endocrine organs could not maintain homeostasis.; J05.04b In the adrenal gland, identify the gland or endocrine tissue/organ and the cells within that gland/tissue/organ that produce glucocorticoids (cortisol), mineralocorticoids (aldosterone), gonadocorticoids, epinephrine and norepinephrine.
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32) In untreated type 1 diabetes mellitus (insulin-dependent diabetes mellitus), acidosis occurs because A) dehydration concentrates the blood so even though H+ production is normal, its concentration is high. B) kidney failure results in a decreased ability to excrete the normal amount of H+. C) excess plasma glucose is taken up by the liver and converted to fatty acids. D) insulin levels are extremely high, and insulin is an acidic protein hormone. E) excessive lipolysis results in increased plasma fatty acid levels, which the liver converts to acidic ketones. Answer: E Section: 16.01 Topic: Metabolism of lipids; Clinical applications of nutrition and metabolism; Hormones from other endocrine glands and their functions Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module O03 Cellular respiration and the catabolism and anabolism of carbohydrates, lipids, and proteins.; Module O07 Predictions related to homeostatic imbalance, including disease states and disorders.; Module J05 Identity, source, secretory control, and functional roles of the major hormones produced by the body.; Module J09 Predictions related to homeostatic imbalance, including disease states and disorders.; Module Q08 Predictions related to homeostatic imbalance, including disease states and disorders HAPS Outcome: O07.01 Predict factors or situations affecting metabolism that could disrupt homeostasis.; O07.02 Predict the types of problems that would occur in the body metabolic processes could not maintain homeostasis.; J05.07c In the pancreas, name the target tissue or cells for insulin and glucagon and describe the effect(s) of the hormone on the target tissue or cells.; O03.03c With respect to fat metabolism, describe the role of hormones (such as cortisol, human growth hormone and thyroid hormone) in regulation of lipogenesis and lipolysis.; J09.01 Predict factors or situations affecting the endocrine organs that could disrupt homeostasis.; J09.02 Predict the types of problems that would occur in the body if the various endocrine organs could not maintain homeostasis.; O03.03d With respect to fat metabolism, summarize the overall process of the beta oxidation of fatty acids and explain how it relates to ketogenesis and ketoacidosis.; Q08.02 Predict factors or situations that would lead to a disruption of homeostasis by causing respiratory acidosis, respiratory alkalosis, metabolic acidosis, or metabolic alkalosis.
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33) Sarah is a type 1 diabetic who forgot to bring her insulin today. By the end of the day, Sarah is not feeling well. Which would NOT be a characteristic of Sarah at the end of the day with no insulin injections? A) Decreased glycogen stores in muscles B) Increased glucose-bound hemoglobin C) Decreased blood pH D) Increased urination frequency E) Decreased thirst Answer: E Section: 16.02 Topic: Metabolism of carbohydrates; Metabolic roles of body organs; Clinical applications of nutrition and metabolism; Hormones from other endocrine glands and their functions Bloom's: Level 3. Apply HAPS Topic: Module O03 Cellular respiration and the catabolism and anabolism of carbohydrates, lipids, and proteins.; Module O04 Metabolic roles of body organs.; Module O07 Predictions related to homeostatic imbalance, including disease states and disorders.; Module J05 Identity, source, secretory control, and functional roles of the major hormones produced by the body.; Module J09 Predictions related to homeostatic imbalance, including disease states and disorders.; Module Q08 Predictions related to homeostatic imbalance, including disease states and disorders; Module P08 Predictions related to homeostatic imbalance, including disease states and disorders; Module P03 Functional processes of urine formation, including filtration, reabsorption, and secretion HAPS Outcome: O03.01f With respect to carbohydrate metabolism, describe the role of hormones (such as cortisol, growth hormone, thyroid hormone, insulin, glucagon and norepinephrine) in regulation of carbohydrate catabolism and anabolism.; O04.03 Describe the role of skeletal muscle in metabolism.; O07.01 Predict factors or situations affecting metabolism that could disrupt homeostasis.; O07.02 Predict the types of problems that would occur in the body metabolic processes could not maintain homeostasis.; J05.07d In the pancreas, predict the larger effect that fluctuations in insulin and glucagon levels will have on conditions (variables) within the body.; O03.03c With respect to fat metabolism, describe the role of hormones (such as cortisol, human growth hormone and thyroid hormone) in regulation of lipogenesis and lipolysis.; J09.01 Predict factors or situations affecting the endocrine organs that could disrupt homeostasis.; J09.02 Predict the types of problems that would occur in the body if the various endocrine organs could not maintain homeostasis.; O03.03d With respect to fat metabolism, summarize the overall process of the beta oxidation of fatty acids and explain how it relates to ketogenesis and ketoacidosis.; P03.03d With respect to reabsorption, describe how and where water, organic compounds, and ions are reabsorbed in the nephron.; P08.01 Predict factors or situations affecting the urinary system that could disrupt homeostasis.; Q08.01 Predict factors or situations that would lead to a disruption of homeostasis by affecting the volume or composition of body fluids.; Q08.02 Predict factors or situations that would lead to a disruption of homeostasis by causing respiratory acidosis, respiratory alkalosis, metabolic acidosis, or metabolic alkalosis.
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34) Sarah is a type 1 diabetic who forgot to bring her insulin today. By the end of the day, Sarah is not feeling well. She stops at the campus health center on her way back to her dorm, where they run a few tests on her blood. Which of these test results is likely? A) Low plasma ketone levels B) Increased blood volume C) Decreased oxygen levels in Sarah's blood D) Hyperglycemia E) Decreased blood pressure Answer: D Section: Clinical Case Study Topic: Metabolism of carbohydrates; Clinical applications of nutrition and metabolism; Hormones from other endocrine glands and their functions Bloom's: Level 1. Remember; Level 3. Apply HAPS Topic: Module O03 Cellular respiration and the catabolism and anabolism of carbohydrates, lipids, and proteins.; Module O07 Predictions related to homeostatic imbalance, including disease states and disorders.; Module J05 Identity, source, secretory control, and functional roles of the major hormones produced by the body.; Module J09 Predictions related to homeostatic imbalance, including disease states and disorders.; Module Q08 Predictions related to homeostatic imbalance, including disease states and disorders; Module M08 Application of homeostatic mechanisms; Module Q06 Role of the respiratory and urinary systems in acid/base balance; Module Q07 Application of homeostatic mechanisms HAPS Outcome: O03.01f With respect to carbohydrate metabolism, describe the role of hormones (such as cortisol, growth hormone, thyroid hormone, insulin, glucagon and norepinephrine) in regulation of carbohydrate catabolism and anabolism.; O07.01 Predict factors or situations affecting metabolism that could disrupt homeostasis.; O07.02 Predict the types of problems that would occur in the body metabolic processes could not maintain homeostasis.; J05.07d In the pancreas, predict the larger effect that fluctuations in insulin and glucagon levels will have on conditions (variables) within the body.; O03.03c With respect to fat metabolism, describe the role of hormones (such as cortisol, human growth hormone and thyroid hormone) in regulation of lipogenesis and lipolysis.; J09.01 Predict factors or situations affecting the endocrine organs that could disrupt homeostasis.; J09.02 Predict the types of problems that would occur in the body if the various endocrine organs could not maintain homeostasis.; O03.03d With respect to fat metabolism, summarize the overall process of the beta oxidation of fatty acids and explain how it relates to ketogenesis and ketoacidosis.; M08.01 Provide specific examples to demonstrate how the respiratory system responds to maintain homeostasis in the body.; Q06.02 Describe the role of the respiratory system in regulation of blood pH and predict how hypo- and hyperventilation will affect blood pH.; Q07.02 Provide specific examples to demonstrate how the cardiovascular, endocrine, respiratory, and urinary systems respond to maintain homeostasis of electrolyte concentrations and pH of body fluids.; Q08.01 Predict factors or situations that would lead to a disruption of homeostasis by affecting the volume or composition of body fluids.; Q08.02 Predict factors or situations that would lead to a disruption of homeostasis by causing respiratory acidosis, respiratory alkalosis, metabolic acidosis, or metabolic alkalosis.
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35) In subjects with type 2 (non-insulin-dependent) diabetes mellitus, which of these occurs? A) Pancreatic beta cell responses to increased plasma glucose concentration are normal. B) Target tissues respond poorly to insulin. C) Hypoglycemia is typically the first symptom. D) Severe ketoacidosis is common. Answer: B Section: Clinical Case Study Topic: Metabolism of carbohydrates; Metabolism of lipids; Clinical applications of nutrition and metabolism; Hormones from other endocrine glands and their functions Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module O03 Cellular respiration and the catabolism and anabolism of carbohydrates, lipids, and proteins.; Module O07 Predictions related to homeostatic imbalance, including disease states and disorders.; Module J05 Identity, source, secretory control, and functional roles of the major hormones produced by the body. HAPS Outcome: O03.01f With respect to carbohydrate metabolism, describe the role of hormones (such as cortisol, growth hormone, thyroid hormone, insulin, glucagon and norepinephrine) in regulation of carbohydrate catabolism and anabolism.; J05.07a In the pancreas, describe the stimulus for release of insulin and glucagon.; O07.01 Predict factors or situations affecting metabolism that could disrupt homeostasis.; O07.02 Predict the types of problems that would occur in the body metabolic processes could not maintain homeostasis.; J05.07d In the pancreas, predict the larger effect that fluctuations in insulin and glucagon levels will have on conditions (variables) within the body.; O03.03c With respect to fat metabolism, describe the role of hormones (such as cortisol, human growth hormone and thyroid hormone) in regulation of lipogenesis and lipolysis.; O03.03d With respect to fat metabolism, summarize the overall process of the beta oxidation of fatty acids and explain how it relates to ketogenesis and ketoacidosis. 36) Cholesterol is a A) precursor of steroid hormones. B) component of DNA. C) precursor of bile pigments. D) carbohydrate. E) vitamin. Answer: A Section: 16.01 Topic: Metabolism of lipids Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module O01 Nutrition.; Module J02 Chemical classification of hormones and mechanism of hormone actions at receptors. HAPS Outcome: J02.01 List the major chemical classes of hormones found in the human body.; O01.01c With respect to nutrients, for carbohydrates, fats, and proteins - list their dietary sources, state their energy yields per gram, and discuss their common uses in the body.
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37) Which of these is found in chylomicrons and plasma membranes, and is a precursor for bile salts and steroid hormones? A) Amino acids B) Cholesterol C) Phospholipids D) Monoglycerides E) Protein Answer: B Section: 16.01 Topic: Metabolism of lipids Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module O01 Nutrition.; Module J02 Chemical classification of hormones and mechanism of hormone actions at receptors.; Module N07 Process of absorption; Module C07 Membrane structure and function HAPS Outcome: C07.01 Describe how lipids are distributed in a cell membrane, and explain their functions.; J02.01 List the major chemical classes of hormones found in the human body.; N07.01b With respect to monosaccharides, peptides and amino acids, and fatty acids and monoglycerides, explain the processes involved in absorption of each type of nutrient.; O01.01c With respect to nutrients, for carbohydrates, fats, and proteins - list their dietary sources, state their energy yields per gram, and discuss their common uses in the body.
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38) Aziz goes to the doctor and has a blood cholesterol test done. The results show that his total cholesterol is slightly high, his HDLs are very high, and his LDLs are low. Aziz is alarmed by the numbers because his father had atherosclerosis. Aziz's doctor gives him more information. Which of the following statements is the doctor likely to make? A) It is preferable to have a high concentration of low-density lipoproteins (LDLs) in the plasma because LDLs operate to remove cholesterol from the peripheral tissues and carry it to the liver, which secretes it into the small intestine. B) It is preferable to have a high concentration of high-density lipoproteins (HDLs) in the plasma because HDLs operate to remove cholesterol from the peripheral tissues and carry it to the liver, which secretes it into the small intestine. C) It is preferable to have equal concentrations of LDL and HDL. D) Neither LDL nor HDL are involved in cholesterol regulation. E) Plasma cholesterol concentration has no relationship to atherosclerosis. Answer: B Section: 16.01 Topic: Metabolism of lipids; Metabolic roles of body organs; Clinical applications of nutrition and metabolism Bloom's: Level 3. Apply HAPS Topic: Module O03 Cellular respiration and the catabolism and anabolism of carbohydrates, lipids, and proteins.; Module O04 Metabolic roles of body organs.; Module O07 Predictions related to homeostatic imbalance, including disease states and disorders.; Module N07 Process of absorption HAPS Outcome: O04.01 Describe the role of the liver in metabolism.; O07.01 Predict factors or situations affecting metabolism that could disrupt homeostasis.; O07.02 Predict the types of problems that would occur in the body metabolic processes could not maintain homeostasis.; N07.03 Discuss the enterohepatic circulation of bile salts.; O03.03f With respect to fat metabolism, compare and contrast the structure and function of different types of lipoproteins in the body.
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39) Which of the following leads to an increase in the ratio of LDL cholesterol to HDL cholesterol? A) Estrogens B) Cigarette smoking C) Exercise D) Weight reduction E) All of these increase the LDL:HDL ratio. Answer: B Section: 16.01 Topic: Metabolism of lipids Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module O03 Cellular respiration and the catabolism and anabolism of carbohydrates, lipids, and proteins.; Module O07 Predictions related to homeostatic imbalance, including disease states and disorders. HAPS Outcome: O07.01 Predict factors or situations affecting metabolism that could disrupt homeostasis.; O03.03f With respect to fat metabolism, compare and contrast the structure and function of different types of lipoproteins in the body.
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40) Which is NOT stimulated by the hormone insulin? A) An increase in the number of glucose transporters in cell membranes B) An increase in amino acid uptake by cells C) An increase in glycogen synthesis D) An increase in triglyceride synthesis E) An increase in ketone synthesis Answer: E Section: 16.02 Topic: Metabolism of carbohydrates; Metabolism of lipids; Metabolism of proteins; Hormones from other endocrine glands and their functions Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module O03 Cellular respiration and the catabolism and anabolism of carbohydrates, lipids, and proteins.; Module J05 Identity, source, secretory control, and functional roles of the major hormones produced by the body. HAPS Outcome: O03.01f With respect to carbohydrate metabolism, describe the role of hormones (such as cortisol, growth hormone, thyroid hormone, insulin, glucagon and norepinephrine) in regulation of carbohydrate catabolism and anabolism.; O03.02f With respect to protein and amino acid metabolism, describe the role of hormones (such as cortisol, human growth hormone and insulin) in regulation of protein catabolism and anabolism.; J05.07d In the pancreas, predict the larger effect that fluctuations in insulin and glucagon levels will have on conditions (variables) within the body.; O03.03c With respect to fat metabolism, describe the role of hormones (such as cortisol, human growth hormone and thyroid hormone) in regulation of lipogenesis and lipolysis.; O03.03d With respect to fat metabolism, summarize the overall process of the beta oxidation of fatty acids and explain how it relates to ketogenesis and ketoacidosis.
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41) Which of the following contributes to a catabolic state? A) Increased plasma cortisol concentration B) Hypothyroidism C) Increased plasma androgen concentrations D) Increased plasma insulin concentration E) Decreased plasma glucagon concentration Answer: A Section: 16.02 Topic: Hormones from other endocrine glands and their functions Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module O02 Introduction to Metabolism.; Module O03 Cellular respiration and the catabolism and anabolism of carbohydrates, lipids, and proteins.; Module J05 Identity, source, secretory control, and functional roles of the major hormones produced by the body. HAPS Outcome: O03.01f With respect to carbohydrate metabolism, describe the role of hormones (such as cortisol, growth hormone, thyroid hormone, insulin, glucagon and norepinephrine) in regulation of carbohydrate catabolism and anabolism.; O03.02f With respect to protein and amino acid metabolism, describe the role of hormones (such as cortisol, human growth hormone and insulin) in regulation of protein catabolism and anabolism.; O05.02 Explain the role of cortisol, human growth hormone, thyroid hormone, insulin and glucagon in the absorptive and post-absorptive states.; J05.04d In the adrenal gland, predict the larger effect that fluctuations in glucocorticoids (cortisol), mineralocorticoids (aldosterone), gonadocorticoids, epinephrine and norepinephrine levels will have on conditions (variables) within the body.; J05.07d In the pancreas, predict the larger effect that fluctuations in insulin and glucagon levels will have on conditions (variables) within the body.; O03.03c With respect to fat metabolism, describe the role of hormones (such as cortisol, human growth hormone and thyroid hormone) in regulation of lipogenesis and lipolysis.; J05.02d In the thyroid gland, predict the larger effect that fluctuations in the hormone level will have on conditions (variables) within the body for thyroxine, triiodothyronine, calcitonin.; O02.01 Define metabolism, anabolism and catabolism.; J05.05d In the testis, predict the larger effect that fluctuations in testosterone and inhibin level will have on conditions (variables) within the body.
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42) You are a pediatrician. You have a young patient who does not seem to be growing. You suspect that there might be stress in the home. You decide to perform a blood test for cortisol and expect to find A) high plasma cortisol levels have led to overall state of catabolism. B) high plasma cortisol levels have led to a decrease in available fuel in the bloodstream. C) high plasma cortisol levels have led to a decrease in blood calcium levels. D) high plasma cortisol levels have led to an increased skeletal muscle metabolic rate, there are no nutrients left for growth. E) None of these answers are correct. Answer: A Section: 16.02 Topic: Hormones from other endocrine glands and their functions Bloom's: Level 3. Apply HAPS Topic: Module O02 Introduction to Metabolism.; Module O03 Cellular respiration and the catabolism and anabolism of carbohydrates, lipids, and proteins.; Module O05 Energy balance and thermoregulation.; Module J05 Identity, source, secretory control, and functional roles of the major hormones produced by the body. HAPS Outcome: O03.01f With respect to carbohydrate metabolism, describe the role of hormones (such as cortisol, growth hormone, thyroid hormone, insulin, glucagon and norepinephrine) in regulation of carbohydrate catabolism and anabolism.; O03.02f With respect to protein and amino acid metabolism, describe the role of hormones (such as cortisol, human growth hormone and insulin) in regulation of protein catabolism and anabolism.; O05.02 Explain the role of cortisol, human growth hormone, thyroid hormone, insulin and glucagon in the absorptive and post-absorptive states.; J05.04d In the adrenal gland, predict the larger effect that fluctuations in glucocorticoids (cortisol), mineralocorticoids (aldosterone), gonadocorticoids, epinephrine and norepinephrine levels will have on conditions (variables) within the body.; O03.03c With respect to fat metabolism, describe the role of hormones (such as cortisol, human growth hormone and thyroid hormone) in regulation of lipogenesis and lipolysis.; O02.01 Define metabolism, anabolism and catabolism.
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43) During normal metabolism of the human body, about 60% of the energy released from organic molecules A) is used to perform internal work. B) is stored as ATP. C) appears immediately as heat. D) is stored as triglycerides. E) is used to perform external work. Answer: C Section: 16.04 Topic: Body temperature regulation Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module O05 Energy balance and thermoregulation. HAPS Outcome: O05.06 Define metabolic rate and basal metabolic rate. 44) A person's lowest metabolic rate A) occurs during sleep. B) occurs when they are younger. C) occurs during exercise. D) occurs after a meal. E) occurs when body temperature increases. Answer: A Section: 16.04 Topic: Body temperature regulation Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module O05 Energy balance and thermoregulation. HAPS Outcome: O05.07 Describe factors that affect metabolic rate. 45) You are volunteering at a weight-loss clinic. You're in charge of a station that makes individualized recommendations for increasing daily metabolic rate. Which of the following lifestyle changes can increase metabolic rate to the greatest extent? A) Increasing skeletal muscle activity B) Increasing mental activity C) Increasing dietary caloric intake D) Increasing environmental temperature E) Increasing blood glucose levels Answer: A Section: 16.04 Topic: Body temperature regulation Bloom's: Level 3. Apply HAPS Topic: Module O05 Energy balance and thermoregulation. HAPS Outcome: O05.07 Describe factors that affect metabolic rate.
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46) A person who has hypothyroidism would be expected to A) have an increased basal metabolic rate. B) have reduced tolerance for cold temperatures. C) lose body weight. D) be restless and irritable. E) have symptoms similar to over-activation of the sympathetic nervous system. Answer: B Section: 16.04 Topic: Body temperature regulation; Clinical applications of nutrition and metabolism; Hormones from other endocrine glands and their functions Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module O05 Energy balance and thermoregulation.; Module J05 Identity, source, secretory control, and functional roles of the major hormones produced by the body.; Module J09 Predictions related to homeostatic imbalance, including disease states and disorders.; Module H13 Functions of the autonomic nervous system HAPS Outcome: O05.07 Describe factors that affect metabolic rate.; J05.02d In the thyroid gland, predict the larger effect that fluctuations in the hormone level will have on conditions (variables) within the body for thyroxine, triiodothyronine, calcitonin.; O05.06 Define metabolic rate and basal metabolic rate.; J09.01 Predict factors or situations affecting the endocrine organs that could disrupt homeostasis.; J09.02 Predict the types of problems that would occur in the body if the various endocrine organs could not maintain homeostasis.; H13.01 Discuss the two divisions of the autonomic nervous system and the general physiological roles of each. 47) If more calories are ingested in food than are expended by metabolism A) a person will gain weight. B) a person will lose weight. C) a person will stay the same weight because the excess energy is destroyed. D) whether weight is gained or lost depends upon whether the calories are in the form of proteins, carbohydrates, or fat. Answer: A Section: 16.05 Topic: Introduction to nutrition; Clinical applications of nutrition and metabolism Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module O05 Energy balance and thermoregulation.; Module O07 Predictions related to homeostatic imbalance, including disease states and disorders. HAPS Outcome: O07.01 Predict factors or situations affecting metabolism that could disrupt homeostasis.; O07.02 Predict the types of problems that would occur in the body metabolic processes could not maintain homeostasis.; O05.05 Discuss the importance of energy (caloric) balance in maintaining healthy body weight.; O05.04 Define calorie and kilocalorie.
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48) The subjective feeling of hunger is stimulated when A) plasma insulin concentration increases. B) plasma ghrelin concentration decreases. C) plasma leptin concentration decreases. D) plasma glucose concentration increases. E) body temperature increases. Answer: C Section: 16.05 Topic: Introduction to nutrition; Hormones from other endocrine glands and their functions Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module O01 Nutrition.; Module O05 Energy balance and thermoregulation.; Module O06 Application of homeostatic mechanisms.; Module J05 Identity, source, secretory control, and functional roles of the major hormones produced by the body. HAPS Outcome: O06.01 Provide specific examples to demonstrate how metabolic processes respond to maintain homeostasis in the body.; O05.02 Explain the role of cortisol, human growth hormone, thyroid hormone, insulin and glucagon in the absorptive and post-absorptive states.; J05.07d In the pancreas, predict the larger effect that fluctuations in insulin and glucagon levels will have on conditions (variables) within the body.; O01.03 Discuss appetite control, including its regulation by hormones.; J05.12d In adipose tissue, predict the larger effect that fluctuations in leptin and resistin levels will have on conditions (variables) within the body. 49) Ghrelin is secreted by , and increases while decreasing A) cells in the stomach; neuropeptide Y secretion; hunger B) adipose tissue; growth hormone secretion; leptin secretion C) muscle tissue; hunger; growth hormone secretion D) cells in the stomach; hunger; fat breakdown E) adipose tissue; hunger; fat breakdown
.
Answer: D Section: 16.05 Topic: Introduction to nutrition; Metabolism of lipids; Metabolic roles of body organs; Hormones from other endocrine glands and their functions Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module O01 Nutrition.; Module O03 Cellular respiration and the catabolism and anabolism of carbohydrates, lipids, and proteins.; Module J05 Identity, source, secretory control, and functional roles of the major hormones produced by the body. HAPS Outcome: J05.01a Describe the stimulus for release of growth hormone, thyroidstimulating hormone, luteinizing hormone, follicle stimulating hormone, prolactin, adrenocorticotropic hormone, oxytocin, and antidiuretic hormone (or vasopressin).; O03.03c With respect to fat metabolism, describe the role of hormones (such as cortisol, human growth hormone and thyroid hormone) in regulation of lipogenesis and lipolysis.; O01.03 Discuss appetite control, including its regulation by hormones.
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50) The thermoneutral zone is defined as A) the region in the central core of the body where temperature never changes. B) the core body temperature at which no energy is expended to maintain homeostasis. C) the environmental temperature range over which the changes in skin blood flow alone can regulate body temperature. D) the region of the body halfway between the high-temperature core and the low-temperature skin. E) the environmental temperature range in which shivering, changes in blood flow, and changes in thyroid hormone concentrations can maintain homeostasis of the body's core temperature. Answer: C Section: 16.06 Topic: Body temperature regulation Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module O05 Energy balance and thermoregulation.; Module O06 Application of homeostatic mechanisms. HAPS Outcome: O06.01 Provide specific examples to demonstrate how metabolic processes respond to maintain homeostasis in the body.; O06.02 Explain the role of metabolism as it relates to other body systems to maintain homeostasis.; O05.08 Explain the importance of thermoregulation in the body. 51) The principal means of increasing heat production in response to a cold environment is A) vasoconstriction of blood vessels in the skin. B) wearing warm clothing. C) shivering thermogenesis and increased voluntary activity. D) vasodilation of blood vessels in skin. E) increasing food intake to elevate the metabolic rate. Answer: C Section: 16.06 Topic: Body temperature regulation Bloom's: Level 2. Understand HAPS Topic: Module O05 Energy balance and thermoregulation.; Module O06 Application of homeostatic mechanisms.; Module G11 Application of homeostatic mechanisms HAPS Outcome: G11.01 Provide specific examples to demonstrate how the muscular system responds to maintain homeostasis in the body.; O05.07 Describe factors that affect metabolic rate.; O05.09 Differentiate between radiation, conduction, evaporation and convection and explain the role of each in thermoregulation.; O06.01 Provide specific examples to demonstrate how metabolic processes respond to maintain homeostasis in the body.; O06.02 Explain the role of metabolism as it relates to other body systems to maintain homeostasis.
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52) The primary integrator of body temperature control reflexes is the A) medullary cardiovascular center. B) cerebral cortex. C) thyroid gland. D) hypothalamus. E) adrenal medulla. Answer: D Section: 16.06 Topic: Body temperature regulation Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module H07 Division, origin, and function of component parts of the brain HAPS Outcome: H07.02 Correlate functions with each major area of the adult brain. 53) Acclimatization to a hot environment includes which of these physiological changes? A) A decrease in the set point temperature regulated by the hypothalamus B) Decreased volume and increased salt concentration of sweat glands C) Decreased volume and salt concentration of sweat from the sweat glands D) Increased volume and salt concentration of sweat from the sweat glands E) Increased volume and decreased salt concentration of sweat from the sweat glands Answer: E Section: 16.06 Topic: Body temperature regulation Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module O05 Energy balance and thermoregulation.; Module O06 Application of homeostatic mechanisms.; Module J05 Identity, source, secretory control, and functional roles of the major hormones produced by the body.; Module H13 Functions of the autonomic nervous system HAPS Outcome: O05.09 Differentiate between radiation, conduction, evaporation and convection and explain the role of each in thermoregulation.; O06.01 Provide specific examples to demonstrate how metabolic processes respond to maintain homeostasis in the body.; O06.02 Explain the role of metabolism as it relates to other body systems to maintain homeostasis.; J05.04c In the adrenal gland, name the target tissue or cells for the hormone and describe the effect(s) of glucocorticoids (cortisol), mineralocorticoids (aldosterone), gonadocorticoids, epinephrine and norepinephrine on the target tissue or cells.; H13.04 Describe examples of effectors innervated by only the sympathetic branch or the parasympathetic branch of the nervous system and explain how each branch by itself influences function in a given effector.
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54) Endogenous pyrogen A) is released by infection-fighting leukocytes and acts on muscle tissue. B) is released by the hypothalamus and acts on infection-fighting leukocytes. C) is released by infection-fighting leukocytes and has the same action as aspirin. D) is released by infection-fighting leukocytes and acts on the temperature-integrating centers of the hypothalamus. E) is released by the pyloric region of the stomach and raises the temperature of digestion. Answer: D Section: 16.07 Topic: Body temperature regulation; Clinical applications of nutrition and metabolism Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module O06 Application of homeostatic mechanisms.; Module O07 Predictions related to homeostatic imbalance, including disease states and disorders.; Module L11 Application of homeostatic mechanisms.; Module K03 Identity, microscopic anatomy, numbers, and formation, and functional roles of the formed elements of blood; Module H07 Division, origin, and function of component parts of the brain HAPS Outcome: O06.01 Provide specific examples to demonstrate how metabolic processes respond to maintain homeostasis in the body.; O06.02 Explain the role of metabolism as it relates to other body systems to maintain homeostasis.; O07.01 Predict factors or situations affecting metabolism that could disrupt homeostasis.; H07.02 Correlate functions with each major area of the adult brain.; K03.03c With respect to the functional roles of formed elements, describe functions for each of the five major types of leukocytes as well as the two major subtypes of lymphocytes (T and B).; L11.01 Provide specific examples to demonstrate how the lymphatic and immune systems respond to maintain homeostasis in the body. 55) It is not possible to gain body fat if you eat a non-fat diet. Answer: FALSE Section: 16.01 Topic: Metabolism of carbohydrates; Metabolic roles of body organs Bloom's: Level 3. Apply HAPS Topic: Module O03 Cellular respiration and the catabolism and anabolism of carbohydrates, lipids, and proteins.; Module O04 Metabolic roles of body organs.; Module O05 Energy balance and thermoregulation. HAPS Outcome: O04.01 Describe the role of the liver in metabolism.; O04.03 Describe the role of skeletal muscle in metabolism.; O03.01g With respect to carbohydrate metabolism, predict the metabolic conditions that would favor each of the following processes: glycogenesis, glycogenolysis and gluconeogenesis.; O03.01e With respect to carbohydrate metabolism, describe the processes of glycogenesis, glycogenolysis, and gluconeogenesis, including the substrates and products of each.; O03.03e With respect to fat metabolism, describe the nutrient interconversion pathways that involve fats.; O04.02 Explain the role of adipose tissue in metabolism.; O05.01 Compare and contrast the processes that occur in the absorptive and postabsorptive states.
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56) During the absorptive state, the body makes use of stored nutrients for energy. Answer: FALSE Section: 16.01 Topic: Introduction to metabolism Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module O05 Energy balance and thermoregulation. HAPS Outcome: O05.01 Compare and contrast the processes that occur in the absorptive and post-absorptive states. 57) The source of the triglycerides used for synthesis of very low-density lipoproteins in the liver is fatty acids and glycerol absorbed from the bloodstream by the liver. Answer: FALSE Section: 16.01 Topic: Metabolism of lipids; Metabolic roles of body organs Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module O03 Cellular respiration and the catabolism and anabolism of carbohydrates, lipids, and proteins.; Module O04 Metabolic roles of body organs. HAPS Outcome: O04.01 Describe the role of the liver in metabolism.; O03.03b With respect to fat metabolism, describe the basic process of lipogenesis and lipolysis.; O03.03e With respect to fat metabolism, describe the nutrient interconversion pathways that involve fats. 58) You just enjoyed a delicious holiday meal with your family. You ate mashed potatoes, pasta, rice, and squash and topped it off with three slices of cake. Most of the glucose stored after the meal will be stored in the form of glycogen. Answer: FALSE Section: 16.01 Topic: Metabolism of carbohydrates Bloom's: Level 3. Apply HAPS Topic: Module O03 Cellular respiration and the catabolism and anabolism of carbohydrates, lipids, and proteins.; Module O05 Energy balance and thermoregulation. HAPS Outcome: O03.01g With respect to carbohydrate metabolism, predict the metabolic conditions that would favor each of the following processes: glycogenesis, glycogenolysis and gluconeogenesis.; O03.03e With respect to fat metabolism, describe the nutrient interconversion pathways that involve fats.; O05.01 Compare and contrast the processes that occur in the absorptive and post-absorptive states.
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59) Most of the triglycerides absorbed as chylomicrons are ultimately stored as fat in the adipose tissue. Answer: TRUE Section: 16.01 Topic: Metabolism of lipids; Metabolic roles of body organs Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module O03 Cellular respiration and the catabolism and anabolism of carbohydrates, lipids, and proteins.; Module O04 Metabolic roles of body organs.; Module N07 Process of absorption HAPS Outcome: O03.03e With respect to fat metabolism, describe the nutrient interconversion pathways that involve fats.; O04.02 Explain the role of adipose tissue in metabolism.; N07.01b With respect to monosaccharides, peptides and amino acids, and fatty acids and monoglycerides, explain the processes involved in absorption of each type of nutrient. 60) During the absorptive state, there is net synthesis of fat, glycogen, and protein, but this process is reversed during the postabsorptive state. Answer: TRUE Section: 16.01 Topic: Metabolism of carbohydrates; Metabolism of lipids; Metabolism of proteins Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module O03 Cellular respiration and the catabolism and anabolism of carbohydrates, lipids, and proteins.; Module O05 Energy balance and thermoregulation. HAPS Outcome: O03.01g With respect to carbohydrate metabolism, predict the metabolic conditions that would favor each of the following processes: glycogenesis, glycogenolysis and gluconeogenesis.; O05.01 Compare and contrast the processes that occur in the absorptive and post-absorptive states. 61) A group of students has declared a hunger strike to protest a perception of low-quality dorm food. Jose is one of the protesting students and he has not eaten for three days. Most of the energy available in Jose's body is provided by gluconeogenesis. Answer: FALSE Section: 16.01 Topic: Metabolism of carbohydrates Bloom's: Level 3. Apply HAPS Topic: Module O03 Cellular respiration and the catabolism and anabolism of carbohydrates, lipids, and proteins.; Module O05 Energy balance and thermoregulation.; Module O06 Application of homeostatic mechanisms. HAPS Outcome: O06.01 Provide specific examples to demonstrate how metabolic processes respond to maintain homeostasis in the body.; O03.01g With respect to carbohydrate metabolism, predict the metabolic conditions that would favor each of the following processes: glycogenesis, glycogenolysis and gluconeogenesis.; O05.01 Compare and contrast the processes that occur in the absorptive and post-absorptive states.
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62) Fatty acids released by lipolysis of triglycerides in adipose tissue travel in the plasma as VLDL. Answer: FALSE Section: 16.01 Topic: Metabolism of lipids; Metabolic roles of body organs Bloom's: Level 2. Understand HAPS Topic: Module O03 Cellular respiration and the catabolism and anabolism of carbohydrates, lipids, and proteins.; Module O04 Metabolic roles of body organs. HAPS Outcome: O03.03f With respect to fat metabolism, compare and contrast the structure and function of different types of lipoproteins in the body.; O03.03e With respect to fat metabolism, describe the nutrient interconversion pathways that involve fats.; O04.02 Explain the role of adipose tissue in metabolism. 63) Talia is a busy store clerk on Black Friday. She ate breakfast at 7 am but was not able to take a lunch break because the store was too busy. Its now 3 pm and she's beginning to feel a bit odd. Her non-nervous tissues are probably utilizing fatty acids and ketones as energy sources. Answer: TRUE Section: 16.01 Topic: Metabolism of lipids; Metabolic roles of body organs Bloom's: Level 3. Apply HAPS Topic: Module O03 Cellular respiration and the catabolism and anabolism of carbohydrates, lipids, and proteins.; Module O05 Energy balance and thermoregulation. HAPS Outcome: O05.03 Explain the significance of glucose-sparing for neural tissue in the post-absorptive state.; O05.01 Compare and contrast the processes that occur in the absorptive and post-absorptive states.; O03.03d With respect to fat metabolism, summarize the overall process of the beta oxidation of fatty acids and explain how it relates to ketogenesis and ketoacidosis. 64) Insulin has no effect on the carrier-mediated transport of glucose in the liver; therefore, insulin does not stimulate the uptake of glucose by that organ. Answer: FALSE Section: 16.02 Topic: Metabolism of carbohydrates; Metabolic roles of body organs; Hormones from other endocrine glands and their functions Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module O04 Metabolic roles of body organs.; Module J05 Identity, source, secretory control, and functional roles of the major hormones produced by the body. HAPS Outcome: O04.01 Describe the role of the liver in metabolism.; J05.07c In the pancreas, name the target tissue or cells for insulin and glucagon and describe the effect(s) of the hormone on the target tissue or cells.
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65) Insulin inhibits the enzymes in the liver that catalyze reactions leading to gluconeogenesis. Answer: TRUE Section: 16.02 Topic: Metabolism of carbohydrates; Metabolic roles of body organs; Hormones from other endocrine glands and their functions Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module O03 Cellular respiration and the catabolism and anabolism of carbohydrates, lipids, and proteins.; Module O04 Metabolic roles of body organs.; Module J05 Identity, source, secretory control, and functional roles of the major hormones produced by the body. HAPS Outcome: O03.01f With respect to carbohydrate metabolism, describe the role of hormones (such as cortisol, growth hormone, thyroid hormone, insulin, glucagon and norepinephrine) in regulation of carbohydrate catabolism and anabolism.; O04.01 Describe the role of the liver in metabolism.; J05.07c In the pancreas, name the target tissue or cells for insulin and glucagon and describe the effect(s) of the hormone on the target tissue or cells. 66) The metabolic events characteristic of the absorptive state can be attributed to the presence of large amounts of insulin in the blood, whereas the events of the postabsorptive state can be attributed largely to decreased insulin levels. Answer: TRUE Section: 16.02 Topic: Hormones from other endocrine glands and their functions Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module O05 Energy balance and thermoregulation.; Module J05 Identity, source, secretory control, and functional roles of the major hormones produced by the body. HAPS Outcome: J05.07a In the pancreas, describe the stimulus for release of insulin and glucagon.; O05.02 Explain the role of cortisol, human growth hormone, thyroid hormone, insulin and glucagon in the absorptive and post-absorptive states.; J05.07d In the pancreas, predict the larger effect that fluctuations in insulin and glucagon levels will have on conditions (variables) within the body.; O05.01 Compare and contrast the processes that occur in the absorptive and post-absorptive states.
