Visual Anatomy & Physiology 3rd Edition Test Bank by QuentinAxel

Visual Anatomy and Physiology 3rd Edition Martini Test Bank Visual Anatomy and Physiology, 3e (Martini) Chapter 1 An Introduction to Anatomy and Physiology Multiple Choice Questions 1) The maintenance of a constant internal environment in an organism is termed A) positive feedback. B) homeostasis. C) negative feedback. D) effector control. E) integration. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 1.6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 2) Gas exchange is to the respiratory system as absorption of nutrients is to the system(s). A) lymphatic B) urinary C) digestive D) cardiovascular E) urinary and cardiovascular Answer: C Learning Outcome: 1.7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 3) Which organ system removes carbon dioxide from the bloodstream? A) cardiovascular B) lymphatic C) respiratory D) digestive E) endocrine Answer: C Learning Outcome: 1.7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 4) Anatomy is to as physiology is to A) function; form B) form; structure C) structure; function D) structure; form E) growth; form Answer: C Learning Outcome: 1.8 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

5) The central principle of physiology is A) nutrition. B) reflexes. C) homeostasis. D) stimulation. E) temperature regulation. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 1.8 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 6) Because the anatomy and physiology of the body's structures are interrelated, it is often said that "form determines ." A) anatomy B) physiology C) structure D) function E) biology Answer: D Learning Outcome: 1.9 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 7) A chemical imbalance in the blood can cause the heart to stop pumping blood, which in turn will cause other tissues and organs to cease functioning. This observation supports the view that A) all organisms are composed of cells. B) all levels of organization within an organism are interdependent. C) chemical molecules make up cells. D) blood has magical properties. E) congenital defects can be life-threatening. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 1.10 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 8) Which of the following is arranged in correct order from the most complex to the simplest? A) cellular, tissue, molecular, system, organ, organism B) molecular, cellular, tissue, organ, system, organism C) tissue, cellular, molecular, organ, system, organism D) organ, organism, molecular, cellular, tissue, system E) organism, system, organ, tissue, cellular, molecular Answer: E Learning Outcome: 1.10 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

9) What is the smallest living level of organization? A) cellular level B) chemical level C) organ level D) organ system level E) tissue level Answer: A Learning Outcome: 1.11 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 10) Which of the following cell types is long, slender and makes contractions? A) red blood cells B) bone cells C) fat cells D) muscle cells E) white blood cells Answer: D Learning Outcome: 1.11 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 11) Which type of cells carry oxygen and carbon dioxide? A) bone cells B) fat cells C) muscle cells D) white blood cells E) red blood cells Answer: E Learning Outcome: 1.11 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 12) Which type of cells recycle the calcium and phosphate stored there? A) bone cells B) fat cells C) muscle cells D) nervous cells E) blood cells Answer: A Learning Outcome: 1.11 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

13) Which type of cells are spherical and contain energy molecules? A) bone cells B) fat cells C) muscle cells D) white blood cells E) red blood cells Answer: B Learning Outcome: 1.11 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 14) is the study of tissue structures. A) Gross anatomy B) Pathology C) Biology D) Microbiology E) Histology Answer: E Learning Outcome: 1.12 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 15) Which of the following tissues covers and protects exposed surface areas of the body? A) connective tissue B) muscle tissue C) epithelial tissue D) bone tissue E) nervous tissue Answer: C Learning Outcome: 1.12 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 16) Which of the following tissues fills internal spaces and provides structural support? A) connective tissue B) muscle tissue C) epithelial tissue D) bone tissue E) nervous tissue Answer: A Learning Outcome: 1.12 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

17) Which organ system provides support, protection of soft tissue, mineral storage, and blood formation? A) integumentary B) muscular C) skeletal D) nervous E) endocrine Answer: C Learning Outcome: 1.13 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 18) Protection from environmental hazards is a function of the A) skeletal B) muscular C) integumentary D) endocrine E) skeletal and muscular Answer: C Learning Outcome: 1.13 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

system.

19) Which organ system transports nutrients, metabolic wastes, gases, and defense cells? A) cardiovascular B) digestive C) muscular D) respiratory E) urinary Answer: A Learning Outcome: 1.15 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 20) Directing long-term changes in the activities of other organ systems is the major function of the system. A) endocrine B) cardiovascular C) respiratory D) lymphatic E) digestive Answer: A Learning Outcome: 1.15 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

21) Which one of the following is not a characteristic of the endocrine system? A) It releases chemicals that affect other organs or tissues. B) It produces a more rapid response than the nervous system. C) It produces effects that last for days or longer. D) It produces an effect that involves several organs or tissues at the same time. E) It is important in regulating organs and tissues. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 1.15 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 22) The heart is an example of a(n) A) cell. B) tissue. C) organ. D) extracellular fluid. E) organ system. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 1.15 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 23) All of the following are organs of the endocrine system, except A) pituitary. B) thyroid. C) thymus. D) muscle. E) pancreas. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 1.15 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 24) All of the following are structures of the cardiovascular system, except A) the heart. B) arteries. C) the spleen. D) veins. E) capillaries. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 1.15 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

25) Elimination of excess water, salts, and waste products are functions of the A) endocrine B) digestive C) respiratory D) urinary E) lymphatic Answer: D Learning Outcome: 1.16 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

system.

26) Which gastrointestinal organ is responsible for bile secretion and regulation of blood nutrient composition? A) gallbladder B) liver C) stomach D) pancreas E) salivary glands Answer: B Learning Outcome: 1.16 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 27) What is the primary function of kidneys? A) removes carbon dioxide from the body B) store urine C) regulate blood glucose D) form and concentrate urine E) secret enzymes for digestion Answer: D Learning Outcome: 1.16 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 28) The tendency for physiological systems to stabilize internal conditions is called A) homeostasis. B) disease. C) biology. D) responsiveness. E) adaptability. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 1.17 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

29) Homeostatic regulation usually involves a(n) that detects a particular stimulus, and a(n) that responds to the stimulus by communicating with a(n) _ whose activity has an effect on the same stimulus. A) control center (integrating center); receptor; effector B) receptor; control center (integrating center); effector C) effector; control center (integrating center); receptor D) receptor; effector; control center (integrating center) E) effector; receptor; control center (integrating center) Answer: B Learning Outcome: 1.17 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 30) When homeostatic mechanisms fail, an individual will experience the symptoms of A) homeostasis. B) negative feedback. C) illness or disease. D) positive feedback. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 1.17 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 31) If a response decreases a disturbance, the system is classified as a system. A) deficit B) negative C) neutral D) polarized E) positive Answer: B Learning Outcome: 1.18 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

feedback

32) If a response increases a disturbance, the system is classified as a system. A) deficit B) negative C) neutral D) polarized E) positive Answer: E Learning Outcome: 1.18 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

feedback

33) When body temperature rises, a center in the brain initiates physiological changes to decrease the body temperature. This is an example of A) negative feedback. B) positive feedback. C) nonhomeostatic regulation. D) diagnostic regulation. E) fever. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 1.18 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 34) All of the following participate in thermoregulation, except A) brain. B) skin. C) gastrointestinal system. D) blood vessels. E) sweat glands. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 1.18 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 35) The integrating center for the negative feedback loop that regulates body temperature is the A) brain. B) skin. C) temperature receptor. D) positive feedback center. E) thermostat. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 1.18 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 36) A cell or organ that responds to commands of the control center in negative feedback is termed a(n) A) receptor. B) thermoregulator. C) control center (integration center). D) effector. E) stimulus. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 1.18 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

37) An example of a receptor in a negative feedback loop controlling body temperature would be A) temperature sensors on the skin that detect a stimulus. B) sweat glands that increase secretion. C) regulatory centers that send commands to an effector. D) effectors that cause blood vessels to dilate. E) sweat glands that act like effectors. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 1.18 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 38) All of the following are examples of positive feedback, except A) blood clot formation. B) release of chemicals from the blood vessels after injury. C) decrease bleeding after injury. D) increase heart rate after blood loss. E) relaxation of smooth muscles' blood vessels when body temperature goes up. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 1.18 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 39) Much of the early history in anatomy is tied to what country? A) France B) Italy C) United States D) Spain E) England Answer: B Learning Outcome: 1.19 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 40) The quadrants of the abdominopelvic region include all of the following except the A) right upper quadrant (RUQ). B) right lower quadrant (RLQ). C) left upper quadrant (LUQ). D) left lower quadrant (LLQ). E) pelvic quadrant. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 1.20 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

41) Which of the following is not considered an abdominopelvic region? A) right hypochondriac B) right inguinal region C) left lumbar D) left hypochondriac E) upper right Answer: E Learning Outcome: 1.20 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 42) A person is lying on the bed gazing at the ceiling. She is in the A) prone B) supine C) anatomical D) dorsal E) caudal Answer: B Learning Outcome: 1.20 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

_ position.

43) A person facing forward with hands at the sides and palms facing forward is in the position. A) supine B) prone C) anatomical D) frontal E) sagittal Answer: C Learning Outcome: 1.20 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 44) The common term for the carpal region is the A) skull. B) ankle. C) chest. D) wrist. E) leg. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 1.20 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

45) A cut parallel to the midsagittal plane would produce a A) superior B) coronal C) transverse D) parasagittal E) frontal Answer: D Learning Outcome: 1.20 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

section.

46) Which of the following terms refers to the foot? A) cervical B) brachial C) antebrachial D) femoral E) pedal Answer: E Learning Outcome: 1.20 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 47) The urinary bladder is found in the A) right upper; right lower B) left upper; left lower C) right upper; left lower D) right lower; left lower Answer: D Learning Outcome: 1.20 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

quadrant and the

48) The liver is primarily located in the A) right upper B) left upper C) right lower D) left lower E) hepatic Answer: A Learning Outcome: 1.20 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

quadrant.

49) A person lying face down is in the A) prone B) supine C) anatomical D) anterior E) posterior Answer: A Learning Outcome: 1.20 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

position.

50) The anatomical term for the buccal region is the A) buttock. B) cheek. C) head. D) arm. E) foot. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 1.20 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 51) The anatomical name for the pollex is the A) foot. B) hand. C) armpit. D) groin. E) thumb. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 1.20 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 52) The anatomical name for the patellar region is the A) kneecap. B) breast. C) hand. D) neck E) ear. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 1.20 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

53) While standing erect, the direction of caudal is A) upward. B) downward. C) laterally. D) medially. E) None of the answers is correct. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 1.21 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 54) While standing in the anatomical position, A) front refers to posterior. B) front refers to inferior. C) back refers to anterior. D) back refers to superior. E) back refers to dorsal. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 1.21 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 55) Terms of anatomical direction are used to describe A) one body part in relation to another. B) surgical procedures. C) a supine position. D) the nervous system. E) living matter. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 1.21 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 56) The wrist is _ to the elbow. A) proximal B) distal C) lateral D) medial E) horizontal Answer: B Learning Outcome: 1.21 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

57) An anatomical term that means the same as "ventral" is A) posterior. B) inferior. C) abdominal. D) anterior. E) superior. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 1.21 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 58) Which plane divides the body into right and left parts? A) proximal B) frontal C) orthogonal D) transverse E) sagittal Answer: E Learning Outcome: 1.21 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 59) A midsagittal section would pass through the A) kidney. B) lung. C) heart. D) spleen. E) leg. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 1.21 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 60) The heart is to the lungs. A) lateral B) medial C) posterior D) proximal E) distal Answer: B Learning Outcome: 1.21 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

61) The chin is _ to the nose. A) anterior B) superior C) posterior D) inferior E) medial Answer: D Learning Outcome: 1.21 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 62) The muscle known as the diaphragm separates the A) pleural cavity; mediastinum B) thoracic cavity; abdominopelvic cavity C) pericardial cavity; pleural cavity D) abdominal cavity; pelvic cavity E) pericardial sac; pericardial cavity Answer: B Learning Outcome: 1.22 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

from the

63) The thoracic cavity contains the A) coelom. B) pericardial cavity. C) pelvic cavity. D) pleural cavities. E) pericardial and pleural cavities. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 1.22 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 64) The serous membrane covering the stomach and most of the intestines is called the A) pericardium. B) peritoneum. C) pleura. D) mediastinum. E) abdomen. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 1.22 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

65) Which of the following organs is located between the peritoneum and the body wall? A) stomach B) kidney C) urinary bladder D) large intestine E) spleen Answer: B Learning Outcome: 1.22 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 66) Which of the following structures is located within the mediastinum? A) pericardial sac B) small intestine C) lung D) spleen E) stomach Answer: A Learning Outcome: 1.22 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 67) The right pleural cavity contains the A) heart. B) trachea. C) left lung. D) right lung. E) left lung and right lung. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 1.22 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 68) Which of the following organs is not contained within the abdominal cavity? A) stomach B) small intestine C) ovary D) spleen E) pancreas Answer: C Learning Outcome: 1.22 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

69) Visceral pericardium is located A) on the heart itself. B) lining the pleural cavity. C) on the small intestine itself. D) on the lung itself. E) lining the peritoneal cavity. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 1.22 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 70) The mediastinum A) contains the pleural cavities. B) separates the pleural cavities. C) contains the pericardial cavity. D) contains both the pleural and pericardial cavities. E) separates the pleural cavities, and contains the pericardial cavity. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 1.22 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 71) The two major divisions of the ventral body cavity are the A) pelvic and thoracic. B) cranial and sacral. C) lateral and medial. D) thoracic and abdominopelvic. E) dorsal and ventral. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 1.22 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 72) What is human A&P? (Module 1.1A) A) The field of human anatomy and physiology. B) The field of human anthropology and philosophy. C) The field of human action and potential. D) The field of human alliance and power. E) The field of human activity and physics. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 1.1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

73) Define the term biology. (Module 1.1B) A) Biology is the study of matter and energy. B) Biology is the study of rocks and minerals. C) Biology is the study of human behavior. D) Biology is the study of life. E) Biology is the study of human culture. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 1.1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 74) What do eye-tracking studies tell us about the most effective way to learn? (Module 1.2A) A) The extrinsic eye muscles are flexible. B) The extrinsic eye muscles develop during reading. C) To read text without looking at art. D) To look at art without reading text. E) To read the text and the art together. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 1.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 75) Try this experiment. Pick one of the two examples, cover up the text, and focus solely on the art. What did you discover? (Module 1.2B) A) The art was not clear. B) Text is not helpful for learning A&P. C) The text-art integration is important for understanding what was described. D) The text-art integration was unnecessary. E) Art is not helpful for learning A&P. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 1.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 76) Calculate the area in blue. All numbers are in centimeters (cm). If you need help, scan the QR code in the upper right corner on the opposite page. (Module 1.3A) A) 5.12 square centimeters B) 10.24 square centimeters C) 20.48 square centimeters D) 64 square centimeters E) 96 square centimeters Answer: B Learning Outcome: 1.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying

77) Look at the woman standing. On which wrist is her bracelet found? (Module 1.4A) A) left B) right Answer: B Learning Outcome: 1.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 78) What is the structure marked with an X in the MRI scan? (Module 1.4B) A) stomach B) aorta C) spleen D) right kidney E) left kidney Answer: E Learning Outcome: 1.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 79) Define module, and state where the learning outcomes appear. (Module 1.5A) A) A module is an independent, self-contained unit about a specific topic. Learning outcomes appear in the upper left-hand corner of each module. B) A module is an independent, self-contained unit about a specific topic. Learning outcomes appear in the lower left-hand corner of each module. C) A module is an independent, self-contained unit about a specific topic. Learning outcomes appear in the lower right-hand corner of each module. D) A module is a chapter containing information over a body system. Learning outcomes appear in the lower right-hand corner of each module. E) A module is a chapter containing information over a body system. Learning outcomes appear in the upper right-hand corner of each module. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 1.5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 80) What do scientists mean when they use the term "Black Box"? (Module 1.6A) A) Scientists are referring to X-ray units. B) Scientists are referring to missing knowledge. C) Scientists are referring to MRI units. D) Scientists are referring to the known extent of knowledge in A&P. E) Scientists are referring to the limitations and risks of studying the human body. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 1.6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

81) List the common characteristics shared by all living things. (Module 1.7A) A) growth, development, and reproduction B) regulation, growth, and metabolism C) atoms, molecules, cells, tissues, organs, organ systems, organism D) organization, responsiveness, and regulation E) cells, organization, responsiveness, regulation, growth, development, reproduction, and metabolism Answer: E Learning Outcome: 1.7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 82) Distinguish between growth and development. (Module 1.7B) A) Growth refers to a decrease in size. Development refers to an increase in size. B) Growth refers to changes that occur in small organisms. Development refers to changes that occur in large organisms. C) Growth refers to an increase in size. Development refers to changes in structures and functions as the organism grows. D) Growth refers to changes in structures and functions as the organism ages. Development refers to an increase in size. E) Growth refers to the ability to maintain homeostasis at a single moment. Development refers to the ability to maintain homeostasis over a lifetime. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 1.7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 83) Describe the basic processes in humans and other animals. (Module 1.7C) A) digestion, secretion, reabsorption, and excretion B) respiration, digestion, circulation, and excretion C) blood pressure regulation, body fluid regulation, reproduction, and metabolism D) catabolism, anabolism, diffusion, and transportation E) defense, protection, movement, and elimination Answer: B Learning Outcome: 1.7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 84) What are the differences between gross anatomy and microscopic anatomy? (Module 1.8A) A) Gross anatomy involves the study of tissues; microscopic anatomy involves the study of cells. B) Gross anatomy involves the study of cells; microscopic anatomy involves the study of tissues. C) Gross anatomy involves the study of body structures that can be seen with the unaided eye; microscopic anatomy is the study of body structures that cannot be seen without magnification. D) Gross anatomy is the study of body structures that cannot be seen without magnification; microscopic anatomy is the study of body structures that can be seen with the unaided eye. E) Gross anatomy is the study of internal body structures; microscopic anatomy is the study of how living organisms perform their functions. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 1.8 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 21

85) Explain the link between anatomy and physiology. (Module 1.8B) A) Anatomy is the study of internal and external body structures; physiology is the study of how living organisms perform their vital functions. B) Anatomy is the study of how living organisms perform their vital functions; physiology is the study of internal and external body structures. C) Anatomy is the study of tissues; physiology is the study of organs. D) Anatomy is the study of cells; physiology is the study of tissues. E) Anatomy is the study of body structures that can be seen with the unaided eye; physiology is the study of body structures that cannot be seen without magnification. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 1.8 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 86) Compare the functioning of the elbow joint with a door on a hinge. (Module 1.9A) A) The elbow moves as a ball in socket like the opening and closing of a door on a hinge. B) The elbow moves in a single plane like the opening and closing of a door on a hinge. C) The elbow moves by twisting like the opening and closing of a door on a hinge. D) The elbow moves by rotation and circumduction like the opening and closing of a door on a hinge. E) The elbow moves in three planes like the opening and closing of a door on a hinge. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 1.9 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 87) Predict what would happen to the function of a structure if its anatomy were altered. (Module 1.9B) A) The structure's function would not be affected. B) The structure's function would be improved marginally. C) The structure's function would be impaired or eliminated. D) The structure's function would be improved significantly. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 1.9 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 88) Name the simplest level of organization that includes the smallest living units in the body. (Module 1.10A) A) chemical level B) cellular level C) tissue level D) organ level E) organ system level Answer: B Learning Outcome: 1.10 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

89) Define organ. (Module 1.10B) A) An organ is the smallest living units in the body. B) An organ is the highest level of organization. C) An organ is composed of similar cells working together to perform one or more specific functions. D) An organ is the smallest stable unit of matter and can form molecules. E) An organ is two or more tissues working to perform several functions. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 1.10 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 90) Our understanding of how the human body works is based on a knowledge of which level(s) of organization? (Module 1.10C) A) chemical level B) cellular level C) molecular level D) tissue level E) Knowledge about each level contributes to our total understanding of how the body works. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 1.10 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 91) Name and define the unit used to measure cell size. (Module 1.11A) A) picometer; equal to one-trillionth of a meter B) nanometer; equal to one-billionth of a meter C) centimeter; equal to one-hundredth of a meter D) micrometer; equal to one-millionth of a meter E) millimeter; equal to one-thousandth of a meter Answer: D Learning Outcome: 1.11 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 92) A red blood cell has a diameter of about 8μm. Use that information to estimate the diameter of the oocyte in micrometers (μm) and millimeters (mm). (1 mm = 1000 μm) (Module 1.11C) A) An oocyte has a diameter about 2 times greater than the red blood cell. B) An oocyte has a diameter about 4 times greater than the red blood cell. C) An oocyte has a diameter about 7 times greater than the red blood cell. D) An oocyte has a diameter about 11 times greater than the red blood cell. E) An oocyte has a diameter about 15 times greater than the red blood cell. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 1.11 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying

93) Which two organ systems are involved with circulation within the body? (Module 1.13A) A) digestive and urinary systems B) nervous and endocrine systems C) respiratory and digestive systems D) cardiovascular and lymphatic systems E) cardiovascular and respiratory systems Answer: D Learning Outcome: 1.13 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 94) Describe the three parts necessary for homeostatic regulation. (Module 1.17B) A) The three parts necessary for homeostatic regulation are the receptor, the pathway, and the outcome. B) The three parts necessary for homeostatic regulation are the chemical, the membrane, and the receptor. C) The three parts necessary for homeostatic regulation are the afferent signal, the central signal, and the efferent signal. D) The three parts necessary for homeostatic regulation are the set point, the stimulus, and the result. E) The three parts necessary for homeostatic regulation are the receptor, the control center, and the effector. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 1.17 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 95) The Appendix contains tables of the normal physiological values regarding dissolved materials in various body fluids. Most of these values are listed as ranges, rather than averages. Why? (Module 1.17C) A) Each individual person only has one number at any given time. B) Young people have the lower values and the elderly have the higher values. C) Homeostatic control is not precise, and normal ranges are not fixed with absolute values. D) The lower number of the range represents healthy, normal conditions and the higher number of the range represents disease values. E) Young people have the higher values and the elderly have the lower values. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 1.17 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 96) Which languages are the source of many modern anatomical terms? (Module 1.19A) A) Spanish and French B) English and Italian C) Latin and Greek D) Dutch and German E) Russian and Hindi Answer: C Learning Outcome: 1.19 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 24

97) Define the word eponym. (Module 1.19B) A) Eponym is a term denoting an anatomical structure or clinical condition in humans that is identical to another anatomical structure or clinical condition in animals. B) Eponym is a term used to describe multiple diseases caused by the same pathology. C) Eponym is a term denoting structures in the body that share the same names. D) Eponym is a term denoting an anatomical structure or clinical condition that is named after a person. E) Eponym is a term denoting the study of anatomy by dissection of cadavers. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 1.19 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 98) In what country was cadaver-based anatomy established as a discipline studied by medical professionals? (Module 1.19C) A) England B) France C) Italy D) Australia E) China Answer: C Learning Outcome: 1.19 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 99) Describe a person in the anatomical position. (Module 1.20A) A) A person in anatomical position is lying in the fetal position. B) A person in anatomical position is standing erect, facing the observer, arms at the sides with the palms facing forward, and the feet together. C) A person in anatomical position is standing erect, facing the observer, arms are held out with the palms facing down, and the feet are shoulder-length apart. D) A person in anatomical position is lying on their back, arms are by their sides with palms facing down, and the feet together. E) A person in anatomical position is lying on their stomach, arms are held out with palms facing down, and the feet lay shoulder-length apart. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 1.20 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

100) A massage therapist often begins a massage by asking clients to lie face down with their arms at their sides. Which anatomical term describes that position? (Module 1.20B) A) anterior B) posterior C) supine D) prone E) medial Answer: D Learning Outcome: 1.20 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 101) Contrast the descriptions used by clinicians and anatomists when referring to the positions of injuries or internal organs of the abdomen and pelvis. (Module 1.20C) A) Clinicians base their descriptions on a person lying in a prone position, whereas anatomists use a person lying in a supine position. B) Clinicians base their descriptions on a person lying in a supine position, whereas anatomist use a person lying in a prone position. C) Clinicians base their descriptions on four abdominopelvic quadrants, whereas anatomists use nine abdominopelvic regions. D) Clinicians base their descriptions on nine abdominopelvic regions, whereas anatomists use four abdominopelvic quadrants. E) Clinicians base their descriptions on superficial anatomical terms, whereas anatomists use regional anatomical terms. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 1.20 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 102) What is the purpose of anatomical terms? (Module 1.20D) A) Anatomical terms are used because they provide continuity between organs of humans and animals. B) Anatomical terms are used because they provide a standardized frame of reference for describing the human body. C) Anatomical terms are used because they give hints about the function of the body part. D) Anatomical terms are used because all organs that perform the same function have the same anatomical term regardless of the organism. E) Anatomical terms are used because they are easier to spell and pronounce than the official standard terms. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 1.20 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

103) In the anatomical position, describe an anterior view and a posterior view. (Module 1.21A) A) In anatomical position, anterior view shows the subject's face, whereas a posterior view shows the subject's back. B) In anatomical position, anterior view shows the subject's back, whereas a posterior view shows the subject's face. C) In anatomical position, anterior view shows the subject's left side, whereas a posterior view shows the subject's right side. D) In anatomical position, anterior view shows the subject's right side, whereas a posterior view shows the subject's left side. E) In anatomical position, anterior view shows the subject in cross-section, whereas a posterior view shows the subject in longitudinal section. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 1.21 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 104) What type of section would separate (1) the two eyes? (2) the nose and two ears? (3) the neck and naval? (Module 1.21B) A) (1) sagittal (or mid-sagittal, if along midline); (2) transverse, or horizontal; (3) frontal B) (1) frontal; (2) sagittal (or mid-sagittal, if along midline); (3) transverse, or horizontal C) (1) frontal; (2) transverse, or horizontal; (3) sagittal (or mid-sagittal, if along midline) D) (1) transverse, or horizontal; (2) frontal; (3) sagittal (or mid-sagittal, if along midline) E) (1) sagittal (or mid-sagittal, if along midline); (2) frontal; (3) transverse, or horizontal Answer: E Learning Outcome: 1.21 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 105) What is the purpose of directional and sectional terms? (Module 1.21C) A) Directional and sectional terms are used because they provide continuity between organs of humans and animals. B) Directional and sectional terms are used because they provide a standardized frame of reference for describing the human body. C) Directional and sectional terms are used because they give hints about the function of the body part. D) Directional and sectional terms are used because all organs that perform the same function have the same directional and sectional term regardless of the organism. E) Directional and sectional terms are used because they are easier to spell and pronounce than the anatomical terms. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 1.21 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

106) Identify the body cavities of the trunk. (Module 1.22B) A) cranial cavity and the vertebral cavity B) anterior cavity (which contains the peritoneal cavity) and the posterior cavity (which contains the retroperitoneal cavity) C) thoracic cavity (which contains the pleural and pericardial cavities) and the abdominopelvic cavity (consisting of the peritoneal, abdominal, and pelvic cavities) D) thoracic cavity (which contains the peritoneal, abdominal, and pelvic cavities) and the abdominopelvic cavity (consisting of the pleural and pericardial cavities) E) superior cavity and inferior cavity Answer: C Learning Outcome: 1.22 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 107) If a surgeon makes an incision just inferior to the diaphragm, which body cavity will be opened? (Module 1.22C) A) vertebral cavity B) pleural portion of the thoracic cavity C) pericardial portion of the thoracic cavity D) pelvic portion of the abdominopelvic cavity E) peritoneal portion of the abdominopelvic cavity Answer: E Learning Outcome: 1.22 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying Essay Questions 108) What is homeostatic regulation, and what is its physiological importance? Answer: Homeostatic regulation refers to adjustments in physiological systems that are responsible for the preservation of a constant internal environment. This provides a favorable environment for the body's cells. Learning Outcome: 1.7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 109) Give an example of an abnormality or problem at one level of organization, and explain how it affects other levels of organization. Answer: The levels of organization are dependent upon one another. Beginning with the chemical level, if the incorrect atom is put into a protein, then the protein does not function properly. Because this protein is ultimately part of a cell, or the cell's extracellular matrix, the tissue will not work correctly. It is possible that the type of tissue containing this protein is found in an organ, and possibly in many organs, therefore affecting multiple organ systems. Cystic fibrosis is a great example of a faulting protein that affects multiple organ systems. Learning Outcome: 1.10 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying

110) Name two structures and their functions in female reproductive system. Answer: Ovaries: production of oocytes and hormones; uterine tubes: delivery of oocyte or embryo to uterus, site of fertilization; uterus: site of embryonic development and exchange between maternal and fetal bloodstream, shedding of lining during menstruation; vagina: site of sperm deposition, birth canal during delivery, passageway for fluids during menstruation; clitoris: contains erectile tissue for pleasurable sensations during sexual intercourse; labia: contains glands that lubricate entrance to vagina; mammary glands: milk production that nourishes newborn infant Learning Outcome: 1.16 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 111) Name the two upper abdominal quadrants and list the organs that lie in each. Answer: right upper quadrant (RUQ): right lobe of liver, gallbladder, right kidney, portions of stomach, large and small intestines; left upper quadrant (LUQ): left lobe of liver, stomach, pancreas, left kidney, spleen, portions of large intestine Learning Outcome: 1.20 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 112) Describe learning classification scheme. (Module 1.5B) Answer: A learning classification scheme identifies the fundamental levels of learning from lower-order thinking skills to higher-order skills. Common terms associated with levels of learning are knowing, remembering, comprehending, understanding, applying, describing, analyzing, explaining, evaluation, measuring, synthesizing, and creating. Learning Outcome: 1.5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 113) Identify several strategies for success in this course. (Module 1.6B) Answer: Several strategies for success in this course include approaching the information in different ways that may include creating your own diagrams, "teaching" fellow students, and asking questions in class; having a set study schedule with a devoted block of time; mastering memorization; avoiding shortcuts; regularly attending and participating in all class sessions; reading assigned material prior to class; avoiding procrastination; and asking for help immediately if you are having any problems. Learning Outcome: 1.6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 114) What features are common to forearm movement at an elbow joint and the opening of a cell membrane passageway? (Module 1.9C) Answer: At both the gross anatomical and chemical levels, structure and function are interrelated. The hinge-like movement at the elbow joint depends on the three-dimensional shapes of the joint-forming ends of the humerus and ulna. The opening of a membrane passageway depends on the proper three-dimensional shapes of chemical messenger and the cell's membrane receptor molecule. Learning Outcome: 1.9 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

115) List the three basic principles of the cell theory. (Module 1.11B) Answer: The cell theory holds that (1) cells are the structural building blocks of all plants and animals, (2) new cells are produced through the division of pre-existing cells, and (3) cells are the smallest structural units that perform all vital functions. Learning Outcome: 1.11 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 116) Describe the general roles of the different types of muscle tissue. (Module 1.12A) Answer: Skeletal muscle moves the bones of the skeleton, cardiac muscle pumps blood through blood vessels, and smooth muscle moves materials along internal passageways. Learning Outcome: 1.12 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 117) Identify the four primary tissue types, and explain the functions of each. (Module 1.12B) Answer: The body's four primary tissue types that form all body structures are epithelial, connective, muscle, and nervous tissue. Epithelial tissue covers external and internal surfaces and produces secretions; connective tissue fills internal spaces, provides support, and stores energy; muscle tissue is specialized to contract and produce movement; and nervous tissue transmits information. Learning Outcome: 1.12 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 118) Using the table as a reference, describe how falling down a flight of stairs could affect at least six of the organ systems. (Module 1.13B) Answer: Falling down a flight of stairs could cause a compound fracture (a broken bone that protrudes through the skin), which could affect (1) the skeletal system (a broken bone), (2) the integumentary system (disruption of skin integrity), (3) the muscular system (broken bone tearing through a muscle), (4) the cardiovascular system (blood loss at the site of injury), (5) the lymphatic system (mobilization of specialized cell to defend against infection), and (6) the nervous system (pain and nerve injury as a result of the trauma). Learning Outcome: 1.13 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 119) How would a nervous system disorder affect the muscular system? (Module 1.14A) Answer: Your answer may differ but could include the following examples of how a disorder of the nervous system affects the muscular system: A spinal cord injury can cause a person to lose mobility, or a nervous system disorder such as Parkinson's disease can cause a person to experience muscle tremors. Learning Outcome: 1.14 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 120) How would a respiratory system disease affect the cardiovascular system? (Module 1.15A) Answer: Your answer may differ but could include the following example of how a respiratory system disease affects the cardiovascular system: A patient has an asthma attack and experiences difficulty in breathing; as a result, the blood cannot be fully oxygenated. Learning Outcome: 1.15 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 30

121) How would a reproductive system disorder affect the urinary system? (Module 1.16A) Answer: Your answer may differ but could include the following examples of how a reproductive system disorder could affect the urinary system: A sexually transmitted disease that is acquired through the urethra could affect the urinary system if the bacterium travels up to the urinary bladder and kidneys, causing a more serious infection. Learning Outcome: 1.16 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 122) Why is homeostatic regulation important to an organism? (Module 1.17A) Answer: Homeostatic regulation is important to an organism because failure to maintain homeostasis leads to illness or death. Learning Outcome: 1.17 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 123) Explain the function of negative feedback systems, and give an example of homeostatic regulation by negative feedback in the body. (Module 1.18A) Answer: Negative feedback systems maintain homeostasis (and provide long-term control over the body's internal conditions and systems) by counteracting any stimulus that moves conditions outside their normal range. An example of homeostatic regulation by negative feedback in the body is temperature regulation. When temperature receptors in the skin and brain detect a rise in body temperature, a negative feedback regulation is initiated. The control centers in the brain receive this input and send commands to effectors, causing skin blood vessels to dilate and sweat glands to secrete. The result is that the body is cooled and homeostasis is achieved. Learning Outcome: 1.18 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 124) Why is positive feedback helpful in blood clotting but unsuitable for regulating body temperature? (Module 1.18B) Answer: Positive feedback is useful in processes that, once begun, must move quickly to completion — for example, blood clotting. It is harmful in situations where stable conditions must be maintained because it tends to exaggerate any departure from the desired condition. Thus, positive feedback in the regulation of body temperature would cause a slight fever to spiral out of control, with fatal results. Learning Outcome: 1.18 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 125) Describe two distinctive features and two essential functions of true body cavities. (Module 1.22A) Answer: True body cavities are (1) lined by a serous membrane and (2) share a common embryonic origin. Two essential functions are (1) protecting internal organs and cushioning them from shocks that occur during activity and (2) allowing organs they enclose to change size and shape without disrupting the activities of nearby organs. Learning Outcome: 1.22 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

Visual Anatomy and Physiology, 3e (Martini) Chapter 2 Chemical Level of Organization Multiple Choice Questions 1) The smallest stable units of matter are A) atoms. B) molecules. C) protons. D) neutrons. E) electrons. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 2.1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 2) The nucleus of an atom consists of A) electrons. B) protons. C) neutrons. D) protons + neutrons. E) protons + electrons. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 2.1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 3) The center of an atom is called the A) element. B) electron cloud. C) nucleus. D) proton. E) molecule. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 2.1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 4) A(n) is a pure substance composed of atoms. A) element B) compound C) molecule D) electron E) neutron Answer: A Learning Outcome: 2.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

5) The actual mass of an atom is known as its A) atomic number. B) atomic weight. C) mass number. D) atomic mass unit. E) element number. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 2.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 6) Atoms of the same element whose nuclei contain the same number of protons, but different numbers of neutrons, are called A) isotopes. B) ions. C) isomers. D) trace elements. E) principal elements. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 2.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 7) The "atomic number" of an atom is determined by the number of A) electrons B) protons C) neutrons D) protons + neutrons E) protons + electrons Answer: B Learning Outcome: 2.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 8) Isotopes of an element differ in the number of A) protons in the nucleus. B) electrons in the nucleus. C) neutrons in the nucleus. D) electron clouds. E) electrons in energy shells. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 2.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

it has.

9) The mass number represents the number of A) protons in an atom. B) electrons in an ion. C) neutrons in an atom. D) protons + neutrons. E) neutrons + electrons. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 2.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 10) The atomic weight of an atom reflects the average number of A) protons. B) neutrons. C) electrons. D) protons + neutrons. E) protons + neutrons + electrons. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 2.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 11) If an isotope of oxygen has 8 protons, 10 neutrons, and 8 electrons, its mass number is A) 26. B) 16. C) 18. D) 8. E) 12. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 2.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 12) Which element commonly has only a proton as its nucleus? A) helium B) neon C) argon D) hydrogen E) None of the answers is correct. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 2.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

13) The mass of an atom is largely determined by the number of A) electrons B) protons C) neutrons D) protons + neutrons E) protons + electrons Answer: D Learning Outcome: 2.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

it has.

14) By weight, which element is the most plentiful in the human body? A) sulfur B) sodium C) oxygen D) potassium E) carbon Answer: C Learning Outcome: 2.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 15) By weight, which element is the second most abundant in the human body? A) oxygen B) carbon C) hydrogen D) nitrogen E) calcium Answer: B Learning Outcome: 2.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 16) Which of the following lists contains only trace elements? A) sulfur, chlorine, oxygen B) selenium, hydrogen, calcium C) boron, oxygen, carbon D) silicon, fluorine, E) cobalt, calcium, sodium Answer: D Learning Outcome: 2.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

17) Oxygen is required in biological systems for A) cellular respiration. B) storage of energy. C) serving as a structural component of bone. D) serving as a catalyst. E) chemical messengers. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 2.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 18) If an element is composed of atoms with an atomic number of 6 and a mass number of 14, then the nucleus of a neutral atom of this element contains A) 6 protons. B) 8 electrons. C) 8 neutrons. D) 6 protons and 8 electrons. E) 6 protons and 8 neutrons. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 2.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 19) The innermost electron shell in an atom holds up to A) 1 B) 2 C) 4 D) 6 E) 8 Answer: B Learning Outcome: 2.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 20) The chemical behavior of an atom is determined by the A) number of protons. B) number of neutrons. C) outermost electron shell. D) size of the atom. E) mass of the nucleus. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 2.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

electrons.

21) Ions with a + charge are called A) cations. B) anions. C) radicals. D) positrons. E) isotopes. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 2.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 22) Elements that have atoms with full outer shells of electrons A) will form many compounds. B) will normally form anions. C) will normally form cations. D) frequently form hydrogen bonds. E) are inert gases. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 2.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 23) Which of the following is not a cation? A) Na+ B) ClC) K+ D) Ca2+ E) Mg2+ Answer: B Learning Outcome: 2.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 24) In an aqueous solution, cations are attracted toward A) water. B) salt. C) buffers. D) anions. E) hydrogen ions. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 2.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

25) In an aqueous solution, sodium ions would move toward A) a negative terminal. B) a positive terminal. C) a pH terminal. D) an organic terminal. E) the bottom. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 2.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 26) Magnesium atoms have two electrons in the outermost shell. As a result, you would expect magnesium to form ions with a charge of A) +1. B) +2. C) -1. D) -2. E) either +2 or -2. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 2.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 27) In chemical notation, the symbol Ca2+ means A) two calcium atoms. B) a calcium ion that has lost two electrons. C) a calcium ion that has gained two protons. D) a calcium ion that has gained two electrons. E) a calcium ion that has lost two protons. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 2.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 28) Ions with a negative charge are called A) cations. B) anions. C) protons. D) positrons. E) polar molecules. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 2.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

29) Ionic bonds are formed when A) atoms share electrons. B) electrons are completely transferred from one atom to another. C) a pair of electrons is shared unequally by two atoms. D) hydrogen forms bonds with negatively charged atoms. E) two or more atoms lose electrons at the same time. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 2.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 30) In a molecule of oxygen gas, two pairs of electrons are shared equally by two oxygen atoms. The type of bond that is formed is an example of a A) single trivalent bond. B) double nonpolar covalent bond. C) triple nonpolar covalent bond. D) double polar covalent bond. E) hydrogen bond. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 2.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 31) If one pair of electrons is unequally shared between two atoms, a A) single nonpolar covalent bond B) double nonpolar covalent bond C) double polar covalent bond D) single polar covalent bond E) hydrogen bond Answer: D Learning Outcome: 2.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

occurs.

32) When atoms complete their outer electron shell by sharing electrons, they form A) ionic bonds. B) covalent bonds. C) hydrogen bonds. D) anions. E) cations. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 2.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

33) Which of the following is both an anion and a compound? A) Na+ B) ClC) K+ D) HCO3E) NaCl Answer: D Learning Outcome: 2.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 34) When electrons are transferred from one atom to another, and the two atoms unite as a result of the opposite charges, A) an ion is formed. B) a free electron is formed. C) a hydrogen bond is formed. D) an ionic bond is formed. E) a covalent bond is formed. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 2.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 35) Magnesium atoms have two electrons in their outermost shells, and chlorine atoms have seven. The compound magnesium chloride would contain A) 1 magnesium and 1 chlorine. B) 1 magnesium and 2 chlorine. C) 2 magnesium and 1 chlorine. D) 2 magnesium and 7 chlorine. E) It is impossible to determine without more information. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 2.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 36) The molecule CO2 is known as A) carbonized oxygen. B) carbonated oxygen. C) carbon monoxide. D) carbon oxide. E) carbon dioxide. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 2.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

37) The molecule H2 is known as A) hydrohydrogen. B) hydrogen. C) hydroxide. D) helium. E) semi-water. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 2.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 38) The molecule O2 is known as A) oxide. B) oxygen. C) organic. D) oxygen and organic. E) oxyous. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 2.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 39) H2O is an example of a(n) A) ionic formula. B) glucose molecule. C) molecular formula. D) covalent formula. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 2.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 40) The weakest bond between two atoms is the _ A) ionic B) covalent C) polar D) nonpolar E) hydrogen Answer: E Learning Outcome: 2.5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

bond.

41) Which of the following statements about hydrogen bonds is false? A) Hydrogen bonds are strong attractive forces between hydrogen atoms and negatively charged atoms. B) Hydrogen bonds can occur within a single molecule. C) Hydrogen bonds can form between neighboring molecules. D) Hydrogen bonds are important for holding large molecules together. E) Hydrogen bonds are responsible for many of the properties of water. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 2.5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 42) A dust particle floating on a water surface illustrates A) surface tension. B) chemical tension. C) static electricity. D) heat capacity. E) hydrophilic attraction. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 2.5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 43) The three familiar states of matter listed in order from the least to most thermal energy are A) gas, solid, liquid. B) liquid, gas, solid. C) gas, liquid, solid. D) solid, gas, liquid. E) solid, liquid, gas. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 2.5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 44) Kinetic energy is stored as A) chemical B) work C) thermal D) potential E) motion Answer: D Learning Outcome: 2.6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

energy when a spring is stretched.

45) In the reaction listed below, what coefficient needs to be added to balance the equation? 6 CO2 + 6 H2O → C6H12O6 + O2. A) 2 B) 4 C) 6 D) 8 E) 10 Answer: C Learning Outcome: 2.7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 46) AB → A + B is to decomposition as A + B → AB is to A) exchange. B) synthesis. C) combustion. D) replacement. E) metabolism. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 2.8 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 47) The reaction N2 + 3 H2 → 2 NH3 is an example of a(n) A) exchange reaction. B) decomposition reaction. C) synthesis reaction. D) enzyme reaction. E) metabolic reaction. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 2.8 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 48) In hydrolysis reactions, compounds react with A) hydrogen, causing decomposition. B) glucose, causing decomposition. C) water, causing decomposition. D) carbon, causing decomposition. E) water, causing synthesis. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 2.8 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

49) In dehydration reactions, compounds A) lose water molecules. B) gain water molecules. C) convert water molecules to hydrogen and oxygen. D) convert hydrogen and oxygen to water. E) gain electrons. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 2.8 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 50) The reaction A + B + energy → AB is an example of a(n) A) exergonic reaction. B) endergonic reaction. C) equilibrium reaction. D) decomposition reaction. E) exchange reaction. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 2.9 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 51) Chemical reactions that yield energy, such as heat, are said to be A) endergonic. B) activated. C) exergonic. D) neutral. E) thermonuclear. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 2.9 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 52) All of the following are true concerning enzymes except that they A) are proteins. B) function as biological catalysts. C) lower the activation energy required for a reaction. D) affect only the rate of a chemical reaction. E) are consumed during the reaction. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 2.9 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

53) Compounds that can be synthesized or broken down by chemical reactions inside the body are called A) inorganic compounds. B) organic compounds. C) nutrients. D) metabolites. E) enzymes. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 2.9 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 54) Each of the following is an example of an inorganic compound except A) water. B) acids. C) bases. D) salts. E) proteins. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 2.9 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 55) Which of the following is/are inorganic substance(s)? A) fructose B) water C) glycerol D) carbon dioxide E) both water and carbon dioxide Answer: E Learning Outcome: 2.9 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 56) Chemical reactions that release energy are called A) energetic. B) exergonic. C) endergonic. D) metabolic. E) enzymatic. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 2.9 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

57) Chemical reactions that absorb energy are called A) energetic. B) exergonic. C) endergonic. D) metabolic. E) enzymatic. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 2.9 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 58) accelerate chemical reactions that occur in the human body. A) Enzymes B) Reactants C) Products D) Metabolites E) Nutrients Answer: A Learning Outcome: 2.9 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 59) In living cells, complex metabolic reactions proceed in a series of steps called A) enzymes. B) a metabolic pathway. C) catalysts. D) reactants. E) products. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 2.9 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 60) molecules are compounds that contain carbon as the primary structural atom. A) Complex B) Inorganic C) Exergonic D) Endergonic E) Organic Answer: E Learning Outcome: 2.9 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

61) compounds do not usually contain carbon as a primary structural atom. A) Complex B) Inorganic C) Exergonic D) Endergonic E) Organic Answer: B Learning Outcome: 2.9 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 62) Which of the following statements about water is not correct? A) It is composed of polar molecules. B) It is responsible for much of the mass of the human body. C) It has a relatively low heat capacity. D) It can dissolve many substances. E) It contains hydrogen bonds. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 2.10 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 63) A(n) is a homogeneous mixture containing a solvent and a solute. A) concoction B) organic molecule C) inorganic molecule D) blend E) solution Answer: E Learning Outcome: 2.10 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 64) Which property of water helps keep body temperature stabilized? A) kinetic energy B) lubrication C) surface tension D) reactivity E) thermal inertia Answer: E Learning Outcome: 2.10 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

65) are soluble inorganic compounds whose solutions will conduct an electric current. A) Proteins B) Lipids C) Ions D) Electrolytes E) Enzymes Answer: D Learning Outcome: 2.11 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 66) Molecules that do not readily dissolve in water are called A) hydrophobic. B) hydrophilic. C) electrolytes. D) isophilic. E) isophobic. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 2.11 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 67) During ionization, water molecules disrupt the ionic bonds of a salt to produce a mixture of ions. These ions can carry a current and so are called A) cations. B) anions. C) acids. D) electrolytes. E) counter ions. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 2.11 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 68) Oppositely charged ions in solution are prevented from combining by A) heat capacity of water. B) hydration spheres. C) water's nonpolar nature. D) free radicals. E) hydrogen bonding. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 2.11 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

69) Hydrophilic molecules readily associate with A) lipid molecules. B) hydrophobic molecules. C) water molecules. D) both lipid molecules and hydrophobic molecules. E) cholesterol. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 2.11 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 70) Nonpolar organic molecules are good examples of A) electrolytes. B) molecules that will dissociate when placed into water. C) hydrophobic compounds. D) hydrophilic compounds. E) solutes. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 2.11 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 71) A solution containing equal numbers of hydrogen ions and hydroxide ions is A) acidic. B) basic. C) neutral. D) alkaline. E) in equilibrium. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 2.12 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 72) Which of the following substances would be most acidic? A) lemon juice, pH = 2 B) urine, pH = 6 C) tomato juice, pH = 4 D) white wine, pH = 3 E) stomach secretions, pH = 1 Answer: E Learning Outcome: 2.12 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

73) If a substance has a pH that is greater than 7, it is A) neutral. B) acidic. C) alkaline. D) a buffer. E) a salt. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 2.12 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 74) An important buffer in body fluids is A) NaCl. B) NaOH. C) HCl. D) NaHCO3. E) H2O. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 2.12 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 75) In the body, inorganic compounds A) can serve as buffers. B) can make up proteins. C) can make up lipids. D) are structural components of cells. E) are all very large. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 2.12 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 76) Of the following choices, the pH of the least acidic solution is A) 6.0. B) 4.5. C) 2.3. D) 1.0. E) 12.0. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 2.12 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

77) Which has the greater concentration of hydrogen ions, a substance with a pH of 5 or a substance with a pH of 4? A) A pH of 4 is greater. B) A pH of 5 is greater. C) They are both equal; 4 and 5 are relative values. D) pH 9, if you mixed the solutions. E) Neither; pH has nothing to do with hydrogen ion concentration. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 2.12 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 78) Of the list below, which has the highest concentration of hydroxide ions? A) pH 1 B) pH 14 C) pH 7 D) pH 10 E) pH 2 Answer: B Learning Outcome: 2.12 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 79) Which pH is closest to normal blood pH? A) pH 7 B) pH 8 C) pH 4 D) pH 3 E) pH 2 Answer: A Learning Outcome: 2.12 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 80) A(n) removes hydrogen ions, and a(n) A) acid; base B) base; acid C) compound; element D) element; compound E) molecule; acid Answer: B Learning Outcome: 2.12 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

releases hydrogen ions.

81) An excess of hydrogen ions in the body fluids can have fatal results because this can A) block ion movements. B) change the shape of large complex molecules, rendering them nonfunctional. C) disrupt tissue functions. D) All of the answers are correct. E) None of the answers is correct. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 2.12 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 82) When placed in water, an inorganic compound dissociates 99 percent, forming hydrogen ions and anions. This compound would be a A) strong base. B) weak base. C) strong acid. D) weak acid. E) salt. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 2.12 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 83) When a small amount of HCl or NaOH is added to a solution of Na2HPO4, the pH of the solution barely changes. Based on these observations, all of the following are true concerning the compound Na2HPO4 except A) Na2HPO4 is able to accept extra hydrogen ions from the HCl. B) Na2HPO4 is able to donate hydrogen ions to the OH- from NaOH. C) Na2HPO4 adsorbs excess H+ and OH- directly onto the surface of its crystalline structure. D) Na2HPO4 is a salt formed from reacting a strong base with a weak acid. E) Na2HPO4 acts as a buffer. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 2.12 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 84) The of a solution is the negative logarithm of the hydrogen ion concentration expressed in moles per liter. A) dissociation B) electronegativity C) electrical current D) pH E) electropositivity Answer: D Learning Outcome: 2.12 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

85) All fatty acids contain a functional group at one end called the A) amino B) carboxyl C) hydroxyl D) phosphate E) nitroxyl Answer: B Learning Outcome: 2.13 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

group.

86) Carbohydrates, lipids, and proteins are classified as A) organic molecules. B) inorganic molecules. C) acids. D) salts. E) bases. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 2.13 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 87) Which of the following is the symbol for an amino group? A) -COOH B) -PO3 C) -NH2 D) -AMO E) -OH Answer: C Learning Outcome: 2.13 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 88) Which of the following functional groups of organic compounds link molecules through dehydration synthesis? A) amino group B) hydroxyl group C) phosphate group D) carboxyl group E) none of the above Answer: B Learning Outcome: 2.13 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

89) A functional group is best described as reoccurring clusters of A) elements that occur in a salt. B) atoms that greatly influence the chemical properties of molecules they are part of. C) atoms that function in the body. D) elements that form at high pH. E) amino acids in a globular protein. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 2.13 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 90) Carbohydrate molecules A) are the building blocks of cellular membranes. B) form the regulatory molecules known as enzymes. C) are the body's most readily available source of energy. D) are composed of C, H, O, and N atoms. E) contain the genetic information found in cells. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 2.14 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 91) The most important metabolic fuel molecule in the body is A) sucrose. B) caffeine. C) protein. D) vitamins. E) glucose. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 2.14 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 92) Which of the following are large polysaccharides and major dietary source of energy? A) maltose B) fructose C) sucrose D) starch E) lactose Answer: D Learning Outcome: 2.14 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

93) A polysaccharide that is formed in muscle cells to store glucose is A) lactose. B) cellulose. C) glycogen. D) sucrose. E) fructose. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 2.14 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 94) The group of organic compounds containing carbon, hydrogen, and oxygen in a near 1:2:1 ratio is defined as a A) carbohydrate. B) lipid. C) protein. D) nucleic acid. E) cholesterol. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 2.14 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 95) Which of the following is correct regarding fructose? A) It is a disaccharide. B) It is a polysaccharide. C) It is the most important metabolic fuel in the body. D) It is obtained only from food. E) It is an isomer of glucose. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 2.14 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 96) When two monosaccharides undergo a dehydration synthesis, A) two new monosaccharides are formed. B) a disaccharide is formed. C) a polysaccharide is formed. D) a starch is formed. E) All of the answers are correct. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 2.14 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

97) Which one of the following must be broken down to fatty acids and glycerol for use as an energy source? A) lauric acid B) triglycerides C) prostaglandins D) cholesterol E) lecithin Answer: B Learning Outcome: 2.15 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 98) Which of the following is a chemical messenger coordinating local cellular activities? A) diglycerides B) leukotrienes C) vholesterol D) lauric acid E) lecithin Answer: B Learning Outcome: 2.15 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 99) Which of the following is a structural component of cell membranes? A) diglycerides B) prostaglandins C) cholesterol D) lauric acid E) glycogen Answer: C Learning Outcome: 2.15 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 100) Which of the following is a structural component of hormones? A) monoglycerides B) prostaglandins C) lauric acid D) phospholipids E) steroids Answer: E Learning Outcome: 2.15 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

101) Which of the following is a structural component of digestive secretions in bile? A) steroids B) glycerides C) eicosanoids D) fatty acids E) glycolipids Answer: A Learning Outcome: 2.15 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 102) are short-chain fatty acids in which five of the carbon atoms are joined in a ring. A) Cholesterol B) Estrogen C) Testosterone D) Prostaglandins E) Glycolipids Answer: D Learning Outcome: 2.16 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 103) A shortage of cholesterol in the body could interfere with the formation of A) sex hormones. B) proteins. C) cytoplasm. D) glycogen. E) nucleic acids. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 2.16 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 104) A carbohydrate is attached to a diglyceride in which type of lipid? A) phospholipids B) prostaglandins C) leukotrienes D) steroids E) glycolipids Answer: E Learning Outcome: 2.16 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

105) Which of the following lipids are produced in response to cellular injury or disease? A) cholesterol B) glycolipids C) phospholipids D) sex steroids E) leukotrienes Answer: E Learning Outcome: 2.16 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 106) are large lipid molecules with distinctive carbon-ring frameworks. A) Steroids B) Eicosanoids C) Phospholipids D) Glycolipids E) Micelles Answer: A Learning Outcome: 2.16 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 107) All amino acid molecules contain A) carbon, hydrogen, oxygen and phosphate. B) carbon, oxygen and nitrogen. C) carbon, nitrogen and hydrogen. D) carbon, nitrogen, hydrogen and oxygen. E) carbon, nitrogen, oxygen, phosphate and sulfate. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 2.17 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 108) Every amino acid has a central carbon atom to which all of the followings are attached except A) a hydrogen atom. B) a phosphate group. C) an amino group. D) a carboxyl group. E) a variable side group labeled as R. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 2.17 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

109) A sequence of amino acids bonded together in a linear chain is called a A) primary structure. B) secondary structure. C) tertiary structure. D) quaternary structure. E) tripeptide. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 2.17 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 110) Which of the following is a result of convoluted coiling and folding that grants protein its final three-dimensional shape? A) primary structure B) secondary structure C) tertiary structure D) quaternary structure E) pentagonal Answer: C Learning Outcome: 2.17 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 111) All of the following are correct regarding protein denaturation except A) with increase in temperature, enzyme function deteriorates. B) tertiary structure becomes nonfunctional. C) secondary structure becomes nonfunctional. D) quaternary structure becomes nonfunctional. E) death may occur at very high temperature. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 2.17 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 112) Which of the following is correct regarding enzymes? A) They are made of lipids. B) They slow down cellular reactions. C) They are organic catalysts and are made of proteins. D) They bind to the active site of substrates. E) They are released during cellular injury. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 2.18 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

113) Substrate molecules bind to enzymes at the _ A) amino B) active C) carboxyl D) reactant E) neutral Answer: B Learning Outcome: 2.18 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

sites.

114) The maximum rate of an enzyme reaction occurs at A) dehydration. B) hydrolysis. C) synthesis. D) reversible. E) saturation limit. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 2.18 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 115) The most abundant high-energy compound in cells is A) DNA. B) adenosine diphosphate. C) adenosine monophosphate. D) adenosine triphosphate. E) RNA. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 2.19 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 116) A high-energy bond in ATP is present between A) adenine and ribose. B) adenine and a phosphate group. C) the first and second phosphate group. D) the second and third phosphate group. E) the first and second, and the second and third phosphate groups. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 2.19 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

117) What product is formed from the addition of a phosphate group to ADP? A) adenosine diphosphate B) adenine C) adenosine triphosphate D) deoxyribonucleic acid E) ribose Answer: C Learning Outcome: 2.19 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 118) AMP + P → A) ADP. B) 2ADP. C) DNA. D) ATP. E) adenine. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 2.19 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 119) Adding a phosphate group to adenosine forms A) ADP. B) ATP. C) AMP. D) 2ATP. E) ribose. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 2.19 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 120) Adenosine is formed by combining A) adenine and ribose. B) adenine and phosphate group. C) ribose and a phosphate group. D) adenine, ribose, and a phosphate group. E) adenine, ribose, and 3 phosphate groups. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 2.19 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

121) The hydrolysis of ATP yields ADP, a phosphate ion, and A) a second phosphate ion. B) a hydrogen ion. C) energy. D) ribose sugar. E) adenine. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 2.19 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 122) What is the individual subunit of nucleic acid called? A) ribonucleic acid B) deoxyribonucleic acid C) purine D) nucleotide E) pyrimidine Answer: D Learning Outcome: 2.20 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 123) Molecules that store and process genetic information are A) proteins. B) nucleic acids. C) carbohydrates. D) lipids. E) steroids. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 2.20 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 124) What is an important characteristic of amino acid uracil? A) It is found only in DNA. B) It is found only in RNA. C) It is found both in DNA and RNA. D) It is not found in DNA or RNA. E) It is an essential part of quaternary proteins. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 2.20 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

125) All of the following are correct regarding RNA except A) it contains ribose sugar. B) molecular shape varies with hydrogen bonding along the length of the strand. C) the nitrogenous base is made of adenine, guanine, cytosine, and uracil. D) it makes protein as directed by DNA. E) it contains a double helix. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 2.20 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 126) All of the following are correct regarding DNA except A) it contains deoxyribose sugar. B) molecular shape varies with hydrogen bonding along the length of the strand. C) the nitrogenous base is made of adenine, guanine, cytosine, and thymine. D) it stores genetic information. E) it contains a double helix. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 2.20 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 127) Adenine and guanine are A) purines represented by T and C. B) pyrimidines represented by A and G. C) purines represented by A and G. D) pyrimidines represented by T and C. E) nucleotides represented by A and G. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 2.20 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 128) The structure of RNA differs from DNA in that A) the backbone of RNA contains ribose. B) RNA contains pyrimidines but not purines. C) RNA contains purines but not pyrimidines. D) DNA contains pyrimidines but not purines. E) DNA contains purines but not pyrimidines. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 2.20 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

129) The purines found in DNA are A) cytosine; guanine B) adenine; guanine C) thymine; cytosine D) adenine; cytosine E) thymine; guanine Answer: B Learning Outcome: 2.20 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

and

130) The pyrimidine bases found in DNA are A) cytosine; guanine B) adenine; guanine C) thymine; cytosine D) adenine; cytosine E) thymine; guanine Answer: C Learning Outcome: 2.20 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

and

131) What is the relationship between an atom and matter? (Module 2.1A) A) An atom is the smallest stable unit of matter, and matter is anything that takes up space and has mass. B) An atom is the largest stable unit of matter, and matter is anything that takes up space and has mass. C) An atom is a particle with a negative electrical charge, and matter is mass within a gravitational field. D) An atom is a chemical substance made up of two or more different elements in a fixed proportion, and matter is a pure substance consisting only of atoms with the same atomic number. E) An atom is the smallest stable unit of matter, and matter is a pure substance consisting only of atoms with the same atomic number. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 2.1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 132) Which subatomic particles have a positive charge? Which are uncharged? (Module 2.1B) A) protons; electrons B) electrons; protons C) protons; neutrons D) neutrons; electrons E) electrons; neutrons Answer: C Learning Outcome: 2.1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

133) Describe the subatomic particle not in the nucleus. (Module 2.1C) A) Protons are not in the nucleus. They whirl around the nucleus creating a proton cloud. B) Electrons are not in the nucleus. They whirl around the nucleus creating an electron cloud. C) Neutrons are not in the nucleus. They whirl around the nucleus creating a neutron cloud. D) Protons and neutrons are not in the nucleus. They whirl around the nucleus creating a proton and neutron cloud. E) Protons and electrons are not in the nucleus. They whirl around the nucleus creating a proton and electron cloud. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 2.1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 134) The gravitational field of the moon is 17% of Earth's. How would the weight and mass of a 100-pound astronaut change on the moon? (Module 2.1D) A) On the moon, the astronaut would have more mass than on Earth but would weigh the same. B) On the moon, the astronaut would have less mass than on Earth but would weigh the same. C) On the moon, the astronaut would have the same mass as on Earth but would weigh 17 pounds (100 × 0.17). D) On the moon, the astronaut would have the same mass as on Earth but would weigh 588 pounds (100/0.17). E) On the moon, the astronaut would have less mass than on Earth and would weigh 17 pounds (100 × 0.17). Answer: C Learning Outcome: 2.1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 135) Which is larger: an element's atomic number or mass number? (Module 2.2A) A) atomic number B) mass number Answer: B Learning Outcome: 2.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 136) Carbon-12 (12C) is the most common form of the element carbon. How is the isotope carbon-13 (13C) similar to and different from 12C? (Module 2.2B) A) Isotope 13C has the same chemical properties but has one more electron than 12C. B) Isotope 13C has the same chemical properties but has one more proton than 12C. C) Isotope 13C has the same chemical properties but has one more neutron than 12C. D) Isotope 13C has different chemical properties and has one more electron and one more proton than 12C. E) Isotope 13C has different chemical properties and has one more electron than 12C. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 2.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

137) Describe trace elements. (Module 2.2D) A) Trace elements are abundant in the atmosphere and also abundant in the human body. B) Trace elements are present in small amounts in the body and are required for normal growth and maintenance. C) Trace elements are present in small amounts in the body and are not necessary for normal growth and maintenance. D) Trace elements are present in small amounts in the atmosphere but accumulate in the body at high levels. E) Trace elements are the elements produced by nuclear reactions in research laboratories. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 2.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 138) List the chemical symbols of the six most abundant elements in the human body and their total percentage contribution to total body weight. (Module 2.2E) A) O, C, H, N, K, Na. They account for 65% of total body weight. B) O, C, H, N, K, Na. They account for 99.3% of total body weight. C) O, C, H, N, Ca, and P. They account for 65% of total body weight. D) O, C, H, N, Ca, and P. They account for 99.3% of total body weight. E) O, C, H, N, Ca, and P. They account for 100% of total body weight. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 2.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 139) Indicate the maximum number of electrons that can occupy each of the first three energy levels of an atom. (Module 2.3A) A) 1, 4, 8 B) 1, 2, 4 C) 2, 4, 8 D) 2, 8, 8 E) 2, 8, 16 Answer: D Learning Outcome: 2.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

140) Explain why the atoms of inert elements do not react with one another or combine with atoms of other elements. (Module 2.3B) A) Atoms of inert elements are nonreactive because the innermost electron shell contains the maximum number of electrons possible. B) Atoms of inert elements are nonreactive because the innermost electron shell contains the minimum number of electrons possible. C) Atoms of inert elements are nonreactive because the outermost electron shell (valence shell) contains the maximum number of electrons possible. D) Atoms of inert elements are nonreactive because the outermost electron shell (valence shell) contains the minimum number of electrons possible. E) Atoms of inert elements are nonreactive because the number of electrons is equal to the number of protons. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 2.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 141) Cations are smaller in diameter than their electrically neutral atom. Why? (Module 2.3D) A) When electrons are lost, the remaining electrons are pulled closer toward the nucleus. B) When electrons are lost, the remaining electrons are pulled further away from the nucleus. C) When electrons are gained, the electrons are pulled closer toward the nucleus. D) When electrons are gained, the electrons are pulled further away from the nucleus. E) When electrons are lost, the remaining electrons enter the nucleus. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 2.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 142) Describe why table salt is a compound. (Module 2.4A) A) Table salt is a compound because it is made up of more than one element in different proportions. B) Table salt is a compound because it is made up of only one element with different isotopes. C) Table salt is a compound because it is made up of only one element bound with more than one type of chemical bond. D) Table salt is a compound because it is made up of more than one isotope in different proportions. E) Table salt is a compound because it is made up of more than one element in a fixed proportion. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 2.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

143) How many electrons are shared by the oxygen atoms in an oxygen molecule? (Module 2.4B) A) one electron B) eight electrons C) 1 pair of electrons D) 2 pairs of electrons E) 3 pairs of electrons Answer: D Learning Outcome: 2.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 144) Describe the kind of bonds that hold the atoms in a water molecule together. (Module 2.4C) A) Water molecule bonds are ionic bonds, in which electrons are gained and lost to create the bond. B) Water molecule bonds are oxygen bonds, in which oxygen atoms form bonds together. C) Water molecule bonds are polar covalent bonds, in which unequal sharing of electrons occurs. D) Water molecule bonds are nonpolar covalent bonds, in which equal sharing of electrons occurs. E) Water molecules bonds are nonpolar ionic bonds, in which equal movement of electrons occurs. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 2.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 145) Describe the different states of matter in terms of shape and volume. (Module 2.5A) A) Solids have a fixed volume and shape, liquids have a constant volume but no fixed shape, and gases have neither a constant volume nor a fixed shape. B) Solids have a constant volume but not fixed shape, liquids have a fixed volume and shape, and gases have neither a constant volume nor a fixed shape. C) Solids have a constant volume but not fixed shape, liquids have neither a constant volume nor a fixed shape, and gases have a fixed volume and shape. D) Solids have a fixed volume and shape, liquids have neither a constant volume nor a fixed shape, and gases have a constant volume but no fixed shape. E) Solids have neither a constant volume nor a fixed shape, liquids have a constant volume but no fixed shape, and gases have a fixed volume and shape. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 2.5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

146) By what means are water molecules attracted to each other? (Module 2.5B) A) by oxygen bonds B) by hydrogen bonds C) by ionic bonds D) by nonpolar covalent bonds E) by isotopes Answer: B Learning Outcome: 2.5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 147) Explain why small insects can walk on the surface of a pond and why tears protect the surface of the eye from dust particles. (Module 2.5C) A) The attraction of the water molecules disrupts the ionic bonds preventing small objects from penetrating the water. B) The attraction of water molecules creates a gas layer that prevents small objects from penetrating the water. C) The attraction of water molecules creates an ice layer that prevents small objects from penetrating the water. D) The attraction of water molecules creates a surface tension barrier that prevents small objects from penetrating the water. E) The attraction of water molecules forms ionic bonds creating a barrier that prevents small objects from penetrating the water. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 2.5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 148) Name the participants in a chemical reaction. (Module 2.7A) A) reactants B) products C) enzymes D) vitamins E) cofactors Answer: A Learning Outcome: 2.7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

149) How are chemical reactions represented? (Module 2.7B) A) Reactions are represented by line plots and the line represents the direction of the reaction. B) Reactions are represented by a sine wave and the slope represents the direction of the reaction. C) Reactions are represented by chemical equations and the arrow represents the direction of the reaction. D) Reactions are represented by Lewis structural models and the total number of atoms represents the direction of the reaction. E) Reactions are represented by superscripts and subscripts and the charge represents the direction of the reaction. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 2.7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 150) What is formula weight? (Module 2.7C) A) the sum of the atomic weights of its component atoms B) the weight in grams equal to the element's atomic weight C) the total weight of an element including the isotopes D) the average weight of an element's different atomic masses and proportions of its different isotopes E) the sum of the atomic weights of the elements making up an ionic compound Answer: E Learning Outcome: 2.7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 151) Using chemical notation, write the molecular formula for glucose, a compound composed of 6 carbon (C) atoms, 12 hydrogen (H) atoms, and 6 oxygen (O) atoms. (Module 2.7D) A) CHO B) CH2O C) C1H2O1 D) C6H12O6 E) CHO (6-12-6) Answer: D Learning Outcome: 2.7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 152) Calculate the weight of 1 mol of glucose. (The atomic weight of carbon = 12). (Module 2.7E) A) 29 grams B) 180 grams C) 12 grams D) 24 grams E) 120 grams Answer: B Learning Outcome: 2.7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 39

153) Compare the role of water in hydrolysis and dehydration synthesis reactions. (Module 2.8A) A) In hydrolysis, water is a reactant; in dehydration synthesis, water is a product. B) In hydrolysis, water is a product; in dehydration synthesis, water is a reactant. C) In hydrolysis and dehydration synthesis, water is a reactant. D) In hydrolysis and dehydration synthesis, water is a product. E) In hydrolysis and dehydration synthesis, water is an enzyme. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 2.8 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 154) What is the source of energy that converts glucose, a six-carbon molecule, into two threecarbon molecules in cells? (Module 2.8C) A) The potential energy stored in the ionic bonds of the glucose molecule is released when some of the bonds break. B) The kinetic energy released as ions are formed when glucose is broken down. C) The potential energy stored in the covalent bonds of the glucose molecule is released when some of the bonds break. D) The kinetic energy released as one glucose molecule combines with another glucose molecule. E) The kinetic energy is converted to potential energy as the glucose molecule forms. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 2.8 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 155) What is an enzyme? (Module 2.9A) A) An enzyme is a protein that increases the activation energy so more energy can be generated. B) An enzyme is a protein that lowers the activation energy of a reaction. C) An enzyme provides the activation energy of a reaction. D) An enzyme is an inorganic compound. E) An enzyme is a polymer produced by linking monomers together. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 2.9 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 156) Why do our cells need enzymes? (Module 2.9B) A) Enzymes are important sources of nutrients. B) Enzymes are important inorganic compounds used by cells. C) Enzymes provide the activation energy of a reaction so it can occur. D) Enzymes lower the activation energy of a reaction so it can occur. E) Enzymes increase the activation energy of a reaction so it can occur. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 2.9 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

157) What is an important by-product of exergonic reactions? (Module 2.9C) A) water B) carbon dioxide C) oxygen D) polymers E) heat Answer: E Learning Outcome: 2.9 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 158) Explain how the ionic compound sodium chloride dissolves in water. (Module 2.11A) A) The positive poles of water molecules are attracted to the negatively charged chloride ions, and the negative poles of water molecules are attracted to the positively charged sodium ions. B) The positive poles of water molecules are attracted to the positively charged chloride ions, and the negative poles of water molecules are attracted to the negatively charged sodium ions. C) The negative poles of water molecules are attracted to the negatively charged chloride ions, and the positive poles of water molecules are attracted to the positively charged sodium ions. D) The negative poles of water molecules are attracted to the positively charged chloride ions, and the positive poles of water molecules are attracted to the negatively charged sodium ions. E) Sodium chloride is hydrophobic so it does not dissolve in water. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 2.11 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 159) Define electrolytes. (Module 2.11B) A) Electrolytes are enzymes that create energy in a solution. B) Electrolytes are enzymes that lower the activation energy for a solution. C) Electrolytes are ions that will conduct an electrical current in a solution. D) Electrolytes are hydrophobic and will create an electrical barrier between the hydrophobic substances and the hydrophilic substances in a solution. E) Electrolytes are sugar polymers used to rehydrate by increasing plasma volume. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 2.11 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 160) Distinguish between hydrophilic and hydrophobic molecules. (Module 2.11C) A) Hydrophilic molecules are attracted to water, whereas hydrophobic molecules do not interact with water molecules. B) Hydrophilic molecules do not interact with water molecules, whereas hydrophobic molecules are attracted to water. C) Hydrophilic molecules are inorganic, whereas hydrophobic molecules are organic. D) Hydrophilic molecules are organic, whereas hydrophobic molecules are inorganic. E) Hydrophilic molecules are monomers, whereas hydrophobic molecules are polymers. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 2.11 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 41

161) Define pH. (Module 2.12A) A) pH is a measure of the oxygen concentration in a solution. B) pH is a measure of the pressure of all the dissolved gases in a solution. C) pH is a measure of blood pressure. D) pH is a measure of the temperature in a solution. E) pH is a measure of the hydrogen ion concentration in a solution. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 2.12 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 162) A hydrogen ion is the same as what subatomic particle? (Module 2.12B) A) electron B) neutron C) proton D) quark E) neutrino Answer: C Learning Outcome: 2.12 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 163) List the elements that make up organic compounds. (Module 2.13A) A) hydrogen and oxygen only B) hydrogen and carbon, and generally oxygen as well C) hydrogen, oxygen, sodium, chloride D) sodium, chloride, and potassium E) hydrogen, nitrogen, and sodium Answer: B Learning Outcome: 2.13 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 164) What is a functional group? (Module 2.13B) A) A functional group is the result of dissociation of organic molecules. B) A functional group is the final energy source in organic catabolism. C) A functional group is the complex created when an enzymes binds its substrate to complete a reaction. D) A functional group is a grouping of atoms that confer specific chemical properties to the rest of the molecule to which it is attached. E) A functional group is the specific grouping of atoms on a molecule to which enzymes can bind. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 2.13 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

165) Describe the functional groups that are considered acidic or basic. (Module 2.13D) A) An amino group acts as a base because it can accept hydrogen ions, and a carboxyl group acts as an acid because it releases a hydrogen ion. B) An amino group acts as a base because it releases a hydrogen ion, and a carboxyl group acts as an acid because it can accept hydrogen ions. C) A phosphate group acts as a base because it can accept hydrogen ions, and a hydroxyl group acts as an acid because it releases a hydrogen ion. D) A phosphate group acts as an acid because it can accept hydrogen ions, and a hydroxyl group acts as a base because it releases a hydrogen ion. E) Phosphate groups can act as an acid or a base depending on the pH of the surrounding solution. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 2.13 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 166) What is the most important function of carbohydrates? (Module 2.14A) A) to form and maintain the cell membrane B) to provide the basic structure for all steroid hormones to be derived C) they act as enzymes D) they are the building blocks of proteins E) they are the primary energy source Answer: E Learning Outcome: 2.14 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 167) Which of the structural representations of glucose shown below is more common in the body? (Module 2.14B) A) linear form B) ring form C) ionic form D) unsaturated form E) saturated form Answer: B Learning Outcome: 2.14 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 168) List the three structural classes of carbohydrates, and give an example of each. (Module 2.14C) A) monosaccharides (glucose), disaccharides (sucrose), and polysaccharides (starch) B) monosaccharides (sucrose), disaccharides (starch), and polysaccharides (glucose) C) monosaccharides (glucose), disaccharides (starch), and polysaccharides (sucrose) D) monosaccharides (sucrose), disaccharides (glucose), and polysaccharides (starch) E) monosaccharides (starch), disaccharides (glucose), and polysaccharides (sucrose) Answer: A Learning Outcome: 2.14 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 43

169) Predict the reactants and the type of chemical reaction involved when muscle cells make and store glycogen. (Module 2.14D) A) glucose and fructose; dehydration synthesis B) glucose and fructose; hydrolysis C) many glucose monomers; dehydration synthesis D) many glucose monomers; hydrolysis E) many starch monomers; hydrolysis Answer: C Learning Outcome: 2.14 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 170) Describe lipids in terms of their elemental composition and solubility in water. (Module 2.15A) A) water-soluble organic compounds made up of carbon, hydrogen, and oxygen B) water-insoluble organic compounds made up of carbon, hydrogen, and oxygen C) water-soluble inorganic compounds made up of hydrogen and oxygen D) water-insoluble inorganic compounds made up of hydrogen and oxygen E) water-soluble organic compounds made up of hydrogen and oxygen Answer: B Learning Outcome: 2.15 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 171) In the hydrolysis of a triglyceride, what are the reactants and the products? (Module 2.15D) A) The reactants are a glycerol molecule and three fatty acids; the products are a triglyceride and three water molecules. B) The reactants are a triglyceride and three water molecules; the products are a glycerol molecule and three fatty acids. C) The reactants are a glucose monomer and three water molecules; the products are a glycogen molecule and three fatty acids. D) The reactants are a glycogen molecule and three water molecules; the products are a glucose monomer and three fatty acids. E) The reactants are a glycine molecule and three water molecules; the products are a glyceride molecule and three fatty acids. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 2.15 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

172) Describe the structure and role of prostaglandins. (Module 2.16A) A) They are a type of leukotrienes released by cells to coordinate local cellular activities and produce pain sensations. B) They are a type of steroid used to maintain the plasma membrane and for cell growth and division. C) They are a type of eicosanoid released by cells to coordinate local cellular activities and produce pain sensations. D) They have a carbohydrate attached to a diglyceride and are used to maintain the plasma membrane. E) They have a carbon-ring structure and are used for producing many steroid hormones. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 2.16 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 173) Why is cholesterol necessary in the body? (Module 2.16B) A) It is important for energy production. B) It is an important enzyme. C) It is a building block for proteins. D) It is a component of plasma membranes and is important for cell growth and division. E) It makes up the genetic material. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 2.16 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 174) Describe the orientations of phospholipids and glycolipids when they form a micelle. (Module 2.16C) A) The hydrophobic tails are inside, and the hydrophilic heads form the surface of the micelle. B) The hydrophilic tails are inside, and the hydrophobic heads form the surface of the micelle. C) The hydrophobic heads are inside, and the hydrophilic tails form the surface of the micelle. D) The hydrophilic heads are inside, and the hydrophobic tails form the surface of the micelle. E) The phospholipids are on the inside, and the glycolipids form the surface of the micelle. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 2.16 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 175) What do cholesterol, phospholipids, and glycolipids have in common? (Module 2.16D) A) They all form ring structures. B) They all have carbohydrate groups attached. C) They are all linear structures. D) They are all structural lipids that form membranes of cells. E) They are all soluble in water. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 2.16 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

176) What kind of bond forms during the dehydration synthesis of two amino acids, and which functional groups are involved? (Module 2.17B) A) A glycosidic bond forms between the amino group of one amino acid and the carboxyl group of the other amino acid. B) A hydrogen bond forms between the hydrogen atom of one amino acid and the oxygen atom of the other amino acid. C) An ionic bond forms between the amino ion of one amino acid and the carboxylic acid of the other amino acid. D) A lipophilic bond forms between the hydrophobic tail of one amino acid and the hydrophilic head of the other amino acid. E) A peptide bond forms between the amino group of one amino acid and the carboxyl group of the other amino acid. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 2.17 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 177) What are the reactants in an enzymatic reaction called? (Module 2.18A) A) ATP B) energy C) substrates D) products E) inhibitors Answer: C Learning Outcome: 2.18 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 178) Relate an enzyme's structure to its reaction specificity. (Module 2.18B) A) The reaction specificity relates to the unique shape of the active site to which only a complementary shape can bind. B) The reaction specificity relates to the number of enzymes with the same structure. C) The reaction specificity relates to the size of the enzyme. D) The reaction specificity relates to how many active sites are present on the enzyme. E) The reaction specificity relates to how much energy is created when the enzyme-substrate complex forms. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 2.18 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 179) Describe ATP. (Module 2.19A) A) ATP consists of an adenine molecule with three potassium ions attached. B) ATP consists of an adenosine molecule with three phosphate groups attached. C) ATP consists of an adenosine, a thymine, and a pyrimidine molecule linked together. D) ATP consists of an adenine molecule with three phosphate groups attached. E) ATP consists of an adenosine with three potassium ions attached. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 2.19 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 46

180) Compare AMP with ADP. (Module 2.19B) A) AMP has one potassium ion and ADP has two potassium ions. B) AMP has one sugar molecule and ADP has two sugar molecules. C) AMP has one fatty acid and ADP has two fatty acids. D) AMP has one phosphate group and ADP has two phosphate groups. E) AMP has one binding site and ADP has two binding sites. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 2.19 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 181) Where do cells obtain the energy needed for their vital functions? (Module 2.19C) A) Energy depends on the number of rings in their structure. B) Energy comes from the type of sugar molecule bound to the structure. C) Energy comes from breaking high energy bonds in a compound. D) Energy comes from the number of enzymes that are present in the cell. E) Energy comes from the type of nitrogenous base in the structure. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 2.19 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 182) What are the products of ATP hydrolysis? (Module 2.19D) A) AMP, two phosphate groups, and energy B) ADP, a phosphate group, and energy C) 3 phosphate groups and energy D) an adenosine, a phosphate group, and energy E) ribose, adenine, a phosphate group, and energy Answer: B Learning Outcome: 2.19 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 183) Explain how the complementary strands of DNA are held together. (Module 2.20B) A) They are held by ionic bonds. B) They are held by complementary base pairing; adenine to thymine and guanine to cytosine. C) They are held by complementary base pairing; adenine to cytosine and thymine to guanine. D) They are held by complementary base pairing; adenine to guanine and thymine to cytosine. E) They are held by complementary base pairing; adenine to adenine, thymine to thymine, guanine to guanine, and cytosine to cytosine. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 2.20 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

Essay Questions 184) Compare and contrast ionic and covalent bonds. Answer: An ionic bond is when one molecule loses an electron and gives it to another molecule. One molecule becomes positive and the other one becomes negative. This forms a weak magnetic attraction between the two molecules. A covalent bond is when two or more molecules share an electron with each other. The bond is much stronger than an ionic bond. Learning Outcome: 2.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Analyzing 185) Predict what will happen in the human body when a person ingests a large amount of Rolaids®, i.e., a base. Answer: Because the Rolaids® are a base, they would neutralize some of the acid in the stomach. If enough of the acid is neutralized, the body's buffer systems would need to correct the pH shift. Learning Outcome: 2.9 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 186) Justify why blood has a very narrow normal pH range. What happens if the blood pH gets too high or too low? Answer: Homeostasis requires that the pH of body fluids be maintained almost constant to avoid disruptions of normal cell and tissue function. If the pH of the blood and body fluids gets too high, alkalosis occurs, causing uncontrollable muscle contractions. If the pH of the blood and body fluids gets too low, acidosis occurs and will result in coma and death. Learning Outcome: 2.9 Bloom's Taxonomy: Analyzing 187) Explain the role of water molecules in polysaccharide formation. Answer: Water molecules are removed in the dehydration synthesis of polysaccharides. Learning Outcome: 2.10 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 188) Describe the importance of hemoglobin. Answer: It is a globular protein, which is made of quaternary structure. It is comprised of four polypeptide subunits. Red blood cells contain a large amount of hemoglobin. Oxygen binds to heme unit of the molecule and carried from the lung to the tissue. Learning Outcome: 2.17 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 189) What are the characteristics of an RNA molecule? Answer: It consists of a single chain of nucleotide. The order of nucleotides and the interactions among them will affect the shape and the function of RNA. There are three different types of RNA and each one has its own specific function: (1) messenger RNA (mRNA), (2) transfer RNA (tRNA), and (3) ribosomal RNA (rRNA). Learning Outcome: 2.20 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 48

190) How is it possible for two samples of hydrogen to contain the same number of atoms yet have different weights? (Module 2.2C) Answer: Isotopes are atoms with the same number of protons but different numbers of neutrons. Hydrogen has three isotopes: hydrogen-1, with a mass number of 1; deuterium, with a mass number of 2; and tritium, with a mass number of 3. The mass number is greater in each isotope because the atoms contain an increasing number of neutrons. The heavier hydrogen sample must contain a higher proportion of one or both of the heavier isotopes. Learning Outcome: 2.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 191) Explain how cations and anions form. (Module 2.3C) Answer: A cation is formed when an atom loses one or more electrons from its outermost electron shell; it has an overall positive charge because it contains more protons than electrons. An anion is formed when an atom gains one or more electrons in its outermost electron shell; it has an overall negative charge because it contains more electrons than protons. Learning Outcome: 2.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 192) Explain why we can use the term molecule for the smallest particle of water but not for that of table salt. (Module 2.4D) Answer: The term molecule refers only to chemical structures held together by covalent bonds. Table salt is an ionic compound whose components — sodium ions and chloride ions — are held together by ionic bonds. Learning Outcome: 2.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 193) Describe the relationship between thermal energy (temperature) and stability of the hydrogen bonds between water molecules in ice, in liquid water, and as a gas. (Module 2.5D) Answer: The low thermal energy of ice slows the vibration of water molecules, resulting in stable hydrogen bonds. Liquid water has more thermal energy than does ice, and hydrogen bonds are less stable as they break and re-form. At the boiling point, hydrogen bonds are broken, and the water molecules are independent of each other. Learning Outcome: 2.5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 194) Describe how cells are chemical factories. (Module 2.6A) Answer: Cells are chemical factories because they use complex chemical reactions to provide the energy they need to maintain homeostasis and to perform essential functions. Learning Outcome: 2.6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

195) Compare and contrast the terms work, energy, potential energy, and kinetic energy. (Module 2.6B) Answer: Work is the movement of an object or a change in the physical structure of matter. Energy is the capacity to perform work. Potential energy is stored energy that has the potential (capability) to do work. Kinetic energy is the energy of motion. Learning Outcome: 2.6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 196) Relate the terms work, energy, potential energy, and kinetic energy to a muscle contraction at the cellular level. (Module 2.6C) Answer: Cells do work when they synthesize complex molecules and move materials into and out of cells. Muscle contraction requires energy. Molecules inside muscle cells store the potential energy of contraction. The potential energy of contraction is converted into kinetic energy when a muscle contracts. Learning Outcome: 2.6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 197) Identify and describe three types of chemical reactions important in human physiology. (Module 2.8B) Answer: Three types of chemical reactions important in human physiology are (1) decomposition reactions, in which a molecule is broken down into smaller fragments; (2) synthesis reactions, in which small molecules are assembled into larger ones; and (3) exchange reactions, in which parts of the reacting molecules are shuffled around to produce new products. Learning Outcome: 2.8 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 198) Explain the differences between metabolites and nutrients. (Module 2.9D) Answer: Metabolites are molecules that can be synthesized or broken down by chemical reactions inside our bodies. Nutrients are essential metabolites normally obtained from the diet. Learning Outcome: 2.9 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 199) Explain why enzymes are often called organic catalysts. (Module 2.9E) Answer: Enzymes are special protein catalysts. Proteins are one class of organic compounds. Learning Outcome: 2.9 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 200) Predict how water plays a role as a lubricant, reactant, coolant, and solvent during exercise. (Module 2.10A) Answer: During exercise, water lubricates the joints for easy movement. It also functions in dehydration synthesis and hydrolysis reactions that occur during muscle contraction. Water also cools the body through the evaporation of perspiration from the skin. Water dissolves wastes generated by exercise. Learning Outcome: 2.10 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying

201) Explain the differences among an acid, a base, and a salt. (Module 2.12C) Answer: An acid is a compound whose dissociation in solution releases a hydrogen ion (H+) and an anion; a base is a compound whose dissociation releases a hydroxide ion (OH-) into the solution or removes a hydrogen ion (H+) from the solution; and a salt is an ionic compound consisting of a cation other than H+ and an anion other than OH-. Learning Outcome: 2.12 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 202) What is the relationship between buffers and pH in physiological systems? (Module 2.12D) Answer: Buffers stabilize body pH by removing or replacing hydrogen ions. The pH of various body fluids must remain relatively constant if the body is to maintain homeostasis and remain healthy. Learning Outcome: 2.12 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 203) Identify the important functional groups of organic compounds. (Module 2.13C) Answer: Amino groups are the functional groups of amino acids. Carboxyl groups are functional groups of fatty acids and amino acids. Hydroxyl groups are the functional groups that link molecules by dehydration synthesis and affect a molecule's solubility. Phosphate groups are functional groups found in nucleic acids and high-energy compounds. Learning Outcome: 2.13 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 204) List examples of representative lipids in the body. (Module 2.15B) Answer: Examples of lipids found in the body are fatty acids, glycerides, eicosanoids, steroids, phospholipids, and glycolipids. Learning Outcome: 2.15 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 205) Describe the structures of saturated and unsaturated fatty acids. (Module 2.15C) Answer: All fatty acids consist of a hydrocarbon chain and a carboxyl group. In saturated fatty acids, each carbon atom in the hydrocarbon chain has four single covalent bonds that bind the maximum number of hydrogen atoms possible. In unsaturated fatty acids, one or more of the carbon atoms in the hydrocarbon chain has double covalent bonds, so fewer hydrogen atoms are bonded. Learning Outcome: 2.15 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 206) Summarize the functions of lipids in the body. (Module 2.15E) Answer: Lipids are both a source of energy and a means of energy storage and insulation and physical protection. Some lipids act as chemical messengers between cells. Lipids are essential components of plasma membranes. Learning Outcome: 2.15 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

207) Describe proteins. (Module 2.17A) Answer: Proteins are organic compounds formed from amino acids. Each amino acid contains a carbon atom, a hydrogen atom, an amino group (-NH2), a carboxyl group (-COOH), and a variable group, known as an R group or side chain. Learning Outcome: 2.17 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 208) Why does boiling a protein affect its functional properties? (Module 2.17C) Answer: The heat of boiling breaks bonds that maintain the protein's tertiary structure, quaternary structure, or both. The resulting change in shape affects the ability of the protein molecule to perform its normal biological functions. These changes are known as denaturation. Learning Outcome: 2.17 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 209) Describe and identify the two classes of nucleic acids. (Module 2.20A) Answer: Nucleic acids are large organic molecules composed of carbon, hydrogen, oxygen, nitrogen, and phosphorus that regulate the synthesis of proteins and make up the genetic material in cells. The two classes of nuclei acids are ribonucleic acid (RNA) and deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA). Learning Outcome: 2.20 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 210) Compare and contrast the nucleotides of DNA and RNA. (Module 2.20C) Answer: DNA is composed of a pair of nucleotide chains, and RNA is made up of a single chain. The nitrogenous bases adenine, guanine, and cytosine are common to both DNA and RNA nucleotides. The nitrogenous base thymine is found only in DNA, and uracil is found only in RNA. Learning Outcome: 2.20 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

Visual Anatomy and Physiology, 3e (Martini) Chapter 3 Cellular Level of Organization Multiple Choice Questions 1) Which one of the following best defines differentiation? A) the process of gradual structural and functional specialization of daughter cells B) cell growth C) fertilization of ovum by sperm D) maintenance of homeostasis at cellular level E) coordinated action of different cells Answer: A Learning Outcome: 3.1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 2) Which of the following is not part of cell theory? A) Cells are the building blocks of all plants. B) All new cells come from the division of pre-existing cells. C) All cells differentiate into specialized cell types. D) Cells are the building blocks of all animals. E) Cells are the smallest units that carry out all vital physiological functions. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 3.1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 3) Which of the following is correct regarding cytoplasm? A) It is the solid component of the cell. B) It is located between the cells. C) It contains less proteins than does extracellular fluid. D) It contains cytosol and organelles. E) Cytoplasm is also called interstitial fluid. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 3.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 4) Which organelle synthesizes lipids and carbohydrates? A) nucleus B) Golgi apparatus C) mitochondria D) smooth endoplasmic reticulum E) rough endoplasmic reticulum Answer: D Learning Outcome: 3.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

5) Which of the following is an example of a membranous organelle? A) microvilli B) cilia C) centrioles D) ribosomes E) mitochondria Answer: E Learning Outcome: 3.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 6) Which of the following is an example of a nonmembranous organelle? A) nucleus B) cilia C) endoplasmic reticulum D) peroxisomes E) mitochondria Answer: B Learning Outcome: 3.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 7) Which of the following organelles neutralizes toxic compound during cell metabolism? A) microvilli B) peroxisome C) centrioles D) ribosomes E) mitochondria Answer: B Learning Outcome: 3.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 8) Which of the following organelles damages pathogens? A) cilia B) peroxisomes C) lysosomes D) ribosomes E) nucleus Answer: C Learning Outcome: 3.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

9) increase surface area to facilitate absorption of extracellular materials. A) Microvilli B) Cilia C) Centrioles D) Endoplasmic reticulum E) Mitochondria Answer: A Learning Outcome: 3.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 10) Which of the following organelles has ribosomes bound to its membrane? A) plasma membrane B) nucleus C) mitochondria D) smooth endoplasmic reticulum E) rough endoplasmic reticulum Answer: E Learning Outcome: 3.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 11) Which of the following organelles produces 95% of cell ATP? A) lysosome B) peroxisome C) mitochondria D) microvilli E) ribosomes Answer: C Learning Outcome: 3.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 12) Stacks of cisternae that store, alter, and package synthesized products are called A) smooth endoplasmic reticulum. B) nucleus. C) mitochondria. D) Golgi apparatus. E) rough endoplasmic reticulum. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 3.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

13) Anchoring proteins A) attach the plasma membrane to other structures in the cell. B) are detected by immune cells. C) have enzymatic functions. D) transport solutes across plasma membrane. E) permit the passage of water and small solutes. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 3.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 14) Channels A) attach the plasma membrane to other structures in the cell. B) are detected by immune cells. C) have enzymatic functions. D) transport solutes across plasma membrane. E) permit the passage of water and small solutes. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 3.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

Figure 3-1 15) In Figure 3-1, which structure is water most likely to pass through? A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4 E) 8 Answer: C Learning Outcome: 3.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 16) In Figure 3-1, which structure is related to glycocalyx? A) 1 B) 2 C) 4 D) 7 E) 8 Answer: C Learning Outcome: 3.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

17) In Figure 3-1, microfilaments are labeled with which number? A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 5 E) 6 Answer: D Learning Outcome: 3.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 18) In Figure 3-1, which molecule is a combination of a sugar and a lipid? A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 5 E) 6 Answer: A Learning Outcome: 3.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 19) In Figure 3-1, which molecule is the peripheral protein? A) 1 B) 7 C) 3 D) 2 E) 8 Answer: B Learning Outcome: 3.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 20) All of the following are correct about integral protein, except A) they are part of the membrane structure. B) they contain channels for the passage of water and solutes. C) they span the width of the plasma membrane at least one time. D) they are bound to the inner surface of plasma membrane. E) they outnumber peripheral proteins. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 3.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

21) Which of the following is correct about peripheral proteins? A) They are bound to the inner or outer surface of plasma membrane. B) They have regulatory functions. C) They are also called transmembrane proteins. D) They span the width of the plasma membrane at least one time. E) They outnumber integral proteins. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 3.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 22) Which of the following is not a function of membrane proteins? A) bind to ligands B) regulate the passage of water and small solutes C) act as carrier molecules for various solutes D) act as anchors or stabilizers for the cell membrane E) serve as cell nutrients Answer: E Learning Outcome: 3.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 23) A function of the glycocalyx is A) regulating movement across the membrane. B) lubrication of the cell surface. C) stiffening the membrane. D) forming a bilayer. E) isolating the cytoplasm from extracellular fluid. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 3.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 24) The plasma membrane includes all of the following except A) integral proteins. B) glycolipids. C) phospholipids. D) cholesterol. E) peripheral proteins. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 3.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

25) Which of the following is not a function that membrane proteins perform? A) anchoring B) receptors C) recognition D) channels E) stiffening the membrane Answer: E Learning Outcome: 3.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 26) The cylindrical shaped organelle with nine groups of microtubule triplets is called A) microfilaments. B) cilia. C) microsomes. D) centrioles. E) thick filaments. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 3.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 27) Providing strength and moving materials within the cell is a function of the filaments and A) ribosomes. B) microfilaments. C) intermediate filaments. D) flagella. E) microtubules. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 3.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 28) Which of the following cytoskeleton components moves the chromosomes during cell division? A) microfilaments B) intermediate filaments C) thick filaments D) microtubules E) basal bodies Answer: D Learning Outcome: 3.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

29) Terminal web is a layer of the cell. A) centrioles B) centromeres C) microfilaments D) intermediate filaments E) microtubules Answer: C Learning Outcome: 3.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

just inside plasma membrane at the exposed surface of

30) Microfilaments A) are usually composed of myosin. B) are hollow, filamentous structures. C) anchor the cytoskeleton to the plasma membrane. D) are about 25 nm in diameter. E) are found in the cytoplasm radiating away from the centrosome. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 3.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 31) Which of following properties of the cytoskeleton is false? A) It supports organelles. B) It controls cell shape. C) It provides cell strength. D) It is made of cytobones. E) It moves organelles. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 3.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 32) Microfilaments do not A) anchor the cytoskeleton to membrane proteins. B) control the consistency of cytoplasm. C) with myosin, produce cell movement. D) provide strength. E) form centrioles. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 3.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

33) Microtubules do not have which of the following functions? A) They form structural components of organelles. B) They move chromosomes during cell division. C) They provide a mechanism for moving organelles. D) They provide strength. E) They stiffen microvilli. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 3.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 34) Which one of the following is an extension of plasma membrane? A) centrioles B) centromeres C) microfilaments D) cilia E) microtubules Answer: D Learning Outcome: 3.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 35) The endoplasmic reticulum is an example of a(n) A) inclusion B) nonmembranous C) membranous D) integral E) exclusion Answer: C Learning Outcome: 3.5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 36) Ribosomes are composed of protein and A) rRNA. B) mRNA. C) tRNA. D) DNA. E) mDNA. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 3.5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

organelle.

37) Which of the following consists of a network of intracellular membranes with attached ribosomes? A) rough endoplasmic reticulum B) smooth endoplasmic reticulum C) mitochondria D) nucleoli E) Golgi apparatus Answer: A Learning Outcome: 3.5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 38) The endoplasmic reticulum is not responsible for A) glycogen B) lipid C) protein D) ATP E) cholesterol Answer: D Learning Outcome: 3.5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

synthesis.

39) Each of the following is a function of smooth endoplasmic reticulum except A) synthesis of glycogen. B) modification of protein. C) synthesis of steroid hormones. D) synthesis of triglycerides. E) synthesis of cholesterol. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 3.5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 40) Examination of a sample of glandular cells reveals an extensive network of smooth endoplasmic reticulum. Which of the following is the likeliest product of these cells? A) digestive enzymes B) steroid hormones C) protein hormones D) transport proteins E) antibodies Answer: B Learning Outcome: 3.5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

41) Which form of endoplasmic reticulum modifies and packages newly synthesized proteins? A) smooth endoplasmic reticulum B) rough endoplasmic reticulum Answer: B Learning Outcome: 3.5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 42) Renewal or modification of the cell membrane is a function of the A) microtubules. B) mitochondria. C) rough endoplasmic reticulum. D) ribosomes. E) Golgi apparatus. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 3.6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 43) Which of the following statements about the Golgi apparatus is false? A) It receives transport vesicles from the RER. B) It sends transport vesicles to the RER. C) It produces lysosomes. D) It supplies new membrane components. E) It produces secretory vesicles. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 3.6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 44) The following is a list of the steps involved in the process of secretion by the Golgi apparatus. 1. Material moves from cisterna to cisterna by means of transfer vesicles. 2. Exocytosis. 3. Products from RER are packaged into transport vesicles. 4. Secretory vesicles are formed at the trans face. 5. Vesicles arrive at the cis face. 6. Enzymes modify arriving proteins and glycoproteins. What is the proper order for these steps? A) 5, 6, 1, 4, 2, 3 B) 2, 3, 5, 6, 1, 4 C) 4, 3, 1, 6, 5, 2 D) 3, 5, 6, 1, 4, 2 E) 1, 3, 6, 4, 2, 5 Answer: D Learning Outcome: 3.6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 12

45) Which cellular structure is responsible for cell autolysis? A) centrioles B) Golgi apparatus C) smooth endoplasmic reticulum D) rough endoplasmic reticulum E) lysosome Answer: E Learning Outcome: 3.6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 46) Most of the ATP required to power cellular operations is produced in the A) cytoplasm. B) endoplasmic reticulum. C) nucleus. D) mitochondria. E) cilia. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 3.7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 47) In describing parts of the mitochondrion, folds are to cristae as the contained fluid is to A) actin. B) microvilli. C) cytosol. D) basal body. E) matrix. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 3.7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 48) Each of the following is true concerning mitochondria except A) the cristae increase the inner surface area of the organelle. B) it has its own DNA. C) it contains ribosomes. D) in glycolysis reaction pyruvate is produced from glucose inside the mitochondria. E) the matrix is the fluid that is enclosed by inner membrane. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 3.7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

49) Some cells contain large numbers of mitochondria while others have relatively few or none. This suggests that A) cells with large numbers of mitochondria are short-lived. B) cells with large numbers of mitochondria have a high energy demand. C) cells with small numbers of mitochondria have a large ATP supply. D) cells with large numbers of mitochondria have a low energy demand. E) some cells are older than others. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 3.7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 50) Which organelle is visible under light microscope? A) ribosome B) Golgi apparatus C) nucleus D) mitochondrion E) lysosome Answer: C Learning Outcome: 3.8 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 51) All of the following are characteristics of nucleus, except A) it is the largest structure in the cell. B) it has necessary information for protein synthesis. C) it determines the structure of the cell. D) it packages and sorts products. E) it contains genetic material. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 3.8 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 52) The complex structures of DNA and protein found in the cell nucleus are A) nucleoplasm. B) chromosomes. C) histones. D) nucleases. E) mitochondria. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 3.9 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

53) Histones are found in A) nucleosomes. B) centromeres. C) lysosomes. D) vesicles. E) endosomes. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 3.9 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 54) Chromosomes consist of A) RNA; carbohydrates B) DNA; lipids C) DNA; proteins D) water; RNA E) RNA; proteins Answer: C Learning Outcome: 3.9 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

and

55) Which organelle is most prominent in cells that make large amounts of protein? A) nucleus B) nucleolus C) chromosome D) smooth endoplasmic reticulum E) mitochondria Answer: B Learning Outcome: 3.9 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 56) The components of ribosomes are synthesized by A) the endoplasmic reticulum. B) Golgi complexes. C) lysosomes. D) mitochondria. E) nucleoli. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 3.9 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

57) Synthesis of lipids and glycogen takes place at the A) ribosomes. B) rough ER. C) smooth ER. D) Golgi apparatus. E) mitochondria. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 3.9 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 58) A mature red blood cell lacks a nucleus. Thus, it A) can repair itself readily. B) is malformed. C) can only divide once more. D) will be a long-lived cell. E) cannot make new proteins and will be worn out within a few months. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 3.9 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 59) The nucleus is surrounded by the A) nucleolus. B) nucleoplasm. C) nuclear envelope. D) nuclear matrix. E) nucleosomes. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 3.9 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 60) Transfer of mRNA from the nucleus to the cytosol occurs through A) tRNA. B) DNA. C) endocytosis. D) exocytosis. E) nuclear pores. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 3.9 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

61) In cells that are not dividing, chromosomes uncoil to form a tangle of fine fibers known as A) nucleosomes. B) centromeres. C) chromatids. D) chromatin. E) nucleoli. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 3.9 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 62) What is the term for tRNA? A) transfer ribonucleic acid B) transfer ribosomal nucleic acid C) triplet ribonucleic acid D) triplet ribosomal nucleic acid E) thymine ribosomal nucleic acid Answer: A Learning Outcome: 3.10 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 63) What is the term for mRNA? A) mitochondrial ribosomal nucleic acid B) messenger ribosomal nucleic acid C) mitochondrial ribonucleic acid D) messenger ribonucleic acid E) master ribosomal nucleic acid Answer: D Learning Outcome: 3.10 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 64) What is the term for rRNA? A) ribosomal ribonucleic acid B) rough ribosomal nucleic acid C) reticulated ribonucleic acid D) rough nucleic acid E) ribosomal nucleic acid Answer: A Learning Outcome: 3.10 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

65) A molecule of contains all the codons needed to produce a particular polypeptide. A) DNA B) rRNA C) mRNA D) tRNA E) mDNA Answer: C Learning Outcome: 3.10 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 66) mRNA is needed to synthesize A) carbohydrates B) lipids C) proteins D) phospholipids E) ATP Answer: C Learning Outcome: 3.10 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

in the cytoplasm.

67) The functional units of DNA that contain the instructions for making one or more proteins are A) chromosomes. B) genes. C) ribosomes. D) codons. E) RNA. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 3.10 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 68) Specific proteins are manufactured through the interaction of A) multiple enzymes; three types of RNA B) multiple enzymes; two types of RNA C) multiple carbohydrates; three types of DNA D) multiple proteins; three types of DNA E) multiple enzymes; three types of DNA Answer: A Learning Outcome: 3.10 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

_ and

69) The process of forming mRNA is called A) replication. B) transcription. C) translation. D) cell division. E) auscultation. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 3.11 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 70) A unit in messenger RNA consisting of a set of three consecutive nucleotides is termed a(n) A) amino acid. B) tRNA. C) anticodon. D) codon. E) gene. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 3.11 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 71) The mRNA sequence that is complementary to the sequence ATC on DNA is A) ATC. B) TAG. C) UAG. D) AUG. E) AUC. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 3.11 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 72) The anticodon for the triplet UCA is A) AGU. B) AGC. C) TCA. D) TGT. E) AGT. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 3.11 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

73) The triplet codes needed to specify a specific polypeptide chain are found in the A) cytoplasm. B) gene. C) codon. D) anticodon. E) polypeptide itself. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 3.11 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 74) Before the mRNA transcribed from a gene can be used to translate into a protein, it must be A) edited to remove introns. B) edited to remove exons. C) transported into the cytoplasm. D) edited to remove introns and transported into the cytoplasm. E) edited to remove exons and transported into the cytoplasm. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 3.11 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 75) Messenger RNA is vital to the cell because A) mRNA can leave the nucleus. B) mRNA cannot leave the nucleus. C) DNA can leave the nucleus. D) DNA cannot leave the nucleus. E) mRNA can leave the nucleus, and DNA cannot leave the nucleus. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 3.11 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 76) As each codon arrives at the active site of a ribosome, it attracts another molecule containing the anticodon. This molecule is called A) DNA. B) mRNA. C) rRNA. D) tRNA. E) RER. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 3.11 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

77) The enzyme is required for the synthesis of mRNA. A) DNA polymerase B) RNA polymerase C) DNA isomerase D) RNA isomerase E) RNA synthase Answer: B Learning Outcome: 3.11 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 78) The start of each gene begins with a(n) A) beginning B) start C) initiator D) control E) converter Answer: D Learning Outcome: 3.11 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

segment.

79) Amino acids are transferred to the ribosome to be incorporated into a growing polypeptide chain by A) DNA. B) mDNA. C) mRNA. D) tRNA. E) rRNA. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 3.12 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 80) During the synthesis of proteins, amino acids are assembled in the proper sequence because each tRNA molecule that brings them to the ribosome has a(n) that binds to a complementary codon in the mRNA. A) anticodon B) codon C) amphicodon D) complicodon E) alticodon Answer: A Learning Outcome: 3.12 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

81) When a protein-releasing factor recognize a stop codon, the process is called A) elongation. B) transcription. C) initiation. D) termination. E) packing. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 3.12 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 82) The of a membrane indicates how easy it is for substances to cross. A) bilayer B) mosaic C) sensitivity D) permeability E) isolation Answer: D Learning Outcome: 3.13 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 83) Cell membranes are said to be others. A) extremely thin B) a phospholipid bilayer C) selectively permeable D) sensitive to the environment E) physically isolating Answer: C Learning Outcome: 3.13 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

because they allow some substances to pass but not

84) Diffusion of a substance across the cell membrane is influenced by all of the following except A) hydrolysis of ATP. B) the presence of the membrane channels. C) the charge of the substance. D) concentration gradient. E) lipid solubility. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 3.13 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

85) The movement of oxygen from an area of high concentration to an area of low concentration is an example of A) osmosis. B) active transport. C) diffusion. D) facilitated transport. E) filtration. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 3.14 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 86) Water molecules and small ions enter a cell through A) channels formed by integral proteins. B) peripheral proteins. C) lipid channels. D) peripheral carbohydrates. E) defects in the lipid layer of the membrane. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 3.14 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 87) Breathing faster and deeper eliminates more carbon dioxide from the body than normal breathing. Under these circumstances, A) more carbon dioxide will diffuse out of the blood in the lungs. B) more carbon dioxide will diffuse into the blood in the lungs. C) less carbon dioxide will diffuse out of the blood in the lungs. D) less carbon dioxide will diffuse into the blood in the lungs. E) the amount of carbon dioxide diffusion will remain unchanged. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 3.14 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 88) A solution that contains a lower osmotic pressure than the cytoplasm of a cell is called A) hypotonic. B) hypertonic. C) isotonic. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 3.15 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 89) "Spikes" form on a dehydrating blood cell when it is placed in a(n) A) isotonic B) hypertonic C) hypotonic Answer: B Learning Outcome: 3.15 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 23

solution.

90) All of the following can be true about osmotic pressure except A) it forces water to move toward the higher solute concentration. B) it forces water to move across a semipermeable membrane. C) it can be opposed by hydrostatic pressure. D) it forces solutes toward the higher water concentration. E) it can change cell volume. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 3.15 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 91) The skin swells and puckers during a long bath. This suggests that bath water is a(n) fluid. A) isotonic B) hypotonic C) hypertonic D) diffusion E) toxic Answer: B Learning Outcome: 3.15 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 92) Red blood cell shrinkage is to A) crenation; hemolysis B) lysis; crenation C) hypotonic; isotonic D) isotonic; hypotonic E) isotonic; hypertonic Answer: A Learning Outcome: 3.15 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

as cell bursting is to

93) Hemolysis may occur when a blood cell is placed into a(n) A) isotonic B) hypertonic C) hypotonic D) merotonic E) homotonic Answer: C Learning Outcome: 3.15 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

solution.

94) Imagine two rigid chambers separated by a rigid membrane that is freely permeable to water but impermeable to glucose. Side 1 contains a 10 percent glucose solution and side 2 contains pure water. At equilibrium, what will be the situation? A) Water will continue to move from side 1 to side 2. B) Water will continue to move from side 2 to side 1. C) The hydrostatic pressure will be higher in side 1. D) The hydrostatic pressure will be higher in side 2. E) There is no way to tell what the situation will be. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 3.15 Bloom's Taxonomy: Analyzing 95) If the amount of chloride ion in blood plasma increases, which of the following would initially occur? A) The blood osmotic pressure will increase. B) The blood osmotic pressure will decrease. C) The blood osmotic pressure will stay the same. D) The blood hydrostatic pressure will increase. E) The blood hydrostatic pressure will decrease. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 3.15 Bloom's Taxonomy: Evaluating 96) If the concentration of sodium chloride in the interstitial fluid surrounding cells decreases and the concentration of other solutes remains constant, A) the cells will shrink. B) the cells will swell. C) the fluid outside of the cells will become isotonic. D) the fluid outside of the cells will become hypertonic. E) the cells will not change. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 3.15 Bloom's Taxonomy: Evaluating 97) The process by which molecules such as glucose are moved into cells along their concentration gradient with the help of membrane-bound carrier proteins is called A) osmosis. B) facilitated diffusion. C) active transport. D) endocytosis. E) exocytosis. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 3.16 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

98) Facilitated diffusion differs from ordinary diffusion in that A) facilitated diffusion consumes no ATP. B) facilitated diffusion moves molecules from an area of higher concentration to lower concentration. C) the rate of molecular movement is limited by the number of available carrier molecules. D) facilitated diffusion never eliminates the concentration gradient. E) the rate of molecular movement is not limited by the number of available carrier molecules. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 3.16 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 99) A process that requires cellular energy to move a substance against its concentration gradient is called A) active transport. B) passive transport. C) facilitated transport. D) osmosis. E) diffusion. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 3.16 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 100) The principal cations in our body fluids are _ A) sodium; potassium B) calcium; magnesium C) sodium; calcium D) chloride; bicarbonate E) sodium; chloride Answer: A Learning Outcome: 3.16 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

and

101) In order to maintain cellular homeostasis, an exchange pump ejects cell and imports ions. A) potassium; calcium B) sodium; calcium C) potassium; sodium D) sodium; potassium E) calcium; sodium Answer: D Learning Outcome: 3.16 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

ions from the

102) A membrane transport process is found experimentally to lack a saturation limit. Which of the following is a possible property of the process? A) energy-dependent B) carrier-mediated C) secondary active transport D) active transport E) diffusion Answer: E Learning Outcome: 3.16 Bloom's Taxonomy: Analyzing 103) Assume that the transport of a particular amino acid across the plasma membrane is observed (1) to occur only down its concentration gradient and (2) to slow when a similar amino acid is added to the extracellular fluid. The movement of the amino acid through the membrane is most likely by A) osmosis. B) diffusion. C) facilitated diffusion. D) active transport. E) pinocytosis. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 3.16 Bloom's Taxonomy: Analyzing 104) Membrane-bound proteins that use metabolic energy to move ions across the plasma membrane are called A) ion channels. B) ion pumps. C) peripheral protein pumps. D) peripheral protein channels. E) ion receptors. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 3.16 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 105) is when a vesicle fuses to the plasma membrane and discharges its contents to the extracellular environment. A) Endocytosis B) Exocytosis C) Extracytosis D) Entrocytosis E) Phagocytosis Answer: B Learning Outcome: 3.17 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

106) The intake of small membrane vesicles from the extracellular fluid is called A) osmosis. B) active transport. C) facilitated transport. D) endocytosis. E) an ion exchange pump. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 3.17 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 107) Which of the following membrane transport mechanisms is not directly a passive process? A) diffusion B) facilitated diffusion C) secondary active transport D) osmosis E) active transport Answer: E Learning Outcome: 3.17 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 108) Endocytosis is a A) method for transporting substances into the cell. B) method for metabolizing within the cytosol. C) form of anabolism. D) viral infection. E) method for packaging secretions. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 3.17 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 109) Which of the following transport processes always requires metabolic energy? A) diffusion B) carrier-mediated transport C) vesicular transport D) freely permeable E) impermeable Answer: C Learning Outcome: 3.17 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

110) Two types of vesicular transport are A) endocytosis and retrocytosis. B) endocytosis and exocytosis. C) exocytosis and retrocytosis. D) pinocytosis and active transport. E) passive diffusion and active diffusion. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 3.17 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 111) A defense cell engulfing a bacterium illustrates A) pinocytosis. B) endocytosis. C) exocytosis. D) phagocytosis. E) receptor-mediated endocytosis. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 3.17 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 112) The stage in a cell's life cycle in which the cell performs its normal functions and prepares for division is called A) prophase. B) metaphase. C) interphase. D) telophase. E) anaphase. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 3.18 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 113) The genetically programmed death of cells is called A) differentiation. B) replication. C) apoptosis. D) metastasis. E) mitosis. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 3.18 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

114) Mitosis is to somatic cells as meiosis is to A) visceral B) reproductive C) plant D) sensory E) stem Answer: B Learning Outcome: 3.18 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

cells.

115) A cell duplicates its chromosomes during the A) G0 B) G1 C) G2 D) Gm E) S Answer: E Learning Outcome: 3.19 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

phase.

116) Generally, cells with a very brief interphase and lacking a G0 phase A) are stem cells. B) do not exhibit cytokinesis. C) have brief life spans. D) are reproductive cells. E) lack the enzyme DNA polymerase. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 3.19 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 117) Which phase of the cell cycle has the most variable duration? A) S phase B) G0 phase C) G1 phase D) G2 phase E) V phase Answer: B Learning Outcome: 3.19 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

118) If a cell lacked the enzyme DNA polymerase, it could not A) form protein. B) form complementary sequences of DNA. C) link segments of DNA together. D) form spindle fibers. E) form a new nuclear membrane during telophase. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 3.19 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 119) is the process of duplicating chromosomes prior to cell division. A) DNA translation B) RNA translation C) DNA replication D) RNA replication E) DNA transcription Answer: C Learning Outcome: 3.19 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 120) Special cells called cells maintain tissues by unending cycles of cell division. A) somatic B) sex C) mitotic D) meiotic E) stem Answer: E Learning Outcome: 3.19 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 121) cells are all of the cells of the body except the reproductive cells (sperm and oocytes). A) Germ B) Stem C) Mature D) Sex E) Somatic Answer: E Learning Outcome: 3.19 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

122) Nuclear division in somatic cells is known as A) meiosis. B) mitosis. C) cytokinesis. D) meiokinesis. E) mitokinesis. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 3.20 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 123) The proper distribution of a cell's genetic material to two daughter cells is accomplished by the process of A) meiosis. B) mitosis. C) cytokinesis. D) meiokinesis. E) mitokinesis. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 3.20 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 124) The physical process by which a single animal cell separates into two cells is called A) meiosis. B) mitosis. C) cytokinesis. D) meiokinesis. E) mitokinesis. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 3.20 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 125) If an animal cell lacked centrioles, it would not be able to A) move. B) synthesize proteins. C) produce DNA. D) metabolize sugars. E) form the mitotic spindle. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 3.20 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

126) During mitosis, chromatids separate into daughter chromosomes during A) prophase. B) metaphase. C) interphase. D) telophase. E) anaphase. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 3.20 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 127) During this phase of cell division, the chromosomes uncoil, the nuclear membrane forms, and cytokinesis occurs. A) anaphase B) prophase C) interphase D) telophase E) metaphase Answer: D Learning Outcome: 3.20 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 128) During mitosis, two daughter cells form, each of which has A) a different number of chromosomes than the original cell. B) twice as many chromosomes as the original cell. C) the same number of chromosomes as the original cell. D) a lesser number of chromosomes than the original cell. E) half as many chromosomes as the original cell. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 3.20 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 129) An alternate term for tumor is A) neoplasm. B) cytoplasm. C) benign malignancy. D) primary metastasis. E) nucleoplasm. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 3.21 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

130) Cancer cells A) are indistinguishable from normal body cells. B) have a slow mitotic rate. C) may exhibit metastasis. D) do not form neoplasms. E) generally form benign tumors. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 3.21 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 131) are permanent alterations in a cell's DNA that affect the nucleotide sequence of one or more genes. A) Translations B) Transcriptions C) Gene activations D) Mutations E) Metastases Answer: D Learning Outcome: 3.21 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 132) Which term does not describe cells with abnormal growth and division? A) neoplasm B) cancer C) malignant tumor D) benign tumor E) germ cells Answer: E Learning Outcome: 3.21 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 133) Identify the cell from which all the cells of your body are descendants. (Module 3.1B) A) the sperm cell B) the oocyte C) the fertilized ovum D) the amnion E) the trophoblast Answer: C Learning Outcome: 3.1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

134) Distinguish between the cytoplasm and cytosol. (Module 3.2A) A) Cytoplasm is the material between the plasma membrane and the nuclear membrane; cytosol is the fluid portion of the cytoplasm. B) Cytosol is the material between the plasma membrane and the nuclear membrane; cytoplasm is the fluid portion of the cytosol. C) Cytoplasm is the intracellular fluid; cytosol is the extracellular fluid. D) Cytoplasm is the extracellular fluid; cytosol is the intracellular fluid. E) Cytoplasm is the fluid between the membranous organelles; cytosol is the fluid around the nonmembranous organelles. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 3.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 135) Describe the functions of the cytoskeleton. (Module 3.2C) A) produces 95% of the ATP B) stores and processes genetic information C) increases surface area to facilitate diffusion D) strengthens and supports the cells and enables movement of cellular structures and materials E) stores, alters, and packages synthesized products Answer: D Learning Outcome: 3.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 136) Describe the external environment of most of the body's cells. (Module 3.2D) A) Our cells are surrounded by a gel matrix that stabilizes the cells. B) Our cells are surrounded by collagen fibers that stabilize the cells. C) Our cells are surrounded by a watery extracellular fluid. D) Our cells are surrounded by fat tissue. E) Our cells are surrounded by protein scaffolds. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 3.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 137) Which structural component of the plasma membrane is mostly responsible for isolating a cell from its external environment? (Module 3.3A) A) glycocalyx B) peripheral proteins C) integral proteins D) cholesterol E) phospholipids Answer: E Learning Outcome: 3.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

138) What type of integral protein allows water and small ions to pass through the plasma membrane? (Module 3.3C) A) anchoring protein B) recognition protein C) receptor protein D) carrier protein E) channel protein Answer: E Learning Outcome: 3.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 139) What characteristic of phospholipids accounts for their packing into a double layer? (Module 3.3D) A) That they are amphipathic, containing a hydrophobic end and a hydrophilic end. B) That they are amphipathic, containing only hydrophilic structures. C) That they contain saturated fatty acids. D) That they contain unsaturated fatty acids. E) That they have rigid steroid ring structures. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 3.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 140) List the three basic components of the cytoskeleton. (Module 3.4A) A) microfilaments, filaments, and myofibrils B) cilia, flagella, and centrioles C) microfilaments, intermediate filaments, and microtubules D) intermediate filaments, thick filaments, and thin filaments E) thick filaments, centrioles, and cilia Answer: C Learning Outcome: 3.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 141) Which cytoskeletal component is common to both centrioles and cilia? (Module 3.4B) A) microfilaments B) microtubules C) thick filaments D) intermediate filaments E) thin filaments Answer: B Learning Outcome: 3.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

142) What is the purpose of motile cilia? (Module 3.4C) A) produce muscle contraction B) propel material across the cell surface C) propel sperm D) move organelles E) move materials through cytoplasm Answer: B Learning Outcome: 3.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 143) Which cytoskeletal structure is found only in males? (Module 3.4D) A) cilia B) centrioles C) flagella D) microfilaments E) thick filaments Answer: C Learning Outcome: 3.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 144) Describe the immediate cellular destinations of newly synthesized proteins from free ribosomes and fixed ribosomes. (Module 3.5A) A) Newly synthesized proteins from free ribosomes enter the nucleus, and newly synthesized proteins from fixed ribosomes go to the Golgi. B) Newly synthesized proteins from free ribosomes go to the Golgi, and newly synthesized proteins from fixed ribosomes enter the nucleus. C) Newly synthesized proteins from free ribosomes go to smooth ER, and newly synthesized proteins from fixed ribosomes go to rough ER. D) Newly synthesized proteins from free ribosomes enter the cytosol, and newly synthesized proteins from fixed ribosomes go to enter the ER. E) Newly synthesized proteins from free ribosomes enter the ER, and newly synthesized proteins from fixed ribosomes enter the cytosol. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 3.5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

145) Why do certain cells in the ovaries and testes contain large amounts of SER? (Module 3.5C) A) The ovaries and testes produce large amounts of gametes and the large cells need SER to produce the phospholipids. B) The ovaries and testes produce large amounts of steroid hormones which are lipid based. C) The ovaries and testes produce large amounts of proteins from the ribosomes. D) The ovaries and testes have excess toxic waste production so large amounts of SER are used for detoxification. E) The ovaries and testes store large amounts of triglycerides. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 3.5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 146) The ER is connected to and continuous with what other organelle in the cell? (Module 3.5D) A) the nuclear envelope around the nucleus B) the peroxisome C) the mitochondria D) the Golgi apparatus E) the lysosome Answer: A Learning Outcome: 3.5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 147) List the three major functions of the Golgi apparatus. (Module 3.6A) A) The Golgi apparatus (1) synthesizes lipids, (2) synthesizes carbohydrates, and (3) synthesizes proteins. B) The Golgi apparatus (1) provides physical isolation for the cell, (2) provides structural support, and (3) regulates the exchange of materials with the environment. C) The Golgi apparatus (1) organizes microtubules in the spindle to move chromosomes during cell division, (2) moves material through the cytoplasm, and (3) detects environmental stimuli. D) The Golgi apparatus (1) renews or modifies the plasma membrane, (2) modifies and packages cellular secretions, and (3) packages special enzymes within vesicles (lysosomes) for use within the cell. E) The Golgi apparatus (1) removes damaged organelles, (2) fuses with vesicles containing fluids or solids from the external environment to obtain nutrients, and (3) breaks down and releases digestive enzymes to cause destruction to the cell (autolysis). Answer: D Learning Outcome: 3.6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

148) What do lysosomes contain? (Module 3.6B) A) metabolic enzymes that produce energy for the cell B) genetic blueprint for the cell C) ribosomes for protein production D) digestive enzymes E) actin proteins Answer: D Learning Outcome: 3.6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 149) Most of a cell's ATP is produced within its mitochondria. What gas do mitochondria require to produce ATP, and what gas results? (Module 3.7B) A) Carbon dioxide is required to produce ATP, and oxygen is released in the process. B) Oxygen is required to produce ATP, and carbon dioxide is released in the process. C) Nitric oxide is required to produce ATP, and nitrogen is released in the process. D) Nitrogen is required to produce ATP, and nitric oxide is released in the process. E) Hydrogen is required to produce ATP, and nitric oxide is released in the process. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 3.7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 150) What does the presence of many mitochondria imply about a cell's energy requirements? (Module 3.7C) A) The cell has high energy demand. B) The cell has low energy demand. C) The cell produces enough energy by glycolysis. D) The cell produces enough energy by fermentation. E) The cell has average energy demand. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 3.7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 151) How is genetic information coded in the cell? (Module 3.8A) A) Genetic information is coded in the order of ribosomes on RER. B) Genetic information is coded by the orientation of the microtubules of the cytoskeleton. C) Genetic information is coded by the sequence of nucleotides in DNA. D) Genetic information is coded by the proteins produced by the RER. E) Genetic information is coded by the lysosomes. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 3.8 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

152) How many nuclei do most body cells contain? (Module 3.8B) A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4 E) over 10 Answer: A Learning Outcome: 3.8 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 153) What molecule in the nucleus contains instructions for making proteins? (Module 3.9B) A) histone molecules B) DNA C) RNA D) ATP E) enzymes Answer: B Learning Outcome: 3.9 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 154) How many chromosomes are contained within a typical somatic cell? (Module 3.9C) A) 10 pairs B) 23 C) 23 pairs D) 46 pairs E) 4 pairs Answer: C Learning Outcome: 3.9 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 155) What is a gene? (Module 3.10A) A) A gene is a sequence of three nitrogenous bases along a DNA strand. B) A gene is a polypeptide formed by linked amino acids. C) A gene is a sequence of three nitrogenous bases along an RNA strand. D) A gene is a portion of a DNA strand that functions as a hereditary unit and codes for a specific protein. E) A gene is the sequence of tRNAs needed to form a polypeptide. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 3.10 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

156) Why is the genetic code described as a triplet code? (Module 3.10B) A) It is described as a triplet code because 3 ATP molecules are required to produce each protein. B) It is described as a triplet code because a sequence of three nitrogenous bases specifies the identity of a specific amino acid. C) It is described as a triplet code because a minimum of three amino acids are required to produce a functional protein. D) It is described as a triplet code because three RNA molecules participate in the transcription of the DNA. E) It is described as a triplet code because there are three nucleotides in DNA. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 3.10 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 157) List the three types of RNA involved in protein synthesis. (Module 3.10C) A) codon RNA, anticodon RNA, and histone RNA B) carrier RNA, channel RNA, and transcript RNA C) enzymatic RNA, carrier RNA, and coding RNA D) messenger RNA, transfer RNA, and ribosomal RNA E) immature RNA, elongating RNA, and template RNA Answer: D Learning Outcome: 3.10 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 158) Which type of RNA links the genetic information in the nucleus with the cytoplasmic sites of protein synthesis? (Module 3.10D) A) transfer RNA B) coding RNA C) ribosomal RNA D) codon RNA E) messenger RNA Answer: E Learning Outcome: 3.10 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 159) What is transcription? (Module 3.11A) A) Making an identical copy of the DNA strand. B) Making an RNA strand from the DNA template. C) Making a DNA strand from the RNA template. D) Taking the mRNA sequence and producing a protein. E) Taking the cDNA sequence and producing a protein. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 3.11 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

160) Name the substrates and product in the enzymatic reaction catalyzed by RNA polymerase. (Module 3.11C) A) The substrates are DNA nucleotides, and the product is a strand of mRNA. B) The substrates are DNA nucleotides, and the product is a strand of cDNA. C) The substrates are RNA nucleotides, and the product is a strand of mRNA. D) The substrates are RNA nucleotides, and the product is a strand of cDNA. E) The substrates are DNA nucleotides, and the product is a DNA double helix. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 3.11 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 161) What process would be affected if a cell could not synthesize the enzyme RNA polymerase? (Module 3.11D) A) Transcription of RNA from DNA. B) Transcription of DNA from RNA. C) Translation of RNA into protein. D) Post-translational modification of proteins. E) Production of rRNA. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 3.11 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 162) What is translation? (Module 3.12A) A) Making an identical copy of the DNA strand. B) Making an RNA strand from the DNA template. C) Making a DNA strand from the RNA template. D) Taking the mRNA sequence and producing a protein. E) Taking the cDNA sequence and producing a protein. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 3.12 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 163) The nucleotide sequence of three mRNA codons is AUU-GCA-CUA. What is the complementary anticodon sequence for the second codon? (Module 3.12B) A) GCT B) CGT C) ATU D) UUT E) CGU Answer: E Learning Outcome: 3.12 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

164) Identify three different types of membranes based on permeability. (Module 3.13B) A) lipid permeable, water permeable, both lipid and water permeable B) protein permeable, lipid permeable, both protein and lipid permeable C) freely permeable, selectively permeable, and impermeable D) cation permeable, anion permeable, both cation and anion permeable E) carbohydrate permeable, protein permeable, drug permeable Answer: C Learning Outcome: 3.13 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 165) Distinguish between passive and active processes of membrane passage. (Module 3.13C) A) Passive processes do not need ATP and active processes do need ATP. B) Passive processes do need ATP and active processes do not need ATP. C) Passive processes only occur through impermeable membranes and active processes occur in freely permeable membranes. D) Passive processes allow proteins to move and active processes allow lipids to move. E) Passive processes use vesicular transport and active processes use diffusion. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 3.13 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 166) What kinds of molecules are involved in both active and passive processes of membrane passage? (Module 3.13D) A) aquaporins B) channel proteins C) carrier proteins D) pumps E) receptor proteins Answer: C Learning Outcome: 3.13 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 167) Define diffusion. (Module 3.14A) A) The passive movement of molecules from an area of higher concentration to an area of lower concentration until equilibrium is achieved. B) The passive movement of molecules from an area of lower concentration to an area of higher concentration until equilibrium is achieved. C) The active movement of molecules from an area of higher concentration to an area of lower concentration using energy. D) The active movement of molecules from an area of lower concentration to an area of higher concentration using energy. E) The vesicular transport of large molecules out of a cell. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 3.14 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

168) Describe osmosis. (Module 3.15A) A) The passive movement of water across a selectively permeable membrane from a solution with a higher solute concentration to a solution with a lower solute concentration. B) The active movement of water across a selectively permeable membrane from a solution with a lower solute concentration to a solution with a higher solute concentration. C) The active movement of water across a selectively permeable membrane from a solution with a higher solute concentration to a solution with a lower solute concentration. D) The vesicular transport of water molecules out of a cell. E) The passive movement of water across a selectively permeable membrane from a solution with a lower solute concentration to a solution with a higher solute concentration. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 3.15 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 169) Contrast the effects of a hypotonic solution and a hypertonic solution on a red blood cell. (Module 3.15C) A) The hypotonic solution would not cause a change in the RBC, and the hypertonic solution would cause the RBC to swell and it may burst (hemolysis). B) The hypotonic solution would not cause a change in the RBC, and the hypertonic solution would cause the RBC to shrink (crenation). C) The hypotonic solution would cause the RBC to shrink (crenation), and the hypertonic solution would cause the RBC to swell and it may burst (hemolysis). D) The hypotonic solution would cause the RBC to swell and it may burst (hemolysis), and the hypertonic solution would cause the RBC to shrink (crenation). E) The hypotonic solution would cause the RBC to swell and it may burst (hemolysis), and the hypertonic solution would not cause a change in the RBC. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 3.15 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 170) Describe the process of carrier-mediated transport. (Module 3.16A) A) In carrier-mediated transport, vesicles form by pinching the plasma membrane to transport material out of the cell. B) In carrier-mediated transport, receptor proteins bind to a ligand that causes the internalization of the ligand-receptor complex into the cell. C) In carrier-mediated transport, integral membrane proteins bind ions or molecules and transport them across the membrane. D) In carrier-mediated transport, peripheral membrane proteins bind ions or molecules and pass them along the surface of the plasma membrane. E) In carrier-mediated transport, channel proteins open allowing water-soluble ions and molecules to pass into and out of the cell. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 3.16 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

171) What two factors limit the rate of facilitated diffusion across a plasma membrane? (Module 3.16B) A) the size of the substance and the charge of the substance B) the size of the substance relative to the size of the carrier protein C) the charge of the substance relative to the resting membrane potential of the cell D) the concentration gradient of the substance and the number of carrier proteins E) the temperature of the interstitial fluid and the pH of the interstitial fluid Answer: D Learning Outcome: 3.16 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 172) What do the transport processes of facilitated diffusion and active transport have in common? (Module 3.16C) A) Water moves through an aquaporin in both processes. B) Carrier proteins are used to transport materials in both processes. C) Channel proteins are used to transport materials in both processes. D) Vesicles are used to transport materials in both processes. E) ATP is required for both processes to occur. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 3.16 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 173) During digestion, the concentration of hydrogen ions (H+) in the stomach contents increases to many times that in cells lining the stomach. Which transport process could be responsible? (Module 3.16D) A) osmosis B) simple diffusion C) facilitated diffusion D) active transport E) exocytosis Answer: D Learning Outcome: 3.16 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 174) Describe endocytosis. (Module 3.17A) A) Endocytosis occurs when a vesicle forms at the plasma membrane, encloses a large volume of extracellular fluid and contents, and then moves into the cytoplasm. B) Endocytosis occurs when a vesicle forms inside the cell, encloses a large volume of intracellular fluid and contents, and then fuses with the plasma membrane to release it outside the cell. C) Endocytosis occurs when water moves through aquaporin channels into a cell. D) Endocytosis occurs when molecules are pumped against their concentration gradient into the cell. E) Endocytosis occurs when ions pass through channel proteins to enter the cell. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 3.17 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 45

175) Describe exocytosis. (Module 3.17C) A) Exocytosis occurs when a vesicle forms at the plasma membrane, encloses a large volume of extracellular fluid and contents, and then moves into the cytoplasm. B) Exocytosis occurs when a vesicle forms inside the cell, encloses a large volume of intracellular fluid and contents, and then fuses with the plasma membrane to release it outside the cell. C) Exocytosis occurs when water moves through aquaporin channels into a cell. D) Exocytosis occurs when molecules are pumped against their concentration gradient into the cell. E) Exocytosis occurs when ions pass through channel proteins to enter the cell. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 3.17 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 176) Some white blood cells engulf bacteria and bring them into the cell. What is this process called? (Module 3.17D) A) pinocytosis B) exocytosis C) phagocytosis D) receptor-mediated endocytosis E) osmosis Answer: C Learning Outcome: 3.17 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 177) Define apoptosis. (Module 3.18B) A) Apoptosis is the process of somatic cell division. B) Apoptosis is the process of gamete cell division. C) Apoptosis is uncontrolled cell division. D) Apoptosis is the breakdown of a cell by lysosomal enzymes after phagocytosis by a white blood cell. E) Apoptosis is genetically controlled cell death. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 3.18 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 178) When does cell division begin and end? (Module 3.18C) A) Cell division begins at interphase and ends at cytokinesis. B) Cell division begins at mitosis and ends at cytokinesis. C) Cell division begins at mitosis and ends at interphase. D) Cell division begins at interphase and ends at mitosis. E) Cell division begins at cytokinesis and ends at interphase. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 3.18 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 46

179) A cell is actively manufacturing enough organelles to serve two functional cells. This cell is probably in what phase of interphase? (Module 3.19B) A) G0 B) G1 C) G2 D) S E) M Answer: B Learning Outcome: 3.19 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 180) What enzymes must be present for DNA replication to proceed normally? (Module 3.19C) A) DNA polymerase and RNA polymerase B) mRNA, rRNA, and tRNA C) RNA helicase, DNA helicase and DNA polymerase D) DNA topoisomerase, RNA polymerase, and RNA ligase E) DNA polymerase, DNA ligase, and DNA helicase Answer: E Learning Outcome: 3.19 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 181) DNA replication occurs during what two cellular processes? (Module 3.19D) A) mitosis and cytokinesis B) meiosis and cytokinesis C) mitosis and meiosis D) apoptosis and mitosis E) apoptosis and meiosis Answer: C Learning Outcome: 3.19 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 182) Define mitosis, and list its four stages. (Module 3.20A) A) Mitosis is the division of a cell into two identical daughter cells. The four stages are prophase, metaphase, anaphase, and telophase. B) Mitosis is the division of a cell into two identical daughter cells. The four stages are G0, G1, S, and G2. C) Mitosis is the division of a cell into four non-identical gametes. The four stages are prophase, metaphase, anaphase, and telophase. D) Mitosis is the division of a cell into four non-identical gametes. The four stages are G0, G1, S, and G2. E) Mitosis is the replication of DNA prior to cell division. The four stages are unwinding, primer binding, elongation, and ligation. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 3.20 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 47

183) What is a chromatid, and how many are present during normal mitosis in a human cell? (Module 3.20B) A) A chromatid is a copy of a duplicated chromosome, and 23 are present. B) A chromatid is a copy of a duplicated chromosome, and 46 are present. C) A chromatid is a copy of a duplicated chromosome, and 92 are present. D) A chromatid is where spindle fibers attach, and 46 are present. E) A chromatid is where spindle fibers attach, and 92 are present. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 3.20 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 184) Define cancer. (Module 3.21A) A) An autoimmune disease due to attacking auto-antibodies on self-tissues. B) An illness characterized by cell cycle mutations that produce malignant cells. C) A disease that is the result of an altered number of chromosomes in the somatic cells. D) A disease that occurs due to congenital malformations at birth. E) A metabolic disease that results in the dysregulation of carbohydrates and lipids in the body. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 3.21 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 185) What is a benign tumor? (Module 3.21B) A) A mass produced by abnormal growth and division of cells that remains within the original tissue and does not spread. B) A mass produced by abnormal growth and division of cells that spreads beyond the original tissue and usually threatens life. C) A blockage of the blood vessels due to an accumulation of plaque. D) A mass produced when auto-antibodies attack and destroy an organ. E) A collection of blood vessels that are produced to serve a highly metabolic organ. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 3.21 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 186) Define metastasis. (Module 3.21C) A) The containment of cancer cells within the original tissue. B) The spread of cancer cells beyond the original tissue, leading to secondary tumors. C) The spread of blood vessels to provide nutrients to a tumor. D) The death of tumor tissue deep inside the mass due to tissue hypoxia. E) The destruction of cancer cells by multiple means to starve the cells of nutrients. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 3.21 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

Essay Questions 187) Which organelles are involved in membrane flow? Trace the route of a single integral membrane protein from formation to incorporation into the plasma membrane. Answer: With the exception of mitochondria, all membranous organelles are involved in membrane flow. Those most directly associated are the ER, Golgi apparatus, secretory vesicles, and plasma membrane. A membrane protein would be synthesized in the RER, then flow through the cisternae to a transport vesicle. There the protein will be moved to the cis face of the Golgi apparatus, where it will slowly travel upward toward the trans face, usually becoming modified along the way. Once reaching the cis face of the Golgi apparatus, the protein would be embedded in the membrane of a secretory vesicle and transported to the plasma membrane. There the vesicle will fuse with the membrane, inserting the protein in the cell membrane. Learning Outcome: 3.6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 188) What are the three types of membrane permeability? Answer: There are three types of membrane permeability. In freely permeable membrane, substance pass through it without any issues. This type of membrane does not exist in any living cell. The second type of membrane has selective permeability, which allows some materials and does not allow other materials. Most living cell membranes have selective permeability. There are membranes that do not allow any substance to pass through it. This type of membrane does not exist in living cells. Learning Outcome: 3.13 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 189) When a person receives intravenous fluids to help build up blood volume, why is it important for the fluid to be isotonic? Answer: Intravenous fluids must be isotonic to prevent the cells from losing or gaining water. If the solution was hypertonic, the cells of the body would lose water, shrink, and possibly be harmed. On the other hand, the introduction of hypotonic fluid would cause the cells to swell and tissues to rupture. Learning Outcome: 3.15 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying

190) During kidney dialysis, a person's blood is passed through a bath that contains several ions and molecules. The blood is separated from the dialysis fluid by a membrane that allows water, small ions, and small molecules to pass, but does not allow large proteins or blood cells to pass. What should the composition of dialysis fluid be for it to remove urea (a small molecule) without changing the blood volume (removing water from the blood)? Answer: For the dialysis fluid to remove urea without removing water, it should not contain urea. Because urea is a small molecule, it will diffuse through the dialysis membrane from an area of high concentration (the blood) to an area of low concentration (the dialysis fluid). To prevent an associated osmotic water movement, the dialysis fluid should have an osmotic concentration similar to that of blood plasma, but with higher concentrations of solutes such as bicarbonate ions or glucose, blood solutes that also are small enough to diffuse. As urea diffuses into the dialysis fluid, glucose and bicarbonate diffuse into the blood; as a result, the solute concentrations remain in balance and no osmotic water movement occurs. Learning Outcome: 3.15 Bloom's Taxonomy: Evaluating 191) A) What are the similarities between facilitated diffusion and active transport? B) What are the differences? Answer: A) Both processes use carrier proteins and exhibit saturation. B) Facilitated diffusion is driven by a concentration gradient, does not consume ATP, and so is "passive," whereas active transport is active, consumes ATP, and moves a substance up its concentration gradient. Learning Outcome: 3.16 Bloom's Taxonomy: Analyzing 192) Describe the cell theory. (Module 3.1A) Answer: The cell theory states that cells are the building blocks of all plants and animals, all new cells come from the division of pre-existing cells, and cells are the smallest living units that carry out all vital physiological functions. Learning Outcome: 3.1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 193) Define cellular differentiation. (Module 3.1C) Answer: Cellular differentiation is the development of specific cellular characteristics and functions that are different from the original cell. It results from specific genes in the cell being turned on or off. Learning Outcome: 3.1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

194) Identify the membranous organelles, and describe their functions. (Module 3.2B) Answer: Membranous organelles and their functions are as follows: Endoplasmic reticulum (ER) synthesizes secretory products and participates in intracellular storage and transport; the nucleus controls metabolism, stores and processes genetic information, and controls protein synthesis; rough ER modifies and packages newly synthesized proteins; smooth ER synthesizes lipids and carbohydrates; Golgi apparatus stores, alters, and packages secretory products and lysosomal enzymes; lysosomes remove damaged organelles or intracellular pathogens; mitochondria produce 95 percent of the ATP required by the cell; and peroxisomes neutralize toxic compounds. Learning Outcome: 3.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 195) List the general functions of the plasma membrane. (Module 3.3B) Answer: The general functions of the plasma membrane are physical isolation of the cell from its environment, regulation of exchange with the environment, sensitivity to the environment, and structural support. Learning Outcome: 3.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 196) Compare and contrast the structure of SER and RER. (Module 3.5B) Answer: Both SER and RER have cisternae. SER lacks ribosomes, and its cisternae are tubular. RER has ribosomes attached to cisternae in the shape of flattened sheets. Learning Outcome: 3.5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 197) Describe three functions of lysosomes. (Module 3.6C) Answer: Lysosomes may (1) remove damaged organelles, breaking them down to enhance recycling and membrane flow; (2) fuse with vesicles containing fluids or solids from the external environment to obtain nutrients or destroy pathogens; and (3) break down and release their digestive enzymes, resulting in the destruction of the cell (autolysis). Learning Outcome: 3.6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 198) Describe the structure of a mitochondrion. (Module 3.7A) Answer: A double membrane encloses a mitochondrion; the outer membrane surrounds the organelle, whereas the inner membrane contains folds called cristae and encloses a fluid, enzyme-filled matrix. Learning Outcome: 3.7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 199) Describe why the nucleus is said to be the control center for a cell. (Module 3.8C) Answer: The nucleus is said to be the control center because it contains the genetic information, or directions, for making more than 100,000 proteins. The proteins fulfill structural and functional roles that permit the cell to respond to external changes. Learning Outcome: 3.8 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 51

200) Describe the contents and the structure of the nucleus. (Module 3.9A) Answer: The nucleus is a cellular organelle containing DNA, RNA, and proteins. Surrounding the nucleus is the double-membraned nuclear envelope; the gap within this double membrane is the perinuclear space. Nuclear pores allow for chemical communication between the nucleus and the cytosol. Learning Outcome: 3.9 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 201) The total length of DNA within a human cell nucleus is approximately 2 meters. How does the DNA fit into the relatively small space of a human nucleus, which ranges some 6-10μm in diameter? (Module 3.9D) Answer: The DNA strands are coiled around histone proteins forming nucleosomes, rather than remaining straight double helices. Further packing of DNA occurs as long chains of nucleosomes coil around other proteins. Learning Outcome: 3.9 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 202) Define DNA template strand. (Module 3.11B) Answer: The DNA template strand is the strand that will be used to synthesize RNA. Learning Outcome: 3.11 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 203) During the process of transcription, a nucleotide was deleted from an mRNA sequence that coded for a protein. What effect will this deletion have on the amino acid sequence of the protein? (Module 3.12C) Answer: Deletion of a base during transcription will change the makeup of all subsequent codons in the mRNA base sequence. The altered mRNA sequence will then result in the inclusion of a different series of amino acids into the protein during translation. Almost certainly the protein so produced will not be functional. Learning Outcome: 3.12 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 204) Define permeability. (Module 3.13A) Answer: Permeability is the plasma membrane property that precisely determines which substances can enter or leave the cytoplasm. Learning Outcome: 3.13 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 205) Describe the colliding molecules in the figure below. (Module 3.14B) Answer: Collisions are occurring among and between sugar, dye, and water molecules. Learning Outcome: 3.14 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

206) Identify factors that influence diffusion rates. (Module 3.14C) Answer: Factors that influence diffusion rates include distance, molecule or ion size, temperature, steepness of the concentration gradient, and electrical forces. Learning Outcome: 3.14 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 207) How would a decrease in the oxygen concentration in the lungs affect oxygen diffusion in the blood? (Module 3.14D) Answer: Diffusion is driven by a concentration gradient. The steeper the concentration gradient, the faster the rate of diffusion; the lower the concentration gradient, the slower the rate of diffusion. If the concentration of oxygen in the lungs were to decrease, the concentration gradient between oxygen in the lungs and oxygen in the blood would decrease (as long as the oxygen level of the blood remained constant). Thus, oxygen would diffuse more slowly into the blood. Learning Outcome: 3.14 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 208) Describe osmotic pressure, and state in which solution below it is greater. (Module 3.15B) Answer: Osmotic pressure of a solution refers to the force with which water moves into that solution as a result of its solute concentration. The osmotic pressure of solution B is greater than the osmotic pressure of solution A. Learning Outcome: 3.15 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 209) Some pediatricians recommend using a 10 percent salt solution to relieve nasal congestion in infants. Explain the effects this treatment would have on the cells lining the nasal cavity. Would it be effective? (Module 3.15D) Answer: The 10 percent salt solution is hypertonic with respect to the cells lining the nasal cavity (the solution contains a higher salt concentration than do the cells). The hypertonic solution would draw water out of the cells (which would shrink), adding water to (diluting) the mucus. Thinner mucus would help relieve the congestion. Learning Outcome: 3.15 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 210) Describe the three types of endocytosis. (Module 3.17B) Answer: The three types of endocytosis are receptor-mediated endocytosis, the vesicle-mediated movement of specific target molecules; pinocytosis, the vesicle-mediated movement of extracellular fluid and its contents; and phagocytosis, the vesicle-mediated movement of extracellular solids, especially bacteria and debris. Learning Outcome: 3.17 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 211) Explain why cell division is important. (Module 3.18A) Answer: Cell division is important because it is essential to survival. Aging and environmental stressors damage cells. Cellular division replaces old and damaged cells. Learning Outcome: 3.18 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 53

212) Describe interphase, and identify its stages. (Module 3.19A) Answer: Interphase is the portion of a cell's life cycle during which the chromosomes are uncoiled and all normal cellular functions except mitosis are under way. Its stages are G1, S, G2, and G0. Learning Outcome: 3.19 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 213) What would happen if spindle fibers failed to form in a cell during mitosis? (Module 3.20C) Answer: If spindle fibers failed to form during mitosis, the chromosomes would not be able to separate into two sets. If cytokinesis occurred, the result would be one cell with two sets of chromosomes, and one cell with none. Learning Outcome: 3.20 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 214) How does angiogenesis aid tumor growth? (Module 3.21D) Answer: Angiogenesis refers to the growth of new blood vessels. Malignant tumor cells promote angiogenesis, which provides additional nutrients to speed up the division and growth of malignant cells. Learning Outcome: 3.21 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying

Visual Anatomy and Physiology, 3e (Martini) Chapter 4 Tissue Level of Organization Multiple Choice Questions 1) Which type of tissue covers exposed surfaces of the body? A) neural B) muscle C) connective D) epithelial E) supportive Answer: D Learning Outcome: 4.1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 2) Which type of tissue fills internal spaces of the body? A) neural B) muscle C) connective D) epithelial E) glandular Answer: C Learning Outcome: 4.1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 3) Which type of tissue contracts to produce movements? A) neural B) muscle C) connective D) epithelial E) glandular Answer: B Learning Outcome: 4.1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 4) Which type of tissue conducts electrical impulses? A) neural B) muscle C) connective D) epithelial E) glandular Answer: A Learning Outcome: 4.1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

5) Which of the following structures would you use to get the best resolution when viewing a sample? A) compound light microscope B) transmission electron microscope C) human eye D) simple light microscope E) scanning electron microscope Answer: B Learning Outcome: 4.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 6) The tissue that always has a "top" and a "bottom" is A) epithelial B) connective C) muscle D) basal E) apical Answer: A Learning Outcome: 4.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 7) Functions of epithelia include all of the following except A) providing physical protection. B) controlling permeability. C) absorption. D) producing specialized secretions. E) supporting muscle cells. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 4.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 8) Epithelial cells exhibit modifications that adapt them for A) contraction. B) conduction. C) secretion. D) circulation. E) support. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 4.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

tissue.

9) Epithelial cells lining the internal passageways of the genitourinary tract usually have at their free surface. A) mitochondria B) cilia C) microvilli D) junctional complexes E) Golgi complexes Answer: C Learning Outcome: 4.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 10) The epithelial cells that are flat, thin and have one layer are called A) simple cuboidal. B) simple squamous. C) stratified cuboidal. D) simple columnar. E) stratified squamous. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 4.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 11) Which of the following statements about simple epithelia is false? A) They afford little mechanical protection. B) They are characteristic of regions where secretion or absorption occurs. C) They line internal compartments and passageways. D) They cover surfaces subjected to mechanical or chemical stress. E) They are avascular. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 4.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 12) Characteristics of epithelia include all of the following except A) secretion. B) avascularity. C) regeneration. D) polarity. E) contraction. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 4.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

13) Epithelia specialized for providing sensations of smell, taste, sight, equilibrium, and hearing are known as A) neuroepithelia. B) psychoepithelia. C) neuropsychoepithelia. D) multilaminar epithelia. E) protective epithelia. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 4.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 14) Cells that are specialized for secretion A) are usually stratified. B) have a small nucleus. C) are usually squamous. D) exhibit polarity. E) are found only in the digestive system. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 4.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 15) Secretions through a duct might provide . A) lubrication; lubricators B) enzymes; hormones C) transport media; physical protectors D) superficial relief; interstitial fluid E) odors; nutrition for nursing babies Answer: B Learning Outcome: 4.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

, whereas ductless secretions act as

16) Close examination of an organ reveals a lining of several layers of cells. The layers do not contain any blood vessels and one surface of the cells is open to the internal cavity of the organ. This tissue is probably A) epithelium. B) muscle tissue. C) connective tissue. D) neural tissue. E) fat tissue. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 4.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying

17) Motile cilia cover the free surface of A) the gastrointestinal tract. B) the urinary tract. C) the respiratory tract. D) the cardiovascular system. E) all hollow organs. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 4.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 18) secrete hormones and prohormones in the interstitial fluid, which later enters blood. A) Exocrine glands B) Endocrine glands C) Endocrine and exocrine glands D) Epithelia E) Connective tissue Answer: B Learning Outcome: 4.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 19) Examination of a tissue sample reveals groups of cells united by junctional complexes and interlocking membranes. The cells have one free surface and lack blood vessels. The tissue is most likely tissue. A) muscle B) neural C) epithelial D) connective E) adipose Answer: C Learning Outcome: 4.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 20) Which of the following cellular structures locks the terminal webs of neighboring cells to prevent cell distortion and leakage? A) gap junctions B) basal lamina C) tight junctions D) desmosomes E) adhesion belt Answer: D Learning Outcome: 4.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

21) Which structures separate epithelial tissue from connective tissue? A) gap junctions B) basement membranes C) tight junctions D) desmosomes E) junctional complexes Answer: B Learning Outcome: 4.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 22) Epithelium is connected to underlying connective tissue by A) keratin. B) interfacial canals. C) a basal lamina. D) gap junctions. E) proteoglycans. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 4.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 23) DNA mutation and development of cancerous cells are less dangerous in epithelial tissue than in connective tissue because epithelia A) have desmosomes. B) have tight junctions. C) have gap junction. D) have apical surface. E) are avascular. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 4.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Analyzing 24) In stratified epithelia adapted to resist mechanical forces, which of the following types of cell-to-cell junctions are especially abundant? A) tight junctions B) basolateral junctions C) gap junctions D) hemidesmosomes E) desmosomes Answer: E Learning Outcome: 4.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

Figure 4-1 25) Which of the labels in Figure 4-1 indicates a hemidesmosome? A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: A Learning Outcome: 4.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

26) Which of the labels in Figure 4-1 indicates a tight junction? A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: B Learning Outcome: 4.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 27) Which of the labels in Figure 4-1 indicates an adhesion belt? A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: C Learning Outcome: 4.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 28) Which of the labels in Figure 4-1 is very abundant in cardiac muscle? A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: D Learning Outcome: 4.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 29) are transmembrane proteins that connect two cell membranes together. A) Cell adhesion molecules B) Adhesion belts C) Gap junctions D) Basal lamina E) Reticular lamina Answer: A Learning Outcome: 4.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

30) Gap junctions can be found in all of the following tissues except A) cardiac muscle. B) smooth muscle. C) skeletal muscle. D) simple columnar epithelium. E) pseudostratified columnar epithelium. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 4.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 31) The body's most delicate type of epithelium is the A) simple squamous B) simple cuboidal C) simple columnar D) pseudostratified columnar E) stratified squamous Answer: A Learning Outcome: 4.5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 32) epithelium is found inside the eyes. A) Simple squamous B) Simple cuboidal C) Simple columnar D) Pseudostratified columnar E) Stratified squamous Answer: A Learning Outcome: 4.5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 33) Mesothelium is to the body cavities as endothelium is to the A) kidneys. B) heart and blood vessels. C) urinary bladder. D) mouth. E) large intestine. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 4.5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

epithelium.

34) The epithelial tissue that covers skin is classified as A) simple squamous. B) keratinized stratified squamous. C) simple cuboidal. D) stratified cuboidal. E) nonkeratinized stratified squamous. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 4.5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 35) epithelium is found lining the anus and vagina. A) Simple squamous B) Simple cuboidal C) Simple columnar D) Pseudostratified columnar E) Stratified squamous Answer: E Learning Outcome: 4.5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 36) The epithelium that lines the body cavities is known as A) endothelium. B) mesothelium. C) perithelium. D) metothelium. E) ectothelium. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 4.5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 37) The lining of the heart and blood vessels is called A) endothelium. B) mesothelium. C) perithelium. D) metothelium. E) ectothelium. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 4.5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

38) Transitional epithelium is found A) lining the urinary bladder. B) lining the ducts that drain sweat glands. C) lining kidney tubules. D) lining the stomach. E) at the surface of the skin. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 4.6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 39) Simple cuboidal epithelium is found A) at the surface of the skin. B) lining the trachea. C) lining blood vessels. D) forming the kidney tubules. E) lining the air sacs of the lungs. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 4.6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 40) The ducts of sweat glands and mammary glands are covered by A) stratified cuboidal B) simple cuboidal C) simple columnar D) pseudostratified columnar E) stratified squamous Answer: A Learning Outcome: 4.6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 41) epithelium is found in the ureter. A) Stratified squamous B) Stratified cuboidal C) Simple columnar D) Pseudostratified columnar E) Transitional Answer: E Learning Outcome: 4.6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

epithelium.

42) All of the following types of epithelium can be found where absorption or secretion takes place except A) simple squamous. B) simple cuboidal. C) pseudostratified columnar. D) simple columnar. E) stratified squamous. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 4.7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 43) The epithelium is found in the large pancreatic ducts. A) stratified squamous B) stratified cuboidal C) stratified columnar D) pseudostratified columnar E) transitional Answer: C Learning Outcome: 4.7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 44) Simple columnar epithelia are found A) lining the urinary bladder. B) lining the ducts that drain sweat glands. C) lining kidney tubules. D) lining the gallbladder. E) at the surface of the skin. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 4.7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 45) You would find pseudostratified columnar epithelium lining the A) male reproductive tract. B) urinary bladder. C) secretory portions of the pancreas. D) surface of the skin. E) stomach. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 4.7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

46) Glands that secrete hormones into the interstitial fluid are A) endocrine B) interstitial C) exocrine D) merocrine E) holocrine Answer: A Learning Outcome: 4.8 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

glands.

47) Which of the following is a type of secretion in which some cytoplasm is lost with the product? A) holocrine B) merocrine C) apocrine D) mucus E) serous Answer: C Learning Outcome: 4.8 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 48) Endocrine glands empty their products into glands, while exocrine gland secretions empty into A) cells; cellular; interstitial fluid B) interstitial fluid; ducted; cells C) interstitial fluid; ducted; interstitial fluid D) interstitial fluid; ductless; ducts E) ducts; ducted; interstitial fluid Answer: D Learning Outcome: 4.8 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

and are referred to as or onto surfaces.

49) Which type of glands secret their products by exocytosis? A) merocrine B) endocrine C) holocrine D) serous E) apocrine Answer: A Learning Outcome: 4.8 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

50) The process of lactation (milk production) depends on both merocrine and secretion by mammary gland epithelial cells. A) eccrine B) endocrine C) holocrine D) exocrine E) apocrine Answer: E Learning Outcome: 4.8 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 51) Goblet cells are classified as A) compound tubular glands. B) compound alveolar glands. C) simple alveolar glands. D) simple tubular glands. E) unicellular exocrine glands. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 4.9 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 52) Merocrine sweat glands are classified as A) simple branched tubular. B) simple alveolar. C) compound tubular. D) compound alveolar. E) simple coiled tubular. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 4.9 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 53) Unicellular exocrine glands secrete A) milk. B) sweat. C) mucus. D) sebum. E) insulin. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 4.9 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

54) A gland formed by cells arranged in a blind round pocket with a single unbranched duct would be called A) simple tubular. B) simple alveolar (acinar). C) compound tubular. D) compound alveolar. E) tubuloacinar. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 4.9 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 55) All of the following are connective tissue proper, except A) loose areolar. B) adipose. C) reticular. D) dense regular. E) cartilage. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 4.10 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 56) The three types of connective tissue include A) connective tissue proper, fluid connective, and supporting connective. B) epithelial, muscle, and neural. C) glandular, exocrine, and endocrine. D) ectoderm, mesoderm, and endoderm. E) All of the answers are correct. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 4.10 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 57) Blood belongs to which of the following types of connective tissue? A) dense connective tissue proper B) loose connective tissue proper C) fluid connective tissue D) supportive connective tissue E) lymph connective tissue Answer: C Learning Outcome: 4.10 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

58) All of the following are fixed cells of connective tissue proper, except A) fibroblasts. B) fibrocytes. C) adipocytes. D) mesenchymal cells. E) melanocytes. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 4.11 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 59) Cells that store fat are called A) cellulocytes. B) macrocytes. C) adipocytes. D) podocytes. E) melanocytes. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 4.11 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 60) The framework or stroma of organs such as the spleen, liver, and lymph nodes is made up of tissue. A) areolar connective B) regular dense connective C) irregular dense connective D) reticular connective E) adipose Answer: D Learning Outcome: 4.11 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 61) Two classes of macrophages include A) mesenchymal cells and melanocytes. B) mast cells and basophils. C) fixed macrophages and free macrophages. D) neutrophils and eosinophils. E) microphages and adipocytes. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 4.11 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

62) The three types of protein fibers in connective tissue are A) tendons, ligaments, and elastic ligaments. B) loose, dense, and irregular. C) cartilage, bone, and collagen. D) collagen, reticular, and elastic. E) polar, cellular, and permeable. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 4.11 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 63) Which of the following connective tissue cells produces collagen? A) adipocytes B) fibroblasts C) macrophages D) mast cells E) lymphocytes Answer: B Learning Outcome: 4.11 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 64) Loose connective tissue functions in all of the following ways except A) transporting substances throughout the body. B) supporting epithelia. C) anchoring blood vessels and nerves. D) storing fats. E) serving as packing material. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 4.11 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 65) Lymphocytes can develop into cells that secrete defense proteins against disease. Some of these cells are termed plasma cells, while their proteins are called A) collagen. B) fibrin. C) elastin. D) antibodies. E) antigens. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 4.11 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

66) Cells that engulf bacteria or cell debris within loose connective tissue are A) fibroblasts. B) macrophages. C) adipocytes. D) mast cells. E) All of the answers are correct. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 4.11 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 67) What is the main function of mesenchymal cells? A) produce collagen fibers B) maintain ground substance C) defend against infections D) make new connective tissue cells E) produce pigments Answer: D Learning Outcome: 4.11 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 68) connective tissue is a type of A) Hyaline cartilage; dense B) Adipose; dense C) Reticular; dense D) Adipose; loose E) Hyaline cartilage; loose Answer: D Learning Outcome: 4.11 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

connective tissue.

69) Antibodies are produced by A) macrophages. B) microphages. C) plasma cells. D) mast cells. E) fibroblasts. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 4.11 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

70) The dominant fiber type in most dense connective tissue is A) collagen. B) elastin. C) actin. D) myosin. E) connectin. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 4.12 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 71) Each of the following is an example of dense connective tissue except A) tendons. B) ligaments. C) dermis. D) areolar connective tissue. E) elastic tissue. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 4.12 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 72) Tissues that provide strength and support for areas subjected to stresses from many directions are A) tendons. B) ligaments. C) dense irregular connective tissues. D) reticular tissues. E) areolar tissue. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 4.12 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 73) What type of cells makes up almost half the volume of blood? A) red blood cells B) white blood cells C) platelets D) monocytes E) phagocytes Answer: A Learning Outcome: 4.12 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

74) attach skeletal muscles to bones, and A) Ligaments; tendons B) Ligaments; reticular tissues C) Tendons; ligaments D) Reticular tissues; ligaments E) Reticular tissues; tendons Answer: C Learning Outcome: 4.12 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

connect one bone to another.

75) The watery fluid component of blood is called A) plasma. B) lymph. C) interstitial fluid. D) intracellular fluid. E) pus. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 4.12 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 76) The three kinds of formed elements in blood are A) red cells, brown cells, and white cells. B) red cells, fibroblasts, and brown cells. C) white cells, fibroblasts, and platelets. D) white cells, red cells, and platelets. E) mast cells, red cells, and white cells. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 4.12 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 77) The three major subdivisions of extracellular fluid found in the body are A) blood, plasma, and lymph. B) blood, interstitial fluid, and cytosol. C) blood, lymph, and cytosol. D) plasma, lymph, and interstitial fluid. E) plasma, interstitial fluid, and cytosol. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 4.12 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

78) Interstitial fluid that enters a lymphatic vessel is termed A) plasma. B) lymph. C) interstitial fluid. D) intracellular fluid. E) pus. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 4.12 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 79) What type of cells contain histamine and heparin? A) monocytes B) neutrophils C) mast cells D) lymphocytes E) eosinophils Answer: C Learning Outcome: 4.12 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 80) Defense cells in blood are called A) red blood cells. B) platelets. C) fibroblasts. D) adipocytes. E) white blood cells. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 4.12 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 81) Growth of cartilage by accumulation of matrix around chondrocytes is called growth. A) extracellular B) intercellular C) appositional D) interstitial E) extrastitial Answer: D Learning Outcome: 4.13 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

82) In growth, cartilage grows wider or thicker in diameter. A) extracellular B) intercellular C) appositional D) interstitial E) extrastitial Answer: C Learning Outcome: 4.13 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 83) A herniated disc is an injury of the pads of cartilage between the vertebrae in which the cartilage bulges from normal position. What type of cartilage is affected? A) fibrocartilage B) dense regular C) dense irregular D) hyaline E) elastic Answer: A Learning Outcome: 4.13 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 84) Damage to a joint cartilage is affecting which type of tissue? A) fluid connective B) dense connective C) supporting connective D) loose connective E) adipose Answer: C Learning Outcome: 4.13 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 85) Which type of connective tissue is found between the ribs and the sternum, or supporting the trachea? A) areolar B) hyaline cartilage C) elastic D) fibrous E) dense regular Answer: B Learning Outcome: 4.13 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

86) Chondroitin sulfate is abundant in the matrix of A) epithelial tissue. B) cartilage. C) areolar tissue. D) elastic connective tissue. E) adipose tissue. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 4.13 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 87) Elastic cartilage is found A) between vertebrae. B) in the knee joint. C) in the nose. D) in the ear. E) in the ribcage. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 4.13 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 88) Cartilage is separated from surrounding tissues by a fibrous A) perichondrium. B) lacunae. C) periosteum. D) canaliculi. E) matrix. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 4.13 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 89) The type of cartilage found in the intervertebral discs is A) ligamentous B) hyaline C) elastic D) fibrous E) osseous Answer: D Learning Outcome: 4.13 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

cartilage.

90) Osseous tissue is also called A) cartilage. B) fat. C) cellulite. D) bone. E) ligament. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 4.14 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 91) Chondrocytes are to cartilage as osteocytes are to A) blood. B) epithelium. C) fat. D) bone. E) neural tissue. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 4.14 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 92) Unlike cartilage, bone A) is a connective tissue. B) has a matrix that contains collagen. C) is highly vascular. D) has an outer covering. E) has cells within lacunae. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 4.14 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 93) Bone is tissue. A) dead connective B) dead epithelial C) living connective D) living epithelial E) living muscle Answer: C Learning Outcome: 4.14 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

94) All of the following are characteristics of synovial membrane except that it A) develops within a connective tissue. B) is avascular. C) has no basement membrane. D) has gaps of up to 1 mm between adjacent cells. E) is continually exchanging fluid and solutes between its fluid and the blood. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 4.15 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 95) tissues combine to form body membranes that cover and protect other structures and tissues in the body. A) Connective and muscle B) Nervous and connective C) Muscle and epithelia D) Epithelia and connective E) Nervous and muscle Answer: D Learning Outcome: 4.15 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 96) The loose connective tissue component of a mucous membrane is called A) reticular tissue. B) the basal lamina. C) the lamina propria. D) dense irregular connective tissue. E) adipose tissue. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 4.15 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 97) Which of the following membranes line cavities that communicate with the exterior of the body? A) mucous B) serous C) cutaneous D) synovial E) pleural Answer: A Learning Outcome: 4.15 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

98) The reduction of friction between the parietal and visceral surfaces of an internal cavity is the function of A) cutaneous membranes. B) mucous membranes. C) serous membranes. D) synovial membranes. E) the lamina propria. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 4.15 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 99) The serous membrane lining the abdominal cavity is the A) pleura. B) peritoneum. C) pericardium. D) periosteum. E) perichondrium. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 4.15 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 100) Which of the following refers to the dense connective tissue that surrounds a muscle and blends with the tendon? A) superficial fascia B) hypodermis C) deep fascia D) subserous fascia E) subcutaneous layer Answer: C Learning Outcome: 4.15 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 101) Adhesions of abdominopelvic organs due to friction occur when A) serous membranes B) synovial membranes C) muscle D) nerve cells E) mucous membranes Answer: A Learning Outcome: 4.15 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

is/are damaged.

102) Microscopic examination of a tissue reveals a loose framework of fibers embedded in a large volume of fluid ground substance and adipocytes and mast cells. This tissue would most likely be A) subserous fascia between a serous membrane and deep fascia. B) deep fascia continuous with a ligament. C) subserous fascia between skin and muscle. D) superficial fascia between skin and muscle. E) superficial fascia between a serous membrane and deep fascia. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 4.15 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 103) Tissue that is specialized for contraction is _ A) loose connective B) dense connective C) epithelial D) nerve E) muscle Answer: E Learning Outcome: 4.16 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

tissue.

104) In which of the following are the four tissue types arranged correctly from the highest to lowest percentage of body weight? A) muscle, connective, nervous, epithelial B) connective, muscle, epithelial, nervous C) nervous, epithelial, muscle, connective D) connective, nervous, epithelial, muscle E) muscle, connective, epithelial, nervous Answer: E Learning Outcome: 4.16 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 105) The muscle tissue that shows no striations is A) skeletal B) cardiac C) smooth D) voluntary E) multinucleated Answer: C Learning Outcome: 4.17 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

muscle.

106) Tissue that is specialized for the conduction of electrical impulses is A) connective B) neural C) areolar D) osseous E) epithelial Answer: B Learning Outcome: 4.17 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

tissue.

107) All function to propagate electrical signals from one place to another. A) muscle cells B) neurons C) neuroglia D) epithelia E) connective cells Answer: B Learning Outcome: 4.17 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 108) The is the part of a neuron that conducts the signal to other cells. A) dendrite B) cell body C) axon D) nucleolus E) nucleus Answer: C Learning Outcome: 4.17 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 109) All of the following are true of neurons except that they A) lack centrioles and cannot divide. B) conduct a nervous impulse. C) are composed of dendrites, a cell body, and an axon. D) are a very specialized form of connective tissue. E) are the longest cells in the body. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 4.17 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

110) Intercalated discs and striations are characteristic of A) smooth muscle B) cardiac muscle C) skeletal muscle D) neural E) any muscle Answer: B Learning Outcome: 4.17 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

tissue.

111) Of the following tissues, which has the least ability to regenerate after injury? A) stratified squamous epithelium B) bone C) smooth muscle D) adipose E) skeletal muscle Answer: E Learning Outcome: 4.18 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 112) During an inflammatory response to injury, which of the following is least likely in the region of the injury? A) increase in phagocytes B) increase in histamine C) increase in blood flow D) pale, cold skin E) swelling Answer: D Learning Outcome: 4.18 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 113) Which of the following statements about tissue swelling that occurs during inflammation is true? A) It is triggered by regeneration. B) It is triggered by histamine. C) It is caused by increased endothelial permeability. D) It is triggered by regeneration and caused by increased endothelial permeability. E) It is triggered by histamine and caused by increased endothelial permeability. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 4.18 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying

114) All of the following are part of the inflammation response except A) production of collagenous framework. B) increased blood flow. C) increased vessel permeability. D) mast cell activation. E) pain. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 4.18 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 115) Give the term for the "study of tissues." (Module 4.1A) A) cytology B) histology C) embryology D) pathology E) neurology Answer: B Learning Outcome: 4.1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 116) What is a tissue? (Module 4.1B) A) the smallest stable unit of matter B) smallest living unit in the body C) a group of similar cells and their cell products D) a group of organs working for a similar function E) the highest level of organization in the body Answer: C Learning Outcome: 4.1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 117) The LM at the top of this page is magnified 400 times (400x). If the ocular lens used to make this image has a magnification of 10x, what is the magnification of the objective lens? (Module 4.2C) A) 4x B) 40x C) 400x D) 390x E) 410x Answer: B Learning Outcome: 4.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying

118) List four essential functions of epithelial tissue. (Module 4.3A) A) creates loose open frameworks, controls permeability, secretes ground substance, and secretes plasma B) produces collagen, elastic, and reticular fibers, secretes ground substance, transports fluids, protects delicate organs C) stores energy, interconnects other types of tissue, moves the skeleton, moves contents in hollow organs D) provides nutrients to neurons, regulates the interstitial fluid surrounding neurons, repairs nervous tissue, propagates electrical impulses E) provides physical protection, controls permeability, provides sensation, and produces specialized secretions Answer: E Learning Outcome: 4.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 119) What function is served by motile cilia on epithelial cell surfaces? (Module 4.3C) A) produce muscle contraction B) propel material across the cell surface C) propel sperm D) move organelles E) move materials through cytoplasm Answer: B Learning Outcome: 4.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 120) Identify the various types of epithelial intercellular connections. (Module 4.4A) A) tight junctions, adhesion belts, gap junctions, and desmosomes B) tight junctions, sinusoids, intercellular clefts, and fenestrations C) hemidesmosomes, desmosomes, connexons, and fenestrations D) connexons, synapses, receptors, and sarcolemma E) gap junctions, nodes of Ranvier, canaliculi, and synapses Answer: A Learning Outcome: 4.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 121) What is the functional significance of gap junctions? (Module 4.4B) A) They form a barrier that isolates the basolateral surfaces from deeper tissues. B) They attach the deepest epithelial cells to the basement membrane. C) They provide firm attachments between neighboring cells. D) They strengthen the apical region and prevent leakage. E) They permit chemical communication (diffusion of ions and small molecules) that coordinates the activities of adjacent cells. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 4.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

122) How do epithelial tissues obtain needed nutrients? (Module 4.4C) A) Blood vessels travel through all the layers of the epithelium to provide nutrients. B) Blood vessels travel through the basal layer of the epithelium to provide nutrients. C) Blood vessels travel through underlying tissues to provide nutrients. D) Epithelial tissue stores nutrients so it has a constant supply. E) Epithelial tissue does not nutrients because it is not living tissue. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 4.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 123) What two types of tissues contribute to the formation and maintenance of the basement membrane? (Module 4.4D) A) epithelial and muscle tissue B) epithelial and nervous tissue C) muscle and nervous tissue D) epithelial and connective tissue E) connective and muscle tissue Answer: D Learning Outcome: 4.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 124) What do a mesothelium and an endothelium have in common? (Module 4.5A) A) They both are simple squamous epithelium. B) They both line blood vessels. C) They both are limited to the abdominal cavity. D) They both are stratified squamous epithelium. E) They both are simple columnar epithelium. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 4.5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 125) Why do the pharynx, esophagus, anus, and vagina have a similar epithelial organization? (Module 4.5B) A) All these sites are avascular. B) All these sites are well vascularized. C) All these sites need large amounts of mucus production. D) All these sites line hollow organs. E) All these sites are subject to physical stresses and abrasion. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 4.5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

126) What properties are common to keratinized epithelia? (Module 4.5C) A) Keratinized epithelia are both tough and water resistant. B) Keratinized epithelia secrete both serous fluid and mucus fluid. C) Keratinized epithelia are found in both the thoracic and abdominal cavities. D) Keratinized epithelia are excellent for both diffusion and protection. E) Keratinized epithelia are found both internally in the body and externally. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 4.5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 127) Describe the appearance of simple cuboidal epithelial cells in sectional view. (Module 4.6A) A) They appear flat and look like a cracked egg with the nucleus on top. B) They appear spherical with the nucleus in the middle. C) They appear columnar with the nucleus in the bottom 1/3 of the cell. D) They appear like a cube, as tall as they are wide, with the nucleus centered in the middle of the cell. E) They appear like rounded fluffy cells with the nucleus placed irregularly in the cell. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 4.6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 128) Identify the epithelium that lines the urinary bladder, and describe its unusual functional characteristic. (Module 4.6B) A) simple squamous epithelium, allows diffusion of urine into the urinary bladder B) stratified squamous epithelium, for protection of the urinary bladder as urine enters C) transitional epithelium, allows for repeated stretching and recoiling back to its original shape D) pseudostratified epithelium with goblet cells, produced mucus so the urine can pass easily E) simple cuboidal epithelium, allows for secretion of urine Answer: C Learning Outcome: 4.6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 129) Describe the changes in appearance of the transitional epithelium lining the urinary bladder as stretching occurs. (Module 4.6C) A) The cells become more cuboidal. B) The cells become flatter. C) The cells become more columnar. D) The cells become pseudostratified. E) The cells become more spherical. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 4.6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

130) What functions are associated with a simple cuboidal epithelium and a transitional epithelium? (Module 4.6D) A) A simple cuboidal epithelium is associated with diffusion, and a transitional epithelium is associated with stretching. B) A simple cuboidal epithelium is associated with stretching, and a transitional epithelium is associated with diffusion. C) A simple cuboidal epithelium is associated with protection, and a transitional epithelium is associated with absorption. D) A simple cuboidal epithelium is associated with diffusion, and a transitional epithelium is associated with absorption. E) A simple cuboidal epithelium is associated with secretion and absorption, and a transitional epithelium is associated with stretching. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 4.6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 131) Describe the appearance of simple columnar epithelial cells in a sectional view. (Module 4.7A) A) They appear flat and look like a cracked egg with the nucleus on top. B) They appear spherical with the nucleus in the middle. C) They appear columnar with an elongated nucleus close to the basement membrane. D) They appear like a cube, as tall as they are wide, with the nucleus centered in the middle of the cell. E) They appear like rounded fluffy cells with the nucleus placed irregularly in the cell. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 4.7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 132) Explain why a pseudostratified epithelium is not truly stratified. (Module 4.7B) A) All the cells do not contain a nucleus. B) All the cells are not columnar. C) All the cells form a single layer and contact the basement membrane. D) All the cells' nuclei are round instead of elongated. E) All the cells are not linked by tight junctions. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 4.7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

133) Describe the two primary types of glands. (Module 4.8A) A) Endocrine glands release their substances into the interstitial fluid; exocrine glands release their secretions into ducts that open onto an epithelial surface. B) Endocrine glands release their secretions into ducts that open onto an epithelial surface; exocrine glands release their substances into the interstitial fluid. C) Mucus glands secrete mucus through a duct to the inside surface of body; sweat glands secrete sweat through a duct to the outside surface of the body. D) Sweat glands secrete sweat through a duct to the outside surface of the body; oil glands secrete sebum through a duct to the outside surface of the body. E) Endocrine glands release their substances into the interstitial fluid; exocrine glands release their secretions through a duct to the outside surface of the body. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 4.8 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 134) What three characteristics are used to describe multicellular exocrine glands? (Module 4.9A) A) size, water-soluble or lipid-soluble secretions, and location of the gland B) structure of the duct, shape of the secretory area, and relationship between the duct and secretory areas C) number of ducts, width of the secretory area, and the distance between the duct and the secretory areas D) depth of the secretory area, whether the duct opens inside or outside the body, and if the secretion is mucus or serous E) type of epithelial cells that line the duct, type of epithelial cells that make up the secretory area, and the mode of secretion Answer: B Learning Outcome: 4.9 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 135) Describe the simplest type of unicellular exocrine gland. (Module 4.9B) A) Simple alveolar (acinar) gland; this is found during embryonic development and not in adults. B) Simple tubular gland; this gland has a single duct that does not divide at the straight glandular cells. C) Simple coiled tubular gland; this has a single duct but a coiled secretory area. D) Goblet cell; this cell is scattered among absorptive cells in the intestines. E) Simple holocrine cell; this cell will burst to release its secretions. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 4.9 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

136) Identify the three basic components of connective tissue. (Module 4.10A) A) connective tissue cells, basement membrane, and hemidesmosomes B) neuroglial cells, axon and dendrite framework, and electrical conduction pathway C) specialized cells, protein fibers, and ground substance D) ducts, pores, and secretory areas E) contractile units, vascular beds, and calcium storage Answer: C Learning Outcome: 4.10 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 137) Describe the role of fibroblasts in connective tissue. (Module 4.11B) A) Fibroblasts are mobile stem cells that repair damaged tissues. B) Fibroblasts are small, mobile, phagocytic blood cells that enter tissues during infection or injury. C) Fibroblasts are fixed cells that store lipids. D) Fibroblasts stimulate local inflammation and mobilize tissue defenses. E) Fibroblasts secrete hyaluronic acid and proteins that rom the ground substance and create the extracellular fibers. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 4.11 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 138) Which type of loose connective tissue contains primarily lipids? (Module 4.11C) A) reticular tissue B) adipose tissue C) lymphatic tissue D) areolar tissue E) blood tissue Answer: B Learning Outcome: 4.11 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 139) What term means the fibrous supporting network formed of reticular fibers? (Module 4.11D) A) lobule B) septum C) adipose D) stroma E) ground substance Answer: D Learning Outcome: 4.11 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

140) What types of phagocytic cells are present in connective tissue proper? (Module 4.11E) A) neuroglial cells B) fixed and free macrophages C) fixed and free macrophages, neutrophils, and eosinophils D) neutrophils and monocytes E) Sertoli cells and Schwann cells Answer: C Learning Outcome: 4.11 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 141) What makes a connective tissue "loose" or "dense"? (Module 4.12A) A) the viscosity of the ground substance B) the packing or volume of fibers C) the number of phagocytic cells D) the presence or absence of adipose cells E) the number of fibroblasts Answer: B Learning Outcome: 4.12 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 142) Which connective tissue fiber is characteristic of the cartilage supporting the ear? (Module 4.13A) A) reticular B) collagen C) areolar D) elastic E) hyaline Answer: D Learning Outcome: 4.13 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 143) Describe the two layers making up the perichondrium. (Module 4.13B) A) An outer fibrous layer made up of dense irregular connective tissue with fibroblasts; an inner cellular layer. B) An outer cellular layer; an inner fibrous layer made up of dense irregular connective tissue with fibroblasts. C) An outer fibrous layer with chondroblasts; an inner osteoblast layer. D) An outer fibrous layer of osteoblasts; an inner fibrous layer with chondroblasts. E) An outer fibrous layer with fibroblasts; an inner reticular mesh. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 4.13 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

144) Contrast appositional and interstitial growth of cartilage. (Module 4.13C) A) Appositional growth adds more fibers, and interstitial growth adds more interstitial fluid around the fibers. B) Appositional growth adds more fibers, and interstitial growth adds more ground substance around the fibers. C) Appositional growth adds new layers to the outside, and interstitial growth enlarges the cartilage from within. D) Appositional growth enlarges the cartilage from within, and interstitial growth adds new layer to the outside. E) Apposition growth enlarges cartilage length-wise, and interstitial growth enlarges cartilage width-wise. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 4.13 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 145) What are mature bone cells in lacunae called? (Module 4.14B) A) osteoprogenitor B) osteoblasts C) osteoclasts D) osteogenic E) osteocytes Answer: E Learning Outcome: 4.14 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 146) What is the functional unit of compact bone? (Module 4.14C) A) osteon B) lacunae C) lamellae D) canaliculi E) trabeculae Answer: A Learning Outcome: 4.14 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

147) Distinguish between the two types of supporting tissues with respect to their characteristic fibers. (Module 4.14D) A) Bone contains only elastic fibers, whereas cartilage can contain collagen, elastic, and reticular fibers. B) Bone contains only collagen fibers, whereas cartilage can contain collagen, elastic, and reticular fibers. C) Bone contains only reticular fibers, whereas cartilage can contain collagen, elastic, and reticular fibers. D) Bone can contain collagen and elastic fibers, whereas cartilage contains only collagen fibers. E) Bone can contain collagen, elastic, and reticular fibers, whereas cartilage contains only elastic fibers. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 4.14 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 148) Which cavities in the body are lined by serous membranes? (Module 4.15A) A) pleural, peritoneal, and pericardial B) peritoneal and retroperitoneal C) pleural and pericardial D) thoracic and vertebral E) cranial and vertebral Answer: A Learning Outcome: 4.15 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 149) Name the three layers of fascia and their types of connective tissue. (Module 4.15C) A) superficial fascia consists of adipose and areolar tissue; deep fascia consists entirely of areolar tissue; subserous fascia consists of dense regular tissue B) superficial fascia consists entirely of dense regular tissue; deep fascia consists entirely of dense irregular tissue; and subserous fascia consists of both dense regular and dense irregular tissues C) superficial fascia consists of adipose and areolar tissue; deep fascia consists of dense regular tissue; and subserous fascia consists entirely of areolar tissue D) superficial fascia consists of areolar tissue; deep fascia consists of cartilage; and subserous fascia consists of bone E) superficial fascia consists of epithelial tissue; deep fascia consists of muscle; and subserous fascia consists of nervous tissue Answer: C Learning Outcome: 4.15 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

150) Which of the four tissue membranes is relatively waterproof and usually dry? (Module 4.15D) A) synovial B) mucous C) serous D) cutaneous Answer: D Learning Outcome: 4.15 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 151) What is the relative percentage of body weight from each of the four tissue types? (Module 4.16A) A) epithelial 50%, connective 45%, muscle 3%, and nervous 2% B) epithelial 45%, connective 50%, muscle 2%, and nervous 3% C) epithelial 2%, connective 45%, muscle 50%, and nervous 3% D) epithelial 3%, connective 2%, muscle 50%, and nervous 45% E) epithelial 3%, connective 45%, muscle 50%, and nervous 2% Answer: E Learning Outcome: 4.16 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 152) Which type of muscle tissue regulates blood vessel diameter? (Module 4.17A) A) skeletal muscle tissue B) cardiac muscle tissue C) smooth muscle tissue Answer: C Learning Outcome: 4.17 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 153) Organs are made up of different tissues. What tissues are found in skeletal muscles? (Module 4.17C) A) epithelial tissue and skeletal muscle tissue B) nervous tissue and skeletal muscle tissue C) connective tissue and skeletal muscle tissue D) nervous tissue, connective tissue, and skeletal muscle tissue E) nervous tissue, connective tissue, epithelial tissue, and skeletal muscle tissue Answer: D Learning Outcome: 4.17 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

154) Identify the two processes in the response to tissue injury. (Module 4.18A) A) detoxification and destruction B) chemotaxis and vasoconstriction C) fibrosis and scarring D) coagulation and agglutination E) inflammation and regeneration Answer: E Learning Outcome: 4.18 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 155) What are the four indications of inflammation that occur following an injury? (Module 4.18B) A) vasoconstriction, fever, chemotaxis, and phagocytosis B) histamine release, heparin release, prostaglandin release, and mast cell activation C) swelling, redness, heat, and pain D) bruising, swelling, fever, and high white blood count E) increased heart rate, blood pressure, respiratory rate, and respiratory depth Answer: C Learning Outcome: 4.18 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 156) Why can inflammation occur in any organ in the body? (Module 4.18C) A) All organs have epithelial tissues. B) All organs have muscle tissues. C) All organs have nervous tissues. D) All organs have connective tissues. E) All organs have serous membranes. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 4.18 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Essay Questions 157) Explain why sunburned skin peels rather than sheds as a powder. Answer: The abundant desmosomes between cells in the superficial layers of the skin hold the cells together as a sheet instead of loosely organized cells. Learning Outcome: 4.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 158) What type of epithelium would you expect to find lining the alveoli (air sacs) in the lungs and why? Answer: Since air must diffuse from the alveoli into the bloodstream, you would expect to find very thin cells, or squamous epithelium. Thicker types of epithelial cells would slow the process of gas diffusion to and from the blood. Learning Outcome: 4.5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 41

159) A biology student accidentally loses the labels of two prepared slides she is studying. One is a slide of an intestine; the other is a slide of an esophagus. You volunteer to help her sort them out. How would you decide which slide is which? Answer: Because animal intestine is modified for absorption, you would look for a slide that shows a single layer of epithelium lining the cavity. The cells would be cuboidal or columnar and would probably have microvilli on the surface to increase surface area. Because the esophagus receives undigested food, it would have a stratified epithelium consisting of squamous cells to protect it. Learning Outcome: 4.5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Analyzing 160) Analysis of a glandular secretion indicates that it contains some DNA, RNA, and membrane components such as phospholipids. What kind of secretion is this and why? Answer: The presence of DNA, RNA, and membrane components suggest that the cell was destroyed during the process of secretion. This is consistent with a holocrine type of secretion. Learning Outcome: 4.8 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 161) Harriet had liposuction several years ago, but has since gained back all the weight lost through the procedure. She does not understand her weight gain because adipocytes are incapable of dividing. Provide a plausible explanation. Answer: While it is true that adipocytes do not divide and the number of fat cells in peripheral tissues is limited, mesenchymal cells can divide and give rise to cells that differentiate into fat cells. Thus, areolar connective tissue can become adipose tissue in times of nutritional excess. Along with this, the fat cells that remain after surgery can enlarge by storing more triglyceride if the patient continues to overeat. Learning Outcome: 4.11 Bloom's Taxonomy: Analyzing 162) Cartilage heals poorly and in many instances does not heal or recover at all after a severe injury. Why not? Answer: Cartilage lacks blood vessels, because chondrocytes produce a substance that inhibits the formation of blood vessels. This limits nutrient and oxygen delivery. Furthermore, adult chondrocytes are terminally differentiated and can't divide so no more interstitial growth occurs. Both avascularity and lack of cell division combine to minimize cartilage healing. Learning Outcome: 4.13 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 163) Which is likely to heal faster, a bone injury or a cartilage injury? Why? Answer: Bone injuries heal relatively quickly because of the good nutrient supply by way of nearby blood vessels and the canaliculi, whereas cartilage is supplied nutrients via diffusion from the outside, a far slower process. Learning Outcome: 4.14 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying

164) Compare and contrast the three types of muscle tissue. List three similarities and three differences among them. Answer: Similarities: All have contractile proteins; skeletal and cardiac have striations; cardiac and smooth are involuntary; cardiac and smooth are uninucleate. Differences: Skeletal is voluntary; cardiac has intercalated discs; smooth is nonstriated; skeletal is multinucleate. Learning Outcome: 4.17 Bloom's Taxonomy: Analyzing 165) What is the difference between neurons and neuroglia? Answer: Neurons are specialized to respond to chemical and electrical signals and communicate by propagating an electric impulse along their axon. Neuroglia are a diverse group of cell types within neural tissue that support, nourish, and protect neurons. Learning Outcome: 4.17 Bloom's Taxonomy: Analyzing 166) What are the effects of prostaglandin and histamine during inflammation? Answer: The blood vessels' smooth muscle relaxes, which results in their dilation. The blood flow to the area increases. More RBCs come to the area and bring more oxygen to the inflamed tissue. Increased blood flow brings more nutrients to the area and removes toxins and waste products out of the area. Permeability of capillaries also increases, which causes local swelling of the tissue. Phagocytes in the tissue are activated and engulf debris and pathogens. Learning Outcome: 4.18 Bloom's Taxonomy: Analyzing 167) List the four basic tissue types, and describe the functions of each. (Module 4.1C) Answer: The four basic tissue types are epithelial tissue, connective tissue, muscle tissue, and nervous tissue. Epithelial tissue covers exposed surfaces, lines passageways, and forms secretory glands. Connective tissue fills spaces, provides support, and stores energy. Muscle tissue contracts to produce movement. Nervous tissue propagates electrical impulses and carries information. Learning Outcome: 4.1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 168) How do early microscopes compare with modern microscopes? (Module 4.2A) Answer: Early microscopes used only light and could magnify only 10 to 20 times. Today's modern compound light microscopes can magnify up to 1000 times, and modern microscopes using beams of electrons instead of light can magnify over 1 million times. Learning Outcome: 4.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

169) Differentiate among LM, TEM, and SEM. (Module 4.2B) Answer: A light microscope (LM) passes visible light through a thin section of tissue. A transmission electron microscope (TEM) uses magnets to direct a beam of electrons through a finely sectioned object. A scanning electron microscope (SEM) creates a three-dimensional image by first coating a surface with electron-dense material, then bombarding it with electron beams. Learning Outcome: 4.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 170) Summarize the classification of an epithelium based on cell shape and number of cell layers. (Module 4.3B) Answer: The three characteristic shapes of epithelial cells are squamous (flat), cuboidal (cubeshaped), and columnar (appearing tall and rectangular). A single layer of epithelial cells is a simple epithelium, whereas multiple layers of epithelial cells constitute a stratified epithelium. Learning Outcome: 4.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 171) Under a light microscope, a tissue appears as a simple squamous epithelium. Can this be a sample of the skin surface? Why or why not? (Module 4.5D) Answer: No, this is not a sample of the skin surface. A simple squamous epithelium provides too little protection against infection, abrasion, or dehydration to function effectively as the skin surface. Learning Outcome: 4.5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 172) Describe the structures found on the surfaces of simple columnar and pseudostratified columnar epithelia. (Module 4.7C) Answer: Simple columnar epithelia may have microvilli for absorptive functions or motile cilia for the movement of substances. Pseudostratified columnar epithelia typically have motile cilia. Learning Outcome: 4.7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 173) By what three methods do various secretory cells of exocrine glands release their secretions? (Module 4.8B) Answer: The three secretory methods used by exocrine glandular epithelial cells are (1) merocrine secretion, (2) apocrine secretion, or (3) holocrine secretion. Learning Outcome: 4.8 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 174) Summarize the functions of connective tissue. (Module 4.10B) Answer: Connective tissue provides a structural framework for the body, transports fluids and dissolved materials, protects organs, supports and interconnects other tissue types, stores energy, and defends against invading microorganisms. Learning Outcome: 4.10 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

175) Distinguish among connective tissue proper, fluid connective tissues, and supporting connective tissues. (Module 4.10C) Answer: Connective tissue proper consists of connective tissues with many types of cells and extracellular fibers in a viscous (syrupy) ground substance. Fluid connective tissues have distinct cells in a watery matrix containing dissolved proteins. Supporting connective tissues have less diverse cells and a matrix with more densely packed fibers. Learning Outcome: 4.10 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 176) Identify the cells found in connective tissue proper. (Module 4.11A) Answer: Cells found in connective tissue proper are melanocytes, fixed macrophages, mast cells, fibroblasts, fibrocytes, adipocytes (fat cells), plasma cells, free macrophages, mesenchymal cells, neutrophils, eosinophils, and lymphocytes. Learning Outcome: 4.11 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 177) Summarize the role of extracellular fluid in maintaining homeostasis. (Module 4.12B) Answer: Continuous recirculation of extracellular fluid (plasma, interstitial fluid, and lymph) helps eliminate local differences in the levels of nutrients, wastes, or toxins; maintains blood volume; and alerts the immune system to infectious agents or infections. Learning Outcome: 4.12 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 178) Lack of vitamin C in the diet interferes with the ability of fibroblasts to produce collagen. How might this affect connective tissue function? (Module 4.12C) Answer: Lack of vitamin C would impair the production of collagen fibers, which add strength to connective tissue. The deficiency would result in tissue that is weak and prone to damage. Learning Outcome: 4.12 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 179) Describe bone matrix. (Module 4.14A) Answer: Bone matrix includes ground substance (a small volume of liquid surrounding insoluble calcium salts) and collagen fibers. Learning Outcome: 4.14 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 180) Name the four types of tissue membranes found in the body. (Module 4.15B) Answer: The four types of tissue membranes found in the body are mucous membranes, serous membrane, the cutaneous membrane, and synovial membranes. Learning Outcome: 4.15 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

181) List the three classifications of muscle tissue, and describe a function for each type. (Module 4.16B) Answer: The three classifications of muscle tissue are skeletal muscle tissue, cardiac muscle tissue, and smooth muscle tissue. Skeletal muscle tissue functions to pull on bones for movement; cardiac muscle tissue moves blood within the heart and through blood vessels; and smooth muscle tissue moves substances through the digestive tract and regulates the diameter of respiratory passageways and blood vessels, among other functions. Learning Outcome: 4.16 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 182) Distinguish between neurons and neuroglia. (Module 4.17B) Answer: Neurons transfer and process information that is in the form of electrical impulses. Neuroglia protect, support, and repair nervous tissue. Learning Outcome: 4.17 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

Visual Anatomy and Physiology, 3e (Martini) Chapter 5 The Integumentary System Multiple Choice Questions 1) Each of the following is a function of the integumentary system except A) protection of underlying tissue. B) excretion of salts and wastes. C) maintenance of body temperature. D) synthesis of vitamin C. E) provision of sensation. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 5.1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 2) The two components of the integumentary system are the A) epidermis and dermis. B) cutaneous membrane and hypodermis. C) cutaneous membrane and accessory structures. D) integument and hypodermis. E) epidermis and superficial fascia. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 5.1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 3) Accessory structures of the skin include all of the following except A) hair follicles. B) sebaceous glands. C) sweat glands. D) the epidermis. E) lamellar corpuscles. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 5.1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

Figure 5-1 4) An intradermal injection is administered into which layer? A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) below layer 5 E) 5 Answer: C Learning Outcome: 5.1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 5) Which layer is the primary barrier against environmental hazards? A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4 E) 5 Answer: A Learning Outcome: 5.1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 2

6) Which tissue is located in the region labeled "2"? A) stratified squamous epithelium B) areolar connective tissue C) adipose tissue D) cartilage and blood E) reticular connective tissues Answer: B Learning Outcome: 5.1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 7) Which layer contains most of the accessory organs? A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) below layer 5 E) 5 Answer: C Learning Outcome: 5.1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 8) While walking barefoot on the beach, Joe stepped on a thorn that penetrated through the sole of his foot to the dermis. How many layers of epidermis did the thorn penetrate? A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4 E) 5 Answer: E Learning Outcome: 5.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 9) The type of most cells that form the strata in the epidermis are A) adipocytes. B) keratinocytes. C) fibroblasts. D) melanocytes. E) dendritic cells. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 5.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

10) The layer of dividing cells at the base of the epidermis is the A) stratum corneum. B) stratum lucidum. C) stratum basale. D) stratum granulosum. E) stratum spinosum. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 5.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 11) The tough "horny" superficial layer of the epidermis is known as the A) stratum corneum. B) stratum lucidum. C) stratum basale. D) stratum granulosum. E) stratum spinosum. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 5.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 12) Insensible perspiration takes place in the A) stratum corneum. B) stratum lucidum. C) stratum basale. D) stratum granulosum. E) stratum spinosum. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 5.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 13) The keratinocytes are tightly connected with each other by A) keratin. B) prekeratin. C) collagen fibers. D) elastic fibers. E) desmosomes. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 5.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

14) In which layer of skin are keratinocytes produced? A) dermis B) subcutaneous layer C) stratum spinosum D) stratum corneum E) stratum basale Answer: E Learning Outcome: 5.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 15) The epidermis in the thin skin contains layers. A) 1; 2 B) 2; 3 C) 3; 4 D) 4; 5 E) 5; 6 Answer: D Learning Outcome: 5.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

layer(s) and in the thick skin contains

16) All of the following are characteristics of the epidermis except that it A) is multilayered. B) is flexible. C) is self-repairing. D) serves as UV radiation protection. E) is vascularized. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 5.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 17) All of the following are true of epidermal ridges except that they A) extend into the dermis. B) contain increased numbers of free nerve endings. C) cause ridge patterns on the surface of the skin. D) produce patterns that are determined genetically. E) interconnect with the dermal papillae. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 5.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

18) are cells in the epidermis that are part of the immune system. A) Dendritic cells B) Basal cells C) Merkel cells D) Squamous cells E) Melanocytes Answer: A Learning Outcome: 5.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 19) An albino individual lacks the ability to produce A) melanin. B) keratin. C) carotene. D) perspiration. E) hemoglobin. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 5.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 20) All of the following are true of the pigment melanin except that it A) decreases in concentration within cells during exposure to the sun. B) is usually some shade of brown or black. C) protects DNA from the damaging effects of UV radiation. D) is released through melanosomes. E) is produced by cells called melanocytes. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 5.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 21) What is the survival rate of a localized malignant melanoma that is detected and removed in the early stages of the cancer? A) Above 95% B) 75% C) 60% D) 40% E) less than 20% Answer: A Learning Outcome: 5.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

22) From what layer of skin are melanosomes released? A) stratum coneum B) stratum basale C) papillary layer of dermis D) reticular layer of dermis E) hypodermis Answer: B Learning Outcome: 5.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 23) The in keratinocytes protects the epidermis and dermis from the harmful effects of sunlight. A) sebum B) hemoglobin C) melanin D) carotene E) keratin Answer: C Learning Outcome: 5.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 24) Cyanosis signifies that a patient has A) had too much sun. B) been kept out of the sun. C) an allergic reaction. D) oxygen-starved skin. E) been exposed to cyanide. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 5.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 25) is a pigment found in vegetables that can make the skin appear orange or yellow. A) Melanin B) Chlorophyll C) Carotene D) Hemoglobin E) Bilirubin Answer: C Learning Outcome: 5.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

26) The most dangerous type of skin cancer is termed A) cyanosis. B) basal cell carcinoma. C) malignant melanoma. D) metastasis. E) melanosome. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 5.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 27) Melanin is produced by melanocytes within the stratum A) corneum. B) lucidum. C) granulosum. D) spinosum. E) basale. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 5.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 28) The layer of the skin that contains bundles of collagen and elastic fibers responsible for the strength of the skin is the layer. A) papillary B) reticular C) epidermal D) subcutaneous E) hypodermal Answer: B Learning Outcome: 5.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 29) All of the following are true of the hypodermis except it A) contains many blood vessels. B) permits independent movement of deeper structures. C) contains large amounts of adipose tissue. D) is attached to the dermis by a basement membrane. E) stores energy reserves. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 5.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

30) What is the most common type of cells in the subcutaneous layer? A) keratinocytes B) adipocytes C) melanocytes D) fibroblasts E) fibrocytes Answer: B Learning Outcome: 5.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 31) Central adiposity is strongly associated with A) liver diseases. B) lung diseases. C) kidney disorders. D) cardiovascular disorders. E) reproductive illnesses. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 5.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 32) Skin wrinkle and sagging is caused by A) UV radiation. B) hormonal changes. C) aging. D) all of the choices. E) none of the choices. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 5.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 33) If the epidermis, dermis, and part of hypodermis are burned, it is classified as A) first degree. B) second degree. C) partial thickness. D) full thickness. E) none of the choices. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 5.5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

34) All of the following can be used in the management of severe burn except A) antibiotics. B) fluid replacement. C) corticosteroids. D) skin graft. E) cell culture. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 5.5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 35) All of the following are derived from epithelial columns except A) hair roots. B) hair follicles. C) nails. D) sebaceous glands. E) sweat glands. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 5.6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 36) All of the following are functions of accessory structures of integument except A) thermoregulation. B) protection of skull. C) sensation of touch. D) production of skin pigments. E) excretion of sweat. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 5.6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 37) is a small connective tissue peg that contains nerve endings and blood vessels. A) Hair medulla B) Hair bulb C) Hair papilla D) Hair matrix E) Hair cuticle Answer: C Learning Outcome: 5.7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

38) When the arrector pili muscles contract, A) "goose bumps" are formed. B) hairs are shed. C) sweat is released from sweat glands. D) shivering occurs. E) the skin changes color. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 5.7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 39) If the papilla of a hair follicle is destroyed, A) the hair produced by the follicle will change from terminal to vellus. B) the color of the hair will become lighter. C) the texture of the hair will become coarser. D) the follicle will lose its blood supply. E) hair production will not be affected. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 5.7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 40) Each of the following statements concerning hair is true except A) the medulla is the soft core of the hair. B) the cortex of the hair is composed of hard keratin. C) terminal hairs are heavy and more darkly pigmented than other types of hair. D) club hair is hair that has ceased growing. E) scalp hairs grow constantly throughout life. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 5.7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 41) All of the following are correct regarding hair growth cycle except that A) a hair in the scalp grows for 2 — 5 years. B) a healthy adult with full head of hair may lose up to 100 hairs each day. C) during the active phase, the hair grows continuously. D) club hair is shed during follicle reactivation. E) the hair becomes club hair during regression phase. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 5.7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

42) are fine hairs that lack pigment and cover much of the body surface. A) Vellus hairs B) Velvet hairs C) Follicular hairs D) Terminal hairs Answer: A Learning Outcome: 5.7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 43) hairs are coarse pigmented hairs. A) Vellus B) Dense C) Follicular D) Terminal E) Keratinous Answer: D Learning Outcome: 5.7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 44) Dandruff is a disorder that results in dry skin flakes forming in the scalp. A common cause of dandruff could be A) inflammation around sebaceous glands. B) lack of lamellated corpuscles. C) overactive arrector pili muscles. D) inactive apocrine sweat glands. E) inactive merocrine sweat glands. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 5.8 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 45) From what structure does merocrine secretion occur? A) ceruminous gland B) mammary gland C) apocrine sweat gland D) sebaceous gland E) eccrine sweat gland Answer: E Learning Outcome: 5.8 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

46) The substance called sebum is commonly known as A) regular sweat. B) earwax. C) milk. D) skin oil. E) odiferous sweat. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 5.8 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 47) The glands in the axilla become active at the time of puberty. A) ceruminous B) apocrine sweat C) merocrine sweat D) sebaceous E) axillary Answer: B Learning Outcome: 5.8 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 48) Perspiration is produced by A) ceruminous B) apocrine sweat C) merocrine sweat D) sebaceous E) mammary Answer: C Learning Outcome: 5.8 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

glands.

49) Milk is produced by glands. A) sebaceous B) mammary C) merocrine sweat D) ceruminous E) eccrine sweat Answer: D Learning Outcome: 5.8 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

50) The highest concentration of merocrine sweat glands is found A) in the axillae. B) on the chest. C) on the palms of the hands. D) on the upper back. E) surrounding the genitals. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 5.8 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 51) All of the following are true of perspiration produced by merocrine sweat glands except that it A) is very watery. B) contains electrolytes and waste products. C) helps cool the body when it evaporates. D) helps prevent bacteria from colonizing the skin. E) produces the body odor characteristic of "sweating." Answer: E Learning Outcome: 5.8 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 52) sweat glands are widely distributed across the body surface, glands are located wherever hair follicles exist, and sweat glands are found only in a few areas. A) Sebaceous; merocrine; apocrine B) Apocrine; merocrine; sebaceous C) Merocrine; sebaceous; apocrine D) Merocrine; apocrine; sebaceous E) Apocrine; sebaceous; merocrine Answer: C Learning Outcome: 5.8 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 53) Which of the following is a holocrine exocrine gland? A) sebaceous B) apocrine C) merocrine D) mammary E) ceruminous Answer: A Learning Outcome: 5.8 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

54) Merocrine sweat glands A) are compound alveolar glands. B) produce organic secretions that are metabolized by bacteria to produce body odor. C) secrete a watery fluid directly onto the surface of the skin. D) increase in number and activity with aging. E) primarily function in lubricating the hairs. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 5.8 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 55) The nail body covers the A) nail root. B) nail bed. C) lunula. D) free edge. E) hyponychium. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 5.9 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 56) Nail production occurs at the nail A) body. B) bed. C) root. D) cuticle. E) hyponychium. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 5.9 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 57) At the base of a nail, keratinized skin called the cuticle is also called the A) eponychium. B) lunula. C) hyponychium. D) cerumen. E) phalanx. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 5.9 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

58) The effects of aging on the skin include A) a decline in the activity of sebaceous glands. B) increased production of vitamin D. C) thickening of the epidermis. D) an increased blood supply to the dermis. E) an increased number of sweat glands. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 5.10 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 59) Wrinkles in elderly individuals are the result of A) increased production of epidermis. B) loss of elastic filaments in the reticular layer of the dermis. C) increased keratinization of the epidermis. D) the loss of glands and hair follicles from the skin. E) decreased thickness of the dermis. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 5.10 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 60) Why would an elderly person be more prone to skin infections than a younger person? A) Skin repairs take longer in the elderly. B) The epidermis is thinner in the elderly. C) There are fewer dendritic cells in the skin of the elderly. D) All of the answers are correct. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 5.10 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 61) Which of the following is not an effect of ultraviolet radiation? A) increased activity by melanocytes B) production of cholecalciferol within epidermal cells C) wrinkles D) chromosomal damage in basal cells or melanocytes E) hair growth Answer: E Learning Outcome: 5.11 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

62) Vitamin is formed in the skin when it is exposed to sunlight. A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: D Learning Outcome: 5.11 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 63) Epidermal growth factor exerts all of the following effects on the epidermis except A) promoting cell division. B) stimulating keratin synthesis. C) accelerating tissue repair. D) speeding up glandular function. E) stimulating melanin production. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 5.11 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 64) Vitamin D3 formed within the skin has all of these effects on other organ systems except that it A) is essential for absorption of calcium and phosphorus by the digestive system. B) functions as a precursor for the hormone calcitriol in the endocrine system. C) is essential for bone maintenance. D) functions in the activation of plasma cells by the lymphatic system. E) is essential for bone growth. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 5.11 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 65) Rickets can be prevented by A) adequate sunlight. B) dietary intake of cholecalciferol. C) avoiding sunlight. D) adequate sunlight and dietary intake of cholecalciferol. E) dietary intake of cholecalciferol and avoiding sunlight. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 5.11 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

66) In a penetrating wound, A) granulation cells B) dendritic cells C) macrophages D) fibroblasts E) muscle cells Answer: D Learning Outcome: 5.12 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

divide to produce mobile cells that repair the dermis.

67) The repair of the epidermis after a wound begins as basal cells produce new A) elastic fibers. B) collagen fibers. C) reticular fibers. D) dense connective tissue. E) epidermal cells. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 5.12 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 68) Skin can regenerate effectively even after considerable damage has occurred because A) the epidermis of the skin has a rich supply of small blood vessels. B) stem cells persist in both epithelial and connective-tissue components of the skin even after injury. C) fibroblasts in the dermis can give rise to new germinal cells in the epidermis. D) contraction in the area of the injury brings cells of adjacent strata together. E) cells of the stratum basale cannot migrate to other positions in the skin. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 5.12 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 69) The following are stages in the regeneration of skin following an injury. 1. blood clot/scab formation 2. cellular migration 3. epidermis covers granulation tissue 4. epidermis covers scar tissue Which of the following places the steps in the correct order? A) 1, 2, 3, 4 B) 4, 3, 2, 1 C) 4, 3, 1, 2 D) 3, 4, 1, 2 E) 2, 4, 1, 3 Answer: A Learning Outcome: 5.12 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 18

70) Scar tissue is the result of A) large numbers of collagen fibers and relatively few blood vessels in the injured area. B) increased numbers of epidermal layers in the area of the injury. C) a thickened stratum basale in the area of the injury. D) increased numbers of fibroblasts in the injured area. E) a lack of sebaceous glands in the injured area. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 5.12 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 71) Granulation tissue is composed of A) clotted blood. B) an extensive capillary network. C) fibroblasts. D) All of the answers are correct. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 5.12 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 72) A thickened area of scar tissue that is covered by a shiny, smooth epidermal surface is called A) a scab. B) a keloid. C) granulation tissue. D) a clot. E) a lesion. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 5.12 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 73) A fibrin clot that is formed over a skin wound is called A) a scab. B) a keloid. C) granulation tissue. D) a clot. E) a lesion. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 5.12 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

74) The combination of fibrin clot, fibroblasts, and extensive capillary network that is formed in injured skin is called A) a scab. B) a keloid. C) granulation tissue. D) a clot. E) a lesion. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 5.12 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 75) Identify the two major components of the cutaneous membrane. (Module 5.1A) A) dermis and epidermis B) dermis and subcutaneous layer C) epidermis and subcutaneous layer D) dermis and the cutaneous plexus E) epidermis and the cutaneous plexus Answer: A Learning Outcome: 5.1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 76) Compare thin skin with thick skin. (Module 5.2A) A) Thin skin has only 1 layer and is found on lips, eyelids, and other delicate structures. Thick skin has hundreds of layers and is found all over the body except where thin skin is found. B) Thin skin has only 1 layer and contains only the epidermis. Thick skin has 2 layers made up of the epidermis and dermis. C) Thin skin has 4 layers and covers most of the body surfaces. Thick skin has 5 layers and covers the palms of the hands and soles of the feet. D) Thin skin has 4 layers and covers the palms of the hands and soles of the feet. Thick skin has 4 layers and covers most of the body surfaces. E) Thin skin contains the epidermis and dermis but not the subcutaneous layer. Thick skin contains the epidermis, dermis and subcutaneous layer. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 5.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 77) Identify the five layers of the epidermis (from superficial to deep). (Module 5.2B) A) stratum basale, stratum spinosum, stratum granulosum, stratum lucidum, and stratum corneum B) stratum basale, stratum granulosum, stratum lucidum, stratum corneum, stratum spinosum C) stratum basale, stratum granulosum, stratum lucideum, stratum spinosum, stratum corneum D) stratum corneum, stratum lucidum, stratum granulosum, stratum basale, stratum spinosum E) stratum corneum, stratum lucidum, stratum granulosum, stratum spinosum, stratum basale Answer: E Learning Outcome: 5.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 20

78) Dandruff is caused by excessive shedding of cells from the outer layer of skin on the scalp. So, dandruff is composed of cells from which epidermal layer? (Module 5.2C) A) stratum basale B) stratum granulosum C) stratum lucidum D) stratum corneum E) stratum spinosum Answer: D Learning Outcome: 5.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 79) A splinter that penetrates to the third layer of epidermis of the palm is lodged in which layer? (Module 5.2D) A) stratum basale B) stratum granulosum C) stratum lucidum D) stratum corneum E) stratum spinosum Answer: B Learning Outcome: 5.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 80) Name the two pigments contained in the epidermis. (Module 5.3A) A) carotene and melatonin B) creatinine and melatonin C) carotene and melanin D) keratin and melanin E) carnitine and melanoma Answer: C Learning Outcome: 5.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 81) Why does exposure to sunlight or sunlamps darken skin? (Module 5.3B) A) UV radiation stimulates melanocytes to produce more melanin. B) UV radiation stimulates melanocytes to produce more melatonin. C) UV radiation stimulates keratinocytes to produce more carotene. D) UV radiation stimulates keratinocytes to produce more keratin. E) UV radiation stimulates melanocytes to produce more melanin and keratinocytes to produce more keratin. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 5.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

82) Why is basal cell carcinoma considered less dangerous than malignant melanoma? (Module 5.3D) A) Basal cell carcinoma affects the stratum basale only and will not spread to any other layer, whereas malignant melanoma affects the melanocytes which can be found throughout the epidermis. B) Basal cell carcinoma affect the cells of the stratum basale which cannot form tumors, whereas malignant melanoma affects the melanocytes which form cancerous tumors. C) Basal cell carcinoma only occurs in the elderly, whereas malignant melanoma occurs in children and young adults. D) Basal cell carcinoma only occurs on the face, whereas malignant melanoma can occur anywhere on the body. E) Basal cell carcinomas rarely become malignant and metastasize, whereas malignant melanoma cells quickly spread throughout the lymphatic system to other organs. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 5.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 83) Explain why a healthy 6-month-old might have yellow-orange skin. (Module 5.3E) A) The skin of infants is very thin making it appear yellow-orange. B) Breastmilk causes the skin to look yellow-orange. C) The child may have been outside when it was cold causing vasoconstriction which reduces the pink coloration and makes skin look more yellow-orange. D) The child may have eaten foods with a high amount of carotene causing the pigment to accumulate in the skin making it look yellow-orange. E) The child may be developing adipose tissue which has a yellowish tint. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 5.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 84) Describe the layers of the dermis. (Module 5.4A) A) The superficial papillary layer contains areolar tissue with capillaries, lymphatic vessels, and sensory neurons. The deep reticular layer contains dense irregular connective tissue with collagen and elastic fibers. B) The superficial reticular layer contains areolar tissue with capillaries, lymphatic vessels, and sensory neurons. The deep papillary layer contains dense irregular connective tissue with collagen and elastic fibers. C) The superficial papillary layer contains dense irregular connective tissue with collagen and elastic fibers. The deep reticular layer contains areolar tissue with capillaries, lymphatic vessels, and sensory neurons. D) The superficial reticular layer contains dense irregular connective tissue with collagen and elastic fibers. The deep papillary layer contains areolar tissue with capillaries, lymphatic vessels, and sensory neurons. E) The superficial papillary layer contains stratified squamous epithelial tissue. The deep reticular layer contains areolar tissue with capillaries, lymphatic vessels, and sensory neurons. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 5.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 22

85) Predict the degree of scarring after the healing of a horizontal cut on the forehead just above the eyebrow. (Module 5.4B) A) The scarring will be minimal because the cut follows the same direction as the tension lines. B) The scarring will be minimal because the cut is at a right angle to the direction of the tension lines. C) The scarring will be significant because the cut follows the same direction as the tension lines. D) The scarring will be significant because the cut is at a right angle to the direction of the tension lines. E) The scarring will be minimal because no tension lines run through that area of the body. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 5.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 86) Distinguish among a first-degree, second-degree, and third-degree burn. (Module 5.5A) A) A first-degree burn affects only the surface of the skin. A second-degree burn affects the whole epidermis and some of the dermis. A third-degree burn destroys the epidermis, the dermis, and extends into the subcutaneous layer. B) A first-degree burn affects the whole epidermis and some of the dermis. A second-degree burn affects only the surface of the skin. A third-degree burn destroys the epidermis, the dermis, and extends into the subcutaneous layer. C) A first-degree burn destroys the epidermis, the dermis, and extends into the subcutaneous layer. A second-degree burn affects the whole epidermis and some of the dermis. A third-degree burn affects only the surface of the skin. D) A first-degree burn destroys the epidermis, the dermis, and extends into the subcutaneous layer. A second-degree burn affects only the surface of the skin. A third-degree burn affects the whole epidermis and some of the dermis. E) A first-degree burn affects only the surface of the skin. A second-degree burn destroys the epidermis, the dermis, and extends into the subcutaneous layer. A third-degree burn affects the whole epidermis and some of the dermis. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 5.5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 87) Which type of burn usually requires skin grafting? Why? (Module 5.5B) A) First-degree burns because the epidermis is damaged. B) First-degree burns because the tissue damage is so great that the tissue cannot repair itself. C) Second-degree burns because the tissue damage is so great that the tissue cannot repair itself. D) Third-degree burns because the epidermis is damaged. E) Third-degree burns because the tissue damage is so great that the tissue cannot repair itself. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 5.5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying

88) A 32-year-old woman is admitted to the hospital with third-degree burns on her entire right leg, entire right arm, and the back of her trunk. Estimate the percentage of her body surface area affected by these burns. (Module 5.5D) A) 9% B) 18% C) 36% D) 45% E) 91% Answer: D Learning Outcome: 5.5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 89) What are epidermal derivatives? (Module 5.6A) A) Epidermal derivatives are pigment molecules produced by the epidermis, including carotene and melanin. B) Epidermal derivatives are the different cell types found in the epidermis, including epithelial cells and melanocytes. C) Epidermal derivatives are chemicals produced by the epidermis, such as heparin and prostaglandins. D) Epidermal derivatives are secretions produced by the epidermis, including sweat and sebum. E) Epidermal derivatives are accessory structures that originate from the epidermis during embryonic development, including hair follicles, sebaceous and sweat glands, and nails. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 5.6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 90) Which exocrine glands are in the integument? (Module 5.6B) A) Sweat glands and salivary glands B) Mammary glands and salivary glands C) Sweat glands and sebaceous glands D) Mucous glands and sebaceous glands E) Mucous glands and sweat glands Answer: C Learning Outcome: 5.6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 91) Describe a typical strand of hair. (Module 5.7A) A) A keratinous strand produced by basal cells within a hair follicle. B) A small connective tissue peg filled with blood vessels and nerves. C) A bundle of smooth muscles attached to a hair follicle. D) A layer of epithelial cells surrounding a deep layer of connective tissue. E) Many layers of dead, tightly compressed cells packed with keratin. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 5.7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

92) What happens when an arrector pili muscle contracts? (Module 5.7B) A) The hair falls out of the hair bulb. B) The hair grows approximately 0.33mm. C) The sebaceous gland secretes oil onto the surface of the hair. D) The sweat gland secretes sweat out of the pores next to the hair. E) The hair follicle becomes erect, producing "goose bumps." Answer: E Learning Outcome: 5.7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 93) Identify and describe the general functions of the exocrine glands found in the skin. (Module 5.8A) A) Sweat glands and salivary glands; the glands help with thermoregulation and dissolve particles on the skin. B) Mammary glands and salivary glands; the glands help with reducing bacterial colonization and dissolve particles on the skin. C) Sweat glands and sebaceous glands; the glands help with thermoregulation, excrete wastes, and lubricate hairs and the epidermis. D) Mucous glands and sebaceous glands; the glands help lubricate hairs and epidermis and provide waterproofing. E) Mucous glands and sweat glands; the glands excrete wastes and provide waterproofing. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 5.8 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 94) Describe the secretory method and functions of sebum. (Module 5.8B) A) merocrine; sebum lubricates hair and skin, protects the keratin of the hair shaft, and inhibits bacterial growth B) holocrine; sebum lubricates hair and skin, protects the keratin of the hair shaft, and inhibits bacterial growth C) apocrine; sebum lubricates hair and skin, protects the keratin of the hair shaft, and inhibits bacterial growth D) merocrine; sebum is important in thermoregulation and excretion of wastes E) endocrine; sebum is important in thermoregulation and excretion of wastes Answer: B Learning Outcome: 5.8 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

95) Deodorants are used to mask the effects of secretions from which type of skin gland? (Module 5.8C) A) apocrine sweat glands B) eccrine sweat glands C) merocrine sweat glands D) sebaceous glands E) mucous glands Answer: A Learning Outcome: 5.8 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 96) Name the type of cell that assists the discharge of merocrine secretions, and list the glands in which such cells are present. (Module 5.8D) A) arrector pili cell; apocrine and eccrine sweat glands B) arrector pili cell; apocrine and eccrine sweat glands, mammary glands, lacrimal glands, and salivary glands C) myoepithelial cell; apocrine and eccrine sweat glands D) myoepithelial cell; apocrine and eccrine sweat glands, mammary glands, lacrimal glands, and salivary glands E) goblet cell; apocrine and eccrine sweat glands Answer: D Learning Outcome: 5.8 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 97) Where does nail production occur? (Module 5.9A) A) At the lunula B) At the cuticle C) At the eponychium D) At the hyponychium E) At the nail root Answer: E Learning Outcome: 5.9 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 98) Define hyponychium. (Module 5.9B) A) A portion of the stratum corneum of the nail root that extends over the exposed nail. B) The thickened stratum corneum underlying the free edge of the nail. C) An epidermal fold not visible from the surface where nail production occurs. D) An area of epidermis that is covered by the nail. E) The visible portion of the nail. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 5.9 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

99) Why does the free edge of a nail appear white? (Module 5.9C) A) The melanocytes are no longer living in the nail. B) The keratinocytes have been damaged as the nail grew out. C) There are no underlying blood vessels. D) The epidermis is dividing faster there than at the root. E) The nail is dryer and more brittle there than at the root. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 5.9 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 100) Why does hair turn white or gray with age? (Module 5.10A) A) The hair is no longer producing carotene. B) The keratinocytes have been damaged. C) Sebaceous gland activity increases, making the hair well lubricated during growth and turning it white or gray. D) The epidermis is dividing faster, making the hair white or gray. E) The melanocyte activity declines, making the hair white or gray. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 5.10 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 101) List some hormones that are necessary for maintaining a healthy integument. (Module 5.11A) A) growth hormone, mineralocorticoids, glucocorticoids, and melatonin B) ADH, oxytocin, and prolactin C) aldosterone, atrial natriuretic peptide, insulin, and glucagon D) growth hormone, sex hormones, growth factors, glucocorticoids, and thyroid hormones E) sex hormones, mineralocorticoids, gonadocorticoids, and calcitonin Answer: D Learning Outcome: 5.11 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 102) Identify the first stage in skin repair. (Module 5.12A) A) inflammation B) migration C) proliferation D) scarring E) keloid formation Answer: A Learning Outcome: 5.12 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

103) Describe granulation tissue. (Module 5.12B) A) Granulation tissue is newly formed epithelial tissue. B) Granulation tissue is a combination of blood clots, fibroblasts, and capillaries in healing tissue. C) Granulation tissue is all three layers of the integument forming, subcutaneous, dermis, and epidermis. D) Granulation tissue is a raised, thickened mass of scar tissue. E) Granulation tissue is thick, non-elastic tissue dominated by collagen fibers. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 5.12 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Essay Questions 104) Why is a subcutaneous injection with a hypodermic needle a useful method of administering drugs? Answer: The subcutaneous layer has a limited capillary supply and contains no vital organs; thus, the potential for tissue damage is reduced. Learning Outcome: 5.1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 105) Explain why the rate of dehydration is greater when a person is immersed in seawater than when in fresh water. Answer: Salty ocean water is very hypertonic compared to bodily fluids, while fresh lake water is very hypotonic. Hence, in the sea, due to osmosis water will leave the body, accelerating the rate of dehydration. In fresh water, water will be gained. Learning Outcome: 5.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Analyzing 106) A new mother notices that her 6-month-old infant has a yellow-orange complexion. Fearful that the child may have jaundice, she takes him to her pediatrician. After examining the child and learning about the infant's diet, the pediatrician declares him perfectly healthy and advises the mother to watch the child's diet. What is likely the cause for the change in skin color? Answer: The infant probably has a fondness for vegetables that are high in carotene, such as sweet potatoes, squash, and carrots. It is not uncommon for parents to feed babies what they will eat best. If the child consumes large amounts of carotene, the yellow-orange pigment will be stored in the skin, producing a yellow-orange skin color. Learning Outcome: 5.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying

107) Many medications can be administered transdermally by applying patches that contain the medication to the surface of the skin. These patches can be attached anywhere on the skin except the palms of the hands and the soles of the feet. Why? Answer: Thick skin slows the rate of diffusion of the medication and thus decreases its effectiveness. In addition, excessive sweat formed on the palms of the hands and soles of the feet would make the patch fall off more readily. Learning Outcome: 5.8 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 108) In a condition known as sunstroke, the victim appears flushed, the skin is warm and dry, and the body temperature rises dramatically. Explain these observations based on what you know concerning the role of the skin in thermoregulation. Answer: When the body temperature increases, more blood flow is directed to the vessels of the skin. The red cells in the blood give the skin a redder-than-usual color and account for the victim's flushed appearance. The skin is dry because the sweat glands are not producing sweat (avoids further dehydration). Without evaporation cooling, not enough heat is dissipated from the skin, the skin is warm, and the body temperature rises. This situation represents positive feedback operating in a disease state. Learning Outcome: 5.8 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 109) Vanessa's 80-year-old grandmother sets her thermostat at 26°C (80°F) and wears a sweater on balmy spring days. When asked why, the grandmother says she feels cold. What is a possible cause for her feeling cold? Answer: Most elderly people have poor blood flow to the skin. Thus, their skin becomes cold. This triggers thermal receptors in the skin to signal cold skin. The brain interprets this as a cold body temperature. Learning Outcome: 5.10 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 110) Provide one beneficial effect of exposure to ultraviolet (UV) radiation. Answer: It stimulates synthesis of vitamin D3. Learning Outcome: 5.11 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 111) Why is scab formation important in wound healing? Answer: Scabs temporarily restore epidermal integrity, restricting further entry of microorganisms. They also prevent the loss of fluids, maintaining internal fluid balance, and protect the delicate granulation tissue during tissue recovery. Learning Outcome: 5.12 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 112) What are the stages of skin regeneration after injury? Answer: Inflammation, migration, proliferation, and scarring Learning Outcome: 5.12 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 29

113) Identify the major functions of the integumentary system. (Module 5.1B) Answer: The major functions of the integumentary system are to protect underlying tissues and organs, excrete wastes by integumentary glands, maintain body temperature, produce melanin and keratin, synthesize vitamin D3, store lipids, and detect touch, pressure, pain, and temperature. Learning Outcome: 5.1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 114) Why does the skin of a light-skinned person appear red during exercise in hot weather? (Module 5.3C) Answer: When the skin gets warm, arriving oxygenated blood is diverted to the superficial dermis (papillary layer) to eliminate heat. The oxygenated blood imparts a reddish coloration to the light skin. Learning Outcome: 5.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 115) Describe the three types of skin grafts. Which one is best? Why? (Module 5.5C) Answer: In an autograft, the patient's undamaged skin is used as a graft source. An allograft uses skin from a donor, and a xenograft uses skin from an animal, such as a pig. Autografts are the best because they are not rejected by the patient's immune system. Learning Outcome: 5.5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 116) Describe the four phases of the hair growth cycle. (Module 5.7C) Answer: Hair follicles transition between (1) an active phase of continuous hair growth; (2) regression; (3) a resting phase, when the hair becomes a club hair; and (4) reactivation of hair growth and shedding of club hair. Learning Outcome: 5.7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 117) Why is pulling a hair painful, yet cutting a hair is not? (Module 5.7D) Answer: Pulling a hair is painful because its root is attached deep within the hair follicle, the base of which is surrounded by a root hair plexus consisting of sensory nerves. Cutting a hair is painless because a hair shaft contains no sensory nerves. Learning Outcome: 5.7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 118) Why do people tolerate summer heat less well and become more susceptible to heat-related illness when they become older? (Module 5.10B) Answer: As a person ages, the blood supply to the dermis decreases, and eccrine sweat glands become less active. Both changes make it more difficult for older people to cool themselves in hot weather. Learning Outcome: 5.10 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying

119) Explain the relationship between sunlight exposure and vitamin D3. (Module 5.11B) Answer: In the presence of UV radiation in sunlight, epidermal cells in the stratum spinosum and stratum basale convert a cholesterol-related steroid into cholecalciferol, also known as vitamin D3. Learning Outcome: 5.11 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 120) In some cultures, females must be covered from head to toe when they go outdoors. Explain why these women are at increased risk of developing bone problems later in life. (Module 5.11C) Answer: The hormone cholecalciferol (vitamin D3) is needed to form strong bones and teeth. When the body surface is covered, UV radiation cannot reach the skin to stimulate cholecalciferol (vitamin D3) production, so bones can become fragile. Learning Outcome: 5.11 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 121) Why can skin regenerate effectively even after considerable damage? (Module 5.12C) Answer: Skin can regenerate effectively even after undergoing considerable damage because stem cells persist in both the epithelial and connective tissue components of skin. In response to injury, cells of the stratum basale replace epithelial cells, and mesenchymal cells replace lost dermal cells. Learning Outcome: 5.12 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying

Visual Anatomy and Physiology, 3e (Martini) Chapter 6 Bones and Bone Structure Multiple Choice Questions 1) Which of the following is not a function of the skeletal system? A) body support B) calcium homeostasis C) protection of internal organs D) blood cell production E) temperature regulation Answer: E Learning Outcome: 6.1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 2) Which of the following are not components of the skeletal system? A) tendons B) bones C) ligaments D) cartilages Answer: A Learning Outcome: 6.1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 3) The most abundant mineral in the human body is A) sodium. B) potassium. C) phosphorus. D) calcium. E) hydrogen. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 6.1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 4) Which of the following is not true of the skeletal system? A) It interacts with the muscular system to provide movement. B) It interacts with the lymphatic system to regulate calcium levels. C) It interacts with the nervous system by providing protection to the spinal cord. D) It interacts with the cardiovascular system by providing blood cells. E) It interacts with the digestive system by absorbing more calcium when needed. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 6.1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying

5) Which of the following bones is classified as "irregular" in shape? A) patella B) frontal C) vertebra D) metatarsal E) ulna Answer: C Learning Outcome: 6.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 6) The carpal bones are examples of A) long B) short C) flat D) irregular E) sesamoid Answer: B Learning Outcome: 6.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

bones.

7) A rib is an example of a bone. A) long B) short C) flat D) sutural E) sesamoid Answer: C Learning Outcome: 6.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 8) Bones that develop within tendons are called _ A) irregular B) sesamoid C) sutural D) Wormian E) tendon Answer: B Learning Outcome: 6.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

bones.

9) Small, oddly shaped bones that fill gaps between bones of the skull are called bones. A) irregular B) sesamoid C) sutural D) sagittal E) tendon Answer: C Learning Outcome: 6.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 10) The large proximal projection on the femur is termed the A) ramus. B) trochanter. C) tuberosity. D) tubercle. E) condyle. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 6.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 11) A rounded hole through a bone is termed a A) ramus. B) foramen. C) linea. D) tubercle. E) facet. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 6.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 12) The smooth, rounded articular process of a bone is termed a A) crest. B) ridge. C) spine. D) condyle. E) trochlea. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 6.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

13) A shallow depression on a bone is termed a A) fossa. B) sulcus. C) facet. D) fissure. E) line. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 6.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 14) The humerus is an example of a(n) A) long B) short C) flat D) irregular E) sesamoid Answer: A Learning Outcome: 6.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

bone.

15) A is a smooth, grooved bone process shaped like a pulley. A) tuberosity B) fossa C) trochanter D) trochlea E) meatus Answer: D Learning Outcome: 6.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 16) A small rough bump on bone where a tendon attaches is called a A) tuberosity. B) ramus. C) condyle. D) diaphysis. E) process. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 6.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

17) A projection at an angle on a bone is termed a A) trochlea. B) canal. C) condyle. D) crest. E) ramus. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 6.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 18) A chamber within a bone normally filled with air is a A) meatus. B) fissure. C) sinus. D) sulcus. E) facet. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 6.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 19) The expanded articular end of an epiphysis that is separated from the shaft by a narrower neck is termed a A) facet. B) diaphysis. C) head. D) tubercle. E) condyle. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 6.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 20) A is a rounded passageway for passage of blood vessels and/or nerves. A) line B) ramus C) fissure D) process E) foramen Answer: E Learning Outcome: 6.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

21) The adult skeleton contains A) 114 B) 167 C) 206 D) 276 E) 311 Answer: C Learning Outcome: 6.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

major bones.

22) The narrow region between the head and diaphysis of a long bone is called the A) canal. B) sulcus. C) trochlea. D) ramus. E) neck. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 6.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 23) A prominent ridge, as seen on the pelvis, is a A) crest. B) fossa. C) line. D) spine. E) ramus. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 6.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 24) The medullary cavity of bones contains A) compact bone. B) osteons. C) cartilage. D) marrow. E) periosteum. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 6.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

25) The region of a long bone between the end and the shaft is known as the A) diaphysis. B) epiphysis. C) osseophysis. D) metaphysis. E) medullary cavity. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 6.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 26) The shaft of a long bone is called the A) epiphysis. B) diaphysis. C) epiphyseal plate. D) metaphysis. E) lamella. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 6.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 27) The articular cartilage of a typical long bone covers portions of what part of the bone? A) metaphysis B) diaphysis C) epiphysis D) nutrient foramen E) medullary cavity Answer: C Learning Outcome: 6.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 28) Fat is stored within the A) medullary cavity. B) metaphysis. C) spongy bone. D) epiphysis. E) diaphysis. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 6.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

29) prevents damaging bone-to-bone contact within movable joints. A) Yellow bone marrow B) Articular cartilage C) Red bone marrow D) Spongy bone E) The medullary cavity Answer: B Learning Outcome: 6.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 30) The opening in the diaphysis through which blood vessels provide oxygen to osteons is named the foramen. A) metaphyseal B) medullary C) epiphyseal D) nutrient E) articular Answer: D Learning Outcome: 6.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 31) Which of the following best matches osteocyte? A) stem cell B) dissolves matrix C) mature bone cell D) secretes organic matrix E) produce blood cells Answer: C Learning Outcome: 6.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 32) Cells that secrete the organic components of the bone matrix are called A) osteocytes. B) osteoprogenitor cells. C) osteoblasts. D) osteoclasts. E) chondrocytes. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 6.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

33) are stem cells that develop into osteoblasts. A) Osteoclasts B) Osteocytes C) Osteomedullary cells D) Osteogenic cells E) Squamous osteons Answer: D Learning Outcome: 6.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 34) Through the action of osteoclasts, A) new bone is formed. B) an organic framework is formed. C) bony matrix is dissolved. D) osteoid is calcified. E) fractured bones regenerate. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 6.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 35) Which of the following is not present in bone? A) calcium phosphate B) collagen fibers C) calcium carbonate D) chondroitin sulfate E) hydroxyapatite Answer: D Learning Outcome: 6.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 36) The space occupied by an osteocyte is called a A) Volkmann's canal. B) lacuna. C) trabecula. D) Haversian canal. E) Venetian canal. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 6.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

37) accounts for almost two-thirds of the weight of bone. A) Water B) Calcium carbonate C) Collagen fibers D) Fluoride E) Calcium phosphate Answer: E Learning Outcome: 6.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 38) Bone is composed of percent cells. A) 25 B) 10 C) 2 D) 15 E) 50 Answer: C Learning Outcome: 6.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 39) The lacunae of osseous tissue contain A) blood cells. B) osteocytes. C) chondroblasts. D) bone marrow. E) capillaries. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 6.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 40) The narrow passageways that contain cytoplasmic extensions of osteocytes are called A) central canals. B) lacunae. C) canaliculi. D) medullary cavities. E) foramina. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 6.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

41) The interactions allow bone to be strong, somewhat flexible, and highly resistant to shattering. A) collagen-fiber B) protein-crystal C) mineral-crystal D) protein-protein E) hydroxyapatite-crystal Answer: B Learning Outcome: 6.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 42) The most abundant cell type in bone is A) osteoclasts. B) osteoblasts. C) osteolytes. D) osteogenic cells. E) osteocytes. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 6.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 43) How would denaturing collagen from the bone matrix affect the physical properties of a bone? A) The bone would be less flexible. B) The bone would be stronger. C) The bone would be more brittle. D) The bone would be more flexible. E) The bone would be less compressible. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 6.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Analyzing 44) cells, which differentiate into osteoblasts, are located in the endosteum and inner cellular layer of the periosteum. A) Osteocyte B) Osteoclast C) Osteoid D) Osteogenic E) Osteoblast Answer: D Learning Outcome: 6.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

45) is the organic component of the matrix in developing or repairing bone. A) Collagen B) Hydroxyapatite C) Lamella D) Osteocyte E) Osteoid Answer: E Learning Outcome: 6.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 46) In bone, the calcium phosphate forms crystals of A) calcium carbonate. B) hydroxyapatite. C) calcium apatite. D) carbonite. E) osteocyte. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 6.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 47) Stem cells that can differentiate into osteoblasts are important in A) osteogenesis. B) bone resorption. C) releasing hydrochloric acid. D) derived from macrophages. E) releasing hydroxyapatite. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 6.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 48) are stronger than steel when stretched. A) Lamellae B) Collagen fibers C) Mesenchymal cells D) Hydroxyapatite cells E) Lacunae Answer: B Learning Outcome: 6.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

49) free calcium from bone to maintain blood calcium levels. A) Osteoblasts B) Osteocytes C) Osteogenic cells D) Osteoclasts Answer: D Learning Outcome: 6.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 50) The central canal of an osteon contains A) bone marrow. B) osteocytes. C) concentric lamellae. D) blood vessels. E) lacunae. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 6.5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 51) The interconnecting struts and plates found in spongy bone are called A) osteons. B) trabeculae. C) concentric lamellae. D) interstitial lamellae. E) lacunae. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 6.5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 52) The type of bone that is adapted to withstand stresses that arrive from many directions is bone. A) spongy B) trabeculae C) compact D) lamellar E) irregular Answer: A Learning Outcome: 6.5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

53) The structural units of mature compact bone are called A) lacunae. B) osteocytes. C) osteons. D) canaliculi. E) lamellae. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 6.5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 54) Which of the following is not a characteristic of compact bone? A) The matrix of the bone is very dense and contains deposits of calcium salts. B) The matrix of the bone contains osteocytes. C) Narrow channels pass through the matrix to allow for an exchange of nutrients. D) It is the site of hematopoiesis. E) It contains osteons. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 6.5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 55) In relationship to the diaphysis of a long bone, the osteons are A) radial. B) anterior. C) parallel. D) proximal. E) diagonal. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 6.5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 56) The femur can withstand A) 3 B) 5 to 10 C) 8 D) 10 to 15 E) 30 Answer: D Learning Outcome: 6.5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

times the body's weight without breaking.

57) bone does not contain capillaries, but receives nutrients through its canaliculi. A) Lamellar B) Osteonic C) Woven D) Compact E) Spongy Answer: E Learning Outcome: 6.5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 58) bone reduces the weight of the skeleton and reduces the load on muscles. A) Short B) Irregular C) Spongy D) Compact E) Long Answer: C Learning Outcome: 6.5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 59) In compact bone, the osteons are A) arranged in concentric lamellae. B) lined up perpendicular to the long axis. C) arranged in an irregular pattern. D) separated by medullary spaces. E) lacking in the diaphysis. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 6.5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 60) The trabeculae of spongy bone A) are organized parallel to the long axis of the bone. B) are organized along stress lines. C) are composed mostly of cartilage. D) will collapse under stress. E) are concentrated in the cortex of the diaphysis. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 6.5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

Figure 6-1 61) Which structure is termed a central canal? A) 1 B) 2 C) 6 D) 7 E) 8 Answer: D Learning Outcome: 6.5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 62) Which structure is characteristic of spongy bone? A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4 E) 5 Answer: E Learning Outcome: 6.5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

63) What are the structures labeled "4"? A) concentric lamellae B) perforating canals C) interstitial lamellae D) trabeculae E) periosteum Answer: A Learning Outcome: 6.5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 64) The structures labeled "3" are the result of which process? A) bone cells adding matrix between existing osteons B) surface growth of bone C) recycling of compact bone D) recycling of spongy bone E) osteoporosis Answer: C Learning Outcome: 6.5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 65) Where would osteoclasts be most active? A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4 E) 5 Answer: E Learning Outcome: 6.5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 66) Osteocytes are embedded in a dense matrix of hydroxyapatite. Which of the following describes how osteocytes receive nutrients? A) by osmosis from neighboring osteocytes. B) by diffusion from neighboring osteoblasts cells traveling through lamellae. C) by diffusion from nutrients released from vessels in the central canal that travel through canaliculi. D) by diffusion from nutrients released from vessels in the central canal that travel through perforating canals. E) by diffusion directly from nutrients stored in the periosteum. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 6.5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying

67) Blood is distributed from the surface of a bone to deeper central canals through channels known as A) perforating canals. B) concentric lamellae. C) osteons. D) lamellae. E) trabeculae. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 6.5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 68) In appositional growth, successive layers of what structure are added to the outer surface of the bone? A) osteons B) perforating fibers C) osteoclastic crypts D) circumferential lamellae E) None of the answers is correct. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 6.6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 69) During appositional growth, A) bones grow longer. B) bones grow wider. C) bone is replaced by cartilage. D) the epiphysis fuses with the diaphysis. E) osteoblasts are overwhelmed by osteocytes. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 6.6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 70) The lining of the medullary cavity is called the A) endosteum. B) periosteum. C) epimysium. D) perimysium. E) perichondrium. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 6.6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

71) During the process of , an existing tissue is replaced by bone. A) osteolysis B) ossification C) appositional growth D) deposition E) perforation Answer: B Learning Outcome: 6.6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 72) Cells that are found in small depressions on the endosteal surfaces are the A) osteoblasts. B) osteocytes. C) osteoid. D) osteogenic cells. E) osteoclasts. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 6.6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 73) What structure allows a bone to grow in length? A) lacunae B) epiphyseal cartilages C) periosteal bud D) metaphysis E) trabeculae Answer: B Learning Outcome: 6.7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 74) Endochondral ossification begins with the formation of a(n) A) fibrous connective-tissue model. B) cartilage model. C) membranous model. D) calcified model. E) osteoblasts model. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 6.7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

75) Secondary ossification centers occur in A) the diaphysis. B) the periosteum. C) the epiphyses. D) the metaphyses. E) dermal bones. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 6.7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 76) When the epiphyseal plate is replaced by bone, A) puberty begins. B) interstitial bone growth begins. C) appositional bone growth begins. D) long bones have reached their adult length. E) the bone becomes more brittle. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 6.7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 77) When cartilage is produced at the epiphyseal side of the metaphysis at the same rate as bone is deposited on the opposite side, bones A) grow longer. B) grow wider. C) become shorter. D) become more porous and weaker. E) become thicker. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 6.7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 78) When estrogen is increased in females at puberty, epiphyseal plates A) widen. B) become narrower. C) increase slowly. D) accelerate rapidly, but mostly in thickness. E) are hardly affected. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 6.7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

79) The following are important steps in the process of endochondral ossification. 1. Blood vessels grow around the edges of the cartilage and perichondrium differentiates into osteoblasts. 2. Capillaries and osteoblasts migrate to the epithyses forming the secondary ossification centers. 3. Chondrocytes enlarge and the surrounding matrix begins to calcify. 4. Remodeling continues and the shaft becomes thicker. 5. Blood vessels penetrate the cartilage and invade the central region forming the primary ossification center. What is the correct order for these events? A) 3, 1, 5, 4, 2 B) 1, 3, 5, 4, 2 C) 1, 5, 3, 4, 2 D) 2, 3, 1, 5, 4 E) 3, 1, 4, 5, 2 Answer: A Learning Outcome: 6.7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

Figure 6-2 80) Where does endochondral lengthening occur? A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4 E) 5 Answer: C Learning Outcome: 6.7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 81) What type of tissue occurs at "1"? A) elastic tissue B) fibrocartilage C) bone D) hyaline cartilage E) marrow tissue Answer: D Learning Outcome: 6.7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

82) What process is shown at "6"? A) primary ossification B) secondary ossification C) length growth D) width growth E) fracture repair Answer: B Learning Outcome: 6.7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 83) Identify the structure at "4." A) intramembranous bone B) spongy bone C) hyaline cartilage D) periosteum E) mesenchyme Answer: D Learning Outcome: 6.7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 84) Identify the structure labeled "2." A) epiphysis B) diaphysis C) metaphysis D) marrow cavity E) trabeculae Answer: A Learning Outcome: 6.7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 85) When testosterone is increased in males at puberty, epiphyseal plates A) widen. B) become narrower. C) increase slowly. D) accelerate rapidly E) are hardly affected. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 6.7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

86) Which of the following is formed by intramembranous ossification? A) roof of the skull B) carpal bones C) femur D) clavicle E) both the roof of the skull and the clavicle Answer: E Learning Outcome: 6.8 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 87) Intramembranous ossification begins with differentiation of A) osteoclast B) osteoprogenitor C) mesenchymal D) osteoblast E) osteocyte Answer: C Learning Outcome: 6.8 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

cells.

88) The following are major steps in the process of intramembranous ossification. 1. Clusters of osteoblasts form osteoid that becomes mineralized. 2. Osteoblasts differentiate within mesenchymal connective tissue. 3. Spicules of bone radiate out from the ossification centers. 4. Mesenchymal cells aggregate. What is the correct order for these events? A) 4, 1, 2, 3 B) 2, 1, 3, 4 C) 4, 2, 1, 3 D) 2, 3, 1, 4 Answer: C Learning Outcome: 6.8 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 89) Which of the following statements about Marfan's syndrome is false? A) It results in short, stubby fingers. B) It results from a mutation. C) It affects connective tissue genes. D) It affects epiphyseal cartilages. E) None of the answers is correct. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 6.9 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

90) Excessive growth hormone prior to puberty could result in A) osteoporosis. B) osteopenia. C) rickets. D) gigantism. E) dwarfism. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 6.9 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 91) Excessive growth hormone after puberty could result in A) osteoporosis. B) osteopenia. C) acromegaly. D) gigantism. E) dwarfism. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 6.9 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 92) Bone plays a central role in the regulation of blood levels of A) potassium. B) iron. C) sulfate. D) calcium. E) sodium. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 6.10 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 93) The hormone calcitonin A) stimulates osteoclast activity. B) decreases the rate of calcium excretion. C) decreases the rate of calcium absorption. D) decreases the level of calcium ion in the blood. E) stimulates osteoblasts and inhibits osteoclasts. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 6.11 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

94) Which of the following is true for parathyroid hormone? A) stimulates osteoblast activity. B) decreases the rate of calcium absorption. C) increase the rate of calcium excretion. D) lowers the level of calcium ion in the blood. E) inhibits calcitonin secretion. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 6.11 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 95) Elevated levels of calcium ion in the blood stimulate the secretion of the hormone A) calcitonin. B) thyroid hormone. C) parathyroid hormone. D) growth hormone. E) testosterone. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 6.11 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 96) Which is greater? A) osteoclast activity when calcitonin is present B) osteoclast activity when calcitonin is absent Answer: B Learning Outcome: 6.11 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 97) Which is greater? A) blood calcium levels when parathyroid hormone is increased B) blood calcium levels when parathyroid hormone is decreased Answer: A Learning Outcome: 6.11 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 98) The intestinal response to PTH secretion when calcium ion levels are low is that calcium is A) released. B) excreted. C) conserved. D) absorbed quickly. E) absorbed slowly. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 6.11 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

99) After a fracture of the diaphysis has healed, the thickened region that results is called the A) epiphyseal plate. B) external callus. C) dense tuberosity. D) condyle. E) fracture facet. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 6.12 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 100) fractures are completely internal; they do not break through the skin. A) Open or compound B) Closed or simple C) Compression D) Recurrent E) Comminuted Answer: B Learning Outcome: 6.12 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 101) A fracture at the ankle involving both lower leg bones is often called a A) compression B) Pott's C) displaced D) greenstick E) Colles Answer: B Learning Outcome: 6.12 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

fracture.

102) While on a school skiing trip in Colorado, Heidi falls and breaks her tibia and fibula in a Pott's fracture. What would you expect as a prominent part of her clinical assessment several hours after the fall? A) hypertension B) tachycardia C) erythema D) hematoma E) cyanosis Answer: D Learning Outcome: 6.12 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

103) Damage to a bone because of extreme load, sudden impact, or stresses applied from an unusual direction is called a A) sprain. B) fracture. C) hematoma. D) callus. E) displacement. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 6.12 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 104) An open, or , fracture projects through the skin. A) simple B) compound Answer: B Learning Outcome: 6.12 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 105) Put the following steps of fracture repair into the correct order. 1. Extensive bleeding occurs. 2. An internal callus forms from a network of spongy bone. 3. Hematoma is formed to close off blood flow. 4. Remodeling continues by osteoblasts and osteoclasts leaving little evidence of the break. 5. Osteoblasts replace the central cartilage of the callus. A) 3,2,1,5,4 B) 1,3,2,5,4 C) 1,2,3,4,5 D) 3,1,2,5,4 E) 1,3,2,4,5 Answer: B Learning Outcome: 6.12 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 106) A fracture of the bone across its long axis is called a(n) A) compression B) comminuted C) articulated D) spiral E) transverse Answer: E Learning Outcome: 6.12 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

fracture.

107) In a fracture, one side of the shaft is split and the other side is bent. A) compression B) comminuted C) Pott's D) greenstick E) Colles Answer: D Learning Outcome: 6.12 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 108) A fracture is produced by twisting stresses applied to the bone. A) comminuted B) displaced C) spiral D) nondisplaced E) transverse Answer: C Learning Outcome: 6.12 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 109) A transverse fracture of the wrist that may be comminuted is called a A) Colles B) Pott's C) simple D) greenstick E) transverse Answer: A Learning Outcome: 6.12 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 110) The fracture of vertebrae subjected to extreme vertical stress is called a A) transverse B) spiral C) compression D) compound E) Pott's Answer: C Learning Outcome: 6.12 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

fracture.

111) A fracture produces shattered bone fragments. A) comminuted B) compression C) greenstick D) transverse E) displaced Answer: A Learning Outcome: 6.12 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 112) Describe the axial and appendicular divisions of the skeleton. (Module 6.1A) A) The axial skeleton consists of the bones of the skull. The appendicular skeleton consists of the remaining bones of the skeleton. B) The axial skeleton consists of the bones of the skull and vertebral column. The appendicular skeleton consists of the bones of the thorax, limbs, pectoral girdle and pelvic girdle. C) The axial skeleton consists of the bones of the skull, vertebral column, and thorax. The appendicular skeleton consists of the bones of the limbs, pectoral girdle and pelvic girdle. D) The axial skeleton consists of the bones of the skull, vertebral column, thorax, and pectoral girdle. The appendicular skeleton consists of the bones of the limbs, and pelvic girdle. E) The axial skeleton consists of the bones of the skull, vertebral column, thorax, pectoral and pelvic girdles. The appendicular skeleton consists of the bones of the limbs. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 6.1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 113) Identify the six broad categories for classifying a bone according to shape. (Module 6.2A) A) compact, lamellar, osteon, spongy, trabeculae, cancellous B) flat, sutural, long, irregular, sesamoid, short C) spine, line, fossa, crest, facet, ramus D) flat, thick, wide, long, triangular, round E) round, thick, square, triangular, trapezoid, skinny Answer: B Learning Outcome: 6.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 114) List the major parts of a long bone. (Module 6.3A) A) epiphysis, metaphysis, diaphysis, and medullary cavity B) compact bone, spongy bone, osteon, and periosteum C) periosteum, endosteum, red bone marrow, and yellow bone marrow D) articular cartilage, synovial cavity, synovial membrane, synovial fluid E) superficial osteons, deep osteons, concentric lamella, interstitial lamella Answer: A Learning Outcome: 6.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

115) Describe the function of the medullary cavity. (Module 6.3B) A) The medullary cavity contains compact bone lamella oriented for strength. B) The medullary cavity contains spongy bone oriented along lines of stress. C) The medullary cavity is a fibrous membrane containing blood vessels, lymphatic vessels, and sensory nerves. D) The medullary cavity contains cartilage that allows long bones to get longer. E) The medullary cavity contains the red bone marrow and the yellow bone marrow. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 6.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 116) Where is articular cartilage found, and how is it nourished? (Module 6.3C) A) Articular cartilage is found in the medullary cavity and is nourished by the nutrient artery. B) Articular cartilage is found down the length of the diaphysis and is nourished by the nutrient artery. C) Articular cartilage is found at both metaphyses and is nourished by the metaphyseal artery. D) Articular cartilage is found covering both epiphyseal portions of articulating bone and nutrients diffuse from synovial fluid within the joint. E) Articular cartilage is found in the medullary cavity and is nourished by the rich vascular red bone marrow. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 6.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 117) Describe the functions of osteogenic cells and osteoblasts. (Module 6.4A) A) Osteogenic cells are stem cells that form osteoblasts. Osteoblasts are immature bone cells that secrete the organic components of bone matrix. B) Osteogenic cells are immature bone cells that secrete the organic components of bone matrix. Osteoblasts are mature bone cells that maintain the bone matrix. C) Osteogenic cells are stem cells that form osteoblasts. Osteoblasts are cells that remove bone matrix. D) Osteogenic cells are cells that remove bone matrix. Osteoblasts are immature bone cells that secrete the organic components of bone matrix. E) Osteogenic cells are mature bone cells that maintain the bone matrix. Osteoblasts are cells that remove the bone matrix. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 6.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

118) Describe the functions of osteocytes. (Module 6.4B) A) Osteocytes are stem cells that form osteoblasts. B) Osteocytes are immature bone cells that secrete the organic components of bone matrix. C) Osteocytes are mature bone cells that maintain the bone matrix. D) Osteocytes are cells that remove the bone matrix. E) Osteocytes are cells that form cartilage. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 6.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 119) How would the compressive strength of a bone be affected if the ratio of collagen to hydroxyapatite increased? (Module 6.4C) A) The compressive strength would decrease and the bone would become more flexible. B) The compressive strength would decrease and the bone would become less flexible. C) The compressive strength would increase and the bone would become more flexible. D) The compressive strength would increase and the bone would become less flexible. E) The compressive strength would not change but the bone would become more flexible. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 6.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 120) If osteoclast activity exceeds osteoblast activity in a bone, how will bone mass be affected? (Module 6.4D) A) The bone mineral content will increase and thus bone mass will increase. B) The bone mineral content will increase and thus bone mass will decrease. C) The bone mineral content will decrease and thus bone mass will decrease. D) The bone mineral content will decrease and thus bone mass will increase. E) The bone mineral content will decrease but bone mass will not change. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 6.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 121) Define osteon. (Module 6.5A) A) An osteon is the functional unit of spongy bone. B) An osteon is the functional unit of compact bone. C) An osteon is the structural unit of spongy bone. D) An osteon is functional unit of trabecular bone. E) An osteon is the nest that an osteocyte occupies. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 6.5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

122) A sample of bone has lamellae that are not arranged in osteons. Is the sample more likely from the epiphysis or from the diaphysis? (Module 6.5C) A) epiphysis B) diaphysis Answer: A Learning Outcome: 6.5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 123) Define appositional growth. (Module 6.6A) A) Appositional growth is a decrease in bone diameter due to the addition of bone matrix at the endosteum of the medullary cavity. B) Appositional growth is a decrease in bone diameter due to the pulling of the epiphyses by muscles during physical activity. C) Appositional growth is an increase in bone diameter due to the pulling of the epiphyses by muscles during physical activity. D) Appositional growth is a decrease in bone diameter due to the addition of bone matrix at the bone's outer surface. E) Appositional growth is an increase in bone diameter due to the addition of bone matrix at the bone's outer surface. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 6.6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 124) As a bone increases in diameter, what happens to the medullary cavity? (Module 6.6B) A) The medullary cavity increases in diameter because bone matrix is removed by osteoblasts. B) The medullary cavity increases in diameter because bone matrix is removed by osteoclasts. C) The medullary cavity decreases in diameter because bone matrix is added by osteoclasts. D) The medullary cavity decreases in diameter because bone matrix is added by osteoblasts. E) The medullary cavity diameter does not change but fills in with more bone marrow. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 6.6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 125) Define endochondral ossification. (Module 6.7A) A) Endochondral ossification is the formation of hyaline cartilage. B) Endochondral ossification is the formation of elastic cartilage. C) Endochondral ossification is the formation of fibrocartilage. D) Endochondral ossification is the replacement of a cartilage model with bone. E) Endochondral ossification is bone formation within connective tissue without the prior development of a cartilage model. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 6.7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

126) In endochondral ossification, what is the original source of osteoblasts? (Module 6.7B) A) The hyaline chondrocytes become osteoblasts. B) The differentiation of cells in the inner layer of the perichondrium. C) The differentiation of cells in the endochondrium. D) The differentiation of cells in the synovial cavity. E) The fibroblasts become osteoblasts. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 6.7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 127) Define intramembranous ossification. (Module 6.8A) A) Intramembranous ossification is the formation of hyaline cartilage from mesenchymal cells. B) Intramembranous ossification is the formation of elastic cartilage from mesenchymal cells. C) Intramembranous ossification is the formation of fibrocartilage from mesenchymal cells. D) Intramembranous ossification is the replacement of a cartilage model with bone. E) Intramembranous ossification is bone formation within connective tissue without the prior development of a cartilage model. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 6.8 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 128) During intramembranous ossification, bone replaces which type of tissue? (Module 6.8B) A) hyaline cartilage B) elastic cartilage C) fibrocartilage D) embryonic, or fibrous connective tissue E) skeletal muscle Answer: D Learning Outcome: 6.8 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 129) Explain the primary difference between endochondral ossification and intramembranous ossification. (Module 6.8C) A) The primary difference is that in endochondral ossification, bone develops from a cartilage model, whereas in intramembranous ossification, bone develops from mesenchymal cells. B) The primary difference is that in endochondral ossification, bone develops from mesenchymal cells, whereas in intramembranous ossification, bone develops from a cartilage model. C) The primary difference is that in endochondral ossification, bone develops fast, whereas in intramembranous ossification, bone develops slowly. D) The primary difference is that in endochondral ossification, bone develops slowly, whereas in intramembranous ossification, bone develops fast. E) The primary difference is that endochondral ossification is embryonic bone development, whereas intramembranous ossification is post-natal bone growth. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 6.8 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 34

130) Why is pituitary growth failure less common today in the United States? (Module 6.9A) A) Because children have smaller pituitary glands which function more effectively at producing growth hormone. B) Because children have larger pituitary glands which function more effectively at producing growth hormone. C) Because children have better diets and are more nourished allowing greater growth hormone production. D) Because children can be treated with synthetic human growth hormone if they are deficient. E) Because children can receive a pituitary gland transplant if they are deficient in growth hormone. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 6.9 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 131) Compare gigantism with acromegaly. (Module 6.9C) A) Gigantism results from an overproduction of growth hormone before puberty, whereas acromegaly results from an overproduction of growth hormone after puberty. B) Gigantism results from an overproduction of growth hormone after puberty, whereas acromegaly results from an overproduction of growth hormone before puberty. C) Gigantism results from an overproduction of growth hormone during fetal bone development, whereas acromegaly results from an overproduction of growth hormone during childhood but before puberty. D) Gigantism results from an overproduction of growth hormone before puberty, whereas acromegaly results from an underproduction of growth hormone before puberty. E) Gigantism results from an overproduction of growth hormone before puberty, whereas acromegaly results from an underproduction of growth hormone after puberty. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 6.9 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 132) What is the ratio of organic compounds to inorganic components in the composition of bone? (Module 6.10A) A) Organic compounds make up 25%; inorganic components make up 75%. B) Organic compounds make up 75%; inorganic components make up 25%. C) Organic compounds make up 33%; inorganic components make up 67%. D) Organic compounds make up 67%; inorganic components make up 33%. E) Organic compounds make up 18%; inorganic components make up 82%. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 6.10 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

133) Which three organ systems coordinate to maintain normal blood calcium level? (Module 6.10B) A) skeletal system, respiratory system, cardiovascular system B) cardiovascular system, respiratory system, lymphatic system C) skeletal system, muscular system, integumentary system D) skeletal system, digestive system, urinary system E) cardiovascular system, urinary system, respiratory system Answer: D Learning Outcome: 6.10 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 134) Identify the hormone that stimulates the release of calcium ions from bone matrix. Explain its mechanism of action. (Module 6.11A) A) parathyroid hormone; increases osteoblast break down of bone matrix B) parathyroid hormone; increases osteoclast break down of bone matrix C) calcitonin; increases osteoblast break down of bone matrix D) calcitonin; increases osteoclast break down of bone matrix E) cholecalciferol; increases osteoblast break down of bone matrix Answer: B Learning Outcome: 6.11 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 135) How does calcitonin act to lower blood calcium? (Module 6.11C) A) Increases osteoblast break down of bone matrix, increases calcitriol production, increases intestinal absorption, and decreases renal excretion B) Increases osteoclast break down of bone matrix, decreases calcitriol production, increases intestinal absorption, and decreases renal excretion C) Decreases osteoblast break down of bone matrix, increases calcitriol production, increases intestinal absorption, and decreases renal excretion D) Decreases osteoclast break down of bone matrix, decreases calcitriol production, decreases intestinal absorption, and increases renal excretion E) Increases endochondral ossification Answer: D Learning Outcome: 6.11 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

136) List the steps involved in fracture repair, beginning just after the fracture occurs. (Module 6.12A) A) compact bone formation, spongy bone formation, callus formation, fracture hematoma formation B) fracture hematoma formation, spongy bone formation, callus formation, compact bone formation C) callus formation, fracture hematoma formation, compact bone formation, spongy bone formation D) callus formation, spongy bone formation, fracture hematoma formation, compact bone formation E) fracture hematoma formation, callus formation, spongy bone formation, compact bone formation Answer: E Learning Outcome: 6.12 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 137) Define open fracture and closed fracture. (Module 6.12B) A) An open fracture is one where the bone pierces the skin; a closed fracture is one where no bone pierces the skin. B) An open fracture is one where no bone pierces the skin; a closed fracture is one where bone pierces the skin. C) An open fracture is one where the bone remains in alignment; a closed fracture is one where the bone is no longer in alignment. D) An open fracture is one where the bone is no longer in alignment; a closed fracture is one where the bone remains in alignment. E) An open fracture is one where the break is along the long axis of the bone; a closed fracture is one where the break is not along the long axis of the bone. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 6.12 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

Essay Questions 138) What is the difference between ossification and calcification? Answer: Ossification means specifically the conversion of connective tissue into bone tissue. Calcification means the depositing of calcium salts in any tissue, including bone. Learning Outcome: 6.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 139) During the growth of a long bone, how is the epiphysis forced farther from the shaft? Answer: The chondrocytes near the center of the shaft increase greatly in size. The matrix is reduced to a series of small struts that soon begin to calcify. The enlarged chondrocytes then die and disintegrate, leaving cavities within the cartilage. Blood vessels penetrate the cartilage and fibroblasts migrating with the blood vessels differentiate into osteoblasts and begin producing spongy bone at a primary ossification center. Bone formation then spreads along the shaft toward both ends. On the shaft, the chondrocytes become ossified, "chasing" the expanding epiphyseal cartilage away from the shaft. Learning Outcome: 6.7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 140) Would you expect to see changes in blood levels of the hormones calcitonin and PTH as a result of vitamin D3 deficiency? Explain. Answer: A person deficient in vitamin D3 would not be able to absorb calcium effectively from the digestive tract, leading to a shortage of calcium in the blood. To maintain homeostasis, the decrease in blood calcium would trigger the release of PTH. The PTH, in turn, would stimulate osteoclasts to release enough calcium from the bone to maintain proper calcium levels in the blood. Levels of calcitonin would decrease, because release of this hormone is triggered by high blood calcium levels. Learning Outcome: 6.11 Bloom's Taxonomy: Analyzing 141) Identify the functions of the skeleton. (Module 6.1B) Answer: The skeletal system supports the body, stores minerals and lipids, produces blood cells, protects delicate organs and tissues, and functions as levers for movement. Learning Outcome: 6.1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 142) Define bone markings. (Module 6.2B) Answer: Bone markings (surface features) are characteristics of a bone's surface that have certain functions, such as forming a joint; serving as a site for muscle, tendon, or ligament attachment; or allowing the passage of nerves and blood vessels. Learning Outcome: 6.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

143) List the different terms used to describe projections. (Module 6.2C) Answer: Various terms for projections include process, ramus, head, tubercle, tuberosity, trochanter, crest, line, and spine. Learning Outcome: 6.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 144) Why are bone injuries usually painful? (Module 6.3D) Answer: Bone injuries are usually painful because of the extensive presence of sensory nerves within the periosteum, diaphysis, medullary cavity, and epiphyses. Learning Outcome: 6.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 145) Compare compact bone and spongy bone. (Module 6.5B) Answer: Compact bone, which lies over spongy bone and makes up most of a bone's diaphysis, consists of compactly arranged osteons (Haversian systems); it protects, supports, and resists stress. Spongy bone makes up most of the volume of short, flat, and irregular bones and is also found at the epiphyses of long bones; it stores marrow and provides some support. Learning Outcome: 6.5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 146) Distinguish between the periosteum and the endosteum. (Module 6.6C) Answer: The periosteum is the superficial layer that surrounds a bone. It consists of an outer fibrous layer and an inner cellular layer. The endosteum is an incomplete cellular lining on the inner (medullary) surfaces of bones. Learning Outcome: 6.6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 147) How could x-rays of the femur be used to determine whether a person has reached full height? (Module 6.7C) Answer: X-rays of long bones, such as the femur, can reveal the presence or absence of the epiphyseal cartilage, which separates the epiphysis from the diaphysis so long as the bone is still lengthening. If the epiphyseal cartilage is present, growth is still occurring; if it is not present, the bone has reached its full length, and thus the person has reached his or her full height. Learning Outcome: 6.7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 148) Describe Marfan syndrome. (Module 6.9B) Answer: Marfan syndrome is a hereditary disorder of connective tissue that results in abnormally long and thin limbs and digits. The condition usually causes life-threatening cardiovascular problems. Learning Outcome: 6.9 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

149) What physical signs would be expected in a person whose blood calcium was abnormally low? (Module 6.10C) Answer: If a person's blood calcium were abnormally low, neuron and muscle cell functions would be disrupted. Skeletal muscles might not function properly, so the person's movement would be altered. Cardiac muscle could also be affected, so heart rate is likely to be irregular. Learning Outcome: 6.10 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 150) Describe the kidney and intestinal responses to PTH. (Module 6.11B) Answer: PTH stimulates an increase in the production of the hormone calcitriol by the kidneys. The additional calcitriol stimulates calcium reabsorption by the kidneys. PTH and calcitriol enhance the absorption of calcium ions by the intestines. Learning Outcome: 6.11 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

Visual Anatomy and Physiology, 3e (Martini) Chapter 7 The Skeleton Multiple Choice Questions 1) Which of the following is not part of the axial division of the skeletal system? A) skull B) auditory ossicles C) hyoid bone D) pectoral girdle E) vertebral column Answer: D Learning Outcome: 7.1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 2) Which of the following is not a function of the axial skeleton? A) provides an attachment for muscles that move the axial skeleton B) provides an attachment for muscles that move the head, neck, and trunk C) provides an attachment for muscles involved in respiration D) provides an attachment for calf muscles E) None of the answers is correct. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 7.1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 3) How many bones make up the axial skeleton? A) 50 B) 60 C) 70 D) 80 E) 90 Answer: D Learning Outcome: 7.1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 4) The suture that forms the articulation of the parietal bones with the frontal bone is the suture. A) lambdoid B) calvarial C) coronal D) squamous E) sagittal Answer: C Learning Outcome: 7.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

5) The cranium (or braincase) is formed by the A) frontal, temporal, and maxillary B) frontal, parietal, and zygomatic C) temporal, parietal, and mandible D) frontal, temporal, parietal, and occipital Answer: D Learning Outcome: 7.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

bones.

6) The suture that forms the articulation of the two parietal bones is the A) lambdoid B) calvarial C) coronal D) squamous E) sagittal Answer: E Learning Outcome: 7.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 7) The skull contains bones. A) 32 B) 22 C) 42 D) 12 E) None of the answers is correct. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 7.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 8) Sutures can be found at all of the joints of an adult skull, except between A) the mandible and the temporal bone. B) the zygomatic bone and the maxillary bone. C) the occipital bone and the parietal bone. D) the vomer and the zygomatic bone. E) None of these; they are all sutures. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 7.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

suture.

9) At a suture, bones are tied firmly together with A) neural tissue. B) muscle tissue. C) loose fibrous connective tissue. D) dense fibrous connective tissue. E) epithelial tissue. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 7.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 10) While playing softball, Gina is struck in the superior medial portion of her left zygomatic bone by a wild pitch. Which of the following complaints would you expect her to have? A) a broken jaw B) a black eye C) a headache at the back of the head D) a sore chest E) a sore back Answer: B Learning Outcome: 7.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Analyzing 11) The bony compartment that houses the brain is called the A) suture. B) skull. C) frontal bone. D) cranium. E) occiput. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 7.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 12) The parietal bones and occipital bone articulate at the A) coronal B) lambdoid C) squamous D) sagittal E) frontal Answer: B Learning Outcome: 7.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

suture.

13) The frontal and parietal bones articulate at the A) coronal B) lambdoid C) squamous D) sagittal E) frontal Answer: A Learning Outcome: 7.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

suture.

14) The small bones that form the medial wall of the eye socket are the A) ethmoid bones. B) lacrimal bones. C) lacerum bones. D) nasal bones. E) zygomatic bones. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 7.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 15) Which of these is not one of the bones of the face? A) frontal B) maxilla C) vomer D) mandible E) zygomatic Answer: A Learning Outcome: 7.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 16) The inferior nasal conchae A) attach muscles that move the eye. B) contain the nerves for olfaction. C) create turbulence in the nasal passageways. D) protect the pituitary gland. E) attach muscles that move the eyelids. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 7.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

17) Ligaments that support the hyoid bone are attached to the A) styloid process. B) mastoid process. C) articular tubercle. D) coronoid process. E) middle nasal conchae. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 7.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 18) A point of attachment for muscles that rotate or extend the head is the A) styloid process. B) mastoid process. C) articular tubercle. D) coronoid process. E) middle nasal conchae. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 7.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 19) Of the following bones, which is unpaired? A) vomer B) maxillary C) palatine D) nasal E) None of the answers is correct. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 7.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 20) Jack gets into a fight and is punched in the nose. Which of the following bones might be fractured? A) ethmoid bone B) sphenoid bone C) temporal bone D) mandible E) parietal bone Answer: A Learning Outcome: 7.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying

21) The inferior portion of the nasal septum is formed by the A) vomer. B) mandible. C) maxilla. D) lacrimal bone. E) frontal bone. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 7.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 22) The zygomatic arch is formed by the union of processes from which two bones? A) temporal and maxilla B) frontal and temporal C) sphenoid and temporal D) zygomatic and maxilla E) temporal and zygomatic Answer: E Learning Outcome: 7.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 23) The external acoustic meatus is a foramen in which skull bone? A) zygomatic B) vomer C) temporal D) parietal E) occipital Answer: C Learning Outcome: 7.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 24) The alveolar process of the maxilla A) supports the upper teeth. B) supports the lower teeth. C) anchors the tongue. D) is the attachment site for several facial muscles E) None of the answers is correct. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 7.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

25) The prominent bulge just posterior and inferior to the external auditory meatus is the A) mastoid process. B) styloid process. C) occipital condyle. D) condyloid process. E) temporal process. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 7.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 26) The superior and inferior temporal lines mark the points of attachment for A) muscles that stabilize the skull at the vertebral column. B) muscles that open and close the eye. C) muscles that close the mouth. D) muscles that turn the head. E) both muscles that stabilize the skull at the vertebral column and muscles that turn the head. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 7.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 27) The styloid process, zygomatic process, and auditory ossicles are associated with the A) parietal bone. B) occipital bone. C) sphenoid. D) temporal bone. E) ulna. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 7.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 28) The bony roof of the mouth is formed by the _ A) palatine B) vomer C) maxillary D) sphenoid E) palatine and maxillary Answer: E Learning Outcome: 7.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

bone(s).

29) The zygomatic bone articulates with the A) frontal B) occipital C) nasal D) temporal E) parietal Answer: D Learning Outcome: 7.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

bone to form the zygomatic arch.

30) An alternative term for the forehead is A) cornu. B) calvaria. C) braincase. D) temporal squama. E) frons. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 7.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 31) Each of the following landmarks is associated with the occipital bone, except the A) superior nuchal lines. B) lambdoid suture. C) hypoglossal canals. D) crista galli. E) external occipital crest. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 7.5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 32) The lower jaw articulates with the temporal bone at the A) mandibular fossa. B) mastoid process. C) coronoid process. D) lateral palatine process. E) cribriform plate. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 7.5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

33) Each of the following is associated with the temporal bone, except the A) mastoid process. B) petrous portion. C) sella turcica. D) internal acoustic meatus. E) mandibular fossa. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 7.5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 34) Identify the opening surrounded by the occipital bone. A) foramen rotundum B) foramen magnum C) foramen ovale D) foramen spinosum E) foramen lacerum Answer: B Learning Outcome: 7.5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 35) Ridges that anchor muscles that stabilize the head are the A) anterior and posterior nuchal lines. B) anterior and superior nuchal lines. C) inferior and superior nuchal lines. D) medial and lateral nuchal lines. E) cranial and caudal nuchal lines. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 7.5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 36) The passes through the A) vagus nerve; foramen magnum B) trigeminal nerve; foramen lacerum C) acoustic nerve; external acoustic meatus D) internal jugular vein; jugular foramen E) internal carotid artery; jugular foramen Answer: D Learning Outcome: 7.5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

37) The foramen magnum is found in the A) frontal B) parietal C) sphenoid D) occipital E) temporal Answer: D Learning Outcome: 7.5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

bone.

Figure 7-1 38) Identify the sphenoid bone. A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4 E) 5 Answer: B Learning Outcome: 7.5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

39) Identify the internal occipital crest. A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4 E) 5 Answer: C Learning Outcome: 7.5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 40) What is the name of the structure labeled "8"? A) sella turcica B) foramen ovale C) foramen rotundum D) carotid canal E) foramen spinosum Answer: B Learning Outcome: 7.5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 41) Which structure has foramina for the olfactory nerves? A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4 E) 5 Answer: E Learning Outcome: 7.5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 42) Which structure encloses the pituitary gland? A) 4 B) 5 C) 6 D) 7 E) 8 Answer: C Learning Outcome: 7.5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

43) The occipital are where the occipital bone articulates with the first cervical vertebra. A) processes B) condyles C) foramina D) nuchal lines E) canals Answer: B Learning Outcome: 7.5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 44) The hypophyseal fossa of the sella turcica contains the A) lacrimal B) pituitary C) olfactory D) nasal E) sellar Answer: B Learning Outcome: 7.6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

gland.

45) Each of the following structures is associated with the sphenoid bone except the A) foramen ovale. B) optic canals. C) pterygoid processes. D) sella turcica. E) cribriform plate. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 7.6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 46) A membrane that stabilizes the position of the brain is attached to the A) crista galli. B) pterygoid processes. C) styloid process. D) perpendicular plate. E) cribriform plate. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 7.6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

47) A skull bone that could be described as looking like a bat with wings extended is the A) maxilla. B) crista galli. C) sphenoid. D) ethmoid. E) cribriform. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 7.6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 48) The stabilizing falx cerebri membrane attaches to which structure? A) pterygoid plates B) sella turcica C) orbital process D) crista galli E) middle nasal conchae Answer: D Learning Outcome: 7.6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 49) The "Turkish saddle" is a feature of which bone? A) sphenoid B) ethmoid C) palatine D) mandible E) hyoid Answer: A Learning Outcome: 7.6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 50) The nasal complex consists of all of the following bones except the _ A) zygomatic B) ethmoid C) sphenoid D) frontal E) maxillary Answer: A Learning Outcome: 7.7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

bone.

51) Each of the following bones is a component of the orbital complex except the bone. A) lacrimal B) nasal C) sphenoid D) ethmoid E) frontal Answer: B Learning Outcome: 7.7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 52) What organ is located in the lacrimal fossa? A) the pituitary gland B) the inner ear C) tear gland D) the lacrimal ramus E) the frontal sinus Answer: C Learning Outcome: 7.7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 53) The paranasal sinuses are located in all of the following bones except the A) frontal bone. B) ethmoid bone. C) sphenoid bone. D) maxillae. E) vomer. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 7.7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 54) Which of the following statements about the functions of the paranasal sinuses is false? A) They provide an extensive area of mucous epithelium. B) They make skull bones lighter. C) The mucus they secrete enters the nasal cavities. D) They support cilia that move the mucus. E) They create a protected space for blood vessels and nerves. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 7.7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

55) The bony portion of the nasal septum is formed by the A) nasal bones. B) perpendicular plate of the ethmoid bone and the palatine bones C) perpendicular plate of the ethmoid and the vomer bone. D) vomer and sphenoid bone. E) perpendicular plate of the ethmoid and the sphenoid bone. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 7.7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 56) Which of the following is true of the orbital complex? A) Nasolacrimal canal is formed by maxillae and ethmoid bone. B) Lacrimal fossa carry mucus from one sinus to another sinus. C) Infra-orbital foramen are formed by maxillae. D) Lacrimal sulcus allows passage of the optic nerve out of the orbit. E) Supra-orbital notch carries tears from the nasal cavity to the orbit. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 7.7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 57) The nasal complex includes the bones that enclose the nasal cavity and the sinuses. A) frontal B) sphenoid C) paranasal D) palatine E) maxillary Answer: C Learning Outcome: 7.7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 58) What process is the insertion site for the temporalis muscle? A) ramus of the mandible B) condylar process C) coronoid process D) mastoid process E) styloid process Answer: C Learning Outcome: 7.8 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

59) A nerve that carries sensory information from the teeth and gums of the lower jaw passes through the A) ramus of the mandible. B) condylar process. C) mental foramen. D) mandibular foramen. E) maxillary foramen. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 7.8 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 60) The hyoid bone A) attaches to tongue muscles. B) contains greater and lesser condyles. C) is inferior to the larynx. D) is one of the auditory ossicles. E) directly articulate with the mandible. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 7.8 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 61) The hyoid bone is suspended by A) other bones. B) adipose tissue. C) tendons. D) ligaments. E) muscles. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 7.8 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 62) You witness your friend Greg in a fist-fight. He is hit in the jaw and when you look at him, his face appears misaligned. You drive him to the emergency department and are not surprised to learn that he has a broken A) temporal bone. B) zygomatic bone. C) mandible. D) external auditory meatus. E) clavicle. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 7.8 Bloom's Taxonomy: Analyzing

63) As the result of an accident, Bill suffers a dislocated jaw. This injury would involve the A) stylohyoid ligaments. B) hyoid bone. C) condylar process of the mandible. D) alveolar process of the mandible. E) greater cornu of the hyoid bone. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 7.8 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 64) Which of these is one of the auditory ossicles? A) malleus B) incus C) stapes D) All of the answers are correct. E) None of the answers is correct. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 7.8 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 65) Each of the following statements concerning the development of the skull is true, except that A) the bones of the skull develop from a single ossification focus. B) at birth the cranial bones are connected by areas of fibrous connective tissue. C) the growth of the cranium is usually coordinated with the growth of the brain. D) the skulls of infants and adults differ in shape and structure of the skeletal elements. E) the most significant growth of the skull occurs before the age of 5. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 7.9 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 66) The anterior fontanel is A) posterior to the parietal bones. B) anterior to the frontal bone. C) connected to the posterior fontanel by the coronal suture. D) posterior to the frontal bone and anterior to the parietal bones. E) anterior and inferior to the frontal bone. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 7.9 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

67) The brain stops enlarging and the cranial sutures ossify by age A) 3. B) 2. C) 5. D) 1. E) 4. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 7.9 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 68) While visiting your friend who recently gave birth, she comments on her infant's soft spot. You think to yourself that the correct term for the "soft spot" located at the intersection of the frontal, sagittal, and coronal sutures is the A) sphenoidal fontanel. B) anterior fontanel. C) occipital fontanel. D) mastoid fontanel. E) cushion spot. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 7.9 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 69) While volunteering in an outpatient clinic for underprivileged families in your neighborhood, you observe the nurse assessing an infant. The mother had complained about the baby not eating and having several episodes of diarrhea lasting three days. You know the nurse suspects possible dehydration when she A) checks the anterior fontanel for depression. B) points out the dryness of the infant's diaper. C) checks the infant's reflexes. D) questions the mother about normal feeding habits. E) None of the answers is correct. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 7.9 Bloom's Taxonomy: Analyzing 70) are non-ossified fibrous attachments between cranial bones. A) Cribriform plates B) Sella turcicae C) Zygomatic processes D) Fontanelles E) Sutures Answer: D Learning Outcome: 7.9 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

71) curves of the spine develop late in fetal development. A) Primary B) Secondary C) Compensation D) Accommodation E) All of the answers are correct. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 7.10 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 72) The part of the vertebrae that transfers weight along the axis of the vertebral column is the A) vertebral arch. B) vertebral body. C) articular processes. D) intervertebral space. E) None of the answers is correct. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 7.10 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 73) The four curves of the adult spinal column are not all present at birth. Which of the following are the secondary curves, those that do not appear until several months later? A) cervical and lumbar B) thoracic and lumbar C) sacral and lumbar D) thoracic and sacral E) cervical and sacral Answer: A Learning Outcome: 7.10 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 74) The four spinal curves include all but which of the following? A) thoracic B) cervical C) lumbar D) axial E) sacral Answer: D Learning Outcome: 7.10 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

75) The vertebral arch A) supports the articular, spinous, and transverse processes. B) is formed by the two pedicles. C) is formed by the two laminae. D) is separated by the vertebral disks. E) is also called the vertebral foramina. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 7.10 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 76) The primary spinal curves A) include the cervical and lumbar curves. B) include the thoracic and sacral curves. C) include all four spinal curves. D) include the cervical and thoracic curves. E) None of the answers is correct. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 7.10 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 77) The widest intervertebral discs are found in the A) cervical B) thoracic C) lumbar D) sacral E) coccygeal Answer: C Learning Outcome: 7.10 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

region.

Figure 7-2 78) Identify the structure labeled "7." A) transverse process B) lamina C) pedicle D) vertebral body E) spinous process Answer: C Learning Outcome: 7.10 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 79) Which structure contacts the intervertebral disc? A) 2 B) 3 C) 4 D) 5 E) 6 Answer: E Learning Outcome: 7.10 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 80) Identify the structure labeled "1." A) pedicle B) transverse process C) lamina D) spinous process E) transverse articular facet Answer: D Learning Outcome: 7.10 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

81) Identify the structure labeled "2." A) transverse process B) superior articular process C) pedicle D) inferior articular process E) lamina Answer: E Learning Outcome: 7.10 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 82) The five vertebral regions are the cervical, thoracic, lumbar, sacral, and A) dorsal. B) ventral. C) coccygeal. D) axial. E) None of the answers is correct. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 7.10 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 83) As you proceed from the head down the vertebral column, A) the vertebrae become smaller and lighter. B) vertebral bodies become absent. C) the transverse foramina become more evident. D) the vertebrae become larger and heavier. E) more odontoid processes become evident. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 7.11 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

Figure 7-2 84) Where is the spinal cord located? A) 3 B) 4 C) 5 D) 6 E) 7 Answer: C Learning Outcome: 7.11 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 85) The odontoid process, also called the dens, is found on the A) atlas. B) axis. C) sacrum. D) coccyx. E) ribs. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 7.11 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 86) The vertebra prominens is another name for the A) first cervical B) second cervical C) seventh cervical D) first thoracic E) fifth lumbar Answer: C Learning Outcome: 7.11 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

vertebra.

87) The ribs articulate with the A) cervical vertebrae. B) thoracic vertebrae. C) lumbar vertebrae. D) All of the answers are correct. E) None of the answers is correct. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 7.11 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 88) The vertebral column contains A) 4 B) 5 C) 7 D) 12 E) 31 Answer: D Learning Outcome: 7.11 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

thoracic vertebrae.

89) Thoracic vertebrae can be distinguished from other vertebrae by the presence of A) transverse processes. B) transverse foramina. C) facets for the articulation of ribs. D) notched spinous processes. E) costal cartilages. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 7.11 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 90) Which of the following is not a distinctive feature of thoracic vertebrae? A) heart-shaped bodies B) long spinous processes C) contain costals facets D) have transverse processes E) form vertebra prominens Answer: E Learning Outcome: 7.11 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

91) Gesturing "no" with the head does not depends on which of the following? A) atlas B) axis C) vertebra prominens D) transverse ligament E) odontoid process Answer: C Learning Outcome: 7.11 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 92) Normal human skeletons contain A) 11 B) 6 C) 7 D) 19 E) 10 Answer: C Learning Outcome: 7.11 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

cervical vertebrae.

93) The ligamentum nuchae A) attaches the ribs to the thoracic vertebrae. B) helps to hold the head in an upright position. C) attaches the atlas to the occipital bone of the skull. D) attaches the sternum to the ribs. E) stabilizes the lumbar vertebrae. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 7.11 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 94) The first cervical vertebra is better known as the A) axis. B) atlas. C) axiom. D) vertebra prominens. E) odontoid process. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 7.11 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

95) The second cervical vertebra is usually called the A) axis. B) atlas. C) axiom. D) vertebra prominens. E) odontoid process. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 7.11 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 96) The vertebral column contains A) 4 B) 5 C) 7 D) 12 E) 31 Answer: B Learning Outcome: 7.12 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

lumbar vertebrae.

97) Lumbar vertebrae are massive and _ A) least; most B) most; most C) least; least D) not; excessively E) most; least Answer: E Learning Outcome: 7.12 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

mobile.

98) All of the following are true of lumbar vertebrae except that A) the superior articular processes face medially. B) they lack costal facets. C) the transverse process is slender and projects dorsolaterally. D) the vertebral foramen is triangular. E) the vertebral bodies are delicate. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 7.12 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

99) The sacrum is a single bone consisting of the fused components of vertebrae. A) 1-3; it can vary B) 2 C) 3 D) 5 E) 4-6; it can vary Answer: D Learning Outcome: 7.13 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 100) All of the following are true of the sacrum except that it A) provides protection for reproductive, digestive, and excretory organs. B) provides a point of attachment for leg muscles. C) articulates with the pelvic girdle. D) articulates with the second and third lumbar vertebrae. E) articulates with the coccyx. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 7.13 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 101) Which of the following statements about the coccyx is true? A) It is the most caudal vertebral region. B) It articulates with the sacrum. C) It consists of 3-5 vertebrae. D) Fusion is delayed until mid-20s. E) All of the answers are correct. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 7.13 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 102) The sacrum does not protect organs in the A) reproductive B) digestive C) urinary D) nervous E) respiratory Answer: E Learning Outcome: 7.13 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

system.

sacral

103) The ribs articulate with the A) spinous processes B) transverse processes C) laminae D) pedicles E) auric arches Answer: B Learning Outcome: 7.14 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 104) Humans normally have A) 2 B) 6 C) 10 D) 12 E) 24 Answer: D Learning Outcome: 7.14 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

of the vertebrae.

pairs of ribs.

105) The costal groove A) is located on the exterior surface. B) is located on the interior surface. C) marks the path of blood vessels. D) is located on the exterior surface and marks the path of blood vessels. E) is located on the interior surface and marks the path of blood vessels. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 7.14 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 106) The part of the sternum that articulates with the clavicles is the A) manubrium. B) body. C) xiphoid process. D) angle. E) tubercle. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 7.14 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

107) The floating ribs are A) ribs 11-12. B) also called vertebrosternal ribs. C) ribs 1-7. D) ribs 11-12 and also called vertebral ribs. E) also called vertebrosternal ribs and ribs 1-7. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 7.14 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 108) The shallow indentation on the superior surface of the manubrium is called the A) xiphoid process. B) jugular notch. C) tubercle. D) costal facet. E) capitulum. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 7.14 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 109) Which bone(s) include(s) a manubrium? A) scapula B) clavicle C) sternum D) cervical vertebrae #1 and #2 E) all the vertebrae Answer: C Learning Outcome: 7.14 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 110) The sternum contains A) the manubrium. B) the jugular notch. C) the body. D) the xiphoid process. E) All of the answers are correct. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 7.14 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

111) While performing cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) on an unconscious person, you are careful to position your hands correctly to avoid damage to the A) ribs. B) scapula. C) xiphoid process. D) sacrum. E) ribs and xiphoid process. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 7.14 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 112) Vertebrosternal ribs are directly connected to the sternum by A) tubercles. B) costal facets. C) xiphoid processes. D) costal cartilages. E) the manubrium. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 7.14 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 113) Ribs that have no connection to the sternum are called A) pectoral ribs. B) true ribs. C) orphan ribs. D) non-articulators. E) floating ribs. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 7.14 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 114) Ribs 8 to 10 are called A) hemi-attaching ribs B) vertebrosternal ribs C) vertebrochondral ribs D) vertebral ribs E) floating ribs Answer: C Learning Outcome: 7.14 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

because they do not attach directly to the sternum.

115) Which of the following bones is not part of the appendicular skeleton? A) scapula B) tibia C) sacrum D) clavicle E) metacarpals Answer: C Learning Outcome: 7.15 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 116) Which of the following is not a component of the appendicular skeleton? A) scapula B) metatarsals C) femur D) humerus E) None of these; all are appendicular bones. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 7.15 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 117) The clavicle articulates with the scapula A) distally with the coracoid process. B) distally with the glenoid cavity. C) distally with the acromion. D) distally with the manubrium. E) proximally with the coracoid cavity. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 7.16 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 118) The clavicle articulates with the scapula at the A) acromial end. B) superior border. C) sternal end. D) scapular spine. E) medial border. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 7.16 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

119) Which of the following is located closest to the jugular notch? A) medial end of scapula B) medial end of clavicle C) lateral end of scapula D) lateral end of clavicle E) None of these are close to the jugular notch. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 7.16 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 120) The three sides of this bone form a broad triangle. A) radius B) clavicle C) vertebra D) sternum E) scapula Answer: E Learning Outcome: 7.16 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

Figure 7-3 121) Identify the structure labeled "7." A) acromion B) scapular process C) spine D) coracoid process E) scapular notch Answer: C Learning Outcome: 7.16 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 122) Identify the structure labeled "1." A) spine B) scapular process C) acromion D) coracoid process E) scapular notch Answer: D Learning Outcome: 7.16 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

123) Which structure is the acromion? A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4 E) 5 Answer: E Learning Outcome: 7.16 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 124) Identify the structure labeled "2." A) glenoid cavity B) acetabulum C) scapular cavity D) scapular notch E) rotator cup Answer: A Learning Outcome: 7.16 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 125) What bone articulates on the structure labeled "2"? A) femur B) clavicle C) humerus D) manubrium E) radius Answer: C Learning Outcome: 7.16 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 126) Which of these constitutes the pectoral girdle? A) clavicles only B) clavicles and scapulae C) clavicles, scapulae, and humerus D) clavicles, scapulae, humerus, radius, and ulna E) clavicle, scapula, humerus, radius, ulna, and carpal bones Answer: B Learning Outcome: 7.16 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

127) The only direct connection between the pectoral girdle and the axial skeleton is where the A) clavicle articulates with the humerus. B) clavicle articulates with the manubrium of the sternum. C) coxal bones articulate with the femur. D) vertebral column articulates with the sacrum. E) clavicle articulates with the xiphoid process. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 7.16 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 128) Which of the following is most commonly fractured in a fall? A) manubrium B) hyoid C) clavicle D) navicular E) glenoid cavity Answer: C Learning Outcome: 7.16 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 129) The appendicular skeleton includes the bones of the upper and lower extremities and their supporting elements, called A) girdles. B) arches. C) scapulae. D) anchors. E) insertions. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 7.16 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 130) Two prominent features of the clavicle are the medial sternal end and the lateral end. A) humeral B) glenoid C) coracoid D) acromial E) subscapular Answer: D Learning Outcome: 7.16 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

131) The scapula articulates with the humerus at its A) infraspinous B) scapular C) olecranon D) supraspinous E) glenoid Answer: E Learning Outcome: 7.16 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

cavity.

132) The coracoid process is a part of which bone? A) scapula B) clavicle C) ischium D) ulna E) sternum Answer: A Learning Outcome: 7.16 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 133) Which of the following features is located near the proximal end of the humerus? A) medial epicondyle B) lateral epicondyle C) greater tubercle D) olecranon fossa E) capitulum Answer: C Learning Outcome: 7.17 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 134) The depression on the posterior surface at the distal end of the humerus is the A) olecranon fossa. B) coronoid fossa. C) radial fossa. D) intertubercular groove. E) radial groove. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 7.17 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

135) Which of the following is a forearm bone? A) humerus B) femur C) tibia D) fibula E) radius Answer: E Learning Outcome: 7.17 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 136) Which of the following surface features does the ulna not possess? A) olecranon B) styloid process C) trochlear notch D) capitulum E) head Answer: D Learning Outcome: 7.17 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 137) The surface feature present along the lateral border of the shaft of the humerus is the A) radial groove. B) medial epicondyle. C) lateral epicondyle. D) deltoid tuberosity. E) coronoid process. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 7.17 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 138) In the anatomical position, the ulna is located A) distal B) proximal C) medial D) superior E) None of the answers is correct. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 7.17 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

to the radius.

139) Lateral to the coronoid process, the radial in the radioulnar joint. A) notch B) tendon C) ligament D) groove E) muscle Answer: A Learning Outcome: 7.17 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

accommodates the head of the radius

Figure 7-4 140) Identify the structure labeled "9." A) olecranon process B) medial epicondyle C) lateral epicondyle D) greater tubercle E) trochlea Answer: B Learning Outcome: 7.17 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

141) Around which structure does the radius rotate? A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4 E) 5 Answer: C Learning Outcome: 7.17 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 142) When the arm is extended at the elbow, which structure accepts the olecranon? A) 1 B) 3 C) 4 D) 8 E) 9 Answer: D Learning Outcome: 7.17 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 143) Identify the place where the humerus often fractures. A) 1 B) 2 C) 5 D) 6 E) 7 Answer: D Learning Outcome: 7.17 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 144) Which structure articulates with the glenoid cavity? A) 3 B) 4 C) 5 D) 6 E) 7 Answer: C Learning Outcome: 7.17 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

145) Which of the following is not associated with the radius? A) head B) tuberosity C) styloid process D) coronoid process E) neck Answer: D Learning Outcome: 7.17 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 146) The of the radius helps stabilize the wrist joint. A) olecranon process B) coronoid process C) styloid process D) radial tuberosity E) capitulum Answer: C Learning Outcome: 7.17 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 147) The distal radius articulates with the head of the ulna at the A) styloid process. B) radial tuberosity. C) olecranon. D) ulnar notch. E) coracoid process. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 7.17 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 148) The bones that form the palm are the A) carpals. B) tarsals. C) metacarpals. D) metatarsals. E) phalanges. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 7.18 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

149) The bones that give the wrist a wide range of motion are the A) carpals. B) tarsals. C) metacarpals. D) metatarsals. E) phalanges. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 7.18 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 150) The bones that form the fingers are the A) carpals. B) tarsals. C) metacarpals. D) metatarsals. E) phalanges. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 7.18 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 151) The carpus contains bones. A) 4 B) 5 C) 6 D) 7 E) 8 Answer: E Learning Outcome: 7.18 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 152) Which of the following is not an upper limb bone? A) ulna B) radius C) humerus D) metatarsals E) carpals Answer: D Learning Outcome: 7.18 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

153) There are carpal bones located in the wrist, which form in the wrist. A) 2; 8 B) 10; 3 C) 4; 2 D) 8; 2 E) 6; 2 Answer: D Learning Outcome: 7.18 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

rows of bones

154) Each hand has phalangeal bones. A) 15 B) 20 C) 14 D) 18 E) 10 Answer: C Learning Outcome: 7.18 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 155) Tina falls and fractures her pisiform bone. What part of her body was injured? A) foot B) forearm C) wrist D) hand E) ankle Answer: C Learning Outcome: 7.18 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 156) The bumpy bone on the medial side of your wrist is actually the A) capitate B) pisiform C) trapezium D) hamate E) proximal Answer: B Learning Outcome: 7.18 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

bone.

157) The anatomical term for the thumb is A) talus. B) triquetrum. C) hallux. D) pollex. E) patella. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 7.18 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 158) Which bone articulates with the coxal bone at the acetabulum? A) sacrum B) femur C) humerus D) tibia E) fibula Answer: B Learning Outcome: 7.19 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 159) Each one of the coxal bones is formed by the fusion of A) 2 B) 3 C) 4 D) 5 E) 6 Answer: B Learning Outcome: 7.19 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 160) The largest component coxal bone is the A) pubis. B) ischium. C) ilium. D) femur. E) tibia. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 7.19 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

bones.

161) The superior border of the ilium that acts as a point of attachment for both ligaments and muscles is the A) anterior iliac spine. B) acetabulum. C) posterior superior iliac spine. D) iliac crest. E) iliac notch. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 7.19 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 162) The greater sciatic notch is a feature on the A) ilium. B) ischium. C) pubis. D) femur. E) patella. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 7.19 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 163) The sacrum articulates with the A) ilium. B) ischium. C) pubis. D) ilium and ischium. E) ischium and pubis. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 7.19 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 164) The pubic and ischial rami encircle the A) pubic symphysis. B) lesser sciatic notch. C) greater sciatic notch. D) obturator foramen. E) acetabulum. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 7.19 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

165) Each coxal bone consists of which three fused bones? A) ulna, radius, and humerus B) ilium, ischium, and pubis C) femur, tibia, and fibula D) hamate, capitate, and trapezium E) femur, patella, and tibia Answer: B Learning Outcome: 7.19 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 166) Which surface feature(s) along the ilium mark(s) attachment sites for large hip muscles? A) lunate surfaces B) greater sciatic notch C) gluteal lines D) All of the answers are correct. E) None of the answers is correct. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 7.19 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 167) When seated, the weight of the body is borne by the A) ischial tuberosities. B) posterior inferior iliac spines. C) iliac crests. D) obturator foramen. E) inferior rami of the pubis. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 7.19 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 168) The two pubic bones join medially at the A) pectineal line. B) coronoid process. C) pubic tubercle. D) pubic symphysis. E) auricular surface. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 7.19 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

169) Which of the following is not a part of the pelvis? A) sacrum B) coccyx C) coxal bone D) lumbar vertebrae E) both coccyx and lumbar vertebrae Answer: D Learning Outcome: 7.20 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 170) The pelvic organs are mostly found within the A) ischial spine. B) true pelvis. C) ischial fossa. D) obturator foramen. E) pubic symphysis. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 7.20 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 171) Which of these is not one of the boundaries of the pelvic outlet? A) coccyx B) ischial spines C) iliac crest D) inferior border of the pubic symphysis E) ischial tuberosities Answer: C Learning Outcome: 7.20 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 172) The space enclosed by the true pelvis is called the A) greater pelvis. B) pelvic inlet. C) pelvic brim. D) pelvic meatus. E) sacroiliac. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 7.20 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

173) Which of the following is not a characteristic of the male pelvis? A) heavy, rough textured bone B) heart-shaped pelvic inlet C) angle of pubic arch greater than 100 degrees D) relatively deep iliac fossa E) ilia extend far above sacrum Answer: C Learning Outcome: 7.21 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 174) Which of the following is a not characteristic of the female pelvis? A) broad pelvis (low pelvis) B) coccyx points anteriorly C) enlarged pelvic outline D) bone markings not very prominent E) a more circular pelvic inlet Answer: B Learning Outcome: 7.21 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 175) A male has a pelvic outlet when compared to the woman's pelvic outlet. A) larger B) longer C) narrower D) wider E) deeper Answer: C Learning Outcome: 7.21 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 176) The clearest distinction between a male and female skeleton is seen in the characteristics of the A) skull. B) pelvis. C) sacrum. D) teeth. E) thoracic cage. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 7.21 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

177) The longest and heaviest bone in the body is the A) humerus. B) femur. C) tibia. D) fibula. E) coxal bone. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 7.22 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 178) Powerful hip muscles attach posteriorly to the femur along the A) greater trochanter. B) lesser trochanter. C) linea aspera. D) medial epicondyle. E) fovea capitis. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 7.22 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 179) The lateral bulge at your ankle is a projection from the A) fibula. B) femur. C) tibia. D) calcaneus. E) talus. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 7.22 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 180) The medial malleolus is found on the A) femur. B) tibia. C) fibula. D) patella. E) calcaneus. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 7.22 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

181) The medial border of the fibula is bound to the A) femur B) tibia C) patella D) navicular E) femur and tibia Answer: B Learning Outcome: 7.22 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

by the interosseous membrane.