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67) The release of epinephrine during exercise contributes to an increase in nutrient levels in the blood. Answer: TRUE Section: 16.02 Topic: Metabolism of carbohydrates; Hormones from other endocrine glands and their functions Bloom's: Level 2. Understand HAPS Topic: Module O05 Energy balance and thermoregulation.; Module J05 Identity, source, secretory control, and functional roles of the major hormones produced by the body. HAPS Outcome: O05.02 Explain the role of cortisol, human growth hormone, thyroid hormone, insulin and glucagon in the absorptive and post-absorptive states.; J05.04d In the adrenal gland, predict the larger effect that fluctuations in glucocorticoids (cortisol), mineralocorticoids (aldosterone), gonadocorticoids, epinephrine and norepinephrine levels will have on conditions (variables) within the body.; J05.07d In the pancreas, predict the larger effect that fluctuations in insulin and glucagon levels will have on conditions (variables) within the body. 68) The chemoreceptors for the reflexes that stimulate sympathetic activity and epinephrine secretion in response to hypoglycemia are located in the carotid and aortic bodies. Answer: FALSE Section: 16.02 Topic: Metabolism of carbohydrates; Hormones from other endocrine glands and their functions Bloom's: Level 3. Apply HAPS Topic: Module H07 Division, origin, and function of component parts of the brain; Module H06 Sensory receptors and their roles; Module H15 Application of homeostatic mechanisms HAPS Outcome: H07.02 Correlate functions with each major area of the adult brain.; H06.02 Describe each of the following types of receptors, indicating what sensation it detects and giving an example of where it can be found in the body: pain receptors (nociceptors), temperature receptors, mechanoreceptors (including proprioceptors and baroreceptors/pressoreceptors), chemoreceptors, and photoreceptors; H15.01 Provide specific examples to demonstrate how the nervous system responds to maintain homeostasis in the body.
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69) Pituitary growth hormone has effects on protein metabolism similar to those of insulin, but its effects on carbohydrate and lipid metabolism are similar to those of elevated cortisol. Answer: TRUE Section: 16.02 Topic: Metabolism of carbohydrates; Metabolism of lipids; Metabolism of proteins; Hormones from other endocrine glands and their functions Bloom's: Level 2. Understand HAPS Topic: Module O03 Cellular respiration and the catabolism and anabolism of carbohydrates, lipids, and proteins.; Module O05 Energy balance and thermoregulation.; Module J05 Identity, source, secretory control, and functional roles of the major hormones produced by the body. HAPS Outcome: O03.01f With respect to carbohydrate metabolism, describe the role of hormones (such as cortisol, growth hormone, thyroid hormone, insulin, glucagon and norepinephrine) in regulation of carbohydrate catabolism and anabolism.; O03.02f With respect to protein and amino acid metabolism, describe the role of hormones (such as cortisol, human growth hormone and insulin) in regulation of protein catabolism and anabolism.; O05.02 Explain the role of cortisol, human growth hormone, thyroid hormone, insulin and glucagon in the absorptive and post-absorptive states.; J05.04d In the adrenal gland, predict the larger effect that fluctuations in glucocorticoids (cortisol), mineralocorticoids (aldosterone), gonadocorticoids, epinephrine and norepinephrine levels will have on conditions (variables) within the body.; J05.07d In the pancreas, predict the larger effect that fluctuations in insulin and glucagon levels will have on conditions (variables) within the body.; O03.03c With respect to fat metabolism, describe the role of hormones (such as cortisol, human growth hormone and thyroid hormone) in regulation of lipogenesis and lipolysis.; J05.01d Predict the larger effect that fluctuations in the hormone level will have on conditions (variables) within the body for growth hormone, thyroidstimulating hormone, luteinizing hormone, follicle stimulating hormone, prolactin, adrenocorticotropic hormone, oxytocin, and antidiuretic hormone (or vasopressin).
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70) During stress, elevated levels of plasma cortisol stimulate the catabolism of muscle protein and the conversion of alpha-keto acids to glucose in the liver. Answer: TRUE Section: 16.02 Topic: Metabolism of carbohydrates; Metabolism of proteins; Hormones from other endocrine glands and their functions Bloom's: Level 2. Understand HAPS Topic: Module O03 Cellular respiration and the catabolism and anabolism of carbohydrates, lipids, and proteins.; Module O04 Metabolic roles of body organs.; Module O06 Application of homeostatic mechanisms.; Module J05 Identity, source, secretory control, and functional roles of the major hormones produced by the body.; Module J07 Hormonal response to stress.; Module J08 Application of homeostatic mechanisms. HAPS Outcome: O06.01 Provide specific examples to demonstrate how metabolic processes respond to maintain homeostasis in the body.; J05.04c In the adrenal gland, name the target tissue or cells for the hormone and describe the effect(s) of glucocorticoids (cortisol), mineralocorticoids (aldosterone), gonadocorticoids, epinephrine and norepinephrine on the target tissue or cells.; J07.02 List the hormones released during short-term stress and describe the hormonal actions.; J07.03 List the major hormones released during long-term stress and describe the hormonal actions.; J08.01 Provide specific examples to demonstrate how the endocrine organs respond to maintain homeostasis in the body.; J08.02 Explain how the endocrine organs relate to other body organs and systems to maintain homeostasis.; O03.01f With respect to carbohydrate metabolism, describe the role of hormones (such as cortisol, growth hormone, thyroid hormone, insulin, glucagon and norepinephrine) in regulation of carbohydrate catabolism and anabolism.; O03.02b With respect to protein and amino acid metabolism, describe the process of deamination and its importance in gluconeogenesis and the interconversion of nutrients.; O03.02f With respect to protein and amino acid metabolism, describe the role of hormones (such as cortisol, human growth hormone and insulin) in regulation of protein catabolism and anabolism.; O04.01 Describe the role of the liver in metabolism.; O04.03 Describe the role of skeletal muscle in metabolism.
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71) Chronic long-term stress could lead to weakening of cardiac and skeletal muscle tissues. Answer: TRUE Section: 16.02 Topic: Metabolism of carbohydrates; Metabolism of proteins; Hormones from other endocrine glands and their functions Bloom's: Level 3. Apply HAPS Topic: Module O03 Cellular respiration and the catabolism and anabolism of carbohydrates, lipids, and proteins.; Module O06 Application of homeostatic mechanisms.; Module J05 Identity, source, secretory control, and functional roles of the major hormones produced by the body.; Module J07 Hormonal response to stress. HAPS Outcome: O06.01 Provide specific examples to demonstrate how metabolic processes respond to maintain homeostasis in the body.; J05.04c In the adrenal gland, name the target tissue or cells for the hormone and describe the effect(s) of glucocorticoids (cortisol), mineralocorticoids (aldosterone), gonadocorticoids, epinephrine and norepinephrine on the target tissue or cells.; J07.02 List the hormones released during short-term stress and describe the hormonal actions.; J07.03 List the major hormones released during long-term stress and describe the hormonal actions.; O03.01f With respect to carbohydrate metabolism, describe the role of hormones (such as cortisol, growth hormone, thyroid hormone, insulin, glucagon and norepinephrine) in regulation of carbohydrate catabolism and anabolism.; O03.02f With respect to protein and amino acid metabolism, describe the role of hormones (such as cortisol, human growth hormone and insulin) in regulation of protein catabolism and anabolism.; O04.03 Describe the role of skeletal muscle in metabolism.
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72) During exercise, glucose uptake by muscle cells is increased because of increased insulin secretion. Answer: FALSE Section: 16.02; 16.03 Topic: Metabolism of carbohydrates; Metabolic roles of body organs; Hormones from other endocrine glands and their functions Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module O03 Cellular respiration and the catabolism and anabolism of carbohydrates, lipids, and proteins.; Module O04 Metabolic roles of body organs.; Module O06 Application of homeostatic mechanisms.; Module J05 Identity, source, secretory control, and functional roles of the major hormones produced by the body.; Module J07 Hormonal response to stress.; Module J08 Application of homeostatic mechanisms. HAPS Outcome: O06.01 Provide specific examples to demonstrate how metabolic processes respond to maintain homeostasis in the body.; J07.02 List the hormones released during shortterm stress and describe the hormonal actions.; J07.03 List the major hormones released during long-term stress and describe the hormonal actions.; J08.01 Provide specific examples to demonstrate how the endocrine organs respond to maintain homeostasis in the body.; J08.02 Explain how the endocrine organs relate to other body organs and systems to maintain homeostasis.; O03.01f With respect to carbohydrate metabolism, describe the role of hormones (such as cortisol, growth hormone, thyroid hormone, insulin, glucagon and norepinephrine) in regulation of carbohydrate catabolism and anabolism.; O04.03 Describe the role of skeletal muscle in metabolism.; J05.07a In the pancreas, describe the stimulus for release of insulin and glucagon.
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73) During exercise, skeletal muscle cells can upregulate alternative glucose transporters which are independent of insulin signaling, therefore exercise is useful for individuals with type 2 diabetes. Answer: TRUE Section: 16.02; 16.03 Topic: Metabolism of carbohydrates; Metabolic roles of body organs; Hormones from other endocrine glands and their functions Bloom's: Level 3. Apply HAPS Topic: Module O03 Cellular respiration and the catabolism and anabolism of carbohydrates, lipids, and proteins.; Module O04 Metabolic roles of body organs.; Module O06 Application of homeostatic mechanisms.; Module J05 Identity, source, secretory control, and functional roles of the major hormones produced by the body.; Module J07 Hormonal response to stress.; Module J08 Application of homeostatic mechanisms. HAPS Outcome: O06.01 Provide specific examples to demonstrate how metabolic processes respond to maintain homeostasis in the body.; J07.02 List the hormones released during shortterm stress and describe the hormonal actions.; J07.03 List the major hormones released during long-term stress and describe the hormonal actions.; J08.01 Provide specific examples to demonstrate how the endocrine organs respond to maintain homeostasis in the body.; J08.02 Explain how the endocrine organs relate to other body organs and systems to maintain homeostasis.; O03.01f With respect to carbohydrate metabolism, describe the role of hormones (such as cortisol, growth hormone, thyroid hormone, insulin, glucagon and norepinephrine) in regulation of carbohydrate catabolism and anabolism.; O04.03 Describe the role of skeletal muscle in metabolism.; J05.07a In the pancreas, describe the stimulus for release of insulin and glucagon.
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74) In untreated type 1 (insulin-dependent) diabetes mellitus, the liver converts fatty acids into ketones, which are released into the blood. Answer: TRUE Section: 16.01 Topic: Metabolism of lipids; Metabolic roles of body organs; Clinical applications of nutrition and metabolism; Hormones from other endocrine glands and their functions Bloom's: Level 3. Apply HAPS Topic: Module O03 Cellular respiration and the catabolism and anabolism of carbohydrates, lipids, and proteins.; Module O04 Metabolic roles of body organs.; Module O07 Predictions related to homeostatic imbalance, including disease states and disorders.; Module J05 Identity, source, secretory control, and functional roles of the major hormones produced by the body.; Module J09 Predictions related to homeostatic imbalance, including disease states and disorders. HAPS Outcome: O04.01 Describe the role of the liver in metabolism.; O07.01 Predict factors or situations affecting metabolism that could disrupt homeostasis.; O07.02 Predict the types of problems that would occur in the body metabolic processes could not maintain homeostasis.; J05.07c In the pancreas, name the target tissue or cells for insulin and glucagon and describe the effect(s) of the hormone on the target tissue or cells.; O03.03e With respect to fat metabolism, describe the nutrient interconversion pathways that involve fats.; O03.03c With respect to fat metabolism, describe the role of hormones (such as cortisol, human growth hormone and thyroid hormone) in regulation of lipogenesis and lipolysis.; J09.01 Predict factors or situations affecting the endocrine organs that could disrupt homeostasis.; J09.02 Predict the types of problems that would occur in the body if the various endocrine organs could not maintain homeostasis.; O03.03d With respect to fat metabolism, summarize the overall process of the beta oxidation of fatty acids and explain how it relates to ketogenesis and ketoacidosis.
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75) Sarah is a type 1 diabetic who forgot to bring insulin with her today. Due to high circulating ketone levels, it is likely that Sarah's blood pH may decrease. Answer: TRUE Section: 16.01 Topic: Metabolism of lipids; Clinical applications of nutrition and metabolism; Hormones from other endocrine glands and their functions Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module O03 Cellular respiration and the catabolism and anabolism of carbohydrates, lipids, and proteins.; Module O07 Predictions related to homeostatic imbalance, including disease states and disorders.; Module J05 Identity, source, secretory control, and functional roles of the major hormones produced by the body.; Module J09 Predictions related to homeostatic imbalance, including disease states and disorders.; Module Q08 Predictions related to homeostatic imbalance, including disease states and disorders HAPS Outcome: O07.01 Predict factors or situations affecting metabolism that could disrupt homeostasis.; O07.02 Predict the types of problems that would occur in the body metabolic processes could not maintain homeostasis.; J05.07c In the pancreas, name the target tissue or cells for insulin and glucagon and describe the effect(s) of the hormone on the target tissue or cells.; O03.03e With respect to fat metabolism, describe the nutrient interconversion pathways that involve fats.; O03.03c With respect to fat metabolism, describe the role of hormones (such as cortisol, human growth hormone and thyroid hormone) in regulation of lipogenesis and lipolysis.; J09.01 Predict factors or situations affecting the endocrine organs that could disrupt homeostasis.; J09.02 Predict the types of problems that would occur in the body if the various endocrine organs could not maintain homeostasis.; O03.03d With respect to fat metabolism, summarize the overall process of the beta oxidation of fatty acids and explain how it relates to ketogenesis and ketoacidosis.; Q08.02 Predict factors or situations that would lead to a disruption of homeostasis by causing respiratory acidosis, respiratory alkalosis, metabolic acidosis, or metabolic alkalosis.
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76) One consequence of insulin deficiency is the decreased ability of the brain to take up blood glucose, a condition that can lead to brain dysfunction and death. Answer: FALSE Section: 16.02 Topic: Metabolism of carbohydrates; Metabolic roles of body organs; Clinical applications of nutrition and metabolism; Hormones from other endocrine glands and their functions Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module O03 Cellular respiration and the catabolism and anabolism of carbohydrates, lipids, and proteins.; Module J05 Identity, source, secretory control, and functional roles of the major hormones produced by the body.; Module J09 Predictions related to homeostatic imbalance, including disease states and disorders. HAPS Outcome: O03.01f With respect to carbohydrate metabolism, describe the role of hormones (such as cortisol, growth hormone, thyroid hormone, insulin, glucagon and norepinephrine) in regulation of carbohydrate catabolism and anabolism.; J05.07c In the pancreas, name the target tissue or cells for insulin and glucagon and describe the effect(s) of the hormone on the target tissue or cells.; J09.01 Predict factors or situations affecting the endocrine organs that could disrupt homeostasis.; J09.02 Predict the types of problems that would occur in the body if the various endocrine organs could not maintain homeostasis. 77) The excretion of glucose in the urine of a diabetic patient is a result of the inability of the kidney tubules to reabsorb a normal amount of glucose in the absence of insulin. Answer: FALSE Section: 16.02 Topic: Metabolism of carbohydrates; Clinical applications of nutrition and metabolism; Hormones from other endocrine glands and their functions Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module O03 Cellular respiration and the catabolism and anabolism of carbohydrates, lipids, and proteins.; Module O07 Predictions related to homeostatic imbalance, including disease states and disorders.; Module J05 Identity, source, secretory control, and functional roles of the major hormones produced by the body.; Module J09 Predictions related to homeostatic imbalance, including disease states and disorders.; Module P08 Predictions related to homeostatic imbalance, including disease states and disorders; Module P03 Functional processes of urine formation, including filtration, reabsorption, and secretion HAPS Outcome: O03.01f With respect to carbohydrate metabolism, describe the role of hormones (such as cortisol, growth hormone, thyroid hormone, insulin, glucagon and norepinephrine) in regulation of carbohydrate catabolism and anabolism.; O07.01 Predict factors or situations affecting metabolism that could disrupt homeostasis.; J05.07d In the pancreas, predict the larger effect that fluctuations in insulin and glucagon levels will have on conditions (variables) within the body.; J09.01 Predict factors or situations affecting the endocrine organs that could disrupt homeostasis.; J09.02 Predict the types of problems that would occur in the body if the various endocrine organs could not maintain homeostasis.; P03.03d With respect to reabsorption, describe how and where water, organic compounds, and ions are reabsorbed in the nephron.; P08.01 Predict factors or situations affecting the urinary system that could disrupt homeostasis. 55 Copyright 2019 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.
78) Cholesterol is metabolized to bile salts in the liver. Answer: TRUE Section: 16.01 Topic: Metabolism of lipids; Metabolic roles of body organs Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module O01 Nutrition.; Module O04 Metabolic roles of body organs. HAPS Outcome: O04.01 Describe the role of the liver in metabolism.; O01.01c With respect to nutrients, for carbohydrates, fats, and proteins - list their dietary sources, state their energy yields per gram, and discuss their common uses in the body. 79) Lisa is on a low-cholesterol diet. She ingests almost no dietary cholesterol. When she goes into her doctor's office for a blood test, we expect her plasma cholesterol concentration to be almost zero as well. Answer: FALSE Section: 16.01 Topic: Metabolism of lipids Bloom's: Level 3. Apply HAPS Topic: Module O03 Cellular respiration and the catabolism and anabolism of carbohydrates, lipids, and proteins.; Module O04 Metabolic roles of body organs. HAPS Outcome: O04.01 Describe the role of the liver in metabolism.; O03.03b With respect to fat metabolism, describe the basic process of lipogenesis and lipolysis. 80) All other things being equal, a person who has hypothyroidism will have a higher BMR than a person whose thyroid function is normal. Answer: FALSE Section: 16.04 Topic: Body temperature regulation; Clinical applications of nutrition and metabolism; Hormones from other endocrine glands and their functions Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module O05 Energy balance and thermoregulation.; Module J05 Identity, source, secretory control, and functional roles of the major hormones produced by the body.; Module J09 Predictions related to homeostatic imbalance, including disease states and disorders. HAPS Outcome: O05.07 Describe factors that affect metabolic rate.; J05.02d In the thyroid gland, predict the larger effect that fluctuations in the hormone level will have on conditions (variables) within the body for thyroxine, triiodothyronine, calcitonin.; O05.06 Define metabolic rate and basal metabolic rate.; J09.01 Predict factors or situations affecting the endocrine organs that could disrupt homeostasis.; J09.02 Predict the types of problems that would occur in the body if the various endocrine organs could not maintain homeostasis.
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81) The calorigenic effect of thyroid hormones refers to their effect in increasing the rate at which the body synthesizes protein and fat. Answer: FALSE Section: 16.04 Topic: Body temperature regulation; Hormones from other endocrine glands and their functions Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module O05 Energy balance and thermoregulation.; Module J05 Identity, source, secretory control, and functional roles of the major hormones produced by the body. HAPS Outcome: O05.07 Describe factors that affect metabolic rate.; J05.02d In the thyroid gland, predict the larger effect that fluctuations in the hormone level will have on conditions (variables) within the body for thyroxine, triiodothyronine, calcitonin.; O05.06 Define metabolic rate and basal metabolic rate. 82) When total-body energy balance is positive in an adult, energy is being stored as fat. Answer: TRUE Section: 16.05 Topic: Introduction to metabolism Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module O05 Energy balance and thermoregulation. HAPS Outcome: O05.05 Discuss the importance of energy (caloric) balance in maintaining healthy body weight. 83) When Sarah, a type 1 diabetic, injects insulin she finds that her appetite disappears entirely. Answer: FALSE Section: 16.02; 16.05 Topic: Introduction to nutrition; Hormones from other endocrine glands and their functions Bloom's: Level 3. Apply HAPS Topic: Module O01 Nutrition.; Module J05 Identity, source, secretory control, and functional roles of the major hormones produced by the body. HAPS Outcome: J05.07d In the pancreas, predict the larger effect that fluctuations in insulin and glucagon levels will have on conditions (variables) within the body.; O01.03 Discuss appetite control, including its regulation by hormones.
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84) Anorexia nervosa is excessive thinness usually caused by hyperthyroidism. Answer: FALSE Section: 16.05 Topic: Clinical applications of nutrition and metabolism Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module O01 Nutrition.; Module O07 Predictions related to homeostatic imbalance, including disease states and disorders.; Module J05 Identity, source, secretory control, and functional roles of the major hormones produced by the body. HAPS Outcome: O07.01 Predict factors or situations affecting metabolism that could disrupt homeostasis.; O07.02 Predict the types of problems that would occur in the body metabolic processes could not maintain homeostasis.; J05.02d In the thyroid gland, predict the larger effect that fluctuations in the hormone level will have on conditions (variables) within the body for thyroxine, triiodothyronine, calcitonin.; O01.03 Discuss appetite control, including its regulation by hormones. 85) In response to cold stimuli, human beings increase their rate of heat production primarily by increasing basal metabolic rate. Answer: FALSE Section: 16.06 Topic: Body temperature regulation Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module O05 Energy balance and thermoregulation.; Module O06 Application of homeostatic mechanisms.; Module G11 Application of homeostatic mechanisms HAPS Outcome: G11.01 Provide specific examples to demonstrate how the muscular system responds to maintain homeostasis in the body.; O05.07 Describe factors that affect metabolic rate.; O06.01 Provide specific examples to demonstrate how metabolic processes respond to maintain homeostasis in the body.; O06.02 Explain the role of metabolism as it relates to other body systems to maintain homeostasis.; O05.06 Define metabolic rate and basal metabolic rate. 86) The body's most effective mechanism for reducing heat loss is vasoconstriction of blood vessels in the skin. Answer: TRUE Section: 16.06 Topic: Body temperature regulation Bloom's: Level 2. Understand HAPS Topic: Module O05 Energy balance and thermoregulation.; Module K15 Application of homeostatic mechanisms HAPS Outcome: O05.09 Differentiate between radiation, conduction, evaporation and convection and explain the role of each in thermoregulation.; K15.01 Provide specific examples to demonstrate how the cardiovascular system responds to maintain homeostasis in the body.; K15.02 Explain how the cardiovascular system relates to other body systems to maintain homeostasis.
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87) Heat loss from evaporation occurs only when one is sweating. Answer: FALSE Section: 16.06 Topic: Body temperature regulation Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module O05 Energy balance and thermoregulation. HAPS Outcome: O05.09 Differentiate between radiation, conduction, evaporation and convection and explain the role of each in thermoregulation. 88) The reason high humidity plays such a significant role in increasing the discomfort felt on very hot days is that it decreases the cooling properties of conduction. Answer: FALSE Section: 16.06 Topic: Body temperature regulation Bloom's: Level 2. Understand HAPS Topic: Module O05 Energy balance and thermoregulation. HAPS Outcome: O05.09 Differentiate between radiation, conduction, evaporation and convection and explain the role of each in thermoregulation. 89) Receptors for the regulation of body temperature are heat and cold receptors in the skin, the CNS, and internal organs. Answer: TRUE Section: 16.06 Topic: Body temperature regulation Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module H07 Division, origin, and function of component parts of the brain; Module H06 Sensory receptors and their roles HAPS Outcome: H07.02 Correlate functions with each major area of the adult brain.; H06.02 Describe each of the following types of receptors, indicating what sensation it detects and giving an example of where it can be found in the body: pain receptors (nociceptors), temperature receptors, mechanoreceptors (including proprioceptors and baroreceptors/pressoreceptors), chemoreceptors, and photoreceptors 90) The integrating centers for temperature-regulating reflexes are located in the brain stem. Answer: FALSE Section: 16.06 Topic: Body temperature regulation Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module H07 Division, origin, and function of component parts of the brain HAPS Outcome: H07.02 Correlate functions with each major area of the adult brain.
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91) Fever differs from other forms of hyperthermia in that it results from resetting the hypothalamic "thermostat" to a higher level. Answer: TRUE Section: 16.07 Topic: Body temperature regulation; Clinical applications of nutrition and metabolism Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module O07 Predictions related to homeostatic imbalance, including disease states and disorders. HAPS Outcome: O07.01 Predict factors or situations affecting metabolism that could disrupt homeostasis.; O07.02 Predict the types of problems that would occur in the body metabolic processes could not maintain homeostasis.
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92) Sarah is a type 1 diabetic who forgot to bring insulin with her today. By the end of the day, Sarah is not feeling well. Which of the following is she likely experiencing? A) Hypoglycemia B) Metabolic alkalosis C) Dehydration D) Glucosuria (glucose in urine) E) Increased lipolysis Answer: C, D, E Section: 16.02 Topic: Metabolism of carbohydrates; Metabolism of lipids; Clinical applications of nutrition and metabolism; Hormones from other endocrine glands and their functions Bloom's: Level 3. Apply HAPS Topic: Module O03 Cellular respiration and the catabolism and anabolism of carbohydrates, lipids, and proteins.; Module O07 Predictions related to homeostatic imbalance, including disease states and disorders.; Module J05 Identity, source, secretory control, and functional roles of the major hormones produced by the body.; Module J09 Predictions related to homeostatic imbalance, including disease states and disorders.; Module Q08 Predictions related to homeostatic imbalance, including disease states and disorders; Module P08 Predictions related to homeostatic imbalance, including disease states and disorders; Module P03 Functional processes of urine formation, including filtration, reabsorption, and secretion HAPS Outcome: O03.01f With respect to carbohydrate metabolism, describe the role of hormones (such as cortisol, growth hormone, thyroid hormone, insulin, glucagon and norepinephrine) in regulation of carbohydrate catabolism and anabolism.; O07.01 Predict factors or situations affecting metabolism that could disrupt homeostasis.; O07.02 Predict the types of problems that would occur in the body metabolic processes could not maintain homeostasis.; J05.07d In the pancreas, predict the larger effect that fluctuations in insulin and glucagon levels will have on conditions (variables) within the body.; O03.03c With respect to fat metabolism, describe the role of hormones (such as cortisol, human growth hormone and thyroid hormone) in regulation of lipogenesis and lipolysis.; J09.01 Predict factors or situations affecting the endocrine organs that could disrupt homeostasis.; J09.02 Predict the types of problems that would occur in the body if the various endocrine organs could not maintain homeostasis.; O03.03d With respect to fat metabolism, summarize the overall process of the beta oxidation of fatty acids and explain how it relates to ketogenesis and ketoacidosis.; P03.03d With respect to reabsorption, describe how and where water, organic compounds, and ions are reabsorbed in the nephron.; P08.01 Predict factors or situations affecting the urinary system that could disrupt homeostasis.; Q08.01 Predict factors or situations that would lead to a disruption of homeostasis by affecting the volume or composition of body fluids.; Q08.02 Predict factors or situations that would lead to a disruption of homeostasis by causing respiratory acidosis, respiratory alkalosis, metabolic acidosis, or metabolic alkalosis.; P08.02 Predict the types of problems that would occur in the body of the urinary system could not maintain homeostasis.
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93) You are volunteering at a weight-loss clinic. You're in charge of a station that calculates each participant's basal metabolic rate. Which of the following pieces of information are useful to collect? A) Gender B) Recent ingestion of food C) Body surface area and emotional state D) Age E) Circulating levels of thyroid hormone Answer: A, C, D, E Section: 16.04 Topic: Body temperature regulation; Hormones from other endocrine glands and their functions Bloom's: Level 3. Apply HAPS Topic: Module O05 Energy balance and thermoregulation.; Module J05 Identity, source, secretory control, and functional roles of the major hormones produced by the body. HAPS Outcome: O05.07 Describe factors that affect metabolic rate.; J05.02d In the thyroid gland, predict the larger effect that fluctuations in the hormone level will have on conditions (variables) within the body for thyroxine, triiodothyronine, calcitonin.; O05.06 Define metabolic rate and basal metabolic rate. 94) Susan recently had bariatric surgery which removed 85% of her stomach cells. Which of the following would you expect to decrease immediately after surgery? A) Hunger B) Ghrelin C) Leptin D) Thyroid hormone E) Basal metabolic rate Answer: A, B Section: 16.05 Topic: Introduction to nutrition; Metabolism of lipids; Metabolic roles of body organs; Hormones from other endocrine glands and their functions Bloom's: Level 3. Apply HAPS Topic: Module O01 Nutrition.; Module O03 Cellular respiration and the catabolism and anabolism of carbohydrates, lipids, and proteins.; Module J05 Identity, source, secretory control, and functional roles of the major hormones produced by the body. HAPS Outcome: J05.01a Describe the stimulus for release of growth hormone, thyroidstimulating hormone, luteinizing hormone, follicle stimulating hormone, prolactin, adrenocorticotropic hormone, oxytocin, and antidiuretic hormone (or vasopressin).; O03.03c With respect to fat metabolism, describe the role of hormones (such as cortisol, human growth hormone and thyroid hormone) in regulation of lipogenesis and lipolysis.; O01.03 Discuss appetite control, including its regulation by hormones.
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Vander's Human Physiology, 15e (Widmaier) Chapter 17 Reproduction 1) With regard to reproduction, which is correct about SRY? A) It is a protein that is normally coded for by a gene that is present on the Y chromosome. B) It is a protein normally coded for by a gene that is present on the X chromosome. C) It is a gene that codes for testosterone. D) It is a protein that causes the degeneration of the Wolffian ducts. E) It is a gene found in both males and females. 2) Sexual differentiation of the embryo is normally determined by A) the number of chromosomes, with males having 22 pairs and females having an extra pair of XX chromosomes. B) the presence of two X chromosomes, which causes the primordial testes to degrade. C) the presence of one Y chromosome, which causes the primordial ovaries to degrade. D) the presence of the Y chromosome, which directs the undifferentiated gonads to develop into testes (when there is one X chromosome present as well). E) hormones produced by the placenta. 3) In the embryonic differentiation of a normal male A) undifferentiated gonads develop into testes during the fifth week of embryonic life. B) the Wolffian ducts regress. C) Mullerian inhibiting substance is absent. D) testosterone directly stimulates development of the epididymis, vas deferens, and seminal vesicles. E) testosterone directly stimulates development of the penis and scrotum. 4) In the differentiation of a normal female: A) Müllerian inhibiting substance causes the Müllerian ducts to regress. B) The uterus and fallopian tubes are formed from the Wolffian ducts. C) Female genitalia form in the absence of hormonal stimulation. D) The gonads remain undifferentiated throughout fetal life. E) The SRX protein present on X chromosomes makes the gonads differentiate into ovaries. 5) Which of the following best describes a genetic male (XY) who lacks functional androgen receptors (androgen insensitivity syndrome)? A) He will have normal male external genitalia. B) He will have ovaries and female-appearing external genitalia but male secondary sex characteristics. C) He will have female-appearing external genitalia and ovaries, but internal structures derived from the Wolffian ducts. D) He will have male external genitalia but will have female-appearing internal structures derived from the Müllerian ducts. E) He will have undescended testes, but female external genitalia and secondary sex characteristics.
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6) Esperanza is a 9-year-old girl who was prescribed a drug that increases the secretion of all hypothalamic hormones. Regarding reproduction, which of the following is TRUE of Esperanza? A) Puberty will begin. B) Development of testes will occur. C) Maturation of ovaries will cease. D) Puberty will be delayed. E) None of these will occur. 7) The onset of puberty is triggered by an increase in A) sensitivity of the gonads to pituitary gonadotropins. B) sensitivity of the pituitary to GnRH. C) GnRH secretion. D) sensitivity of the hypothalamus to negative feedback by sex steroids. E) sensitivity of the pituitary to negative feedback by sex steroids. 8) Which is TRUE regarding meiosis in a single germ cell? A) It results in 4 cells with 23 chromosomes each. B) It results in 2 cells with 46 chromosomes each. C) It results in 4 cells with 46 chromosomes each. D) It results in 4 cells with 46 pairs of chromosomes each. E) It results in 4 cells with 23 pairs of chromosomes each. 9) Spermatogenesis A) begins with the mitotic division of spermatogonia. B) results in four primary spermatocytes for every spermatogonium. C) results in four spermatozoa for every primary spermatocyte. D) is not complete until after an egg is fertilized, which initiates the second meiotic division. E) takes place completely within the lumen of the seminiferous tubule. 10) The process of spermatogenesis from primary spermatocyte to sperm A) takes about three weeks in the human. B) occurs when a male is an embryo, ceasing at birth. C) requires participation of Sertoli cells. D) occurs in the epididymis. E) occurs as the cells gradually travel between two closely attached Leydig cells. 11) Which of the following statements regarding male reproductive function is FALSE? A) Sperm formed in the testes enter the epididymis before entering the vas deferens. B) The seminal fluid is alkaline and rich in nutrients. C) The Sertoli cells produce androgen-binding protein. D) Sperm entering the epididymis are fully motile. E) Most of the seminal volume is provided by the secretions of the seminal vesicles and prostate gland.
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12) You are a new technician in an assisted-reproduction clinic. You've been asked to fill-in for your colleague who is sick today. Her job was to use ultrasound to assess sperm production in a male client who had previously undergone a vasectomy. Where will the sperm be found? A) The vas deferens and last part of the epididymis B) The seminiferous tubules C) The ureter D) None of these locations as this client no longer produces sperm 13) Sperm A) are stored in the vas deferens and the last part of the epididymis. B) travel from the seminiferous tubules to the epididymis by the beating action of their flagellae. C) travel through the vas deferens, then the ejaculatory duct, then the ureter during ejaculation. D) are expelled from the penis through the ureter. E) are no longer produced in individuals who have undergone a vasectomy. 14) The androgen-binding protein functions to A) confer responsiveness of certain cells to male sex hormones. B) transport androgens in the plasma. C) bind and maintain high concentrations of testosterone in the seminiferous tubules. D) transport testosterone across cell walls. E) exert negative feedback on the production of testosterone by the Leydig cells. 15) Tom is a 37-year-old male experiencing fertility issues. In his appointment at the assistedreproduction clinic he mentions an odd result from a recent genetic test in which he learned he has a mutation on one copy of his gene for androgen-binding protein. Which of the following is likely TRUE of Tom compared to an individual with two functional copies of the gene? A) His cells are less responsive to male sex hormones. B) He is unable to transport androgens in the plasma. C) He has lower concentrations of testosterone in the seminiferous tubules. D) He is unable to transport testosterone across cell walls. E) None of these. 16) Which is NOT a function of Sertoli cells? A) Forming a barrier between the blood and developing germ cells B) Secreting inhibin C) Nourishing developing sperm D) Converting estrogens into testosterone E) Phagocytizing defective sperm 17) Which of the following male accessory reproductive organs secretes prostaglandins? A) Prostate gland B) Seminal vesicles C) Epididymis D) Bulbourethral glands E) Vas deferens
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18) As sperm travel from their site of production in the testes to the exterior, the sequence of ducts through which they will pass is A) rete testis; efferent ductules; vas deferens; ejaculatory duct; urethra. B) efferent ductules; rete testis; vas deferens; ejaculatory duct; urethra. C) rete testis; efferent ductules; vas deferens; urethra; ejaculatory duct. D) rete testis; afferent ductules; ejaculatory duct; vas deferens; urethra. E) rete testis; ejaculatory duct; efferent ductules; vas deferens; urethra. 19) A class of drugs that inhibit vasodilation would have what effect on male reproduction? A) Orgasm would occur more readily B) Erection may be inhibited C) Increased rate of sperm production may occur D) Increased volume of semen may be produced E) None of these effects would occur 20) Which of the following is FALSE regarding erection of the penis? A) It is a spinal reflex. B) It is a result of sympathetic stimulation of vascular smooth muscle in the erectile tissue of the penis. C) It can be triggered by stimulation of tactile receptors in the penis. D) It is a result of arteriolar vasodilation and venous constriction of blood vessels in the penis. E) It can be inhibited by input to the autonomic nerves from higher brain centers. 21) Ejaculation of semen from the penis is caused by A) a parasympathetic reflex that contracts the seminal vesicles, epididymis, and vas deferens. B) a somatic reflex that initiates sperm production and motility, and contracts skeletal muscle surrounding the vas deferens. C) voluntary relaxation of the internal urethral sphincter, and sympathetic stimulation of smooth muscle contraction in the walls of the ureters and the urethra. D) sympathetic nerve firing, which initiates smooth muscle contraction in the epididymis, vas deferens, ejaculatory ducts, prostate, and seminal vesicles. E) parasympathetic stimulation of smooth muscle in the ureters, urinary bladder, and urethra. 22) Jim has just been diagnosed with testicular cancer. The tumor is composed of Sertoli cells and they have begun to produce excessive amounts of inhibin. Which of the following would be TRUE? A) FSH secretion would be selectively inhibited, but LH secretion would be normal. B) Spermatogenesis would be increased but testosterone secretion would be normal. C) Spermatogenesis would be increased because testosterone production would be above normal. D) Gonadotropin-releasing hormone levels and spermatogenesis would increase above normal. E) Both FSH and LH secretion would rise above normal levels.