182) The largest bone of the lower limb is the A) tibia. B) femur. C) fibula. D) humerus. E) calcaneus. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 7.22 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 183) Which of these bones was not formed by the fusion of several bones? A) coccyx B) coxal bones C) sacrum D) femur E) None of the answers is correct. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 7.22 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

Figure 7-5 184) Identify the structure labeled "2." A) greater trochanter B) linea aspera C) head D) lateral epicondyle E) lateral condyle Answer: A Learning Outcome: 7.22 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

185) Identify the structure labeled "3." A) greater trochanter B) lesser trochanter C) head D) lateral epicondyle E) lateral condyle Answer: D Learning Outcome: 7.22 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 186) Identify the diaphysis of the femur. A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 5 E) 7 Answer: E Learning Outcome: 7.22 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 187) Identify the structure labeled "12." A) greater trochanter B) linea aspera C) head D) lateral epicondyle E) lateral condyle Answer: B Learning Outcome: 7.22 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 188) Which structure articulates with the acetabulum? A) 1 B) 2 C) 4 D) 5 E) 9 Answer: D Learning Outcome: 7.22 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

189) Your is your shinbone. A) fibula B) tibia C) ulna D) humerus E) talus Answer: B Learning Outcome: 7.22 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 190) The tarsus contains bones. A) 4 B) 5 C) 6 D) 7 E) 8 Answer: D Learning Outcome: 7.23 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 191) Which of the following is the heel bone? A) talus B) navicular C) calcaneus D) cuboid E) patella Answer: C Learning Outcome: 7.23 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 192) The weight of the body is supported by the A) distal metacarpals. B) proximal metatarsals. C) distal metatarsals. D) calcaneus. E) distal metatarsals and calcaneus. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 7.23 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

193) Another name for the great toe is A) hallux. B) pollex. C) hyoid. D) lateral cuneiform. E) phalanx. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 7.23 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 194) The Achilles tendon attaches to which anatomical structure? A) cuboid bone B) calcaneus C) talus D) lesser trochanter E) None of the answers is correct. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 7.23 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 195) The distal end of the tibia articulates with the A) talus. B) fibula. C) patella. D) calcaneus. E) coxal bone. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 7.23 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 196) Tom stumbles and injures his hallux. What part of his anatomy is injured? A) his hand B) his foot C) his ankle D) his knee E) his hip Answer: B Learning Outcome: 7.23 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying

197) The condition known as "flat feet" is due to a lower-than-normal longitudinal arch in the foot. A problem with which of the following would most likely contribute to this condition? A) a loose Achilles tendon B) weak tarsometatarsal joints C) weakness in the ligaments that attach the calcaneus to the distal ends of the metatarsals D) weakness in the ligaments that attach the talus to the tibia E) poor alignment of the phalanges with the metatarsals Answer: C Learning Outcome: 7.23 Bloom's Taxonomy: Analyzing 198) Compared to the hand, the foot A) has more phalanges. B) has fewer metatarsals than the hand has metacarpals. C) has a more restricted range of movement. D) contains arches that help distribute body weight. E) has the same number of tarsal bones as the hand has carpal bones. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 7.23 Bloom's Taxonomy: Analyzing 199) How many bones comprise the skull and its associated bones? (Module 7.1A) A) 8 B) 14 C) 22 D) 29 E) 54 Answer: D Learning Outcome: 7.1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 200) Identify the bones of the cranium. (Module 7.2A) A) occipital bone, frontal bone, sphenoid, ethmoid, and the paired parietal and temporal bones B) frontal bone, occipital bone, and the paired parietal and temporal bones C) mandible, vomer, and the paired lacrimal, zygomatic, and nasal bones D) mandible, maxillae, nasal bones, and vomer E) sphenoid, ethmoid, vomer, zygomatic, and the lacrimal bones Answer: A Learning Outcome: 7.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

201) Describe the functions of the facial bones. (Module 7.2B) A) The facial bones protect the anterior portion of the brain. B) The facial bones protect the posterior portion of the brain and provide a site of attachment for neck muscles. C) The facial bones protect and support the entrances to the digestive and respiratory tracts and provide a site of attachment for muscles of facial expression. D) The facial bones provide a site of attachment for the muscles that move the eyes, jaw, and head. E) The facial bones form the lower jaw and provide a site of attachment for muscles that allow speaking and chewing. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 7.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 202) Define suture. (Module 7.2C) A) A suture is a moveable bone in the cranium. B) A suture is an expanded proximal end of a bone that forms part of a joint. C) A suture is a deep, narrow groove. D) A suture is an elongated cleft or gap. E) A suture is a fibrous connective tissue immovable joint between the flat bones of the skull. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 7.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 203) Name the sutures that mark the boundaries of each parietal bone. (Module 7.2D) A) coronal and squamous sutures B) coronal and sagittal sutures C) squamous, sagittal, and lambdoid sutures D) squamous, coronal, and lambdoid sutures E) squamous, coronal, and sagittal sutures Answer: D Learning Outcome: 7.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 204) Identify the facial bones. (Module 7.3A) A) occipital bone, frontal bone, sphenoid, ethmoid, and the paired parietal and temporal bones B) frontal bone, occipital bone, and the paired parietal and temporal bones C) the paired nasal, lacrimal, palatine, zygomatic, maxillae, and inferior nasal conchae, and the unpaired vomer and mandible D) the paired nasal, lacrimal, zygomatic, and the unpaired vomer E) sphenoid, ethmoid, vomer, mandible, and the maxillae Answer: C Learning Outcome: 7.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

205) Identify the following bones as either a facial bone or a cranial bone: vomer, ethmoid, sphenoid, temporal, and inferior nasal conchae. (Module 7.3B) A) The vomer and inferior nasal conchae are facial bones; the ethmoid, sphenoid, and temporal bones are cranial bones. B) The vomer, ethmoid, sphenoid, and inferior nasal conchae are facial bones; the temporal bones are cranial bones. C) The inferior nasal conchae are facial bones; the vomer, ethmoid, sphenoid, and temporal bones are cranial bones. D) The vomer, inferior nasal conchae, and the sphenoid are facial bones; the ethmoid and temporal bones are cranial bones. E) The sphenoid, ethmoid, and temporal bones are facial bones; the vomer and inferior nasal conchae are cranial bones. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 7.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 206) The mandible articulates with what other cranial bones? (Module 7.3C) A) left and right parietal bones B) sphenoid and ethmoid bones C) left and right zygomatic bones D) left and right temporal bones E) maxillae Answer: D Learning Outcome: 7.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 207) Quincy suffers a hit to the skull that fractures the right superior lateral surface of his cranium. Which bone is fractured? (Module 7.3D) A) right temporal bone B) occipital bone C) right parietal bone D) right sphenoid bone E) frontal bone Answer: C Learning Outcome: 7.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 208) Describe the alveolar process. (Module 7.4A) A) The convex, irregular surface that borders the squamous suture. B) The curved ridge that mark the attachment sites of the temporalis muscle. C) The posterior, inferior corner of the lower jaw. D) The passageway for the vestibulocochlear nerve. E) The projecting ridge that contains the tooth sockets for the upper teeth. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 7.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 57

209) What bone processes from the zygomatic arch? (Module 7.4B) A) The alveolar part of the zygomatic bone and the alveolar process of the temporal bone. B) The temporal process of the zygomatic bone and the zygomatic process of the temporal bone. C) The alveolar part of the zygomatic bone and the petrous part of the temporal bone. D) The zygomatic process of the zygomatic bone and the petrous part of the temporal bone. E) The lateral process of the zygomatic bone and the medial process of the temporal bone. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 7.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 210) Name each meatus found in the temporal bone. (Module 7.4C) A) internal acoustic meatus B) external acoustic meatus C) internal acoustic meatus and external acoustic meatus D) hypoglossal meatus and internal acoustic meatus E) hypoglossal meatus and glossopharyngeal meatus Answer: C Learning Outcome: 7.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 211) What is the function of the internal acoustic meatus? (Module 7.4D) A) It serves as a passageway for blood vessels and the facial and vestibulocochlear nerves. B) It serves as a passageway for the hypoglossal nerve. C) It serves as a hollow space that lightens the weight of the cranium. D) It serves the hollow space of the external ear canal ending at the tympanic membrane. E) It contains the tooth sockets for the upper teeth. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 7.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 212) Identify the bone containing the carotid canal, and name the structure that runs through this passageway. (Module 7.5A) A) sphenoid bone; internal carotid artery B) sphenoid bone; external carotid vein C) temporal bone; internal carotid artery D) temporal bone; external carotid artery E) occipital bone; internal carotid vein Answer: C Learning Outcome: 7.5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

213) Which foramen provides a passageway for nerves innervating the jaw? (Module 7.5B) A) foramen lacerum B) foramen ovale C) stylomastoid foramen D) jugular foramen E) foramen magnum Answer: B Learning Outcome: 7.5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 214) In which bone is the foramen magnum located, and what is significant about this opening? (Module 7.5C) A) sphenoid; surrounds the connection between the brain and the spinal cord B) sphenoid; permits the passage of a branch of the trigeminal nerve C) temporal; permits the passage of a branch of the trigeminal nerve D) occipital; permits the passage of the hypoglossal nerve E) occipital; surrounds the connection between the brain and the spinal cord Answer: E Learning Outcome: 7.5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 215) Identify the bone containing the optic canals, and cite the structures using this passageway. (Module 7.6A) A) sphenoid; optic nerve and the ophthalmic artery B) sphenoid; optic nerve and the facial artery C) ethmoid; optic nerve and the ophthalmic artery D) ethmoid; optic nerve and the facial artery E) palatine; optic nerve and the facial artery Answer: A Learning Outcome: 7.6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 216) Which bone contains the sella turcica? What structure is found within the sella turcica depression? (Module 7.6B) A) sphenoid; hypothalamus B) sphenoid; pituitary gland C) ethmoid; hypothalamus D) ethmoid; pituitary gland E) palatine; epithalamus Answer: B Learning Outcome: 7.6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

217) Identify the bone containing the cribriform plate. What is significant about this structure? (Module 7.6C) A) sphenoid; it forms the floor of the cranium and the roof of the nasal cavity and olfactory foramina run through it B) sphenoid; it forms the posterior part of the hard palate C) ethmoid; it forms the floor of the cranium and the roof of the nasal cavity and olfactory foramina run through it D) ethmoid; it forms the posterior part of the hard palate E) palatine; it forms the posterior part of the hard palate Answer: C Learning Outcome: 7.6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 218) Which bone acts as a uniting bridge between the cranial and facial portions of the skull? (Module 7.6D) A) temporal B) lacrimal C) ethmoid D) palatine E) sphenoid Answer: E Learning Outcome: 7.6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 219) Identify the bones of the orbital complex. (Module 7.7A) A) frontal, sphenoid, zygomatic, palatine, maxilla, lacrimal, and ethmoid B) frontal, parietal, temporal, and occipital C) frontal, zygomatic, and maxilla D) frontal, lacrimal, zygomatic, and nasal E) frontal, sphenoid, parietal, temporal, nasal, lacrimal, maxilla, zygomatic Answer: A Learning Outcome: 7.7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 220) Name the complex — nasal, orbital, or both — where you find each of the following bones: frontal, maxilla, palatine, and nasal bones. (Module 7.7C) A) frontal: orbital; maxilla: both; palatine: orbital; nasal: nasal B) frontal: orbital; maxilla: both; palatine: both; nasal: both C) frontal: both; maxilla: orbital; palatine: nasal; nasal: nasal D) frontal: both; maxilla: both; palatine: both; nasal: nasal E) frontal: nasal; maxilla: nasal; palatine: orbital; nasal: both Answer: D Learning Outcome: 7.7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

221) Name the foramina of the mandible. (Module 7.8A) A) mylohyoid foramina and the coronoid foramina B) coronoid foramina and condylar foramina C) mental foramina and mandibular foramina D) mylohyoid foramina and the mental foramina E) coronoid foramina and the mental foramina Answer: C Learning Outcome: 7.8 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 222) Identify the major fontanelles. (Module 7.9A) A) anterior, posterior, sphenoidal, and mastoid fontanelles B) anterior, posterior, superior, and inferior fontanelles C) anterior, posterior, medial, and lateral fontanelles D) frontal, temporal, parietal, and occipital fontanelles E) coronal, sagittal, squamous, and lambdoidal fontanelles Answer: A Learning Outcome: 7.9 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 223) What purposes do fontanelles serve? (Module 7.9B) A) Fontanelles form the developing cranial meninges. B) Fontanelles form the bones of the cranium during development. C) Fontanelles develop into foramen as bones fuse during childhood. D) Fontanelles permit flexibility of the skull during childbirth and allow room for the brain to enlarge during infancy and early childhood. E) Fontanelles are important sites of attachment for muscles of the face, head, and neck. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 7.9 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 224) What is the importance of the secondary curves of the spine? (Module 7.10A) A) The secondary curves allow us to balance our body weight to permit an upright posture. B) The secondary curves surround the lungs and expand allowing us to breathe. C) The secondary curves accommodate the thoracic organs. D) The secondary curves accommodates the abdominopelvic organs. E) The secondary curves enclose the spinal cord. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 7.10 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

225) Name the major components of a typical vertebra. (Module 7.10B) A) intervertebral discs, intervertebral foramina, and vertebral canal B) articular processes, vertebral arch, and vertebral body C) vertebral head, vertebral body, vertebral discs D) vertebral body, vertebral curves, intervertebral foramina E) intervertebral discs, intervertebral foramina, vertebral arch Answer: B Learning Outcome: 7.10 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 226) To which part of the vertebra do the intervertebral discs attach? (Module 7.10C) A) spinous process B) transverse process C) vertebral body D) pedicle E) superior articular processes Answer: C Learning Outcome: 7.10 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 227) Joe suffered a hairline fracture at the base of the dens. Identify the bone and fracture site. (Module 7.11A) A) atlas; cervical B) atlas; lumbar C) axis; lumbar D) axis; thoracic E) axis; cervical Answer: E Learning Outcome: 7.11 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 228) In which region of the vertebral column would you find a vertebra with a large foramen and two smaller foramina within the transverse processes? (Module 7.11B) A) cervical B) thoracic C) lumbar D) sacral E) coccygeal Answer: A Learning Outcome: 7.11 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

229) When you run your finger down the middle of a person's spine, what part of each vertebra are you feeling just beneath the skin? (Module 7.11C) A) vertebral body B) transverse processes C) superior articular facet D) odontoid processes E) spinous processes Answer: E Learning Outcome: 7.11 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 230) How many vertebrae are in the lumbar region of the vertebral column? (Module 7.12A) A) 3 B) 5 C) 7 D) 12 E) 19 Answer: B Learning Outcome: 7.12 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 231) Which bone of the axial skeleton joins with the hip bones of the appendicular skeleton? (Module 7.13A) A) coccyx B) 5th lumbar vertebra C) axis D) sacrum E) 12th thoracic vertebra Answer: D Learning Outcome: 7.13 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 232) Which regions of the vertebral column do not consist of individual vertebrae? (Module 7.13B) A) cervical and thoracic B) cervical and lumbar C) thoracic and coccygeal D) lumbar and sacral E) sacral and coccygeal Answer: E Learning Outcome: 7.13 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

233) How are vertebrosternal ribs distinguished from vertebrochondral ribs? (Module 7.14A) A) Vertebrosternal ribs connect to the sternum by shared costal cartilages, whereas vertebrochondral ribs do not connect to the sternum. B) Vertebrosternal ribs do not connect to the sternum, whereas vertebrochondral ribs connect to the sternum by shared costal cartilages. C) Vertebrosternal ribs are connected to the sternum by individual costal cartilages, whereas vertebrochondral ribs are connected to the sternum by shared costal cartilages. D) Vertebrosternal ribs are connected to the sternum by shared costal cartilages, whereas vertebrochondral ribs are connected to the sternum by individual costal cartilages. E) Vertebrosternal ribs are connected to the sternum at the manubrium, whereas vertebrochondral ribs are connected to the sternum at the body. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 7.14 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 234) Why are ribs 11 and 12 called floating ribs? (Module 7.14B) A) They do not connect with the body of the sternum but they do attach to the xiphoid process. B) They do not connect with the sternum at all. C) They connect to the sternum by shared costal cartilages. D) They connect to the sternum by individual costal cartilages. E) They are the only ribs that articulate with the thoracic vertebrae. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 7.14 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 235) Along with the ribs and sternum, what other bones make up the thoracic cage? (Module 7.14C) A) 7 cervical vertebrae B) 12 thoracic vertebrae C) 5 lumbar vertebrae D) 7 cervical and 12 thoracic vertebrae E) 12 thoracic and 5 lumbar vertebrae Answer: B Learning Outcome: 7.14 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 236) How many bones are in the appendicular skeleton? (Module 7.15A) A) 60 B) 80 C) 100 D) 120 E) 126 Answer: E Learning Outcome: 7.15 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

237) Name the bones of the pectoral girdles. (Module 7.16A) A) scapula and humerus B) clavicle and humerus C) scapula and clavicle D) hip and femur E) hip and humerus Answer: C Learning Outcome: 7.16 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 238) Which bone articulates with the scapula at the glenoid cavity? (Module 7.16C) A) humerus B) sternum C) clavicle D) radius E) ulna Answer: A Learning Outcome: 7.16 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 239) How are the pectoral girdles of the appendicular skeleton attached to the axial skeleton? (Module 7.16D) A) at the acromioclavicular joint B) at the glenohumoral joint C) at the glenosternal joint D) at the sternoclavicular joint E) at the glenoclavicular joint Answer: D Learning Outcome: 7.16 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 240) Identify the two rounded projections on either side of the elbow, and state to which bone they belong. (Module 7.17A) A) humerus; lateral malleolus and medial malleolus B) humerus; lateral and medial epicondyles C) ulna; lateral malleolus and medial malleolus D) ulna; lateral and medial epicondyles E) radius; lateral malleolus and medial malleolus Answer: B Learning Outcome: 7.17 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

241) Which bone of the forearm is positioned laterally when in the anatomical position? (Module 7.17B) A) humerus B) sternum C) clavicle D) radius E) ulna Answer: D Learning Outcome: 7.17 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 242) Name four different bone markings associated with the proximal portion of the ulna. (Module 7.17C) A) olecranon, trochlear notch, coronoid process, and radial notch B) trochlea, medial epicondyle, lateral epicondyle, coronoid fossa C) olecranon fossa, trochlea, greater tubercle, lesser tubercle D) ulnar notch, head of the ulna, olecranon, ulnar styloid process E) distal radio-ulnar notch, ulnar notch, interosseous membrane, radial notch Answer: A Learning Outcome: 7.17 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 243) Name the carpal bones. (Module 7.18A) A) scaphoid, lunate, triquetrum, pisiform, calcaneus, talus, navicular B) calcaneus, talus, navicular, cuboid, and three cuneiform bones C) scaphoid, lunate, triquetrum, pisiform, trapezium, trapezoid, capitate, hamate D) trapezium, trapezoid, capitate, hamate, phalanx, pollex E) hamate, phalanx, pollex, and three cuneiform bones Answer: C Learning Outcome: 7.18 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 244) Define phalanges. (Module 7.18B) A) Bones of the wrist. B) Bones that make up the shoulder. C) Bones of the hand. D) Bones that make up the fingers or toes. E) Bones that make up the ankle. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 7.18 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

245) Bill accidentally fractures his first distal phalanx with a hammer. Which finger is broken? (Module 7.18C) A) the tip of his pinky B) the tip of his ring finger C) the tip of his index finger D) the tip of his middle finger E) the tip of his thumb Answer: E Learning Outcome: 7.18 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 246) Which three bones fuse to make up the hip bone? (Module 7.19A) A) ischium, ilium, and pubis B) ilium, sacrum, and coccyx C) sacrum, coccyx, and pubis D) ischium, ilium, and acetabulum E) ilium, pelvis, and acetabulum Answer: A Learning Outcome: 7.19 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 247) Describe the acetabulum. (Module 7.19B) A) The acetabulum bears the body's weight when you are seated. B) The acetabulum is the smooth, cup-shaped articular surface. C) The acetabulum is a roughened area superior to the auricular surface where ligaments originate that stabilize the sacro-iliac joint. D) The acetabulum is the concave socket on that lateral aspect of the pelvis that articulates with the head of the femur. E) The acetabulum is a shallow depression that helps support the abdominal organs and provides additional area for muscle attachment. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 7.19 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 248) When you are seated, which part of the hip bone bears your body's weight? (Module 7.19C) A) ischial spine B) ischial tuberosity C) acetabulum D) iliac tuberosity E) iliac fossa Answer: B Learning Outcome: 7.19 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

249) Which bones articulate at the sacro-iliac joint? (Module 7.19D) A) sacrum and ischium B) sacrum and pubis C) sacrum and ilium D) ilium and ischium E) ilium and coccyx Answer: C Learning Outcome: 7.19 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 250) Name the bones of the pelvis. (Module 7.20A) A) sacrum and coccyx B) sacrum, coccyx, and the hip bones C) sacrum, coccyx, femur, and the hip bones D) coccyx and the hip bones E) lumbar vertebrae, coccyx, and the hip bones Answer: B Learning Outcome: 7.20 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 251) The pubic bones are joined anteriorly by what structure? (Module 7.20B) A) iliac symphysis B) pelvic brim C) ischial symphysis D) pubic symphysis E) pubic tubercle Answer: D Learning Outcome: 7.20 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 252) Identify the bones of the lower limb. (Module 7.22A) A) humerus, radius, and ulna B) femur, radius, and ulna C) femur, tibia, fibula, patella, tarsal bones, metatarsal bones, and phalanges D) femur, tibia, fibula, patella, carpal bones, metacarpal bones, and phalanges E) humerus, tibia, fibula, radius, ulna, patella Answer: C Learning Outcome: 7.22 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

253) Which structure articulates with the acetabulum? (Module 7.22B) A) tibial tuberosity B) intercondylar eminence C) gluteal tuberosity D) greater trochanter E) head of the femur Answer: E Learning Outcome: 7.22 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 254) Identify the sesamoid bone of the lower limb. (Module 7.22C) A) femur B) patella C) calcaneus D) fibula E) tibia Answer: B Learning Outcome: 7.22 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 255) Identify the tarsal bones. (Module 7.23A) A) scaphoid, lunate, triquetrum, pisiform, calcaneus, talus, navicular B) calcaneus, talus, navicular, cuboid, and three cuneiform bones C) scaphoid, lunate, triquetrum, pisiform, trapezium, trapezoid, capitate, hamate D) trapezium, trapezoid, capitate, hamate, phalanx, pollex E) hamate, phalanx, pollex, and three cuneiform bones Answer: B Learning Outcome: 7.23 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 256) Which foot bone transmits the weight of the body from the tibia toward the toes? (Module 7.23B) A) calcaneus B) navicular C) cuboid D) talus E) medial cuneiform Answer: D Learning Outcome: 7.23 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

257) Ten-year-old Joey jumps off the back porch, lands on his right heel, and breaks his foot. Which foot bone is most likely broken? (Module 7.23C) A) calcaneus B) navicular C) cuboid D) talus E) medial cuneiform Answer: A Learning Outcome: 7.23 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying Essay Questions 258) Crossing the field to take her outfield position for a neighborhood softball game, Molly is hit in the face by a wild practice pitch. The ball hits her squarely in the eye socket, shattering several bones, but miraculously only bruising her eyeball. Which bones might be affected? Answer: The bones that make up the eye socket are the frontal bone, lacrimal bone, zygomatic bone, ethmoid bone, and maxilla. Although not directly a part of the orbit, the nasal bones may also be affected. Learning Outcome: 7.7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 259) What role do the fontanelles play in infant development? Answer: These fibrous connective tissue structures fill in between the bones of the cranium in a newborn infant. As the brain grows, the skull bones can move apart and allow for brain growth without interfering with nervous system development and function. Learning Outcome: 7.9 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 260) Why are ruptured intervertebral discs more common in lumbar vertebrae and dislocations and fractures more common in cervical vertebrae? Answer: The lumbar vertebrae have massive bodies and carry a lot of weight; these factors contribute to the rupturing of an intervertebral disc. The cervical vertebrae are more delicate and have small bodies; these factors increase the possibility of dislocations and fractures in the cervical vertebrae. In addition, the cervical vertebrae are more mobile and are not as well protected. Learning Outcome: 7.11 Bloom's Taxonomy: Analyzing 261) Billy is injured during a high school football game. His chest is badly bruised and he is experiencing difficulty in breathing. What might the problem be? Answer: Billy has probably broken one or more of his ribs. Movement of the ribs changes the size of the thoracic cavity, which is an important part of breathing. When the ribs are broken, breathing can become difficult (labored) because of pain when the ribs are moved. Learning Outcome: 7.14 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 70

262) Why is it necessary for the bones of the pelvic girdle to be more massive than the bones of the pectoral girdle? Answer: The pelvic girdle must withstand the load of bearing and moving the entire body and supporting organs of the abdominopelvic cavity, whereas the pectoral girdle only supports the upper limbs. Learning Outcome: 7.19, 7.20, 7.21 Bloom's Taxonomy: Analyzing 263) What is the distinction between the false pelvis and the true pelvis? Answer: The true pelvis encloses the pelvic cavity and its superior limit is a line that extends from either side of the base of the sacrum, along the arcuate line and pectineal line to the pubic symphysis. The true pelvis also has all 3 bones while the false only has the ilium. The false pelvis consists of the expanded, bladelike portions of each ilium superior to the pelvic brim. Learning Outcome: 7.20 Bloom's Taxonomy: Analyzing 264) Describe the pelvic adaptations to childbearing in the female. Answer: These include: an enlarged pelvic outlet, a broader pubic angle, less curvature on the sacrum and coccyx, wider and more circular pelvic inlet, a relatively broad pelvis that does not extend as far superiorly, and ilia that project farther laterally, but do not extend as far superior to the sacrum. Learning Outcome: 7.21 Bloom's Taxonomy: Analyzing 265) To settle a bet, you need to measure the length of your lower limb (head of femur to distal condyle of tibia). What landmarks would you use to make the measurement? Answer: You could feel the inferior iliac notch, which is at the same level as the head of the femur. You could feel the medial malleolus of the tibia at the ankle. Learning Outcome: 7.22 Bloom's Taxonomy: Analyzing 266) Describe how the arches of the foot assist in weight distribution. Answer: The arches absorb shock as weight distribution shifts during movements. The longitudinal arch absorbs most of the shock of steps, while the transverse arch distributes the weight evenly. Learning Outcome: 7.23 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 267) What are the primary functions of the axial skeleton? (Module 7.1B) Answer: The axial skeleton provides a framework that supports and protects the brain, spinal cord, and organs in the body cavities of the trunk. It also provides surface area for the attachment of muscles. Learning Outcome: 7.1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

268) Describe the general roles of the muscles that attach to the axial skeleton. (Module 7.1C) Answer: The muscles that attach to the axial skeleton position the head, neck, and trunk; perform breathing movements; and stabilize or position the limbs. Learning Outcome: 7.1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 269) What are the functions of the paranasal sinuses? (Module 7.7B) Answer: The paranasal sinuses lighten the weight of the skull bones, allow the voice to resonate, and provide an extensive area of mucous epithelium. Learning Outcome: 7.7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 270) Explain why your lab partner is correct when she claims that the hyoid bone does not join directly with any other bone. (Module 7.8B) Answer: Your lab partner is correct because the hyoid bone does not join directly to any other bone; instead, it supports the larynx and is the attachment site for muscles of the larynx, pharynx, and tongue. Learning Outcome: 7.8 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 271) Describe the location and function of the auditory ossicles. (Module 7.8C) Answer: Three auditory ossicles are located within each middle ear cavity, found within the petrous part of the temporal bone. The ossicles play a key role in hearing by conducting vibrations produced by sound waves arriving at the tympanic membrane to the internal ear. Learning Outcome: 7.8 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 272) Why are an infant's facial bones so small compared with its cranium? (Module 7.9C) Answer: An infant's cranial bones are larger than the facial bones to accommodate the size of the brain. The facial bones develop after birth. Learning Outcome: 7.9 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 273) Why are the bodies of the lumbar vertebrae so large? (Module 7.12B) Answer: The lumbar vertebrae must support a great deal more weight than do vertebrae that are superior in the spinal column. The large vertebral bodies allow the weight to be distributed over a larger area. Learning Outcome: 7.12 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 274) What is the function of the pectoral and pelvic girdles? (Module 7.15B) Answer: The pectoral girdles attach the upper limbs to the axial skeleton. The pelvic girdles attach the lower limbs to the axial skeleton. Learning Outcome: 7.15 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

275) How would a broken clavicle affect the mobility and stability of the scapula? (Module 7.16B) Answer: The clavicle attaches the scapula to the sternum and restricts the scapula's range of motion (mobility). When the clavicle is broken, the scapula has a greater than normal range of motion and is less stable. Learning Outcome: 7.16 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 276) How does the female skull differ from the male skull? (Module 7.21A) Answer: Compared with the male skull, the female skull is lighter and smoother; it is about 10% smaller; the forehead is more vertical; the sinuses are smaller; the teeth are smaller; and the mandible is smaller, narrower, and less robust. Learning Outcome: 7.21 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 277) The fibula neither participates in the knee joint nor bears weight. Yet when it is fractured, walking becomes difficult. Why? (Module 7.22D) Answer: The fibula both stabilizes the ankle joint and is an important point of attachment for muscles that move the foot and toes. When the fibula is fractured, those muscle cannot function properly, so walking becomes difficult — and painful. Learning Outcome: 7.22 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying

Visual Anatomy and Physiology, 3e (Martini) Chapter 8 Joints Multiple Choice Questions 1) An immovable joint is a(n) A) synarthrosis. B) diarthrosis. C) amphiarthrosis. D) syndesmosis. E) symphysis. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 8.1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 2) A slightly movable joint is a(n) A) synarthrosis. B) diarthrosis. C) amphiarthrosis. D) gomphosis. E) synostosis. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 8.1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 3) A freely movable joint is a(n) A) synarthrosis. B) diarthrosis. C) amphiarthrosis. D) syndesmosis. E) symphysis. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 8.1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 4) A suture is an example of a(n) A) synarthrosis. B) syndesmosis. C) symphysis. D) diarthrosis. E) amphiarthrosis. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 8.1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

5) An epiphyseal line is an example of a A) gomphosis. B) synchondrosis. C) synostosis. D) symphysis. E) syndesmosis. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 8.1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 6) Dense connective tissue is to a suture as a periodontal ligament is to a(n) A) amphiarthrosis. B) syndesmosis. C) synostosis. D) synchondrosis. E) gomphosis. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 8.1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 7) A synovial joint is an example of a(n) A) synarthrosis. B) amphiarthrosis. C) diarthrosis. D) symphysis. E) syndesmosis. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 8.1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 8) A ligamentous connection such as an interosseous ligament is termed a A) syndesmosis. B) symphysis. C) synchondrosis. D) synostosis. E) gomphosis. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 8.1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

9) Which of the following is not one of the four major types of synarthrotic joints? A) suture B) gomphosis C) synchondrosis D) synostosis E) syndesmosis Answer: E Learning Outcome: 8.1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 10) Joints are classified by the A) range of motion. B) structure. C) type of movement. D) amount of cartilage present. E) All of the answers are correct. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 8.1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 11) The synarthrosis that binds the teeth to the bony sockets is a A) suture. B) gomphosis. C) synchondrosis. D) synostosis. E) None of the answers is correct. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 8.1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 12) Syndesmosis is to ligament as symphysis is to A) fibrocartilage. B) dense regular connective tissue. C) periodontal ligament. D) rigid cartilaginous bridge. E) completely fused. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 8.1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

13) The location where two bones meet is called a joint, or an A) adduction. B) appendix. C) amphiarthrosis. D) articulation. E) insertion. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 8.1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 14) Functionally, the public symphysis is classified as a(n) A) synarthrotic B) amphiarthrotic C) diarthrotic Answer: B Learning Outcome: 8.1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

articulation.

15) Which of the following is not a function of synovial fluid? A) shock absorption B) increasing osmotic pressure within joint C) lubrication D) providing nutrients E) protecting articular cartilages Answer: B Learning Outcome: 8.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 16) Which of the following is not a characteristic of articular cartilage? A) There is no perichondrium. B) The matrix contains more water than other cartilages. C) Surfaces are normally slick and smooth. D) It is composed of hyaline cartilage. E) It increases friction during movement. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 8.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 17) Bursae can be found in all of the following areas except A) tendons. B) ligaments. C) within connective tissue exposed to friction or pressure. D) around blood vessels. E) around many synovial joints. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 8.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 4

18) The surface of articular cartilage is A) slick. B) flat. C) smooth. D) rough. E) both slick and smooth. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 8.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 19) Which of the following is not considered to be an accessory synovial structure? A) fat pads B) menisci C) ligaments D) bursae E) synovial membrane Answer: E Learning Outcome: 8.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

Figure 8-1 20) Identify the structure at label "1." A) meniscus B) bursa C) articular cartilage D) synovial membrane E) joint cavity Answer: B Learning Outcome: 8.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 21) Identify the structure labeled "4." A) serous membrane B) synovial membrane C) meniscus D) periosteum E) intracapsular ligament Answer: C Learning Outcome: 8.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

22) Identify the structure labeled "5." A) serous membrane B) synovial membrane C) joint capsule D) periosteum E) intracapsular ligament Answer: E Learning Outcome: 8.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 23) Which structure acts as a cushion and consists of fibrocartilage? A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4 E) 5 Answer: D Learning Outcome: 8.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 24) What type of tissue occurs at the structure labeled "3"? A) fibrocartilage B) synovial membrane C) hyaline cartilage D) bone tissue E) dense connective tissue Answer: C Learning Outcome: 8.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 25) Which of the following is not a property of synovial joints? A) freely movable B) reinforced by accessory structures C) covered by a serous membrane D) contain synovial fluid E) covered by a capsule Answer: C Learning Outcome: 8.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

26) subdivide synovial cavities, channel the flow of synovial fluid, and allow for variations in the shapes of the articular surfaces. A) Cruciate ligaments B) Synovia C) Bursae D) Capsular ligaments E) Menisci Answer: E Learning Outcome: 8.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 27) Usually found outside the capsule, packing material for the joint. A) menisci B) fat pads C) patellar ligaments D) capsular ligaments E) tendons Answer: B Learning Outcome: 8.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

protect the articular cartilages and act as

28) Small pockets of synovial fluid that reduce friction and act as a shock absorber where ligaments and tendons rub against other tissues are called A) bursae. B) fat pads. C) articular cartilages. D) menisci. E) scapulae. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 8.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 29) The elbow joint is an example of a A) saddle B) plane C) condylar D) hinge E) pivot Answer: D Learning Outcome: 8.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

joint.

30) The joint between the trapezium and metacarpal bone of the thumb is an example of a joint. A) saddle B) plane C) condylar D) hinge E) pivot Answer: A Learning Outcome: 8.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 31) Which type of joint is found between the carpal bones? A) saddle B) plane C) hinge D) ball-and-socket E) pivot Answer: B Learning Outcome: 8.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 32) The joint that permits the greatest range of mobility of any joint in the body is the joint. A) hip B) shoulder C) elbow D) knee E) wrist Answer: B Learning Outcome: 8.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 33) The radiocarpal joint is a(n) A) saddle B) immovable C) hinge D) plane E) condylar Answer: E Learning Outcome: 8.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

joint.

34) The intercarpal articulations are A) saddle B) condylar C) hinge D) plane E) ball-and-socket Answer: D Learning Outcome: 8.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

joints.

35) The ankle joint is an example of a A) condylar B) saddle C) hinge D) ball-and-socket E) plane Answer: C Learning Outcome: 8.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

joint.

36) The joints that connect the four fingers with the metacarpal bones are _ A) condylar B) saddle C) pivot D) hinge E) ball-and-socket Answer: A Learning Outcome: 8.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 37) All of the following are structural classifications of synovial joints except A) hinge. B) plane. C) rolling. D) saddle. E) pivot. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 8.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

joints.

38) Which of the following is an example of a ball-and-socket joint? A) elbow B) knee C) ankle D) wrist E) hip Answer: E Learning Outcome: 8.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 39) A joint that permits only flexion and extension is a A) saddle B) hinge C) pivot D) plane E) ball-and-socket Answer: B Learning Outcome: 8.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

joint.

40) A movement away from the midline of the body is termed A) inversion. B) abduction. C) adduction. D) flexion. E) extension. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 8.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 41) Bending at the neck to look up at the starts would A) hyperextend B) hyperflex C) flex D) extend E) laterally flex Answer: A Learning Outcome: 8.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

the neck.

42) An extension past the anatomical position is known as A) double jointed. B) extension. C) flexion. D) rotation. E) hyperextension. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 8.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 43) Which of the following movements is a good example of abduction? A) opening the mouth B) turning the hand palm upward C) extreme backward bending of the head D) moving the hand toward the shoulder E) spreading the fingers Answer: E Learning Outcome: 8.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 44) Which of the following movements is a good example of flexion? A) opening the mouth B) turning the hand palm upward C) extreme backward bending of the head D) moving the hand toward the shoulder E) spreading the fingers Answer: D Learning Outcome: 8.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 45) Nodding your head "yes" is an example of A) lateral and medial rotation. B) circumduction. C) flexion and extension. D) pronation and supination. E) protraction and retraction. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 8.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

46) Lifting a stone with the tip of the foot is A) circumduction. B) eversion. C) inversion. D) plantar flexion. E) dorsiflexion. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 8.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 47) Which foot movement enables a ballerina to stand on her toes? A) dorsiflexion B) plantar flexion C) inversion D) rotation E) eversion Answer: B Learning Outcome: 8.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 48) The movements known as dorsiflexion and plantar flexion are limited to the A) radiocarpal joint. B) hip joint. C) glenohumeral. D) talocrural. E) sacroliliac. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 8.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 49) The two little girls who hold and move the rope in jump-rope are performing what action? A) dorsiflexion B) extension C) rotation D) plantar flexion E) circumduction Answer: E Learning Outcome: 8.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

50) Many gyms feature weightlifting machines called "adductor machines" that are used to strengthen the thighs. If you were to work out on one of these, what would you be doing? A) twisting both thighs to the left, then to the right B) lifting both thighs upward C) pushing both thighs outward, separating your knees as far as you can D) pulling both thighs inward toward a center point, bringing your knees together E) None of the answers is correct. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 8.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 51) To pinch with a thumb and finger involves a movement called A) rotation. B) opposition. C) circumduction. D) eversion. E) retraction. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 8.5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 52) A common injury to the ankle occurs by excessive turning of the sole inward, termed A) eversion. B) protraction. C) dorsiflexion. D) plantar flexion. E) inversion. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 8.5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 53) All of the following are associated with the joints of the vertebral column except A) syndesmoses. B) synchondroses. C) synovial. D) saddle joint. E) pivot joint. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 8.5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

54) A twisting motion of the foot that turns the sole of the foot outward is known as A) inversion. B) plantar flexion. C) eversion. D) dorsiflexion. E) None of the answers is correct. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 8.5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 55) Which of the following movements is a good example of depression? A) opening the mouth B) turning the hand palm upward C) extreme backward bending of the head D) moving the hand toward the shoulder E) spreading the fingers Answer: A Learning Outcome: 8.5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 56) Which of the following movements is a good example of supination? A) opening the mouth B) turning the hand palm upward C) extreme backward bending of the head D) moving the hand toward the shoulder E) spreading the fingers Answer: B Learning Outcome: 8.5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 57) Which of the following movements would you associate with chewing food? A) elevation B) abduction C) flexion D) pronation E) circumduction Answer: A Learning Outcome: 8.5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

58) The movement of rotating a limb toward the anterior surface of the body is called A) inversion. B) medial (internal) rotation. C) lateral (external) rotation. D) eversion. E) protraction. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 8.5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 59) The movement of rotating a limb outward is called A) inversion. B) medial (internal) rotation. C) lateral (external) rotation. D) eversion. E) protraction. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 8.5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 60) You your jaw when you grasp your upper lip with your lower teeth. A) invert B) evert C) adduct D) protract E) hyperextend Answer: D Learning Outcome: 8.5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 61) The movement of a body part upward is called A) eversion. B) elevation. C) depression. D) inversion. E) retraction. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 8.5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

62) The movement of a body part downward is called A) eversion. B) elevation. C) depression. D) inversion. E) retraction. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 8.5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 63) Which of the following is not a joint of the appendicular skeleton? A) atlanto-occipital B) talocrural C) knee D) humero-ulnar E) acromioclavicular Answer: A Learning Outcome: 8.6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 64) The joints between vertebrae are examples of A) saddle B) pivot C) condylar D) hinge E) plane Answer: E Learning Outcome: 8.7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 65) A herniated intervertebral disc is caused by A) loss of annulus fibrosis elasticity. B) slippage of the fibrocartilage disc. C) ossification of the vertebral disc. D) protrusion of the nucleus pulposus. E) transformation of fibrocartilage to hyaline cartilage. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 8.8 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

joints.

66) Which ligament connects the clavicle and the acromion? A) coracohumeral B) coraco-acromial C) coracoclavicular D) glenohumeral E) acromioclavicular Answer: E Learning Outcome: 8.9 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 67) Which of the following statements is false? A) Five major ligaments help stabilize the shoulder joint. B) The shapes of the articulating surfaces within the joint help prevent movement in a particular direction and strengthen and stabilize the joint. C) The tighter two bones are held together within a joint, the stronger the joint. D) The more movement a joint allows, the stronger the joint. E) The tension produced by muscle tendons surrounding a joint help stabilize the joint. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 8.9 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 68) Which of the following ligaments is not associated with the hip joint? A) iliofemoral ligament B) pubofemoral ligament C) ischiofemoral ligament D) ligamentum teres E) anterior cruciate ligament Answer: E Learning Outcome: 8.9 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 69) Which of the following ligaments assists in stabilizing the shoulder joint? A) coraco-acromial B) subscapularis C) coracoclavicular D) All of the answers are correct. E) both coraco-acromial and coracoclavicular Answer: E Learning Outcome: 8.9 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

70) A factor that does not increase the stability of the hip joint include A) strong muscular padding. B) tough capsule. C) almost complete bony socket. D) supporting ligaments. E) shallow socket. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 8.9 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 71) Which of the following athletes are at greatest risk of developing a shoulder injury? A) tennis players B) basketball players C) runners D) baseball pitchers E) golfers Answer: D Learning Outcome: 8.9 Bloom's Taxonomy: Analyzing 72) The glenoid fossa is rimmed by the fibrocartilaginous A) ligamentum flavum. B) glenoid labrum. C) nucleus pulposus. D) ligamentum teres. E) coracoid process. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 8.9 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 73) The shoulder joint, or joint, permits the greatest range of motion of any joint. A) acromioclavicular B) sacroiliac C) humero-ulnar D) glenohumeral E) vertebrocostal Answer: D Learning Outcome: 8.9 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

74) A rim of fibrocartilage in the joint cavity of the hip is called the A) greater trochanter. B) glenoid labrum. C) nucleus pulposus. D) acetabular labrum. E) ischial tuberosity. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 8.9 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 75) The elbow joint is extremely stable because A) the ulna and humerus interlock. B) the articular capsule is thin. C) the capsule lacks ligaments. D) several muscles support the joint capsule. E) the joint lacks bursae. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 8.10 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 76) Which of the following is improperly matched? A) nursemaid's elbow — iliofemoral ligament B) hyperextension of the knee — anterior cruciate ligament C) hyperflexion of the knee — posterior cruciate ligament D) shoulder separation — acromioclavicular ligament E) bulging disc — nucleus pulposus Answer: A Learning Outcome: 8.10 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 77) The ligament that provides support to the front of the knee joint is the _ A) anterior cruciate B) posterior cruciate C) patellar D) popliteal E) tibial collateral Answer: C Learning Outcome: 8.10 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

ligament.

78) The back of the knee joint is reinforced by A) tibial collateral B) anterior cruciate C) posterior cruciate D) patellar E) popliteal Answer: E Learning Outcome: 8.10 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

ligaments.

79) The medial surface of the knee joint is reinforced by the A) cruciate B) fibular collateral C) patellar D) popliteal E) tibial collateral Answer: E Learning Outcome: 8.10 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

ligament.

80) The largest and strongest articulation at the elbow is the A) humero-ulnar joint. B) ulnar joint. C) ulnoradial joint. D) radial joint. E) humeroradial joint. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 8.10 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 81) The ligaments that limit the anterior-posterior movement of the femur and maintain the alignment of the femoral and tibial condyles are the ligaments. A) cruciate B) fibular collateral C) patellar D) popliteal E) tibial collateral Answer: A Learning Outcome: 8.10 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

82) Muscles that extend the elbow attach to the A) coronoid process. B) radial tuberosity. C) olecranon process. D) medial epicondyle. E) lateral epicondyle. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 8.10 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 83) Contraction of the muscle that is attached to the radial tuberosity results in A) flexion of the forearm. B) extension of the forearm. C) abduction of the forearm. D) adduction of the forearm. E) rotation of the shoulder. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 8.10 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 84) Which of the following does not help stabilize the knee joint? A) anterior cruciate ligament B) medial collateral ligament C) posterior cruciate ligament D) iliofemoral ligament E) popliteal ligament Answer: D Learning Outcome: 8.10 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 85) Which of the following does not occur when the articular cartilage is damaged? A) The matrix begins to break down. B) The exposed surface changes to a rougher feltwork. C) Friction in the joint decreases. D) Increase in pain. E) Normal synovial joint function is compromised. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 8.11 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

86) is a general term for pain and stiffness that affects the skeletal or muscular system. A) Articulitis B) Rheumatism C) Osteoporosis D) Rheumatic fever E) Rheumatitis Answer: B Learning Outcome: 8.11 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 87) is also known as degenerative joint disease. A) Atherosclerosis B) Rheumatism C) Osteoporosis D) Osteoarthritis E) Osteopenia Answer: D Learning Outcome: 8.11 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 88) Arthritis always involves damage to A) synovial membranes. B) diarthroses. C) menisci. D) bursae. E) articular cartilage. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 8.11 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 89) Define range of motion (ROM). (Module 8.1A) A) Range of motion is the amount of movement at a joint. B) Range of motion refers to joints that are biaxial and triaxial compared to monoaxial. C) Range of motion is the degree of circumduction in ball and socket joints. D) Range of motion refers to the degree of muscle contraction. E) Range of motion is the extent a muscle can contract without pain. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 8.1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

90) Which structural category of joints allows for the greatest range of motion? (Module 8.1B) A) fibrous B) cartilaginous C) synovial D) gomphosis E) suture Answer: C Learning Outcome: 8.1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 91) Describe the types of motion possible at a synovial joint. (Module 8.3A) A) swinging, opening, closing, and spinning B) opening, closing, sliding, and breaking C) spinning, bending, extending, and planar D) gliding, angular, circumduction, and rotation E) monoaxial and biaxial Answer: D Learning Outcome: 8.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 92) Identify the types of synovial joints. (Module 8.3B) A) finger, elbow, knee, saddle and ball-and-socket joint B) plane, hinge, pivot, condylar, saddle, and ball-and-socket joint C) dovetail, finger, tongue-in-grove, and extension joint D) bridle, stifle, girdle, and pivot joint E) pivot, hinge, finger, saddle, stifle, and extension joint Answer: B Learning Outcome: 8.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 93) Which type of synovial joint permits the greatest range of motion? (Module 8.3C) A) pivot B) condylar C) saddle D) plane E) ball-and-socket Answer: E Learning Outcome: 8.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

94) Name the type of synovial joint for each of the following: shoulder, elbow, ankle, and thumb. (Module 8.3D) A) shoulder: ball-and-socket; elbow: hinge; ankle: plane; thumb: saddle. B) shoulder: ball-and-socket; elbow: plane; ankle: condylar; thumb: plane C) shoulder: saddle; elbow: hinge; ankle: pivot; thumb: plane D) shoulder: condylar; elbow: plane; ankle: hinge; thumb; hinge E) shoulder: ball-and-socket; elbow: hinge; ankle: condylar; thumb: hinge Answer: A Learning Outcome: 8.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 95) Which movements are possible at hinge joints? (Module 8.4A) A) rotation and circumduction B) adduction and abduction C) pronation and supination D) flexion and extension E) rotation and adduction Answer: D Learning Outcome: 8.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 96) Compare dorsiflexion and plantar flexion. (Module 8.4B) A) Dorsiflexion is movement toward the longitudinal axis of the body in the frontal plane. Plantar flexion is movement away from the longitudinal axis of the body in the frontal plane. B) Dorsiflexion is movement away from the longitudinal axis of the body in the frontal plane. Plantar flexion is movement toward the longitudinal axis of the body in the frontal plane. C) Dorsiflexion is upward movement of the foot or toes. Plantar flexion extends the ankle joint and bends the foot or toes down, as in standing on tiptoes. D) Dorsiflexion extends the ankle joint and bends the foot or toes down, as in standing on tiptoes. Plantar flexion is upward movement of the foot or toes. E) Dorsiflexion is moving the digits away from midline. Plantar flexion is moving the digits toward midline. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 8.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 97) When a person does jumping jacks, which limb movements are necessary? (Module 8.4C) A) rotation and circumduction B) adduction and abduction C) pronation and supination D) flexion and extension E) rotation and adduction Answer: B Learning Outcome: 8.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

98) What movements are made possible by the rotation of the head of the radius? (Module 8.5A) A) rotation and circumduction B) adduction and abduction C) pronation and supination D) flexion and extension E) rotation and adduction Answer: C Learning Outcome: 8.5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 99) Snapping your fingers involves what movement of the thumb? (Module 8.5B) A) Snapping involves retraction at the thumb and protraction at the third metacarpophalangeal joint. B) Snapping involves protraction at the thumb and retraction at the third metacarpophalangeal joint. C) Snapping involves opposition at the thumb and extension at the third metacarpophalangeal joint. D) Snapping involves opposition at the thumb and flexion at the third metacarpophalangeal joint. E) Snapping involves opposition at the thumb and inversion at the third metacarpophalangeal joint. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 8.5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 100) What hand movements occur when a person wriggles into tight-fitting gloves? (Module 8.5C) A) protraction, supination, and pronation B) retraction, pronation, and inversion C) protraction, retraction, and eversion D) depression, protraction, and eversion E) opposition, elevation, and supination Answer: A Learning Outcome: 8.5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 101) Describe the relationship between joint strength and mobility. (Module 8.6A) A) A joint that is strong is also very mobile. B) A joint that is strong is not very mobile. C) There is no relationship between joint strength and mobility in healthy individuals. D) In older individuals, joints are not strong but are more mobile, whereas in younger individuals, joints are strong and also mobile. E) In older individuals, joints are strong and also mobile, whereas in younger individuals, joints are not strong but are more mobile. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 8.6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 26

102) Which division of the skeleton has the greater range of motion? (Module 8.6B) A) axial B) appendicular Answer: B Learning Outcome: 8.6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 103) Which joint attaches the pectoral girdle and upper limb to the axial skeleton? (Module 8.6C) A) sacro-iliac joint B) intervertebral joints C) sternoclavicular joint D) atlanto-occipital joint E) sacrococcygeal joint Answer: C Learning Outcome: 8.6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 104) Name the joints in which the sacrum participates. (Module 8.6D) A) atlanto-sacral, lumbosacral, and intercoccygeal joints B) sacro-iliac, sternoclavicular, and sternosacral joints C) pubic symphysis and temporomandibular joints D) sacro-iliac, lumbosacral, and sacrococcygeal joints E) sacrococcygeal and intercoccygeal joints Answer: D Learning Outcome: 8.6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 105) Describe the nucleus pulposus and annulus fibrosus of an intervertebral disc. (Module 8.7A) A) The nucleus pulposus is a soft, elastic, gelatinous core and the annulus fibrosus is a tough outer ring of fibrocartilage. B) The nucleus pulposus is a soft, elastic, outer ring and the annulus fibrosus is a tough inner core of fibrocartilage. C) The nucleus pulposus is a tough outer ring of fibrocartilage and the annulus fibrosus is a soft, elastic, gelatinous core. D) The nucleus pulposus is a tough inner core of fibrocartilage and the annulus fibrosus is a soft, elastic, outer ring. E) The nucleus pulposus connects the spinous processes of two adjacent vertebrae and the annulus fibrosus is the fibrocartilage disc. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 8.7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

106) Name the primary vertebral ligaments. (Module 8.7B) A) posterior longitudinal ligament and anterior longitudinal ligament B) infraspinous ligament and supraspinous ligament C) paired ligamenta flava, posterior longitudinal ligament, interspinous ligament, supraspinous ligament, and anterior longitudinal ligament D) paired ligamenta flava, anterior cruciate ligament, posterior cruciate ligament, medial cruciate ligament, and lateral cruciate ligament E) infraspinous ligament, supraspinous ligament, medial collateral ligament, lateral collateral ligament, and annular ligament Answer: C Learning Outcome: 8.7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 107) Which structures provide most of the stability for the shoulder joint? (Module 8.9A) A) deltoid bursa, biceps brachii muscle, and associated tendons and ligaments B) acetabular labrum, transverse acetabular ligament, and the ligamentum teres C) subdeltoid bursa, articular capsule, and the glenoid articular cartilage D) medial and lateral menisci, acromioclavicular joint, and associated tendons and ligaments E) glenoid labrum, rotator cuff muscles, and associated tendons and ligaments Answer: E Learning Outcome: 8.9 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 108) At what site are the iliofemoral ligament, pubofemoral ligament, and ischiofemoral ligament located? (Module 8.9B) A) at the elbow joint B) at the hip joint C) at the knee joint D) at the shoulder joint E) at the intervertebral joints Answer: B Learning Outcome: 8.9 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 109) Which ligaments stabilize the medial and lateral surfaces of the elbow joint? (Module 8.10A) A) annular ligament and popliteal ligament B) medial cruciate ligament and lateral cruciate ligament C) radial collateral ligament and ulnar collateral ligament D) tibial collateral ligament and fibular collateral ligament E) medial meniscular ligament and lateral meniscular ligament Answer: C Learning Outcome: 8.10 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

110) Which ligament is a severely hyperextended knee more likely to damage: the ACL or the PCL? (Module 8.10C) A) ACL B) PCL Answer: A Learning Outcome: 8.10 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying Essay Questions 111) The triceps brachii attaches to the olecranon process. When the triceps brachii muscle contracts, what movements does it produce? Answer: Contraction of the triceps brachii muscle causes the ulna to rotate around the distal humerus, causing extension of the forearm. Learning Outcome: 8.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 112) Why is the inferior region of the shoulder joint most vulnerable to dislocation? Answer: The anterior, superior, and posterior surfaces of the shoulder joint are reinforced by ligaments, muscles, and tendons, but the inferior capsule is poorly reinforced. As a result, a dislocation caused by an impact or a violent muscle contraction is most likely to occur at this site. Such a dislocation can tear the inferior capsular wall and the glenoid labrum. Learning Outcome: 8.9 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 113) How are osteoarthritis and rheumatism different? Answer: Osteoarthritis is a "wear-and-tear" disease seen usually in the elderly. Rheumatism is a general term that includes all types of diseases that cause joint or muscle pain. Osteoarthritis is one of many types of rheumatism. Learning Outcome: 8.11 Bloom's Taxonomy: Analyzing 114) Describe the key components of a synovial joint, and identify their functions. (Module 8.2A) Answer: The key components of a synovial joint are a fibrous joint (articular) capsule, which surrounds the joint; articular cartilage, which resembles hyaline cartilage and covers the articulating bone surfaces; a synovial membrane, which lines the articular capsule and secretes synovial fluid that lubricates, distributes nutrients, and absorbs shocks; and a joint cavity that is filled with synovial fluid. Learning Outcome: 8.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

115) Describe the accessory structures of complex synovial joints and identify their functions. (Module 8.2B) Answer: Accessory structures include bursae, which are pockets filled with synovial fluid that reduce friction and absorb shocks; fat pads, which protect the articular cartilage; menisci, which are fibrocartilage articular discs that allow for variation in the shapes of the articulating surfaces; ligaments, which are cords of fibrous tissue that support, strengthen, and reinforce the joint; and tendons, which pass across or around a joint, limit the range of motion, and provide mechanical support. Learning Outcome: 8.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 116) Why would improper circulation of synovial fluid cause degeneration of articular cartilages in the affected joint? (Module 8.2C) Answer: Articular cartilage lacks a blood supply and thus relies on synovial fluid to supply nutrients and remove wastes. If the circulation of synovial fluid were impaired, the cartilage would no longer receive nutrients, and wastes would accumulate. This could cause the cartilage to degenerate, and cells in the tissue may die. Learning Outcome: 8.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 117) Compare a bulging disc with a herniated disc. (Module 8.8A) Answer: A bulging disc is an intervertebral disc that is displaced or partly protruding as a result of a compressed nucleus pulposus that distorts the annulus fibrosus. In a herniated disc, the nucleus pulposus breaks through the annulus fibrosus, causing it to protrude into the vertebral canal. Learning Outcome: 8.8 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 118) What common age-related factors contribute to vertebral fractures in the elderly?(Module 8.8B) Answer: Age-related fractures that may lead to vertebral fractures include reduced cushioning by intervertebral discs due to water loss (disc degeneration) and inadequate ossification due to osteopenia. Osteoporosis is a further complicating factor. Learning Outcome: 8.8 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 119) A football player is pushed out of bounds from behind. He falls onto his outstretched hand, pushing the humeral head forcefully upward. Which joint and ligaments are affected? (Module 8.9C) Answer: The upward force of the head of the humerus could cause partial or complete dislocation of the acromioclavicular joint. This is called a shoulder separation. The bones involved include the clavicle, scapula, and humerus, and the stabilizing ligaments involved are the coracoclavicular; acromioclavicular; coraco-acromial, coracohumeral, and glenohumeral ligaments. Learning Outcome: 8.9 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 30

120) What signs and symptoms would you expect in a person who has damaged the menisci of the knee joint? (Module 8.10B) Answer: Damage to the menisci of the knee joint decreases the joint's lateral stability, so the person would have difficulty locking the knee in place while standing and would have to use muscle contractions to stabilize the joint. If the person had to stand for a long time, the muscles would fatigue, and the knee would "give out." It is also likely that the person would feel pain. Learning Outcome: 8.10 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 121) Compare rheumatism with osteoarthritis. (Module 8.11A) Answer: Rheumatism is a general term describing any painful condition of joints, muscles, or both that is not caused by infection or injury. Osteoarthritis is a form of rheumatism characterized by degeneration of the joint cartilage and the underlying bone. Osteoarthritis results from cumulative wear and tear or genetic factors affecting collagen formation. Learning Outcome: 8.11 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 122) What can a person do to slow the progression of arthritis? (Module 8.11B) Answer: A person can slow the progression of arthritis by engaging in regular exercise, doing physical therapy, and taking anti-inflammatory drugs. Learning Outcome: 8.11 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

Visual Anatomy and Physiology, 3e (Martini) Chapter 9 Skeletal Muscle Tissue Multiple Choice Questions 1) Which of the following is not a recognized function of skeletal muscle? A) produce movement B) maintain posture C) maintain body temperature D) guard body entrances and exits E) controlled involuntarily Answer: E Learning Outcome: 9.1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 2) Which of the following statements is incorrect? A) The contractions of skeletal muscles pull on tendons and move bones of the skeleton. B) Skeletal muscles store nutrient reserves. C) Skeletal muscles are responsible for the pumping action of the heart. D) Skeletal muscles support the weight of some internal organs. E) Skeletal muscle contractions help maintain body temperature. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 9.1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 3) Muscle tissue, one of the four basic tissue groups, consists chiefly of cells that are highly specialized for A) conduction. B) contraction. C) peristalsis. D) cushioning. E) None of the answers is correct. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 9.1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 4) The dense layer of connective tissue that surrounds an entire skeletal muscle is the A) tendon. B) epimysium. C) endomysium. D) perimysium. E) fascicle. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 9.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

5) Nerves and blood vessels that service the muscle fibers are located in the connective tissues of the A) endomysium. B) perimysium. C) sarcolemma. D) sarcomere. E) myofibrils. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 9.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 6) The delicate connective tissue that surrounds the skeletal muscle fibers and ties adjacent muscle fibers together is the A) endomysium. B) perimysium. C) epimysium. D) superficial fascia. E) periosteum. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 9.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 7) The bundle of collagen fibers at the end of a skeletal muscle that attaches the muscle to bone is called a(n) A) fascicle. B) tendon. C) ligament. D) epimysium. E) myofibril. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 9.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 8) Muscle fibers differ from "typical cells" in that muscle fibers A) lack a plasma membrane. B) have many nuclei. C) are very small. D) lack mitochondria. E) All of the answers are correct. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 9.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

9) The advantage of having many nuclei in a skeletal muscle fiber is the ability to A) contract. B) produce more ATP with little oxygen. C) store extra DNA for metabolism. D) produce large amounts of the muscle proteins needed for muscle contraction. E) All of the answers are correct. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 9.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 10) Skeletal muscle fibers are formed from embryonic cells called A) sarcomeres. B) myofibrils. C) myoblasts. D) fascicles. E) myomeres. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 9.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 11) At each end of the muscle, the collagen fibers of the epimysium, and each perimysium and endomysium, come together to form a A) tendon. B) satellite cell. C) ligament. D) tenosynovium. E) sheath. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 9.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 12) Individual muscle cells are surrounded by what connective tissue? A) endomysium B) perimysium C) sarcolemma D) sarcomere E) myofibrils Answer: A Learning Outcome: 9.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

13) are stem cells located between the endomysium and sarcolemma that function in the repair of damaged muscle tissue. A) Myosatellite cells B) Myofilaments C) Myofibrils D) Multinucleate cells E) Myoblasts Answer: A Learning Outcome: 9.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 14) The plasma membrane of skeletal muscle is called the A) sarcolemma. B) sarcomere. C) sarcosome. D) sarcoplasmic reticulum. E) sarcoplasm. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 9.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 15) Which of the following best describes the sarcoplasmic reticulum? A) protein that accounts for elasticity of resting muscle B) repeating unit of striated myofibrils C) storage and release site for calcium ions D) thin filaments are anchored here E) largely made of myosin molecules Answer: C Learning Outcome: 9.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 16) The repeating contractile unit of a skeletal muscle fiber is the A) sarcolemma. B) sarcomere. C) sarcoplasmic reticulum. D) myofibril. E) myofilament. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 9.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

17) Each skeletal muscle fiber contains A) 50 to 100 B) 100 to 150 C) 150 to 200 D) 200 to 500 E) hundreds to thousands Answer: E Learning Outcome: 9.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

myofibrils.

18) The region of the sarcomere containing the thick and thin filaments is the A) Z line. B) M line. C) H band. D) A band. E) I band. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 9.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 19) The region of the sarcomere that always contains only thin filaments is the A) Z line. B) M line. C) H band. D) A band. E) I band. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 9.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 20) The area in the center of the A band that contains no thin filaments is the A) Z line. B) M line. C) H band. D) I band. E) zone of overlap. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 9.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

21) The skeletal muscle complex known as the triad consists of A) actin, myosin, and sarcomeres. B) a transverse tubule and two terminal cisternae. C) filaments, myofibrils, and muscle fibers. D) A bands, H bands, and I bands. E) a terminal cisterna and two transverse tubules. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 9.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

Figure 9-1 22) Which of the following is not found in the structure labeled "3"? A) actin B) myosin C) titin D) tropomyosin E) mitochondria Answer: E Learning Outcome: 9.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 23) Where are the myosin molecules located? A) 4 B) 5 C) 6 D) 7 E) 8 Answer: B Learning Outcome: 9.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

24) Identify the structures labeled "1." A) mitochondria B) glycogen C) ATP D) myofibril E) synaptic vesicle Answer: A Learning Outcome: 9.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 25) What is released from the structure labeled "9"? A) sodium B) acetylcholine C) proteins D) calcium ions E) acetylcholinesterase Answer: D Learning Outcome: 9.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 26) Where would calcium ions be predominately found? A) 1 B) 2 C) 4 D) 8 E) 9 Answer: E Learning Outcome: 9.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 27) What physiological process occurs in the structure labeled "7"? A) release of acetylcholine B) conduction of the action potential toward the triad C) acetylcholinesterase breakdown of acetylcholine D) release of proteins into the muscle fiber E) the sliding of actin and myosin filaments Answer: B Learning Outcome: 9.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

28) Identify the structure where ATP is produced. A) 6 B) 7 C) 1 D) 3 E) 2 Answer: C Learning Outcome: 9.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 29) Where is ATP is consumed? A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 7 E) 8 Answer: C Learning Outcome: 9.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 30) Which statement about the microscopic anatomy of skeletal muscle fibers is not true? A) Tubular extensions of the sarcolemma penetrate the fiber transversely. B) Cross striations result from the lateral alignment of thick and thin filaments. C) Each fiber has many nuclei. D) Muscle fibers are continuous from tendon to tendon. E) Multiple myofibrils link end-to-end along length of the muscle cell. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 9.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 31) The complex of a transverse tubule and two adjacent terminal cisternae is known as a(n) A) free head. B) zone of overlap. C) M line. D) triad. E) sarcomere. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 9.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

32) Interactions between actin and myosin filaments of the sarcomere are responsible for A) muscle fatigue. B) the conduction of neural stimulation to the muscle fiber. C) muscle contraction. D) muscle relaxation. E) the striped appearance of skeletal muscle. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 9.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 33) In a sarcomere, thick filaments are linked laterally by proteins of the A) Z line. B) M line. C) H band. D) A band. E) I band. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 9.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 34) Which of the following best describes the term "Z line"? A) protein that accounts for elasticity of resting muscle B) repeating unit of striated myofibrils C) storage site for calcium ions D) where thin filaments are anchored E) largely made of myosin molecules Answer: D Learning Outcome: 9.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 35) Each thin filament consists of A) two protein strands coiled helically around each other. B) chains of myosin molecules. C) six molecules in a rod-like structure. D) a rod-shaped structure with "heads" projecting from each end. E) a double strand of myosin molecules. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 9.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

36) Which of the following best describes the term titin? A) substance that accounts for elasticity of resting muscle B) repeating unit of striated myofibrils C) storage site for calcium ions D) where thin filaments are anchored E) largely made of myosin molecules Answer: A Learning Outcome: 9.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 37) At rest, active sites on the actin are blocked by A) myosin molecules. B) troponin molecules. C) tropomyosin molecules. D) calcium ions. E) ATP molecules. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 9.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 38) At rest, the tropomyosin molecule is held in place by A) actin molecules. B) myosin molecules. C) troponin molecules. D) ATP molecules. E) calcium ions. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 9.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 39) Which of the following proteins is not found as a part of thin filaments? A) actin B) tropomyosin C) troponin D) nebulin E) titin Answer: E Learning Outcome: 9.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

40) Physical evidence that supports the sliding filament theory of muscle contraction includes A) constant distance between Z lines during contraction. B) decreased width of the H band during contraction. C) increased width of the I band during contraction. D) decreased width of the A band during contraction. E) the I band and H band distance is constant during contraction. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 9.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 41) When a skeletal muscle fiber contracts, which of the following does not occur? A) The H bands and I bands get smaller. B) The zones of overlap get larger. C) The Z lines get closer together. D) The width of the A band remains constant. E) Myosin and actin filaments decrease in length. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 9.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 42) Since each myofibril is attached at either end of the muscle fiber, when sarcomeres shorten, the muscle fiber A) lengthens. B) shortens. C) strengthens. D) weakens. E) There is insufficient information to determine the answer. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 9.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 43) The structural explanation of how a muscle fiber contracts is called the A) myosin spiral theory. B) thin filament theory. C) sliding filament theory. D) cross-bridge connection. E) active site rule. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 9.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

44) Cross-bridges are portions of A) actin molecules. B) myosin molecules. C) troponin molecules. D) tropomyosin molecules. E) calcium ions. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 9.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 45) Cellular membrane potential is measured in A) milliseconds. B) micrometers. C) Hertz. D) millivolts. E) amperes. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 9.5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 46) Membrane potential is A) a chemical signal that has not yet bound to a receptor. B) a cell's capacity to respond to a chemical signal. C) the electrical gradient of a cell. D) the site of signal transfer between two cells. E) the period when the membrane cannot respond to another stimulus. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 9.5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 47) Which of the following is an ion that is more concentrated inside the cell than outside? A) sodium B) chloride C) hydrogen D) calcium E) potassium Answer: E Learning Outcome: 9.5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

48) The Na+/K+ ion pump is responsible for A) diffusing chloride across the plasma membrane. B) transferring messages from enzyme-linked receptors to the cell nucleus. C) maintaining the sodium/potassium concentration gradients constant. D) initiating action potentials. E) amplifying signals using ATP. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 9.5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 49) Na+ and K+ both use to passively diffuse across the plasma membrane. A) facilitated diffusion B) exocytosis C) voltage-gated channels D) leak channels E) carrier-mediated transport Answer: D Learning Outcome: 9.5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 50) During the phase of action potential development, voltage-gated sodium channels are open. A) repolarization B) depolarization C) refractory D) threshold Answer: B Learning Outcome: 9.5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 51) If potassium channels were blocked, the occur normally. A) repolarization B) depolarization C) refractory D) threshold Answer: A Learning Outcome: 9.5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Analyzing

phase of the action potential would not

52) If the membrane potential of a neuron is -80 mV, it is A) at resting potential. B) at threshold. C) depolarized. D) repolarized. E) hyperpolarized during the refractory period Answer: E Learning Outcome: 9.5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 53) Neurons and have electrically excitable membranes that propagate action potentials. A) osteocytes B) muscle cells C) epithelial cells D) proteins E) dense connective tissue Answer: B Learning Outcome: 9.5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 54) Which of the following statements is not true about action potentials? A) They can travel long distances within cells. B) They occur in neurons. C) They end in repolarization. D) They can be generated in less than 2 msec. E) They can travel in two directions. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 9.5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 55) Each skeletal muscle fiber is controlled by a motor neuron at a single A) synaptic knob. B) sarcomere. C) neuromuscular junction. D) synaptic cleft. E) transverse tubule. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 9.6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

56) The narrow space between the synaptic terminal and the muscle fiber is the A) synaptic knob. B) motor end plate. C) motor unit. D) synaptic cleft. E) M line. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 9.6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 57) Receptors for acetylcholine are located on the A) synaptic knob. B) motor end plate. C) sarcomere. D) synaptic cleft. E) transverse tubule. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 9.6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 58) The action potential is conducted into a skeletal muscle fiber by A) motor end plates. B) neuromuscular junctions. C) transverse tubules. D) triads. E) sarcoplasmic reticulum. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 9.6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 59) In response to action potentials arriving along the transverse tubules, the sarcoplasmic reticulum releases A) acetylcholine. B) sodium ions. C) potassium ions. D) calcium ions. E) hydrogen ions. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 9.6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

60) Synaptic vesicles containing neurotransmitters are released by potential arrives. A) endocytosis B) apoptosis C) exocytosis D) hydrolysis E) sodium Answer: C Learning Outcome: 9.6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

_ when the action

61) The cytoplasm of the neuromuscular synaptic terminal contains vesicles filled with molecules of the neurotransmitter A) epinephrine. B) norepinephrine. C) acetylcholine. D) antidiuretic hormone. E) acetylcholinesterase. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 9.6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 62) When acetylcholine binds to receptors at the motor end plate, the end plate membrane becomes A) more permeable to sodium ions. B) less permeable to sodium ions. C) more permeable to calcium ions. D) less permeable to potassium ions. E) repolarized. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 9.6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 63) Triggering of the muscle action potential occurs after A) acetylcholine binds to chemically gated channels in the motor end plate membrane. B) acetylcholinesterase binds to receptors on the end plate. C) calcium ion binds to channels on the end plate. D) the nerve action potential jumps across the neuromuscular junction. E) Any of these actions can produce an action potential in the muscle cell. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 9.6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

64) How would a drug that blocks acetylcholine receptors at the motor end plate affect skeletal muscle? A) It would make the muscles more excitable. B) It would produce uncontrolled muscle spasms. C) It would cause spastic paralysis (muscles are contracted and unable to relax). D) It would cause flaccid paralysis (muscles are relaxed and unable to contract). E) It would have little effect on skeletal muscles. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 9.6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Analyzing 65) How would the loss of acetylcholinesterase from the motor end plate affect skeletal muscle? A) It would make the muscles less excitable. B) It would produce muscle weakness. C) It would cause spastic paralysis (muscles are contracted and unable to relax). D) It would cause flaccid paralysis (muscles are relaxed and unable to contract). E) It would have little effect on skeletal muscles. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 9.6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Analyzing 66) Which process employs exocytosis? A) facilitated diffusion B) chemical synapse C) depolarization D) antagonist binding E) cross-bridge formation Answer: B Learning Outcome: 9.6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 67) Excitation-contraction coupling is the A) sliding of thin filaments past thick filaments during muscle fiber contraction. B) refractory period of an action potential. C) threshold period of an action potential. D) sequence of processes that links the action potential to contraction. E) transfer of ACh into the synaptic cleft. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 9.6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

68) Communication between axons and muscle fibers occurs at specialized synapses called A) junctional folds. B) neuromuscular junctions. C) motor end plates. D) active sites. E) Z lines. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 9.6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 69) When calcium ion binds to troponin, A) tropomyosin moves into the groove between the helical actin strands. B) active sites on the myosin are exposed. C) troponin shifts to expose the active sites on actin. D) muscle relaxation occurs. E) myosin shortens. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 9.7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 70) The most important factor in decreasing the intracellular concentration of calcium ion after contraction is A) active transport of calcium across the sarcolemma. B) active transport of calcium back into the sarcoplasmic reticulum. C) active transport of calcium into the synaptic cleft. D) diffusion of calcium out of the cell. E) diffusion of calcium into the sarcoplasmic reticulum. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 9.7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 71) Which of the following become connected by myosin cross-bridges during muscle contraction? A) thin filaments and thick filaments B) thick filaments and titin filaments C) Z disks and actin filaments D) thick filaments and T tubules E) thin filaments and T tubules Answer: A Learning Outcome: 9.7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

72) Which of the following acts as an ATPase during the contraction cycle of muscle? A) actin molecules B) troponin molecules C) tropomyosin molecules D) the head portion of the myosin molecule E) the tail portion of the myosin molecule Answer: D Learning Outcome: 9.7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 73) Which of the following is greater? A) the concentration of calcium ion in the sarcoplasm of a resting muscle B) the concentration of calcium ion in the sarcoplasmic reticulum of a resting muscle Answer: B Learning Outcome: 9.7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 74) Which statement about excitation-contraction coupling is incorrect? A) Calcium ion is released from the transverse tubule. B) Calcium ion is released from the sarcoplasmic reticulum. C) Tropomyosin moves to expose myosin binding sites on actin. D) Troponin binds calcium ion and signals tropomyosin to move. E) Relaxation requires uptake of calcium ions by the sarcoplasmic reticulum. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 9.8 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 75) The rapid rise and fall in force produced by a muscle fiber after a single action potential is a(n) A) tetanus. B) unfused tetanus. C) twitch. D) end plate potential. E) muscle action potential. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 9.9 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 76) Calcium ions are bound to troponin during which of the following steps. A) latent period B) contraction phase C) recovery phase D) the first 2 msec following stimulation E) None of the answers is correct. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 9.9 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 19

77) The synchronous contraction of a single motor unit is known as a(n) A) twitch. B) asynchronous motor unit summation. C) cross-bridge. D) fasciculation. E) muscle action potential. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 9.9 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 78) When a muscle is stimulated repeatedly at a high rate, eliminating a relaxation phase, the amount of tension gradually increases to a steady maximum tension. This is called A) incomplete tetanus. B) complete tetanus. C) a twitch. D) wave summation. E) recruitment. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 9.10 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 79) A muscle producing tension that peaks but falls to only intermediate stimulus rates is said to be in A) incomplete tetanus. B) complete tetanus. C) treppe. D) wave summation. E) recruitment. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 9.10 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 80) If a second stimulus arrives before the relaxation phase has ended, a second, more powerful contraction occurs. This is called A) incomplete tetanus. B) complete tetanus. C) treppe. D) wave summation. E) recruitment. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 9.10 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

81) A single motor neuron together with all the muscle fibers it innervates is called a(n) A) end foot. B) end plate. C) motor unit. D) dermatome. E) myotome. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 9.10 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 82) The increase in muscle tension that is produced by increasing the number of active motor units is called A) incomplete tetanus. B) complete tetanus. C) treppe. D) wave summation. E) recruitment. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 9.10 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 83) Muscular force can be adjusted to match increased loads by A) increasing the frequency of action potentials in motor neurons. B) recruiting smaller motor units. C) recruiting fewer motor units. D) decreasing the frequency of action potentials in motor neurons. E) None of the answers is correct. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 9.10 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 84) In which of the following would the motor units have the fewest muscle fibers? A) muscles of the neck B) postural muscles of the back C) muscles that control the eyes D) thigh muscles E) calf muscles Answer: C Learning Outcome: 9.10 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 85) Which of the following muscles would contract more forcefully? A) a muscle receiving 10 to 15 action potentials per second B) a muscle receiving 20 to 25 action potentials per second Answer: B Learning Outcome: 9.10 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 21

86) Which of the following motor units would produce the greatest tension? A) a motor unit in a back muscle B) a motor unit in a hand muscle C) a motor unit in an eye muscle Answer: A Learning Outcome: 9.10 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

Figure 9-2 87) To produce a contraction similar to the one in graph (b), the muscle A) must be stimulated to the point of fatigue. B) must be stimulated again before it has relaxed from the previous stimulation. C) is excited by a stimulus of increasing intensity. D) is caused to produce isolated twitches. E) gradually warms up. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 9.10 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 22

88) Why is there partial relaxation in graph (c)? A) Calcium ion release is slow. B) The muscle is starting to fatigue. C) Stimulation intensity is fluctuating. D) ATP reserves are cycling. E) Maximum tension is below maximum. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 9.10 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 89) What is the contraction in graph (d) called? A) complete tetanus B) incomplete tetanus C) twitch D) wave summation E) treppe Answer: A Learning Outcome: 9.10 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 90) What is thought to happen in a muscle during the response shown in graph (a)? A) It is strengthening with exercise. B) There is a gradual increase in the concentration of calcium ions in the sarcoplasm. C) It is fatigued and must make repeated efforts to twitch normally. D) It is aged and has lost contractile proteins. E) It is producing more ATP as tension increases. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 9.10 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 91) The type of contraction in which the muscle fibers do not shorten is called A) tetany. B) treppe. C) concentric. D) isotonic. E) isometric. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 9.11 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

92) In an isotonic contraction, A) muscle tension exceeds the load and the muscle lifts the load. B) tension rises and falls but the muscle length is constant. C) the peak tension is less than the load. D) many twitches fuse into one. E) flexion is produced. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 9.11 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 93) Which of the following is not true of the muscular system? A) It depends upon calcium stored and released from the skeletal system. B) It depends upon calcitonin and parathyroid hormone levels to maintain calcium homeostasis. C) It depends upon the integumentary system to protect muscles. D) It depends upon the cardiovascular system to provide the hemoglobin stored in slow muscle fibers. E) It depends upon the nervous system to stimulate skeletal muscle tissue to contract. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 9.11 Bloom's Taxonomy: Analyzing 94) A resting muscle generates most of its ATP by A) hydrolysis of creatine phosphate. B) anaerobic respiration. C) aerobic metabolism of fatty acids. D) glycogenolysis. E) the tricarboxylic acid cycle. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 9.12 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 95) Creatine phosphate A) is produced by the process of anaerobic respiration. B) can replace ATP in binding to myosin molecules during contraction. C) acts as an energy reserve in muscle tissue. D) is only formed during strenuous exercise. E) cannot transfer its phosphate group to ADP. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 9.12 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

96) During anaerobic glycolysis, which of the following does not occur? A) ATP is produced. B) Pyruvate is produced. C) Oxygen is not consumed. D) The mitochondria are required. E) Lactate is produced. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 9.12 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 97) At peak levels of muscle exertion, the mitochondria can supply required by the muscle. A) all B) 80 percent C) more than half D) only about one-third E) only about 10 percent Answer: D Learning Outcome: 9.12 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 98) Aerobic metabolism normally provides muscle cell. A) 25 B) 50 C) 70 D) 95 E) 100 Answer: D Learning Outcome: 9.12 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

of the energy

percent of the ATP demands of a resting

99) During activities requiring aerobic endurance, A) glycogen and glycolysis are the primary sources of reserve energy. B) oxygen debts are common. C) most of the muscle's energy is produced in mitochondria. D) fatigue occurs in a few minutes. E) oxygen is not required. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 9.12 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

100) Decreased blood flow to a muscle could result in all of the following except A) muscle fatigue. B) an oxygen debt. C) an increase in intracellular glycogen. D) a shift to anaerobic glycolysis. E) an increase in intracellular lactate. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 9.12 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 101) Which of these would not lead to increased oxygen consumption? A) increased heat production B) increased conversion of lactic acid to glucose C) increased aerobic respiration by muscle cells D) increased muscle activity E) lactic acidosis Answer: E Learning Outcome: 9.12 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 102) After heavy exercise, if energy reserves in a muscle are depleted, A) an oxygen debt B) paralysis C) treppe D) tetanus E) atrophy Answer: A Learning Outcome: 9.13 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 103) During the Cori cycle, in the liver, A) glucose is released from glycogen. B) lactate is produced from glucose. C) glucose is produced from lactate. D) lactate is produced from pyruvic acid. E) lactate is shuffled to muscle cells. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 9.13 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

occurs.

104) During the recovery period, the body's need for oxygen is increased because A) muscle cells are producing energy anaerobically. B) the individual is panting. C) additional oxygen is required to restore energy reserves consumed during exercise. D) the liver requires more oxygen to produce lactic acid. E) the muscles are not producing ATP. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 9.13 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 105) The type of muscle fiber that is most resistant to fatigue is the A) fast B) slow C) intermediate D) anaerobic E) high-density Answer: B Learning Outcome: 9.14 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

fiber.

106) Fast muscle fibers can adapt to aerobic metabolism by generating more mitochondria in response to A) repeated, exhaustive stimulation. B) sustained low levels of muscle activity. C) high amounts of oxygen. D) increased levels of testosterone. E) prolonged periods of inactivity. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 9.14 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 107) Large-diameter, densely packed myofibrils, large glycogen reserves, and few mitochondria are characteristics of A) slow fibers. B) intermediate fibers. C) fast fibers. D) red muscles. E) fatty muscles. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 9.14 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

108) Which of the following statements is/are not true regarding human muscles? A) Most have both slow and fast fibers. B) Slow fibers are abundant in the calf muscles. C) Eye muscles are composed entirely of fast fibers. D) Slow fibers are abundant in the back muscles. E) Fast fibers are high in myoglobin. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 9.14 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 109) When comparing slow fibers to fast fibers, slow fibers A) take less time to reach peak tension. B) have much larger fiber diameters. C) generate much more tension. D) are lacking myoglobin. E) appear dark red. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 9.14 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 110) Which of the following is not a type of motor fiber? A) pink-fast twitch B) white-slow twitch C) white-fast twitch D) red-slow twitch E) type I Answer: B Learning Outcome: 9.14 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 111) Which of the following hormones directly stimulates growth of muscle tissue, leading to increased muscle mass? A) epinephrine B) thyroid hormone C) testosterone D) parathyroid hormone E) calcitonin Answer: C Learning Outcome: 9.15 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

112) After death, muscle fibers run out of ATP and calcium begins to leak from the sarcoplasmic reticulum into the sarcoplasm. This results in a condition known as A) tetany. B) treppe. C) depolarization. D) rigor mortis. E) oxygen debt. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 9.15 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 113) The muscle weakness of myasthenia gravis results from A) insufficient acetylcholine release from presynaptic vesicles. B) loss of acetylcholine receptors in the end-plate membrane. C) the motor neuron action potential being too small to shock the muscle fibers. D) excessive acetylcholinesterase that destroys the neurotransmitter. E) All of the answers probably contribute to the muscle weakness. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 9.15 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 114) Of the following clinical conditions affecting skeletal muscle, which is caused by a virus? A) tetanus B) botulism C) Duchenne muscular dystrophy D) polio E) rigor mortis Answer: D Learning Outcome: 9.15 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

115) Name the three types of muscle tissue, identify where they are found, and list their functions. (Module 9.1A) A) Skeletal muscle is directly or indirectly attached to bones and enables movement of the body. Cardiac muscle forms the heart and propels blood. Smooth muscle is found throughout the body and moves substances through hollow tubes, such as in the digestive tract and regulates the diameter of blood vessels. B) Skeletal muscle is found throughout the body and moves substances through hollow tubes, such as in the digestive tract and regulates the diameter of blood vessels. Cardiac muscle forms the heart and propels blood. Smooth muscle is directly or indirectly attached to bones and enables movement of the body. C) Skeletal muscle forms the heart and propels blood. Cardiac muscle is directly or indirectly attached to bones and enables movement of the body. Smooth muscle is found throughout the body and moves substances through hollow tubes, such as in the digestive tract and regulates the diameter of blood vessels. D) Skeletal muscle is directly or indirectly attached to bones and enables movement of the body. Cardiac muscle is found throughout the body and moves substances through hollow tubes, such as in the digestive tract and regulates the diameter of blood vessels. Smooth muscle forms the heart and propels blood. E) Skeletal muscle is found throughout the body and moves substances through hollow tubes, such as in the digestive tract and regulates the diameter of blood vessels. Cardiac muscle is directly or indirectly attached to bones and enables movement of the body. Smooth muscle forms the heart and propels blood. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 9.1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 116) Which muscle types are voluntary, and which are involuntary? (Module 9.1B) A) skeletal and smooth muscles are voluntary, and cardiac muscle is involuntary B) skeletal and cardiac muscles are voluntary, and smooth muscle is involuntary C) skeletal muscle is voluntary, and cardiac and smooth muscles are involuntary D) cardiac and smooth muscles are voluntary, and skeletal muscle is involuntary E) smooth muscle is voluntary, and cardiac and smooth muscles are involuntary Answer: C Learning Outcome: 9.1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

117) Define tendon and aponeurosis. (Module 9.2A) A) A tendon is a bundle of collagen fibers that connects bones together, whereas an aponeurosis is a dense layer of collagen fibers surrounding an entire muscle. B) A tendon is a dense layer of collagen fibers surrounding an entire muscle, whereas an aponeurosis is a fibrous layer that divides the skeletal muscle into fascicles. C) A tendon is a bundle of collagen fibers that connects bones together, whereas an aponeurosis is a thin layer of areolar connective tissue that surrounds each muscle fiber. D) A tendon is a bundle of collagen fibers that connects a skeletal muscle to a bone, whereas an aponeurosis is a broad collagenous sheet that connects skeletal muscle to a broad area on one or more bones. E) A tendon is a broad collagenous sheet that connects skeletal muscle to a broad area on one or more bones, whereas and aponeurosis is a bundle of collagen fibers that connects a skeletal muscle to a bone. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 9.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 118) Describe the connective tissue layers associated with skeletal muscle tissue. (Module 9.2B) A) The epimysium surrounds individual muscle fibers; the perimysium divides the skeletal muscle into fascicles; the endomysium surrounds the entire muscle. B) The epimysium surrounds the entire muscle; the perimysium divides the skeletal muscle into fascicles; the endomysium surrounds individual muscle fibers. C) The epimysium divides the skeletal muscle into fascicles; the perimysium surrounds the entire muscle; the endomysium surrounds individual muscle fibers. D) The epimysium divides the skeletal muscle into fascicles; the perimysium surrounds individual muscle fibers; the endomysium surrounds the entire muscle. E) The epimysium surrounds the entire muscle; the perimysium surrounds individual muscle fibers; the endomysium divides the skeletal muscle into fascicles. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 9.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 119) What special terms are used to describe the plasma membrane and cytoplasm of a skeletal muscle fiber? (Module 9.2C) A) The plasma membrane is called the neurolemma and the cytoplasm is called the neuroplasm. B) The plasma membrane is called the sarcolemma and the cytoplasm is called the sarcoplasmic reticulum. C) The plasma membrane is called the sarcolemma and the cytoplasm is called the sarcoplasm. D) The plasma membrane is called the endomysium and the cytoplasm is called the soma. E) The plasma membrane is called the epimysium and the cytoplasm is called the myoplasm. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 9.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

120) Define transverse tubules. (Module 9.3B) A) Transverse tubules forms a tubular network around each individual myofibril and is similar to the smooth endoplasmic reticulum of other cells. B) Transverse tubules are composed primarily of actin filaments. C) Transverse tubules are composed primarily of myosin filaments. D) Transverse tubules are tubular extensions of the sarcolemma that extend deep into the sarcoplasm contacting the terminal cisternae of the sarcoplasmic reticulum. E) Transverse tubules are tubular proteins that bind calcium within the sarcomeres. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 9.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 121) Within a resting skeletal muscle fiber, where is the greatest concentration of Ca2+? (Module 9.3C) A) zone of overlap of the sarcomere B) Z lines between adjacent sarcomeres C) terminal cisternae of the sarcoplasmic reticulum D) inside the transverse tubules E) bound to troponin Answer: C Learning Outcome: 9.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 122) Compare F-actin with G-actin. (Module 9.4A) A) F actin is a twisted strand made up of two rows of G actin subunits where myosin heads can bind. B) G actin is a twisted strand made up of two rows of F actin subunits where myosin heads can bind. C) F actin binds myosin during muscle relaxation and G actin binds myosin during muscle contraction. D) F actin binds myosin during muscle contraction and G actin binds myosin during muscle relaxation. E) F actin is functional actin that contains myosin binding sites and G actin covers the binding sites on F actin to prevent actin-myosin interaction. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 9.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 123) Name the proteins that make up a thick filament. (Module 9.4B) A) actin and nebulin B) myosin and nebulin C) actin and titin D) myosin and titin E) actin and dystrophin Answer: D Learning Outcome: 9.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 32

124) Summarize the sliding filament theory. (Module 9.4C) A) It is the theory that sarcomeres lengthen during the sliding of the thin and thick filaments past each other. B) It is the theory that Z lines will move further from each other when the thin and thick filaments slide past each other. C) It is the process that causes an action potential to travel down the T tubules into the sarcolemma. D) It is the theory that excitation-contraction coupling leads to muscle fiber relaxation. E) It is the process of sarcomere shortening caused by the sliding of thin and thick filaments past another. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 9.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 125) Why is the zone of overlap an important region of the sarcomere? (Module 9.4D) A) The zone of overlap is important because it is where actin filaments are anchored to and overlap nebulin proteins. B) The zone of overlap is important because it is where myosin filaments are anchored to and overlap titin proteins. C) The zone of overlap is important because it is where the myosin heads can interact with the thin filaments. D) The zone of overlap is important because it is where one sarcomere ends and another sarcomere begins. E) The zone of overlap is important because it is where the troponin proteins bind acetylcholine to generate an action potential that can cause muscle contraction to occur. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 9.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 126) Explain the function of sodium-potassium ion pumps. (Module 9.5A) A) They generate ATP for the cell during the electron transport chain when hydrogen ions move in a process known as chemiosmosis. B) The sodium-potassium ion pump binds acetylcholine across the synaptic cleft to generate an action potential at the sarcolemma. C) The sodium-potassium ion pump allows facilitated diffusion of potassium during the repolarization of a muscle cell. D) The sodium-potassium ion pump allows facilitated diffusion of sodium during the depolarization of a muscle cell. E) The sodium-potassium ion pump maintains the resting membrane potential of a cell by exporting three sodium ions out in exchange for two potassium ions entering the cell. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 9.5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

127) Define depolarization, and describe the events that follow it. (Module 9.5B) A) Depolarization is the when the inside of the cell becomes negative due to sodium ions rushing out. After depolarization, repolarization occurs when potassium ions rush into the cell causing the inside of the cell to become positive again. B) Depolarization is the when the inside of the cell becomes positive due to sodium ions rushing in. After depolarization, repolarization occurs when potassium ions rush out of the cell causing the inside of the cell to become negative again. C) Depolarization is the when the inside of the cell becomes negative due to potassium ions rushing out. After depolarization, repolarization occurs when sodium ions rush into the cell causing the inside of the cell to become positive again. D) Depolarization is the when the inside of the cell becomes positive due to potassium ions rushing in. After depolarization, repolarization occurs when sodium ions rush out of the cell causing the inside of the cell to become negative again. E) Depolarization is when the inside of the cell becomes neutral due to an equal amount of sodium ions entering the cell and potassium ions leaving the cell. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 9.5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 128) What is the general function of an excitable membrane? (Module 9.5C) A) Excitable membranes allow ions to leak across ion channels. B) Excitable membranes are on cells with extracellular receptors for binding chemicals. C) Excitable membranes permit rapid communication between different parts of a cell. D) Excitable membranes function when the intracellular fluid and extracellular fluid compositions match. E) Excitable membranes function in slow, endocrine cell-cell communication. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 9.5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 129) Explain why the propagation of action potentials along electrically excitable membranes occurs in only one direction. (Module 9.5D) A) The refractory period prevents it from propagating back in the direction from which it began. B) All electrically excitable membranes have two poles, a positive and a negative pole, and the action potential can only travel towards the positive pole. C) All electrically excitable membranes have two poles, a positive and a negative pole, and the action potential can only travel towards the negative pole. D) The stimulation of electrically excitable membranes by neurons occurs on only one side of the membrane so it will travel to the other side. E) The repolarization period prevents it from propagating back in the direction from which it began. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 9.5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

130) Describe the neuromuscular junction. (Module 9.6A) A) The neuromuscular junction is where the dendrites of a motor neuron interact with the skeletal muscle fiber midway along the fiber's length. B) The neuromuscular junction is where the cell body of a motor neuron interact with the skeletal muscle fiber at one end. C) The neuromuscular junction is where the axon terminals of a motor neuron interact with the skeletal muscle fiber midway along the fiber's length. D) The neuromuscular junction is where the dendrites of a sensory neuron receive inputs from a skeletal muscle fiber. E) The neuromuscular junction is where the axon terminals of a sensory neuron receive inputs from a skeletal muscle fiber. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 9.6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 131) What would happen if there were no AChE in the synaptic cleft? (Module 9.6C) A) The motor end plate could not be stimulated and no muscle contraction could occur. B) The motor end plate could not be stimulated and continuous muscle contraction would occur. C) The motor end plate would be continuously stimulated and no muscle contraction could occur. D) The motor end plate would be continuously stimulated and continuous muscle contraction would occur. E) The motor end plate would be unaffected because epinephrine not ACh stimulates the contraction of skeletal muscles. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 9.6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 132) What molecule supplies the energy for a muscle fiber contraction? (Module 9.7A) A) GTP B) creatine phosphate C) oxygen D) caffeine E) ATP Answer: E Learning Outcome: 9.6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 133) What causes calcium to be released from the sarcoplasmic reticulum? (Module 9.8A) A) Calcium is released when acetylcholine binds acetylcholine receptors. B) Calcium is released when an action potential travels down the motor neuron. C) Calcium is released when an action potential reaches the triad. D) Calcium is released when an action potential is generated at the neuromuscular junction. E) Calcium is released when myosin heads bind to actin. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 9.8 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 35

134) What sarcomere characteristic affects the amount of tension produced when a skeletal muscle fiber contracts? (Module 9.9A) A) The number of myosin heads. B) The number of actin binding sites. C) The amount of troponin proteins bound to actin. D) The length of the sarcomere. E) The time it takes the sarcomere to shorten. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 9.9 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 135) Explain two key concepts of the sarcomere length-tension relationship. (Module 9.9B) A) (1) The greater the zone of overlap, the greater the tension the muscle can develop; and (2) there is an optimum range of actin and myosin overlap that will produce the greatest amount of tension. B) (1) The smaller the zone of overlap, the greater the tension the muscle can develop; and (2) there is an optimum range of actin and myosin overlap that will produce the greatest amount of tension. C) (1) The greater the zone of overlap, the less tension the muscle can develop; and (2) there is an optimum range of actin and myosin overlap that will produce the greatest amount of tension. D) (1) The greater the zone of overlap, the greater the tension the muscle can develop; and (2) there is an optimum calcium concentration that will produce the greatest amount of tension. E) (1) The smaller the zone of overlap, the greater the tension the muscle can develop; and (2) there is an optimum calcium concentration that will produce the greatest amount of tension. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 9.9 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 136) Compare incomplete tetanus with wave summation. (Module 9.10A) A) In incomplete tetanus, the muscle is continuously contracting with no relaxation. Wave summation refers to an increases length of the relaxation phase with higher degrees of tension. B) In incomplete tetanus, the muscle is producing near-peak tension during rapid cycles of contraction and relaxation. Wave summation refers to the addition of one twitch to another. C) In incomplete tetanus, the muscle is continuously contracting with no relaxation. Wave summation refers to the addition of one twitch to another. D) In incomplete tetanus, the muscle generates a slightly higher maximum tension with each successive stimulus after each relaxation phase. Wave summation refers to a muscle continuously contracting with no relaxation. E) In incomplete tetanus, the muscle is producing near-peak tension during rapid cycles of contraction and relaxation. Wave summation refers to rapid numbers of action potentials occurring over a period of time. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 9.10 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

137) Define motor unit. (Module 9.10B) A) A motor unit is the sum total of all the motor neurons going to a specific muscle. B) A motor unit is the sum total of all the muscle fibers in a whole muscle. C) A motor unit is the maximum tension that a whole muscle can generate with maximum stimulation. D) A motor unit is a motor neuron and all the muscle fibers that it controls. E) A motor unit is the sensory neuron going away from and the motor neuron going to a skeletal muscle. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 9.10 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 138) Describe the relationship between the number of fibers in a motor unit and the precision of body movements. (Module 9.10C) A) The finer and more precise the movement, the thinner the muscle fibers in the motor unit. B) The finer and more precise the movement, the greater the number of motor neurons in the motor unit. C) The finer and more precise the movement, the fewer the number of muscle fibers in the motor unit. D) The finer and more precise the movement, the greater the number of muscle fibers in the motor unit. E) The finer and more precise the movement, the thicker the muscle fibers in the motor unit. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 9.10 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 139) Explain the relationship between load and speed of muscle contraction. (Module 9.11A) A) The greater the load on a muscle, the longer it takes for the muscle to shorten, and the less it shortens. B) The greater the load on a muscle, the longer it takes for the muscle to shorten, and the more it shortens. C) The greater the load on a muscle, the less time it takes for the muscle to shorten, and the less it shortens. D) The greater the load on a muscle, the less time it takes for the muscle to shorten, and the more it shortens. E) There is no relationship between load and speed of muscle contraction. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 9.11 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

140) Compare concentric and eccentric contractions. (Module 9.11B) A) Concentric contractions consist of equal lengths of time contracting and relaxing. Eccentric contractions consist of a longer time contracting than relaxing. B) Concentric contractions consist of equal lengths of time contracting and relaxing. Eccentric contractions consist of a longer time relaxing than contracting. C) Concentric contractions occur when the tension produced never exceeds the load, and the muscle does not change length. Eccentric contractions occur when the tension produced exceeds the load, and the muscle shortens. D) Concentric contractions occur when the muscle tension exceeds the load, and the muscle shortens. Eccentric contractions occur when the muscle tension is less than the load, and the muscle elongates. E) Concentric contractions occur when the muscle tension is less than the load, and the muscle elongates. Eccentric contractions occur when the muscle tension exceeds the load, and the muscle shortens. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 9.11 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 141) Can a skeletal muscle contract without shortening? Why or why not? (Module 9.11C) A) No, because muscles contract only when the muscle tension exceeds the load. B) No, because muscles contract only when the muscle tension is less than the load. C) Yes, because muscles can still contract during an isometric contraction when the muscle tension is equal to the load. D) Yes, because muscles can still contract during an isotonic contraction when the tension is at a constant level. E) No, because muscles can only generate tension while shortening, never during lengthening. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 9.11 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 142) What basic reactants do mitochondria absorb from the cytosol to synthesize ATP? (Module 9.12A) A) carbon dioxide, GTP, sodium and phosphate ions B) oxygen, ADP, phosphate ions, and organic substrates C) oxygen, creatine phosphate, and ADP D) carbon dioxide, water, glycogen, and inorganic substrates E) water, lactate, GTP, and ADP Answer: B Learning Outcome: 9.12 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

143) Identify three sources of stored energy utilized by muscle fibers. (Module 9.12B) A) fatty acids, amino acids, and glycogen B) lactate, pyruvate, and glucose C) fatty acids, amino acids, and lactate D) pyruvate, lactate, and GTP E) ATP, creatine phosphate, and glycogen Answer: E Learning Outcome: 9.12 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 144) When do muscle fibers produce lactate? (Module 9.12C) A) Muscle fibers produce lactate when metabolizing amino acids. B) Muscle fibers produce lactate when metabolizing fatty acids. C) Muscle fibers produce lactate when ATP is abundant. D) Muscle fibers produce lactate when there is a lack of oxygen. E) Muscle fibers produce lactate when the pH of the cell is acidic. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 9.12 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 145) How is skeletal muscle recovery different after moderate activity compared to sustained activity at higher levels? (Module 9.13A) A) Skeletal muscle recovery after moderate activity takes about a minutes, whereas skeletal muscle recovery at higher levels can take a few hours. B) Skeletal muscle recovery after moderate activity takes a few hours, whereas skeletal muscle recovery at higher levels can take a day. C) Skeletal muscle recovery after moderate activity takes several hours, whereas skeletal muscle recovery at higher levels can take about a week. D) Skeletal muscle recovery after moderate activity takes about a week, whereas skeletal muscle recovery at higher levels can take a few months. E) Skeletal muscle recovery after moderate activity takes a few months, whereas skeletal muscle recovery at higher levels can take a few years. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 9.13 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 146) Define oxygen debt (excess postexercise oxygen consumption). (Module 9.13B) A) Oxygen debt is the decrease in oxygen during active aerobic respiration. B) Oxygen debt is the accumulation of oxygen in tissues during anaerobic respiration. C) Oxygen debt is the sum total of oxygen molecules used during cellular metabolism. D) Oxygen debt is the amount of oxygen intake required to produce the ATP needed to restore the body after strenuous activity. E) Oxygen debt is the amount of oxygen that must be returned to the lungs following strenuous exercise. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 9.13 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 39

147) What happens to the lactate produced by skeletal muscle during peak activity? (Module 9.13C) A) Most of the lactate is used by the skeletal muscle to remake creatine phosphate. B) Most of the lactate undergoes fermentation in the muscle to produce more ATP. C) Most of the lactate accumulates and causes cramps. D) Most of the lactate enters the electron transport chain to produce more ATP. E) Most of the lactate diffuses into the bloodstream and enters the liver where it is converted to pyruvate. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 9.13 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 148) Contrast fast fibers with slow fibers in terms of diameter, glycogen reserves, myoglobin content, and relative abundance of mitochondria. (Module 9.14A) A) Compared with slow fibers, fast fibers have a larger diameter, larger glycogen reserves, less myoglobin, and relatively fewer mitochondria. B) Compared with slow fibers, fast fibers have a smaller diameter, smaller glycogen reserves, less myoglobin, and relatively fewer mitochondria. C) Compared with slow fibers, fast fibers have a smaller diameter, larger glycogen reserves, more myoglobin, and more mitochondria. D) Compared with slow fibers, fast fibers have a larger diameter, smaller glycogen reserves, less myoglobin, and more mitochondria. E) Compared with slow fibers, fast fibers have a smaller diameter, smaller glycogen reserves, more myoglobin, and more mitochondria. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 9.14 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 149) Which type of muscle fiber predominates in the leg muscles of endurance athletes, such as long-distance runners? (Module 9.14C) A) fast fibers B) slow fibers C) intermediate fibers Answer: B Learning Outcome: 9.14 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

150) Define muscle hypertrophy and muscle atrophy. (Module 9.15A) A) Muscle hypertrophy is an increase in the number of muscle cells and muscle atrophy is a decrease in the number of muscle cells. B) Muscle hypertrophy is an increase in the number of muscle cells and muscle atrophy is a decrease in the size of the muscle cells. C) Muscle hypertrophy is an increase in the size of the muscle cells and muscle atrophy is a decrease in the number of muscle cells. D) Muscle hypertrophy is an increase in the size of the muscle cells and muscle atrophy is a decrease in the size of the muscle cells. E) Muscle hypertrophy is an increase in the vascularization of the muscle cells and muscle atrophy is a decrease in the vascularization of the muscle cells. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 9.15 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Essay Questions 151) Describe the basic sequence of events that occurs at the neuromuscular junction and in the muscle cell during excitation and excitation-contraction coupling. Answer: The action potential triggers the exocytosis of neurotransmitters stored in vesicles in the axon ending. This acetylcholine binds to receptors in the motor end plate, increasing the muscle membrane permeability to sodium. Acetylcholinesterase destroys the acetylcholine, ensuring that each nerve action potential produces only a single twitch. The influx of these positive sodium ions triggers an action potential. The action potential spreads in both directions away from the end plate across the entire surface of the muscle fiber and into the interior via transverse tubules, triggering a pulse of calcium ion release from the sarcoplasmic reticulum, which generates a brief small twitch. With additional stimuli, calcium ion builds up and higher tensions are produced. Learning Outcome: 9.6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 152) A hypothetical genetic disease causes the body to produce antibodies that compete with acetylcholine for receptors on the motor end plate. Patients with this disease exhibit varying degrees of muscle weakness and flaccid paralysis in the affected muscles. If you could administer a drug that inhibits acetylcholinesterase or a drug that blocks acetylcholine, which one would you use to alleviate these symptoms? Answer: This is a case of competition between acetylcholine and the antibody. To make the patient's acetylcholine more effective, a drug that inhibits acetylcholinesterase would slow the breakdown of his acetylcholine, relieving some of the weakness. An acetylcholine blocker would be worse than doing nothing. Learning Outcome: 9.6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Analyzing

153) Describe a motor unit. How many fibers does a muscle unit contain? Answer: A motor unit consists of all the skeletal muscle fibers controlled by a single motor neuron. They may have as few as 4-6 fibers (eye muscles) or as many as 1000-2000 (leg muscles). Learning Outcome: 9.10 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 154) Thirty minutes after Mary has completed a 25-km race, she begins to notice severe muscle soreness and stiffness in her legs. Her urine is dark colored. She wonders whether she may have damaged her muscles during the race. She visits the ER, and the doctor orders several blood tests. What kind of blood tests can help determine whether muscle damage has occurred? Answer: If muscle damage occurred, the doctor would find enzymes such as creatine phosphokinase and proteins such as myoglobin or troponin in the bloodstream released by injured skeletal muscle cells. The level of these substances correlates with the severity of the injury. Learning Outcome: 9.12 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 155) Mary wants to enter a weight-lifting competition and consults you as to what type of muscle fibers she needs to develop and how she should go about it. What would you suggest to her? Answer: Weight lifting requires anaerobic endurance. Mary would want to develop her fast fibers for short-term maximum strength. She would achieve this by engaging in activities that involve frequent, brief, but intensive workouts, such as with heavy weights to the point of muscle fatigue. The fatigue triggers the production of new myofilament proteins, leading to muscle bulk and strength. Learning Outcome: 9.14 Bloom's Taxonomy: Analyzing 156) How would severing a tendon attached to a muscle affect movement of that limb? (Module 9.2D) Answer: Because tendons attach muscles to bones, severing the tendon would disconnect the muscle from the bone, so the muscle could not move that limb. Learning Outcome: 9.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 157) Describe the structures of a sarcomere. (Module 9.3A) Answer: Sarcomeres, the smallest contractile units of a striated muscle cell, are segments of myofibrils. Each sarcomere has a dark A band and light I bands. The A band contains the M line, the H band, and the zone of overlap. Each I band contains thin filaments, but not thick filaments. Z lines mark the boundaries between adjacent sarcomeres. Learning Outcome: 9.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

158) How would a drug that blocks acetylcholine release affect muscle contraction? (Module 9.6B) Answer: A drug that blocks acetylcholine release would prevent binding of acetylcholine with its receptor on the motor end plate; therefore, sodium ions would not rush into the muscle fiber's sarcoplasm, and no action potential would be generated in the sarcolemma. As a result, muscle contraction could not occur. Learning Outcome: 9.6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 159) List the interrelated steps that occur once the contraction cycle begins. (Module 9.7B) Answer: Once the contraction cycle begins, the steps that occur are as follows: (1) active sites are exposed, (2) cross-bridges form, (3) myosin heads pivot (power stroke), (4) cross-bridges detach, and (5) myosin reactivates (myosin head "recocks"). Learning Outcome: 9.7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 160) Describe the events that occur during each phase of a twitch in a stimulated muscle fiber. (Module 9.9C) Answer: In an initial latent period (after the stimulus arrives and before tension begins to increase), an action potential generated in the muscle fiber triggers the release of calcium ions from the SR. In the contraction phase, calcium ions bind to troponin (cross-bridges form), and tension begins to increase. In the relaxation phase, tension decreases because cross-bridges have detached and because calcium ion levels have fallen; the active sites are once again covered by the troponin-tropomyosin complex. Learning Outcome: 9.9 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 161) Why would a sprinter experience muscle fatigue before a marathon runner would? (Module 9.14B) Answer: A sprinter requires large amounts of ATP for a short burst of activity. To supply this ATP, the sprinter's muscles rely on large glycogen reserves and anaerobic metabolism. Because the muscle fibers have relatively few mitochondria to generate additional ATP, fatigue resistance is also low. Conversely, marathon runners derive most of their ATP from the more efficient process of aerobic metabolism. Learning Outcome: 9.14 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying

162) Explain how the flexibility or rigidity of a dead body can provide a clue about a murder victim's time of death. (Module 9.15B) Answer: A murder victim's time of death can be estimated according to the body's flexibility or rigidity because rigor mortis typically begins a few hours after death, reaches maximum rigidity some 2-7 hours after death, and subsides about 1-6 days later or when decomposition begins. Thus, for example, a victim whose body lacks any signs of rigor mortis likely died within the past few hours. At the molecular level, the membranes of the dead cells are no longer selectively permeable, and the SR is no longer able to retain calcium ions. As calcium ions enter the sarcoplasm, a sustained contraction develops, making the body extremely stiff. Contraction persists because the dead muscle cells can no longer make the ATP required for cross-bridge detachment from the active sites. Rigor mortis lasts until the lysosomal enzymes released by autolysis break down the myofilaments. Learning Outcome: 9.15 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 163) Six weeks after Fred broke his leg, the cast is removed. As he steps down from the exam table, his leg gives way, and he falls. Propose a logical explanation. (Module 9.15C) Answer: While Fred's leg was immobilized, its muscles did not receive sufficient neural stimulation to maintain normal mass, tone, and strength — that is, his leg muscle atrophied — and the muscles were thus unable to support his weight. Learning Outcome: 9.15 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying

Visual Anatomy and Physiology, 3e (Martini) Chapter 10 The Muscular System Multiple Choice Questions 1) The function of the appendicular muscles is to A) support and position the bones of the skull, thoracic cage, and vertebral column. B) support, move, and brace the limbs. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 10.1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 2) A muscle that controls the diameter of an opening is a A) parallel B) convergent C) pennate D) bipennate E) circular Answer: E Learning Outcome: 10.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

muscle.

3) A fan-shaped muscle with a broad origin and fascicles that attach to a common site is a muscle. A) pennate B) circular C) parallel D) convergent E) divergent Answer: D Learning Outcome: 10.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 4) Skeletal muscles in which the fascicles form a common angle with the tendon are muscles. A) parallel B) circular C) pennate D) convergent E) divergent Answer: C Learning Outcome: 10.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

5) The most common lever systems in the body are those that have the applied force between the fulcrum and the load. These are called levers. A) first-class B) second-class C) third-class D) fourth-class E) fifth-class Answer: C Learning Outcome: 10.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 6) The bones, which serve as levers in the body, do not A) dictate direction of movement. B) modify distance of movement produced by a force. C) contribute effective strength of a force. D) modify speed of movement produced by a force. E) inhibit movement. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 10.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 7) Which of the following is not one of the forms of fascicle organization? A) perpendicular B) parallel C) convergent D) pennate E) circular Answer: A Learning Outcome: 10.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 8) muscle fibers pull in different directions, permitting different actions depending on stimulation. A) Convergent B) Parallel C) Straight D) Pennate E) Circular Answer: A Learning Outcome: 10.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

9) In a muscle, the fascicles are concentrically arranged around an opening. A) convergent B) parallel C) straight D) pennate E) circular Answer: E Learning Outcome: 10.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 10) Most of the skeletal muscles in the body are _ A) convergent B) parallel C) straight D) pennate E) circular Answer: B Learning Outcome: 10.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

muscles.

11) A skeletal muscle fiber can contract until it has shortened by about A) 20 percent. B) 25 percent. C) 30 percent. D) 40 percent. E) 50 percent. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 10.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 12) The leverage of the biceps brachii applies its force six times closer to the fulcrum (elbow joint) than the resistance. This means it will need to exert kg of force to support a load of 6 kg. A) 1 B) 6 C) 36 D) 7 E) can't say from this information Answer: C Learning Outcome: 10.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Analyzing

13) A(n) is a rigid structure that moves on a fixed point. A) action B) insertion C) origin D) fulcrum E) lever Answer: E Learning Outcome: 10.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 14) The central body of a muscle is also known as the A) fulcrum. B) gut. C) corpus. D) belly. E) core. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 10.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 15) Muscles with fibers that run at an angle to the long axis of the body are called A) parallel. B) convergent. C) circular. D) pennate. E) sphincters. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 10.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 16) Muscles with fibers that run parallel to the long axis of the body are called A) parallel. B) convergent. C) circular. D) pennate. E) sphincters. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 10.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

17) Which of the following terms is used to describe the location of a muscle A) pectinate. B) piriformis. C) hallucis. D) splenius. E) trapezius. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 10.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 18) A muscle that assists the muscle that is primarily responsible for a given action is a(n) A) agonist. B) antagonist. C) synergist. D) originator. E) levator. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 10.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 19) The names of the muscles can indicate all of the following except A) the angle of the muscle relative to the long axis of the body. B) the action of the muscle. C) the location of the muscle. D) structural characteristics of the muscle. E) collagen content of the muscle. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 10.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 20) Each of the following terms is a descriptive term for a muscle's action except A) levator. B) pronator. C) tensor. D) sartorius. E) adductor. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 10.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

21) Which of the following terms could be used with a muscle that is associated with the ribs? A) cervicis B) costalis C) popliteus D) nuchal E) carpi Answer: B Learning Outcome: 10.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 22) A muscle whose name ends in the suffix "-glossus" would be found within or attached to the A) chin. B) cheek. C) jaw. D) tongue. E) lips. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 10.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 23) Muscles including the term "capitis" would be found within or attached to the A) head. B) neck. C) thorax. D) abdomen. E) groin. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 10.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 24) Which of the following most aptly describes "muscle insertion"? A) broad tendon sheet B) connective tissue that surrounds a single muscle fiber C) tendon attachment that doesn't move D) tendon attachment that moves E) connective tissue that surrounds an entire muscle Answer: D Learning Outcome: 10.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

25) Muscles with fibers that run perpendicular to the long axis of the body are called A) lateralis. B) transversus. C) rectus. D) oblique. E) medialis. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 10.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 26) Muscles visible at the body surface are often called A) internus. B) rectus. C) profundus. D) intrinsic. E) superficialis. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 10.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 27) Superficial muscles that position or stabilize an organ are called A) internus. B) extrinsic. C) profundus. D) intrinsic. E) externus. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 10.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 28) Muscles located entirely within an organ are called A) internus. B) extrinsic. C) profundus. D) intrinsic. E) externus. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 10.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

29) Deep muscles are called A) superficialis. B) extrinsic. C) profundus. D) intrinsic. E) externus. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 10.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 30) Muscles that are long and round in cross section are termed A) longus. B) teres. C) longissimus. D) maximus. E) brevis. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 10.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 31) Muscles located close to the midline of the body may be called A) rectus. B) distalis. C) proximal. D) medialis. E) lateralis. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 10.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 32) The end of a muscle that remains stationary when the muscle contracts is called the A) insertion. B) fulcrum. C) septum. D) origin. E) fixator. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 10.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

33) The end of a muscle that is attached to the point that moves when the muscle contracts is called the A) insertion. B) fulcrum. C) septum. D) origin. E) fixator. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 10.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 34) An alternate name for the prime mover in muscle action is A) synergist. B) antagonist. C) agonist. D) fixator. E) insertion. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 10.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

Figure 10-1 35) Identify the muscle labeled "1." A) trapezius B) deltoid C) sternocleidomastoid D) temporalis E) pectoralis major Answer: A Learning Outcome: 10.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

36) Identify the muscle labeled "6." A) biceps brachii B) brachialis C) triceps brachii D) pronator teres E) deltoid Answer: B Learning Outcome: 10.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 37) Identify the muscle labeled "11." A) rectus anterior B) vastus lateralis C) soleus D) serratus anterior E) tibialis anterior Answer: E Learning Outcome: 10.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 38) Identify the muscle labeled "25." A) rectus femoris B) biceps femoris C) adductor longus D) risorius E) sartorius Answer: E Learning Outcome: 10.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 39) Identify the muscle labeled "27." A) rectus femoris B) gastrocnemius C) soleus D) gracilis E) biceps femoris Answer: B Learning Outcome: 10.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

Figure 10-2 40) Identify the muscle labeled "6." A) trapezius B) tensor fasciae latae C) latissimus dorsi D) adductor magnus E) rhomboid major Answer: C Learning Outcome: 10.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

41) Identify the muscle labeled "2." A) deltoid B) teres major C) sternocleidomastoid D) trapezius E) anconeus Answer: A Learning Outcome: 10.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 42) Identify the muscle labeled "11." A) gracilis B) semitendinosus C) gluteus medius D) biceps femoris E) adductor magnus Answer: D Learning Outcome: 10.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 43) Identify the muscle labeled "12." A) soleus B) gastrocnemius C) sartorius D) tibialis posterior E) peroneus longus Answer: B Learning Outcome: 10.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 44) Identify the muscle labeled "7." A) anconeus B) extensor carpi ulnaris C) extensor digitorum D) pronator teres E) brachioradialis Answer: A Learning Outcome: 10.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

45) Which of the following is an appendicular muscle group rather than an axial muscle group? A) muscles of the pelvic floor B) muscles of the head C) oblique and rectus muscles D) hamstring group E) muscles of the vertebral column Answer: D Learning Outcome: 10.5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 46) Which of the following is not primarily a muscle of facial expression? A) buccinator B) depressor labii inferioris C) risorius D) masseter E) mentalis Answer: D Learning Outcome: 10.6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 47) The "kissing muscle" that purses the lips is the A) zygomaticus major. B) orbicularis oris. C) buccinator. D) levator labii superioris. E) procerus. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 10.6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 48) The bellies of the occipitofrontalis muscle are connected by the A) mandible. B) frontal bone. C) occipital bone. D) epicranial aponeurosis. E) forehead. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 10.6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

49) The zygomaticus major muscle acts to A) move the external ear. B) purse the lips. C) depress the lower lip. D) retract and elevate the corner of the mouth. E) close the eye. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 10.6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 50) The mentalis muscle inserts on the A) orbicularis oris. B) skin of the chin. C) angle of the mouth. D) hyoid bone. E) skin around the eyelids. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 10.6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 51) Which of the following describes the action of the corrugator supercilii? A) depresses the lips B) purses the lips C) wrinkles the brow D) elevates the mandible E) moves the external ear Answer: C Learning Outcome: 10.6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 52) The procerus originates on the A) angle of the mouth. B) skin around the eyelids. C) lateral nasal cartilages. D) orbicularis oris. E) sides of the tongue. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 10.6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

53) The anterior muscle that inserts widely on the periosteum of the mandible and the skin of the cheek is the A) temporalis. B) masseter. C) lateral pterygoid. D) medial pterygoid. E) platysma. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 10.6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 54) The muscles of the head and neck do not function in A) nonverbal communication. B) feeding. C) controlling the eyes. D) shrug the shoulders. E) rotate the head. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 10.6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 55) The axial muscles of the head and neck are assigned to one of the following functional groups except the muscles of A) facial expression. B) vocal expression. C) the tongue. D) the eye. E) mastication. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 10.6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 56) The covers the anterior surface of the neck. A) buccinator B) epicranium C) occipitofrontalis D) orbicularis oris E) platysma Answer: E Learning Outcome: 10.6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

57) Tom, a trumpet player, asks you which muscles he should develop in order to be a better trumpeter. What would you tell him? A) the masseter and buccinator B) the buccinator and orbicularis oris C) the orbicularis oris and risorius D) the risorius and zygomaticus minor E) the levator labii superioris and mentalis Answer: B Learning Outcome: 10.6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 58) A muscle that inserts on the body of the mandible is probably involved in A) kissing. B) blowing. C) chewing. D) frowning. E) spitting. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 10.7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 59) The temporalis muscle passes through the A) alveolar processes of the maxillae and mandible. B) tendinous band around the optic foramen. C) galea aponeurotica. D) zygomatic arch. E) fascia surrounding the submandibular salivary gland. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 10.7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 60) Which of the following is not an extrinsic eye muscle? A) inferior rectus B) rectus abdominis C) lateral rectus D) medial rectus E) superior oblique Answer: B Learning Outcome: 10.7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

61) The eye muscles include all of the following muscles except A) medial rectus. B) inferior rectus. C) superior oblique. D) inferior oblique. E) lateral oblique. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 10.7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 62) Which eye muscle sends its tendon of origin through a pulley or trochlea before inserting on the globe? A) superior rectus B) superior oblique C) lateral rectus D) inferior rectus E) inferior oblique Answer: B Learning Outcome: 10.7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 63) The muscle allows you to look down. A) inferior rectus B) medial rectus C) lateral rectus D) superior rectus E) inferior oblique Answer: A Learning Outcome: 10.7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 64) The allows you to look up. A) inferior rectus B) medial rectus C) lateral rectus D) superior rectus E) inferior oblique Answer: D Learning Outcome: 10.7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

65) The muscle acts to elevate the mandible and close the jaw. A) lateral pterygoid B) digastric C) superior rectus D) temporalis E) masseter Answer: E Learning Outcome: 10.7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 66) Medial rotation of the eyeball is performed by the A) inferior rectus B) lateral rectus C) medial rectus D) superior rectus E) inferior oblique Answer: C Learning Outcome: 10.7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

muscle.

67) Pam's daughter is born cross-eyed. As she grows, the problem does not improve. Her physician suggests cutting an eye muscle to bring the eyes into a more normal position. Which muscle will the doctor cut? A) inferior rectus B) lateral rectus C) medial rectus D) superior rectus E) superior oblique Answer: C Learning Outcome: 10.7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Analyzing 68) Which of the following describes the action of the digastric muscle? A) elevates the larynx B) elevates the larynx and depresses the mandible C) depresses the larynx D) depresses and retracts the tongue E) elevates the mandible Answer: B Learning Outcome: 10.8 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

69) Each of the following muscles is involved in the process of chewing or manipulating food in the mouth except the A) masseter. B) temporalis. C) pterygoid. D) omohyoid. E) genioglossus. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 10.8 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 70) The muscle that elevates the tongue is the A) genioglossus. B) hyoglossus. C) palatoglossus. D) geniohyoid. E) digastric. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 10.8 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 71) Which of the following does not originate or insert on the hyoid bone? A) digastric B) geniohyoid C) omohyoid D) sternohyoid E) sternothyroid Answer: E Learning Outcome: 10.8 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 72) Which of the following muscles has its origin on the hyoid and inserts on the tongue? A) hyoglossus B) lateral pterygoid C) sternohyoid D) thyrohyoid E) geniohyoid Answer: A Learning Outcome: 10.8 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

73) The sternocleidomastoid inserts on the A) occipital bone. B) clavicle. C) mastoid process. D) sternum. E) None of the answers is correct. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 10.8 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 74) In assessing a stroke patient, you ask her to stick out (protract) her tongue. You note that it deviates to one side. You suspect that damage to the neural control of the _ muscle has occurred. A) hyoglossus B) genioglossus C) palatoglossus D) styloglossus E) None of the answers is correct. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 10.8 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 75) Which of the following is not a spinal flexor? A) quadratus lumborum B) longus capitis C) longus colli D) longissimus E) None of the answers is correct. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 10.9 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 76) The iliac crest is the origin of the A) quadratus lumborum. B) iliocostalis cervicis. C) longissimus cervicis. D) semispinalis capitis. E) splenius. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 10.9 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

77) The extends the neck. A) spinalis thoracis B) splenius capitis C) spinalis cervicis D) iliocostalis lumborum E) longissimus capitis Answer: C Learning Outcome: 10.9 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 78) The scalenes have their origin on the A) transverse and costal processes of cervical vertebrae. B) inferior border of the previous rib. C) superior border of the next rib. D) cartilages of the ribs. E) thoracodorsal fascia and iliac crest. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 10.10 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 79) Which of the following muscles has its insertion on the xiphoid process of the sternum? A) internal oblique B) external intercostal C) rectus abdominis D) internal intercostal E) scalene Answer: C Learning Outcome: 10.10 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 80) The muscle that originates on the superior surface of the pubis around the symphysis is the A) internal oblique. B) external oblique. C) rectus abdominis. D) transversus abdominis. E) scalene. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 10.10 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

81) All of the following muscles compresses the abdomen except A) internal oblique. B) external oblique. C) rectus abdominis. D) transverse abdominis. E) diaphragm. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 10.10 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 82) Muscular walls of the thorax and abdomen are composed of A) spinal erector muscles. B) muscles of mastication. C) oblique and rectus muscles. D) glossal muscles. E) pectoralis muscles. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 10.10 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 83) During abdominal surgery, the surgeon makes a cut lateral to the linea alba. The muscle that would be cut is the A) digastric. B) external abdominal oblique. C) rectus abdominis. D) scalenus. E) splenius. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 10.10 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 84) Damage to which of the following muscles would interfere most with the ability to breathe? A) pterygoid B) rectus abdominis C) intercostals D) platysma E) digastric Answer: C Learning Outcome: 10.10 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

85) Which of the following is the origin of the bulbospongiosus? A) ischial spine B) inferior ischial ramus C) linea alba and pubis D) coccyx E) collagen sheath at the base of the clitoris or penis Answer: E Learning Outcome: 10.11 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 86) Which of the following muscles is not found within the pelvic floor? A) ischiocavernosus B) deep transverse perineal C) bulbospongiosus D) coccygeus E) quadratus lumborum Answer: E Learning Outcome: 10.11 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 87) The levator ani inserts on the A) iliac crest. B) coccyx. C) ischial spine. D) central tendon of the perineum. E) sacrum. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 10.11 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 88) Which of the following muscles functions to expel urine or semen in males? A) bulbospongiosus B) superficial transverse perineal C) coccygeus D) levator ani E) anconeus Answer: A Learning Outcome: 10.11 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

89) The originate in the pelvic region and usually insert on the femur. A) muscles that move the leg B) muscles that move the thigh C) intrinsic muscles of the hand D) extrinsic muscles that move the foot and toes E) muscles that move the arm Answer: B Learning Outcome: 10.12 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 90) The intrinsic muscles of the hand originate A) primarily on the tarsal and metatarsal bones, and insert on the phalanges. B) on the pectoral girdle and arm, and insert on the radius, ulna, and/or carpals. C) on the tibia and fibula, and insert on the tarsals, metatarsals, and/or phalanges. D) primarily on the carpal and metacarpal bones, and insert on the phalanges. E) on the pelvis and femur, and insert on the tibia and/or fibula. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 10.12 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 91) Which of the following is an axial muscle? A) serratus anterior B) sternocleidomastoid C) deltoid D) rhomboid major E) latissimus dorsi Answer: B Learning Outcome: 10.13 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 92) Reflection of the trapezius muscle exposes the A) serratus anterior and subclavian muscles. B) infraspinatus and teres minor muscles. C) deltoid and supraspinatus muscles. D) rhomboid minor and levator scapulae muscles. E) gastrocnemius and tibialis anterior muscles. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 10.13 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

93) Twelve-year-old Aaron tried out for the Little League baseball team and was chosen as a pitcher. One day, after a few months of practice and games, Aaron's father told him, "Hey, kid, you're really getting some muscle definition there! You're going to be a major league pitcher someday, with muscles like that!" Which of Aaron's muscles in particular do you think were growing stronger and getting larger as a result of his pitching? A) triangularis, masseter, trapezius B) peroneus longus, biceps femoris, gastrocnemius C) sartorius, soleus, rectus femoris D) deltoid, triceps brachii, and brachioradialis E) mentalis, risorius, levator anguli oris Answer: D Learning Outcome: 10.13 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 94) Which of the following describes the action of the serratus anterior? A) adducts the arm B) adducts and flexes the humerus C) protracts the shoulder, abducts and medially rotates the scapula D) medial rotation of the humerus E) lateral rotation of the humerus Answer: C Learning Outcome: 10.14 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 95) Which of the following does not move the pectoral girdle? A) pectoralis major B) brachialis C) rhomboid major D) serratus anterior E) trapezius Answer: B Learning Outcome: 10.14 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 96) The muscle that adducts and rotates the scapula downward is the A) rhomboid. B) levator scapulae. C) serratus anterior. D) pectoralis minor. E) subclavius. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 10.14 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

97) The muscle that inserts on the acromion and scapular spine is the A) serratus anterior. B) trapezius. C) sternocleidomastoid. D) pectoralis minor. E) levator scapulae. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 10.14 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 98) All of the following originate on the scapula except the A) pectoralis major. B) teres major. C) teres minor. D) subscapularis. E) supraspinatus. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 10.15 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 99) Muscles of the rotator cuff include all of the following except the A) supraspinatus. B) infraspinatus. C) subscapularis. D) teres minor. E) rhomboid. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 10.15 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 100) Which of the following is the insertion of the pectoralis major? A) the vertebral border near the spine B) the greater tubercle of the humerus C) the mastoid region of the skull D) the occipital bone of the skull E) the clavicle and scapula Answer: B Learning Outcome: 10.15 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

101) The powerful abductor muscle of the upper arm is the A) pectoralis major. B) subscapularis. C) deltoid. D) coracobrachialis. E) teres major. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 10.15 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 102) Which of the following is not a muscle of the rotator cuff? A) supraspinatus B) infraspinatus C) teres minor D) subscapularis E) subclavius Answer: E Learning Outcome: 10.15 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 103) The infraspinatus has its insertion on the A) greater tubercle of the humerus. B) tuberosity of the radius. C) lesser tubercle and intertubercular groove of the humerus. D) clavicle and scapula. E) vertebral border near the spine. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 10.15 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 104) The pectoralis major muscle inserts on the greater tubercle of the humerus. When it contracts, it does not provide A) flexion. B) medial rotation at the shoulder. C) adduction. D) lateral motion at the shoulder. E) None of the answers is correct. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 10.15 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

105) Damage to the pectoralis major would interfere with a person's ability to A) extend the forearm. B) abduct the humerus. C) adduct the humerus. D) elevate the scapula. E) rotate the elbow. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 10.15 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 106) Muscles that insert on the olecranon process of the ulna can act to A) flex the forearm. B) extend the forearm. C) abduct the forearm. D) adduct the forearm. E) extend the carpals. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 10.16 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 107) Which of the following muscles does not have an action that is antagonistic to the action of the brachialis muscle? A) anconeus B) triceps brachii lateral head C) triceps brachii long head D) triceps brachii medial head E) brachioradialis Answer: E Learning Outcome: 10.16 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 108) Which of the following does not originate on the humerus? A) anconeus B) brachialis C) brachioradialis D) biceps brachii E) None of the answers is correct. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 10.16 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

109) Which of the following is the insertion of the triceps brachii? A) olecranon process of the ulna B) infraglenoid tuberosity of the scapula C) lateral condyle of the humerus D) medial epicondyle of the humerus E) base of the second metacarpal Answer: A Learning Outcome: 10.16 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 110) All of the following originate on the medial epicondyle of the humerus except A) flexor carpi radialis. B) flexor carpi ulnaris. C) palmaris longus. D) pronator teres. E) supinator. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 10.16 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 111) The muscle that pronates the forearm and opposes biceps brachii is the A) brachialis. B) triceps brachii medial head. C) pronator quadratus. D) anconeus. E) latissimus dorsi. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 10.16 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 112) People who are engaged in repetitive hand movements such as typing or playing the piano may suffer wrist pain, especially during palmar flexion. All of the following are true concerning this condition except that it A) is called carpal tunnel syndrome. B) results from inflammation of the synovial tendon sheaths. C) never causes muscle weakness. D) results from inflammation of the carpal retinacula. E) irritates the median nerve. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 10.16 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

113) The muscle that extends the arm while doing push-ups is the A) deltoid. B) pectorals major. C) brachialis. D) triceps brachii. E) biceps brachii. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 10.16 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 114) When opposing the thumb, which muscle is active? A) flexor pollicis longus B) abductor pollicis longus C) flexor digitorum profundus D) flexor carpi radialis E) pronator teres Answer: A Learning Outcome: 10.17 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 115) Your instructor asks the class a question. She points to you to answer it. What muscle is she using to point her index finger in your direction? A) extensor pollicis brevis B) extensor indicis C) flexor digitorum superficialis D) flexor carpi radialis E) extensor digiti minimi Answer: B Learning Outcome: 10.17 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 116) The muscle that adducts the thumb is the A) adductor pollicis. B) abductor pollicis brevis. C) extensor digitorum. D) flexor digitorum profundus. E) flexor pollicis longus. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 10.18 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

117) Which intrinsic muscle does not originate on a carpal bone? A) abductor digiti minimi B) adductor pollicis C) opponens digiti minimi D) flexor digiti minimi brevis E) palmar interosseus Answer: E Learning Outcome: 10.18 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 118) The adductor brevis has its origin on the A) ilium. B) pubis. C) sacrum. D) iliac crest. E) linea aspera. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 10.19 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 119) Which of the following muscles pulls on the iliotibial tract? A) gluteus medius B) gluteus maximus C) pectineus D) vastus medialis E) All of the answers are correct. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 10.19 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 120) All of these muscles produce lateral rotation at the hip except the A) gluteus maximus B) piriformis C) quadrats femoris D) obturator internus E) pectineus Answer: E Learning Outcome: 10.19 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

121) The muscle that inserts on the iliotibial tract and gluteal tuberosity of the femur is the A) tensor fasciae latae. B) piriformis. C) gluteus minimus. D) gluteus medius. E) gluteus maximus. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 10.19 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 122) The band of collagen fibers that laterally braces the knee is the A) linea alba. B) tensor fasciae latae. C) linea aspera. D) iliotibial tract. E) piriformis. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 10.19 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 123) Muscles that laterally rotate the thigh include all of the following except the A) gluteus maximus. B) obturator internus. C) obturator externus. D) piriformis. E) tensor fasciae latae. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 10.19 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 124) All of the following provides flexion of the knee except A) biceps femoris. B) semimembranosus. C) semitendinosus. D) rectus femoris. E) sartorius. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 10.20 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

125) The only knee flexor that originates superior to the acetabulum is the A) biceps femoris. B) gracilis. C) sartorius. D) iliopsoas. E) semimembranosus. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 10.20 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 126) The muscle that medially rotates and flexes (unlocks) the knee joint is the A) iliacus. B) gracilis. C) sartorius. D) soleus. E) popliteus. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 10.20 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 127) Which of these muscles is not a member of the quadriceps femoris group? A) vastus lateralis B) vastus medialis C) vastus intermedius D) biceps femoris E) rectus femoris Answer: D Learning Outcome: 10.20 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 128) Each of the following muscles acts to flex the leg except the A) semimembranosus. B) semitendinosus. C) vastus lateralis. D) gracilis. E) sartorius. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 10.20 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

129) The quadriceps group includes all of the following except the A) biceps femoris. B) vastus intermedius. C) vastus lateralis. D) vastus medialis. E) rectus femoris. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 10.20 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 130) Which of the following muscles belongs to the flexors of the knee muscle group? A) biceps femoris B) semimembranosus C) semitendinosus D) All of the answers are correct. E) None of the answers is correct. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 10.20 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 131) The insertion of the flexor hallucis longus is A) above the femoral condyles. B) the superior surface of the distal phalanx of the great toe. C) the inferior surface of the distal phalanx of the great toe. D) the lateral condyle of the tibia and anterior surface of the fibula. E) the posterior surface of the medial condyle of the tibia. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 10.21 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 132) An antagonist to the gastrocnemius is the A) fibularis. B) extensor digitorum longus. C) soleus. D) tibialis posterior. E) tibialis anterior. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 10.21 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

133) A muscle that dorsiflexes the foot is the A) tibialis anterior. B) tibialis posterior. C) fibularis brevis. D) soleus. E) gastrocnemius. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 10.21 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 134) Tom is having difficulty plantar flexing and everting his foot. Which muscle is most likely involved in this problem? A) tibialis anterior B) soleus C) gastrocnemius D) flexor digitorum longus E) fibularis longus Answer: E Learning Outcome: 10.21 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 135) Contracting the gastrocnemius muscles to elevate the body on the toes involves a lever. A) first-class B) second-class C) third-class D) fourth-class E) All of the answers are correct. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 10.21 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 136) Which of these is not an intrinsic muscle of the foot? A) quadratus plantae B) abductor digiti minimi C) flexor digitorum brevis D) flexor digitorum longus E) abductor hallucis Answer: D Learning Outcome: 10.22 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

137) If the anterior compartment of the lower limb was suffering from "compartment syndrome," which of these structures would not be at risk of injury? A) tibialis anterior B) vastus lateralis C) rectus femoris D) biceps femoris E) femoral artery Answer: D Learning Outcome: 10.23 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 138) What are the divisions and functions of the muscular system? (Module 10.1A) A) The axial division support and position the axial skeleton and the appendicular division support and move the limbs. B) The axial division support and move the limbs and the appendicular division support and position the appendicular skeleton. C) The axial division support and move the head, neck, arms, and trunk and the appendicular division support and move the legs. D) The axial division support and move the legs and the appendicular division support and move the head, neck, arms, and trunk. E) The axial division support and position the head and neck and the appendicular division support and move the trunk and limbs. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 10.1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 139) How many skeletal muscles are there in the body? (Module 10.1B) A) approximately 80 B) approximately 126 C) approximately 200 D) approximately 700 E) approximately 1500 Answer: D Learning Outcome: 10.1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

140) What factors influence the performance of a skeletal muscle? (Module 10.1C) A) The performance of a skeletal muscle is dependent on the thickness of the bone to which it is attached. B) The performance of a skeletal muscle is dependent on muscle fiber organization and how the muscle attaches to the bone. C) The performance of a skeletal muscle is dependent on how large the muscle fibers are and how large the bone is. D) The performance of a skeletal muscle is dependent on how long the muscle fibers are and how tall the individual is. E) The performance of a skeletal muscle is dependent on whether it is an axial or an appendicular muscle. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 10.1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 141) Why does a pennate muscle generate more tension than does a parallel muscle of the same size? (Module 10.2A) A) A pennate muscle generates more tension because pennate muscle fibers lie parallel to the bone. B) A pennate muscle generates more tension because pennate muscle fibers lie perpendicular to the bone and parallel muscle fibers lie parallel to the bone. C) A pennate muscle generates more tension because a pennate muscle contains more muscle fibers than a parallel muscle. D) A pennate muscle generates more tension because a pennate muscle has a flat body and a parallel muscle has a broad body. E) A pennate muscle generates more tension because a pennate muscle pulls in only one direction and parallel muscles pull in different directions. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 10.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 142) The joint between the occipital bone of the skull and the first cervical vertebra (atlas) is which part of which class of lever system? (Module 10.2C) A) first-class lever; load B) second-class lever; applied force C) third-class lever; load D) first-class lever; fulcrum E) third-class lever; fulcrum Answer: D Learning Outcome: 10.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

143) Define the term synergist as it relates to muscle action. (Module 10.3A) A) A synergist is the site of attachment of a muscle to the bone. B) A synergist is the muscle whose contraction is chiefly responsible for producing a particular movement. C) A synergist is the muscle whose action opposes that of a particular agonist. D) A synergist is the site of muscle attachment on the movable end. E) A synergist is a muscle that helps the agonist perform its actions more efficiently. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 10.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 144) Muscle A abducts the humerus and muscle B adducts the humerus. What is the relationship between the two muscles. (Module 10.3B) A) The two muscles are agonists to each other. B) The two muscles are antagonists to each other. C) The two muscles are synergists to each other. D) One muscle is an agonist and the other is a synergist during the same movement. E) The two muscles are fixators to each other. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 10.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 145) What does the name flexor carpi radialis longus tell you about this muscle? (Module 10.3C) A) The name tells that this muscle is a long muscle that lies next to the radius and flexes the wrist. B) The name tells that this muscle is a long muscle that lies opposite the radius and flexes the fingers. C) The name tells that this muscle is a long muscle that lies near the tibia and flexes the ankle. D) The name tells that this muscle is a short muscle that lies near the radius and flexes the ankle. E) The name tells that this muscle is a long muscle that lies near the radius and flexes the elbow. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 10.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 146) What is the function of the axial muscles? (Module 10.4A) A) Axial muscles move the limbs. B) Axial muscles support the pelvic and pectoral girdles. C) Axial muscles support the pelvic and pectoral girdles and move the limbs. D) Axial muscles control facial movements and swallowing and are found in the head and neck. E) Axial muscles position the head and spinal column and also move the rib cage for breathing. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 10.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

147) Identify the division (axial or appendicular) to which each of the following muscles belongs: biceps brachii, external oblique, temporalis, and vastus medialis. (Module 10.4C) A) biceps brachii = axial; external oblique = appendicular; temporalis = axial; vastus medialis = appendicular B) biceps brachii = axial; external oblique = axial; temporalis = appendicular; vastus medialis = appendicular C) biceps brachii = appendicular; external oblique = axial; temporalis = appendicular; vastus medialis = axial D) biceps brachii = appendicular; external oblique = axial; temporalis = axial; vastus medialis = appendicular E) biceps brachii = appendicular; external oblique = appendicular; temporalis = appendicular; vastus medialis = axial Answer: D Learning Outcome: 10.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 148) The axial muscle stabilize and position which regions of the body? (Module 10.5A) A) The axial muscles stabilize and position the head, neck, and trunk. B) The axial muscles stabilize and position the pectoral and pelvic girdles. C) The axial muscles stabilize and position the pectoral girdles and the upper limbs. D) The axial muscles stabilize and position the pelvic girdles and the lower limbs. E) The axial muscles stabilize and position the trunk and limbs. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 10.5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 149) State whether the following muscles involve the mouth, eye, nose, ear, scalp, or neck: buccinator, corrugator supercilii, mentalis, nasalis, platysma, procerus, and risorius. (Module 10.6B) A) buccinator = mouth; corrugator supercilii = eye; mentalis = mouth; nasalis = nose; platysma = neck; procerus = scalp; risorius = scalp B) buccinator = mouth; corrugator supercilii = eye; mentalis = mouth; nasalis = nose; platysma = neck; procerus = nose; risorius = mouth C) buccinator = nose; corrugator supercilii = mouth; mentalis = mouth; nasalis = nose; platysma = scalp; procerus = mouth; risorius = ear D) buccinator = neck; corrugator supercilii = nose; mentalis = scalp; nasalis = nose; platysma = scalp; procerus = ear; risorius = eye E) buccinator = neck; corrugator supercilii = scalp; mentalis = scalp; nasalis = nose; platysma = neck; procerus = ear; risorius = neck Answer: B Learning Outcome: 10.6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

150) Name the extrinsic eye muscles. (Module 10.7A) A) internal oblique, external oblique, rectus femoris, superior rectus, rectus medialis, intermediate oblique B) depressor labii inferioris, levator labii superioris, levator anguli oris, orbicularis oris, risorius, procerus C) inferior rectus, medial rectus, superior rectus, lateral rectus, inferior oblique, superior oblique D) corrugator supercilii, levator palpebrae superioris, orbicularis oculi, superior oculi, inferior oculi, corrugator oculi E) mentalis, temporalis, medial pterygoid, lateral pterygoid, medial rectus, lateral rectus Answer: C Learning Outcome: 10.7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 151) Which muscles have their origin on the lateral pterygoid plates and their insertion on the medial surface of the ramus of the mandible? (Module 10.7B) A) temporalis B) masseter C) zygomaticus major D) medial and lateral pterygoids E) zygomaticus minor Answer: D Learning Outcome: 10.7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 152) If you were contracting and relaxing your masseter, what would you probably be doing? (Module 10.7C) A) swallowing B) blinking C) sticking out your tongue D) bending the neck to look down E) chewing or eating Answer: E Learning Outcome: 10.7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 153) List the muscles of the tongue. (Module 10.8A) A) genioglossus, hyoglossus, palatoglossus, styloglossus B) pharyngeal constrictors, laryngeal elevators, palatal muscles C) digastric, geniohyoid, mylohyoid, omohyoid D) genioglossus, hyoglossus, mylohyoid, omohyoid E) sternohyoid, sternothyroid, sternoglossus, thyrohyoid Answer: A Learning Outcome: 10.8 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

154) Which muscles elevate the soft palate? (Module 10.8B) A) pharyngeal constrictors B) laryngeal elevators C) palatal muscles D) digastric muscle E) muscles originating at the sternum Answer: C Learning Outcome: 10.8 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 155) Which muscles associated with the hyoid form the floor of the mouth? (Module 10.8C) A) hyoglossus, palatoglossus, styloglossus B) pharyngeal constrictors, laryngeal elevators, palatal muscles C) digastric, geniohyoid, mylohyoid D) genioglossus, hyoglossus, mylohyoid E) sternohyoid, sternothyroid, sternoglossus Answer: C Learning Outcome: 10.8 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 156) List the spinal flexor muscles. (Module 10.9A) A) splenius capitis and splenius cervicis B) spinalis cervicis and spinalis thoracis C) iliocostalis cervicis, iliocostalis thoracis, iliocostalis lumborum D) longus capitis, longus colli, quadratus lumborum E) semispinalis capitis, semispinalis cervicis, semispinalis thoracis, multifidus Answer: D Learning Outcome: 10.9 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 157) Which muscles enable you to extend your neck? (Module 10.9B) A) splenius capitis and spinalis cervicis B) spinalis cervicis and longus capitis C) mutifidus and quadratus lumborum D) longissimus capitis and longus colli E) iliocostalis lumborum and longissimus cervicis Answer: A Learning Outcome: 10.9 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

158) Which muscle forms the deepest layer of the abdominal wall muscles? (Module 10.10A) A) external oblique B) internal intercostal C) internal oblique D) rectus abdominis E) transversus abdominis Answer: E Learning Outcome: 10.10 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 159) Which muscle connects the ribs and sternum to the pubic bones? (Module 10.10B) A) external intercostals B) external oblique C) transversus abdominis D) rectus abdominis E) diaphragm Answer: D Learning Outcome: 10.10 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 160) Describe the action of the external oblique. (Module 10.10C) A) contraction expands thoracic cavity, compresses abdominopelvic cavity B) compresses abdomen, depresses ribs, flexes or bends spine C) depresses ribs, flexes vertebral column D) elevates ribs or flex neck E) extends vertebral column Answer: B Learning Outcome: 10.10 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 161) Which muscles make up the pelvic diaphragm? (Module 10.11A) A) levator ani (iliococcygeus and pubococcygeus), coccygeus, and external anal sphincter B) deep transverse perineal muscle and external urethral sphincter C) bulbospongiosus, ischiocavernosus, and superficial transverse perineal D) bulbospongiosus, coccygeus, and deep transverse perineal muscle E) ischiocavernosus, external urethral sphincter, and external anal sphincter Answer: A Learning Outcome: 10.11 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

162) In females, what is the action of the bulbospongiosus? (Module 10.11B) A) stabilizes central tendon of perineum B) closes urethra; elevates and retracts anus C) compresses bulbourethral glands D) compresses and stiffens clitoris; narrows vaginal opening E) flexes coccygeal joints; tenses and supports pelvic floor Answer: D Learning Outcome: 10.11 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 163) The coccygeus extends from the sacrum and coccyx to which structure? (Module 10.11C) A) the rectum B) the urinary bladder C) ischial spine D) inner margins of pubis E) ischial ramus and tuberosity Answer: C Learning Outcome: 10.11 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 164) Where do the muscles that position each pectoral girdle originate? (Module 10.12A) A) on the humerus B) on the axial skeleton C) on the pelvis D) on the radius and ulna E) on the femur Answer: B Learning Outcome: 10.12 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 165) Which axial muscle is often known as the "six-pack" in physically fit people? (Module 10.13A) A) trapezius B) pectoralis major C) latissimus dorsi D) transversus abdominis E) rectus abdominis Answer: E Learning Outcome: 10.13 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

166) Describe the appearance of the appendicular muscles as you move proximally to distally. (Module 10.13B) A) The muscles become larger and more numerous. B) The muscles become larger and less numerous. C) The muscles become smaller and more numerous. D) The muscles become smaller and less numerous. E) The muscles become thinner and flatter. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 10.13 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 167) Identify to which division, axial or appendicular, the following muscles belong: deltoid, external oblique, gluteus maximus, pectoralis major, platysma, and rectus femoris. (Module 10.13C) A) deltoid = appendicular; external oblique = axial; gluteus maximus = appendicular; pectoralis major = axial; platysma = axial; rectus femoris = axial B) deltoid = appendicular; external oblique = axial; gluteus maximus = axial; pectoralis major = appendicular; platysma = axial; rectus femoris = appendicular C) deltoid = appendicular; external oblique = axial; gluteus maximus = appendicular; pectoralis major = appendicular; platysma = axial; rectus femoris = appendicular D) deltoid = appendicular; external oblique = appendicular; gluteus maximus = appendicular; pectoralis major = axial; platysma = appendicular; rectus femoris = axial E) deltoid = axial; external oblique = appendicular; gluteus maximus = axial; pectoralis major = axial; platysma = appendicular; rectus femoris = appendicular Answer: C Learning Outcome: 10.13 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 168) Identify the largest of the superficial muscles that position the pectoral girdle. (Module 10.14A) A) trapezius B) levator scapulae C) subclavius D) pectoralis minor E) serratus anterior Answer: A Learning Outcome: 10.14 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

169) Which muscles enable you to shrug your shoulders? (Module 10.14B) A) trapezius B) levator scapulae C) subclavius D) pectoralis minor E) serratus anterior Answer: B Learning Outcome: 10.14 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 170) Which muscle originates on the first rib and inserts on the inferior border of the clavicle? (Module 10.14C) A) pectoralis minor B) levator scapulae C) subclavius D) rhomboid major E) serratus anterior Answer: C Learning Outcome: 10.14 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 171) Which muscle originates on the anterior surface of the scapula and inserts on the lesser tubercle of the humerus? (Module 10.15A) A) deltoid B) supraspinatus C) teres major D) infraspinatus E) subscapularis Answer: E Learning Outcome: 10.15 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 172) Define line of action. (Module 10.15B) A) The line of action is the direction a bone is pulled towards. B) The line of action is the line of force produced when a muscle contracts. C) The line of action is the name for all the muscles that lie parallel to the bone. D) The line of action is the position of the fulcrum in a first-class lever. E) The line of action is the name for all the muscles that permit a particular action. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 10.15 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

173) Name the muscle that abducts the arm. (Module 10.15C) A) deltoid B) teres minor C) teres major D) infraspinatus E) subscapularis Answer: A Learning Outcome: 10.15 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 174) Define retinaculum. (Module 10.16A) A) A retinaculum is a soft, gelatinous core of a muscle. B) A retinaculum is pad of fibrocartilage that separates muscles. C) A retinaculum is a small, thin, fluid-filled pockets that forms between muscles. D) A retinaculum is a localized mass of adipose tissue covered by muscles. E) A retinaculum is a wide band of connective tissue that stabilizes tendons. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 10.16 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 175) Are the wrist extensors located on the anterior surface or the posterior surface of the forearm? (Module 10.16B) A) anterior surface B) posterior surface Answer: B Learning Outcome: 10.16 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 176) Which muscles are involved in turning a doorknob? (Module 10.16C) A) flexors B) supinators C) supinators and pronators D) flexors and extensors E) flexors and pronators Answer: C Learning Outcome: 10.16 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 177) Name the muscles that extend the fingers. (Module 10.17A) A) extensor digitorum and flexor pollicis longus B) extensor pollicis longus and extensor pollicis brevis C) abductor pollicis longus and adductor pollicis longus D) extensor digitorum and extensor digiti minimi E) flexor digitorum superficialis and flexor digitorum profundus Answer: D Learning Outcome: 10.17 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 47

178) Name the muscles that abduct the wrist. (Module 10.17B) A) extensor digitorum and flexor pollicis longus B) abductor pollicis longus, extensor pollicis brevis, and extensor pollicis longus C) flexor digitorum superificialis and flexor digitorum profundus D) flexor pollicis brevis and flexor pollicis longus E) abductor pollicis longus and adductor pollicis longus Answer: B Learning Outcome: 10.17 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 179) The names of muscles associated with the thumb frequently include what term? (Module 10.17C) A) brevis B) longus C) minimi D) digitorum E) pollicis Answer: E Learning Outcome: 10.17 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 180) Name the intrinsic muscles of the thumb. (Module 10.18A) A) adductor pollicis, flexor pollicis brevis, opponens pollicis, abductor pollicis brevis B) first dorsal interosseous, abductor digiti minimi C) lumbricals, palmar interosseous, first dorsal interosseous D) abductor digiti minimi, flexor digiti minimi brevis, opponens digiti minimi E) palmaris brevis, palmaris longus, palmaris digiti minimi Answer: A Learning Outcome: 10.18 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 181) Which muscle originate on the phalanges? (Module 10.18B) A) All the wrist flexors. B) All the wrist extensors. C) No muscles originate on the phalanges. D) All the wrist adductors. E) All the wrist abductors. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 10.18 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

182) Name the muscles that compose the gluteal group. (Module 10.19A) A) piriformis, superior gemellus, inferior gemellus, quadratus femoris B) gluteus maximus, gluteus medius, gluteus minimus, tensor fasciae latae C) psoas major, iliacus D) gluteus medius, gluteus minimus, obturator internus, obturator externus E) pectineus, gracilis, quadratus femoris, gluteus maximus Answer: B Learning Outcome: 10.19 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 183) Which leg movement would be impaired by injury to the obturator muscles? (Module 10.19B) A) extension at the hip B) flexion at the hip C) medial rotation at the hip D) lateral rotation at the hip E) adduction at the hip Answer: D Learning Outcome: 10.19 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 184) Which muscles flex the knee? (Module 10.20A) A) biceps femoris, semitendinosus, semimembranosus, sartorius, popliteus B) rectus femoris, vastus intermedius, vastus lateralis, vastus medialis C) biceps femoris, rectus femoris, sartorius D) vastus intermedius, vastus lateralis, vastus medialis, sartorius, popliteus E) semitendinosus and rectus femoris Answer: A Learning Outcome: 10.20 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 185) Name the muscle of the quadriceps femoris. (Module 10.20B) A) biceps femoris, semitendinosus, semimembranosus, sartorius, popliteus B) rectus femoris, vastus intermedius, vastus lateralis, vastus medialis C) biceps femoris, rectus femoris, sartorius D) vastus intermedius, vastus lateralis, vastus medialis, sartorius, popliteus E) semitendinosus and rectus femoris Answer: B Learning Outcome: 10.20 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

186) Identify the muscle whose origin is on the lateral condyle of the femur. (Module 10.20C) A) rectus femoris B) biceps femoris C) popliteus D) sartorius E) semitendinosus Answer: C Learning Outcome: 10.20 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 187) Which muscle of the leg crosses and produces actions at two joints? (Module 10.20D) A) rectus femoris B) biceps femoris C) popliteus D) sartorius E) semitendinosus Answer: D Learning Outcome: 10.20 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 188) Name the muscles involved in extending the ankle. (Module 10.21A) A) extensor digitorum longus and extensor hallucis longus B) flexor digitorum longus and flexor hallucis longus C) tibialis anterior, fibularis tertius, extensor digitorum longus, extensor hallucis longus D) gastrocnemius, fibularis brevis, fibularis longus, plantaris, soleus, tibialis posterior E) plantaris, soleus, flexor digitorum longus, flexor hallucis longus Answer: D Learning Outcome: 10.21 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 189) Name the muscles involved in flexing the toes. (Module 10.21B) A) extensor digitorum longus and extensor hallucis longus B) flexor digitorum longus and flexor hallucis longus C) tibialis anterior, fibularis tertius, extensor digitorum longus, extensor hallucis longus D) gastrocnemius, fibularis brevis, fibularis longus, plantaris, soleus, tibialis posterior E) plantaris, soleus, flexor digitorum longus, flexor hallucis longus Answer: B Learning Outcome: 10.21 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

190) How would a torn calcaneal tendon affect movement at the ankle? (Module 10.21C) A) It would make flexion difficult. B) It would make medial rotation difficult. C) It would make extension difficult. D) It would make lateral rotation difficult. E) It would make pronation difficult. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 10.21 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 191) What are the functions of the superior and inferior retinacula of the foot? (Module 10.22A) A) To allow inversion of the foot. B) To allow eversion of the foot. C) To assist in plantar flexion of the foot. D) To assist in dorsiflexion of the foot. E) To stabilize the positions of the tendons descending from the leg. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 10.22 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 192) Identify the intrinsic muscle that flexes the great toe. (Module 10.22B) A) lumbricals B) flexor digitorum brevis C) abductor digiti minimi D) flexor hallucis brevis E) flexor digiti minimi brevis Answer: D Learning Outcome: 10.22 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 193) Which intrinsic foot muscles originate on and insert on tendons? (Module 10.22C) A) the lumbricals B) the quadratus plantae C) the plantar interossei D) the dorsal interossei E) the flexor digitorum brevis Answer: A Learning Outcome: 10.22 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

194) Name the septa that divide the arm into anterior and posterior compartments. (Module 10.23A) A) the anterior intermuscular septa B) the posterior intermuscular septa C) the anterior and posterior intermuscular septa D) the lateral and medial intermuscular septa E) the superior and inferior intermuscular septa Answer: D Learning Outcome: 10.23 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Essay Questions 195) How do first-, second-, and third-class levers differ? Answer: Levers differ in the position of their fulcrum in relation to the applied force and the load. A first-class lever has the fulcrum positioned between the applied force and the load. Second-class levers have the fulcrum at one end, adjacent to the load, with the applied force at the other end. Third-class levers have the fulcrum at one end, the load at the other, and the applied force in the middle. Learning Outcome: 10.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Analyzing 196) What three functional roles in a movement are used to characterize muscle groups? Give a brief description of each action. Answer: Agonist, antagonist, or synergist. Agonists are chiefly responsible for a movement. Antagonists oppose the agonists, keeping the movements smooth. Synergists provide additional force or stabilize the origin. Learning Outcome: 10.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 197) Shelly gives her son an ice-cream cone. The boy grasps the cone with his right hand, opens his mouth, and begins to lick the ice cream. Which muscles does he use to perform these actions? Answer: As the child grasps the ice-cream cone, he uses flexor muscles, principally the flexor digitorum superficialis, flexor digitorum profundus, and flexor pollicis longus muscles. Opening his mouth requires the contraction of the platysma and digastric muscles and the relaxation of the masseter, temporalis, and pterygoid muscles. The licking action would involve the genioglossus muscle (to depress and protract the tongue) and the palatoglossus muscle (to elevate the tongue). Learning Outcome: 10.6, 10.7, 10.8, 10.17 Bloom's Taxonomy: Analyzing

198) Jeff is interested in toning his abdomen. What muscles would you tell Jeff to exercise to accomplish his goal? What movements would best exercise these muscles? Answer: Jeff should do exercises that flex and twist the trunk. The muscles he should target are the rectus abdominis muscles, the external and internal oblique muscles, and the latissimus dorsi muscles. Sit-ups and twisting movements will stimulate these muscles. If he places a weight on his chest as he does sit-ups, it will produce faster results because the rectus abdominis muscle would be working against a greater load. Learning Outcome: 10.10 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 199) While playing softball, Sid pulls his hamstring muscle. As a result of the injury, he has difficulty extending and medially rotating his thigh. Which muscle(s) of the hamstring group did he probably injure? Answer: Sid probably injured the semimembranosus and/or the semitendinosus, since both of these muscles have these difficult actions. Learning Outcome: 10.20 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 200) Define lever, and describe the three classes of levers. (Module 10.2B) Answer: A lever is a rigid structure — such as a board, a pry bar, or a bone — that moves on a fixed point called the fulcrum. There are three classes of levers: In a first-class lever, the fulcrum lies between the applied force and the load; in a second-class lever; the load lies between the fulcrum and applied force; and in a third-class lever, the applied force is between the fulcrum and the load. Third-class levers are the most common type in the body. Learning Outcome: 10.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 201) Which structures labeled in the figures in this module are not muscles? (Module 10.4B) Answer: The following structures labeled in these figures are not muscles: linea alba, flexor retinaculum, iliotibial tract, patella, tibia, clavicle, sternum, superior extensor retinaculum, inferior extensor retinaculum, lateral malleolus of fibula, medial malleolus of tibia, calcaneal tendon, calcaneus. Learning Outcome: 10.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 202) Name the muscles associated with the mouth, and identify the one involved in whistling. (Module 10.6A) Answer: The muscles associated with the mouth are the buccinators, depressor labii inferioris, levator labii superioris, levator anguli oris, mentalis, orbicularis oris, risorius, depressor anguli oris, zygomaticus major, and zygomaticus minor. The orbicularis oris is involed in whistling. Learning Outcome: 10.6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

203) Explain how a person is able to consciously move the skin on the scalp but is not able to consciously move the skin of the thigh. (Module 10.6C) Answer: A person is able to consciously move the skin on the scalp because the fibers of the epimysium are woven into those of the superficial fascia and the dermis, whereas muscle fibers of the thigh insert into bone and tendons, not skin tissue. Learning Outcome: 10.6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 204) What might account of a lack of massive flexor muscles? (Module 10.9C) Answer: The vertebral column does not need a massive series of flexor muscles because (1) many of the large trunk muscles flex the vertebral column when they contract, and (2) most of the body weight lies anterior to the vertebral column, so gravity tends to flex the spine. Learning Outcome: 10.9 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 205) If there are no muscles in the fingers, how are we able to move them? (Module 10.18C) Answer: We are able to move our fingers because tendons from forearm muscles extend across the distal finger joints. When the forearm muscles contract, our fingers move. Learning Outcome: 10.18 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 206) Propose a reason why compartment syndrome can be life threatening. (Module 10.23B) Answer: Compartment syndrome can be life threatening because prolonged ischemia leads to tissue death. Learning Outcome: 10.23 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

Visual Anatomy and Physiology, 3e (Martini) Chapter 11 Nervous Tissue Multiple Choice Questions 1) Which of the following is not a function of the nervous system? A) sense the internal and external environments B) integrate sensory information C) coordinate voluntary and involuntary activities D) direct long-term functions, such as growth E) control peripheral effectors Answer: D Learning Outcome: 11.1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 2) The nervous system is composed of the brain and spinal cord. A) autonomic B) peripheral C) central D) efferent E) afferent Answer: C Learning Outcome: 11.1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 3) The nervous system controls the skeletal muscles. A) sympathetic B) parasympathetic C) afferent D) somatic E) autonomic Answer: D Learning Outcome: 11.1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 4) The nervous system provides involuntary regulation of smooth muscle, cardiac muscle, and glandular activity. A) somatic B) autonomic C) sensory division of the peripheral D) automatic E) special sensory Answer: B Learning Outcome: 11.1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

5) The basic functional unit of the nervous system is the A) brain. B) spinal cord. C) nerve. D) glial cell. E) neuron. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 11.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 6) The plasma membrane of an axon is called the A) axon hillock. B) axoplasm. C) axolemma. D) axon terminal. E) axokaryon. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 11.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 7) The cytoplasm that surrounds the nucleus of a neuron is called the A) protoplasm. B) nucleoplasm. C) sarcoplasm. D) neuroplasm. E) perikaryon. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 11.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 8) Clusters of RER and free ribosomes in neurons are called A) neurofilaments. B) neurofibrils. C) perikaryon. D) Nissl bodies. E) microglia. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 11.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

9) The axon is connected to the cell body at the A) telodendria. B) synaptic knobs. C) collateral branches. D) axon hillock. E) synapse. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 11.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 10) Branches that may occur along an axon are called A) dendrites. B) synaptic knobs. C) collateral branches. D) hillocks. E) synapses. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 11.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 11) Axons terminate in a series of fine extensions known as A) telodendria. B) knobs. C) collateral branches. D) dendrites. E) synapses. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 11.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 12) Neurotransmitter for release is stored in synaptic A) telodendria. B) knobs. C) vesicles. D) mitochondria. E) neurosomes. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 11.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

13) The site of intercellular communication between neurons is the A) telodendria. B) synaptic knob. C) collateral branch. D) hillock. E) synapse. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 11.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 14) Which of the following is not associated with the cytoskeleton of the perikaryon? A) neurofilaments B) axon C) dendrite D) nucleus E) neurofibrils Answer: D Learning Outcome: 11.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 15) Which of the following is not contained in the axoplasm of the axon? A) neurotubules B) mitochondria C) vesicles D) neurofibrils E) Nissl bodies Answer: E Learning Outcome: 11.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 16) Most CNS neurons lack centrioles. This observation explains A) why CNS neurons grow such long axons. B) why CNS neurons cannot divide. C) the ability of neurons to generate an action potential. D) the ability of neurons to communicate with each other. E) the ability of neurons to produce a resting potential. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 11.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

Figure 11-1 17) Identify the structures labeled "5." A) axons B) telodendria C) dendritic spines D) synaptic terminals E) axosomata Answer: D Learning Outcome: 11.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 18) The structure labeled "2" is a A) cell body. B) dendrite. C) axon hillock. D) Nissl body. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 11.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 19) Which of the following is not a recognized structural classification for neurons? A) anaxonic B) bipolar C) multipolar D) pseudopolar E) unipolar Answer: D Learning Outcome: 11.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

20) monitor the digestive, respiratory, cardiovascular, urinary, and reproductive systems. A) Proprioceptors B) Interoceptors C) Exteroceptors D) Somatic sensory receptors E) Special sense receptors Answer: B Learning Outcome: 11.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 21) provide information about the external environment. A) Proprioceptors B) Interoceptors C) Exteroceptors D) Somatic sensory receptors E) Interneurons Answer: C Learning Outcome: 11.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 22) monitor the position of skeletal muscles and joints. A) Proprioceptors B) Interoceptors C) Exteroceptors D) Somatic sensory receptors E) Special sensory receptors Answer: A Learning Outcome: 11.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 23) monitor the internal environment. A) Endoceptors B) Interoceptors C) Exteroceptors D) Special sensory receptors E) Sensory ganglia Answer: B Learning Outcome: 11.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

24) The most abundant class of neuron in the central nervous system is A) anaxonic. B) bipolar. C) multipolar. D) pseudopolar. E) unipolar. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 11.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 25) Neurons that are rare, small, and lack features that distinguish dendrites from axons are called A) anaxonic. B) unipolar. C) bipolar. D) tripolar. E) multipolar. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 11.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 26) Neurons in which dendritic and axonal processes are continuous and the soma lies off to one side are called A) anaxonic. B) unipolar. C) bipolar. D) tripolar. E) multipolar. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 11.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 27) Neurons that have one axon and one dendrite, with the soma in between, are called A) anaxonic. B) unipolar. C) bipolar. D) tripolar. E) multipolar. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 11.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

28) Neurons that have several dendrites and a single axon are called A) anaxonic. B) unipolar. C) bipolar. D) tripolar. E) multipolar. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 11.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 29) Sensory neurons of the PNS are A) anaxonic. B) unipolar. C) bipolar. D) tripolar. E) multipolar. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 11.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 30) Which of the following activities or sensations is not monitored by interoceptors? A) sight B) joint movement C) activities of the digestive system D) cardiovascular activities E) urinary activities Answer: A Learning Outcome: 11.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 31) neurons are small and have no anatomical features that distinguish dendrites from axons. A) Multipolar B) Anaxonic C) Unipolar D) Bipolar E) Pseudopolar Answer: B Learning Outcome: 11.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

32) neurons are short, with a cell body between dendrite and axon, and occur in special sense organs. A) Multipolar B) Anaxonic C) Unipolar D) Bipolar E) Pseudopolar Answer: D Learning Outcome: 11.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 33) In a(n) neuron, the dendrites and axon are continuous or fused. A) multipolar B) anaxonic C) unipolar D) bipolar E) pseudopolar Answer: C Learning Outcome: 11.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 34) neurons are the most common class in the CNS. A) Multipolar B) Anaxonic C) Unipolar D) Bipolar E) Pseudopolar Answer: A Learning Outcome: 11.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 35) Neuron cell bodies in the PNS are clustered together in masses called A) nerves. B) ganglia. C) the spinal cord. D) peripheral nerves. E) nuclei. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 11.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

36) are the most numerous type of neuron in the CNS. A) Sensory neurons B) Motor neurons C) Unipolar neurons D) Bipolar neurons E) Interneurons Answer: E Learning Outcome: 11.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 37) Which of the following is not a function of the neuroglia? A) support B) memory C) secretion of cerebrospinal fluid D) maintenance of blood-brain barrier E) phagocytosis Answer: B Learning Outcome: 11.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 38) The glial cells in the central nervous system that form scar tissue after central nervous system injury are the A) astrocytes. B) satellite cells. C) oligodendrocytes. D) microglia. E) ependymal cells. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 11.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 39) Functions of astrocytes include all of the following except A) maintaining the blood-brain barrier. B) conducting action potentials. C) absorbing excess neurotransmitter. D) responding to neural tissue damage. E) forming a three-dimensional framework for the CNS. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 11.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

40) The myelin sheath that covers many CNS axons is formed by A) astrocytes. B) satellite cells. C) oligodendrocytes. D) microglia. E) ependymal cells. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 11.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 41) line the brain ventricles and spinal canal. A) Astrocytes B) Satellite cells C) Oligodendrocytes D) Microglia E) Ependymal cells Answer: E Learning Outcome: 11.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 42) Small, wandering cells that engulf cell debris and pathogens in the CNS are called A) astrocytes. B) satellite cells. C) oligodendrocytes. D) microglia. E) ependymal cells. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 11.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 43) Which of the following are not types of neuroglia? A) ependymal cells B) microglia C) astrocytes D) oligodendrocytes E) interneurons Answer: E Learning Outcome: 11.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

44) account for roughly half of the volume of the nervous system. A) Axons B) Dendrites C) Neuroglia D) Synapses E) Efferent fibers Answer: C Learning Outcome: 11.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 45) The largest and most numerous neuroglia in the CNS that absorb and recycle neurotransmitters are the A) astrocytes. B) ependymocytes. C) microglia. D) oligodendrocytes. E) tanycytes. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 11.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 46) The smallest neuroglia of the CNS that act as phagocytes are the A) astrocytes. B) ependymocytes. C) microglia. D) oligodendrocytes. E) tanycytes. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 11.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 47) Many medications introduced into the bloodstream cannot directly affect the neurons of the CNS because A) oligodendrocytes form a continuous myelin sheath around the axons. B) the astrocytes isolate the CNS by forming a blood-brain barrier. C) the neurilemma is impermeable to most molecules. D) ependymal cells restrict the flow of interstitial fluid between the capillaries and the neurons. E) Schwann cells form a capsule around neurons. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 11.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying

48) Extensive damage to oligodendrocytes in the CNS could result in A) loss of the structural framework of the brain. B) a breakdown of the blood-brain barrier. C) inability to produce scar tissue at the site of an injury. D) decreased production of cerebrospinal fluid. E) reduced speed of nerve impulses. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 11.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 49) Damage to ependymal cells would most likely affect the A) formation of myelin sheaths. B) formation of cerebrospinal fluid. C) formation of ganglia. D) repair of axons. E) transport of neurotransmitters within axons. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 11.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 50) Regions of the CNS with an abundance of myelinated axons constitute the A) white B) grey C) clear D) dark E) yellow Answer: A Learning Outcome: 11.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 51) Regions of the CNS where neuron cell bodies dominate constitute the A) white B) grey C) clear D) dark E) yellow Answer: B Learning Outcome: 11.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

matter.

52) After a stroke, what type of glial cell accumulates within the affected brain region? A) Schwann cells B) satellite cells C) oligodendrocytes D) microglia E) ependymal cells Answer: D Learning Outcome: 11.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Analyzing 53) Which of the following is a type of glial cell found in the peripheral nervous system? A) astrocytes B) satellite cells C) oligodendrocytes D) microglia E) ependymal cells Answer: B Learning Outcome: 11.5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 54) The neurilemma of axons in the peripheral nervous system is formed by A) astrocytes. B) satellite cells. C) oligodendrocytes. D) microglia. E) Schwann cells. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 11.5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 55) Glial cells that surround the neurons in ganglia are A) astrocytes. B) satellite cells. C) oligodendrocytes. D) microglia. E) ependymal cells. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 11.5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

56) Deteriorating changes in the distal segment of an axon as a result of a break between it and the soma is called degeneration. A) neural B) central C) peripheral D) Wallerian E) conduction Answer: D Learning Outcome: 11.5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 57) In the peripheral nervous system, Schwann cells participate in the repair of damaged nerves by A) producing new axons. B) regenerating cell bodies for the neurons. C) forming a cellular cord that directs axonal regrowth. D) clearing away cellular debris. E) producing more satellite cells that fuse to form new axons. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 11.5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 58) The tiny gaps between adjacent Schwann cells are called A) gap junctions. B) synapses. C) myelinated. D) nodes. E) internodes. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 11.5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 59) Which part(s) of the neuron can conduct an action potential? A) dendrites B) dendrites and cell body C) cell body and axon D) axon and telodendria E) dendrites and telodendria Answer: D Learning Outcome: 11.6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

60) The separation of plus and negative charges across the membrane creates a difference, or voltage. A) kinetic B) potential C) concentration D) gradient E) graded Answer: B Learning Outcome: 11.6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 61) The sum of the electrical and chemical forces acting on an ion is known as its gradient. A) osmotic B) chemiosmotic C) concentration D) potential E) electrochemical Answer: E Learning Outcome: 11.7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 62) Which of the following interactions between electrical and chemical gradients does not lead to the establishment of a neuron's resting potential? A) Chemical and electrical forces both favor sodium ions entering the cell. B) Electrical forces push sodium ions out of the cell. C) Chemical forces tend to drive potassium ions out of the cell. D) Potassium ions are attracted to the negative charges inside the cell. E) Potassium ions are repulsed by positive charges outside the cell. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 11.7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 63) The Na-K ion exchange pump actively transports A) 1 intracellular sodium ion for 2 extracellular potassium ions. B) 2 intracellular sodium ions for 1 extracellular potassium ion. C) 3 intracellular sodium ions for 1 extracellular potassium ion. D) 3 intracellular sodium ions for 2 extracellular potassium ions. E) 3 extracellular sodium ions for 2 intracellular potassium ions. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 11.7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

64) The resting membrane potential exists mainly due to passive A) leak B) active C) chemically gated D) voltage-gated E) mechanically-gated Answer: A Learning Outcome: 11.7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

channels.

65) The equilibrium potential for potassium ions occurs at approximately A) -90 mV. B) -70 mV. C) +66 mV. D) 0 mV. E) -55 mV. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 11.7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 66) Ion channels that are always open are called _ A) active B) gated C) leak D) regulated E) local Answer: C Learning Outcome: 11.7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

channels.

67) Raising the potassium ion concentration in the extracellular fluid surrounding a nerve cell will have which effect? A) depolarize the membrane potential B) hyperpolarize the membrane potential C) increase the magnitude of the potassium equilibrium potential D) repolarize the membrane potential E) increase the magnitude of the sodium equilibrium potential Answer: A Learning Outcome: 11.7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Analyzing

68) If the sodium-potassium pumps in the plasma membrane fail to function, all of the following occur except that the A) intracellular concentration of potassium ions will increase. B) neuron will slowly depolarize. C) membrane will slowly lose its capacity to generate action potentials. D) inside of the membrane will have a resting potential that is more positive than normal. E) intracellular concentration of sodium ions will increase. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 11.7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Analyzing 69) If the permeability of sodium ions increases in an axon, A) the membrane potential will depolarize. B) the membrane potential will hyperpolarize. C) inward movement of sodium ions will increase. D) outward movement of sodium ions will decrease. E) both the inward movement of sodium ions will increase and the membrane potential will depolarize. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 11.7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Analyzing 70) Which of the following is not involved in creating the resting potential of a neuron? A) diffusion of potassium ions out of the cell B) diffusion of sodium ions into the cell C) Membrane permeability for sodium ions is greater than for potassium ions. D) Membrane permeability for potassium ions is greater than for sodium ions. E) The interior of the plasma membrane has an excess of negative charges. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 11.7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 71) If the potassium permeability of a resting neuron increases above the resting permeability, what effect will this have on the transmembrane potential? A) The inside of the membrane will become more positive. B) The inside of the membrane will become more negative. C) There will be almost no effect on transmembrane potential. D) The membrane will become depolarized. E) The outside of the membrane will become more positive. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 11.7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

72) The sodium-potassium ion exchange pump A) is not involved in producing the resting membrane potential. B) transports sodium ions into the cell during depolarization. C) transports potassium ions out of the cell during repolarization. D) moves sodium and potassium opposite to the direction of their electrochemical gradients. E) depends on a hydrogen gradient for energy. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 11.7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 73) Opening of each of the following types of channels will contribute toward a graded potential except A) closed voltage-gated sodium channel. B) chemically gated acetylcholine receptor. C) sodium leak channel. D) mechanically gated sodium channel. E) inactivated voltage-gated sodium channel. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 11.8 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 74) Voltage-gated channels are present A) at the motor end plate. B) on the surface of dendrites. C) in the membrane that covers axons. D) on the soma of neurons. E) along the perikaryon of neurons. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 11.8 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 75) channels open or close in response to binding specific molecules. A) Leak B) Activated C) Chemically gated D) Voltage-gated E) Mechanically-gated Answer: C Learning Outcome: 11.8 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

76) channels open or close in response to physical distortion of the membrane surface. A) Voltage-gated B) Chemically gated C) Active D) Mechanically gated E) Leak Answer: D Learning Outcome: 11.8 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 77) A gated channel that responds to changes in transmembrane potential is called a(n) channel. A) leak-gated B) voltage-gated C) chemically gated D) mechanically gated E) ATP Answer: B Learning Outcome: 11.8 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 78) Ions can move across the plasma membrane in all of the following ways except A) through voltage-gated channels along the axolemma. B) through passive or leak channels. C) by ATP-dependent ion pumps like the sodium-potassium exchange pump. D) through chemically-gated channels as in neuromuscular transmission. E) diffusion directly through the plasma membrane. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 11.8 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 79) Which is not true of voltage-gated sodium channels? A) They have both an activation gate and an inactivation gate that work independent of each other. B) They open and close in response to changes in the membrane potential. C) They are found on excitable membranes. D) They have both an activation gate and an inactivation gate that work dependent of each other. E) None of these is false. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 11.8 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

80) Puffer fish poison blocks voltage-gated sodium channels like a cork. What effect would this neurotoxin have on the function of neurons? A) Neurons would depolarize more rapidly. B) Action potentials would lack a repolarization phase. C) The absolute refractory period would be shorter than normal. D) The axon would be unable to generate action potentials. E) None, because the chemically gated sodium channels would still function. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 11.9 Bloom's Taxonomy: Analyzing 81) A shift of the resting transmembrane potential toward 0 mV is called A) depolarization. B) repolarization. C) hyperpolarization. D) non-polarization. E) hypopolarization. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 11.9 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 82) Opening of sodium channels in the axon membrane causes A) hyperpolarization and decreased positive charge inside the membrane. B) repolarization and increased positive charge inside the membrane. C) hyperpolarization and increased negative charge inside the membrane. D) depolarization and increased negative change inside the membrane. E) depolarization and increased positive charge inside the membrane. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 11.9 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 83) Graded potentials A) produce an effect that increases with distance from the point of stimulation. B) produce an effect that spreads actively across the membrane surface without diminishing. C) may be either a depolarization or a hyperpolarization. D) are often all-or-none. E) always cause repolarization. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 11.9 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

84) The following are the main steps in the generation of an action potential. 1. Sodium channels are inactivated. 2. Voltage-gated potassium channels open and potassium moves out of the cell, initiating repolarization. 3. Sodium channels regain their normal properties. 4. A graded depolarization brings an area of an excitable membrane to threshold. 5. A temporary hyperpolarization occurs. 6. Sodium channel activation occurs. 7. Sodium ions enter the cell and depolarization occurs. What is the proper sequence of these events? A) 4, 6, 7, 3, 2, 5, 1 B) 4, 6, 7, 1, 2, 3, 5 C) 6, 7, 4, 1, 2, 3, 5 D) 2, 4, 6, 7, 1, 3, 5 E) 4, 2, 5, 6, 7, 3, 1 Answer: B Learning Outcome: 11.10 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 85) Which type of membrane channels are found in axons? A) voltage-gated Na+ channels B) voltage-gated K+ channels C) chemically gated Na+ and K+ channels D) voltage-gated Ca2+ channels E) voltage-gated Na+ and K+ channels Answer: E Learning Outcome: 11.10 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 86) The all-or-none principle states that A) all stimuli will produce identical action potentials. B) all stimuli great enough to bring the membrane to threshold will produce identical action potentials. C) the greater the magnitude of the stimuli, the greater the magnitude of the action potential. D) only sensory stimuli can activate action potentials. E) only motor stimuli can activate action potentials. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 11.10 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

87) Which of the following statement is false when comparing neurons and muscle tissue? A) Muscle tissue and nerves are both excitable. B) Muscle tissue and neurons both have a resting membrane potential. C) Muscle tissue and neurons both have refractory periods. D) Resting membrane potentials are greater (more positive) in muscle compare to neurons. E) Action potentials last longer in muscle tissues compared to neurons. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 11.10 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

Figure 11-2 88) Which area of the graph shows when graded hyperpolarization is occurring? A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4 Answer: D Learning Outcome: 11.10 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 89) Which area of the graph occurs when there is a sudden inrush of sodium ions? A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4 Answer: B Learning Outcome: 11.10 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 23

90) Which area of the graph shows the membrane potential if potassium ions were freely permeability to the plasma membrane? A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4 Answer: D Learning Outcome: 11.10 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 91) Which point of the graph shows when potassium ion outflow exceeds sodium ion inflow? A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4 Answer: C Learning Outcome: 11.10 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 92) When is the neuron in the relative refractory period? A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4 Answer: D Learning Outcome: 11.10 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 93) Which of the following statements about the action potential is false? A) The rapid depolarization phase is caused by the entry of potassium ions. B) During the repolarization phase, sodium channels close and potassium channels open. C) During the depolarization phase, membrane potential becomes positive. D) In the hyperpolarization phase, membrane potential approaches the potassium equilibrium potential. E) The rapid depolarization phase is caused by the entry of sodium ions. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 11.10 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 94) How would the absolute refractory period be affected if voltage-regulated sodium channels failed to inactivate? A) It would last indefinitely. B) It would be much briefer. C) It would be basically unaffected. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 11.10 Bloom's Taxonomy: Analyzing 24

95) The period from when an action potential begins until another action potential could be initiated is known as the period. A) depolarization B) absolute refractory C) relative refractory D) repolarization E) hyperpolarization Answer: B Learning Outcome: 11.10 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 96) The minimum stimulus required to trigger an action potential is known as the A) graded potential. B) resting potential. C) threshold. D) refractory period. E) membrane potential. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 11.10 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 97) The principle states that the size and speed of an action potential are independent of the stimulus strength. A) threshold B) all-or-none C) graded potential D) saltatory propagation E) summation Answer: B Learning Outcome: 11.10 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 98) The period during which an excitable membrane cannot respond to further stimulation is the A) hyperpolarization. B) depolarization. C) relative refractory period. D) repolarization. E) absolute refractory period. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 11.10 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

99) The period during which an excitable membrane can respond again, but only if the stimulus is greater than the threshold stimulus, is the A) refractory period. B) depolarization. C) relative refractory period. D) repolarization. E) absolute refractory period. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 11.10 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 100) Which of the following does not influence the time necessary for a nerve impulse to be transmitted? A) length of the axon B) presence or absence of a myelin sheath C) diameter of the axon D) presence or absence of nodes E) whether or not the impulse begins in the CNS Answer: E Learning Outcome: 11.11 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 101) In the process of continuous propagation, all of the following are true except A) the action potential is triggered by graded depolarization of the initial segment. B) at threshold, sodium channels begin to open rapidly. C) local currents depolarize the region just adjacent to the active zone. D) depolarization of the axonal membrane only occurs at nodes. E) each step takes about one millisecond. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 11.11 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 102) An action potential traveling along the entire length of an axon demonstrates propagation. A) relative B) saltatory C) continuous D) graded E) degraded Answer: C Learning Outcome: 11.11 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

103) At a(n) synapse, a neurotransmitter is released to stimulate the postsynaptic membrane. A) electrical B) chemical C) electrochemical D) ionic E) charged Answer: B Learning Outcome: 11.12 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 104) In a(n) synapse, current flows directly between cells. A) electrical B) chemical C) electrochemical D) ionic E) charged Answer: A Learning Outcome: 11.12 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 105) Which type of synapse is most common in the nervous system? A) chemical B) electrical C) mechanical D) processing E) radiative Answer: A Learning Outcome: 11.12 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 106) The ion that triggers the release of acetylcholine into the synaptic cleft is A) sodium. B) potassium. C) calcium. D) chloride. E) magnesium. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 11.12 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

107) Cholinergic synapses release the neurotransmitter A) norepinephrine. B) epinephrine. C) serotonin. D) acetylcholine. E) GABA. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 11.12 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 108) The following are the steps involved in transmission at a cholinergic synapse. 1. Chemically gated sodium channels on the postsynaptic membrane are activated. 2. Calcium ions enter the synaptic knob. 3. Acetylcholinesterase hydrolyzes acetylcholine. 4. An action potential depolarizes the synaptic knob at the presynaptic membrane. 5. The synaptic knob reabsorbs choline. 6. Acetylcholine is released from storage vesicles by exocytosis. 7. Acetylcholine binds to receptors on the postsynaptic membrane. 8. Calcium ions are removed from the cytoplasm of the synaptic knob. What is the proper sequence of these events? A) 4, 2, 6, 7, 8, 5, 3, 1 B) 4, 2, 6, 7, 1, 8, 3, 5 C) 2, 4, 6, 7, 1, 8, 3, 5 D) 2, 5, 4, 6, 7, 1, 8, 3 E) 6, 4, 2, 7, 1, 8, 3, 5 Answer: B Learning Outcome: 11.12 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 109) Integral membrane proteins that connect electrical synapses are called A) gap junctions. B) receptors. C) desmosomes. D) sodium channels. E) leak channels. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 11.12 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

110) The same can have different effects depending on the properties of the . A) neurotransmitter; receptor B) receptor; neurotransmitter C) substrate; receptor D) hormone; neurotransmitter E) propagation; neurotransmitter Answer: A Learning Outcome: 11.12 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 111) After acetylcholinesterase acts, the synaptic knob A) reabsorbs the acetylcholine. B) reabsorbs the acetate. C) reabsorbs the choline. D) degrades the acetate. E) degrades the choline. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 11.12 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 112) When cholinergic receptors are stimulated with acetylcholine, A) sodium ions enter the postsynaptic neuron. B) sodium ions leave the postsynaptic neuron. C) chloride ions enter the postsynaptic neuron. D) chloride ions leave the postsynaptic neuron. E) potassium ions leave the postsynaptic neuron. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 11.12 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 113) If the axon terminal of a motor neuron suddenly became permeable to calcium ions, A) the neuron will fire an action potential. B) the motor end plate will be depolarized. C) the motor end plate will be hyperpolarized. D) neurotransmitter release will be blocked. E) the neuron will become unable to stimulate the muscle cell. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 11.12 Bloom's Taxonomy: Analyzing

114) The site in the neuron where EPSPs and IPSPs are integrated is the A) chemical synapse. B) electrical synapse. C) axon hillock. D) dendritic membrane. E) synaptic knob. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 11.13 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 115) All of the following are true of IPSPs (inhibitory postsynaptic potentials) except A) are graded depolarizations. B) are graded hyperpolarizations. C) increase membrane permeability to chloride ions. D) increase the efflux of potassium ions. E) increase the efflux of calcium ions. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 11.13 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 116) When a second EPSP arrives at a single synapse before the effects of the first have disappeared, what occurs? A) spatial summation B) temporal summation C) inhibition of the impulse D) hyperpolarization E) decrease in speed of impulse transmission Answer: B Learning Outcome: 11.13 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 117) EPSPs (excitatory postsynaptic potentials) occur when A) more potassium ions than usual leak out of a cell. B) more calcium ions than usual leak out of a cell. C) chloride ions enter a cell. D) extra sodium ions enter a cell. E) hyperpolarizations occur. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 11.13 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

118) The buildup of depolarization when EPSPs arrive in rapid succession is called summation. A) threshold B) spatial C) temporal D) chemical E) electrical Answer: C Learning Outcome: 11.13 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 119) The buildup of depolarization when EPSPs arrive at several places on the neuron is called summation. A) threshold B) spatial C) temporal D) chemical E) electrical Answer: B Learning Outcome: 11.13 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 120) Summation that results from the cumulative effect of multiple synapses at multiple places on the neuron is designated A) spatial summation. B) temporal summation. C) inhibition of the impulse. D) hyperpolarization. E) impulse transmission. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 11.13 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 121) If the chemically gated sodium channels in the postsynaptic membrane were completely blocked, A) synaptic transmission would fail. B) release of neurotransmitter would stop. C) smaller action potentials would result. D) repolarization of the cell would stop. E) more action potentials would occur. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 11.14 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

122) The effect that a neurotransmitter has on the postsynaptic membrane does not depend on the A) frequency of neurotransmitter release. B) nature of the neurotransmitter. C) characteristics of the receptors. D) quantity of neurotransmitters released. E) the strength of the action potential. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 11.14 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 123) Which of the following is the most important excitatory neurotransmitter in the brain? A) glutamate B) gamma aminobutyric acid C) serotonin D) noradrenaline E) glycine Answer: A Learning Outcome: 11.14 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 124) Which of the following would not have an effect on synaptic function? A) interfering with neurotransmitter synthesis B) interfering with neurotransmitter reuptake C) preventing neurotransmitter inactivation D) interfering with chemically gated sodium channels E) interfering with voltage-gated sodium channels Answer: E Learning Outcome: 11.14 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 125) Active neurons need ATP to support all of the following except the A) movement of materials to the soma by axoplasmic transport. B) synthesis of neurotransmitter molecules. C) movement of materials from the soma by axoplasmic transport. D) opening of voltage-gated channels. E) recovery from action potentials. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 11.14 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

126) Which of the following is important in emotional states? A) glutamate B) gamma aminobutyric acid C) serotonin D) noradrenalin E) glycine Answer: C Learning Outcome: 11.14 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 127) Compare the central and peripheral nervous system. (Module 11.1A) A) The central nervous system consists of the brain and it integrates, processes, and coordinates sensory data and motor commands. The peripheral nervous system consists of the spinal cord, and sensory and motor divisions. B) The central nervous system consists of the brain and spinal cord and it integrates, processes, and coordinates sensory data and motor commands. The peripheral nervous system consists of all the nervous tissue outside the central and enteric nervous systems. C) The central nervous system consists of the spinal cord and all the nervous tissue outside the enteric nervous system. The peripheral nervous system consists of the brain and it integrates, processes, and coordinates sensory data and motor commands. D) The central nervous system consists of all the nervous tissue outside the enteric nervous system. The peripheral nervous system consists of the brain and spinal cord and it integrates, processes, and coordinates sensory data and motor commands. E) The central nervous system consists of the sensory and motor division in the axial region of the body. The peripheral nervous system consists of the sensory and motor division in the appendicular region of the body. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 11.1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 128) Which division of the PNS brings information to the CNS? (Module 11.1B) A) sensory B) motor C) efferent D) parasympathetic E) enteric Answer: A Learning Outcome: 11.1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

129) Name the effectors of the ANS. (Module 11.1C) A) skeletal muscle, cardiac muscle, and smooth muscle B) skeletal muscle only C) cardiac muscle, smooth muscle, glands, and adipose tissue D) cardiac muscle and smooth muscle E) glands and adipose tissue Answer: C Learning Outcome: 11.1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 130) Name the structural components of a typical neuron. (Module 11.2A) A) cell body, cilia, and a basement membrane B) neurofilaments, neurofibrils, and axolemma C) neurilemma, neurofibrils, and dendrites D) cell body, axon, and dendrites E) cell body, flagellum, and synaptic cleft Answer: D Learning Outcome: 11.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 131) Describe a synapse. (Module 11.2B) A) A synapse is the connection between the dendrites and the cell body. B) A synapse is where the axon joins the cell body. C) A synapse is where multiple dendrites join an axon. D) A synapse is where one neuron communicates with another cell. E) A synapse is where the neuronal organelles are housed. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 11.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 132) Compare presynaptic and postsynaptic cells. (Module 11.2C) A) Presynaptic cells are sensory neurons and postsynaptic cells are motor neurons. B) Presynaptic cells are motor neurons and presynaptic cells are sensory neurons. C) Presynaptic cells are usually neurons and postsynaptic cells can be a neuron or another type of cell, such as skeletal muscle fiber or a gland cell. D) Presynaptic cells can be a neuron or another type of cell, such as a skeletal muscle fiber or a gland cell and postsynaptic cells are usually neurons. E) Presynaptic cells are usually found in the peripheral nervous system and postsynaptic cells are usually found in the central nervous system. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 11.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

133) Why is a CNS neuron not usually replaced after it is injured? (Module 11.2D) A) Most CNS neurons are not replaced because we have an abundance of neurons and it is not necessary to replace any that are injured. B) Most CNS neurons are not replaced because the PNS neurons just take over the functions of any injured CNS neurons. C) Most CNS neurons are not replaced because it is not possible to replace any injured cell in the body. D) Most CNS neurons are not replaced because they contain Nissl bodies which prevents the cell from undergoing cellular division. E) Most CNS neurons are not replaced because they lack centrioles so they cannot divide. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 11.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 134) Classify neurons based on their structure. (Module 11.3A) A) Neurons are classified structurally as sensory, interneurons, or motor neurons. B) Neurons are classified structurally as central, peripheral, or enteric neurons. C) Neurons are classified structurally as anaxonic, bipolar, unipolar, or multipolar. D) Neurons are classified structurally as anaxonic or axonic. E) Neurons are classified structurally as sympathetic or parasympathetic neurons. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 11.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 135) Classify neurons based on their function. (Module 11.3B) A) Neurons are classified functionally as sensory, interneurons, or motor neurons. B) Neurons are classified functionally as central, peripheral, or enteric neurons. C) Neurons are classified functionally as anaxonic, bipolar, unipolar, or multipolar. D) Neurons are classified functionally as anaxonic or axonic. E) Neurons are classified functionally as sympathetic or parasympathetic neurons. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 11.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 136) Are unipolar neurons in a tissue sample of the PNS more likely to have a sensory or a motor function? (Module 11.3C) A) sensory function B) motor function Answer: A Learning Outcome: 11.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

137) Name the neuroglia of the CNS. (Module 11.4A) A) Schwann cells and satellite cells B) ependymal cells, microglia, astrocytes, oligodendrocytes C) Kuppfer cells, dendritic cells, astrocytes D) mast cells, microglia, satellite cells E) dendritic cells, axonal cells, oligodendrocytes Answer: B Learning Outcome: 11.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 138) Which neuroglia appear in increased numbers in a person with a brain infection? (Module 11.4B) A) ependymal cells B) satellite cells C) microglia D) astrocytes E) oligodendrocytes Answer: C Learning Outcome: 11.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 139) Which glial cell protects the CNS from chemicals and hormones circulating in the blood? (Module 11.4C) A) ependymal cells B) satellite cells C) microglia D) astrocytes E) oligodendrocytes Answer: D Learning Outcome: 11.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 140) Contrast the white matter and gray matter in the CNS. (Module 11.4D) A) White matter of the CNS is dominated by glial cells. Gray matter is dominated by myelinated axons. B) White matter of the CNS is dominated by myelinated axons. Gray matter is dominated by glial cells. C) White matter of the CNS is dominated by neuron cell bodies, dendrites, and unmyelinated axons. Gray matter is dominated by myelinated axons. D) White matter of the CNS is dominated by myelinated axons. Gray matter of the CNS is dominated by neuron cell bodies, dendrites, and unmyelinated axons. E) White matter of the CNS is dominated by unmyelinated axons. Gray matter of the CNS is dominated by glial cells. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 11.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 36

141) Identify the neuroglia of the PNS. (Module 11.5A) A) Schwann cells and satellite cells B) ependymal cells, microglia, astrocytes, oligodendrocytes C) Kuppfer cells, dendritic cells, astrocytes D) mast cells, microglia, satellite cells E) dendritic cells, axonal cells, oligodendrocytes Answer: A Learning Outcome: 11.5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 142) In which part of a neuron does Wallerian degeneration occur? (Module 11.5B) A) cell bodies of CNS neurons B) cell bodies of PNS neurons C) axons of PNS neurons D) axons of CNS neurons E) dendrites of the PNS neurons Answer: C Learning Outcome: 11.5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 143) Define membrane potential. (Module 11.6A) A) Membrane potential is the ability of a cell to become excitable. B) Membrane potential is the maximum ability of a cell to generate electrical impulses. C) Membrane potential is the maximum speed a cell can propagate electrical impulses. D) Membrane potential is the maximum times a cell can be stimulated by electrical impulses. E) Membrane potential is the unequal charge distribution between the inner and outer surfaces of the plasma membrane. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 11.6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 144) Define information processing. (Module 11.6C) A) Information processing is the change in charge across the inner and outer membrane of a cell. B) Information processing is a temporary, localized change in the resting membrane potential of a cell. C) Information processing involves the release of neurotransmitters by the presynaptic cell. D) Information processing is the integration of stimuli by an individual cell. E) Information processing is transfer of neurotransmitters from the presynaptic cell to an effector cell. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 11.6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

145) Define resting membrane potential. (Module 11.7A) A) Resting membrane potential is the change in charge across the inner and outer membrane of a cell. B) Resting membrane potential is the membrane potential of an unstimulated cell. C) Resting membrane potential is a temporary, localized change in the potential of a cell. D) Resting membrane potential is the minimum ability of a cell to generate electrical impulses. E) Resting membrane potential is the resting speed a cell can propagate electrical impulses. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 11.7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 146) What happens at the sodium-potassium exchange pump? (Module 11.7B) A) The sodium-potassium exchange pump maintains the resting membrane potential of the cell by ejecting 3 sodium ions for every 2 potassium ions entering the cell. B) The sodium-potassium exchange pump maintains the resting membrane potential of the cell by ejecting 2 sodium ions for every 3 potassium ions entering the cell. C) The sodium-potassium exchange pump maintains the resting membrane potential of the cell by ejecting 3 potassium ions for every 2 sodium ions entering the cell. D) The sodium-potassium exchange pump maintains the resting membrane potential of the cell by ejecting 2 potassium ions for every 3 sodium ions entering the cell. E) The sodium-potassium exchange pump maintains the resting membrane potential of the cell by ejecting 1 sodium ions for every 6 potassium ions entering the cell. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 11.7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 147) What effect would decreasing the concentration of extracellular potassium ions have on the resting membrane potential of a neuron? (Module 11.7C) A) The resting membrane potential would become more positive because more potassium ions would leave the cell through potassium leak channels. B) The resting membrane potential would become more negative because more potassium ions would leave the cell through potassium leak channels. C) The resting membrane potential would become more positive because more potassium ions would enter the cell through potassium leak channels. D) The resting membrane potential would become more negative because more potassium ions would enter the cell through potassium leak channels. E) The resting membrane potential would not change because it is controlled by the movement of sodium ions not potassium ions. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 11.7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

148) Define gated ion channels. (Module 11.8A) A) Gated ion channels are pumps in the plasma membrane for specific ions. B) Gated ion channels allow water to pass through the plasma membrane for osmotic balance. C) Gated ion channels allow all ions to enter a cell but do not allow any ions to exit a cell. D) Gated ion channels do not allow any ions to enter a cell but allow all ions to exit a cell. E) Gated ion channels are channels that open or close in response to specific stimuli. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 11.8 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 149) What effect would a chemical that blocks voltage-gated sodium ion channels in a neuron's plasma membrane have on its membrane potential? (Module 11.8C) A) The membrane potential would become more positive because more sodium ions would leave the cell. B) The membrane potential would become more negative because more sodium ions would leave the cell. C) The membrane potential would become more positive because more sodium ions would enter the cell. D) The membrane potential would become more negative because more sodium ions would enter the cell. E) The membrane potential would not change because sodium could not enter the cell. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 11.8 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 150) Define graded potential. (Module 11.9A) A) Graded potential is the change in charge across the inner and outer membrane of a cell. B) Graded potential is the membrane potential of an unstimulated cell. C) Graded potential is a temporary, localized change in the potential of a cell. D) Graded potential is the minimum ability of a cell to generate electrical impulses. E) Graded potential is the resting speed a cell can propagate electrical impulses. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 11.9 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

151) Describe depolarization, repolarization, and hyperpolarization. (Module 11.9B) A) Depolarization is a shift in membrane potential toward a more positive value; repolarization is the return of the membrane potential to resting; and hyperpolarization is a shift in membrane potential toward a more negative value. B) Depolarization is a shift in membrane potential toward a more negative value; repolarization is the return of the membrane potential to resting; and hyperpolarization is a shift in membrane potential toward a more positive value. C) Depolarization is the return of the membrane potential to resting; repolarization is a shift of the membrane potential toward a more positive value; and hyperpolarization is a shift in membrane potential toward a more negative value. D) Depolarization is the return of the membrane potential to resting; repolarization is a shift of the membrane potential toward a more negative value; and hyperpolarization is a shift in membrane potential toward a more positive value. E) Depolarization is a shift in membrane potential toward a more negative value; repolarization is a shift of the membrane potential toward a more negative value; and hyperpolarization is the return of the membrane potential to resting. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 11.9 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 152) What factors account for the local currents associated with graded potentials? (Module 11.9C) A) The movement of negative charges parallel to the inner surface of the cell. B) The movement of negative charges parallel to the outer surface of the cell. C) The movement of sodium ions parallel to the inner and outer surfaces of the cell. D) The movement of extracellular fluid parallel to the outer surface of the cell. E) The movement of intracellular fluid parallel to the inner surface of the cell. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 11.9 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 153) Define action potential. (Module 11.10A) A) An action potential is the propagated change in membrane potential of an excitable cell. B) An action potential is the membrane potential of an unstimulated cell. C) An action potential is a temporary, localized change in the potential of a cell. D) An action potential is the minimum ability of a cell to generate electrical impulses. E) An action potential is the resting speed a cell can propagate electrical impulses. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 11.10 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

154) Describe the all-or-none principle. (Module 11.10B) A) All stimuli will generate an action potential or none will. B) All stimuli that bring the membrane to threshold will generate identical action potentials. C) Stimuli that bring the membrane to threshold will generate a larger or smaller action potential depending on the size of the stimuli. D) Stimuli that bring the membrane to threshold will generate a longer or shorter action potential depending on the timing of the stimuli. E) Stimuli that do not bring the membrane to threshold can still generate an action potential if the stimuli are strong enough. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 11.10 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 155) Compare the absolute refractory period with the relative refractory period. (Module 11.10C) A) During the absolute refractory period the membrane can respond only to a larger-than-normal stimulus. During the relative refractory period the membrane cannot respond to further stimulation. B) During the absolute refractory period the membrane cannot respond to further stimulation. During the relative refractory period the membrane can respond to any stimulus. C) During the absolute refractory period the membrane is highly responsive to stimuli. During the relative refractory period the membrane is unresponsive to stimuli. D) During the absolute refractory period the membrane cannot respond to further stimulation. During the relative refractory period the membrane can respond only to a larger-than-normal stimulus. E) During the absolute refractory period the membrane is highly responsive to stimuli. During the relative refractory period the membrane can respond only to a larger-than-normal stimulus. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 11.10 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 156) What is the relationship between myelin and the propagation speed of action potentials? (Module 11.11B) A) The presence of myelin slows the propagation speed of action potentials. B) The presence of myelin speeds up the graded depolarization but does not affect the propagation speed of action potentials. C) The presence of myelin increases the propagation speed of action potentials. D) The presence of myelin does not affect the speed of action potentials. E) The presence of myelin blocks the propagation of action potentials. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 11.11 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

157) Describe the components of a chemical synapse. (Module 11.12A) A) A presynaptic cell and a postsynaptic cell locked together by gap junctions B) A presynaptic cell and a postsynaptic cell locked together by tight junctions C) A presynaptic cell and a postsynaptic cell with fused plasma membranes D) A presynaptic cell and a postsynaptic cell whose plasma membranes are separated by a narrow synovial cavity E) A presynaptic cell and a postsynaptic cell whose plasma membranes are separated by a narrow synaptic cleft Answer: E Learning Outcome: 11.12 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 158) What event must occur in the postsynaptic cell before it generates an action potential? (Module 11.12B) A) The postsynaptic cell must fuse to the presynaptic cell membrane to generate an action potential. B) The postsynaptic cell receive passage of ions through the gap junctions between the two cells in order to generate an action potential. C) The postsynaptic cell must release neurotransmitters to generate an action potential. D) The postsynaptic cell membrane must reach threshold to generate an action potential. E) The postsynaptic cell membrane must hyperpolarize to generate an action potential. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 11.12 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 159) Describe synaptic fatigue. (Module 11.12C) A) Synaptic fatigue occurs in an axon terminal when neurotransmitters are released into the synaptic cleft faster than they can be reabsorbed or recycled. B) Synaptic fatigue occurs when not enough ATP is present to cause the release of neurotransmitters out of the axon terminal. C) Synaptic fatigue occurs during oxygen deficiency and the synapse fails to bind neurotransmitters. D) Synaptic fatigue occurs during starvation and not enough neurotransmitters are synthesized for normal synaptic function. E) Synaptic fatigue occurs when the axon terminal can no longer receive action potentials from the axon hillock due to overstimulation. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 11.12 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

160) Define excitatory postsynaptic potential (EPSP) and inhibitory postsynaptic potential (IPSP). (Module 11.13A) A) An excitatory postsynaptic potential is a graded hyperpolarization by the postsynaptic cell and an inhibitory postsynaptic potential is a graded repolarization by the postsynaptic cell. B) An excitatory postsynaptic potential is a graded repolarization by the postsynaptic cell and an inhibitory postsynaptic potential is a graded hyperpolarization by the postsynaptic cell. C) An excitatory postsynaptic potential is a graded hyperpolarization by the postsynaptic cell and an inhibitory postsynaptic potential is a graded depolarization by the postsynaptic cell. D) An excitatory postsynaptic potential is a graded depolarization by the postsynaptic cell and an inhibitory postsynaptic potential is a graded hyperpolarization by the postsynaptic cell. E) An excitatory postsynaptic potential is a graded depolarization by the postsynaptic cell and an inhibitory postsynaptic potential is a graded repolarization by the postsynaptic cell. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 11.13 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 161) If a single EPSP depolarizes the initial segment from a resting membrane potential of -70 mV to -65 mV, and threshold is at -60 mV, will an action potential be generated? Explain your answer. (Module 11.13C) A) Yes, because depolarization reached threshold. B) No, because depolarization did not reach threshold. C) Yes, because depolarization did not reach threshold. D) No, because depolarization reached threshold. E) Yes, because all stimuli to a resting membrane will cause an action potential. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 11.13 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 162) Describe the role of regulatory neurons. (Module 11.14A) A) Regulatory neurons act as part of the defense system to protect the presynaptic neurons from pathogens. B) Regulatory neurons block presynaptic neurons from drugs and other chemicals in the blood. C) Regulatory neurons assist in the repair of injured neurons. D) Regulatory neurons speed the propagation of action potentials between presynaptic neurons and postsynaptic neurons. E) Regulatory neurons facilitate or inhibit the activities of presynaptic neurons by affecting the membrane of the cell body or by altering the sensitivity of axon terminals. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 11.14 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

163) What determines the frequency of action potential generation? (Module 11.14B) A) The size of the synaptic cleft determines the frequency of action potentials. B) The distance between the presynaptic cell and postsynaptic cell determines the frequency of action potentials. C) The degree of sustained depolarization at the axon hillock determines the frequency of action potentials. D) The number of postsynaptic cells that a presynaptic cell is communicating with determines the frequency of action potentials. E) The length of the presynaptic cell axon determines the frequency of action potentials. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 11.14 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 164) The greater the degree of sustained depolarization at the axon hillock, the or lower) the frequency of action potentials generated. (Module 11.14C) A) higher B) lower Answer: A Learning Outcome: 11.14 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

(higher

Essay Questions 165) The myelination of central and peripheral axons occurs rapidly through the first few years of life. How can this developmental process explain the improved motor abilities of infants and toddlers? Answer: Without full myelination, information about limb movement and body position moves slowly to the CNS, and motor commands move slowly and erratically to the muscles. By the time the brain is aware of movement or position and can issue a motor command, the limb has already moved. When the motor command reaches the skeletal muscle, the response is no longer appropriate. As the neurons become fully myelinated, information processing speeds up, so we observe improved balance, coordination, and movement. Learning Outcome: 11.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Analyzing 166) A drug that blocks ATP production is introduced into an isolated axon preparation. The axon is then repeatedly stimulated, and recordings are made of the response. What effects would you expect to observe? Answer: Initially, the recording would show normal action potentials in response to the repetitive stimulation. After 50,000 to 100,000 action potentials have passed, the recording would start to indicate less responsiveness from the axon; ultimately, the axon would fail to respond. Because very few ions actually move across the membrane during an action potential, axons can carry thousands of action potentials before the concentrations of sodium and potassium ions must be reestablished by the sodium-potassium pump. Without ATP production, the supply of ATP would be consumed, the pump would shut down, and so the cell could not restore the sodium and potassium ion gradients. The resulting slow depolarization would inactivate voltage-gated sodium channels, leading to a persistent absolute refractory state. The loss of the electrochemical gradients denies the axons their means of generating an action potential, and transmission would stop. Learning Outcome: 11.8, 11.10 Bloom's Taxonomy: Analyzing 167) Describe the neurilemma of a myelinating and nonmyelinating Schwann cell. (Module 11.5C) Answer: The neurilemma of a myelinating Schwann cell is the outer surface of the myelin sheath covering an internode of one axon. The neurilemma of a nonmyelinating Schwann cell is folded separately around multiple axons. Learning Outcome: 11.5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

168) Compare a graded potential with an action potential. (Module 11.6B) Answer: Graded potentials are temporary, localized changes in resting membrane potentials that decrease with distance away from the stimulus. In response to sufficiently large graded potentials, action potentials are generated. Action potentials begin in one location and spread along the surface of an axon toward the axon terminals. Learning Outcome: 11.6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 169) Identify the three types of gated ion channels, and state the conditions under which each operates. (Module 11.8B) Answer: Chemically gated ion channels operate when they bind specific chemicals (such as ACh); voltage-gated ion channels operate in response to changes in the membrane potential; and mechanically gated ion channels operate in response to physical distortion of the membrane surface. Learning Outcome: 11.8 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 170) List the events involved in the generation of an action potential. (Module 11.10D) Answer: The events involved in the generation of an action potential are (1) depolarization to threshold, (2) activation of voltage-gated sodium ion channels and rapid depolarization, (3) inactivation of voltage-gated sodium ion channels and activation of voltage-gated potassium ion channels, and (4) closing of voltage-gated potassium ion channels. Learning Outcome: 11.10 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 171) Define continuous propagation and salutatory propagation. (Module 11.11A) Answer: Continuous propagation is the propagation of an action potential along an unmyelinated axon, where the action potential affects every portion of the membrane surface. Saltatory propagation is the relatively rapid propagation of an action potential between successive nodes of a myelinated axon. Learning Outcome: 11.11 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 172) Contrast an electrical synapse with a chemical synapse. (Module 11.12D) Answer: In chemical synapses, a neurotransmitter crosses a narrow synaptic cleft. In electrical synapses, the membranes of the presynaptic and postsynaptic cells are joined together by gap junctions. Learning Outcome: 11.12 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 173) Compare temporal summation with spatial summation. (Module 11.13B) Answer: Temporal summation is the addition of a rapid succession of stimuli occurring at a single synapse. Spatial summation involves the addition of simultaneous stimuli applied at different locations; that is, it involves multiple synapses that are active all at the same time. Learning Outcome: 11.13 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 46

174) Compare the effects of the neurotransmitters acetylcholine and serotonin on ion channels. (Module 11.14D) Answer: Acetylcholine has a direct effect on ion channels through its binding to chemically gated ion channels. The effect of the neurotransmitter serotonin has an indirect effect on ion channels. It acts as a first messenger by binding to membrane receptors coupled with G proteins. The activated G protein produces or releases a second messenger that then affects ion channels, altering conditions or activities of the postsynaptic cell. Learning Outcome: 11.14 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

Visual Anatomy and Physiology, 3e (Martini) Chapter 12 The Spinal Cord, Spinal Nerves, and Spinal Reflexes Multiple Choice Questions 1) Reflexes, controlled by the spinal cord, act by A) sensory output over cranial nerves to effectors. B) motor input to reflex centers in the spinal cord. C) sensory input to reflex centers in the brain. D) motor output over spinal nerves to effectors. E) sensory input over cranial nerves to the spinal cord. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 12.1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 2) The posterior root ganglia mainly contain A) axons of motor neurons. B) axons of sensory neurons. C) cell bodies of motor neurons. D) cell bodies of sensory neurons. E) synapses. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 12.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 3) Enlargements of the spinal cord occur A) near the posterior median sulcus. B) adjacent to the anterior median fissure. C) in those spinal segments that control the limbs. D) in the thoracic region. E) in the sacral region. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 12.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 4) The is a strand of fibrous tissue that provides longitudinal support as a component of the coccygeal ligament. A) conus medullaris B) filum terminale C) cauda equina D) dorsal root E) ventral root Answer: B Learning Outcome: 12.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

5) The spinal cord consists of five regions and A) 5 B) 12 C) 25 D) 31 E) The number varies widely among individuals. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 12.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 6) The spinal cord continues to elongate until about age A) 20 years. B) 10 years. C) 4 years. D) 6 months. E) 2 months. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 12.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 7) Spinal nerves A) contain only sensory fibers. B) contain only motor fibers. C) contain both sensory and motor. D) contain interneurons. E) only carry information unidirectionally. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 12.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 8) Which of the following associations is incorrect? A) 8 cervical spinal nerves B) 11 thoracic spinal nerves C) 5 lumbar spinal nerves D) 5 sacral spinal nerves E) 1 coccygeal spinal nerve Answer: B Learning Outcome: 12.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 9) Compared to the vertebral column, the spinal cord is A) longer. B) shorter. C) the same length. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 12.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 2

segments.

10) After age the vertebral column continues to elongate, but the spinal cord itself does not. A) 8 B) 12 C) 18 D) 4 E) 20 Answer: D Learning Outcome: 12.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 11) In an adult, the conus medullaris is found at about A) T6. B) T10. C) L1. D) L5. E) Co1. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 12.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 12) The specialized membranes that surround the spinal cord are termed the A) cranial meninges. B) cranial mater. C) spinal meninges. D) spinal mater. E) epidural membranes. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 12.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 13) Blood vessels that supply the spinal cord are protected by the A) spinal meninges. B) spinal nerve. C) white matter. D) spinal columns. E) gray matter. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 12.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

14) The tough, fibrous, outermost covering of the spinal cord is the A) arachnoid mater. B) pia mater. C) dura mater. D) epidural space. E) periosteum. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 12.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 15) The layer of the meninges in direct contact with the spinal cord is the A) dura mater. B) subarachnoid space. C) arachnoid mater. D) pia mater. E) choroid plexus. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 12.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 16) Cerebrospinal fluid flows within the A) filum terminale. B) subarachnoid space. C) dura mater. D) pia mater. E) arachnoid mater. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 12.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 17) The epidural space contains A) cerebrospinal fluid. B) lymph. C) blood. D) connective tissue and blood vessels. E) denticulate ligaments. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 12.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

18) The subdural space lies between the A) arachnoid mater and the pia mater. B) pia mater and the dura mater. C) dura mater and the arachnoid mater. D) pia mater and the subarachnoid space. E) endosteum and the periosteum. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 12.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 19) Samples of CSF for diagnostic purposes are normally obtained by placing the tip of a needle in the A) dura mater. B) arachnoid mater. C) epidural space. D) subarachnoid space. E) cerebral ventricles. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 12.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 20) The space separates the dura mater from the walls of the vertebral canal. A) subpial B) subarachnoid C) epidural D) epiarachnoid E) subdural Answer: C Learning Outcome: 12.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 21) Blood vessels traveling within A) the pia mater B) the arachnoid mater C) the dura mater D) all three cranial meninges E) all three spinal meninges Answer: E Learning Outcome: 12.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

deliver oxygen and nutrients to the spinal cord.

22) During the procedure known as a spinal tap, a needle is inserted into the inferior region. A) epidural space; thoracic B) epidural space; lumbar C) epidural space; sacral D) subarachnoid space; thoracic E) subarachnoid space; lumbar Answer: E Learning Outcome: 12.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 23) Of the spinal meninges, the middle one is the A) epidural B) pia C) subdural D) arachnoid E) dura Answer: D Learning Outcome: 12.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

in the

mater.

24) The outward projections from the central gray matter of the spinal cord are called A) wings. B) horns. C) pyramids. D) fibers. E) tracts. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 12.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 25) Axons crossing from one side of the spinal cord to the other within the gray matter are found in the A) anterior gray horns. B) lateral gray horns. C) posterior gray horns. D) gray commissures. E) white commissures. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 12.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

26) The white matter of the spinal cord contains A) bundles of axons with common origins, destinations, and functions. B) bundles of dendrites with common origins, destinations, and functions. C) sensory and motor nuclei. D) both axons and dendrites. E) interneurons. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 12.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 27) The white matter of the spinal cord is mainly A) unmyelinated axons. B) neuroglia. C) Schwann cells. D) myelinated axons. E) nodes of Ranvier. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 12.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 28) In the spinal cord, white matter is separated into ascending and descending tracts organized as A) nuclei. B) ganglia. C) columns. D) nerves. E) horns. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 12.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

Figure 12-1 29) Identify the structure labeled "10." A) anterior white commissure B) anterior median fissure C) anterior white column D) anterior gray commissure E) anterior white horn Answer: D Learning Outcome: 12.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 30) Identify the structure labeled "1." A) anterior white column B) lateral white column C) lateral white horn D) median commissure E) posterior white column Answer: E Learning Outcome: 12.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

31) What is the function of the structure labeled "12"? A) control of skeletal muscle B) somatic sensory receiving C) visceral sensory receiving D) control of visceral effectors E) ascending pathway Answer: B Learning Outcome: 12.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 32) Where do somatic motor neurons reside? A) 10 B) 12 C) 13 D) 14 E) 15 Answer: E Learning Outcome: 12.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 33) What is the function of the structure labeled "14"? A) control of skeletal muscle B) somatic sensory processing C) control of autonomic effectors D) somatic motor control E) visceral sensory processing Answer: C Learning Outcome: 12.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 34) What is the function of the structure labeled "15"? A) control of skeletal muscle B) somatic sensory processing C) control of autonomic effectors D) somatic motor control E) visceral sensory processing Answer: A Learning Outcome: 12.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

35) The gray horns of the spinal cord contain mainly A) nerve tracts. B) columns. C) meninges. D) neuron cell bodies. E) cerebrospinal fluid. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 12.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 36) The posterior horns of the spinal cord contain mainly A) sensory nuclei. B) somatic motor nuclei. C) autonomic motor nuclei. D) nerve tracts. E) sympathetic nuclei. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 12.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 37) The anterior horns of the spinal cord contain mainly A) sensory nuclei. B) somatic motor nuclei. C) autonomic motor nuclei. D) nerve tracts. E) sympathetic nuclei. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 12.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 38) Nerve tracts or fasciculi make up the A) central canal. B) posterior gray horns. C) gray commissures. D) anterior white columns. E) all of the above. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 12.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

39) A viral disease that destroys the neuronal cell bodies of the anterior gray horn will A) lead to muscle weakness or paralysis. B) interfere with position sense. C) mainly interfere with crude touch and temperature sense. D) block autonomic regulation. E) interfere with communication from one side of the spinal cord to the other. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 12.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Analyzing 40) Bill contracts a viral disease that destroys cells in the posterior gray horns in his spinal cord. As a result, which of the following would you expect? A) loss of sensation in his torso B) inability to breathe C) problems with moving his arms D) uncontrollable sweating of his feet E) problems with moving his legs Answer: A Learning Outcome: 12.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Analyzing 41) Mary is in an automobile accident and suffers a spinal cord injury. She has lost feeling in her lower body. Her doctor tells her that swelling is compressing a portion of her spinal cord. Which part of her cord is likely to be compressed? A) ascending tracts in the cervical region of her spinal cord. B) descending tracts in the cervical region of her spinal cord. C) ascending tracts in the lumbar region of her spinal cord. D) descending tracts in the lumbar region of her spinal cord. E) the anterior white commissures. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 12.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Analyzing 42) The outermost connective-tissue covering of nerves is the A) endoneurium. B) endomysium. C) perineurium. D) epineurium. E) epimysium. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 12.5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

43) The face, head, and cheeks are located in a dermatome supplied by nerves from what spinal cord region? A) sacral B) thoracic C) cervical D) lumbar E) No spinal nerves innervate the dermatome containing the face. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 12.5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 44) The layer of connective tissue that surrounds a fascicle within a peripheral nerve is the A) perineurium. B) epineurium. C) endoneurium. D) epimysium. E) endosteum. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 12.5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 45) The layer of connective tissue that surrounds individual axons within a peripheral nerve is termed the A) endoneurium. B) perineurium. C) epineurium. D) metaneurium. E) subneurium. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 12.5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 46) In the condition , a virus infects posterior root ganglia, causing a painful rash whose distribution corresponds to that of the affected sensory nerves as seen in their dermatomes. A) myasthenia gravis B) mumps C) shingles D) polio E) rubella Answer: C Learning Outcome: 12.5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

47) Each peripheral nerve provides A) only motor B) only sensory C) both motor and sensory D) either motor or sensory E) motor and/or sensory Answer: C Learning Outcome: 12.6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

innervation to peripheral structures.

48) Which of the following describes the posterior root ganglion? A) contains axons of motor neurons B) contains axons of sensory neurons C) contains cell bodies of motor neurons D) contains cell bodies of sensory neurons E) contains interneurons Answer: D Learning Outcome: 12.6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 49) The anterior root of a spinal nerve contains A) axons of motor neurons. B) axons of sensory neurons. C) cell bodies of motor neurons. D) cell bodies of sensory neurons. E) interneurons. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 12.6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 50) A posterior and anterior root of each spinal segment unite to form a A) cervical enlargement. B) lumbar enlargement. C) spinal nerve. D) spinal meninx. E) spinal ganglion. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 12.6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

51) The preganglionic fibers that carry visceral motor fibers and connect a spinal nerve with an sympathetic ganglion form the A) white rami communicans. B) gray rami communicans. C) posterior ramus. D) anterior ramus. E) dermatomes. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 12.6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 52) The postganglionic fibers that connect an sympathetic ganglion and carry fibers that innervate glands and smooth muscle of the body wall or limbs are the A) white rami communicans. B) gray rami communicans. C) posterior ramus. D) anterior ramus. E) dermatomes. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 12.6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 53) Sensory input from interoceptors of the body walls and limbs is carried to the spinal nerve via the A) posterior rami. B) anterior rami. C) anterior horn. D) gray rami. E) sympathetic nerves. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 12.6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 54) The of each spinal nerve innervates the skin and muscles of the back. A) white ramus communicans B) gray ramus communicans C) posterior ramus D) anterior ramus E) dermatome Answer: C Learning Outcome: 12.6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

55) The innervate(s) the ventrolateral body surface, structures in the body wall, and the limbs. A) white rami communicans B) gray rami communicans C) posterior ramus D) anterior ramus E) dermatomes Answer: D Learning Outcome: 12.6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

Figure 12-2 56) Identify the structure labeled "2." A) anterior root B) posterior ramus C) spinal nerve D) anterior ramus E) white ramus Answer: D Learning Outcome: 12.6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

57) Identify the structure labeled "6." A) autonomic nerve B) sympathetic ganglion C) posterior root ganglion D) rami communicantes E) ventral root Answer: B Learning Outcome: 12.6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 58) Identify the structure labeled "5." A) autonomic nerve B) autonomic ganglion C) rami communicantes D) posterior root ganglion E) anterior root Answer: C Learning Outcome: 12.6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 59) Identify the structure labeled "8." A) peripheral nerve B) posterior ramus C) spinal nerve D) anterior root E) posterior root Answer: C Learning Outcome: 12.6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 60) In which structure are sensory cell bodies located? A) 4 B) 6 C) 5 D) 10 E) 12 Answer: D Learning Outcome: 12.6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

61) If the posterior root of a spinal nerve is severed, A) output to skeletal muscles would be blocked. B) output to visceral organs would be blocked. C) the spinal cord would not be able to process information at that level. D) the brain would not be able to communicate with that level of the spinal cord. E) sensory input would be blocked. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 12.6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 62) Suppose that you feel something brushing against your abdomen. The sensory information would be carried to the spinal cord over a ramus. A) white ramus communicans B) gray ramus communicans C) posterior D) anterior E) rami communicantes Answer: D Learning Outcome: 12.6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 63) Somatic motor neurons in the spinal cord control all of the following muscles except those that A) position the pectoral girdle. B) move the arm. C) move the hand and fingers. D) move the face. E) move the forearm and hand. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 12.6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 64) The plexus supplies innervation to the diaphragm. A) spinal B) cervical C) thoracic D) lumbar E) sacral Answer: B Learning Outcome: 12.7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

65) A complex, interwoven network of nerves is called a A) nerve ganglion. B) nerve plexus. C) spinal cord. D) spinal plexus. E) ramus. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 12.7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 66) The complex, interwoven network formed by contributions from the anterior rami of neighboring spinal nerves is termed a(n) A) dermatome. B) autonomic nerve. C) lateral nerve. D) tract. E) plexus. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 12.7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 67) The anterior rami form four major plexuses, including all of the following except the plexus. A) brachial B) lumbar C) sacral D) nuchal E) cervical Answer: D Learning Outcome: 12.7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 68) The nerve crucial for breathing that originates within the cervical plexus is called the nerve. A) ansa cervicalis B) great auricular C) transverse cervical D) phrenic E) supraclavicular Answer: D Learning Outcome: 12.8 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

69) The nerve, which arises in the cervical plexus, innervates the diaphragm. A) ansa cervicalis B) lesser occipital C) radial D) phrenic E) sciatic Answer: D Learning Outcome: 12.8 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 70) If a person has a crush injury to the C3-C5 spinal segments, you would expect that he A) might be unable to breathe on his own. B) could walk without difficulty. C) would have full range of motion in all extremities. D) would be in a coma. E) would exhibit none of the above. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 12.8 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 71) The ventral rami of spinal nerves C4 to T1 contribute fibers to the A) cervical B) brachial C) lumbar D) sacral E) thoracic Answer: B Learning Outcome: 12.9 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 72) In which plexus does the ulnar nerve arise? A) cranial B) cervical C) brachial D) lumbar E) sacral Answer: C Learning Outcome: 12.9 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

plexus.

73) The brachial plexus gives rise to all of the following nerves except the A) radial. B) median. C) ulnar. D) musculocutaneous. E) phrenic. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 12.9 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 74) Each of the following nerves originates in the lumbar plexus except the A) saphenous B) sciatic C) femoral D) obturator E) genitofemoral Answer: B Learning Outcome: 12.10 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

nerve.

75) The obturator nerve is distributed to the A) adductors of the hip. B) skin over the perineum. C) extensors of the hip. D) skin over buttocks. E) biceps femoris. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 12.10 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 76) As the nerve approaches the knee, it divides into two branches, the fibular nerve and the tibial nerve. A) perineal B) femoral C) brachial D) pudendal E) sciatic Answer: E Learning Outcome: 12.10 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

77) Spinal nerves from the sacral region of the cord innervate the A) shoulder B) intercostal C) abdominal D) leg E) facial Answer: D Learning Outcome: 12.10 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

muscles.

78) In a neuronal pool, one neuron synapses on several postsynaptic neurons. A) parallel processing B) reverberating C) converging D) diverging E) serial processing Answer: D Learning Outcome: 12.11 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 79) In , axon collaterals extend back toward the source of the impulse and further stimulate the earlier neurons. A) parallel processing B) reverberation C) convergence D) divergence E) serial processing Answer: B Learning Outcome: 12.11 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 80) Recognized neuronal circuit patterns include all of the following except A) convergent. B) divergent. C) multipolar. D) reverberating. E) parallel processing. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 12.11 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

81) Reflexes can be classified according to all of the following except A) where they are initiated. B) where information processing occurs. C) the motor response. D) the complexity of the neural circuit. E) whether they are sensory or motor. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 12.12 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 82) Reflexes based on synapses formed during development are A) visceral B) innate C) acquired D) somatic E) vegetative Answer: B Learning Outcome: 12.12 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

reflexes.

83) All of the following are true of neural reflexes except that they A) are automatic motor responses. B) are the simplest form of behavior. C) help preserve homeostasis. D) usually cannot be suppressed by the brain. E) involve at least two neurons. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 12.12 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 84) All of the following terms refer to ways that reflexes can be classified except A) intersegmental. B) polysynaptic. C) innate. D) voluntary. E) somatic. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 12.12 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

85) In a(n) reflex, a sensory neuron synapses directly on a motor neuron. A) sensory B) motor C) polysynaptic D) monosynaptic E) integrative Answer: D Learning Outcome: 12.12 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 86) A(n) reflex has at least one interneuron placed between the sensory and motor neurons. A) sensory B) motor C) polysynaptic D) monosynaptic E) integrative Answer: C Learning Outcome: 12.12 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding 87) The stretch reflex A) is an example of a polysynaptic reflex. B) is important in regulating muscle length. C) involves a receptor called the Golgi tendon organ. D) is activated when a smooth muscle lengthens. E) is voluntary. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 12.13 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 88) All of the following are true of muscle spindles except that they A) are found within skeletal muscle. B) consist of specialized fibers called intrafusal fibers. C) are found in tendons. D) are the receptor for the stretch reflex. E) are innervated by gamma motor neurons. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 12.13 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

89) All of the following are a part of a monosynaptic reflex arc except A) effector. B) interneuron. C) CNS processing. D) motor neuron. E) sensory neuron. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 12.13 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 90) The myotatic reflex is also known as the A) stretch B) tendon C) flexor D) crossed extensor E) reciprocal Answer: A Learning Outcome: 12.13 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

reflex.

91) In which of the following would the delay between stimulus and response be greater? A) a monosynaptic ipsilateral reflex B) a polysynaptic ipsilateral reflex C) a monosynaptic contralateral reflex D) a polysynaptic contralateral reflex Answer: D Learning Outcome: 12.14 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 92) All of the following are true of polysynaptic reflexes except that they A) are arranged according to dermatomes. B) are intersegmental in distribution. C) involve reciprocal innervation. D) have reverberating circuits that prolong the reflexive motor response. E) involve pools of interneurons. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 12.14 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

93) The flexor reflex A) prevents a muscle from overstretching. B) prevents a muscle from generating damaging tension. C) moves a limb away from a painful stimulus. D) usually depends on cranial neurons. E) is an example of a monosynaptic reflex. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 12.14 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 94) The reflex complements the flexor reflex by activating contralateral muscles. A) stretch B) tendon C) flexor D) crossed extensor E) reciprocal Answer: D Learning Outcome: 12.14 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 95) Spinal interneurons inhibit antagonist motor neurons in a process called A) a crossed extensor reflex. B) a stretch reflex. C) a tendon reflex. D) reciprocal inhibition. E) reverberating circuits. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 12.14 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 96) Reflexes that activate muscles on the same side of the body as the stimulus are called A) ipsilateral. B) bilateral. C) contralateral. D) collateral. E) antilateral. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 12.14 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

97) Reflexes that activate muscles on the opposite side of the body as the stimulus are called A) ipsilateral. B) bilateral. C) contralateral. D) collateral. E) antilateral. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 12.14 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 98) Which of the following is not true about a positive Babinski reflex? A) normal in newborns B) abnormal in adults C) a sign of injury to descending spinal tracts D) causes you to close your eyes when you sneeze E) causes flaring of the toes when the sole is stroked Answer: D Learning Outcome: 12.15 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 99) Tina falls while climbing a tree and lands on her back. Her frightened parents take her to the emergency room, where she is examined. Her knee-jerk reflex is normal and she exhibits a plantar reflex (negative Babinski reflex). These results suggest that A) Tina has injured one of her descending nerve tracts. B) Tina has injured one of her ascending nerve tracts. C) Tina has a spinal injury in the lumbar region. D) Tina has a spinal injury in the cervical region. E) Tina suffered no damage to her spinal cord. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 12.15 Bloom's Taxonomy: Analyzing 100) Which of the following is not true of the spinal cord? A) It interacts with the muscular system to provide involuntary movement. B) It interacts with the digestive system by receiving sensory signals from the stomach. C) It interacts with the urinary by receiving sensory signals from the bladder. D) It interacts with the muscular system by initiating voluntary movement of skeletal muscles. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 12.15 Bloom's Taxonomy: Analyzing

101) Describe the direction of sensory input and motor commands relative to the spinal cord. (Module 12.1A) A) Both sensory input and motor commands travel toward the spinal cord. B) Both sensory input and motor commands travel away from the spinal cord. C) Sensory input travels toward the spinal cord and motor commands travel away from the spinal cord. D) Sensory input travels away from the spinal cord and motor commands travel toward the spinal cord. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 12.1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 102) What is a reflex? (Module 12.1B) A) A reflex is a slow, calculated action triggered by a single exposure to specific stimuli. B) A reflex is a slow, calculated action triggered by repeated exposure to specific stimuli. C) A reflex is a slow, calculated action involving input from the brain triggered by specific stimuli. D) A reflex is when sensory inputs are sent quickly to the brain for analysis before any response occurs. E) A reflex is a rapid, automatic response triggered by specific stimuli. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 12.1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 103) Define spinal reflex. (Module 12.1C) A) A spinal reflex is a slow, calculated response of the spinal cord following exposure to a single specific stimulus. B) A spinal reflex is a slow, calculated response of the spinal cord following repeated exposure to specific stimuli. C) A spinal reflex is a slow, calculated action involving input from the brain triggered by specific stimuli. D) A spinal reflex is an automatic response to a stimulus that is controlled in the spinal cord and can function without input from the brain. E) A spinal reflex is when sensory inputs are sent quickly by the spinal cord to the brain for analysis before any response occurs. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 12.1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

104) A typical spinal cord has how many pairs of spinal nerves, and where does the spinal cord end? (Module 12.2A) A) 8 pairs; cervical vertebra 8 B) 20 pairs; thoracic vertebra 12 C) 25 pairs; lumbar vertebra 1 or 2 D) 30 pairs; lumbar vertebra 4 or 5 E) 31 pairs; lumbar vertebra 1 or 2 Answer: E Learning Outcome: 12.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 105) Name the pair of spinal nerves that emerges between vertebrae C7 and T1. (Module 12.2B) A) C6 B) C7 C) C8 D) T1 E) T0 Answer: C Learning Outcome: 12.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 106) Describe the composition of the gray matter of the spinal cord. (Module 12.2D) A) myelinated axons B) cell bodies of neurons, neuroglia, and unmyelinated axons C) myelinated axons and unmyelinated axons D) neuroglia and spinal meninges E) spinal meninges Answer: B Learning Outcome: 12.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 107) What is the significance of the cauda equina? (Module 12.2E) A) It is the shallow longitudinal groove on the posterior surface of the spinal cord. B) It contains the cell bodies of sensory neurons whose axons carry information to the spinal cord. C) It is made up of extensions of the posterior and anterior roots of spinal segments L2 to S5. It forms as the vertebral column continues to elongate after growth of the spinal cord ceases at about age 4. D) It contains the axons of motor neurons that extend into the periphery to control somatic and visceral effectors. E) It is slender strand of fibrous tissue that extends from the inferior tip of the conus medullaris to the second sacral vertebra. It provides longitudinal support to the spinal cord as a component of the coccygeal ligament. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 12.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 28

108) Where is spinal CSF located? (Module 12.3A) A) subarachnoid space B) epidural space C) subdural space D) intervertebral foramina E) between pedicles of adjacent vertebrae Answer: A Learning Outcome: 12.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 109) Name the structures and spinal coverings that are penetrated during a lumbar puncture procedure. (Module 12.3B) A) epidermis, dermis, skeletal muscle, subarachnoid space, arachnoid mater, dura mater, pia mater, subdural space B) dermis, epidermis, skeletal muscle, pia mater, arachnoid mater, dura mater, subdural space C) dermis, epidermis, skeletal muscle, dura mater, pia mater, arachnoid mater, subdural space D) epidermis, dermis, skeletal muscle, dura mater, arachnoid mater, subarachnoid space E) epidermis, dermis, skeletal muscle, pia mater, arachnoid mater, subarachnoid space Answer: D Learning Outcome: 12.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 110) Differentiate between sensory nuclei and motor nuclei. (Module 12.4A) A) Sensory nuclei receive and relay sensory information to peripheral receptors; motor nuclei issue motor commands to peripheral receptors. B) Sensory nuclei receive and relay sensory information from peripheral receptors; motor nuclei issue motor commands to peripheral receptors. C) Sensory nuclei receive and relay sensory information from peripheral receptors; motor nuclei issue motor commands from peripheral receptors. D) Sensory nuclei receive and relay sensory information to peripheral receptors; motor nuclei issue motor commands from peripheral receptors. E) Sensory nuclei receive and relay sensory information from the CNS; motor nuclei issue motor commands to the CNS. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 12.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

111) A person with polio has lost the use of his leg muscles. In which area of his spinal cord would you expect the virus-infected motor neurons to be? (Module 12.4B) A) anterior gray horns B) posterior gray horns C) lateral gray horns D) posterior white column E) gray commissures Answer: A Learning Outcome: 12.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 112) A disease that damages myelin sheaths would affect which portion of the spinal cord? (Module 12.4C) A) anterior gray horns B) posterior gray horns C) lateral gray horns D) white matter columns E) gray commissures Answer: D Learning Outcome: 12.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 113) Identify the three layers of connective tissue of a spinal nerve, and identify the major peripheral branches of a spinal nerve. (Module 12.5A) A) outer epineurium, middle perineurium, and inner endoneurium; posterior ramus, anterior ramus, and rami communicantes B) outer perineurium, middle epineurium, and inner endoneurium; posterior ramus, anterior ramus, and rami communicantes C) outer endoneurium, middle epineurium, and inner perineurium; posterior ramus, anterior ramus, and rami communicantes D) outer perineurium, middle endoneurium, and inner epineurium; posterior ramus, anterior ramus, and rami communicantes E) outer endoneurium, middle perineurium, and inner epineurium; posterior ramus, anterior ramus, and rami communicantes Answer: A Learning Outcome: 12.5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 114) Describe a dermatome. (Module 12.5B) A) A dermatome is the total area of skin that contains sensory neurons. B) A dermatome is the region of skeletal muscle that can respond to spinal reflexes. C) A dermatome is the sensory region that can trigger spinal reflexes. D) A dermatome is the unilateral sensory region monitored by a single sensory nerve. E) A dermatome is the bilateral sensory region monitored by a single pair of spinal nerves. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 12.5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 30

115) Which ramus carries sensory information from the limbs? (Module 12.6A) A) anterior ramus B) posterior ramus C) medial ramus D) lateral ramus E) rami communicantes Answer: A Learning Outcome: 12.6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 116) Through which root of a spinal nerve does visceral sensory information arrive? (Module 12.6B) A) anterior root B) posterior root C) anterior root if the sensory receptors are on the anterior portion of the body and posterior root if the sensory receptors are on the posterior surface of the body D) anterior root if the sensory receptors are superior to the spinal cord and posterior root if the sensory receptors are inferior to the spinal cord E) both anterior root and posterior root can receive visceral sensory information Answer: B Learning Outcome: 12.6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 117) Which ramus provides sensory and motor innervation to the skin and skeletal muscles of the back? (Module 12.6C) A) lateral ramus B) rami communicantes C) anterior ramus D) posterior ramus E) medial ramus Answer: D Learning Outcome: 12.6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 118) Define nerve plexus, and list the major nerve plexuses. (Module 12.7A) A) A nerve plexus is a pair of spinal nerves serving a single dermatome; cervical, brachial, lumbar, and sacral B) A nerve plexus is a collection of all the sensory neurons; cervical, thoracic, lumbar, and sacral C) A nerve plexus is a collection of all the motor neurons; cervical, thoracic, lumbar, and sacral D) A nerve plexus is a bundle of sympathetic nerve fibers; cervical, thoracic, brachial, lumbar, sacral, and coccygeal E) A nerve plexus is a complex, interwoven network of nerves; cervical, brachial, lumbar, and sacral Answer: E Learning Outcome: 12.7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 31

119) Which spinal nerves are not part of a nerve plexus? (Module 12.7B) A) T1-T12 B) C1-C2 C) T2-T11 and Co1 D) S1-S5 E) L1-L5 Answer: C Learning Outcome: 12.7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 120) Damage to which nerve of the cervical plexus would interfere with the ability to breathe? (Module 12.8A) A) phrenic nerve B) supraclavicular nerve C) great auricular nerve D) transverse cervical E) ansa cervicalis Answer: A Learning Outcome: 12.8 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 121) When an anesthetic blocks the function of the anterior rami of the cervical spinal nerves, which areas of the body will be affected? (Module 12.8B) A) skin and muscles of the lateral surface of the forearm B) skin and muscles of the arm and forearm C) skin and muscles of the back of the neck and of the shoulders D) skin over anteromedial thigh and portions of external genitalia E) muscles of the face Answer: C Learning Outcome: 12.8 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying

122) Describe the brachial plexus. (Module 12.9A) A) The brachial plexus is a network of nerves formed by branches of spinal nerve segments C5-T1. B) The brachial plexus is a network of nerves formed by branches of spinal nerve segments C1-C7. C) The brachial plexus is a network of nerves formed by branches of spinal nerve segments T1-T12. D) The brachial plexus is a network of nerves formed by branches of spinal nerve segments L1-L5. E) The brachial plexus is a network of nerves formed by branches of spinal nerve segments S5-Co1. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 12.9 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 123) Define a nerve plexus trunk and cord. (Module 12.9B) A) A nerve plexus trunk is a large bundle of axons from several spinal nerves; a nerve plexus cord is a smaller branch of nerves that originates at a trunk. B) A nerve plexus trunk is a small bundle of axons from several spinal nerves; a nerve plexus cord is a larger branch of nerves that originates at a trunk. C) A nerve plexus trunk consists of the posterior rami of each spinal nerve; a nerve plexus cord is a division of each trunk. D) A nerve plexus trunk is a small division of a nerve plexus cord; a nerve plexus cord is a larger branch from the posterior rami of spinal nerves. E) A nerve plexus trunk consists of the posterior rami of spinal nerves; a nerve plexus cord consists of the anterior rami of spinal nerves. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 12.9 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

124) Describe the lumbar plexus and sacral plexus. (Module 12.10A) A) The lumbar plexus is a nerve network formed by axons from the anterior rami of spinal nerve segments C1-C5; the sacral plexus is a nerve network formed by axons from the anterior rami of spinal nerve segments C5-T1. B) The lumbar plexus is a nerve network formed by axons from the anterior rami of spinal nerve segments T12-L4; the sacral plexus is a nerve network formed by axons from the anterior rami of spinal nerve segments S4-Co1. C) The lumbar plexus is a nerve network formed by axons from the anterior rami of spinal nerve segments C1-C5; the sacral plexus is a nerve network formed by axons from the anterior rami of spinal nerve segments S4-Co1. D) The lumbar plexus is a nerve network formed by axons from the anterior rami of spinal nerve segments L1-L5; the sacral plexus is a nerve network formed by axons from the anterior rami of spinal nerve segments L4-S5. E) The lumbar plexus is a nerve network formed by axons from the anterior rami of spinal nerve segments T12-L4; the sacral plexus is a nerve network formed by axons from the anterior rami of spinal nerve segments L4-S4. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 12.10 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 125) List the major nerves of the sacral plexus. (Module 12.10B) A) iliohypogastric, ilio-inguinal, and genitofemoral nerves B) lateral femoral cutaneous, femoral, and obturator nerves C) superior and inferior gluteal, posterior femoral cutaneous, sciatic, and pudendal nerves D) tibial, femoral, sural, saphenous, and fibular nerves E) long thoracic, thoracodorsal, saphenous, genitofemoral, and obturator nerves Answer: C Learning Outcome: 12.10 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 126) Which nerve divides into the tibial nerve and common fibular nerve? (Module 12.10C) A) femoral B) obturator C) pudendal D) sciatic E) saphenous Answer: D Learning Outcome: 12.10 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

127) Differentiate between divergent and convergent neural circuits. (Module 12.11A) A) In divergent circuits, information spreads from one neuron to several neurons. In convergent circuits, several neurons synapse with one postsynaptic neuron. B) In divergent circuits, several neurons synapse with one postsynaptic neuron. In convergent circuits, information spreads from one neuron to several neurons. C) In divergent circuits, information from one neuron is spread through one hemisphere of the cerebrum. In convergent circuits, information from one neuron is spread through both cerebral hemispheres. D) In divergent circuits, information from one neuron is spread through both cerebral hemispheres. In convergent circuits, information from one neuron is spread through one hemisphere of the cerebrum. E) In divergent circuits, branches of axons somewhere along on the circuit extend back toward the source and stimulate the presynaptic neuron similar to a positive feedback loop. In a convergent circuit, the original presynaptic neuron is not stimulated by axons further down the circuit. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 12.11 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 128) Which kind of neural circuit processes information in a stepwise fashion, one neuron to another? (Module 12.11B) A) divergent B) serial processing C) convergent D) parallel processing E) reverberation Answer: C Learning Outcome: 12.11 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 129) Where does the simplest processing occur? (Module 12.11C) A) cerebrum B) cerebellum C) brainstem D) PNS and the spinal cord E) corpus callosum Answer: D Learning Outcome: 12.11 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

130) What are common characteristics of reflexes? (Module 12.12A) A) All reflexes involve contraction of skeletal muscle to pull away from a stimulus to minimize damage. B) All reflexes involve processing in the spinal cord. C) All reflexes involve processing in the brain. D) All reflexes involve only one synapse so they are rapid responses to stimuli. E) All reflexes are rapid, unconscious patterned responses to stimuli that restore or maintain homeostasis. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 12.12 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 131) List the components of a reflex arc. (Module 12.12B) A) sensory neuron, interneuron, motor neuron B) sensory neuron and motor neuron C) receptor, sensory neuron, motor neuron, effector, and sometimes interneurons may be involved D) receptor, motor neuron, effector, and sometimes interneurons may be involved E) receptor, interneuron, effector Answer: C Learning Outcome: 12.12 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 132) Define stretch reflex. (Module 12.13A) A) A stretch reflex is an example of a withdrawal reflex that contracts the flexor muscles of a limb in response to a painful stimulus. B) A stretch reflex is a polysynaptic reflex that activates extensor muscles in the opposite leg or arm when a flexor reflex is activated. C) A stretch reflex is a monosynaptic reflex that activates extensor muscles in the opposite leg or arm when a flexor reflex is activated. D) A stretch reflex is a monosynaptic reflex that provides regulation of skeletal muscle length. E) A stretch reflex is a polysynaptic reflex that provides regulation of skeletal muscle length. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 12.13 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 133) In the patellar reflex, identify the response observed and the effectors involved. (Module 12.13B) A) arm flexion and the effector is the biceps brachii B) arm extension and the effector is the triceps brachii C) leg flexion and the effectors are the hamstrings D) leg flexion and the effectors are the quadriceps femoris E) leg extension and the effectors are the quadriceps femoris Answer: E Learning Outcome: 12.13 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 36

134) In the patellar reflex, how does stimulation of the muscle spindle by gamma motor neurons affect sensitivity and reaction time? (Module 12.13C) A) The muscle spindles become more sensitive and the reflex response occurs more quickly. B) The muscle spindles become more sensitive and the reflex response occurs more slowly. C) The muscle spindles become less sensitive and the reflex response occurs more quickly. D) The muscle spindles become less sensitive and the reflex response occurs more slowly. E) The muscle spindles become more sensitive but the reflex response time does not change. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 12.13 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 135) Describe the flexor reflex. (Module 12.14A) A) A stretch reflex is an example of a withdrawal reflex that contracts the flexor muscles of a limb in response to a painful stimulus. B) A stretch reflex is a polysynaptic reflex that activates extensor muscles in the opposite leg or arm when a flexor reflex is activated. C) A stretch reflex is a monosynaptic reflex that activates extensor muscles in the opposite leg or arm when a flexor reflex is activated. D) A stretch reflex is a monosynaptic reflex that provides regulation of skeletal muscle length. E) A stretch reflex is a polysynaptic reflex that provides regulation of skeletal muscle length. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 12.14 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 136) During a withdrawal reflex of the foot, what happens to the limb on the side opposite the stimulus? What is this response called? (Module 12.14B) A) The opposite side is also flexed. This is called the crossed flexor reflex. B) The opposite side is extended. This is called the crossed extensor reflex. C) The opposite side is also flexed. This is called reciprocal inhibition. D) The opposite side is extended. This is called reciprocal inhibition. E) The opposite side is extended. This is called reinforcement. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 12.14 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

137) Identify the basic characteristics of polysynaptic reflexes. (Module 12.14C) A) All polysynaptic reflexes do not use interneurons, only involve one spinal segment, involve reciprocal inhibition, and have converging circuits. B) All polysynaptic reflexes use interneurons, only involve one spinal segment, do not involve reciprocal inhibition, and have diverging circuits. C) All polysynaptic reflexes do not use interneurons, involve more than one spinal segment, do not involve reciprocal inhibition, and use serial processing. D) All polysynaptic reflexes use interneurons, involve more than one spinal segment, do not involve reciprocal inhibition, and use parallel processing. E) All polysynaptic reflexes use interneurons, involve more than one spinal segment, involve reciprocal inhibition, and have reverberating circuits. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 12.14 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 138) Define reinforcement as it pertains to spinal reflexes. (Module 12.15A) A) Reinforcement is an enhancement of a spinal reflex through the facilitation of motor neurons involved in reflexes. B) Reinforcement is a reduction of a spinal reflex through the inhibition of motor neurons involved in reflexes. C) Reinforcement is the cooperation of many muscle groups to enable reflexes to occur without losing postural tone. D) Reinforcement is the repetition of a spinal reflex in order to condition the motor neurons to the reflex. E) Reinforcement involves processing events in the nuclei of the brain to enhance the reflex. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 12.15 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 139) What purpose does reflex testing serve? (Module 12.15B) A) Reflex testing provides information about resting muscle tone. B) Reflex testing provides information about muscle strength. C) Reflex testing provides information about sensory receptors. D) Reflex testing provides information about the memory of a subject. E) Reflex testing provides information about the nervous system's functional status. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 12.15 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

Essay Questions 140) What would happen if the posterior root of a spinal nerve were completely transected? Answer: The posterior roots contain axons of sensory neurons, so input from those afferents within the severed root would not be transmitted to the CNS and thus this lesion would result in a complete loss of feeling from the body region served by the afferent fibers in that posterior root. Learning Outcome: 12.6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 141) While playing football, Ramón is tackled hard and, as he tries to get up, he finds that he has difficulty flexing and adducting his left thigh and extending his left leg. Which nerve innervating the lower limb may be damaged, and how would the damage affect sensory perception in Ramón's left leg? Answer: Ramón has a damaged left femoral nerve. This nerve also supplies sensory innervation to the skin on the anteromedial surface of the thigh and medial surfaces of the leg and foot, so he will also experience numbness in those regions. Learning Outcome: 12.10 Bloom's Taxonomy: Analyzing 142) What is a reflex arc? What components must be present to qualify? Answer: A reflex arc is the wiring pattern of neurons that underlie a particular reflex. A reflex arc consists of three elements at the minimum: (1) a sensory receptor and neuron to carry afferent information to the CNS; (2) an excitatory synapse on a motor neuron; (3) the motor neuron to generate an action potential and conduct the impulse to an effector such as a skeletal muscle motor unit. Learning Outcome: 12.12 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 143) Sometimes, when it is difficult to initiate a knee-jerk reflex by tapping the patellar tendon, a patient will be asked to voluntarily make a fist. Then the reflex will be easily evoked. What does this illustrate about the relation between voluntary and involuntary reflex movement? Answer: Descending motor tracts that excite the motor neurons that activate forearm and hand muscles also send excitatory impulses to motor neurons lower down the spinal cord. These EPSPs spatially summate with the excitatory inputs from the muscle spindles to quadriceps motor neurons, bringing the quadriceps neurons to threshold, and thus generate a brisk "knee jerk" response. Learning Outcome: 12.15 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying

144) Describe the gross anatomical features of a cross section of spinal cord. (Module 12.2C) Answer: Gross anatomical features of the cross-sectioned spinal cord include the anterior median fissure (a deep groove along the anterior or ventral surface); the posterior median sulcus (a shallow longitudinal groove); white matter (dominated by myelinated axons); gray matter (composed of cell bodies of neurons, neuroglia, and unmyelinated axons); the central canal (a passageway containing cerebrospinal fluid); a posterior root of each spinal nerve (axons of neurons whose cell bodies are in the posterior root ganglion); the anterior root of each spinal nerve (the axons of motor neurons that extend into the periphery to control somatic and visceral effectors); posterior root ganglia (contain cell bodies of sensory neurons); and spinal nerves (contain the axons of sensory and motor neurons). Learning Outcome: 12.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 145) Explain the cause of shingles. (Module 12.5C) Answer: Shingles is caused by reactivation of the varicella-zoster virus (VZV), the same herpes virus that causes chickenpox. Once reactivated, the virus stimulates painful inflammation of the nerve ganglia and causes skin eruptions in a pattern that corresponds to the affected dermatome. Learning Outcome: 12.5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 146) Describe the white and gray rami communicantes. (Module 12.6D) Answer: The gray ramus communicans is a bundle of postganglionic sympathetic nerve fibers that are distributed to effectors (glands and smooth muscles) in the body wall and limbs by way of a spinal nerve. The white ramus communicans contains both motor and sensory fibers. It contains the myelinated preganglionic axons of sympathetic motor neurons en route to sympathetic ganglia and abdominopelvic viscera and sensory fibers carrying sensory information from the visceral organs. Learning Outcome: 12.6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 147) Name the major nerves associated with the brachial plexus. (Module 12.9C) Answer: The major nerves associated with the brachial plexus are the dorsal scapular, long thoracic, suprascapular, medial and lateral pectoral, subscapular, thoracodorsal, axillary, medial antebrachial cutaneous, radial, musculocutaneous, median, and ulnar nerves. Learning Outcome: 12.9 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 148) Describe the various classifications of neural reflexes. (Module 12.12C) Answer: Neural reflexes are classified according to their development (innate reflexes versus acquired reflexes), the nature of the resulting motor response (somatic reflexes versus visceral reflexes), the complexity of the neural circuit involved (monosynaptic reflexes versus polysynaptic reflexes), and the site of information processing (spinal reflexes versus cranial reflexes). Learning Outcome: 12.12 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

149) After injuring her back, 22-year-old Tina exhibits a Babinski reflex. What does this imply about her injury? (Module 12.15C) Answer: A Babinski reflex is abnormal in adults; it indicates possible damage of descending tracts in the spinal cord. Learning Outcome: 12.15 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying

Visual Anatomy and Physiology, 3e (Martini) Chapter 13 The Brain, Cranial Nerves, and Sensory and Motor Pathways Multiple Choice Questions 1) Which of the following is not one of the main divisions of the adult brain? A) cerebrum B) diencephalon C) prosencephalon D) midbrain E) pons Answer: C Learning Outcome: 13.1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 2) Which of the following lies between the cerebrum and the brainstem? A) medulla oblongata B) pons C) midbrain D) diencephalon E) cerebellum Answer: D Learning Outcome: 13.1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 3) Which of the following is improperly paired? A) telencephalon — will form the cerebrum B) diencephalon — becomes the ventricle C) mesencephalon — also called the midbrain D) metencephalon — will form the cerebellum and pons E) myelencephalon — will form the medullar oblongata Answer: B Learning Outcome: 13.1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 4) The adult human brain contains almost A) 15 percent B) 25 percent C) 68 percent D) 97 percent E) 100 percent Answer: D Learning Outcome: 13.1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

of the body's neural tissue.

5) Male brains are typically A) larger B) smaller C) the same size D) very smooth E) more convoluted Answer: A Learning Outcome: 13.1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

compared to female brains.

6) During embryonic development, which of the following secondary brain vesicles will form the cerebrum? A) telencephalon B) diencephalon C) midbrain D) metencephalon E) myelencephalon Answer: A Learning Outcome: 13.1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 7) The floor of the diencephalon is formed by the A) hypothalamus. B) thalamus. C) brainstem. D) midbrain. E) myelencephalon. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 13.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 8) are chambers within the brain that contain cerebrospinal fluid. A) Lobes B) Ventricles C) Nuclei D) Fissures E) Gyri Answer: B Learning Outcome: 13.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

9) Sensory information is processed and relayed to the cerebrum by the A) medulla oblongata. B) pons. C) midbrain. D) thalamus. E) cerebellum. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 13.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 10) The tracts that connect the cerebellum to the brainstem are located in the A) medulla oblongata. B) pons. C) midbrain. D) diencephalon. E) thalamus. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 13.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 11) Autonomic centers that control blood pressure, heart rate, and digestion are located in the A) medulla oblongata. B) pons. C) midbrain. D) diencephalon. E) cerebellum. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 13.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 12) Which of the following is improperly paired? A) falx cerebri — a fold of dura mater between the cerebral hemispheres B) septum pellucidum — a thin partition that separates the two lateral ventricles C) corpus callosum — thick tract of gray matter that connects the two cerebral hemispheres D) interventricular foramen - the opening between the lateral ventricles and the third ventricle E) cerebral aqueduct — slender canal that connects the third and fourth ventricle Answer: C Learning Outcome: 13.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

13) Each lateral ventricle communicates with the third ventricle through a(n) A) septum pellucidum. B) cerebral aqueduct. C) aqueduct of midbrain. D) interventricular foramen. E) medulla oblongata. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 13.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 14) The third and fourth ventricles are linked by a slender canal designated as the A) central canal. B) tentorium cerebelli. C) cerebral aqueduct. D) interventricular foramina. E) septum pellucidum. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 13.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 15) The ventricle associated with the pons and upper medulla is the A) first. B) second. C) third. D) fourth. E) lateral. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 13.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 16) Two large venous sinuses, the sagittal sinuses, lie within a dural fold called the A) tentorium cerebelli. B) falx cerebelli. C) lateral aperture. D) falx cerebri. E) arachnoid granulations. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 13.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

17) The cells that cover the outer surfaces of CNS capillaries cells are the A) microglia. B) astrocytes. C) monocytes. D) leukocytes. E) lymphocytes. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 13.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 18) The dural sinuses are located in the A) paranasal cavity. B) arachnoid mater. C) pia mater. D) dural folds. E) tentorium cerebelli. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 13.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 19) What structure is covered by many blood vessels and adheres tightly to the surface of the brain? A) pia mater B) arachnoid mater C) dura mater D) falx cerebelli E) choroid plexus Answer: A Learning Outcome: 13.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 20) The dural fold that projects into the longitudinal fissure between cerebral hemispheres is called the A) dural sinus. B) falx cerebri. C) tentorium cerebelli. D) falx cerebelli. E) choroid plexus. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 13.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

21) What contains a spider web-like network of cells and fibers through which cerebrospinal fluid flows? A) subdural space B) dural sinus C) falx cerebri D) subarachnoid space E) pia mater Answer: D Learning Outcome: 13.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 22) Cerebrospinal fluid A) is secreted by ependymal cells. B) is formed by a passive process. C) is normally produced twice as fast as it is removed. D) has almost the same composition as blood plasma. E) is formed by a passive process and has almost the same composition as blood plasma. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 13.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 23) Absorption at the arachnoid granulations returns CSF to the A) third ventricle. B) arterial circulation. C) venous circulation. D) fourth ventricle. E) central canal. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 13.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 24) Cerebrospinal fluid enters the subarachnoid space through the A) interventricular foramina. B) cerebral aqueduct. C) dural sinus. D) lateral and median apertures. E) falx cerebri. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 13.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

25) Cerebrospinal fluid enters the blood circulation at the A) jugular veins. B) dural drain. C) superior sagittal sinus. D) tentorium cerebelli. E) frontal sinus. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 13.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 26) The neural tissue is isolated from the general circulation by the A) dura mater. B) choroid plexuses. C) arachnoid granulations. D) meninges. E) blood-brain barrier. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 13.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 27) Specialized cells form the secretory component of the choroid plexus. A) astrocyte B) ependymal C) neuron D) microglia E) oligodendrocyte Answer: B Learning Outcome: 13.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 28) The choroid plexuses produces CSF at a rate of about A) 500 mL/day. B) 250 mL/day. C) 50 mL/day. D) 1000 mL/day. E) 150 mL/day. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 13.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

29) The layer of the meninges that closely follows every gyrus and sulcus is the A) pia mater. B) dura mater. C) arachnoid mater. D) subarachnoid space. E) subarachnoid mater. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 13.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 30) Which of the following is not a function of cerebrospinal fluid? A) provides cushioning for delicate neural tissues B) provides buoyant support for the brain C) acts as a transport medium for nutrients D) provides ATP for impulse transmission E) acts as a transport medium for waste products Answer: D Learning Outcome: 13.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 31) Which of these is mismatched with its location? A) falx cerebri; between cerebral hemispheres B) tentorium cerebelli; between cerebral hemispheres and cerebellum C) falx cerebelli; between cerebellar hemispheres D) superior sagittal sinus; runs along superior edge of the corpus callosum E) dural venous sinuses; large collecting veins located within the dural folds Answer: D Learning Outcome: 13.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 32) All of the following help(s) to directly protect the brain except A) the blood-brain barrier. B) the bones of the skull. C) the cranial meninges. D) the CSF. E) the neural tubes. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 13.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

33) As CSF circulates, _ between it and the interstitial fluid of the CNS is unrestricted between and across the ependymal cells. A) osmosis B) perfusion C) diffusion D) convection E) conduction Answer: C Learning Outcome: 13.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

Figure 13-1 34) What is produced by the structure labeled "2"? A) cerebrospinal fluid B) neurotransmitters C) white matter D) hormones E) blood Answer: A Learning Outcome: 13.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

35) Identify the structure labeled "3." A) arbor vitae B) corpora quadrigemina C) cerebral aqueduct D) pons E) diencephalon Answer: C Learning Outcome: 13.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 36) Identify the structure labeled "10." A) arbor vitae B) central canal C) corpus callosum D) pons E) diencephalon Answer: B Learning Outcome: 13.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 37) Identify the structure labeled "8." A) pia mater B) dura mater C) corpus callosum D) ventricles E) arachnoid granulation Answer: E Learning Outcome: 13.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 38) Identify the structure labeled "7." A) dura mater B) lateral ventricle C) fourth ventricle D) subarachnoid space E) filum terminale Answer: A Learning Outcome: 13.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

39) All of the following are properly paired except A) reticular formation - located in the medulla oblongata. B) gracile nucleus - relays somatic sensory information to the thalamus. C) ascending tracts - carry motor information to the thalamus. D) cuneate nucleus - relays somatic sensory information to the thalamus. E) inferior olivary complex - relays information from the red nucleus. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 13.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 40) The cardiovascular reflexes are based in the A) cerebrum. B) midbrain. C) cerebellum. D) medulla oblongata. E) spinal cord. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 13.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 41) The respiratory rhythmicity center is located in the A) reticular formation of the pons. B) left cerebral hemisphere. C) reflex centers of the medulla oblongata. D) arbor vitae of the cerebellum. E) substantia nigra of the midbrain. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 13.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 42) The control of heart rate and blood pressure is based in the A) cerebrum. B) cerebellum. C) diencephalon. D) medulla oblongata. E) heart. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 13.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

43) is the term used to describe the crossing over of a tract to the side of the nervous system opposite to where the axons originated. A) Ascending B) Descending C) Decussation D) Relaying E) Coordinating Answer: C Learning Outcome: 13.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 44) Which of the following is not found in the medulla oblongata? A) reticular formation. B) respiratory rhythmicity centers. C) solitary nucleus. D) nuclei for CN V, VI, and VII. E) olivary nucleus. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 13.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 45) The pons contains all of the following structures except the A) sensory and motor nuclei for cranial nerves V, VI, VII, and VIII. B) nuclei concerned with the control of respiration. C) tracts that link the cerebellum with the brainstem. D) transverse fibers that link the pons with the cerebellum. E) pyramids that contain motor tracts originating in the cerebral cortex. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 13.5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 46) The white matter of the cerebellum forms a branching array called the A) cortex. B) medulla. C) fourth ventricle. D) vermis. E) arbor vitae. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 13.6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

47) The shallow folds of the surface of the cerebellum are called A) folia. B) fissures. C) gyri. D) sulci. E) arbor vitae. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 13.6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 48) A cortex is found on the surface of both the A) cerebral hemispheres and pons. B) pons and cerebellum. C) cerebellum and medulla oblongata. D) cerebellum and cerebral hemispheres. E) pons and medullar oblongata. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 13.6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 49) Overseeing the postural muscles of the body and making rapid adjustments to maintain balance and equilibrium are functions of the A) cerebrum. B) midbrain. C) cerebellum. D) pons. E) medulla oblongata. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 13.6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 50) The cerebellum adjusts motor activity in response to all of the following except A) tactile sensations. B) visual information. C) equilibrium-related sensations. D) gustatory information. E) proprioceptor information. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 13.6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

51) The cerebellar hemispheres are separated by a worm-shaped band of cortex called the A) cerebellar peduncles. B) arbor vitae. C) folia. D) vermis. E) pyramid. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 13.6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 52) The white matter of the cerebellum forms the A) cerebellar peduncles. B) arbor vitae. C) folia. D) vermis. E) pyramid. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 13.6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 53) The tract that links the cerebellum with the pons is the A) superior cerebellar peduncle. B) inferior cerebellar peduncle. C) middle cerebellar peduncle. D) longitudinal fibers. E) obverse fibers. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 13.6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 54) The presence of many large, highly-branched Purkinje cells in a sample of brain tissue indicates that it came from the A) pons. B) medulla. C) cerebral cortex. D) cerebellar cortex. E) arbor vitae. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 13.6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

55) The medulla oblongata relays auditory information to the A) substantia nigra. B) red nuclei. C) cerebral peduncles. D) superior colliculi. E) inferior colliculi. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 13.7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 56) The regions of the midbrain that issue subconscious motor commands that affect upper limb position and background muscle tone are the A) tecta. B) red nuclei. C) cerebral peduncles. D) superior colliculi. E) inferior colliculi. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 13.7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 57) Descending nerve fiber bundles on the ventrolateral surface of the midbrain are the A) tegmenta. B) corpora quadrigemina. C) cerebral peduncles. D) superior colliculi. E) inferior colliculi. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 13.7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 58) Stimulation of the reticular formation results in A) increased consciousness. B) sleep. C) coma. D) decreased cerebral function. E) All of the above. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 13.7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

59) The tectum of the midbrain contains the A) substantia nigra. B) red nuclei. C) superior and inferior colliculi. D) cerebral peduncles. E) basal ganglia. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 13.7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 60) The reflex movement of the head toward a loud noise is directed by the midbrain. Which nuclei accomplish this? A) substantia nigra B) red nuclei C) tectum D) superior colliculi E) inferior colliculi Answer: E Learning Outcome: 13.7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 61) Examination of a tissue sample from the central nervous system reveals many darkly pigmented cells. This tissue probably came from the A) nucleus gracilis. B) nucleus cuneatus. C) motor cortex. D) substantia nigra. E) red nucleus. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 13.7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 62) Damage to the corpora quadrigemina would interfere with A) control of muscle tone. B) regulation of body temperature. C) visual and auditory reflex movements of the head and neck. D) subconscious control of skeletal muscles of the upper limbs. E) control of breathing. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 13.7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

63) Damage to the superior colliculi would interfere with the reflex ability to A) express rage. B) voluntarily move the arm. C) react to a bright light. D) react to loud noises. E) maintain proper posture. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 13.7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 64) The midbrain contains the headquarters of the reticular formation that controls alertness and attention. A) cardiovascular control center B) reticular activating system C) respiratory rhythmicity center D) tectum E) tegmentum Answer: B Learning Outcome: 13.7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

, a specialized component of the

65) The superior colliculi receive visual input from the lateral geniculate nuclei via the A) substantia nigra. B) red nuclei. C) cerebral peduncles. D) optic tract. E) inferior colliculi. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 13.7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 66) The , a narrow stalk, connects the hypothalamus to the pituitary gland. A) thalamus B) infundibulum C) brain stem D) mammillary body E) anterior commissure Answer: B Learning Outcome: 13.8 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

67) The provides the principal link between the nervous and endocrine systems. A) cerebellum B) medulla oblongata C) cerebrum D) pons E) hypothalamus Answer: E Learning Outcome: 13.8 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 68) The filters and relays sensory information to the cerebral cortex. A) cerebrum B) thalamus C) pons D) medulla oblongata E) cerebellum Answer: B Learning Outcome: 13.8 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 69) Which of the following is a property of the mammillary bodies? A) controls feeding reflexes like swallowing and licking B) responsible for auditory reflexes C) located posterior to the pons D) connects the hypothalamus to the pituitary gland E) secretes melatonin Answer: A Learning Outcome: 13.8 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 70) Which of the following is a function of the thalamus? A) secretes cerebrospinal fluid B) secretes melatonin C) processes sensory information and relays it to the cerebrum D) stores memories E) regulates food intake Answer: C Learning Outcome: 13.8 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

71) The anterior nuclei of the thalamus A) are part of the limbic system. B) secrete pituitary hormones. C) secrete melatonin. D) receive axon collaterals from the optic nerve. E) control feeding reflexes like licking and swallowing. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 13.8 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 72) The medial nuclei of the thalamus A) are part of the limbic system. B) integrate sensory information for relay to the frontal lobes. C) produce the hormone oxytocin. D) process visual information. E) receive sensory information from the cerebellum. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 13.8 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 73) The ventral nuclei of the thalamus perform all of the following functions except A) relaying input from basal ganglia to the motor areas of the cerebral cortex. B) relaying input from cerebellum to the motor areas of the cerebral cortex. C) relaying general sensory input to the primary sensory cortex. D) projecting visual and auditory information to the visual and auditory cortices. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 13.8 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 74) The posterior nuclei of the thalamus include all of the following areas except A) pulvinar. B) lateral geniculate. C) medial geniculate. D) mammillary bodies. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 13.8 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 75) The optic tracts carry visual information from the retina to the A) pulvinar nuclei. B) lateral geniculate nuclei. C) medial geniculate nuclei. D) preoptic area. E) suprachiasmatic nuclei. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 13.8 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 20

76) The relay(s) auditory information to the auditory cortex. A) pulvinar nuclei B) lateral geniculate nuclei C) medial geniculate nuclei D) preoptic area E) suprachiasmatic nuclei Answer: C Learning Outcome: 13.8 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 77) Which of the following is incorrect? A) pulvinar nuclei — integrates sensory information for projection to the association areas of the cerebral cortex B) lateral geniculate nuclei — projects visual information to primary visual cortex C) medial geniculate nuclei — projects auditory information to primary auditory cortex D) preoptic area — regulates body temperature E) suprachiasmatic nuclei — secretes ADH Answer: E Learning Outcome: 13.8 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 78) All of the following are a function of the hypothalamus except A) coordinating day-night cycles of activity/inactivity. B) controlling autonomic centers. C) regulating body temperature. D) secreting hormones. E) projecting visual information to the visual cortex. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 13.8 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 79) Which of the following hypothalamic functions is incorrect? A) regulate lactation — preoptic region B) secrete oxytocin — paraventricular nucleus C) control feeding reflexes — mammillary bodies D) control heart rate and blood pressure — autonomic centers E) secrete antidiuretic hormone — supra-optic nucleus Answer: A Learning Outcome: 13.8 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

80) Damage to the preoptic area of the hypothalamus leads to which problem? A) an intense thirst B) an uncontrolled sex drive C) reduced ability to regulate body temperature D) an insatiable appetite E) production of a large volume of urine Answer: C Learning Outcome: 13.8 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 81) Joe begins to experience mood swings and disturbed thirst and hunger. Imaging studies indicate that a brain tumor is the likely cause of these disorders. In what part of the brain is the tumor most likely located? A) prefrontal cortex B) postcentral gyrus C) basal nuclei D) hypothalamus E) reticular formation Answer: D Learning Outcome: 13.8 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 82) Which of the following is not a component of the limbic system? A) amygdaloid body B) cingulate gyrus C) globus pallidus D) hippocampus E) fornix Answer: C Learning Outcome: 13.9 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 83) Which of the following is not a property of the limbic system? A) contains cerebral and diencephalic components B) functions in maintaining homeostasis in cold weather C) located between the border of the cerebrum and diencephalon D) links conscious functions of the cerebral cortex with unconscious functions of the brainstem E) functions in emotions, learning, and memory Answer: B Learning Outcome: 13.9 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

84) The is important in storage and recall of new long-term memories. A) amygdaloid body B) cingulate gyrus C) mammillary bodies D) hippocampus E) fornix Answer: D Learning Outcome: 13.9 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 85) A tract of white matter found in the limbic system that connects the hippocampus with the hypothalamus is the A) amygdaloid body. B) cingulate gyrus. C) mammillary bodies. D) hippocampus. E) fornix. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 13.9 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 86) Terry suffers from dissociation of memories from their emotional content as the result of an automobile accident. What system of the brain is probably damaged? A) the prefrontal lobe B) the general interpretive area C) the limbic system D) the thalamus E) the putamen Answer: C Learning Outcome: 13.9 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 87) Which of the following is not one of the basal nuclei? A) caudate nucleus B) globus pallidus C) putamen D) hippocampus E) lentiform nucleus Answer: D Learning Outcome: 13.10 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

88) The is located at the tip of the tail of the caudate nucleus. A) amygdaloid body B) thalamus C) lentiform nucleus D) globus pallidus E) putamen Answer: A Learning Outcome: 13.10 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 89) The putamen and globus pallidus are considered subdivisions of the A) caudate nucleus. B) claustrum. C) lentiform nucleus. D) corpus striatum. E) limbic system. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 13.10 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 90) Within each hemisphere, deep to the floor of the lateral ventricle, you will find the A) anterior commissures. B) basal nuclei. C) motor association areas. D) visual cortex. E) auditory cortex. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 13.10 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 91) The basal nuclei A) plan and coordinate voluntary muscle activity. B) provide the general pattern and rhythm for movements such as walking. C) coordinate sensory information. D) control the secretions of the pituitary gland. E) control respiration and blood pressure. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 13.10 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

92) The basal nuclei A) initiate conscious motor activity. B) activate spinal reflexes. C) adjust and refine learned motor activities. D) exert direct control over lower motor neurons. E) act as gatekeepers, filtering out unnecessary sensory input. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 13.10 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 93) Excitation of neurons in the basal nuclei would lead to A) increased muscle tone. B) loss of consciousness. C) inability to sense pain. D) sexual arousal. E) involuntary speech production. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 13.10 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 94) Divisions of the cerebral hemispheres that are named after the overlying skull bones are A) fissures. B) sinuses. C) lobes. D) sulci. E) gyri. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 13.11 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 95) The cerebral area posterior to the central sulcus is the A) parietal lobe. B) temporal lobe. C) frontal lobe. D) occipital lobe. E) insula. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 13.11 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

96) The superior border of the temporal lobe is marked by the A) insula. B) longitudinal fissure. C) central sulcus. D) lateral sulcus. E) parieto-occipital sulcus. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 13.11 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 97) The region(s) of the cerebral cortex superior to the lateral sulcus is the A) parietal lobe. B) temporal lobe. C) frontal lobe. D) occipital lobe. E) parietal lobe and the frontal lobe. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 13.11 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 98) The region of the cerebral cortex that is medial and deep to the temporal lobe is the A) parietal lobe. B) temporal lobe. C) frontal lobe. D) occipital lobe. E) insula. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 13.11 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 99) The primary motor cortex is the surface of the A) insula. B) precentral gyrus. C) postcentral gyrus. D) arcuate gyrus. E) corpus callosum. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 13.12 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

100) The surface of the postcentral gyrus contains the A) primary sensory B) primary motor C) visual D) olfactory E) auditory Answer: A Learning Outcome: 13.12 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

cortex.

101) The visual cortex is located in the A) frontal lobe. B) parietal lobe. C) temporal lobe. D) occipital lobe. E) insula. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 13.12 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 102) The auditory cortex is located in the A) frontal lobe. B) parietal lobe. C) temporal lobe. D) occipital lobe. E) insula. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 13.12 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 103) Cortical regions that interpret sensory information or coordinate motor responses are called areas. A) commissural B) sensory C) association D) somesthetic E) processing Answer: C Learning Outcome: 13.12 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

104) The region of the brain responsible for predicting the consequence of events or actions is the A) prefrontal cerebral cortex. B) occipital association cortex. C) reticular formation. D) temporal lobe. E) cerebral ganglia. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 13.12 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 105) The sense of taste projects to the gustatory cortex located in the A) insula. B) temporal lobe. C) frontal lobe. D) prefrontal cortex. E) occipital lobe. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 13.12 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 106) Integrative centers concerned with the performance of complex processes are restricted to either the left or the right hemisphere. These complex processes include all of the following except A) speech. B) writing. C) mathematical computation. D) understanding spatial relationships. E) vision. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 13.12 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 107) The highest levels of information processing occur in the A) cerebrum. B) diencephalon. C) cerebellum. D) medulla oblongata. E) corpus callosum. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 13.12 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

108) Damage to the somatic motor association area of the frontal lobe would interfere with the ability to A) understand written words. B) understand spoken words. C) understand visual images. D) play the piano. E) sense the texture of velvet. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 13.12 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 109) The general interpretive area A) is the speech center of the brain. B) is responsible for predicting future consequences. C) is the site of long-term memory storage. D) allows us to interpret what is read or heard. E) may be damaged by even a small stroke. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 13.12 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 110) Difficulties in estimating temporal relationships between events may stem from damage to A) the prefrontal cortex. B) the general interpretive area. C) Broca's area. D) Wernicke's area. E) the temporal lobe. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 13.12 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 111) A person with a damaged visual association area may be A) unable to see rows of letters. B) declared legally blind. C) unable to recognize letters but able to identify whole words and their meanings. D) able to see letters but unable to associate them into words. E) unable to understand spoken words. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 13.12 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

112) centers receive information from many association areas and direct extremely complex motor activities such as speech. A) Frontal B) Integrative C) Communication D) Terminal E) Vocal Answer: B Learning Outcome: 13.12 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 113) As you ascend from the medulla oblongata to the cerebrum, the functions of each successive level become A) more complex. B) simpler. C) better understood. D) less crucial to visceral functions. E) both more complex and less crucial to visceral functions. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 13.12 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 114) After suffering a stroke, Mary finds that she cannot move her right arm. This would suggest that the stroke damage is in the area of the lobe. A) right frontal B) left frontal C) right temporal D) left temporal E) occipital Answer: B Learning Outcome: 13.12 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 115) Bob is struck on the left side of the head and is knocked unconscious. When he recovers consciousness, he can hear individual words but cannot understand the meaning of phrases or sentences. This implies damage to his A) vestibulocochlear nerve. B) Wernicke's area. C) speech center. D) prefrontal lobe. E) temporal lobe. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 13.12 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying

116) Jane suffers from chronic seizures and in order to control the problem undergoes surgery in which the fibers of the corpus callosum are cut. As a result of this surgery she would likely be unable to A) speak. B) move her left arm. C) analyze by touch an object in her right hand. D) recognize written words. E) touch her nose with her eyes closed. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 13.12 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 117) After suffering a blow to the back of the head, Phil loses his vision. The blow probably caused damage to the A) prefrontal cortex. B) postcentral gyrus. C) Wernicke's area. D) Broca's area. E) visual cortex. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 13.12 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 118) In most cases, the general interpretive center and the speech center are located in the A) left cerebellar hemisphere. B) left cerebral hemisphere. C) right cerebellar hemisphere. D) right cerebral hemisphere. E) thalamus. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 13.12 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 119) The area of the brain that performs spatial visualization and analyzing is the A) left cerebellar hemisphere. B) left cerebral hemisphere. C) right cerebellar hemisphere. D) right cerebral hemisphere. E) thalamus. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 13.12 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

120) Cortical regions that interpret sensory information or coordinate motor responses are called A) lobes. B) cortices. C) hemispheres. D) association areas. E) primary motor areas. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 13.12 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 121) If the corpus callosum is surgically cut, which of the following is not true? A) The two cerebral hemispheres operate independently. B) Objects viewed by the left eye can be verbally identified. C) Objects touched by the left hand could be recognized but not verbally identified. D) Conscious decisions are made without regard to sensations from the left side. E) Faces seen by the left eye cannot be identified. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 13.13 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 122) The connect the frontal lobe to the other lobes of the same hemisphere. A) arcuate fibers B) longitudinal fasciculi C) commissural fibers D) fibers of the corpus callosum E) fibers of the anterior commissure Answer: B Learning Outcome: 13.13 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 123) The corpus callosum is composed of A) arcuate fibers. B) longitudinal fasciculi. C) association fibers. D) commissural fibers. E) projection fibers. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 13.13 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

124) White matter fibers that pass from one gyrus to the adjacent gyrus are called A) arcuate fibers. B) longitudinal fasciculi. C) association fibers. D) commissural fibers. E) projection fibers. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 13.13 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 125) The two cerebral hemispheres are separated by the A) longitudinal fissure. B) central sulcus. C) transverse fissure. D) parieto-occipital sulcus. E) postcentral sulcus. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 13.13 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 126) The internal capsule of the cerebrum is composed of A) arcuate fibers. B) longitudinal fasciculi. C) association fibers. D) commissural fibers. E) projection fibers. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 13.13 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 127) A(n) is a printed record of the brain's electrical activity over a period of time. A) electrocardiogram B) electroencephalogram C) X-ray D) MRI E) CT scan Answer: B Learning Outcome: 13.14 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

128) is a temporary cerebral disorder accompanied by abnormal movements, unusual sensations, and/or inappropriate behavior. A) Dyslexia B) Apraxia C) Aphasia D) Parkinson's disease E) A seizure Answer: E Learning Outcome: 13.14 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 129) There are pairs of cranial nerves. A) 2 B) 6 C) 12 D) 22 E) 31 Answer: C Learning Outcome: 13.15 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 130) The cranial nerves that innervate the eye muscles are A) I, II, and III. B) III, IV, and VI. C) II, III, and IV. D) II and VI. E) III and V. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 13.15 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 131) The cranial nerve that has three major branches is the A) abducens. B) facial. C) vagus. D) trigeminal. E) glossopharyngeal. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 13.15 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

132) Sensory innervation of the lower teeth and gums is by the A) ophthalmic branch of the trigeminal B) maxillary branch of the trigeminal C) mandibular branch of the trigeminal D) glossopharyngeal E) hypoglossal Answer: C Learning Outcome: 13.15 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

nerve.

133) Gustatory information reaches the brain by way of cranial nerve A) I. B) II. C) X. D) IV. E) IX. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 13.15 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 134) Difficulty in swallowing may be a sign of damage to which cranial nerve(s)? A) vagus B) facial C) glossopharyngeal D) trochlear E) vagus and glossopharyngeal Answer: E Learning Outcome: 13.15 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 135) The Roman numeral V indicates the A) trigeminal B) trochlear C) abduces D) oculomotor E) vestibulocochlear Answer: A Learning Outcome: 13.15 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

nerve.

136) The Roman numeral VIII indicates the A) trigeminal B) trochlear C) abducens D) oculomotor E) vestibulocochlear Answer: E Learning Outcome: 13.15 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

nerve.

137) Olfactory receptors send axons through the cribriform plate and synapse on neurons in the A) medulla. B) thalamus. C) cerebral cortex. D) olfactory bulb. E) olfactory tract. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 13.15 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

Figure 13-2 138) What is the function of the structure labeled "7"? A) vision B) olfaction C) taste D) auditory E) eye movement Answer: B Learning Outcome: 13.15 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 139) What is the function of the nerve labeled "10"? A) vision B) olfaction C) taste D) auditory E) eye movement Answer: E Learning Outcome: 13.15 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 37

140) Identify the nerve labeled "11." A) oculomotor B) trigeminal C) trochlear D) abducens E) optic Answer: B Learning Outcome: 13.15 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 141) What is the function of the nerve labeled "5"? A) movement of the tongue B) facial expression C) vision D) taste E) visceral sensation and motor control Answer: E Learning Outcome: 13.15 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 142) What is the function of the nerve labeled "4"? A) vision B) olfaction C) taste D) hearing and balance E) eye movement Answer: D Learning Outcome: 13.15 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 143) Droopy eyelids and double vision can result from injury to the A) optic B) oculomotor C) trochlear D) olfactory E) abducens Answer: B Learning Outcome: 13.15 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

nerve.

144) A patient develops a tumor of a cranial nerve that leads to difficulty in speaking from a loss of tongue movement. Which cranial nerve is affected? A) glossopharyngeal B) hypoglossal C) vagus D) spinal accessory E) trigeminal Answer: B Learning Outcome: 13.15 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 145) Which of the following symptoms would you associate with damage to the spinal accessory nerve? A) loss of the sense of taste B) tooth pain C) weakness of the sternocleidomastoid muscle D) lack of facial expression E) dry mouth from lack of saliva Answer: C Learning Outcome: 13.15 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 146) Damage to the nerve would result in near paralysis of the eye. A) optic B) oculomotor C) trochlear D) olfactory E) abducens Answer: B Learning Outcome: 13.15 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 147) Which of the cranial nerves is named for the fact that it "wanders," that is, innervates structures throughout the thorax and abdomen? A) VIII B) IX C) X D) XI E) XII Answer: C Learning Outcome: 13.15 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

148) Jean needs to have a tooth in her mandible filled. Her dentist injects a local anesthetic to block pain afferents in one of her cranial nerves. What cranial nerve does the dentist numb? A) trochlear B) trigeminal C) facial D) glossopharyngeal E) hypoglossal Answer: B Learning Outcome: 13.15 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 149) You suspect your friend has damage to cranial nerve I when he is unable to A) smell his food. B) smile. C) blink his eyes. D) nod his head. E) see. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 13.15 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 150) The term general senses refers to sensitivity to all of the following except A) temperature. B) taste. C) touch. D) vibration. E) pain. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 13.16 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 151) Which of the following is not one of the special senses? A) hearing B) smell C) taste D) balance E) touch Answer: E Learning Outcome: 13.16 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

152) The general senses A) involve receptors that are relatively simple in structure. B) are located in specialized structures called sense organs. C) are localized to specific areas of the body. D) cannot generate action potentials. E) are limited to the skin. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 13.16 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 153) As the size of the receptor field gets smaller, the ability to localize a specific stimulus A) improves. B) diminishes. C) is not affected. D) cannot be determined. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 13.16 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 154) Sensory pathways can receive information by all of the following except A) a stimulus altering the permeability of a receptor membrane. B) a change in the flow of ions across the sensory membrane. C) a projection over a labeled line. D) conversion of a stimulus to a change in membrane potential. E) voluntary response. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 13.16 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 155) The information that is passed from a sensory receptor to the central nervous system is called a A) depolarization of a receptor. B) perception C) transducer. D) motor pathway. E) sensation. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 13.16 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

156) The is the area monitored by a single receptor cell. A) stimulus B) sensation C) perception D) labeled line E) receptive field Answer: E Learning Outcome: 13.16 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 157) The link between peripheral receptor and cortical neuron is called a A) receptor. B) receptive field. C) labeled line. D) sensation. E) transduction. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 13.16 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 158) is a conscious awareness of a sensation. A) Association B) Perception C) Integration D) Reception E) Stimulation Answer: B Learning Outcome: 13.16 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 159) The conversion of a sensory input to a change in membrane potential in the receptor is known as A) a labeled line. B) perception. C) an action potential. D) transduction. E) stimulation. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 13.16 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

160) The CNS interprets the which it arrives. A) duration B) intensity C) location D) type E) adaptation Answer: D Learning Outcome: 13.16 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

of stimulus entirely on the basis of the labeled line over

161) Only about percent of sensory information reaches the cerebral cortex and our awareness. A) 1 B) 10 C) 25 D) 50 E) 95 Answer: A Learning Outcome: 13.16 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 162) In order for a sensation to become a perception, A) it must be received by the somatosensory cortex. B) the individual must vocalize about it. C) it must arrive over fast-conducting nerve fibers. D) the other senses must be silent. E) it must be received by the pulvinar nucleus of the thalamus. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 13.16 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 163) A labeled line is a(n) A) translation of complex sensory information. B) link between a receptor and the CNS processing center. C) reduction in sensitivity. D) stimulation that produces action potentials. E) adjustment for sensitivity adaptation. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 13.16 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

164) Our perception of our environment is imperfect for all of the following reasons except that A) humans lack receptors for every possible stimulus. B) receptors respond by producing action potentials. C) not all sensations lead to a perception. D) abnormal receptor function can produce sensations that have no basis in fact. E) our receptors have limited sensitivity. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 13.17 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 165) All of the following can contribute to receptor specificity except A) the structure of the receptor cell. B) characteristics of the receptor cell membrane. C) accessory cells that function with the receptor. D) accessory structures and tissues that shield the receptors from other stimuli. E) density of the receptors. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 13.17 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 166) Central adaptation refers to A) the decline in activity of peripheral receptors when stimulated. B) a characteristic of phasic receptors. C) inhibition of nuclei located along a sensory pathway. D) increases in conscious perception of a sensory stimulus. E) a change in motor receptivity of a neuron. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 13.17 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 167) Sensory neurons that are always active are called A) phasic B) tonic Answer: B Learning Outcome: 13.17 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

receptors.

168) Sensory neurons that are normally inactive but can become active for a short time are called . A) phasic receptors B) tonic receptors C) myelinated D) proprioceptors E) nociceptors Answer: A Learning Outcome: 13.17 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 44

169) is a reduction in sensitivity in the presence of a constant stimulus. A) Sensation B) Reception C) Adaptation D) Transduction E) Integration Answer: C Learning Outcome: 13.17 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 170) Which of the following is sometimes called "prickling pain"? A) mechanical damage B) chemicals C) extremes of temperature D) fast pain E) both chemicals and fast pain Answer: D Learning Outcome: 13.17 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 171) A receptor that contains many mechanically gated ion channels would function best as a A) tactile receptor. B) chemoreceptor. C) nociceptor. D) thermoreceptor. E) light receptor. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 13.17 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 172) Receptors that monitor the position of joints belong to the category called A) nociceptors. B) chemoreceptors. C) baroreceptors. D) proprioceptors. E) thermoreceptors. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 13.17 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

173) Mechanoreceptors that respond to changes in blood pressure are called A) nociceptors. B) baroreceptors. C) chemoreceptors. D) proprioceptors. E) thermoreceptors. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 13.17 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 174) A receptor that responds to chemicals dissolved in solution is a A) tactile receptor. B) chemoreceptor. C) nociceptor. D) thermoreceptor. E) light receptor. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 13.17 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 175) Which receptor(s) always send(s) a signal, but the rate of action potentials changes as a result of stimulation? A) phasic B) tonic C) both phasic and tonic Answer: B Learning Outcome: 13.17 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 176) receptors are times more numerous than A) Warm; three or four; cold B) Thermoreceptors; three or four; cold C) Cold; three or four; warm D) Thermoreceptors; three or four; temperature E) Cold; ten; warm Answer: C Learning Outcome: 13.17 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

receptors.

177) Examples of sensory modalities include all of the following except A) touch. B) warmth. C) smell. D) vibration. E) creativity. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 13.17 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 178) Which of the following is not a property of thermoreceptors? A) They are free nerve endings. B) Warm receptors outnumber cold receptors. C) They are found in skeletal muscle. D) They are found in the hypothalamus. E) Cold receptors outnumber warm receptors. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 13.17 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 179) Mechanoreceptors might detect all of the following sensations except A) pressure. B) touch. C) vibration. D) muscle length. E) muscle pain. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 13.17 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 180) If a friend is talking about someone she knows who lost his special senses, you would correct her when you hear her mention because it is not a special sense. A) smell B) sight C) balance D) cold E) hearing Answer: D Learning Outcome: 13.17 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

181) Gustatory receptors are sensitive to dissolved chemicals but insensitive to light. This is due to A) receptor specificity. B) accessory cells. C) the fact that they are interoceptors. D) receptor potentials. E) both accessory cells and the fact that they are interoceptors. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 13.17 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 182) Pain is to as cold is to A) nociceptors; thermoreceptors B) baroreceptors; chemoreceptors C) baroreceptors; nociceptors D) chemoreceptors; nociceptors E) baroreceptors; thermoreceptors Answer: A Learning Outcome: 13.17 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

183) Peripheral adaptation the number of action potentials that reach the CNS. A) decreases B) increases C) stabilizes D) neutralizes Answer: A Learning Outcome: 13.17 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 184) Tickle is to as ache is to A) pressure; heat B) baroreceptors; chemoreceptors C) touch; pain D) stretch; temperature E) thermoreceptors; nociceptors Answer: C Learning Outcome: 13.17 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

185) are receptors in the aorta that monitor the blood pressure. A) Chemoreceptors B) Nociceptors C) Baroreceptors D) Proprioceptors E) Photoreceptors Answer: C Learning Outcome: 13.17 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 186) All of the following are true of a prickling pain sensation except that they A) are carried by type A fibers. B) reach the CNS quickly. C) cannot be localized to a small area. D) receive conscious attention. E) often trigger somatic reflexes. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 13.17 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 187) Sensations of burning or aching pain A) are carried by type A fibers. B) reach the CNS quickly. C) cause a generalized activation of the reticular formation and the thalamus. D) are well localized. E) are fast adapting. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 13.17 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 188) Bladder fullness is to as blood pH is to A) nociceptors; thermoreceptors B) baroreceptors; chemoreceptors C) baroreceptors; nociceptors D) chemoreceptors; nociceptors E) baroreceptors; thermoreceptors Answer: B Learning Outcome: 13.17 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

189) A fast-adapting mechanoreceptor in the papillary layer of the dermis that responds to fine touch is a A) tactile (Merkel) disc. B) root hair plexus. C) free nerve ending. D) Ruffini corpuscle. E) tactile (Meissner) corpuscle. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 13.18 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 190) Tactile receptors composed of capsules that surround a core of collagen fibers intertwined with dendrites are called A) Ruffini corpuscles. B) lamellar corpuscles. C) tactile (Meissner) corpuscles. D) tactile discs. E) root hair plexuses. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 13.18 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 191) A tactile receptor composed of highly coiled dendrites that are surrounded by modified Schwann cells and a fibrous capsule is a A) lamellar corpuscle. B) Ruffini corpuscle. C) tactile (Meissner) corpuscle. D) tactile (Merkel) disc. E) root hair plexus. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 13.18 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 192) A very large, fast-adapting tactile receptor that is composed of a single dendrite enclosed by concentric layers of collagen is a A) Ruffini corpuscle. B) lamellar corpuscle. C) tactile (Meissner) corpuscle. D) tactile (Merkel) disc. E) root hair plexus. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 13.18 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

193) A highly sensitive tactile receptor composed of dendritic processes of a single myelinated fiber that makes contact with specialized cells of the stratum basale is a A) lamellar corpuscle. B) tactile (Meissner) corpuscle. C) Ruffini corpuscle. D) tactile (Merkel) disc. E) root hair plexus. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 13.18 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 194) A fast-adapting tactile receptor that monitors movements across the body surface is a A) tactile (Merkel) disc. B) lamellar corpuscle. C) tactile (Meissner) corpuscle. D) Ruffini corpuscle. E) root hair plexus. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 13.18 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 195) Which of the following kinds of information do fine-touch and light-pressure mechanoreceptors provide? A) location of the stimulus B) shape of the stimulus C) texture of the stimulus D) movement of the stimulus E) All of the answers are correct. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 13.18 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 196) Tactile discs are to as tactile corpuscles are to A) Wilms; Meissner B) Merkel; Meissner C) Meissner; Merkel D) Pacinian; Merkel E) pain; pressure Answer: B Learning Outcome: 13.18 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

197) The sensory neuron that carries a sensation to the CNS is a A) receptor B) first-order C) second-order D) third-order E) fourth-order Answer: B Learning Outcome: 13.19 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 198) Thalamic neurons that travel to the primary sensory cortex are A) receptor B) first-order C) second-order D) third-order E) fourth-order Answer: D Learning Outcome: 13.19 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

neuron.

neurons.

199) Neurons from the nucleus gracilis A) relay information directly to the cerebrum. B) decussate before entering the medial lemniscus. C) relay sensory information to the ipsilateral cerebral hemisphere. D) carry both crude and fine touch. E) relay information directly to the cerebrum and carry both crude and fine touch. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 13.19 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 200) We can localize sensations that originate in different areas of the body because A) sensory neurons carry only one modality. B) sensory neurons from specific body regions project to specific cortical regions. C) incoming sensory information is first processed by the thalamus. D) different types of sensory receptors produce action potentials of different sizes and shapes. E) of the many types of tactile receptors. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 13.19 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

201) Which ascending tract carries the sensations for fine touch and vibration? A) corticobulbar B) corticospinal C) posterior (dorsal) column D) spinothalamic E) both posterior (dorsal) column and spinothalamic Answer: C Learning Outcome: 13.19 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 202) The spinal tract that carries sensations from proprioceptors to the CNS is the A) fasciculus gracilis. B) fasciculus cuneatus. C) spinocerebellar. D) lateral spinothalamic. E) anterior spinothalamic. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 13.19 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 203) The spinal tract that relays information concerning pain and temperature to the CNS is the A) fasciculus gracilis. B) fasciculus cuneatus. C) posterior spinocerebellar. D) lateral spinothalamic. E) anterior spinothalamic. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 13.19 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 204) The spinal tract that relays information concerning crude touch and pressure to the CNS is the A) corticospinal pathway. B) posterior column pathway. C) spinocerebellar pathway. D) lateral spinothalamic tract of the spinothalamic pathway. E) anterior spinothalamic tract of the spinothalamic pathway. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 13.19 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

Figure 13-3 205) Identify the neuron labeled "1." A) lower motor neuron B) upper motor neuron C) first-order neuron D) second-order neuron E) third-order neuron Answer: C Learning Outcome: 13.19 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

206) Identify the structure labeled "5." A) thalamus B) cerebral cortex C) primary motor cortex D) primary sensory cortex E) dorsal root ganglion Answer: A Learning Outcome: 13.19 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 207) Which of the following is true regarding the structure labeled "6"? 1. The synapse occurs between motor neurons. 2. The sensations may be filtered out. 3. The third-order neuron projects to the primary sensory cortex. 4. The third-order neuron's axon is myelinated by oligodendrocytes A) 1 and 4 B) 2 only C) 3 only D) 3 and 4 E) 1 and 3 Answer: D Learning Outcome: 13.19 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 208) Which structure conducts action potentials directly from a sensory receptor? A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 5 E) 7 Answer: A Learning Outcome: 13.19 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 209) Identify the type of information that travels along the structure labeled "2." A) motor commands to skeletal muscles B) proprioception to the cerebral cortex C) fine touch to the cerebral cortex D) pain and crude touch sensations E) visceral motor commands to smooth muscle Answer: D Learning Outcome: 13.19 Bloom's Taxonomy: Analyzing

210) Which part(s) of the following statement is/are true? Somatic sensory axons enter the ventral root and usually decussate before ascending to the thalamus. A) The first part of the statement is true, and the second part of the statement is false. B) The first part of the statement is false, and the second part of the statement is true. C) Both parts of the statements are true. D) Both parts of the statements are false. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 13.19 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 211) Stimulation of a neuron that terminates close to the longitudinal fissure of the left postcentral gyrus would produce A) a sensation in the right leg. B) a sensation in the lips. C) a muscle twitch in the right leg. D) a muscle twitch in the lips. E) both sensations and muscle twitches in the right leg. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 13.19 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 212) Sensory encoding of the perceived location of a stimulus depends on A) the frequency of action potentials. B) which labeled line is active. C) the specific location of the cortical neuron that is stimulated. D) the specific sensitivity of the peripheral receptor. E) both the frequency of action potentials and which labeled line is active. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 13.19 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 213) What loss would result from cutting through the medial lemniscus on the right side? A) loss of pain sensation on the left side of the body B) loss of pain sensation on the right side of the body C) loss of fine touch sensation on the left side of the body D) loss of fine touch sensation on the right side of the body E) complete hemiplegia (paralysis) on the left side of the body Answer: C Learning Outcome: 13.19 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying

214) Sensory information that arrives at the CNS is routed according to the stimulus. A) type B) intensity C) location D) speed E) type and location Answer: E Learning Outcome: 13.19 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

of the

215) The descending spinal tract that crosses to the opposite side of the body within the cord is the tract. A) lateral corticospinal B) anterior corticospinal C) rubrospinal D) reticulospinal E) vestibulospinal Answer: B Learning Outcome: 13.20 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 216) The descending spinal tract that crosses to the opposite side of the body within the pyramids of the medulla oblongata is the tract. A) lateral corticospinal B) anterior corticospinal C) rubrospinal D) reticulospinal E) vestibulospinal Answer: A Learning Outcome: 13.20 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 217) The spinal tract that normally plays a minor role in the control of the distal muscles of the arms is the tract. A) lateral corticospinal B) anterior corticospinal C) rubrospinal D) reticulospinal E) vestibulospinal Answer: C Learning Outcome: 13.20 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

218) The spinal tract that unconsciously maintains balance and muscle tone of the neck, eyes, head, and limbs is the tract. A) lateral corticospinal B) anterior corticospinal C) rubrospinal D) reticulospinal E) vestibulospinal Answer: E Learning Outcome: 13.20 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 219) The medial pathway that controls involuntary movements of head, neck, and arm position in response to bright lights and loud sounds is the tract. A) lateral corticospinal B) tectospinal C) rubrospinal D) reticulospinal E) vestibulospinal Answer: B Learning Outcome: 13.20 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 220) The pyramidal system provides A) voluntary control over skeletal muscles. B) voluntary control over smooth muscles. C) involuntary control over skeletal muscles. D) involuntary control over smooth muscles. E) involuntary control over cardiac muscle. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 13.20 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 221) The corticospinal system is often referred to as the A) red nucleus. B) reticular formation. C) spinothalamic tracts. D) pyramidal system. E) medullary centers. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 13.20 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

222) The area of the motor cortex that is devoted to a particular region of the body is proportional to the A) size of the body area. B) distance of the body area from the brain. C) number of motor units in that region. D) number of sensory receptors in the area of the body. E) size of the nerves that serve the area of the body. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 13.20 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 223) Axons of the corticobulbar tract terminate in the A) sensory neurons. B) somatic motor neurons in the spinal cord. C) autonomic motor neurons in the spinal cord. D) motor nuclei of cranial nerves. E) nuclei in the thalamus. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 13.20 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 224) The pyramids on the ventral surface of the medulla oblongata are formed by fibers of the tracts. A) corticospinal B) corticobulbar C) reticulospinal D) vestibulospinal E) tectospinal Answer: A Learning Outcome: 13.20 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 225) Axons that decussate between the pyramids of the medulla oblongata belong to the tracts. A) anterior corticospinal B) lateral corticospinal C) vestibulospinal D) reticulospinal E) rubrospinal Answer: B Learning Outcome: 13.20 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

226) The upper motor neurons of the medial pathway are located within any of the following except the A) vestibular nuclei. B) reticular formation. C) superior colliculi. D) inferior colliculi. E) mammillary bodies. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 13.20 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 227) Tracts of the lateral and medial pathways include all of the following except tracts. A) corticospinal B) tectospinal C) rubrospinal D) reticulospinal E) vestibulospinal Answer: A Learning Outcome: 13.20 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 228) Descending (motor) pathways always involve at least A) one B) two C) three D) four E) spinal Answer: B Learning Outcome: 13.20 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

motor neuron(s).