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23) As a result of a new medication, Jessica's adrenal glands have increased their production of androgen. On the medication's label, Jessica reads about the potential side effects. Which of these is likely to be included in the list of potential side effects? A) Onset of spermatogenesis in her ovaries B) Increased levels of LH secretion C) Atrophy of her skeletal muscles D) Increase of subcutaneous fat deposition E) New or increased growth of facial hair 24) Sydney had an infection 10 years ago that left scarring in her fallopian tubes. Due to this scarring, the diameter of the fallopian tubes has been reduced by 75%. What effects may Sydney experience? A) Oocytes may not reach the uterus. B) Endometrium may not mature as needed for implantation. C) During pregnancy the fetus may not mature to full size. D) The cervix may not dilate during birth. E) None of these would occur. 25) What would be the effect of cutting the fallopian tubes at their midpoints? A) Sperm would not travel from the vagina to the uterus. B) Sperm would not travel from the testes to the epididymides. C) Estrogen would not enter the bloodstream. D) Ova would not travel from the ovaries to the uterus. E) The Wolffian duct system would be disconnected from the rest of the reproduction system. 26) Which is a TRUE statement about events occurring in the menstrual cycle? A) Each peak in estrogen concentration is accompanied by an even greater peak in progesterone concentration. B) FSH reaches its highest concentration 3 days before menstruation begins. C) Progesterone is low during the first half of the cycle, and rises to a peak during the second half. D) Ovulation occurs exactly in the middle of the follicular phase of the cycle. E) The corpus luteum normally degenerates on day 14 of the cycle. 27) If the amount of progesterone in the blood remained at the level seen in the middle of the luteal phase for 6 straight months, what would the effect be on menstruation? A) Menstruation would not occur. B) Menstruation would occur consistently for the entire 6 months. C) Menstruation would occur at the typical intervals, but would be heavier than before. D) Menstruation would occur at the typical intervals, but would be lighter than before. E) There would be no effect on menstruation.
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28) If you start at the plasma membrane of an oocyte in a mature follicle and move outward, which is the correct order in which you would encounter the three structures listed below? A) Zona pellucida; granulosa cells; theca cells B) Zona pellucida; theca cells; granulosa cells C) Granulosa cells; zona pellucida; theca cells D) Granulosa cells; theca cells; zona pellucida E) Theca cells; zona pellucida; granulosa cells 29) In the ovarian cycle, the dominant follicle A) undergoes atresia. B) continues to grow beyond day 7 of the cycle, while the other developing follicles degenerate. C) is selected on day 1 of the cycle, and no other follicles develop beyond that day. D) is selected to continue growing at about the middle of the luteal phase. E) ruptures during ovulation on day 21 of the cycle. 30) Liz is 5 weeks pregnant. During an ultrasound of her ovaries, which of the following can be seen? A) No follicles beyond primordial follicle stage B) One large corpus luteum and no other follicles beyond primordial stage C) Several follicles in primordial, primary, and preantral stages and one corpus luteum D) No follicles E) 10–25 mature follicles 31) Which is TRUE about the maturation of ovarian follicles? A) Granulosa cells produce androgens, which stimulates follicle maturation. B) Theca cells produce estrogen, which is converted to the androgens that stimulate follicle maturation. C) On day 1 of the cycle, growing follicles have both FSH and LH receptors on granulosa cells. D) Growing follicles produce estrogen, which further stimulates follicle maturation. E) Follicle maturation is stimulated when FSH binds to theca cells and LH binds to granulosa cells. 32) In an effort to prolong the years of female reproduction a drug company produces a drug that prevents more than one follicle from maturing each menstrual cycle. Which of the following might be a side-effect of this drug? A) Lower circulating estrogen levels in the follicular phase B) Lower circulating progesterone levels in the follicular phase C) Lower circulating progesterone levels in the luteal phase D) Higher circulating estrogen levels in the luteal phase E) Lower libido
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33) Many forms of birth control prevent ovulation, although follicular maturation continues to occur. Which of the following would NOT occur in a woman on one of these forms of birth control? A) Completion of the first meiotic division of the oocyte B) The second meiotic division of the oocyte C) Expulsion of the thecal cells onto the ovarian surface D) All of these will still occur E) Expulsion of the corpus luteum from the ovary 34) Which of the following is TRUE of follicular estrogen synthesis? A) Granulosa cells synthesize an androgen which the theca cells convert to estrogen. B) Sertoli cells synthesize an androgen which the granulosa cells convert to dihydrotestosterone. C) Theca cells synthesize an androgen which luteal cells convert to estrogen. D) Production of progesterone by the corpus luteum requires cooperative interaction between two cell types. E) Theca cells synthesize an androgen which the granulosa cells convert to estrogen. 35) Beginning on the first day of the menstrual cycle, the order of phases in the uterus is A) proliferative, secretory, menstrual. B) secretory, proliferative, menstrual. C) menstrual, secretory, proliferative. D) menstrual, proliferative, secretory. E) secretory, menstrual, proliferative. 36) The follicular phase of the ovarian cycle coincides with which phase or phases of the uterine cycle? A) Both the menstrual phase and the secretory phase B) The secretory phase C) Both the follicular phase and the secretory phase D) Both the proliferative phase and the secretory phase E) Both the menstrual phase and the proliferative phase 37) Shedding of the endometrial lining occurs A) because ovulation disrupts the growing follicle. B) as a result of a fall in plasma levels of estradiol and progesterone. C) a day after the LH surge. D) because of an increase in the level of FSH. E) because the nondominant follicles undergo atresia. 38) Julie is 8 weeks pregnant. She takes a drug that is an antagonist to the progesterone receptor. What will happen? A) Ovulation will be disrupted. B) The endometrium and conceptus will be shed. C) Ovulation will occur. D) Follicles will begin to mature. E) Non-dominant follicles undergo atresia. 7 Copyright 2019 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.
39) Which is a function of LH? A) It stimulates androgen production by theca cells. B) It stimulates the growth of granulosa cells. C) It stimulates production of inhibin by theca cells. D) It stimulates estrogen production by theca cells. E) It inhibits GnRH secretion by the hypothalamus during ovulation. 40) Which of the following statements about estrogen in females is FALSE? A) In low plasma concentration, estrogen inhibits pituitary secretion of LH and FSH. B) In high plasma concentration, estrogen stimulates pituitary sensitivity to GnRH. C) In the presence of high plasma concentration of progesterone, estrogen stimulates increased secretion of GnRH. D) Estrogen secretion is required for the LH surge. E) Estrogen stimulates follicular growth. 41) On day 1 of the menstrual cycle, FSH levels will be . The follicle that will become dominant is in the stage of maturation. Progesterone levels in blood are . A) rising; primordial; low B) rising; preantral to antral; low C) rising; preantral to antral; high D) falling; expanding; low E) falling; atretic; high 42) On day 14 of a typical 28-day menstrual cycle, LH concentration in the blood will be . The endometrium will be . Estrogen concentration in the blood is . A) level; sloughing off; low B) at or near a peak; near the end of the proliferative phase; relatively high C) low but rising; in the secretory phase; high D) at or near a peak; in the secretory phase; low E) level; starting the proliferative phase; level but high 43) During the early part of the menstrual cycle, acts on granulosa cells, which . acts on theca cells, which _ . A) LH; convert androgens to estrogens; FSH; synthesize androgens B) LH; synthesize androgens; FSH; convert androgens to estrogens C) FSH; convert androgens to estrogens; LH; synthesize androgens D) FSH; synthesize androgens; LH; convert androgens to estrogens E) progesterone; synthesize androgens; LH; secrete estrogens
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44) Which is TRUE during the luteal phase of the menstrual cycle? A) Both estrogen and progesterone concentrations are kept low by negative feedback. B) Estrogen concentration remains low, while progesterone concentration rises to a peak. C) Progesterone concentration remains low, while estrogen concentration rises to a peak. D) Progesterone concentration in the plasma is high, but estrogen concentration rises even higher. E) Estrogen concentration in the plasma is high, but progesterone concentration rises even higher. 45) The transition between the and the phases of the uterine cycle coincides with . A) follicular; luteal; a rise in basal body temperature B) proliferative; secretory; ovulation C) menstrual; proliferative; ovulation D) secretory; proliferative; selection of the dominant follicle E) proliferative; secretory; menstruation 46) Priya has been having trouble conceiving. She went through testing at a fertility clinic and found that everything seemed fine with gametogenesis and the uterine cycle, but that her cervical mucus seemed abnormally thick. The doctor suggested a supplement to help thin the mucus and allow sperm to get through the mucus to the uterus, but Priya can't remember which type of supplement it was. If the supplement were to provide benefit, it could work through increasing which of the following? A) Estradiol B) Progesterone C) Androgen D) Inhibin E) Drinking more water 47) How does estradiol increase the likelihood that an egg will be fertilized? A) It inhibits the motility of uterine smooth muscle. B) It stimulates inhibin levels, which causes a surge of FSH. C) It increases libido, or sex drive, in women. D) It changes cervical mucus to a watery consistency that allows sperm to penetrate the cervix. E) It stimulates LH receptors that help maintain a corpus luteum. 48) Which is NOT true about the actions of progesterone? A) It increases contractions and activity of the fallopian tube smooth muscle and cilia. B) It induces thick, sticky mucus in the cervix. C) It inhibits the milk-inducing effects of prolactin. D) It increases body temperature. E) It exerts negative feedback on the hypothalamus and anterior pituitary.
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49) Agatha's blastocyst implanted on December 5th. She is trying to figure out which date fertilization most likely occurred on. Which is the most likely date of fertilization? A) December 5th B) December 4th C) December 1st D) November 5th E) November 25th 50) Which is TRUE about sperm delivery? A) Most of the ejaculated sperm arrive in the vicinity of the ovum (if there is one). B) Sperm transport through the cervix is made possible by actions of progesterone on the cervical mucus. C) Of the several hundred million sperm in an ejaculation, only about 100 to 200 reach the fallopian tube. D) Sperm are able to fertilize an egg from the instant they arrive in the female reproductive tract. E) Sperm can survive for up to 2 weeks in the mucus of the cervix. 51) The acrosome reaction is triggered by A) deposition of sperm into the female reproductive tract. B) capacitation of sperm. C) estrogen. D) binding of the heads of sperm to the zona pellucida. E) the first meiotic reduction division of the ovum. 52) The blastocyst implants in the uterus on about the day of the 28-day menstrual cycle. At this time, the endometrium is and progesterone levels are . A) 21st; thick and secretory; high B) 28th; thick and secretory; low C) 14th; thick and secretory; low D) 28th; thin and proliferating; high E) 21st; thin and proliferating; low 53) The corpus luteum persists in pregnancy because the implanting blastocyst secretes: A) large quantities of FSH and LH. B) GnRH, which stimulates the pituitary gland to secrete FSH and LH. C) human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG). D) progesterone and estrogen. E) cortisol. 54) A drug company creates a drug that acts as an antagonist to the human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) receptor. The effect of this drug, if given in early pregnancy would be A) secretion of large quantities of FSH and LH. B) secretion of large quantities of GnRH. C) degeneration of the corpus luteum and declining levels of progesterone and estrogen. D) secretion of large quantities of progesterone and estrogen. E) secretion of cortisol. 10 Copyright 2019 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.
55) Which is a TRUE statement about implantation of a blastocyst? A) When it occurs outside the uterus, it is called a myopic pregnancy. B) It normally occurs midway through the luteal phase. C) It is a result of digestion of myometrial cells by enzymes in the trophoblast. D) It occurs at a time in the cycle when plasma estrogen concentration is higher than progesterone concentration. E) It occurs at the same time as, and is caused by, the LH surge. 56) The placenta is A) a site where maternal blood enters the fetal circulation. B) a site formed by the proliferation of the maternal endometrium and myometrium. C) a site where fetal blood can enter the maternal circulation. D) a site of diffusion and transport of wastes, oxygen, and nutrients between fetal and maternal blood. E) formed from maternal circulatory stem cells, and serves as an exchange organ between mother and fetus. 57) Which of the following is NOT a function of estrogen during pregnancy? A) Stimulation of myometrial growth B) Maintenance of the endometrium C) Stimulation of prolactin secretion D) Stimulation of breast development E) Controlling milk ejection 58) Which is TRUE about hormonal control during pregnancy? A) The corpus luteum must remain functional for 38 weeks because it is the main source of estrogen and progesterone. B) The placenta responds to estrogen and progesterone from the corpus luteum, but does not secrete them. C) The placenta produces estrogen without any contribution from the fetal adrenal cortex. D) The placenta is provided with androgens by the maternal ovaries and adrenal glands, and by the fetal adrenal glands. E) The placenta secretes only steroid hormones, while fetal and maternal pituitary glands secrete pregnancy-specific protein hormones. 59) Which of the following is inhibited by progesterone during pregnancy? A) The sensitivity of the myometrium to stimuli that promote contraction B) Plugging of the uterus by thickened cervical mucus C) Growth of the mammary glands D) Secretion of estrogen E) Regression of the corpus luteum
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60) Which of the following statements is TRUE? A) The mother and the fetus exchange nutrients by exchanging blood in the placenta. B) Human chorionic gonadotropin maintains the corpus luteum. C) Human chorionic gonadotropin levels are the highest at the end of pregnancy. D) From the time of implantation through delivery, the corpus luteum is the major source of progesterone. E) Maternal plasma progesterone levels decline in the weeks leading up to the birth of her baby. 61) Which could be an outcome in a woman who had lower than normal levels of the human placental lactogen during pregnancy? A) Lower fat content of breast milk after delivery B) Degeneration of the corpus luteum C) Weight loss by the mother D) Vasoconstriction and increased maternal blood pressure E) Premature uterine contractions 62) Sarah is a pregnant woman entering her third trimester. She is experiencing a number of physiological changes compared to her non-pregnant state. She checks in with her doctor to make sure everything she's experiencing is normal. Which of these is NOT expected in healthy pregnancy? A) Increased appetite B) Increased blood volume C) Hypoventilation D) All of these are expected E) Cardiac output increases 63) Which of the following is a hormonal change that occurs near the end of a healthy pregnancy? A) Plasma progesterone levels decrease while the levels of estrogen continue to increase. B) Estrogens stimulate connexin synthesis in the myometrium. C) Plasma estrogen levels decrease while the levels of progesterone continue to increase. D) Estrogen blocks the synthesis of oxytocin receptors on uterine smooth muscle. E) There is a surge in the LH concentration. 64) Parturition A) is the delivery of the infant and placenta. B) normally occurs between the 27th and 28th weeks of pregnancy. C) is an example of negative feedback. D) occurs within 24 to 48 hours of ovulation. E) is a pathological condition in which a pregnant woman retains too much fluid (edema), and it can lead to seizures.
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65) Which of the following statements regarding the control of parturition is FALSE? A) Oxytocin secretion is stimulated by cervical dilation. B) Coordinated uterine contractions cause the cervix to dilate. C) Oxytocin decreases the expression of myometrial estrogen receptors. D) Prostaglandins stimulate myometrial contractions. E) Stretching of the myometrium is one signal that begins uterine contractions. 66) Which of the following statements regarding endocrine regulation of breast function in females is FALSE? A) During puberty, ductal growth is stimulated by increasing estrogen levels in plasma. B) During puberty, progesterone stimulates the growth of breast alveoli. C) During pregnancy, the main source of plasma prolactin is secretion from the maternal anterior pituitary gland. D) Prolactin is the main hormone mediating the milk ejection reflex. E) Breast development fluctuates with changing blood concentrations of estrogen and progesterone during each menstrual cycle. 67) Kathryn is pregnant and very eager to breast-feed after the baby is born. Her friend gives her a supplement to encourage prolactin secretion and Kathryn starts to take it during pregnancy. The supplement works and Kathryn's blood level of prolactin increases. She does not begin lactating during pregnancy because A) the breast ducts do not develop until after parturition. B) the high levels of estrogen and progesterone in maternal plasma inhibit the effects of prolactin. C) maternal plasma levels of prolactin are low during pregnancy. D) high levels of androgens inhibit milk synthesis by the breasts. E) the low levels of circulating estrogen and progesterone during pregnancy inhibit milk synthesis by the breasts. 68) Which of these bests describes colostrum? A) It is composed of dark-colored solid waste ejected from a fetus's bowels shortly after it is born. B) It is a hormone secreted by the hypothalamus that inhibits prolactin secretion. C) It is the watery remnant of breast milk that continues to be expelled from the breasts after a baby is weaned. D) It is a watery, protein-rich fluid secreted from maternal breasts after delivery of a baby. E) It is an estrogen-rich fluid that fills the antrum of a mature ovarian follicle. 69) What would be the effect of giving an agonist to the oxytocin receptor to a woman late in pregnancy? A) Onset of uterine contractions B) Inhibition of breast milk production C) Declining levels of estrogen D) Increase in maternal blood pressure E) Inhibition of cervical dilation
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70) Which of the following statements is FALSE regarding oxytocin? A) It is secreted by the posterior pituitary. B) It is regulated by a positive feedback loop. C) It facilitates the birth process. D) It stimulates uterine contractions. E) It stimulates synthesis of breast milk. 71) Julia is a new mother who plans to continue lactation for at least a year after her baby is born. At a post-parturition doctor's visit, the doctor says her blood test indicates declining levels of estrogen and progesterone. Will this interfere with her plans to lactate? A) Yes, high levels of estrogen and progesterone are required for milk production. B) Yes, high levels of estrogen and progesterone are required for milk ejection. C) No, because the secretion of oxytocin and prolactin are more important for lactation. D) No, because even in the absence of hormones, suckling at the breast is sufficient stimulus for milk production. 72) Rebecca's younger sister just told her that she has begun menopause. Rebecca wonders if she has begun menopause as well. One of the symptoms to watch out for is A) the cessation of menstrual cycles. B) high plasma levels of estrogens. C) cessation of gonadotropin secretion. D) the cessation of ovulation while a baby is nursing. E) the pause in development of ovarian follicles occurring between the birth of a baby girl and when she reaches puberty. 73) The major source of estradiol and progesterone in a non-pregnant woman is the A) thyroid gland. B) adrenal gland. C) testis. D) ovary. E) uterus. 74) Which of the following hormones is NOT secreted by the placenta during pregnancy? A) Human placental lactogen B) Androgens C) Estradiol D) Progesterone E) Inhibin
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75) Following crossing-over in meiosis I, which of the following is NOT true? A) Maternal and paternal chromatids will always orient to opposite poles of the cell, remaining segregated from one another. B) Random orientation of maternal and parental chromatids to either pole of the cell allows mixing of these in resultant gametes. C) It is extremely unlikely that all 23 maternal and paternal chromosomes will end up in the same gamete. D) A resulting gamete may have millions of possible different combinations of maternal and paternal chromosomes. E) Chromatid pairs lined up in the cell are separated so that half end up in each daughter cell when division occurs. 76) Which of these results from the second meiotic division? A) Two diploid daughter cells with 46 chromosomes each B) Two haploid daughter cells with 23 chromosomes each C) Two diploid daughter cells with 23 chromosomes each D) A single daughter cell with 46 chromosomes, and a polar body with no genetic material E) Two haploid daughter cells with 46 haploid chromosomes 77) During in utero (fetal) development of the ovary, which of these occurs? A) Cell division of primary oogonia results in the production of 2 to 4 million primary oocytes, which are present at birth. B) Cell division of primary oogonia, which all complete the first meiotic division before birth. C) Cell division of primary oogonia, which all complete both meiotic divisions before birth. D) The mitotic division of primary and secondary oocytes produces cells with 23 chromosomes each. E) A single primary oogonium remains dormant, which then undergoes rapid mitosis after birth. 78) The time span over which sexual intercourse is most likely to result in conception is from day(s) before ovulation to day(s) after ovulation. A) 0; 3 B) 1; 1 C) 2; 4 D) 1; 5 E) 5; 1 79) Implantation of a blastocyst A) normally occurs within the oviduct (fallopian tube). B) normally begins around day 21 of the typical menstrual cycle. C) occurs within 24 hours of fertilization of the oocyte. D) takes place at a time in the typical menstrual cycle when estrogen concentration in the blood is higher than progesterone concentration in the blood. E) requires the presence of high concentrations of follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH).
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80) Natalia is a few weeks pregnant when she begins to experience pain. Her doctor tells her that she is concerned Natalia may be experiencing an ectopic pregnancy and would like to perform an ultrasound to look for the embryo. Where should Natalia's doctor look? A) Near the cervix B) In the endometrium of the lower half of the uterus C) In the fallopian tubes D) In the endometrium of the upper half of the uterus E) In none of these locations 81) When an embryo implants in the wall of the fallopian tube, it is called A) stillbirth. B) erythroblastosis fetalis. C) ectopic pregnancy. D) endometriosis. E) placenta previa. 82) Umbilical arteries A) deliver oxygen and nutrient-rich blood from the mother to the placenta. B) deliver oxygen and nutrient-rich blood from the fetus to the placenta. C) carry blood with low oxygen and high metabolic wastes away from the fetus to the placenta. D) carry highly oxygenated blood from the placenta to the fetus. E) carry blood with low oxygen and high metabolic wastes from the placenta to the mother's circulation. 83) Both male and female human gametogenesis result in 4 functional gametes, each with 23 chromosomes. 84) A male who has non-functional Sertoli cells will still develop spermatozoa. 85) One way in which gametogenesis in males differs from gametogenesis in females is that mitosis of primordial germ cells occurs in males only during fetal life. 86) Meiosis results in germ cells with 23 maternal chromosomes in one daughter cell and 23 paternal chromosomes in the other. 87) The testes are located outside the abdomen because spermatogenesis requires a temperature lower than core body temperature. 88) In the testis, spermatogenesis takes place in the seminiferous tubules and testosterone is produced by the Leydig cells. 89) A man recovering from testicular cancer who has lost 50% of his Leydig cells may find that he has a lower level of testosterone than before. 90) Andrew, an older man, has had part of his prostate gland removed. He should now expect a reduction in the level of prostaglandins secreted into semen. 16 Copyright 2019 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.
91) The products of the first meiotic division of spermatogenesis are spermatids. 92) Conversion of spermatids to spermatozoa involves cell division. 93) The part of the spermatozoan that enables it to swim through fluid is the acrosome. 94) The only cells of the testis that can secrete hormones are the Leydig cells. 95) Rachel's menstrual cycle is typically 28 or 29-days long. The beginning of her last period was 18 days ago, so she is most likely in the proliferative phase. 96) One function of semen is to buffer the acidic secretions of the vagina. 97) Lowering the pH of semen would make it difficult for sperm to survive in the vagina. 98) The primary storage site for sperm is the seminal vesicles. 99) Vasectomy results in sterility because it inhibits sperm production. 100) Erection of the penis is a result of vasodilation brought about by a reflex involving nonadrenergic, noncholinergic autonomic neurons. 101) Inhibiting the hormone inhibin would stop sperm production and therefore be a possible mechanism for male birth control. 102) Luteinizing hormone stimulates testosterone secretion by the Leydig cells of the testes. 103) Spermatogenesis and testosterone production are interdependent events, meaning that neither process can occur without the other. 104) The female external genitalia are collectively called the vulva. 105) At birth, the ovaries of a female baby contain less than one million oogonia. 106) Most of the primordial follicles a woman is born with eventually are ovulated. 107) With respect to hormonal control and secretion, theca cells in the ovary are analogous to Leydig cells in the testis. 108) Inhibin secreted by granulosa cells selectively inhibits secretion of FSH by the pituitary. 109) Increasing circulating levels of inhibin would result in fewer gametes available for fertilization in both sexes. 110) Atresia of all but the dominant follicle is in part a result of the diminished secretion of FSH during the second week of the follicular phase. 17 Copyright 2019 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.
111) The secretory phase of the uterine cycle coincides with the follicular phase of the ovarian cycle. 112) A progesterone receptor agonist would prevent the endometrium from thickening, thereby preventing implantation. 113) Progesterone increases the thickness of the myometrium in preparation for implantation. 114) Cervical mucus secreted under the influence of estrogen alone is clear and non-viscous, while that secreted under the influence of progesterone is thick and sticky. 115) Most of the hormonal effects on female accessory sex organs and secondary sex characteristics are attributable to progesterone. 116) Dysmenorrhea refers to pain or discomfort during menses. 117) Drugs with side effects of vasoconstriction may decrease the physiological response of females or males to sexual stimulation. 118) The mechanisms underlying the physiological response of females to sexual stimulation are similar to those resulting in erection in males. 119) The fertilization of an egg normally occurs in the uterus. 120) Detection of LH in the urine or blood of a woman is an indicator that she is pregnant. 121) While passing down the oviduct, the zygote undergoes several rounds of cell division. 122) Blood in the umbilical arteries is well oxygenated, whereas that in the umbilical vein is poorly oxygenated. 123) Amniocentesis is the removal of a sample of amniotic fluid for diagnosis of genetic or chromosomal disorders of the fetus. 124) Amniocentesis would be an appropriate mechanism to test for Down Syndrome (trisomy 21). 125) Symptoms of preeclampsia generally include glucose in the urine, abnormal fluid retention, and hypertension. 126) Oxytocin stimulates myometrial contractions most strongly when plasma progesterone levels are low relative to estrogen. 127) The major constituents of human breast milk are water, protein, fat, and glucose.
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128) Milk ejection is a neural reflex arc involving afferent input to the hypothalamus from receptors in the nipples and a neural efferent output to the myoepithelial cells in the ducts of the mammary glands. 129) For a woman who does not want to become pregnant, it is sufficient to forego birth control during lactation because the hormones that control lactation will prevent ovulation. 130) A drug company would like to market a new form of birth control. One effective option would be an antagonist to the progesterone receptor. 131) A drug company would like to market a new form of birth control. A drug that interferes with endometrial proliferation and inducing changes in the composition of the cervical mucus, even if it doesn't inhibit ovulation, could still be effective. 132) The gene on the Y chromosome that determines whether gonads will be testes or ovaries codes for a protein called Müllerian-inhibiting substance. 133) The presence of sex chromatin in a smear of epithelial cells indicates that the donor of the cells is a genetic female. 134) An individual with androgen insensitivity syndrome is a genetic male with ovaries. 135) The onset of puberty may be delayed in girls who have very low amounts of adipose tissue. 136) Postmenopausal women are at increased risk, compared to premenopausal women, for osteoporosis and atherosclerosis. 137) Steroid hormones generally bind with receptors inside target cells and control the rate of formation of mRNAs that lead to the synthesis of proteins. 138) During meiosis, crossing-over results in the exchange of homologous genes from one of a pair of chromatids to the other with no net change in possibilities for genetic expression. 139) Within the ovary, there are always a large number of ovarian follicles poised to release an ovum at ovulation. 140) Many (10–25) antral follicles begin the process of development each menstrual cycle, but only one will usually progress to the point of ovulation. 141) Infertility treatments most often involve the injection of aromatases, leading to enhanced numbers of developing early ovarian antral follicles. 142) 99.9% of the ovarian follicles a woman produces in her lifetime are viable and capable of being fertilized.
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143) If an egg is present in the oviduct, fertilization is promoted only after several hours of capacitation have passed for sperm cells. 144) Which of the following are actions of estrogen? A) Stimulation of fat deposition under the skin in the breasts and hips B) Thickening of the cervical mucus C) Increased expression of oxytocin receptors in the myometrium D) Stimulation of bone growth and strength E) Stimulation of growth of pubic hair 145) Which of the following normally produces androgens? A) Leydig cells B) Theca cells C) Adrenal cortex cells D) Sertoli cells E) Endometrial cells 146) Which of these is/are correct descriptions of the human placenta? A) An endocrine gland B) Fetal tissue C) Richly vascularized D) A storage location for nutrients E) Richly innervated 147) A drug company produces a drug that prevents atresia. Which of the following might be a side-effect of this drug? A) Increased rate of successful fertilization and increased incidence of multiple births (twins, etc.) B) Lower circulating progesterone levels in the follicular phase C) Lower circulating progesterone levels in the luteal phase D) Higher circulating estrogen levels in the luteal phase E) Increased production of sperm 148) During a routine check in the second trimester Erica's doctor tells her that the placenta is half the size typically seen at this stage of pregnancy. Which of the following is a concern? A) Inadequate exchange of nutrients and waste, thereby limiting fetal growth B) Inadequate levels of the hormones of pregnancy C) The fetus may become overly large due to extra space in the uterus D) Less maternal blood than is typical will be able to flow into fetal circulation E) None of these will be a concern
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Vander's Human Physiology, 15e (Widmaier) Chapter 17 Reproduction 1) With regard to reproduction, which is correct about SRY? A) It is a protein that is normally coded for by a gene that is present on the Y chromosome. B) It is a protein normally coded for by a gene that is present on the X chromosome. C) It is a gene that codes for testosterone. D) It is a protein that causes the degeneration of the Wolffian ducts. E) It is a gene found in both males and females. Answer: A Section: 17.03 Topic: Physiology of the male reproductive system; Development of the reproductive system Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module R07 Conception, pregnancy, and embryological and fetal development.; Module S02 Gene inheritance and expression. HAPS Outcome: R07.03 Describe the major events of embryonic and fetal development.; S02.05 Discuss the role of sex chromosomes in sex determination and sex-linked inheritance. 2) Sexual differentiation of the embryo is normally determined by A) the number of chromosomes, with males having 22 pairs and females having an extra pair of XX chromosomes. B) the presence of two X chromosomes, which causes the primordial testes to degrade. C) the presence of one Y chromosome, which causes the primordial ovaries to degrade. D) the presence of the Y chromosome, which directs the undifferentiated gonads to develop into testes (when there is one X chromosome present as well). E) hormones produced by the placenta. Answer: D Section: 17.02 Topic: Development of the reproductive system Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module R07 Conception, pregnancy, and embryological and fetal development.; Module S02 Gene inheritance and expression. HAPS Outcome: R07.03 Describe the major events of embryonic and fetal development.; S02.05 Discuss the role of sex chromosomes in sex determination and sex-linked inheritance.
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3) In the embryonic differentiation of a normal male A) undifferentiated gonads develop into testes during the fifth week of embryonic life. B) the Wolffian ducts regress. C) Mullerian inhibiting substance is absent. D) testosterone directly stimulates development of the epididymis, vas deferens, and seminal vesicles. E) testosterone directly stimulates development of the penis and scrotum. Answer: D Section: 17.03 Topic: Physiology of the male reproductive system; Development of the reproductive system Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module R02 Gross and microscopic anatomy of the male and female reproductive systems.; Module R06 Regulation of reproductive system functions.; Module R07 Conception, pregnancy, and embryological and fetal development.; Module J05 Identity, source, secretory control, and functional roles of the major hormones produced by the body. HAPS Outcome: R06.01 State the functions of gonadotropin releasing hormone, follicle stimulating hormone, luteinizing hormone, inhibin, testosterone, estrogen and progesterone.; J05.05c In the testis, name the target tissue or cells for testosterone and inhibin and describe the effect(s) of the hormone on the target tissue or cells.; R02.01 With respect to the gross anatomy, identify and describe the anatomy of the male and female reproductive system, including the gonads, ducts, accessory glands, associated support structures, and external genitalia.; R07.03 Describe the major events of embryonic and fetal development. 4) In the differentiation of a normal female: A) Müllerian inhibiting substance causes the Müllerian ducts to regress. B) The uterus and fallopian tubes are formed from the Wolffian ducts. C) Female genitalia form in the absence of hormonal stimulation. D) The gonads remain undifferentiated throughout fetal life. E) The SRX protein present on X chromosomes makes the gonads differentiate into ovaries. Answer: C Section: 17.03 Topic: Physiology of the female reproductive system; Development of the reproductive system Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module R02 Gross and microscopic anatomy of the male and female reproductive systems.; Module R07 Conception, pregnancy, and embryological and fetal development.; Module S02 Gene inheritance and expression. HAPS Outcome: R02.01 With respect to the gross anatomy, identify and describe the anatomy of the male and female reproductive system, including the gonads, ducts, accessory glands, associated support structures, and external genitalia.; R07.03 Describe the major events of embryonic and fetal development.; S02.05 Discuss the role of sex chromosomes in sex determination and sex-linked inheritance.
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5) Which of the following best describes a genetic male (XY) who lacks functional androgen receptors (androgen insensitivity syndrome)? A) He will have normal male external genitalia. B) He will have ovaries and female-appearing external genitalia but male secondary sex characteristics. C) He will have female-appearing external genitalia and ovaries, but internal structures derived from the Wolffian ducts. D) He will have male external genitalia but will have female-appearing internal structures derived from the Müllerian ducts. E) He will have undescended testes, but female external genitalia and secondary sex characteristics. Answer: E Section: 17.03 Topic: Physiology of the male reproductive system; Development of the reproductive system; Clinical applications of the reproductive system Bloom's: Level 3. Apply HAPS Topic: Module R02 Gross and microscopic anatomy of the male and female reproductive systems.; Module R06 Regulation of reproductive system functions.; Module R07 Conception, pregnancy, and embryological and fetal development.; Module R11 Predictions related to homeostatic imbalance, including disease states and disorders.; Module J05 Identity, source, secretory control, and functional roles of the major hormones produced by the body. HAPS Outcome: R06.01 State the functions of gonadotropin releasing hormone, follicle stimulating hormone, luteinizing hormone, inhibin, testosterone, estrogen and progesterone.; R02.01 With respect to the gross anatomy, identify and describe the anatomy of the male and female reproductive system, including the gonads, ducts, accessory glands, associated support structures, and external genitalia.; R11.01 Predict factors or situations affecting the reproductive system that could disrupt homeostasis.; R11.02 Predict the types of problems that would occur in the body if the reproductive system could not maintain homeostasis.; R06.04 Define secondary sex characteristics and describe their role in reproductive system function.; R07.03 Describe the major events of embryonic and fetal development.; J05.05d In the testis, predict the larger effect that fluctuations in testosterone and inhibin level will have on conditions (variables) within the body.
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6) Esperanza is a 9-year-old girl who was prescribed a drug that increases the secretion of all hypothalamic hormones. Regarding reproduction, which of the following is TRUE of Esperanza? A) Puberty will begin. B) Development of testes will occur. C) Maturation of ovaries will cease. D) Puberty will be delayed. E) None of these will occur. Answer: A Section: 17.09; 17.17 Topic: Physiology of the male reproductive system; Physiology of the female reproductive system; Effects of aging on the reproductive system Bloom's: Level 1. Apply HAPS Topic: Module R06 Regulation of reproductive system functions.; Module J03 Control of hormone secretion.; Module J05 Identity, source, secretory control, and functional roles of the major hormones produced by the body. HAPS Outcome: J03.02 Describe the roles of negative and positive feedback in controlling hormone release.; J05.01a Describe the stimulus for release of growth hormone, thyroidstimulating hormone, luteinizing hormone, follicle stimulating hormone, prolactin, adrenocorticotropic hormone, oxytocin, and antidiuretic hormone (or vasopressin).; R06.01 State the functions of gonadotropin releasing hormone, follicle stimulating hormone, luteinizing hormone, inhibin, testosterone, estrogen and progesterone.; J05.05c In the testis, name the target tissue or cells for testosterone and inhibin and describe the effect(s) of the hormone on the target tissue or cells.; J05.06c In the ovary, name the target tissue or cells for estrogen, progesterone and inhibin and describe the effect(s) of the hormone on the target tissue or cells.; R06.03 Compare and contrast the events and endocrine regulation of female and male puberty.
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7) The onset of puberty is triggered by an increase in A) sensitivity of the gonads to pituitary gonadotropins. B) sensitivity of the pituitary to GnRH. C) GnRH secretion. D) sensitivity of the hypothalamus to negative feedback by sex steroids. E) sensitivity of the pituitary to negative feedback by sex steroids. Answer: C Section: 17.09; 17.17 Topic: Physiology of the male reproductive system; Physiology of the female reproductive system; Effects of aging on the reproductive system Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module R06 Regulation of reproductive system functions.; Module J03 Control of hormone secretion.; Module J05 Identity, source, secretory control, and functional roles of the major hormones produced by the body. HAPS Outcome: J03.02 Describe the roles of negative and positive feedback in controlling hormone release.; J05.01a Describe the stimulus for release of growth hormone, thyroidstimulating hormone, luteinizing hormone, follicle stimulating hormone, prolactin, adrenocorticotropic hormone, oxytocin, and antidiuretic hormone (or vasopressin).; R06.01 State the functions of gonadotropin releasing hormone, follicle stimulating hormone, luteinizing hormone, inhibin, testosterone, estrogen and progesterone.; J05.05c In the testis, name the target tissue or cells for testosterone and inhibin and describe the effect(s) of the hormone on the target tissue or cells.; J05.06c In the ovary, name the target tissue or cells for estrogen, progesterone and inhibin and describe the effect(s) of the hormone on the target tissue or cells.; R06.03 Compare and contrast the events and endocrine regulation of female and male puberty. 8) Which is TRUE regarding meiosis in a single germ cell? A) It results in 4 cells with 23 chromosomes each. B) It results in 2 cells with 46 chromosomes each. C) It results in 4 cells with 46 chromosomes each. D) It results in 4 cells with 46 pairs of chromosomes each. E) It results in 4 cells with 23 pairs of chromosomes each. Answer: A Section: 17.01 Topic: Gametogenesis Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module R03 Gametogenesis.; Module C13 Reproduction and cell division HAPS Outcome: C13.01 Describe the events that take place in each stage of meiosis I and meiosis II.; R03.01 Contrast the overall processes of mitosis and meiosis.
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9) Spermatogenesis A) begins with the mitotic division of spermatogonia. B) results in four primary spermatocytes for every spermatogonium. C) results in four spermatozoa for every primary spermatocyte. D) is not complete until after an egg is fertilized, which initiates the second meiotic division. E) takes place completely within the lumen of the seminiferous tubule. Answer: C Section: 17.01; 17.06 Topic: Gametogenesis; Physiology of the male reproductive system Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module R02 Gross and microscopic anatomy of the male and female reproductive systems.; Module R03 Gametogenesis. HAPS Outcome: R02.01 With respect to the gross anatomy, identify and describe the anatomy of the male and female reproductive system, including the gonads, ducts, accessory glands, associated support structures, and external genitalia.; R02.02a Identify and describe the reproductive and supporting cells of the seminiferous tubules of the testis in reference to microscopic anatomy.; R03.02 Relate the general stages of meiosis to the specific processes of spermatogenesis and oogenesis. 10) The process of spermatogenesis from primary spermatocyte to sperm A) takes about three weeks in the human. B) occurs when a male is an embryo, ceasing at birth. C) requires participation of Sertoli cells. D) occurs in the epididymis. E) occurs as the cells gradually travel between two closely attached Leydig cells. Answer: C Section: 17.01; 17.06 Topic: Microscopic anatomy of the male reproductive system; Gametogenesis; Physiology of the male reproductive system Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module R02 Gross and microscopic anatomy of the male and female reproductive systems.; Module R05 Specific roles of the male reproductive organs. HAPS Outcome: R02.01 With respect to the gross anatomy, identify and describe the anatomy of the male and female reproductive system, including the gonads, ducts, accessory glands, associated support structures, and external genitalia.; R02.02a Identify and describe the reproductive and supporting cells of the seminiferous tubules of the testis in reference to microscopic anatomy.; R05.02 Explain the role of the sustentacular cells and interstitial cells in sperm production.
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11) Which of the following statements regarding male reproductive function is FALSE? A) Sperm formed in the testes enter the epididymis before entering the vas deferens. B) The seminal fluid is alkaline and rich in nutrients. C) The Sertoli cells produce androgen-binding protein. D) Sperm entering the epididymis are fully motile. E) Most of the seminal volume is provided by the secretions of the seminal vesicles and prostate gland. Answer: D Section: 17.05; 17.06; 17.07 Topic: Microscopic anatomy of the male reproductive system; Gross anatomy of the male reproductive system; Physiology of the male reproductive system Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module R02 Gross and microscopic anatomy of the male and female reproductive systems.; Module R05 Specific roles of the male reproductive organs. HAPS Outcome: R02.01 With respect to the gross anatomy, identify and describe the anatomy of the male and female reproductive system, including the gonads, ducts, accessory glands, associated support structures, and external genitalia.; R02.02a Identify and describe the reproductive and supporting cells of the seminiferous tubules of the testis in reference to microscopic anatomy.; R05.03 Describe the pathway of sperm from the seminiferous tubules to the external urethral orifice of the penis.; R05.02 Explain the role of the sustentacular cells and interstitial cells in sperm production.; R05.04 Identify and describe the organs involved in semen production.; R05.05 Discuss the composition of semen and its role is sperm function. 12) You are a new technician in an assisted-reproduction clinic. You've been asked to fill-in for your colleague who is sick today. Her job was to use ultrasound to assess sperm production in a male client who had previously undergone a vasectomy. Where will the sperm be found? A) The vas deferens and last part of the epididymis B) The seminiferous tubules C) The ureter D) None of these locations as this client no longer produces sperm Answer: A Section: 17.07 Topic: Gross anatomy of the male reproductive system; Physiology of the male reproductive system; Clinical applications of the reproductive system Bloom's: Level 3. Apply HAPS Topic: Module R02 Gross and microscopic anatomy of the male and female reproductive systems.; Module R05 Specific roles of the male reproductive organs.; Module R11 Predictions related to homeostatic imbalance, including disease states and disorders. HAPS Outcome: R02.01 With respect to the gross anatomy, identify and describe the anatomy of the male and female reproductive system, including the gonads, ducts, accessory glands, associated support structures, and external genitalia.; R11.02 Predict the types of problems that would occur in the body if the reproductive system could not maintain homeostasis.; R05.03 Describe the pathway of sperm from the seminiferous tubules to the external urethral orifice of the penis. 7 Copyright 2019 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.
13) Sperm A) are stored in the vas deferens and the last part of the epididymis. B) travel from the seminiferous tubules to the epididymis by the beating action of their flagellae. C) travel through the vas deferens, then the ejaculatory duct, then the ureter during ejaculation. D) are expelled from the penis through the ureter. E) are no longer produced in individuals who have undergone a vasectomy. Answer: A Section: 17.07 Topic: Gross anatomy of the male reproductive system; Physiology of the male reproductive system; Clinical applications of the reproductive system Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module R02 Gross and microscopic anatomy of the male and female reproductive systems.; Module R05 Specific roles of the male reproductive organs.; Module R11 Predictions related to homeostatic imbalance, including disease states and disorders. HAPS Outcome: R02.01 With respect to the gross anatomy, identify and describe the anatomy of the male and female reproductive system, including the gonads, ducts, accessory glands, associated support structures, and external genitalia.; R11.02 Predict the types of problems that would occur in the body if the reproductive system could not maintain homeostasis.; R05.03 Describe the pathway of sperm from the seminiferous tubules to the external urethral orifice of the penis. 14) The androgen-binding protein functions to A) confer responsiveness of certain cells to male sex hormones. B) transport androgens in the plasma. C) bind and maintain high concentrations of testosterone in the seminiferous tubules. D) transport testosterone across cell walls. E) exert negative feedback on the production of testosterone by the Leydig cells. Answer: C Section: 17.06 Topic: Physiology of the male reproductive system Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module R02 Gross and microscopic anatomy of the male and female reproductive systems.; Module R05 Specific roles of the male reproductive organs.; Module J05 Identity, source, secretory control, and functional roles of the major hormones produced by the body. HAPS Outcome: R02.02a Identify and describe the reproductive and supporting cells of the seminiferous tubules of the testis in reference to microscopic anatomy.; R05.02 Explain the role of the sustentacular cells and interstitial cells in sperm production.; J05.05a In the testis, describe the stimulus for release of testosterone and inhibin.
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15) Tom is a 37-year-old male experiencing fertility issues. In his appointment at the assistedreproduction clinic he mentions an odd result from a recent genetic test in which he learned he has a mutation on one copy of his gene for androgen-binding protein. Which of the following is likely TRUE of Tom compared to an individual with two functional copies of the gene? A) His cells are less responsive to male sex hormones. B) He is unable to transport androgens in the plasma. C) He has lower concentrations of testosterone in the seminiferous tubules. D) He is unable to transport testosterone across cell walls. E) None of these. Answer: C Section: 17.06 Topic: Physiology of the male reproductive system Bloom's: Level 3. Apply HAPS Topic: Module R02 Gross and microscopic anatomy of the male and female reproductive systems.; Module R05 Specific roles of the male reproductive organs.; Module J05 Identity, source, secretory control, and functional roles of the major hormones produced by the body. HAPS Outcome: R02.02a Identify and describe the reproductive and supporting cells of the seminiferous tubules of the testis in reference to microscopic anatomy.; R05.02 Explain the role of the sustentacular cells and interstitial cells in sperm production.; J05.05a In the testis, describe the stimulus for release of testosterone and inhibin. 16) Which is NOT a function of Sertoli cells? A) Forming a barrier between the blood and developing germ cells B) Secreting inhibin C) Nourishing developing sperm D) Converting estrogens into testosterone E) Phagocytizing defective sperm Answer: D Section: 17.06 Topic: Microscopic anatomy of the male reproductive system; Physiology of the male reproductive system Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module R02 Gross and microscopic anatomy of the male and female reproductive systems.; Module R05 Specific roles of the male reproductive organs.; Module J05 Identity, source, secretory control, and functional roles of the major hormones produced by the body. HAPS Outcome: R02.02a Identify and describe the reproductive and supporting cells of the seminiferous tubules of the testis in reference to microscopic anatomy.; J05.05b In the testis, identify the gland or endocrine tissue/organ and the cells within that gland/tissue/organ that produce testosterone and inhibin.; R05.02 Explain the role of the sustentacular cells and interstitial cells in sperm production.
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17) Which of the following male accessory reproductive organs secretes prostaglandins? A) Prostate gland B) Seminal vesicles C) Epididymis D) Bulbourethral glands E) Vas deferens Answer: B Section: 17.05 Topic: Gross anatomy of the male reproductive system; Physiology of the male reproductive system Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module R02 Gross and microscopic anatomy of the male and female reproductive systems.; Module R05 Specific roles of the male reproductive organs. HAPS Outcome: R02.01 With respect to the gross anatomy, identify and describe the anatomy of the male and female reproductive system, including the gonads, ducts, accessory glands, associated support structures, and external genitalia.; R05.04 Identify and describe the organs involved in semen production.; R05.05 Discuss the composition of semen and its role is sperm function. 18) As sperm travel from their site of production in the testes to the exterior, the sequence of ducts through which they will pass is A) rete testis; efferent ductules; vas deferens; ejaculatory duct; urethra. B) efferent ductules; rete testis; vas deferens; ejaculatory duct; urethra. C) rete testis; efferent ductules; vas deferens; urethra; ejaculatory duct. D) rete testis; afferent ductules; ejaculatory duct; vas deferens; urethra. E) rete testis; ejaculatory duct; efferent ductules; vas deferens; urethra. Answer: A Section: 17.05; 17.07 Topic: Gross anatomy of the male reproductive system; Physiology of the male reproductive system Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module R02 Gross and microscopic anatomy of the male and female reproductive systems.; Module R05 Specific roles of the male reproductive organs. HAPS Outcome: R02.01 With respect to the gross anatomy, identify and describe the anatomy of the male and female reproductive system, including the gonads, ducts, accessory glands, associated support structures, and external genitalia.; R05.03 Describe the pathway of sperm from the seminiferous tubules to the external urethral orifice of the penis.
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19) A class of drugs that inhibit vasodilation would have what effect on male reproduction? A) Orgasm would occur more readily B) Erection may be inhibited C) Increased rate of sperm production may occur D) Increased volume of semen may be produced E) None of these effects would occur Answer: B Section: 17.07 Topic: Physiology of the male reproductive system Bloom's: Level 3. Apply HAPS Topic: Module R02 Gross and microscopic anatomy of the male and female reproductive systems.; Module R06 Regulation of reproductive system functions.; Module H13 Functions of the autonomic nervous system HAPS Outcome: R02.01 With respect to the gross anatomy, identify and describe the anatomy of the male and female reproductive system, including the gonads, ducts, accessory glands, associated support structures, and external genitalia.; H13.06 Describe visceral reflex arcs, including structural and functional details of sensory and motor (autonomic) components; R06.05 Compare and contrast female and male sexual responses. 20) Which of the following is FALSE regarding erection of the penis? A) It is a spinal reflex. B) It is a result of sympathetic stimulation of vascular smooth muscle in the erectile tissue of the penis. C) It can be triggered by stimulation of tactile receptors in the penis. D) It is a result of arteriolar vasodilation and venous constriction of blood vessels in the penis. E) It can be inhibited by input to the autonomic nerves from higher brain centers. Answer: B Section: 17.07 Topic: Physiology of the male reproductive system Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module R02 Gross and microscopic anatomy of the male and female reproductive systems.; Module R06 Regulation of reproductive system functions.; Module H13 Functions of the autonomic nervous system HAPS Outcome: R02.01 With respect to the gross anatomy, identify and describe the anatomy of the male and female reproductive system, including the gonads, ducts, accessory glands, associated support structures, and external genitalia.; H13.06 Describe visceral reflex arcs, including structural and functional details of sensory and motor (autonomic) components; R06.05 Compare and contrast female and male sexual responses.
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21) Ejaculation of semen from the penis is caused by A) a parasympathetic reflex that contracts the seminal vesicles, epididymis, and vas deferens. B) a somatic reflex that initiates sperm production and motility, and contracts skeletal muscle surrounding the vas deferens. C) voluntary relaxation of the internal urethral sphincter, and sympathetic stimulation of smooth muscle contraction in the walls of the ureters and the urethra. D) sympathetic nerve firing, which initiates smooth muscle contraction in the epididymis, vas deferens, ejaculatory ducts, prostate, and seminal vesicles. E) parasympathetic stimulation of smooth muscle in the ureters, urinary bladder, and urethra. Answer: D Section: 17.07 Topic: Physiology of the male reproductive system Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module R02 Gross and microscopic anatomy of the male and female reproductive systems.; Module R06 Regulation of reproductive system functions.; Module H13 Functions of the autonomic nervous system HAPS Outcome: R02.01 With respect to the gross anatomy, identify and describe the anatomy of the male and female reproductive system, including the gonads, ducts, accessory glands, associated support structures, and external genitalia.; H13.06 Describe visceral reflex arcs, including structural and functional details of sensory and motor (autonomic) components; R06.05 Compare and contrast female and male sexual responses.
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22) Jim has just been diagnosed with testicular cancer. The tumor is composed of Sertoli cells and they have begun to produce excessive amounts of inhibin. Which of the following would be TRUE? A) FSH secretion would be selectively inhibited, but LH secretion would be normal. B) Spermatogenesis would be increased but testosterone secretion would be normal. C) Spermatogenesis would be increased because testosterone production would be above normal. D) Gonadotropin-releasing hormone levels and spermatogenesis would increase above normal. E) Both FSH and LH secretion would rise above normal levels. Answer: A Section: 17.06; 17.08 Topic: Physiology of the male reproductive system; Clinical applications of the reproductive system Bloom's: Level 3. Apply HAPS Topic: Module R02 Gross and microscopic anatomy of the male and female reproductive systems.; Module R05 Specific roles of the male reproductive organs.; Module R06 Regulation of reproductive system functions.; Module R11 Predictions related to homeostatic imbalance, including disease states and disorders.; Module J03 Control of hormone secretion.; Module J05 Identity, source, secretory control, and functional roles of the major hormones produced by the body.; Module J09 Predictions related to homeostatic imbalance, including disease states and disorders. HAPS Outcome: J03.02 Describe the roles of negative and positive feedback in controlling hormone release.; J05.01a Describe the stimulus for release of growth hormone, thyroidstimulating hormone, luteinizing hormone, follicle stimulating hormone, prolactin, adrenocorticotropic hormone, oxytocin, and antidiuretic hormone (or vasopressin).; R06.01 State the functions of gonadotropin releasing hormone, follicle stimulating hormone, luteinizing hormone, inhibin, testosterone, estrogen and progesterone.; J05.05c In the testis, name the target tissue or cells for testosterone and inhibin and describe the effect(s) of the hormone on the target tissue or cells.; R02.02a Identify and describe the reproductive and supporting cells of the seminiferous tubules of the testis in reference to microscopic anatomy.; R11.01 Predict factors or situations affecting the reproductive system that could disrupt homeostasis.; R11.02 Predict the types of problems that would occur in the body if the reproductive system could not maintain homeostasis.; J09.01 Predict factors or situations affecting the endocrine organs that could disrupt homeostasis.; J09.02 Predict the types of problems that would occur in the body if the various endocrine organs could not maintain homeostasis.; J05.05b In the testis, identify the gland or endocrine tissue/organ and the cells within that gland/tissue/organ that produce testosterone and inhibin.; R05.02 Explain the role of the sustentacular cells and interstitial cells in sperm production.; J05.01c Name the target tissue or cells for the hormone and describe the effect(s) of the hormone on the target tissue or cells of growth hormone, thyroid-stimulating hormone, luteinizing hormone, follicle stimulating hormone, prolactin, adrenocorticotropic hormone, oxytocin, and antidiuretic hormone (or vasopressin.
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23) As a result of a new medication, Jessica's adrenal glands have increased their production of androgen. On the medication's label, Jessica reads about the potential side effects. Which of these is likely to be included in the list of potential side effects? A) Onset of spermatogenesis in her ovaries B) Increased levels of LH secretion C) Atrophy of her skeletal muscles D) Increase of subcutaneous fat deposition E) New or increased growth of facial hair Answer: B Section: 17.16 Topic: Physiology of the female reproductive system; Clinical applications of the reproductive system Bloom's: Level 3. Apply HAPS Topic: Module R06 Regulation of reproductive system functions.; Module J05 Identity, source, secretory control, and functional roles of the major hormones produced by the body.; Module J09 Predictions related to homeostatic imbalance, including disease states and disorders. HAPS Outcome: J05.01a Describe the stimulus for release of growth hormone, thyroidstimulating hormone, luteinizing hormone, follicle stimulating hormone, prolactin, adrenocorticotropic hormone, oxytocin, and antidiuretic hormone (or vasopressin).; R06.01 State the functions of gonadotropin releasing hormone, follicle stimulating hormone, luteinizing hormone, inhibin, testosterone, estrogen and progesterone.; J05.04b In the adrenal gland, identify the gland or endocrine tissue/organ and the cells within that gland/tissue/organ that produce glucocorticoids (cortisol), mineralocorticoids (aldosterone), gonadocorticoids, epinephrine and norepinephrine.; J05.04d In the adrenal gland, predict the larger effect that fluctuations in glucocorticoids (cortisol), mineralocorticoids (aldosterone), gonadocorticoids, epinephrine and norepinephrine levels will have on conditions (variables) within the body.; J09.01 Predict factors or situations affecting the endocrine organs that could disrupt homeostasis.; J09.02 Predict the types of problems that would occur in the body if the various endocrine organs could not maintain homeostasis.; R06.04 Define secondary sex characteristics and describe their role in reproductive system function.
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24) Sydney had an infection 10 years ago that left scarring in her fallopian tubes. Due to this scarring, the diameter of the fallopian tubes has been reduced by 75%. What effects may Sydney experience? A) Oocytes may not reach the uterus. B) Endometrium may not mature as needed for implantation. C) During pregnancy the fetus may not mature to full size. D) The cervix may not dilate during birth. E) None of these would occur. Answer: A Section: 17.12 Topic: Gross anatomy of the female reproductive system; Physiology of the female reproductive system Bloom's: Level 3. Apply HAPS Topic: Module R02 Gross and microscopic anatomy of the male and female reproductive systems.; Module R04 Specific roles of the female reproductive organs.; Module R07 Conception, pregnancy, and embryological and fetal development. HAPS Outcome: R02.01 With respect to the gross anatomy, identify and describe the anatomy of the male and female reproductive system, including the gonads, ducts, accessory glands, associated support structures, and external genitalia.; R04.01 Describe the pathway of the ovum from the ovary to the uterus.; R07.03 Describe the major events of embryonic and fetal development. 25) What would be the effect of cutting the fallopian tubes at their midpoints? A) Sperm would not travel from the vagina to the uterus. B) Sperm would not travel from the testes to the epididymides. C) Estrogen would not enter the bloodstream. D) Ova would not travel from the ovaries to the uterus. E) The Wolffian duct system would be disconnected from the rest of the reproduction system. Answer: D Section: 17.12 Topic: Gross anatomy of the female reproductive system; Physiology of the female reproductive system Bloom's: Level 3. Apply HAPS Topic: Module R02 Gross and microscopic anatomy of the male and female reproductive systems.; Module R04 Specific roles of the female reproductive organs.; Module R05 Specific roles of the male reproductive organs.; Module R07 Conception, pregnancy, and embryological and fetal development. HAPS Outcome: R02.01 With respect to the gross anatomy, identify and describe the anatomy of the male and female reproductive system, including the gonads, ducts, accessory glands, associated support structures, and external genitalia.; R04.01 Describe the pathway of the ovum from the ovary to the uterus.; R05.03 Describe the pathway of sperm from the seminiferous tubules to the external urethral orifice of the penis.; R07.03 Describe the major events of embryonic and fetal development.
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26) Which is a TRUE statement about events occurring in the menstrual cycle? A) Each peak in estrogen concentration is accompanied by an even greater peak in progesterone concentration. B) FSH reaches its highest concentration 3 days before menstruation begins. C) Progesterone is low during the first half of the cycle, and rises to a peak during the second half. D) Ovulation occurs exactly in the middle of the follicular phase of the cycle. E) The corpus luteum normally degenerates on day 14 of the cycle. Answer: C Section: 17.14 Topic: Physiology of the female reproductive system Bloom's: Level 2. Understand HAPS Topic: Module R02 Gross and microscopic anatomy of the male and female reproductive systems.; Module R04 Specific roles of the female reproductive organs. HAPS Outcome: R04.04 Analyze graphs depicting the typical female monthly sexual cycle and correlate ovarian activity, hormonal changes, and uterine events.; R02.02b Identify and describe the different stages of follicular development in the ovary, including the preovulatory follicle and the corpus luteum in reference to microscopic anatomy.; R04.02 Describe the ovarian cycle and relate the events of the ovarian cycle to oogenesis. 27) If the amount of progesterone in the blood remained at the level seen in the middle of the luteal phase for 6 straight months, what would the effect be on menstruation? A) Menstruation would not occur. B) Menstruation would occur consistently for the entire 6 months. C) Menstruation would occur at the typical intervals, but would be heavier than before. D) Menstruation would occur at the typical intervals, but would be lighter than before. E) There would be no effect on menstruation. Answer: A Section: 17.14 Topic: Physiology of the female reproductive system Bloom's: Level 3. Apply HAPS Topic: Module R02 Gross and microscopic anatomy of the male and female reproductive systems.; Module R04 Specific roles of the female reproductive organs. HAPS Outcome: R04.04 Analyze graphs depicting the typical female monthly sexual cycle and correlate ovarian activity, hormonal changes, and uterine events.; R02.02b Identify and describe the different stages of follicular development in the ovary, including the preovulatory follicle and the corpus luteum in reference to microscopic anatomy.; R04.02 Describe the ovarian cycle and relate the events of the ovarian cycle to oogenesis.
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28) If you start at the plasma membrane of an oocyte in a mature follicle and move outward, which is the correct order in which you would encounter the three structures listed below? A) Zona pellucida; granulosa cells; theca cells B) Zona pellucida; theca cells; granulosa cells C) Granulosa cells; zona pellucida; theca cells D) Granulosa cells; theca cells; zona pellucida E) Theca cells; zona pellucida; granulosa cells Answer: A Section: 17.13 Topic: Microscopic anatomy of the female reproductive system Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module R02 Gross and microscopic anatomy of the male and female reproductive systems. HAPS Outcome: R02.02b Identify and describe the different stages of follicular development in the ovary, including the preovulatory follicle and the corpus luteum in reference to microscopic anatomy. 29) In the ovarian cycle, the dominant follicle A) undergoes atresia. B) continues to grow beyond day 7 of the cycle, while the other developing follicles degenerate. C) is selected on day 1 of the cycle, and no other follicles develop beyond that day. D) is selected to continue growing at about the middle of the luteal phase. E) ruptures during ovulation on day 21 of the cycle. Answer: B Section: 17.13 Topic: Physiology of the female reproductive system Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module R02 Gross and microscopic anatomy of the male and female reproductive systems.; Module R04 Specific roles of the female reproductive organs. HAPS Outcome: R04.04 Analyze graphs depicting the typical female monthly sexual cycle and correlate ovarian activity, hormonal changes, and uterine events.; R02.02b Identify and describe the different stages of follicular development in the ovary, including the preovulatory follicle and the corpus luteum in reference to microscopic anatomy.; R04.02 Describe the ovarian cycle and relate the events of the ovarian cycle to oogenesis.
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30) Liz is 5 weeks pregnant. During an ultrasound of her ovaries, which of the following can be seen? A) No follicles beyond primordial follicle stage B) One large corpus luteum and no other follicles beyond primordial stage C) Several follicles in primordial, primary, and preantral stages and one corpus luteum D) No follicles E) 10–25 mature follicles Answer: B Section: 17.13 Topic: Physiology of the female reproductive system Bloom's: Level 3. Apply HAPS Topic: Module R02 Gross and microscopic anatomy of the male and female reproductive systems.; Module R04 Specific roles of the female reproductive organs. HAPS Outcome: R04.04 Analyze graphs depicting the typical female monthly sexual cycle and correlate ovarian activity, hormonal changes, and uterine events.; R02.02b Identify and describe the different stages of follicular development in the ovary, including the preovulatory follicle and the corpus luteum in reference to microscopic anatomy.; R04.02 Describe the ovarian cycle and relate the events of the ovarian cycle to oogenesis.
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31) Which is TRUE about the maturation of ovarian follicles? A) Granulosa cells produce androgens, which stimulates follicle maturation. B) Theca cells produce estrogen, which is converted to the androgens that stimulate follicle maturation. C) On day 1 of the cycle, growing follicles have both FSH and LH receptors on granulosa cells. D) Growing follicles produce estrogen, which further stimulates follicle maturation. E) Follicle maturation is stimulated when FSH binds to theca cells and LH binds to granulosa cells. Answer: D Section: 17.13 Topic: Physiology of the female reproductive system Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module R02 Gross and microscopic anatomy of the male and female reproductive systems.; Module R04 Specific roles of the female reproductive organs.; Module R06 Regulation of reproductive system functions.; Module J05 Identity, source, secretory control, and functional roles of the major hormones produced by the body. HAPS Outcome: R04.04 Analyze graphs depicting the typical female monthly sexual cycle and correlate ovarian activity, hormonal changes, and uterine events.; R06.01 State the functions of gonadotropin releasing hormone, follicle stimulating hormone, luteinizing hormone, inhibin, testosterone, estrogen and progesterone.; J05.06c In the ovary, name the target tissue or cells for estrogen, progesterone and inhibin and describe the effect(s) of the hormone on the target tissue or cells.; R02.02b Identify and describe the different stages of follicular development in the ovary, including the preovulatory follicle and the corpus luteum in reference to microscopic anatomy.; J05.06b In the ovary, identify the gland or endocrine tissue/organ and the cells within that gland/tissue/organ that produce estrogen, progesterone and inhibin.; R04.02 Describe the ovarian cycle and relate the events of the ovarian cycle to oogenesis.; J05.01c Name the target tissue or cells for the hormone and describe the effect(s) of the hormone on the target tissue or cells of growth hormone, thyroid-stimulating hormone, luteinizing hormone, follicle stimulating hormone, prolactin, adrenocorticotropic hormone, oxytocin, and antidiuretic hormone (or vasopressin.
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32) In an effort to prolong the years of female reproduction a drug company produces a drug that prevents more than one follicle from maturing each menstrual cycle. Which of the following might be a side-effect of this drug? A) Lower circulating estrogen levels in the follicular phase B) Lower circulating progesterone levels in the follicular phase C) Lower circulating progesterone levels in the luteal phase D) Higher circulating estrogen levels in the luteal phase E) Lower libido Answer: A Section: 17.13 Topic: Physiology of the female reproductive system Bloom's: Level 3. Apply HAPS Topic: Module R02 Gross and microscopic anatomy of the male and female reproductive systems.; Module R04 Specific roles of the female reproductive organs.; Module R06 Regulation of reproductive system functions.; Module J05 Identity, source, secretory control, and functional roles of the major hormones produced by the body. HAPS Outcome: R04.04 Analyze graphs depicting the typical female monthly sexual cycle and correlate ovarian activity, hormonal changes, and uterine events.; R06.01 State the functions of gonadotropin releasing hormone, follicle stimulating hormone, luteinizing hormone, inhibin, testosterone, estrogen and progesterone.; J05.06c In the ovary, name the target tissue or cells for estrogen, progesterone and inhibin and describe the effect(s) of the hormone on the target tissue or cells.; R02.02b Identify and describe the different stages of follicular development in the ovary, including the preovulatory follicle and the corpus luteum in reference to microscopic anatomy.; J05.06b In the ovary, identify the gland or endocrine tissue/organ and the cells within that gland/tissue/organ that produce estrogen, progesterone and inhibin.; R04.02 Describe the ovarian cycle and relate the events of the ovarian cycle to oogenesis.; J05.01c Name the target tissue or cells for the hormone and describe the effect(s) of the hormone on the target tissue or cells of growth hormone, thyroid-stimulating hormone, luteinizing hormone, follicle stimulating hormone, prolactin, adrenocorticotropic hormone, oxytocin, and antidiuretic hormone (or vasopressin.
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33) Many forms of birth control prevent ovulation, although follicular maturation continues to occur. Which of the following would NOT occur in a woman on one of these forms of birth control? A) Completion of the first meiotic division of the oocyte B) The second meiotic division of the oocyte C) Expulsion of the thecal cells onto the ovarian surface D) All of these will still occur E) Expulsion of the corpus luteum from the ovary Answer: A Section: 17.13 Topic: Gametogenesis; Physiology of the female reproductive system Bloom's: Level 3. Apply HAPS Topic: Module R02 Gross and microscopic anatomy of the male and female reproductive systems.; Module R03 Gametogenesis.; Module R04 Specific roles of the female reproductive organs. HAPS Outcome: R04.04 Analyze graphs depicting the typical female monthly sexual cycle and correlate ovarian activity, hormonal changes, and uterine events.; R03.02 Relate the general stages of meiosis to the specific processes of spermatogenesis and oogenesis.; R02.02b Identify and describe the different stages of follicular development in the ovary, including the preovulatory follicle and the corpus luteum in reference to microscopic anatomy.; R04.02 Describe the ovarian cycle and relate the events of the ovarian cycle to oogenesis.
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34) Which of the following is TRUE of follicular estrogen synthesis? A) Granulosa cells synthesize an androgen which the theca cells convert to estrogen. B) Sertoli cells synthesize an androgen which the granulosa cells convert to dihydrotestosterone. C) Theca cells synthesize an androgen which luteal cells convert to estrogen. D) Production of progesterone by the corpus luteum requires cooperative interaction between two cell types. E) Theca cells synthesize an androgen which the granulosa cells convert to estrogen. Answer: E Section: 17.14 Topic: Microscopic anatomy of the female reproductive system; Physiology of the female reproductive system Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module R02 Gross and microscopic anatomy of the male and female reproductive systems.; Module R06 Regulation of reproductive system functions.; Module J05 Identity, source, secretory control, and functional roles of the major hormones produced by the body. HAPS Outcome: R06.01 State the functions of gonadotropin releasing hormone, follicle stimulating hormone, luteinizing hormone, inhibin, testosterone, estrogen and progesterone.; J05.06c In the ovary, name the target tissue or cells for estrogen, progesterone and inhibin and describe the effect(s) of the hormone on the target tissue or cells.; R02.02b Identify and describe the different stages of follicular development in the ovary, including the preovulatory follicle and the corpus luteum in reference to microscopic anatomy.; J05.06b In the ovary, identify the gland or endocrine tissue/organ and the cells within that gland/tissue/organ that produce estrogen, progesterone and inhibin. 35) Beginning on the first day of the menstrual cycle, the order of phases in the uterus is A) proliferative, secretory, menstrual. B) secretory, proliferative, menstrual. C) menstrual, secretory, proliferative. D) menstrual, proliferative, secretory. E) secretory, menstrual, proliferative. Answer: D Section: 17.15 Topic: Physiology of the female reproductive system Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module R04 Specific roles of the female reproductive organs. HAPS Outcome: R04.04 Analyze graphs depicting the typical female monthly sexual cycle and correlate ovarian activity, hormonal changes, and uterine events.; R04.03 Describe the events of the uterine cycle.
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36) The follicular phase of the ovarian cycle coincides with which phase or phases of the uterine cycle? A) Both the menstrual phase and the secretory phase B) The secretory phase C) Both the follicular phase and the secretory phase D) Both the proliferative phase and the secretory phase E) Both the menstrual phase and the proliferative phase Answer: E Section: 17.15 Topic: Physiology of the female reproductive system Bloom's: Level 2. Understand HAPS Topic: Module R04 Specific roles of the female reproductive organs. HAPS Outcome: R04.04 Analyze graphs depicting the typical female monthly sexual cycle and correlate ovarian activity, hormonal changes, and uterine events.; R04.03 Describe the events of the uterine cycle.; R04.02 Describe the ovarian cycle and relate the events of the ovarian cycle to oogenesis. 37) Shedding of the endometrial lining occurs A) because ovulation disrupts the growing follicle. B) as a result of a fall in plasma levels of estradiol and progesterone. C) a day after the LH surge. D) because of an increase in the level of FSH. E) because the nondominant follicles undergo atresia. Answer: B Section: 17.15 Topic: Physiology of the female reproductive system Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module R02 Gross and microscopic anatomy of the male and female reproductive systems.; Module R04 Specific roles of the female reproductive organs.; Module R06 Regulation of reproductive system functions.; Module J05 Identity, source, secretory control, and functional roles of the major hormones produced by the body. HAPS Outcome: R04.04 Analyze graphs depicting the typical female monthly sexual cycle and correlate ovarian activity, hormonal changes, and uterine events.; R06.01 State the functions of gonadotropin releasing hormone, follicle stimulating hormone, luteinizing hormone, inhibin, testosterone, estrogen and progesterone.; J05.06c In the ovary, name the target tissue or cells for estrogen, progesterone and inhibin and describe the effect(s) of the hormone on the target tissue or cells.; R02.02c Identify and describe the histology of the uterine wall in reference to microscopic anatomy.; R04.03 Describe the events of the uterine cycle.; J05.01c Name the target tissue or cells for the hormone and describe the effect(s) of the hormone on the target tissue or cells of growth hormone, thyroid-stimulating hormone, luteinizing hormone, follicle stimulating hormone, prolactin, adrenocorticotropic hormone, oxytocin, and antidiuretic hormone (or vasopressin.
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38) Julie is 8 weeks pregnant. She takes a drug that is an antagonist to the progesterone receptor. What will happen? A) Ovulation will be disrupted. B) The endometrium and conceptus will be shed. C) Ovulation will occur. D) Follicles will begin to mature. E) Non-dominant follicles undergo atresia. Answer: B Section: 17.15 Topic: Physiology of the female reproductive system Bloom's: Level 3. Apply HAPS Topic: Module R02 Gross and microscopic anatomy of the male and female reproductive systems.; Module R04 Specific roles of the female reproductive organs.; Module R06 Regulation of reproductive system functions.; Module J05 Identity, source, secretory control, and functional roles of the major hormones produced by the body. HAPS Outcome: R04.04 Analyze graphs depicting the typical female monthly sexual cycle and correlate ovarian activity, hormonal changes, and uterine events.; R06.01 State the functions of gonadotropin releasing hormone, follicle stimulating hormone, luteinizing hormone, inhibin, testosterone, estrogen and progesterone.; J05.06c In the ovary, name the target tissue or cells for estrogen, progesterone and inhibin and describe the effect(s) of the hormone on the target tissue or cells.; R02.02c Identify and describe the histology of the uterine wall in reference to microscopic anatomy.; R04.03 Describe the events of the uterine cycle.; J05.01c Name the target tissue or cells for the hormone and describe the effect(s) of the hormone on the target tissue or cells of growth hormone, thyroid-stimulating hormone, luteinizing hormone, follicle stimulating hormone, prolactin, adrenocorticotropic hormone, oxytocin, and antidiuretic hormone (or vasopressin.
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39) Which is a function of LH? A) It stimulates androgen production by theca cells. B) It stimulates the growth of granulosa cells. C) It stimulates production of inhibin by theca cells. D) It stimulates estrogen production by theca cells. E) It inhibits GnRH secretion by the hypothalamus during ovulation. Answer: A Section: 17.14 Topic: Microscopic anatomy of the female reproductive system; Physiology of the female reproductive system Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module R02 Gross and microscopic anatomy of the male and female reproductive systems.; Module R04 Specific roles of the female reproductive organs.; Module R06 Regulation of reproductive system functions.; Module J05 Identity, source, secretory control, and functional roles of the major hormones produced by the body. HAPS Outcome: R04.04 Analyze graphs depicting the typical female monthly sexual cycle and correlate ovarian activity, hormonal changes, and uterine events.; R06.01 State the functions of gonadotropin releasing hormone, follicle stimulating hormone, luteinizing hormone, inhibin, testosterone, estrogen and progesterone.; R02.02b Identify and describe the different stages of follicular development in the ovary, including the preovulatory follicle and the corpus luteum in reference to microscopic anatomy.; J05.06a In the ovary, describe the stimulus for release of estrogen, progesterone and inhibin.; J05.06b In the ovary, identify the gland or endocrine tissue/organ and the cells within that gland/tissue/organ that produce estrogen, progesterone and inhibin.; J05.01c Name the target tissue or cells for the hormone and describe the effect(s) of the hormone on the target tissue or cells of growth hormone, thyroid-stimulating hormone, luteinizing hormone, follicle stimulating hormone, prolactin, adrenocorticotropic hormone, oxytocin, and antidiuretic hormone (or vasopressin.
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40) Which of the following statements about estrogen in females is FALSE? A) In low plasma concentration, estrogen inhibits pituitary secretion of LH and FSH. B) In high plasma concentration, estrogen stimulates pituitary sensitivity to GnRH. C) In the presence of high plasma concentration of progesterone, estrogen stimulates increased secretion of GnRH. D) Estrogen secretion is required for the LH surge. E) Estrogen stimulates follicular growth. Answer: C Section: 17.13; 17.14 Topic: Physiology of the female reproductive system Bloom's: Level 2. Understand HAPS Topic: Module R04 Specific roles of the female reproductive organs.; Module R06 Regulation of reproductive system functions.; Module J03 Control of hormone secretion.; Module J05 Identity, source, secretory control, and functional roles of the major hormones produced by the body. HAPS Outcome: J03.02 Describe the roles of negative and positive feedback in controlling hormone release.; J05.01a Describe the stimulus for release of growth hormone, thyroidstimulating hormone, luteinizing hormone, follicle stimulating hormone, prolactin, adrenocorticotropic hormone, oxytocin, and antidiuretic hormone (or vasopressin).; J05.06d In the ovary, predict the larger effect that fluctuations in estrogen, progesterone and inhibin levels will have on conditions (variables) within the body.; R04.04 Analyze graphs depicting the typical female monthly sexual cycle and correlate ovarian activity, hormonal changes, and uterine events.; R06.01 State the functions of gonadotropin releasing hormone, follicle stimulating hormone, luteinizing hormone, inhibin, testosterone, estrogen and progesterone.