229) Each of the following is an ascending tract in the spinal cord except the A) fasciculus gracilis. B) fasciculus cuneatus. C) posterior spinocerebellar. D) reticulospinal tract. E) anterior spinothalamic. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 13.20 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

230) Motor neurons whose cell bodies are within the spinal cord are called A) upper motor B) lower motor C) preganglionic D) postganglionic E) somesthetic Answer: B Learning Outcome: 13.20 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

Figure 13-4 231) Identify the origin of the axon labeled "2." A) lower motor neuron B) upper motor neuron C) decussation neuron D) second-order neuron E) ganglionic neuron Answer: B Learning Outcome: 13.20 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 61

neurons.

232) Identify the structure labeled "5." A) ventral root B) upper motor neuron C) first-order neuron D) second-order neuron E) dorsal root Answer: A Learning Outcome: 13.20 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 233) Identify the structure labeled "1." A) primary sensory cortex B) primary motor cortex C) thalamus D) autonomic motor center E) basal nuclei Answer: B Learning Outcome: 13.20 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 234) What occurs in this neural pathway at label "3"? A) synapse B) communication between sensory and motor neurons C) amplification of motor signals D) decussation E) autonomic reflexes Answer: D Learning Outcome: 13.20 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 235) Identify the type of information that travels along the structure labeled "4." A) motor commands to skeletal muscles B) proprioception to the cerebral cortex C) fine touch to the cerebral cortex D) pain and crude touch sensations E) visceral motor commands to smooth muscle Answer: A Learning Outcome: 13.20 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

236) A brain injury to a patient results in facial paralysis. Which descending tract is most likely affected? A) corticospinal tract B) tectospinal tract C) rubrospinal tract D) corticobulbar tract E) reticulospinal tract Answer: D Learning Outcome: 13.20 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 237) Conscious and subconscious motor commands control skeletal muscles by traveling over all of the following except the A) corticospinal pathway. B) medial pathway. C) lateral pathway. D) corticobulbar pathway. E) spinothalamic pathway. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 13.20 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 238) Damage to the pyramidal cells of the cerebral cortex would directly affect A) perception of pain. B) sight. C) voluntary motor activity. D) hearing. E) both perception of pain and voluntary motor activity. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 13.20 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 239) Damage to the tectospinal tracts would interfere with one's ability to A) position the arms. B) monitor body position. C) make reflex responses of the head and neck in response to sudden movements or loud noises. D) control motor units located in the leg. E) coordinate eating and swallowing movements. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 13.20 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

240) Upper motor neuron cell bodies originate in all the following except A) precentral gyrus. B) postcentral gyrus. C) vestibular nuclei. D) red nuclei of the midbrain. E) superior and inferior colliculi. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 13.20 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 241) Based on the motor homunculus, which of the following body regions has the largest motor units? A) tongue B) nose C) hands D) lower limbs E) larynx Answer: D Learning Outcome: 13.20 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 242) Increased production and release of acetylcholine by the neurons of the cerebral nuclei would result in A) flaccid paralysis. B) spastic, uncontrolled muscle contractions. C) decreased activity of upper motor neurons. D) fewer action potentials along the corticospinal tracts. E) muscular atrophy. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 13.21 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 243) Complex motor activities such as riding a bicycle A) only require neural processing at the level of the cerebrum. B) with practice, involve little input from the brain. C) require the coordinated activity of several regions of the brain. D) are largely controlled at the level of the spinal cord. E) usually escape notice by the cerebellum. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 13.21 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

244) The medial and lateral motor pathways can modify, or direct, skeletal muscle contractions by lower motor neurons. A) stimulating B) facilitating C) inhibiting D) controlling E) All of the answers are correct. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 13.21 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 245) The cerebellum relies on information from all of the following except A) the eyes. B) the inner ear. C) proprioceptive sensations. D) upper motor neurons. E) lower motor neurons. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 13.21 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 246) The cerebellum A) functions to maintain proper posture and equilibrium. B) receives input from the motor cortex and basal nuclei. C) compares intended movement to actual movement. D) if damaged, leads to uncoordinated and jerky movements. E) All the answers are correct. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 13.21 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 247) Which part(s) of the following statement is/are true? If the primary motor cortex is destroyed, fine control of movement will be lost, but movement may not be lost completely because the medial and lateral pathways can still provide coarse motor control. A) The first part of the statement is true, and the second part of the statement is false. B) The first part of the statement is false, and the second part of the statement is true. C) Both parts of the statements are true. D) Both parts of the statements are false. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 13.21 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying

248) Damage to the substantia nigra causes a decrease in the neurotransmitter dopamine. This causes a gradual, generalized increase in muscle tone, which is the main symptom of A) Parkinson's disease. B) rabies. C) Alzheimer's disease. D) myasthenia gravis. E) tetanus. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 13.22 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 249) Alzheimer's disease is characterized by all of the following except that it A) is the most common cause of senile dementia. B) is characterized by a progressive loss of memory. C) has a clear genetic basis. D) is associated with the formation of plaques. E) may be associated with damage to the hippocampus. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 13.22 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 250) Parkinson's disease is the result of A) inadequate production of GABA by neurons in the basal nuclei. B) decreased levels of acetylcholine from neurons in the substantia nigra. C) inadequate production of dopamine by substantia nigra neurons. D) hyperactivity of the limbic system. E) weak response of the red nuclei of the midbrain. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 13.22 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 251) Your uncle was just diagnosed with a heart attack. One of his major symptoms is left arm pain. You are not surprised because you are familiar with the phenomenon of pain. A) referred B) phantom C) psychogenic D) somatic E) neurogenic Answer: A Learning Outcome: 13.22 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

252) Name the three primary brain vesicles. (Module 13.1A) A) prosencephalon, mesencephalon, rhombencephalon B) prosencephalon, diencephalon, triencephalon C) diencephalon, metencephalon, myelencephalon D) diencephalon, telencephalon, metencephalon E) mesencephalon, metencephalon, myelencephalon Answer: A Learning Outcome: 13.1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 253) Which structures form the secondary brain vesicles? (Module 13.1B) A) metencephalon and myelencephalon B) diencephalon and triencephalon C) diencephalon and telencephalon D) diencephalon and prosencephalon E) prosencephalon and rhombencephalon Answer: E Learning Outcome: 13.1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 254) Which embryonic brain vesicle develops into the largest region of the adult brain? (Module 13.1C) A) diencephalon B) telencephalon C) myelencephalon D) metencephalon E) mesencephalon Answer: B Learning Outcome: 13.1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 255) Describe the role of the medulla oblongata. (Module 13.2A) A) The medulla oblongata functions in conscious thought, memory storage and processing, and regulating skeletal muscle contractions. B) The medulla oblongata contains centers involved with emotions, autonomic function, and hormone production. C) The medulla oblongata relays sensory information to other parts of the brainstem and to the thalamus. It also contains centers that regulate autonomic functions, such as heart rate and blood pressure. D) The medulla oblongata coordinates and modulates motor commands coming from the cerebral cortex. E) The medulla oblongata processes visual and auditory information and controls reflexes triggered by those stimuli. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 13.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 67

256) Which region of the brain contains two ventricles? (Module 13.2B) A) diencephalon B) cerebellum C) midbrain D) cerebrum E) brainstem Answer: D Learning Outcome: 13.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 257) Which region of the brain is enclosed or hidden by the cerebrum? (Module 13.2D) A) cerebellum B) diencephalon C) midbrain D) pons E) medulla oblongata Answer: B Learning Outcome: 13.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 258) From superficial to deep, name the layers that make up the cranial meninges. (Module 13.3A) A) outer dura mater, middle arachnoid mater, inner pia mater B) outer pia mater, middle arachnoid mater, inner dura mater C) outer dura mater, middle pia mater, inner arachnoid mater D) outer arachnoid mater, middle dura mater, inner pia mater E) outer pia mater, middle dura mater, inner arachnoid mater Answer: A Learning Outcome: 13.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 259) What brain tissues have tight junctions? (Module 13.3B) A) microglial cells B) astrocyte processes around the pia matter C) ependymal cells of each choroid plexus D) Schwann cells around each neuron E) oligodendrocytes around each neuron Answer: C Learning Outcome: 13.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

260) How would decreased diffusion across the arachnoid granulations affect the volume of cerebrospinal fluid in the ventricles? (Module 13.3C) A) Decreased diffusion across the arachnoid granulations would decrease the volume of CSF in the ventricles because less CSF would reenter the bloodstream. B) Decreased diffusion across the arachnoid granulations would decrease the volume of CSF in the ventricles because more CSF would reenter the bloodstream. C) Decreased diffusion across the arachnoid granulations would increase the volume of CSF in the ventricles because less CSF would reenter the bloodstream. D) Decreased diffusion across the arachnoid granulations would increase the volume of CSF in the ventricles because more CSF would reenter the bloodstream. E) Decreased diffusion across the arachnoid granulations would not change the volume of CSF because the amount of CSF reentering the bloodstream can accommodate for the changes. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 13.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 261) Describe the pyramids of the medulla oblongata and a decussation. (Module 13.4A) A) The pyramids contains tracts of sensory fibers that originate at the cerebral cortex. Some of the sensory fibers cross to the opposite sides of the medulla oblongata and that crossing over is called a decussation. B) The pyramids contains tracts of sensory fibers that originate at the spinal cord. Some of the sensory fibers cross to the opposite sides of the medulla oblongata and that crossing over is called a decussation. C) The pyramids contains tracts of motor fibers that originate at the cerebral cortex. Some of the motor fibers cross to the opposite sides of the medulla oblongata and that crossing over is called a decussation. D) The pyramids contains tracts of motor fibers that originate at the spinal cord. Some of the motor fibers cross to the opposite sides of the medulla oblongata and that crossing over is called a decussation. E) The pyramids contains tracts of motor fibers that originate at the spinal cord. All of the motor fibers stay on the same side of the medulla oblongata and that is called a decussation. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 13.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 262) Which medulla oblongata components relay somatic sensory information to the thalamus? (Module 13.4B) A) inferior olivary complex B) gracile nucleus and cuneate nucleus C) reticular formation D) ascending tracts within the funiculi E) descending tracts within the funiculi Answer: B Learning Outcome: 13.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

263) What is the function of the ascending and descending tracts in the medulla oblongata? (Module 13.4C) A) to link the brain with the spinal cord B) to regulate vital autonomic functions C) they contain sensory and motor nuclei of five cranial nerves D) to relay somatic information to the thalamus E) to relay information to the red nucleus Answer: A Learning Outcome: 13.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 264) Identify the components of the cerebellar gray matter. (Module 13.6A) A) arbor vitae B) cerebellar nuclei C) cerebellar cortex and cerebellar nuclei D) cerebellar peduncles E) transverse pontine fibers Answer: C Learning Outcome: 13.6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 265) Describe the arbor vitae, including its makeup, location, and function. (Module 13.6B) A) The arbor vitae is white matter of the cerebellum that connects the cerebellum with the midbrain, diencephalon, and cerebrum. B) The arbor vitae is white matter of the cerebellum that carries communications between the cerebellum and pons. C) The arbor vitae is white matter of the cerebellum that links the cerebellum with the medulla oblongata and spinal cord. D) The arbor vitae is gray matter of the cerebellum that interconnects pontine nuclei with the opposite cerebellar hemisphere. E) The arbor vitae is white matter of the cerebellum that connects the cerebellar cortex and nuclei with cerebellar peduncles. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 13.6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 266) Identify the sensory nuclei contained within the corpora quadrigemina. (Module 13.7A) A) cerebral peduncles B) anterior colliculi and posterior colliculi C) superior colliculi and inferior colliculi D) red nuclei and substantia nigra E) reticular formation and red nuclei Answer: C Learning Outcome: 13.7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

267) Give the functions of the superior colliculi and inferior colliculi. (Module 13.7B) A) The superior colliculi control the reflex movements of the eyes, head, and neck in response to visual stimuli. The inferior colliculi control the reflex movements of the head, neck, and trunk in response to auditory stimuli. B) The superior colliculi control the reflex movements of the head, neck, and trunk in response to auditory stimuli. The inferior colliculi control the reflex movements of the eyes, head, and neck in response to visual stimuli. C) The superior colliculi control the background muscle tone to the head, neck, and trunk. The inferior colliculi control the background muscle tone to the limbs. D) The superior colliculi provide subconscious control of upper limb position and background muscle tone. The inferior colliculi processes incoming sensations and outgoing motor commands automatically and helps maintain consciousness. E) The superior colliculi control the background muscle tone to the limbs. The inferior colliculi control the background muscle tone to the head, neck, and trunk. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 13.7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 268) Which cranial nerves arise from the brainstem? (Module 13.7C) A) I and II B) All the purely sensory nerves arise from the brainstem. C) All the purely motor nerves arise from the brainstem. D) III, IV, V, VI, VII, VIII, XI, X, XI, XII E) All the cranial nerves arise from the brainstem. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 13.7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 269) What part of the midbrain influences the activity of the entire nervous system? (Module 13.7D) A) cerebral peduncles B) substantia nigra C) superior colliculi and inferior colliculi D) red nuclei E) reticular activating system (RAS), a part of the reticular formation Answer: E Learning Outcome: 13.7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

270) Damage to the lateral geniculate bodies of the thalamus would interfere with what particular function? (Module 13.8A) A) Damage would interfere with the flow of somatic sensations and thus affect the sense of touch. B) Damage would interfere with the flow of auditory information and thus affect the sense of hearing. C) Damage would interfere with the flow of visual information and thus affect the sense of sight. D) Damage would interfere with the limbic system and thus affect emotional processing. E) Damage would interfere with the release of melatonin and thus affect circadian rhythms. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 13.8 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 271) Which component of the diencephalon is stimulated by changes in body temperature? (Module 13.8B) A) choroid plexus of the epithalamus B) pineal gland C) ventral nuclei of the thalamus D) preoptic area of the hypothalamus E) paraventricular nucleus of the hypothalamus Answer: D Learning Outcome: 13.8 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 272) What are some functions of the amygdaloid body? (Module 13.9B) A) The amygdaloid body produces oxytocin and ADH and helps control the release of anterior pituitary hormones. B) The amygdaloid body plays a role in regulating heart rate, controlling the "fight or flight" response, and in linking emotions with specific memories. C) The amygdaloid body plays a role in learning, especially in the storage and retrieval of longterm memories. D) The amygdaloid body is a tract of white matter that connects the hippocampus with the hypothalamus. E) The amygdaloid body is responsible for heightened alertness and generalized excitement or generalized lethargy and sleep. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 13.9 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

273) Which region of the limbic system is particularly important for the storage and retrieval of long-term memories? (Module 13.9C) A) fornix B) amygdaloid body C) hippocampus D) mammillary body E) cingulate gyrus Answer: C Learning Outcome: 13.9 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 274) Define basal nuclei. (Module 13.10A) A) The basal nuclei produce oxytocin and ADH and help control the release of anterior pituitary hormones. B) The basal nuclei play a role in regulating heart rate, controlling the "fight or flight" response, and in linking emotions with specific memories. C) The basal nuclei are masses of cerebral gray matter that function in the subconscious control of skeletal muscle activity and help coordinate learned movement patterns. D) The basal nuclei are masses of cerebral gray matter that processes sensory information and influences emotional states. E) The basal nuclei are responsible for heightened alertness and generalized excitement or generalized lethargy and sleep. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 13.10 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 275) Describe the function of the caudate nucleus. (Module 13.10B) A) The caudate nucleus is involved with sensory input from various somatic sensory receptors. B) The caudate nucleus is involved with indirect modification of movement by output to the cerebral cortex. C) The caudate nucleus is involved with speech production. D) The caudate nucleus is involved with the subconscious adjustment and modification of skeletal muscle activity. E) The caudate nucleus is involved in the direct control of voluntary movements by controlling somatic motor neurons in the brainstem and spinal cord. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 13.10 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

276) What signs and symptoms would be present in a person who has basal nuclei damage? (Module 13.10C) A) They would exhibit decreased muscle tone and loss of coordinated movement. B) They would be unable to move any skeletal muscle. C) They would be unable to taste and smell. D) They would be unable to recognize sounds, such as spoken words. E) They would be unable to control autonomic functions, such as controlling heart rate and blood pressure. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 13.10 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 277) Identify the lobes of the cerebrum, and indicate the basis for their names. (Module 13.11A) A) frontal, sphenoid, ethmoid, and occipital lobes; they are named for the overlying bones of the skull B) epicranial, nasalis, temporalis; they are named for the overlying skeletal muscles C) precentral gyrus, central sulcus, postcentral gyrus; they are named for the landmark grooves in the cerebral cortex D) anterior, posterior, superior, and inferior lobes; they are named based on directional terms in standard anatomic position E) frontal, parietal, occipital, and temporal lobes; they are named for the overlying bones of the skull Answer: E Learning Outcome: 13.11 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 278) Describe the insula. (Module 13.11B) A) The insula is a collection of fasciculi that connect the frontal lobe to the other lobes of the same cerebral hemisphere. B) The insula is an island of cerebral cortex located medial to the lateral sulcus. C) The insula is a band of commissural fibers between the left and right cerebral hemispheres. D) The insula is a region anterior to the central sulcus and contains the primary motor cortex. E) The insula is posterior to the central sulcus and contains the primary somatosensory cortex. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 13.11 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

279) What effect would damage to the left postcentral gyrus produce? (Module 13.11C) A) Damage to the left postcentral gyrus would interfere with sensory information awareness from the right side of the body. B) Damage to the left postcentral gyrus would interfere with sensory information awareness from the left side of the body. C) Damage to the left postcentral gyrus would interfere with voluntary movement of the right side of the body. D) Damage to the left postcentral gyrus would interfere with voluntary movement of the left side of the body. E) Damage to the left postcentral gyrus would interfere with both sensory information awareness and voluntary movement of the left side of the body. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 13.11 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 280) Where is the primary motor cortex located? (Module 13.12A) A) temporal lobe of the cerebrum B) occipital lobe of the cerebrum C) parietal lobe of the cerebrum D) precentral gyrus of the frontal lobe of the cerebrum E) postcentral gyrus of the frontal lobe of the cerebrum Answer: D Learning Outcome: 13.12 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 281) Which senses are affected by damage to the temporal lobes? (Module 13.12B) A) visual and auditory B) visual and olfactory C) auditory and olfactory D) visual and gustatory E) olfactory and gustatory Answer: C Learning Outcome: 13.12 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 282) Which brain region has been affected in a stroke victim who is unable to speak? (Module 13.12C) A) primary auditory cortex B) auditory association area C) Wernicke's area D) prefrontal cortex E) Broca's area Answer: E Learning Outcome: 13.12 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying

283) What is the function of the longitudinal fasciculi? (Module 13.13A) A) connect one gyrus to another B) connect the frontal lobe to the other lobes of the same hemisphere C) connect the cerebral hemispheres D) connect the cerebral cortex to the diencephalon, brainstem, cerebellum, and spinal cord E) connect the cerebral cortex to the cerebellar cortex Answer: B Learning Outcome: 13.13 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 284) What special names are given to axons in the white matter of the cerebral hemispheres? (Module 13.13B) A) nuclei B) nerves C) ganglia D) tracts E) association fibers, commissural fibers, and projection fibers Answer: E Learning Outcome: 13.13 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 285) Which cranial nerves are involved with the eye? (Module 13.15A) A) optic and vestibulocochlear nerves B) facial, trigeminal, and accessory nerves C) trigeminal, abducens, facial, vagus, and accessory nerves D) optic, oculomotor, abducens, and troclear nerves E) optic, trigeminal, facial, and accessory nerves Answer: D Learning Outcome: 13.15 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 286) Which cranial nerves have motor functions only? (Module 13.15B) A) oculomotor, trochlear, abducens, accessory, and hypoglossal nerves B) olfactory, optic, oculomotor, and trochlear nerves C) vestibulocochlear, glossopharyngeal, and vagus nerves D) trochlear, trigeminal, and facial nerves E) oculomotor, trigeminal, abducens, facial, vagus, and accessory nerves Answer: A Learning Outcome: 13.15 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

287) Define the term general senses. (Module 13.16A) A) General senses are those that are localized in specific places in the body. B) General senses are those that are localized to our head, including vision and hearing. C) General senses are those that are internal such as stomach and bladder fullness. D) General senses are temperature, pain, touch, pressure, vibration, and proprioception and are distributed throughout the body. E) General senses are those with complex receptor structures. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 13.16 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 288) Relate receptive field size to stimulus localization. (Module 13.16B) A) The smaller the receptive field, the harder it is to localize an area of stimulus. B) The smaller the receptive field, the easier it is to localize an area of stimulus. C) The larger the receptive field, the easier it is to localize an area of stimulus. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 13.16 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 289) List the four types of general sensory receptors based on function, and identify the type of stimulus that excites each type. (Module 13.17A) A) nociceptors (temperature), thermoreceptors (pain), mechanoreceptors (physical distortion), and chemoreceptors (chemicals dissolved in body fluids) B) nociceptors (chemicals dissolved in body fluids), thermoreceptors (physical distortion), mechanoreceptors (pain), and chemoreceptors (temperature) C) nociceptors (physical distortion), thermoreceptors (chemicals dissolved in body fluids), mechanoreceptors (pain), and chemoreceptors (temperature) D) nociceptors (temperature), thermoreceptors (physical distortion), mechanoreceptors (temperature), and chemoreceptors (pain) E) nociceptors (pain), thermoreceptors (temperature), mechanoreceptors (physical distortion), and chemoreceptors (chemicals dissolved in body fluids) Answer: E Learning Outcome: 13.17 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

290) Describe the three classes of mechanoreceptors. (Module 13.17B) A) proprioceptors, which monitor the positions of bones, joints, and muscles; baroreceptors, which detect changes in pressure; and tactile receptors, which respond to the sense of touch B) proprioceptors, which respond to the sense of touch; baroreceptors, which detect changes in pressure; and tactile receptors, which monitor the positions of bones, joints, and muscles C) proprioceptors, which monitor the positions of bones, joints, and muscles; baroreceptors, which respond to the sense of touch; and tactile receptors, which detect changes in pressure D) proprioceptors, which detect changes in pressure; baroreceptors, which monitor the positions of bones, joints, and muscles; and tactile receptors, which respond to the sense of touch E) proprioceptors, which respond to the sense of touch; baroreceptors, which monitor the positions of bones, joints, and muscles; and tactile receptors, which detect changes in pressure Answer: A Learning Outcome: 13.17 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 291) Explain adaptation, and differentiate between peripheral adaptation and central adaptation. (Module 13.17C) A) Adaptation is an increase in receptor sensitivity in the presence of constant stimulation. Peripheral adaptation reduces the amount of information sent to the CNS. In central adaptation, the awareness of the stimulus virtually disappears. B) Adaptation is a decrease in receptor sensitivity in the presence of constant stimulation. Peripheral adaptation reduces the amount of information sent to the CNS. In central adaptation, the awareness of the stimulus virtually disappears. C) Adaptation is an increase in receptor sensitivity in the presence of constant stimulation. Peripheral adaptation increases the amount of information sent to the CNS. In central adaptation, the awareness of the stimulus is enhanced. D) Adaptation is a decrease in receptor sensitivity in the presence of constant stimulation. Peripheral adaptation increases the amount of information sent to the CNS. In central adaptation, the awareness of the stimulus is enhanced. E) Adaptation is a decrease in receptor sensitivity in the presence of constant simulation. In peripheral adaptation, the awareness of the stimulus virtually disappears. Central adaptation reduces the amount of information received by the CNS. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 13.17 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 292) Which types of tactile receptors are located only in the dermis? (Module 13.18A) A) free nerve endings and root hair plexuses B) root hair plexuses and tactile discs C) tactile discs and Merkel cells D) root hair plexuses and bulbous corpuscles E) tactile corpuscles, lamellar corpuscles, and bulbous corpuscles Answer: E Learning Outcome: 13.18 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

293) Which is likely to be more sensitive to continuous deep pressure: a lamellar corpuscle or a bulbous corpuscle? (Module 13.18B) A) lamellar corpuscle B) bulbous corpuscle Answer: B Learning Outcome: 13.18 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 294) Define somatotopy. (Module 13.19A) A) a functional map of spinothalamic tracts B) a functional map of spinocerebellar tracts C) a functional map of corticospinal tracts D) a functional map of the somatosensory cortex E) a functional map of the motor cortex Answer: D Learning Outcome: 13.19 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 295) Which spinal tracts carry action potentials generated by nociceptors? (Module 13.19B) A) anterior spinothalamic tracts B) posterior spinothalamic tracts C) lateral spinothalamic tracts D) posterior column pathway E) spinocerebellar pathway Answer: C Learning Outcome: 13.19 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 296) Which cerebral hemisphere receives impulses conducted by the right gracile fasciculus? (Module 13.19C) A) left cerebral hemisphere B) right cerebral hemisphere Answer: A Learning Outcome: 13.19 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

297) Describe the role of the corticobulbar tracts. (Module 13.20A) A) Corticobulbar tracts are ascending tracts that carry information or commands from the sensory nuclei in the brainstem to the cerebral cortex. B) Corticobulbar tracts are descending tracts that carry information or commands from the cerebral cortex to motor nuclei in the brainstem. C) Corticobulbar tracts are ascending tracts that carry sensory information from the anterior gray horns of the spinal cord to the cerebral cortex. D) Corticobulbar tracts are descending tracts that carry motor commands from the cerebral cortex to the anterior gray horns of the spinal cord. E) Corticobulbar tracts are ascending tracts that receive sensory information from the internal ear about the position and movement of the head. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 13.20 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 298) Define corticospinal tracts. (Module 13.20B) A) Corticospinal tracts are ascending tracts that carry information or commands from the sensory nuclei in the brainstem to the cerebral cortex. B) Corticospinal tracts are descending tracts that carry information or commands from the cerebral cortex to motor nuclei in the brainstem. C) Corticospinal tracts are ascending tracts that carry sensory information from the anterior gray horns of the spinal cord to the cerebral cortex. D) Corticospinal tracts are descending tracts that carry motor commands from the cerebral cortex to the anterior gray horns of the spinal cord. E) Corticospinal tracts are ascending tracts that receive sensory information from the internal ear about the position and movement of the head. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 13.20 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 299) What effect would increased stimulation of the motor neurons of the red nucleus have on muscle tone? (Module 13.20C) A) It would increase stimulation of skeletal muscles, thereby increasing their muscle tone. B) It would increase stimulation of skeletal muscles, thereby decreasing their muscle tone. C) It would decrease stimulation of skeletal muscles, thereby increasing their muscle tone. D) It would decrease stimulation of skeletal muscles, thereby decreasing their muscle tone. E) It would not affect skeletal muscle tone. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 13.20 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

300) Which brain regions control reflexes in response to visual and auditory stimuli that are experienced while viewing a movie? (Module 13.21A) A) cerebral cortex and basal nuclei B) basal nuclei and hypothalamus C) thalamus and midbrain D) pons and medulla oblongata E) brainstem and spinal cord Answer: C Learning Outcome: 13.21 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 301) The basic reflex motor patterns related to eating and drinking are controlled by which region of the brain? (Module 13.21B) A) thalamus B) cerebral cortex C) midbrain D) hypothalamus E) pons Answer: D Learning Outcome: 13.21 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 302) Define referred pain. (Module 13.22A) A) Referred pain is somatic pain sensations from the skin. B) Referred pain is visceral pain sensations that can be well localized. C) Referred pain is when thermoreceptors detect temperature extremes that cause a painful sensation. D) Referred pain is when nociceptors send impulse of pain that is not actually there. E) Referred pain is a sensation felt in a part of the body other than its actual source. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 13.22 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 303) Describe how rabies is contracted. (Module 13.22B) A) Rabies is contracted by touching a rabid animal. B) Rabies is contracted by eating the meat of a rabid animal. C) Rabies is contracted by the bite of a rabid animal. D) Rabies is contracted by drinking water contaminated by the feces of a rabid animal. E) Rabies is contracted by breathing air that has droplets of the rabies virus in it. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 13.22 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

304) Describe amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS). (Module 13.22C) A) ALS is a progressive disorder characterized by loss of higher-order cerebral functions and is the most common cause of senile dementia. B) ALS is a progressive degeneration of the motor neurons of the CNS, leading to muscle atrophy and eventual paralysis. C) ALS is a disease of the CNS characterized by recurrent incidents of demyelination that affects axons in the optic nerve, brain, and spinal cord. D) ALS results when the neurons of the substantia nigra are damaged or secrete less dopamine and the basal nuclei become more active causing muscle rigidity and stiffness. E) ALS is a nonprogressive loss of motor function that appears during infancy or childhood and persists throughout the person's lifetime. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 13.22 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Essay Questions 305) Why is injury to the medulla oblongata frequently fatal? Answer: This region of the brain contains the centers for regulating the cardiovascular system and initiating respiration, both vital to life. In addition, most sensory and motor tracts pass through the medulla oblongata between higher and lower centers of the nervous system. Learning Outcome: 13.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 306) A patient develops a clot that blocks the blood supply to the right cerebral hemisphere. What signs and symptoms would you expect as a result of this blockage? Answer: Because the right primary motor cortex controls the muscles of the left side of the body, you would expect left-sided paralysis whose extent and severity will depend on the extent of brain injury. Similarly, the patient will experience somatic sensory loss on the left side of the body. Higher-order functions such as memory, planning, spatial orientation, and emotional control could be damaged but many language skills would be spared. Learning Outcome: 13.12 Bloom's Taxonomy: Analyzing 307) Bell's palsy is caused by inflammation of the facial nerve (VII). What signs and symptoms would you expect in this condition? Is it permanent? Answer: Patients suffering from Bell's palsy usually experience paralysis of the facial muscles on the affected side along with a loss of sensation from the anterior two-thirds of the tongue. Pain is rare and the condition usually resolves without specific treatment. Learning Outcome: 13.15 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying

308) What are the four types of sensory receptors for the general senses? What is the nature of the stimuli that excite each type? Answer: (1) Nociceptors: a variety of stimuli associated with tissue damage; (2) thermoreceptors: respond to changes in temperature; (3) mechanoreceptors: stimulated by physical distortion, contact, or pressure; and (4) chemoreceptors: monitor the presence of specific chemical substances. Learning Outcome: 13.17 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 309) What are differences and similarities between "crude" touch and "fine" touch sensations? Answer: Crude touch refers to sensations from stimulation of tactile receptors of low sensitivity with large receptive fields. In contrast, fine touch refers to tactile receptors of high sensitivity with small receptive fields. Crude touch ascends in the anterior spinothalamic pathway whereas fine touch ascends in the posterior column pathway. The spinothalamic pathway crosses the neural axis in the spinal cord but the posterior column pathway crosses in the medulla oblongata. Both ultimately project to the somatosensory cortex on the contralateral side of the stimulus in the same region of cortex. Learning Outcome: 13.18 Bloom's Taxonomy: Analyzing 310) While playing lacrosse, Frank took a blow to the back of his neck. This caused swelling of the posterior spinal cord at C7 and T1. What tract lies in this area? What signs might you expect Frank to show while the swelling persists? Answer: The posterior spinocerebellar tracts and posterior columns might be affected. Difficulty with proprioception and sensations of fine touch, pressure, and vibration may be altered. Learning Outcome: 13.19 Bloom's Taxonomy: Analyzing 311) Compare the corpus callosum with the septum pellucidum. (Module 13.2C) Answer: The corpus callosum is a tract of white matter that links the left and right hemispheres, whereas the septum pellucidum is a partition that separates the two lateral ventricles. Learning Outcome: 13.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 312) List the four groups of pontine structures. (Module 13.5A) Answer: The four groups of pontine structures are the (1) tracts that interconnect other portions of the CNS, (2) nuclei involved with the control of respiration, (3) sensory and motor nuclei of cranial nerves, and (4) nuclei and tracts that process and relay information sent to and from the cerebellum. Learning Outcome: 13.5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 313) Describe ataxia. (Module 13.6C) Answer: Ataxia is the inability to coordinate muscle movement that can result from damage to the cerebellum from trauma, stroke, or certain drugs, including alcohol. Learning Outcome: 13.6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 83

314) List the primary functions of the limbic system. (Module 13.9A) Answer: The limbic system establishes emotional states; links the conscious, intellectual functions of the cerebral cortex with the unconscious and autonomic functions of the brainstem; facilitates memory storage and retrieval; and affects motivation. Learning Outcome: 13.9 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 315) Name and describe the four wave types associated with an EEG. (Module 13.14A) Answer: The four wave types associated with an EEG are alpha waves (characteristic of normal resting adults), beta waves (characteristic of a person who is concentrating), theta waves (observed in children and frustrated adults), and delta waves (found in a person who is sleeping deeply, in infants, or in people with damaged portions of the brain). Learning Outcome: 13.14 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 316) Differentiate between a seizure and epilepsy. (Module 13.14B) Answer: A seizure is a temporary cerebral disorder accompanied by abnormal movements, unusual sensations, inappropriate behavior, or some combination of these signs and symptoms. Epilepsy is a clinical condition characterized by seizures. Learning Outcome: 13.14 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 317) During a tennis match, you decide how and where to hit the ball. Explain how the premotor cortex is involved in your decisions. (Module 13.21C) Answer: As you decide to hit the ball, the premotor cortex receives information from the frontal lobes and then relays that information to the basal nuclei and cerebellum. As the hitting movement begins, the premotor cortex sends additional information to the primary motor cortex. Learning Outcome: 13.21 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying

Visual Anatomy and Physiology, 3e (Martini) Chapter 14 The Autonomic Nervous System Multiple Choice Questions 1) The statement "There is always a synapse in a peripheral ganglion between the CNS and the effector organ" is A) true only for the parasympathetic nervous system. B) true only for the sympathetic nervous system. C) true for both the parasympathetic and sympathetic nervous systems. D) not true for either the parasympathetic or sympathetic nervous systems. E) true only for the somatic nervous system. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 14.1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 2) A visceral motor neuron whose cell body is within the CNS is called a(n) A) upper motor B) lower motor C) preganglionic D) postganglionic E) somatomotor Answer: C Learning Outcome: 14.1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

neuron.

3) Ganglionic neurons usually synapse with preganglionic neurons in the _ axons that innervate . A) brain; visceral effectors B) autonomic ganglia; visceral effectors C) visceral effectors; autonomic ganglia D) visceral effectors; brain E) brain; spinal cord Answer: B Learning Outcome: 14.1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

and have

4) Preganglionic fibers leave the CNS and then synapse on A) postganglionic fibers. B) visceral reflex responses. C) motor neurons. D) ganglionic neurons. E) sensory neuron neurons. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 14.1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 1

5) Ganglionic neurons innervate as all of the following except A) smooth muscle. B) cardiac muscle. C) adipose tissue. D) glands. E) skeletal muscle. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 14.1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 6) Autonomic motor neurons A) cause general relaxation. B) cause general excitation. C) conduct impulses from sensory receptors. D) conduct impulses to skeletal muscles. E) conduct impulses to smooth and cardiac muscles and glands. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 14.1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 7) All of the following are visceral effectors except A) smooth muscles. B) cardiac muscle. C) adipocytes. D) skeletal muscles. E) glands. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 14.1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 8) The sympathetic division of the ANS is also known as which of the following? A) somatic division B) craniosacral division C) resting division D) thoracolumbar division E) both somatic division and craniosacral division Answer: D Learning Outcome: 14.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

9) Which of the following is true for the craniosacral division? A) It is also called the sympathetic division of the ANS. B) It is also called the parasympathetic division of the ANS. C) It is referred to the "fight or flight" division. D) It is a division of the visceral sensory nervous system. E) It is included solely in the peripheral nervous system. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 14.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 10) Cell bodies of preganglionic neurons of the autonomic nervous system are located A) only in the brain stem. B) only in the lateral gray horns of the spinal cord. C) only in the posterior gray horns of the spinal cord. D) both in the brain stem and in the lateral gray horns of the spinal cord. E) only in the anterior gray horns of the spinal cord. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 14.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 11) The statement "It sends its preganglionic fibers to terminal or intramural ganglia" is A) true only for the parasympathetic nervous system. B) true only for the sympathetic nervous system. C) true for both the parasympathetic and sympathetic nervous systems. D) not true for either the parasympathetic or sympathetic nervous systems. E) true only for the somatic nervous system. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 14.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 12) Collateral ganglia contain neurons that innervate tissues and organs in which cavity? A) thoracic B) lumbar C) abdominopelvic D) vertebral E) cranial Answer: C Learning Outcome: 14.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

13) The division of the autonomic nervous system is known as the "rest and digest" division. A) sympathetic B) parasympathetic C) thoracolumbar D) visceral E) somatomotor Answer: B Learning Outcome: 14.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 14) Clusters of ganglionic sympathetic neurons lying along either side of the spinal cord are called sympathetic ganglia. A) intramural B) collateral C) chain D) prevertebral E) suprarenal Answer: C Learning Outcome: 14.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 15) Clusters of ganglionic sympathetic neurons that innervate organs in the abdominopelvic region are called ganglia. A) intramural B) collateral C) chain D) paravertebral E) suprarenal Answer: B Learning Outcome: 14.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 16) Specialized ganglionic sympathetic neurons that release hormones into the bloodstream are found within the A) intramural ganglia. B) collateral ganglia. C) chain ganglia. D) brainstem. E) adrenal glands. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 14.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

17) Postganglionic fibers that innervate targets in the body wall or thoracic cavity originate on neurons within A) intramural ganglia. B) collateral ganglia. C) sympathetic chain ganglia. D) suprarenal ganglia. E) white rami. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 14.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 18) The statement "Its ganglia are usually near or within the end organ" is A) true only for the parasympathetic nervous system. B) true only for the sympathetic nervous system. C) true for both the parasympathetic and sympathetic nervous systems. D) not true for either the parasympathetic or sympathetic nervous systems. E) true only for the somatic nervous system. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 14.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 19) The celiac ganglia do not innervate the A) liver. B) spleen. C) stomach. D) pancreas. E) intestines. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 14.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 20) Injury to the neurons of a collateral ganglion would affect the function of the A) heart. B) pupils. C) sweat glands. D) digestive tract. E) arrector pili muscles. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 14.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

21) The statement "It initiates contraction of urinary bladder smooth muscle" is A) true only for the parasympathetic nervous system. B) true only for the sympathetic nervous system. C) true for both the parasympathetic and sympathetic nervous systems. D) not true for either the parasympathetic or sympathetic nervous systems. E) true only for the somatic nervous system. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 14.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 22) Splanchnic nerves A) originate from first-order neurons located in the upper five thoracic segments of the spinal cord. B) consist of axons that synapse in collateral ganglia. C) control sympathetic function of structures in the thorax. D) connect chain ganglia. E) are formed of parasympathetic fibers. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 14.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 23) Sympathetic innervation of the urinary bladder is by way of the A) celiac B) superior mesenteric C) inferior mesenteric D) pudendal E) pelvic Answer: C Learning Outcome: 14.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 24) The sympathetic collateral ganglia include all of the following except the A) celiac. B) superior mesenteric. C) inferior mesenteric. D) lumbar E) None of the answers is correct. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 14.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

ganglion.

25) Preganglionic fibers of parasympathetic neurons are present in all of the following cranial nerves except A) III. B) VII. C) IX. D) X. E) XII. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 14.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 26) Almost 75 percent of all parasympathetic outflow travels along the A) splanchnic B) facial C) vagus D) glossopharyngeal E) trigeminal Answer: C Learning Outcome: 14.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

nerve(s).

27) Which of the following is not a parasympathetic ganglion? A) ciliary B) pterygopalatine C) submandibular D) otic E) celiac Answer: E Learning Outcome: 14.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 28) Intramural ganglia in the large intestine, urinary bladder, and reproductive organs are innervated by the nerves. A) spinal B) splanchnic C) ciliary D) pelvic E) collateral Answer: D Learning Outcome: 14.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

29) Preganglionic fibers that innervate the collateral ganglia form the A) suprarenal medulla. B) celiac ganglia. C) sympathetic chain ganglia. D) inferior mesenteric ganglia. E) splanchnic nerves. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 14.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 30) Sympathetic and parasympathetic fibers that innervate the heart pass through the A) celiac plexus. B) hypogastric plexus. C) cardiac plexus. D) pterygopalatine ganglia. E) otic ganglia. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 14.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 31) What type of neuron of the parasympathetic division exits the brain stem? A) somatic motor neuron B) preganglionic neuron C) sensory neuron D) ganglionic neuron E) astrocyte Answer: B Learning Outcome: 14.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 32) Which structure carries postganglionic fibers for distribution in the body wall and limbs? A) gray ramus B) dorsal ramus C) spinal nerve D) white ramus E) ventral root Answer: A Learning Outcome: 14.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

33) Which of the following is exclusive to the sympathetic division of the ANS? A) ventral roots B) dorsal rami C) spinal nerves D) ventral rami E) short pre-ganglionic fibers Answer: E Learning Outcome: 14.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 34) Two terms that both refer to internal organs are A) sympathetic and parasympathetic. B) viscera and somatic. C) splanchnic and ganglionic. D) splanchnic and viscera. E) somatic and preganglionic. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 14.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 35) Which of the following provides preganglionic parasympathetic innervation to structures in the thoracic and abdominopelvic cavities? A) vagus nerves B) sciatic nerves C) glossopharyngeal nerves D) pelvic nerves E) splanchnic nerves Answer: A Learning Outcome: 14.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 36) Injury to the cervical sympathetic ganglia would not affect the function of the A) heart. B) pupils. C) salivary glands. D) lungs. E) lacrimal glands. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 14.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

37) As the result of an accident, the white rami of spinal nerves T1 and T2 on the left side of Brad's body are severed. What organ(s) would you expect might be affected by this injury? A) left pupil B) right pupil C) heart D) left and right pupil E) left pupil and heart Answer: E Learning Outcome: 14.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Analyzing 38) Preganglionic fibers of parasympathetic pelvic nerves synapse on neurons located within ganglia. A) pterygopalatine B) ciliary C) coccygeal D) inferior mesenteric E) intramural Answer: E Learning Outcome: 14.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 39) Damage to the ventral roots of the first five thoracic spinal nerves on the right side of the body would interfere with the ability to A) dilate the right pupil. B) constrict the right pupil. C) dilate the left pupil. D) constrict the left pupil. E) smile and frown. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 14.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 40) Preganglionic neurons of the sympathetic nervous system are located in the A) lateral gray horns of the cervical cord. B) anterior gray horns of the cervical and thoracic spinal cord. C) lateral gray horns of segments T1 to L2 of the spinal cord. D) anterior gray horns of segments T1 to L2 of the spinal cord. E) lateral gray horns of T1 to S2 of the spinal cord. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 14.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

41) The adrenal medullae secrete A) medullin. B) epinephrine. C) norepinephrine. D) renin. E) both epinephrine and norepinephrine. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 14.5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 42) Which neurotransmitter is released at the sympathetic chain ganglia? A) norepinephrine B) dopamine C) acetylcholine D) endorphin E) All of the answers are correct. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 14.5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 43) Postganglionic sympathetic axons release the neurotransmitter junctions. A) acetylcholine B) nitric oxide C) norepinephrine D) acetylcholine or nitric oxide or norepinephrine E) None of the answers is correct. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 14.5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

at their effector

44) Sympathetic nerves A) provoke feelings of sympathy. B) allow us to relax, rest, and recover. C) are bundles of postganglionic fibers that innervate organs within the thoracic cavity. D) control swallowing. E) stimulate gastric secretion. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 14.5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

45) The statement "Its postganglionic axons always use acetylcholine as the neurotransmitter" is A) true only for the parasympathetic nervous system. B) true only for the sympathetic nervous system. C) true for both the parasympathetic and sympathetic nervous systems. D) not true for either the parasympathetic or sympathetic nervous systems. E) true only for the somatic nervous system. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 14.5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 46) In general, sympathetic preganglionic fibers are . A) long; short B) short; long C) long; long D) short; short Answer: B Learning Outcome: 14.5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 47) In general, parasympathetic preganglionic fibers are . A) long; short B) short; long C) long; long D) short; short Answer: A Learning Outcome: 14.5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

and postganglionic fibers are

48) The statement "Preganglionic axon terminals release acetylcholine" is A) true only for the parasympathetic nervous system. B) true only for the sympathetic nervous system. C) true for both the parasympathetic and sympathetic nervous systems. D) not true for either the parasympathetic or sympathetic nervous systems. E) true only for the somatic nervous system. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 14.5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

49) Which of the following statements concerning the parasympathetic division of the autonomic nervous system is false? A) Preganglionic neurons are located in the brainstem and sacral region of the spinal cord. B) Ganglionic neurons are located in ganglia within or near to effectors. C) Preganglionic fibers are relatively short and postganglionic fibers are relatively long. D) The actions of the parasympathetic division are more localized than those of the sympathetic division. E) The ganglionic neurons always release acetylcholine. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 14.5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 50) Each of the following effects is associated with the action of postganglionic sympathetic fibers except A) increased sweat secretion. B) reduced circulation to the skin. C) decreased heart rate. D) dilation of the pupils. E) increased blood flow to skeletal muscles. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 14.5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 51) Most sympathetic effector junctions release norepinephrine but a significant number release acetylcholine instead. Which of these is an example of an organ of the cholinergic type? A) the heart B) a blood vessel in the skin C) a sweat gland D) the liver E) the salivary glands Answer: C Learning Outcome: 14.5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 52) Neurons that use norepinephrine as a transmitter are called A) cholinergic. B) adrenergic. C) nicotinic. D) muscarinic. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 14.6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

53) Stimulation of α1 adrenergic receptors by norepinephrine results in A) an increase in the amount of intracellular cAMP. B) a decrease in the amount of intracellular cAMP. C) decreased membrane permeability to sodium ion. D) release of calcium ions from intracellular stores. E) increased membrane permeability to potassium ions. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 14.6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 54) Stimulation of the beta receptors on heart muscle cells does not result in A) the formation of cAMP. B) increased heart rate. C) increased force of contraction. D) increased metabolism. E) inactivation of G proteins. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 14.6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 55) Nicotinic receptors A) respond to epinephrine. B) respond to norepinephrine. C) open chemically gated sodium ion channels. D) are found at neuroeffector junctions of the autonomic nervous system. E) open chemically gated calcium ion channels. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 14.6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 56) Muscarinic receptors A) are normally activated by acetylcholine. B) are found mostly in autonomic ganglia. C) always produce an excitatory response. D) control sodium channels in the affected membrane. E) are blocked by norepinephrine. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 14.6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

57) The stimulation of beta-adrenergic receptors does not lead to A) an increase in metabolic activity. B) relaxation of airway smooth muscle. C) the breakdown of triglycerides within adipocytes. D) cardiac muscle stimulation. E) release of calcium from the ER. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 14.6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 58) Which of the following statements about adrenergic receptors is true? A) They are proteins in the plasma membrane. B) When activated, cAMP levels are affected. C) Epinephrine activates both alpha and beta types. D) Norepinephrine activates mainly the alpha type. E) All of the answers are correct. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 14.6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 59) A neuron with nicotinic receptors is exposed to acetylcholine. This will not lead to A) activation of chemically gated ion channels. B) excitation of the neuron. C) entry of sodium ion. D) binding of the nicotine to the channel. E) activation of muscarinic receptors. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 14.6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 60) Drugs known as beta-blockers may be useful for treating A) constipation. B) diarrhea. C) excessive salivation. D) excessive heart rate. E) depressed heart rate. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 14.6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

61) Mary accidentally ate poisonous mushrooms that contain muscarine. What would not occur? A) constriction of the pupils B) constriction of respiratory passageways C) diarrhea D) reduction in heart rate E) feeling of euphoria and increased energy Answer: E Learning Outcome: 14.6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 62) An inhaler used to treat airway constriction in asthma or allergy might contain a drug that A) activates β1 adrenergic receptors. B) activates β2 adrenergic receptors. C) blocks muscarinic cholinergic receptors. D) activates β1 or β2 adrenergic receptors. E) activates β2 adrenergic receptors or blocks muscarinic cholinergic receptors. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 14.8 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 63) A certain drug decreases heart rate by blocking a receptor on cardiac pacemaker cells. This drug probably binds to receptors. A) nicotinic cholinergic B) muscarinic cholinergic C) alpha-1 adrenergic D) alpha-2 adrenergic E) beta-1 adrenergic Answer: E Learning Outcome: 14.8 Bloom's Taxonomy: Analyzing 64) Sweat glands contain receptors. A) nicotinic cholinergic B) muscarinic cholinergic C) alpha D) beta E) both muscarinic cholinergic and beta Answer: B Learning Outcome: 14.8 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

65) Dual innervation refers to an organ receiving A) two nerves from the spinal cord. B) both autonomic and somatomotor nerves. C) both sympathetic and parasympathetic innervation. D) nerves from both the brain and the spinal cord. E) two nerves from the spinal cord and both autonomic and somatomotor nerves. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 14.8 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 66) Control of the diameter of the respiratory passages depends upon A) sympathetic stimulation only. B) parasympathetic stimulation only. C) somatomotor stimulation only. D) both parasympathetic and sympathetic levels of stimulation. E) sensory receptors sensitive to changes in lung ventilation. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 14.8 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 67) Ganglionic neurons in the adrenal gland A) are located in the adrenal cortex. B) release acetylcholine into blood capillaries. C) release epinephrine into blood capillaries. D) have no known function. E) are modified and can't release neurotransmitters. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 14.8 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 68) The statement "It controls the diameter of the pupil" is A) true only for the parasympathetic nervous system. B) true only for the sympathetic nervous system. C) true for both the parasympathetic and sympathetic nervous systems. D) not true for either the parasympathetic or sympathetic nervous systems. E) true only for the somatic nervous system. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 14.8 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

69) Parasympathetic stimulation A) increases heart rate. B) increases gastric motility. C) causes sweat glands to secrete. D) causes blood vessels in the skin to dilate. E) causes the pupils to dilate. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 14.8 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 70) In general, autonomic tone of peripheral blood vessels increases when A) sympathetic stimulation is increased. B) sympathetic stimulation is decreased. C) parasympathetic stimulation is increased. D) parasympathetic stimulation is decreased. E) somatomotor stimulation is increased. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 14.8 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 71) The parasympathetic nervous system is especially active during which physiological state(s)? A) exertion B) trauma C) digestion D) stress E) All of the answers are correct. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 14.8 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 72) Sympathetic activation leads to all of the following except A) vasoconstriction to digestive organs. B) vasodilation to skeletal muscle. C) increased heart rate. D) increased release of insulin. E) increase in alertness. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 14.8 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

73) During sympathetic activation, which of the following would not occur? A) elevated heart rate B) elevated blood pressure C) increased sweating D) elevated blood glucose E) constriction of pupil Answer: E Learning Outcome: 14.8 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 74) Parasympathetic functions include all of the following except A) reduction in the rate of cardiac contraction. B) constriction of the pupils. C) dilation of the airways. D) stimulation of urination. E) stimulation of defecation. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 14.8 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 75) Which of the following would lead to increased heart rate? A) increased sympathetic input B) decreased sympathetic input C) increased parasympathetic input D) decreased parasympathetic input E) both increased sympathetic input and decreased parasympathetic input Answer: E Learning Outcome: 14.8 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 76) Stimulation of the neurons in the celiac ganglion would lead to A) relaxation of the urinary sphincter. B) increased heart rate. C) hydrolysis of liver glycogen reserves. D) activation of ventral sweat glands. E) increased gastric motility. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 14.8 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

77) Autonomic tone is an important aspect of ANS function because it A) allows ANS neurons to be silent under normal conditions. B) allows ANS neurons to increase activity on demand but not decrease their activity. C) allows ANS neurons to decrease their activity on demand but not increase their activity. D) allows ANS neurons to increase or decrease their activity, providing a range of control options. E) provides for a narrow range of control options that keeps target tissues constantly active. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 14.8 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 78) A person is confronted by a dangerous dog. His heart begins to race and beat strongly, his pupils dilate, and his hairs stand up. These signs are not the result of A) sympathetic activation. B) increased levels of epinephrine in the blood. C) increased activity of autonomic centers in the hypothalamus. D) stimulation of the cardioacceleratory reflex. E) stimulation of the pancreas to release insulin. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 14.8 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 79) Most vital organs receive innervation. That is, they receive input from both sympathetic and parasympathetic divisions. A) opposing B) complementary C) dual Answer: C Learning Outcome: 14.8 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 80) A decrease in the autonomic tone of the smooth muscle in a blood vessel would result in A) an increase in vessel diameter. B) a decrease in vessel diameter. C) oscillation in vessel diameter. D) an increase in blood flow through the vessel. E) both an increase in vessel diameter and an increase in blood flow through the vessel. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 14.9 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

81) Visceral reflex arcs can bypass CNS neurons in A) short B) long C) both short and long D) neither short nor long Answer: A Learning Outcome: 14.9 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

reflexes.

82) The integrative centers for autonomic activity are located in the A) cerebrum. B) pons. C) thalamus. D) hypothalamus. E) medulla oblongata. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 14.9 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 83) Which of the following is an example of a parasympathetic visceral reflex? A) defecation reflex B) cardioacceleratory reflex C) pupillary reflex D) ejaculation (in males) in response to tactile stimuli E) vasomotor reflex Answer: A Learning Outcome: 14.9 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 84) Which of the following visceral reflexes is not coordinated by the medulla oblongata? A) swallowing reflex B) baroreceptor reflex C) coughing reflex D) cardioacceleratory reflex E) pupillary reflex Answer: E Learning Outcome: 14.9 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

85) Baroreceptors are not found in the A) digestive tract. B) lungs. C) colon. D) aorta. E) oral cavity. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 14.10 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 86) Chemoreceptors that play an important role in reflexive control of respiratory function are not affected by A) pH. B) PO2. C) PCO2. D) hydrogen ion concentration. E) sodium ion concentration. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 14.10 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 87) In which of the following organs are both chemoreceptors and baroreceptors associated with respiratory autonomic reflexes? A) only lungs B) only aorta C) only carotid arteries D) both lungs and aorta E) both aorta and carotid arteries Answer: E Learning Outcome: 14.10 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 88) Which brain area is considered to be the headquarters of the ANS? A) cerebral cortex B) thalamus C) limbic system D) hypothalamus E) brain stem Answer: D Learning Outcome: 14.11 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

89) Which of the following would be an example of higher-level control of autonomic function? A) gagging on food that does not appeal to you B) a violent coughing attack in response to an irritant C) increased heart rate when you see a person you fear D) dilation of the pupils when you enter a dark room E) increased salivation when you smell food that appeals to you Answer: C Learning Outcome: 14.11 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 90) Compare the SNS with the ANS. (Module 14.1A) A) The SNS consists of the brain and spinal cord. The ANS provides conscious and subconscious control over skeletal muscles. B) The SNS provides conscious and subconscious control over skeletal muscles. The ANS consists of the brain and spinal cord. C) The SNS provides conscious and subconscious control over skeletal muscles. The ANS controls the visceral effectors: smooth muscle, glands, cardiac muscle, and adipocytes. D) The SNS controls the visceral effectors: smooth muscle, glands, cardiac muscle, and adipocytes. The ANS provides conscious and subconscious control over skeletal muscles. E) The SNS controls the muscular visceral effectors: smooth muscle and cardiac muscle. The ANS controls the other visceral effectors: glands and adipocytes. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 14.1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 91) Describe the role of preganglionic neurons. (Module 14.1B) A) They are part of visceral reflex arcs, and most of their activity is a direct reflex response, rather than responses to commands from the hypothalamus. B) They are part of the visceral motor neurons in peripheral ganglia. C) They are ganglionic neurons that innervate visceral effectors. D) They are upper motor neurons whose cell bodies lie within nuclei of the brain or the primary motor cortex. E) They are motor neurons within the central nervous system that are controlled by reflexes based in the spinal cord or brain. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 14.1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

92) Explain the function of autonomic ganglia. (Module 14.1C) A) They are part of visceral reflex arcs, and most of their activity is a direct reflex response, rather than responses to commands from the hypothalamus. B) They are part of the visceral motor neurons in peripheral ganglia. C) They are ganglionic neurons that innervate visceral effectors. D) They are upper motor neurons whose cell bodies lie within nuclei of the brain or the primary motor cortex. E) They are motor neurons within the central nervous system that are controlled by reflexes based in the spinal cord or brain. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 14.1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 93) Identify two major divisions of the ANS. (Module 14.2A) A) somatic division and sympathetic division B) somatic division and parasympathetic division C) enteric division and the central division D) central division and sympathetic division E) sympathetic division and parasympathetic division Answer: E Learning Outcome: 14.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 94) Compare the anatomy of the sympathetic division with that of the parasympathetic division. (Module 14.2B) A) In the SNS, axons emerge from the thoracic and lumbar segments of the spinal cord and innervate ganglia relatively close to the spinal cord. In the PNS, axons emerge from the brainstem and sacral segments of the spinal cord and innervate ganglia very close to or within the target organs. B) In the SNS, axons emerge from the brainstem and sacral segments of the spinal cord and innervate ganglia relatively close to the spinal cord. In the PNS, axons emerge from the thoracic and lumbar segments of the spinal cord and innervate ganglia very close to or within the target organs. C) In the SNS, axons emerge from the thoracic and lumbar segments of the spinal cord and innervate ganglia relatively close to or within the target organs. In the PNS, axons emerge from the brainstem and sacral segments of the spinal cord and innervate ganglia very close to the spinal cord. D) In the SNS, axons emerge from the brainstem and sacral segments of the spinal cord and innervate ganglia relatively close to or within the target organs. In the PNS, axons emerge from the thoracic and lumbar segments of the spinal cord and innervate ganglia very close to the spinal cord. E) In the SNS, axons emerge from the cervical and thoracic segments of the spinal cord and innervate ganglia relatively close to or within the target organs. In the PNS, axons emerge from the lumbar and sacral segments of the spinal cord and innervate ganglia very close to the spinal cord. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 14.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 24

95) Describe the ENS. (Module 14.2C) A) The ENS is a division of the nervous system that includes the brain and spinal cord. B) The ENS is a division of the nervous system that involves sensory input only. C) The ENS is a division of the nervous system that involves the voluntary movements of the skeletal muscle. D) The ENS is a division of the nervous system that uses spinal reflexes to mediate changes in the effectors. E) The ENS is a division of the nervous system consisting of a network of neurons and nerve networks in the walls of the digestive tract that primarily operates locally, without instructions from the CNS. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 14.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 96) Which division of the ANS is responsible for the physiological changes you experience when startled by a loud noise? (Module 14.2D) A) enteric division of the ANS B) sympathetic division of the ANS C) parasympathetic division of the ANS D) central division of the ANS E) effector division of the ANS Answer: B Learning Outcome: 14.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 97) Starting in the spinal cord, trace the path of a nerve impulse through the sympathetic ANS to its target organ in the abdominal cavity. (Module 14.3A) A) preganglionic neurons (T1-L2) — collateral ganglia — ganglionic neurons — visceral effectors in abdominopelvic cavity B) preganglionic neurons (S2-S4) — collateral ganglia — ganglionic neurons — visceral effectors in abdominopelvic cavity C) collateral ganglia — preganglionic neurons (T1-L2) — ganglionic neurons — visceral effectors in abdominopelvic cavity D) collateral ganglia — preganglionic neurons (S2-S4) — ganglionic neurons — visceral effectors in abdominopelvic cavity E) ganglionic neurons — preganglionic neurons ((T1-L2) — collateral ganglia — visceral effectors in abdominopelvic cavity Answer: A Learning Outcome: 14.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

98) Describe an intramural ganglion. (Module 14.3B) A) An intramural ganglion is a group of neurons located near the brainstem. B) An intramural ganglion is a group of neurons located near the spinal cord. C) An intramural ganglion is a group of neurons located near the target organ. D) An intramural ganglion is a group of neurons embedded in the tissues of the target organ. E) An intramural ganglion is a group of neurons that release neurotransmitters that function as hormones into the general circulation. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 14.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 99) Define splanchnic nerves. (Module 14.4A) A) Splanchnic nerves are nerves that innervate intramural ganglia in the walls of the kidneys, urinary bladder, terminal portions of the large intestine, and sex organs. B) Splanchnic nerves form nerve plexuses when they intermingle with branches of the vagus nerve similar to the nerve plexuses formed by spinal nerves innervating the limbs. C) Splanchnic nerves carry sacral parasympathetic output. D) Splanchnic nerves form a collection of three cervical sympathetic ganglia (superior, middle, and inferior). E) Splanchnic nerves are three groups of nerves — cardiopulmonary, abdominopelvic (greater, lesser, and lumbar), and pelvic (sacral) — that supply the viscera. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 14.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 100) Name the plexuses innervated by the vagus nerve. (Module 14.4B) A) brachial, lumbar, and sacral plexuses B) sacral and pelvic plexuses C) cardiac, celiac, inferior mesenteric, and hypogastric plexuses D) cervical, cardiopulmonary, celiac, and sacral plexuses E) cervical, celiac, sacral, and coccygeal plexuses Answer: C Learning Outcome: 14.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 101) Which nerve carries most of the parasympathetic outflow? (Module 14.4C) A) occulomotor nerve B) facial nerve C) glossopharyngeal nerve D) vagus nerve E) abducens nerve Answer: D Learning Outcome: 14.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

102) What neurotransmitter is released by all parasympathetic neurons? (Module 14.5B) A) acetylcholine B) epinephrine C) norepinephrine D) dopamine E) serotonin Answer: A Learning Outcome: 14.5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 103) Compare nicotinic receptors and muscarinic receptors. (Module 14.6B) A) Nicotinic receptors are acetylcholine receptors on the surface of sympathetic and parasympathetic ganglionic cells. Muscarinic receptors are acetylcholine G protein-coupled receptors located at all parasympathetic neuromuscular and neuroglandular junctions, and at a few sympathetic neuromuscular and neuroglandular junctions. B) Nicotinic receptors are acetylcholine G protein-coupled receptors located at all parasympathetic neuromuscular and neuroglandular junctions, and at a few sympathetic neuromuscular and neuroglandular junctions. Muscarinic receptors are acetylcholine receptors on the surface of sympathetic and parasympathetic ganglionic cells. C) Nicotinic receptors binds epinephrine on the membrane of sympathetic target cells. Muscarinic receptors binds norepinephrine on the membrane of sympathetic target cells. D) Nicotinic receptors binds norepinephrine on the membrane of sympathetic target cells. Muscarinic receptors binds epinephrine on the membrane of sympathetic target cells. E) Nicotinic receptors binds norepinephrine and epinephrine on the membrane of sympathetic target cells. Muscarinic receptors are acetylcholine receptors on the surface of sympathetic and parasympathetic ganglionic cells. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 14.6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 104) Name the two types of motor pathways. (Module 14.7B) A) sympathetic and parasympathetic B) sensory and somatosensory C) somatic and visceral D) peripheral and visceral E) external and internal Answer: C Learning Outcome: 14.7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

105) Identify somatic effectors and visceral effectors. (Module 14.7C) A) Somatic effectors are skeletal muscle, cardiac muscle, and smooth muscle. Visceral effectors are glands and adipose tissue. B) Somatic effectors are glands and adipose tissue. Visceral effectors are skeletal muscle, cardiac muscle, and smooth muscle. C) Somatic effectors are smooth muscle, cardiac muscle, glands, and adipose tissue. Visceral effectors are skeletal muscle. D) Somatic effectors are skeletal muscle. Visceral effectors are smooth muscle, cardiac muscle, glands, and adipose tissue. E) Somatic effectors are skeletal muscle, smooth muscle, cardiac muscle, and glands. Visceral effectors are adipose tissue. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 14.7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 106) Define dual innervation. (Module 14.8A) A) Dual innervation means that a given body system sends both sensory impulses and receives motor commands. B) Dual innervation means that a given body system receives instructions from both the central and peripheral nervous systems. C) Dual innervation means that sensory neurons and motor neurons are present in the tissue. D) Dual innervation means that a given body system has twice the amount of neural stimulation needed to produce an action. E) Dual innervation means that a given body system receives instructions from both the sympathetic and parasympathetic divisions of the ANS. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 14.8 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 107) Define visceral reflex. (Module 14.9A) A) A visceral reflex is a slow, calculated response of the spinal cord following exposure to a single specific somatic stimulus. B) A visceral reflex is a slow, calculated response of the spinal cord following repeated exposure to specific somatic stimuli. C) A visceral reflex is an autonomic reflex initiated in the viscera. It can be modified, facilitated, or inhibited by higher centers, especially those in the hypothalamus. D) A visceral reflex is an automatic response to a somatic stimulus that is controlled in the spinal cord and can function without input from the brain. E) A visceral reflex is when visceral sensory inputs are sent quickly by the spinal cord to the brain for analysis before any response occurs. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 14.9 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

108) Compare short reflexes with long reflexes. (Module 14.9B) A) Short reflexes are autonomic responses that bypass the CNS, whereas long reflexes involve interneurons within the CNS and autonomic delivery of motor commands to the effectors. B) Short reflexes involve interneurons within the CNS and autonomic delivery of motor commands to the effectors, whereas long reflexes are autonomic responses that bypass the CNS. C) Short reflexes predominantly coordinate the activities of an entire organ, whereas long reflexes predominantly control very simple motor responses in one small part of a target organ. D) Short reflexes control many different peripheral effectors, whereas long reflexes predominate in the enteric nervous system. E) Short reflexes involve processing in the brainstem, whereas long reflexes involve processing in the cerebrum. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 14.9 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 109) Describe the solitary nuclei. (Module 14.9C) A) They are large tracts of white matter that link the brain with the spinal cord. B) They are large tracts of white matter that relay sensory information to the cerebellum. C) They are large masses of gray matter in the pons that control respiratory rhythmicity centers. D) They are large masses of gray matter on each side of the medulla oblongata that serve as processing sorting centers for visceral sensory information. E) They are large masses of gray matter of each side of the medulla oblongata that relay somatic information to the thalamus. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 14.9 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 110) Define baroreceptors. Where are baroreceptors located within the body? (Module 14.10A) A) Baroreceptors are thermoreceptors that detect changes in temperature. They are primarily located in the skin and hypothalamus. B) Baroreceptors are stretch receptors that detect changes in pressure. They are located along the digestive tract, within the walls of the urinary bladder, in the carotid and aortic sinuses, and in the lungs. C) Baroreceptors are chemoreceptors that detect changes in oxygen and carbon dioxide concentrations. They are located within the medulla oblongata and in the carotid and aortic bodies. D) Baroreceptors are nociceptors that detect pain. They are located throughout the somatic and visceral systems of the body. E) Baroreceptors are chemoreceptors that detect changes in pH. They are located within the medulla oblongata and in the carotid and aortic bodies. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 14.10 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

111) Which type of receptor is sensitive to changes in blood pH? (Module 14.10B) A) baroreceptors B) proprioceptors C) photoreceptors D) chemoreceptors E) mechanoreceptors Answer: D Learning Outcome: 14.10 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 112) What brain structure is considered to be the headquarters for the ANS? (Module 14.11A) A) thalamus B) hypothalamus C) midbrain D) pons E) medulla oblongata Answer: B Learning Outcome: 14.11 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 113) What brain structure relays somatosensory information? (Module 14.11B) A) thalamus B) hypothalamus C) midbrain D) pons E) medulla oblongata Answer: A Learning Outcome: 14.11 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

Essay Questions 114) Why is the adrenal medulla considered to be a modified sympathetic ganglion? Answer: Preganglionic sympathetic fibers entering the adrenal gland proceed to the adrenal medulla, where they synapse on neuroendocrine cells that release the neurotransmitters norepinephrine and epinephrine into the bloodstream causing sympathetic effects body wide. Learning Outcome: 14.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Analyzing 115) List the different types of adrenergic receptors, the responses they produce, and by what mechanisms. Answer: There are two types of alpha receptors and three types of beta receptors. The alpha-1 receptor produces excitation or stimulation of metabolism. It works by activation of an enzyme and/or by release of calcium ion from internal stores. The alpha-2 receptor is inhibitory on its target cell by reducing the level of cAMP. Beta-1 receptors are stimulating, causing an increase in cardiac muscle rate and force of contraction and/or lead to increased energy consumption. They activate cellular enzymes. Beta-2 receptors inhibit activity or produce relaxation in smooth muscle cells of the respiratory passageways and blood vessels of skeletal muscle. They operate through enzyme activation. Beta-3 receptors release fatty acids from adipose tissue. Learning Outcome: 14.6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 116) Mr. Martin is suffering from a condition known as ventricular tachycardia, in which his heart beats too quickly. Would an alpha-blocker or a beta-blocker help alleviate his problem? Why? Answer: You would want to use a beta-blocker, because the stimulation of beta-1 receptors increases heart rate. By blocking these receptors, parasympathetic influence will predominate and the heart will slow down. Learning Outcome: 14.6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Analyzing 117) The nervous and endocrine systems are the body's two main regulatory systems. Describe some of the ways that the autonomic nervous system and the endocrine system interact. Answer: The release of epinephrine from the adrenal medulla is triggered by preganglionic sympathetic activity. The sympathetic division also controls the release of rennin from the kidneys, insulin from the pancreas, ADH from the pituitary, and melatonin from the pineal. Hormones such as thyroid have a powerful effect on brain development and metabolism. Learning Outcome: 14.8 Bloom's Taxonomy: Analyzing

118) What effect would cutting the vagus nerve branch that innervates the stomach have on gastric function? Answer: The vagus nerve carries parasympathetic preganglionic fibers to many organs within the ventral cavity, including the digestive organs. It stimulates gastric motility and secretion of acid and enzymes. Removing the vagus innervation will eliminate parasympathetic stimulation, leaving only sympathetic innervation, which is inhibitory. This procedure will thus greatly reduce gastric activity. Hormonal stimulation will remain but higher centers will no longer influence secretion of gastric juice. Learning Outcome: 14.8 Bloom's Taxonomy: Analyzing 119) List general responses to increased sympathetic activity and to parasympathetic activity. (Module 14.3C) Answer: General responses to increased sympathetic activity include heightened mental alertness, increased metabolic rate, reduced digestive and urinary functions, activation of energy reserves, increased respiratory rate and dilation of respiratory passageways, elevated heart rate and blood pressure, and activation of sweat glands. General responses to increased parasympathetic activity include decreased metabolic rate, decreased heart rate and blood pressure, increased secretion by salivary and digestive glands, increased motility and blood flow in the digestive tract, and stimulation of urinary and defecation. Learning Outcome: 14.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 120) What physiological changes are typical in a tense or anxious person? (Module 14.5A) Answer: In a tense or anxious person, increased sympathetic stimulation typically causes increased alertness (being "on edge"); a feeling of increased energy; increased heart rate, blood pressure, and breathing rate; increase in muscle tone; and mobilization of energy reserves. Learning Outcome: 14.5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 121) Why is the parasympathetic division called the anabolic system? (Module 14.5C) Answer: The parasympathetic division is sometimes referred to as the anabolic system because parasympathetic stimulation leads to a general increase in the nutrient content of the blood. Cells throughout the body respond to the increase by absorbing the nutrients and using them to support growth and other anabolic activities. Learning Outcome: 14.5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 122) Compare and contrast alpha and beta receptors. (Module 14.6A) Answer: Both alpha receptors and beta receptors are adrenergic receptors on the membranes of target cells. Alpha receptors are more sensitive to NE than beta receptors, but both receptors are stimulated by E. Alpha-1 receptor stimulation typically excites the target cell, and alpha-2 receptor stimulation generally inhibits the target cell. Simulation of beta receptors may result in excitation or inhibition of the target cell. Learning Outcome: 14.6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 32

123) A person with high blood pressure (hypertension) is prescribed a drug that blocks beta receptors. How could this medication alleviate hypertension? (Module 14.6C) Answer: Blocking the beta receptors on cardiac cells would decrease (or prevent) sympathetic stimulation of tissues containing those cells. As a result, heart rate, force of cardiac muscle contraction, and contraction of the smooth muscle in blood vessel walls would decrease, lowering blood pressure. Learning Outcome: 14.6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 124) Explain the significance of the ANS to homeostasis. (Module 14.7A) Answer: The ANS adjusts the activities of virtually every body system, maintaining homeostasis without instructions or interference from the conscious mind. Learning Outcome: 14.7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 125) Explain autonomic tone and its significance in controlling visceral function. (Module 14.8B) Answer: Autonomic tone is the background level of activity in sympathetic or parasympathetic motor neurons under resting conditions. It provides a mechanism for fine control of visceral function because it allows a resting neuron to be less active or more active rather than to simply switch from off to on. This is particularly important when only one division innervates a visceral organ or when an organ (such as the heart) must be precisely controlled over a broad range of activity levels. Learning Outcome: 14.8 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 126) You go outside on a cold day, and blood flow to your skin is reduced, conserving body heat. You become angry, and your face turns red. Explain these changes. (Module 14.8C) Answer: The blood vessels of the skin receive only sympathetic innervation. When you go outside into the cold, sympathetic neurons release NE and cause vasoconstriction of superficial blood vessels through stimulation of alpha receptors. When you get angry, sympathetic activation occurs, and large amounts of epinephrine enter the circulation. This stimulates beta receptors in the superficial blood vessels, dilating those vessels, and stimulates the heart, increasing blood pressure and blood flow. As a result, your skin — and most obviously your face — turns red. Learning Outcome: 14.8 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 127) Harry has a brain tumor that is pressing against his hypothalamus. Explain the effect on autonomic function. (Module 14.11C) Answer: A brain tumor pressing on the hypothalamus could interfere with autonomic function because the hypothalamus receives visceral sensory information and controls both sympathetic and parasympathetic functions. Learning Outcome: 14.11 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying

Visual Anatomy and Physiology, 3e (Martini) Chapter 15 The Special Senses Multiple Choice Questions 1) The sensory neurons within the olfactory organ are stimulated by A) pressure B) chemicals C) proteins D) water E) dust Answer: B Learning Outcome: 15.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 2) Olfactory glands A) house the sense of smell. B) support the olfactory epithelium. C) react to aromatic molecules. D) coat the olfactory epithelium with a pigmented mucus. E) group as olfactory bulbs. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 15.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 3) Before an olfactory receptor can detect an odorant, it has to A) contact a specialized olfactory cell. B) bind to receptors in olfactory dendrites. C) gate open ion channels. D) respond to applied pressure. E) be transported to the olfactory bulbs. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 15.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 4) All of the following are true of olfactory pathways except A) they project first to the mammillary bodies and then to the thalamus. B) the first synapse is in the olfactory bulb. C) information flows to the olfactory cortex, hypothalamus, and limbic system. D) they reach the forebrain without first synapsing in the thalamus. E) they exhibit a considerable amount of convergence. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 15.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

in the air.

5) Some neural tissues retain stem cells and thus the capacity to divide and replace lost neurons. Which of these special senses can replace its damaged neural receptors? A) olfaction B) hearing C) equilibrium D) All of the answers are correct. E) None of the answers is correct. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 15.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 6) Olfactory receptors send axons through the cribriform plate. They synapse on neurons in the A) medulla oblongata. B) medial geniculate. C) cerebral cortex. D) olfactory bulb. E) olfactory tract. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 15.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 7) Which of the following is not a component of the lamina propria of the olfactory organ? A) areolar tissue B) blood vessels C) nerves D) olfactory glands E) olfactory epithelium Answer: E Learning Outcome: 15.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 8) Axons leaving the olfactory epithelium collect into the cribriform plate of the ethmoid. A) 4 B) 8 C) 12 D) 15 E) 20 Answer: E Learning Outcome: 15.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

or more bundles that penetrate

9) Olfactory information is first received by which part of the brain? A) frontal lobe B) cerebellum C) parietal lobe D) cerebrum E) medulla oblongata Answer: D Learning Outcome: 15.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 10) How would a molecule that mimics cAMP not affect an olfactory receptor? A) It would increase sodium permeability. B) It would open chemically gated sodium channels. C) It would depolarize the olfactory receptor. D) It could trigger an afferent action potential. E) It would decrease sodium permeability. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 15.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 11) Olfactory organs are located in the nasal cavity inferior to the perforated bony structure known as the A) superior nasal concha. B) sphenoid bone. C) cribriform plate. D) nasal septum. E) frontal bone. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 15.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 12) The olfactory organ consists of the A) olfactory bulb B) olfactory nerve C) olfactory epithelium D) cribriform plate E) olfactory tract Answer: C Learning Outcome: 15.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

and the lamina propria.

13) The olfactory receptor cell can be activated by as few as A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4 E) 5 Answer: D Learning Outcome: 15.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

odorant molecules.

14) The olfactory receptors are highly modified A) neurons. B) epithelial cells. C) goblet or mucous cells. D) olfactory glands. E) areolar connective tissue cells. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 15.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 15) Gustatory receptors are found in the taste buds of all the following papillae except A) vallate. B) foliate. C) fungiform. D) filiform. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 15.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 16) Each gustatory cell extends narrow taste pore. A) papillae B) flagella C) cilia D) microvilli Answer: D Learning Outcome: 15.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

(or taste hairs) into the surrounding fluids through a

17) A typical gustatory cell survives for only about A) 1 B) 3 C) 5 D) 10 E) 20 Answer: D Learning Outcome: 15.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

days before it is replaced.

18) The sense of taste is also known as A) gustation. B) olfaction. C) equilibrium. D) proprioception. E) interoception. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 15.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 19) Gustatory receptors are not located A) on the inferior surface of the tongue. B) in the epiglottis. C) on the superior surface of the tongue. D) in the larynx. E) in the pharynx. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 15.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 20) An adult has approximately receptor cells. A) 50; 10,000 B) 5,000; 40-100 C) 500,000; 4 D) 500; 40-100 E) 50,000; 10,000 Answer: B Learning Outcome: 15.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

taste buds, each of which contains

different

21) All of the following compose the epithelial projections found on the tongue except A) fungiform papillae. B) circumvallate papillae. C) filiform papillae. D) gustatory papillae. E) None of the answers is correct. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 15.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 22) Which of the following is not one of the six primary taste sensations? A) sweet B) peppery C) sour D) salty E) umami Answer: B Learning Outcome: 15.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 23) The taste sensation that is triggered by the amino acids and small peptides is known as A) sweet. B) umami. C) salty. D) peppery. E) sour. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 15.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 24) The largest numbers of taste buds in adults are associated with the A) pharynx. B) larynx. C) filiform papillae. D) fungiform papillae. E) circumvallate papillae. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 15.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

25) The function of gustatory receptors parallels that of A) light receptors in the eye. B) mechanoreceptors in the ear. C) olfactory receptors. D) lamellar corpuscles. E) Meissner corpuscles. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 15.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 26) Taste receptors are distributed in which of the following places? A) surface of the epiglottis B) surface of the tongue C) portions of the pharynx D) All of the answers are correct. E) None of the answers is correct. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 15.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 27) Taste buds are monitored by cranial nerves A) IX, X, and XI. B) VII, VIII, and IX. C) VII, IX, and X. D) V, VII, and IX. E) IX, XI, and XII. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 15.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 28) A patient who experienced head trauma has lost the ability to taste spicy food. You should expect damage to cranial nerve A) VII. B) III. C) IX. D) V. E) XIII. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 15.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

29) Stimulation of nociceptive receptors within the trigeminal nerve might produce a perception of A) intensely sweet. B) intensely sour. C) quite salty. D) peppery hot. E) decidedly bitter. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 15.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 30) The membrane proteins that respond to chemical stimuli to produce sweet, bitter, and umami sensations are called A) photoreceptors. B) proprioceptors. C) nociceptors. D) transducins. E) gustducins. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 15.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 31) All of the following are true of the lacrimal glands except that they A) produce a strongly hypertonic fluid. B) produce most of the volume of tears. C) produce lysozyme. D) produce watery, slightly alkaline secretions. E) are located in recesses in the frontal bones. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 15.6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 32) The palpebrae do not A) remove dust and debris. B) contain tarsal glands. C) cover and protect the eye. D) keep the eye lubricated. E) produce tears. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 15.6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

33) The palpebrae are connected at the A) eyelids. B) lateral and medial angles of the eye. C) lacrimal caruncle. D) medial canthus only. E) conjunctiva. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 15.6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 34) A structure that is located at the medial angle of the eye and contains glands that contribute to a gritty deposit is the A) palpebra. B) lacrimal caruncle. C) lacrimal gland. D) Meibomian gland. E) conjunctiva. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 15.6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 35) Which of the following produces a lipid-rich secretion that prevents the upper and lower eyelids from sticking together at their edges? A) palpebra B) lacrimal caruncle C) chalazion D) tarsal gland E) conjunctiva Answer: D Learning Outcome: 15.6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 36) The covers most of the exposed surface of the eye. A) conjunctiva B) cornea C) iris D) anterior chamber E) canthus Answer: A Learning Outcome: 15.6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

37) All of the following is a function of tears except A) lubricates the eye. B) washes away debris. C) provides oxygen. D) nourishes the cornea and conjunctiva. E) maintains acidic environment. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 15.6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 38) The opening in the iris through which light passes is the A) conjunctiva. B) cornea. C) pupil. D) anterior chamber. E) posterior chamber. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 15.6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 39) glands are modified sebaceous glands located along the margin of the eyelid that secrete a lipid-rich product. A) Tarsal B) Lacrimal C) Mucous D) Palpebral E) Conjunctival Answer: A Learning Outcome: 15.6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 40) The gap that separates the free margins of the upper and lower eyelids is the A) cornea. B) palpebral fissure. C) conjunctiva. D) lacrimal punctum. E) medial angle of the eye. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 15.6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

41) , or pinkeye, results from damage to or irritation of the conjunctival surface. A) Cataract B) Conjunctivitis C) Myopia D) Hyperopia E) Emmetropia Answer: B Learning Outcome: 15.6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 42) The cornea is part of the A) fibrous layer. B) iris. C) neural layer. D) uvea. E) fibrous layer and the neural layer. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 15.7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 43) All of the following are true of the fibrous layer of the eye except that it A) consists of the sclera, limbus, and cornea. B) provides mechanical support and some protection for the eye. C) produces aqueous humor. D) contributes substantial focusing power. E) is where extrinsic eye muscles insert. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 15.7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 44) Which of the following is not true of the vascular layer of the eye? A) provides a route for blood vessels and lymphatics that supply tissues of the eye B) regulates the amount of light entering the eye C) secretes and reabsorbs the aqueous humor D) controls the shape of the lens E) contains photoreceptors Answer: E Learning Outcome: 15.7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

45) The vitreous body A) fills the anterior cavity. B) helps to stabilize the eye and give physical support to the retina. C) is removed and recycled every few hours. D) All of the answers are correct. E) None of the answers is correct. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 15.7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 46) The transparent portion of the fibrous layer is the A) conjunctiva. B) cornea. C) iris. D) pupil. E) canthus. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 15.7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 47) The part of the eye that determines eye color is the A) lens B) cornea. C) iris. D) pupil. E) retina Answer: C Learning Outcome: 15.7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 48) The space between the cornea and the iris is the A) anterior chamber. B) posterior chamber. C) canal of Schlemm. D) aqueous humor. E) pupil. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 15.7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

49) The space between the iris and ciliary body and the lens is the A) anterior chamber. B) posterior chamber. C) pupil. D) canal of Schlemm. E) vitreous body. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 15.7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 50) Which of the following descriptions best matches the term aqueous humor? A) gelatinous fluid that fills posterior chamber B) secreted in bright light C) constantly produced and recycled D) produced by lacrimal glands E) surround the retina Answer: C Learning Outcome: 15.7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 51) The gelatinous material found in the posterior cavity is the A) vitreous humor. B) aqueous humor. C) ora serrata. D) perilymph. E) tears. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 15.7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 52) An area of the retina that contains only cones and is the site of sharpest vision is the A) outer segment. B) inner segment. C) fovea centralis. D) optic disc. E) tapetum lucidum. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 15.8 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

Figure 15-2 53) Identify the structure labeled "7." A) choroid B) optic disc C) sclera D) retina E) cornea Answer: E Learning Outcome: 15.8 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

54) Identify the space labeled "1." A) posterior cavity B) posterior chamber C) pupil D) anterior chamber E) iris Answer: D Learning Outcome: 15.8 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 55) Identify the structure labeled "9." A) ciliary zonule B) optic disc C) sclera D) fovea E) pupil Answer: A Learning Outcome: 15.8 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 56) Identify the structure labeled "12." A) pupil B) optic disc C) sclera D) fovea E) retina Answer: E Learning Outcome: 15.8 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 57) Identify the structure labeled "14." A) pupil B) optic disc C) sclera D) fovea centralis E) suspensory ligaments Answer: D Learning Outcome: 15.8 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

58) Pupillary muscle groups are controlled by the ANS. Parasympathetic activation causes pupillary , and sympathetic activation causes . A) dilation; constriction B) dilation; dilation C) constriction; dilation D) constriction; constriction E) vasoconstriction; vasoconstriction Answer: C Learning Outcome: 15.8 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 59) What structure changes the shape of the lens for far and near vision? A) aqueous humor B) ciliary body C) iris D) extrinsic eye muscles E) none, because the lens is rigid Answer: B Learning Outcome: 15.8 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 60) A sudden rise of room brightness would cause A) contraction of the pupillary constrictor muscles. B) contraction of the pupillary dilator muscles. C) conversion of 11-trans to 11-cis retinal. D) an increase in the size of the pupil. E) All of the answers are correct. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 15.8 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 61) A ray of light entering the eye will encounter these structures in which order? A) cornea - aqueous humor - lens - vitreous body - retina - choroid B) vitreous body - retina - choroids - aqueous humor - lens - cornea C) cornea - aqueous humor - vitreous body - lens - choroids - retina D) cornea - lens - aqueous humor - vitreous body - retina - choroid Answer: A Learning Outcome: 15.8 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

62) The ciliary muscle contracts to A) control the amount of light reaching the retina. B) adjust the shape of the lens for distant vision. C) adjust the shape of the lens for close vision. D) control the production of aqueous humor. E) adjust the shape of the cornea and vitreous. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 15.8 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 63) The human lens focuses light on the photoreceptor cells by A) moving up and down. B) moving in and out. C) changing shape. D) opening and closing. E) dilating and constricting. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 15.9 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 64) When light encounters a medium of different density, it is bent or A) reflected. B) refracted. C) absorbed. D) transduced. E) propagated. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 15.9 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 65) In the human eye, most refraction occurs when light passes through the A) iris. B) cornea. C) lens. D) aqueous humor. E) vitreous humor. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 15.9 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

66) Why do things look blurry underwater without dive goggles or a mask? A) The water magnifies the image because it is denser than the lens of the eye. B) Light moves more slowly through the water, causing images to appear larger and closer. C) Rather than air, light is moving from water into the cornea and is thus refracted too little for a sharp focus. D) The cornea does not function in water, causing the image to appear larger and closer. E) Light waves are scattered by the water before reaching the eye, causing the image to appear blurry and unclear. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 15.9 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 67) In which of the following cases would the focal distance be greater? A) an object 10 inches away from your nose B) an object 20 feet away C) It doesn't matter, focal distance doesn't change with how far away an object is. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 15.9 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 68) In which of the following cases would the focal distance be greater? A) a round lens B) a flat lens C) It doesn't matter, focus distance doesn't change with the shape of the lens. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 15.9 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 69) The neural layer contains all of the following except A) ganglion cells. B) photoreceptor cones. C) supporting cells. D) photoreceptor rods. E) blood vessels. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 15.10 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 70) cells connect photoreceptors to ganglion cells. A) Rod B) Cone C) Bipolar D) Amacrine E) Horizontal Answer: C Learning Outcome: 15.10 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 18

71) are photoreceptor cells that are most useful in dim light. A) Rods B) Cones Answer: A Learning Outcome: 15.10 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 72) are photoreceptors that convey our ability to see color. A) Rods B) Cones Answer: B Learning Outcome: 15.10 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 73) An elongate outer layer containing membranous discs and a narrow connecting stalk that attaches the outer segment to the middle layer describes a(n) A) bipolar cell. B) photoreceptor. C) ganglion cell. D) amacrine cell. E) horizontal cell. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 15.11 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 74) The visible spectrum for humans extends between a wavelength of 400 nm and nm. A) 100 B) 500 C) 600 D) 700 E) 900 Answer: D Learning Outcome: 15.11 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 75) There are three different types of cones, each one sensitive to different light energies. These cones are designated A) red, yellow, and blue. B) red, green, and blue. C) red, green, and yellow. D) red, white, and blue. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 15.11 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 19

76) A is a basic unit or packet of light energy. A) wavelength B) color C) photon D) rhodopsin E) vibration Answer: C Learning Outcome: 15.11 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 77) The visual receptors of the retina are called A) photoreceptors. B) ganglion cells. C) bipolar cells. D) amacrine cells. E) horizontal cells. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 15.11 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 78) Considering the wavelengths of light received and abundance of various photoreceptors, which color is best received by the retina? A) purple B) yellow C) bright red D) blue E) green Answer: B Learning Outcome: 15.11 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 79) When all three cone populations are stimulated equally, we perceive A) red. B) blue. C) green. D) white. E) blackness. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 15.11 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

80) Visual pigments are derivatives of the compound A) retinal. B) opsin. C) rhodopsin. D) transducin. E) cGMP. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 15.11 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 81) A pigment synthesized from vitamin A is A) retinal. B) opsin. C) rhodopsin. D) transducin. E) cGMP. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 15.11 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 82) The first step in the process of photoreception is A) the bleaching of rods. B) the bleaching of cones. C) absorption of a photon by a visual pigment. D) inhibition of the sodium pumps. E) release of neurotransmitter. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 15.12 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 83) Which of the following is not true about rhodopsin? A) called visual purple B) bleached during photoreception C) is the visual pigment in rods D) consists of opsin + retinal E) activates transducin Answer: E Learning Outcome: 15.12 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

84) The following steps occur in rods when they are excited by photons of light. 1. Ganglia cells detect changes in bipolar cell activity. 2. Neurotransmitter release changes. 3. Retinal changes to a more linear form. 4. Rhodopsin breaks down (bleaches). 5. Opsin changes the membrane permeability of the outer segment to Na+. 6. Opsin activation occurs. What is the proper sequence for these steps? A) 1, 6, 5, 2, 4, 3 B) 3, 6, 5, 2, 1, 4 C) 6, 3, 5, 2, 1, 4 D) 3, 6, 5, 1, 2, 4 E) 1, 3, 4, 5, 6, 2 Answer: B Learning Outcome: 15.12 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 85) All of the following occur when a rod is stimulated by light, except A) ganglion cells pick up changes in activity in the bipolar cells. B) the retinal changes to a more linear shape. C) neurotransmitter release changes. D) Na+ permeability changes. E) ATP is hydrolyzed. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 15.12 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 86) All of the following are true regarding the retina except A) Ganglion cells send axons to the brain as cranial nerve II. B) Axons carrying its output synapse in the lateral geniculate bodies in the thalamus. C) It has photoreceptors that do not respond to dim light. D) It has photoreceptors that do not respond to red light. E) All of the information from the retina goes directly to the occipital cortex. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 15.13 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

87) Which of the following statements concerning vision is false? A) Approximately half of the fibers in each optic nerve cross to opposite sides of the brain at the optic chiasm. B) Fibers of the optic nerve synapse at the lateral geniculates of the thalamus. C) The image that is formed on the retina is inverted. D) The entire retina receives equal representation in the visual cortex. E) The visual cortex of the brain receives the entire field of vision. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 15.13 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 88) In the retina, the correct sequence of neural wiring is A) rod - bipolar cell - ganglion cell - thalamus. B) cone - bipolar cell - pigmented cell - inferior colliculus. C) cone - bipolar cell - horizontal cell - pigmented cell. D) rod - bipolar cell - pigmented cell - thalamus. E) rod - bipolar cell - amacrine cell - pigmented cell. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 15.13 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 89) A person suffering from blurred. A) myopia B) hyperopia C) cataracts D) color blindness E) vertigo Answer: A Learning Outcome: 15.14 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

can see objects that are close, but distant objects appear

90) A person suffering from close. A) myopia B) hyperopia C) cataracts D) color blindness E) vertigo Answer: B Learning Outcome: 15.14 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

can see distant objects more clearly than those that are

91) All of the following descriptions applies/apply to the term myopia except A) nearsightedness. B) corrected with diverging lens. C) image focused in front of retina. D) the eyeball is elongated. E) the eyeball is too shallow. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 15.14 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 92) The senses of equilibrium and hearing are provided by receptors of the A) membranous endolymph. B) organ of Schlemm. C) internal ear. D) bony labyrinth. E) perilymph. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 15.15 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 93) When an external force bends the stereocilia of the inner ear hair cells, A) the force is converted into mechanical energy. B) the hair cells are temporarily damaged. C) there is a change in the transmembrane potential of the hair cells. D) dizziness results. E) the cells become unresponsive. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 15.15 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 94) The external ear ends at the A) vestibule. B) cochlea. C) ossicles. D) tympanic membrane. E) pinna. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 15.16 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

95) The auditory ossicles connect the A) tympanic membrane to the oval window. B) tympanic membrane to the round window. C) oval window to the round window. D) stapedius to the tympanic membrane. E) otitis to the media. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 15.16 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 96) The middle ear communicates with the nasopharynx through the A) auricle. B) membranous labyrinth. C) bony labyrinth. D) pharyngotympanic tube E) auditory meatus. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 15.16 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 97) Which of the following descriptions best matches the term stapes? A) moves up and down when the stapedius muscle contracts B) auditory ossicle attached to tympanic membrane C) bending it produces receptor potential in hair cells D) necessary for the static sense of equilibrium E) seals the oval window Answer: E Learning Outcome: 15.16 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 98) The ear collects sounds waves and transmits them to the contains auditory ossicles. A) inner; middle B) outer; middle C) outer; inner D) middle; inner E) None of the answers is correct. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 15.16 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

ear, which

99) The external acoustic meatus includes all of the following except the A) tympanic membrane. B) eardrum. C) tympanon. D) ceruminous glands. E) auditory tube. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 15.16 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 100) Which of the following anatomical sequences is correct? A) tympanum - incus - malleus - stapes - oval window - round window B) tympanum - incus - malleus - stapes - round window - oval window C) tympanum - malleus - incus - stapes - oval window - round window D) tympanum - incus - stapes - malleus - oval window - round window E) tympanum - malleus - incus - stapes - round window - oval window Answer: C Learning Outcome: 15.16 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 101) Which of the following descriptions best matches the term ossicles? A) move up and down when the stapes moves back and forth B) transmit movement of the tympanic membrane to the inner ear C) bending these produces receptor potential in hair cells D) tiny weights necessary for the static sense of equilibrium E) seal the oval window Answer: B Learning Outcome: 15.16 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

Figure 15-1 102) Identify the structures labeled "8." A) cochlea B) auditory ossicles C) auricle D) tympanic membrane E) vestibule Answer: B Learning Outcome: 15.16 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 103) Which structure contains the receptors for hearing? A) 6 B) 8 C) 9 D) 10 E) 11 Answer: E Learning Outcome: 15.16 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

104) Identify the structure that is covered up by the stapes. A) 4 B) 5 C) 6 D) 8 E) 9 Answer: A Learning Outcome: 15.16 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 105) Identify the structure labeled "3." A) cochlea B) semicircular canals C) auricle D) tympanic membrane E) vestibule Answer: D Learning Outcome: 15.16 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 106) Sound waves are converted into mechanical movements by the A) auditory ossicles. B) cochlea. C) oval window. D) round window. E) tympanic membrane. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 15.16 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 107) The vibrations received by the tympanic membrane are transferred to the oval window by the A) auditory ossicles. B) cochlea. C) oval window. D) tensor tympani. E) stapedius muscle. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 15.16 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

108) Sound travels directly to the eardrum through the A) pinna. B) external auditory canal. C) cochlea. D) vestibule. E) ear ossicles. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 15.16 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 109) glands produce a secretion commonly called earwax. A) Sudoriferous B) Ceruminous C) Mammary D) Sweat E) Apocrine sweat Answer: B Learning Outcome: 15.16 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

Figure 15-1 110) Which structure is known as the vestibule? A) 6 B) 8 C) 9 D) 10 E) 11 Answer: A Learning Outcome: 15.17 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 111) The is a region of dense bone that surrounds and protects the membranous labyrinth. A) bony callus B) bony labyrinth C) membranous callus D) vestibule E) auditory ossicle Answer: B Learning Outcome: 15.17 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

112) The formal term for the sense of gravity, rotation, and linear acceleration is the sense of A) proprioception. B) hearing. C) nociception. D) equilibrium. E) vision. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 15.17 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 113) fills the membranous labyrinth. A) Interstitial fluid B) Perilymph C) Endolymph D) CSF E) Plasma Answer: C Learning Outcome: 15.17 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 114) Gravity and linear acceleration are sensed in the A) semicircular canals. B) cochlea. C) statoconia. D) saccule and utricle. E) organ of Corti. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 15.18 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 115) The sensory receptors of the semicircular canals are located in the A) saccules. B) ampullae. C) perilymph. D) utricles. E) cupulae. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 15.18 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

116) Movement of the endolymph in the semicircular canals A) produces a rushing sound. B) allows us to hear low tones. C) signals rotational movements. D) signals body position with respect to gravity. E) signals linear acceleration. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 15.18 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 117) The hair cells of the utricle and saccule are clustered in A) ampullae. B) cristae. C) cupulae. D) maculae. E) otoconia. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 15.18 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 118) Perception of gravity and linear acceleration depends on A) changes in the pressure exerted by the cupula on hair cells. B) vibrations of the tectorial membrane striking hair cells. C) the force exerted by otoliths on hair cells of the maculae in the utricle or saccule. D) the movement of endolymph within the semicircular canals. E) All of the answers are correct. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 15.18 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 119) Which of the following descriptions best matches the term otoliths? A) move up and down when the stapes moves back and forth B) transmit movement of the tympanic membrane to the inner ear C) bending these produces receptor potential in hair cells D) tiny weights necessary for the static sense of equilibrium E) seal the oval window Answer: D Learning Outcome: 15.18 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

120) The convey(s) information about head position with respect to gravity. A) cochlea B) utricle C) ampulla D) saccule E) utricle and saccule Answer: E Learning Outcome: 15.18 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 121) The elevated ridges within the ampullae of the semicircular canals that support the hair cells are known as a A) concha. B) cupula. C) crista ampullaris. D) macula. E) papilla. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 15.18 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 122) When you spin quickly, you may feel dizzy. Which component of the inner ear generates the sensations that can lead to this feeling? A) semicircular canal B) utricle C) saccule D) maculae E) spiral ganglion Answer: A Learning Outcome: 15.18 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 123) Which of the following descriptions best matches the term stereocilia? A) move up and down when the stapes moves back and forth B) transmit movement of the tympanic membrane to the inner ear C) bending these produces receptor potential in hair cells D) tiny weights necessary for the static sense of equilibrium E) seal the oval window Answer: C Learning Outcome: 15.18 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

124) The quantity of neurotransmitter that is released by a hair cell corresponds to all of the following except A) responds to almost any mechanical stimulation of the hair cell. B) is sensitive to which way stereocilia are bent with respect to the kinocilium. C) determines if a sensory neuron will be excited. D) is greatest when the hair cell is at a neutral position. E) None of the answers is correct. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 15.18 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 125) The structure that overlies the organ of Corti is the A) basilar membrane. B) tectorial membrane. C) stapedius. D) perilymph. E) endolymph. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 15.19 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 126) The structure that supports the organ of Corti is the A) tectorial membrane. B) basilar membrane. C) membranous labyrinth. D) vestibular duct. E) tympanic membrane. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 15.19 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 127) Which of the following descriptions best matches the term basilar membrane? A) moves up and down when the stapes moves back and forth B) separates the cochlear duct from the scala vestibuli C) supports the olfactory organ D) tiny duct necessary for the static sense of equilibrium E) covers over the oval window Answer: A Learning Outcome: 15.19 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

128) The hair cells of the cochlear duct are located in the A) semicircular canal. B) utricle. C) saccule. D) organ of Corti. E) spiral ganglion. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 15.19 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 129) The cell bodies of sensory neurons that innervate the hair cells of the cochlea form the ganglion. A) vestibular B) spiral C) cochlear D) acoustic E) auditory Answer: B Learning Outcome: 15.19 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 130) The frequency of a perceived sound depends on A) the frequency of kinocilia vibration. B) the number of hair cells that are stimulated. C) which part of the cochlear duct is stimulated. D) the amplitude of the wave. E) the frequency of vibration of the tectorial membrane. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 15.20 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

131) The following is a list of the steps that occur in the production of an auditory sensation. 1. The pressure wave distorts the basilar membrane on its way to the round window. 2. Movement of the tympanic membrane causes displacement of the malleus. 3. Displacement of the stereocilia stimulates sensory neurons of the cochlear nerve. 4. Movement of the malleus causes movement of the incus and stapes. 5. Distortion of the basilar membrane forces the hair cells of the organ of Corti toward or away from the tectorial membrane. 6. Movement of the oval window establishes pressure waves in the perilymph of the vestibular duct. What is the proper sequence for these steps? A) 2, 4, 1, 6, 5, 3. B) 2, 4, 6, 3, 5, 1. C) 2, 1, 4, 6, 5, 3. D) 2, 4, 6, 1, 5, 3. E) 2, 5, 4, 6, 1, 3. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 15.20 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 132) A sound with a frequency of 12,000 hertz would be A) very loud. B) barely audible. C) high-pitched. D) low-pitched. E) barely audible and low-pitched. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 15.20 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 133) A loud noise does not cause A) a large movement of the tympanic membrane. B) an alerting reaction leading to sympathetic activation. C) a large number of hair cells to be stimulated. D) a big pressure pulse entering the cochlear duct at that oval window. E) the generation of a wave with a high frequency. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 15.20 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

134) The vestibular nuclei at the boundary of the pons and the medulla function in all of the following except that they A) integrate the vestibular information arriving from each side of the head. B) relay vestibular information to the cerebellum. C) relay vestibular information to the cerebral cortex. D) send commands to motor nuclei in the brain stem and spinal cord. E) send information to the vestibular complex of the inner ear. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 15.21 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 135) Interference with the transfer of vibrations from the tympanic membrane to the oval window is deafness. A) tone B) conductive C) nerve D) neural E) vertigo Answer: B Learning Outcome: 15.22 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 136) An abnormal illusion of movement is called A) conductive hearing loss. B) nerve hearing loss. C) vertigo. D) cataracts. E) myopia. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 15.22 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 137) The abnormality that develops when a lens loses its transparency is known as A) myopia. B) hyperopia. C) cataracts. D) color blindness. E) vertigo. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 15.22 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

138) Where do the special senses originate? (Module 15.1A) A) Special senses originate at the axon of the sensory neuron. B) Special senses originate at the interneurons of the brain. C) Special senses originate at the sensory receptor. D) Special senses originate in the thalamus where sensations are relayed. E) Special senses originate in the association areas of the cerebral cortex. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 15.1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 139) What is a generator potential? (Module 15.1B) A) A generator potential is an action potential produced by sensory neurons. B) A generator potential is the depolarization of sensory neurons capable of generating an action potential. C) A generator potential is the repolarization of sensory neurons capable of generating ac action potential. D) A generator potential is an electrical stimulus that propagates from the sensory neuron to the CNS. E) A generator potential is a very strong stimulus in a sensory receptor that causes the inside of the cell to become positive. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 15.1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 140) Compare olfactory receptors with receptors for the other special senses. (Module 15.1C) A) Olfactory receptors are at the surface of the olfactory epithelium and can generate a fast action potential, whereas receptors for the other special senses are deep and slower to generate an action potential. B) Olfactory receptors are chemoreceptors and respond to dissolved chemicals, whereas the receptors for the other special senses are mechanoreceptors. C) Olfactory receptors have short axons because of their close proximity to the olfactory bulb, whereas the receptors for the other special senses have long axons because they are further away from the CNS. D) Olfactory receptors do not require the CNS for processing the signal, whereas the receptors for the other special senses require processing by the CNS. E) Olfactory receptors are the dendrites of specialized excitable olfactory neurons, whereas the receptors for the other special senses are receptor cells with inexcitable membranes and form synapses with the processes of sensory neurons. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 15.1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

141) Describe olfaction. (Module 15.2A) A) Olfaction is the sense of smell. B) Olfaction is the sense of taste. C) Olfaction is the sense of equilibrium. D) Olfaction is the sense of sight. E) Olfaction is the sense of hearing. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 15.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 142) Trace the olfactory pathway, beginning at the olfactory epithelium. (Module 15.2B) A) Axons from the olfactory epithelium bundle together and travel along the olfactory tract. Axons from the tract then synapse at the olfactory bulb. Axons from the olfactory bulb travel to the olfactory cortex, thalamus, and portions of the limbic system. B) Axons from the olfactory epithelium bundle together and travel along the olfactory tract. Axons from the olfactory tract go to the olfactory cortex, hypothalamus, and portions of the ventricles. Then the axons from those regions synapse again at the olfactory bulb. C) Axons from the olfactory epithelium bundle together and synapse at the olfactory bulb. Axons from the olfactory bulb travel directly to the olfactory cortex, olfactory association area, and the epithalamus. D) Axons from the olfactory epithelium bundle together and synapse at the olfactory bulb. Axons from the olfactory bulb travel along the olfactory tract to the olfactory cortex, hypothalamus, and portions of the limbic system. E) Axons from the olfactory epithelium bundle together and synapse at the olfactory bulb. Axons from the olfactory bulb travel along the olfactory tract to the olfactory cortex, basal nuclei, and portions of the reticular formation. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 15.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 143) Define gustation. (Module 15.3A) A) Gustation is the sense of smell. B) Gustation is the sense of taste. C) Gustation is the sense of equilibrium. D) Gustation is the sense of sight. E) Gustation is the sense of hearing. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 15.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

144) Describe filiform papillae. (Module 15.3B) A) Filiform papillae are taste buds. B) Filiform papillae are gustatory receptors. C) Filiform papillae are epithelial projections shaped like small buttons. Each one contains about five taste buds. D) Filiform papillae are epithelial projections that are relatively large and surrounded by deep folds containing as many as 100 taste buds. E) Filiform papillae are epithelial projections that are slender and conical. They provide friction for the tongue to move objects in the mouth, but they do not contain taste buds. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 15.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 145) Which taste receptors offer a survival advantage when tasting something for the first time? (Module 15.3C) A) bitter and sour receptors B) salty receptors C) sweet receptors D) water receptors E) umami receptors Answer: A Learning Outcome: 15.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 146) What are gustducins? (Module 15.4A) A) Gustducins are gustatory sensory neurons that transmit the gustatory signals. B) Gustducins are taste buds. C) Gustducins are ion-gated channels on the gustatory receptor cell that respond to sodium ions from salt solutions or hydrogen ions from acidic or sour solutions to induce depolarization in the cell. D) Gustducins are G protein complexes that use second messengers to produce the depolarization in the cell from sweet, bitter, and umami sensations. E) Gustducins are epithelial projections on the surface and sides of the tongue that may contain taste buds. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 15.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 147) Identify the cranial nerves that carry gustatory information. (Module 15.4B) A) trigeminal, facial, and accessory nerves B) facial, glossopharyngeal, and vagus nerves C) glossopharyngeal, trigeminal, and abducens nerves D) hypoglossal, glossopharyngeal, and accessory nerves E) hypoglossal, olfactory, and trochlear nerves Answer: B Learning Outcome: 15.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 40

148) Trace the gustatory pathway from the taste receptors to the cerebral cortex. (Module 15.4C) A) taste receptors — facial, glossopharyngeal, and vagus nerves — synapse in the solitary nucleus of the medulla oblongata — medial lemniscus — synapse in the thalamus — gustatory cortex of the insula B) taste receptors — hypoglossal, glossopharyngeal, and accessory nerves — synapse in the solitary nucleus of the medulla oblongata — medial lemniscus — synapse in the thalamus — gustatory cortex of the insula C) taste receptors — facial, glossopharyngeal, and vagus nerves — lateral lemniscus — synapse in the solitary nucleus of the medulla oblongata — synapse in the thalamus — gustatory cortex of the insula D) taste receptors — hypoglossal, glossopharyngeal, and accessory nerves — medial lemniscus — synapse in the thalamus — synapse in the solitary nucleus of the medulla oblongata — gustatory cortex of the insula E) taste receptors — facial, glossopharyngeal, and vagus nerves — medial lemniscus — synapse in the thalamus — synapse in the solitary nucleus of the medulla oblongata — gustatory cortex of the insula Answer: A Learning Outcome: 15.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 149) What are the first structures that form during eye development? (Module 15.5A) A) optic nerve B) retina C) optic vesicles D) cornea E) optic cups Answer: C Learning Outcome: 15.5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 150) Which structures develop into the retina? (Module 15.5B) A) optic vesicles B) cornea C) optic nerve D) inner and outer layers of the optic cup E) lacrimal apparatus Answer: D Learning Outcome: 15.5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

151) Which cells develop into the photoreceptors? (Module 15.5C) A) optic vesicles B) cornea C) ependymal cells of the inner layer of the optic cup D) ependymal cells of the outer layer of the optic cup E) nervous tissue of the outer layer of the optic cup Answer: D Learning Outcome: 15.5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 152) Identify the accessory structures of the eye. (Module 15.6A) A) eyelids, eyelashes, the superficial epithelium of the eye, and the structures associated with the production, secretion, and removal of tears B) vitreous humor and aqueous humor C) eyelids, conjunctiva, cornea D) tarsal glands, palpebral conjunctiva, bulbar conjunctiva, fornix, lacrimal caruncle E) pupil, iris, cornea, aqueous humor, vitreous humor Answer: A Learning Outcome: 15.6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 153) Which layer of the eye would be the first affected by inadequate tear production? (Module 15.6B) A) pupil B) iris C) retina D) sclera E) conjunctiva Answer: E Learning Outcome: 15.6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 154) Name the three layers of the eye. (Module 15.7A) A) outer corneal layer, middle aqueous humor layer, inner vitreous humor layer B) outer corneal layer, middle vitreous humor layer, inner aqueous humor layer C) outer fibrous layer, middle vascular layer, deep inner layer D) outer vascular layer, middle fibrous layer, deep inner layer E) outer scleral layer, middle corneal layer, deep retinal layer Answer: C Learning Outcome: 15.7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

155) What gives eyes their characteristic color? (Module 15.7B) A) the density and distribution of melanocytes in the pupil B) the density and distribution of melanocytes in the iris C) the density and distribution of blood vessels in the vascular layer D) the density and distribution of blood vessels in the retina E) the density and distribution of melanocytes in the retina Answer: B Learning Outcome: 15.7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 156) Where in the eye is aqueous humor located? (Module 15.7C) A) in the anterior cavity, between the cornea and the retina B) in the posterior cavity, between the lens and the retina C) in the anterior cavity, between the cornea and the lens D) in the posterior cavity, between the cornea and the lens E) in the anterior cavity, between the ciliary body and the ora serrata Answer: C Learning Outcome: 15.7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 157) Which eye structure does not contain blood vessels? (Module 15.8A) A) cornea B) iris C) sclera D) retina E) choroid Answer: A Learning Outcome: 15.8 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 158) What happens to the pupils when light intensity decreases? (Module 15.8B) A) the pupils constrict to let in more light B) the pupils dilate to let in more light C) the pupils constrict to let in less light D) the pupils dilate to let in less light E) the pupils reflect more light onto the lens Answer: B Learning Outcome: 15.8 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

159) Light passing through the eye along the visual axis strikes what part of the retina? (Module 15.8C) A) optic nerve B) optic disc C) fovea centralis D) ganglion cells E) bipolar cells Answer: C Learning Outcome: 15.8 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 160) Define focal point. (Module 15.9A) A) Focal point is when all light rays entering the pupil are entering parallel. B) Focal point is the distance between the lens and the retina. C) Focal point is when light is refracted as it passes from the air into the corneal tissues. D) Focal point is the point at which the light rays from an object intersect on the retina. E) Focal point is the point at which the light rays from an object intersect on the lens. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 15.9 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 161) When the ciliary muscles are relaxed, are you viewing something close up or something in the distance? (Module 15.9B) A) something close up B) something in the distance Answer: B Learning Outcome: 15.9 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 162) Why does the near point of vision typically increase with age? (Module 15.9C) A) Elasticity of the lens decreases with age. B) Elasticity of the lens increases with age. C) The number of photoreceptors decreases with age. D) The amount of refraction changes because the liquid inside the eye decreases with age. E) The amount of refraction changes because the liquid inside the eye increases with age. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 15.9 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

163) What is the eye's blind spot? (Module 15.10A) A) macula B) fovea centralis C) neural layer of the retina D) optic disc E) lens Answer: D Learning Outcome: 15.10 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 164) Compare rods with cones. (Module 15.10B) A) Rods are active in dim light, and objects appear black and white. Cones require intense light, and objects appear in color. B) Rods require intense light, and objects appear black and white. Cones are active in dim light, and objects appear in color. C) Rods are active in dim light, and objects appear in color. Cones require intense light, and objects appear in black and white. D) Rods require intense light, and objects appear in color. Cones are active in dim light, and objects appear in black and white. E) Both rods and cones require intense light. Rods allow color vision and cones allow objects to appear black and white. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 15.10 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 165) How could a diet deficient in vitamin A affect vision? (Module 15.11B) A) Deficiency in vitamin A reduces the amount of aqueous humor available to circulate to the tissues of the anterior chamber. B) Deficiency in vitamin A reduces the amount of retinal that the body could produce, thereby interfering with night vision. C) Deficiency in vitamin A reduces the amount of opsin that can be produced, reducing the wavelengths of light that can be absorbed. D) Deficiency in vitamin A reduces the amount of red cones, causing red-green color blindness. E) Deficiency in vitamin A blocks the production of all cone pigments, causing total color blindness. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 15.11 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying

166) Identify the three types of cones. (Module 15.11C) A) red, green and yellow cones B) red, blue and yellow cones C) red, green and blue cones D) white, red and green cones E) black, white, and color cones Answer: C Learning Outcome: 15.11 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 167) What are the two configurations of retinal? (Module 15.12A) A) linear form and planar form B) linear form and ring form C) R enantiomer and S enantiomer D) bent 11-cis form and the linear 11-trans form E) depolarized form and repolarized form Answer: D Learning Outcome: 15.12 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 168) Visual pigments undergo which three changes during photoreception? (Module 15.12B) A) activation, bleaching, and reassembly B) activation, bleaching, and deactivation C) depolarization, repolarization, and hyperpolarization D) activation, denaturation, and reassembly E) detection, bleaching, and absorption Answer: A Learning Outcome: 15.12 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 169) When during photoreception is ATP required? (Module 15.12C) A) activation B) absorbing a photon C) release of neurotransmitters D) depolarization of the membrane E) conversion of 11-trans retinal back to 11-cis retinal Answer: E Learning Outcome: 15.12 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

170) Define optic radiation. (Module 15.13A) A) Optic radiation refers to the bundles of commissural fibers linking the visual cortex on the left side of the cerebrum with the visual cortex on the right side of the cerebrum. B) Optic radiation refers to the bundles of association fibers linking the visual cortex with the visual association area on the same side of the cerebral cortex. C) Optic radiation refers to bundles of projection fibers linking the lateral geniculate bodies of the thalamus with the visual cortex in each cerebral hemisphere. D) Optic radiation refers to bundles of projection fibers linking the basal nuclei of the cerebrum with the visual association areas. E) Optic radiation refers to bundles of association fibers linking the visual cortex with the visual association area in each cerebral hemisphere. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 15.13 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 171) Where are visual images perceived? (Module 15.13B) A) visual association areas of the cerebral cortex B) visual cortex of the occipital lobe C) insula of the cerebrum D) lateral geniculate bodies of the thalamus E) lateral geniculate bodies of the thalamus and the insula of the cerebrum Answer: B Learning Outcome: 15.13 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 172) Define emmetropia. (Module 15.14A) A) It is the term for normal vision. B) It is the term for nearsightedness. C) It is the term for farsightedness. D) It is the term for color blindness. E) It is the term for visual correction. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 15.14 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 173) Which type of lens would correct hyperopia? (Module 15.14B) A) diverging lens (with at least one concave surface) B) converging lens (with at least one convex surface) Answer: B Learning Outcome: 15.14 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

174) What kind of stimuli can the internal ear sense? (Module 15.15C) A) touch B) odorants C) visual photons of light D) gravity and acceleration, rotation, or sound E) dissolved chemicals Answer: D Learning Outcome: 15.15 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 175) Name the three tiny bones located in the middle ear, from lateral to medial. (Module 15.16A) A) malleus, incus, and stapes B) malleus, stapes, and incus C) stapes, incus, and malleus D) stapes, malleus, and incus E) incus, malleus, and stapes Answer: A Learning Outcome: 15.16 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 176) What is the function of the auditory tube? (Module 15.16B) A) to house the adenoids B) to resonate sounds C) to amplify sounds before they enter the inner ear D) to drain excess perilymph if it builds up in the inner ear E) to allow pressure equalization on both sides of the tympanic membrane Answer: E Learning Outcome: 15.16 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 177) Identify the structures of the bony labyrinth. (Module 15.17A) A) The bony labyrinth contains the semicircular ducts and semicircular canals. B) The bony labyrinth contains the utricle and saccule. C) The bony labyrinth contains the semicircular canals, vestibule, and cochlea. D) The bony labyrinth contains the malleus, incus, and stapes. E) The bony labyrinth contains the cochlear duct and the cochlea. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 15.17 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

178) How do the semicircular canals and the semicircular ducts differ? (Module 15.17B) A) The semicircular canals are part of the membranous labyrinth, and the canals surround the semicircular ducts, which are part of the bony labyrinth. B) The semicircular canals are part of the bony labyrinth, and they are surrounded by the semicircular ducts, which are part of the membranous labyrinth. C) The semicircular canals are part of the membranous labyrinth, and they are surrounded by the semicircular ducts, which are part of the bony labyrinth. D) The semicircular canals are part of the bony labyrinth, and the canals surround the semicircular ducts, which are part of the membranous labyrinth. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 15.17 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 179) Define otoliths. (Module 15.18A) A) They are tiny auditory bones that propagate sound waves to the internal ear. B) They are small cellular extensions that detect changes in the flow of endolymph. C) They are flexible, gelatinous structures that are found in each ampulla of the semicircular ducts. D) They are the extensions of hair cells embedded in the ampullary cupula. E) They are densely packed calcium carbonate crystals that sit upon the gelatinous otolithic membrane in the maculae. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 15.18 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 180) Cite the functions of sensory receptors in the saccule and utricle. (Module 15.18B) A) Sensory receptors in the saccule and utricle are sensitive to high pitched sounds. B) Sensory receptors in the saccule and utricle are sensitive to low pitched sounds. C) Sensory receptors in the saccule and utricle are sensitive to high pitched and low pitched sounds, respectively. D) Sensory receptors in the saccule and utricle are sensitive to rotation. E) Sensory receptors in the saccule and utricle are sensitive to changes in horizontal movement and vertical movement, respectively. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 15.18 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 181) Where is the spiral organ located? (Module 15.19A) A) utricle of the internal ear B) semicircular ducts of the internal ear C) tympanic membrane of the middle ear D) cochlea of the internal ear E) saccule of the internal ear Answer: D Learning Outcome: 15.19 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 49

182) Name the fluids found within the scala vestibuli, scala tympani, and cochlear duct. (Module 15.19B) A) Perilymph fills the scala vestibuli. Endolymph fills the scala tympani and cochlear duct. B) Perilymph fills the scala vestibuli and the scala tympani. Endolymph fills the cochlear duct. C) Perilymph fills the cochlear duct. Endolymph fills the scala vestibuli and the scala tympani. D) Perilymph fills the scala tympani and cochlear duct. Endolymph fills the scala vestibuli. E) Perilymph fills the scala vestibuli and cochlear duct. Endolymph fills the scala tympani. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 15.19 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 183) When the basilar membrane moves, what happens to the hair cells of the spiral organ? (Module 15.19C) A) They press against the spiral ganglion. B) They press against the basilar membrane. C) They press against the tectorial membrane. D) They press against the vestibular membrane. E) They push down into the ampulla. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 15.19 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 184) Define decibel. (Module 15.20A) A) Decibels are units of force. B) Decibels are units of pressure. C) Decibels are units of the intensity of sound. D) Decibels are units of light. E) Decibels are units of wavelengths. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 15.20 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 185) Where are the hair cell receptors for equilibrium located? (Module 15.21A) A) cochlear ducts B) vestibule and semicircular ducts C) oval window D) round window E) tectorial membrane Answer: B Learning Outcome: 15.21 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

186) Which cranial nerves are involved with eye, head, and neck movements? (Module 15.21B) A) Cranial nerves III, IV, VI, and XI. B) Cranial nerves I, II, and III. C) Cranial nerves II, III, IV, V, and VI. D) Cranial nerves III, VII, IX, X, XII. E) Cranial nerves VI, VII, IX, XI. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 15.21 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 187) What is your reflexive response to hearing a loud noise, such as a firecracker? (Module 15.21C) A) close your eyes B) cover your ears C) turn away from the source of the noise D) turn your head and eyes toward the source of the noise E) close your eyes and cover your ears Answer: D Learning Outcome: 15.21 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 188) Which cranial nerves provide taste sensations from the tongue? (Module 15.22A) A) Cranial nerves I and II. B) Cranial nerves VII, IX, and X. C) Cranial nerves III, IV, V, and VI. D) Cranial nerves III, VII, IX, X, XII. E) Cranial nerves VI, VII, IX, XI. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 15.22 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 189) Identify two common classes of hearing-related disorders. (Module 15.22C) A) cataracts and glaucoma B) vertigo and motion sickness C) conductive hearing loss and sensorineural hearing loss D) vertigo and conductive hearing loss E) presbyopia and sensorineural hearing loss Answer: C Learning Outcome: 15.22 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

Essay Questions 190) Trace the pathway of a nerve impulse from the eye to the cortex. Answer: ganglion cell → optic nerve (cranial nerve II) through optic chiasm → lateral geniculate nucleus of thalamus → primary visual cortex (occipital lobe) Learning Outcome: 15.13 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 191) Sally's driver's license indicates that she must wear glasses when she drives. She does not need glasses to see objects that are close. What type of lenses are in Sally's eyeglasses? How do they work? Answer: Sally is apparently nearsighted (myopic) and needs diverging lenses to correct the condition by moving the focal distance back in the eye to the retina. Learning Outcome: 15.14 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 192) How would blockage of the auditory (Eustachian) tube at its exit in the nasopharynx by lymphatic tissue ("adenoids") affect ear function and health? Answer: Blockage of the auditory tube leads to pain because pressure cannot equilibrate between the middle ear and the atmosphere. Also, fluid can accumulate (otitis media) in the middle ear, which is also painful and potentially infective. Untreated, adenoids can lead to scarring of the tympanum and some loss of hearing. Learning Outcome: 15.16 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 193) What six basic steps are involved in the process of hearing? Answer: (1) Sound waves arrive at the tympanic membrane. (2) Movement of the tympanic membrane causes displacement of the auditory ossicles. (3) Movement of the stapes at the oval window establishes pressure waves in the perilymph of the vestibular duct. (4) The pressure waves distort the basilar membrane on their way to the round window of the tympanic duct. (5) Vibration of the basilar membrane causes vibration of hair cells and bending of stereocilia against the tectorial membrane. (6) Information about the region and intensity of stimulation is relayed to the brain stem over the cochlear branch of N VIII. Learning Outcome: 15.20 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

194) Each of the special senses can be expected to decline in some way over time. Describe some of the changes commonly seen in the function of the special senses with age. Answer: Olfactory receptors are reduced in number and olfactory glands decline in activity. Both changes reduce olfactory acuity. Gustatory sense declines with a decline in the number of taste buds and taste receptors. Vision suffers from a loss of retinal function, clouding of lens and cornea, and loss of lens elasticity, leading to senile hyperopia (presbyopia). Hearing declines due to accumulation of cerumen, scarring of the tympanum, arthritis of the ossicular chain, and loss of proximal hair cells in the organ of Corti, leading to high-tone deafness. Balance declines due to nerve problems, fluid problems, and vascular problems, leading to faulty or delayed vestibular information. That decline coupled with a sluggish and weak motor response increases the risk of falls and consequent trauma. Learning Outcome: 15.22 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 195) Describe the events leading up to the depolarization and generation of an action potential by an olfactory receptor cell. (Module 15.2C) Answer: The depolarization of an olfactory receptor cell begins with the binding of airborne odorant molecules to their receptors on the membranes of olfactory dendrites. Binding results in the activation of the enzyme adenylate cyclase and formation of cyclic AMP (cAMP). The cAMP opens sodium ion channels in the plasma membrane, leading to depolarization of the olfactory receptor cell's axon. Learning Outcome: 15.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 196) Describe conjunctivitis. (Module 15.6C) Answer: Conjunctivitis, or pinkeye, is inflammation of the conjunctiva, generally caused by a pathogenic infection or by physical, allergic or chemical irritation of the conjunctival surface. The most obvious sign of conjunctivitis, redness, results from the dilation of blood vessels deep to the conjunctival epithelium. Learning Outcome: 15.6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 197) If you enter a dimly lit room, will you be able to see clearly? Why or why not? (Module 15.10C) Answer: When you enter a dimly lit room, you are unlikely to be able to see at all. The lowintensity light in the room would be focused on the fovea centralis, which contains only cones, which cannot be stimulated by low-intensity light. Learning Outcome: 15.10 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 198) Describe the structure of a photoreceptor. (Module 15.11A) Answer: A photoreceptor is made up of an outer segment and inner segment. The tip of the outer segment is enclosed by pigmented epithelial cells. The outer segment contains flattened membranous discs containing visual pigment molecules sensitive to photons of light. The inner segment contains the major organelles of the cell, and it synapses with a bipolar cell. Learning Outcome: 15.11 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 53

199) Contrast the olfactory and gustatory sensory receptors with those of equilibrium and hearing. (Module 15.15A) Answer: In olfaction and gustation, the sensory receptor cells are exposed to the external environment and communicate with the CNS. In equilibrium and hearing, by contrast, the sensory receptors are isolated within the internal ear and protected from the external environment. Learning Outcome: 15.15 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 200) Describe the sensory receptors of the internal ear. (Module 15.15B) Answer: The sensory receptors of the internal ear are called hair cells because their free surfaces are covered with specialized processes similar to cilia and microvilli. Certain hair cells contain a kinocilium (a single large cilium) and many stereocilia. Learning Outcome: 15.15 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 201) Describe the regional differences among the receptor complexes in the membranous labyrinth. (Module 15.17C) Answer: Within the membranous labyrinth, receptors in the semicircular ducts respond only to rotation, receptors in the vestibule respond only to gravity and linear acceleration, and receptors in the cochlear duct respond only to sound. Learning Outcome: 15.17 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 202) Beginning at the external acoustic meatus, list, in order, the structures involved in hearing. (Module 15.20B) Answer: Sound waves enter the external acoustic meatus — tympanic membrane — auditory ossicles — oval window — basilar membrane — round window of scala tympani — hair cells vibrate against tectorial membrane — information relayed to CNS by cochlear nerve of cranial nerve VIII. Learning Outcome: 15.20 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 203) How would sound perception be affected if the round window could not bulge out as a result of increased perilymph pressure? (Module 15.20C) Answer: If the round window could not move, the perilymph would not be moved by the vibration of the stapes at the oval window; this would reduce or eliminate the perception of sound. Learning Outcome: 15.20 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying

204) What causes vertigo? (Module 15.22B) Answer: Vertigo is caused by any condition that alters the function of the internal ear receptor complex, the vestibular nerve of the vestibulocochlear nerve, or sensory nuclei and pathways in the central nervous system. Common causes include motion sickness, excessive alcohol consumption, and exposure to certain drugs. Learning Outcome: 15.22 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

Visual Anatomy and Physiology, 3e (Martini) Chapter 16 The Endocrine System Multiple Choice Questions 1) All of the following are true of the nervous system, except that it doesn't A) respond rapidly to stimuli. B) respond specifically to stimuli. C) communicate by the release of neurotransmitters. D) respond with motor output. E) function independently of the endocrine system. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 16.1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 2) Norepinephrine and epinephrine are considered to be bloodstream, but when released at synapses. A) hormones; neurotransmitters B) neuropeptides; neurotransmitters C) neurotransmitters; hormones D) neurotransmitters; neuropeptides E) neuropeptides; neurohormones Answer: A Learning Outcome: 16.1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

when released into the

3) The functional organization of the nervous system parallels that of the many ways. A) endocrine B) cardiovascular C) body D) muscular E) integumentary Answer: A Learning Outcome: 16.1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 4) Which of the following statements about the endocrine system is false? A) It has target cells that are mainly in distant tissues. B) It affects only cells with appropriate receptors. C) It releases secretions directly into body fluids. D) It is regulated by negative feedback mechanisms. E) It releases hormones, all of which are lipids, directly into the bloodstream. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 16.1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 1

system in

5) are chemical messengers that are released in one tissue and transported in the bloodstream to alter the activities of specific cells in other tissues. A) Hormones B) Neuropeptides C) Neurotransmitters D) Paracrine factors E) None of the answers is correct. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 16.1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 6) Which of the following is mismatched? A) direct communication — small solutes travel through gap junctions B) paracrine communication — molecules released in local area C) endocrine communication — target cells are directly adjacent to each other D) autocrine communication — limited to the cell that secretes the chemical signal E) synaptic communication — uses neurotransmitters that cross synapses Answer: C Learning Outcome: 16.1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 7) All target cells A) have hormone receptors. B) can respond to chemical signals. C) secrete hormones. D) have hormone receptors and can respond to chemical signals. E) secrete hormones and have hormone receptors. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 16.1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 8) Hormones known as "catecholamines" are A) lipids. B) peptides. C) steroids. D) amino acid derivatives. E) derivatives of reproductive glands. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 16.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

9) Peptide hormones are A) composed of amino acids. B) produced by the adrenal glands. C) derived from the amino acid tyrosine. D) lipids. E) chemically related to cholesterol. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 16.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 10) Each of the following hormones is an amino acid derivative except A) epinephrine. B) norepinephrine. C) thyroid hormone. D) thyroid-stimulating hormone. E) melatonin. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 16.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 11) Hormones can be divided into different groups based on their chemistry. These categories include all of the following except A) peptides. B) steroids. C) eicosanoids. D) amino acid derivatives. E) carbohydrates. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 16.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 12) Hormonal actions on cells can affect all of the following except A) increase levels of cAMP. B) decrease levels of calcium ions. C) increase ATP production. D) decrease gene transcription. E) decrease hormone release through negative feedback. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 16.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

13) Extracellular membrane receptors are used by all of the following types of hormones except A) catecholamines. B) peptide hormones. C) leukotrienes. D) steroid hormones. E) prostaglandins. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 16.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 14) Steroid hormones A) are proteins. B) cannot diffuse through cell membranes. C) bind to receptors in the nucleus of their target cells. D) remain in circulation for relatively short periods of time. E) are transported in the blood dissolved in the plasma. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 16.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 15) When a catecholamine or peptide hormone binds to receptors on the surface of a cell, the A) hormone receptor complex moves into the cytoplasm. B) cell membrane becomes depolarized. C) second messenger appears in the cytoplasm. D) cell becomes inactive. E) hormone is transported to the nucleus where it alters the activity of DNA. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 16.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 16) The link between a first messenger and a second messenger in a cell that responds to peptide hormones is usually A) cAMP. B) cGMP. C) ATP. D) a G protein. E) calcium ion levels. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 16.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

17) When a G protein becomes activated and causes an activation of enzymes, A) ATP is consumed. B) cAMP is formed. C) cAMP is broken down. D) ATP is consumed and cAMP is formed. E) None of the answers is correct. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 16.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 18) Which of the following substances acts as a second messenger? A) insulin B) ACTH C) epinephrine D) cyclic AMP E) TSH Answer: D Learning Outcome: 16.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 19) All of the following are true of steroid hormones except that they A) are produced by the adrenal medulla. B) are derived from cholesterol. C) are produced by reproductive glands. D) bind to receptors within the cell. E) are lipids. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 16.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 20) Cells can respond to hormone(s) at a time. A) only one B) one or two C) two D) several Answer: D Learning Outcome: 16.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

21) An activated G protein can trigger all of the following except A) the opening of calcium ion channels in the membrane. B) the release of calcium ions from intracellular stores. C) a fall in cAMP levels. D) a rise in cAMP levels. E) an increase ATP production. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 16.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 22) Calcium ions serve as messengers, often in combination with the intracellular protein A) calcitonin. B) calcitriol. C) calmodulin. D) calcium-binding globulin. E) calcitropin. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 16.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 23) After a steroid hormone binds to its receptor to form an active complex, A) adenylyl cyclase is activated. B) cAMP is formed. C) G proteins are phosphorylated. D) gene transcription is initiated. E) ion channels are opened. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 16.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 24) The intracellular protein enzymes. A) receptor B) cAMP C) G protein D) calmodulin E) ATP Answer: D Learning Outcome: 16.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

binds calcium ions. This complex can then activate

25) Receptors for all of the following hormones are found in the cell membranes of target cells except A) catecholamines. B) peptide hormones. C) steroid hormones. D) eicosanoids. E) tryptophan derivatives. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 16.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 26) The most complex endocrine responses that integrate the nervous and endocrine system involve the A) thyroid gland. B) pancreas. C) adrenal glands. D) hypothalamus. E) thymus gland. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 16.5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 27) Regulatory hormones that control secretion of anterior pituitary hormones are released by neurons at the of the hypothalamus. A) paraventricular nuclei B) supra-optic nuclei C) median eminence D) infundibulum E) geniculate bodies Answer: C Learning Outcome: 16.5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 28) Neurons of the supra-optic and paraventricular nuclei of the hypothalamus manufacture A) CRF and GnRH. B) TSH and FSH. C) ADH and OXT. D) FSH and PRL. E) GHIH and GHRH. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 16.5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

29) The hypophyseal portal system A) has two capillary plexuses connected by short veins. B) carries neurosecretions to the anterior lobe of the pituitary. C) carries ADH and oxytocin. D) All of the answers are correct. E) None of the answers is correct. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 16.5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 30) The hypothalamus is an important organ in both the A) endocrine; nervous B) cardiovascular; nervous C) renal; endocrine D) nervous; renal E) endocrine; lymphatic Answer: A Learning Outcome: 16.5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

and

systems.

31) The hypothalamus controls secretion by the anterior pituitary by A) direct neural stimulation. B) indirect osmotic control. C) secreting releasing and inhibiting factors into a tiny portal system. D) altering ion concentrations and pH in the anterior pituitary. E) gap synaptic junctions. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 16.5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 32) Destruction of the supra-optic nucleus of the hypothalamus would have which result? A) loss of ADH secretion B) loss of GH secretion C) loss of melatonin secretion D) loss of emotional response E) loss of regulatory factor secretion Answer: A Learning Outcome: 16.5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying

33) Secretory cells of the adenohypophysis release all of the following except A) FSH. B) TSH. C) LH. D) GH. E) OXT. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 16.6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 34) The posterior pituitary gland secretes A) FSH. B) TSH. C) ACTH. D) ADH. E) MSH. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 16.6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 35) The hormone produced by the pars intermedia of the adenohypophysis during early childhood is A) FSH. B) ADH. C) TSH. D) MSH. E) ACTH. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 16.6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 36) Which of the following is released due to sensory input and thus part of a neuroendocrine reflex? A) FSH B) OXT C) TSH D) corticotropin E) somatotropin Answer: B Learning Outcome: 16.6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

37) The hormone oxytocin does all of the following except A) promotes uterine contractions. B) is responsible for milk expression from the mammary glands. C) rises during sexual arousal. D) peaks at orgasm in both sexes. E) is responsive to osmoreceptors. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 16.6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 38) Growth hormone does all of the following except A) promote bone growth. B) promote muscle growth. C) cause fat accumulation within adipocytes. D) promote amino acid uptake by cells. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 16.6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 39) The pituitary hormone that triggers the release of thyroid hormone from the thyroid gland is A) TSH. B) ACTH. C) FSH. D) LH. E) GH. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 16.6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 40) The pituitary hormone that controls the release of steroid hormones from the adrenal cortex is A) TSH. B) ACTH. C) FSH. D) LH. E) GH. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 16.6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

41) The pituitary hormone that promotes egg development in ovaries and sperm development in testes is A) TSH. B) ACTH. C) FSH. D) LH. E) GH. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 16.6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 42) The pituitary hormone that promotes ovarian secretion of progesterone and testicular secretion of testosterone is A) TSH. B) ACTH. C) FSH. D) LH. E) GH. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 16.6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 43) The pituitary hormone that stimulates milk production by the mammary glands is A) TSH. B) ACTH. C) GH. D) FSH. E) PRL Answer: E Learning Outcome: 16.6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 44) The pituitary hormone that stimulates cell growth and replication by accelerating protein synthesis is A) ACTH. B) MSH. C) prolactin. D) insulin. E) growth hormone. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 16.6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

45) The pituitary hormone that causes the kidney to reduce water loss is A) TSH. B) FSH. C) OXT. D) ACTH. E) ADH. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 16.6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 46) Changes in blood osmotic pressure would most affect the secretion of A) ACTH. B) ADH. C) OXT. D) TSH. E) LH. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 16.6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 47) The primary function of ADH is to A) increase the amount of sodium lost at the kidneys. B) decrease the amount of water lost at the kidneys. C) decrease blood pressure. D) increase digestive absorption. E) delay urination. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 16.6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 48) TSH plays a key role in A) only the inhibition B) only the production C) only the release D) both inhibition and production E) both production and release Answer: E Learning Outcome: 16.6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

of thyroid hormones.

49) If the pars intermedia of the pituitary is destroyed, the pituitary would no longer be able to secrete which of the following hormones? A) TSH B) ACTH C) PRL D) ADH E) MSH Answer: E Learning Outcome: 16.6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 50) The hormone(s) that may be slowly administered by intravenous drip to accelerate labor and delivery is/are A) oxytocin. B) prolactin. C) luteinizing hormone. D) oxytocin and luteinizing hormone. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 16.6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 51) After brain surgery, a patient receiving postoperative care in an intensive care unit began to pass large volumes of very dilute urine. The ICU nurse administered a medicine that mimics which of the following hormones? A) aldosterone B) epinephrine C) renin D) ADH E) cortisol Answer: D Learning Outcome: 16.6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 52) The testes produce A) LH. B) progesterone. C) testosterone. D) estrogen. E) FSH. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 16.6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

53) The ovaries secrete _ when stimulated by FSH. A) estrogen B) progesterone C) testosterone D) oxytocin E) gonadotropins Answer: A Learning Outcome: 16.6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 54) PRL is to as ACTH is to A) prolactin; corticotropin B) oxytocin; mammotropin C) gonadotropin; mammotropin D) oxytocin; cortisol Answer: A Learning Outcome: 16.6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

55) The posterior lobe of the pituitary is also known as the A) hypothalamus. B) infundibulum. C) median eminence. D) adenohypophysis. E) neurohypophysis. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 16.6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 56) The anterior lobe of the pituitary is also known as the A) hypothalamus. B) infundibulum. C) median eminence. D) adenohypophysis. E) neurohypophysis. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 16.6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

57) Hormones that regulate the male and female reproductive organs are collectively called A) gonadotropins. B) releasing hormones. C) inhibiting hormones. D) eicosanoids. E) steroids. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 16.6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 58) Melanocyte-stimulating hormone (MSH) is only secreted by the human pars intermedia A) in old age. B) in very young children. C) in times of stress. D) in healthy adults. E) when a person is exposed to UV radiation. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 16.6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 59) Which of the following organs does not contain target cells for oxytocin? A) prostate B) ductus deferens C) mammary glands D) uterus E) heart Answer: E Learning Outcome: 16.6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 60) Liver cells respond to growth hormone by releasing hormones called A) gonadotropins. B) prostaglandins. C) hepatic hormones. D) somatomedins. E) glucocorticoids. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 16.6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

61) The two lobes of the pituitary gland together produce how many hormones? A) 3 B) 5 C) 7 D) 9 E) 16 Answer: D Learning Outcome: 16.7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

Figure 16-1 62) Identify the hormone labeled "4." A) thyroid-releasing hormone B) thyroid-stimulating hormone C) thyroxin D) parathyroid hormone E) calcitonin Answer: B Learning Outcome: 16.7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 16

63) Identify the hormone labeled "1." A) mineralocorticoid B) cortisol C) dopamine D) corticotropin (ACTH) E) aldosterone Answer: D Learning Outcome: 16.7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 64) Identify the hormone labeled "5." A) thyroid-releasing hormone B) thyroid-stimulating hormone C) thyroxin (thyroid hormones) D) thyrotropin E) parathyroid hormone (PTH) Answer: C Learning Outcome: 16.7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 65) Identify the hormone labeled "13." A) LH B) progesterone C) estrogen D) oxytocin E) testosterone Answer: D Learning Outcome: 16.7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 66) Which of the following is a known effect of thyroid hormone on peripheral tissues? A) increased oxygen consumption B) increased heart rate C) increased sensitivity to adrenergic stimulation D) increased body temperature E) All of the answers are correct. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 16.8 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

67) Thyroid hormone contains the element A) fluorine. B) chlorine. C) iron. D) iodine. E) zinc. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 16.8 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 68) All of the following are result of thyroid hormones except A) elevated rates of oxygen consumption and energy consumption. B) decreased heart rate and force of contraction. C) increased sensitivity to sympathetic stimulation. D) maintenance of normal sensitivity of respiratory centers. E) stimulation of red blood cell formation. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 16.8 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 69) The hormone that plays a pivotal role in setting the metabolic rate and thus impacting body temperature is A) somatotropin. B) thyroxine. C) calcitonin. D) parathyroid hormone. E) glucagon. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 16.8 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 70) Thyroxine and calcitonin are secreted by the A) kidneys. B) heart. C) thyroid gland. D) gonads. E) pituitary gland. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 16.8 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

71) The C cells of the thyroid gland produce A) thyroxine. B) TSH. C) calcitonin. D) PTH. E) triiodothyronine. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 16.8 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 72) Where does the chemical reaction between thyroglobulin and iodine take place? A) in lysosomes B) in rough endoplasmic reticulum C) in the lumen of the thyroid follicle D) in pinocytotic vesicles E) in apical microvilli Answer: C Learning Outcome: 16.8 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 73) A hormone that can lower blood levels of calcium ion is A) parathyroid hormone. B) thyroxine. C) calcitonin. D) glucagon. E) oxytocin. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 16.8 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 74) The two lobes of the thyroid gland are connected by the A) follicle. B) infundibulum. C) eminence. D) isthmus. E) gap junctions. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 16.8 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

75) Thyroid hormones are structural derivatives of the amino acid A) arginine. B) thymine. C) tyrosine. D) alanine. E) glutamine. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 16.8 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 76) Increased levels of the hormone blood. A) thymosin B) calcitonin C) PTH D) aldosterone E) cortisol Answer: C Learning Outcome: 16.9 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

will lead to increased levels of calcium ions in the

77) The hormone that does the opposite of calcitonin is A) insulin. B) glucagon. C) growth hormone. D) parathyroid hormone. E) thyroid hormone. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 16.9 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 78) The parathyroid glands produce a hormone that A) stimulates the formation of white blood cells. B) increases the level of calcium ions in the blood. C) increases the level of sodium ions in the blood. D) increases the level of potassium ions in the blood. E) increases the level of glucose in the blood. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 16.9 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

79) Parathyroid hormone does all of the following except A) stimulate osteoclast activity. B) inhibit osteoblast activity. C) build up bone. D) stimulate the formation and secretion of calcitriol at the kidneys. E) enhance the reabsorption of calcium at the kidneys. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 16.9 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 80) Before the discovery of these glands, thyroid surgery often led to a rapid drop in blood calcium levels, which triggered muscle contractions and cardiac arrhythmias. What glands are these and which hormone is lacking? A) thyroid glands; calcitonin B) parathyroid glands; calcitonin C) parathyroid glands; parathyroid hormone D) thyroid glands; levothyroxine E) parathyroid glands; levothyroxine Answer: C Learning Outcome: 16.9 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 81) The zona reticularis of the adrenal cortex produces A) androgens. B) glucocorticoids. C) mineralocorticoids. D) epinephrine. E) norepinephrine. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 16.10 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 82) The zona fasciculata of the adrenal cortex produces A) androgens. B) glucocorticoids. C) mineralocorticoids. D) epinephrine. E) norepinephrine. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 16.10 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

83) The zona glomerulosa of the adrenal cortex produces A) androgens. B) glucocorticoids. C) mineralocorticoids. D) epinephrine. E) norepinephrine. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 16.10 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 84) The adrenal medulla produces A) androgens. B) glucocorticoids. C) mineralocorticoids. D) epinephrine. E) corticosteroids. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 16.10 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 85) A hormone that promotes glucose formation in the liver is A) aldosterone. B) erythropoietin. C) thymosin. D) cortisol. E) parathormone. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 16.10 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 86) A hormone that helps to regulate the sodium ion content of the body is A) cortisol. B) parathormone. C) thymosin. D) somatotropin. E) aldosterone. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 16.10 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

87) Cortisol released from the zona fasciculata is converted by the liver to A) corticosterone. B) cortisone. C) corrinoid. D) calcitonin. E) coracoid. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 16.10 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 88) Cells of the adrenal cortex produce A) epinephrine. B) norepinephrine. C) aldosterone. D) ACTH. E) angiotensin. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 16.10 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 89) Reduction of fluid losses at the kidneys due to the retention of Na+ is the action of A) antidiuretic hormone. B) calcitonin. C) aldosterone. D) cortisone. E) oxytocin. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 16.10 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 90) The adrenal medulla produces the hormones A) epinephrine and androgen. B) epinephrine and norepinephrine. C) corticosterone and testosterone. D) androgens and progesterone. E) norcortisol and cortisol. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 16.10 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

91) Which of the following hormones increases and prolongs effects of the sympathetic nervous system? A) cortisol B) parathyroid hormone C) insulin D) growth hormone E) epinephrine Answer: E Learning Outcome: 16.10 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 92) Damage to cells of the zona fasciculata of the adrenal cortex would result in A) the loss of axillary and pubic hair. B) increased volume of urine formation. C) decreased levels of sodium ion in the blood. D) decreased ability to convert amino acids to glucose. E) increased water retention. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 16.10 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 93) A rise in cortisol would cause an increase in each of the following except A) the rate of glucose synthesis by the liver. B) the rate of glycogen formation by the liver. C) the level of fatty acids in the blood. D) fatty acid metabolism by muscle cells. E) ACTH levels. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 16.10 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 94) Shelly has a hormone-secreting tumor of the adrenal gland. The tumor is causing her to have a deep voice, grow extensive body hair, and stop menstruating. This tumor probably involves cells of the A) zona glomerulosa. B) zona fasciculata. C) zona reticularis. D) adrenal medulla. E) pars intermedia. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 16.10 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying

95) The gland sits along the superior border of the kidney. A) parathyroid B) thyroid C) salivary D) suprarenal E) pituitary Answer: D Learning Outcome: 16.10 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 96) The outer layer of the adrenal gland is the A) follicle. B) lobe. C) medulla. D) cortex. E) infundibulum. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 16.10 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 97) The inner portion of the adrenal gland is the A) follicle. B) lobe. C) medulla. D) cortex. E) infundibulum. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 16.10 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 98) The adrenal gland does not produce steroid hormones in A) the zona glomerulosa. B) the zona fasciculate. C) the zona reticularis. D) the cortex. E) the medulla. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 16.10 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

99) The pancreatic hormone that causes blood sugar levels to fall is A) cortisol. B) somatotropin. C) insulin. D) glucagon. E) aldosterone. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 16.11 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 100) When blood glucose levels fall, A) insulin is released. B) glucagon is released. C) peripheral cells take up more glucose. D) protein synthesis increases. E) glucagon is released and protein synthesis increases. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 16.11 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 101) The beta cells of the pancreatic islets produce A) insulin; lowers B) glucagon; lowers C) insulin; raises D) glucagon; raises E) insulin; has no effect on Answer: A Learning Outcome: 16.11 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

which

blood sugar.

102) The Pancreatic polypeptide cells (PP cells) of the pancreatic islets produce A) insulin. B) glucagon. C) pancreatic polypeptide. D) cortisol. E) GH-IH. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 16.11 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

103) The exocrine portion of the pancreas produces A) insulin. B) glucagon. C) somatotropin. D) digestive enzymes. E) bile. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 16.11 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 104) All of the following are true regarding the pancreatic islets (islets of Langerhans), except that they A) contain four types of endocrine cells. B) account for only a small percent of all pancreatic cells. C) produce enzymes that assist in digestion. D) release their products directly into the intestines. E) are vital for survival. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 16.11 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 105) The pancreatic hormone that causes blood sugar to enter its target cells is A) somatotropin. B) cortisol. C) insulin. D) glucagon. E) erythropoietin. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 16.11 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 106) All of the following are targets for insulin except A) skeletal muscle. B) adipocytes. C) liver cells. D) cardiac and smooth muscle. E) blood cells. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 16.11 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

107) Alpha cells are to _ as beta cells are to A) glucagon; insulin B) somatostatin; insulin C) insulin; glucagon D) glucagon; somatostatin E) pancreatic polypeptide; insulin Answer: A Learning Outcome: 16.11 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

108) When blood glucose levels rise, A) insulin is released. B) glucagon is released. C) peripheral cells take up less glucose. D) protein synthesis decreases. E) peripheral cells break down glycogen. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 16.11 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 109) Each of the following is true of the pineal gland except that it A) is a component of the epithalamus. B) is a component of the hypothalamus. C) secretes melatonin. D) contains pinealocytes. E) responds to light and darkness. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 16.12 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 110) Pinealocytes produce A) MSH. B) FSH. C) LH. D) melanin. E) melatonin. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 16.12 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

111) Melatonin is produced by the A) thymus. B) pineal gland. C) kidneys. D) skin. E) heart. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 16.12 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 112) Which of these statements about melatonin is false? A) Exposure to light inhibits production. B) Exposure to light stimulates production. C) It inhibits releases of GnRH. D) It is produced by pinealocytes. E) It is made from serotonin. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 16.12 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 113) Inability of the pancreas to produce insulin results in A) acromegaly. B) goiter. C) diabetes mellitus. D) diabetes insipidus. E) Addison's disease. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 16.13 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 114) The term used to describe excess production of urine is A) polyuria. B) polydipsia. C) hematuria. D) glycosuria. E) None of the answers is correct. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 16.13 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

115) Which of the following might occur in an overdose of insulin? A) glycosuria B) ketoacidosis C) high blood glucose D) low blood glucose E) polyuria Answer: D Learning Outcome: 16.13 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 116) A person with untreated diabetes mellitus may exhibit all of the following symptoms except A) hyperglycemia. B) excessive thirst. C) glucosuria. D) polyuria. E) hypoglycemia. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 16.13 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 117) If a diabetic patient received too much insulin, the low blood sugar could be corrected by injecting A) glucagon. B) GHIH. C) thyroid hormone. D) aldosterone. E) antidiuretic hormone. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 16.13 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 118) When hormones interact they can produce any of the following kinds of effects except A) antagonistic. B) synergistic. C) permissive. D) integrative. E) apoptosis. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 16.14 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

119) Two hormones that have opposing effects are called A) agonists. B) antagonists. C) synergists. D) additive. E) permissive. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 16.14 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 120) Two hormones that have additive effects are called A) agonists. B) antagonists. C) synergists. D) co-factors. E) permissive. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 16.14 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 121) When one hormone is needed for a second hormone to produce an effect, it is called A) agonistic. B) antagonistic. C) synergistic. D) additive. E) permissive. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 16.14 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 122) Hormones that produce different but complementary results are called A) agonistic. B) antagonistic. C) integrative. D) additive. E) permissive. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 16.14 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

123) Which of the following hormones increases production of red blood cells? A) cortisol B) erythropoietin C) thymosin D) aldosterone E) atrial natriuretic peptide Answer: B Learning Outcome: 16.15 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 124) The enzyme renin is responsible for the activation of A) angiotensin I. B) cortisol. C) erythropoietin. D) atrial natriuretic peptide. E) adrenaline. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 16.15 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 125) The endocrine system works most closely with the homeostasis. A) cardiovascular B) lymphatic C) muscular D) reproductive E) skeletal Answer: A Learning Outcome: 16.15 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 126) In general, the effects of natriuretic peptides are system. A) synergistic B) antagonistic C) permissive D) additive E) integrative Answer: B Learning Outcome: 16.15 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

system to maintain

to those of the renin-angiotensin

127) Activation of the renin-angiotensin system would result in all of the following except A) elevated blood pressure. B) increased retention of sodium ions at the kidney. C) increased water retention. D) increased urine production. E) increased blood volume. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 16.15 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 128) Decreased blood flow to the kidneys would not lead to which of the following? A) increased blood levels of renin B) elevated blood levels of angiotensin C) increased blood levels of erythropoietin D) increased release of ADH E) increased release of natriuretic peptide Answer: E Learning Outcome: 16.15 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 129) Proper growth does not require which of the following hormones? A) thyroid hormone B) calcitriol C) insulin D) estrogen E) MSH Answer: E Learning Outcome: 16.16 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 130) The hormone that dominates during the alarm phase of the general adaptation syndrome (GAS) is A) testosterone. B) aldosterone. C) cortisol. D) thyroid hormone. E) epinephrine. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 16.17 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

131) During the alarm phase of the general adaptation syndrome (GAS), there is A) decreased blood flow to skeletal muscles and skin. B) decreased mental alertness. C) mobilization of energy reserves. D) increased urine release. E) decreased rate of respiration. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 16.17 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 132) If stress lasts longer than a few hours, an individual will enter the general adaptation syndrome (GAS). A) alarm B) resistance C) exhaustion D) extension E) prolonged Answer: B Learning Outcome: 16.17 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

phase of the

133) Hormones that dominate during the resistance phase of the general adaptation syndrome (GAS) are the A) mineralocorticoids. B) androgens. C) glucocorticoids. D) catecholamines. E) gonadotropins. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 16.17 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 134) During the resistance phase of the general adaptation syndrome (GAS), A) lipid reserves are mobilized. B) proteins are conserved. C) blood glucose levels fall drastically. D) levels of growth hormone decrease. E) levels of insulin decrease. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 16.17 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

135) The exhaustion phase of the general adaptation syndrome (GAS) is characterized by all of the following except A) decreased resistance to disease and infection. B) increased ability to produce glucose from glycogen. C) increased pumping effectiveness of the heart. D) inability to maintain adequate fluid and electrolyte balance. E) increase sweat gland secretions. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 16.17 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 136) If a patient is administered a powerful glucocorticoid (such as prednisone) to suppress the immune system, what unintended effects might this have on blood chemistry? A) increase of insulin B) decrease of insulin C) increase of blood glucose D) decrease of blood glucose E) both an increase of insulin and an increase of blood glucose Answer: E Learning Outcome: 16.17 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 137) The consistent pattern of hormonal and physiological responses to stresses of different kinds called general adaptation syndrome has all the following phases except A) exhaustion. B) resistance. C) restorative. D) alarm. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 16.17 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

Figure 16-1 138) An excess of which hormone can lead to acromegaly? A) 3 B) 4 C) 6 D) 7 E) 14 Answer: C Learning Outcome: 16.18 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 139) Excess secretion of growth hormone during early development will cause A) dwarfism. B) rickets. C) gigantism. D) acromegaly. E) diabetes insipidus. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 16.18 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 36

140) Too little secretion of cortisol causes A) goiter. B) diabetes mellitus. C) diabetes insipidus. D) Addison's disease. E) Cushing's disease. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 16.18 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 141) The condition known as goiter can result from too A) much insulin. B) little TSH. C) much ACTH. D) little iodine in the diet. E) little glucagon. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 16.18 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 142) Inadequate iodine in the diet would not lead to A) hypothyroidism. B) cretinism. C) goiter. D) high blood levels of TSH. E) Grave's disease. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 16.18 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 143) Cushing's disease results from an excess of A) growth hormone. B) parathyroid hormone. C) ADH. D) glucocorticoids. E) epinephrine. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 16.18 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

144) Which of the following hormones may lead to acromegaly if hypersecreted after closure of the epiphyseal plates? A) cortisol B) parathyroid hormone C) insulin D) growth hormone E) epinephrine Answer: D Learning Outcome: 16.18 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 145) What is the common goal of the nervous and endocrine systems? (Module 16.1A) A) To send electrical impulses throughout the body. B) To send chemical messengers though the bloodstream to the cells of the body. C) To coordinate and regulate the activities of other cells, tissues, organs, and organ systems. D) To increase cellular reactions in all the cells, tissues, organs, and organ systems of the body. E) To transport gases, regulate pH, and control fluid volumes in the body. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 16.1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 146) Describe the structural classification of hormones. (Module 16.2A) A) The structural classification of hormones divides them into hormones produced by the hypothalamus, anterior pituitary, posterior pituitary, or target organs. B) The structural classification of hormones divides them into amino acid derivatives, peptide hormones (built from amino acids as prohormones), and lipid derivatives (built from fatty acids or cholesterol). C) The structural classification of hormones divides them into systemic or local acting hormones. D) The structural classification of hormones divides them into negative feedback and positive feedback hormones. E) The structural classification of hormones divides them into catabolic or anabolic hormones. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 16.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

147) Define endocrine system. (Module 16.3A) A) The endocrine system includes organs whose primary role is the production of hormones or paracrines. B) The endocrine system includes organs whose primary role is the initiation and propagation of electrical impulses. C) The endocrine system includes organs whose primary role is the cleaning of blood. D) The endocrine system includes organs whose primary role is the digestion and absorption of nutrients. E) The endocrine system includes organs whose primary role is the transport of gases, nutrients, and wastes around the body. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 16.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 148) Define hormone receptor. (Module 16.4A) A) A hormone receptor is a protein located outside the cell that binds with a specific hormone. B) A hormone receptor is a protein located within the cell that binds with a specific hormone. C) A hormone receptor is a protein located outside the cell that causes depolarization of the cell upon specific hormone binding. D) A hormone receptor is a protein located outside or inside the cell that binds with a specific hormone. E) A hormone receptor is protein that causes the release of neurotransmitters upon specific hormone binding. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 16.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 149) Which type of hormone diffuses across the plasma membrane and binds to receptors in the cytoplasm? (Module 16.4C) A) catecholamines B) peptide hormones C) most eicosanoids D) thyroid hormones E) steroid hormones Answer: E Learning Outcome: 16.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

150) Define regulatory hormone. (Module 16.5A) A) A regulatory hormone is a hormone secreted by the hypothalamus that controls endocrine cells in the anterior lobe of the pituitary gland. B) A regulatory hormone is a hormone secreted by the hypothalamus that controls endocrine tissues throughout the body. C) A regulatory hormone is a hormone secreted by the anterior lobe of the pituitary gland that controls endocrine tissues throughout the body. D) A regulatory hormone is a hormone secreted by the anterior lobe of the pituitary gland that controls endocrine tissues in the hypothalamus. E) A regulatory hormone is a hormone secreted by the posterior lobe of the pituitary gland that controls endocrine tissues in the anterior lobe of the pituitary gland. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 16.5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 151) Name the two lobes of the pituitary gland. (Module 16.6A) A) superior lobe and inferior lobe B) medial lobe and lateral lobe C) greater lobe and lesser lobe D) anterior lobe and posterior lobe E) caudate lobe and quadrate lobe Answer: D Learning Outcome: 16.6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 152) In a dehydrated person, how would the amount of ADH released by the posterior lobe of the pituitary change? (Module 16.6C) A) It would increase. B) It would decrease. C) It would stay the same. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 16.6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 153) The release of which pituitary hormone would lead to an increased level of somatomedins in the blood? (Module 16.7B) A) thyroid stimulating hormone B) prolactin C) growth hormone D) oxytocin E) melanocyte stimulating hormone Answer: C Learning Outcome: 16.7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

154) What effects would increased circulating levels of glucocorticoids have on the pituitary secretion of ACTH? (Module 16.7C) A) They would inhibit the release of CRH which would reduce the secretion of ACTH. B) They would inhibit the release of CRH which would stimulate the secretion of ACTH. C) They would stimulate the release of CRH which would reduce the secretion of ACTH. D) They would stimulate the release of CRH which would stimulate the secretion of ACTH. E) They would inhibit the release of cortisol which would stimulate the secretion of ACTH. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 16.7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 155) What thyroid hormone aids in calcium regulation? (Module 16.8A) A) thyroxine B) triiodothyronine C) iodine D) thyroid-binding globulins E) calcitonin Answer: E Learning Outcome: 16.8 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 156) Name the hormones of the thyroid gland. (Module 16.8B) A) calcitonin and parathyroid hormone B) calcitonin and calcitriol C) thyroglobulin and calcitriol D) thyroxine (T4), triiodothyronine (T3), and calcitonin E) thyroglobulin and iodine Answer: D Learning Outcome: 16.8 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 157) Why do signs and symptoms of decreased thyroxine concentration not appear until about a week after a thyroidectomy (surgical removal of the thyroid gland)? (Module 16.8C) A) About a week's worth of thyroxine is stored in the liver. B) About a week's worth of thyroxine is stored in the anterior pituitary gland. C) Most of the thyroxine is bound to proteins in the bloodstream and the hormones are released gradually. D) The parathyroid glands can take over function of the thyroid gland for a short period of time. E) The anterior pituitary gland can start producing thyroxine. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 16.8 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying

158) Describe the locations of the parathyroid glands. (Module 16.9A) A) They are located superior to each kidney. B) They are embedded in the posterior surfaces of the lateral lobes of the thyroid gland. C) They are embedded in the anterior surfaces of the isthmus of the thyroid gland. D) They are located superior to the thyroid gland on the trachea. E) They are located inferior to the greater curve of the stomach. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 16.9 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 159) Decreased blood calcium level would result in increased secretion of which hormone? (Module 16.9C) A) parathyroid hormone B) calcitonin C) growth hormone D) thyroid stimulating hormone E) cortisol Answer: A Learning Outcome: 16.9 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 160) Name the regions and zones of an adrenal gland from superficial to deep. (Module 16.10A) A) The regions are adrenal capsule, adrenal medulla, and adrenal cortex. The zones are zona glomerulosa, zona reticularis, zona fasciculata. B) The regions are adrenal capsule, adrenal cortex, and adrenal medulla. The zones are zona glomerulosa, zona fasciculata, zona reticularis. C) The regions are adrenal capsule, adrenal medulla, and adrenal cortex. The zones are zona fasciculata, zona reticularis, zona glomerulosa. D) The regions are adrenal capsule, adrenal cortex, and adrenal medulla. The zones are zona fasciculata, zona reticularis, zona glomerulosa. E) The regions are adrenal medulla, adrenal cortex, and adrenal capsule. The zones are zona reticularis, zona fasciculata, zona glomerulosa. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 16.10 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 161) What effect would increased cortisol levels have on blood glucose level? (Module 16.10C) A) Increased cortisol levels would increase blood glucose levels. B) Increased cortisol levels would decrease blood glucose levels. C) Increased cortisol levels would not affect blood glucose levels. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 16.10 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

162) Identify the types of cells in the pancreatic islets and the hormones produced by each. (Module 16.11A) A) Alpha cells produce insulin, beta cells produce glucagon, delta cells produce a peptide hormone like GH-IH, and pancreatic polypeptide cells produce pancreatic polypeptide hormone. B) Alpha cells produce a peptide hormone like GH-IH, beta cells produce glucagon, delta cells produce insulin, and pancreatic polypeptide cells produce pancreatic polypeptide hormone. C) Alpha cells produce insulin, beta cells produce a peptide hormone like GH-IH, delta cells produce glucagon, and pancreatic polypeptide cells produce pancreatic polypeptide hormone. D) Alpha cells produce glucagon, beta cells produce insulin, delta cells produce a peptide hormone like GH-IH, and pancreatic polypeptide cells produce pancreatic polypeptide hormone. E) Alpha cells produce glucagon, beta cells produce a peptide hormone like GH-IH, delta cells produce insulin, and pancreatic polypeptide cells produce pancreatic polypeptide hormone. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 16.11 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 163) The secretion of which hormone lowers blood glucose concentration? (Module 16.11B) A) peptide hormone like GH-IH B) pancreatic polypeptide hormone C) insulin D) glucagon E) cortisol Answer: C Learning Outcome: 16.11 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 164) What is the effect of increased glucagon levels on the amount of glycogen stored in the liver? (Module 16.11C) A) Increased glucagon will increase the amount of glycogen stored in the liver. B) Increased glucagon will decrease the amount of glycogen stored in the liver. C) Increased glucagon will not change the amount of glycogen stored in the liver. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 16.11 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 165) Identify the hormone-secreting cells of the pineal gland. (Module 16.12A) A) melanocytes B) islets of Langerhans C) pineal islets D) pinealocytes E) alpha cells Answer: D Learning Outcome: 16.12 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

166) Increased amounts of light would inhibit the production of which hormone? (Module 16.12B) A) oxytocin B) ADH C) growth hormone D) insulin E) melatonin Answer: E Learning Outcome: 16.12 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 167) List three functions suggested for melatonin in humans. (Module 16.12C) A) regulate blood glucose, regulate calcium ion concentration, regulate blood volume B) regulate blood glucose, regulate lipid storage, increase melanocyte production C) regulate blood pressure, regulate blood volume, regulate blood pH D) maintain circadian rhythms, control the timing of sexual maturation, protect against damage by free radicals E) control serotonin production, regulate the "fight or flight" response, control metabolism Answer: D Learning Outcome: 16.12 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 168) Define diabetes mellitus. (Module 16.13A) A) Diabetes mellitus is an endocrine disorder characterized by elevated blood glucose levels. B) Diabetes mellitus is an endocrine disorder characterized by reduced blood glucose levels. C) Diabetes mellitus is an endocrine disorder characterized by excessive thirst and extremely large volumes of dilute urine. D) Diabetes mellitus is an endocrine disorder characterized by fluid retention and excretion of small volumes of concentrated urine. E) Diabetes mellitus is an endocrine disorder characterized by elevated blood calcium levels. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 16.13 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

169) Describe the two types of diabetes mellitus. (Module 16.13B) A) The two types of diabetes mellitus are type 1, characterized by inadequate ADH production; and type 2, characterized by inadequate glucagon production. B) The two types of diabetes mellitus are type 1, characterized by inadequate glucagon production; and type 2, characterized by inadequate ADH production. C) The two types of diabetes mellitus are type 1, characterized by inadequate insulin production; and type 2, characterized by insulin resistance. D) The two types of diabetes mellitus are type 1, characterized by insulin resistance; and type 2, characterized by inadequate insulin production. E) The two types of diabetes mellitus are type 1, characterized by inadequate insulin production; and type 2, characterized by inadequate glucagon production. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 16.13 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 170) Define synergistic effect. (Module 16.14A) A) A synergistic effect is when two hormones exhibit opposing actions. B) A synergistic effect is when one hormone is needed for a second hormone to produce its effect. C) A synergistic effect is when two hormones produce different but complementary effects in specific tissues or organs. D) A synergistic effect is when two hormones have an effect where the net result is greater than the sum of the hormones' individual effects. E) A synergistic effect is when one hormone is available it will block the effects of a second hormone. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 16.14 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 171) Which of the four hormonal effects are involved in a negative feedback response? (Module 16.14B) A) antagonistic effects B) additive effects C) permissive effects D) integrative effects Answer: A Learning Outcome: 16.14 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

172) What kind of effect do hormones have if they produce different but complementary effects? (Module 16.14C) A) antagonistic effects B) additive effects C) permissive effects D) integrative effects Answer: D Learning Outcome: 16.14 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 173) Name the hormones secreted by the heart. (Module 16.15A) A) erythropoietin B) natriuretic peptides C) antidiuretic hormone D) thrombopoietin E) thymosin Answer: B Learning Outcome: 16.15 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 174) Name the hormone and enzyme secreted by the kidneys. (Module 16.15B) A) The kidneys secrete the hormone thrombopoietin and the enzyme aldosterone. B) The kidneys secrete the hormone aldosterone and the enzyme renin. C) The kidneys secrete the hormone antidiuretic hormone and the enzyme renin. D) The kidneys secrete the hormone natriuretic peptide and the enzyme aldosterone. E) The kidneys secrete the hormone erythropoietin and the enzyme renin. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 16.15 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 175) List the three phases of the stress response. (Module 16.17A) A) alarm phase, resistance phase, and exhaustion phase B) awareness phase, accommodation phase, and renewal phase C) fight phase, adjustment phase, and complications phase D) energy phase, response phase, and results phase E) alert phase, alterations phase, and homeostasis phase Answer: A Learning Outcome: 16.17 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

176) During which phase of the general adaptation syndrome is there a collapse of vital systems? (Module 16.17C) A) alarm phase B) resistance phase C) exhaustion phase D) complications phase E) adjustment phase Answer: C Learning Outcome: 16.17 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 177) Define the prefixes hyper- and hypo- in the context of endocrine disorders. (Module 16.18A) A) Hyper refers to inadequate hormone production. Hypo refers to excessive hormone production. B) Hyper refers to excessive hormone production. Hypo refers to inadequate hormone production. C) Hyper refers to fast hormone effects. Hypo refers to slow hormone effects. D) Hyper refers to slow hormone effects. Hypo refers to fast hormone effects. E) Hyper refers to underactivity of glands. Hypo refers to over activity of glands. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 16.18 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 178) What condition is characterized by increased body weight due to Na+ and water retention and a low blood K+ concentration? (Module 16.18C) A) diabetes insipidus B) diabetes mellitus C) Cushing's disease D) Grave's disease E) Aldosteronism Answer: E Learning Outcome: 16.18 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

Essay Questions 179) Communication between cells is key to organism-level regulation of the internal environment to maintain health, that is, nearly constant internal conditions (homeostasis). Outline and compare the intercellular communication pathways that function to provide homeostasis. Answer: Intercellular communication occurs largely through the nervous system and the endocrine system. In general, the nervous system performs short-term "crisis management," whereas the endocrine system regulates longer-term, ongoing metabolic processes. Ideally, the nervous system communicates by an impulse over an axon to a neuron or some other effector. This is a very fast and spatially specific process. In contrast, the endocrine system relies on blindly sending out chemical messages to the whole body through the blood and interstitial fluid. This process is slow, and relies on the response of a different target cell. Learning Outcome: 16.1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Analyzing 180) When patients who are receiving glucocorticoid therapy (for example, with prednisone) need to stop taking it, the doctor will prescribe a series of doses of tapering size to gradually lower the dose rather than suddenly stop it. Explain this dosage strategy in terms of the negative feedback control of cortisol secretion. Answer: Glucocorticoids inhibit the production of corticotrophin-releasing hormone by the hypothalamus and ACTH by the anterior pituitary. High doses of prednisone will mean that levels of ACTH in the patient have been quite low, and so the zona fasciculata of the adrenal cortex will have not been stimulated for a while and can't do much synthesis. By slowly reducing the prednisone, it gives the patient's own ability to make cortisol a chance to recover and thus prevents collapse of blood pressure and other serious effects of suddenly withholding the corticosteroid. Learning Outcome: 16.10 Bloom's Taxonomy: Analyzing 181) What does it mean to say that the pancreas is both an endocrine and an exocrine organ? Answer: The pancreas contains both exocrine and endocrine cells. Cells of the endocrine pancreas form clusters called pancreatic islets (islets of Langerhans) and the exocrine cells cluster in structures called pancreatic acini. The endocrine cells secrete at their basal surfaces into the interstitial space, exactly opposite to the exocrine gland cells, which secrete fluid and digestive enzymes out of their apical surfaces into tiny ducts. The pancreatic islets secrete the hormones glucagon, insulin, and pancreatic polypeptide, which diffuse into nearby capillaries and then reach cells throughout the body via the circulation. The pancreatic exocrine secretions enter the intestine during digestion and play a key role in both protecting the epithelium and dissolving food particles into their constituent building blocks. Learning Outcome: 16.11 Bloom's Taxonomy: Analyzing

182) Describe the four patterns of hormonal interaction. Answer: Hormones can interact in one of four ways: antagonistic interactions oppose one another; additive interactions enhance the effects of each hormone; permissive effects occur when one hormone is required for the other to function; and integrative effects occur when the action of a hormone differs with differing target organs. Learning Outcome: 16.14 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 183) Describe the three phases of the general adaptation syndrome (GAS) that constitute the body's response to stress. Which endocrine secretions play dominant roles in the alarm and resistance phases? Answer: The three phases are alarm, resistance, and exhaustion. During the alarm phase, energy reserves are mobilized and the body prepares itself with "fight or flight" responses. During the resistance phase, glucocorticoids are released to (1) mobilize lipid and protein reserves, (2) conserve glucose for neural tissue, (3) elevate and stabilize blood glucose concentrations, (4) conserve salts and water, and (5) lose K+ and H+. During the exhaustion phase, homeostatic regulation breaks down. Epinephrine plays a dominant role in the alarm phase and glucocorticoids are dominant in the resistance phase. Learning Outcome: 16.17 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 184) Jane lives in Appalachia and suffers from hypothyroidism. Her thyroid gland is enlarged, her body temperature is low, and her hair and skin look brittle and dry. Blood tests show very low levels of circulating iodine, T3, and T4, but high levels of TSH. What is your diagnosis? What treatment would you recommend? Answer: Jane appears to suffer from nutritional goiter due to insufficient iodine intake. This explains the low thyroid levels, the enlarged thyroid, and the high level of TSH. The recommended treatment would be iodized salt or iodide supplements. Learning Outcome: 16.18 Bloom's Taxonomy: Analyzing 185) Name the organs of the endocrine system. (Module 16.3B) Answer: Organs of the endocrine system are the hypothalamus, pituitary gland, thyroid gland, adrenal glands, pancreas, pineal gland, and parathyroid glands. Organs of other systems that have secondary endocrine functions are the heart, thymus, digestive tract, kidneys, and gonads. Learning Outcome: 16.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 186) Differentiate between a first messenger and a second messenger. (Module 16.4B) Answer: A first messenger is a hormone whose binding to a protein receptor in the plasma membrane gives rise to a second messenger in the cytoplasm. A second messenger changes the rate of various metabolic reactions by acting as an enzyme activator, and enzyme inhibitor, or a cofactor. Learning Outcome: 16.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

187) Identify the three mechanisms by which the hypothalamus integrates neural and endocrine function. (Module 16.5B) Answer: The three mechanisms of hypothalamic integration of neural and endocrine function are (1) secretion of antidiuretic hormone (ADH) and oxytocin (OXT), (2) secretion of regulatory hormones that control activity of the anterior lobe of the pituitary gland, and (3) neural (sympathetic) control over the endocrine cells of the adrenal medullae. Learning Outcome: 16.5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 188) Name and describe the characteristics and functions of the blood vessels that link the hypothalamus with the anterior lobe of the pituitary gland. (Module 16.5C) Answer: The blood vessels of the hypophyseal portal system link the hypothalamus and the anterior lobe of the pituitary gland. Unusually permeable fenestrated capillary beds in each structure are connected by portal vessels. This arrangement ensures that hypothalamic regulatory hormones reach the "downstream" endocrine cells of the anterior lobe directly, before mixing with, and being diluted by, the general circulation. Learning Outcome: 16.5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 189) Identify the nine pituitary hormones and their target tissues. (Module 16.6B) Answer: The hormones produced and released by the anterior lobe of the pituitary gland are (1) thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH), which targets the thyroid gland; (2) adrenocorticotrophic hormone (ACTH), which targets the adrenal cortex; (3) follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) and (4) luteinizing hormone (LH), which target the testes in males and the ovaries in females; (5) growth hormone (GH), which targets liver cells (which respond by synthesizing somatomedins); (6) prolactin (PRL), which targets mammary glands in females; and (7) melanocyte-stimulating hormone (MSH), which targets melanocytes in the skin. Hormones released by the posterior lobe of the pituitary gland are (8) oxytocin (OXT), which targets the uterus and mammary glands; and (9) antidiuretic hormone (ADH), which targets the kidneys. Learning Outcome: 16.6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 190) List the hypothalamic releasing hormones. (Module 16.7A) Answer: The hypothalamic releasing hormones are corticotropin-releasing hormone (CRH), thyrotropin-releasing hormone (TRH), growth hormone-releasing hormone (GH-RH), prolactinreleasing hormone (PRH), and gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH). Learning Outcome: 16.7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 191) Explain how parathyroid hormone increases blood calcium level. (Module 16.9B) Answer: Parathyroid hormone (PTH) increases blood calcium levels by increasing calcium release from bones, increasing reabsorption of calcium from the blood by the kidneys, and increasing the production of calcitriol by the kidneys, which increases absorption of calcium from the digestive tract. Learning Outcome: 16.9 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 50

192) Cite the hormones secreted by each region of an adrenal gland. (Module 16.10B) Answer: The two hormone-secreting regions of an adrenal gland are the adrenal cortex and adrenal medulla. The cortex secretes mineralocorticoids, primarily aldosterone; glucocorticoids, mainly cortisol and corticosterone; and androgens. The medulla secretes epinephrine and norepinephrine. Learning Outcome: 16.10 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 193) Identify some clinical problems associated with diabetes mellitus. (Module 16.13C) Answer: Some clinical problems associated with diabetes mellitus are diabetic retinopathy, blockages in heart circulation and increased risk for heart attack, diabetic nephropathy, diabetic neuropathy, and decreased blood flow to the distal limbs. Learning Outcome: 16.13 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 194) Identify several hormones necessary for normal growth and development. (Module 16.16A) Answer: Hormones necessary for normal growth and development include GH, thyroid hormones, insulin, PTH, calcitriol, and reproductive hormones. Learning Outcome: 16.16 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 195) Describe the resistance phase. (Module 16.17B) Answer: The resistance phase is characterized by long-term metabolic adjustments, including mobilization of remaining energy reserves (lipids from adipose tissue and amino acids from skeletal muscle), conservation of glucose, elevation of blood glucose concentration, and conservation of salts and water coupled with the loss of K+ and H+. Learning Outcome: 16.17 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 196) Identify three common causes of hormone hyposecretion. (Module 16.18B) Answer: Three common causes of hormone hyposecretion are metabolic factors, physical damage, and congenital disorders. Learning Outcome: 16.18 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

Visual Anatomy and Physiology, 3e (Martini) Chapter 17 Blood Multiple Choice Questions 1) Which of the following is not a function of blood? A) transport of nutrients and wastes B) transport of body heat C) transport of gases D) defense against toxins and pathogens E) produce hormones Answer: E Learning Outcome: 17.1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 2) All of the following are components of the cardiovascular system except A) blood. B) arteries. C) heart. D) lymph vessels. E) capillaries. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 17.1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 3) Each of the following is a characteristic of whole blood except A) the ability to absorb heat from active skeletal muscles. B) viscosity about the same as water. C) the ability to neutralize acids. D) a built-in system for clotting. E) deep red color. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 17.1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 4) Each of the following is a way that blood transports materials around the body except A) nutrients from the digestive tract to the body. B) hormones from endocrine glands to target cells. C) carbon dioxide from the lungs to the tissues. D) wastes from the cells to the kidneys. E) stored nutrients from the liver to the tissues. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 17.1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

5) Which of the following statements about blood is false? A) It contains buffers that control pH. B) Normal pH is 6.8 to 7.0. C) It is more viscous than water. D) It is about 55 percent plasma. E) None of the statements are false; all are true. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 17.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 6) Formed elements make up about what percentage of blood? A) 55 percent B) 78 percent C) 60 percent D) 45 percent E) 20 percent Answer: D Learning Outcome: 17.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 7) The combination of plasma and formed elements is called A) serum. B) lymph. C) whole blood. D) extracellular fluid. E) packed blood. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 17.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 8) The percent fraction of formed elements relative to whole blood is the A) viscosity. B) specific gravity. C) packed volume. D) hematocrit. E) differential cell count. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 17.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 9) A typical adult hematocrit is A) higher in males than females. B) higher in females than males. C) the same in both men and women. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 17.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 2

10) Platelets are A) red cells that lack a nucleus. B) blue cells that have a nucleus. C) large cells with a prominent, concave nucleus. D) tiny cells with a polynucleus. E) cytoplasmic fragments of large cells. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 17.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 11) The total volume of blood in the body of an adult male is approximately A) 10 B) 6 to 8 C) 5 to 6 D) 4 E) 3 Answer: C Learning Outcome: 17.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

liters.

12) Which organ secretes most of the plasma proteins? A) pancreas B) heart C) kidney D) brain E) liver Answer: E Learning Outcome: 17.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 13) The chief differences between plasma and interstitial fluid involves the concentration of A) water. B) electrolytes. C) nitrogen wastes. D) proteins. E) glucose. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 17.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

14) The most abundant proteins in blood plasma are A) globulins. B) transport proteins. C) albumins. D) lipoproteins. E) fibrinogens. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 17.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 15) Plasma proteins essential in body defense are the A) albumins. B) fibrinogens. C) immunoglobulins. D) platelets. E) transport proteins. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 17.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 16) A plasma protein essential for blood coagulation is A) albumin alpha. B) fibrinogen. C) immunoglobulin A. D) platelets. E) transport proteins. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 17.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 17) The most abundant component of plasma is A) ions. B) proteins. C) water. D) gases. E) nutrients. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 17.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

18) A hematocrit provides information on A) blood type. B) clotting factors. C) formed elements abundance. D) plasma composition. E) sedimentation rate. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 17.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 19) Which of the following is not a component of plasma? A) electrolytes B) platelets C) fibrinogen D) albumin E) water Answer: B Learning Outcome: 17.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 20) Which of these is not one of the formed elements of blood? A) RBCs B) platelets C) antibodies D) lymphocytes E) basophils Answer: C Learning Outcome: 17.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 21) Plasma composes about percent of the plasma volume. A) 55; 92 B) 92; 7 C) 92; 55 D) 45; 55 E) 50; 50 Answer: A Learning Outcome: 17.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

percent of whole blood, and water composes

22) Which plasma protein is a major contributor to the osmotic pressure of plasma? A) fibrinogen B) steroid-binding protein C) hormone-binding protein D) albumin E) gamma globulin Answer: D Learning Outcome: 17.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 23) Most of the protein factors that are required for clotting are synthesized by A) platelets. B) megakaryocytes. C) the liver. D) the kidneys. E) the spleen. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 17.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 24) Plasma is closest in ionic composition to A) urine. B) isotonic saline solution. C) sterile water. D) CSF. E) interstitial fluid. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 17.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 25) You are caring for a female adult patient who weighs 40 kg (90 lbs). Assuming no loss of blood, what would her approximate blood volume be? A) 6.6 L B) 6.0 L C) 5.6 L D) 1.8 L E) 3.8 L Answer: E Learning Outcome: 17.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying

26) When blood is fractionated, its components are A) combined B) lysed C) separated D) marked E) returned to the body Answer: C Learning Outcome: 17.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

for the purpose of analysis.

27) The normal pH of blood is A) slightly alkaline. B) neutral. C) slightly acidic. D) extremely alkaline. E) extremely acidic. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 17.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 28) Red blood cell production is regulated by the hormone in the . A) thymosin; thymus B) angiotensin; lungs C) erythropoietin; kidneys D) erythropoietin; liver E) renin; kidneys Answer: C Learning Outcome: 17.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

which is mostly produced

29) The level of erythropoietin in the blood would rise due to all of the following except A) during anemia. B) at high altitudes. C) as a consequence of hemorrhage. D) during periods of fasting. E) when blood flow to the kidneys is disrupted. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 17.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

30) When a person who lives at sea level vacations in the Rocky Mountains, you would expect A) a drop in oxygen levels. B) the release of erythropoietin. C) a rise in hematocrit. D) All of the answers are correct. E) None of the answers is correct. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 17.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 31) Which of the following descriptions best matches the term colony stimulating factor? A) releases histamine B) antibodies are one type C) hormone that regulates blood cell formation D) kills bacteria using cytotoxic chemicals E) often elevated in allergic individuals Answer: C Learning Outcome: 17.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 32) The process of white blood cell production and maturation goes on in all of the following except A) the spleen. B) the kidney. C) the lymph nodes. D) red bone marrow. E) the thymus. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 17.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 33) Granulocytes form in A) the intestines. B) the spleen. C) the thymus. D) red bone marrow. E) yellow bone marrow. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 17.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

34) In adults, the only site of red blood cell production and the primary site of white blood cell formation is A) the liver. B) the spleen. C) the thymus. D) red bone marrow. E) yellow bone marrow. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 17.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 35) Erythropoiesis is stimulated when A) oxygen levels in the blood increase. B) oxygen levels in the blood decrease. C) blood flow to the kidney declines. D) both oxygen levels in the blood increase and blood flow to the kidney declines. E) both oxygen levels in the blood decrease and blood flow to the kidney declines. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 17.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 36) Platelets are pinched off from giant multinucleated cells in the bone marrow called A) erythroblasts. B) normoblasts. C) megakaryocytes. D) myeloblasts. E) lymphoblasts. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 17.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 37) Red cell production is stimulated by a kidney-derived hormone called A) erythropoietin (EPO). B) colony-stimulating factor. C) renin D) estrogen. E) fibrin. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 17.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

38) Hormones called are involved in regulation of white blood cell populations. A) erythropoietin (EPO) B) colony-stimulating factor C) testosterone D) estrogen E) fibrin Answer: B Learning Outcome: 17.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 39) An obstruction in blood flow to the kidneys would ultimately result in A) decreased iron absorption. B) renal anemia. C) increased erythropoiesis. D) decreased erythropoiesis. E) increased sensitivity to vitamin K. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 17.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 40) The is a procedure that is used to determine the number of each of the various types of white blood cells. A) hematocrit B) complete blood count C) reticulocyte count D) differential count E) mean corpuscular volume Answer: D Learning Outcome: 17.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 41) The is a procedure that is used to determine the number of mature erythrocytes. A) RBC count B) complete blood count C) reticulocyte count D) differential count E) platelet count Answer: A Learning Outcome: 17.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

42) Hematology can detect all of the following except A) anemia. B) clotting disorders. C) diminished erythropoiesis. D) infection. E) body temperature. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 17.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 43) An increased mean corpuscular hemoglobin concentration is termed A) anemia. B) polycythemia. C) hyperchromic. D) macrocytic. E) reticulocytosis. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 17.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 44) An elevated hematocrit value is termed A) anemia. B) polycythemia. C) hyperchromic. D) macrocytic. E) reticulocytosis. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 17.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 45) transport(s) oxygen and CO2 in the RBCs. A) Ribosomes B) Mitochondria C) DNA D) Hemoglobin molecules E) Components of the cytoskeleton Answer: D Learning Outcome: 17.5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

46) Which of the following statements concerning red blood cells is false? A) Red cells are biconcave discs. B) Red cells lack mitochondria. C) Red cells are about 18 µm in diameter. D) Red cells are specialized for carrying oxygen. E) Red cells can form stacks called rouleaux. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 17.5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 47) The function of red blood cells is to A) carry carbon dioxide from the lungs to the body's cells. B) carry oxygen from the lungs to the body's cells. C) carry nutrients from the digestive system to the body's cells. D) defend the body against infectious organisms. E) carry oxygen from the body's cells to the lungs. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 17.5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 48) More than 95 percent of the protein in a red blood cell is A) albumin. B) porphyrin. C) hemoglobin. D) immunoglobulin. E) fibrinogen. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 17.5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 49) The function of hemoglobin is to A) carry oxygen. B) defend against bacterial infection. C) aid in the process of blood clotting. D) distribute nutrients. E) produce antibodies. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 17.5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

50) Each hemoglobin molecule contains A) four alpha chains. B) one alpha and one beta chain. C) four iron ions. D) one heme group. E) two heme groups. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 17.5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 51) Each heme ring in hemoglobin encloses an atom of A) magnesium. B) calcium. C) iron. D) sodium. E) copper. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 17.5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 52) Mary is tested for the amount of hemoglobin in her blood. The test results indicate that her hemoglobin level is 16 g/dL of blood. This value indicates that A) she is suffering from anemia. B) she has fewer red blood cells than normal. C) her hematocrit is probably lower than normal. D) she may be suffering from a form of leukemia. E) her hemoglobin level is normal. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 17.5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 53) Rouleaux refers to the ability of RBCs to A) carry hemoglobin. B) form stacks. C) squeeze through small capillaries smaller than their cell diameter. D) establish a large surface area-to-volume ratio. E) live without a nucleus. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 17.5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

54) RBCs typically live about 120 days. The main reason for this short lifespan in RBCs is their A) cell shape. B) concentration of Hb. C) flexibility. D) lack of nucleus. E) large surface area-to-volume ratio. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 17.5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 55) All the circulating red blood cells originate in the A) heart. B) thymus. C) spleen. D) red bone marrow. E) lymph tissue. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 17.6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 56) The average lifespan of a red blood cell is A) 24 hours. B) 1 month. C) 4 months. D) about 1 year. E) many years. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 17.6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 57) Aged and damaged erythrocytes are broken down by macrophages in all of the following places except the A) spleen. B) liver. C) bone marrow. D) kidney. E) None of the answers is correct. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 17.6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

58) The waste product bilirubin is produced from A) globin chains of hemoglobin. B) heme molecules plus iron. C) heme molecules lacking iron. D) iron found in hemoglobin molecules. E) abnormal proteins found in red blood cells. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 17.6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 59) Most of the iron that is removed from degraded hemoglobin is A) excreted by the kidneys. B) excreted by the liver. C) excreted by the intestines. D) recycled to red bone marrow. E) stored in yellow bone marrow. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 17.6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 60) In adults, erythropoiesis exclusively takes place in A) the liver. B) yellow bone marrow. C) red bone marrow. D) the spleen. E) lymphoid tissue. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 17.6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 61) The process of red blood cell production is called A) erythrocytosis. B) erythropenia. C) hemocytosis. D) erythropoiesis. E) hematopenia. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 17.6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

62) The developmental stage at which erythrocytes enter the circulation is as A) hemocytoblasts. B) reticulocytes. C) band forms. D) myeloid cells. E) proerythroblasts. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 17.6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 63) are immature erythrocytes that are present in the circulation. A) Erythroblasts B) Normoblasts C) Myeloblasts D) Band cells E) Reticulocytes Answer: E Learning Outcome: 17.6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 64) Which of the following proteins functions to store or transport oxygen? A) hemoglobin B) immunoglobulin C) albumin D) transferrin E) All of the answers are correct. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 17.6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 65) The yellow color that is visible in the eyes and skin in jaundice results from all of the following except A) excessive amounts of bilirubin in the plasma. B) extensive breakdown of RBCs. C) destruction of hemoglobin. D) blockage of bile ducts. E) hematuria. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 17.6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

66) After donating 0.5 liter of blood, one would expect A) an increased reticulocyte count. B) an increased platelet count. C) an increased erythrocyte count. D) an increased neutrophil count. E) increased levels of clotting factors. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 17.6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 67) If bile ducts are blocked, which of the following would not occur? A) more bilirubin appears in the plasma B) bilirubin appears in the skin C) less hemolysis would occur D) increased jaundice E) yellow color of the sclera Answer: C Learning Outcome: 17.6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 68) Which of the following would you expect to see in increased numbers in a peripheral blood sample after donating a unit of blood? A) erythrocytes B) platelets C) reticulocytes D) lymphocytes E) neutrophils Answer: C Learning Outcome: 17.6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 69) In which of the following would you expect the blood level of bilirubin to be elevated? A) a person suffering from higher levels of hemolysis B) an alcoholic with a damaged liver C) a person with an iron-deficient diet D) both a person suffering from hemolysis and an alcoholic with a damaged liver E) a person with increased clotting times. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 17.6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Analyzing

70) A person's blood type is determined largely by the A) size of the RBCs. B) volume of the RBCs. C) chemical character of the hemoglobin. D) presence of specific glycoproteins on the cell membrane. E) shape of the RBCs. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 17.7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 71) A person with Type A blood has A) antigen A on the RBCs. B) anti-B antibodies in the plasma. C) anti-A antibodies on the red blood cells. D) antigen A on the RBCs and anti-B antibodies in the plasma. E) anti-B antibodies in the plasma and anti-A antibodies on the red blood cells. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 17.7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 72) If the blood types of a donor and recipient are compatible, then A) the donor's antibodies bind with the recipient's antigens. B) the donor's antigens bind with the recipient's antigens. C) the donor's antibodies bind with the recipient's antibodies. D) the donor's antigens bind with the recipient's antibodies. E) there is no reaction between antibodies and antigens. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 17.7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 73) Overall, the most common blood type is A) A. B) B. C) AB. D) O. E) There is no common pattern of blood type distribution. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 17.7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

74) People with type AB blood are considered the "universal recipient" for transfusions because A) their blood cells lack A and B antigens. B) their blood lacks A or B antibodies. C) their blood is plentiful in A and B antibodies. D) they usually have very strong immune systems. E) they are usually Rh negative. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 17.7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 75) Bill wants to determine his blood type, so he takes a few drops of blood from a puncture wound in his finger and mixes it with various antisera. His blood cells agglutinate when mixed with the anti-A sera but not with the anti-B or anti-D sera. Which of the following is not true? A) Bill could receive type A-negative blood in a transfusion. B) Bill could donate blood to an individual with type AB blood. C) Bill is Rh negative. D) Bill's plasma contains B antibodies. E) Bill's plasma contains Rh antibodies. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 17.7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 76) Sensitization during hemolytic disease of the newborn refers to A) the fetal immune system producing antibodies against the mother's RBCs. B) the fetal immune system producing antibodies against the fetus' RBCs. C) the mother's immune system producing antibodies against the fetus' RBCs. D) the mother's immune system producing antibodies against the mother's RBCs. E) spontaneous miscarriage of a woman's first baby due to blood incompatibilities. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 17.8 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 77) Hemolytic disease of the newborn may result if A) the mother is Rh positive and the father is Rh negative. B) both the father and the mother are Rh negative. C) both the father and the mother are Rh positive. D) an Rh-negative mother carries an Rh-positive fetus. E) an Rh-positive mother carries an Rh-negative fetus. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 17.8 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

78) How does a treatment with anti-Rh antibodies (RhoGAM) prevent hemolytic disease of the newborn (HDN)? A) It prevents maternal anti-Rh antibodies from crossing the placenta. B) It destroys maternal anti-Rh antibodies. C) It destroys fetal anti-Rh antibodies. D) It destroys fetal RBCs that enter the maternal circulation. E) It destroys maternal RBCs that enter the fetal circulation. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 17.8 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 79) Which of the following is not true of basophils? A) constitute about 1 percent of WBCs B) promote inflammation C) granules contain histamine D) contain dense blue stained granules in the Wright stain E) increased production during parasitic infections Answer: E Learning Outcome: 17.9 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 80) Which of the following descriptions best matches the term eosinophils? A) release histamine B) become macrophages C) defend against specific pathogens or toxins and produce antibodies in response to antigens D) kill bacteria using cytotoxic chemicals E) often elevated in allergic individuals Answer: E Learning Outcome: 17.9 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 81) Which of the following is false concerning monocytes? A) about same size as basophils B) enter tissues and wander C) become macrophages D) are long-lived E) can phagocytize bacteria Answer: A Learning Outcome: 17.9 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

82) All of the following are true of neutrophils except that they are A) granular leukocytes. B) phagocytic. C) round cells with lobed nuclei. D) important in coagulation. E) active in fighting bacterial infections. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 17.9 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 83) The most numerous white blood cells in peripheral circulation are the A) neutrophils. B) eosinophils. C) basophils. D) lymphocytes. E) monocytes. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 17.9 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 84) White blood cells that release histamine at the site of an injury are A) neutrophils. B) eosinophils. C) basophils. D) lymphocytes. E) monocytes. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 17.9 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 85) are large phagocytic white cells that spend most of their time outside the blood as fixed and free phagocytic cells. A) Neutrophils B) Eosinophils C) Basophils D) Lymphocytes E) Monocytes Answer: E Learning Outcome: 17.9 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

86) White blood cells that are increased in individuals with allergic reactions are the A) neutrophils. B) eosinophils. C) basophils. D) lymphocytes. E) monocytes. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 17.9 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 87) Which of these descriptions best matches the term lymphocytes? A) release histamine B) become macrophages C) defend against specific pathogens or toxins D) kill bacteria using cytotoxic chemicals E) often elevated in allergic individuals Answer: C Learning Outcome: 17.9 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 88) Which of the following is false concerning neutrophils? A) less abundant than lymphocytes B) can make cytotoxic chemicals C) can exit capillaries D) can destroy bacteria E) produced in the bone marrow Answer: A Learning Outcome: 17.9 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 89) During a bacterial infection you would expect to see increased numbers of A) neutrophils. B) eosinophils. C) basophils. D) reticulocytes. E) thrombocytes. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 17.9 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

90) Below are some of the factors involved in the extrinsic clotting pathway. 1. calcium 2. tissue factor (III) 3. prothrombin 4. factor X 5. fibrin 6. clotting factor VII What answer corresponds to the correct order in which they occur from the time of tissue damage to the formation of a blood clot? A) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6 B) 2, 6, 4, 5, 1, 3 C) 2, 1, 6, 4, 3, 5 D) 5, 3, 6, 4, 1, 2 E) 1, 5, 3, 2, 4, 6 Answer: C Learning Outcome: 17.10 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 91) Platelets function in all of the following except A) dissolving a formed clot. B) forming temporary clump in injured areas. C) contracting after clot formation. D) initiating the clotting process. E) releasing chemicals that stimulate clotting. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 17.10 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 92) involves a cascade of reactions leading to the conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin. A) Vascular spasm B) The platelet phase C) Retraction D) Coagulation E) Fibrinolysis Answer: D Learning Outcome: 17.10 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

93) The conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin is catalyzed by A) fibrinogen-converting enzyme. B) plasmin. C) factor VIII. D) thrombin. E) prothrombin activator. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 17.10 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 94) The extrinsic pathway of coagulation is initiated by the A) sticking of platelets to damaged tissue. B) activation of Factor VII exposed to collagen. C) release of tissue factor (Factor III) by damaged endothelium. D) release of heparin from the liver. E) conversion of prothrombin to thrombin. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 17.10 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 95) The intrinsic pathway of coagulation is activated by the A) sticking of platelets to damaged tissue. B) activation of proenzymes exposed to collagen. C) release of tissue factor (Factor III) by damaged endothelium. D) release of heparin from the liver. E) conversion of prothrombin to thrombin. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 17.10 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 96) The common pathway of coagulation begins with the A) sticking of platelets to damaged tissue. B) activation of a proenzyme exposed to collagen. C) release of tissue factor by damaged endothelium. D) conversion of Factor X to prothrombin activator. E) conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 17.10 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

97) The process of fibrinolysis A) activates fibrinogen. B) draws torn edges of damaged tissue closer together. C) dissolves clots. D) forms emboli. E) forms thrombi. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 17.10 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 98) The enzyme that can digest fibrin and dissolve a clot is A) thrombin. B) plasmin. C) heparin. D) fibrinase. E) phosphokinase. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 17.10 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 99) Tissue factor (Factor III) is a factor in the A) extrinsic B) intrinsic C) common D) retraction E) fibrinolytic Answer: A Learning Outcome: 17.10 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

pathway.

100) Platelet factor (PF-3) is a factor in the A) extrinsic B) intrinsic C) common D) retraction E) fibrinolytic Answer: B Learning Outcome: 17.10 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

pathway.

101) Which of these descriptions best matches the term platelets? A) adhere to collagen beneath endothelium B) helper cells are one type C) produce antibodies in response to antigens D) kill bacteria using hydrogen peroxide E) often elevated in allergic individuals Answer: A Learning Outcome: 17.10 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 102) A substance that activates plasminogen might be useful to A) cause clots to form faster. B) cause clot dissolution to proceed faster. C) initiate clot formation. D) mimic erythropoietin. E) recruit neutrophils to an infection. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 17.10 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 103) Which of the following vitamins is needed for the formation of clotting factors? A) A B) B C) K D) D E) E Answer: C Learning Outcome: 17.11 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 104) How would removal of calcium ions from a blood sample affect coagulation? A) The coagulation pathway would be lacking a required cofactor at many steps. B) Coagulation would be prevented. C) There would be no effect because magnesium can substitute for calcium. D) The coagulation pathway would be lacking a required cofactor at many steps and coagulation would be prevented. E) There would be no effect because calcium is not a necessary cofactor in coagulation. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 17.11 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

105) Some rat poisons contain a toxin that blocks the liver's ability to utilize vitamin K. Animals that consume this poison would die of A) anemia. B) acidosis. C) hemorrhage. D) thrombocytopenia. E) starvation. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 17.11 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 106) is a condition in which the oxygen-carrying capacity of the blood is reduced. A) Polycythemia B) Leukemia C) Anemia D) Leukopenia E) Thrombocytopenia Answer: C Learning Outcome: 17.11 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 107) Whole blood for testing in a clinical laboratory is usually collected from A) the heart. B) a superficial artery. C) a superficial vein. D) a capillary. E) an arteriole. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 17.11 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 108) Eileen is a strict vegan and therefore eats no animal products. She develops an anemia that her doctor thinks is caused by a nutritional deficiency. Which of the following is the likeliest candidate? A) iron deficiency B) vitamin B12 deficiency C) lack of intrinsic factor D) vitamin K deficiency E) vitamin B6 deficiency Answer: B Learning Outcome: 17.11 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

109) The disease sickle cell anemia is an example of what can happen if A) the diet is deficient in iron. B) there is insufficient heme in the hemoglobin. C) a gene for adult hemoglobin is abnormal. D) red blood cells bind too much oxygen. E) hemolysis is prevented by a bad gene. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 17.11 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 110) A cancer involving neutrophils, eosinophils, or basophils is called a A) hemophilia. B) pernicious anemia. C) myeloid leukemia. D) lymphoid leukemia. E) jaundice. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 17.11 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 111) Pernicious anemia caused by a lack of intrinsic factor is specifically treated by A) oral doses of iron. B) injections of iron. C) injections of Vitamin K. D) injections of vitamin B12. E) injections of clotting factors. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 17.11 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 112) A condition where pathogens are present and multiplying in the blood is called A) viremia. B) bacteremia. C) septicemia. D) anemia. E) hemophilia. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 17.11 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

113) All of the following blood diseases are caused by pathogens except A) malaria. B) bacteremia. C) viremia. D) hemophilia. E) septicemia. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 17.11 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 114) All of the following are heritable blood disorders except A) thalassemia. B) sickle cell anemia. C) hemophilia. D) sickle cell disease. E) malaria. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 17.11 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 115) All of the following blood disorders are due to specific issues with RBCs except A) malaria. B) pernicious anemia. C) iron deficiency anemia. D) thalassemia. E) myeloid leukemia. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 17.11 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 116) Identify the components of the cardiovascular system. (Module 17.1A) A) heart and blood vessels B) heart and blood C) blood and blood vessels D) heart, blood, and blood vessels E) blood vessels and lymphatic vessels Answer: D Learning Outcome: 17.1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

117) Define hematocrit. (Module 17.2B) A) Hematocrit is the percentage of whole blood volume contributed by platelets. B) Hematocrit is the percentage of whole blood volume contributed by white blood cells. C) Hematocrit is the percentage of whole blood volume contributed by formed elements. D) Hematocrit is the percentage of whole blood volume contributed by plasma. E) Hematocrit is the percentage of whole blood volume contributed by water. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 17.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 118) Which specific plasma proteins would you expect to be elevated during an infection? (Module 17.2C) A) albumins B) immunoglobulins C) fibrinogen D) transport globulins E) thrombin Answer: B Learning Outcome: 17.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 119) Define hemocytoblasts. (Module 17.3A) A) Hemocytoblasts form from hematopoietic stem cells and divide into lymphoid stem cells and myeloid stem cells. B) Hemocytoblasts form from megakaryocytes and produce platelets. C) Hemocytoblasts form from myeloid stem cells and divide to become erythrocytes. D) Hemocytoblasts form from lymphoid stem cells and divide to become lymphocytes and monocytes. E) Hemocytoblasts shed their cytoplasm in membrane-enclosed packets called platelets. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 17.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 120) Describe platelets and their origin. (Module 17.3B) A) Platelets are derived by lymphoid stem cells that divide into lymphocytes and in the process shed some cytoplasmic fragments. B) Platelets are the remnants of the reticulocyte organelles during the maturation of a reticulocyte into a red blood cell. C) Platelets are precursor cells to the myeloid and lymphoid stem cells. D) Platelets are immature red blood cells. E) Platelets are cell fragments that develop from megakaryocytes. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 17.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

121) Compare the types of cells that lymphoid stem cells and myeloid stem cells produce. (Module 17.3C) A) Lymphoid stem cells give rise to lymphocytes. Myeloid stem cells give rise to all the formed elements except lymphocytes. B) Lymphoid stem cells give rise to all the formed elements except lymphocytes. Myeloid stem cells give rise to lymphocytes. C) Lymphoid stem cells give rise to all of the white blood cells. Myeloid stem cells give rise to the red blood cells and platelets. D) Lymphoid stem cells give rise to all of the white blood cells and platelets. Myeloid stem cells give rise to the red blood cells. E) Lymphoid stem cells give rise to the white blood cells and the red blood cells. Myeloid stem cells give rise to the platelets. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 17.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 122) What is hematology? (Module 17.4A) A) Hematology is the study of the heart. B) Hematology is the study of blood vessel structure and function. C) Hematology is the study of blood, blood-producing organs, and blood disorders. D) Hematology is the study of the immune system. E) Hematology is the study of cancers of the blood. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 17.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 123) Which condition would a patient have if she had a depressed hematocrit level? (Module 17.4C) A) polycythemia B) erythrocytosis C) reticulocytosis D) anemia E) thrombocytopenia Answer: D Learning Outcome: 17.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying

124) Describe the functional aspects of RBCs. (Module 17.5A) A) RBCs have a large surface area — to — volume ratio, exhibit the ability to form stacks, and they are flexible. B) RBCs have a large surface area — to — volume ratio, have sticky plasma membranes, and are rigid discs. C) RBCs have pseudopodia to allow motility, are spherical in shape, and roll easily across the endothelium of blood vessels. D) RBCs have a small surface area — to — volume ratio, are spherical in shape, and stick easily to each other. E) RBCs have a lot of mitochondria for ATP production, undergo rapid cell division, and are flexible. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 17.5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 125) Describe hemoglobin. (Module 17.5B) A) Hemoglobin is a protein inside platelets that when activated makes them sticky. B) Hemoglobin is a lysosomal enzyme inside white blood cells that digests pathogens after phagocytosis. C) Hemoglobin is a protein inside RBCs that helps maintain their flexibility. D) Hemoglobin is a protein inside RBCs that binds oxygen. E) Hemoglobin is an enzyme inside RBCs that converts carbon dioxide to carbonic acid. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 17.5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 126) Compare oxyhemoglobin with deoxyhemoglobin. (Module 17.5C) A) Oxyhemoglobin is hemoglobin whose iron has bound carbon dioxide. Deoxyhemoglobin is hemoglobin whose iron has bound oxygen. B) Oxyhemoglobin is hemoglobin whose iron has bound oxygen. Deoxyhemoglobin is hemoglobin whose iron has not bound oxygen. C) Oxyhemoglobin is hemoglobin whose iron has not bound oxygen. Deoxyhemoglobin is hemoglobin whose iron has bound oxygen. D) Oxyhemoglobin is hemoglobin whose iron has bound both oxygen and carbon dioxide. Deoxyhemoglobin is hemoglobin whose iron has bound oxygen only. E) Oxyhemoglobin is hemoglobin whose iron has bound oxygen only. Deoxyhemoglobin is hemoglobin whose iron has bound both oxygen and carbon dioxide. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 17.5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

127) What is determined by the surface antigens on RBCs? (Module 17.7A) A) hematocrit B) the type of hemoglobin proteins inside C) blood type D) the developmental stage of the RBC E) how much oxygen is bound to hemoglobin Answer: C Learning Outcome: 17.7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 128) What is the most common blood type in the United States? (Module 17.7B) A) A+ B) B+ C) AB+ D) OE) O+ Answer: E Learning Outcome: 17.7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 129) Which blood type(s) can be safely transfused into a person with type O- blood? (Module 17.7C) A) They can receive any type of blood. B) They can receive any type of Rh negative blood. C) AB+, AB-, O+, OD) O+ and OE) They can receive only O- blood. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 17.7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 130) Why can't a person with type A blood safely receive blood from a person with type B blood? (Module 17.7D) A) A person with type A blood will have anti-A antibodies that will agglutinate with type B blood. B) A person with type A blood will have anti-B antibodies that will agglutinate with type B blood. C) A person with type A blood will have anti-B platelets that will cause abnormal clotting with type B blood. D) A person with type A blood will have anti-A platelets that will cause abnormal clotting with type B blood. E) A person with type A blood will have anti-AB antibodies that will agglutinate with type B blood. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 17.7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 33

131) Define hemolytic disease of the newborn (HDN). (Module 17.8A) A) Hemolytic disease of the newborn is a congenital defect in the development of the heart. B) Hemolytic disease of the newborn is a result of delayed bone marrow development. C) Hemolytic disease of the newborn is a result of abnormally shaped hemoglobin molecules. D) Hemolytic disease of the newborn is due to a deficiency in the numbers of red blood cells produced, resulting in anemia. E) Hemolytic disease of the newborn is a condition in which maternal Rh antibodies attack and destroy fetal Rh-positive red blood cells, resulting in anemia. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 17.8 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 132) Why is RhoGAM administered to pregnant Rh‒ women ? (Module 17.8B) A) RhoGAM will change the mother's blood type to Rh+. B) RhoGAM will change the fetus's blood type to Rh‒. C) RhoGAM contains Rh antigens so the mothers' antibodies can attack the RhoGAM antigens, instead of the fetus's blood cells. D) RhoGAM contains anti-Rh antibodies, which circulate in the mothers' bloodstream to destroy any fetal RBCs there, thereby preventing the mother from making antibodies against the developing fetus's red blood cells. E) RhoGAM contains proteins that surround the fetal RBCs and protect them from attack by maternal antibodies. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 17.8 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 133) Does an Rh+ mother carrying an Rh‒ fetus require a RhoGAM injection? Explain your answer. (Module 17.8C) A) No, she will not require a RhoGAM injection because the fetus is not at risk for Rh incompatibility. The fetus is not at risk because its RBCs lack Rh surface antigens and the mother's plasma lacks anti-Rh antibodies. B) No, she will not require a RhoGAM injection because the fetus is not at risk for Rh incompatibility. The fetus is not at risk because its RBCs contain Rh surface antigens and the mother's plasma has anti-Rh antibodies. C) Yes, she will require a RhoGAM injection because the fetus is at risk for Rh incompatibility. The fetus is at risk because its RBCs contain Rh surface antigens and the mother's plasma has anti-Rh antibodies. D) Yes, she will require a RhoGAM injection because the fetus is at risk for Rh incompatibility. The fetus is at risk because its RBCs lack Rh surface antigens and the mother's plasma has antiRh antibodies. E) Yes, she will require a RhoGAM injection because the fetus is at risk for Rh incompatibility. The fetus is at risk because its RBCs lack Rh surface antigens and the mother's plasma lacks antiRh antibodies. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 17.8 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 34

134) Identify the five types of white blood cells. (Module 17.9A) A) mast cells, dendritic cells, erythrocytes, platelets, and basophils B) astrocytes, microglial cells, Kuppfer cells, lymphocytes, and ependymal cells C) neutrophils, eosinophils, basophils, monocytes, and lymphocytes D) monocytes, macrophages, dendritic cells, T lymphocytes, and B lymphocytes E) plasma cells, memory B cells, memory T cells, cytotoxic T cells, helper T cells Answer: C Learning Outcome: 17.9 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 135) How do basophils respond to tissue damage? (Module 17.9B) A) Basophils enter damaged tissue first and in high numbers to engulf the pathogens and debris and release cytotoxic enzymes and chemicals that attract other WBCs to the region. B) Basophils enter damaged tissue and release a variety of chemicals, including histamine, which promotes inflammation. C) Basophils enter damaged tissue and engulf antibody-labeled materials, release cytotoxic enzymes, and reduce inflammation. D) Basophils enter damaged tissue and become macrophages which engulf pathogens or debris. E) Basophils provide defense against specific pathogens or toxins by becoming B plasma cells, which produce antibodies. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 17.9 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 136) Which type of white blood cell would you find in the greatest numbers in an infected cut? (Module 17.9C) A) neutrophil B) eosinophil C) basophil D) monocyte E) lymphocyte Answer: A Learning Outcome: 17.9 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 137) Define hemostasis. (Module 17.10A) A) Hemostasis is an antigen-antibody binding response that alerts the immune system to a nonself antigen. B) Hemostasis is the maintenance of relatively normal internal conditions in the face of a changing external environment. C) Hemostasis is the process of stopping bleeding. D) Hemostasis is the production of new blood components in the red bone marrow. E) Hemostasis is the regulation of the hormones that control blood composition. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 17.10 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 35

138) Compare pernicious anemia with iron deficiency anemia. (Module 17.11A) A) Pernicious anemia is insufficient red blood cell production caused by a deficiency in vitamin B12, whereas iron deficiency anemia is insufficient red blood cell production caused by a deficiency in vitamin K. B) Pernicious anemia is insufficient red blood cell production caused by a deficiency in vitamin K, whereas iron deficiency anemia is insufficient red blood cell production caused by a deficiency in vitamin B12. C) Pernicious anemia is insufficient red blood cell production caused by a deficiency in vitamin B12, whereas iron deficiency anemia is an inherited disorder of malformed hemoglobin due to an amino acid chain mutation. D) Pernicious anemia is insufficient red blood cell production caused by a deficiency in vitamin B12, whereas iron deficiency anemia is impaired hemoglobin synthesis caused by a deficiency in dietary intake or absorption of iron. E) Pernicious anemia is an inherited bleeding disorder caused by the reduced production of a single clotting factor, whereas iron deficiency anemia is impaired hemoglobin synthesis caused by a deficiency in dietary intake or absorption of iron. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 17.11 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 139) Identify the two types of leukemia. (Module 17.11B) A) microcytic leukemia and macrocytic leukemia B) bacterial leukemia and viral leukemia C) spontaneous leukemia and inherited leukemia D) hyperchromic leukemia and hypochromic leukemia E) myeloid leukemia and lymphoid leukemia Answer: E Learning Outcome: 17.11 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Essay Questions 140) Why do people with advanced kidney disease commonly become anemic? Answer: For three reasons: (1) Damaged kidneys produce less erythropoietin and so there is less stimulation of the marrow to produce RBCs. (2) Erythropoietin is more easily lost into the urine by leaky kidneys. (3) During dialysis treatment, the patient's erythropoietin is washed away. Treatment for kidney patients today includes injections of synthetic erythropoietin. Learning Outcome: 17.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Analyzing 141) Which of the formed elements would increase after the donation of a pint of blood? Answer: Reticulocytes would increase in number as additional numbers of immature RBCs move into the bloodstream to compensate for the reduction in blood volume. Learning Outcome: 17.6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Analyzing 36

142) How does RhoGAM prevent erythroblastosis fetalis (HDN, hemolytic disease of the newborn)? Answer: If a mother who is Rh negative carries a fetus that is Rh positive, she will make antibodies against its Rh RBCs after being exposed to the infant's blood during labor and delivery. By giving a dose of anti-Rh antibody (RhoGAM) just before or after delivery, the fetal red cells will be agglutinated and removed from the mother's circulation before her immune system will have time to make anti-Rh antibodies that would endanger her next Rh-positive offspring. Learning Outcome: 17.8 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 143) What are the functions of blood? (Module 17.1B) Answer: Blood functions to transport dissolved gases, nutrients, hormones, and metabolic wastes; regulate pH and ion composition of interstitial fluids; restrict fluid loss at injury sites; defend against toxins and pathogens; and stabilize body temperature. Learning Outcome: 17.1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 144) Identify the two components making up whole blood, and list the composition of each. (Module 17.2A) Answer: Whole blood is composed of plasma (which contains albumins, globulins, fibrinogen, electrolytes, organic nutrients, and organic wastes) and formed elements (which are platelets, white blood cells, and red blood cells). Learning Outcome: 17.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 145) Describe a complete blood count (CBC). (Module 17.4B) Answer: A complete blood count (CBC) is a diagnostic blood test used to determine underlying medical conditions. A CBC includes the RBC count, WBC count, erythrocyte indices (such as hemoglobin concentration), hematocrit, platelet count, and WBC differential count. Learning Outcome: 17.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 146) In what way would a liver disease affect the level of bilirubin in the blood? (Module 17.6A) Answer: Bilirubin would accumulate in the blood, producing jaundice, because diseases that damage the liver impair the liver's ability to excrete bilirubin in the bile. Learning Outcome: 17.6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying

147) Briefly describe the vascular, platelet, and coagulation phases of hemostasis. (Module 17.10B) Answer: During the vascular phase, local blood vessel constriction (vascular spasm) occurs at the injury site. In the platelet phase, platelets are activated, aggregate at the site, and adhere to damaged blood vessel surfaces. In the coagulation phase, factors released by platelets and endothelial cells interact with clotting factors (through either the extrinsic pathway, the intrinsic pathway, or the common pathway) to form a blood clot, a process involving the conversion of soluble fibrinogen to insoluble fibers of fibrin. Learning Outcome: 17.10 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 148) Describe the events that follow the coagulation phase. (Module 17.10C) Answer: Clot retraction and fibrinolysis follow the coagulation phase. The clot consists of fibrin, red blood cells, and platelets. The platelets contract, and the entire clot retracts, pulling the cut vessel edges together. As repairs continue, the clot dissolves through the process of fibrinolysis. Fibrinolysis is activated by plasminogen, which, in turn, activates plasmin, which erodes the foundation of the clot. Learning Outcome: 17.10 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 149) Explain why venipuncture is a common clinical procedure for obtaining blood for examination. (Module 17.11C) Answer: In venipuncture, blood is collected from a superficial vein. Venipuncture is a common clinical procedure because superficial veins are easy to locate, the walls of veins are thinner than comparable sized arteries, and blood pressure in the venous system is relatively low, so the puncture wound seals quickly. Learning Outcome: 17.11 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying

Visual Anatomy and Physiology, 3e (Martini) Chapter 18 The Heart and Cardiovascular Function Multiple Choice Questions 1) The superior portion of the heart where major blood vessels enter and exit is the A) base. B) apex. C) inferior border. D) right border. E) left border. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 18.1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 2) The inferior point of the heart is called the A) base. B) apex. C) inferior border. D) right border. E) left border. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 18.1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 3) The left border of the heart is formed by the A) left atrium and right atrium. B) right atrium and right ventricle. C) left atrium and left ventricle. D) right ventricle and left ventricle. E) None of the answers is correct. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 18.1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 4) The wall(s) of the rest(s) on the diaphragm. A) left atrium B) left ventricle C) right atrium D) right ventricle E) right and left ventricles Answer: D Learning Outcome: 18.1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

5) Which of the following descriptions matches the phrase "near the left fifth intercostal space"? A) pericardial cavity B) visceral pericardium C) apex of heart D) aorta E) right atrium Answer: C Learning Outcome: 18.1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 6) Most of the mass of the heart lies to the A) area above B) area below C) left of D) right of E) None of the answers is correct. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 18.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

the midline.

7) The cavity that contains only the heart is the A) thoracic cavity. B) pericardial cavity. C) mediastinum. D) pleural cavity. E) anterior cavity. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 18.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 8) The entire space between the pleural cavities containing only the heart, great vessels, thymus, trachea and esophagus is called the A) pericardial cavity. B) mediastinum. C) thoracic cavity. D) anterior cavity. E) abdominopelvic cavity. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 18.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

9) The cavity that contains the lungs, the heart, great vessels, thymus, esophagus, and trachea is called the A) pleural space. B) pericardial space. C) mediastinum. D) cardiac notch. E) thoracic cavity. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 18.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 10) The term used to describe fluid collecting in the pericardial cavity that restricts the movement of the heart is known as A) cardiac tamponade. B) mitral valve prolapse. C) pleural effusion. D) cardiomyopathy. E) pericarditis. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 18.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 11) Most of the middle layer in the heart wall is composed of A) cardiac muscle cells. B) chondrocytes. C) epithelial cells. D) fibrocytes. E) smooth muscle cells. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 18.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 12) Intercalated discs serve to transfer all of the following from cell to cell except A) ionic currents. B) action potentials. C) the force of contraction. D) Z-lines. E) small molecules. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 18.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

13) The muscle layer of the heart is the A) epicardium. B) myocardium. C) endocardium. D) visceral pericardium. E) parietal pericardium. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 18.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 14) The lines the chambers of the heart, covers the heart valves, and is continuous with the endothelium. A) epicardium B) myocardium C) endocardium D) visceral pericardium E) parietal pericardium Answer: C Learning Outcome: 18.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 15) An equivalent term for epicardium is A) parietal pericardium. B) myocardium. C) endocardium. D) visceral pericardium. E) None of the answers is correct. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 18.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 16) The visceral pericardium is the same as the A) mediastinum. B) parietal pericardium. C) epicardium. D) myocardium. E) endocardium. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 18.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

17) The earlike extension of the atrium is the A) ventricle. B) coronary sinus. C) coronary sulcus. D) auricle. E) atricle. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 18.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 18) The coronary sulcus is a groove that A) marks the border between the atria and ventricles. B) marks the boundary line between the right and left ventricles. C) marks the boundary line between the right and left atria. D) separates the atrioventricular valves from the atria. E) separates the coronary arteries from the coronary veins. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 18.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 19) There are pulmonary veins. A) 2 B) 4 C) 6 D) 8 E) 10 Answer: B Learning Outcome: 18.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 20) The interventricular sulci and coronary sulcus contain all of the following except A) fat. B) arteries. C) veins. D) nerves. E) None of the answers is correct. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 18.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

21) Blood is supplied to the myocardium by A) the coronary sinus. B) contact with blood in the pumping chambers. C) the coronary arteries. D) arteries that branch from the pulmonary arteries. E) None of the answers is correct. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 18.5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 22) The first blood vessels to branch from the aorta are the A) pulmonary B) coronary C) circumflex D) carotid E) subclavian Answer: B Learning Outcome: 18.5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

arteries.

23) The marginal branch and posterior interventricular branch are branches of the A) right coronary artery. B) left coronary artery. C) circumflex artery. D) coronary sinus. E) aorta. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 18.5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 24) The circumflex branch and the anterior interventricular artery are branches of the A) right coronary artery. B) left coronary artery. C) interventricular artery. D) coronary sinus. E) aorta. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 18.5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

25) The great and middle cardiac veins drain blood into the A) superior vena cava. B) inferior vena cava. C) coronary sinus. D) coronary sulcus. E) aorta. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 18.5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 26) The deliver(s) blood to the myocardium. A) right coronary artery B) right coronary vein C) superior vena cava D) left coronary artery E) right coronary artery and left coronary artery Answer: E Learning Outcome: 18.5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 27) Blood is supplied to the left atrium by the A) brachiocephalic artery. B) right coronary artery. C) left coronary artery. D) phrenic arteries. E) pulmonary arteries. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 18.5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 28) Coronary veins empty into the A) left atrium. B) left ventricle. C) right atrium. D) right ventricle. E) conus arteriosus. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 18.5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

29) Blood returning to the heart from the systemic circuit first enters the A) right atrium. B) right ventricle. C) left atrium. D) left ventricle. E) conus arteriosus. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 18.6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 30) Blood returning to the heart from the pulmonary circuit first enters the A) right atrium. B) right ventricle. C) left atrium. D) left ventricle. E) conus arteriosus. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 18.6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 31) The atrioventricular valves permit blood flow A) in one direction only. B) in both directions. C) in many directions. D) in opposite directions on the right and left. E) None of the answers is correct. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 18.6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 32) Blood leaves the right ventricle by passing through the A) aortic valve. B) pulmonary valve. C) mitral valve. D) tricuspid valve. E) bicuspid valve. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 18.6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

33) The cusps (leaflets) of atrioventricular valves attach directly to A) papillary muscles. B) trabeculae carneae. C) chordae tendineae. D) interatrial septa. E) coronary sulci. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 18.6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 34) The right ventricle pumps blood to the A) right and left lungs. B) left ventricle. C) left atrium. D) aorta. E) right atrium. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 18.6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 35) The left ventricle pumps blood to the A) lungs. B) right ventricle. C) right atrium. D) aorta. E) pulmonary circuit. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 18.6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 36) The right atrium receives blood from all of the following except the A) coronary sinus. B) superior vena cava. C) inferior vena cava. D) pulmonary veins. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 18.6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

37) Blood flowing into the heart from the venae cavae flows next through the A) mitral B) bicuspid C) tricuspid D) pulmonary semilunar E) aortic semilunar Answer: C Learning Outcome: 18.6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 38) As blood leaves the right ventricle, it passes through the pulmonary trunk. A) pulmonary veins B) pulmonary valve C) aorta D) inferior vena cava E) superior vena cava Answer: B Learning Outcome: 18.6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

valve.

and then into the

39) The function of the atrium is to A) collect blood. B) pump blood to the lungs. C) pump blood into the systemic circuit. D) pump blood to the ventricle. E) collect blood and pump blood to the ventricle. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 18.6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 40) Compared to the right ventricle, the left ventricle has all the following characteristics except that it A) has a thicker wall. B) is round in cross section. C) pumps a greater volume. D) contracts harder. E) produces about four to six times more pressure when it contracts. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 18.6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

41) The following is a list of vessels and structures that are associated with the heart. 1. right atrium 2. left atrium 3. right ventricle 4. left ventricle 5. venae cavae 6. aorta 7. pulmonary trunk 8. pulmonary veins What is the correct order for the flow of blood entering from the systemic circulation? A) 1, 2, 7, 8, 3, 4, 6, 5 B) 1, 7, 3, 8, 2, 4, 6, 5 C) 5, 1, 3, 7, 8, 2, 4, 6 D) 5, 3, 1, 7, 8, 4, 2, 6 E) 5, 1, 3, 8, 7, 2, 4, 6 Answer: C Learning Outcome: 18.6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 42) The pulmonary arteries carry blood to the A) heart. B) lungs. C) brain. D) intestines. E) liver. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 18.6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 43) The pulmonary veins carry blood to the A) heart. B) lungs. C) brain. D) intestines. E) liver. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 18.6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

Figure 18-1 44) Identify the structure labeled "19." A) tricuspid valve B) pulmonary semilunar valve C) aortic semilunar valve D) bicuspid valve E) ligamentum arteriosum Answer: B Learning Outcome: 18.6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 45) Identify the structure labeled "8." A) moderator band B) pectinate muscles C) papillary muscles D) trabeculae carneae E) chordae tendineae Answer: C Learning Outcome: 18.6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 12

46) Identify the structure labeled "6." A) cusp of tricuspid valve B) pulmonary semilunar valve C) aortic semilunar valve D) cusp of bicuspid valve E) ligamentum arteriosum Answer: A Learning Outcome: 18.6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 47) Identify the structure labeled "21." A) bicuspid valve B) pulmonary semilunar valve C) aortic semilunar valve D) ligamentum arteriosum E) tricuspid valve Answer: D Learning Outcome: 18.6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 48) Which chamber receives oxygenated blood from the pulmonary circuit? A) 5 B) 10 C) 16 D) 13 E) both 5 and 16 Answer: C Learning Outcome: 18.6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 49) Comparing the left ventricle with the right ventricle, which of the following is true? A) The left ventricle does more work than the right ventricle. B) The left ventricle pumps against less resistance than the right ventricle. C) The left ventricle produces a lower pressure than the right. D) The right ventricle is thicker than the left ventricle. E) The right ventricle pumps more blood than the left ventricle. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 18.6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

50) The has a greater workload than the A) left ventricle; right ventricle B) right ventricle; left ventricle C) right ventricle; systemic circulation D) right ventricle; pulmonary circulation E) None of the answers is correct. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 18.6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

51) The separate(s) the two atria. A) interventricular septum B) interatrial septum C) moderator band D) foramen ovale E) atrioventricular valves Answer: B Learning Outcome: 18.6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 52) The separate(s) the two ventricles. A) interventricular septum B) interatrial septum C) moderator band D) foramen ovale E) atrioventricular valves Answer: A Learning Outcome: 18.6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 53) Muscular ridges on the inner surface of the ventricles are called A) fossa ovalis. B) ligamentum arteriosum. C) pectinate muscles. D) trabeculae carneae. E) None of the answers is correct. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 18.6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 54) When the left ventricle contracts, the distance from the apex to the base A) increases. B) decreases. C) remains unchanged. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 18.6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 14

55) When the left ventricle contracts, the diameter of the ventricular chamber A) increases. B) decreases. C) remains the same. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 18.6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 56) Contractions of the papillary muscles A) close the atrioventricular valves. B) close the semilunar valves. C) eject blood from the ventricles. D) prevent the atrioventricular valves from reversing into the atria. E) eject blood from the atria into the ventricles. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 18.7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 57) The pulmonary semilunar valve prevents backward flow into the A) aorta. B) pulmonary trunk. C) pulmonary veins. D) right ventricle. E) left atrium. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 18.7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 58) The bicuspid, or mitral, valve is located A) in the opening of the aorta. B) in the opening of the pulmonary trunk. C) where the venae cavae join the right atrium. D) between the right atrium and right ventricle. E) between the left atrium and left ventricle. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 18.7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

59) The valve prevents backward flow into the left atrium. A) semicaval B) semilunar C) bicuspid D) tricuspid E) pulmonic Answer: C Learning Outcome: 18.7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 60) Rupture of the papillary muscles in the left ventricle may result in any of the following except A) mitral regurgitation. B) mitral valve prolapse. C) bicuspid regurgitation. D) bicuspid prolapse. E) pulmonary valve stenosis. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 18.7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 61) When the semilunar valves close, the AV valves then A) close. B) open. C) make the third heart sound. D) All of the answers are correct. E) None of the answers is correct. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 18.7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 62) If a patient's tricuspid valve was leaking during systole, what would happen? A) regurgitation back into the right atrium B) regurgitation back into the superior vena cava C) regurgitation back into the left atrium D) regurgitation back into the aorta E) regurgitation back into the pulmonary trunk Answer: A Learning Outcome: 18.7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying

63) David suffers from a prolapsed mitral valve. This condition would cause A) increased effort by the right ventricle. B) increased effort by the left ventricle. C) regurgitation. D) increased effort by the right ventricle and regurgitation. E) increased effort by the left ventricle and regurgitation. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 18.7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 64) Complications related to arteriosclerosis account for roughly the United States. A) 30 B) 60 C) 20 D) 50 E) 25 Answer: D Learning Outcome: 18.8 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 65) Arteriosclerosis can lead to all of the following except A) hypertension. B) stroke. C) coronary artery disease. D) diabetes. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 18.8 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 66) is to contraction as A) Systole; diastole B) Diastole; systole C) Filling; relaxing Answer: A Learning Outcome: 18.9 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

is to relaxation.

67) The contraction phase of the upper chambers of the heart is called A) ventricular systole. B) ventricular diastole. C) atrial systole. D) atrial diastole. E) None of the answers is correct. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 18.9 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 17

_ percent of deaths in

68) The relaxation phase of the lower chambers of the heart is called A) ventricular systole. B) ventricular diastole. C) atrial systole. D) atrial diastole. E) None of the answers aer correct. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 18.9 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 69) As the heart rate slows, A) systole B) diastole C) systole and diastole D) None of the answers is correct. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 18.9 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

get(s) longer.

70) At a heart rate of 60 beats/minute, a cardiac cycle lasts A) 60 seconds. B) less than a second. C) 1 second. D) 370 milliseconds. E) more than a second. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 18.9 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 71) The first heart sound is heard when the A) AV valves open. B) AV valves close. C) semilunar valves close. D) atria contract. E) blood enters the aorta. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 18.10 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

72) During the isovolumetric contraction phase of ventricular systole, the A) atria are contracting and the ventricles are relaxing. B) atrioventricular valves and semilunar valves are closed. C) blood is ejected into the great vessels. D) All of the answers are correct. E) None of the answers is correct. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 18.10 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 73) The first heart sound ("lubb") is associated with A) closing of the pulmonary valve. B) closing of the mitral valve. C) opening of the mitral valve. D) closing of the aortic valve. E) opening of the aortic valve. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 18.10 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 74) The phase in the cardiac cycle when the mitral valve is closed and the aortic valve is open is the A) atrial systole. B) early diastolic filling phase. C) late diastolic filling phase. D) ventricular ejection of ventricular systole. E) dicrotic phase. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 18.10 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 75) Which of the following is greater during left ventricular systole? A) the peak pressure in the ventricle B) the peak pressure in the aorta C) Neither is greater. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 18.10 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

76) The mitral valve closing is associated with all of the following except A) when left ventricular pressure exceeds left atrial pressure. B) at the beginning of ventricular systole. C) at the same time at the tricuspid valve. D) when the right ventricle pressure exceeds the right atrial pressure. E) when the left atrial pressure exceeds the left ventricular pressure. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 18.10 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 77) The valve opens when left ventricular pressure exceeds aortic blood pressure. A) left atrioventricular B) pulmonary C) right atrioventricular D) aortic E) All of the answers are correct. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 18.10 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 78) During ventricular systole, the A) atria are contracting. B) blood is entering the ventricles. C) AV valves are closed. D) pressure in the ventricles remains constant. E) pressure in the aorta remains constant. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 18.10 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

Figure 18-2 79) What occurs at the area labeled "D" on the graph? A) AV valves open B) semilunar valves open C) diastolic refilling begins D) both AV valves open and diastolic refilling begins E) both semilunar valves open and diastolic refilling begins Answer: D Learning Outcome: 18.10 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 80) What occurs at "B" on the graph? A) semilunar valve opens B) semilunar valve closes C) AV valve opens D) end-systolic volume Answer: B Learning Outcome: 18.10 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

81) What occurs at "A" on the graph? A) aortic semilunar valve opens B) aortic semilunar valve closes C) left AV valve opens D) left AV valve closes E) end-systolic volume Answer: A Learning Outcome: 18.10 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 82) What occurs at the circled label "4" on the graph? A) peak systolic pressure B) isovolumetric diastole C) isovolumetric contraction D) ventricular refilling E) increased heart rate Answer: C Learning Outcome: 18.10 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 83) What does the circle label "5" indicate on the graph? A) peak systolic pressure B) isovolumetric systole C) isovolumetric contraction D) ventricular refilling E) increased heart rate Answer: A Learning Outcome: 18.10 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 84) In cardiac muscle, the fast depolarization phase of the action potential is the result of membrane permeability to ions. A) increased; sodium B) increased; potassium C) decreased; calcium D) decreased; sodium E) increased; chloride Answer: A Learning Outcome: 18.11 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

85) The long plateau phase of the cardiac muscle action potential is due to A) movement of fewer sodium ions across the cell membrane into the cell. B) voltage-gated calcium channels remaining open. C) increased membrane permeability to potassium ion. D) decrease in the amount of calcium diffusing across the membrane. E) increased membrane permeability to sodium ions. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 18.11 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 86) In cardiac muscle, calcium ions A) are not released from the sarcoplasmic reticulum. B) do not bind to troponin molecules. C) play no role in the process of contraction. D) enter the cell through slow voltage gated ion channels. E) play an important role in repolarizing the membrane after the depolarization phase. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 18.11 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 87) Tetanic muscle contractions don't occur in a normal cardiac muscle because A) cardiac muscle tissue contracts on its own. B) neural stimulation is lacking. C) the refractory period lasts until the muscle relaxes. D) the refractory period ends before the muscle reaches peak tension. E) potassium channels outnumber sodium channels. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 18.11 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 88) As a result of the long refractory period in the cardiac action potential, cardiac muscle cannot exhibit A) tonus. B) treppe. C) tetany. D) recruitment. E) fatigue. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 18.11 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

89) The normal pacemaker of the heart is located in A) the Purkinje fibers. B) the sinoatrial node. C) the atrioventricular node. D) the wall of the left ventricle. E) both the left and right ventricles. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 18.12 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 90) The following are structural components of the conducting system of the heart. 1. Purkinje fibers 2. AV bundle 3. AV node 4. SA node 5. bundle branches The sequence in which excitation would move through this system is which of the following? A) 1, 4, 3, 2, 5 B) 3, 2, 4, 5, 1 C) 3, 5, 4, 2, 1 D) 4, 3, 2, 5, 1 E) 4, 2, 3, 5, 1 Answer: D Learning Outcome: 18.12 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 91) The heart pumps approximately A) 6,000 B) 15,000 C) 20,000 D) 50,000 E) 100,000 Answer: A Learning Outcome: 18.12 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

milliliters of blood each minute.

92) Pacemaker cells in the SA node A) have a well-defined resting potential. B) generate action potentials that spread to the myocardium. C) are highly contractile. D) have an action potential identical to contractile cardiac muscle cells. E) are located in the left atrium. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 18.12 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 24

93) Which parts of the following statement are true? The AV node delivers the stimulus to the AV bundle, located within the interventricular septum. A) The first part of the statement is true but the second part is false. B) The first part of the statement is false but the second part is true. C) Both parts of the statement are true. D) Both parts of the statement are false. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 18.12 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 94) If the pacemaker cells in the SA node become more permeable to potassium ions, A) the heart rate will increase. B) the heart rate will decrease. C) the membrane will depolarize. D) the membrane will hyperpolarize. E) both heart rate will decrease and membrane will hyperpolarize. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 18.12 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 95) If the connection between the SA node and AV node becomes blocked, A) the ventricles will beat faster. B) the ventricles will beat more slowly. C) the ventricular beat will remain unchanged. D) cardiac output will increase. E) All of the answers are correct. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 18.12 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 96) Pacemaker cells isolated from the SA node generate action potentials at minute. A) 20-40 B) 40-60 C) 80-100 D) 100-140 E) 140-180 Answer: C Learning Outcome: 18.12 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

beats per

97) The P wave of the electrocardiogram is a signal from A) depolarization of the SA node. B) depolarization of the AV node. C) depolarization of the atria. D) repolarization of the atria. E) depolarization of the ventricles. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 18.13 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 98) Depolarization of the ventricles is represented on an electrocardiogram by the A) P wave. B) T wave. C) S wave. D) QRS complex. E) PR complex. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 18.13 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 99) The T wave on an ECG tracing represents A) atrial depolarization. B) atrial repolarization. C) ventricular depolarization. D) ventricular repolarization. E) ventricular contraction. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 18.13 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 100) Analyzing of the electrocardiogram can reveal all of the following except the A) heart rate. B) stroke volume. C) condition of the conducting system. D) effects of drugs and poisons. E) duration of the ventricular action potential. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 18.13 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

101) During the cardiac cycle, A) the P wave of the ECG occurs between the first and second heart sounds. B) the QRS complex of the ECG precedes the increase in ventricular pressure. C) the second heart sound occurs during atrial systole. D) the second heart sound coincides with the QRS complex of the ECG. E) both QRS complex of the ECG precedes the increase in ventricular pressure and second heart sound coincides with the QRS complex of the ECG. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 18.13 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 102) During the T wave of the electrocardiogram, the ventricles are electrically functionally . A) depolarizing,; relaxing B) repolarizing; contracting C) depolarizing; contracting D) repolarizing; relaxing E) neutral; at rest Answer: D Learning Outcome: 18.13 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

and

103) Depolarization of the atria corresponds to the ECG's A) P wave. B) QRS complex. C) QT interval. D) T wave. E) S-T segment. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 18.13 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 104) Abnormally slow depolarization of the ventricles would most change the shape of the in an ECG tracing. A) P wave B) T wave C) QRS complex D) P-R interval E) R-T interval Answer: C Learning Outcome: 18.13 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

105) If there is a complete block between the SA node and the AV node, how would the ECG be affected? A) The P-R interval will be shorter. B) The QRS duration will be longer. C) There will be much bigger P waves. D) The ventricles will stop beating. E) The rate of P waves will be faster than the rate of QRS complexes. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 18.13 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 106) A faster-than-normal heart rate is called A) fibrillation. B) premature contractions. C) tachycardia. D) bradycardia. E) None of the answers is correct. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 18.13 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 107) A slower-than-normal heart rate is called A) fibrillation. B) premature contractions. C) tachycardia. D) bradycardia. E) None of the answers is correct. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 18.14 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 108) The heart is innervated by nerves. A) parasympathetic B) sympathetic C) both parasympathetic and sympathetic D) neither parasympathetic nor sympathetic E) somatomotor Answer: C Learning Outcome: 18.14 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

109) is to slow heart rate as A) Tachycardia; bradycardia B) Bradycardia; cardiomyopathy C) Bradycardia; tachycardia D) Cardiac tamponade; bradycardia E) None of the answers is correct. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 18.14 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

is to fast heart rate.

110) Which of the following would decrease heart rate? A) increased sympathetic stimulation of SA node B) decreased parasympathetic stimulation of nodal fibers C) increased levels of norepinephrine and/or epinephrine D) faster depolarization of the pacemaker potential E) increased parasympathetic stimulation of nodal fibers. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 18.14 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 111) Drugs that block the beta-one adrenergic receptors will A) increase heart rate. B) decrease heart rate. C) increase contractility. D) increase cardiac output. E) decrease the end-systolic volume. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 18.14 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 112) The heart beats approximately A) 1,000 B) 10,000 C) 100,000 D) 1,000,000 E) 10,000,000 Answer: C Learning Outcome: 18.14 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

times each day.

113) Acetylcholine slows the heart because it A) opens potassium ion channels in SA node cells. B) opens sodium-calcium ion channels in SA node cells. C) causes the pacemaker potential to depolarize more quickly. D) causes the pacemaker potential to depolarize more slowly. E) opens potassium ion channels in SA node cells and causes the pacemaker potential to depolarize more slowly. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 18.14 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 114) Activation of which kind of receptor causes heart rate to increase? A) alpha-one receptor B) beta-one receptor C) muscarinic receptor D) beta-two receptor E) preganglionic Answer: B Learning Outcome: 18.14 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 115) Heart rate is controlled by neurons of the cardiovascular center located in the A) pons. B) thalamus. C) medulla oblongata. D) hypothalamus. E) higher centers. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 18.14 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 116) Which parts of the following statement are true? The cardioacceleratory center activates sympathetic neurons and the cardioinhibitory center controls parasympathetic neurons. A) The first part of the statement is true but the second part is false. B) The first part of the statement is false but the second part is true. C) Both parts of the statement are true. D) Both parts of the statement are false. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 18.14 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

117) If the connection between the vagus nerve and the heart is cut, which of these changes will occur? A) Heart will beat slower. B) Stroke volume will decrease. C) Cardiac output will decrease. D) Nodal fibers will depolarize more slowly. E) The heart will beat faster. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 18.14 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 118) The is the volume of blood in a ventricle at the beginning of systole. A) stroke volume B) end-systolic volume C) end-diastolic volume D) afterload E) preload Answer: C Learning Outcome: 18.15 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 119) The volume of blood ejected from each ventricle during a contraction is called the A) end-diastolic volume. B) end-systolic volume. C) stroke volume. D) cardiac output. E) cardiac reserve. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 18.15 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 120) The is the amount of blood in a ventricle after it has contracted and before it begins to refill. A) stroke volume B) end-systolic volume C) end-diastolic volume D) afterload E) preload Answer: B Learning Outcome: 18.15 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

121) The amount of blood returning to the heart is the A) stroke volume. B) venous return. C) end-diastolic volume. D) afterload. E) preload. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 18.15 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 122) Stroke volume depends on all of the following except A) end-diastolic volume. B) the contractility of the ventricle. C) the pressure required to pump blood into the aorta. D) end-systolic volume. E) cardiac output. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 18.15 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 123) Drugs known as calcium channel blockers such as nifedipine can be used to A) decrease the force of cardiac contraction. B) increase blood pressure. C) increase the rate of cardiac contraction. D) increase the force of contractions. E) decrease afterload. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 18.15 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 124) Which of the following would be greater? A) the end-diastolic volume when the heart rate is 150 beats/minute B) the end-diastolic volume when the heart rate is 60 beats/minute Answer: B Learning Outcome: 18.15 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 125) Averaged over a few heartbeats, venous return is A) much higher than B) somewhat higher than C) equal to D) somewhat lower than E) much lower than Answer: C Learning Outcome: 18.15 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 32

cardiac output.

126) Each of the following factors will increase cardiac output except A) increased venous return. B) increased parasympathetic stimulation. C) increased sympathetic stimulation. D) increased heart rate. E) increased venous return and increased parasympathetic stimulation. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 18.16 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 127) Cardiac output can be increased by all of the following except A) decreasing ejection fraction. B) decreasing end-systolic volume. C) increasing stroke volume. D) increasing ejection fraction. E) increasing heart rate. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 18.16 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 128) Cardiac output is increased by A) more sympathetic stimulation. B) increased end-diastolic volume. C) increased stroke volume. D) All of the answers are correct. E) None of the answers is correct. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 18.16 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 129) What effect would compressing the inferior vena cava just below the diaphragm have on cardiac function? A) Stroke volume would increase. B) Cardiac output would increase. C) Sympathetic stimulation of the heart would increase. D) Heart rate would decrease. E) None of the answers is correct. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 18.16 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying

130) Which of these would cause stroke volume to increase? A) when venous return is increased B) when venous return is decreased C) when diastolic blood pressure is decreased D) both when venous return is increased and when diastolic blood pressure is decreased E) both when venous return is decreased and when diastolic blood pressure is decreased Answer: D Learning Outcome: 18.16 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 131) Describe the location and position of the heart. (Module 18.1A) A) The heart is located near the anterior chest wall, directly behind the sternum. B) The heart is located near the posterior chest wall, directly beside the vertebral column. C) The heart is located near the anterior chest wall, below the diaphragm. D) The heart is located near the right lateral chest wall. E) The heart is located near the stomach in the abdominopelvic cavity. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 18.1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 132) Compare the base of the heart with the apex. (Module 18.1B) A) The base of the heart is the inferior portion where the largest veins and arteries are attached. The apex of the heart is located on the superior aspect of the heart. B) The base of the heart is the superior portion where the largest veins and arteries are attached. The apex of the heart is located on the inferior aspect of the heart. C) The base of the heart is located on the inferior aspect of the heart. The apex of the heart is located on the superior border of the heart where the largest veins and arteries are attached. D) The base of the heart is located on the superior aspect of the heart. The apex of the heart is located on the inferior border of the heart where the largest veins and arteries are attached. E) The base of the heart is located on the inferior aspect of the heart. The apex of the heart is located in the middle of the heart where the largest veins and arteries are attached. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 18.1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 133) Name the four chambers of the heart. (Module 18.1C) A) superior atrium, inferior atrium, superior ventricle, inferior ventricle B) left superior chamber, right superior chamber, left inferior chamber, right inferior chamber C) superior lesser chamber, inferior lesser chamber, superior greater chamber, inferior greater chamber D) superior pulmonary chamber, inferior pulmonary chamber, superior systemic chamber, inferior systemic chamber E) left atrium, left ventricle, right atrium, right ventricle Answer: E Learning Outcome: 18.1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 34

134) Compare the volume of blood each circuit receives from contraction of the ventricles. (Module 18.1D) A) The pulmonary circuit receives half as much blood as the systemic circuit. B) The systemic circuit receives twice as much blood as the pulmonary circuit. C) Both circuits receive the same volume of blood. D) The systemic circuit receives three times as much blood as the pulmonary circuit. E) The systemic circuit receives four times as much blood as the pulmonary circuit. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 18.1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 135) Define mediastinum. (Module 18.2A) A) The mediastinum is the region that contains each lung. B) The mediastinum is the region between the two pleural cavities that contains the heart, along with the great vessels, thymus, esophagus, and trachea. C) The mediastinum is the region anterior to the sternum that is pressed during cardiac pulmonary resuscitation. D) The mediastinum is the region from the diaphragm to the superior border or the rib cage and from each lateral side of the rib cage. E) The mediastinum is the serious membrane that surrounds the heart. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 18.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 136) Describe the heart's location in the body. (Module 18.2B) A) The heart is surrounded by the mediastinum in the anterior pericardium, deep to the sternum and superior to the diaphragm. B) The heart is surrounded by the pleural cavity in the anterior mediastinum, deep to the lungs and superior to the diaphragm. C) The heart is surrounded by the pleural cavity in the posterior mediastinum, deep to the sternum and inferior to the diaphragm. D) The heart is surrounded by the pericardium in the anterior mediastinum, deep to the sternum and superior to the diaphragm. E) The heart is surrounded by the pericardium in the posterior mediastinum, deep to the lungs and superior to the diaphragm. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 18.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

137) Why can cardiac tamponade be a life-threatening condition? (Module 18.2C) A) Cardiac tamponade can be life-threatening because accumulating fluid in the pericardial cavity restricts heart movement. B) Cardiac tamponade can be life-threatening because accumulating fluid in the mediastinum restricts heart movement. C) Cardiac tamponade can be life-threatening because loss of fluid in the pericardial cavity causes friction which causes arrhythmias. D) Cardiac tamponade can be life-threatening because loss of fluid in the mediastinum causes friction which causes arrhythmias. E) Cardiac tamponade can be life-threatening because a hole in the heart leads to mixing of oxygenated and deoxygenated blood. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 18.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 138) From superficial to deep, name the layers of the heart wall. (Module 18.3A) A) endocardium, myocardium, pericardium B) endocardium, pericardium, myocardium C) myocardium, pericardium, endocardium D) pericardium, endocardium, myocardium E) pericardium, myocardium, endocardium Answer: E Learning Outcome: 18.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 139) Why is it important that cardiac tissue contain many mitochondria and capillaries? (Module 18.3C) A) Cardiac tissue primarily uses mitochondria for fermentation to generate ATP and capillaries provide a way to get rid of the lactic acid. B) Cardiac tissue primarily uses mitochondria for anaerobic respiration to generate ATP and capillaries get rid of the waste generated. C) Cardiac tissue primarily uses mitochondria for glycolysis to generate ATP and capillaries provide the oxygen and nutrients for this process. D) Cardiac tissue is metabolically active and dependent on mitochondrial activity to use aerobic respiration to generate ATP and capillaries provide the oxygen and nutrients for this process. E) Cardiac tissue is metabolically active and dependent on the mitochondrial activity for the breakdown of fatty acids during beta-oxidation and the capillaries provide the fatty acids for this process. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 18.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

140) The anterior view of the heart is dominated by which chambers? (Module 18.4A) A) right atrium and right ventricle B) left atrium and left ventricle C) right atrium and left atrium D) right ventricle and left ventricle E) right atrium and left ventricle Answer: A Learning Outcome: 18.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 141) Which structures collect blood from the myocardium, and into which heart chamber does this blood flow? (Module 18.4B) A) Coronary arteries collect blood from the myocardium and carry it to the right atrium. B) Coronary arteries collect blood from the myocardium and carry it to the left atrium. C) Coronary veins collect blood from the myocardium and carry it to the right atrium. D) Coronary veins collect blood from the myocardium and carry it to the left atrium. E) Coronary veins collect blood from the myocardium and carry it to the right ventricle. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 18.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 142) Describe the areas of the heart supplied by the right and left coronary arteries. (Module 18.5A) A) The right coronary artery supplies blood to left atrium and portions of both ventricles. The left coronary artery supplies blood to the right atrium, the conducting system, and interventricular septum. B) The right coronary artery supplies blood to the right atrium, portions of both ventricles, and the conducting system. The left coronary artery supplies blood to the left ventricle, left atrium, and interventricular septum. C) The right coronary artery supplies blood to the right atrium and right ventricle. The left coronary artery supplies blood to the left atrium, left ventricle, the conducting system, andinterventricular septum. D) The right coronary artery supplies blood to the conducting system and interventricular septum. The left coronary artery supplies blood to all four chambers. E) The right coronary artery supplies blood to all four chambers. The left coronary artery supplies blood to the conducting system and interventricular septum. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 18.5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

143) Compare the anterior cardiac veins to the posterior vein of the left ventricle. (Module 18.5B) A) The anterior cardiac veins drain the anterior surface of all chambers; the posterior vein of left ventricle drains the posterior surface of all chambers. B) The anterior cardiac veins drain the left and right atria; the posterior vein of left ventricle drains the left and right ventricles. C) The anterior cardiac veins drain the left and right ventricles; the posterior vein of left ventricle drains the left and right atria. D) The anterior cardiac veins drain the anterior surface of the right ventricle and empty into the right atrium; the posterior vein of left ventricle drains the area supplied by the circumflex artery (posterior surface of the left ventricle). E) The anterior cardiac veins drain the right atrium and right ventricle and empty into the right atrium; the posterior vein of left ventricle drains the left atrium and left ventricle. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 18.5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 144) Describe what happens to blood flow during elastic rebound. (Module 18.5D) A) Elastic rebound pushes blood from the cardiac veins into the right atrium. B) Elastic rebound is what pushes blood through the coronary arteries when the heart is contracting. C) Elastic rebound is when blood in the aorta is driven forward into the systemic circuit, some is forced back toward the left ventricle and into the coronary arteries. D) Elastic rebound is the contraction of the ventricles forcing blood into the outflow vessels. E) Elastic rebound is the speed with which the heart returns to its relaxed state after contracting. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 18.5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 145) Why is the left ventricle more muscular than the right ventricle? (Module 18.6A) A) The left ventricle is supplied with more coronary vasculature so it hypertrophies over time, whereas the right ventricle receives less blood so it atrophies over time. B) The left ventricle must generate enough force to propel blood through the systemic circuit, whereas the right ventricle must generate only enough force to propel blood the short distance from the heart to the lungs in the pulmonary circuit. C) The left ventricle pumps a higher volume of blood to the systemic circuit than the volume of blood the right ventricle pumps to the pulmonary circuit. D) The left ventricle began forming earlier in development so it grew larger than the right ventricle. E) The left ventricle supplies blood to the brain and vital organs so it must be more reliable than the right ventricle which supplies blood to the limbs. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 18.6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

146) Damage to the semilunar valve on the right side of the heart would affect blood flow to which vessel? (Module 18.6B) A) pulmonary trunk B) aorta C) pulmonary veins D) superior vena cava E) inferior vena cava Answer: A Learning Outcome: 18.6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 147) Define cardiac regurgitation. (Module 18.7A) A) Cardiac regurgitation is the flow of blood from the ventricles into the outflow vessels. B) Cardiac regurgitation is the flow of blood back into the right and left atria from the veins. C) Cardiac regurgitation is the flow of blood into the ventricles during atrial contraction. D) Cardiac regurgitation is the backflow of blood into the atria when the ventricles contract. E) Cardiac regurgitation is the backflow of blood into the ventricles from the outflow vessels when the ventricles relax. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 18.7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 148) What do semilunar valves prevent? (Module 18.7C) A) Semilunar valves prevent the flow of blood into the ventricles during atrial contraction. B) Semilunar valves prevent backflow of blood into the atria. C) Semilunar valves prevent backflow of blood into the ventricles. D) Semilunar valves prevent backflow of blood into the veins. E) Semilunar valves prevent backflow of blood into the coronary vasculature. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 18.7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

149) Compare arteriosclerosis with atherosclerosis. (Module 18.8A) A) Arteriosclerosis is any thickening and toughening of arterial walls; atherosclerosis is a type of arteriosclerosis characterized by changes in the endothelial lining and the formation of fatty deposits (plaque) in the tunica media. B) Arteriosclerosis is a type of atherosclerosis characterized by changes in the endothelial lining and the formation of fatty deposits (plaque) in the tunica media. Atherosclerosis is any thickening and toughening of arterial walls. C) Arteriosclerosis is a blood clot that narrows the passageways in coronary arteries and reduces blood flow. Atherosclerosis is a plaque that narrows the passageways in coronary arteries and reduces blood flow. D) Arteriosclerosis is a partial blockage of coronary circulation usually caused by atherosclerosis. Atherosclerosis is characterized by changes in the endothelial lining and the formation of fatty deposits (plaque) in the tunica media. E) Arteriosclerosis is a plaque that narrows the passageways in coronary arteries and reduces blood flow. Atherosclerosis is a blood clot that narrows the passageways in coronary arteries and reduces blood flow. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 18.8 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 150) What is coronary ischemia? (Module 18.8B) A) Coronary ischemia is a blood clot in the coronary vasculature. B) Coronary ischemia is an air bubble in the coronary vasculature. C) Coronary ischemia is a fatty mass of tissue that projects into the lumen of a vessel and restricts blood flow. D) Coronary ischemia is a condition in which the blood supply of the coronary arteries is reduced. E) Coronary ischemia is an irregular heart rhythm caused by an ectopic pacemaker. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 18.8 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 151) Define cardiac cycle. (Module 18.9A) A) Cardiac cycle is the number of heartbeats in one minute. B) Cardiac cycle is the number of heartbeats in one day. C) Cardiac cycle is the time it takes one blood cell to make a complete circuit through the systemic and pulmonary circuits. D) Cardiac cycle is time it takes the entire volume of blood to cycle through the heart. E) Cardiac cycle is the period between the start of one heartbeat and the beginning of the next. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 18.9 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

152) Give the alternate terms for heart contraction and heart relaxation. (Module 18.9B) A) The alternate term for heart contraction is pumping and the alternate term for heart relaxation is resting. B) The alternate term for heart contraction is pumping and the alternate term for heart relaxation is filling. C) The alternate term for heart contraction is working and the alternate term for heart relaxation is resting. D) The alternate term for heart contraction is systole and the alternate term for heart relaxation is diastole. E) The alternate term for heart contraction is diastole and the alternate term for heart relaxation is systole. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 18.9 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 153) Compare the duration of atrial and ventricular systole at a representative heart rate of 75 bpm. (Module 18.9C) A) Atrial systole has a duration of 100 msec, and ventricular systole has a duration of 270 msec. B) Atrial systole has a duration of 270 msec, and ventricular systole has a duration of 100 msec. C) Atrial systole has a duration of 100 msec, and ventricular systole has a duration of 100 msec. D) Atrial systole has a duration of 270 msec, and ventricular systole has a duration of 270 msec. E) Atrial systole has a duration of 100 msec, and ventricular systole has a duration of 370 msec. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 18.9 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 154) List the phases of the cardiac cycle. (Module 18.10A) A) atrial systole and ventricular systole B) atrial diastole and ventricular diastole C) ventricular systole and ventricular diastole D) atrial systole, atrial diastole, ventricular systole, ventricular diastole E) atrial systole, ventricular systole, ventricular diastole Answer: D Learning Outcome: 18.10 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 155) What are the two phases of ventricular systole? (Module 18.10B) A) left ventricular systole and right ventricular systole B) isovolumetric contraction and ventricular ejection C) isovolumetric relaxation and ventricular ejection D) isovolumetric contraction and ventricular filling E) isovolumetric relaxation and ventricular filling Answer: B Learning Outcome: 18.10 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

156) Why does tetany not occur in cardiac muscle? (Module 18.11A) A) Tetany does not occur because the sarcoplasmic reticulum in cardiac muscle does not hold as much calcium for maximum sustained contractions. B) Tetany does not occur because the gap junctions in cardiac muscle prevent the sustained contraction. C) Tetany does not occur because cardiac muscle has a long refractory period that continues until relaxation is well under way so summation cannot occur, and thus tetany cannot occur. D) Tetany does not occur because cardiac muscle cells are branched instead of lying in parallel fibers like skeletal muscle. E) Tetany does not occur because the depolarizations in cardiac muscle are not sufficient to cause the formation of action potentials. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 18.11 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 157) List the three stages of an action potential in a cardiac muscle cell. (Module 18.11B) A) rapid depolarization, plateau, and hyperpolarization B) plateau, repolarization, and hyperpolarization C) slow depolarization, plateau, and hyperpolarization D) rapid depolarization, repolarization, hyperpolarization E) rapid depolarization, plateau, and repolarization Answer: E Learning Outcome: 18.11 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 158) Define autorhythmicity. (Module 18.12A) A) Autorhythmicity is the ability of the heart to contract with neural stimulation. B) Autorhythmicity is the ability of the heart to contract with hormonal stimulation. C) Autorhythmicity is the ability of the heart to contract without neural or hormonal stimulation. D) Autorhythmicity is the ability of the heart to relax after each contraction. E) Autorhythmicity is the ability of the heart to respond to sympathetic stimulation. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 18.12 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 159) If the cells of the SA node failed to function, how would the heart rate be affected? (Module 18.12B) A) The heart would beat faster because the AV node would be the pacemaker. B) The heart would beat slower because the AV node would be the pacemaker. C) The heart would stop beating because the SA node was not acting as the pacemaker. D) The heart would go into an arrhythmia because the Purkinje fibers would try to be the pacemaker. E) The heart would beat faster because the inherent rate of myocardial depolarization is faster than the SA node pacemaker. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 18.12 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 42

160) Define electrocardiogram. (Module 18.13A) A) An electrocardiogram is a color-enhanced digital scan of the heart. B) An electrocardiogram is an ultrasound of the heart. C) An electrocardiogram allows physicians to see blood flow through the heart. D) An electrocardiogram is a recording of the electrical activity of the heart. E) An electrocardiogram is a recording of the contractile activity of the heart. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 18.13 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 161) List the important features of the ECG, and indicate what each represents. (Module 18.13B) A) P wave (atrial repolarization), QRS complex (ventricular depolarization), T wave (ventricular repolarization) B) P wave (atrial repolarization), QRS complex (ventricular depolarization), T wave (atrial depolarization) C) P wave (atrial depolarization), QRS complex (ventricular depolarization), T wave (ventricular repolarization) D) P wave (atrial depolarization), QRS complex (ventricular depolarization), T wave (atrial depolarization of the next cycle) E) P wave (atrial contraction), QRS complex (ventricular contraction), T wave (ventricular relaxation) Answer: C Learning Outcome: 18.13 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 162) Why is ventricular fibrillation fatal? (Module 18.13C) A) Ventricular fibrillation is fatal because the ventricles quiver and do not relax long enough to be filled with blood by the atria. B) Ventricular fibrillation is fatal because the ventricles quiver and do not pump blood to the systemic circulation. C) Ventricular fibrillation is fatal because the ventricles do not relax long enough for the coronary vessels to fill with blood for the coronary tissue to receive oxygen and nutrients. D) Ventricular fibrillation is fatal because the heart is beating to an ectopic pacemaker and the rhythm is irregular. E) Ventricular fibrillation is fatal because the heart rate slows significantly and blood flow and pressure decreases. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 18.13 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

163) Compare bradycardia with tachycardia. (Module 18.14A) A) Bradycardia is an abnormally weak ventricular contraction and tachycardia is an abnormally strong ventricular contraction. B) Bradycardia is an abnormally strong ventricular contraction and tachycardia is an abnormally weak ventricular contraction. C) Bradycardia is a heart rate above 100 beats per minute and tachycardia is a heart rate below 60 beats per minute. D) Bradycardia is a heart rate below 80 beats per minute and tachycardia is a heart rate above 120 beats per minute. E) Bradycardia is a heart rate below 60 beats per minute and tachycardia is a heart rate above 100 beats per minute. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 18.14 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 164) Describe the sites and actions of the cardioinhibitory and cardioacceleratory centers. (Module 18.14B) A) The cardioacceleratory center in the medulla oblongata activates sympathetic neurons to increase heart rate; the cardioinhibitory center in the medulla oblongata activates parasympathetic neurons that slow heart rate. B) The cardioacceleratory center in the medulla oblongata activates parasympathetic neurons to increase heart rate; the cardioinhibitory center in the medulla oblongata activates sympathetic neurons that slow heart rate. C) The cardioacceleratory center in the medulla oblongata activates sympathetic neurons to slow heart rate; the cardioinhibitory center in the medulla oblongata activates parasympathetic neurons that increase heart rate. D) The cardioacceleratory center in the medulla oblongata activates parasympathetic neurons to slow heart rate; the cardioinhibitory center in the medulla oblongata activates sympathetic neurons that increase heart rate. E) The cardioacceleratory center in the medulla oblongata activates somatic neurons to slow heart rate; the cardioinhibitory center in the medulla oblongata activates somatic neurons that increase heart rate. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 18.14 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 165) Caffeine has effects on conducting cells and contractile cells that are similar to those of NE. What effect would drinking large amounts of caffeinated beverages have on the heart rate? (Module 18.14C) A) heart rate would increase B) heart rate would decrease C) heart rate would stay the same but contraction would increase D) heart rate would stay the same but contraction would decrease Answer: A Learning Outcome: 18.14 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 44

166) What effect would an increase in venous return have on the stroke volume? (Module 18.15B) A) An increase in venous return would fill the ventricles with more blood, decreasing sarcomere length, which would decrease the stroke volume. B) An increase in venous return would fill the ventricles with more blood, increasing sarcomere length, which would increase the stroke volume. C) An increase in venous return would fill the ventricles with less blood, decreasing sarcomere length, which would increase the stroke volume. D) An increase in venous return would fill the ventricles with less blood, decreasing sarcomere length, which would decrease the stroke volume. E) An increase in venous return would fill the ventricles with less blood, increasing sarcomere length, which would decrease the stroke volume. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 18.15 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 167) Define heart failure. (Module 18.16A) A) Heart failure is the inability of the heart to keep a normal heart rhythm. B) Heart failure is a blockage in one of the coronary arteries that prevents blood flow to the coronary tissue. C) Heart failure is a condition of an abnormally slow heart rate. D) Heart failure is a condition where the heart can no longer meet the oxygen and nutrient demands of peripheral tissues. E) Heart failure is a condition in which one or more valves fail to prevent regurgitation of blood. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 18.16 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 168) Compute Joe's stroke volume if his end-systolic volume (ESV) is 40 mL and his enddiastolic volume (EDV) is 125 mL. (Module 18.16B) A) 45 mL B) 85 mL C) 165 mL D) 500 mL E) 5000 mL Answer: B Learning Outcome: 18.16 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying

Essay Questions 169) Beth Wood tells her nursing students that it is important to monitor patients' blood pressure when they are receiving verapamil (a calcium channel blocker). Why? Answer: Calcium channel blockers inhibit the movement of calcium ions from the interstitial fluid into cardiac and smooth muscle cells. This would cause a decrease in heart rate, stroke volume, and cardiac output. These in turn would lower blood pressure. In addition, the calcium channel blockers would also inhibit contraction of the smooth muscle in the wall of blood vessels, causing them to get wider and thus also lower blood pressure. Because both heart and smooth muscle cells are inhibited by verapamil, its effects on blood pressure are particularly potent. Learning Outcome: 18.11 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 170) A patient's ECG recording shows a very long P-R interval. What is the cause of this abnormal wave pattern? Answer: The P wave marks the time of atrial depolarization and the QRS complex signals ventricular depolarization. Between those two events the AV node was excited and the action potential was spread through the conducting tissue to the ventricular myocardium. A prolonged P-R interval signifies an unusually slow conduction through the AV node and conducting system, possibly due to insufficient blood flow (ischemia). Learning Outcome: 18.13 Bloom's Taxonomy: Analyzing 171) Describe the tissue layers of the pericardium. (Module 18.3B) Answer: The pericardium consists of a fibrous pericardium and two-layered serious pericardium. The parietal layer of the serous pericardium lines the outer wall of the pericardial cavity. A mesothelium lines the pericardial cavity, and an underlying layer of areolar tissue is in contact with the fibrous tissue of the fibrous pericardium. The visceral layer of the serous pericardium has an outer mesothelium and an underlying layer of areolar tissue that attaches directly to the myocardium. Learning Outcome: 18.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 172) Name and describe the shallow depressions and grooves found on the heart's external surface. (Module 18.4C) Answer: The anterior interventricular sulcus marks the boundary between the left and right ventricles on the heart's anterior surface; the shallower posterior interventricular sulcus marks the boundary between the left and right ventricles on the posterior surface; and the coronary sulcus is a deep groove that marks the border between the atria and the ventricles. Learning Outcome: 18.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

173) List the arteries and veins of the heart. (Module 18.5C) Answer: Arteries: left coronary artery, anterior interventricular artery, right coronary artery, marginal arteries, circumflex artery, and posterior interventricular artery. Veins: great cardiac vein, anterior cardiac veins, posterior vein of left ventricle, middle cardiac vein, and small cardiac vein. Learning Outcome: 18.5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 174) Describe the structural and functional roles of the cardiac skeleton. (Module 18.7B) Answer: Structurally, the cardiac skeleton stabilizes the position of the heart valves and ventricular muscle cells; functionally, it electrically isolates the atrial and ventricular myocardia. Learning Outcome: 18.7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 175) Is the heart always pumping blood when pressure in the left ventricle is rising? Explain. (Module 18.10C) Answer: No. When pressure in the left ventricle first rises, the heart is contracting, but blood is not leaving the heart. During this initial phase of contraction, called the period of isovolumetric contraction, both the AV valves and the semilunar valves are closed. The increase in pressure is the result of the cardiac muscle contracting. When the pressure in the ventricle exceeds that in the aorta, the aortic semilunar valves are forced open, and blood is rapidly ejected from the ventricle. Learning Outcome: 18.10 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 176) Describe slow calcium channels and the significance of their activity. (Module 18.11C) Answer: Slow calcium channels are voltage-gated calcium channels that open slowly and remain open for a relatively long period — about 175 msec. When they are open, the entry of calcium ions into the cell roughly balances the loss of sodium ions through the active transport of sodium ions. As a result, the membrane potential remains near 0 mV for an extended period. Learning Outcome: 18.11 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 177) Why is it important for impulses from the atria to be delayed at the AV node before they pass into the ventricles? (Module 18.12C) Answer: If the impulses from the atria were not delayed at the AV node, they would be conducted through the ventricles so quickly by the bundle branches and Purkinje cells that the ventricles would begin contracting before the atria had finished contracting. As a result, the ventricles would not be as full of blood as they could be, and the pumping action of the heart would be less efficient. Learning Outcome: 18.12 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

178) Define end-diastolic volume (EDV) and end-systolic volume (ESV). (Module 18.15A) Answer: The end-diastolic volume (EDV) is the amount of blood a ventricle contains at the end of diastole, just before a contraction begins; the end-systolic volume (ESV) is the amount of blood that remains in the ventricle at the end of ventricular systole. Learning Outcome: 18.15 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 179) What effect would an increase in sympathetic stimulation of the heart have on the endsystolic volume (ESV)? (Module 18.15C) Answer: An increase in sympathetic stimulation of the heart would increase heart rate and force of contraction. The end-systolic volume (ESV) is the amount of blood that remains in a ventricle after a contraction (systole). The more forcefully the heart contracts, the more blood it ejects. Therefore, increased sympathetic stimulation results in a lower ESV. Learning Outcome: 18.15 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying

Visual Anatomy and Physiology, 3e (Martini) Chapter 19 Blood Vessels and Circulation Multiple Choice Questions 1) Metabolites exchange by diffusion with the tissues and the cells in which of the following locations? A) artery B) arteriole C) capillary D) venule E) vein Answer: C Learning Outcome: 19.1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 2) Blood returning from the systemic circuit enters the A) left atrium. B) left ventricle. C) right atrium. D) right ventricle. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 19.1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 3) Blood is pumped into the pulmonary circuit from the A) left atrium. B) left ventricle. C) right atrium. D) right ventricle. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 19.1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

4) Arrange the following structures in the correct order as blood would pass through them. 1. left atrium 2. pulmonary arteries 3. systemic veins 4. right ventricle 5. right atrium 6. pulmonary veins A) 4, 6, 2, 3, 1, 5 B) 3, 5, 4, 2, 6, 1 C) 2, 6, 4, 5, 3, 1 D) 1, 5, 6, 2, 3, 4 E) 6, 1, 5, 4, 2, 3 Answer: B Learning Outcome: 19.1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 5) The process of decrease in any vessel diameter that occurs due to smooth muscle contraction is called A) venoconstriction. B) venodilation. C) vasoconstriction. D) vasodilation. E) None of the answers is correct. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 19.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 6) The muscular layer of a blood vessel is the A) tunica intima. B) tunica externa. C) tunica media. D) tunica interna. E) tunica adventitia. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 19.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 7) Compared to arteries, veins A) have internal and external elastic membranes. B) have more smooth muscle in their tunica media. C) have a pleated endothelium. D) have thinner walls. E) are usually round when cut. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 19.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 2

8) Arrange the structures in the following list in the order that blood will encounter as it flows from the heart back to the heart in the cardiovascular circuit. 1. venules 2. arterioles 3. capillaries 4. elastic arteries 5. medium veins 6. large veins 7. muscular arteries A) 7, 4, 2, 3, 1, 5, 6 B) 6, 5, 1, 3, 2, 7, 4 C) 5, 6, 1, 3, 2, 7, 4 D) 2, 7, 6, 3, 1, 5, 6 E) 4, 7, 2, 3, 1, 5, 6 Answer: E Learning Outcome: 19.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 9) The layer between the tunica media and the tunica externa in a large artery is the A) tunica intima. B) external elastic membrane. C) tunica media. D) internal elastic membrane. E) tunica externa. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 19.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 10) Which of the following layers of a vessel contains collagen fibers with scattered bands of elastic fibers? A) tunica intima B) external elastic membrane C) tunica media D) internal elastic membrane E) tunica externa Answer: E Learning Outcome: 19.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

11) Which layer of a blood vessel contains concentric sheets of smooth muscle tissue? A) tunica intima B) external elastic membrane C) tunica media D) internal elastic membrane E) tunica externa Answer: C Learning Outcome: 19.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 12) The large vessels that return blood to the heart are called A) arteries. B) arterioles. C) capillaries. D) venules. E) veins. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 19.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 13) In large arteries, the thick layer of elastic fibers is called the A) tunica intima. B) external elastic membrane. C) tunica media. D) internal elastic membrane. E) tunica externa. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 19.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 14) Which of the following is the innermost layer of a blood vessel? A) tunica intima B) external elastic membrane C) tunica media D) internal elastic membrane E) tunica externa Answer: A Learning Outcome: 19.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

15) The common iliac artery is an example of which type of artery? A) arteriolar B) elastic C) connective D) muscular E) vascular Answer: B Learning Outcome: 19.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 16) The brachial and femoral arteries are examples of which type of artery? A) arteriolar B) elastic C) connective D) muscular E) vascular Answer: D Learning Outcome: 19.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 17) Which of the following is true regarding the inferior vena cava? A) It is considered a large vein. B) It carries oxygenated blood. C) It is colored red in diagrams. D) It lacks a tunica externa. E) It has a very thick tunica media. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 19.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 18) Which of the following are the smallest venous vessels? A) large veins B) venules C) medium veins D) capillaries E) venous valves Answer: B Learning Outcome: 19.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

19) The layer of the arteriole wall that can contains smooth muscle and can produce vasoconstriction is the A) tunica adventitia. B) tunica media. C) tunica intima. D) tunica externa. E) tunica mater. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 19.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 20) Of the following arteries, the one that is an elastic artery is A) the left subclavian artery. B) the external carotid artery. C) the brachial artery. D) the femoral artery. E) none of the above. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 19.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 21) Elastic fibers in the walls of which vessels are stretched as the heart beats? A) arteries B) arterioles C) capillaries D) venules E) veins Answer: A Learning Outcome: 19.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 22) RBCs move single file through this structure. A) artery B) arteriole C) capillary D) venule E) vein Answer: C Learning Outcome: 19.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

23) The thoroughfare channel ends at the A) artery. B) arteriole. C) capillary. D) venule. E) vein. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 19.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 24) Capillaries that have a complete lining are called A) continuous capillaries. B) fenestrated capillaries. C) sinusoidal capillaries. D) sinusoids. E) vasa vasorum. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 19.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 25) Capillaries with a perforated lining are called A) perforated capillaries. B) discontinuous capillaries. C) fenestrated capillaries. D) sinuses. E) vasa vasorum. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 19.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 26) Blood flow through a capillary is controlled by the A) vasa vasorum. B) sinusoids. C) precapillary sphincters. D) thoroughfare channel. E) collaterals. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 19.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

27) After blood leaves the capillaries, it enters the A) arteries. B) arterioles. C) capillaries. D) venules. E) veins. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 19.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 28) The type of capillary that permits the free exchange of water and solutes as large as plasma proteins are the A) perforated capillaries. B) discontinuous capillaries. C) fenestrated capillaries. D) sinusoids. E) vasa vasorum. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 19.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 29) Sinusoids can be found in the A) skeletal muscle. B) cartilage. C) central nervous system. D) liver. E) epithelia. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 19.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 30) are multiple arteries that fuse in order to serve a single capillary network. A) Sinusoids B) Collaterals C) Anastomoses D) Thoroughfares E) Elastic arteries Answer: B Learning Outcome: 19.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

31) Blood moves forward through veins because of all of the following except A) the pressure in the veins is lower than in the arteries. B) pumping by the smooth muscle in the wall of the vein. C) valves permitting flow of blood in one direction only. D) valves in the veins preventing the backward flow of blood. E) skeletal muscle compression. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 19.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 32) Which of the following is not a characteristic of venous valves? A) preventing backflow of blood B) channeling blood away from the heart C) channeling blood toward the heart D) permit blood flow in one direction only E) all of the above Answer: B Learning Outcome: 19.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 33) These vessels hold the largest percentage of the blood supply. A) systemic arteries B) systemic arterioles C) the heart D) pulmonary circuit vessels E) systemic venous system Answer: E Learning Outcome: 19.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 34) Venoconstriction reduces the diameter of which vessel? A) artery B) arteriole C) capillary D) venule E) vein Answer: E Learning Outcome: 19.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

35) refers to all the factors that resist blood flow in the entire circulatory system. A) Venous return B) Cardiac output C) Capillary pressure D) Total peripheral resistance E) Vascular resistance Answer: D Learning Outcome: 19.6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 36) Each of the following changes will result in increased blood flow to a tissue except A) increased hematocrit. B) increased vessel diameter. C) increased blood pressure. D) decreased peripheral resistance. E) relaxation of precapillary sphincters. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 19.6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 37) Total peripheral resistance is related to all of the following except A) the length of a blood vessel. B) the osmolarity of interstitial fluids. C) the flow characteristics. D) blood viscosity. E) blood vessel diameter. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 19.6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 38) Which of the following does not affect blood flow through the body? A) blood viscosity B) vessel diameter C) turbulence D) vascular resistance E) kidney disease Answer: E Learning Outcome: 19.6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

39) The main control of peripheral resistance by the vasomotor centers occurs in the A) artery. B) arteriole. C) capillary. D) venule. E) vein. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 19.6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 40) All of the following contributes to turbulent blood flow except A) when there are irregularities in the vessel wall. B) at high flow rates. C) when there are sudden changes in vessel diameter. D) third and fourth heart sounds. E) when heart valves open. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 19.6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 41) Which of the following would have the greater effect on vascular resistance? A) doubling the length of a blood vessel B) decreasing the diameter of a blood vessel by 1/2 C) Neither would be greater. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 19.6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 42) In which of the following would the resistance be greater? A) a vessel 10 microns in diameter B) a vessel 1 mm in diameter Answer: A Learning Outcome: 19.6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 43) In which of the following would the blood flow be highest? A) a vessel 0.5 cm in diameter and 2 meters long B) a vessel 1.0 cm in diameter and 10 meters long C) a vessel 0.5 cm in diameter and 4 meters long D) a vessel 1.0 cm in diameter and 2 meters long Answer: D Learning Outcome: 19.6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

44) Each of the following factors would increase peripheral resistance except A) increased sympathetic stimulation. B) elevated levels of epinephrine. C) vasodilation. D) irregularities in the vessel walls caused by plaques. E) elevated hematocrit. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 19.6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 45) Where is blood pressure highest? A) artery B) arteriole C) capillary D) venule E) vein Answer: A Learning Outcome: 19.7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 46) The difference between the systolic and diastolic pressures is called the A) critical closing B) mean arterial C) pulse D) blood E) circulatory Answer: C Learning Outcome: 19.7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 47) As blood travels from arteries to veins, A) pressure builds. B) pressure drops. C) flow becomes turbulent. D) viscosity increases. E) diameter of the blood vessels gets progressively smaller. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 19.7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

pressure.

48) If blood pressure doubled, the blood flow through a vessel would be A) doubled. B) halved. C) four times greater. D) 1/4 as much. E) unchanged. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 19.7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 49) Blood pressure is lowest in the A) arteries. B) arterioles. C) capillaries. D) venules. E) veins. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 19.7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 50) If a person has a blood pressure of 120/90, his mean arterial pressure would be mm Hg. A) 210 B) 100 C) 93 D) 105 E) None of the answers is correct. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 19.7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 51) Exchange between a blood vessel and the cells that surround it can occur only in A) arteries. B) arterioles. C) veins. D) venules. E) capillaries. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 19.8 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

52) are the only blood vessels whose walls are thin enough to permit blood-tissue exchange. A) Arteries B) Arterioles C) Capillaries D) Venules E) Veins Answer: C Learning Outcome: 19.8 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 53) Materials can move across capillary walls by A) diffusion. B) filtration. C) reabsorption. D) All of the answers are correct. E) None of the answers is correct. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 19.8 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 54) The blood colloid osmotic pressure mostly depends on the A) concentration of plasma sodium ions. B) concentration of plasma glucose. C) concentration of plasma waste products. D) concentration of plasma proteins. E) number of red blood cells. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 19.8 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 55) Which of the following statements is false concerning the movement of fluid between capillaries and interstitial space? A) Blood hydrostatic pressure forces fluid from the capillary to the interstitial space. B) Blood osmotic pressure moves fluid from the interstitial space to the capillary. C) The osmotic pressure of the interstitial fluid is less than the blood osmotic pressure. D) The hydrostatic pressure of the interstitial fluid is largely unimportant in determining fluid movement. E) The net filtration pressure is usually zero. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 19.8 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

56) The vascular pressure that declines from roughly 35 mm Hg to about 18 mm Hg is the A) venous pressure. B) capillary hydrostatic pressure. C) diastolic pressure. D) peripheral pressure. E) pulse pressure. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 19.8 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 57) Blood flow to a tissue will increase if the A) level of oxygen at the tissue increases. B) level of carbon dioxide at the tissue decreases. C) veins constrict. D) arterioles dilate. E) All of the answers are correct. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 19.8 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 58) Which of the following factors will not increase the net filtration pressure to move fluid out of capillaries? A) decreased plasma albumin B) increased blood hydrostatic pressure C) decreased blood colloidal pressure D) decreased net filtration rate E) decreased lymphatic flow Answer: D Learning Outcome: 19.8 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 59) The continual movement of fluid through the interstitial spaces produced by capillary filtration serves all of the following functions except A) accelerates the distribution of nutrients and hormones. B) assists the transport of insoluble substances that cannot enter the capillaries. C) helps carry toxins and bacteria to cells of the immune system. D) flushes hormones and wastes from the interstitial spaces. E) increases edema. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 19.8 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

60) Edema is not favored when A) the plasma concentration of albumin is reduced. B) endothelial permeability goes up. C) capillary hydrostatic pressure is elevated. D) interstitial fluid movement increases. E) liver damage decreases production of blood proteins. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 19.8 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 61) The hormone that produces cardiovascular effects similar to activation of the sympathetic nervous system is A) acetylcholine. B) epinephrine. C) bradykinin. D) tachykinin. E) sympathetic neuropeptide. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 19.9 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 62) is the regulation of blood flow by local mechanisms within a capillary bed. A) Central regulation B) Autoregulation C) Tissue perfusion D) All of the answers are correct. E) None of the answers is correct. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 19.9 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 63) Each of the following will lead to a decrease in blood pressure except A) release of renin. B) decrease in blood volume. C) decreased peripheral resistance. D) increased levels of ANP (atrial natriuretic peptide). E) reduced thirst. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 19.9 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

64) Stimulation of the aortic baroreceptors results in A) stimulation of the cardioacceleratory center in the brain. B) increased sympathetic stimulation of the heart. C) increased activity by the parasympathetic nervous system. D) stimulation of the vasoconstrictive center. E) increased heart rate. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 19.10 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 65) Blood pressure increases with all of the following except increased A) cardiac output. B) peripheral resistance. C) blood volume. D) parasympathetic innervation. E) force of cardiac contraction. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 19.10 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 66) When will the blood pressure be greater? A) when the peripheral vessels dilate B) when the peripheral vessels constrict Answer: B Learning Outcome: 19.10 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 67) An increase in the rate of action potentials from baroreceptors will lead to A) increase in heart rate. B) decrease in heart rate. C) decrease in blood pressure. D) both decrease in heart rate and decrease in blood pressure. E) both increase in heart rate and decrease in blood pressure. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 19.10 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 68) All of the following are characteristics of cardiovascular regulation except A) Blood flow through tissues meets the demand for oxygen. B) Blood flow changes to match tissue responses. C) Changes occur without drastically altering blood pressure. D) Blood flow through tissues meets the demand for nutrients. E) The heart rate decreasing as stroke volume decreases. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 19.10 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 17

69) When renin is released from the kidney, A) angiotensin II is converted to angiotensin I. B) angiotensin I formation is triggered. C) angiotensin I increases salt reabsorption at the kidneys. D) blood pressure goes down. E) blood flow to the kidneys decreases. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 19.10 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 70) Each of the following will cause an increase in blood pressure except A) increased levels of aldosterone. B) increased levels of angiotensin II. C) increased blood volume. D) increased levels of ANP (atrial natriuretic peptide). E) increased levels of ADH (antidiuretic hormone). Answer: D Learning Outcome: 19.10 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 71) Homeostatic mechanisms in response to blood loss include all of the following except A) uptake of interstitial fluid due to reduced capillary pressure. B) inhibition of EPO secretion. C) activation of ADH secretion. D) activation of aldosterone secretion. E) increased thirst and water intake. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 19.10 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 72) Increased levels of carbon dioxide in the blood will result in decreased A) heart rate. B) cardiac output. C) blood flow to the lungs. D) parasympathetic stimulation of the heart. E) None of the answers is correct. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 19.11 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

73) Chemoreceptor reflexes respond to A) carbon dioxide. B) oxygen. C) pH. D) All of the answers are correct. E) None of the answers is correct. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 19.11 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 74) Sensory neurons that are part of chemoreceptor reflexes are found in the A) medulla oblongata. B) hypothalamus. C) pons. D) cerebrum. E) cerebellum. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 19.11 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 75) Sensory neurons that are part of the chemoreceptor reflexes are found in all of the following except the A) common carotid artery. B) arch of the aorta. C) medulla oblongata. D) lungs. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 19.11 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 76) A decrease in blood CO2 levels would cause A) increased blood pH. B) increased cardiac output. C) increased blood pressure. D) increased stroke volume. E) increased respiratory rate. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 19.11 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

77) In comparing a trained athlete to a non-athlete, which of these comparisons is false? A) The athlete has a lower resting heart rate. B) Both hearts weigh about the same. C) The athlete has a higher resting stroke volume. D) The athlete has a higher exercise stroke volume. E) The athlete has a higher exercise cardiac output. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 19.12 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 78) Which of the following would you expect to have the lowest resting heart rate? A) a trained athlete B) an unconditioned adult C) a person with heart failure D) a teenager with a sedentary lifestyle E) an 80-year-old woman Answer: A Learning Outcome: 19.12 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 79) All of the following occur during exercise except A) vasodilation occurs to the active skeletal muscles. B) venous return increases. C) both cardiac output and stroke volume increase. D) blood flow to the brain stays relatively constant. E) blood flow to skin decreases. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 19.12 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 80) All of the following occur in response to hemorrhage except A) peripheral vasoconstriction. B) increased sympathetic stimulation of the heart. C) mobilization of the venous reserve. D) increase in blood pressure. E) decrease in blood volume. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 19.13 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

81) Venoconstriction the amount of blood within the venous system, which the volume in the arterial and capillary systems. A) doubles; decreases B) reduces; increases C) decreases; doubles D) increases; reduces E) None of the answers is correct. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 19.13 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 82) To defend blood volume against dehydration, the body A) accelerates reabsorption of water at the kidneys. B) experiences a recall of interstitial fluids. C) experiences an increase in the blood colloidal osmotic pressure. D) increases water intake. E) All of the answers are correct. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 19.13 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 83) ADH and aldosterone secretion are part of the body's long-term compensation for A) a heart attack. B) hypertension. C) a serious hemorrhage. D) prolonged exercise. E) a heavy meal. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 19.13 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 84) After losing 25 percent of blood volume in a motorcycle accident, which of the following compensatory responses would not occur? A) increased heart rate B) increase of contractility C) vasoconstriction of the body wall D) venoconstriction of skin vessels E) circulatory shock Answer: E Learning Outcome: 19.13 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying

85) Paul has a horrible chainsaw accident and cuts several major blood vessels in his head and neck. As a result of this injury, you would expect to observe all of the following except A) an increased heart rate. B) an increase in cardiac output. C) an increased secretion of renin by the kidneys. D) cold, clammy skin. E) an increased total peripheral resistance. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 19.13 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 86) The fetal cardinal veins later form the adult A) pulmonary veins. B) superior and inferior vena cavae. C) aorta. D) capillaries. E) umbilical veins. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 19.14 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 87) The fetal dorsal aorta later forms the adult A) superior vena cava. B) inferior vena cava. C) arch of the aorta. D) ascending aorta. E) descending aorta. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 19.14 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 88) The earliest precursor cells that give rise to blood cells are A) angioblasts. B) hemangioblasts. C) reticulocytes. D) lymphoid stem cells. E) osteoblasts. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 19.14 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

89) Angiogenesis refers to A) the growth of new blood vessels from preexisting vessels. B) the development of heart tissue. C) the formation of the first vessels. D) the formation of arteries only. E) the formation of veins only. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 19.14 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 90) Vasculogenesis refers to A) the growth of new blood vessels from preexisting vessels. B) the development of heart tissue. C) the formation of the first vessels. D) the formation of arteries only. E) the formation of veins only. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 19.14 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 91) Pulmonary arteries carry blood to the A) right atrium. B) left atrium. C) lungs. D) aorta. E) systemic circuit. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 19.15 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 92) Pulmonary veins carry blood to the A) right atrium. B) left atrium. C) lungs. D) aorta. E) pulmonary circuit. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 19.15 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

93) Which of the following break(s) the rule that arteries carry oxygenated blood away from the heart? A) pulmonary arteries B) pulmonary veins C) common carotid artery D) aorta E) superior vena cava Answer: A Learning Outcome: 19.15 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 94) An artery delivering blood to the kidney would have of the circuit. A) deoxygenated; pulmonary B) oxygenated: systemic C) deoxygenated; coronary D) deoxygenated; systemic E) oxygenated; pulmonary Answer: B Learning Outcome: 19.15 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

blood in it and would be part

95) Arrange the following vessels in the order in which blood would pass through them 1. pulmonary venules 2. pulmonary trunk 3. pulmonary veins 4. alveolar capillaries 5. pulmonary arterioles 6. pulmonary arteries A) 5, 3, 1, 4, 2, 6 B) 2, 6, 5, 4, 1, 3 C) 4, 6, 3, 2, 1, 5 D) 2, 3, 1, 4, 5, 6 E) 6, 7, 4, 1, 3, 2 Answer: B Learning Outcome: 19.15 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

96) The systemic circuit delivers oxygenated blood to . A) body organs; right atrium B) lungs; right atrium C) lungs; left atrium D) body organs; left atrium E) lungs; right ventricle Answer: A Learning Outcome: 19.15 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

and returns blood to the

97) All of the vessel names below refer to both an artery and a vein except A) femoral. B) gonadal. C) radial. D) axillary. E) basilic. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 19.16 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 98) All of the veins listed are deep veins except A) superior vena cava. B) internal jugular. C) cephalic. D) femoral. E) anterior tibial. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 19.16 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 99) The right and left common iliac arteries branches off of the A) inferior vena cava. B) abdominal aorta. C) thoracic aorta. D) celiac trunk. E) pulmonary trunk. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 19.16 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

100) The cephalic vein merges with the axillary vein to become the A) superior vena cava. B) basilic vein. C) brachial vein. D) subclavian vein. E) axillary vein. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 19.16 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 101) Branches off the aortic arch include all of the following except A) the brachiocephalic trunk. B) the left subclavian artery. C) the left common carotid artery. D) the right subclavian artery E) all of the stated vessels branch off the aortic arch. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 19.17 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 102) The superior vena cava collect blood from the A) head, chest, upper limbs, and lower limbs. B) upper limbs and lower limbs. C) head and chest. D) head, chest, and abdomen. E) head, chest, and upper limbs. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 19.17 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 103) Major branches of the right subclavian artery include the A) radial and ulnar B) brachial and deep brachial C) internal thoracic and vertebral D) digital and palmar arches E) left common carotid and brachiocephalic trunk Answer: C Learning Outcome: 19.17 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

arteries.

104) After entering the arm, the axillary artery becomes the A) radial B) ulnar C) brachial D) subclavian E) digital Answer: C Learning Outcome: 19.17 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 105) The brachial artery branches to form the radial and A) axillary B) digital C) ulnar D) subclavian E) brachiocephalic Answer: C Learning Outcome: 19.17 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

artery.

arteries.

106) Veins of the upper arm include all of the following veins except the A) basilic vein. B) cephalic vein. C) brachial vein. D) axillary vein. E) median cubital vein. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 19.17 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 107) Which of the following is a deep vein of the forearm? A) azygos B) hemi-azygos C) cephalic D) radial E) basilic Answer: D Learning Outcome: 19.17 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

108) The radial and ulnar veins fuse to form the A) azygos B) hemi-azygos C) axillary D) brachial E) basilic Answer: D Learning Outcome: 19.17 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

vein.

109) The vein is a deep vein that ascends along the medial side of the forearm. A) radial B) ulnar C) cephalic D) basilic E) brachial Answer: B Learning Outcome: 19.17 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 110) The vein in the arm commonly sampled for blood by venipuncture is the A) ulnar vein. B) radial vein. C) median cubital vein. D) brachial vein. E) cephalic vein. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 19.17 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 111) The vein is a superficial vein that ascends along the radial side of the forearm. A) radial B) ulnar C) cephalic D) basilic E) brachial Answer: C Learning Outcome: 19.17 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

112) The blood vessel that directly carries blood to the arm and shoulder is the A) aorta. B) brachial artery. C) common carotid artery. D) subclavian artery. E) ulnar artery. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 19.17 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

Figure 19-1 113) Identify the vein labeled "9." A) axillary B) brachial C) cephalic D) basilic E) median cubital Answer: A Learning Outcome: 19.17 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

114) Identify the vein labeled "15." A) axillary B) brachial C) radial D) basilic E) ulnar Answer: E Learning Outcome: 19.17 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 115) Identify the vein labeled "10." A) inferior vena cava B) superior vena cava C) aorta D) pulmonary E) thoracic Answer: A Learning Outcome: 19.17 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 116) Identify the vein labeled "8." A) superior vena cava B) brachiocephalic C) axillary D) external jugular E) subclavian Answer: E Learning Outcome: 19.17 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 117) The vessel that receives blood from the head, neck, chest, shoulders, and arms is the A) internal jugular vein. B) external jugular vein. C) superior vena cava. D) inferior vena cava. E) coronary sinus. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 19.17 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

118) After passing the first rib, the subclavian artery becomes the A) radial B) ulnar C) brachial D) axillary E) digital Answer: D Learning Outcome: 19.17 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

_ artery.

119) Near the carotid sinus, A) the common carotid divides into an internal and an external branch. B) the internal carotids fuse with the vertebral arteries. C) the external carotid forms the internal carotid. D) veins and arteries form anastomoses. E) the aorta gives rise to the common carotids. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 19.18 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 120) All of the vessels listed ultimately arise from the common carotid artery except the A) facial artery. B) occipital artery. C) lingual artery. D) vertebral artery. E) maxillary artery. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 19.18 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 121) The vessel that passes through the transverse foramina of the cervical vertebrae is the A) external jugular vein. B) internal jugular vein. C) facial vein. D) vertebral vein. E) subclavian vein. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 19.18 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

122) At the level of the first rib, the axillary vein becomes the A) cephalic B) azygos C) subclavian D) innominate E) external jugular Answer: C Learning Outcome: 19.18 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

vein.

123) The vein that is formed from the fusion of the subclavian with the internal and external jugulars is the vein. A) azygos B) hemi-azygos C) axillary D) iliac E) brachiocephalic Answer: E Learning Outcome: 19.18 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 124) The fusion of the brachiocephalic veins forms the A) inferior vena cava. B) superior vena cava. C) innominate vein. D) subclavian vein. E) azygos vein. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 19.18 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 125) The two vertebral arteries fuse to form a large artery, the A) circle of Willis. B) common carotid artery. C) external carotid artery. D) internal carotid artery. E) basilar artery. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 19.19 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

126) The internal carotids and the basilar artery are interconnected by an anastomosis called the A) common carotid artery. B) basal ring. C) cerebral arterial circle. D) external carotid artery. E) arterial bypass. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 19.19 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 127) Each of the following arteries is a component of the cerebral arterial circle except the A) anterior communicating artery. B) anterior cerebral artery. C) posterior communicating artery. D) posterior cerebral artery. E) basilar artery. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 19.19 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 128) An important artery that supplies blood to the brain is the A) internal carotid B) external carotid C) mental D) azygos E) maxillary Answer: A Learning Outcome: 19.19 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 129) Blood from the brain returns to the heart through the A) vertebral B) azygos C) innominate D) internal jugular E) external jugular Answer: D Learning Outcome: 19.19 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

artery.

vein.

130) Veins of the brain empty into A) coronary sinuses. B) the dural sinuses. C) the circle of Willis. D) carotid arteries. E) vertebral veins. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 19.19 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 131) All of the following is true of the superior sagittal sinus except that it A) is located in the falx cerebri. B) collects blood from the brain. C) converges with the transverse sinus to form the sigmoid sinuses. D) carries deoxygenated blood. E) provides blood to the circle of Willis. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 19.19 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 132) The blood vessel that is formed by the joining of the vertebral arteries and supplies blood to the circle of Willis from the posterior side is the A) internal carotid artery. B) middle cerebral artery. C) anterior communicating artery. D) basilar artery. E) ophthalmic artery. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 19.19 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 133) The divides the aorta into the thoracic aorta and the abdominal aorta. A) pericardium B) mediastinum C) diaphragm D) peritoneum E) pleura Answer: C Learning Outcome: 19.20 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

134) Branches of the thoracic aorta include all of the following except the A) basilar B) superior phrenic C) esophageal D) bronchial E) intercostal Answer: A Learning Outcome: 19.20 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 135) The two common iliac veins form the A) femoral vein. B) greater saphenous vein. C) inferior vena cava. D) hepatic portal vein. E) innominate vein. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 19.20 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 136) The bronchial arteries branch from the A) aortic arch B) thoracic aorta C) abdominal aorta D) common carotid artery E) intercostal arteries Answer: B Learning Outcome: 19.20 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

to supply the lung airways.

137) The blood vessel that supplies blood to the liver, stomach, and spleen is the A) gastric artery. B) renal artery. C) superior mesenteric artery. D) celiac trunk. E) common iliac artery. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 19.20 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

arteries.

138) The blood vessel that supplies blood to the pancreas, the duodenum, and most of the large intestine is the A) gastric artery. B) renal artery. C) superior mesenteric artery. D) celiac artery. E) inferior mesenteric artery. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 19.20 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 139) The is the kidney's sole blood supply. A) adrenal artery B) renal artery C) superior mesenteric artery D) celiac artery E) common iliac artery Answer: B Learning Outcome: 19.20 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

Figure 19-2 140) Identify the artery labeled "16." A) axillary B) inferior mesenteric C) celiac D) superior mesenteric E) splenic Answer: B Learning Outcome: 19.20 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

141) Identify the artery labeled "12." A) axillary B) inferior mesenteric C) celiac trunk D) superior mesenteric E) splenic Answer: C Learning Outcome: 19.20 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 142) Identify the artery labeled "1." A) axillary B) brachiocephalic C) common carotid D) aorta E) brachial Answer: B Learning Outcome: 19.20 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 143) Identify the arteries labeled "9." A) axillary B) brachiocephalic C) common carotid D) aorta E) brachial Answer: C Learning Outcome: 19.20 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 144) Identify the artery labeled "6." A) common iliac B) internal iliac C) external iliac D) abdominal aorta E) femoral Answer: A Learning Outcome: 19.20 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

145) The blood vessel that supplies venous blood to the liver is the A) hepatic vein. B) hepatic portal vein. C) celiac trunk. D) common iliac vein. E) phrenic vein. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 19.21 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 146) The lower part of the large intestine including the rectum receives blood from the artery. A) adrenal B) inferior mesenteric C) superior mesenteric D) celiac E) common iliac Answer: B Learning Outcome: 19.21 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 147) The vein receives all the venous blood from the kidney. A) hepatic B) adrenal C) renal D) common iliac E) phrenic Answer: C Learning Outcome: 19.21 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 148) Blood is drained from the liver by the A) hepatic vein. B) hepatic portal vein. C) celiac trunk. D) common iliac vein. E) phrenic vein. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 19.21 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

149) Blood is drained from the lower portion of the large intestine by the A) superior mesenteric vein. B) celiac trunk. C) intestinal vein. D) inferior mesenteric vein. E) gastro-epiploic vein. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 19.21 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 150) The collects blood from the entire small intestine and two-thirds of the large intestine. A) superior mesenteric vein B) celiac trunk C) intestinal vein D) inferior mesenteric vein E) gastro-epiploic vein Answer: A Learning Outcome: 19.21 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 151) Nutrients from the digestive tract enter the A) inferior vena cava. B) superior vena cava. C) hepatic portal vein. D) hepatic vein. E) azygos vein. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 19.21 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 152) Near the level of vertebra L4, the aorta branches to form the A) common carotid B) common iliac C) femoral D) tibial E) popliteal Answer: B Learning Outcome: 19.22 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

_ arteries.

153) The external iliac artery becomes the A) radial B) femoral C) tibial D) popliteal E) deep femoral Answer: B Learning Outcome: 19.22 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

artery as it enters the lower limbs.

154) At the posterior knee, the femoral artery becomes the A) iliac B) deep femoral C) popliteal D) tibial E) peroneal Answer: C Learning Outcome: 19.22 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

artery.

155) Branches of the popliteal artery include the A) femoral artery. B) anterior tibial. C) iliac artery. D) dorsalis pedis. E) plantar arch. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 19.22 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 156) Which of these contribute(s) to the formation of the popliteal vein? A) internal iliac B) small saphenous and great saphenous C) anterior and posterior tibial and fibular D) peroneal and popliteal E) great saphenous and posterior tibial Answer: C Learning Outcome: 19.22 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

157) Blood from capillaries on the superior surface of the foot drain into a(n) A) plantar vein. B) dorsal venous arch. C) small saphenous vein. D) peroneal vein. E) iliac vein. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 19.22 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 158) Blood from the dorsal venous arches drains into the A) small saphenous B) posterior tibial C) great saphenous D) small saphenous and great saphenous E) small saphenous and posterior tibial Answer: D Learning Outcome: 19.22 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

vein(s).

159) At the knee, the small saphenous and popliteal veins unite to form the A) femoral B) popliteal C) external iliac D) internal iliac E) inferior vena cava Answer: A Learning Outcome: 19.22 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 160) When the popliteal vein reaches the popliteal fossa, it becomes the A) femoral B) posterior tibial C) internal iliac D) external iliac E) fibular Answer: A Learning Outcome: 19.22 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

vein.