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41) On day 1 of the menstrual cycle, FSH levels will be . The follicle that will become dominant is in the stage of maturation. Progesterone levels in blood are . A) rising; primordial; low B) rising; preantral to antral; low C) rising; preantral to antral; high D) falling; expanding; low E) falling; atretic; high Answer: B Section: 17.13; 17.14 Topic: Microscopic anatomy of the female reproductive system; Physiology of the female reproductive system Bloom's: Level 2. Understand HAPS Topic: Module R02 Gross and microscopic anatomy of the male and female reproductive systems.; Module R04 Specific roles of the female reproductive organs. HAPS Outcome: R04.04 Analyze graphs depicting the typical female monthly sexual cycle and correlate ovarian activity, hormonal changes, and uterine events.; R02.02b Identify and describe the different stages of follicular development in the ovary, including the preovulatory follicle and the corpus luteum in reference to microscopic anatomy.; R04.02 Describe the ovarian cycle and relate the events of the ovarian cycle to oogenesis. 42) On day 14 of a typical 28-day menstrual cycle, LH concentration in the blood will be . The endometrium will be . Estrogen concentration in the blood is . A) level; sloughing off; low B) at or near a peak; near the end of the proliferative phase; relatively high C) low but rising; in the secretory phase; high D) at or near a peak; in the secretory phase; low E) level; starting the proliferative phase; level but high Answer: B Section: 17.14; 17.15 Topic: Microscopic anatomy of the female reproductive system; Physiology of the female reproductive system Bloom's: Level 2. Understand HAPS Topic: Module R02 Gross and microscopic anatomy of the male and female reproductive systems.; Module R04 Specific roles of the female reproductive organs. HAPS Outcome: R04.04 Analyze graphs depicting the typical female monthly sexual cycle and correlate ovarian activity, hormonal changes, and uterine events.; R02.02c Identify and describe the histology of the uterine wall in reference to microscopic anatomy.; R04.03 Describe the events of the uterine cycle.
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43) During the early part of the menstrual cycle, acts on granulosa cells, which . acts on theca cells, which _ . A) LH; convert androgens to estrogens; FSH; synthesize androgens B) LH; synthesize androgens; FSH; convert androgens to estrogens C) FSH; convert androgens to estrogens; LH; synthesize androgens D) FSH; synthesize androgens; LH; convert androgens to estrogens E) progesterone; synthesize androgens; LH; secrete estrogens Answer: C Section: 17.14 Topic: Microscopic anatomy of the female reproductive system; Physiology of the female reproductive system Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module R02 Gross and microscopic anatomy of the male and female reproductive systems.; Module R04 Specific roles of the female reproductive organs.; Module R06 Regulation of reproductive system functions.; Module J05 Identity, source, secretory control, and functional roles of the major hormones produced by the body. HAPS Outcome: R04.04 Analyze graphs depicting the typical female monthly sexual cycle and correlate ovarian activity, hormonal changes, and uterine events.; R06.01 State the functions of gonadotropin releasing hormone, follicle stimulating hormone, luteinizing hormone, inhibin, testosterone, estrogen and progesterone.; J05.06c In the ovary, name the target tissue or cells for estrogen, progesterone and inhibin and describe the effect(s) of the hormone on the target tissue or cells.; R02.02b Identify and describe the different stages of follicular development in the ovary, including the preovulatory follicle and the corpus luteum in reference to microscopic anatomy.; J05.06b In the ovary, identify the gland or endocrine tissue/organ and the cells within that gland/tissue/organ that produce estrogen, progesterone and inhibin.; R04.02 Describe the ovarian cycle and relate the events of the ovarian cycle to oogenesis.; J05.01c Name the target tissue or cells for the hormone and describe the effect(s) of the hormone on the target tissue or cells of growth hormone, thyroid-stimulating hormone, luteinizing hormone, follicle stimulating hormone, prolactin, adrenocorticotropic hormone, oxytocin, and antidiuretic hormone (or vasopressin.
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44) Which is TRUE during the luteal phase of the menstrual cycle? A) Both estrogen and progesterone concentrations are kept low by negative feedback. B) Estrogen concentration remains low, while progesterone concentration rises to a peak. C) Progesterone concentration remains low, while estrogen concentration rises to a peak. D) Progesterone concentration in the plasma is high, but estrogen concentration rises even higher. E) Estrogen concentration in the plasma is high, but progesterone concentration rises even higher. Answer: E Section: 17.14; 17.15 Topic: Physiology of the female reproductive system Bloom's: Level 2. Understand HAPS Topic: Module R04 Specific roles of the female reproductive organs.; Module J05 Identity, source, secretory control, and functional roles of the major hormones produced by the body. HAPS Outcome: R04.04 Analyze graphs depicting the typical female monthly sexual cycle and correlate ovarian activity, hormonal changes, and uterine events.; J05.06a In the ovary, describe the stimulus for release of estrogen, progesterone and inhibin. 45) The transition between the and the phases of the uterine cycle coincides with . A) follicular; luteal; a rise in basal body temperature B) proliferative; secretory; ovulation C) menstrual; proliferative; ovulation D) secretory; proliferative; selection of the dominant follicle E) proliferative; secretory; menstruation Answer: B Section: 17.14; 17.15 Topic: Physiology of the female reproductive system Bloom's: Level 2. Understand HAPS Topic: Module R02 Gross and microscopic anatomy of the male and female reproductive systems.; Module R04 Specific roles of the female reproductive organs. HAPS Outcome: R04.04 Analyze graphs depicting the typical female monthly sexual cycle and correlate ovarian activity, hormonal changes, and uterine events.; R02.02b Identify and describe the different stages of follicular development in the ovary, including the preovulatory follicle and the corpus luteum in reference to microscopic anatomy.; R04.03 Describe the events of the uterine cycle.; R04.02 Describe the ovarian cycle and relate the events of the ovarian cycle to oogenesis.
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46) Priya has been having trouble conceiving. She went through testing at a fertility clinic and found that everything seemed fine with gametogenesis and the uterine cycle, but that her cervical mucus seemed abnormally thick. The doctor suggested a supplement to help thin the mucus and allow sperm to get through the mucus to the uterus, but Priya can't remember which type of supplement it was. If the supplement were to provide benefit, it could work through increasing which of the following? A) Estradiol B) Progesterone C) Androgen D) Inhibin E) Drinking more water Answer: A Section: 17.15; 17.16 Topic: Physiology of the female reproductive system Bloom's: Level 3. Apply HAPS Topic: Module R04 Specific roles of the female reproductive organs.; Module R06 Regulation of reproductive system functions.; Module J05 Identity, source, secretory control, and functional roles of the major hormones produced by the body. HAPS Outcome: J05.01a Describe the stimulus for release of growth hormone, thyroidstimulating hormone, luteinizing hormone, follicle stimulating hormone, prolactin, adrenocorticotropic hormone, oxytocin, and antidiuretic hormone (or vasopressin).; J05.06d In the ovary, predict the larger effect that fluctuations in estrogen, progesterone and inhibin levels will have on conditions (variables) within the body.; R06.01 State the functions of gonadotropin releasing hormone, follicle stimulating hormone, luteinizing hormone, inhibin, testosterone, estrogen and progesterone.; R04.05 Explain why changes in cervical mucus can predict a womans monthly fertility.; J05.04d In the adrenal gland, predict the larger effect that fluctuations in glucocorticoids (cortisol), mineralocorticoids (aldosterone), gonadocorticoids, epinephrine and norepinephrine levels will have on conditions (variables) within the body.
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47) How does estradiol increase the likelihood that an egg will be fertilized? A) It inhibits the motility of uterine smooth muscle. B) It stimulates inhibin levels, which causes a surge of FSH. C) It increases libido, or sex drive, in women. D) It changes cervical mucus to a watery consistency that allows sperm to penetrate the cervix. E) It stimulates LH receptors that help maintain a corpus luteum. Answer: D Section: 17.15; 17.16 Topic: Physiology of the female reproductive system Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module R04 Specific roles of the female reproductive organs.; Module R06 Regulation of reproductive system functions.; Module R08 Parturition and labor.; Module J05 Identity, source, secretory control, and functional roles of the major hormones produced by the body. HAPS Outcome: J05.01a Describe the stimulus for release of growth hormone, thyroidstimulating hormone, luteinizing hormone, follicle stimulating hormone, prolactin, adrenocorticotropic hormone, oxytocin, and antidiuretic hormone (or vasopressin).; J05.06d In the ovary, predict the larger effect that fluctuations in estrogen, progesterone and inhibin levels will have on conditions (variables) within the body.; R06.01 State the functions of gonadotropin releasing hormone, follicle stimulating hormone, luteinizing hormone, inhibin, testosterone, estrogen and progesterone.; R04.05 Explain why changes in cervical mucus can predict a womans monthly fertility.; R08.01 Explain the hormonal events that initiate and regulate labor.; J05.04d In the adrenal gland, predict the larger effect that fluctuations in glucocorticoids (cortisol), mineralocorticoids (aldosterone), gonadocorticoids, epinephrine and norepinephrine levels will have on conditions (variables) within the body.; J05.06a In the ovary, describe the stimulus for release of estrogen, progesterone and inhibin.
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48) Which is NOT true about the actions of progesterone? A) It increases contractions and activity of the fallopian tube smooth muscle and cilia. B) It induces thick, sticky mucus in the cervix. C) It inhibits the milk-inducing effects of prolactin. D) It increases body temperature. E) It exerts negative feedback on the hypothalamus and anterior pituitary. Answer: A Section: 17.14; 17.15; 17.16 Topic: Physiology of the female reproductive system Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module R02 Gross and microscopic anatomy of the male and female reproductive systems.; Module R04 Specific roles of the female reproductive organs.; Module R06 Regulation of reproductive system functions.; Module R09 Mammary glands and lactation.; Module J05 Identity, source, secretory control, and functional roles of the major hormones produced by the body. HAPS Outcome: J05.06d In the ovary, predict the larger effect that fluctuations in estrogen, progesterone and inhibin levels will have on conditions (variables) within the body.; R06.01 State the functions of gonadotropin releasing hormone, follicle stimulating hormone, luteinizing hormone, inhibin, testosterone, estrogen and progesterone.; R02.01 With respect to the gross anatomy, identify and describe the anatomy of the male and female reproductive system, including the gonads, ducts, accessory glands, associated support structures, and external genitalia.; R04.05 Explain why changes in cervical mucus can predict a womans monthly fertility.; R09.02 Describe the hormonal regulation of lactation. 49) Agatha's blastocyst implanted on December 5th. She is trying to figure out which date fertilization most likely occurred on. Which is the most likely date of fertilization? A) December 5th B) December 4th C) December 1st D) November 5th E) November 25th Answer: C Section: 17.19 Topic: Physiology of the female reproductive system Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module R02 Gross and microscopic anatomy of the male and female reproductive systems.; Module R07 Conception, pregnancy, and embryological and fetal development. HAPS Outcome: R02.01 With respect to the gross anatomy, identify and describe the anatomy of the male and female reproductive system, including the gonads, ducts, accessory glands, associated support structures, and external genitalia.; R07.02 Define fertilization.; R07.03 Describe the major events of embryonic and fetal development.
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50) Which is TRUE about sperm delivery? A) Most of the ejaculated sperm arrive in the vicinity of the ovum (if there is one). B) Sperm transport through the cervix is made possible by actions of progesterone on the cervical mucus. C) Of the several hundred million sperm in an ejaculation, only about 100 to 200 reach the fallopian tube. D) Sperm are able to fertilize an egg from the instant they arrive in the female reproductive tract. E) Sperm can survive for up to 2 weeks in the mucus of the cervix. Answer: C Section: 17.19 Topic: Physiology of the male reproductive system; Physiology of the female reproductive system Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module R02 Gross and microscopic anatomy of the male and female reproductive systems.; Module R04 Specific roles of the female reproductive organs.; Module R07 Conception, pregnancy, and embryological and fetal development.; Module J05 Identity, source, secretory control, and functional roles of the major hormones produced by the body. HAPS Outcome: J05.06c In the ovary, name the target tissue or cells for estrogen, progesterone and inhibin and describe the effect(s) of the hormone on the target tissue or cells.; R02.01 With respect to the gross anatomy, identify and describe the anatomy of the male and female reproductive system, including the gonads, ducts, accessory glands, associated support structures, and external genitalia.; R04.05 Explain why changes in cervical mucus can predict a womans monthly fertility.; R07.01 Describe conception, including sperm capacitation, acrosomal reaction, sperm penetration, cortical reaction, and fusion of pronuclei. 51) The acrosome reaction is triggered by A) deposition of sperm into the female reproductive tract. B) capacitation of sperm. C) estrogen. D) binding of the heads of sperm to the zona pellucida. E) the first meiotic reduction division of the ovum. Answer: D Section: 17.19 Topic: Physiology of the male reproductive system Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module R03 Gametogenesis.; Module R07 Conception, pregnancy, and embryological and fetal development. HAPS Outcome: R03.02 Relate the general stages of meiosis to the specific processes of spermatogenesis and oogenesis.; R07.01 Describe conception, including sperm capacitation, acrosomal reaction, sperm penetration, cortical reaction, and fusion of pronuclei.
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52) The blastocyst implants in the uterus on about the day of the 28-day menstrual cycle. At this time, the endometrium is and progesterone levels are . A) 21st; thick and secretory; high B) 28th; thick and secretory; low C) 14th; thick and secretory; low D) 28th; thin and proliferating; high E) 21st; thin and proliferating; low Answer: A Section: 17.16; 17.19 Topic: Microscopic anatomy of the female reproductive system; Physiology of the female reproductive system Bloom's: Level 2. Understand HAPS Topic: Module R02 Gross and microscopic anatomy of the male and female reproductive systems.; Module R04 Specific roles of the female reproductive organs.; Module R07 Conception, pregnancy, and embryological and fetal development. HAPS Outcome: R04.04 Analyze graphs depicting the typical female monthly sexual cycle and correlate ovarian activity, hormonal changes, and uterine events.; R07.03 Describe the major events of embryonic and fetal development.; R07.04 Describe the formation and function of the placenta and extraembryonic membranes.; R02.02c Identify and describe the histology of the uterine wall in reference to microscopic anatomy.; R04.03 Describe the events of the uterine cycle. 53) The corpus luteum persists in pregnancy because the implanting blastocyst secretes: A) large quantities of FSH and LH. B) GnRH, which stimulates the pituitary gland to secrete FSH and LH. C) human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG). D) progesterone and estrogen. E) cortisol. Answer: C Section: 17.19 Topic: Physiology of the female reproductive system Bloom's: Level 2. Understand HAPS Topic: Module R07 Conception, pregnancy, and embryological and fetal development.; Module J05 Identity, source, secretory control, and functional roles of the major hormones produced by the body. HAPS Outcome: R07.05 Describe the hormonal changes during pregnancy and the effect of these hormones.; J05.13c In the placenta, name the target tissue or cells for estrogen, progesterone and human chorionic gonadotropin and describe the effect(s) of the hormone on the target tissue or cells.; J05.13b In the placenta, identify the gland or endocrine tissue/organ and the cells within that gland/tissue/organ that produce estrogen, progesterone and human chorionic gonadotropin.
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54) A drug company creates a drug that acts as an antagonist to the human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) receptor. The effect of this drug, if given in early pregnancy would be A) secretion of large quantities of FSH and LH. B) secretion of large quantities of GnRH. C) degeneration of the corpus luteum and declining levels of progesterone and estrogen. D) secretion of large quantities of progesterone and estrogen. E) secretion of cortisol. Answer: C Section: 17.19 Topic: Physiology of the female reproductive system Bloom's: Level 3. Apply HAPS Topic: Module R07 Conception, pregnancy, and embryological and fetal development.; Module J05 Identity, source, secretory control, and functional roles of the major hormones produced by the body. HAPS Outcome: R07.05 Describe the hormonal changes during pregnancy and the effect of these hormones.; J05.13c In the placenta, name the target tissue or cells for estrogen, progesterone and human chorionic gonadotropin and describe the effect(s) of the hormone on the target tissue or cells.; J05.13b In the placenta, identify the gland or endocrine tissue/organ and the cells within that gland/tissue/organ that produce estrogen, progesterone and human chorionic gonadotropin. 55) Which is a TRUE statement about implantation of a blastocyst? A) When it occurs outside the uterus, it is called a myopic pregnancy. B) It normally occurs midway through the luteal phase. C) It is a result of digestion of myometrial cells by enzymes in the trophoblast. D) It occurs at a time in the cycle when plasma estrogen concentration is higher than progesterone concentration. E) It occurs at the same time as, and is caused by, the LH surge. Answer: B Section: 17.14; 17.19 Topic: Physiology of the female reproductive system Bloom's: Level 2. Understand HAPS Topic: Module R02 Gross and microscopic anatomy of the male and female reproductive systems.; Module R04 Specific roles of the female reproductive organs.; Module R06 Regulation of reproductive system functions.; Module R07 Conception, pregnancy, and embryological and fetal development. HAPS Outcome: R04.04 Analyze graphs depicting the typical female monthly sexual cycle and correlate ovarian activity, hormonal changes, and uterine events.; R06.01 State the functions of gonadotropin releasing hormone, follicle stimulating hormone, luteinizing hormone, inhibin, testosterone, estrogen and progesterone.; R07.03 Describe the major events of embryonic and fetal development.; R07.04 Describe the formation and function of the placenta and extraembryonic membranes.; R02.02c Identify and describe the histology of the uterine wall in reference to microscopic anatomy.; R04.03 Describe the events of the uterine cycle.
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56) The placenta is A) a site where maternal blood enters the fetal circulation. B) a site formed by the proliferation of the maternal endometrium and myometrium. C) a site where fetal blood can enter the maternal circulation. D) a site of diffusion and transport of wastes, oxygen, and nutrients between fetal and maternal blood. E) formed from maternal circulatory stem cells, and serves as an exchange organ between mother and fetus. Answer: D Section: 17.19 Topic: Physiology of the female reproductive system Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module R02 Gross and microscopic anatomy of the male and female reproductive systems.; Module R07 Conception, pregnancy, and embryological and fetal development.; Module K13 Pattern of blood circulation throughout the body, including systemic, pulmonary, coronary, hepatic portal, and fetal circulations HAPS Outcome: K13.04a With respect to the fetal circulation, describe the role of the placenta and umbilical blood vessels in fetal circulation.; R07.04 Describe the formation and function of the placenta and extraembryonic membranes.; R02.02c Identify and describe the histology of the uterine wall in reference to microscopic anatomy.
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57) Which of the following is NOT a function of estrogen during pregnancy? A) Stimulation of myometrial growth B) Maintenance of the endometrium C) Stimulation of prolactin secretion D) Stimulation of breast development E) Controlling milk ejection Answer: E Section: 17.16; 17.19 Topic: Physiology of the female reproductive system Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module R02 Gross and microscopic anatomy of the male and female reproductive systems.; Module R07 Conception, pregnancy, and embryological and fetal development.; Module R09 Mammary glands and lactation.; Module J05 Identity, source, secretory control, and functional roles of the major hormones produced by the body. HAPS Outcome: J05.01a Describe the stimulus for release of growth hormone, thyroidstimulating hormone, luteinizing hormone, follicle stimulating hormone, prolactin, adrenocorticotropic hormone, oxytocin, and antidiuretic hormone (or vasopressin).; J05.06d In the ovary, predict the larger effect that fluctuations in estrogen, progesterone and inhibin levels will have on conditions (variables) within the body.; R09.02 Describe the hormonal regulation of lactation.; R07.05 Describe the hormonal changes during pregnancy and the effect of these hormones.; R02.02c Identify and describe the histology of the uterine wall in reference to microscopic anatomy.; J05.13d In the placenta, predict the larger effect that fluctuations in estrogen, progesterone and human chorionic gonadotropin levels will have on conditions (variables) within the body.
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58) Which is TRUE about hormonal control during pregnancy? A) The corpus luteum must remain functional for 38 weeks because it is the main source of estrogen and progesterone. B) The placenta responds to estrogen and progesterone from the corpus luteum, but does not secrete them. C) The placenta produces estrogen without any contribution from the fetal adrenal cortex. D) The placenta is provided with androgens by the maternal ovaries and adrenal glands, and by the fetal adrenal glands. E) The placenta secretes only steroid hormones, while fetal and maternal pituitary glands secrete pregnancy-specific protein hormones. Answer: D Section: 17.19 Topic: Physiology of the female reproductive system Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module R02 Gross and microscopic anatomy of the male and female reproductive systems.; Module R07 Conception, pregnancy, and embryological and fetal development.; Module J05 Identity, source, secretory control, and functional roles of the major hormones produced by the body. HAPS Outcome: R07.05 Describe the hormonal changes during pregnancy and the effect of these hormones.; R02.02b Identify and describe the different stages of follicular development in the ovary, including the preovulatory follicle and the corpus luteum in reference to microscopic anatomy.; J05.13b In the placenta, identify the gland or endocrine tissue/organ and the cells within that gland/tissue/organ that produce estrogen, progesterone and human chorionic gonadotropin.
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59) Which of the following is inhibited by progesterone during pregnancy? A) The sensitivity of the myometrium to stimuli that promote contraction B) Plugging of the uterus by thickened cervical mucus C) Growth of the mammary glands D) Secretion of estrogen E) Regression of the corpus luteum Answer: A Section: 17.16; 17.19 Topic: Physiology of the female reproductive system Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module R02 Gross and microscopic anatomy of the male and female reproductive systems.; Module R07 Conception, pregnancy, and embryological and fetal development.; Module R08 Parturition and labor.; Module R09 Mammary glands and lactation.; Module J05 Identity, source, secretory control, and functional roles of the major hormones produced by the body. HAPS Outcome: J05.06d In the ovary, predict the larger effect that fluctuations in estrogen, progesterone and inhibin levels will have on conditions (variables) within the body.; R09.02 Describe the hormonal regulation of lactation.; R07.05 Describe the hormonal changes during pregnancy and the effect of these hormones.; R08.01 Explain the hormonal events that initiate and regulate labor.; R02.02c Identify and describe the histology of the uterine wall in reference to microscopic anatomy.; J05.13d In the placenta, predict the larger effect that fluctuations in estrogen, progesterone and human chorionic gonadotropin levels will have on conditions (variables) within the body.
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60) Which of the following statements is TRUE? A) The mother and the fetus exchange nutrients by exchanging blood in the placenta. B) Human chorionic gonadotropin maintains the corpus luteum. C) Human chorionic gonadotropin levels are the highest at the end of pregnancy. D) From the time of implantation through delivery, the corpus luteum is the major source of progesterone. E) Maternal plasma progesterone levels decline in the weeks leading up to the birth of her baby. Answer: B Section: 17.19 Topic: Physiology of the female reproductive system Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module R07 Conception, pregnancy, and embryological and fetal development.; Module R08 Parturition and labor.; Module J05 Identity, source, secretory control, and functional roles of the major hormones produced by the body.; Module K13 Pattern of blood circulation throughout the body, including systemic, pulmonary, coronary, hepatic portal, and fetal circulations HAPS Outcome: R07.05 Describe the hormonal changes during pregnancy and the effect of these hormones.; R08.01 Explain the hormonal events that initiate and regulate labor.; J05.06a In the ovary, describe the stimulus for release of estrogen, progesterone and inhibin.; J05.06b In the ovary, identify the gland or endocrine tissue/organ and the cells within that gland/tissue/organ that produce estrogen, progesterone and inhibin.; J05.13c In the placenta, name the target tissue or cells for estrogen, progesterone and human chorionic gonadotropin and describe the effect(s) of the hormone on the target tissue or cells.; K13.04a With respect to the fetal circulation, describe the role of the placenta and umbilical blood vessels in fetal circulation.; R07.04 Describe the formation and function of the placenta and extraembryonic membranes.
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61) Which could be an outcome in a woman who had lower than normal levels of the human placental lactogen during pregnancy? A) Lower fat content of breast milk after delivery B) Degeneration of the corpus luteum C) Weight loss by the mother D) Vasoconstriction and increased maternal blood pressure E) Premature uterine contractions Answer: A Section: 17.19 Topic: Physiology of the female reproductive system Bloom's: Level 3. Apply HAPS Topic: Module R07 Conception, pregnancy, and embryological and fetal development.; Module R09 Mammary glands and lactation.; Module J05 Identity, source, secretory control, and functional roles of the major hormones produced by the body. HAPS Outcome: R09.02 Describe the hormonal regulation of lactation.; R07.05 Describe the hormonal changes during pregnancy and the effect of these hormones.; J05.13d In the placenta, predict the larger effect that fluctuations in estrogen, progesterone and human chorionic gonadotropin levels will have on conditions (variables) within the body.; R07.06 Describe the functional changes in the maternal reproductive, endocrine, cardiovascular, respiratory, digestive, and urinary systems during pregnancy. 62) Sarah is a pregnant woman entering her third trimester. She is experiencing a number of physiological changes compared to her non-pregnant state. She checks in with her doctor to make sure everything she's experiencing is normal. Which of these is NOT expected in healthy pregnancy? A) Increased appetite B) Increased blood volume C) Hypoventilation D) All of these are expected E) Cardiac output increases Answer: C Section: 17.19 Topic: Physiology of the female reproductive system Bloom's: Level 3. Apply HAPS Topic: Module R07 Conception, pregnancy, and embryological and fetal development.; Module O01 Nutrition HAPS Outcome: R07.06 Describe the functional changes in the maternal reproductive, endocrine, cardiovascular, respiratory, digestive, and urinary systems during pregnancy.; O01.03 Discuss appetite control, including its regulation by hormones.
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63) Which of the following is a hormonal change that occurs near the end of a healthy pregnancy? A) Plasma progesterone levels decrease while the levels of estrogen continue to increase. B) Estrogens stimulate connexin synthesis in the myometrium. C) Plasma estrogen levels decrease while the levels of progesterone continue to increase. D) Estrogen blocks the synthesis of oxytocin receptors on uterine smooth muscle. E) There is a surge in the LH concentration. Answer: B Section: 17.19 Topic: Physiology of the female reproductive system Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module R02 Gross and microscopic anatomy of the male and female reproductive systems.; Module R07 Conception, pregnancy, and embryological and fetal development.; Module R08 Parturition and labor.; Module J05 Identity, source, secretory control, and functional roles of the major hormones produced by the body. HAPS Outcome: J05.06c In the ovary, name the target tissue or cells for estrogen, progesterone and inhibin and describe the effect(s) of the hormone on the target tissue or cells.; R07.05 Describe the hormonal changes during pregnancy and the effect of these hormones.; R08.01 Explain the hormonal events that initiate and regulate labor.; R02.02c Identify and describe the histology of the uterine wall in reference to microscopic anatomy. 64) Parturition A) is the delivery of the infant and placenta. B) normally occurs between the 27th and 28th weeks of pregnancy. C) is an example of negative feedback. D) occurs within 24 to 48 hours of ovulation. E) is a pathological condition in which a pregnant woman retains too much fluid (edema), and it can lead to seizures. Answer: A Section: 17.19 Topic: Physiology of the female reproductive system Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module R08 Parturition and labor. HAPS Outcome: R08.01 Explain the hormonal events that initiate and regulate labor.
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65) Which of the following statements regarding the control of parturition is FALSE? A) Oxytocin secretion is stimulated by cervical dilation. B) Coordinated uterine contractions cause the cervix to dilate. C) Oxytocin decreases the expression of myometrial estrogen receptors. D) Prostaglandins stimulate myometrial contractions. E) Stretching of the myometrium is one signal that begins uterine contractions. Answer: C Section: 17.19 Topic: Microscopic anatomy of the female reproductive system; Physiology of the female reproductive system Bloom's: Level 2. Understand HAPS Topic: Module R02 Gross and microscopic anatomy of the male and female reproductive systems.; Module R07 Conception, pregnancy, and embryological and fetal development.; Module R08 Parturition and labor.; Module J05 Identity, source, secretory control, and functional roles of the major hormones produced by the body. HAPS Outcome: J05.01a Describe the stimulus for release of growth hormone, thyroidstimulating hormone, luteinizing hormone, follicle stimulating hormone, prolactin, adrenocorticotropic hormone, oxytocin, and antidiuretic hormone (or vasopressin).; R02.01 With respect to the gross anatomy, identify and describe the anatomy of the male and female reproductive system, including the gonads, ducts, accessory glands, associated support structures, and external genitalia.; R07.05 Describe the hormonal changes during pregnancy and the effect of these hormones.; R08.01 Explain the hormonal events that initiate and regulate labor.; R02.02c Identify and describe the histology of the uterine wall in reference to microscopic anatomy.
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66) Which of the following statements regarding endocrine regulation of breast function in females is FALSE? A) During puberty, ductal growth is stimulated by increasing estrogen levels in plasma. B) During puberty, progesterone stimulates the growth of breast alveoli. C) During pregnancy, the main source of plasma prolactin is secretion from the maternal anterior pituitary gland. D) Prolactin is the main hormone mediating the milk ejection reflex. E) Breast development fluctuates with changing blood concentrations of estrogen and progesterone during each menstrual cycle. Answer: D Section: 17.19 Topic: Physiology of the female reproductive system Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module R06 Regulation of reproductive system functions.; Module R07 Conception, pregnancy, and embryological and fetal development.; Module R09 Mammary glands and lactation.; Module J05 Identity, source, secretory control, and functional roles of the major hormones produced by the body. HAPS Outcome: R06.01 State the functions of gonadotropin releasing hormone, follicle stimulating hormone, luteinizing hormone, inhibin, testosterone, estrogen and progesterone.; J05.06c In the ovary, name the target tissue or cells for estrogen, progesterone and inhibin and describe the effect(s) of the hormone on the target tissue or cells.; R06.03 Compare and contrast the events and endocrine regulation of female and male puberty.; R09.02 Describe the hormonal regulation of lactation.; R07.05 Describe the hormonal changes during pregnancy and the effect of these hormones.; J05.01b Identify the gland or endocrine tissue/organ and the cells within that gland/tissue/organ that produce growth hormone, thyroid-stimulating hormone, luteinizing hormone, follicle stimulating hormone, prolactin, adrenocorticotropic hormone, oxytocin, and antidiuretic hormone (or vasopressin).; R09.01 Describe the structure and the function of the mammary glands.
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67) Kathryn is pregnant and very eager to breast-feed after the baby is born. Her friend gives her a supplement to encourage prolactin secretion and Kathryn starts to take it during pregnancy. The supplement works and Kathryn's blood level of prolactin increases. She does not begin lactating during pregnancy because A) the breast ducts do not develop until after parturition. B) the high levels of estrogen and progesterone in maternal plasma inhibit the effects of prolactin. C) maternal plasma levels of prolactin are low during pregnancy. D) high levels of androgens inhibit milk synthesis by the breasts. E) the low levels of circulating estrogen and progesterone during pregnancy inhibit milk synthesis by the breasts. Answer: B Section: 17.19 Topic: Physiology of the female reproductive system Bloom's: Level 3. Apply HAPS Topic: Module R07 Conception, pregnancy, and embryological and fetal development.; Module R09 Mammary glands and lactation.; Module J05 Identity, source, secretory control, and functional roles of the major hormones produced by the body. HAPS Outcome: J05.06c In the ovary, name the target tissue or cells for estrogen, progesterone and inhibin and describe the effect(s) of the hormone on the target tissue or cells.; R09.02 Describe the hormonal regulation of lactation.; R07.05 Describe the hormonal changes during pregnancy and the effect of these hormones.; R09.01 Describe the structure and the function of the mammary glands.
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68) Which of these bests describes colostrum? A) It is composed of dark-colored solid waste ejected from a fetus's bowels shortly after it is born. B) It is a hormone secreted by the hypothalamus that inhibits prolactin secretion. C) It is the watery remnant of breast milk that continues to be expelled from the breasts after a baby is weaned. D) It is a watery, protein-rich fluid secreted from maternal breasts after delivery of a baby. E) It is an estrogen-rich fluid that fills the antrum of a mature ovarian follicle. Answer: D Section: 17.19 Topic: Physiology of the female reproductive system Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module R02 Gross and microscopic anatomy of the male and female reproductive systems.; Module R09 Mammary glands and lactation.; Module J05 Identity, source, secretory control, and functional roles of the major hormones produced by the body. HAPS Outcome: J05.01a Describe the stimulus for release of growth hormone, thyroidstimulating hormone, luteinizing hormone, follicle stimulating hormone, prolactin, adrenocorticotropic hormone, oxytocin, and antidiuretic hormone (or vasopressin).; R02.02b Identify and describe the different stages of follicular development in the ovary, including the preovulatory follicle and the corpus luteum in reference to microscopic anatomy.; R09.01 Describe the structure and the function of the mammary glands. 69) What would be the effect of giving an agonist to the oxytocin receptor to a woman late in pregnancy? A) Onset of uterine contractions B) Inhibition of breast milk production C) Declining levels of estrogen D) Increase in maternal blood pressure E) Inhibition of cervical dilation Answer: A Section: 17.19 Topic: Physiology of the female reproductive system Bloom's: Level 3. Apply HAPS Topic: Module R08 Parturition and labor.; Module R09 Mammary glands and lactation.; Module J04 Control by the hypothalamus and pituitary gland.; Module J05 Identity, source, secretory control, and functional roles of the major hormones produced by the body. HAPS Outcome: R09.02 Describe the hormonal regulation of lactation.; J04.04 Explain the role of the hypothalamus in the production and release of posterior pituitary hormones.; J05.01b Identify the gland or endocrine tissue/organ and the cells within that gland/tissue/organ that produce growth hormone, thyroid-stimulating hormone, luteinizing hormone, follicle stimulating hormone, prolactin, adrenocorticotropic hormone, oxytocin, and antidiuretic hormone (or vasopressin).; R08.01 Explain the hormonal events that initiate and regulate labor.
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70) Which of the following statements is FALSE regarding oxytocin? A) It is secreted by the posterior pituitary. B) It is regulated by a positive feedback loop. C) It facilitates the birth process. D) It stimulates uterine contractions. E) It stimulates synthesis of breast milk. Answer: E Section: 17.19 Topic: Physiology of the female reproductive system Bloom's: Level 2. Understand HAPS Topic: Module R08 Parturition and labor.; Module R09 Mammary glands and lactation.; Module J04 Control by the hypothalamus and pituitary gland.; Module J05 Identity, source, secretory control, and functional roles of the major hormones produced by the body. HAPS Outcome: R09.02 Describe the hormonal regulation of lactation.; J04.04 Explain the role of the hypothalamus in the production and release of posterior pituitary hormones.; J05.01b Identify the gland or endocrine tissue/organ and the cells within that gland/tissue/organ that produce growth hormone, thyroid-stimulating hormone, luteinizing hormone, follicle stimulating hormone, prolactin, adrenocorticotropic hormone, oxytocin, and antidiuretic hormone (or vasopressin).; R08.01 Explain the hormonal events that initiate and regulate labor. 71) Julia is a new mother who plans to continue lactation for at least a year after her baby is born. At a post-parturition doctor's visit, the doctor says her blood test indicates declining levels of estrogen and progesterone. Will this interfere with her plans to lactate? A) Yes, high levels of estrogen and progesterone are required for milk production. B) Yes, high levels of estrogen and progesterone are required for milk ejection. C) No, because the secretion of oxytocin and prolactin are more important for lactation. D) No, because even in the absence of hormones, suckling at the breast is sufficient stimulus for milk production. Answer: C Section: 17.19 Topic: Physiology of the female reproductive system Bloom's: Level 3. Apply HAPS Topic: Module R07 Conception, pregnancy, and embryological and fetal development.; Module R09 Mammary glands and lactation. HAPS Outcome: R09.02 Describe the hormonal regulation of lactation.; R07.05 Describe the hormonal changes during pregnancy and the effect of these hormones.
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72) Rebecca's younger sister just told her that she has begun menopause. Rebecca wonders if she has begun menopause as well. One of the symptoms to watch out for is A) the cessation of menstrual cycles. B) high plasma levels of estrogens. C) cessation of gonadotropin secretion. D) the cessation of ovulation while a baby is nursing. E) the pause in development of ovarian follicles occurring between the birth of a baby girl and when she reaches puberty. Answer: A Section: 17.20 Topic: Physiology of the female reproductive system; Effects of aging on the reproductive system Bloom's: Level 3. Apply HAPS Topic: Module R06 Regulation of reproductive system functions. HAPS Outcome: R06.06 Define menopause, describe the physiological changes associated with menopause, and explain the fertility changes that precede menopause. 73) The major source of estradiol and progesterone in a non-pregnant woman is the A) thyroid gland. B) adrenal gland. C) testis. D) ovary. E) uterus. Answer: D Section: 17.14 Topic: Physiology of the female reproductive system Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module R02 Gross and microscopic anatomy of the male and female reproductive systems.; Module R04 Specific roles of the female reproductive organs.; Module J05 Identity, source, secretory control, and functional roles of the major hormones produced by the body. HAPS Outcome: R04.04 Analyze graphs depicting the typical female monthly sexual cycle and correlate ovarian activity, hormonal changes, and uterine events.; R02.01 With respect to the gross anatomy, identify and describe the anatomy of the male and female reproductive system, including the gonads, ducts, accessory glands, associated support structures, and external genitalia.; J05.04d In the adrenal gland, predict the larger effect that fluctuations in glucocorticoids (cortisol), mineralocorticoids (aldosterone), gonadocorticoids, epinephrine and norepinephrine levels will have on conditions (variables) within the body.; J05.05b In the testis, identify the gland or endocrine tissue/organ and the cells within that gland/tissue/organ that produce testosterone and inhibin.; J05.06b In the ovary, identify the gland or endocrine tissue/organ and the cells within that gland/tissue/organ that produce estrogen, progesterone and inhibin.; J05.02b In the thyroid gland, identify the gland or endocrine tissue/organ and the cells within that gland/tissue/organ that produce the hormones thyroxine, triiodothyronine, calcitonin.