161) The vein is formed by the fusion of the greater saphenous vein, femoral vein, and deep femoral vein. A) internal iliac B) external iliac C) common iliac D) inferior vena cava E) azygos Answer: B Learning Outcome: 19.22 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 162) All of the following ultimately arise from the external iliac artery except the A) deep femoral artery. B) popliteal artery. C) anterior tibial artery. D) obturator artery. E) femoral artery. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 19.22 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 163) The most inferior of the following blood vessels is the A) popliteal. B) anterior tibial artery. C) posterior tibial artery. D) fibular artery. E) dorsalis pedis artery. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 19.22 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 164) Arteries that directly supply the plantar portion of the foot branch from the posterior artery. A) tibial B) fibular C) popliteal D) iliac E) femoral Answer: A Learning Outcome: 19.22 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

165) The foramen ovale in the fetal heart is located in the A) right atrium. B) left atrium. C) right ventricle. D) left ventricle. E) interatrial septum. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 19.24 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 166) The foramen ovale in the fetal heart is located A) between the right atrium and left atrium. B) between the ligamentum arteriosus and the fossa ovalis. C) between the right ventricle and the left ventricle. D) between the fossa ovalis and the ductus arteriosus. E) in the interventricular septum. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 19.24 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 167) The ligamentum arteriosum is the remnant of the fetal A) foramen ovalis. B) ductus venosus. C) ductus arteriosus. D) umbilical arteries. E) umbilical vein. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 19.24 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 168) The ductus venosus delivers blood to the A) placenta. B) foramen ovalis. C) aorta. D) right atrium. E) inferior vena cava. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 19.24 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

169) The fetal structure that conducts blood from the right to left atrium is the A) umbilical vein. B) ductus venosus. C) ductus arteriosus. D) foramen ovale. E) umbilical arteries. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 19.24 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 170) The umbilical arteries branch from the A) thoracic aorta. B) abdominal aorta. C) celiac trunk. D) common iliac arteries. E) internal iliac arteries. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 19.24 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 171) The congenital heart defect most often associated with Down syndrome is A) ventricular septum defect. B) patent foramen ovale. C) tetralogy of Fallot. D) atrioventricular septal defect. E) transposition of the great vessels. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 19.24 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 172) A "blue baby" is often associated with what congenital heart defect? A) ventricular septal defect B) atrioventricular septal defect C) tetralogy of Fallot D) patent ductus arteriosus E) transposition of the great vessels Answer: D Learning Outcome: 19.24 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

173) The most common congenital heart defect is A) ventricular septal defect. B) patent foramen ovale. C) tetralogy of Fallot. D) atrioventricular septal defect. E) transposition of the great vessels. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 19.24 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 174) What is the order in which fetal blood would pass through the following structures after leaving the heart? 1. pulmonary trunk 2. foramen ovale 3. umbilical arteries 4. umbilical vein 5. ductus venosus 6. right atrium A) 1, 4, 2, 3, 6, 5 B) 4, 3, 1, 2, 6, 5 C) 1, 3, 4, 5, 6, 2 D) 6, 3, 1, 4, 2, 5 E) 5, 4, 3, 2, 1, 6 Answer: C Learning Outcome: 19.24 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 175) Describe the pulmonary circuit. (Module 19.1A) A) The pulmonary circuit consists of the vasculature in the lungs. B) The pulmonary circuit transports blood from the right ventricle through the pulmonary arteries, capillaries in the lungs, and pulmonary veins and returns it to the left atrium. C) The pulmonary circuit transports blood through the arteries, capillaries, and veins of the body from the left ventricle to the right atrium. D) The pulmonary circuit transports blood from the left ventricle through the pulmonary arteries, capillaries in the lungs, and pulmonary veins and returns it to the right atrium. E) The pulmonary circuit transports blood from the left ventricle through the pulmonary veins, capillaries in the lungs, and pulmonary arteries and returns it to the right atrium. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 19.1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

176) Describe the systemic circuit. (Module 19.1B) A) The systemic circuit consists of the vasculature in the heart. B) The systemic circuit transports blood from the right ventricle through the pulmonary arteries, capillaries in the lungs, and pulmonary veins and returns it to the left atrium. C) The systemic circuit transports blood through the arteries, capillaries, and veins of the body from the left ventricle to the right atrium. D) The systemic circuit transports blood from the left ventricle through the pulmonary arteries, capillaries in the lungs, and pulmonary veins and returns it to the right atrium. E) The systemic circuit transports blood from the left ventricle through the pulmonary veins, capillaries in the lungs, and pulmonary arteries and returns it to the right atrium. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 19.1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 177) Which chamber of the heart receives blood from the systemic circuit? (Module 19.1C) A) right atrium B) left atrium C) right ventricle D) left ventricle Answer: A Learning Outcome: 19.1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 178) Distinguish among efferent vessels, afferent vessels, and exchange vessels. (Module 19.1D) A) Efferent vessels exchange nutrients, dissolved gases, and wastes between the blood and interstitial fluid, afferent vessels carry blood away from the heart, and exchange vessels carry blood to the heart. B) Efferent vessels exchange nutrients, dissolved gases, and wastes between the blood and interstitial fluid, afferent vessels carry blood to the heart, and exchange vessels carry blood away from the heart. C) Efferent vessels carry blood to the heart, afferent vessels carry blood away from the heart, and exchange vessels exchange nutrients, dissolved gases, and wastes between the blood and interstitial fluid. D) Efferent vessels carry blood away from the heart, afferent vessels carry blood to the heart, and exchange vessels exchange nutrients, dissolved gases, and wastes between the blood and interstitial fluid. E) Efferent vessels carry blood to the heart, afferent vessels exchange nutrients, dissolved gases, and wastes between the blood and interstitial fluid, and exchange vessels carry blood away from the heart. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 19.1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

179) List the five general classes of blood vessels. (Module 19.2A) A) blood capillaries, lymphatic capillaries, lacteals, arteries, and veins B) lymphatic capillaries, lacteals, portal veins, veins, and arteries C) arteries, lymphatic capillaries, blood capillaries, veins, and portal veins D) systemic arteries, pulmonary arteries, systemic veins, pulmonary veins, and capillaries E) arteries, arterioles, capillaries, venules, and veins Answer: E Learning Outcome: 19.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 180) Describe a capillary. (Module 19.2B) A) A capillary is a large blood vessel whose thick wall consists of a thick tunica media with diffuse elastic fibers. B) A capillary is a large blood vessel whose thick wall consists of a thick tunica media with few elastic fibers. C) A capillary is a large blood vessel whose wall is thin but all three layers are present. D) A capillary is a small blood vessel whose thin wall permits exchange between blood and interstitial fluid by diffusion. E) A capillary is a medium-sized blood vessel that has a poorly defined tunica externa, and the tunica media has only a few layers of smooth muscle cells. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 19.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 181) Identify the two types of capillaries with a complete endothelium. (Module 19.3A) A) continuous capillaries and fenestrated capillaries B) fenestrated capillaries and sinusoidal capillaries C) continuous capillaries and sinusoidal capillaries D) fenestrated capillaries and lacteals E) sinusoidal capillaries and collaterals Answer: A Learning Outcome: 19.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 182) At what sties in the body are fenestrated capillaries located? (Module 19.3B) A) Fenestrated capillaries are located central nervous system. B) Fenestrated capillaries are located in the thymus. C) Fenestrated capillaries are located in the liver and bone marrow. D) Fenestrated capillaries are located in endocrine glands, the choroid plexus of the brain, absorptive areas of the intestine, and filtration areas of the kidneys. E) Fenestrated capillaries are located in the pituitary gland, bone marrow, and spleen. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 19.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

183) Why are valves located in veins but not in arteries? (Module 19.4A) A) Valves are located in veins because the wall is thin enough to accommodate the valve. B) Valves are located in veins to prevent blood from flowing backward because venous pressure is too low to keep the blood moving back toward the heart. C) Valves are located in veins because they have three wall layers instead of the two layers that arteries have. D) Valves are located in veins because veins are the only type of blood vessel where blood travels one-way instead of both ways in the vessel. E) Valves are located in veins because veins see the highest blood pressures so the valves protect the walls of the veins. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 19.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 184) How is blood pressure maintained in veins to counter the force of gravity? (Module 19.4B) A) Blood pressure is maintained in veins because the heart pumps blood through the veins. B) Blood pressure is maintained in veins because the valves reduce the flow of blood as blood passes by. C) Blood pressure is maintained in veins by the contractions of surrounding skeletal muscles that squeeze venous blood toward the heart and the presence of valves which prevent backflow of the blood. D) Blood pressure is maintained in veins by using the valves as pumps to push blood back toward the heart. E) Blood pressure is maintained in veins by contractions of the smooth muscle in the walls of the veins that squeeze venous blood toward the heart and the presence of valves which prevent backflow of the blood. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 19.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 185) Describe the distribution of total blood volume in the body. (Module 19.4C) A) The volume is divided into the systemic venous system (13%), systemic arterial system (64%), in the heart (7%), pulmonary circulation (9%), and systemic capillaries (7%). B) The volume is divided into the systemic venous system (64%), systemic arterial system (13%), in the heart (7%), pulmonary circulation (9%), and systemic capillaries (7%). C) The volume is divided into the systemic venous system (20%), systemic arterial system (20%), in the heart (20%), pulmonary circulation (20%), and systemic capillaries (20%). D) The volume is divided into the systemic venous system (75%), systemic arterial system (5%), in the heart (5%), pulmonary circulation (5%), and systemic capillaries (10%). E) The volume is divided into the systemic venous system (50%), systemic arterial system (37%), in the heart (7%), pulmonary circulation (3%), and systemic capillaries (3%). Answer: B Learning Outcome: 19.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

186) What factors are involved in the formation of varicose veins? (Module 19.4D) A) Varicose veins form when blood pressure is too high damaging the valves. B) Varicose veins form when blood pressure is too low so the valves do not open. C) Varicose veins form when the vein walls weaken and the valves fail so blood begins to pool in the veins. D) Varicose veins form when the valves become stiff and fail to open. E) Varicose veins form when sympathetic activation causes venoconstriction. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 19.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 187) Neural and endocrine regulatory mechanisms influence which factors? (Module 19.5A) A) heart rate B) blood flow C) capillary pressure D) blood volume E) heart rate, stroke volume, peripheral resistance, and venous pressure Answer: E Learning Outcome: 19.5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 188) Which is greater: arterial pressure or venous pressure? (Module 19.5B) A) arterial pressure B) venous pressure Answer: A Learning Outcome: 19.5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 189) Why is it beneficial for capillary pressure to be very low? (Module 19.5C) A) It is beneficial for capillary pressure to be low so that the valves are not damaged. B) It is beneficial for capillary pressure to be low to allow time for diffusion between the blood and the surrounding interstitial fluid. C) It is beneficial for capillary pressure to be low to maintain peripheral resistance. D) It is beneficial for capillary pressure to be low because it helps speed up the flow of blood into the venous system. E) It is beneficial for capillary pressure to be low so that blood doesn't stay in the peripheral circulation too long before returning to the lungs. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 19.5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

190) List the factors that contribute to total peripheral resistance. (Module 19.6A) A) vascular resistance, vessel length, vessel luminal diameter, blood viscosity, and turbulence B) heart rate and blood pressure C) SNS stimulation, PNS stimulation, hormonal stimulation D) heart rate, stroke volume, end-diastolic volume, and end-systolic volume E) arterial pressure, capillary pressure, and venous pressure Answer: A Learning Outcome: 19.6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 191) Explain the equation R α 1/r4. (Module 19.6B) A) Radius is equal to the 4th power of the resistance. B) Radius is inversely proportional to the 4th power of the resistance. C) Resistance is equal to the 4th power of the radius. D) Resistance is inversely proportional to the 4th power of the radius. E) Resistance is equal to the rate of blood flow to the 4th power. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 19.6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 192) Which would reduce peripheral resistance: an increase in vessel length or an increase in vessel diameter? (Module 19.6C) A) an increase in vessel length B) an increase in vessel diameter Answer: B Learning Outcome: 19.6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 193) Calculate the mean arterial pressure for a person whose blood pressure is 125/70. (Module 19.7C) A) 55 mm Hg B) 97.5 mm Hg C) 88.3 mm Hg D) 113.3 mm Hg E) 143.3 mm Hg Answer: C Learning Outcome: 19.7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying

194) Under what general conditions would fluid move into a capillary? (Module 19.8A) A) When blood colloid osmotic pressure is greater than capillary hydrostatic pressure. B) When capillary hydrostatic pressure is greater than blood colloid osmotic pressure. C) When capillary hydrostatic pressure is equal to blood colloid osmotic pressure. D) When capillary blood pressure is equal to blood colloid osmotic pressure. E) When blood colloid osmotic pressure approaches 0 mm Hg. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 19.8 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 195) Define edema. (Module 19.8B) A) Edema is swelling of the peripheral vasculature. B) Edema is blood loss. C) Edema is an abnormal accumulation of interstitial fluid in peripheral tissues. D) Edema is an increase in blood pressure due to net capillary reabsorption. E) Edema is an increase in plasma proteins causing net capillary reabsorption to occur. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 19.8 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 196) Define tissue perfusion. (Module 19.9A) A) Tissue perfusion is blood flow to tissues sufficient to deliver adequate oxygen and nutrients. B) Tissue perfusion is the control of blood flow to specific capillary beds. C) Tissue perfusion is the measure of blood pressure that reaches each individual organ. D) Tissue perfusion is a measure of the oxygen content in the blood reaching each tissue or organ. E) Tissue perfusion is the tissue's response to changes in blood pressure to maintain its blood flow. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 19.9 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 197) Describe autoregulation as it relates to cardiovascular function. (Module 19.9B) A) Autoregulation is the blood flow to tissues sufficient to deliver adequate oxygen and nutrients. B) Autoregulation is the control of blood composition. C) Autoregulation involves changing respiratory rates to adjust the pH of blood reaching each tissue or organ. D) Autoregulation involves altering the oxygen content in the blood reaching each tissue or organ. E) Autoregulation involves local factors changing the pattern of blood flow within capillary beds in response to chemical changes in interstitial fluids. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 19.9 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

198) Identify the hormones responsible for short-term regulation of decreasing blood pressure and blood volume. (Module 19.10A) A) ADH and aldosterone B) aldosterone and cortisol C) epinephrine and norepinephrine D) natriuretic peptides E) erythropoietin and thrombopoietin Answer: C Learning Outcome: 19.10 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 199) How does the kidney respond to vasoconstriction of the renal artery? (Module 19.10B) A) The kidney will activate the baroreceptors to stimulate the cardioinhibitory center of the medulla oblongata. B) The kidney will release erythropoietin and renin is released which leads to angiotensin II activation. C) The kidney will stimulate the release of cortisol by the nearby adrenal glands. D) The kidney will stimulate the heart to release natriuretic peptides. E) The kidney will activate the sympathetic nervous system release of epinephrine and norepinephrine. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 19.10 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 200) Describe the roles of the natriuretic peptides. (Module 19.10C) A) The roles of these peptides are to trigger responses whose combined effects are to increase blood volume and increase blood pressure. B) The roles of these peptides are to trigger responses whose combined effects are to increase blood volume and decrease blood pressure. C) The roles of these peptides are to trigger responses whose combined effects are to decrease blood volume and increase blood pressure. D) The roles of these peptides are to trigger responses whose combined effects are to decrease blood volume and decrease blood pressure. E) The roles of these peptides are to trigger responses whose combined effects are complementary to angiotensin II. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 19.10 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

201) Where are chemoreceptors located? (Module 19.11A) A) They are primarily located in the skin and hypothalamus. B) They are located along the digestive tract, within the walls of the urinary bladder, in the carotid and aortic sinuses, and in the lungs. C) They are located within the medulla oblongata and the hypothalamus. D) They are located throughout the somatic and visceral systems of the body. E) They are located within the medulla oblongata and in the carotid and aortic bodies. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 19.11 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 202) What effect does an increase in the respiratory rate have on CO2 levels? (Module 19.11C) A) increases CO2 levels B) decreases CO2 levels C) It will not affect CO2 levels. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 19.11 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 203) Describe the respiratory pump. (Module 19.12A) A) The respiratory pump is a mechanism by which a reduction of pressure in the thoracic cavity during inhalation assists venous return to the heart. B) The respiratory pump is a mechanism by which contraction of the lungs propels blood through the thoracic cavity to the heart. C) The respiratory pump is a mechanism by which bronchoconstriction propels blood through the thoracic cavity to the heart. D) The respiratory pump is a mechanism by which an increase in pressure in the thoracic cavity during exhalation pushes blood towards the heart. E) The respiratory pump is a mechanism by which alternating cycles of bronchiolar constriction and bronchiolar dilation propel blood towards the heart. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 19.12 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

204) Name the immediate and long-term problems related to hemorrhage. (Module 19.13B) A) The immediate problem related to hemorrhage is reduced blood clotting. The long-term problems related to hemorrhage is maintaining maximum vasoconstriction. B) The immediate problem related to hemorrhage is maintaining maximum vasoconstriction. The long-term problems related to hemorrhage is skeletal muscle atrophy. C) The immediate problem related to hemorrhage is maintaining adequate blood pressure and peripheral blood flow. The long-term problems related to hemorrhage is to restore normal blood volume. D) The immediate problem related to hemorrhage is restoring normal blood volume. The longterm problems related to hemorrhage is maintaining adequate blood pressure and peripheral blood flow. E) The immediate problem related to hemorrhage is maintaining increased capillary permeability. The long-term problems related to hemorrhage is to restore normal peripheral blood flow. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 19.13 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 205) What are blood islands, and from which cells do they form? (Module 19.14A) A) Blood islands are primitive capillary networks formed from embryonic cells scattered within the yolk sac. B) Blood islands are primitive arteries that are formed from hemangioblasts. C) Blood islands are primitive veins that are formed from hemangioblasts. D) Blood islands are aggregations of embryonic cells scattered within the yolk sac that form blood vessels and blood cells. E) Blood islands are collections of blood cells that are formed from embryonic hematopoietic stem cells. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 19.14 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 206) What is the function of hemangioblasts? (Module 19.14B) A) Hemangioblasts give rise to white blood cells. B) Hemangioblasts give rise to red blood cells. C) Hemangioblasts give rise to platelets. D) Hemangioblasts give rise to hematopoietic stem cells. E) Hemangioblasts remodel blood islands first into capillary networks and then into larger arterial and venous networks. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 19.14 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

207) Compare the oxygen content in the two circulatory circuits. (Module 19.15A) A) The pulmonary circuit carries deoxygenated blood from the right ventricle to the lungs and returns oxygenated blood to the left atrium. The systemic circuit carries oxygenated blood to the organs and tissues of the body and returns deoxygenated blood to the right atrium. B) The pulmonary circuit carries deoxygenated blood from the left ventricle to the lungs and returns oxygenated blood to the right atrium. The systemic circuit carries oxygenated blood to the organs and tissues of the body and returns deoxygenated blood to the left atrium. C) The pulmonary circuit carries oxygenated blood from the right ventricle to the lungs and returns deoxygenated blood to the left atrium. The systemic circuit carries deoxygenated blood to the organs and tissues of the body and returns oxygenated blood to the right atrium. D) The pulmonary circuit carries oxygenated blood from the left ventricle to the lungs and returns deoxygenated blood to the right atrium. The systemic circuit carries deoxygenated blood to the organs and tissues of the body and returns oxygenated blood to the left atrium. E) The pulmonary circuit carries deoxygenated blood from the right ventricle to the lungs and returns deoxygenated blood to the left atrium. The systemic circuit carries oxygenated blood to the organs and tissues of the body and returns oxygenated blood to the right atrium. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 19.15 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 208) Identify the largest artery in the body. (Module 19.16A) A) vena cava B) aorta C) carotid D) brachiocephalic E) iliac Answer: B Learning Outcome: 19.16 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 209) Name the two large veins that collect blood from the systemic circuit. (Module 19.16B) A) thoracic aorta and abdominal aorta B) ascending aorta and descending aorta C) superior vena cava and inferior vena cava D) external jugular vein and internal jugular vein E) brachiocephalic vein and subclavian vein Answer: C Learning Outcome: 19.16 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

210) Name the two arteries formed by the division of the brachiocephalic trunk. (Module 19.17A) A) right common carotid artery and left common carotid artery B) right subclavian artery and left subclavian artery C) left common carotid artery and left subclavian artery D) right common carotid artery and right subclavian artery E) right common carotid artery and left subclavian artery Answer: D Learning Outcome: 19.17 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 211) A blockage of which branch of the aortic arch would interfere with blood flow to the left arm? (Module 19.17B) A) left subclavian artery B) left common carotid artery C) brachiocephalic trunk D) right common carotid artery E) right subclavian artery Answer: A Learning Outcome: 19.17 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 212) Whenever Thor gets angry, a large vein bulges in the lateral region of his neck. Which vein is this? (Module 19.17C) A) internal jugular vein B) external jugular vein C) common carotid vein D) vertebral vein E) brachiocephalic vein Answer: B Learning Outcome: 19.17 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 213) Identify the branches of the external carotid artery. (Module 19.18A) A) vertebral and basilar arteries B) carotid sinus C) temporal, mandibular, and external jugular arteries D) superficial temporal, maxillary, occipital, facial, and lingual arteries E) vertebral, basilar, carotid sinus, maxillary, mandibular, and facial arteries Answer: D Learning Outcome: 19.18 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

214) Name the arterial structure in the neck region that contains baroreceptors. (Module 19.18B) A) brachiocephalic trunk B) vertebral artery C) basilar sinus D) jugular sinus E) carotid sinus Answer: E Learning Outcome: 19.18 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 215) Identify the veins that combine to form the brachiocephalic vein. (Module 19.18C) A) external jugular, internal jugular, vertebral, and subclavian veins B) external carotid, internal carotid, external jugular, and internal jugular veins C) dural sinuses D) dural sinus and carotid sinus E) occipital, vertebral, and dural sinuses Answer: A Learning Outcome: 19.18 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 216) Name the three branches of the internal carotid artery. (Module 19.19A) A) anterior cerebral, middle cerebral, and posterior cerebral arteries B) ophthalmic, anterior cerebral, and middle cerebral arteries C) posterior cerebral, basilar, and vertebral arteries D) cerebral arterial circle, and basilar and vertebral arteries E) ophthalmic, petrosal, and sagittal arteries Answer: B Learning Outcome: 19.19 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 217) Name the veins that drain the dural sinuses of the brain. (Module 19.19C) A) vertebral veins B) external jugular veins C) internal jugular veins D) great cerebral veins E) common carotid veins Answer: C Learning Outcome: 19.19 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

218) Which vessel collects most of the venous blood inferior to the diaphragm? (Module 19.20A) A) abdominal aorta B) phrenic vein C) superior vena cava D) inferior vena cava E) azygos vein Answer: D Learning Outcome: 19.20 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 219) Identify the major branches of the inferior vena cava. (Module 19.20B) A) lumbar, gonadal, hepatic, renal, adrenal, and phrenic veins B) bronchial, esophageal, azygos, hemi-azygos, intercostal, and mediastinal veins C) superior mesenteric, inferior mesenteric and celiac trunks D) left gastric, splenic, and common hepatic veins E) intercostal, esophageal, mesenteric, lumbar, and phrenic veins Answer: A Learning Outcome: 19.20 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 220) Grace is in an automobile accident, and her celiac trunk is ruptured. Which organs will be affected most directly by this injury? (Module 19.20C) A) heart and lungs B) lungs and diaphragm C) stomach, heart, lungs, and liver D) small intestine, large intestine, uterus, urinary bladder, and kidneys E) stomach, inferior portion of the esophagus, spleen, liver, gallbladder, and proximal portion of the small intestine. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 19.20 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 221) List the unpaired branches of the abdominal aorta that supply blood to the visceral organs. (Module 19.21A) A) renal, hepatic, splenic, and adrenal arteries B) celiac trunk, superior mesenteric and inferior mesenteric artery C) gastric, gonadal, and lumbar arteries D) phrenic, hepatic, and renal arteries E) celiac trunk, gonadal, and renal arteries Answer: B Learning Outcome: 19.21 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

222) Identify the three veins that merge to form the hepatic portal vein. (Module 19.21B) A) azygos, hemi-azygos, and phrenic veins B) hepatic, splenic, and sigmoid veins C) superior mesenteric, inferior mesenteric, and splenic veins D) hepatic, splenic, and pancreaticoduodenal veins E) hepatic, right and left colic veins Answer: C Learning Outcome: 19.21 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 223) Identify two veins that carry blood away from the stomach. (Module 19.21C) A) left gastro-epiploic and right gastro-epiploic veins B) left colic and right colic veins C) superior mesenteric and inferior mesenteric veins D) middle colic and ileocolic veins E) superior mesenteric and cystic veins Answer: A Learning Outcome: 19.21 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 224) Name the first two branches of the common iliac artery. (Module 19.22A) A) an internal iliac artery and a femoral artery B) an external iliac artery and a femoral artery C) an external iliac artery and an internal artery D) deep femoral artery and superficial femoral artery E) deep femoral artery and femoral circumflex artery Answer: C Learning Outcome: 19.22 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 225) The plantar venous arch carries blood to which three veins? (Module 19.22B) A) great saphenous, small saphenous, and fibular veins B) anterior tibial, posterior tibial, and fibular veins C) anterior tibial, posterior tibial, and popliteal veins D) great saphenous, small saphenous, and popliteal veins E) deep femoral, femoral circumflex, and obturator veins Answer: B Learning Outcome: 19.22 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

226) A blood clot that blocks the popliteal vein would interfere with blood flow in which other veins? (Module 19.22C) A) deep femoral and femoral circumflex veins B) lateral sacral and obturator veins C) gluteal and internal pudendal veins D) tibial and fibular veins and the small saphenous vein E) tibial and fibular veins and the great saphenous vein Answer: D Learning Outcome: 19.22 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 227) Describe the pattern of fetal blood flow to and from the placenta. (Module 19.24A) A) Deoxygenated blood flows from the fetus to the placenta through a pair of umbilical arteries, and oxygenated blood returns from the placenta in a single umbilical vein. B) Deoxygenated blood flows from the fetus to the placenta through a pair of umbilical veins, and oxygenated blood returns from the placenta in a single umbilical artery. C) Oxygenated blood flows from the fetus to the placenta through a pair of umbilical arteries, and deoxygenated blood returns from the placenta in a single umbilical vein. D) Oxygenated blood flows from the fetus to the placenta through a pair of umbilical veins, and deoxygenated blood returns from the placenta in a single umbilical artery. E) Deoxygenated blood flows from the fetus to the placenta through a single umbilical vein, and oxygenated blood returns from the placenta through a pair of umbilical arteries. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 19.24 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

Essay Questions 228) Compare the structure and function of arteries, veins, and capillaries. Answer: Arteries and veins both contain three tunics or layers in their walls (intima, media and externa) while capillary walls are comprised of only endothelial cells within a basement membrane. Artery walls are thicker than vein walls, allowing them to withstand the changing arterial pressure as the heart beats. Veins contain valves that aid in the return of blood to the heart. Capillary walls are necessarily thin, facilitating the exchange of materials between the blood and the surrounding tissues. Learning Outcome: 19.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Analyzing 229) During exercise, the blood flow to the active skeletal muscles is increased by autoregulation. How does this work? What other controls on blood flow operate? Answer: When a skeletal muscle becomes more active, it consumes oxygen and nutrients and releases carbon dioxide, waste products, and potassium ion. One effect of reduced oxygen is to cause precapillary sphincters to relax. As it relaxes, the capillary opens and plasma and red cells can perfuse the active tissue. After recovery from exercise is complete, gases and metabolites return to normal and blood flow returns to its resting value. This local mechanism works along with central control of vasodilation by the sympathetic vasodilator fibers that appear to utilize nitric oxide (NO) as the transmitter substance. Learning Outcome: 19.10 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 230) Compare the hearts of a trained athlete and a non-athlete. Answer: The athlete's heart will be more massive, and will have a higher resting stroke volume and a lower resting heart rate. During maximum activity, stroke volume will be much greater for the athlete, and cardiac output of the athlete may approach 30 liters/minute compared to 20 liters/minute of the non-athlete. Maximum heart rates will be about the same despite the much larger cardiac output, due to the larger stroke volume. Learning Outcome: 19.12 Bloom's Taxonomy: Analyzing 231) If a wound overwhelms the clotting mechanism and leads to serious hemorrhage and drop in blood pressure, what compensations does the body have to defend cardiac output? Answer: Acutely, the autonomic nervous system undergoes sympathetic activation. Epinephrine from the suprarenal medulla supports the neural mechanisms. Heart rate and contractility are increased from trying to maintain cardiac output. Vasoconstriction increases peripheral resistance, raising blood pressure and redirecting flow to vital internal organs. Simultaneously, venoconstriction occurs, increasing venous return and forcing extra blood from the venous to the arterial side of the circulation. The endocrine system releases ADH, angiotensin II, and aldosterone, which act together to raise blood volume by reducing fluid loss at the kidney. Learning Outcome: 19.13 Bloom's Taxonomy: Analyzing

232) Compare and contrast the blood contained within the pulmonary arteries to that within the systemic arteries. Answer: Blood in the pulmonary arteries is moving away from the heart but has low oxygen content (and appears dark red). Blood within system arteries also is moving away from the heart but has already passed through pulmonary circuit and has high oxygen content (and appears bright red). Learning Outcome: 19.15 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 233) List the major arteries a red blood cell would pass through while traveling to the lateral side of the palm of the right hand. Answer: The blood cell would follow this route: ascending aorta to arch of the aorta to brachiocephalic trunk to right subclavian artery to right axillary artery to right brachial artery to radial artery to superficial palmar arch. Learning Outcome: 19.17 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 234) Define blood flow, and describe its relationship to blood pressure and peripheral resistance. (Module 19.7A) Answer: Blood flow is the volume of blood flowing per unit of time through a vessel or group of vessels; it is directly proportional to arterial pressure (increased pressure results in increased blood flow) and inversely proportional to peripheral resistance (increased resistance results in decreased blood flow). Learning Outcome: 19.7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 235) In a healthy person, where is blood pressure greater: in the aorta or in the inferior vena cava? Explain. (Module 19.7B) Answer: Blood pressure is greater in the aorta than in the inferior vena cava. If the pressure were higher in the inferior vena cava than in the aorta, blood would flow in the reverse direction. Learning Outcome: 19.7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 236) Identify the conditions that would shift the balance between hydrostatic and osmotic forces. (Module 19.8C) Answer: Any condition that affects either blood pressure or osmotic pressures in the blood or tissues will shift the balance between hydrostatic and osmotic forces. Learning Outcome: 19.8 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

237) Explain the function of baroreceptor reflexes. (Module 19.9C) Answer: Baroreceptor reflexes respond to changes in blood pressure. The baroreceptors — located in the walls of the carotid sinuses and aortic arch — monitor the degree of stretch at those sites. When blood pressure increases, the cardiac centers decrease cardiac output and the vasomotor center is inhibited, resulting in vasodilation; when blood pressure decreases, the cardiac centers increase cardiac output and the vasomotor center is stimulated, resulting in vasoconstriction. Learning Outcome: 19.9 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 238) What is the function of chemoreceptor reflexes? (Module 19.11B) Answer: Chemoreceptor reflexes respond to decreasing pH and oxygen levels in the blood and cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) by adjusting cardiovascular and respiratory activity. These reflexes stimulate responses by the cardiovascular centers to increase blood pressure through vasoconstriction and increased cardiac output and stimulate responses by the respiratory centers to increase the respiratory rate, which increases pH and oxygen levels and decreases CO2 levels. Learning Outcome: 19.11 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 239) Describe the changes in cardiac output and blood flow during exercise. (Module 19.12B) Answer: During exercise, cardiac output increases, and blood flow to skeletal muscles increases at the expense of blood flow to less essential organs. Unless compensatory vasoconstriction occurs in "less essential" organs, such as those of the digestive system, vasodilation in skeletal muscles would cause a potentially dangerous decrease in blood pressure and blood flow throughout the body during exercise. Learning Outcome: 19.12 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 240) Identify the compensatory mechanisms that respond to blood loss. (Module 19.13A) Answer: compensatory mechanisms that respond to blood loss include an increase in cardiac output, a mobilization of venous blood reservoir, peripheral vasoconstriction, and the release of hormones that promote the retention of fluids and the maturation of erythrocytes. Learning Outcome: 19.13 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 241) Describe circulatory shock, progressive shock, and irreversible shock. (Module 19.13C) Answer: Circulatory shock occurs when blood loss exceeds about 35 percent of the total blood volume. Circulatory shock involves a series of positive feedback loops that are initiated after homeostasis has been disrupted. Progressive shock is the next stage after circulatory shock. It, too, is a series of positive feedback loops that accelerate tissue damage. Irreversible shock is the fatal stage that occurs if the positive feedback loops initiated during progressive shock are not broken. Learning Outcome: 19.13 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

242) Briefly describe general patterns of blood vessel organization. (Module 19.15B) Answer: General patterns of blood vessel organization include the following: (1) The peripheral distributions of arteries and veins on the body's left and right sides are generally identical, except near the heart, where the largest vessels connect to the atria or ventricles; (2) a single vessel may have several names as it crosses specific anatomical boundaries, making accurate anatomical descriptions possible; and (3) tissues and organ are usually serviced by several arteries and veins. Learning Outcome: 19.15 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 243) Trace a drop of blood through the lungs, beginning at the right ventricle and ending at the left atrium. (Module 19.15C) Answer: right ventricle — pulmonary trunk — right and left pulmonary arteries — pulmonary arterioles — alveoli — pulmonary venules — pulmonary veins — left atrium. Learning Outcome: 19.15 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 244) Besides containing valves, cite another major difference between the arterial and venous systems. (Module 19.16C) Answer: A major anatomical difference between the arterial and venous systems is the existence of dual (superficial and deep) venous drainage in the neck and limbs. Learning Outcome: 19.16 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 245) Describe the structure and function of the cerebral arterial circle. (Module 19.19B) Answer: The cerebral arterial circle (also known as the circle of Willis) is a ring-shaped anastomosis that encircles the infundibulum of the pituitary gland. Its anatomical arrangement creates alternate pathways in the cerebral circulation, so that if blood flow is interrupted in one area, other blood vessels can continue to perfuse the entire brain with blood. Learning Outcome: 19.19 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 246) Describe the function of the hepatic portal system, and name its primary vessel. (Module 19.21D) Answer: The function of the hepatic portal system is to carry blood with absorbed nutrients from the digestive organs to the liver for processing. The primary vessel of the hepatic portal system is the hepatic portal vein. Learning Outcome: 19.21 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 247) Trace the path of a drop of blood from the left ventricle to the right hip joint. (Module 19.23A) Answer: left ventricle — ascending aorta — aortic arch — thoracic aorta — abdominal aorta — right common iliac — right external iliac — right femoral — right deep femoral — right hip joint. Learning Outcome: 19.23 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 66

248) Trace the path of a drop of blood from the right forearm to the right atrium. (Module 19.23B) Answer: right forearm — right brachial — right axillary — right subclavian — right brachiocephalic — superior vena cava — right atrium. Learning Outcome: 19.23 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 249) Identify the six structures that are vital to fetal circulation but cease to function at birth, and describe what becomes of these structures. (Module 19.24B) Answer: The six structures vital to fetal circulation are two umbilical arteries, one umbilical vein, the ductus venosus, the foramen ovale, and the ductus arteriosus. After birth, the foramen ovale closes and persists as the fossa ovalis, a shallow depression; the ductus arteriosus persists as the ligamentum arteriosum, a fibrous cord; and the umbilical vessels and ductus venosus persist throughout life as fibrous cords. Learning Outcome: 19.24 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 250) Compare a ventricular septal defect with tetralogy of Fallot. (Module 19.24C) Answer: Ventricular septal defects are abnormal openings between the left and right ventricles. Tetralogy of Fallot includes a ventricular septal defect plus three other heart defects: a narrowing of the pulmonary trunk, a displaced aorta, and an enlarged right ventricle with corresponding thickening right and left ventricles. Learning Outcome: 19.24 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

Visual Anatomy and Physiology, 3e (Martini) Chapter 20 The Lymphatic System and Immunity Multiple Choice Questions 1) The lymphatic system is composed of all of the following except A) the appendix. B) the venae cavae. C) the spleen. D) red bone marrow. E) lymph. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 20.1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 2) The primary function of the lymphatic system is A) circulation of nutrients. B) the transport of hormones. C) defending the body against both environmental hazards and internal threats. D) the production and distribution of plasma proteins. E) both the transport of hormones and the production and distribution of plasma proteins. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 20.1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 3) The lymphocytes are most important in A) helping maintain normal blood volume. B) transporting gases to and away from lymph nodes. C) eliminating variations in the composition of interstitial fluid. D) transporting lipids from the digestive tract. E) fighting infection. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 20.1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 4) Lymphocytes are produced and stored in all of the following except A) the thymus. B) lymphoid nodules. C) lymph node organs. D) the spleen. E) the brain. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 20.1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

5) Compared to blood capillaries, lymph capillaries exhibit all of the following except that they A) have no basement membrane. B) are larger in diameter. C) have walls of endothelial cells that overlap like shingles. D) are smaller in diameter. E) are frequently irregular in shape. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 20.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 6) Lymphatic vessels are located in almost all portions of the body except the A) CNS. B) periphery. C) renal arteries. D) groin. E) throat. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 20.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 7) Lymphatic vessels commonly occur in association with A) hyaline cartilage. B) blood vessels. C) adipose tissue. D) sensory nerve endings. E) both hyaline cartilage and adipose tissue. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 20.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 8) Which of the following statements regarding lymph is false? A) Lymph derived from interstitial fluid. B) Lymphatic vessels have valves to direct fluid flow. C) Lymphatic capillaries have larger diameters than blood capillaries. D) Lacteals are prominent lymphatic vessels in the respiratory system. E) Lymphatic capillaries have little or no basement membrane. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 20.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

9) Most of the lymph returns to the venous circulation by way of the A) right lymphatic duct. B) thoracic duct. C) cisterna chyli. D) hepatic portal vein. E) dural sinus. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 20.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 10) The thoracic duct drains lymph from all of the following regions except the A) left breast. B) right breast. C) left arm and shoulder. D) pelvic viscera. E) left side of the neck. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 20.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 11) The merging of forms the right lymphatic duct. A) the right jugular, right subclavian, and right bronchomediastinal trunks B) the left jugular, right subclavian, and right bronchomediastinal trunks C) two great vessels D) the thoracic and mediastinal ducts E) superior and inferior lymphatic ducts Answer: A Learning Outcome: 20.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 12) The thoracic duct originates from an expanded chamber called the A) lymph node. B) azygos. C) hilum. D) bronchomediastinal trunk. E) cisterna chyli. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 20.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 13) Lymph draining from your right shoulder flows into A) the right lymphatic duct. B) the thoracic duct. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 20.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 3

14) All of the following are true of lymphocytes except that A) they spend most of their time in lymphoid tissue. B) they have relatively long life spans. C) they have one nucleus. D) they are granulocytes. E) some produce antibodies. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 20.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 15) Lymphocytes A) are all actively phagocytic. B) destroy red blood cells. C) respond to antigens. D) are primarily found in red bone marrow. E) decrease in number during infection. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 20.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 16) Lymphocyte production does not occur in A) bone marrow. B) thymus tissue. C) peripheral lymphoid tissues. D) the liver. E) the spleen. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 20.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 17) T is to as B is to . A) top; bottom B) thymus-dependent; bone marrow-derived C) thyroid; bowel D) non-thymus-dependent; bottom E) None of the answers is correct. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 20.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

18) A substance that provokes an immune response is called a(n) A) thymosin. B) complement. C) chemotoxin. D) irritant. E) antigen. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 20.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 19) Which of these statements about lymph flow in a node is false? A) Lymph enters in an afferent lymphatic vessel. B) Lymph first enters the subcapsular space. C) Lymph flows past dendritic cells. D) The efferent lymphatic vessel exits at the hilum. E) The afferent lymphatic vessel enters at the hilum. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 20.5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 20) are large lymphoid nodules that are located in the walls of the pharynx. A) Tonsils B) Peyer's patches C) Lymph nodes D) Immune complexes E) Spleens Answer: A Learning Outcome: 20.5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 21) are clusters of lymphoid nodules deep to the epithelial lining of the small intestine. A) Tonsils B) Adenoids C) Peyer's patches D) Immune complexes E) Lymph glands Answer: C Learning Outcome: 20.5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

22) Lymph nodes do all of the following except A) produce antibodies. B) monitor the contents of lymph. C) remove debris and pathogens from the lymph. D) detect pathogens. E) remove excess nutrients from the lymph. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 20.5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 23) Lymphoid organs differ from lymphoid tissues in what way? A) They contain T lymphocytes and lymphoid tissues do not. B) They are found in the digestive tract and lymphoid tissues are found in the thorax. C) They are surrounded by a fibrous capsule and lymphoid tissues are not. D) They cannot produce antibodies, whereas lymphoid tissues can. E) None of the answers is correct. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 20.5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 24) The medullary sinus of a lymph node contains A) cytotoxic T B) immature T C) NK D) B E) helper T Answer: D Learning Outcome: 20.5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

lymphocytes and plasma cells.

25) The cell that dominates the deep cortical region of a lymph node is the A) B B) T helper C) plasma D) cytotoxic T E) NK Answer: B Learning Outcome: 20.5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

cell.

26) Lymph nodes range in diameter from A) 1 nm to 10 nm. B) 1 inch to 2 inches. C) 1 mm to 25 mm. D) 1 cm to 25 cm. E) 1 cm to 1 inch. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 20.5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 27) are connective tissues dominated by lymphocytes. A) Dendritic cells B) Afferent lymphatics C) Lymphoid tissues D) Palatine tonsils E) None of the answers is correct. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 20.5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

Figure 20-1 28) Identify the structure labeled "1." A) venule B) lymphatic nodule C) trabecula D) afferent lymphatic E) efferent lymphatic Answer: E Learning Outcome: 20.5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 29) Identify the dominant cell type in the area labeled "2." A) monocytes B) T lymphocytes C) B cells D) NK cells E) erythrocytes Answer: C Learning Outcome: 20.5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 8

30) Identify the structure labeled "3." A) efferent lymphatic B) hilum C) outer cortex D) afferent lymphatic E) medulla Answer: D Learning Outcome: 20.5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 31) Identify the structures labeled "4." A) lymphatic vessels B) medullae C) trabeculae D) dendritic cells E) venules Answer: C Learning Outcome: 20.5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 32) Identify the region labeled "5." A) germinal center B) subscapular space C) medullary sinus D) trabeculae E) deep cortex Answer: A Learning Outcome: 20.5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 33) Identify the area where dividing lymphocytes are found. A) 2 B) 4 C) 5 D) 1 E) 3 Answer: C Learning Outcome: 20.5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

34) Leslie has a bad sore throat, and the lymph glands in her neck are swollen. This would indicate that A) the focus of the infection is the lymph glands. B) lymph is not flowing through these lymph glands. C) the affected lymph glands contain an increased number of lymphocytes. D) the lymph gland is actively producing phagocytes. E) the lymph gland has increased its secretion of thymosin. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 20.5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 35) All of the following are true of the thymus gland except that it A) activates B cells. B) reaches its greatest relative size before puberty. C) involutes after puberty. D) produces T cells. E) lies in the anterior mediastinum. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 20.6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 36) Stem cells that will form T cells develop in the A) bone marrow. B) liver. C) spleen. D) thymus. E) kidneys. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 20.6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 37) If the thymus shrank and stopped functioning properly, we would expect to see an immediate decrease in the number of A) B lymphocytes. B) NK cells. C) T cells. D) neutrophils. E) NK cells and T cells. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 20.6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

38) The thymus produces several complementary hormones called A) catecholamines. B) thymosins. C) immunoglobulins. D) desmosomes. E) interferons. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 20.6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 39) After puberty, the thymus gradually shrinks and becomes more fibrous, in a process called A) atrophy. B) diminishment. C) necrosis. D) involution. E) conversion. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 20.6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 40) The lobules of the thymus are divided by partitions called A) fissures. B) septa. C) hilum. D) trabeculae. E) sutures. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 20.6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 41) Areas of the spleen that contain large aggregations of lymphocytes are known as A) Peyer's patches. B) adenoids. C) white pulp. D) red pulp. E) lymph nodes. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 20.7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

42) The largest single collection of lymphoid tissue in the adult body is located in the A) liver. B) thymus. C) tonsils. D) spleen. E) lymph nodes. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 20.7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 43) The white pulp of the spleen is populated by A) lymphocytes. B) trabeculae. C) arteries. D) veins. E) fibrous connective tissue. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 20.7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 44) Which class of leukocytes is particularly abundant in the red pulp of the spleen? A) T lymphocytes B) free and fixed macrophages C) B lymphocytes D) neutrophils E) red blood cells Answer: B Learning Outcome: 20.7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 45) The body's nonspecific defenses include all of the following except A) the skin. B) complement. C) interferon. D) inflammation. E) B and T cells. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 20.8 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

46) Nonspecific defenses would not include A) phagocytic cells. B) physical barriers. C) inflammation. D) interferons. E) antibodies. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 20.8 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 47) Each of the following is a physical barrier to infection except A) body hair. B) epithelium. C) secretions. D) complement. E) basement membranes. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 20.9 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 48) Examples of physical barriers against pathogens include all of the following except A) sebaceous glands. B) mucus. C) epithelia. D) epidermal layers. E) blood. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 20.9 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 49) The first line of cellular defense against pathogens are the A) T cells. B) B cells. C) NK cells. D) phagocytes. E) plasma cells. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 20.10 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

50) Various types of macrophages are derived from A) lymphocytes. B) monocytes. C) neutrophils. D) eosinophils. E) basophils. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 20.10 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 51) The movement of phagocytes through the capillary wall is called A) chemotaxis. B) diapedesis. C) phagocytosis. D) apoptosis. E) involution. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 20.10 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 52) The attraction or repulsion of certain cells to chemicals in their environment is called A) chemotaxis. B) diapedesis. C) phagocytosis. D) apoptosis. E) immune surveillance. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 20.10 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 53) The cells that perform immunological surveillance are the A) NK B) plasma C) B D) helper T E) suppressor T Answer: A Learning Outcome: 20.11 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

cells.

54) What is perforin? A) a type of antibody synthesized by B cells B) a protein produced by NK cells C) a type of interferon D) a toxin expressed by some pathogens that is capable of damaging healthy cells E) a destructive enzyme secreted by sebaceous glands Answer: B Learning Outcome: 20.11 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 55) Interferons are released by some macrophages and lymphocytes, but also by cells carrying what pathogen? A) parasites B) viruses C) bacteria D) prions E) spirochetes Answer: B Learning Outcome: 20.12 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 56) The effects of activating the complement system include all of the following except A) destruction of target cell plasma membranes. B) stimulation of inflammation. C) inhibition of the immune response. D) enhanced phagocytosis. E) histamine release. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 20.12 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 57) The classic pathway of complement activation begins when the complement protein binds to A) the cell wall of bacteria. B) the plasma membrane of bacteria. C) an antibody attached to an antigen. D) a cell surface antigen. E) a plasma protein. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 20.12 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

58) Plasma contains proteins that form the complement system. A) 1-3 B) 5 C) fewer than 10 D) 18-25 E) more than 30 Answer: E Learning Outcome: 20.12 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 59) The process by which the surface of a microorganism is covered with antibodies and complement, rendering it more likely to be phagocytized, is called A) neutralization. B) opsonization. C) agglutination. D) antigen presentation. E) sensitization. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 20.12 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 60) Inflammation produces all of the localized effects except A) increased swelling. B) increased redness. C) increased heat. D) increased pain. E) decreased blood flow. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 20.13 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 61) Fever is the maintenance of body temperature higher than A) 37.2°C. B) 99°F. C) 98.6°F. D) either 37.2°C or 98.6°F. E) either 37.2°C or 99°F. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 20.13 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

62) An inflammatory response is triggered when A) red blood cells release pyrogens. B) T cells release interferon. C) mast cells release histamine and heparin. D) neutrophils phagocytize bacteria. E) blood flow to an area increases. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 20.13 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 63) In response to tissue damage and infection, circulating proteins called pyrogens A) cause inflammation. B) produce a fever. C) activate complement. D) opsonize pathogens. E) activate antibodies. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 20.13 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 64) Histamine increases blood flow and vascular permeability. This would account for all of the following changes that occur during inflammation except A) redness of the inflamed tissue. B) chemotaxis of phagocytes. C) heat of the inflamed tissue. D) movement of defense proteins and cells into the interstitial space. E) swelling of the inflamed tissue. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 20.13 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 65) A sample of John's blood shows a high level of pyrogens. This would indicate that John A) is feeling achy. B) is producing T lymphocytes. C) has a sore throat. D) is running a fever. E) has swollen lymph nodes. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 20.13 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying

66) Characteristics of specific defenses include all of the following except A) versatility. B) tolerance. C) memory. D) specificity. E) intrinsic. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 20.14 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 67) Defense of the body against a particular pathogen is provided by A) nonspecific immunity. B) specific immunity. C) immunological surveillance. D) skin defenses. E) fever. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 20.14 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 68) Immunity that is genetically determined and present at birth is called _ A) active B) maternal C) passive D) auto E) innate Answer: E Learning Outcome: 20.14 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 69) Immunity that results from exposure to an antigen in the environment is called immunity. A) naturally acquired active B) naturally acquired passive C) passive D) auto E) innate Answer: A Learning Outcome: 20.14 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

immunity.

70) Immunity that results from antibodies that pass the placenta from mother to fetus is called immunity. A) naturally acquired active B) naturally acquired passive C) passive D) auto E) innate Answer: B Learning Outcome: 20.14 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 71) In passive immunity, the A) immune system attacks normal body cells. B) body is deliberately exposed to an antigen. C) body receives antibodies produced by other humans. D) body receives antibodies produced by an animal. E) body receives antibodies produced by other humans or the body receives antibodies produced by an animal. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 20.14 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 72) In an experimental situation, a rabbit is exposed to a viral antigen to which it makes antibodies. These antibodies are then purified and injected into a human with the same viral disease. This is an example of A) innate immunity. B) active immunization. C) passive immunity. D) natural immunity. E) alloimmunity. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 20.14 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 73) exists when the immune system does not respond to a particular antigen. A) Versatility B) Tolerance C) Specificity D) Allergy E) Hypersensitivity Answer: B Learning Outcome: 20.14 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

74) The role of antigen-presenting cells in immunity is to do all of the following except A) activate T cells. B) display antigen fragments. C) process antigens. D) phagocytosis. E) activate B cells. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 20.15 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 75) Which of the following concerning Class I MHC proteins is false? A) bind complement B) allow the body to differentiate its own antigens from foreign antigens C) function in antigen presentation D) display abnormal peptides on the plasma membrane E) are found on all nucleated cells Answer: A Learning Outcome: 20.15 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 76) Class II MHC molecules are found only on which of the following? A) all body cells with a nucleus B) red blood cells C) granulocytes and microphages D) lymphocytes and antigen-presenting cells E) liver cells and macrophages in the spleen Answer: D Learning Outcome: 20.15 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 77) Before specific defenses are activated, most antigens must A) infect cells. B) be processed by a phagocyte. C) either infect cells or be processed by a phagocyte. D) depolarize the lymphocyte. E) bind to the DNA of the lymphocyte Answer: E Learning Outcome: 20.15 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

78) The cells responsible for antibody-mediated immunity are the A) NK B) B C) helper T D) cytotoxic T E) suppressor T Answer: B Learning Outcome: 20.15 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

cells.

79) Adaptive immunity is the result of the actions of A) NK cells. B) T and B cells. C) mast cells. D) antigen-antibody complexes. E) interferons. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 20.15 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 80) The cells directly responsible for cell-mediated immunity are the A) B B) plasma C) NK D) T E) interferon Answer: D Learning Outcome: 20.15 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

cells.

81) Lymphocytes that destroy foreign cells or virus-infected cells are A) B B) plasma C) helper T D) cytotoxic T E) suppressor T Answer: D Learning Outcome: 20.16 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

cells.

82) Regulatory T cells act to A) inhibit T and B cell activities. B) erase memory T cells. C) limit antigen proliferation. D) suppress antigens. E) produce antibodies involved in autoimmunity. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 20.16 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 83) Cytotoxic T cells attack target cells by doing what? A) secreting a strong acid B) secreting organic solvent C) secreting free radicals D) activating genes that trigger apoptosis E) secreting mutant proteins Answer: D Learning Outcome: 20.16 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 84) cells provide cell-mediated immunity. A) Memory B B) Cytotoxic T C) Suppressor T D) Helper T E) CD8 T Answer: E Learning Outcome: 20.16 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 85) cells enable the immune system to respond quickly and robustly if the same antigen is encountered a second time. A) IgM B) Suppressor C) Dendritic D) Memory E) Plasma Answer: D Learning Outcome: 20.16 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

86) Helper T cells do all of the following except A) activate sensitized B cells by costimulation. B) destroy target cells using perforins. C) enhance cell-mediated immunity. D) secrete cytokines to stimulate production of plasma cells. E) enhance antibody-mediated immunity. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 20.16 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 87) When an antigen is bound to a Class II MHC protein, it can activate a(n) A) plasma B) CD4 T C) NK D) suppressor T E) cytotoxic T Answer: B Learning Outcome: 20.17 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 88) The cells responsible for producing antibody molecules are A) NK B) plasma C) helper T D) thymus E) liver Answer: B Learning Outcome: 20.17 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 89) Cells that help regulate the antibody-mediated immune response are A) B B) plasma C) helper T D) cytotoxic T E) NK Answer: C Learning Outcome: 20.17 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

cell.

cells.

90) B cells are primarily activated by the activities of A) antigens. B) antibodies. C) helper T cells. D) macrophages. E) plasma cells. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 20.17 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 91) T cells release cytokines to stimulate the activation of A) APCs. B) B cells. C) antibodies. D) immunoglobulins. E) plasma cells. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 20.17 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 92) B cells prepare for activation by presenting an antigen bound to Class II MHC proteins in a process called A) sensitization. B) apoptosis. C) opsonization. D) differentiation. E) customization. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 20.17 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 93) The various classes of immunoglobulins are differentiated on the basis of their A) asymmetry. B) antigen specificity. C) light-chain variable segments. D) heavy-chain constant segments. E) both light-chain variable segments and heavy-chain constant segments. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 20.18 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

94) Immunoglobulins that are most abundant and are responsible for resistance against many viruses, bacteria, and bacterial toxins are A) IgA. B) IgD. C) IgE. D) IgG. E) IgM. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 20.18 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 95) Immunoglobulins that attach to and sensitize mast cells and basophils are A) IgA. B) IgD. C) IgE. D) IgG. E) IgM. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 20.18 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 96) Immunoglobulins that are found on the surface of B cells and may activate antibody production are A) IgA. B) IgD. C) IgE. D) IgG. E) IgM. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 20.18 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 97) Immunoglobulins, formed of five subunits, which are the first antibodies to be produced in response to infection are A) IgA. B) IgD. C) IgE. D) IgG. E) IgM. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 20.18 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

98) Immunoglobulins that are primarily found in glandular secretions such as mucus, saliva, and tears are A) IgA. B) IgD. C) IgE. D) IgG. E) IgM. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 20.18 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 99) During a primary response to antigen exposure, all of the following occur except A) the antigen must activate appropriate B cells. B) B cells may take time to develop into plasma cells and memory cells. C) antibody levels do not peak until 1 to 2 weeks after the initial exposure. D) neutrophils invade the surrounding areas, releasing chemotactic substances. E) the first immunoglobulins to appear in circulation are of the IgM type. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 20.18 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 100) All of the following are true of the secondary response to antigen exposure except that it A) depends on memory B cells. B) results in much higher antibody titers than in the primary response. C) results in much quicker rise in antibody titers. D) produces more IgG antibodies. E) weakens quickly because memory B cells only survive for a year or two. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 20.18 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 101) All of the following are true of the primary response to antigen exposure except that A) it depends on antigen triggering the appropriate B cell. B) it requires B cell differentiation into plasma cells. C) it is delayed by the memory cell stage. D) circulating antibodies undergo a gradual, sustained rise. E) it peaks 1 to 2 weeks after the initial exposure. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 20.18 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

102) An antibody binds to an antigen at a specific area called the A) constant segment. B) light chain. C) antigen binding site. D) hapten. E) antigen-antibody complex. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 20.18 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 103) A crime scene investigator found that a biological fluid sample contains a large amount of IgA-type antibody. This fluid is probably A) blood. B) lymph. C) serum. D) tears. E) interstitial. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 20.18 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 104) A test to measure the antibody level of a blood sample is called a(n) A) primary response. B) secondary response. C) titer. D) anaphylaxis test. E) major histocompatibility complex. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 20.18 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 105) The site on an antibody that is specifically tailored to fit a specific antigen is called the A) constant segment. B) variable segment. C) hapten. D) heavy chain. E) bond. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 20.18 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

106) The binding of an antigen to an antibody can result from all of the following except A) neutralization of the antigen. B) agglutination or precipitation. C) complement activation. D) opsonization. E) activate T cells. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 20.19 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 107) Antibodies may bind to superficial sites on bacteria or other toxins, making the toxin incapable of attaching itself to a cell. This mechanism is known as A) opsonization. B) agglutination. C) phagocytosis. D) neutralization. E) costimulation. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 20.19 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 108) When large numbers of antibodies encounter their antigenic targets, they interact to form a three-dimensional structure known as a(n) A) immune complex. B) antigen-presenting cell. C) antigenic determinant site. D) major histocompatibility complex. E) antigen-antibody complex. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 20.19 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 109) The process by which antibodies bind to the antigen on the surface of cells, forming large immune complexes, is called A) neutralization. B) opsonization. C) agglutination. D) antigen presentation. E) sensitization. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 20.19 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

110) Which of the following is not a method in which antibodies work with features of innate immunity to destroy a pathogen? A) neutralization B) agglutination C) initiate allergic reaction D) complement activation E) phagocyte attraction Answer: C Learning Outcome: 20.19 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 111) In opsonization, A) a pathogen is coated by proteins to facilitate its destruction by neutrophils and macrophages. B) the cell wall of a pathogen is breached, leading to death of the cell. C) MHC II glycoproteins display a fragment of an alien cell. D) antigens bind to antibodies to become antigen-antibody complexes. E) antibodies tie many antigens together. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 20.19 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 112) Inappropriate or excessive immune responses to antigens are A) immunodeficiency diseases. B) autoimmune diseases. C) allergies. D) the result of stress. E) signs of a weak system. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 20.20 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 113) An allergen circulating in the bloodstream affects mast cells throughout the body, dropping blood pressure to dangerously low levels. This response is termed A) allergy. B) hypersensitivity. C) allergic rhinitis. D) anaphylactic shock. E) asthma. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 20.20 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

114) Destruction of antigens or cell lysis can be caused by all of the following except A) helper T cells. B) cytotoxic T cells. C) antibody actions. D) macrophages. E) complement system. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 20.21 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 115) Autoantibodies are A) produced by activated T cells. B) produced during an allergic reaction. C) directed against the body's own antigens. D) the first step in immunological competence. E) important in tissue rejection reactions. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 20.22 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 116) The human immunodeficiency virus (HIV), which causes the disease known as AIDS, selectively infects cells. A) B B) plasma C) cytotoxic T D) helper T E) suppressor T Answer: D Learning Outcome: 20.22 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 117) Infection with the HIV virus occurs through A) sharing eating utensils. B) airborne droplets from coughs and sneezes. C) intimate contact with an infected person's body fluids. D) casual contact with an infected individual. E) sharing clothes with an infected individual. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 20.22 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

118) will develop when the immune response mistakenly targets normal body cells and tissues. A) Autoimmune disorders B) Acquired immune deficiency syndrome C) Immunosuppression D) Anaphylaxis E) Allergies Answer: A Learning Outcome: 20.22 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 119) What is the difference between a lymphocyte and lymph? (Module 20.1A) A) A lymphocyte is the primary cell of the lymphatic system. Lymph is the interstitial fluid that has entered a lymphatic vessel. B) A lymphocyte is the primary cell of the lymphatic system. Lymph is the term for the vessels that transport lymphocytes. C) A lymphocyte is a collection of lymphatic tissue. Lymph is the interstitial fluid that has entered a lymphatic vessel. D) A lymphocyte is a red blood cell that has entered a lymphatic vessel. Lymph is the term for interstitial fluid with red blood cells that has entered a lymphatic vessel. E) A lymphocyte is a stem cell that is the precursor to all red and white blood cells. Lymph is the term for the matrix those stem cells develop in inside the bone marrow and lymphatic organs. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 20.1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 120) List the components of the lymphatic system. (Module 20.1B) A) The components of the lymphatic system are the lymph and lymph nodes. B) The components of the lymphatic system are the blood, blood vessels, lymph, and lymphatic vessels. C) The components of the lymphatic system are the red blood cells, lymphocytes, blood plasma, lymph, blood vessels, and lymphatic vessels. D) The components of the lymphatic system are the lymphocytes, lymph, lymphatic vessels, primary lymphoid tissues and organs, and secondary lymphoid tissues and organs. E) The components of the lymphatic system are the lymphocytes, lymph, lymph nodes, and lymphatic vessels. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 20.1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

121) What is the function of lymphatic vessels? (Module 20.2A) A) The function of lymphatic vessels is to transport blood throughout peripheral tissues of the body. B) The function of lymphatic vessels is to provide a site for lymphocyte maturation. C) The function of lymphatic vessels is to transport lymph from peripheral tissues to the venous system. D) The function of lymphatic vessels is to detect pathogens before they reach the vital organs of the trunk and to help filter the lymph. E) The function of lymphatic vessels is to produce hormones that help the development of functional T cells. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 20.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 122) What is the function of overlapping endothelial cells in lymphatic capillaries? (Module 20.2B) A) Overlapping endothelial cells strengthen the walls of the lymphatic capillaries so they are not distorted in tissues. B) Overlapping endothelial cells act as one-way valves that permit the entry of fluids and solutes but prevent their return to the intercellular spaces. C) Overlapping endothelial cells act as one-way valves that permit the exit of fluids and solutes but prevent their entry into the capillary. D) Overlapping endothelial cells allow large proteins to enter the lymphatic capillaries to be transported to the venous system. E) Overlapping endothelial cells produce tight junctions that prevent the movement of lymph into or out of the capillary. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 20.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 123) What structure prevents the backflow of lymph in some lymphatic vessels? (Module 20.2C) A) lacteals B) lymph nodes C) valves D) tight junctions E) desmosomes Answer: C Learning Outcome: 20.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

124) Compare lymphatic capillaries in the small intestine with those found elsewhere. (Module 20.2D) A) Lymphatic capillaries in the small intestine are called mucosa-associated lymphoid tissue and they contain dividing lymphocytes. Lymphatic capillaries elsewhere house mature, non-dividing, lymphocytes. B) Lymphatic capillaries in the small intestine are called lymph corpuscles and they are involved in the immune response of the body. Lymphatic capillaries elsewhere are not involved in the immune response of the body. C) Lymphatic capillaries in the small intestine are called lymph corpuscles and they are not involved in the immune response of the body. Lymphatic capillaries elsewhere are involved in the immune response of the body. D) Lymphatic capillaries in the small intestine also absorb nutrients to deliver to the hepatic portal vein and are critical components of the hepatic portal system. Lymphatic capillaries elsewhere do not carry any nutrients in the lymph. E) Lymphatic capillaries in the small intestine are called lacteals and they transport lipids. Lymphatic capillaries elsewhere are associated with blood capillary networks. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 20.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 125) Describe the drainage of the right lymphatic duct and the thoracic duct. (Module 20.3A) A) The right lymphatic duct collects lymph from the right side of the body. The thoracic duct collects lymph from the left side of the body. B) The right lymphatic duct collects lymph from the body inferior to the diaphragm. The thoracic duct collects lymph from the body superior to the diaphragm. C) The right lymphatic duct collects lymph from the entire body except the head and neck. The thoracic duct collects lymph from the head and neck. D) The right lymphatic duct collects lymph from the right side of the body superior to the diaphragm. The thoracic duct collects lymph from the body inferior to the diaphragm and the left side superior to the diaphragm. E) The right lymphatic duct collects lymph from the limbs of the body. The thoracic duct collects lymph from the trunk of the body. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 20.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 126) Name the two large lymphatic vessels into which the lymphatic trunks empty. (Module 20.3B) A) right lymphatic duct and thoracic duct B) right lymphatic duct and left lymphatic duct C) thoracic duct and abdominopelvic duct D) left lymphatic duct and thoracic duct E) bronchomediastinal duct and intestinal duct Answer: A Learning Outcome: 20.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 33

127) Explain lymphedema. (Module 20.3C) A) Lymphedema is the accumulation of lymphocytes in lymphatic vessels during an active infection. B) Lymphedema is the activation of the lymphatic system during an active infection. C) Lymphedema is the dilation of lymphatic vessels that occurs in response to inflammation. D) Lymphedema is the invasion of red blood cells into leaky lymphatic vessels. E) Lymphedema is the accumulation of interstitial fluids that results from blocked lymphatic drainage. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 20.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 128) Identify the three main classes of lymphocytes. (Module 20.4A) A) T cells, B cells, and helper cells B) T cells, B cells, and natural killer cells C) RBCs, WBCs, and platelets D) acute lymphocytes, chronic lymphocytes, and resident lymphocytes E) cytotoxic T cells, helper T cells, and memory T cells Answer: B Learning Outcome: 20.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 129) What tissues are involved in lymphopoiesis? (Module 20.4B) A) liver and spleen B) thymus, spleen, and peripheral lymphoid tissues C) thymus, bone marrow, and peripheral lymphoid tissues D) bone marrow and lymph nodes E) bone marrow, spleen, and lymph nodes Answer: C Learning Outcome: 20.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 130) Which cells are responsible for antibody-mediated immunity? (Module 20.4C) A) natural killer cells B) dendritic cells C) epithelial reticular cells D) B cells E) T cells Answer: D Learning Outcome: 20.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

131) Name the lymphoid tissue that protects epithelia lining the digestive, respiratory, urinary, and reproductive tracts. (Module 20.5A) A) lymph nodes B) tonsils C) mucosa-associated lymphoid tissue D) interferons E) lacteals Answer: C Learning Outcome: 20.5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 132) Trace the path of lymph through a lymph node, beginning at the afferent lymphatics. (Module 20.5C) A) afferent lymphatics — subcapsular space — cortex — paracortex — medullary sinus — efferent lymphatics B) afferent lymphatics — cortex — paracortex — subcapsular space — medullary sinus — efferent lymphatics C) afferent lymphatics — medullary sinus — subcapsular space — paracortex — cortex — efferent lymphatics D) afferent lymphatics — paracortex — medullary sinus — cortex — subcapsular space — efferent lymphatics E) afferent lymphatics — subcapsular space — medullary sinus — cortex — paracortex — efferent lymphatics Answer: A Learning Outcome: 20.5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 133) Where is the thymus located? (Module 20.6A) A) posterior mediastinum, lateral to the spinal cord B) anterior mediastinum, posterior to the sternum C) along the curving lateral border of the stomach, extending between the 9th and 11th ribs on the left side D) posterior superior wall of the nasopharynx E) inferior to the diaphragm, medial to the liver Answer: B Learning Outcome: 20.6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

134) Describe the gross anatomy of the thymus. (Module 20.6B) A) The thymus is a deep red, elongated organ covered by a capsule. It is soft and contains indentations for the organs surrounding it. B) The thymus is a bean-shaped organ covered by a capsule with multiple afferent vessels and a single efferent vessel delivering lymph to it. C) The thymus is an aggregate of lymphoid tissue without a capsule embedded in the epithelial lining of various organs. D) The thymus is the largest visceral organ. It is a firm and reddish brown organ containing 4 lobes. E) The thymus is a pink, grainy organ covered by a capsule that divides it into two lobes, which divide further into lobules. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 20.6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 135) Which cells maintain the blood thymus barrier? (Module 20.6C) A) T regulatory cells B) natural killer cells C) dendritic cells D) epithelial reticular cells E) memory cells Answer: D Learning Outcome: 20.6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 136) Describe red pulp and white pulp found in the spleen. (Module 20.7B) A) Red pulp contains large numbers of red blood cells; white pulp resembles lymphoid nodules and contains lymphocytes. B) Red pulp resembles lymphoid nodules and contains lymphocytes; white pulp contains large numbers of red blood cells. C) Red pulp contains large amounts of red bone marrow; white pulp contains large amounts of yellow bone marrow. D) Red pulp is where red blood cells are stored; white pulp is the primary storage site for triglycerides and other lipids. E) Red pulp is where hemoglobin is produced and stored in the body; white pulp is where T and B lymphocytes are produced and stored in the body. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 20.7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

137) Beginning at the trabecular arteries, trace the path of blood through the spleen. (Module 20.7C) A) trabecular arteries — reticular tissue of red pulp — central arteries — sinusoids — capillaries — trabecular veins B) trabecular arteries — sinusoids — central arteries — capillaries — reticular tissue of red pulp — trabecular veins C) trabecular arteries — central arteries — capillaries — reticular tissue of red pulp — sinusoids — trabecular veins D) trabecular arteries — capillaries — trabecular veins — sinusoids — central arteries — reticular tissue of red pulp E) trabecular arteries — central arteries — reticular tissue of red pulp — sinusoids — capillaries — trabecular veins Answer: C Learning Outcome: 20.7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 138) Distinguish between innate immunity and adaptive immunity. (Module 20.8A) A) Innate immunity primarily uses T cells to neutralize the threat. Adaptive immunity primarily uses B cells to neutralize the threat. B) Innate immunity primarily uses B cells to neutralize the threat. Adaptive immunity primarily uses T cells to neutralize the threat. C) Innate immunity relies on the activity of cells to neutralize the threat. Adaptive immunity primarily relies on the activity of specific proteins, such as antibodies to neutralize the threat. D) Innate immunity is nonspecific and does not distinguish one type of threat from another. Adaptive immunity is specific and protects against particular threats. E) Innate immunity is specific and protects against particular threats. Adaptive immunity is nonspecific and does not distinguish one type of threat from another. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 20.8 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 139) A child falls off her bike and skins her knee. Which form of immunity will be activated immediately? (Module 20.8C) A) Innate immunity B) Adaptive immunity C) Cell-mediated immunity D) Antibody-mediated immunity Answer: A Learning Outcome: 20.8 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

140) Identify the types of phagocytes in the body, and differentiate between fixed macrophages and free macrophages. (Module 20.10A) A) The body's phagocytes are macrophages. Fixed macrophages are scattered among connective tissues and do not move; free macrophages are mobile and can travel to the site of injury. B) The body's phagocytes are neutrophils, eosinophils, and macrophages. Fixed macrophages are scattered among connective tissues and do not move; free macrophages are mobile and can travel to the site of injury. C) The body's phagocytes are B cells, T cells, and macrophages. Fixed macrophages are scattered among connective tissues and do not move; free macrophages are mobile and can travel to the site of injury. D) The body's phagocytes are neutrophils, eosinophils, and macrophages. Fixed macrophages can only respond to one type of pathogen; free macrophages are free to respond to any pathogen. E) The body's phagocytes are B cells, T cells, and macrophages. Fixed macrophages can only respond to one type of pathogen; free macrophages are free to respond to any pathogen. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 20.10 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 141) Define chemotaxis. (Module 20.10B) A) Chemotaxis is the process of a phagocyte leaving a capillary by squeezing between adjacent endothelial cells. B) Chemotaxis is the attachment of the phagocyte to its target. C) Chemotaxis is the phagocyte movement in response to chemical stimuli. D) Chemotaxis is the destruction of the target by the phagocyte. E) Chemotaxis is the release of digestive chemicals by the phagocyte when the target is too large to be engulfed. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 20.10 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 142) Define immune surveillance. (Module 20.11A) A) Immune surveillance the normal filtering of lymph through lymph nodes to detect abnormal cells. B) Immune surveillance is the constant filtering of blood in the kidneys to detect abnormal cells. C) Immune surveillance is the constant circulation of available antibodies to attack pathogens. D) Immune surveillance is the constant monitoring of normal tissues by NK cells sensitive to abnormal antigens on the surfaces of cells. E) Immune surveillance is the constant monitoring of normal tissues by activated cytotoxic T cells. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 20.11 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

143) How do NK cells detect cancer cells? (Module 20.11B) A) NK cells recognize cancer cells by the abnormally large size cancerous cells become. B) NK cells recognize cancer cells by the abnormally small size cancerous cells become. C) NK cells recognize cancer cells by the antibodies the cancer cells secrete. D) NK cells recognize cancer cells by the cytokines the cancer cells secrete. E) NK cells recognize cancer cells by the tumor-specific antigens on the plasma membranes of cancer cells. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 20.11 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 144) Define interferons. (Module 20.12A) A) Interferons are small proteins released by virus-infected cells that trigger the production of antiviral proteins. B) Interferons are phagocytic white blood cells that attack virus-infected cells. C) Interferons are circulating proteins that assist antibodies in the destruction of pathogens. D) Interferons are chemicals that induce fever to accelerate tissue metabolism and defenses. E) Interferons are circulating proteins that bind specific antigens as part of the adaptive immune response. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 20.12 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 145) What is the effect of histamine release? (Module 20.12C) A) Histamine induces fever to accelerate tissue metabolism and defenses. B) Histamine increases local inflammation, increasing blood flow to the area. C) Histamine increases blood clotting and causes vasoconstriction to restrict blood loss. D) Histamine triggers the production of antiviral proteins in the cytoplasm of normal cells. E) Histamine binds to bacterial surfaces and enhances phagocytosis. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 20.12 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 146) Describe inflammation. (Module 20.13A) A) Inflammation is an increase in body temperature. B) Inflammation is a vascular response to injury to cause vasoconstriction and reduce blood loss. C) Inflammation is a localized response to injury characterized by redness, swelling, heat, and pain. D) Inflammation is the response of chemical messengers that coordinate defense against viral infections. E) Inflammation is the mechanism by which NK cells destroy abnormal cells in peripheral tissues. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 20.13 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

147) What effect do pyrogens have in the body? (Module 20.13B) A) Pyrogens decrease body temperature. B) Pyrogens induce fever, an increase in body temperature. C) Pyrogens cause vasodilation during inflammatory reactions. D) Pyrogens cause vasoconstriction during inflammatory reactions. E) Pyrogens induce the production of anti-viral proteins in the cytoplasm of normal cells. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 20.13 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 148) A rise in the level of interferons in the body suggests what kind of infection? (Module 20.13C) A) cancer B) parasitic C) bacterial D) viral E) prion Answer: D Learning Outcome: 20.13 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 149) Which two cells coordinate adaptive immunity? (Module 20.14A) A) T cells and B cells B) B cells and natural killer cells C) T cells and natural killer cells D) acute lymphocytes and chronic lymphocytes E) cytotoxic T cells and helper T cells Answer: A Learning Outcome: 20.14 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 150) Which type of immunity develops when a child is given the polio vaccine? (Module 20.14B) A) naturally acquired active immunity B) artificially acquired active immunity C) naturally acquired passive immunity D) artificially acquired passive immunity E) innate immunity Answer: B Learning Outcome: 20.14 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

151) What is the major histocompatibility complex (MHC)? (Module 20.15B) A) The major histocompatibility complex is a collection of circulating proteins that bind pathogens and enhance phagocytosis. B) The major histocompatibility complex is a cell membrane barrier that blocks pathogens from entering cells if the MHC barrier is expressed. C) The major histocompatibility complex is the term for the coordinated antibody-mediated response to a pathogen. D) The major histocompatibility complex is a portion of chromosome 12 that contains genes that control the production of anti-viral proteins by normal cells. E) The major histocompatibility complex is a portion of chromosome 6 that contains genes that control the synthesis of membrane glycoproteins. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 20.15 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 152) Where are class I MHC proteins and class II MHC proteins found? (Module 20.15C) A) Class I MHC proteins are found on B cells and class II MHC proteins are found on T cells. B) Class I MHC proteins are found on T cells and class II MHC proteins are found on B cells. C) Class I MHC proteins are found on all nucleated body cells and class II MHC proteins are found on antigen-presenting cells and lymphocytes. D) Class I MHC proteins are found on antigen-presenting cells and lymphocytes and class II MHC proteins are found on all nucleated body cells. E) Class I MHC proteins are found on cells of the innate immune response and class II MHC proteins are found on cells of the adaptive immune response. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 20.15 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 153) What types of immunity are stimulated by antigen presentation? (Module 20.15D) A) naturally acquired passive immunity B) cell-mediated immunity C) antibody-mediated immunity D) cell-mediated immunity and antibody-mediated immunity E) artificially acquired passive immunity Answer: D Learning Outcome: 20.15 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

154) Describe CD markers. (Module 20.16A) A) T cell plasma membranes contain cluster of differentiation (CD) proteins involved in antigen recognition. B) B cell plasma membranes contain cluster of differentiation (CD) proteins involved in antigen recognition. C) NK cell plasma membranes contain cluster of differentiation (CD) proteins involved in antigen recognition. D) T cells contain cloning and division (CD) proteins in the cytoplasm to allow them to activate and clone after an exposure to an antigen. E) B cells contain cloning and division (CD) proteins in the cytoplasm to allow them to activate and clone after an exposure to an antigen. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 20.16 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 155) Identify the three major types of T cells activated by class I MHC proteins. (Module 20.16B) A) plasma T cells, memory T cells, and cytotoxic T cells B) cytotoxic T cells, memory T cells, and regulatory T cells C) memory T cells, regulatory T cells, and plasma T cells D) NK T cells, cytotoxic T cells, and helper T cells E) helper T cells, regulatory T cells, and memory T cells Answer: B Learning Outcome: 20.16 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 156) How do abnormal antigens attached to class I MHC proteins initiate an immune response? (Module 20.16C) A) Abnormal antigens are displayed on the surface of the cell's plasma membrane and recognition by regulatory T cells initiates the initial immune response. B) Abnormal antigens are displayed on the surface of the cell's plasma membrane and recognition by CD4 T cells initiates the initial immune response. C) Abnormal antigens are displayed on the surface of the cell's plasma membrane and recognition by CD8 T cells initiates the initial immune response. D) Abnormal antigens are displayed on the surface of the cell's plasma membrane and recognition by plasma cells initiates the initial immune response. E) Abnormal antigens are displayed on the surface of the cell's plasma membrane and recognition by NK cells initiates the initial immune response. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 20.16 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

157) Explain the function of cytokines secreted by helper T cells. (Module 20.17A) A) Cytokines secreted by helper T cells stimulate the innate immunity only. B) Cytokines secreted by helper T cells stimulate the cell-mediated adaptive immunity only. C) Cytokines secreted by helper T cells stimulate the antibody-mediated adaptive immunity only. D) Cytokines secreted by helper T cells stimulate the cell-mediated adaptive immunity and antibody-mediated adaptive immunity. E) Cytokines secreted by helper T cells stimulate NK cells only. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 20.17 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 158) If you observed a higher-than-normal number of plasma cells in a sample of lymph, would you expect antibody levels in the blood to be higher or lower than normal? (Module 20.17C) A) Plasma cells produce antibodies so you would expect antibody levels would be higher than normal. B) Plasma cells do not produce antibodies so you would expect antibody levels would be higher than normal. C) Plasma cells produce antibodies so you would expect antibody levels would be lower than normal. D) Plasma cells do not produce antibodies so you would expect antibody levels would be lower than normal. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 20.17 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 159) Define antigenic determinant site. (Module 20.18B) A) An antigenic determinant site is the part of the antibody that contains constant segments. B) An antigenic determinant site is the part of the antigen that is displayed by class I MHC cells. C) An antigenic determinant site is the part of the antigen that is displayed by class II MHC cells. D) An antigenic determinant site is the part of the antigen that constantly mutates to avoid immune system detection. E) An antigenic determinant site is the part of the antigen molecule to which an antibody molecule binds. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 20.18 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 160) Which would be more affected by a lack of memory B cells and memory T cells: the primary response or the secondary response? (Module 20.18C) A) The primary response because memory cells are produced during the initial response to an antigen. B) The secondary response because memory cells are produced during the initial response to an antigen. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 20.18 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 43

161) Define opsonization. (Module 20.19B) A) Opsonization is the process by which antibodies binding superficial sites on the bacteria or toxins make the virus or toxin incapable of attaching itself to a cell. B) Opsonization is the formation of insoluble immune complexes. C) Opsonization is the process by which the coating of pathogens with antibodies and complement proteins makes the pathogens more susceptible to phagocytosis. D) Opsonization is the release of chemicals from basophils and mast cells. E) Opsonization is the binding of antibodies to the surface of the bacteria or virus causing inflammatory reactions. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 20.19 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 162) Which cells are involved in inflammation? (Module 20.19C) A) B cells and T cells B) natural killer cells and eosinophils C) eosinophils, neutrophils, and macrophages D) basophils and mast cells E) helper T cells and memory T cells Answer: D Learning Outcome: 20.19 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 163) Describe hypersensitivities. (Module 20.20A) A) Hypersensitivities are normal immune responses to an allergen, which is an antigen that triggers an allergic reaction. B) Hypersensitivities are excessive immune responses to an allergen, which is an antigen that triggers an allergic reaction. C) Hypersensitivities is a condition that results from the production of antibodies directed against normal antigens in the body. D) Hypersensitivities are inadequate immune responses due to problems with embryonic development of lymphoid organs and tissues, a viral infection, or treatment with or exposure to immunosuppressive agents. E) Hypersensitivities are the excessive immune reaction of antibodies to a virus-infected cell. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 20.20 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

164) Which chemicals do mast cells and basophils release when stimulated in an allergic reaction? (Module 20.20B) A) interferons B) complement proteins C) histamines, leukotrienes, and other chemicals that cause inflammation D) heparin E) IgE antibodies Answer: C Learning Outcome: 20.20 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 165) What is anaphylaxis? (Module 20.20C) A) Anaphylaxis is a normal immune response to an allergen, which is an antigen that triggers an allergic reaction. B) Anaphylaxis is a condition that results from the production of antibodies directed against normal antigens in the body. C) Anaphylaxis is an inadequate immune responses due to problems with embryonic development of lymphoid organs and tissues, a viral infection, or treatment with or exposure to immunosuppressive agents. D) Anaphylaxis is an immune response to a circulating antigen that stimulates mast cells throughout the body to release chemicals that prompt the inflammatory response. E) Anaphylaxis is the excessive immune reaction of antibodies to a virus-infected cell. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 20.20 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 166) Which T cells contain CD8 markers? CD4 markers? (Module 20.21A) A) CD8 markers are found on cytotoxic T cells, memory T cells, and regulatory T cells; CD4 markers are found on all helper T cells. B) CD8 markers are found on all helper T cells; CD4 markers are found on cytotoxic T cells, memory T cells, and regulatory T cells. C) CD8 markers are found on cytotoxic T cells and memory T cells; CD4 markers are found on regulatory T cells and helper T cells. D) CD8 markers are found on regulatory T cells and helper T cells; CD4 markers are found on cytotoxic T cells and memory cells. E) CD8 markers are found on regulatory T cells; CD4 markers are found on cytotoxic T cells, helper T cells, and memory T cells. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 20.21 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

167) Which cells produce antibodies? (Module 20.21B) A) cytotoxic T cells B) helper T cells C) natural killer cells D) memory B cells E) plasma cells Answer: E Learning Outcome: 20.21 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 168) Which cells can be activated by direct contact with virus-infected cells? (Module 20.21C) A) helper T and helper B cells B) memory T and memory B cells C) cytotoxic T and memory B cells D) cytotoxic T and natural killer cells E) helper T and plasma cells Answer: D Learning Outcome: 20.21 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 169) Define autoimmune disorders. (Module 20.22A) A) Autoimmune disorders are conditions that result from the production of antibodies directed against normal antigens in the body. B) Autoimmune disorders are an inadequate immune responses due to problems with embryonic development of lymphoid organs and tissues, a viral infection, or treatment with or exposure to immunosuppressive agents. C) Autoimmune disorders are an immune response to a circulating antigen that stimulates mast cells throughout the body to release chemicals that prompt the inflammatory response. D) Autoimmune disorders are excessive immune reactions of antibodies to a virus-infected cell. E) Autoimmune disorders are excessive immune responses to an allergen, which is an antigen that triggers an allergic reaction. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 20.22 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

170) Describe immunodeficiency diseases. (Module 20.22B) A) Immunodeficiency diseases are conditions that result from the production of antibodies directed against normal antigens in the body. B) Immunodeficiency diseases are an inadequate immune responses due to problems with embryonic development of lymphoid organs and tissues, a viral infection, or treatment with or exposure to immunosuppressive agents. C) Immunodeficiency diseases are an immune response to a circulating antigen that stimulates mast cells throughout the body to release chemicals that prompt the inflammatory response. D) Immunodeficiency diseases are excessive immune reactions of antibodies to a virus-infected cell. E) Immunodeficiency diseases are excessive immune responses to an allergen, which is an antigen that triggers an allergic reaction. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 20.22 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Essay Questions 171) List and briefly describe the components of the lymphatic system. Answer: The lymphatic system consists of (1) lymph, a fluid that resembles plasma but contains a much lower concentration of suspended proteins; (2) a network of lymphatic vessels, often called lymphatics, which begin in peripheral tissues and end at connections to veins; (3) an array of lymphoid tissues and lymphoid organs such as lymph nodes, spleen, and thymus scattered throughout the body; and (4) lymphocytes and smaller numbers of phagocytes and other cells such as dendritic cells. The lymphatic system is organized to provide specific defenses against a wide array of biological hazards and diseases. Learning Outcome: 20.1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 172) What is MALT? What role does it play in the body's defenses? Answer: MALT is an acronym for mucosa-associated lymphoid tissue. It consists of aggregated lymphoid nodules deep to the mucosa (gut lining) of the digestive system. Examples include Peyer's patches in the small intestine and the vermiform appendix that is attached where the small intestine joins the large intestine. These lymphocytes are positioned to detect and neutralize pathogens to enter the body across the digestive mucosa. Beside these specific defenses, there is also mucus and other protective secretions. Learning Outcome: 20.5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

173) Explain how an NK cell would destroy a cancer cell. Identify the portion of the NK cell that plays a key role in this abnormal-cell destruction. Answer: Step 1: A cell may have unusual components in its plasma membrane and the NK cell recognizes that cell as abnormal. This recognition activates the NK cell, which then adheres to its target cell. Step 2: The Golgi apparatus moves around the nucleus until the maturing face points directly toward the abnormal cell. A flood of secretory vesicles is then produced at the Golgi apparatus. These vesicles, which contain proteins called perforins, travel through the cytoplasm toward the cell surface. Step 3: The perforins are released at the cell surface by exocytosis and diffuse across the narrow gap separating the NK cell from its target. Step 4: As a result of the pores made by perforin molecules, the target cell can no longer maintain its internal environment, and it quickly disintegrates. Learning Outcome: 20.11 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 174) List and briefly describe the four general properties of immunity. Answer: (1) Specificity: The immune response is triggered by a specific antigen and defends against only that antigen. (2) Versatility: The immune system can differentiate among hundreds of millions of antigens that it might encounter during a normal lifetime. (3) Memory: The immune response following the second exposure to a particular antigen is stronger and lasts longer than before. (4) Tolerance: Some antigens, such as those on your own cells, do not elicit an immune response. Learning Outcome: 20.14 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 175) You are a researcher interested in studying the cytoskeleton. How can you use antibodies to locate actin- and tubulin-containing structures? Answer: Since those cytoskeletal components are proteins, it is possible to immunize an animal with foreign proteins isolated from tissues. For example, a rabbit could be immunized with the actin and tubulin purified from tissues of the chicken, a very distant relative of the rabbit. Those antibodies could be purified from the rabbit's blood and then linked to fluorescent tags. When the cells are exposed to the anti-actin and anti-tubulin antibodies, they will stick to those molecules in the cell. If different colored dyes were used to tag the antibodies, it would be possible to localize those cytoskeletal proteins in the same cell. Learning Outcome: 20.18 Bloom's Taxonomy: Analyzing 176) Define tonsil, and name the five tonsils. (Module 20.5B) Answer: Tonsils are large lymphoid nodules in the walls of the pharynx. The five tonsils are the left and right palatine tonsils, a single pharyngeal tonsil (adenoid), and a pair of lingual tonsils. Learning Outcome: 20.5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

177) What are the functions of the spleen? (Module 20.7A) Answer: Functions of the spleen include (1) removing abnormal blood cells and other blood components by phagocytosis, (2) storing iron recycled from the red blood cells, and (3) initiating immune responses by B cells and T cells in response to antigens in the bloodstream. Learning Outcome: 20.7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 178) How does innate immunity protect us from disease? (Module 20.8B) Answer: Innate immunity protects us from disease by using physical barriers such as kin, phagocytes that engulf pathogens, immune surveillance of abnormal cells, interferons to defend from viruses, complement to assist antibodies, inflammation to limit the spread of infection, and fever. Learning Outcome: 20.8 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 179) How does the integumentary system protect the body? (Module 20.9A) Answer: The integumentary system provides a physical barrier that is the first line of defense in preventing pathogens and toxins from entering body tissues. Skin secretions flush the surface, hair protects against physical abrasion, and the multiple layers of the skin's epithelium create an interlocking barrier. Learning Outcome: 20.9 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 180) If NK cells are engaged in immune surveillance, how do cancer cells spread? (Module 20.11C) Answer: Cancer cells can mutate such that either they do not display tumor-specific antigens, or they secrete chemicals that can destroy NK cells. This ability to escape detection is called immunological escape. Learning Outcome: 20.11 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 181) Briefly explain the role of complement proteins. (Module 20.12B) Answer: The complement proteins of the complement system interact with each other in chain reactions that ultimately produce activated forms that target bacterial cell walls and plasma membranes, stimulate inflammation, attract phagocytes, or enhance phagocytosis. Learning Outcome: 20.12 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 182) Describe antigen presentation. (Module 20.15A) Answer: Antigen presentation occurs when an antigen-glycoprotein, or antigen-MHC protein, combination capable of activating T cells appears in a plasma membrane. T cells sensitive to this antigen are activated if they contact the antigen on the plasma membrane of the antigenpresenting cell. Learning Outcome: 20.15 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

183) Define sensitization. (Module 20.17B) Answer: Sensitization is the process by which a B cell prepares to undergo activation after encountering a specific antigen. During sensitization, the specific antigens bound to membrane antibodies are brought into the cell by endocytosis, where the antigens then become bound to class II MHC proteins. Together, they then appear at the cell surface. Learning Outcome: 20.17 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 184) Describe the structure of an antibody. (Module 20.18A) Answer: An antibody molecule consists of two parallel pairs of polypeptide chains: a pair of long, heavy chains and a pair of short, light chains. Each chain contains both constant segments and variable segments. The constant segments of the heavy chains form the base of the antibody molecule; the free tips of each of the two variable segments form the antigen-binding sites. Learning Outcome: 20.18 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 185) List the ways that antigen-antibody complexes can destroy target antigens. (Module 20.19A) Answer: Antigen-antibody complexes help destroy antigens through seven processes: neutralization, prevention of pathogen adhesion, activation of complement, opsonization, attraction of phagocytes, stimulation of inflammation, and precipitation and agglutination. Learning Outcome: 20.19 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 186) Provide a plausible explanation for the increased incidence of cancer in the elderly. (Module 20.22C) Answer: The increased incidence of cancer in elderly people may result from a decline in immune surveillance, which results in reduced elimination of tumor cells as they arise. Learning Outcome: 20.22 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

Visual Anatomy and Physiology, 3e (Martini) Chapter 21 The Respiratory System Multiple Choice Questions 1) Which of the following organs is not part of the lower respiratory system? A) oropharynx B) bronchioles C) larynx D) bronchi E) alveoli Answer: A Learning Outcome: 21.1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 2) Air entering the body is filtered, warmed, and humidified by the A) upper respiratory tract. B) lower respiratory tract. C) lungs. D) alveoli. E) bronchioles. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 21.1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 3) Components of the upper respiratory system include all of the following except the A) lips. B) nose. C) nasal cavity. D) pharynx. E) paranasal sinuses. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 21.1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 4) Which of the following systems is responsible for gas exchange? A) urinary B) respiratory C) digestive D) All of the answers are correct. E) None of the answers is correct. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 21.1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

5) The trachea, bronchi, bronchioles, and alveoli all make up the A) upper respiratory tract. B) lower respiratory tract. C) internal respiratory tract. D) alveoli of the respiratory tract. E) respiratory mucosa. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 21.1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 6) The respiratory mucosa of the conducting airways consists of A) pseudostratified ciliated columnar epithelium. B) moist cuboidal epithelium. C) simple squamous epithelium. D) ciliated squamous epithelium. E) surfactant cells. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 21.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 7) A mucosa consists of A) an epithelium. B) an underlying layer of areolar tissue. C) stratified squamous cells. D) both an epithelium and an underlying layer of areolar tissue. E) both an underlying layer of areolar tissue and stratified squamous cells. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 21.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 8) is the most common lethal inherited disease affecting people of Northern European descent. A) MRSA B) Congestive heart failure C) Cystic fibrosis D) Myasthenia gravis E) Parkinson's disease Answer: C Learning Outcome: 21.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

9) The respiratory defense system is important for all of the following reasons except A) helping filter the air. B) helping warm the air. C) keeping out debris. D) keeping out pathogens. E) providing gas exchange. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 21.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 10) Harry suffers from cystic fibrosis and has severe breathing difficulties. His problems result from A) inability of the respiratory defense mechanism to transport mucus. B) uncontrollable laryngospasms. C) production of thick secretions that are difficult to transport. D) both the inability of the respiratory defense mechanism to transport mucus and the production of thick secretions that are difficult to transport. E) All of the answers are correct. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 21.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 11) The beating of the cilia of the respiratory passages in the direction of the pharynx forms the A) respiratory mucosa. B) lamina propria. C) respiratory defense system. D) mucus escalator. E) conducting portion of the respiratory tract. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 21.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 12) The conchae A) divide the nasal cavity into a right and a left side. B) provide an opening into the pharynx. C) form part of the soft palate. D) create turbulence in the air to trap particulate matter in mucus. E) provide an opening to paranasal sinuses. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 21.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

13) Functions of the nasal cavity include all of the following except A) filtering the air. B) cooling the air. C) humidifying the air. D) trapping airborne particles. E) All of the answers are correct. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 21.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 14) The openings to the nostrils are the A) external nares. B) internal nares. C) vestibules. D) conchae. E) nasal apertures. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 21.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 15) The portion of the nasal cavity contained within the flexible tissues of the external nose is the A) nasopharynx. B) vestibule. C) internal chamber. D) conchae. E) nasal septum. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 21.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 16) The common passageway shared by the respiratory and digestive systems is the A) larynx. B) glottis. C) vestibule. D) pharynx. E) trachea. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 21.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

17) The auditory tubes open into the A) nasopharynx. B) oropharynx. C) laryngopharynx. D) larynx. E) nasal cavity. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 21.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 18) Starting at the , the epithelium changes to stratified squamous epithelium. A) nasopharynx B) trachea C) oropharynx D) larynx E) nasal cavity Answer: C Learning Outcome: 21.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 19) The nasal cavity is separated from the oral cavity by the A) hard palate. B) soft palate. C) cribriform plate. D) internal nares. E) pharyngeal septum. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 21.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 20) The nasopharynx is divided from the rest of the pharynx by the A) hard palate. B) soft palate. C) cribriform plate. D) internal nares. E) pharyngeal septum. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 21.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

21) The nasal cavity is divided into left and right portions by the A) hard palate. B) soft palate. C) cribriform plate. D) internal nares. E) nasal septum. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 21.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 22) The extends between the soft palate and the base of the tongue at the level of the hyoid bone. A) pharynx B) laryngopharynx C) trachea D) epiglottis E) oropharynx Answer: E Learning Outcome: 21.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

Figure 21-1 23) Identify the structure labeled "2." A) olfactory organ B) oropharynx C) nasopharynx D) choanae E) nasal sinus Answer: D Learning Outcome: 21.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 24) Identify the structure labeled "7." A) internal nares B) esophagus C) glottis D) oropharynx E) laryngopharynx Answer: D Learning Outcome: 21.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

25) Identify the structure labeled "10." A) hard palate B) trachea C) larynx D) glottis E) laryngopharynx Answer: D Learning Outcome: 21.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 26) Which structure leads to the middle ear? A) 9 B) 4 C) 1 D) 12 E) 2 Answer: B Learning Outcome: 21.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 27) What is the function of the structures labeled "12"? A) cause air to swirl within the respiratory passageway B) improve warming of incoming air C) create narrow passages D) help olfaction E) All of the answers are correct. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 21.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 28) Breathing through the nose rather than the mouth is advantageous for all of the following reasons except A) air is warmed on inhalation. B) air is humidified on inhalation. C) heat loss is reduced on exhalation. D) water loss is reduced on exhalation. E) decreased breath volumes on inhalation. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 21.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

29) Inhaling through the nostrils is preferred over the mouth because A) there is less resistance to flow. B) it combines olfaction with respiration. C) it allows better conditioning of the inhaled air. D) bacteria won't be inhaled from the oral cavity. E) it dries out the mouth. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 21.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 30) Which of the following is not a function of the nasal mucosa? A) humidify the incoming air B) dehumidify the outgoing air C) dehumidify the incoming air D) trap particulate matter E) cool outgoing air Answer: C Learning Outcome: 21.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 31) Which of the following is false about the pharynx? A) It is shared by the integumentary and respiratory systems. B) The nasopharynx is superior. C) The oropharynx connects to oral cavity. D) The laryngopharynx ends at esophagus opening. E) Solids, liquids, and gases pass through. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 21.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 32) The larynx contains all of the following except A) three unpaired cartilages. B) three paired cartilages. C) a total of nine cartilages. D) vestibular ligaments. E) C-rings composed of hyaline cartilage. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 21.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

33) The glottis is A) the soft tissue that hangs off the end of the soft palate. B) a flap of elastic cartilage. C) the opening to the larynx. D) the opening to the pharynx. E) part of the hard palate. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 21.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 34) The vocal folds are located within the A) nasopharynx. B) oropharynx. C) larynx. D) trachea. E) bronchi. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 21.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 35) The elastic cartilage that covers the opening to the larynx during swallowing is the A) thyroid cartilage. B) cricoid cartilage. C) corniculate cartilage. D) cuneiform cartilage. E) epiglottis. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 21.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 36) The largest shield-shaped cartilage of the larynx is the A) thyroid B) cricoid C) cuneiform D) arytenoid E) epiglottal Answer: A Learning Outcome: 21.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

cartilage.

37) The visible and palpable prominence on the throat known as the Adam's apple is part of the A) epiglottis. B) cricoid cartilage. C) glottis. D) corniculate cartilage. E) thyroid cartilage. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 21.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 38) The ring-shaped cartilage just inferior to the thyroid cartilage is the A) epiglottal B) cuneiform C) corniculate D) cricoid E) arytenoid Answer: D Learning Outcome: 21.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

cartilage.

39) The paired cartilages that articulate with the superior border of the cricoid cartilage and help with opening and closing the glottis to produce sound are the cartilages. A) thyroid B) tracheal C) cuneiform D) corniculate E) arytenoid Answer: E Learning Outcome: 21.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 40) The vocal ligaments are found in the A) vestibular folds. B) aryepiglottic folds. C) rima glottidis. D) vocal folds. E) cricoid cartilage. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 21.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

41) Air passing through the glottis vibrates the vocal folds and produces A) speech. B) articulation. C) phonation. D) whistling. E) ululation. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 21.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 42) Tension on the vocal cords is regulated by the A) movement of the arytenoid cartilages. B) extrinsic ligaments. C) contraction of laryngeal muscles. D) movement of the arytenoid cartilages and contraction of voluntary muscles. E) None of the answers is correct. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 21.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 43) The laryngeal cartilage composed of elastic cartilage that prevents entry of solids or liquids into the larynx when swallowing is the A) arytenoid cartilage. B) corniculate cartilage. C) cricoid cartilage. D) epiglottis. E) thyroid cartilage. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 21.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 44) During swallowing, all of the following occur except A) solids are prevented from entering the respiratory tract. B) the larynx is elevated. C) the epiglottis folds over the glottis. D) the uvula rises to block the oropharynx. E) liquids are prevented from entering the respiratory tract. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 21.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

45) Regarding the vestibular folds, the term vestibular refers to A) an entryway. B) balance. C) vocal. D) cartilage. E) sound. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 21.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 46) Modification of the sounds produced by the larynx is known as A) vibration. B) articulation. C) speech. D) phonation. E) amplification. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 21.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 47) The opening or closing of the glottis involves rotational movement of the A) vocal folds. B) vestibular folds C) rima glottidis. D) arytenoid cartilages. E) cricoid cartilages. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 21.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 48) Which of the following statements about the trachea is false? A) It ends in the mediastinum. B) It is reinforced with C-shaped cartilages. C) It is also called the windpipe. D) It alters its diameter in response to the autonomic nervous system. E) It is reinforced with D-shaped cartilages. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 21.5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

49) The airway that connects the larynx to the bronchi is the A) trachea. B) bronchiole. C) laryngopharynx. D) alveolar duct. E) bronchus. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 21.5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 50) Secondary bronchi supply air to the A) lungs. B) lobes of the lungs. C) lobules of the lungs. D) alveoli. E) alveolar ducts. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 21.5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 51) What branches from the trachea? A) terminal bronchioles B) secondary bronchi C) tertiary bronchi D) primary bronchi E) alveolar ducts Answer: D Learning Outcome: 21.5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 52) The adult human trachea is about cartilages. A) 1.0 cm; 15-20 B) 1.0 cm; 10-15 C) 2.5 cm; 15-20 D) 2.5 cm; 40-50 E) None of the answers is correct. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 21.5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

in diameter and contains _

tracheal

53) Which of the following is the best explanation for the C shape of the tracheal cartilages? A) Large masses of food can pass through the esophagus during swallowing. B) Large masses of air can pass through the trachea. C) It facilitates turning of the head. D) Cartilage can change shape during sympathetic activation. E) Cartilage can constrict during an asthma attack. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 21.5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 54) During a choking episode, most foreign objects are more likely to become lodged in the bronchus due to its larger diameter and steeper angle. A) right primary B) left primary C) right secondary D) left secondary E) None of the answers are more likely. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 21.5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 55) Which of the following statements about bronchioles is true? A) Sympathetic action causes bronchodilation. B) Walls contain hyaline cartilage. C) Extreme bronchodilation occurs in asthma. D) The muscular walls are composed of a mixture of skeletal and smooth muscle. E) Segmental bronchi are braches of terminal bronchioles. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 21.5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 56) Air traveling from the tertiary bronchi must pass through the pulmonary lobule. A) secondary bronchi B) alveoli C) primary bronchi D) terminal bronchioles E) trachea Answer: D Learning Outcome: 21.5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

_ to reach the

57) The extends from the larynx to the mediastinum. A) upper respiratory system B) cricoid cartilage C) primary bronchus D) pharynx E) trachea Answer: E Learning Outcome: 21.5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 58) In the lower respiratory tract, cartilage plates first appear at the A) primary bronchi. B) secondary bronchi. C) tertiary bronchi. D) bronchioles. E) terminal bronchioles. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 21.5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 59) The right lung has ; the left lung has A) three lobes; two lobes B) two lobes; two lobes C) two lobes; three lobes D) three lobes; three lobes E) None of the answers is correct. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 21.6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 60) The most superior portion of the lung is termed the A) base. B) apex. C) cardiac notch. D) hilum. E) oblique fissure. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 21.6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

61) Which respiratory organ features a cardiac notch? A) right lung B) left lung C) right primary bronchus D) left primary bronchus E) both left lung and left primary bronchus Answer: B Learning Outcome: 21.6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 62) The is a depression in the lung that allows attachment of the primary bronchi, pulmonary vessels, and other structures. A) base B) apex C) hilum D) root E) cardiac notch Answer: C Learning Outcome: 21.6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 63) The lungs are divided into lobes by structures called A) grooves. B) sutures. C) notches. D) fissures. E) segments. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 21.6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 64) The sites of gas exchange within the lungs are the A) bronchioles. B) terminal bronchioles. C) pleural spaces. D) alveoli. E) falciform ligaments. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 21.7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

65) The respiratory membrane of the gas exchange surfaces consists of A) pseudostratified ciliated columnar epithelium. B) moist cuboidal epithelium. C) simple squamous epithelium. D) ciliated squamous epithelium. E) surfactant cells. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 21.7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 66) Damage to the type II pneumocytes of the lungs would result in all of the following except A) a loss of surfactant. B) a decreased rate of gas exchange. C) increased surface tension in the alveoli. D) increased tendency to alveolar collapse. E) decreased number of dust cells. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 21.7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 67) Each terminal bronchiole supplies air directly to A) a single pulmonary lobule. B) over 150 million alveoli. C) a single alveolar duct. D) several alveolar sacs. E) about 6500 bronchioles. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 21.7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 68) Which of the following statements is true regarding activity in the alveoli? A) Type II pneumocytes are the site of gas exchange. B) Alveolar capillaries constrict when oxygen levels are high. C) Type I pneumocytes produce surfactant. D) Alveolar macrophages collect stray dust particles. E) They are composed of simple cuboidal epithelium. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 21.7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

69) If you looked closely at a pulmonary lobule, you would see all of the following structures except A) cartilage plates. B) alveoli. C) a lymphatic vessel. D) a branch of a pulmonary vein. E) some elastic fibers. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 21.7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 70) At the level of the alveoli, where does gas exchange occur? A) within the red blood cells B) at the interconnections between adjacent alveoli C) in the alveolar ducts D) across the respiratory membrane E) between type II pneumocytes and red blood cells Answer: D Learning Outcome: 21.7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 71) Absorption of O2 from blood and release of CO2 from tissue cells is known as A) external respiration. B) internal respiration. C) pulmonary ventilation. D) gas diffusion. E) alveolar ventilation. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 21.8 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 72) The condition of having low tissue oxygen levels is known as A) anoxia. B) hypercapnia. C) hypoventilation. D) hyperoxia. E) hypoxia. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 21.8 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

73) Pulmonary ventilation refers to the A) movement of air into and out of the lungs. B) movement of dissolved gases from the alveoli to the blood. C) movement of dissolved gases from the blood to the interstitial space. D) movement of dissolved gases from the interstitial space to the cells. E) utilization of oxygen. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 21.8 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 74) The ultimate function of pulmonary ventilation is to A) remove carbon dioxide from the blood. B) supply oxygen to the blood. C) provide adequate alveolar ventilation. D) remove air from dead air space. E) prevent gas exchange in the bronchioles. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 21.8 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 75) The technical term for "breathing" is A) gas exchange. B) pulmonary ventilation. C) internal respiration. D) external respiration. E) alveolar ventilation. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 21.8 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 76) Boyle's law states that gas volume is A) directly proportional to pressure. B) directly proportional to temperature. C) inversely proportional to pressure. D) inversely proportional to temperature. E) both directly proportional to pressure and directly proportional to temperature. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 21.9 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

77) The unit of measurement for pressure specifically preferred by many respiratory therapists is A) mm Hg. B) torr. C) cm H2O. D) All of the answers are correct. E) None of the answers is correct. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 21.9 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 78) Which of the following is greater? A) the partial pressure of oxygen in atmospheric air B) the partial pressure of oxygen in the alveoli Answer: A Learning Outcome: 21.9 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 79) Air moves out of the lungs when the pressure inside the lungs is A) less than the pressure in the atmosphere. B) greater than the pressure in the atmosphere. C) equal to the pressure in the atmosphere. D) greater than intra-alveolar pressure. E) less than intrapulmonary pressure. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 21.9 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 80) When there is no air movement, the relationship between the intrapulmonary and atmospheric pressure is that A) they are equal. B) intrapulmonary pressure is greater than atmospheric. C) atmospheric pressure is less than intrapulmonary. D) atmospheric pressure is more than intrapulmonary. E) intrapulmonary pressure is less than atmospheric. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 21.9 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

81) If the fluid bond between the parietal and visceral pleura is broken and the lung collapses, the resulting condition is termed A) emphysema. B) atelectasis. C) metaplasia. D) apnea. E) anaplasia. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 21.9 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

Figure 21-2 82) What is the relationship between the pressures at label "3"? A) P outside = P inside B) P outside > P inside C) P outside < P inside D) P outside + P inside E) P outside - P inside Answer: B Learning Outcome: 21.9 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 83) What pressure will be present in the space labeled "5"? A) alveolar pressure B) intrapulmonary pressure C) subalveolar pressure D) subatmospheric pressure E) atmospheric pressure Answer: B Learning Outcome: 21.9 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

84) What is the relationship between the pressures at label "8"? A) P outside = P inside B) P outside > P inside C) P outside < P inside D) P outside + P inside E) P outside - P inside Answer: C Learning Outcome: 21.9 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 85) Which muscle(s) contract(s) to cause the movement indicated by the arrows labeled "6" and "7"? A) rectus abdominis B) internal intercostals C) external intercostals D) diaphragm E) none, quiet expiration is passive. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 21.10 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 86) Which muscle(s) produce(s) the movement labeled "1" in quiet inspiration? A) rectus abdominis B) internal intercostals C) external intercostals D) diaphragm E) both rectus abdominis and external intercostals Answer: C Learning Outcome: 21.10 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 87) Which of the following muscles would not be recruited to increase inspired volume? A) sternocleidomastoid B) pectoralis minor C) scalenes D) serratus anterior E) rectus abdominis Answer: E Learning Outcome: 21.10 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

88) Expiratory movements are produced by contraction of the A) scalene B) diaphragm C) internal intercostal D) external intercostal E) serratus anterior Answer: C Learning Outcome: 21.10 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

muscle(s).

89) When the diaphragm and external intercostal muscles contract, A) the volume of the thorax increases. B) the volume of the thorax decreases. C) the volume of the lungs decreases. D) the lungs shrink. E) expiration occurs. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 21.10 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 90) Which of these descriptions best matches the term "external intercostal"? A) accessory muscle of expiration B) accessory muscle of inspiration C) primary muscle of inspiration D) contraction increases airway resistance E) affects lung compliance Answer: C Learning Outcome: 21.10 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 91) is the amount of air that moves into the respiratory system during a single respiratory cycle under resting conditions. A) Residual volume B) Expiratory reserve volume C) Inspiratory reserve volume D) Tidal volume E) Inspiratory capacity Answer: D Learning Outcome: 21.10 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

92) is the amount of air that you can inhale above the resting tidal volume. A) Residual inhaled volume B) Expiratory reserve volume C) Inspiratory reserve volume D) Enhanced tidal volume E) Inspiratory capacity Answer: C Learning Outcome: 21.10 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 93) In quiet breathing, A) inspiration and expiration involve muscular contractions. B) inspiration is passive and expiration involves muscular contractions. C) inspiration involves muscular contractions and expiration is passive. D) inspiration and expiration are both passive. E) None of the answers is correct. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 21.10 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 94) If a patient being tested inhales as deeply as possible and then exhales as much as possible, the volume of air expelled would be the patient's A) tidal volume. B) total lung capacity. C) expiratory reserve volume. D) reserve volume. E) vital capacity. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 21.10 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 95) The amount of air that a person can voluntarily expel after completing a normal, quiet respiratory cycle is termed A) total lung capacity. B) expiratory reserve volume. C) residual volume. D) tidal volume. E) inspiratory reserve volume. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 21.10 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

96) After a quiet expiration, the amount of air in your lungs is called the A) expiratory reserve volume. B) inspiratory capacity. C) functional residual capacity. D) tidal volume. E) residual volume. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 21.10 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 97) Alveolar ventilation (VA) refers to the A) movement of air into and out of the lungs. B) amount of air reaching the alveoli each minute. C) movement of dissolved gases from the alveoli to the blood. D) movement of dissolved gases from the blood to the alveoli. E) utilization of oxygen by alveolar cells to support metabolism. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 21.11 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 98) equals the respiratory rate × (tidal volume - anatomic dead space). A) Vital capacity B) Respiratory minute volume C) Pulmonary ventilation rate D) Alveolar ventilation rate E) External respiration rate Answer: D Learning Outcome: 21.11 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 99) Which of the following can be calculated if the tidal volume and respiratory rate are known? A) respiratory minute volume B) inspiratory reserve volume C) expiratory reserve volume D) anatomic dead space E) minimal volume Answer: A Learning Outcome: 21.11 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

100) The normal respiratory rate of a resting adult ranges from roughly one for every four heartbeats. A) 4 to 6 B) 10 to 12 C) 12 to 18 D) 16 to 20 E) 22 to 24 Answer: C Learning Outcome: 21.11 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

breaths each minute, or

101) Air remaining in the conducting portion of the respiratory system that does not reach the alveoli is known as A) functional residual capacity. B) respiratory minute volume. C) alveolar ventilation volume. D) anatomic dead space. E) minimal volume. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 21.11 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 102) Henry's law states that A) gas volume and temperature are directly proportional. B) gas volume and pressure are inversely proportional. C) the volume of gas that will dissolve in a solvent is proportional to the partial pressure of that gas. D) in a mixture of gases such as air, the total pressure is the sum of the individual partial pressures of the gases in the mixture. E) gas pressure is inversely proportional to gas volume. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 21.12 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 103) Dalton's law states that A) gas volume and temperature are directly proportional. B) gas volume and pressure are inversely proportional. C) the volume of gas that will dissolve in a solvent is proportional to the solubility of the gas and the gas pressure. D) in a mixture of gases such as air, the total pressure is the sum of the individual partial pressures of the gases in the mixture. E) gas pressure is inversely proportional to gas volume. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 21.12 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

104) The partial pressure of oxygen (PO2) in pulmonary veins during internal respiration is approximately A) 40 mm Hg. B) 45 mm Hg. C) 50 mm Hg. D) 70 mm Hg. E) 95 mm Hg. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 21.12 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 105) The process by which dissolved gases are exchanged between the blood and interstitial fluids is A) pulmonary ventilation. B) external respiration. C) internal respiration. D) cellular respiration. E) breathing. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 21.12 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 106) Each of the following factors affects the rate of external respiration except the A) PO2 of the alveoli. B) PCO2 of the blood. C) thickness of the respiratory membrane. D) diameter of an alveolus. E) solubility of oxygen in plasma. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 21.12 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 107) External respiration involves the A) movement of air into and out of the lungs. B) diffusion of gases between the alveoli and the circulating blood. C) exchange of dissolved gases between the blood and the interstitial fluid. D) binding of oxygen by hemoglobin. E) utilization of oxygen by tissues to support metabolism. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 21.12 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

108) At a PO2 of 70 mm Hg and normal temperature and pH, hemoglobin is saturated with oxygen. A) 10 B) 25 C) 50 D) 75 E) more than 90 Answer: E Learning Outcome: 21.13 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

percent

109) Most of the oxygen transported by the blood is A) dissolved in plasma. B) bound to hemoglobin. C) in ionic form as solute in the plasma. D) bound to the same protein as carbon dioxide. E) carried by white blood cells. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 21.13 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 110) Each 100 mL of blood leaving the alveolar capillaries carries away roughly oxygen. A) 10 mL B) 20 mL C) 30 mL D) 50 mL E) 75 mL Answer: B Learning Outcome: 21.13 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 111) A hemoglobin molecule contains A) 1 alpha and 1 beta B) 2 alpha and 2 beta C) 2 alpha and 3 beta D) 4 alpha E) 4 beta Answer: B Learning Outcome: 21.13 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

globular protein subunits.

112) Which of the following would be greater? A) the percent of oxygen saturation of hemoglobin when the pH is 7.6 B) the percent of oxygen saturation of hemoglobin when the pH is 7.2 Answer: A Learning Outcome: 21.13 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 113) Which of the following would be greater? A) the percent of oxygen saturation of hemoglobin when the temperature is 38 degrees centigrade B) the percent of oxygen saturation of hemoglobin when the temperature is 43 degrees centigrade C) the percent of oxygen saturation of hemoglobin when the temperature is 20 degrees centigrade Answer: A Learning Outcome: 21.13 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 114) Which of the following would be greater? A) hemoglobin's affinity for oxygen when the BPG level is high B) hemoglobin's affinity for oxygen when the BPG level is low Answer: B Learning Outcome: 21.13 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 115) Low pH alters hemoglobin structure so that oxygen binds less strongly to hemoglobin at low PO2. This increases the effectiveness of A) external respiration. B) internal respiration. C) carbon dioxide transport. D) hemoglobin synthesis. E) acid-base balance. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 21.13 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 116) Which of the following factors would increase the amount of oxygen discharged by hemoglobin into peripheral tissues? A) decreased temperature B) decreased pH C) increased tissue PO2 D) decreased amounts of BPG E) None of the answers is correct. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 21.13 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 30

117) For maximum loading of hemoglobin with oxygen at the lungs, the A) PCO2 should be high. B) pH should be slightly acidic. C) PO2 should be about 70 mm Hg. D) BPG levels in the red blood cells should be high. E) PCO2 should be low. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 21.13 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 118) Most of the carbon dioxide in the blood is transported as A) solute dissolved in the plasma. B) carbaminohemoglobin. C) bicarbonate ions. D) solute dissolved in the cytoplasm of red blood cells. E) carbonic acid. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 21.14 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 119) All of the following are true regarding carbonic anhydrase except that A) it is in RBCs. B) it is an enzyme. C) it can increase the amount of bicarbonate ion in plasma. D) it can convert carbon dioxide into carbonic acid. E) it can convert carbonic acid into CO2. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 21.14 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 120) Which of the following statements about the chloride shift is false? A) It involves a movement of chloride ion into RBCs. B) It depends on the chloride-bicarbonate countertransport mechanism. C) It involves a movement of bicarbonate ions into the plasma. D) It is driven by a rise in PCO2. E) It causes RBCs to swell. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 21.14 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

121) What does not happen to a carbon dioxide molecule once it enters the bloodstream? A) It is converted to a molecule of carbonic acid. B) It binds to the protein portion of hemoglobin molecules within red blood cells. C) It dissolves in plasma. D) It is converted by carbonic anhydrase. E) It binds to heme groups in hemoglobin. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 21.14 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 122) The movement of chloride ions into the RBCs in exchange for bicarbonate ions is known as A) the BPG pathway. B) the chloride shift. C) a bicarbonate exchange. D) the Bohr effect. E) gas diffusion. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 21.14 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 123) If tissue oxygen demand increases and respiratory rate and tidal volume remain the same, what happens? A) Alveolar PO2 increases; blood and tissue PCO2 decreases. B) Alveolar PO2 decreases; blood and tissue PCO2 decreases. C) Alveolar PO2 increases; blood and tissue PCO2 increases. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 21.14 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 124) The condition resulting from inadequate production of surfactant and the resultant collapse of alveoli is A) respiratory distress syndrome. B) COPD. C) anoxia. D) pulmonary embolism. E) pneumothorax. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 21.15 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

125) Asthma is A) a collapsed lung. B) an acute condition resulting from unusually sensitive, irritated conducting airways. C) an obstructive tumor. D) characterized by fluid buildup in the alveoli. E) caused by Mycobacterium tuberculosis. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 21.15 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 126) The obstructive lung disease in which elastic fibers are lost, leading to collapse of alveoli and bronchioles, is called A) asthma. B) bronchitis. C) emphysema. D) tuberculosis. E) pneumonia. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 21.15 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 127) In emphysema, all of the following occur except A) alveoli collapse. B) compliance increases. C) there is elevated PCO2 in the blood. D) the surface area for gas exchange decreases. E) patients present with cyanosis. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 21.15 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 128) The measure of how easily the lungs expand and contract is termed A) resistance. B) elasticity. C) compliance. D) rebound response. E) inflation index. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 21.15 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

129) The "C" in COPD stands for A) congestive. B) chronic. C) cumulative. D) compliant. E) critical. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 21.15 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 130) The respiratory center is housed in the A) brain stem B) cerebral cortex C) cerebrum D) diencephalon E) cerebellum Answer: A Learning Outcome: 21.16 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

of the brain.

131) The normal rate and depth of breathing is established by all of the following except the center. A) ventral respiratory group (VRG) B) pneumotaxic center in the pons C) apneustic center in the pons D) dorsal respiratory group (DRG) E) breathing cortex of the cerebrum Answer: E Learning Outcome: 21.16 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 132) Prolonged deep inspirations can result from stimulating the A) apneustic B) pneumotaxic C) expiratory D) baroreceptor E) chemoreceptor Answer: A Learning Outcome: 21.16 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

center.

133) The pneumotaxic center of the pons A) sets the at-rest respiratory pattern. B) prolongs inspiration. C) modifies the rate and depth of breathing. D) suppresses the expiratory center in the medulla. E) both prolongs inspiration and modifies the rate and depth of breathing. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 21.16 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 134) Higher brain centers that alter the activity of the respiratory centers include all of the following except the A) cerebral cortex. B) pons. C) limbic system. D) hypothalamus. E) None of the answers is correct. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 21.16 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 135) The apneustic centers promote quiet inhalation by stimulating the A) ventral respiratory group (VRG). B) pre-Bötzinger complex. C) pneumotaxic centers. D) dorsal respiratory group (DRG). E) None of the answers is correct. The apneustic centers cannot promote inhalation. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 21.16 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 136) If the dorsal respiratory group of neurons in the medulla oblongata were destroyed bilaterally, A) a person would stop breathing. B) pulmonary ventilation would increase markedly. C) the respiratory minute volume would increase. D) tidal volumes would increase. E) alveolar ventilation would increase. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 21.16 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

137) The pneumotaxic center A) is in the pons. B) excites the apneustic center. C) inhibits the apneustic center. D) both is in the pons and excites the apneustic center. E) both is in the pons and inhibits the apneustic center. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 21.16 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 138) All of the below are sensory stimuli that can stimulate respiratory reflexes except A) stretch receptors. B) nociceptors. C) chemoreceptors. D) baroreceptors. E) irritant chemical or physical particles. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 21.16 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 139) The most important chemical regulator of respiration is A) oxygen. B) carbon dioxide. C) bicarbonate ion. D) sodium ion. E) hemoglobin. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 21.17 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 140) A 10 percent increase in the level of carbon dioxide in the blood will A) decrease the rate of breathing. B) double the rate of breathing. C) decrease pulmonary ventilation. D) decrease the alveolar ventilation rate. E) reduce the vital capacity by 10%. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 21.17 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

141) The term "hypercapnia" refers to A) the cessation of breathing. B) elevated PCO2. C) elevated PO2. D) an increase in pH. E) labored breathing. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 21.17 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 142) The inflation reflex A) functions to increase ventilation with changes in blood pressure. B) alters pulmonary ventilation when the PO2 changes. C) alters pulmonary ventilation when the PCO2 changes. D) protects the lungs from damage during forced inspiration. E) is an important aspect of normal, quiet breathing. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 21.17 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 143) All of the following provide chemoreceptor input to the respiratory centers of the medulla oblongata except the A) olfactory epithelium. B) medullary chemoreceptors. C) aortic sinuses. D) carotid sinuses. E) All of the answers are correct. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 21.17 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 144) A period in which breathing has stopped, followed by a forceful expulsion of air, is termed A) respiratory distress. B) anoxia. C) hypoxia. D) apneustic breathing. E) apnea. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 21.17 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

145) Which of these age-based changes is false? A) The lungs lose elastic tissue. B) The lungs' compliance changes. C) Vital capacity increases. D) Respiratory muscles weaken. E) Costal cartilages become less flexible. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 21.18 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 146) Which of the following statements regarding tobacco smoking and lung damage is true? A) Cancer rates are the same for smokers and non-smokers. B) Anaplasia is reversible if a person stops smoking. C) Twenty-five percent of lung cancers are the direct result of cigarette smoking. D) Neoplasia is not reversible, even if the person stops smoking, but can be treated by surgery. E) The incidence of lung cancer is greater among women than men. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 21.18 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 147) Where does gas exchange between the air and the lungs occur? (Module 21.1A) A) lobar bronchi B) bronchioles C) trachea D) alveoli E) segmental bronchi Answer: D Learning Outcome: 21.1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

148) Distinguish between the conducting portion and respiratory portion of the respiratory tract. (Module 21.1B) A) The conducting portion includes the nasal cavity and extends through the pharynx, larynx, trachea, bronchi, and larger bronchioles. The respiratory portion includes the respiratory bronchioles and alveoli. B) The conducting portion of the respiratory tract includes the respiratory bronchioles and alveoli. The respiratory portion includes the nasal cavity and extends through the pharynx, larynx, trachea, bronchi, and larger bronchioles. C) The conducting portion includes the nasal cavity and extends through the pharynx and larynx. The respiratory portion includes the trachea, bronchi, larger bronchioles, respiratory bronchioles and alveoli. D) The conducting portion includes the trachea, bronchi, larger bronchioles, respiratory bronchioles and alveoli. The respiratory portion includes the nasal cavity and extends through the pharynx and larynx. E) The conducting portion includes the nasal cavity and pharynx. The respiratory portion includes the larynx, trachea, bronchi, larger bronchioles, respiratory bronchioles, and alveoli. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 21.1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 149) Define respiratory defense system. (Module 21.2A) A) The respiratory defense system is the resident macrophages that live in the respiratory passageways. B) The respiratory defense system is a series of filtration mechanisms that prevent airway contamination. C) The respiratory defense system is the lymph fluid that lines the internal respiratory passageways to prevent invasion by pathogens. D) The respiratory defense system is the collection of lymph nodes throughout the lungs that filter the air as it is inhaled. E) The respiratory defense system is the collection of T cells and B cells that reside in the respiratory passageways. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 21.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 150) What membrane lines the conducting portion of the respiratory tract? (Module 21.2B) A) pleural serosa membrane B) respiratory serosa membrane C) cutaneous membrane D) ceruminous membrane E) respiratory mucosa membrane Answer: E Learning Outcome: 21.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

151) List the structures of the upper respiratory system. (Module 21.3A) A) nose, nasal cavity, paranasal sinuses, and pharynx B) nose, mouth, pharynx, and larynx C) pharynx, larynx, and trachea D) trachea, bronchi, bronchioles, alveoli E) glottis, larynx, trachea, and bronchi Answer: A Learning Outcome: 21.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 152) Why is the vascularization of the nasal cavity important? (Module 21.3C) A) The rich collection of blood vessels allows the incoming air to be filtered of large particles before it leaves the nasal cavity. B) The rich collection of blood vessels allows the white blood cells to attract and destroy pathogens in incoming air before it leaves the nasal cavity. C) The rich collection of blood vessels allows the incoming air to be warmed and humidified before it leaves the nasal cavity. D) The rich collection of blood vessels allows blood temperature to equalize with external temperatures. E) The rich collection of blood vessels drains excess interstitial fluid into the surrounding nasal passageways as a way to increase mucus production. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 21.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 153) Identify the paired and unpaired cartilages that compose the larynx. (Module 21.4A) A) The paired cartilages are the arytenoid, pharyngeal, and laryngeal. The unpaired cartilages are the thyroid cartilage and parathyroid cartilage. B) The paired cartilages are the corniculate, cuboid, and cuneiform. The unpaired cartilages are the glottis and epiglottis. C) The paired cartilages are the pharyngeal, tracheal, and vocal folds. The unpaired cartilages are the thyroid cartilage vestibular fold, and the rima glottidis. D) The paired cartilages are the arytenoid, corniculate, and cuneiform. The unpaired cartilages are the thyroid cartilage, cricoid cartilage, and epiglottis. E) The paired cartilages are the vestibular and vocal. The unpaired cartilages are the hyoid, thyroid cartilage, and sternocleidomastoid. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 21.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

154) Describe the structures of the glottis. (Module 21.4B) A) The glottis contains the vestibular ligaments that extend between the thyroid cartilage and the arytenoid cartilages. B) The glottis contains the large epiglottis that covers the glottis during swallowing and the thyroid cartilage which forms most of the anterior and lateral walls of the larynx. C) The glottis contains the vocal folds that contain the vocal ligaments and the rima glottidis which is the opening between the vocal folds. D) The glottis contains the superior, middle, and inferior meatuses, which swirls air in the larynx producing sound. E) The glottis contains a vestibule and a septum. As air passes through the vestibule it is split by the septum producing sound. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 21.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 155) Distinguish between phonation and articulation. (Module 21.4C) A) Articulation is the movement of the vocal folds to produce sound; phonation is the modification of sound by the tongue, teeth, and lips. B) Phonation is the movement of the vocal folds to produce sound; articulation is the modification of sound by the tongue, teeth, and lips. C) Phonation is central nervous system control over the production of sound. Articulation is the movement of the vocal folds to produce sound. D) Articulation is the central nervous system control over the production sound. Phonation is the movement of the vocal folds to produce sound. E) Phonation is the response of the auditory association area to the hearing of sound. Articulation is the movement of the vocal folds to produce sound. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 21.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 156) Compare the two main bronchi. (Module 21.5A) A) The right main bronchus is smaller in diameter than the left main bronchus and it descends toward the lung at a shallower angle than the left main bronchus. B) The right main bronchus is smaller in diameter than the left main bronchus and it descends toward the lung at a steeper angle than the left main bronchus. C) The right main bronchus is larger in diameter than the left main bronchus and it descends toward the lung at a shallower angle than the left main bronchus. D) The right main bronchus is larger in diameter than the left main bronchus and it descends toward the lung at a steeper angle than the left main bronchus. E) The right main bronchus is the same diameter as the left main bronchus and it descends toward the lung at a shallower angle than the left main bronchus. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 21.5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

157) What function do the C-shaped tracheal cartilages allow? (Module 21.5B) A) Allow room for the trachea to expand if you inhale a large volume of air. B) Allow room for the esophagus to expand during swallowing. C) Allow room for blood pulses to expand the common carotid artery without interfering with air flow. D) Allow the trachea to collapse on itself when no inhalation or exhalation is occurring to reduce space in the mediastinum. E) Allow gas diffusion to occur around the cartilage surfaces and the tissues of the mediastinum. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 21.5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 158) Trace the pathway of airflow along the passages of the lower respiratory tract. (Module 21.5C) A) main bronchi — trachea — lobar bronchi — segmental bronchi — pulmonary lobule — terminal bronchioles B) main bronchi — trachea — segmental bronchi — lobar bronchi — pulmonary lobule — terminal bronchioles C) trachea — main bronchi — lobar bronchi — segmental bronchi — terminal bronchioles — pulmonary lobule D) trachea — main bronchi — segmental bronchi — lobar bronchi — pulmonary lobule — terminal bronchioles E) trachea — lobar bronchi - main bronchi — segmental bronchi — terminal bronchioles — pulmonary lobule Answer: C Learning Outcome: 21.5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 159) Define bronchopulmonary segment. (Module 21.6A) A) A bronchopulmonary segment is a region of the lung supplied by a main or primary bronchus. B) A bronchopulmonary segment is a region of the lung supplied by a lobar or secondary bronchus. C) A bronchopulmonary segment is a region of the lung supplied by a segmental bronchus. D) A bronchopulmonary segment is a region of the lung supplied by terminal bronchioles. E) A bronchopulmonary segment is a region of the lung supplied by respiratory bronchioles. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 21.6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

160) Describe the location of the lungs within the thoracic cavity. (Module 21.6B) A) The lungs are anterior to the sternum in the mediastinum. B) The left and right lungs are surrounded by a pericardial cavity. C) The left lung is surrounded by a left pleural cavity and the right lung is surrounded by a right pericardial cavity. D) The left lung is surrounded by a left pericardial cavity and the right lung is surrounded by a right pleural cavity. E) The left lung and right lung are surrounded by the left and right pleural cavities, respectively. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 21.6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 161) Name the lobes and fissures of each lung. (Module 21.6D) A) The left lung is divided into a superior lobe and an inferior lobe by the oblique fissure. The right lung is divided into a superior lobe and middle lobe by the horizontal fissure, and the oblique fissure separates the superior and middle lobes from the inferior lobe. B) The left lung is divided into a superior lobe and middle lobe by the horizontal fissure, and the oblique fissure separates the superior and middle lobes from the inferior lobe. The right lung is divided into a superior lobe and an inferior lobe by the oblique fissure. C) The left lung is divided into an anterior lobe and a posterior lobe by the vertical fissure. The right lung is divided into an anterior lobe and middle lobe by the horizontal fissure, and the vertical fissure separates the anterior and middle lobes from the posterior lobe. D) The left lung is divided into an anterior lobe and middle lobe by the horizontal fissure, and the vertical fissure separates the anterior and middle lobes from the posterior lobe. The right lung is divided into an anterior lobe and a posterior lobe by the vertical fissure. E) The left lung is divided into a superior lobe and an inferior lobe by the horizontal fissure. The right lung is divided into a superior lobe and lateral lobe by the coronal fissure, and the horizontal fissure separates the superior and lateral lobes from the inferior lobe. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 21.6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 162) Define pulmonary lobule. (Module 21.7A) A) A pulmonary lobule is the largest subdivisions of the lung supplied by a main or primary bronchus. B) A pulmonary lobule is a large subdivision of the lung supplied by a lobar or secondary bronchus. C) A pulmonary lobule is a medium-sized subdivision of the lungs supplied by a segmental bronchus. D) A pulmonary lobule is a region of the lung that does not participate in gas exchange but contains conducting passageways only. E) A pulmonary lobule is the smallest subdivision of the lungs; branches of the pulmonary arteries, pulmonary veins, and a terminal bronchiole supply each lobule. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 21.7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 43

163) What would happen to the alveoli if surfactant were not produced? (Module 21.7C) A) The air exchange across with blood air barrier would improve because surfactant did not block any diffusion. B) The alveoli would become invaded by pathogens because surfactant was not there to block the pathogens. C) The alveoli would stiffen because surfactant lubricates the alveoli to they can expand. D) The alveoli would collect fluid because surfactant normally soaks up extra fluid and prevents it from accumulating in the lungs. E) The alveoli would collapse because of the normally high surface tension of the water coating the alveolar surfaces. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 21.7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 164) How are hypoxia and anoxia different? (Module 21.8B) A) Hypoxia is low tissue oxygen levels; anoxia is the complete cutoff of oxygen supply. B) Hypoxia is low tissue oxygen levels; anoxia is low tissue carbon dioxide levels. C) Hypoxia is low tissue carbon dioxide levels; anoxia is low tissue oxygen levels. D) Hypoxia is low lung oxygen levels; anoxia is low lung carbon dioxide levels. E) Hypoxia is low lung carbon dioxide levels; anoxia is low lung oxygen levels. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 21.8 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 165) Define Boyle's law. (Module 21.9A) A) Boyle's law states that in a mixture of gases, the individual gases exert a pressure proportional to their abundance in the mixture. B) Boyle's law states that at a given temperature, the amount of a particular gas that dissolves in a liquid is directly proportional to the partial pressure of that gas, which underlies the diffusion of gases between capillaries and alveoli, and between capillaries and interstitial fluid. C) Boyle's law states that at a constant temperature, the pressure of a gas is inversely proportional to its volume. D) Boyle's law states that at a constant temperature, the pressure of a gas is directly proportional to its volume. E) Boyle's law states that at a given temperature, the amount of a particular gas that dissolves in a liquid is inversely proportional to the partial pressure of that gas, which underlies the diffusion of gases between capillaries and alveoli, and between capillaries and interstitial fluid. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 21.9 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

166) What physical changes affect the volume of the lungs? (Module 21.9B) A) The contraction of the abdominal muscles affect the volume of the lungs. B) The degree of flexion and extension of the trunk affect the volume of the lungs. C) The movements of the upper limbs affect the volume of the lungs. D) The movements of the diaphragm and rib cage affect the volume of the lungs. E) The contraction of tracheal smooth muscle affect the volume of the lungs. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 21.9 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 167) What pressures determine the direction of airflow within the respiratory tract? (Module 21.9C) A) The intratracheal pressure and intrapulmonary pressure B) The sinus cavity pressures and the intrapulmonary pressure C) The sinus cavity pressures and the atmospheric pressure D) The intrapleural pressure and the intrapulmonary pressure E) The intrapulmonary pressure and the atmospheric pressure Answer: E Learning Outcome: 21.9 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 168) Identify the primary inspiratory muscles. (Module 21.10A) A) diaphragm and external intercostal muscles B) diaphragm and internal intercostal muscles C) internal and external intercostal muscles D) diaphragm and the rectus abdominis muscles E) scalenes and serratus anterior Answer: A Learning Outcome: 21.10 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 169) When do the accessory respiratory muscles become active? (Module 21.10B) A) Accessory respiratory muscles become active after approximately 10 minutes of strenuous activity to give the primary muscles time to rest. B) Accessory respiratory muscles become active sporadically throughout the day to give the primary muscles time to rest. C) Accessory respiratory muscles become active whenever the primary muscles are unable to move enough air to meet oxygen demand. D) Accessory respiratory muscles become active at night while sleeping to give the primary muscles time to rest. E) Accessory respiratory muscles become when you move but the primary muscles dominant when you are sedentary. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 21.10 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

170) Name the various measurable pulmonary volumes. (Module 21.10C) A) tidal volume, expiratory reserve volume, residual volume, and inspiratory reserve volume B) minimal volume, tidal volume, and residual volume C) tidal volume, inspiratory reserve volume, expiratory reserve volume, and minimal volume D) tidal volume, residual volume, total lung capacity, and minimal volume E) functional residual capacity, vital capacity, minimal volume, and total lung volume Answer: A Learning Outcome: 21.10 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 171) Define respiratory rate. (Module 21.11A) A) Respiratory rate is the amount of air that remains in your lungs even after a maximal exhalation. B) Respiratory rate is the time it takes to voluntarily expel all of your air. C) Respiratory rate is the time it takes to inhale forcibly all of your air. D) Respiratory rate is the number of breaths taken each minute. E) Respiratory rate is volume of air moved each minute. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 21.11 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 172) Which ventilates alveoli more effectively: slow, deep breaths or rapid, shallow breaths? Explain why. (Module 21.11C) A) Slow, deep breaths because a smaller amount of the tidal volume of each breath is spent moving air into and out of the anatomic dead space. B) Slow, deep breaths because a larger amount of the tidal volume of each breath is spent moving air into and out of the anatomic dead space. C) Rapid, shallow breaths because a smaller amount of the tidal volume of each breath is spent moving air into and out of the anatomic dead space. D) Rapid, shallow breaths because a larger amount of the tidal volume of each breath is spent moving air into and out of the anatomic dead space. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 21.11 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

173) Define Dalton's law. (Module 21.12A) A) Dalton's law states that in a mixture of gases, the individual gases exert a pressure proportional to their abundance in the mixture. B) Dalton's law states that at a given temperature, the amount of a particular gas that dissolves in a liquid is directly proportional to the partial pressure of that gas, which underlies the diffusion of gases between capillaries and alveoli, and between capillaries and interstitial fluid. C) Dalton's law states that at a constant temperature, the pressure of a gas is inversely proportional to its volume. D) Dalton's law states that at a constant temperature, the pressure of a gas is directly proportional to its volume. E) Dalton's law states that at a given temperature, the amount of a particular gas that dissolves in a liquid is inversely proportional to the partial pressure of that gas, which underlies the diffusion of gases between capillaries and alveoli, and between capillaries and interstitial fluid. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 21.12 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 174) What is the significance of Henry's law to the process of respiration? (Module 21.12B) A) Henry's law states that in a mixture of gases, the individual gases exert a pressure proportional to their abundance in the mixture. B) Henry's law states that at a given temperature, the amount of a particular gas that dissolves in a liquid is directly proportional to the partial pressure of that gas, which underlies the diffusion of gases between capillaries and alveoli, and between capillaries and interstitial fluid. C) Henry's law states that at a constant temperature, the pressure of a gas is inversely proportional to its volume. D) Henry's law states that at a constant temperature, the pressure of a gas is directly proportional to its volume. E) Henry's law states that at a given temperature, the amount of a particular gas that dissolves in a liquid is inversely proportional to the partial pressure of that gas, which underlies the diffusion of gases between capillaries and alveoli, and between capillaries and interstitial fluid. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 21.12 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 175) Define oxyhemoglobin. (Module 21.13A) A) Oxyhemoglobin is hemoglobin that has less than 4 molecules of oxygen bound. B) Oxyhemoglobin is hemoglobin that has 4 molecules of carbon dioxide bound. C) Oxyhemoglobin is hemoglobin that has less than 4 molecules of carbon dioxide bound. D) Oxyhemoglobin is hemoglobin that has 4 molecules of oxygen bound. E) Oxyhemoglobin is hemoglobin with 4 molecules of oxygen bound and 4 molecules of carbon dioxide bound. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 21.13 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

176) During exercise, hemoglobin releases more oxygen to active skeletal muscles than it does when those muscles are at rest. Why? (Module 21.13B) A) Decreased temperature and increased pH generated by active skeletal muscles cause hemoglobin to release more oxygen during exercise than when the muscles are at rest. B) Decreased temperature and decreased pH generated by active skeletal muscles cause hemoglobin to release more oxygen during exercise than when the muscles are at rest. C) Increased temperature and decreased pH generated by active skeletal muscles cause hemoglobin to release more oxygen during exercise than when the muscles are at rest. D) Increased temperature and increased pH generated by active skeletal muscles cause hemoglobin to release more oxygen during exercise than when the muscles are at rest. E) Decreased temperature and increased oxygen generated by active skeletal muscles cause hemoglobin to release more oxygen during exercise than when the muscles are at rest. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 21.13 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 177) Explain the relationship among BPG, oxygen, and hemoglobin. (Module 21.13C) A) BPG is a compound generated by RBCs that decreases hemoglobin's affinity for oxygen. If the concentration of BPG increases, the amount of oxygen released by hemoglobin will increase. B) BPG is a compound generated by RBCs that decreases hemoglobin's affinity for oxygen. If the concentration of BPG increases, the amount of oxygen released by hemoglobin will decrease. C) BPG is a compound generated by RBCs that increases hemoglobin's affinity for oxygen. If the concentration of BPG increases, the amount of oxygen released by hemoglobin will increase. D) BPG is a compound generated by RBCs that increases hemoglobin's affinity for oxygen. If the concentration of BPG increases, the amount of oxygen released by hemoglobin will decrease. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 21.13 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 178) Identify the three ways that carbon dioxide is transported in the bloodstream. (Module 21.14A) A) Bound to hemoglobin, bound to other transport proteins, or bound to the surface of the RBCs. B) Dissolved in plasma, bound to the surface of the RBCs, or as bicarbonate ions in the plasma. C) Dissolved in plasma, as hydrogen ions in the plasma, or bound to hemoglobin. D) Bound to hemoglobin, bound to the surface of the RBCs, or as hydrogen ions in the plasma. E) Dissolved in plasma, bound to hemoglobin, or as bicarbonate ions in the plasma. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 21.14 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

179) Describe the forces that drive oxygen and carbon dioxide transport between the blood and peripheral tissues. (Module 21.14B) A) Air hydrostatic pressures push oxygen into peripheral tissues and carbon dioxide out of tissues and into blood. B) The partial pressure gradients push oxygen into peripheral tissues and carbon dioxide out of tissues and into blood. C) The osmotic pressure gradient of dissolved proteins push oxygen into peripheral tissues and carbon dioxide out of tissues and into blood. D) The atmospheric pressure gradient drives oxygen into tissues and carbon dioxide moves passively out. E) The respiratory muscles generate force that drives oxygen into tissue and carbon dioxide moves passively out. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 21.14 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 180) Define compliance and resistance. (Module 21.15A) A) Compliance is the ease with which the lungs expand and recoil. Resistance is an indication of how much force is required to inflate or deflate the lungs. B) Compliance is the ease with which the breathing muscles and rib cage expand and recoil. Resistance is the limitation of expansion placed on the lungs by the size of the rib cage. C) Compliance is an indication of how much force is required to inflate or deflate the lungs. Resistance is the ease with which the lungs expand and recoil. D) Compliance is the limitation of expansion placed on the lungs by the size of the rib cage. Resistance is the ease with which the breathing muscles and rib cage expand and recoil. E) Compliance is the ability of the lungs to expand. Resistance is the ability of the lungs to recoil. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 21.15 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 181) Identify three chronic obstructive pulmonary diseases (COPDs). (Module 21.15B) A) asthma, lung cancer, chronic bronchitis B) chronic bronchitis, lung cancer, emphysema C) asthma, chronic bronchitis, emphysema D) asthma, pneumonia, chronic bronchitis E) chronic bronchitis, lung cancer, pneumonia Answer: C Learning Outcome: 21.15 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

182) Name the paired central nervous system nuclei that adjust the pace of respiration. (Module 21.16A) A) dorsal respiratory group and ventral respiratory group B) apneustic centers and pneumotaxic centers C) apneustic centers and dorsal respiratory group D) apneustic centers and ventral respiratory group E) pneumotaxic centers and ventral respiratory group Answer: B Learning Outcome: 21.16 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 183) Which brainstem centers generate the respiratory pace? (Module 21.16B) A) respiratory rhythmicity centers in the pons B) apneustic centers and pneumotaxic centers C) higher centers in the hypothalamus, limbic system, and cerebral cortex D) respiratory rhythmicity centers in the medulla oblongata E) pneumotaxic centers and ventral respiratory group Answer: D Learning Outcome: 21.16 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 184) Which chemical factors in blood or cerebrospinal fluid stimulate the respiratory centers? (Module 21.16C) A) Ca2+, Na+, and K+ concentrations B) Cl-, Na+, and K+ concentrations C) pH, PO2, and PCO2 concentrations D) PO2, glucose, and lactate concentrations E) hematocrit, glucose, PO2, and PCO2 concentrations Answer: C Learning Outcome: 21.16 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 185) Are chemoreceptors more sensitive to blood CO2 levels or blood O2 levels? (Module 21.17A) A) blood CO2 levels B) blood O2 levels Answer: A Learning Outcome: 21.17 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

186) Define hypercapnia and hypocapnia. (Module 21.17B) A) Hypercapnia is an abnormally high arterial PO2. Hypocapnia is an abnormally low arterial PO2. B) Hypercapnia is an abnormally low arterial PO2. Hypocapnia is an abnormally high arterial PO2. C) Hypercapnia is an abnormally high arterial pH. Hypocapnia is an abnormally high arterial pH. D) Hypercapnia is an abnormally high arterial PCO2. Hypocapnia is an abnormally low arterial PCO2. E) Hypercapnia is an abnormally low arterial PCO2. Hypocapnia is an abnormally high arterial PCO2. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 21.17 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 187) Compare dysplasia, metaplasia, neoplasia, and anaplasia. (Module 21.18C) A) Metaplasia is the development of abnormal cells; dysplasia is the development of abnormal changes in tissue structure; neoplasia is the conversion of normal cells to tumor cells; and anaplasia is the spread of the malignant cells throughout the body. B) Dysplasia is the development of abnormal cells; metaplasia is the development of abnormal changes in tissue structure; neoplasia is the conversion of normal cells to tumor cells; and anaplasia is the spread of the malignant cells throughout the body. C) Metaplasia is the development of abnormal cells; anaplasia is the development of abnormal changes in tissue structure; neoplasia is the conversion of normal cells to tumor cells; and dysplasia is the spread of the malignant cells throughout the body. D) Anaplasia is the development of abnormal cells; neoplasia is the development of abnormal changes in tissue structure; metaplasia is the conversion of normal cells to tumor cells; and dysplasia is the spread of the malignant cells throughout the body. E) Neoplasia is the development of abnormal cells; metaplasia is the development of abnormal changes in tissue structure; anaplasia is the conversion of normal cells to tumor cells; and dysplasia is the spread of the malignant cells throughout the body. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 21.18 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

Essay Questions 188) What are the primary functions of the respiratory system? Answer: (1) Provide an extensive area for gas exchange between inhaled air and the circulation; (2) move air to and from the exchange surfaces of the lungs; (3) protect the respiratory surfaces from dehydration, temperature changes, and other environmental variations and defend the respiratory system and other tissues from invasion by pathogens; (4) produce sounds involved in speaking, singing, or nonverbal auditory communication; (5) direct incoming air to the olfactory epithelium in support of olfaction. Learning Outcome: 21.1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 189) Ralph is taking scuba diving classes and is warned not to hold his breath when ascending from depth but to continuously release air from his mouth. What is the basis of this instruction, and what is the risk if it is ignored? Answer: When breathing underwater with scuba equipment, gas is supplied by the tank at higher than atmospheric pressure to overcome the extra pressure imposed by the overlying water. According to Boyle's Law, during ascent when the pressure falls, the volume of gas contained in the lungs will expand. If not permitted to escape through the mouth, it will damage the lung, sending air into the bloodstream. A massive air embolism in the pulmonary arteries could be suddenly fatal. Learning Outcome: 21.9, 21.12 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 190) Why can cystic fibrosis become lethal? (Module 21.2C) Answer: Cystic fibrosis causes production of dense mucus that restricts respiratory passages and accumulates in the lungs. Harmful bacterial infection of the lungs may also develop, leading to death. Learning Outcome: 21.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 191) Trace the pathway of air through the upper respiratory system. (Module 21.3B) Answer: nostrils — nasal cavity — nasal vestibule (guarded by hairs) — superior, middle, and inferior meatuses — chonanae (openings between the nasal cavity and nasopharynx) — nasopharynx — oropharynx — laryngopharynx — larynx. Learning Outcome: 21.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 192) Describe the lung borders and landmarks. (Module 21.6C) Answer: The curving anterior and inferior borders follow the contours of the rib cage. The apex of each lung extends superiorly to the first rib and the base of each lung rests on the superior surface of the diaphragm. Learning Outcome: 21.6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

193) Describe the structure and function of the blood air barrier. (Module 21.7B) Answer: The blood air barrier is made up of the fused basement membranes of the alveolar epithelium and capillary endothelium. Because it is very thin and oxygen and carbon dioxide are lipid soluble, diffusion occurs rapidly across the membrane. Learning Outcome: 21.7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 194) Define external respiration, gas diffusion, and internal respiration. (Module 21.8A) Answer: External respiration is all the processes involved in the exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide between the blood, lungs, and the external environment. Gas diffusion is the movement of O2 and CO2 across the blood air barrier between alveolar air spaces and alveolar capillaries and across capillary walls between blood and other tissues. Internal respiration is the absorption of O2 from blood and the release of CO2 by tissue cells. Learning Outcome: 21.8 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 195) How does the respiratory minute volume differ from alveolar ventilation? (Module 21.11B) Answer: Respiratory minute volume is the amount of air moved into and out of the respiratory tract each minute, whereas alveolar ventilation is the amount of air reaching the alveoli each minute. Because some of the air never reaches the alveoli but instead remains in the anatomic dead space, alveolar ventilation is lower than respiratory minute volume. Learning Outcome: 21.11 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 196) Explain the decrease in PO2 from the pulmonary venules to the blood arriving in the peripheral capillaries of the systemic circuit. (Module 21.12C) Answer: The PO2 decreases from about 100 mm Hg to 95 mm Hg in the pulmonary veins as it mixes with venous blood from capillaries surrounding the conducting passageways. Learning Outcome: 21.12 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 197) How would blockage of the trachea affect blood pH? (Module 21.14C) Answer: Blockage of the trachea would interfere with the body's ability to take in oxygen and eliminate carbon dioxide. Because most carbon dioxide is transported in blood as bicarbonate ions formed from the dissociation of carbonic acid, an inability to eliminate carbon dioxide would result in a buildup of excess hydrogen ions, which would decrease blood pH. Learning Outcome: 21.14 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 198) Compare chronic bronchitis with emphysema. (Module 21.15C) Answer: Chronic bronchitis is a long-term inflammation of the mucous membrane in the bronchial tubes; emphysema is a condition in which the alveolar surfaces of the lungs are destroyed and alveoli merge, which reduces respiratory surface area and oxygen absorption, causing breathlessness. Learning Outcome: 21.15 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 53

199) Johnny is angry, so he tells his mom that he will hold his breath until he turns blue and dies. Explain whether this will likely happen. (Module 21.17C) Answer: This is unlikely to happen. When Johnny holds his breath, carbon dioxide levels in his blood increase, causing increased stimulation of the inspiratory centers, forcing him to breathe again. Learning Outcome: 21.17 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 200) Name several age-related factors that affect the respiratory system. (Module 21.18A) Answer: Aging results in deterioration of elastic tissue, arthritic changes that stiffen rib articulations, decreased flexibility at costal cartilages, decreased vital capacity, and some degree of emphysema. Learning Outcome: 21.18 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 201) Describe lung cancer. (Module 21.18B) Answer: Lung cancer is an aggressive class of malignancies that affect the epithelial cells lining the conducting passageways, mucous glands, and alveoli. More people die from lung cancer than from any other type of cancer. Learning Outcome: 21.18 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

Visual Anatomy and Physiology, 3e (Martini) Chapter 22 The Digestive System Multiple Choice Questions 1) Each of the following organs is a component of the digestive tract except the A) stomach. B) pharynx. C) esophagus. D) bladder. E) colon. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 22.1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 2) Which of the following is an accessory organ of digestion? A) appendix B) pancreas C) spleen D) colon E) esophagus Answer: B Learning Outcome: 22.1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 3) The lamina propria and mucous epithelium are components of the A) serosa. B) adventitia. C) muscularis mucosa. D) mucosa. E) submucosa. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 22.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 4) Which of these descriptions best matches the term "myenteric plexus"? A) component of mucosa B) sensory neural network C) secretes a watery fluid D) coordinates activity of the muscular layer E) loose connective tissue layer containing blood vessels Answer: D Learning Outcome: 22.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

5) Contraction of the alters the shape of the intestinal lumen and moves epithelial pleats and folds. A) mucosa B) submucosa C) submucosal plexus D) muscularis mucosa E) adventitia Answer: D Learning Outcome: 22.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 6) The is a double sheet of peritoneal membrane that suspends the visceral organs and carries nerves, lymphatics, and blood vessels. A) serosa B) adventitia C) mesentery D) fibrosa E) lamina propria Answer: C Learning Outcome: 22.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 7) Sensory nerve cells, parasympathetic ganglia, and sympathetic postganglionic fibers can be found in the A) mucosa. B) serosa. C) adventitia. D) submucosal plexus. E) lamina propria. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 22.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 8) Sandwiched between the layer of circular and longitudinal muscle in the muscular layer is the A) mucosa. B) submucosa. C) muscularis mucosa. D) myenteric plexus. E) submucosal plexus. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 22.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

9) Which layer of the digestive tract has a dense irregular connective tissue that surrounds the muscularis mucosae? A) submucosa B) digestive epithelium C) muscular layer D) lamina propria E) mucosa Answer: A Learning Outcome: 22.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 10) Which of the following is classified as being either squamous or columnar? A) submucosa B) mucosal epithelium C) muscularis mucosae D) lamina propria E) mucosa Answer: B Learning Outcome: 22.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 11) Large blood vessels and lymphatics are found in the A) mucosa. B) submucosa. C) muscular layer. D) adventitia. E) serosa. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 22.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 12) The layer of loose connective tissue that directly supports the digestive epithelium is the A) lamina propria. B) muscularis mucosae. C) submucosa. D) submucosal plexus. E) myenteric plexus. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 22.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

13) Which of these descriptions best matches the term "submucosal plexus"? A) component of mucosa B) includes a sensory neural network C) secretes a watery fluid D) coordinates activity of the muscular layer E) loose connective tissue layer containing blood vessels Answer: B Learning Outcome: 22.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 14) A disease that attacks and disables the myenteric plexus would A) increase intestinal motility. B) decrease intestinal motility. C) increase gastric secretion. D) decrease gastric secretion. E) interfere with both intestinal motility and gastric secretion. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 22.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 15) In the digestive and urinary systems, rings of smooth muscle, called movement of materials along internal passageways. A) circular muscles B) longitudinal muscles C) muscularis mucosae D) sphincters E) the muscular layer Answer: D Learning Outcome: 22.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 16) The ability of smooth muscle to contract over a wide range of lengths is called while its normal background level of activity is known as . A) extensibility; plasticity B) elasticity; tone C) electicity; spasticity D) plasticity; tone E) plasticity; compaction Answer: D Learning Outcome: 22.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

, regulate the

17) What type of muscle cells are arranged in sheets or layers, with adjacent muscle cells electrically connected by gap junctions and mechanically connected by dense bodies? A) skeletal muscles B) cardiac muscles C) multi-unit smooth muscles D) visceral smooth muscles Answer: D Learning Outcome: 22.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 18) Waves of muscular contractions that propel the contents of the digestive tract are called A) segmentations. B) pendular movements. C) peristalsis. D) churning movements. E) mastication. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 22.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 19) The physiological activities of the digestive system are not regulated by A) hormones. B) parasympathetic and sympathetic neurons. C) the contents of the digestive tract. D) intrinsic nerve plexuses. E) the cerebral cortex Answer: E Learning Outcome: 22.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 20) Which of the following statements is false? A) Secretin and CCK are produced by the stomach and are important hormones in regulating digestion. B) Parietal cells are activated during the cephalic phase. C) The gastroileal and gastroenteric reflexes accelerate movement of materials throughout the small intestine. D) Teniae coli of the large intestine correspond to the muscularis mucosa of the small intestine. E) The external anal sphincter is composed of skeletal muscle. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 22.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying

21) Which of the following is not a function of the digestive system? A) mechanical processing B) absorption C) compaction D) ingestion E) filtration Answer: E Learning Outcome: 22.5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 22) The movement of organic molecules, electrolytes, minerals, and water across the digestive epithelium into interstitial fluid is known as A) peristalsis. B) absorption. C) compaction. D) ingestion. E) filtration. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 22.5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 23) Chemical breakdown of materials by acid and enzymes takes place in the A) oral cavity. B) esophagus. C) stomach. D) small intestine. E) large intestine. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 22.5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 24) A structure that helps prevent food from entering the pharynx prematurely is the A) uvula. B) pharyngeal arch. C) palatoglossal arch. D) palatopharyngeal arch. E) epiglottis. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 22.6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

25) All of the following are associated with the oral cavity except A) mechanical processing of food. B) rapid absorption of lipid-soluble drugs. C) initial digestion of carbohydrates and proteins. D) aiding in speech. E) lined by stratified squamous non-keratinized epithelium. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 22.6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 26) The roof of the oral cavity is formed by A) the hard palate. B) the soft palate. C) the frenulum. D) both the hard palate and the soft palate. E) the uvula. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 22.6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 27) The space between the cheeks or lips and the teeth is called the A) pharynx. B) larynx. C) fauces. D) vestibule. E) dip sulcus. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 22.6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 28) The ridge of oral mucosa that surrounds the base of a tooth is the A) vestibule. B) gingiva. C) alveolus. D) uvula. E) faux. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 22.6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

29) Carbohydrate digestion begins in the A) mouth. B) esophagus. C) stomach. D) duodenum. E) ileum. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 22.6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 30) The upper and lower lips are attached to the gums by the A) gingiva. B) fauces. C) lingual frenulum. D) labial frenulum. E) vestibule. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 22.6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 31) The uvula is located at the A) posterior of the tongue. B) margin of the vestibule. C) base of a tooth. D) posterior margin of the soft palate. E) margin of the oropharynx and the laryngopharynx. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 22.6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 32) The functions of the oral cavity include all of the following except A) analysis of material before swallowing. B) mechanical processing of food. C) lubrication. D) absorption of monosaccharides. E) digestion of carbohydrates. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 22.6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

33) Which of the following statements about the tongue is false? A) The dorsal surface is covered with papillae. B) It is composed of skeletal muscle. C) The uvula attaches to the base. D) It secretes lingual lipase. E) It is innervated by the hypoglossal nerve (CN XII). Answer: C Learning Outcome: 22.6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 34) Which of the following is not a function of the tongue? A) manipulation to assist with chewing B) mechanical processing C) sensory analysis D) secretion of mucins E) saliva production Answer: E Learning Outcome: 22.6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 35) The oral mucosa has epithelium. A) simple squamous B) stratified squamous C) pseudostratified D) stratified columnar E) transitional Answer: B Learning Outcome: 22.6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 36) The bulk of each tooth consists of a mineralized matrix similar to that of bone called A) enamel. B) cement. C) dentin. D) pulp. E) periodontium. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 22.7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

37) The chamber within a tooth that contains blood vessels and nerves is the A) enamel. B) cement. C) dentin. D) pulp cavity. E) periodontium. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 22.7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 38) The root of a tooth is covered by A) enamel. B) cement. C) dentin. D) pulp. E) the root canal. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 22.7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 39) The crown of a tooth is covered by A) enamel. B) cement. C) dentin. D) pulp. E) periodontium. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 22.7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 40) are blade-shaped teeth that function in cutting or clipping. A) Canines B) Bicuspids C) Cuspids D) Incisors E) Molars Answer: D Learning Outcome: 22.7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

41) are pointed teeth that are adapted for tearing and slashing. A) Incisors B) Bicuspids C) Premolars D) Cuspids E) Molars Answer: D Learning Outcome: 22.7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 42) are teeth with flattened crowns and prominent ridges that are adapted for crushing and grinding. A) Molars B) Cuspids C) Eye teeth D) Canines E) Dentins Answer: A Learning Outcome: 22.7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 43) are also known as canines. A) Bicuspids B) Incisors C) Molars D) Secondary teeth E) Cuspids Answer: E Learning Outcome: 22.7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 44) Which of the following is a function of the incisors? A) tearing B) crushing C) cutting D) mashing E) grinding Answer: C Learning Outcome: 22.7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

45) crush and grind food. A) Bicuspids B) Incisors C) Molars D) Cuspids E) Both bicuspids and molars Answer: E Learning Outcome: 22.7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 46) The of the tooth marks the boundary between the crown and the root. A) occlusal surface B) cement. C) gingival sulcus D) apical foramen E) neck Answer: E Learning Outcome: 22.7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 47) The root of each tooth sits in a bony cavity known as a(n) A) cement. B) alveolus. C) sulcus. D) buccal. E) ileum. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 22.7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 48) The articulation between the periodontal ligament and the bone at the base of the tooth is what type of joint? A) syndesmosis B) synostosis C) suture D) gomphosis E) symphysis Answer: D Learning Outcome: 22.7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

49) The first teeth to appear are not associated with A) milk teeth. B) baby teeth. C) wisdom teeth. D) primary teeth. E) deciduous teeth. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 22.7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 50) There are normally a total of A) 18 B) 20 C) 22 D) 26 E) 32 Answer: B Learning Outcome: 22.7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

primary teeth.