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74) Which of the following hormones is NOT secreted by the placenta during pregnancy? A) Human placental lactogen B) Androgens C) Estradiol D) Progesterone E) Inhibin Answer: B Section: 17.19 Topic: Physiology of the female reproductive system Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module R07 Conception, pregnancy, and embryological and fetal development. HAPS Outcome: R07.05 Describe the hormonal changes during pregnancy and the effect of these hormones.; R07.04 Describe the formation and function of the placenta and extraembryonic membranes. 75) Following crossing-over in meiosis I, which of the following is NOT true? A) Maternal and paternal chromatids will always orient to opposite poles of the cell, remaining segregated from one another. B) Random orientation of maternal and parental chromatids to either pole of the cell allows mixing of these in resultant gametes. C) It is extremely unlikely that all 23 maternal and paternal chromosomes will end up in the same gamete. D) A resulting gamete may have millions of possible different combinations of maternal and paternal chromosomes. E) Chromatid pairs lined up in the cell are separated so that half end up in each daughter cell when division occurs. Answer: A Section: 17.01 Topic: Gametogenesis Bloom's: Level 2. Understand HAPS Topic: Module C13 Reproduction and cell division HAPS Outcome: C13.01 Describe the events that take place in each stage of meiosis I and meiosis II.
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76) Which of these results from the second meiotic division? A) Two diploid daughter cells with 46 chromosomes each B) Two haploid daughter cells with 23 chromosomes each C) Two diploid daughter cells with 23 chromosomes each D) A single daughter cell with 46 chromosomes, and a polar body with no genetic material E) Two haploid daughter cells with 46 haploid chromosomes Answer: B Section: 17.01 Topic: Gametogenesis Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module C13 Reproduction and cell division HAPS Outcome: C13.01 Describe the events that take place in each stage of meiosis I and meiosis II. 77) During in utero (fetal) development of the ovary, which of these occurs? A) Cell division of primary oogonia results in the production of 2 to 4 million primary oocytes, which are present at birth. B) Cell division of primary oogonia, which all complete the first meiotic division before birth. C) Cell division of primary oogonia, which all complete both meiotic divisions before birth. D) The mitotic division of primary and secondary oocytes produces cells with 23 chromosomes each. E) A single primary oogonium remains dormant, which then undergoes rapid mitosis after birth. Answer: A Section: 17.13 Topic: Gametogenesis; Physiology of the female reproductive system Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module R03 Gametogenesis.; Module C13 Reproduction and cell division HAPS Outcome: R03.02 Relate the general stages of meiosis to the specific processes of spermatogenesis and oogenesis.; C13.01 Describe the events that take place in each stage of meiosis I and meiosis II.
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78) The time span over which sexual intercourse is most likely to result in conception is from day(s) before ovulation to day(s) after ovulation. A) 0; 3 B) 1; 1 C) 2; 4 D) 1; 5 E) 5; 1 Answer: E Section: 17.19 Topic: Physiology of the female reproductive system Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module R04 Specific roles of the female reproductive organs.; Module R07 Conception, pregnancy, and embryological and fetal development. HAPS Outcome: R04.04 Analyze graphs depicting the typical female monthly sexual cycle and correlate ovarian activity, hormonal changes, and uterine events.; R07.02 Define fertilization. 79) Implantation of a blastocyst A) normally occurs within the oviduct (fallopian tube). B) normally begins around day 21 of the typical menstrual cycle. C) occurs within 24 hours of fertilization of the oocyte. D) takes place at a time in the typical menstrual cycle when estrogen concentration in the blood is higher than progesterone concentration in the blood. E) requires the presence of high concentrations of follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH). Answer: B Section: 17.19 Topic: Physiology of the female reproductive system Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module R02 Gross and microscopic anatomy of the male and female reproductive systems.; Module R04 Specific roles of the female reproductive organs.; Module R07 Conception, pregnancy, and embryological and fetal development. HAPS Outcome: R04.04 Analyze graphs depicting the typical female monthly sexual cycle and correlate ovarian activity, hormonal changes, and uterine events.; R02.01 With respect to the gross anatomy, identify and describe the anatomy of the male and female reproductive system, including the gonads, ducts, accessory glands, associated support structures, and external genitalia.; R04.01 Describe the pathway of the ovum from the ovary to the uterus.; R07.03 Describe the major events of embryonic and fetal development.; R07.04 Describe the formation and function of the placenta and extraembryonic membranes.
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80) Natalia is a few weeks pregnant when she begins to experience pain. Her doctor tells her that she is concerned Natalia may be experiencing an ectopic pregnancy and would like to perform an ultrasound to look for the embryo. Where should Natalia's doctor look? A) Near the cervix B) In the endometrium of the lower half of the uterus C) In the fallopian tubes D) In the endometrium of the upper half of the uterus E) In none of these locations Answer: C Section: 17.19 Topic: Physiology of the female reproductive system; Clinical applications of the reproductive system Bloom's: Level 3. Apply HAPS Topic: Module R02 Gross and microscopic anatomy of the male and female reproductive systems.; Module R07 Conception, pregnancy, and embryological and fetal development.; Module R11 Predictions related to homeostatic imbalance, including disease states and disorders. HAPS Outcome: R02.01 With respect to the gross anatomy, identify and describe the anatomy of the male and female reproductive system, including the gonads, ducts, accessory glands, associated support structures, and external genitalia.; R11.01 Predict factors or situations affecting the reproductive system that could disrupt homeostasis.; R11.02 Predict the types of problems that would occur in the body if the reproductive system could not maintain homeostasis.; R07.04 Describe the formation and function of the placenta and extraembryonic membranes.
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81) When an embryo implants in the wall of the fallopian tube, it is called A) stillbirth. B) erythroblastosis fetalis. C) ectopic pregnancy. D) endometriosis. E) placenta previa. Answer: C Section: 17.19 Topic: Physiology of the female reproductive system; Clinical applications of the reproductive system Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module R02 Gross and microscopic anatomy of the male and female reproductive systems.; Module R07 Conception, pregnancy, and embryological and fetal development.; Module R11 Predictions related to homeostatic imbalance, including disease states and disorders. HAPS Outcome: R02.01 With respect to the gross anatomy, identify and describe the anatomy of the male and female reproductive system, including the gonads, ducts, accessory glands, associated support structures, and external genitalia.; R11.01 Predict factors or situations affecting the reproductive system that could disrupt homeostasis.; R11.02 Predict the types of problems that would occur in the body if the reproductive system could not maintain homeostasis.; R07.04 Describe the formation and function of the placenta and extraembryonic membranes. 82) Umbilical arteries A) deliver oxygen and nutrient-rich blood from the mother to the placenta. B) deliver oxygen and nutrient-rich blood from the fetus to the placenta. C) carry blood with low oxygen and high metabolic wastes away from the fetus to the placenta. D) carry highly oxygenated blood from the placenta to the fetus. E) carry blood with low oxygen and high metabolic wastes from the placenta to the mother's circulation. Answer: C Section: 17.19 Topic: Physiology of the female reproductive system Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module K13 Pattern of blood circulation throughout the body, including systemic, pulmonary, coronary, hepatic portal, and fetal circulations HAPS Outcome: K13.04d With respect to the fetal circulation, for each umbilical vessel and the major fetal blood vessels, state whether each vessel carries oxygen-rich, oxygen-poor or mixed blood, and explain why the different oxygen levels occur in these vessels.; K13.04a With respect to the fetal circulation, describe the role of the placenta and umbilical blood vessels in fetal circulation.
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83) Both male and female human gametogenesis result in 4 functional gametes, each with 23 chromosomes. Answer: FALSE Section: 17.01 Topic: Gametogenesis Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module R03 Gametogenesis.; Module C13 Reproduction and cell division HAPS Outcome: C13.01 Describe the events that take place in each stage of meiosis I and meiosis II.; R03.01 Contrast the overall processes of mitosis and meiosis. 84) A male who has non-functional Sertoli cells will still develop spermatozoa. Answer: FALSE Section: 17.01; 17.06 Topic: Gametogenesis; Physiology of the male reproductive system Bloom's: Level 3. Apply HAPS Topic: Module R02 Gross and microscopic anatomy of the male and female reproductive systems.; Module R03 Gametogenesis. HAPS Outcome: R02.01 With respect to the gross anatomy, identify and describe the anatomy of the male and female reproductive system, including the gonads, ducts, accessory glands, associated support structures, and external genitalia.; R02.02a Identify and describe the reproductive and supporting cells of the seminiferous tubules of the testis in reference to microscopic anatomy.; R03.02 Relate the general stages of meiosis to the specific processes of spermatogenesis and oogenesis. 85) One way in which gametogenesis in males differs from gametogenesis in females is that mitosis of primordial germ cells occurs in males only during fetal life. Answer: FALSE Section: 17.01 Topic: Gametogenesis Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module R03 Gametogenesis. HAPS Outcome: R03.03 Contrast the process and the final products of spermatogenesis and oogenesis.
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86) Meiosis results in germ cells with 23 maternal chromosomes in one daughter cell and 23 paternal chromosomes in the other. Answer: FALSE Section: 17.01 Topic: Gametogenesis Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module C13 Reproduction and cell division HAPS Outcome: C13.01 Describe the events that take place in each stage of meiosis I and meiosis II. 87) The testes are located outside the abdomen because spermatogenesis requires a temperature lower than core body temperature. Answer: TRUE Section: 17.05 Topic: Gross anatomy of the male reproductive system; Physiology of the male reproductive system Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module R02 Gross and microscopic anatomy of the male and female reproductive systems.; Module R05 Specific roles of the male reproductive organs. HAPS Outcome: R02.01 With respect to the gross anatomy, identify and describe the anatomy of the male and female reproductive system, including the gonads, ducts, accessory glands, associated support structures, and external genitalia.; R05.01 Discuss the relationship between the location of the testes and sperm production. 88) In the testis, spermatogenesis takes place in the seminiferous tubules and testosterone is produced by the Leydig cells. Answer: TRUE Section: 17.05 Topic: Microscopic anatomy of the male reproductive system; Physiology of the male reproductive system Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module R02 Gross and microscopic anatomy of the male and female reproductive systems.; Module R05 Specific roles of the male reproductive organs.; Module J05 Identity, source, secretory control, and functional roles of the major hormones produced by the body. HAPS Outcome: R02.02a Identify and describe the reproductive and supporting cells of the seminiferous tubules of the testis in reference to microscopic anatomy.; J05.05b In the testis, identify the gland or endocrine tissue/organ and the cells within that gland/tissue/organ that produce testosterone and inhibin.; R05.02 Explain the role of the sustentacular cells and interstitial cells in sperm production.
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89) A man recovering from testicular cancer who has lost 50% of his Leydig cells may find that he has a lower level of testosterone than before. Answer: TRUE Section: 17.05 Topic: Microscopic anatomy of the male reproductive system; Physiology of the male reproductive system Bloom's: Level 3. Apply HAPS Topic: Module R02 Gross and microscopic anatomy of the male and female reproductive systems.; Module R05 Specific roles of the male reproductive organs.; Module J05 Identity, source, secretory control, and functional roles of the major hormones produced by the body. HAPS Outcome: R02.02a Identify and describe the reproductive and supporting cells of the seminiferous tubules of the testis in reference to microscopic anatomy.; J05.05b In the testis, identify the gland or endocrine tissue/organ and the cells within that gland/tissue/organ that produce testosterone and inhibin.; R05.02 Explain the role of the sustentacular cells and interstitial cells in sperm production. 90) Andrew, an older man, has had part of his prostate gland removed. He should now expect a reduction in the level of prostaglandins secreted into semen. Answer: FALSE Section: 17.05 Topic: Physiology of the male reproductive system Bloom's: Level 3. Apply HAPS Topic: Module R02 Gross and microscopic anatomy of the male and female reproductive systems.; Module R05 Specific roles of the male reproductive organs. HAPS Outcome: R02.01 With respect to the gross anatomy, identify and describe the anatomy of the male and female reproductive system, including the gonads, ducts, accessory glands, associated support structures, and external genitalia.; R05.04 Identify and describe the organs involved in semen production.; R05.05 Discuss the composition of semen and its role is sperm function. 91) The products of the first meiotic division of spermatogenesis are spermatids. Answer: FALSE Section: 17.06 Topic: Gametogenesis; Physiology of the male reproductive system Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module R03 Gametogenesis. HAPS Outcome: R03.02 Relate the general stages of meiosis to the specific processes of spermatogenesis and oogenesis.
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92) Conversion of spermatids to spermatozoa involves cell division. Answer: FALSE Section: 17.06 Topic: Gametogenesis; Physiology of the male reproductive system Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module R03 Gametogenesis. HAPS Outcome: R03.02 Relate the general stages of meiosis to the specific processes of spermatogenesis and oogenesis. 93) The part of the spermatozoan that enables it to swim through fluid is the acrosome. Answer: FALSE Section: 17.06 Topic: Physiology of the male reproductive system Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module R07 Conception, pregnancy, and embryological and fetal development. HAPS Outcome: R07.01 Describe conception, including sperm capacitation, acrosomal reaction, sperm penetration, cortical reaction, and fusion of pronuclei. 94) The only cells of the testis that can secrete hormones are the Leydig cells. Answer: FALSE Section: 17.05; 17.06 Topic: Physiology of the male reproductive system Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module R02 Gross and microscopic anatomy of the male and female reproductive systems.; Module R05 Specific roles of the male reproductive organs.; Module J05 Identity, source, secretory control, and functional roles of the major hormones produced by the body. HAPS Outcome: R02.02a Identify and describe the reproductive and supporting cells of the seminiferous tubules of the testis in reference to microscopic anatomy.; J05.05b In the testis, identify the gland or endocrine tissue/organ and the cells within that gland/tissue/organ that produce testosterone and inhibin.; R05.02 Explain the role of the sustentacular cells and interstitial cells in sperm production.
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95) Rachel's menstrual cycle is typically 28 or 29-days long. The beginning of her last period was 18 days ago, so she is most likely in the proliferative phase. Answer: FALSE Section: 17.15 Topic: Physiology of the female reproductive system Bloom's: Level 3. Apply HAPS Topic: Module R04 Specific roles of the female reproductive organs. HAPS Outcome: R04.04 Analyze graphs depicting the typical female monthly sexual cycle and correlate ovarian activity, hormonal changes, and uterine events.; R04.03 Describe the events of the uterine cycle. 96) One function of semen is to buffer the acidic secretions of the vagina. Answer: TRUE Section: 17.05 Topic: Physiology of the male reproductive system Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module R05 Specific roles of the male reproductive organs. HAPS Outcome: R05.05 Discuss the composition of semen and its role is sperm function. 97) Lowering the pH of semen would make it difficult for sperm to survive in the vagina. Answer: TRUE Section: 17.05 Topic: Physiology of the male reproductive system Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module R05 Specific roles of the male reproductive organs. HAPS Outcome: R05.05 Discuss the composition of semen and its role is sperm function. 98) The primary storage site for sperm is the seminal vesicles. Answer: FALSE Section: 17.07 Topic: Gross anatomy of the male reproductive system; Physiology of the male reproductive system Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module R02 Gross and microscopic anatomy of the male and female reproductive systems.; Module R05 Specific roles of the male reproductive organs. HAPS Outcome: R02.01 With respect to the gross anatomy, identify and describe the anatomy of the male and female reproductive system, including the gonads, ducts, accessory glands, associated support structures, and external genitalia.; R05.03 Describe the pathway of sperm from the seminiferous tubules to the external urethral orifice of the penis.; R05.04 Identify and describe the organs involved in semen production.
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99) Vasectomy results in sterility because it inhibits sperm production. Answer: FALSE Section: 17.07 Topic: Physiology of the male reproductive system; Clinical applications of the reproductive system Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module R05 Specific roles of the male reproductive organs.; Module R11 Predictions related to homeostatic imbalance, including disease states and disorders. HAPS Outcome: R11.01 Predict factors or situations affecting the reproductive system that could disrupt homeostasis.; R11.02 Predict the types of problems that would occur in the body if the reproductive system could not maintain homeostasis.; R05.03 Describe the pathway of sperm from the seminiferous tubules to the external urethral orifice of the penis. 100) Erection of the penis is a result of vasodilation brought about by a reflex involving nonadrenergic, noncholinergic autonomic neurons. Answer: TRUE Section: 17.07 Topic: Physiology of the male reproductive system Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module R06 Regulation of reproductive system functions.; Module H13 Functions of the autonomic nervous system HAPS Outcome: H13.06 Describe visceral reflex arcs, including structural and functional details of sensory and motor (autonomic) components; R06.05 Compare and contrast female and male sexual responses. 101) Inhibiting the hormone inhibin would stop sperm production and therefore be a possible mechanism for male birth control. Answer: FALSE Section: 17.05; 17.06 Topic: Physiology of the male reproductive system Bloom's: Level 3. Apply HAPS Topic: Module R02 Gross and microscopic anatomy of the male and female reproductive systems.; Module R05 Specific roles of the male reproductive organs.; Module J05 Identity, source, secretory control, and functional roles of the major hormones produced by the body. HAPS Outcome: R02.02a Identify and describe the reproductive and supporting cells of the seminiferous tubules of the testis in reference to microscopic anatomy.; J05.05b In the testis, identify the gland or endocrine tissue/organ and the cells within that gland/tissue/organ that produce testosterone and inhibin.; R05.02 Explain the role of the sustentacular cells and interstitial cells in sperm production.
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102) Luteinizing hormone stimulates testosterone secretion by the Leydig cells of the testes. Answer: TRUE Section: 17.04; 17.08 Topic: Microscopic anatomy of the male reproductive system; Physiology of the male reproductive system Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module R05 Specific roles of the male reproductive organs.; Module R06 Regulation of reproductive system functions.; Module J05 Identity, source, secretory control, and functional roles of the major hormones produced by the body. HAPS Outcome: R06.01 State the functions of gonadotropin releasing hormone, follicle stimulating hormone, luteinizing hormone, inhibin, testosterone, estrogen and progesterone.; R05.02 Explain the role of the sustentacular cells and interstitial cells in sperm production.; J05.01c Name the target tissue or cells for the hormone and describe the effect(s) of the hormone on the target tissue or cells of growth hormone, thyroid-stimulating hormone, luteinizing hormone, follicle stimulating hormone, prolactin, adrenocorticotropic hormone, oxytocin, and antidiuretic hormone (or vasopressin.; J05.05a In the testis, describe the stimulus for release of testosterone and inhibin.; R06.02 Compare and contrast endocrine regulation of spermatogenesis and oogenesis. 103) Spermatogenesis and testosterone production are interdependent events, meaning that neither process can occur without the other. Answer: FALSE Section: 17.08 Topic: Physiology of the male reproductive system Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module R05 Specific roles of the male reproductive organs.; Module R06 Regulation of reproductive system functions.; Module J05 Identity, source, secretory control, and functional roles of the major hormones produced by the body. HAPS Outcome: R06.01 State the functions of gonadotropin releasing hormone, follicle stimulating hormone, luteinizing hormone, inhibin, testosterone, estrogen and progesterone.; J05.05c In the testis, name the target tissue or cells for testosterone and inhibin and describe the effect(s) of the hormone on the target tissue or cells.; R05.02 Explain the role of the sustentacular cells and interstitial cells in sperm production.; R06.02 Compare and contrast endocrine regulation of spermatogenesis and oogenesis.
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104) The female external genitalia are collectively called the vulva. Answer: TRUE Section: 17.12 Topic: Gross anatomy of the female reproductive system Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module R02 Gross and microscopic anatomy of the male and female reproductive systems. HAPS Outcome: R02.01 With respect to the gross anatomy, identify and describe the anatomy of the male and female reproductive system, including the gonads, ducts, accessory glands, associated support structures, and external genitalia. 105) At birth, the ovaries of a female baby contain less than one million oogonia. Answer: FALSE Section: 17.13 Topic: Gametogenesis; Physiology of the female reproductive system Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module R04 Specific roles of the female reproductive organs. HAPS Outcome: R04.02 Describe the ovarian cycle and relate the events of the ovarian cycle to oogenesis. 106) Most of the primordial follicles a woman is born with eventually are ovulated. Answer: FALSE Section: 17.13 Topic: Physiology of the female reproductive system Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module R02 Gross and microscopic anatomy of the male and female reproductive systems. HAPS Outcome: R02.02b Identify and describe the different stages of follicular development in the ovary, including the preovulatory follicle and the corpus luteum in reference to microscopic anatomy.
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107) With respect to hormonal control and secretion, theca cells in the ovary are analogous to Leydig cells in the testis. Answer: TRUE Section: 17.14 Topic: Microscopic anatomy of the male reproductive system; Microscopic anatomy of the female reproductive system; Physiology of the male reproductive system; Physiology of the female reproductive system Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module R02 Gross and microscopic anatomy of the male and female reproductive systems.; Module R05 Specific roles of the male reproductive organs.; Module R06 Regulation of reproductive system functions.; Module J05 Identity, source, secretory control, and functional roles of the major hormones produced by the body. HAPS Outcome: R06.01 State the functions of gonadotropin releasing hormone, follicle stimulating hormone, luteinizing hormone, inhibin, testosterone, estrogen and progesterone.; R02.02b Identify and describe the different stages of follicular development in the ovary, including the preovulatory follicle and the corpus luteum in reference to microscopic anatomy.; J05.05b In the testis, identify the gland or endocrine tissue/organ and the cells within that gland/tissue/organ that produce testosterone and inhibin.; R05.02 Explain the role of the sustentacular cells and interstitial cells in sperm production.; J05.06a In the ovary, describe the stimulus for release of estrogen, progesterone and inhibin.; J05.06b In the ovary, identify the gland or endocrine tissue/organ and the cells within that gland/tissue/organ that produce estrogen, progesterone and inhibin.; J05.05a In the testis, describe the stimulus for release of testosterone and inhibin.; R06.02 Compare and contrast endocrine regulation of spermatogenesis and oogenesis.
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108) Inhibin secreted by granulosa cells selectively inhibits secretion of FSH by the pituitary. Answer: TRUE Section: 17.14 Topic: Microscopic anatomy of the female reproductive system; Physiology of the female reproductive system Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module R02 Gross and microscopic anatomy of the male and female reproductive systems.; Module R04 Specific roles of the female reproductive organs.; Module R06 Regulation of reproductive system functions.; Module J03 Control of hormone secretion.; Module J05 Identity, source, secretory control, and functional roles of the major hormones produced by the body. HAPS Outcome: J03.02 Describe the roles of negative and positive feedback in controlling hormone release.; J05.01a Describe the stimulus for release of growth hormone, thyroidstimulating hormone, luteinizing hormone, follicle stimulating hormone, prolactin, adrenocorticotropic hormone, oxytocin, and antidiuretic hormone (or vasopressin).; R04.04 Analyze graphs depicting the typical female monthly sexual cycle and correlate ovarian activity, hormonal changes, and uterine events.; R06.01 State the functions of gonadotropin releasing hormone, follicle stimulating hormone, luteinizing hormone, inhibin, testosterone, estrogen and progesterone.; J05.06c In the ovary, name the target tissue or cells for estrogen, progesterone and inhibin and describe the effect(s) of the hormone on the target tissue or cells.; R02.02b Identify and describe the different stages of follicular development in the ovary, including the preovulatory follicle and the corpus luteum in reference to microscopic anatomy.; J05.06b In the ovary, identify the gland or endocrine tissue/organ and the cells within that gland/tissue/organ that produce estrogen, progesterone and inhibin.
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109) Increasing circulating levels of inhibin would result in fewer gametes available for fertilization in both sexes. Answer: TRUE Section: 17.14 Topic: Microscopic anatomy of the female reproductive system; Physiology of the female reproductive system Bloom's: Level 3. Apply HAPS Topic: Module R02 Gross and microscopic anatomy of the male and female reproductive systems.; Module R04 Specific roles of the female reproductive organs.; Module R06 Regulation of reproductive system functions.; Module J03 Control of hormone secretion.; Module J05 Identity, source, secretory control, and functional roles of the major hormones produced by the body. HAPS Outcome: J03.02 Describe the roles of negative and positive feedback in controlling hormone release.; J05.01a Describe the stimulus for release of growth hormone, thyroidstimulating hormone, luteinizing hormone, follicle stimulating hormone, prolactin, adrenocorticotropic hormone, oxytocin, and antidiuretic hormone (or vasopressin).; R04.04 Analyze graphs depicting the typical female monthly sexual cycle and correlate ovarian activity, hormonal changes, and uterine events.; R06.01 State the functions of gonadotropin releasing hormone, follicle stimulating hormone, luteinizing hormone, inhibin, testosterone, estrogen and progesterone.; J05.06c In the ovary, name the target tissue or cells for estrogen, progesterone and inhibin and describe the effect(s) of the hormone on the target tissue or cells.; R02.02b Identify and describe the different stages of follicular development in the ovary, including the preovulatory follicle and the corpus luteum in reference to microscopic anatomy.; J05.06b In the ovary, identify the gland or endocrine tissue/organ and the cells within that gland/tissue/organ that produce estrogen, progesterone and inhibin.
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110) Atresia of all but the dominant follicle is in part a result of the diminished secretion of FSH during the second week of the follicular phase. Answer: TRUE Section: 17.13; 17.14 Topic: Physiology of the female reproductive system Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module R02 Gross and microscopic anatomy of the male and female reproductive systems.; Module R04 Specific roles of the female reproductive organs.; Module R06 Regulation of reproductive system functions.; Module J05 Identity, source, secretory control, and functional roles of the major hormones produced by the body. HAPS Outcome: R04.04 Analyze graphs depicting the typical female monthly sexual cycle and correlate ovarian activity, hormonal changes, and uterine events.; R06.01 State the functions of gonadotropin releasing hormone, follicle stimulating hormone, luteinizing hormone, inhibin, testosterone, estrogen and progesterone.; R02.02b Identify and describe the different stages of follicular development in the ovary, including the preovulatory follicle and the corpus luteum in reference to microscopic anatomy.; J05.01c Name the target tissue or cells for the hormone and describe the effect(s) of the hormone on the target tissue or cells of growth hormone, thyroidstimulating hormone, luteinizing hormone, follicle stimulating hormone, prolactin, adrenocorticotropic hormone, oxytocin, and antidiuretic hormone (or vasopressin. 111) The secretory phase of the uterine cycle coincides with the follicular phase of the ovarian cycle. Answer: FALSE Section: 17.13; 17.15 Topic: Physiology of the female reproductive system Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module R04 Specific roles of the female reproductive organs. HAPS Outcome: R04.04 Analyze graphs depicting the typical female monthly sexual cycle and correlate ovarian activity, hormonal changes, and uterine events.; R04.03 Describe the events of the uterine cycle.; R04.02 Describe the ovarian cycle and relate the events of the ovarian cycle to oogenesis.
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112) A progesterone receptor agonist would prevent the endometrium from thickening, thereby preventing implantation. Answer: FALSE Section: 17.15 Topic: Microscopic anatomy of the female reproductive system; Physiology of the female reproductive system Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module R02 Gross and microscopic anatomy of the male and female reproductive systems.; Module R04 Specific roles of the female reproductive organs.; Module R06 Regulation of reproductive system functions.; Module J05 Identity, source, secretory control, and functional roles of the major hormones produced by the body. HAPS Outcome: R04.04 Analyze graphs depicting the typical female monthly sexual cycle and correlate ovarian activity, hormonal changes, and uterine events.; R06.01 State the functions of gonadotropin releasing hormone, follicle stimulating hormone, luteinizing hormone, inhibin, testosterone, estrogen and progesterone.; J05.06c In the ovary, name the target tissue or cells for estrogen, progesterone and inhibin and describe the effect(s) of the hormone on the target tissue or cells.; R02.02c Identify and describe the histology of the uterine wall in reference to microscopic anatomy.; R04.03 Describe the events of the uterine cycle. 113) Progesterone increases the thickness of the myometrium in preparation for implantation. Answer: FALSE Section: 17.15 Topic: Microscopic anatomy of the female reproductive system; Physiology of the female reproductive system Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module R02 Gross and microscopic anatomy of the male and female reproductive systems.; Module R04 Specific roles of the female reproductive organs.; Module R06 Regulation of reproductive system functions.; Module J05 Identity, source, secretory control, and functional roles of the major hormones produced by the body. HAPS Outcome: R04.04 Analyze graphs depicting the typical female monthly sexual cycle and correlate ovarian activity, hormonal changes, and uterine events.; R06.01 State the functions of gonadotropin releasing hormone, follicle stimulating hormone, luteinizing hormone, inhibin, testosterone, estrogen and progesterone.; J05.06c In the ovary, name the target tissue or cells for estrogen, progesterone and inhibin and describe the effect(s) of the hormone on the target tissue or cells.; R02.02c Identify and describe the histology of the uterine wall in reference to microscopic anatomy.; R04.03 Describe the events of the uterine cycle.
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114) Cervical mucus secreted under the influence of estrogen alone is clear and non-viscous, while that secreted under the influence of progesterone is thick and sticky. Answer: TRUE Section: 17.15 Topic: Physiology of the female reproductive system Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module R04 Specific roles of the female reproductive organs.; Module R06 Regulation of reproductive system functions.; Module J05 Identity, source, secretory control, and functional roles of the major hormones produced by the body. HAPS Outcome: J05.06d In the ovary, predict the larger effect that fluctuations in estrogen, progesterone and inhibin levels will have on conditions (variables) within the body.; R06.01 State the functions of gonadotropin releasing hormone, follicle stimulating hormone, luteinizing hormone, inhibin, testosterone, estrogen and progesterone.; R04.05 Explain why changes in cervical mucus can predict a womans monthly fertility. 115) Most of the hormonal effects on female accessory sex organs and secondary sex characteristics are attributable to progesterone. Answer: FALSE Section: 17.16 Topic: Physiology of the female reproductive system Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module R06 Regulation of reproductive system functions.; Module J05 Identity, source, secretory control, and functional roles of the major hormones produced by the body. HAPS Outcome: J05.06d In the ovary, predict the larger effect that fluctuations in estrogen, progesterone and inhibin levels will have on conditions (variables) within the body.; R06.01 State the functions of gonadotropin releasing hormone, follicle stimulating hormone, luteinizing hormone, inhibin, testosterone, estrogen and progesterone.; R06.04 Define secondary sex characteristics and describe their role in reproductive system function. 116) Dysmenorrhea refers to pain or discomfort during menses. Answer: TRUE Section: 17.15 Topic: Physiology of the female reproductive system; Clinical applications of the reproductive system Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module R11 Predictions related to homeostatic imbalance, including disease states and disorders. HAPS Outcome: R11.02 Predict the types of problems that would occur in the body if the reproductive system could not maintain homeostasis.
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117) Drugs with side effects of vasoconstriction may decrease the physiological response of females or males to sexual stimulation. Answer: TRUE Section: 17.18 Topic: Physiology of the male reproductive system; Physiology of the female reproductive system Bloom's: Level 3. Apply HAPS Topic: Module R06 Regulation of reproductive system functions. HAPS Outcome: R06.05 Compare and contrast female and male sexual responses. 118) The mechanisms underlying the physiological response of females to sexual stimulation are similar to those resulting in erection in males. Answer: TRUE Section: 17.18 Topic: Physiology of the male reproductive system; Physiology of the female reproductive system Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module R06 Regulation of reproductive system functions. HAPS Outcome: R06.05 Compare and contrast female and male sexual responses. 119) The fertilization of an egg normally occurs in the uterus. Answer: FALSE Section: 17.19 Topic: Gross anatomy of the female reproductive system; Physiology of the female reproductive system Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module R02 Gross and microscopic anatomy of the male and female reproductive systems.; Module R07 Conception, pregnancy, and embryological and fetal development. HAPS Outcome: R02.01 With respect to the gross anatomy, identify and describe the anatomy of the male and female reproductive system, including the gonads, ducts, accessory glands, associated support structures, and external genitalia.; R07.02 Define fertilization.
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120) Detection of LH in the urine or blood of a woman is an indicator that she is pregnant. Answer: FALSE Section: 17.19 Topic: Physiology of the female reproductive system Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module R04 Specific roles of the female reproductive organs.; Module R07 Conception, pregnancy, and embryological and fetal development.; Module J05 Identity, source, secretory control, and functional roles of the major hormones produced by the body. HAPS Outcome: R04.04 Analyze graphs depicting the typical female monthly sexual cycle and correlate ovarian activity, hormonal changes, and uterine events.; R07.05 Describe the hormonal changes during pregnancy and the effect of these hormones.; J05.13b In the placenta, identify the gland or endocrine tissue/organ and the cells within that gland/tissue/organ that produce estrogen, progesterone and human chorionic gonadotropin. 121) While passing down the oviduct, the zygote undergoes several rounds of cell division. Answer: TRUE Section: 17.19 Topic: Gametogenesis; Embryonic stage Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module R02 Gross and microscopic anatomy of the male and female reproductive systems.; Module R03 Gametogenesis.; Module R07 Conception, pregnancy, and embryological and fetal development. HAPS Outcome: R02.01 With respect to the gross anatomy, identify and describe the anatomy of the male and female reproductive system, including the gonads, ducts, accessory glands, associated support structures, and external genitalia.; R03.02 Relate the general stages of meiosis to the specific processes of spermatogenesis and oogenesis.; R07.03 Describe the major events of embryonic and fetal development. 122) Blood in the umbilical arteries is well oxygenated, whereas that in the umbilical vein is poorly oxygenated. Answer: FALSE Section: 17.19 Topic: Physiology of the female reproductive system Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module K13 Pattern of blood circulation throughout the body, including systemic, pulmonary, coronary, hepatic portal, and fetal circulations HAPS Outcome: K13.04d With respect to the fetal circulation, for each umbilical vessel and the major fetal blood vessels, state whether each vessel carries oxygen-rich, oxygen-poor or mixed blood, and explain why the different oxygen levels occur in these vessels.
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123) Amniocentesis is the removal of a sample of amniotic fluid for diagnosis of genetic or chromosomal disorders of the fetus. Answer: TRUE Section: 17.19 Topic: Physiology of the female reproductive system; Clinical applications of the reproductive system Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module S03 Genetic testing. HAPS Outcome: S03.01 Describe examples of prenatal and postnatal genetic testing. 124) Amniocentesis would be an appropriate mechanism to test for Down Syndrome (trisomy 21). Answer: TRUE Section: 17.19 Topic: Physiology of the female reproductive system; Clinical applications of the reproductive system Bloom's: Level 1. Apply HAPS Topic: Module S03 Genetic testing. HAPS Outcome: S03.01 Describe examples of prenatal and postnatal genetic testing. 125) Symptoms of preeclampsia generally include glucose in the urine, abnormal fluid retention, and hypertension. Answer: FALSE Section: 17.19 Topic: Physiology of the female reproductive system; Clinical applications of the reproductive system Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module R07 Conception, pregnancy, and embryological and fetal development.; Module R11 Predictions related to homeostatic imbalance, including disease states and disorders.; Module Q08 Predictions related to homeostatic imbalance, including disease states and disorders; Module K16 Predictions related to homeostatic imbalance, including disease states and disorders HAPS Outcome: R11.01 Predict factors or situations affecting the reproductive system that could disrupt homeostasis.; R11.02 Predict the types of problems that would occur in the body if the reproductive system could not maintain homeostasis.; R07.04 Describe the formation and function of the placenta and extraembryonic membranes.; K16.01 Predict factors or situations affecting the cardiovascular system that could disrupt homeostasis.; K16.02 Predict the types of problems that would occur in the body if the cardiovascular system could not maintain homeostasis.; Q08.01 Predict factors or situations that would lead to a disruption of homeostasis by affecting the volume or composition of body fluids.; Q08.03 Predict the types of problems that would occur in the body if the volume and composition of body fluids were not maintained with normal homestatic ranges.
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126) Oxytocin stimulates myometrial contractions most strongly when plasma progesterone levels are low relative to estrogen. Answer: TRUE Section: 17.16; 17.19 Topic: Microscopic anatomy of the female reproductive system; Physiology of the female reproductive system Bloom's: Level 2. Understand HAPS Topic: Module R02 Gross and microscopic anatomy of the male and female reproductive systems.; Module R07 Conception, pregnancy, and embryological and fetal development.; Module R08 Parturition and labor.; Module J05 Identity, source, secretory control, and functional roles of the major hormones produced by the body. HAPS Outcome: R07.05 Describe the hormonal changes during pregnancy and the effect of these hormones.; R08.01 Explain the hormonal events that initiate and regulate labor.; R02.02c Identify and describe the histology of the uterine wall in reference to microscopic anatomy.; J05.01c Name the target tissue or cells for the hormone and describe the effect(s) of the hormone on the target tissue or cells of growth hormone, thyroid-stimulating hormone, luteinizing hormone, follicle stimulating hormone, prolactin, adrenocorticotropic hormone, oxytocin, and antidiuretic hormone (or vasopressin. 127) The major constituents of human breast milk are water, protein, fat, and glucose. Answer: FALSE Section: 17.19 Topic: Physiology of the female reproductive system Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module R09 Mammary glands and lactation. HAPS Outcome: R09.01 Describe the structure and the function of the mammary glands.
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128) Milk ejection is a neural reflex arc involving afferent input to the hypothalamus from receptors in the nipples and a neural efferent output to the myoepithelial cells in the ducts of the mammary glands. Answer: FALSE Section: 17.19 Topic: Physiology of the female reproductive system Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module R09 Mammary glands and lactation.; Module J05 Identity, source, secretory control, and functional roles of the major hormones produced by the body.; Module H11 Reflexes and their roles in nervous system function HAPS Outcome: J05.01a Describe the stimulus for release of growth hormone, thyroidstimulating hormone, luteinizing hormone, follicle stimulating hormone, prolactin, adrenocorticotropic hormone, oxytocin, and antidiuretic hormone (or vasopressin).; R09.02 Describe the hormonal regulation of lactation.; J05.01c Name the target tissue or cells for the hormone and describe the effect(s) of the hormone on the target tissue or cells of growth hormone, thyroid-stimulating hormone, luteinizing hormone, follicle stimulating hormone, prolactin, adrenocorticotropic hormone, oxytocin, and antidiuretic hormone (or vasopressin.; H11.02 Describe reflex responses in terms of the major structural and functional components of a reflex arc.; R09.01 Describe the structure and the function of the mammary glands. 129) For a woman who does not want to become pregnant, it is sufficient to forego birth control during lactation because the hormones that control lactation will prevent ovulation. Answer: FALSE Section: 17.19 Topic: Physiology of the female reproductive system Bloom's: Level 3. Apply HAPS Topic: Module R09 Mammary glands and lactation.; Module R11 Predictions related to homeostatic imbalance, including disease states and disorders.; Module J05 Identity, source, secretory control, and functional roles of the major hormones produced by the body. HAPS Outcome: J05.01a Describe the stimulus for release of growth hormone, thyroidstimulating hormone, luteinizing hormone, follicle stimulating hormone, prolactin, adrenocorticotropic hormone, oxytocin, and antidiuretic hormone (or vasopressin).; R09.02 Describe the hormonal regulation of lactation.; R11.01 Predict factors or situations affecting the reproductive system that could disrupt homeostasis.
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130) A drug company would like to market a new form of birth control. One effective option would be an antagonist to the progesterone receptor. Answer: TRUE Section: 17.19 Topic: Physiology of the female reproductive system; Clinical applications of the reproductive system Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module R04 Specific roles of the female reproductive organs.; Module R06 Regulation of reproductive system functions.; Module R07 Conception, pregnancy, and embryological and fetal development.; Module R11 Predictions related to homeostatic imbalance, including disease states and disorders.; Module J05 Identity, source, secretory control, and functional roles of the major hormones produced by the body. HAPS Outcome: J05.06d In the ovary, predict the larger effect that fluctuations in estrogen, progesterone and inhibin levels will have on conditions (variables) within the body.; R06.01 State the functions of gonadotropin releasing hormone, follicle stimulating hormone, luteinizing hormone, inhibin, testosterone, estrogen and progesterone.; R07.05 Describe the hormonal changes during pregnancy and the effect of these hormones.; R11.01 Predict factors or situations affecting the reproductive system that could disrupt homeostasis.; R11.02 Predict the types of problems that would occur in the body if the reproductive system could not maintain homeostasis.; R07.04 Describe the formation and function of the placenta and extraembryonic membranes.; R04.06 Provide examples of how birth control methods relate to normal reproductive function. 131) A drug company would like to market a new form of birth control. A drug that interferes with endometrial proliferation and inducing changes in the composition of the cervical mucus, even if it doesn't inhibit ovulation, could still be effective. Answer: TRUE Section: 17.19 Topic: Physiology of the female reproductive system; Clinical applications of the reproductive system Bloom's: Level 3. Apply HAPS Topic: Module R02 Gross and microscopic anatomy of the male and female reproductive systems.; Module R04 Specific roles of the female reproductive organs.; Module R11 Predictions related to homeostatic imbalance, including disease states and disorders. HAPS Outcome: R04.04 Analyze graphs depicting the typical female monthly sexual cycle and correlate ovarian activity, hormonal changes, and uterine events.; R04.05 Explain why changes in cervical mucus can predict a womans monthly fertility.; R11.01 Predict factors or situations affecting the reproductive system that could disrupt homeostasis.; R11.02 Predict the types of problems that would occur in the body if the reproductive system could not maintain homeostasis.; R02.02c Identify and describe the histology of the uterine wall in reference to microscopic anatomy.; R04.03 Describe the events of the uterine cycle.; R04.06 Provide examples of how birth control methods relate to normal reproductive function.
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132) The gene on the Y chromosome that determines whether gonads will be testes or ovaries codes for a protein called Müllerian-inhibiting substance. Answer: FALSE Section: 17.03 Topic: Physiology of the male reproductive system; Development of the reproductive system Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module R07 Conception, pregnancy, and embryological and fetal development.; Module S02 Gene inheritance and expression. HAPS Outcome: R07.03 Describe the major events of embryonic and fetal development.; S02.05 Discuss the role of sex chromosomes in sex determination and sex-linked inheritance. 133) The presence of sex chromatin in a smear of epithelial cells indicates that the donor of the cells is a genetic female. Answer: TRUE Section: 17.02 Topic: Physiology of the female reproductive system; Clinical applications of the reproductive system Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module S02 Gene inheritance and expression. HAPS Outcome: S02.05 Discuss the role of sex chromosomes in sex determination and sexlinked inheritance. 134) An individual with androgen insensitivity syndrome is a genetic male with ovaries. Answer: FALSE Section: 17.03 Topic: Physiology of the male reproductive system; Clinical applications of the reproductive system Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module R06 Regulation of reproductive system functions.; Module R07 Conception, pregnancy, and embryological and fetal development.; Module R11 Predictions related to homeostatic imbalance, including disease states and disorders. HAPS Outcome: R06.01 State the functions of gonadotropin releasing hormone, follicle stimulating hormone, luteinizing hormone, inhibin, testosterone, estrogen and progesterone.; R11.01 Predict factors or situations affecting the reproductive system that could disrupt homeostasis.; R11.02 Predict the types of problems that would occur in the body if the reproductive system could not maintain homeostasis.; R07.03 Describe the major events of embryonic and fetal development.
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135) The onset of puberty may be delayed in girls who have very low amounts of adipose tissue. Answer: TRUE Section: 17.17 Topic: Physiology of the female reproductive system; Effects of aging on the reproductive system; Clinical applications of the reproductive system Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module R06 Regulation of reproductive system functions.; Module R11 Predictions related to homeostatic imbalance, including disease states and disorders.; Module J05 Identity, source, secretory control, and functional roles of the major hormones produced by the body. HAPS Outcome: R06.03 Compare and contrast the events and endocrine regulation of female and male puberty.; J05.12d In adipose tissue, predict the larger effect that fluctuations in leptin and resistin levels will have on conditions (variables) within the body.; R11.01 Predict factors or situations affecting the reproductive system that could disrupt homeostasis.; R11.02 Predict the types of problems that would occur in the body if the reproductive system could not maintain homeostasis.
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136) Postmenopausal women are at increased risk, compared to premenopausal women, for osteoporosis and atherosclerosis. Answer: TRUE Section: 17.20 Topic: Physiology of the female reproductive system; Effects of aging on the reproductive system; Clinical applications of the reproductive system Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module R06 Regulation of reproductive system functions.; Module R11 Predictions related to homeostatic imbalance, including disease states and disorders.; Module J05 Identity, source, secretory control, and functional roles of the major hormones produced by the body.; Module J09 Predictions related to homeostatic imbalance, including disease states and disorders.; Module F05 Physiology of bone growth, repair, and remodeling; Module K16 Predictions related to homeostatic imbalance, including disease states and disorders; Module F10 Predictions related to homeostatic imbalance, including disease states and disorders HAPS Outcome: J05.06d In the ovary, predict the larger effect that fluctuations in estrogen, progesterone and inhibin levels will have on conditions (variables) within the body.; R11.01 Predict factors or situations affecting the reproductive system that could disrupt homeostasis.; R11.02 Predict the types of problems that would occur in the body if the reproductive system could not maintain homeostasis.; J09.01 Predict factors or situations affecting the endocrine organs that could disrupt homeostasis.; J09.02 Predict the types of problems that would occur in the body if the various endocrine organs could not maintain homeostasis.; J05.06a In the ovary, describe the stimulus for release of estrogen, progesterone and inhibin.; R06.06 Define menopause, describe the physiological changes associated with menopause, and explain the fertility changes that precede menopause.; K16.01 Predict factors or situations affecting the cardiovascular system that could disrupt homeostasis.; K16.02 Predict the types of problems that would occur in the body if the cardiovascular system could not maintain homeostasis.; F05.02 Explain the hormonal regulation of skeleton growth.; F05.04 Contrast the remodeling processes of a child (birth to adolescence) and an adult (middle to old age).; F10.01 Predict factors or situations affecting the skeletal system and articulations that could disrupt homeostasis.; F10.02 Predict the types of problems that would occur in the body if the skeletal system and articulations could not maintain homeostasis.
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137) Steroid hormones generally bind with receptors inside target cells and control the rate of formation of mRNAs that lead to the synthesis of proteins. Answer: TRUE Section: 17.04 Topic: Physiology of the male reproductive system; Physiology of the female reproductive system Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module J02 Chemical classification of hormones and mechanism of hormone actions at receptors. HAPS Outcome: J02.03 Compare and contrast the types of receptors (cell membrane or intracellular) that each class binds to.; J02.04 Compare and contrast the mechanism of response that each class elicits (i.e., change in gene expression or change in an intracellular pathway via phosphorylation mechanism) and relate the response mechanism to the biochemical nature of the hormone molecule. 138) During meiosis, crossing-over results in the exchange of homologous genes from one of a pair of chromatids to the other with no net change in possibilities for genetic expression. Answer: FALSE Section: 17.01 Topic: Gametogenesis Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module C13 Reproduction and cell division HAPS Outcome: C13.01 Describe the events that take place in each stage of meiosis I and meiosis II. 139) Within the ovary, there are always a large number of ovarian follicles poised to release an ovum at ovulation. Answer: FALSE Section: 17.13 Topic: Gametogenesis; Physiology of the female reproductive system Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module R02 Gross and microscopic anatomy of the male and female reproductive systems.; Module R03 Gametogenesis.; Module R04 Specific roles of the female reproductive organs. HAPS Outcome: R03.02 Relate the general stages of meiosis to the specific processes of spermatogenesis and oogenesis.; R02.02b Identify and describe the different stages of follicular development in the ovary, including the preovulatory follicle and the corpus luteum in reference to microscopic anatomy.; R04.02 Describe the ovarian cycle and relate the events of the ovarian cycle to oogenesis.
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140) Many (10–25) antral follicles begin the process of development each menstrual cycle, but only one will usually progress to the point of ovulation. Answer: TRUE Section: 17.13 Topic: Physiology of the female reproductive system Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module R02 Gross and microscopic anatomy of the male and female reproductive systems.; Module R04 Specific roles of the female reproductive organs. HAPS Outcome: R04.04 Analyze graphs depicting the typical female monthly sexual cycle and correlate ovarian activity, hormonal changes, and uterine events.; R02.02b Identify and describe the different stages of follicular development in the ovary, including the preovulatory follicle and the corpus luteum in reference to microscopic anatomy.; R04.02 Describe the ovarian cycle and relate the events of the ovarian cycle to oogenesis. 141) Infertility treatments most often involve the injection of aromatases, leading to enhanced numbers of developing early ovarian antral follicles. Answer: FALSE Section: 17.04; 17.19 Topic: Physiology of the female reproductive system; Clinical applications of the reproductive system Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module R02 Gross and microscopic anatomy of the male and female reproductive systems.; Module R04 Specific roles of the female reproductive organs.; Module R11 Predictions related to homeostatic imbalance, including disease states and disorders.; Module J05 Identity, source, secretory control, and functional roles of the major hormones produced by the body. HAPS Outcome: R04.04 Analyze graphs depicting the typical female monthly sexual cycle and correlate ovarian activity, hormonal changes, and uterine events.; J05.06c In the ovary, name the target tissue or cells for estrogen, progesterone and inhibin and describe the effect(s) of the hormone on the target tissue or cells.; R11.02 Predict the types of problems that would occur in the body if the reproductive system could not maintain homeostasis.; R02.02b Identify and describe the different stages of follicular development in the ovary, including the preovulatory follicle and the corpus luteum in reference to microscopic anatomy.; J05.06a In the ovary, describe the stimulus for release of estrogen, progesterone and inhibin.; R04.02 Describe the ovarian cycle and relate the events of the ovarian cycle to oogenesis.
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142) 99.9% of the ovarian follicles a woman produces in her lifetime are viable and capable of being fertilized. Answer: FALSE Section: 17.13 Topic: Physiology of the female reproductive system Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module R02 Gross and microscopic anatomy of the male and female reproductive systems.; Module R04 Specific roles of the female reproductive organs. HAPS Outcome: R02.02b Identify and describe the different stages of follicular development in the ovary, including the preovulatory follicle and the corpus luteum in reference to microscopic anatomy.; R04.02 Describe the ovarian cycle and relate the events of the ovarian cycle to oogenesis. 143) If an egg is present in the oviduct, fertilization is promoted only after several hours of capacitation have passed for sperm cells. Answer: TRUE Section: 17.19 Topic: Physiology of the male reproductive system; Physiology of the female reproductive system Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module R02 Gross and microscopic anatomy of the male and female reproductive systems.; Module R04 Specific roles of the female reproductive organs.; Module R07 Conception, pregnancy, and embryological and fetal development. HAPS Outcome: R02.01 With respect to the gross anatomy, identify and describe the anatomy of the male and female reproductive system, including the gonads, ducts, accessory glands, associated support structures, and external genitalia.; R04.01 Describe the pathway of the ovum from the ovary to the uterus.; R07.01 Describe conception, including sperm capacitation, acrosomal reaction, sperm penetration, cortical reaction, and fusion of pronuclei.
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144) Which of the following are actions of estrogen? A) Stimulation of fat deposition under the skin in the breasts and hips B) Thickening of the cervical mucus C) Increased expression of oxytocin receptors in the myometrium D) Stimulation of bone growth and strength E) Stimulation of growth of pubic hair Answer: A, C, D Section: 17.14; 17.15; 17.16 Topic: Physiology of the female reproductive system Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module R06 Regulation of reproductive system functions.; Module R08 Parturition and labor.; Module J05 Identity, source, secretory control, and functional roles of the major hormones produced by the body.; Module F05 Physiology of bone growth, repair, and remodeling HAPS Outcome: J05.06d In the ovary, predict the larger effect that fluctuations in estrogen, progesterone and inhibin levels will have on conditions (variables) within the body.; R06.01 State the functions of gonadotropin releasing hormone, follicle stimulating hormone, luteinizing hormone, inhibin, testosterone, estrogen and progesterone.; R08.01 Explain the hormonal events that initiate and regulate labor.; J05.04d In the adrenal gland, predict the larger effect that fluctuations in glucocorticoids (cortisol), mineralocorticoids (aldosterone), gonadocorticoids, epinephrine and norepinephrine levels will have on conditions (variables) within the body.; R06.04 Define secondary sex characteristics and describe their role in reproductive system function.; F05.02 Explain the hormonal regulation of skeleton growth.
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145) Which of the following normally produces androgens? A) Leydig cells B) Theca cells C) Adrenal cortex cells D) Sertoli cells E) Endometrial cells Answer: A, B, C Section: 17.05; 17.06; 17.13 Topic: Microscopic anatomy of the male reproductive system; Microscopic anatomy of the female reproductive system; Physiology of the male reproductive system; Physiology of the female reproductive system Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module R02 Gross and microscopic anatomy of the male and female reproductive systems.; Module R04 Specific roles of the female reproductive organs.; Module R05 Specific roles of the male reproductive organs.; Module J05 Identity, source, secretory control, and functional roles of the major hormones produced by the body. HAPS Outcome: R04.04 Analyze graphs depicting the typical female monthly sexual cycle and correlate ovarian activity, hormonal changes, and uterine events.; R02.02a Identify and describe the reproductive and supporting cells of the seminiferous tubules of the testis in reference to microscopic anatomy.; J05.04b In the adrenal gland, identify the gland or endocrine tissue/organ and the cells within that gland/tissue/organ that produce glucocorticoids (cortisol), mineralocorticoids (aldosterone), gonadocorticoids, epinephrine and norepinephrine.; R02.02b Identify and describe the different stages of follicular development in the ovary, including the preovulatory follicle and the corpus luteum in reference to microscopic anatomy.; J05.05b In the testis, identify the gland or endocrine tissue/organ and the cells within that gland/tissue/organ that produce testosterone and inhibin.; R05.02 Explain the role of the sustentacular cells and interstitial cells in sperm production.; J05.06b In the ovary, identify the gland or endocrine tissue/organ and the cells within that gland/tissue/organ that produce estrogen, progesterone and inhibin.
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146) Which of these is/are correct descriptions of the human placenta? A) An endocrine gland B) Fetal tissue C) Richly vascularized D) A storage location for nutrients E) Richly innervated Answer: A, B, C Section: 17.19 Topic: Physiology of the female reproductive system Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module R07 Conception, pregnancy, and embryological and fetal development.; Module K13 Pattern of blood circulation throughout the body, including systemic, pulmonary, coronary, hepatic portal, and fetal circulations HAPS Outcome: K13.04a With respect to the fetal circulation, describe the role of the placenta and umbilical blood vessels in fetal circulation.; R07.04 Describe the formation and function of the placenta and extraembryonic membranes.
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147) A drug company produces a drug that prevents atresia. Which of the following might be a side-effect of this drug? A) Increased rate of successful fertilization and increased incidence of multiple births (twins, etc.) B) Lower circulating progesterone levels in the follicular phase C) Lower circulating progesterone levels in the luteal phase D) Higher circulating estrogen levels in the luteal phase E) Increased production of sperm Answer: A, D Section: 17.13 Topic: Physiology of the female reproductive system Bloom's: Level 3. Apply HAPS Topic: Module R02 Gross and microscopic anatomy of the male and female reproductive systems.; Module R04 Specific roles of the female reproductive organs.; Module R06 Regulation of reproductive system functions.; Module J05 Identity, source, secretory control, and functional roles of the major hormones produced by the body. HAPS Outcome: R04.04 Analyze graphs depicting the typical female monthly sexual cycle and correlate ovarian activity, hormonal changes, and uterine events.; R06.01 State the functions of gonadotropin releasing hormone, follicle stimulating hormone, luteinizing hormone, inhibin, testosterone, estrogen and progesterone.; J05.06c In the ovary, name the target tissue or cells for estrogen, progesterone and inhibin and describe the effect(s) of the hormone on the target tissue or cells.; R02.02b Identify and describe the different stages of follicular development in the ovary, including the preovulatory follicle and the corpus luteum in reference to microscopic anatomy.; J05.06b In the ovary, identify the gland or endocrine tissue/organ and the cells within that gland/tissue/organ that produce estrogen, progesterone and inhibin.; R04.02 Describe the ovarian cycle and relate the events of the ovarian cycle to oogenesis.; J05.01c Name the target tissue or cells for the hormone and describe the effect(s) of the hormone on the target tissue or cells of growth hormone, thyroid-stimulating hormone, luteinizing hormone, follicle stimulating hormone, prolactin, adrenocorticotropic hormone, oxytocin, and antidiuretic hormone (or vasopressin.
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148) During a routine check in the second trimester Erica's doctor tells her that the placenta is half the size typically seen at this stage of pregnancy. Which of the following is a concern? A) Inadequate exchange of nutrients and waste, thereby limiting fetal growth B) Inadequate levels of the hormones of pregnancy C) The fetus may become overly large due to extra space in the uterus D) Less maternal blood than is typical will be able to flow into fetal circulation E) None of these will be a concern Answer: A, B Section: 17.19 Topic: Physiology of the female reproductive system Bloom's: Level 3. Apply HAPS Topic: Module R02 Gross and microscopic anatomy of the male and female reproductive systems.; Module R07 Conception, pregnancy, and embryological and fetal development.; Module K13 Pattern of blood circulation throughout the body, including systemic, pulmonary, coronary, hepatic portal, and fetal circulations HAPS Outcome: K13.04a With respect to the fetal circulation, describe the role of the placenta and umbilical blood vessels in fetal circulation.; R07.04 Describe the formation and function of the placenta and extraembryonic membranes.; R02.02c Identify and describe the histology of the uterine wall in reference to microscopic anatomy.
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Vander's Human Physiology, 15e (Widmaier) Chapter 18 The Immune System 1) The immune system destroys or neutralizes A) bacteria. B) viruses. C) nonmicrobial foreign substances. D) cancer cells that arise in the body. E) All of the choices are correct. 2) Which is NOT true about viruses? A) They consist of a nucleic acid surrounded by a carbohydrate shell. B) They require a host cell in order to reproduce themselves. C) They may reside in a host cell for years without killing it. D) They may cause a host cell to become cancerous. E) They may have genetic information in the form of RNA. 3) The killing of cancerous cells by the immune system is called A) immune oversight. B) immune surveillance. C) tissue immunity. D) phagocytosis. E) hemostasis. 4) Which is TRUE regarding the immune system cells? A) Plasma cells are derived from T cells. B) Macrophages are derived from basophils. C) Macrophages are derived from monocytes. D) The immune cells found within the bloodstream are called erythrocytes. E) Neutrophils are classified as lymphoid cells. 5) Which of the following statements regarding the chemical mediators of inflammatory responses is NOT true? A) They may be secreted by cells residing in the area of injury. B) The may be secreted by cells that enter the affected area. C) They may be generated by enzymatic cleavage of proteins in plasma. D) They are all peptides. E) They may be chemotaxins.
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6) In a patient taking a hypothetical immunosuppressive drug, all adaptive responses are inhibited. All innate immune responses are still functional, although some are reduced in strength. While taking this drug, which of the following events will still occur in response to infection? A) Antigen interaction with lymphocytes B) Production of antibodies that bind to antigens C) B-cell differentiation into plasma cells D) Vasodilation of local blood vessels E) Activation of lymphocytes 7) Chemotaxis A) refers to the chemical attraction of neutrophils to a site of inflammation. B) is important only for innate immune responses. C) is important only for adaptive immune responses. D) refers to the engulfing of microbes and foreign molecules by macrophages. E) refers to dilation of blood vessels by chemicals released by damaged tissue cells. 8) Which of the following cell types binds to antigens on plasma membranes of target cells and directly destroys the cells? A) Neutrophils B) NK cells C) Cytotoxic T cells (CD8 cells) D) Helper T cells (CD4 cells) E) B cells 9) Which of the following statements regarding phagocytes and phagocytosis is TRUE? A) Macrophages, monocytes, and mast cells are phagocytes. B) Contact of phagocytes with microbes stimulates the phagocytes to release chemicals that mediate the inflammatory response. C) Phagocytosis is stimulated by the presence of proteins called rhodopsins. D) Phagocytosis is the process by which leukocytes exit the bloodstream. E) Phagocytosis is a process that only occurs within the bloodstream. 10) Which of the following statements regarding phagocytosis is TRUE? A) Macrophages are the only phagocytes in human tissues. B) The microbe engulfed by the phagocyte is killed by lysosomal enzymes and hydrogen peroxide. C) Phagocytosis is controlled by a negative feedback mechanism whereby phagocytes release chemicals that inhibit further phagocytosis. D) The microbe engulfed by the phagocyte is killed by the membrane attack complex (MAC). E) Antibodies found inside lysosomes attack and kill microbes that are engulfed by phagocytosis.
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11) Which of the following statements regarding complement is FALSE? A) Certain complement proteins are always circulating in the blood in an inactive state. B) Activated complement can form a membrane attack complex, which forms pores in microbe membranes. C) Activated complement can stimulate cells to secrete inflammation-mediating chemicals. D) The complement pathway is always dependent upon activation of the first complement protein, C1. E) Some activated complement proteins activate other complement proteins. 12) After activation of C3 of the complement system, which of these is a role of its component part, C3b? A) It acts as an enzyme to convert nitric oxide into hydrogen peroxide. B) It causes vasodilation of local blood vessels. C) It acts as a chemotaxin for macrophages. D) It stimulates the conversion of monocytes to neutrophils. E) It acts as an opsonin that is recognized by phagocytes targeting the microbe for destruction. 13) Which applies to the classical complement pathway, but NOT to the alternative complement pathway? A) Activation of C3 results in the formation of C3b. B) There is a cascade of proteins activated, which results in the killing of microbes. C) Complement proteins serve as opsonins that facilitate phagocyte binding to microbes. D) Antibodies activate the first complement protein (C1). E) Complement activation leads to the development of a multiunit protein called the membrane attack complex (MAC). 14) Colony-stimulating factors are produced by _ and target cells in the which results in . A) macrophages; bone marrow; proliferation of neutrophils and monocytes B) B cells; thymus; conversion of B cells to T cells C) NK cells; blood vessel walls; vasodilation D) monocytes; blood vessel walls; vasoconstriction E) basophils; bone marrow; release of histamine
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15) One therapy option for an individual with hepatitis C virus is a drug that mimics the action of interferons. Which would be NOT true in a patient taking this drug? A) Many cells of the body will increase their cellular production of antiviral proteins. B) The patient will have increased immunity to viral infections. C) The patient may have increased immunity to the progression of cancer tumors. D) The patient will have increased immunity to bacterial infections. E) None of these are true.
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16) Which of the following statements regarding the lymphoid organs is NOT true? A) The primary lymphoid organs are the bone marrow and thymus. B) The thymus secretes protein hormones, collectively called thymopoietins. C) Large numbers of macrophages and lymphocytes are found in the lymph nodes and spleen. D) The tonsils contain lymphocytes, macrophages, and dendritic cells that respond to microbes in food. E) Once a lymphocyte reaches a secondary lymphoid organ, it remains there for its lifetime. 17) You're working in a clinical lab and your boss has asked you to run a test on a patient's MHC Class I molecules. You need to isolate some cells from her collected tissues that express the Class I proteins. Which of the following cell types would you NOT use? A) Red blood cells B) Liver cells C) Neurons D) Skeletal muscle cells E) Intestinal epithelial cells 18) Your patient has a normal helper T cell count, but very little helper T cell activity. Which of the following scenarios may explain this observation? A) She has a mutation in her MHC II proteins making them ineffective. B) She has low antibody activity. C) She has a mutation in the gene for perforin and makes an ineffective version of this molecule. D) She is HIV positive. E) None of these answers would explain the observations seen in this patient. 19) Cytotoxic T cells A) secrete perforin, which kills bacteria and viruses by perforating the membrane or coat that surrounds them. B) are activated by interleukin 1. C) require Class I MHC proteins to recognize foreign antigens. D) are converted to plasma cells when activated by MHC proteins. E) secrete proteins that neutralize bacterial toxins. 20) Michael has a rare immunological condition that prevents B cell maturation. His doctors first diagnosed him by looking at the levels of secreted immune factors in the blood. Which of the following secreted factors was missing in Michael's blood? A) Type 2 interferons B) Interleukin 2 C) Type 1 interferons D) Colony-stimulating factors E) Antibodies
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21) The bacteria Mycobacterium tuberculosis has the ability to prevent lysosomal fusion in macrophages. After phagocytosis where would this microbe be found in the macrophage? A) Autosomes B) Ribosomes C) Free in the cytoplasm D) Mitochondria E) Phagosomes 22) Natural killer cells A) are activated by IL-2 and interferon-gamma. B) only attack bacteria. C) cannot interact with antibodies. D) secrete interferon-gamma to activate helper T-cells. E) have primary responsibility for mass-manufacturing antibodies against foreign antigens. 23) Which is NOT a function performed by activated macrophages? A) They perform phagocytosis. B) They secrete cell-killing chemicals. C) They present antigens to T-cells. D) They secrete cytokines involved in inflammation. E) They produce antibodies that bind to specific antigens. 24) Lupus is a disease in which the immune system makes antibodies that target the person's own tissues, targeting them for destruction by the immune system. Which of the following might be a useful drug therapy for lupus? A) A drug that inhibits cytotoxic T cells B) A drug that inhibits all cytokines C) A drug that inhibits B cells D) A drug that inhibits all cholesterol synthesis in the body E) A drug that inhibits phagocytosis 25) You have just been prescribed a drug that inhibits antibody production. Which other functions of the immune response may also be affected? A) Inflammation B) Complement C) Cytokine secretion by helper T cells D) None of these E) Phagocytosis 26) When an antigen is bound to an antibody, it binds to A) the heavy immunoglobulin chain only. B) the light immunoglobulin chain only. C) a specific antigen-binding site formed by heavy and light chains. D) a hypervariable region of immunoglobulin DNA. E) gamma immunoglobulin only.
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27) B cells that differentiate during an initial immune response but remain dormant until being activated during a subsequent exposure to an antigen are called A) T cells. B) memory cells. C) macrophages. D) monocytes. E) cytokines. 28) A drug company produces an anti-venom for snake bites and terms it "snake rescue gamma globulin." The anti-venom is probably made from which type of antibody? A) IgM B) IgE C) IgG D) IgA E) Could be any of these 29) Which of these correctly describes a systemic response to infection? A) Appetite generally increases compared to normal. B) The body's set point temperature is reset so that body temperature is maintained lower than normal. C) The liver retains iron and zinc so plasma levels are decreased from normal. D) There is reduced breakdown of triglycerides in adiopse tissue and a decrease in plasma free fatty acids compared to normal. E) Secretion of cortisol by the adrenal cortex is decreased. 30) Which of the following is NOT a systemic effect of IL-1 in response to infection or tissue injury? A) Induce fever B) Increased IL-2 receptor expression C) Stimulate inflammation D) Secretion of acute-phase proteins by the liver E) Stimulation of natural killer cells 31) Which is NOT true about AIDS? A) It is caused by a retrovirus. B) It is caused by a virus that contains RNA. C) It is transmitted by intimate contact with infected blood, sexual intercourse with an infected partner, or by an infected mother to her breast-fed infant. D) Certain unusual cancers such as Kaposi's sarcoma co-occur with relatively high frequency. E) The HIV virus preferentially enters and disables B cells.
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32) Which two cell types are primarily responsible for graft rejection? A) B cells and helper T cells B) Natural killer cells and B cells C) Marcrophages and natural killer cells D) Cytotoxic T cells and helper T cells E) B cells and plasma cells 33) Which is typically present in a person with type O blood? A) Erythrocytes carrying type A antigen B) Erythrocytes carrying type B antigen C) Both anti-A and anti-B antibodies in the plasma D) Erythrocytes with both type A antigen and type B antigen E) Plasma that has neither anti-A nor anti-B antibodies 34) Which of the following statements regarding blood-type incompatibilities between a mother and her fetus is TRUE? A) An Rh-negative fetus may be at risk if its mother is Rh-positive. B) An Rh-positive fetus may be at risk if its mother is Rh-negative. C) A fetus with type B blood may be at risk if its mother has type O blood. D) The risk to an Rh-positive fetus of an Rh-negative mother is lessened if she has previously carried an Rh-negative fetus. E) The greatest risk to a fetus occurs when both mother and fetus are Rh-positive. 35) Which type of allergy/hypersensitivity occurs independent of antibodies? A) Immune-complex hypersensitivity B) Immediate hypersensitivity C) Cytotoxic hypersensitivity D) Delayed hypersensitivity 36) Autoimmune diseases are usually treated with drugs that suppress the immune system. Which of the following diseases would NOT benefit from these immunosuppressive drugs? A) AIDS B) Multiple sclerosis C) Myasthenia gravis D) Rheumatoid arthritis E) Type 1 diabetes mellitus 37) Individuals who have been infected by the human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) A) always manifest symptoms early in the disease process. B) can be diagnosed only when they develop certain rare forms of cancer. C) succumb to the disease in a relatively brief period of time after infection due to massive loss of B lymphocytes. D) generally are diagnosed by detection of anti-HIV antibodies or HIV RNA in their blood. E) have normal B-cell and cytotoxic T-cell function.
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38) Which of the following is NOT normally a route of transmission of HIV/AIDS? A) Unprotected sexual intercourse with an infected partner B) Kissing or contact with items contaminated by the saliva of an infected individual C) Across the placenta from an infected mother to her fetus during pregnancy or delivery D) Via breast milk during lactation E) Transfer of contaminated blood or blood products from one person to another 39) The rationale behind the drugs used to treat HIV/AIDS is to reduce the replication of the virus and therefore prevent the infection of remaining healthy cells. Which of these is NOT a therapy that acts in this way? A) Inhibition of the reverse transcriptase enzyme B) Interference with the processes involved in expression of viral nucleic acid by the host cell C) Blocking an alpha protease enzyme associated with the assembly of the virus D) Chemical agents directed at interruption of mitosis in host cells for the virus E) Blocking the attachment and fusion of the HIV viruses with T lymphocyte host cells 40) A drug that completely inhibits the production of antibodies will have no effect on phagocytosis. 41) Antibody production remains unaffected in a patient with advanced AIDS. 42) HIV infection can be stalled with the use of powerful antibiotics. 43) Immune surveillance refers to the search for and destruction of bacteria in the blood. 44) The body's first line of defense against invasion by microbes are physical and chemical barriers. 45) The local response to injury in the body is called infection. 46) One mechanism for inhibiting inflammation would be a drug that blocks the release of histamine. 47) A consequence of inflammation is increased capillary filtration and edema, which causes swelling and pain. 48) A chemical that causes binding of a phagocyte to a microbe is called a chemotaxin. 49) A phagocyte can kill a microbe only after phagocytosis. 50) Adaptive immune responses differ from innate immune responses in that the former are mediated by lymphocytes. 51) An adult with their thymus removed would have a marked decline in B cell maturation and B cell effector responses.
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52) Bone marrow is the primary site of B lymphocyte maturation. 53) T lymphocytes mature primarily in the thymus. 54) Antibody-mediated responses are most effective when the B cell and pathogen are in the same tissue and have physical contact with each other. 55) In cell-mediated immune responses, immune cells directly kill antigen-bearing cells. 56) You would like to see what infections a patient has been fighting recently; one way to do this is to isolate cytotoxic T cells and look into their phagosomes to see what pathogens they have been engulfing through phagocytosis. 57) Helper T cells bind to antigen complexes with class II MHC proteins, while cytotoxic T cells bind to antigen complexes with class I MHC proteins. 58) Helper T cells are important only for cell-mediated immune responses. 59) Unlike cytotoxic T cells, natural killer cells do not require antigen to be complexed with class I MHC proteins in order to bind to the antigen. 60) A person who receives a vaccine made from killed virus particles will, if the vaccination is successful, acquire passive immunity against that virus. 61) The primary difference between active and passive immunity is that in active immunity, antibodies are produced in response to the presence of an antigen, while in passive immunity, pre-formed antibodies are provided from one person to another. 62) An infant fed with formula will have less passive immunity than a breast-fed infant. 63) HIV preferentially attacks cytotoxic T cells. 64) Drugs that block the production of cytokines, like cyclosporin, may be useful for treating autoimmune disorders. 65) A person with type B blood can generally accept a transfusion of type AB blood. 66) People lacking Rh factor are born with circulating antibodies against it. 67) The first pregnancy of an Rh-negative woman with an Rh-positive fetus would be at a higher risk for developing hemolytic disease of the newborn if the woman had received multiple Rhpositive blood transfusions in the past. 68) Passive immunization of an Rh-negative woman with anti-Rh factor antibodies within a few hours of giving birth to an Rh-positive baby is helpful in preventing hemolytic disease of the newborn in a subsequent pregnancy. 9 Copyright 2019 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.
69) Elizabeth has a skin condition called eczema and has multiple breaks in the skin of her hands. Due to this, Elizabeth is at an increased risk of infections. 70) A patient with AIDS would be likely to react to an infection with a greater elevation of plasma cortisol than a person without the disease. 71) Treatment of individuals with HIV infection focuses upon early detection by interfering with the processes involved in replication and assembly of the virus by T lymphocytes, rather than attacking infected host cells directly. 72) The appearance of the signs and symptoms of AIDS in an HIV-infected individual generally appear after the virus has had enough time to replicate within host tissue cells and to cause death and destruction of cells critical to mounting a normal immune response. 73) Which of the following are types of lymphocytes? A) T cells B) Macrophages C) Monocytes D) Erythrocytes E) Natural killer cells 74) In a patient receiving a bone marrow transplant which of the following cell types will be genetically dissimilar than the patient's own cells? A) Neutrophils B) Basophils C) Monocytes D) Endothelial cells E) Thymus tissue cells 75) Which of the following cells of the immune system are capable of phagocytosis? A) Macrophages B) Neutrophils C) Dendritic cells D) Basophils E) T lymphocytes
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Vander's Human Physiology, 15e (Widmaier) Chapter 18 The Immune System 1) The immune system destroys or neutralizes A) bacteria. B) viruses. C) nonmicrobial foreign substances. D) cancer cells that arise in the body. E) All of the choices are correct. Answer: E Section: 18.01 Topic: Nonspecific immunity; Adaptive immunity Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module L04 Introduction to innate (nonspecific) defenses and adaptive (specific) defenses. HAPS Outcome: L04.02 Define immunity and the immune system. 2) Which is NOT true about viruses? A) They consist of a nucleic acid surrounded by a carbohydrate shell. B) They require a host cell in order to reproduce themselves. C) They may reside in a host cell for years without killing it. D) They may cause a host cell to become cancerous. E) They may have genetic information in the form of RNA. Answer: A Section: 18.01 Topic: Nonspecific immunity; Adaptive immunity Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module L07 Antigens and antigen processing. HAPS Outcome: L07.01 Define antigen and antigen receptor. 3) The killing of cancerous cells by the immune system is called A) immune oversight. B) immune surveillance. C) tissue immunity. D) phagocytosis. E) hemostasis. Answer: B Section: 18.01 Topic: Adaptive immunity Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module L04 Introduction to innate (nonspecific) defenses and adaptive (specific) defenses. HAPS Outcome: L04.02 Define immunity and the immune system. 1 Copyright 2019 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.
4) Which is TRUE regarding the immune system cells? A) Plasma cells are derived from T cells. B) Macrophages are derived from basophils. C) Macrophages are derived from monocytes. D) The immune cells found within the bloodstream are called erythrocytes. E) Neutrophils are classified as lymphoid cells. Answer: C Section: 18.01 Topic: Lymphocytes and their role in adaptive immunity Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module K03 Identity, microscopic anatomy, numbers, formation, and functional roles of the formed elements of blood. HAPS Outcome: L04.03 Describe the roles of various types of leukocytes in innate and adaptive body defenses. 5) Which of the following statements regarding the chemical mediators of inflammatory responses is NOT true? A) They may be secreted by cells residing in the area of injury. B) The may be secreted by cells that enter the affected area. C) They may be generated by enzymatic cleavage of proteins in plasma. D) They are all peptides. E) They may be chemotaxins. Answer: D Section: 18.02 Topic: Nonspecific immunity Bloom's: Level 3. Apply HAPS Topic: Module L05 Innate (nonspecific) defenses. HAPS Outcome: L05.07b Summarize the cells and chemicals involved in the inflammatory process.
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6) In a patient taking a hypothetical immunosuppressive drug, all adaptive responses are inhibited. All innate immune responses are still functional, although some are reduced in strength. While taking this drug, which of the following events will still occur in response to infection? A) Antigen interaction with lymphocytes B) Production of antibodies that bind to antigens C) B-cell differentiation into plasma cells D) Vasodilation of local blood vessels E) Activation of lymphocytes Answer: D Section: 18.02; 18.03 Topic: Nonspecific immunity; Adaptive immunity Bloom's: Level 3. Apply HAPS Topic: Module L05 Innate (nonspecific) defenses.; Module L06 Overview of adaptive (specific) defenses. HAPS Outcome: L04.01 Compare and contrast innate (nonspecific) defenses with adaptive (specific) defenses. 7) Chemotaxis A) refers to the chemical attraction of neutrophils to a site of inflammation. B) is important only for innate immune responses. C) is important only for adaptive immune responses. D) refers to the engulfing of microbes and foreign molecules by macrophages. E) refers to dilation of blood vessels by chemicals released by damaged tissue cells. Answer: A Section: 18.02; 18.03 Topic: Nonspecific immunity Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module L05 Innate (nonspecific) defenses.; Module K03 Identity, microscopic anatomy, numbers, formation, and functional roles of the formed elements of blood. HAPS Outcome: L05.02 Define diapedesis, chemotaxis, opsonization, and membrane attack complex and explain their importance for innate defenses.
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8) Which of the following cell types binds to antigens on plasma membranes of target cells and directly destroys the cells? A) Neutrophils B) NK cells C) Cytotoxic T cells (CD8 cells) D) Helper T cells (CD4 cells) E) B cells Answer: C Section: 18.01; 18.03 Topic: Adaptive immunity; Lymphocytes and their role in adaptive immunity Bloom's: Level 4. Analyze HAPS Topic: Module L06 Overview of adaptive (specific) defenses.; Module L08 Lymphocytes and their role in adaptive immunity. HAPS Outcome: L08.01 Distinguish among the various types of lymphocytes, including helper T cells, cytotoxic T cells, regulatory (or suppressor) T cells, B cells, plasma cells, and memory cells. 9) Which of the following statements regarding phagocytes and phagocytosis is TRUE? A) Macrophages, monocytes, and mast cells are phagocytes. B) Contact of phagocytes with microbes stimulates the phagocytes to release chemicals that mediate the inflammatory response. C) Phagocytosis is stimulated by the presence of proteins called rhodopsins. D) Phagocytosis is the process by which leukocytes exit the bloodstream. E) Phagocytosis is a process that only occurs within the bloodstream. Answer: B Section: 18.01; 18.02 Topic: Antigens and antigen processing Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module L05 Innate (nonspecific) defenses. HAPS Outcome: L05.03 Describe the steps involved in phagocytosis and provide examples of important phagocytic cells in the body.; L05.07b Summarize the cells and chemicals involved in the inflammatory process.
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10) Which of the following statements regarding phagocytosis is TRUE? A) Macrophages are the only phagocytes in human tissues. B) The microbe engulfed by the phagocyte is killed by lysosomal enzymes and hydrogen peroxide. C) Phagocytosis is controlled by a negative feedback mechanism whereby phagocytes release chemicals that inhibit further phagocytosis. D) The microbe engulfed by the phagocyte is killed by the membrane attack complex (MAC). E) Antibodies found inside lysosomes attack and kill microbes that are engulfed by phagocytosis. Answer: B Section: 18.01; 18.02; 18.03 Topic: Nonspecific immunity Bloom's: Level 2. Understand HAPS Topic: Module L05 Innate (nonspecific) defenses. HAPS Outcome: L05.03 Describe the steps involved in phagocytosis and provide examples of important phagocytic cells in the body. 11) Which of the following statements regarding complement is FALSE? A) Certain complement proteins are always circulating in the blood in an inactive state. B) Activated complement can form a membrane attack complex, which forms pores in microbe membranes. C) Activated complement can stimulate cells to secrete inflammation-mediating chemicals. D) The complement pathway is always dependent upon activation of the first complement protein, C1. E) Some activated complement proteins activate other complement proteins. Answer: D Section: 18.02; 18.03 Topic: Nonspecific immunity Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module L05 Innate (nonspecific) defenses. HAPS Outcome: L05.02 Define diapedesis, chemotaxis, opsonization, and membrane attack complex and explain their importance for innate defenses.; L05.05 Explain how complement and interferon function as antimicrobial chemicals.
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12) After activation of C3 of the complement system, which of these is a role of its component part, C3b? A) It acts as an enzyme to convert nitric oxide into hydrogen peroxide. B) It causes vasodilation of local blood vessels. C) It acts as a chemotaxin for macrophages. D) It stimulates the conversion of monocytes to neutrophils. E) It acts as an opsonin that is recognized by phagocytes targeting the microbe for destruction. Answer: E Section: 18.02; 18.03 Topic: Nonspecific immunity Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module L05 Innate (nonspecific) defenses. HAPS Outcome: L05.02 Define diapedesis, chemotaxis, opsonization, and membrane attack complex and explain their importance for innate defenses.; L05.05 Explain how complement and interferon function as antimicrobial chemicals. 13) Which applies to the classical complement pathway, but NOT to the alternative complement pathway? A) Activation of C3 results in the formation of C3b. B) There is a cascade of proteins activated, which results in the killing of microbes. C) Complement proteins serve as opsonins that facilitate phagocyte binding to microbes. D) Antibodies activate the first complement protein (C1). E) Complement activation leads to the development of a multiunit protein called the membrane attack complex (MAC). Answer: D Section: 18.02; 18.03 Topic: Adaptive immunity Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module L06 Overview of adaptive (specific) defenses.; Module L09 Antibodies and their role in adaptive immunity. HAPS Outcome: L05.02 Define diapedesis, chemotaxis, opsonization, and membrane attack complex and explain their importance for innate defenses.; L05.05 Explain how complement and interferon function as antimicrobial chemicals.
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14) Colony-stimulating factors are produced by _ and target cells in the which results in . A) macrophages; bone marrow; proliferation of neutrophils and monocytes B) B cells; thymus; conversion of B cells to T cells C) NK cells; blood vessel walls; vasodilation D) monocytes; blood vessel walls; vasoconstriction E) basophils; bone marrow; release of histamine
,
Answer: A Section: 18.01 Topic: Nonspecific immunity Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module L05 Innate (nonspecific) defenses.; Module K03 Identity, microscopic anatomy, numbers, formation, and functional roles of the formed elements of blood. HAPS Outcome: L04.03 Describe the roles of various types of leukocytes in innate and adaptive body defenses. 15) One therapy option for an individual with hepatitis C virus is a drug that mimics the action of interferons. Which would be NOT true in a patient taking this drug? A) Many cells of the body will increase their cellular production of antiviral proteins. B) The patient will have increased immunity to viral infections. C) The patient may have increased immunity to the progression of cancer tumors. D) The patient will have increased immunity to bacterial infections. E) None of these are true. Answer: D Section: 18.02 Topic: Nonspecific immunity Bloom's: Level 3. Apply HAPS Topic: Module L05 Innate (nonspecific) defenses. HAPS Outcome: L05.05 Explain how complement and interferon function as antimicrobial chemicals.
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16) Which of the following statements regarding the lymphoid organs is NOT true? A) The primary lymphoid organs are the bone marrow and thymus. B) The thymus secretes protein hormones, collectively called thymopoietins. C) Large numbers of macrophages and lymphocytes are found in the lymph nodes and spleen. D) The tonsils contain lymphocytes, macrophages, and dendritic cells that respond to microbes in food. E) Once a lymphocyte reaches a secondary lymphoid organ, it remains there for its lifetime. Answer: E Section: 18.03 Topic: Lymphocytes and their role in adaptive immunity Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module L03 Lymphatic cells, tissues, and organs.; Module L08 Lymphocytes and their role in adaptive immunity. HAPS Outcome: L03.02d Describe the function of the lymph nodes, thymus, spleen, tonsils and other aggregations of mucosae-associated lymphatic tissue (MALT).; L08.02b In relation to B cells and T cells, compare and contrast the sites where the cells originate and achieve their immunocompetence, and the primary location of the immunocompetent cells in the body. 17) You're working in a clinical lab and your boss has asked you to run a test on a patient's MHC Class I molecules. You need to isolate some cells from her collected tissues that express the Class I proteins. Which of the following cell types would you NOT use? A) Red blood cells B) Liver cells C) Neurons D) Skeletal muscle cells E) Intestinal epithelial cells Answer: A Section: 18.03 Topic: Adaptive immunity Bloom's: Level 3. Apply HAPS Topic: Module L06 Overview of adaptive (specific) defenses. HAPS Outcome: L07.03b Describe where class I and class II major histocompatibility complex (MHC) and MHC proteins are found.
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18) Your patient has a normal helper T cell count, but very little helper T cell activity. Which of the following scenarios may explain this observation? A) She has a mutation in her MHC II proteins making them ineffective. B) She has low antibody activity. C) She has a mutation in the gene for perforin and makes an ineffective version of this molecule. D) She is HIV positive. E) None of these answers would explain the observations seen in this patient. Answer: A Section: 18.03 Topic: Lymphocytes and their role in adaptive immunity Bloom's: Level 4. Analyze HAPS Topic: Module L07 Antigens and antigen processing.; Module L08 Lymphocytes and their role in adaptive immunity. HAPS Outcome: L07.05 Explain the role of antigen-presenting cells (APCs) and provide examples of cells that function as APCs.; L08.01 Distinguish among the various types of lymphocytes, including helper T cells, cytotoxic T cells, regulatory (or suppressor) T cells, B cells, plasma cells, and memory cells.; L07.03c Explain the function of class I and class II major histocompatibility complex (MHC) in adaptive immunity. 19) Cytotoxic T cells A) secrete perforin, which kills bacteria and viruses by perforating the membrane or coat that surrounds them. B) are activated by interleukin 1. C) require Class I MHC proteins to recognize foreign antigens. D) are converted to plasma cells when activated by MHC proteins. E) secrete proteins that neutralize bacterial toxins. Answer: C Section: 18.03 Topic: Adaptive immunity; Lymphocytes and their role in adaptive immunity Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module L07 Antigens and antigen processing.; Module L08 Lymphocytes and their role in adaptive immunity. HAPS Outcome: L07.05 Explain the role of antigen-presenting cells (APCs) and provide examples of cells that function as APCs.; L08.01 Distinguish among the various types of lymphocytes, including helper T cells, cytotoxic T cells, regulatory (or suppressor) T cells, B cells, plasma cells, and memory cells.; L08.02d In relation to B cells and T cells, compare and contrast the defense mechanisms and functions.
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20) Michael has a rare immunological condition that prevents B cell maturation. His doctors first diagnosed him by looking at the levels of secreted immune factors in the blood. Which of the following secreted factors was missing in Michael's blood? A) Type 2 interferons B) Interleukin 2 C) Type 1 interferons D) Colony-stimulating factors E) Antibodies Answer: B Section: 18.01 Topic: Nonspecific immunity Bloom's: Level 3. Apply HAPS Topic: Module L05 Innate (nonspecific) defenses. HAPS Outcome: L08.02d In relation to B cells and T cells, compare and contrast the defense mechanisms and functions.; L04.03 Describe the roles of various types of leukocytes in innate and adaptive body defenses. 21) The bacteria Mycobacterium tuberculosis has the ability to prevent lysosomal fusion in macrophages. After phagocytosis where would this microbe be found in the macrophage? A) Autosomes B) Ribosomes C) Free in the cytoplasm D) Mitochondria E) Phagosomes Answer: E Section: 18.02 Topic: Nonspecific immunity Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module L05 Innate (nonspecific) defenses. HAPS Outcome: L05.03 Describe the steps involved in phagocytosis and provide examples of important phagocytic cells in the body.
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22) Natural killer cells A) are activated by IL-2 and interferon-gamma. B) only attack bacteria. C) cannot interact with antibodies. D) secrete interferon-gamma to activate helper T-cells. E) have primary responsibility for mass-manufacturing antibodies against foreign antigens. Answer: A Section: 18.01; 18.03 Topic: Nonspecific immunity; Lymphocytes and their role in adaptive immunity Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module L08 Lymphocytes and their role in adaptive immunity. HAPS Outcome: L05.04 Describe natural killer cells and discuss their function. 23) Which is NOT a function performed by activated macrophages? A) They perform phagocytosis. B) They secrete cell-killing chemicals. C) They present antigens to T-cells. D) They secrete cytokines involved in inflammation. E) They produce antibodies that bind to specific antigens. Answer: E Section: 18.03 Topic: Nonspecific immunity; Adaptive immunity Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module L05 Innate (nonspecific) defenses.; Module L06 Overview of adaptive (specific) defenses. HAPS Outcome: L04.03 Describe the roles of various types of leukocytes in innate and adaptive body defenses.
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24) Lupus is a disease in which the immune system makes antibodies that target the person's own tissues, targeting them for destruction by the immune system. Which of the following might be a useful drug therapy for lupus? A) A drug that inhibits cytotoxic T cells B) A drug that inhibits all cytokines C) A drug that inhibits B cells D) A drug that inhibits all cholesterol synthesis in the body E) A drug that inhibits phagocytosis Answer: C Section: 18.03 Topic: Antibodies and their role in adaptive immunity Bloom's: Level 3. Apply HAPS Topic: Module L09 Antibodies and their role in adaptive immunity. HAPS Outcome: L09.03 List the five classes of antibodies and discuss structural and functional features that distinguish each class.; L06.01 Distinguish between humoral and cell-mediated immunity. 25) You have just been prescribed a drug that inhibits antibody production. Which other functions of the immune response may also be affected? A) Inflammation B) Complement C) Cytokine secretion by helper T cells D) None of these E) Phagocytosis Answer: E Section: 18.02; 18.03 Topic: Antibodies and their role in adaptive immunity Bloom's: Level 3. Apply HAPS Topic: Module L09 Antibodies and their role in adaptive immunity. HAPS Outcome: L09.02 Describe mechanisms of antibody action and correlate mechanisms with effector functions.
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26) When an antigen is bound to an antibody, it binds to A) the heavy immunoglobulin chain only. B) the light immunoglobulin chain only. C) a specific antigen-binding site formed by heavy and light chains. D) a hypervariable region of immunoglobulin DNA. E) gamma immunoglobulin only. Answer: C Section: 18.03 Topic: Antibodies and their role in adaptive immunity Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module L07 Antigens and antigen processing.; Module L09 Antibodies and their role in adaptive immunity. HAPS Outcome: L07.01 Define antigen and antigen receptor.; L09.02 Describe mechanisms of antibody action and correlate mechanisms with effector functions. 27) B cells that differentiate during an initial immune response but remain dormant until being activated during a subsequent exposure to an antigen are called A) T cells. B) memory cells. C) macrophages. D) monocytes. E) cytokines. Answer: B Section: 18.03 Topic: Lymphocytes and their role in adaptive immunity Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module L08 Lymphocytes and their role in adaptive immunity. HAPS Outcome: L08.02d In relation to B cells and T cells, compare and contrast the defense mechanisms and functions.
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28) A drug company produces an anti-venom for snake bites and terms it "snake rescue gamma globulin." The anti-venom is probably made from which type of antibody? A) IgM B) IgE C) IgG D) IgA E) Could be any of these Answer: C Section: 18.03 Topic: Antibodies and their role in adaptive immunity Bloom's: Level 3. Apply HAPS Topic: Module L09 Antibodies and their role in adaptive immunity. HAPS Outcome: L09.03 List the five classes of antibodies and discuss structural and functional features that distinguish each class. 29) Which of these correctly describes a systemic response to infection? A) Appetite generally increases compared to normal. B) The body's set point temperature is reset so that body temperature is maintained lower than normal. C) The liver retains iron and zinc so plasma levels are decreased from normal. D) There is reduced breakdown of triglycerides in adiopse tissue and a decrease in plasma free fatty acids compared to normal. E) Secretion of cortisol by the adrenal cortex is decreased. Answer: C Section: 18.04 Topic: Nonspecific immunity Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module L11 Application of homeostatic mechanisms. HAPS Outcome: L11.02 Explain how the lymphatic and immune systems relate to other body systems to maintain homeostasis.
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30) Which of the following is NOT a systemic effect of IL-1 in response to infection or tissue injury? A) Induce fever B) Increased IL-2 receptor expression C) Stimulate inflammation D) Secretion of acute-phase proteins by the liver E) Stimulation of natural killer cells Answer: E Section: 18.04 Topic: Nonspecific immunity Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module L11 Application of homeostatic mechanisms. HAPS Outcome: L11.02 Explain how the lymphatic and immune systems relate to other body systems to maintain homeostasis. 31) Which is NOT true about AIDS? A) It is caused by a retrovirus. B) It is caused by a virus that contains RNA. C) It is transmitted by intimate contact with infected blood, sexual intercourse with an infected partner, or by an infected mother to her breast-fed infant. D) Certain unusual cancers such as Kaposi's sarcoma co-occur with relatively high frequency. E) The HIV virus preferentially enters and disables B cells. Answer: E Section: 18.05 Topic: Lymphocytes and their role in adaptive immunity Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module L12 Predictions related to homeostatic imbalance, including disease states and disorders. HAPS Outcome: L12.01 Predict factors or situations affecting the lymphatic and immune systems that could disrupt homeostasis.
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32) Which two cell types are primarily responsible for graft rejection? A) B cells and helper T cells B) Natural killer cells and B cells C) Marcrophages and natural killer cells D) Cytotoxic T cells and helper T cells E) B cells and plasma cells Answer: D Section: 18.06 Topic: Applied immunology Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module L10 Applied immunology. HAPS Outcome: L10.03 Provide examples of how applied immunology can be used to diagnose, treat and prevent. 33) Which is typically present in a person with type O blood? A) Erythrocytes carrying type A antigen B) Erythrocytes carrying type B antigen C) Both anti-A and anti-B antibodies in the plasma D) Erythrocytes with both type A antigen and type B antigen E) Plasma that has neither anti-A nor anti-B antibodies Answer: C Section: 18.06 Topic: Antibodies and their role in adaptive immunity Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module K05 ABO and Rh blood grouping. HAPS Outcome: K05.02 List the type of antigen and the type of antibodies present in each ABO blood type. 34) Which of the following statements regarding blood-type incompatibilities between a mother and her fetus is TRUE? A) An Rh-negative fetus may be at risk if its mother is Rh-positive. B) An Rh-positive fetus may be at risk if its mother is Rh-negative. C) A fetus with type B blood may be at risk if its mother has type O blood. D) The risk to an Rh-positive fetus of an Rh-negative mother is lessened if she has previously carried an Rh-negative fetus. E) The greatest risk to a fetus occurs when both mother and fetus are Rh-positive. Answer: B Section: 18.06 Topic: Applied immunology Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module L10 Applied immunology.; Module K05 ABO and Rh blood grouping. HAPS Outcome: K05.05 Predict which blood types are compatible and what happens when the incorrect ABO or Rh blood type is transfused. 16 Copyright 2019 © McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of McGraw-Hill Education.
35) Which type of allergy/hypersensitivity occurs independent of antibodies? A) Immune-complex hypersensitivity B) Immediate hypersensitivity C) Cytotoxic hypersensitivity D) Delayed hypersensitivity Answer: D Section: 18.06 Topic: Applied immunology Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module L10 Applied immunology. HAPS Outcome: L12.01 Predict factors or situations affecting the lymphatic and immune systems that could disrupt homeostasis. 36) Autoimmune diseases are usually treated with drugs that suppress the immune system. Which of the following diseases would NOT benefit from these immunosuppressive drugs? A) AIDS B) Multiple sclerosis C) Myasthenia gravis D) Rheumatoid arthritis E) Type 1 diabetes mellitus Answer: A Section: 18.06 Topic: Applied immunology Bloom's: Level 3. Apply HAPS Topic: Module L10 Applied immunology. HAPS Outcome: L12.01 Predict factors or situations affecting the lymphatic and immune systems that could disrupt homeostasis. 37) Individuals who have been infected by the human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) A) always manifest symptoms early in the disease process. B) can be diagnosed only when they develop certain rare forms of cancer. C) succumb to the disease in a relatively brief period of time after infection due to massive loss of B lymphocytes. D) generally are diagnosed by detection of anti-HIV antibodies or HIV RNA in their blood. E) have normal B-cell and cytotoxic T-cell function. Answer: D Section: 18.05 Topic: Applied immunology Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module L10 Applied immunology. HAPS Outcome: L10.03 Provide examples of how applied immunology can be used to diagnose, treat and prevent.
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38) Which of the following is NOT normally a route of transmission of HIV/AIDS? A) Unprotected sexual intercourse with an infected partner B) Kissing or contact with items contaminated by the saliva of an infected individual C) Across the placenta from an infected mother to her fetus during pregnancy or delivery D) Via breast milk during lactation E) Transfer of contaminated blood or blood products from one person to another Answer: B Section: 18.05 Topic: Applied immunology Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module L10 Applied immunology. HAPS Outcome: L10.03 Provide examples of how applied immunology can be used to diagnose, treat and prevent. 39) The rationale behind the drugs used to treat HIV/AIDS is to reduce the replication of the virus and therefore prevent the infection of remaining healthy cells. Which of these is NOT a therapy that acts in this way? A) Inhibition of the reverse transcriptase enzyme B) Interference with the processes involved in expression of viral nucleic acid by the host cell C) Blocking an alpha protease enzyme associated with the assembly of the virus D) Chemical agents directed at interruption of mitosis in host cells for the virus E) Blocking the attachment and fusion of the HIV viruses with T lymphocyte host cells Answer: D Section: 18.05 Topic: Applied immunology Bloom's: Level 2. Understand HAPS Topic: Module L10 Applied immunology. HAPS Outcome: L10.03 Provide examples of how applied immunology can be used to diagnose, treat and prevent. 40) A drug that completely inhibits the production of antibodies will have no effect on phagocytosis. Answer: FALSE Section: 18.01; 18.02; 18.03 Topic: Nonspecific immunity Bloom's: Level 3. Apply HAPS Topic: Module L05 Innate (nonspecific) defenses. HAPS Outcome: L05.03 Describe the steps involved in phagocytosis and provide examples of important phagocytic cells in the body.
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41) Antibody production remains unaffected in a patient with advanced AIDS. Answer: FALSE Section: 18.03 Topic: Adaptive immunity; Antibodies and their role in adaptive immunity Bloom's: Level 3. Apply HAPS Topic: Module L08 Lymphocytes and their role in adaptive immunity.; Module L09 Antibodies and their role in adaptive immunity. HAPS Outcome: L08.01 Distinguish among the various types of lymphocytes, including helper T cells, cytotoxic T cells, regulatory (or suppressor) T cells, B cells, plasma cells, and memory cells.; L09.02 Describe mechanisms of antibody action and correlate mechanisms with effector functions. 42) HIV infection can be stalled with the use of powerful antibiotics. Answer: FALSE Section: 18.05 Topic: Applied immunology Bloom's: Level 3. Apply HAPS Topic: Module L10 Applied immunology. HAPS Outcome: L10.03 Provide examples of how applied immunology can be used to diagnose, treat and prevent. 43) Immune surveillance refers to the search for and destruction of bacteria in the blood. Answer: FALSE Section: 18.01 Topic: Nonspecific immunity Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module L05 Innate (nonspecific) defenses. HAPS Outcome: L04.01 Compare and contrast innate (nonspecific) defenses with adaptive (specific) defenses. 44) The body's first line of defense against invasion by microbes are physical and chemical barriers. Answer: TRUE Section: 18.02 Topic: Nonspecific immunity Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module L05 Innate (nonspecific) defenses. HAPS Outcome: L05.01 Name the surface membrane barriers and describe their physical, chemical, and microbiological mechanisms of defense.
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45) The local response to injury in the body is called infection. Answer: FALSE Section: 18.02 Topic: Nonspecific immunity Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module L05 Innate (nonspecific) defenses. HAPS Outcome: L05.01 Name the surface membrane barriers and describe their physical, chemical, and microbiological mechanisms of defense. 46) One mechanism for inhibiting inflammation would be a drug that blocks the release of histamine. Answer: TRUE Section: 18.02 Topic: Nonspecific immunity Bloom's: Level 2. Understand HAPS Topic: Module L05 Innate (nonspecific) defenses. HAPS Outcome: L05.07b Summarize the cells and chemicals involved in the inflammatory process. 47) A consequence of inflammation is increased capillary filtration and edema, which causes swelling and pain. Answer: TRUE Section: 18.02 Topic: Nonspecific immunity Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module L05 Innate (nonspecific) defenses. HAPS Outcome: L05.07c and explain the cause of the four cardinal signs of inflammation. 48) A chemical that causes binding of a phagocyte to a microbe is called a chemotaxin. Answer: FALSE Section: 18.02 Topic: Nonspecific immunity Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module L05 Innate (nonspecific) defenses. HAPS Outcome: L05.02 Define diapedesis, chemotaxis, opsonization, and membrane attack complex and explain their importance for innate defenses.
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49) A phagocyte can kill a microbe only after phagocytosis. Answer: FALSE Section: 18.02 Topic: Nonspecific immunity Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module L05 Innate (nonspecific) defenses. HAPS Outcome: L05.03 Describe the steps involved in phagocytosis and provide examples of important phagocytic cells in the body. 50) Adaptive immune responses differ from innate immune responses in that the former are mediated by lymphocytes. Answer: TRUE Section: 18.02; 18.03 Topic: Nonspecific immunity; Adaptive immunity Bloom's: Level 2. Understand HAPS Topic: Module L04 Introduction to innate (nonspecific) defenses and adaptive (specific) defenses. HAPS Outcome: L04.01 Compare and contrast innate (nonspecific) defenses with adaptive (specific) defenses. 51) An adult with their thymus removed would have a marked decline in B cell maturation and B cell effector responses. Answer: FALSE Section: 18.03 Topic: Lymphocytes and their role in adaptive immunity Bloom's: Level 3. Apply HAPS Topic: Module L08 Lymphocytes and their role in adaptive immunity. HAPS Outcome: L08.02b In relation to B cells and T cells, compare and contrast the sites where the cells originate and achieve their immunocompetence, and the primary location of the immunocompetent cells in the body. 52) Bone marrow is the primary site of B lymphocyte maturation. Answer: TRUE Section: 18.03 Topic: Lymphocytes and their role in adaptive immunity Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module L08 Lymphocytes and their role in adaptive immunity. HAPS Outcome: L08.02b In relation to B cells and T cells, compare and contrast the sites where the cells originate and achieve their immunocompetence, and the primary location of the immunocompetent cells in the body.
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53) T lymphocytes mature primarily in the thymus. Answer: TRUE Section: 18.03 Topic: Lymphocytes and their role in adaptive immunity Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module L08 Lymphocytes and their role in adaptive immunity. HAPS Outcome: L08.02b In relation to B cells and T cells, compare and contrast the sites where the cells originate and achieve their immunocompetence, and the primary location of the immunocompetent cells in the body. 54) Antibody-mediated responses are most effective when the B cell and pathogen are in the same tissue and have physical contact with each other. Answer: FALSE Section: 18.03 Topic: Adaptive immunity; Antibodies and their role in adaptive immunity Bloom's: Level 2. Understand HAPS Topic: Module L08 Lymphocytes and their role in adaptive immunity.; Module L09 Antibodies and their role in adaptive immunity. HAPS Outcome: L08.01 Distinguish among the various types of lymphocytes, including helper T cells, cytotoxic T cells, regulatory (or suppressor) T cells, B cells, plasma cells, and memory cells.; L09.02 Describe mechanisms of antibody action and correlate mechanisms with effector functions.; L06.01 Distinguish between humoral and cell-mediated immunity. 55) In cell-mediated immune responses, immune cells directly kill antigen-bearing cells. Answer: TRUE Section: 18.03 Topic: Adaptive immunity Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module L08 Lymphocytes and their role in adaptive immunity. HAPS Outcome: L08.01 Distinguish among the various types of lymphocytes, including helper T cells, cytotoxic T cells, regulatory (or suppressor) T cells, B cells, plasma cells, and memory cells.; L08.02d In relation to B cells and T cells, compare and contrast the defense mechanisms and functions.
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56) You would like to see what infections a patient has been fighting recently; one way to do this is to isolate cytotoxic T cells and look into their phagosomes to see what pathogens they have been engulfing through phagocytosis. Answer: FALSE Section: 18.03 Topic: Lymphocytes and their role in adaptive immunity Bloom's: Level 3. Apply HAPS Topic: Module L08 Lymphocytes and their role in adaptive immunity. HAPS Outcome: L08.01 Distinguish among the various types of lymphocytes, including helper T cells, cytotoxic T cells, regulatory (or suppressor) T cells, B cells, plasma cells, and memory cells.; L08.02d In relation to B cells and T cells, compare and contrast the defense mechanisms and functions. 57) Helper T cells bind to antigen complexes with class II MHC proteins, while cytotoxic T cells bind to antigen complexes with class I MHC proteins. Answer: TRUE Section: 18.03 Topic: Lymphocytes and their role in adaptive immunity Bloom's: Level 2. Understand HAPS Topic: Module L07 Antigens and antigen processing.; Module L08 Lymphocytes and their role in adaptive immunity. HAPS Outcome: L08.01 Distinguish among the various types of lymphocytes, including helper T cells, cytotoxic T cells, regulatory (or suppressor) T cells, B cells, plasma cells, and memory cells.; L07.03c Explain the function of class I and class II major histocompatibility complex (MHC) in adaptive immunity. 58) Helper T cells are important only for cell-mediated immune responses. Answer: FALSE Section: 18.03 Topic: Lymphocytes and their role in adaptive immunity Bloom's: Level 2. Understand HAPS Topic: Module L08 Lymphocytes and their role in adaptive immunity. HAPS Outcome: L08.01 Distinguish among the various types of lymphocytes, including helper T cells, cytotoxic T cells, regulatory (or suppressor) T cells, B cells, plasma cells, and memory cells.
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59) Unlike cytotoxic T cells, natural killer cells do not require antigen to be complexed with class I MHC proteins in order to bind to the antigen. Answer: TRUE Section: 18.03 Topic: Nonspecific immunity; Antigens and antigen processing; Lymphocytes and their role in adaptive immunity Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module L05 Innate (nonspecific) defenses.; Module L07 Antigens and antigen processing.; Module L08 Lymphocytes and their role in adaptive immunity. HAPS Outcome: L07.05 Explain the role of antigen-presenting cells (APCs) and provide examples of cells that function as APCs.; L05.04 Describe natural killer cells and discuss their function. 60) A person who receives a vaccine made from killed virus particles will, if the vaccination is successful, acquire passive immunity against that virus. Answer: FALSE Section: 18.03 Topic: Applied immunology Bloom's: Level 2. Understand HAPS Topic: Module L10 Applied immunology. HAPS Outcome: L10.03 Provide examples of how applied immunology can be used to diagnose, treat and prevent.; L10.02 Describe natural and artificial examples of both active and passive immunity. 61) The primary difference between active and passive immunity is that in active immunity, antibodies are produced in response to the presence of an antigen, while in passive immunity, pre-formed antibodies are provided from one person to another. Answer: TRUE Section: 18.03 Topic: Antibodies and their role in adaptive immunity; Applied immunology Bloom's: Level 2. Understand HAPS Topic: Module L09 Antibodies and their role in adaptive immunity.; Module L10 Applied immunology. HAPS Outcome: L10.01 Distinguish between active and passive immunity.
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62) An infant fed with formula will have less passive immunity than a breast-fed infant. Answer: TRUE Section: 18.03 Topic: Antibodies and their role in adaptive immunity; Applied immunology Bloom's: Level 3. Apply HAPS Topic: Module L09 Antibodies and their role in adaptive immunity.; Module L10 Applied immunology. HAPS Outcome: L10.01 Distinguish between active and passive immunity. 63) HIV preferentially attacks cytotoxic T cells. Answer: FALSE Section: 18.05 Topic: Applied immunology Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module L10 Applied immunology. HAPS Outcome: L10.03 Provide examples of how applied immunology can be used to diagnose, treat and prevent. 64) Drugs that block the production of cytokines, like cyclosporin, may be useful for treating autoimmune disorders. Answer: TRUE Section: 18.06 Topic: Applied immunology Bloom's: Level 3. Apply HAPS Topic: Module L10 Applied immunology. HAPS Outcome: L10.03 Provide examples of how applied immunology can be used to diagnose, treat and prevent. 65) A person with type B blood can generally accept a transfusion of type AB blood. Answer: FALSE Section: 18.06 Topic: Applied immunology Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module K05 ABO and Rh blood grouping. HAPS Outcome: K05.05 Predict which blood types are compatible and what happens when the incorrect ABO or Rh blood type is transfused.
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66) People lacking Rh factor are born with circulating antibodies against it. Answer: FALSE Section: 18.06 Topic: Applied immunology Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module K05 ABO and Rh blood grouping. HAPS Outcome: K05.03 Describe how the presence or absence of Rh antigen results in blood being classified as positive or negative. 67) The first pregnancy of an Rh-negative woman with an Rh-positive fetus would be at a higher risk for developing hemolytic disease of the newborn if the woman had received multiple Rhpositive blood transfusions in the past. Answer: TRUE Section: 18.06 Topic: Applied immunology Bloom's: Level 2. Understand HAPS Topic: Module L10 Applied immunology.; Module K05 ABO and Rh blood grouping. HAPS Outcome: L10.03 Provide examples of how applied immunology can be used to diagnose, treat and prevent. 68) Passive immunization of an Rh-negative woman with anti-Rh factor antibodies within a few hours of giving birth to an Rh-positive baby is helpful in preventing hemolytic disease of the newborn in a subsequent pregnancy. Answer: TRUE Section: 18.06 Topic: Applied immunology Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module L10 Applied immunology.; Module K05 ABO and Rh blood grouping. HAPS Outcome: L10.03 Provide examples of how applied immunology can be used to diagnose, treat and prevent. 69) Elizabeth has a skin condition called eczema and has multiple breaks in the skin of her hands. Due to this, Elizabeth is at an increased risk of infections. Answer: TRUE Section: 18.02 Topic: Nonspecific immunity Bloom's: Level 3. Apply HAPS Topic: Module L05 Innate (nonspecific) defenses. HAPS Outcome: L05.01 Name the surface membrane barriers and describe their physical, chemical, and microbiological mechanisms of defense.
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70) A patient with AIDS would be likely to react to an infection with a greater elevation of plasma cortisol than a person without the disease. Answer: FALSE Section: 18.05 Topic: Applied immunology Bloom's: Level 3. Apply HAPS Topic: Module L10 Applied immunology. HAPS Outcome: L12.02 Predict the types of problems that would occur in the body if the lymphatic and immune systems could not maintain homeostasis. 71) Treatment of individuals with HIV infection focuses upon early detection by interfering with the processes involved in replication and assembly of the virus by T lymphocytes, rather than attacking infected host cells directly. Answer: TRUE Section: 18.05 Topic: Applied immunology Bloom's: Level 2. Understand HAPS Topic: Module L10 Applied immunology. HAPS Outcome: L10.03 Provide examples of how applied immunology can be used to diagnose, treat and prevent. 72) The appearance of the signs and symptoms of AIDS in an HIV-infected individual generally appear after the virus has had enough time to replicate within host tissue cells and to cause death and destruction of cells critical to mounting a normal immune response. Answer: TRUE Section: 18.05 Topic: Applied immunology Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module L10 Applied immunology.; Module L12 Predictions related to homeostatic imbalance, including disease states and disorders. HAPS Outcome: L10.03 Provide examples of how applied immunology can be used to diagnose, treat and prevent.
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73) Which of the following are types of lymphocytes? A) T cells B) Macrophages C) Monocytes D) Erythrocytes E) Natural killer cells Answer: A, E Section: 18.01 Topic: Nonspecific immunity; Adaptive immunity Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module K03 Identity, microscopic anatomy, numbers, formation, and functional roles of the formed elements of blood. HAPS Outcome: L04.03 Describe the roles of various types of leukocytes in innate and adaptive body defenses. 74) In a patient receiving a bone marrow transplant which of the following cell types will be genetically dissimilar than the patient's own cells? A) Neutrophils B) Basophils C) Monocytes D) Endothelial cells E) Thymus tissue cells Answer: A, B, C Section: 18.01 Topic: Nonspecific immunity; Adaptive immunity Bloom's: Level 3. Apply HAPS Topic: Module K03 Identity, microscopic anatomy, numbers, formation, and functional roles of the formed elements of blood. HAPS Outcome: L04.03 Describe the roles of various types of leukocytes in innate and adaptive body defenses.
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75) Which of the following cells of the immune system are capable of phagocytosis? A) Macrophages B) Neutrophils C) Dendritic cells D) Basophils E) T lymphocytes Answer: A, B, C Section: 18.01 Topic: Nonspecific immunity Bloom's: Level 1. Remember HAPS Topic: Module L05 Innate (nonspecific) defenses.; Module K03 Identity, microscopic anatomy, numbers, formation, and functional roles of the formed elements of blood. HAPS Outcome: L05.07b Summarize the cells and chemicals involved in the inflammatory process.
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