51) X-rays of the mandible and maxillae of an average 4-year-old child would capture the image of teeth. A) 18 B) 20 C) 26 D) 32 E) 52 Answer: E Learning Outcome: 22.7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 52) During deglutition, A) the soft palate elevates. B) the larynx elevates and the epiglottis closes. C) the lower esophageal sphincter opens. D) All of the answers are correct. E) None of the answers is correct. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 22.8 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

53) Which of the following is not a phase of deglutition? A) buccal B) pharyngeal C) laryngeal D) esophageal E) None of the answers is correct; all are phases in deglutition. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 22.8 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 54) Muscles known as the pharyngeal constrictors function in A) mastication. B) moving the tongue. C) swallowing. D) esophageal peristalsis. E) opening the cardiac sphincter. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 22.8 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 55) The supports most of the small intestine and provides stability and limited movement. A) falciform ligament B) greater omentum C) mesentery proper D) lesser omentum E) diaphragm Answer: C Learning Outcome: 22.9 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 56) What provides access for blood vessels entering and leaving the liver? A) falciform ligament B) greater omentum C) mesentery proper D) lesser omentum E) diaphragm Answer: D Learning Outcome: 22.9 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

57) Which of the following contains adipose tissue and provides padding for the anterior and lateral portions of the abdomen? A) falciform ligament B) greater omentum C) mesentery proper D) lesser omentum E) diaphragm Answer: B Learning Outcome: 22.9 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 58) Which of the following is not true of the serous membrane that lines the peritoneal cavity? A) It secretes peritoneal fluid. B) It decreases friction. C) It lubricates the cavity. D) It prevents irritation. E) It can be directly observed during a colonoscopy. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 22.9 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 59) Approximately liters of fluid are secreted and reabsorbed into the peritoneal cavity each day. A) 5 B) 10 C) 2 D) 1 E) 7 Answer: E Learning Outcome: 22.9 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 60) Ascites, the accumulation of fluid in the peritoneal cavity, would not be caused by A) liver disease. B) cancer. C) kidney disease. D) dehydration. E) heart failure. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 22.9 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

61) Regions of the stomach include all of the following except A) cardia. B) body. C) pylorus. D) ileum. E) fundus. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 22.10 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 62) The esophagus connects to which region of the stomach? A) fundus B) cardia C) body D) antrum E) pylorus Answer: B Learning Outcome: 22.10 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 63) The greater omentum is A) the entrance to the stomach. B) attached to the stomach at the lesser curvature. C) important in the digestion of fats. D) a fatty sheet that hangs like an apron over the abdominal viscera. E) a sheet of mesentery that attaches to the liver. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 22.10 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 64) The portion of the stomach that is superior to the junction between the stomach and the esophagus is the A) cardia. B) pylorus. C) fundus. D) antrum. E) body. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 22.10 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

65) The part of the stomach that functions as a mixing chamber for food and secretions is the A) body. B) antrum. C) pylorus. D) cardia. E) fundus. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 22.10 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 66) The region of the stomach that empties into the duodenum is the A) antrum. B) fundus. C) body. D) cardia. E) pylorus. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 22.10 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 67) After food and gastric juices combine, the gastric contents are referred to as A) a bolus. B) secretin. C) plicae. D) chyme. E) bile. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 22.10 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 68) The prominent ridges in the lining of the empty stomach are called A) cardia. B) papillae. C) rugae. D) plicae. E) villi. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 22.10 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

Figure 21-1 69) Identify the structure labeled "10." A) longitudinal muscle layer B) circular muscle layer C) oblique muscle layer D) rugae E) submucosa Answer: C Learning Outcome: 22.10 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 70) Identify the structure labeled "12." A) fundus B) cardia C) lesser curvature D) greater curvature E) pylorus Answer: A Learning Outcome: 22.10 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 18

71) Identify the structure labeled "7." A) esophagus B) cardia C) lesser curvature D) greater curvature E) pylorus Answer: E Learning Outcome: 22.10 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 72) Which structure helps the stomach to stretch as it fills with food? A) 3 B) 4 C) 5 D) 6 E) 9 Answer: E Learning Outcome: 22.10 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 73) What is the function of the structure labeled "6"? A) strains materials entering the stomach B) regulates release of chyme into the duodenum C) mixes stomach juice into food D) controls contraction of stomach muscles E) prevents food from entering the esophagus Answer: B Learning Outcome: 22.10 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 74) The mechanically digests ingested food. A) small intestine B) esophagus C) large intestine D) stomach E) anus Answer: D Learning Outcome: 22.10 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

75) Parietal cells and their secretions are not involved in A) the absorption of vitamin B12. B) erythropoiesis. C) the release of bicarbonate into the stomach. D) activation of pepsinogen to pepsin. E) the release of bicarbonate into the blood. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 22.11 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 76) Chief cells secrete A) pepsinogen. B) gastrin. C) mucus. D) hydrochloric acid. E) intrinsic factor. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 22.11 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 77) Gastric pits are A) ridges in the body of the stomach. B) involved in absorption of liquids from the stomach. C) openings into gastric glands. D) acid scars in the esophagus. E) hollows where proteins are stored. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 22.11 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 78) The enzyme pepsin digests A) carbohydrates. B) proteins. C) lipids. D) nucleic acids. E) vitamins. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 22.11 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

79) An enzyme secreted by the gastric mucosa of a newborn that assists in the digestion of milk proteins is A) pepsin. B) trypsin. C) gastrin. D) rennin. E) cholecystokinin. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 22.11 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 80) All of the following are true of the lining of the stomach except that it A) has a simple columnar epithelium. B) is covered by thick, alkaline mucus. C) is constantly being replaced. D) contains gastric pits. E) recycles bile. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 22.11 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 81) Which of the following is not true of parietal cells? A) They contain carbonic anhydrase that converts carbon dioxide and water into carbonic acid. B) They produce bicarbonate by dissociation of carbonic acid. C) They import chloride ions from the interstitial fluid to produce hydrochloric acid in the gastric glands. D) They release bicarbonate into the lumen of gastric glands. E) They release bicarbonate into the interstitial fluid that then enters the bloodstream. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 22.11 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 82) A drug that blocks the action of carbonic anhydrase in parietal cells would result in A) a lower pH in the stomach during gastric digestion. B) a higher pH in the stomach during gastric digestion. C) decreased production of pepsinogen by chief cells. D) increased protein digestion in the stomach. E) decreased gastrin production. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 22.11 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying

83) Mary had most of her stomach surgically removed in an effort to overcome obesity. As a result, Mary can expect to be at risk for A) protein malnutrition. B) vitamin B12 deficiency. C) diarrhea. D) dehydration. E) an ulcer. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 22.11 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 84) Lacteals A) increase the surface area of the mucosa of the small intestine. B) carry absorbed fats to the lymphatic system. C) produce new cells for the mucosa of the small intestine. D) secrete digestive enzymes. E) produce milk. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 22.12 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 85) Circular folds and intestinal villi A) increase the surface area of the mucosa of the small intestine. B) carry products of digestion that will not pass through the walls of blood capillaries. C) produce new cells for the mucosa of the small intestine. D) secrete digestive enzymes. E) produce hormones. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 22.12 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 86) Circular folds are A) ridges in the wall of the stomach. B) circumferential folds in the mucosa and submucosa of the small intestine. C) fingerlike projections on the surface of the mucosa of the small intestine. D) ridges on the external edges of the colon. E) abnormal structures formed by excessive pressure in the small intestine. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 22.12 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

87) Which of the following does not enhance the absorptive effectiveness of the small intestine? A) circular folds B) villi C) microvilli D) intestinal movements E) cilia Answer: E Learning Outcome: 22.12 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 88) Which of the following does not describe how products of fat digestion are absorbed and transported? A) Absorbed fatty acids are assembled into protein-lipid packages. B) Lipid rich packages reach the venous circulation via the thoracic duct. C) Lacteals transport materials that cannot enter the blood capillaries. D) Fats must pass through the simple columnar epithelium lining the small intestines. E) Brush border enzymes break down the fats so they can be directly absorbed into the bloodstream. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 22.12 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

Figure 22-2 89) Which of the following is not found in layer "3"? A) lymphatic vessels B) arteries C) veins D) lacteals E) nerves Answer: D Learning Outcome: 22.12 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 90) Which structure controls the contraction of the muscular layer? A) muscularis mucosae (2) B) submucosal plexus (8) C) circular layer of smooth muscle (9) D) myenteric plexus (10) E) longitudinal layer of smooth muscle (11) Answer: D Learning Outcome: 22.12 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

91) Contraction of the muscle layer labeled "9" causes the digestive tract to A) constrict. B) shorten. C) dilate. D) fold for increased surface area. E) secrete enzymes. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 22.12 Bloom's Taxonomy: Analyzing 92) What type of epithelium covers the structures labeled "6"? A) simple squamous B) stratified squamous C) simple cuboidal D) simple columnar E) pseudostratified ciliated columnar Answer: D Learning Outcome: 22.12 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 93) Which of the following is not true for the structure labeled "5"? A) It contributes to the mesentery of the small intestine. B) It has a simple squamous epithelium. C) It is part of the visceral peritoneum. D) It is called the serosa. E) It contains brush border enzymes. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 22.12 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 94) Identify the structures labeled "6." A) circular folds B) villi C) microvilli D) lacteals E) serosa Answer: B Learning Outcome: 22.12 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

95) Where would you find a brush border? A) 2 B) 4 C) 6 D) 9 E) 10 Answer: C Learning Outcome: 22.12 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 96) Submucosal glands that secrete mucus are characteristic of the A) duodenum. B) jejunum. C) ileum. D) pancreas. E) liver. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 22.13 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 97) Duodenal glands are characteristic of the A) stomach. B) small intestine. C) large intestine. D) liver. E) pancreas. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 22.13 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 98) The villi are most developed in the A) stomach. B) duodenum. C) jejunum. D) esophagus. E) colon. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 22.13 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

99) Aggregated lymphoid nodules are characteristic of the A) stomach. B) duodenum. C) jejunum. D) ileum. E) colon. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 22.13 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 100) The middle segment of the small intestine is the A) ileum. B) duodenum. C) jejunum. D) pylorus. E) cecum. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 22.13 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 101) The portion of the small intestine that attaches to the cecum is the A) haustrum. B) appendix. C) ileum. D) duodenum. E) jejunum. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 22.13 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 102) The part of the digestive tract that plays the primary role in chemical digestion and nutrient absorption is the A) cecum. B) jejunum. C) stomach. D) duodenum. E) colon. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 22.13 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

103) The cecum and the vermiform appendix are physically located in the A) right lumbar region. B) left lumbar region. C) right inguinal region. D) hypogastric region. E) left inguinal region. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 22.13 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 104) If you were to palpate the small intestine at the hypogastric region of a normal, healthy patient, which portion of their small intestine would you be feeling? A) jejunum B) ileum C) duodenum Answer: B Learning Outcome: 22.13 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 105) The order of the small intestine segments, from proximal to distal, is A) ileum, jejunum, duodenum. B) jejunum, duodenum, ileum. C) duodenum, jejunum, ileum. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 22.13 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 106) G cells of the stomach secrete A) cholecystokinin. B) secretin. C) gastrin. D) enteropeptidase. E) pepsin. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 22.14 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 107) An intestinal hormone that stimulates mucus secretion by the submucosal duodenal glands and dilation of intestinal capillaries is A) secretin. B) cholecystokinin. C) vasoactive intestinal peptide (VIP). D) gastric inhibitory peptide (GIP). E) gastrin. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 22.14 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 28

108) The intestinal hormone that stimulates the pancreas to release enzymes and buffers is A) vasoactive intestinal peptide (VIP). B) secretin. C) lipase. D) gastric inhibitory peptide (GIP). E) gastrin. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 22.14 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 109) An intestinal hormone that stimulates contraction of the gallbladder to release bile is A) enteropeptidase. B) secretin. C) cholecystokinin. D) gastric inhibitory peptide (GIP). E) gastrin. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 22.14 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 110) An intestinal hormone that stimulates the release of insulin from the pancreatic islet cells is A) vasoactive intestinal peptide (VIP). B) enteropeptidase. C) secretin. D) cholecystokinin. E) gastric inhibitory peptide (GIP). Answer: E Learning Outcome: 22.14 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 111) An intestinal hormone that stimulates gastric secretion is A) secretin. B) cholecystokinin. C) enteropeptidase. D) gastrin. E) gastric inhibitory peptide (GIP). Answer: D Learning Outcome: 22.14 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

112) Which of these descriptions best matches the term gastrin? A) where pancreatic juice and bile enter duodenum B) carries absorbed sugars and amino acids C) stimulates pancreas to secrete bicarbonate-rich fluid D) causes gall bladder to contract E) stimulates gastric secretion Answer: E Learning Outcome: 22.14 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 113) The hormone that stimulates secretion and contraction by the stomach is A) gastrin. B) enteropeptidase. C) secretin. D) cholecystokinin. E) rennin. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 22.14 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 114) Which of the following descriptions is not related to cholecystokinin (CCK)? A) secreted when chyme enters the duodenum B) accelerates the production and secretion of digestive enzymes C) causes the relaxation of the hepatopancreatic sphincter D) causes the gallbladder to contract and eject bile E) increases the sensation of hunger Answer: E Learning Outcome: 22.14 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 115) Gastrin secretion is associated with A) glucose entering the small intestine. B) decreased stomach motility. C) decreased gastric acid production. D) food arriving in the stomach. E) chyme entering the duodenum. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 22.14 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

116) In response to the arrival of acid chyme in the duodenum, the A) blood levels of secretin rise. B) blood levels of cholecystokinin fall. C) blood levels of gastrin rise. D) blood levels of vasoactive intestinal peptide (VIP) fall. E) blood levels of gastrin rise and blood levels of vasoactive intestinal peptide (VIP) fall. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 22.14 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 117) A drug that blocks the action of the hormone cholecystokinin would not affect the A) sensation of hunger. B) release of pancreatic secretions into the duodenum. C) delivery of bile. D) ability to absorb carbohydrates. E) ability to digest a fatty meal. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 22.14 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 118) During the cephalic phase of gastric secretion, A) the stomach responds to distention. B) secretin inhibits parietal and chief cells. C) the vagus nerve innervates the stomach. D) the intestinal reflex inhibits gastric emptying. E) production of gastric juice slows down. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 22.15 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 119) The gastric phase of gastric secretion is triggered by the A) sight, thought, or smell of food. B) entry of food into the stomach. C) entry of chyme into the small intestine. D) entry of chyme into the large intestine. E) release of cholecystokinin and secretin by the small intestine. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 22.15 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

120) All of the following are true of the intestinal phase of gastric digestion except that it A) precedes the gastric phase. B) functions to control the rate of gastric emptying. C) involves both neural and endocrine reflexes. D) helps ensure that the functions of the small intestine proceed with relative efficiency. E) begins when chyme enters the small intestine. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 22.15 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 121) The gastroileal reflex A) empties the duodenum. B) promotes gastric secretion. C) decreases peristaltic activity. D) moves some chyme to the colon. E) is relayed through the CNS. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 22.15 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 122) Which of the following is true regarding the central and local mechanisms controlling gastric and intestinal activities? A) The cephalic phase begins as food enters the stomach. B) The gastric phase only lasts for minutes. C) The cephalic phase includes the release of bile from the gallbladder. D) The intestinal phase increases the stimulation of the stomach's stretch receptors. E) The intestinal phase triggers mucus and bicarbonate to help protect the duodenum from arriving acid. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 22.15 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 123) Enterogastric reflexes A) increase gastric motility. B) increase gastric secretion. C) are triggered by bile entering the gallbladder. D) involve the central nervous system. E) stimulate the contraction of the pyloric sphincter. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 22.15 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

124) Which organ is responsible for dehydration and compaction of indigestible materials? A) small intestine B) esophagus C) large intestine D) stomach E) anus Answer: C Learning Outcome: 22.16 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 125) Powerful peristaltic contractions that occur a few times each day in the colon are called A) segmentation. B) pendular movements. C) haustral churning. D) defecation. E) mass movements. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 22.16 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 126) At the left colic flexure, the colon becomes the A) ascending colon. B) transverse colon. C) descending colon. D) sigmoid colon. E) rectum. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 22.16 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 127) At the right colic flexure, the colon becomes the A) ascending colon. B) transverse colon. C) descending colon. D) sigmoid colon. E) rectum. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 22.16 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

128) Approximately the last 15 cm of the digestive tract is the A) anus. B) anal canal. C) rectum. D) sigmoid colon. E) rectal column. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 22.16 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 129) Haustra are A) expansible pouches of the colon. B) strips of muscle in the colon. C) glands in the large intestine that secrete mucus. D) the source of colon hormones. E) compact feces stored in the rectum. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 22.16 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 130) The teniae coli are A) tears of the colon. B) longitudinal bands of smooth muscle on the outer surface of the colon. C) ridges in the mucosa of the colon. D) polyps that obstruct the sigmoid colon. E) tumors normally confined in the sigmoid colon. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 22.16 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 131) The sac-like structure that joins the ileum at the ileocecal valve is the A) appendix. B) sigmoid colon. C) rectum. D) haustra. E) cecum. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 22.16 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

132) A small, wormlike structure attached to the posteromedial surface of the cecum is the A) haustra. B) pancreas. C) gallbladder. D) appendix. E) ileum. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 22.16 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 133) What organ is primarily responsible for water absorption? A) small intestine B) esophagus C) large intestine D) stomach E) anus Answer: C Learning Outcome: 22.16 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 134) Movements unique to the large intestine are A) peristaltic B) segmentation C) mass D) pendular E) writhing Answer: C Learning Outcome: 22.16 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 135) Functions of the large intestine include A) storage of fecal material prior to defection. B) absorption of vitamins. C) reabsorption of water and compaction of feces. D) All of the answers are correct. E) None of the answers is correct. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 22.16 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

movements.

136) The is composed of smooth muscle fibers and is not under voluntary control. A) rectum B) sigmoid flexure C) anal canal D) internal anal sphincter E) external anal sphincter Answer: D Learning Outcome: 22.17 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 137) Which of the following is not a component of the defecation reflex? A) increased local peristalsis B) stimulation of myenteric plexus in sigmoid colon C) stimulation of stretch receptors D) stimulation of parasympathetic motor neurons in sacral spinal cord E) contraction of the external anal sphincter Answer: E Learning Outcome: 22.17 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 138) At what point in the large intestine does the epidermis change from stratified squamous non-keratinized tissue like the oral cavity to stratified squamous keratinized tissue like the skin? A) descending colon B) internal anal sphincter C) anus D) rectum E) sigmoid colon Answer: C Learning Outcome: 22.17 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 139) Pancreatic endocrine cells secrete all of the following except A) insulin. B) amylase. C) growth hormone-inhibiting hormone (GH-IH). D) glucagon. E) pancreatic polypeptide. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 22.18 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

140) Each of the following is a function of the liver except A) synthesis and secretion of bile. B) antibody production. C) synthesis of plasma proteins. D) inactivation of toxins. E) storage of glycogen and iron reserves. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 22.18 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 141) Which of the following is not a function of the adult liver? A) producing blood cells B) synthesizing clotting factors C) producing bile D) synthesizing and releasing cholesterol E) storing iron Answer: A Learning Outcome: 22.18 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 142) pair(s) of salivary glands secrete into the oral cavity. A) One B) Two C) Three D) Four E) Six to ten Answer: C Learning Outcome: 22.19 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 143) What is the salivary gland that secretes a watery mixture rich in salivary amylase and buffers? A) mandibular B) sublingual C) lingual D) submandibular E) parotid Answer: D Learning Outcome: 22.19 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

144) Which of the following is false about secretions from the salivary glands? A) are mostly water B) help control bacterial populations in the mouth C) help lubricate the oral cavity and its contents D) contain enzymes for the digestion of carbohydrates E) contain enzymes for the digestion of lipids Answer: E Learning Outcome: 22.19 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 145) The salivary glands are covered by the mucous membrane in the floor of the mouth. A) mandibular B) sublingual C) lingual D) submandibular E) parotid Answer: B Learning Outcome: 22.19 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 146) Which salivary gland produces a serous secretion containing large amounts of salivary amylase? A) mandibular B) sublingual C) lingual D) submandibular E) parotid Answer: E Learning Outcome: 22.19 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 147) The gland empties into the oral cavity at the level of the second upper molar. A) submaxillary B) submandibular C) parotid D) sublingual E) vestibular Answer: C Learning Outcome: 22.19 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

148) Increased secretion by all the salivary glands results from A) sympathetic stimulation. B) hormonal stimulation. C) parasympathetic stimulation. D) myenteric reflexes. E) hunger. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 22.19 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 149) A blockage of the ducts from the parotid glands would A) reduce delivery of saliva. B) cause mumps-like swelling of the face. C) interfere with carbohydrate digestion in the mouth. D) All of the answers are correct. E) None of the answers is correct. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 22.19 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 150) On average, the body produces A) less than 0.25 L B) 0.50-1.0 L C) 1.0-1.5 L D) 1.5-2 L E) more than 2.5 L Answer: C Learning Outcome: 22.19 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

of saliva in a day.

151) Serous cells in the submandibular salivary gland secrete what substance(s)? A) gastrin B) lysozyme and salivary amylase C) mucins and water D) lingual lipase E) intrinsic factor and hydrochloric acid Answer: B Learning Outcome: 22.19 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

152) Which of the following cranial nerves are not involved in stimulating salivary reflexes or taste buds? A) Trigeminal (V) B) Facial (VII) C) Glossopharyngeal (IX) D) Vagus (X) E) Hypoglossal (XII) Answer: E Learning Outcome: 22.19 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 153) The enzyme that breaks down complex carbohydrates is A) lactase. B) rennin. C) amylase. D) carbonic anhydrase. E) lysozyme. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 22.19 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 154) The human liver is composed of A) one B) two C) three D) four E) two large and four small Answer: D Learning Outcome: 22.20 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

lobe(s).

155) The structure that marks the division between the right and left lobes of the liver is the A) lesser omentum. B) greater omentum. C) falciform ligament. D) ligamentum teres. E) hepatic ligament. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 22.20 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

156) Which of the following is a remnant of the fetal umbilical vein? A) round ligament B) greater omentum C) mesentery proper D) lesser omentum E) diaphragm Answer: A Learning Outcome: 22.20 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 157) The of the liver lies between the left lobe and the gallbladder. A) right lobe B) quadrate lobe C) caudate lobe D) coronary ligament E) falciform ligament Answer: B Learning Outcome: 22.20 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 158) In the center of a liver lobule there is a A) hepatic duct. B) portal area. C) sinusoid. D) central vein. E) portal vein. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 22.21 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 159) The basic functional unit of the liver is the A) hepatocyte. B) Kupffer cell. C) lobule. D) portal area. E) bile canaliculus. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 22.21 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

160) are arranged within a lobule of the liver into a series of plates converging toward a central vein. A) Kupffer cells B) Hepatocytes C) Bile canaliculi D) Portal areas E) Hepatic ducts Answer: B Learning Outcome: 22.21 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 161) Which of the following is not true of the Kupffer cells of the liver? A) they destroy damaged RBCs B) they engulf bacteria C) they store heavy metals D) they are phagocytic E) they are also called hepatocytes Answer: E Learning Outcome: 22.21 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 162) Which of the following is not a component of the portal triad found at the edges of a liver lobule? A) hepatic artery B) bile duct C) central vein D) hepatic portal vein E) None of the answers is correct; all are present in the portal triad. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 22.21 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 163) Kupffer cells lurk in the liver, searching for invaders. Where in the liver do they lurk? A) hepatic sinusoids B) bile canaliculi C) perisinusoidal space D) lymph vessels E) interlobular septum Answer: A Learning Outcome: 22.21 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

164) The fusion of the hepatic duct and the cystic duct forms the A) hepatic portal vein. B) porta hepatis. C) common bile duct. D) common pancreatic duct. E) bile canaliculus. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 22.22 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 165) Bile is stored in the A) liver. B) duodenum. C) pancreas. D) gallbladder. E) appendix. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 22.22 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 166) Blockage of the common hepatic duct would interfere with digestion of A) proteins. B) fats. C) disaccharides. D) complex carbohydrates. E) vitamins. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 22.22 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 167) The is formed by the union of the cystic duct and the common hepatic duct. A) common bile duct B) common hepatic duct C) hepatopancreatic sphincter D) left hepatic duct E) duodenal ampulla Answer: A Learning Outcome: 22.22 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

168) Bile salts break lipids apart in a process called A) ingestion. B) emulsification. C) absorption. D) deglutition. E) the alkaline tide. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 22.22 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 169) Which of the following descriptions best matches the term "duodenal ampulla"? A) where pancreatic juice and bile enter duodenum B) carries absorbed sugars and amino acids C) stimulates pancreas to secrete bicarbonate-rich fluid D) causes gall bladder to contract E) stimulates gastric secretion Answer: A Learning Outcome: 22.22, 22.23 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 170) The duodenal ampulla receives secretions from the A) duodenum and the jejunum. B) duodenum and the pylorus. C) common bile duct and the pancreatic duct. D) duodenum and the pancreatic duct. E) duodenum and the bile duct. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 22.22, 22.23 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 171) The exocrine portion of the pancreas is composed of A) pancreatic islets. B) pancreatic crypts. C) pancreatic acini. D) pancreatic lobules. E) triads. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 22.23 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

172) Pancreatic exocrine cells secrete all of the following except A) lipases and amylase. B) nucleases. C) peptidases and proteinases. D) insulin. E) bicarbonate. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 22.23 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 173) The pancreas produces A) carbohydrate B) protein C) sugar D) lipid E) nucleic acid Answer: B Learning Outcome: 22.23 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

-digesting enzymes in the form of proteolytic enzymes.

174) All of the following enzymes are secreted by the pancreas except A) trypsin. B) amylase. C) nuclease. D) chymotrypsin. E) insulin. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 22.23 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 175) Tom has hepatitis, an inflammation of the liver. Which of the following symptoms would you expect to observe in Tom? A) jaundice B) elevated levels of blood glucose C) impaired digestion of protein D) blood in the feces E) overproduction of blood plasma albumin Answer: A Learning Outcome: 22.24 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying

176) Tony is a chronic alcoholic with cirrhosis of the liver, a condition in which liver cells die and are replaced by connective tissue. Which of the following signs would you expect to observe in Tony? A) increased clotting time B) jaundice C) portal hypertension and ascites D) All of the answers are correct. E) None of the answers is correct. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 22.24 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 177) A viral infection that often involves the parotid glands, which swell noticeably, is A) gastric ulceration. B) hepatitis. C) cirrhosis. D) mumps. E) HIV. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 22.24 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 178) Your patient has inflammation of the mucous membrane lining of the stomach. This is known clinically as A) an ulcer. B) gingivitis. C) cholecystitis. D) ascites. E) gastritis. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 22.24 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

179) Colon cancer is the #3 cancer killer. Whether you are a man or a woman, current guidelines urge you to have a colonoscopy screening when you reach age 50 because A) colon cancer is the #3 cancer killer, behind breast and lung cancer for women, so you could die if you don't get screened. B) colon cancer is the #3 cancer killer, behind prostate and lung cancer for men, so you could die if you don't get screened. C) colon cancer is treatable with surgery if caught in time with a colonoscopy, but you could die if you don't get screened. D) early colon cancer often has no symptoms, which is why screening is so important, so you could die if you don't get screened. E) all of the answers are correct, and you could die if you don't have a screening colonoscopy when you reach age 50. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 22.24 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 180) Which of the following describes a correct connection with the digestive system? A) The autonomic nervous system directs peristalsis of the intestines. B) The stomach releases hormones such as pepsin and intrinsic factors that assist in digestion. C) Newly absorbed nutrients travel first to the liver via hepatic portal artery. D) Mucosa-associated lymphatic tissue (MALT) is found throughout the large intestine. E) Capillaries receive fluids delivered by lymphatic vessels. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 22.24 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 181) Which other systems work with the digestive system to support the cells and tissues of the human body? (Module 22.1A) A) reproductive, integumentary, and lymphatic systems B) skeletal, muscular, and nervous systems C) endocrine, lymphatic and integumentary systems D) respiratory, cardiovascular, and urinary systems E) nervous, lymphatic, and endocrine systems Answer: D Learning Outcome: 22.1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 182) Starting at the mouth, identify the major organs of the digestive tract. (Module 22.1B) A) oral cavity (mouth), pharynx, esophagus, stomach, small intestine, large intestine B) oral cavity (mouth), pharynx, larynx, trachea, stomach, small intestine, liver C) oral cavity (mouth), larynx, trachea, esophagus, stomach, pancreas, gallbladder D) oral cavity (mouth), pharynx, gallbladder, pancreas, liver, small intestine, large intestine E) oral cavity (mouth), teeth, tongue, salivary glands, pharynx, stomach, small intestine, large intestine Answer: A Learning Outcome: 22.1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 47

183) List the accessory organs of the digestive system. (Module 22.1C) A) oral cavity, teeth, tongue, salivary glands, esophagus B) oral cavity, salivary glands, esophagus, stomach, liver C) teeth, tongue, salivary glands, liver, gallbladder, pancreas D) teeth, tongue, stomach, liver, gallbladder, large intestine E) pharynx, esophagus, stomach, liver, gallbladder, pancreas Answer: C Learning Outcome: 22.1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 184) What is the importance of the mesenteries? (Module 22.2A) A) they increase the surface area available for absorption in the small intestine B) they produce enzymes to increase the digestion of proteins and fats in the small intestine C) they support and stabilize organs of the abdominal cavity and provide a passageway for blood vessels, nerves, and lymphatic vessels D) they consist of smooth muscle that contracts to push food along the digestive tract E) they produce hormones that regulate the activities of the digestive organs Answer: C Learning Outcome: 22.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 185) Name the four layers of the digestive tract beginning from the lumen of the digestive tract. (Module 22.2B) A) serosa, muscular layer, submucosa, mucosa B) mucosa, submucosa, muscular layer, serosa C) submucosa, mucosa, serosa, muscular layer D) mucosa, submucosa, serosa, muscular layer E) muscular layer, serosa, submucosa, mucosa Answer: B Learning Outcome: 22.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

186) Compare the submucosal neural plexus with the myenteric plexus. (Module 22.2C) A) The submucosal neural plexus and the myenteric plexus both contain neurons but the submucosal neural plexus innervates the mucosa only, whereas the myenteric plexus innervates the serosa only. B) The submucosal neural plexus contains only sensory neurons, whereas the myenteric plexus contains only motor neurons. C) The submucosal neural plexus and the myenteric plexus are both intricate capillary beds found in the layers of the digestive tract. D) The submucosal neural plexus and the myenteric plexus both contain neurons but the submucosal neural plexus innervates the mucosa and submucosa, whereas the myenteric plexus innervates the muscular layer. E) The submucosal neural plexus contains only motor neurons, whereas the myenteric plexus contains only sensory neurons. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 22.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 187) Describe the orientation of smooth muscle fibers in the muscular layer of the digestive tract. (Module 22.3A) A) The cells align parallel to each other and form an inner circular layer and an outer longitudinal layer. B) The cells align parallel to each other and form an inner longitudinal layer and an outer circular layer. C) The cells align perpendicular to each other and form an inner circular layer and an outer longitudinal layer. D) The cells align perpendicular to each other and form spiraling bands. E) The cells align obliquely to each other and form three interwoven layers. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 22.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 188) Identify the structural characteristics of smooth muscle fibers. (Module 22.3B) A) long fibers with T tubules, myofibrils, and sarcomeres B) short fibers with T tubules, myofibrils, and intercalated discs C) thick fibers with myofibrils and desmosomes D) spindle shaped fibers that lack T tubules, myofibrils, and sarcomeres E) round fibers that lack thin filaments and dense bodies Answer: D Learning Outcome: 22.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

189) Why can smooth muscle contract over a wider range of resting lengths than skeletal muscle? (Module 22.3C) A) smooth muscle has tight junctions to keep the fibers anchored B) in smooth muscle the actin and myosin are more loosely organized C) in smooth muscle intercalated discs are found between the fibers D) in smooth muscle the T tubules allow efficient transmission of the action potential E) smooth muscle has fewer layers than skeletal muscle Answer: B Learning Outcome: 22.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 190) Which is more efficient in propelling intestinal contents along the digestive tract: peristalsis or segmentation? Why? (Module 22.4A) A) segmentation; because it involves pushing the bolus forward B) segmentation; because it involves mixing and churning C) peristalsis; because it involves pushing the bolus forward D) peristalsis; because it involves mixing and churning E) both segmentation and peristalsis are equally effective at propelling intestinal contents along the digestive tract Answer: C Learning Outcome: 22.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 191) Cite the major mechanisms that regulate and control digestive activities. (Module 22.4B) A) local factors B) central nervous system reflexes C) local factors and neural mechanisms D) neural mechanisms and hormonal mechanisms E) local factors, neural mechanisms, and hormonal mechanisms Answer: E Learning Outcome: 22.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 192) Describe enteroendocrine cells. (Module 22.4C) A) endocrine cells in the epithelium of the digestive tract B) endocrine cells in the submucosal layer of the digestive tract C) endocrine cells in between the layers of the muscular layer of the digestive tract D) endocrine cells in the serosa layer of the digestive tract E) endocrine cells in the accessory organs that deliver hormones to the digestive tract Answer: A Learning Outcome: 22.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

193) Define ingestion. (Module 22.5A) A) The movement of nutrients across the digestive epithelium and into the bloodstream. B) The discharge of feces. C) The enzymatic breakdown of food. D) Entry of food and liquids into the digestive tract through the mouth. E) The crushing and shearing of food. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 22.5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 194) Distinguish between chemical digestion and absorption. (Module 22.5B) A) Chemical digestion involves the entry of food and liquid into the digestive tract, whereas absorption involves the discharge of indigestible food into material waste. B) Chemical digestion involves the breakdown of food, whereas absorption involves the movement of nutrients across the digestive epithelium into the interstitial fluid. C) Chemical digestion involves the discharge of indigestible food into material waste, whereas absorption involves the entry to food and liquid into the digestive tract. D) Chemical digestion involves the crushing and shearing of food, whereas absorption involves the movement of nutrients across the digestive epithelium into the interstitial fluid. E) Chemical digestion involves the movement of food along the digestive tract, whereas absorption involves the secretion of acids, enzymes, and buffers. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 22.5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 195) Describe the function of the large intestine. (Module 22.5C) A) Transport of materials to the stomach. B) Enzymatic digestion and absorption of water, organic substrates, vitamins, and ions. C) Dehydration and compaction of indigestible materials in preparation for elimination. D) Mechanical digestion. E) Chemical digestion by acids and enzymes. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 22.5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 196) The oral cavity is lined by which type of epithelium? (Module 22.6A) A) simple squamous epithelium B) stratified squamous epithelium C) simple cuboidal epithelium D) stratified columnar epithelium E) pseudostratified columnar epithelium Answer: B Learning Outcome: 22.6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

197) Name the structure that forms the roof of the mouth. (Module 22.6B) A) palatoglossal arch B) lingual tonsils C) pharyngeal tonsil D) hard palate E) uvula Answer: D Learning Outcome: 22.6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 198) Describe the location of fauces. (Module 22.6C) A) arched opening between the oral cavity and the oropharynx B) between the palatoglossal and palatopharyngeal arches on each side C) the floor of the oral cavity D) the space between the cheeks and the teeth E) between the soft palate and the base of the tongue Answer: A Learning Outcome: 22.6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 199) What effects might a shortened frenulum of tongue cause? (Module 22.6D) A) difficulty fighting off infections B) difficulty tasting sweet foods C) difficulty eating or talking D) difficulty trapping bacteria and other pathogens that enter the oral cavity E) difficulty tasting spicy foods Answer: C Learning Outcome: 22.6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 200) Name the three main parts of a typical tooth. (Module 22.7A) A) bulb, shaft, and root B) labia, body, and root C) canal, cavity, and socket D) papilla, cortex, and medulla E) crown, neck, and root Answer: E Learning Outcome: 22.7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

201) What is the name sometimes given to the third set of molars? (Module 22.7B) A) deciduous teeth B) baby teeth C) milk teeth D) wisdom teeth E) permanent teeth Answer: D Learning Outcome: 22.7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 202) Name the regions and functions of the pharynx. (Module 22.8A) A) buccal pharynx, lingual pharynx, and oral pharynx; to mix food with salivary gland secretions B) labial pharynx, palatopharynx, and lingual pharynx; to mix food with salivary gland secretions C) buccal pharynx, labial pharynx, and palatopharynx; to provide a passageway for food to enter the esophagus D) nasopharynx, oropharynx, and palatopharynx; to provide a passageway for food to enter the esophagus E) nasopharynx, oropharynx, and laryngopharynx; to provide a passageway for food to enter the esophagus Answer: E Learning Outcome: 22.8 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 203) Describe the muscular layer of the esophagus. (Module 22.8B) A) inner circular layer and outer longitudinal layer; superior third is skeletal muscle, middle third is mixed skeletal and smooth muscle, inferior third is smooth muscle B) inner longitudinal layer and outer circular layer; superior third is skeletal muscle, middle third is mixed skeletal and smooth muscle, inferior third is smooth muscle C) inner circular layer and outer longitudinal layer; superior third is smooth muscle, middle third is mixed skeletal and smooth muscle, inferior third is skeletal muscle D) inner longitudinal layer and outer circular layer; superior third is smooth muscle, middle third is mixed skeletal and smooth muscle, inferior third is skeletal muscle E) inner circular layer, middle oblique layer, outer longitudinal layer; inner layer is smooth muscle, middle oblique layer is mixed smooth and skeletal muscle, outer longitudinal layer is skeletal muscle Answer: A Learning Outcome: 22.8 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

204) What is the falciform ligament? (Module 22.9A) A) dorsal mesentery of the stomach B) dorsal mesentery of the small intestine C) remnant of the ventral mesentery between the liver and the anterior wall of the peritoneal cavity D) remnant of the ventral mesentery between the stomach and the liver E) dorsal mesentery of the large intestine Answer: C Learning Outcome: 22.9 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 205) What is the function of the lesser omentum? (Module 22.9B) A) stabilizes the position of the stomach and provides a route for structures entering or leaving the liver B) locks the small intestine and pancreas with the posterior abdominal wall C) provides padding and protection across the anterior and lateral surfaces of the abdomen D) suspends the small intestine E) suspends the large intestine Answer: A Learning Outcome: 22.9 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 206) Explain the significance of peritoneal fluid. (Module 22.9C) A) provide a liquid medium for the intestines to be suspended in B) gas exchange occurs in the peritoneal fluid C) hormones travel through the peritoneal fluid to their target digestive organs D) prevent friction and irritation when digestive organs move E) nutrients pass from the digestive lumen into the peritoneal fluid before entering the bloodstream Answer: D Learning Outcome: 22.9 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 207) Name the four major regions of the stomach in order from its junction with the esophagus to the small intestine. (Module 22.10A) A) pyloric part, cardia, body, fundus B) cardia, body, pyloric part, fundus C) fundus, cardia, body, pyloric part D) fundus, pyloric part, body, cardia E) cardia, fundus, body, pyloric part Answer: C Learning Outcome: 22.10 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

208) What anatomical feature of the stomach allows the organ to form chyme? (Module 22.10B) A) the muscular pyloric sphincter contracts B) the rugae allows the lumen to expand C) the wide body gives ample space D) the 3 muscular layers allows mixing and churning E) the long greater curvature produces an angle creating a pouch Answer: D Learning Outcome: 22.10 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 209) Describe the lining of the stomach. (Module 22.10C) A) it is a smooth surface B) it is lined with rugae C) it is lined with circular folds D) it is lined with microvilli E) it is lined with cilia Answer: B Learning Outcome: 22.10 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 210) Explain the significance of the alkaline mucous layer lining the interior surface of the stomach. (Module 22.11A) A) The mucous layer protects against foreign pathogens in the gastric lumen. B) The mucous layer modifies the pH of food for better digestion. C) The mucous layer activates antibodies to kill microorganisms in the gastric lumen. D) The mucous layer protects epithelial cells from the acid and enzymes in the gastric lumen. E) The mucous layer keeps food from sticking to the walls of the stomach so it can enter the small intestine. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 22.11 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 211) What is the function of parietal cells? (Module 22.11B) A) secrete mucous B) secrete pepsinogen C) secrete intrinsic factor and hydrochloric acid D) secrete a variety of hormones E) absorb nutrients Answer: C Learning Outcome: 22.11 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

212) Describe the alkaline tide. (Module 22.11C) A) The alkaline tide is the activation of carbonic acid inside parietal cells. B) The alkaline tide is the release of intrinsic factor. C) The alkaline tide is the release of hormones that influence digestion. D) The alkaline tide is the sudden influx of bicarbonate ions into the bloodstream. E) The alkaline tide is the active transport of hydrogen ions into the gastric lumen. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 22.11 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 213) Name the layers of the small intestine from superficial to deep. (Module 22.12A) A) serosa, muscular layer, submucosa, mucosa B) mucosa, submucosa, muscular layer, serosa C) submucosa, mucosa, serosa, muscular layer D) mucosa, submucosa, serosa, muscular layer E) muscular layer, serosa, submucosa, mucosa Answer: B Learning Outcome: 22.12 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 214) Describe the anatomy of the intestinal mucosa. (Module 22.12B) A) The intestinal mucosa has circular folds, villi, and intestinal glands. B) The intestinal mucosa has rugae and ciliated enterocytes. C) The intestinal mucosa has a smooth surface. D) The intestinal mucosa is divided into red pulp and white pulp. E) The intestinal mucosa is divided into regions called lobules. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 22.12 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 215) Explain the function of lacteals. (Module 22.12C) A) They primarily deliver hormones to the digestive mucosa. B) They transport materials that cannot enter lymphatic capillaries. C) They transport materials that cannot enter blood capillaries. D) They increase the surface area of the small intestine. E) They release defensins and lysozyme. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 22.12 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

216) Name the three segments of the small intestine from proximal to distal. (Module 22.13A) A) ileum, jejunum, cecum B) cecum, transverse colon, sigmoid colon C) jejunum, duodenum, cecum D) ileum, jejunum, duodenum E) duodenum, jejunum, ileum Answer: E Learning Outcome: 22.13 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 217) Identify the segment of the small intestine found within the epigastric region. (Module 22.13B) A) ileum B) ileocecal valve C) jejunum D) duodenum E) cecum Answer: D Learning Outcome: 22.13 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 218) What is the primary function of the duodenum? (Module 22.13C) A) The primary function of the duodenum is to produce vitamin K. B) The primary function of the duodenum is to neutralize the acidic chyme entering the small intestine. C) The primary function of the duodenum is to regulate the speed that food enters the large intestine. D) The primary function of the duodenum is to absorb water. E) The primary function of the duodenum is to produce acid for the digestion of protein. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 22.13 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 219) A traumatic injury to the umbilical region could affect which segments of the small intestine? (Module 22.13D) A) only the duodenum would be affected B) only the jejunum would be affected C) only the ileum would be affected D) the duodenum and jejunum would be affected E) all three segments of the small intestine would be affected Answer: E Learning Outcome: 22.13 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying

220) How would the pH of the intestinal contents be affected if the small intestine did not produce secretin? (Module 22.14B) A) It would be more acidic than normal B) It would be more alkaline than normal C) It would be more basic than normal D) It would be neutralized E) It would not affect pH but it would increase mucous release Answer: A Learning Outcome: 22.14 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 221) Does a high-fat meal raise or lower the level of cholecystokinin (CCK) in the blood? (Module 22.14C) A) raise B) lower Answer: A Learning Outcome: 22.14 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 222) Describe two central reflexes triggered by stimulation of the stretch receptors in the stomach wall. (Module 22.15B) A) The cephalic reflex opens the esophagus during swallowing and the gastric reflex opens the cardiac sphincter. B) The gastric reflex opens the cardiac sphincter and the enteric reflex opens the pyloric sphincter. C) The enterogastric reflex closes the pyloric sphincter and the gastroenteric reflex stimulates motility and secretion in the small intestine. D) The gastroenteric reflex stimulates motility and secretion in the small intestine and the gastroileal reflex opens the ileocecal valve. E) The gastroileal reflex opens the ileocecal valve and the colonic reflex closes the ileocecal valve. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 22.15 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 223) Why might severing the branches of the vagus nerves that supply the stomach provide relief for a person who suffers from chronic gastric ulcers (sores on the stomach lining)? (Module 22.15C) A) it would block sympathetic stimulation of gastric secretions B) it would block the flow of hydrogen ions down the vagus nerve C) it would block parasympathetic stimulation of gastric secretions D) it would block somatic nerve activity to the myenteric plexus E) it would block stomach stretch sensory neurons from being activated Answer: C Learning Outcome: 22.15 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 58

224) Name the major functions of the large intestine. (Module 22.16A) A) producing digestive enzymes, producing acidic chyme, digesting proteins, fats and carbohydrates B) reabsorbing water and compacting material into feces, absorbing vitamins, and storing fecal material C) detoxifying alcohol and drugs, producing bile, storing bile D) producing buffers, absorbing vitamins, and storing bile E) emulsifying lipids, synthesizing clotting factors, and absorbing and inactivating lipid-soluble drugs Answer: B Learning Outcome: 22.16 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 225) Identify the four regions of the colon. (Module 22.16B) A) ileum, cecum, transverse colon, sigmoid colon B) duodenum, jejunum, ileum, cecum C) cardia, pylorus, body, sigmoid colon D) ascending colon, transverse colon, descending colon, sigmoid colon E) cecum, sigmoid colon, rectum, anus Answer: D Learning Outcome: 22.16 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 226) Describe mass movements. (Module 22.16C) A) movements of chyme out of the esophagus into the stomach B) movements of chyme out of the stomach into the small intestine C) movements of chyme out of the small intestine into the colon D) powerful peristaltic contractions that occur in response to the amount of blood flow to the digestive organs E) powerful peristaltic contractions that occur in response to distension of the stomach and duodenum Answer: E Learning Outcome: 22.16 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 227) How does digestion occur in the large intestine? (Module 22.17A) A) The mucosa of the large intestine produces enzymes that begin digestion. B) Pancreatic juice flows through the pancreatic duct into the large intestine allowing digestion to occur. C) Bile enters the large intestine through the bile duct. D) No digestive enzymes are produced in the large intestine but digestion continues from the enzymes present that were secreted or produced in the small intestine. E) No digestive enzymes are produced and the digestive enzymes from the small intestine are inactivated in the large intestine so digestion does not occur in the large intestine. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 22.17 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 59

228) Define hemorrhoids. (Module 22.17B) A) Hemorrhoids are distended veins in the distal portion of the rectum. B) Hemorrhoids are polyps that form in the sigmoid colon. C) Hemorrhoids are ulcers in the large intestine from acidic chyme that was not neutralized. D) Hemorrhoids are pouches in the wall of the colon. E) Hemorrhoids are collections of fat along the serosa of the rectum. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 22.17 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 229) What is the function of the salivary glands? (Module 22.18A) A) produce bile B) produce mucin and enzymes C) produce acid D) produce bases E) concentrate and store bile Answer: B Learning Outcome: 22.18 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 230) Distinguish between the exocrine and endocrine secretions of the pancreas. (Module 22.18B) A) The exocrine pancreas produces acidic secretions and the endocrine pancreas produces alkaline secretions. B) The exocrine pancreas produces mucous and the endocrine pancreas produces enzymes. C) The exocrine pancreas produces bile and the endocrine pancreas concentrates and stores bile. D) The exocrine pancreas produces hormones and the endocrine pancreas produces buffers and enzymes. E) The exocrine pancreas produces buffers and enzymes and the endocrine pancreas produces hormones. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 22.18 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 231) Which accessory organ of the digestive system is responsible for almost 200 known functions? (Module 22.18C) A) salivary glands B) gallbladder C) liver D) pancreas E) appendix Answer: C Learning Outcome: 22.18 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

232) Name the three pairs of salivary glands. (Module 22.19A) A) sublingual, submandibular, and parotid B) buccal, parotid, lingual C) caudate, quadrate, falciform D) lingual, sublingual, and submandibular E) serous, mucous, and parotid Answer: A Learning Outcome: 22.19 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 233) Damage to the parotid glands would affect the digestion of which nutrient? (Module 22.19B) A) glucose B) starches C) proteins D) fats E) nucleic acids Answer: B Learning Outcome: 22.19 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 234) Which pair of salivary glands contributes most to saliva production? (Module 22.19C) A) lingual B) sublingual C) submandibular D) parotid E) buccal Answer: C Learning Outcome: 22.19 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 235) Which pair of salivary glands secretes substances that reduce oral bacteria populations? (Module 22.19D) A) lingual B) sublingual C) submandibular D) parotid E) buccal Answer: C Learning Outcome: 22.19 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

236) Describe the outer covering of the liver. (Module 22.20A) A) It is covered by a delicate serous membrane filled peritoneal fluid. B) It is covered by a thick layer of adipose tissue. C) It is covered by ligaments that suspend the liver. D) It is covered by a layer of visceral peritoneum and wrapped in a tough fibrous capsule. E) It is covered by thick stratified squamous epithelial tissue for protection. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 22.20 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 237) What structure marks the division between the left lobe and right lobe of the liver? (Module 22.20B) A) bare area B) round ligament C) falciform ligament D) broad ligament E) peritoneal ligament Answer: C Learning Outcome: 22.20 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 238) Name the lobes of the liver. (Module 22.20C) A) superior, inferior, anterior, and posterior B) superior, inferior, medial, and lateral C) superior, inferior, right, and left D) anterior, posterior, caudate, and quadrate E) right, left, caudate, and quadrate Answer: E Learning Outcome: 22.20 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 239) What is the function of the gallbladder? (Module 22.20D) A) synthesize and secrete bile B) store and concentrate bile C) store fat-soluble vitamins D) store glycogen and lipids E) synthesize clotting factors Answer: B Learning Outcome: 22.20 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

240) Define hepatocyte. (Module 22.21A) A) a liver cell B) a pancreatic cell C) a gallbladder cell D) a small intestinal cell E) a salivary gland cell Answer: A Learning Outcome: 22.21 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 241) Describe a portal triad. (Module 22.21B) A) A portal triad consists of two lobes of the liver and the gallbladder. B) A portal triad consists of the three primary lobes of the liver. C) A portal triad consists of an interlobular vein, an interlobular artery, and an interlobular bile duct. D) A portal triad consists of three hepatocytes forming a lobule. E) A portal triad consists of a central vein, bile canaliculi, and bile ductules. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 22.21 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 242) Define stellate macrophages, and indicate their functions. (Module 22.21C) A) liver macrophages which breakdown and phagocytose excess bile B) liver macrophages which synthesize bile C) gallbladder macrophages which breakdown and phagocytose excess bile D) liver macrophages which engulf pathogens, cell debris, and damaged blood cells E) liver macrophages which adjust circulating levels of nutrients through selective absorption and secretion Answer: D Learning Outcome: 22.21 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 243) Define emulsification. (Module 22.22A) A) Breakdown of proteins into fatty acids by enzymes B) Breakdown of starches into glucose monomers C) Breakdown of lipid droplets by bile salts D) Breakdown of nucleic acids by bile salts E) Breakdown of proteins, carbohydrates, and lipids by bile salts Answer: C Learning Outcome: 22.22 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

244) Trace a drop of bile from the hepatic ducts to the duodenal lumen. (Module 22.22B) A) hepatic ducts, bile duct, duodenal lumen B) hepatic ducts, common hepatic duct, bile duct, duodenal ampulla and papilla, duodenal lumen C) hepatic ducts, duodenal ampulla and papilla, duodenal lumen D) hepatic ducts, liver sinusoids, cystic duct, duodenal ampulla and papilla, duodenal lumen E) hepatic ducts, cystic duct, bile duct, common hepatic duct, duodenal ampulla and papilla, duodenal lumen Answer: B Learning Outcome: 22.22 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 245) What is the primary digestive function of the pancreas? (Module 22.23A) A) to produce hormones that increase digestion in the small intestine B) to produce acid for the digestion of proteins in the stomach C) to produce mucus for the ease of feces passing through the rectum D) to produce bile for the digestion of lipids E) to produce buffers and enzymes for the digestion of starches, lipids, nucleic acids, and proteins Answer: E Learning Outcome: 22.23 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 246) Describe hepatitis. (Module 22.24A) A) Hepatitis is inflammation of the liver. B) Hepatitis is inflammation of the gallbladder. C) Hepatitis is inflammation of the pancreas. D) Hepatitis is inflammation of the small intestine. E) Hepatitis is inflammation of the large intestine. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 22.24 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 247) Describe cholecystitis. (Module 22.24B) A) Cholecystitis is inflammation of the liver. B) Cholecystitis is inflammation of the gallbladder. C) Cholecystitis is inflammation of the pancreas. D) Cholecystitis is inflammation of the small intestine. E) Cholecystitis is inflammation of the large intestine. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 22.24 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

248) What bacterium is responsible for most peptic ulcers? (Module 22.24C) A) Escherichia coli B) Salmonella C) Helicobactor pylori D) Candida albicans E) Staphylococcus aureus Answer: C Learning Outcome: 22.24 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Essay Questions 249) Imagine eating a soda cracker, which is basically starch, fat, protein, and salt. How would each of these components be digested? Where within the digestive system would they be digested? Are any accessory organs involved? Answer: Digestion begins in the oral cavity. Food triggers saliva from the parotids, rich in amylase, and from the submandibulars, rich in mucus. The tongue and teeth cooperate to mix all together and form a bolus. Digestion of fats and starch begins due to lingual lipase and salivary amylase. Swallowing reflexes send it to the stomach. Acid and pepsin greet the bolus. Peptides form from the wheat proteins due to action of pepsin. It then travels into the small intestine, where pancreatic lipase and amylase complete fat and starch digestion. Pancreatic enzymes reduce peptides to amino acids. The salt in the cracker is absorbed, and fatty acids diffuse into the epithelial cells because of their lipid character. Fat goes to lacteals and sugars and proteins go to the capillaries. Learning Outcome: 22.6, 22.11, 22.19, 22.22 Bloom's Taxonomy: Analyzing 250) What local reflexes control the GI tract? Answer: The GI tract has extensive sensory and motor neuron plexuses that communicate along the entire length of the digestive tube. The gastroileal reflex is triggered by stomach distension, causing food to move from the ileum into the colon. Similarly, stomach stretch can trigger reflex mass movements that send chyme into the rectum, promoting a sense of urgency. Another is the gastroenteric reflex, also initiated by stretch receptors in the stomach that stimulates motility and secretion along the entire small intestine. The enterogastric reflex causes the emptying and other movements of the stomach to pause for a few moments when gastric contents contact the duodenal mucosa. This is a good example of local autonomic regulation. Learning Outcome: 22.15 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

251) Leon has gallstones. His doctor puts him on a diet low in fat. Why? Answer: The gallbladder functions to concentrate and store bile produced by the liver. In this capacity, the gallbladder reabsorbs water from the bile. Since bile salts are produced from cholesterol, these salts will be precipitated as cholesterol-like gallstones if too much water is reabsorbed. Whenever bile is released by the gallbladder in response to the presence of fats in the duodenum, the smooth muscle in the wall of the gallbladder must contract. This generates severe pain if the cystic duct or common bile duct is blocked by gallstones. To minimize or prevent this pain Leon's doctor prescribes a low-fat diet: less fat in the diet, less contraction of the gallbladder, and less pain. Learning Outcome: 22.22, 22.24 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 252) Describe the major event in each of the three phases of swallowing. (Module 22.8C) Answer: During the buccal phase, food is formed into a bolus; during the pharyngeal phase, the bolus contacts the palatal arches and moves into the esophagus; during the esophageal phase, swallowing begins as pharyngeal muscles contract and the bolus is moved toward the stomach by peristaltic waves. Learning Outcome: 22.8 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 253) Name the major hormones that regulate digestive activities. (Module 22.14A) Answer: The six major hormones that regulate digestive activities are gastrin, secretin, gastric inhibitory peptide (GIP), cholecystokinin (CCK), vasoactive peptide (VIP), and enterocrinin. Learning Outcome: 22.14 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 254) Name and briefly describe the important characteristic of each of the three phases of gastric secretion. (Module 22.15A) Answer: The three phases of gastric secretion (named according to the location of the control center involved) are the cephalic phase, which prepares the stomach to receive ingested materials; the gastric phase, which begins with the arrival of food in the stomach; and the intestinal phase, which controls the rate of gastric emptying. Learning Outcome: 22.15 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 255) Describe the two positive feedback loops involved in the defecation reflex. (Module 22.17C) Answer: The two positive feedback loops in the defecation reflex are (1) the short intrinsic myenteric defecation reflex, whereby stretch receptors in the rectal walls promote a series of peristaltic contractions in the sigmoid colon and rectum, moving feces toward the anus; and (2) the long parasympathetic defecation reflex, whereby parasympathetic motor neurons in the sacral spinal cord, also activated by stretch receptors, stimulate mass movements that push feces toward the rectum from the descending colon and sigmoid colon. Defecation occurs with the voluntary relaxation of the external anal sphincter. Learning Outcome: 22.17 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 66

Visual Anatomy and Physiology, 3e (Martini) Chapter 23 Metabolism, Nutrition, and Energetics Multiple Choice Questions 1) The sum of all of the biochemical processes going on within the human body at any given time is called A) glycolysis. B) oxidative phosphorylation. C) catabolism. D) anabolism. E) metabolism. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 23.1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 2) Cells do not synthesize new organic components for which of the following reasons? A) structural maintenance B) growth and repair C) production of secretions D) creation of essential amino acids E) regulation of homeostasis Answer: D Learning Outcome: 23.1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 3) Reactions within provide most of the energy needed by a typical cell. A) cytoplasm B) the plasma membrane C) the mitochondria D) the endoplasmic reticulum E) the nucleus Answer: C Learning Outcome: 23.1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 4) What is a nutrient pool? A) a general term for vitamins and minerals together B) the metabolic reserves of the body as a whole C) the region in the mitochondria where hydrogen atoms are removed from organic molecules D) an accessible source of substrates for a cell E) an alternative term for a bolus of food in the digestive system Answer: D Learning Outcome: 23.1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

5) Metabolism can be defined as A) anabolism - catabolism. B) catabolism - anabolism. C) anabolism + catabolism. D) anabolism + heat. E) heat - catabolism. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 23.1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 6) Cells perform catabolism to generate ATP, which can be used for all of the following except A) muscle contraction. B) ion transport. C) protein synthesis. D) glycogen synthesis. E) diffusion. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 23.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 7) Which of the following body systems is not involved in capturing or creating energy that is used to maintain one's metabolism? A) digestive B) lymphatic C) integumentary D) cardiovascular E) muscular Answer: C Learning Outcome: 23.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 8) Glycolytic breakdown of glucose first results in A) 2 pyruvate B) 4 NADH C) 4 ATP D) 2 CO2 E) 2 H2O Answer: A Learning Outcome: 23.3, 23.9 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

molecules.

9) The citric acid cycle A) begins with the formation of a molecule of citric acid. B) directly produces most of the ATP from the catabolism of glucose. C) consumes two moles of carbon dioxide. D) contains enzymes called cytochromes. E) forms acetyl-CoA from glucose-6-phosphate. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 23.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 10) The carbon dioxide of respiration is formed during A) glycolysis. B) the citric acid cycle. C) electron transport. D) the formation of pyruvic acid. E) the formation of water. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 23.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 11) The function of the citric acid cycle is to A) remove hydrogen atoms from organic molecules and transfer them to coenzymes. B) transfer the acetyl group. C) hydrolyze glucose. D) produce carbon dioxide. E) produce water. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 23.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

Figure 23-1 12) Identify the molecule labeled "2." A) hydrogen atoms B) citric acid C) NAD D) carbon dioxide E) FADH2 Answer: D Learning Outcome: 23.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 13) Identify the substance labeled "4." A) hydrogen atom B) citric acid C) 4-carbon molecule D) NADH E) FADH2 Answer: A Learning Outcome: 23.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

14) Identify the molecule labeled "5." A) fumaric acid B) citric acid C) 4-carbon molecule D) malic acid E) oxaloacetic acid Answer: B Learning Outcome: 23.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 15) All of the following is true of the electron transport system except A) receives electrons from coenzymes. B) produces energy that supports the synthesis of ATP. C) is found on the inner mitochondrial membrane (the cristae). D) is found on the outer mitochondrial membrane. E) electrons are eventually accepted by oxygen with the formation of water. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 23.5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 16) In the ETS, _ accepts electrons from one molecule and transfers them to another. A) a hydrogen ion B) water C) the acetyl group D) ATP E) a coenzyme or a cytochrome Answer: E Learning Outcome: 23.5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 17) Poisons like cyanide bind to A) enzymes B) the endoplasmic reticulum C) acetyl-CoA D) cytochromes E) mitochondria Answer: D Learning Outcome: 23.5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

and prevent electron transfer.

18) The major job of coenzymes in oxidative phosphorylation includes all of the following except A) release of hydrogen ions. B) ionization of hydrogen atoms. C) release of electrons to the first cytochrome of the electron transport chain. D) the breaking of carbon-carbon covalent bonds. E) None of the answers is correct. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 23.5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 19) In oxidative phosphorylation, energy for the synthesis of ATP is directly obtained from the A) splitting of oxygen molecules. B) breaking of the covalent bonds in glucose. C) movement of hydrogen ions through channels in the inner mitochondrial membrane. D) combination of two atoms of hydrogen and one atom of oxygen to form water. E) oxidation of acetyl-CoA. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 23.5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 20) creates 90 percent of the ATP normally generated. A) Lipogenesis B) The electron transport system C) Oxidative phosphorylation D) Glycolysis E) Transamination Answer: C Learning Outcome: 23.5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 21) Although other nutrients can feed into the citric acid cycle, quickest. A) glycogen B) glucose C) protein D) fat E) All of the answers yield energy at the same rate. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 23.6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

yields energy the

22) Which step of glucose metabolism yields the greater amount of ATP? A) glycolysis B) electron transport system C) citric acid cycle D) glycolysis + citric acid cycle E) None of the answers is correct. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 23.6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 23) All of the following are reasons why glucose is the primary energy source for cells except A) glucose is a small, soluble molecule. B) glycogen breakdown occurs very slowly. C) glucose can be stored efficiently. D) glycogen breakdown involves only a single enzymatic step. E) glycolysis does not require oxygen to generate ATP. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 23.6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 24) The process of synthesizing glucose from non-carbohydrates is called A) glycogenolysis. B) glycogenesis. C) glycolysis. D) gluconeogenesis. E) glucose reclamation. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 23.7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 25) Glycolysis breaks down glucose into what? A) citric acid B) NAD•H C) glutaraldehyde D) pyruvate E) phosphate Answer: D Learning Outcome: 23.7, 23.9 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

26) In the process of digestion, most nutrient absorption takes place in the A) small intestine. B) stomach. C) large intestine. D) duodenum. E) liver. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 23.8 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 27) How are most nutrients absorbed in the digestive tract eventually transported out of the digestive system? A) via the hepatobiliary duct B) through the aorta C) through the hepatic portal vein D) via pulmonary arteries E) via the pyloric valve Answer: C Learning Outcome: 23.8 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 28) The largest lipoproteins, , are produced by intestinal epithelial cells from the fats in food. A) very-low-density lipoproteins (VLDLs) B) low-density lipoproteins (LDLs) C) intermediate-density lipoproteins (IDLs) D) high-density lipoproteins (HDLs) E) chylomicrons Answer: E Learning Outcome: 23.10 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 29) carry excess cholesterol from peripheral tissues to the liver. A) Very-low-density lipoproteins (VLDLs) B) Low-density lipoproteins (LDLs) C) Intermediate-density lipoproteins (IDLs) D) High-density lipoproteins (HDLs) E) Very-high-density lipoproteins (VHDLs) Answer: D Learning Outcome: 23.10 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

30) The lipoproteins that carry absorbed lipids from the intestinal tract to the bloodstream are the A) high-density lipoproteins (HDLs). B) very-low-density lipoproteins (VLDLs). C) low-density lipoproteins (LDLs). D) chylomicrons. E) None of the answers is correct. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 23.10 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 31) Which of the following is not true of lipoprotein lipase? A) interferes with triglyceride utilization. B) prolongs the circulation time of chylomicrons. C) found in capillary walls. D) decreases the breakdown of fatty acids. E) increases release of monoglycerides. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 23.10 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 32) During lipolysis, A) triglycerides are converted into molecules of acetyl-CoA. B) triglycerides are broken down into glycerol and fatty acids. C) lipids are converted into glucose molecules. D) lipids are formed from excess carbohydrates. E) lipids are metabolized to yield ATP. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 23.11 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 33) All of the following are true of beta-oxidation except that A) it occurs in the mitochondria. B) fatty acids break down into acetyl-CoA that enter the citric acid cycle. C) lipids are converted into glycogen molecules. D) it requires coenzyme A, NAD, and FAD. E) it ultimately yields large amounts of ATP. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 23.11 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

34) Lipogenesis generally begins with A) glucose. B) amino acids. C) fatty acids. D) acetyl-CoA. E) succinyl-CoA. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 23.11 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 35) Linoleic acid and linolenic acid are examples of A) transport proteins. B) lipoproteins. C) essential fatty acids. D) essential amino acids. E) non-essential amino acids Answer: C Learning Outcome: 23.11 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 36) The nutrients that yield the most energy per gram when metabolized are A) carbohydrates. B) proteins. C) lipids. D) nucleic acids. E) vitamins. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 23.11 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 37) Fatty acids that are necessary for proper health but cannot be synthesized by the body are called A) water-soluble vitamins. B) essential fatty acids. C) high-density lipoproteins. D) low-density lipoproteins. E) chylomicrons. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 23.11 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

38) The process that catalyzes fatty acids using enzymes that generate acetyl-CoA is called A) lipolysis. B) lipogenesis. C) emulsification D) oxidative phosphorylation. E) beta-oxidation. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 23.11 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 39) In transamination, the amino group of an amino acid is acid. A) converted to ammonia B) converted to urea C) transferred to another molecule D) absorbed by water E) transferred to acetyl-CoA Answer: C Learning Outcome: 23.12 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 40) The conversion of ammonia into a less toxic substance produces A) ketone bodies. B) urea. C) nitrate. D) acetyl-CoA. E) water. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 23.12 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 41) Urea is formed in the A) liver. B) stomach. C) kidneys. D) small intestine. E) large intestine. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 23.12 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

, yielding a different amino

42) Of the 20 amino acids, are essential amino acids that the body either cannot synthesize or that cannot be produced in amounts sufficient for growing children. A) 2 B) 6 C) 8 D) 10 E) 20 Answer: D Learning Outcome: 23.12 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 43) All of the following take place during the absorptive state except A) ketone bodies begin to form. B) blood glucose levels rise. C) estrogen promotes protein synthesis. D) insulin stimulates triglycerides. E) aerobic metabolism provides increased synthesis of blood lipid levels. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 23.13 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 44) All of the following occur during the postabsorptive state except that A) glycogen is broken down into glucose in the liver. B) levels of blood glucose are elevated. C) ketone bodies may be formed. D) lipid mobilization occurs. E) gluconeogenesis occurs in the liver. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 23.13 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 45) Glucocorticoids have which of the following effects on general peripheral tissues? A) They increase the conversion of amino acids to pyruvate. B) They increase gluconeogenesis. C) They increase glycogenolysis. D) All of the answers are correct. E) None of the answers is correct. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 23.13 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

46) When the body is relying on internal energy reserves to continue meeting its energy demands, it is in the state. A) postabsorptive B) absorptive C) starvation D) deprivation E) preabsorptive Answer: A Learning Outcome: 23.13 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 47) During the postabsorptive state, which of the following enhances the effects of glucocorticoids? A) insulin B) growth hormone C) glucagon D) epinephrine E) androgens Answer: B Learning Outcome: 23.13 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 48) Wally decides to go on a hunger strike to further one of his favorite causes. After many days with nothing but water you would expect to observe A) elevated levels of glucocorticoids. B) ketone bodies in his urine. C) lowered blood pH. D) All of the answers are correct. E) None of the answers is correct. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 23.13 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 49) The vitamin that plays a role in maintaining epithelia and is required for the synthesis of visual pigments is vitamin A) A. B) B. C) C. D) D. E) E. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 23.14 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

50) The vitamin that is required for proper bone growth and for calcium absorption and retention is vitamin A) A. B) B. C) C. D) D. E) E. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 23.14 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 51) The vitamin that prevents breakdown of vitamin A and fatty acids is vitamin A) A. B) B. C) C. D) D. E) E. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 23.14 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 52) The vitamin that is part of coenzymes in glycolysis and the citric acid cycle is A) thiamine. B) riboflavin. C) niacin. D) folic acid (folate). E) cobalamin. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 23.14 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 53) A deficiency in vitamin D would result in which of the following disorders? A) scurvy B) night blindness C) rickets D) pernicious anemia E) pellagra Answer: C Learning Outcome: 23.14 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

54) A vitamin obtained from meat that is a coenzyme in amino acid and lipid metabolism is A) pyridoxine (B6). B) pantothenic acid. C) riboflavin. D) folic acid (folate). E) niacin. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 23.14 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 55) Deficiency in what vitamin can result in a condition called scurvy? A) A B) C C) B1 D) B12 E) D Answer: B Learning Outcome: 23.14 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 56) The vitamin that is a coenzyme in amino acid and nucleic acid metabolism is A) pantothenic acid. B) pyridoxine (B6). C) folic acid (folate). D) vitamin C. E) vitamin K. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 23.14 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 57) The vitamin that is essential for the production of several clotting factors is vitamin A) A. B) B. C) C. D) E. E) K. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 23.14 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

58) The vitamin whose deficiency causes beriberi is A) thiamine. B) riboflavin. C) niacin. D) folic acid (folate). E) cobalamin. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 23.14 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 59) A disorder caused by the ingestion of excessive quantities of a fat-soluble vitamin is known as A) hypovitaminosis. B) Kwashiorkor. C) avitaminosis. D) carbohydrate loading. E) hypervitaminosis. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 23.14 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 60) The food pyramid recommends many servings a day of dark-green and orange vegetables and citrus fruits. Which vitamin is not particularly abundant in these food groups? A) A B) C C) D D) E E) All of the answers are correct; folic acid Answer: C Learning Outcome: 23.14 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 61) Excessive amounts of vitamin E can lead to A) rickets. B) blurred vision. C) bleeding disorders. D) liver damage. E) itching. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 23.14 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

62) Pellagra, an epithelial and mucosal deterioration, results from a deficiency in A) vitamin B2 (riboflavin). B) vitamin B3 (niacin). C) vitamin B9 (folic acid). D) vitamin D. E) vitamin K. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 23.14 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 63) Impaired fat absorption in the intestine would interfere with the absorption of A) vitamin A. B) vitamin B12. C) vitamin C. D) niacin. E) riboflavin. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 23.14 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 64) Vitamin B2 is A) folate. B) thiamin. C) riboflavin. D) retinol. E) ascorbic acid. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 23.14 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 65) A balanced diet would include all of the following, except A) adequate substrates for the production of energy. B) essential amino acids and fatty acids. C) adequate amounts of vitamins and minerals. D) both fat soluble and fat insoluble vitamins. E) enough calories to produce 100 million trillion ATPs. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 23.15 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

66) The USDA has an interactive food recommendation program online, called A) Dietary Guidelines for Americans. B) the Mediterranean Diet. C) MyPyramid. D) the DASH diet. E) ChooseMyPlate. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 23.15 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 67) is an unhealthy state resulting from inadequate intake of one or more nutrients that becomes life-threatening as the deficiencies accumulate. A) Anorexia B) Malnutrition C) Bulimia D) Protein deficiency disease E) Kwashiorkor Answer: B Learning Outcome: 23.15 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 68) A(n) contains all of the essential amino acids. A) carbohydrate B) water-soluble vitamin C) fat-soluble vitamin D) complete protein E) essential fatty acid Answer: D Learning Outcome: 23.15 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 69) A(n) is deficient in one or more of the essential amino acids. A) complete protein B) incomplete protein C) water-soluble vitamin D) fat-soluble vitamin Answer: B Learning Outcome: 23.15 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

70) The energy content of foods is commonly given in units of A) ATP units. B) carbohydrate. C) grams (also, g, or gms). D) kilocalories (also, kcal or Cal). E) degrees Celsius. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 23.15 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 71) A high uric acid level (above 7.4 mg/dl) can lead to the painful condition known as A) gout. B) rheumatoid arthritis. C) anorexia nervosa. D) lupus. E) None of the answers is correct. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 23.16 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 72) Obesity is defined as a body weight more than weight for an individual. A) 5 B) 10 C) 15 D) 20 E) 30 Answer: D Learning Outcome: 23.16 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

percent above the ideal body

73) The minimum resting energy expenditure of an awake, alert person is called A) body mass index rate. B) homeostasis. C) steady state. D) basal metabolic rate. E) stasis. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 23.17 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

74) Resting energy expenditure is most directly determined by monitoring A) heart rate. B) respiration. C) body temperature. D) blood pressure. E) body weight. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 23.17 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 75) Homeostatic control of body temperature is termed A) thermic monitoring. B) energetics. C) homeostasis. D) basal metabolic rate. E) thermoregulation. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 23.17 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 76) It's been 5 hours since you had breakfast and now you're thinking about trying the new Mexican lunch place that just opened up across the street. The more you think about it, the hungrier you get. Your increased hunger is the result of the that your empty stomach is releasing into your bloodstream. A) cholecystokinin (CCK) B) leptin C) ghrelin D) pepsin E) insulin Answer: C Learning Outcome: 23.18 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 77) At the Holy Frijoles restaurant, you order a burrito grande with extra sour cream and cheese and an order of tortilla chips with guacamole. You're very satisfied with your meal–it's a lot of food–and as you finish off the last of the chips, the satiety center in your starts letting you know that you've had enough to eat now. A) cerebellum B) pons C) mid-brain D) hypothalamus E) medulla oblongata Answer: D Learning Outcome: 23.18 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

78) The hormone , which suppresses appetite and stimulates satiety, is released by adipose tissue. A) ghrelin B) leptin C) neuropeptide Y D) insulin E) estrogen Answer: B Learning Outcome: 23.18 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 79) On a hot August day at the beach, the lifeguard jumped up and ran into the water, throwing a life-buoy to a troubled swimmer calling for help, and pulling her to safety. He was happy to help the swimmer, and once back on the beach, he realized that being in the water cooled him off a great deal. What form of heat transfer contributed to his feeling cooler? A) convection B) radiation C) conduction D) evaporation Answer: A Learning Outcome: 23.19 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 80) Of all the energy released in catabolism, about surrounding tissues. A) 10 B) 20 C) 40 D) 60 E) 80 Answer: D Learning Outcome: 23.19 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

percent is lost as heat warms the

81) Water from the alveolar surfaces of the lungs and from the skin surface is lost in what mechanism of heat balance? A) conduction B) convection C) sensible perspiration D) insensible perspiration Answer: D Learning Outcome: 23.19 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

82) The area of the brain that regulates body temperature is the A) medulla oblongata. B) pineal gland. C) hypothalamus. D) cerebral cortex. E) pons. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 23.20 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 83) All of these are responses or processes controlled by the heat-gain center except A) nonshivering thermogenesis. B) vasoconstriction. C) the countercurrent mechanism. D) increased respiration depth. E) hunter's response. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 23.20 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 84) Compare catabolism and anabolism. (Module 23.1A) A) Catabolism is the breakdown of large molecules into smaller ones, whereas anabolism is buildup of large molecules from smaller building blocks. B) Catabolism is the buildup of large molecules from smaller building blocks, whereas anabolism is the breakdown of large molecules into smaller ones. C) Catabolism is the sum of all chemical reactions in the body, whereas anabolism is the sum of the chemical reactions in an individual cell. D) Catabolism is the sum of the chemical reactions in an individual cell, whereas anabolism is the sum of all chemical reactions in the body. E) Catabolism uses ATP, whereas anabolism generate ATP. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 23.1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 85) Explain the process of metabolic turnover. (Module 23.1B) A) When glucose is converted into glycogen in the liver. B) When glycogen is broken down into glucose. C) When amino acid pools are formed. D) When cells continuously replace cellular components. E) When ATP is regenerated from ADP and inorganic phosphate. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 23.1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

86) List the reactants required and products generated by mitochondria. (Module 23.2A) A) reactants: 2 carbon substrates and O2, and ATP; products: CO2 and H2O B) reactants: 2 carbon substrates and O2; products: CO2, H2O, and ATP C) reactants: CO2, H2O, and ATP; products: 2 carbon substrates and O2 D) reactants: CO2 and H2O; products: 2 carbon substrates, O2, and ATP E) reactants: 2 carbon substrates, CO2, and H2O; products: 4 carbon substrates, O2, and ATP Answer: B Learning Outcome: 23.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 87) List the products of glycolysis. (Module 23.3A) A) 2 molecules of pyruvate, 4 molecules of ATP, 4 molecules of NADH B) 2 molecules of pyruvate, 2 molecules of ATP, 4 molecules of NADH C) 2 molecules of pyruvate, 2 molecules of ATP, 2 molecules of NADH D) 1 molecule of pyruvate, 2 molecules of ATP, 2 molecules of NADH E) 2 molecules of pyruvate, 2 molecules of ADP, 4 molecules of NADH Answer: C Learning Outcome: 23.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 88) Briefly describe the citric acid cycle, and explain its role. (Module 23.4A) A) The breakdown of glucose into pyruvate to provide ATP for the cell. B) The conversion of pyruvate into acetyl-CoA to allow it to enter the mitochondrial matrix. C) The regeneration of ATP from ADP to provide high energy molecules to fuel cellular activities. D) To establish the proton gradient used to make ATP. E) The breakdown of organic molecules to release hydrogen atoms bound to coenzymes that can enter the electron transport chain. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 23.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 89) What molecule forms the common substrate for the citric acid cycle? (Module 23.4.B) A) NAD B) FAD C) glucose D) acetate ion E) pyruvate Answer: D Learning Outcome: 23.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

90) What two coenzymes transfer hydrogen atoms to the electron transport chain? (Module 23.4C) A) pyruvate and acetyl CoA B) NAD and FAD C) ADP and GDP D) ATP and GTP E) NADP and FAD Answer: B Learning Outcome: 23.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 91) Define oxidative phosphorylation. (Module 23.5A) A) The generation of ATP by adding a phosphate group to ADP in the absence of oxygen. B) The generation of ATP by adding a phosphate group to ADP in the presence of oxygen. C) The generation of ATP through glycolysis. D) The generation of ATP through the transfer of electrons from coenzymes to oxygen. E) The generation of ATP through the transfer of electrons from oxygen to coenzymes. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 23.5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 92) Compare oxidation and reduction. (Module 23.5B) A) Oxidation is the gain of oxygen, or loss of hydrogen or electrons, whereas reduction is the loss of oxygen, or the gain of hydrogen or electrons. B) Oxidation is the loss of oxygen, or the gain of hydrogen or electrons, whereas reduction is gain of oxygen, or loss of hydrogen or electrons. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 23.5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 93) Describe the role that hydrogen ion channels play in the generation of ATP. (Module 23.5C) A) They allow hydrogen ions to diffuse into the intermembrane space to power ATP synthase. B) They allow hydrogen ions to diffuse from the intermembrane space into the matrix to power ATP synthase. C) They allow hydrogen ions and electrons to pass from one cytochrome to another along the chain. D) They act as cytochromes in the electron transport chain. E) They allow oxygen to diffuse into the mitochondrial matrix. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 23.5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

94) Identify when most of the CO2 is released during the complete catabolism of glucose. (Module 23.6A) A) glycolysis B) preparatory step C) citric acid cycle D) Calvin cycle E) electron transport chain Answer: C Learning Outcome: 23.6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 95) Explain when glycolysis is important in cellular metabolism. (Module 23.6B) A) When glucose is only fuel source. B) When beta-oxidation no longer produces sufficient ATP to fuel the cellular metabolism. C) When gluconeogenesis has decreased then glycolysis becomes important. D) When ATP must be produced aerobically. E) When ATP must be produced anaerobically. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 23.6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 96) Compare glycogenesis and glycogenolysis. (Module 23.7A) A) Glycogenesis is the formation of glucose from non-carbohydrates. Glycogenolysis is the formation of non-carbohydrates from glucose. B) Glycogenesis is the formation of non-carbohydrates from glucose. Glycogenolysis is the formation of glucose from non-carbohydrates. C) Glycogenesis is the breakdown of glycogen to glucose. Glycogenolysis is the formation of glycogen from glucose. D) Glycogenesis is the formation of glycogen from glucose. Glycogenolysis is the breakdown of glycogen to glucose. E) Glycogenesis is the formation of glycogen from non-carbohydrates. Glycogenolysis is the breakdown of non-carbohydrates into glycogen. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 23.7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

97) Why do cells make new compounds? (Module 23.7B) A) to break them down into smaller compounds which liberates greater amounts of ATP B) new compounds contain more high energy bonds that can be used by the cell to fuel cellular metabolism C) new compounds are used to maintain and repair structures, support growth, and store nutrient reserves D) making new compounds generates heat which can be used to maintain body temperature E) making new compounds ensures that only one nutrient source is used by metabolic pathways to generate ATP Answer: C Learning Outcome: 23.7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 98) Where does most nutrient absorption occur? (Module 23.8B) A) in the mouth B) in the stomach, primarily in the body C) in the small intestine, primarily in the jejunum D) in the large intestine, primarily in the cecum E) in the large intestine, primarily in the transverse colon Answer: C Learning Outcome: 23.8 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 99) Most of the absorbed nutrients enter into which blood vessel? (Module 23.8C) A) aorta B) superior mesenteric artery C) hepatic artery D) hepatic portal vein E) inferior vena cava Answer: D Learning Outcome: 23.8 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 100) Describe the source of intestinal gas. (Module 23.9A) A) churning of food in the stomach increases the carbon dioxide that is mixed into the chyme B) bacterial metabolism of indigestible carbohydrates in the colon C) swallowing excess air during eating generates pockets of air that remain in the food D) as certain foods are broken down they release trapped gases E) as bile emulsifies lipids some gas is released in the process Answer: B Learning Outcome: 23.9 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

101) Explain the role of glycogen in cellular metabolism. (Module 23.9B) A) It is the primary fuel that enters glycolysis. B) It is the primary fuel that enters the citric acid cycle. C) It is the primary fuel that enters the electron transport chain. D) It serves as an intracellular glucose reserve. E) It can easily be converted to other non-carbohydrate fuel sources. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 23.9 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 102) Explain why carbohydrates are preferred over proteins and lipids as an energy source. (Module 23.9C) A) Carbohydrates yield more energy than proteins and lipids. B) Carbohydrates travel easier through the blood than proteins and lipids. C) Carbohydrates can be stored and proteins and lipids cannot. D) Proteins and lipids are rarer in food than carbohydrates. E) Proteins and lipids are more important as structural components of cells and tissues. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 23.9 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 103) What is the difference between a micelle and a chylomicron? (Module 23.10A) A) Micelles are lipid-bile salt complexes, whereas chylomicrons are lipoproteins. B) Micelles are lipoproteins, whereas chylomicrons are lipid-bile salt complexes. C) Micelles are found only in adipocytes, whereas chylomicrons are found in the bloodstream. D) Micelles are produced in the liver, whereas chylomicrons are produced in the intestinal lumen. E) Micelles are also known as high-density lipoproteins, whereas chylomicrons are also known as low-density lipoproteins. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 23.10 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 104) Describe the roles of LDLs and HDLs. (Module 23.10C) A) LDLs deliver bile to the small intestine and HDLs absorb unused bile and return it to the liver. B) LDLs absorb unused bile and return it to the liver and LDLs deliver bile to the small intestine. C) LDLs deliver cholesterol to tissues and HDLs absorb unused cholesterol and return it to the liver. D) LDLs absorb unused cholesterol and return it to the liver and HDLs deliver cholesterol to tissues. E) LDLs deliver excess cholesterol to adipocytes and HDLs remove excess cholesterol from adipocytes. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 23.10 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 27

105) Define beta-oxidation. (Module 23.11A) A) glucose catabolism B) glycogen catabolism C) fatty acid catabolism D) fatty acid anabolism E) glucose anabolism Answer: C Learning Outcome: 23.11 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 106) Which molecule is a key reactant in both ATP production from fatty acids and lipogenesis? (Module 23.11B) A) glucose B) acetyl-CoA C) pyruvate D) triglycerides E) glycerol Answer: B Learning Outcome: 23.11 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 107) Identify the fates of fatty acids. (Module 23.11C) A) Fatty acids may become a fuel source or a component of glycogen, glucose, and glycolipids. B) Fatty acids may become LDLs, HDLs, or VLDLs. C) Fatty acids may directly enter glycolysis, citric acid cycle, and the electron transport chain to generate ATP. D) Fatty acids may become a fuel source or a component of proteins and nucleic acids. E) Fatty acids may become a fuel source or a component of triglycerides, glycolipids, phospholipids, prostaglandins, cholesterol, and steroids. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 23.11 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 108) In amino acid metabolism, identify the processes by which the amino group is removed. (Module 23.12B) A) urea cycle or amination B) citric acid cycle or urea cycle C) amination or deamination D) transamination or deamination E) proteolysis or beta-oxidation Answer: D Learning Outcome: 23.12 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

109) What happens to the ammonium ions that are removed from amino acids during deamination? (Module 23.12C) A) they combine with pyruvate and enter the citric acid cycle B) they combine with CO2 and enter the urea cycle C) they combine with fatty acids and enter beta-oxidation D) they are removed directly by the kidneys E) they combine with CO2 and are exhaled Answer: B Learning Outcome: 23.12 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 110) Define and describe the absorptive state. (Module 23.13A) A) It is the time before a meal when nutrient absorption is occurring, insulin is stimulating glucose uptake, glycogenesis, amino acid uptake, and protein synthesis. B) It is the time after a meal when nutrient absorption is occurring, insulin is stimulating glucose uptake, glycogenesis, amino acid uptake, and protein synthesis. C) It is the time before a meal when nutrient absorption is not under way and energy reserves are being used to meet energy demand. D) It is the time after a meal when nutrient absorption is not under way and energy reserves are being used to meet energy demand. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 23.13 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 111) When and how do ketone bodies form? (Module 23.13B) A) during the absorptive state when carbohydrates are broken down by the liver B) during the postabsorptive state when carbohydrates are broken down by the liver C) during the absorptive state when lipids and amino acids are broken down by the liver D) during the postabsorptive state when lipids and amino acids are broken down by the liver E) during the postabsorptive state when glucose is being converted to glycerol and amino acids Answer: D Learning Outcome: 23.13 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 112) How do the absorptive and postabsorptive states maintain normal blood glucose levels? (Module 23.13C) A) During the absorptive state, insulin stimulates glucose uptake by cells and during the postabsorptive state, glucagon stimulates the breakdown of glycogen to form glucose. B) During the absorptive state, glucagon stimulates glucose uptake by cells and during the postabsorptive state, insulin stimulates the breakdown of glycogen to form glucose. C) During the absorptive state, insulin stimulates the breakdown of glycogen to form glucose and during the postabsorptive state, glucagon stimulates glucose uptake by cells. D) During the absorptive state, glucagon stimulates the breakdown of glycogen to form glucose and during the postabsorptive state, insulin stimulates glucose uptake by cells. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 23.13 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 29

113) Define nutrition. (Module 23.14A) A) ingestion of food B) digestion of food C) absorption of nutrients from food D) storage of nutrients from food E) elimination of nutrients from food Answer: C Learning Outcome: 23.14 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 114) Identify the two classes of vitamins. (Module 23.14B) A) essential and non-essential B) fat-soluble and water-soluble C) dietary and non-dietary D) natural and synthetic E) complete and incomplete Answer: B Learning Outcome: 23.14 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 115) If vitamins do not provide a source of energy, what is their role in nutrition? (Module 23.14C) A) they serve as plasma membrane constituents B) they are chemical messengers C) they increase absorption of nutrients D) they absorb excess toxins E) they serve as coenzymes in metabolic pathways Answer: E Learning Outcome: 23.14 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 116) Define balanced diet. (Module 23.15A) A) A balanced diet contains all of the nutrients needed to maintain homeostasis and prevent malnutrition. B) A balanced diet contains equal amounts of carbohydrates, proteins, and lipids. C) A balanced diet contains equal amounts of fat-soluble and water-soluble vitamins. D) A balanced diet contains all of the nutrients needed for energy expenditure without any excess nutrients that would be stored. E) A balanced diet contains only healthy sources of carbohydrates, proteins, and lipids. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 23.15 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

117) Of these — carbohydrates, lipids, or proteins — which releases the greatest amount of energy per gram during catabolism? (Module 23.15C) A) carbohydrates B) lipids C) proteins D) carbohydrates, lipids, and proteins all release the same amount of energy Answer: B Learning Outcome: 23.15 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 118) Briefly describe phenylketonuria (PKU). (Module 23.16B) A) PKU is the accumulation of uric acid crystals due to an inability to catabolize purines. B) PKU is the accumulation of ketone bodies due to the breakdown of fatty acids and amino acids. C) PKU is an inherited metabolic disorder resulting from an inability to convert phenylalanine to tyrosine. D) PKU occurs as a result of inadequate protein intake. E) PKU is an eating disorder that involves excessive food consumption followed by purging. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 23.16 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 119) Define protein deficiency disease, and cite an example. (Module 23.16C) A) Protein deficiency diseases are nutritional disorders resulting from a lack of one or more essential amino acids and PKU is an example. B) Protein deficiency diseases are nutritional disorders resulting from a lack of one or more nonessential amino acids and PKU is an example. C) Protein deficiency diseases are nutritional disorders resulting from a lack of one or more essential amino acids and gout is an example. D) Protein deficiency diseases are nutritional disorders resulting from a lack of one or more essential amino acids and ketoacidosis is an example. E) Protein deficiency diseases are nutritional disorders resulting from a lack of one or more essential amino acids and kwashiorkor is an example. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 23.16 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 120) Define energetics. (Module 23.17A) A) Energetics is how much energy is derived from food. B) Energetics is the study of the flow of energy and its change from one form to another. C) Energetics is the force generated by muscular contractions. D) Energetics is the sum of all the energy created by nutrient breakdown in the body. E) Energetics is the balance of food intake with energy expenditure. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 23.17 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 31

121) What is basal metabolic rate? (Module 23.17B) A) the minimum resting energy expenditure of an awake, alert person B) the minimum resting energy expenditure of a sleeping person C) the maximum energy expenditure during exercise of an average person D) the maximum energy expenditure during exercise of an athlete E) the amount of heat generated by an awake, alert person Answer: A Learning Outcome: 23.17 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 122) Define thermoregulation. (Module 23.17C) A) the study of the flow of energy B) the homeostatic control of energy expenditure C) the homeostatic control of energy intake D) the homeostatic control of body temperature E) the study of thermodynamics Answer: D Learning Outcome: 23.17 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 123) Which hormone inhibits the satiety center and stimulates appetite in the short term? (Module 23.18A) A) Leptin B) Insulin C) Ghrelin D) Glucagon E) Neuropeptide Y Answer: C Learning Outcome: 23.18 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 124) Describe leptin and its effect on appetite. (Module 23.18B) A) Leptin is a peptide hormone produced by adipose tissues during the synthesis of triglycerides and it signals satiety. B) Leptin is a neurotransmitter that increases appetite. C) Leptin is a hormone released by the gastric mucosa that stimulates appetite. D) Leptin is a hormone released by the pancreas that suppresses appetite. E) Leptin is steroid hormone produced by adipose tissues during the breakdown of triglycerides and it stimulates appetite. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 23.18 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

125) How might a lack of neuropeptide Y in the hypothalamus affect the control of appetite? (Module 23.18C) A) The appetite would likely increase. B) The appetite would likely decrease. C) The appetite is unlikely to change because neuropeptide Y is not involved in appetite regulation. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 23.18 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 126) Define insensible perspiration. (Module 23.19A) A) The loss of water by radiation. B) The loss of water as cool air moves across the surface of the body. C) The loss of water by direct transfer of energy through physical contact. D) The loss of water by evaporation from the skin and alveolar surfaces of the lungs. E) The loss of water by evaporation from sweat glands. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 23.19 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 127) What heat transfer process accounts for about one-half of a person's heat loss when indoors? (Module 23.19B) A) radiation B) sensible perspiration C) insensible perspiration D) convection E) conduction Answer: A Learning Outcome: 23.19 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 128) How is heat loss different between conduction and convection? (Module 23.19C) A) Conduction is the loss of heat by evaporation from the skin and convection is the loss of heat by evaporation from the alveolar surfaces of the lungs. B) Conduction is the loss of heat by evaporation from sweat glands and convection is the loss of heat by evaporation from the skin. C) Conduction involves radiation, whereas convection involves evaporation. D) Conduction involves heat loss as cooler air moves across the surface of the body and convection is the direct transfer of energy through physical contact. E) Conduction is the direct transfer of energy through physical contact and convection involves heat loss as cooler air moves across the surface of the body. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 23.19 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

129) Predict the effect of peripheral vasodilation on a person's body temperature. (Module 23.20A) A) Body temperature would increase. B) Body temperature would decrease. C) Body temperature would stay the same. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 23.20 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 130) Describe the role of nonshivering thermogenesis in regulating body temperature. (Module 23.20B) A) Nonshivering thermogenesis involves the contractions of skeletal muscles to increase the generation of heat. B) Nonshivering thermogenesis involves the contraction of erector pili to retain heat. C) Nonshivering thermogenesis involves the release of hormones that increase cellular metabolic activity to generate heat. D) Nonshivering thermogenesis involves the activation of the parasympathetic nervous system to increase digestion to generate heat. E) Nonshivering thermogenesis involves vasoconstriction of blood vessels to reduce heat loss. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 23.20 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 131) Name the heat conservation mechanism that conducts heat form deep arteries to adjacent deep veins in the limbs. (Module 23.20C) A) vasomotor flow B) peripheral vasodilation C) nonshivering thermogenesis D) shivering thermogenesis E) countercurrent exchange Answer: E Learning Outcome: 23.20 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

Essay Questions 132) Why is the citric acid cycle called a cycle? What substances enter the cycle, and what substances leave it? Answer: The citric acid cycle reaction sequence is a cycle because the four-carbon starting compound (oxaloacetic acid) is regenerated at the end. Acetyl-CoA and oxaloacetic acid begin the cycle by combining to form citric acid, and then in a series of steps CO2, NADH, ATP, and FADH2 are released and oxaloacetic acid is regenerated to begin the cycle again. Learning Outcome: 23.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 133) Briefly outline the role of the liver in glucose metabolism. Answer: During the absorptive state, under insulin control, the liver takes in glucose and converts it to glycogen, the inert storage form. In the postabsorptive state, the liver releases glucose into the circulation to maintain homeostasis. The glucose comes from the glycogenolysis or gluconeogenesis. Additionally, the liver converts lactic acid released from skeletal muscle back into glucose. Epinephrine, growth hormone, glucagon, glucocorticoids, and other hormones trigger glucose release. Learning Outcome: 23.7, 23.9, 23.10 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 134) "Beans, beans, the musical fruit! The more you eat, the more you 'toot'!" Explain the reason why eating beans in particular causes intestinal gas. Answer: Intestinal enzymes do not alter indigestible carbohydrates such as cellulose, so they arrive in the colon virtually intact. These carbohydrates provide a reliable nutrient source for bacteria in the colon, whose metabolic activities generate small quantities of intestinal gas (flatus). Foods that contain large amounts of indigestible carbohydrates, like beans, stimulate bacterial gas production, leading to distension of the colon, cramps, and the frequent discharge of intestinal gases. Learning Outcome: 23.9 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 135) Ketosis develops in the postabsorptive state. What is ketosis? Why does it develop? What metabolic effects does it have? Answer: Ketosis is a high concentration of ketone bodies in body fluids. Ketone bodies are metabolites with the ketone group that form during starvation states. When glucose levels are low, the liver turns to fats and amino acids to make energy. This produces much acetyl-CoA, which leads to production of ketone bodies. Because most ketone bodies are acidic, they lower the pH of body fluids. If severe, the ketosis can injure the CNS, heart, and other organs. In extreme cases, death can result. Learning Outcome: 23.12, 23.13, 23.16 Bloom's Taxonomy: Analyzing

136) You are sitting by the pool in your bathing suit. There is no wind, and you feel quite warm. After a brief swim, you exit the pool to discover that someone stole your towel. Moreover, the wind is blowing, and you feel very cold. Compare and define the processes of heat loss from the skin that are occurring before and after your swim. Answer: Before the swim, heat is being lost from the skin by conduction, which is the transfer of heat from the skin to the surrounding air. After the swim, conduction is still occurring. The skin is wet; thus, evaporation of water will contribute to heat loss. The wind will cause more heat to be lost by convection, in which moving air carries additional heat away from the skin. Learning Outcome: 23.19 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 137) Explain the role of vasodilation and vasoconstriction in thermoregulation. Answer: In response to high body temperature, inhibition of the vasomotor center causes vasodilation of peripheral vessels, and warm blood flows to the surface of the body. Skin temperatures rise and radiational and convective losses increase, thereby reducing body temperature. Conversely, in response to low body temperature, the vasomotor center decreases blood flow to the dermis, the skin cools, thereby reducing losses by radiation and convection. Learning Outcome: 23.20 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 138) Why is digestion important? (Module 23.8A) Answer: Digestion is important because cells throughout the body rely on the organic molecules we eat to produce energy and to replenish the intracellular nutrient pool. Learning Outcome: 23.8 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 139) What does the liver do with the chylomicrons it receives? (Module 23.10B) Answer: The liver absorbs chylomicrons, removes the triglycerides, combines the cholesterol from the chylomicron with recycled cholesterol, and alters the surface proteins. Newly synthesized complexes are released into the bloodstream as low-density lipoproteins (LDL) or very low density lipoproteins (VLDLs). Learning Outcome: 23.10 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 140) Describe the role of CCK release and its effects on proteins. (Module 23.12A) Answer: The arrival of acidic chyme in the duodenum triggers the release of CCK, which stimulates the production and release of inactive pancreatic proenzymes. Enteropeptidase, released from the duodenum, converts the pancreatic proenzyme trypsinogen into the proteolytic enzyme trypsin. Trypsin then converts other proenzymes to yield chymotrypsin, carboxypeptidase, and elastase. Each of these enzymes attacks peptide bonds that link specific amino acids while ignoring others. As a result, they break down proteins into a mixture of dipeptides, tripeptides, and amino acids. Learning Outcome: 23.12 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

141) Distinguish between a complete protein and an incomplete protein. (Module 23.15B) Answer: A complete protein meets the body's amino acid requirements; an incomplete protein is deficient in one or more of the essential amino acids. Learning Outcome: 23.15 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 142) Identify and briefly define two eating disorders. (Module 23.16A) Answer: Eating disorders are psychological problems that result in inadequate food consumption (anorexia nervosa) or excessive food consumption followed by purging (bulimia). Learning Outcome: 23.16 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

Visual Anatomy and Physiology, 3e (Martini) Chapter 24 The Urinary System Multiple Choice Questions 1) Which of the following is not a function of the urinary system? A) excretes abundant protein molecules B) regulates blood volume C) contributes to stabilizing blood pH D) eliminates organic waste products E) regulates plasma concentrations of electrolytes Answer: A Learning Outcome: 24.1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 2) Put the following urinary structures in order as urine is produced and eliminated from the body 1) liver. 2) urinary bladder. 3) kidney. 4) ureter. 5) urethra. A) 1,3,2,4,5 B) 3,1,4,2,5 C) 3,5,2,4 D) 2,1,3,4,5 E) 3,4,2,5 Answer: E Learning Outcome: 24.1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 3) Urine is carried to the urinary bladder by A) blood vessels. B) lymphatics. C) the ureters. D) the urethra. E) the calyces. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 24.1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

4) Each of the following organs is part of the urinary system except the A) kidney. B) urinary bladder. C) adrenal glands. D) ureter. E) urethra. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 24.1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 5) Typical renal blood flow is about conditions. A) 5 B) 10 C) 25 D) 40 E) 50 Answer: C Learning Outcome: 24.1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

percent of cardiac output under resting

6) Urine is temporarily stored in the A) prostate gland. B) renal pelvis. C) gallbladder. D) urinary bladder. E) kidneys. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 24.1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 7) All of the following are true of the kidneys except that they are A) located in a position that is retroperitoneal. B) surrounded by a fibrous capsule. C) located partly within the pelvic cavity. D) held in place by the renal fascia. E) covered by peritoneum. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 24.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

8) The prominent indentation on the medial surface of the kidney is the A) calyx. B) pelvis. C) ureter. D) hilum. E) pyramid. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 24.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 9) The left kidney lies to the right kidney. A) slightly inferior B) slightly superior C) slightly posterior D) slightly transverse E) slightly ipsilateral Answer: B Learning Outcome: 24.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 10) From deep to superficial, put the following layers of the kidney in order: 1) renal capsule 2) perinephric fat 3) cortex 4) renal fascia A) 1, 2, 3, 4 B) 3, 1, 4, 2 C) 3, 4, 1, 2 D) 3, 1, 2, 4 E) 4, 2, 1, 3 Answer: D Learning Outcome: 24.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 11) The renal sinus is A) the innermost layer of kidney tissue. B) part of a renal pyramid. C) an internal cavity lined by the fibrous capsule. D) a large branch of the renal pelvis. E) a renal corpuscle. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 24.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

12) The outermost layer of the kidney is the A) renal cortex. B) renal medulla. C) major calyx. D) fibrous capsule. E) renal pelvis. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 24.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 13) The cavity of the kidney that receives urine from the calyces is called the A) renal papilla. B) renal pelvis. C) renal medulla. D) renal cortex. E) renal sinus. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 24.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 14) Triangular or conical structures located in the renal medulla are called A) renal pyramids. B) renal columns. C) renal pelvises. D) nephrons. E) calyces. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 24.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 15) Put the following urinary structures in order to represent the flow of newly produced urine: 1) minor calyx 2) renal pelvis 3) ureter 4) major calyx 5) renal papilla A) 5,4,1,2,3 B) 5,1,4,2,3 C) 3,2,4,1,5 D) 3,1,4,5,2 E) 1,4,2,3,5 Answer: B Learning Outcome: 24.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

16) Renal columns are A) internal cavities lined by the fibrous capsule. B) expanded ends of the ureters. C) the basic functional units of the kidney. D) bundles of tissue that extend between pyramids from the cortex. E) conical structures that are located in the renal medulla. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 24.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 17) The expanded beginning of the ureter connects to the A) renal sinus. B) renal pelvis. C) renal calyx. D) renal hilum. E) renal corpuscle. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 24.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 18) Major calyces are A) large tributaries of the renal pelvis. B) expanded ends of nephrons. C) basic functional layers of the kidney. D) conical structures that are located in the renal medulla. E) the expanded ends of renal pyramids. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 24.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 19) Which of the following descriptions best matches the term "renal papilla"? A) releases renin B) granular tissue separating renal pyramids C) final urine enters here D) initial filtrate enters here E) tip of the medullary pyramid Answer: E Learning Outcome: 24.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

20) Which of the following descriptions best matches the term calyx? A) releases renin B) superficial portion of the kidney C) final urine enters here D) initial filtrate enters here E) tip of the medullary pyramid Answer: C Learning Outcome: 24.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

Figure 24-1 21) Identify the structure labeled "9." A) renal pelvis B) minor calyx C) ureter D) major calyx E) renal column Answer: A Learning Outcome: 24.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 6

22) Identify the structure labeled "6." A) renal pelvis B) minor calyx C) ureter D) major calyx E) renal column Answer: E Learning Outcome: 24.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 23) Identify the structure labeled "8." A) renal sinus B) fibrous capsule C) renal pyramid D) renal papilla E) renal column Answer: D Learning Outcome: 24.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 24) Identify the structure labeled "5." A) renal sinus B) fibrous capsule C) renal pyramid D) renal papilla E) renal column Answer: C Learning Outcome: 24.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 25) The U-shaped segment of the nephron is the A) nephron loop. B) proximal convoluted tubule. C) distal convoluted tubule. D) collecting loop. E) minor calyx. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 24.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

26) The functional unit of the kidney is the A) calyx. B) nephron. C) collecting duct. D) kidney lobe. E) renal sinus. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 24.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 27) Eighty-five percent of nephrons in the human kidney are located in the short nephron loops. A) medulla B) cortex C) fibrous capsule D) renal columns E) renal pelvis Answer: B Learning Outcome: 24.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

and have

28) Nephrons located close to the medulla with long nephron loops are called A) calyces. B) columnar nephrons. C) cortical nephrons. D) perimedullary nephrons. E) juxtamedullary nephrons. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 24.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 29) nephrons are essential to water conservation and the production of concentrated urine. A) Cortical B) Juxtamedullary C) Both Cortical and Juxtamedullary nephrons D) Neither Cortical nor Juxtamedullary nephrons, as only collecting tubules conserve water. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 24.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

30) The glomerular capsule and the glomerulus make up the A) renal pyramid. B) nephron loop. C) renal corpuscle. D) renal papilla. E) collecting tubule system. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 24.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 31) A glomerulus is A) the expanded end of a nephron. B) a knot of capillaries within the renal corpuscle. C) the middle segment of the renal tubule. D) attached to the collecting duct. E) the horseshoe-shaped segment of the nephron. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 24.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 32) The filtrate first passes from the glomerular capsule to the A) nephron loop. B) proximal convoluted tubule. C) distal convoluted tubule. D) collecting duct. E) minor calyx. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 24.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 33) The portion of the nephron that empties into the collecting duct is the A) nephron loop. B) proximal convoluted tubule. C) distal convoluted tubule. D) papillary tubule. E) calyx. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 24.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

34) The primary function of the proximal convoluted tubule is A) filtration. B) reabsorbing nutrients. C) secretion of acids and ammonia. D) secretion of drugs. E) adjusting the urine volume. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 24.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 35) The delivers urine to a minor calyx. A) nephron loop B) distal convoluted tubule C) papillary duct D) renal corpuscle E) ureter Answer: C Learning Outcome: 24.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 36) The process of filtration occurs at the A) proximal convoluted tubule. B) distal convoluted tubule. C) collecting duct. D) nephron loop. E) glomerulus. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 24.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

Figure 24-1 37) Which of the following is not found in the area labeled "3." A) glomeruli B) proximal convoluted tubules C) vasa recta D) distal convoluted tubules E) peritubular capillaries Answer: C Learning Outcome: 24.5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 38) The efferent arteriole of a nephron divides to form a network of capillaries within the cortex called the capillaries. A) peritubular B) glomerular C) vasa recta D) cortical E) efferent Answer: A Learning Outcome: 24.5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 11

39) Blood leaves the glomerulus through a blood vessel called the A) afferent arteriole. B) efferent arteriole. C) vasa recta. D) cortical radiate artery. E) renal vein. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 24.5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 40) The following is a list of the blood vessels that carry blood to the kidney. 1. afferent arteriole 2. arcuate artery 3. interlobar artery 4. renal artery 5. glomerulus 6. cortical radiate artery 7. efferent arteriole 8. peritubular capillary What is the proper order in which blood passes through these vessels? A) 4, 6, 2, 3, 1, 5, 7, 8 B) 4, 3, 2, 6, 1, 5, 7, 8 C) 4, 3, 2, 6, 7, 5, 1, 8 D) 4, 6, 2, 3, 7, 5, 1, 8 E) 4, 3, 6, 2, 1, 5, 7, 8 Answer: B Learning Outcome: 24.5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 41) The is a capillary plexus that parallels the nephron loop. A) vasa recta B) lamina propria C) trigone D) renal corpuscle E) glomerulus Answer: A Learning Outcome: 24.5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

42) The afferent arteriole in the kidney A) is also known as the descending limb of the nephron loop. B) empties directly into the calyx of the medulla. C) carries blood to the glomerulus. D) carries blood from glomerular capsule to the nephron loop. E) returns blood to the inferior vena cava. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 24.5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 43) Each of the following is a normal constituent of urine except A) hydrogen ions. B) urea. C) proteins. D) uric acid. E) creatinine. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 24.6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 44) Which of the following substances is not secreted A) hydrogen. B) penicillin. C) creatinine. D) potassium ions. E) glucose. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 24.6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 45) The most abundant waste solute in urine is A) potassium. B) urea. C) uric acid. D) protein. E) creatinine. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 24.6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

46) Regarding kidney function, in , solutes are transported from the peritubular fluid across the tubular epithelium and into the tubular fluid. A) filtration B) reabsorption C) secretion D) both reabsorption and secretion E) filtration, reabsorption and secretion Answer: C Learning Outcome: 24.6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 47) Regarding kidney function, in reabsorption, A) solutes enter the tubular fluid after exiting the peritubular fluid and crossing the tubular epithelium. B) water and solutes are transported from the tubular fluid, across the tubular, epithelium, and into the peritubular fluid. C) blood pressure forces water and solutes across the membranes of the glomerular capillaries and into the capsular space. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 24.6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 48) Approximately liters of glomerular filtrate enter glomerular capsules each day. A) 480 B) 180 C) 125 D) 18 E) 1.8 Answer: B Learning Outcome: 24.7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

Figure 24-2 49) What physiological process occurs at the structure labeled "2"? A) reabsorption B) excretion C) secretion D) filtration E) micturition Answer: D Learning Outcome: 24.7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

50) Where does most nutrient reabsorption occur? A) 2 B) 1 C) 4 D) 5 E) 6 Answer: B Learning Outcome: 24.7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 51) Which structure is the collecting duct? A) 1 B) 3 C) 4 D) 5 E) 6 Answer: E Learning Outcome: 24.7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 52) The filtration membrane in the renal corpuscle consists of what three layers? A) filtration slits, foot processes, and slit pores B) fenestrations, matrix, and foot processes C) endothelium of glomerulus, dense layer of glomerulus, and podocyte filtration slits D) dense layer of glomerulus, foot processes, and fenestrations in the capsule E) podocyte filtration slits, matrix cells in the glomerulus, and endothelium of glomerulus Answer: C Learning Outcome: 24.8 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 53) The structure known as the juxtaglomerular complex is located near the A) proximal convoluted tubule. B) glomerulus. C) collecting duct. D) nephron loop. E) renal papilla. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 24.8 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

54) Substances larger than do not pass through the filtration membrane. A) sodium ions B) glucose C) albumin D) amino acids E) urea Answer: C Learning Outcome: 24.8 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 55) The process of filtration is driven by A) active transport. B) blood colloid osmotic pressure. C) glomerular hydrostatic pressure. D) renal pumping. E) net filtration pressure. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 24.8 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 56) Under normal conditions, glomerular filtration depends on three main pressures. Which of those pressures is a pressure that favors the filtration pressure? A) glomerular hydrostatic pressure B) capsular hydrostatic pressure C) capsular colloid osmotic pressure D) blood colloid osmotic pressure E) urinary bladder hydrostatic pressure Answer: A Learning Outcome: 24.8 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 57) Which of the following formulas will allow you to calculate the net filtration pressure (FP)? (Hint: GHP = glomerular hydrostatic pressure, BCOP = blood colloidal osmotic pressure, CsHP = capsular hydrostatic pressure.) A) FP = GHP + CsHP - BCOP B) FP = GHP - (CsHP + BCOP) C) FP = CsHP + GHP - BCOP D) FP = BCOP - GHP + CsHP E) FP = BCOP + (GHP - CsHP) Answer: B Learning Outcome: 24.8 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

58) Autoregulation of the rate of glomerular filtration does not depend on A) changes in the afferent arteriole. B) changes in the mesangial cells. C) changes in the efferent arteriole. D) release of renin by the juxtaglomerular complex. E) None of the answers is correct. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 24.9 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 59) One mechanism the kidney uses to raise systemic blood pressure is to A) increase secretion of renin by the juxtaglomerular complex. B) decrease secretion of aldosterone. C) increase release of angiotensin II by the suprarenal glands. D) increase filtration into glomerular (Bowman's) capsule. E) decrease urinary albumin concentration. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 24.9 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 60) Increased sympathetic tone can do all of the following except A) produce venoconstriction of blood reservoirs. B) increase the glomerular filtration rate. C) increase cardiac output. D) stimulate peripheral vasoconstriction. E) increase systemic blood pressure. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 24.9 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 61) As the filtrate passes through the renal tubules, approximately what percentage is reabsorbed and returned to the circulation? A) 1 B) 38 C) 63 D) 74 E) 99 Answer: E Learning Outcome: 24.9 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

62) The amount of filtrate produced by the kidneys each minute is called the A) corpuscular output. B) autoregulation capacity. C) filtration ratio. D) net filtration pressure. E) glomerular filtration rate. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 24.9 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 63) Tubular reabsorption involves all of the following except A) active transport. B) facilitated diffusion. C) secondary active transport. D) osmosis. E) phagocytosis. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 24.10 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 64) What percentage of nutrients (glucose, amino acids, etc.) is reabsorbed in the PCT? A) 25 B) 50 C) 75 D) 90 E) 99 Answer: E Learning Outcome: 24.10 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 65) The DCT secretes hydrogen ions in exchange for sodium ions by the process of A) diffusion. B) facilitated diffusion. C) osmosis. D) cotransport. E) energy-dependent exchange pump. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 24.10 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

66) In response to increased levels of aldosterone, the kidneys produce A) a larger volume of urine. B) urine with a higher concentration of sodium ions. C) urine with a lower concentration of potassium ions. D) urine with a lower concentration of sodium ions. E) urine with less glucose. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 24.10 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 67) Countercurrent multiplication takes place in the A) collecting duct. B) distal convoluted tubule. C) nephron loop. D) glomerular capsule. E) glomerulus. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 24.11 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 68) Chloride ion is reabsorbed in the thick ascending limb by A) simple diffusion. B) facilitated diffusion. C) active transport. D) cotransport with Na ions. E) countertransport for bicarbonate ion. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 24.11 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 69) Which of the following descriptions does not describe a function of the nephron loop? A) relies on countercurrent multiplication B) creates high NaCl concentration in the renal medulla C) enables production of hypertonic urine D) enables production of hypotonic urine E) None of the answers is correct. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 24.11 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 70) Which of the following is greater? A) the concentration of solute in the filtrate at the beginning of the nephron loop B) the concentration of solute in the filtrate at the bottom of the nephron loop C) The concentrations at the top and bottom are identical. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 24.11 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 20

71) When the level of ADH (antidiuretic hormone) decreases, A) more urine is produced. B) less urine is produced. C) the osmolarity of the urine decreases. D) both more urine is produced and the osmolarity of the urine decreases. E) both less urine is produced and the osmolarity of the urine decreases. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 24.12 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 72) The ability to form concentrated urine depends on the functions of A) the proximal convoluted tubule. B) the distal convoluted tubule. C) the collecting duct. D) the nephron loop. E) both the distal convoluted tubule and the collecting duct. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 24.12 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 73) Antidiuretic hormone A) increases the permeability of the collecting ducts to water by increasing the number of aquaporins. B) is secreted in response to low potassium ion in the blood. C) causes the kidneys to produce a larger volume of very dilute urine. D) increases the permeability of the collecting ducts to water by decreasing the number of aquaporins. E) release is insensitive to the osmolarity of interstitial fluid. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 24.12 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 74) The mechanism for producing concentrated urine involves all of the following except A) the secretion of antidiuretic hormone (ADH). B) aquaporins being inserted into the membranes of the collecting duct cells. C) a high concentration of NaCl in the fluid surrounding the collecting ducts. D) a properly functioning nephron loop. E) the release of natriuretic peptides. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 24.12 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

75) A healthy adult typically produces A) 25 mL B) 250 mL C) 500 mL D) 1200 mL E) 2500 mL Answer: D Learning Outcome: 24.12 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

of urine per day.

76) A patient excretes a large volume of very dilute urine on a continuing basis. This is may be due to A) excessive ADH secretion. B) absence of ADH. C) hematuric oliguria. D) overproduction of aldosterone. E) dilation of the afferent arterioles. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 24.13 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 77) Which of the tubules is impermeable to water? A) proximal convoluted tubule B) descending limb of the nephron loop C) ascending limb of the nephron loop D) distal convoluted tubule E) None of the answers is correct. All of the tubules are water-permeable. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 24.13 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 78) At which point is the osmotic concentration of filtrate highest? A) as it leaves the glomerular capsule B) as it enters the proximal convoluted tubule C) as it enters the descending limb of the nephron loop D) at the deepest point of the nephron loop between the descending and ascending limbs of the nephron loop E) as it blends with tubular fluid in the distal convoluted tubule Answer: D Learning Outcome: 24.13 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

79) is/are an immediately life-threatening condition. However, if an individual survives the incident, full recovery is often possible. A) Acute renal failure B) Chronic renal failure C) Dysuria D) Prostate enlargement E) Kidney stones Answer: A Learning Outcome: 24.14 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 80) The inability of the kidneys to excrete adequately to maintain homeostasis is termed A) glomerulonephritis. B) polycystic kidney disease. C) calculi. D) renal failure. E) hematuria. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 24.14 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 81) Which of the following is characterized as a slowly progressing disease that is irreversible? A) acute renal failure B) chronic renal failure C) dysuria D) prostate enlargement E) kidney stones Answer: B Learning Outcome: 24.14 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 82) An X-ray image of the urinary system is called a A) urogram. B) renogram. C) nephrograph. D) pyelogram. E) pelvigram. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 24.15 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

83) All of the following structures are subject to a urinary tract infection except A) rugae. B) a urethra. C) a calyx. D) a trigone. E) ureteral openings. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 24.15 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 84) Urine passes, in the order given, through which of the following structures? A) collecting duct, renal pelvis, urethra, bladder, ureter B) renal pelvis, collecting duct, bladder, ureter, urethra C) collecting duct, renal pelvis, ureter, bladder, urethra D) renal pelvis, urethra, bladder, ureter, collecting duct E) collecting duct, ureter, renal pelvis, urethra, bladder Answer: C Learning Outcome: 24.16 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 85) The ureters and urinary bladder are lined by _ A) stratified squamous B) pseudostratified columnar C) simple cuboidal D) transitional E) simple columnar Answer: D Learning Outcome: 24.16 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

epithelium.

86) The detrusor muscle A) moves urine along the ureters by peristalsis. B) compresses the urinary bladder and expels urine through the urethra. C) functions as the internal urinary sphincter. D) functions as the external urinary sphincter. E) surrounds the renal pelvis. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 24.16 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

87) The area of the urinary bladder bounded by the openings of the two ureters and the urethra is called the A) trigone. B) rugae. C) vasa recta. D) detrusor muscle. E) lamina propria. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 24.16 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 88) Peristaltic contractions, beginning at the renal pelvis, sweep along the ureter, forcing urine toward the urinary bladder. In a normal, healthy person, how often do these contractions occur? A) 12-15 times a minute B) every 30 seconds or so C) once every minute D) every 2 minutes E) It is not known how often these contractions occur. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 24.16 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 89) In French, it's "faire de pipi," in Spanish, it's "hacer pipí," in English, it's "I have to pee." What's the medical term for this universal urge to pass urine? A) micturition B) defecation C) degustation D) mastication E) filtration Answer: A Learning Outcome: 24.17 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 90) During the micturition reflex, A) stimulation of stretch receptors in the bladder wall sends impulses to the lumbar spinal cord. B) sympathetic motor neurons that control the detrusor muscle become active. C) the internal sphincter is consciously relaxed. D) the external sphincter is unconsciously relaxed. E) None of the answers is correct. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 24.17 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

91) True or false? The micturition reflex is controlled by the parasympathetic nervous system. A) True B) False Answer: A Learning Outcome: 24.17 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 92) If you have to urinate, but have to "hold it" until you can find a bathroom, what structure are you "holding it" with? A) the internal anal sphincter B) the external urethral sphincter C) the internal urethral sphincter D) the trigone E) the pyloric sphincter Answer: B Learning Outcome: 24.17 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 93) The condition called is characterized by painful or difficult urination. This condition can be due to pathologic or benign causes. A) incontinence B) dysuria C) pyelonephritis D) renal calculi E) urinary retention Answer: B Learning Outcome: 24.18 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 94) The inability to urinate is termed A) incontinence. B) dysuria. C) oliguria. D) urinary retention. E) urgency. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 24.18 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

95) Which of the following connections is not true relating the urinary system and other body system? A) The urinary system works with the lymphatic and cardiovascular systems to regulate fluid levels in the body. B) The urinary system works with the nervous system to control the micturition reflex. C) The skeletal system, specifically the sacrum and coccyx, help protect the bladder. D) The endocrine, specifically the hypothalamus producing renin, acts on the kidneys to produce more urine. E) The muscular system, specifically the cremaster muscle and sphincters, helps with voiding the bladder. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 24.18 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 96) Name the major excretory organs of the urinary system. (Module 24.1A) A) kidneys B) ureters C) urinary bladder D) urethra E) adrenal gland Answer: A Learning Outcome: 24.1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 97) What structures enter and exit the kidney at the hilum? (Module 24.2A) A) the renal artery and ureter enter; the renal vein and the urethra exit at the hilum B) the renal vein and urethra enter; the renal artery and ureter exit at the hilum C) the renal artery and renal nerves enter; the renal vein and ureter exit at the hilum D) the renal artery and vein enter; the renal nerves exit at the hilum E) the renal artery and renal nerves enter; the renal vein and urethra exit at the hilum Answer: C Learning Outcome: 24.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 98) What would happen to a kidney's position if the perinephric fat layer were depleted and the collagen fibers of the fibrous capsule were to become detached? (Module 24.2C) A) The kidneys would be pulled anteriorly. B) The kidneys would be pulled posteriorly. C) The kidneys would be pulled medially. D) The kidneys would be pulled laterally. E) The kidneys would fall inferiorly. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 24.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying

99) Which structure is a conical mass within the renal medulla that ends at the papilla? (Module 24.3A) A) renal sinus B) renal cortex C) renal pyramid D) renal column E) minor calyx Answer: C Learning Outcome: 24.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 100) Compare the minor and major calyces. (Module 24.3B) A) The minor calyx is an internal cavity and the major calyx is an external cavity. B) The minor calyces are located in the renal cortex and the major calyces are located in the renal medulla. C) The minor calyces are located in the renal medulla and the major calyces are located in the renal cortex. D) The minor calyces collect urine from a single lobe and the major calyces collect urine from 45 minor calyces. E) The minor calyces collect urine from juxtamedullary nephrons and the major calyces collect urine from cortical nephrons. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 24.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 101) Which type of nephron is essential for water conservation and concentrated urine production? (Module 24.3C) A) juxtamedullary nephrons B) cortical nephrons C) medullary nephrons D) pyramidal nephrons E) pelvic nephrons Answer: A Learning Outcome: 24.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 102) Describe filtrate. (Module 24.4A) A) similar to blood plasma B) similar to blood plasma without proteins C) similar to blood plasma without proteins, hormones, glucose, and amino acids D) similar to cerebrospinal fluid E) similar to cerebrospinal fluid without proteins Answer: B Learning Outcome: 24.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

103) Identify the structures of the renal corpuscle. (Module 24.4B) A) glomerular capsule and the proximal convoluted tubule B) collecting duct and papillary duct C) glomerular capsule and glomerulus D) proximal convoluted tubule and distal convoluted tubule E) glomerular capsule and nephron loop Answer: C Learning Outcome: 24.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 104) Trace the pathway of blood from the renal artery to the renal vein. (Module 24.5A) A) renal artery, cortical radiate arteries, arcuate arteries, interlobar arteries, segmental arteries, afferent arterioles, glomerulus, interlobar veins, arcuate veins, cortical radiate veins, renal vein B) renal artery, segmental arteries, interlobar arteries, arcuate arteries, cortical radiate arteries, afferent arterioles, glomerulus, cortical radiate veins, arcuate veins, interlobar veins, renal vein C) renal artery, arcuate arteries, interlobar arteries, cortical radiate arteries, segmental arteries, afferent arterioles, glomerulus, interlobar veins, cortical radiate veins, arcuate veins, renal vein D) renal artery, afferent arterioles, glomerulus, segmental arteries, arcuate arteries, interlobar arteries, cortical radiate arteries, arcuate veins, cortical radiate veins, interlobar veins, renal vein E) renal artery, glomerulus, afferent arterioles, segmental arteries, arcuate arteries, interlobar arteries, cortical radiate arteries, cortical radiate veins, arcuate veins, interlobar veins, renal vein Answer: B Learning Outcome: 24.5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 105) Describe how blood enters and leaves the glomerulus. (Module 24.5B) A) Blood enters by the renal artery and leaves by the renal vein. B) Blood enters by the interlobar arteries and leaves by the interlobar veins. C) Blood enters by the segmental arteries and leaves by the segmental veins. D) Blood enters by the cortical radiate arteries and leaves by the cortical radiate veins. E) Blood enters by the afferent arteriole and leaves by the efferent arteriole. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 24.5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 106) Define the vasa recta. (Module 24.5C) A) The vasa recta contains sympathetic postganglionic fibers. B) The vasa recta contain the afferent and efferent arterioles. C) The vasa recta contain parasympathetic postganglionic fibers. D) The vasa recta are long, straight capillaries that that parallel the nephron loop. E) The vasa recta are capillaries that surround the entire renal tubule. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 24.5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

107) In which direction do fluids and solutes move in each of the three kidney processes? (Module 24.6A) A) During filtration, fluids move from the glomerular capillaries into the capsular space; during reabsorption, fluids move from the tubular fluid into the peritubular fluid; during secretion, fluids move from the peritubular fluid into the tubular fluid. B) During filtration, fluids move from the peritubular fluid into the tubular fluid; during reabsorption, fluids move from the tubular fluid into the peritubular fluid; during secretion, fluids move from the glomerular capillaries into the capsular space. C) During filtration, fluids move from the glomerular capillaries into the capsular space; during reabsorption, fluids move from the peritubular fluid into the tubular fluid; during secretion, fluids move from the tubular fluid into the peritubular fluid. D) During filtration, fluids move from the tubular fluid into the peritubular fluid; during reabsorption, fluids move from the peritubular fluid into the tubular fluid; during secretion, fluids move from the glomerular capillaries into the capsular space. E) During filtration, fluids move from the peritubular fluid into the tubular fluid; during reabsorption, fluids move from the glomerular capillaries into the capsular space; during secretion, fluids move from the tubular fluid into the peritubular fluid. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 24.6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 108) Identify the three distinct processes of urine formation in the kidney. (Module 24.7A) A) filtration, reabsorption, and excretion B) filtration, excretion, and secretion C) filtration, reabsorption, and secretion D) reabsorption, secretion, and excretion E) secretion, excretion, and elimination Answer: C Learning Outcome: 24.7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 109) Where does filtration exclusively occur in the kidney? (Module 24.7B) A) across the glomerular capsule into the proximal convoluted tubule B) across the filtration membrane in the renal corpuscle C) across the simple squamous cells of the loop of Henle D) across the proximal convoluted tubule into the peritubular capillaries E) across the nephron loop into the vasa recta Answer: B Learning Outcome: 24.7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

110) Which segment of the nephron is solely involved in the reabsorption of water and sodium and chloride ions? (Module 24.7C) A) glomerular capsule B) proximal convoluted tubule C) nephron loop D) distal convoluted tubule E) collecting duct Answer: C Learning Outcome: 24.7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 111) What three elements form the filtration membrane? (Module 24.8A) A) intraglomerular mesangial cells, afferent arteriole, and efferent arteriole B) visceral layer of the glomerular capsule, parietal layer of the glomerular capsule, and the macula densa C) macula densa, extraglomerular mesangial cells, juxtaglomerular cells D) glomerular capsule, fenestrated endothelium, and intraglomerular mesangial cells E) fenestrated endothelium, basement membrane, and foot processes of the podocyte Answer: E Learning Outcome: 24.8 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 112) Explain why blood pressure is higher in glomerular capillaries than in other systemic capillaries. (Module 24.8B) A) Blood pressure is higher in glomerular capillaries because the efferent arteriole drains into peritubular capillaries. B) Blood pressure is higher in glomerular capillaries because the distal convoluted tubule constricts the afferent arteriole. C) Blood pressure is higher in glomerular capillaries because the kidneys are in close proximity to the renal arteries. D) Blood pressure is higher in glomerular capillaries because less proteins enter the afferent arterioles. E) Blood pressure is higher in glomerular capillaries because the efferent arteriole has a smaller diameter than the afferent arteriole. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 24.8 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

113) Blood colloid osmotic pressure tends to draw water out of the filtrate and into the plasma. Why does this occur? (Module 24.8C) A) The solute concentration in the proximal convoluted tubule is higher than that of the distal convoluted tubule. B) The solute concentration in the blood exceeds that within the filtrate. C) The solute concentration in the filtrate exceeds that within the blood. D) The filtrate contains higher concentrations of protein than that within the blood. E) The filtrate contains higher numbers of red blood cells than that within the blood. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 24.8 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 114) Describe autoregulation at the kidneys. (Module 24.9A) A) Autoregulation is the process of maintaining GFR despite changes in local blood pressure and blood flow by releasing hormones that influence salt and water reabsorption in the kidney. B) Autoregulation is the process of maintaining GFR despite changes in local blood pressure and blood flow by activating the sympathetic nervous system. C) Autoregulation is the process of maintaining GFR despite changes in local blood pressure and blood flow by changing local responses in the kidney. D) Autoregulation is the process of maintaining GFR despite changes in local blood pressure and blood flow by activating the central nervous system. E) Autoregulation is the process of maintaining GFR despite changes in local blood pressure and blood flow by changing respiratory rate. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 24.9 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 115) What does the juxtaglomerular complex do in response to decreased filtration pressure? (Module 24.9B) A) It increases aldosterone production and release. B) It increases ADH production and release. C) It decreases ADH production and release. D) It increases renin production and release. E) It decreases renin production and release. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 24.9 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

116) Angiotensin II has what effect on the CNS? (Module 24.9C) A) Angiotensin II suppresses the activity of the CNS including reducing thirst, reducing ADH production and reducing sympathetic motor tone. B) Angiotensin II triggers CNS responses including increasing thirst, increasing ADH production and increasing sympathetic motor tone. C) Angiotensin II suppresses the activity of the CNS including increasing thirst, increasing ADH production and increasing sympathetic motor tone. D) Angiotensin II triggers CNS responses including reducing thirst, reducing ADH production and reducing sympathetic motor tone. E) Angiotensin II has little effect on the CNS but activates the PNS. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 24.9 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 117) Identify the segment of the nephron that makes the final adjustments to the composition of tubular fluid. (Module 24.10A) A) glomerular capsule B) proximal convoluted tubule C) nephron loop D) distal convoluted tubule E) collecting duct Answer: D Learning Outcome: 24.10 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 118) What effect would increased amounts of aldosterone have on the K+ concentration in urine? (Module 24.10B) A) It would increase the K+ concentration in urine because Na+ is retained. B) It would decrease the K+ concentration in urine because Na+ is retained. C) It would increase the K+ concentration in urine because Na+ is secreted with it. D) It would decrease the K+ concentration in urine because Na+ is secreted with it. E) It would not affect K+ concentration in the urine because Cl- is exchanged for Na+. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 24.10 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 119) What effect would a decrease in the Na+ concentration of filtrate have on the pH of tubular fluid? (Module 24.10C) A) pH would increase because more hydrogen ions could be secreted by countertransport. B) pH would decrease because more hydrogen ions could be secreted by countertransport. C) pH would increase because fewer hydrogen ions could be secreted by countertransport. D) pH would decrease because fewer hydrogen ions could be secreted by countertransport. E) pH would not be affected because hydrogen ions are countertransported with K+ not Na+. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 24.10 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 33

120) Define countercurrent multiplication as it occurs in the kidneys. (Module 24.11A) A) The exchange of substances in the adjacent limbs of the nephron loop containing fluid moving in opposite directions. B) The exchange of substances in the adjacent limbs of the nephron loop containing fluid moving in the same directions. C) The cycling of urea from the collecting duct to the nephron loop and back. D) The bulk reabsorption of substances in the proximal convoluted tubule and the bulk movement of water due to osmosis. E) The secretion of ions in response to hormones in the distal convoluted tubule. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 24.11 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 121) The thick ascending limb of the nephron loop actively pumps what substances into the peritubular fluid? (Module 24.11B) A) water B) sodium and chloride ions C) potassium ions D) sodium and potassium ions E) sodium and hydrogen ions Answer: B Learning Outcome: 24.11 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 122) An increase in sodium and chloride ions in the peritubular fluid affects the descending thin limb in what way? (Module 24.11C) A) When the osmotic concentration around the peritubular fluid increases around the descending limb the result is a decreased osmotic outflow of water. B) When the osmotic concentration around the peritubular fluid increases around the descending limb the result is secretion of potassium ions. C) When the osmotic concentration around the peritubular fluid increases around the descending limb the result is an increased osmotic outflow of water. D) When the osmotic concentration around the peritubular fluid increases around the descending limb the result is reabsorption of potassium ions. E) When the osmotic concentration around the peritubular fluid increases around the descending limb the result is secretion of hydrogen ions. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 24.12 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying

123) Compare obligatory water reabsorption with facultative water reabsorption. (Module 24.12B) A) Obligatory water reabsorption cannot be prevented, whereas facultative water reabsorption can be precisely controlled. B) Obligatory water reabsorption can be precisely controlled, whereas facultative water reabsorption cannot be prevented. C) Obligatory water reabsorption occurs in the distal convoluted tubule under control of ADH, whereas facultative water reabsorption occurs in the proximal convoluted tubule following the osmotic gradient. D) Obligatory water reabsorption occurs in the ascending limb of the nephron loop, whereas facultative water reabsorption occurs in the descending limb of the nephron loop. E) Obligatory water reabsorption is responsible for regulating the final concentration and volume of water lost in urine, whereas facultative water reabsorption is responsible for about 85 percent of water reabsorbed out of the filtrate. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 24.12 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 124) What effect does an increase in ADH levels have on the DCT? (Module 24.12C) A) Increased ADH will decrease the number of aquaporins in the DCT which increases water reabsorption and reduces urine volume. B) Increased ADH will increase the number of aquaporins in the DCT which increases water reabsorption and reduces urine volume. C) Increased ADH will increase the number of aquaporins in the DCT which decreases water reabsorption and reduces urine volume. D) Increased ADH will decrease the number of aquaporins in the DCT which decreases water reabsorption and reduces urine volume. E) Increased ADH will increase the number of aquaporins in the DCT which increases water reabsorption and increases urine volume. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 24.12 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 125) When ADH levels in the DCT decrease, what happens to the urine osmotic concentration? (Module 24.12.D) A) urine osmotic concentration stays the same and urine volume increases B) urine osmotic concentration increases and urine volume decreases C) urine osmotic concentration decreases and urine volume decreases D) urine osmotic concentration increases and urine volume increases E) urine osmotic concentration decreases and urine volume increases Answer: E Learning Outcome: 24.12 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

126) What effect does ADH have on the apical plasma membranes lining the DCT and collecting ducts? (Module 24.12E) A) ADH increases the sodium transporters in the apical plasma membranes lining the DCT and collecting ducts. B) ADH decreases the sodium transporters in the apical plasma membranes lining the DCT and collecting ducts. C) ADH increases the aquaporins in the apical plasma membranes lining the DCT and collecting ducts. D) ADH decreases the aquaporins in the apical plasma membranes lining the DCT and collecting ducts. E) ADH increases both sodium transporters and aquaporins in the apical plasma membranes lining the DCT and collecting ducts. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 24.12 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 127) In the PCT, ions and organic substrates are actively removed, thus causing what to occur? (Module 24.13A) A) An osmotic flow of water out of the tubular fluid. B) An increase in aquaporin channels in the membrane. C) An osmotic flow of water into the tubular fluid. D) An increase in sodium transporters in the membrane. E) A decrease in sodium transporters in the membrane. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 24.13 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 128) Briefly explain the difference between chronic and acute renal failure. (Module 24.14A) A) Chronic renal failure is a sudden loss of renal function, whereas acute renal failure is a gradual loss of renal function. B) Chronic renal failure is a gradual loss of renal function, whereas acute renal failure is a sudden loss of renal function. C) Chronic renal failure is a sudden loss in the ability to concentrate urine, whereas acute renal failure is a gradual loss in the ability to concentrate urine. D) Chronic renal failure is a gradual loss in the ability to concentrate urine, whereas acute renal failure is a sudden loss in the ability to concentrate urine. E) Chronic renal failure is the gradual loss in the ability to reabsorb glucose, whereas acute renal failure is a sudden loss in the ability to reabsorb glucose. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 24.14 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

129) Define dialysis. (Module 24.14B) A) Dialysis is the breakdown of renal epithelial cells due to toxins. B) Dialysis is the process of transplanting a kidney into a person whose kidney are not functioning properly. C) Dialysis is the process of reducing blood pressure by taking diuretics to increase urine volume. D) Dialysis is the process of using an artificial semipermeable membrane to remove wastes and retain plasma proteins in the blood of a person whose kidneys are not functioning properly. E) Dialysis is caused by the backup of urine into the kidneys due to a blockage in the ureter. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 24.14 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 130) When does urine production end? (Module 24.15A) A) when the fluid enters the distal convoluted tubule B) when the fluid enters the collecting ducts C) when the fluid enters the papillary ducts D) when the fluid enters the minor calyx E) when the fluid enters the renal pelvis Answer: E Learning Outcome: 24.15 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 131) What is a pyelogram? (Module 24.15B) A) An x-ray image of the urinary system taken after a radiopaque dye was administered. B) An ultrasound of the kidneys to detect solid masses such as renal calculi. C) A study of the components of urine. D) A graph of the 24 hour glomerular filtration rate. E) A laparoscopic evaluation of the inside of the bladder and ureters. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 24.15 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 132) How does the urethra differ between males and females? (Module 24.15C) A) The male urethra is shorter. B) The male urethra is longer. C) The male urethra is longer and also transports semen. D) The male urethra is shorter and also transports semen. E) The male urethra is the same length as the female but also transports semen. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 24.15 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

133) Urine is transported by the the . (Module 24.16A) A) urethra; urinary bladder; ureters B) ureters; urinary bladder; urethra C) urinary bladder; ureters; urethra D) urethra; ureters; urinary bladder E) ureters; urethra; urinary bladder Answer: B Learning Outcome: 24.16 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

, stored within the

, and eliminated through

134) What has to happen to the external urethral sphincter to allow urination? (Module 24.16B) A) it must be unconsciously stimulated to contract B) it must be unconsciously stimulated to relax C) it must be consciously stimulated to contract D) it must be consciously stimulated to relax Answer: D Learning Outcome: 24.16 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 135) Name the specialized smooth muscle of the urinary bladder, and describe its function. (Module 24.16C) A) The trigone muscle compresses the bladder and expels the urine into the urethra. B) The lateral umbilical ligaments compresses the bladder and expels the urine into the urethra. C) The detrusor muscle compresses the bladder and expels the urine into the urethra. D) The middle umbilical ligament compresses the bladder and expels the urine into the urethra. E) The bulbospongiosus muscle compresses the bladder and expels the urine into the urethra. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 24.16 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 136) What are the two reflexes that control urination? (Module 24.17A) A) the pontine storage center and the pontine micturition center B) the urine storage reflex and the urine voiding reflex C) the urine deglutition reflex and the urine micturition reflex D) the urine deglutition reflex and the urine defecation reflex E) the urine trigone reflex and the urine detrusor reflex Answer: B Learning Outcome: 24.17 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

137) The ability to consciously control urination depends on your ability to control which muscle? (Module 24.17B) A) detrusor B) internal urethral sphincter C) external urethral sphincter D) trigone E) bulbospongiosus Answer: C Learning Outcome: 24.17 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 138) What is the term for painful or difficult urination? (Module 24.18A) A) renal calculi B) pyelonephritis C) oliguria D) dysuria E) anuria Answer: D Learning Outcome: 24.18 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Essay Questions 139) List each organ of the urinary system and concisely describe its function. Answer: Consisting of the kidneys, ureters, urinary bladder, and urethra, the urinary system has three primary functions: (1) excretion, the removal of organic waste products from body fluids, (2) elimination, the discharge of these waste products into the environment, and (3) homeostatic regulation of the volume and solute concentration of blood plasma. The excretory and homeostatic regulation functions of the urinary system are performed by the two kidneys that produce urine, a fluid containing water, ions, and small soluble compounds. Urine leaving the kidneys flows along paired tubes called ureters to the urinary bladder, a muscular sac for temporary storage of urine. On being forced out of the urinary bladder, urine passes through the urethra to the exterior. The urinary bladder and the urethra are responsible for the elimination of urine, a process called urination or micturition. Learning Outcome: 24.1, 24.4, 24.6, 24.13, 24.16 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 140) Physicians often ask for urine samples collected over a 24-hour period, rather than a single sample. Why? Answer: Often the information needed for a diagnosis is the amount of a substance being lost per day and not simply its concentration in the urine. Because the amount of water present in the urine varies throughout the day, the only reliable way to estimate quantities per day is measure both average concentration (g/ml) and the total volume (ml/day). The product of these two quantities is the amount per day (g/day). Learning Outcome: 24.12, 24.13 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 39

141) Discuss the changes in urinary output and possible causes of polyuria. Answer: Polyuria is the production of excessive amounts of urine. Polyuria results from hormonal or metabolic problems, such as those associated with diabetes or glomerulonephritis. Learning Outcome: 24.18 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 142) Describe the functions of the urinary system. (Module 24.1B) Answer: The functions of the urinary system include removing wastes generated by body cells, adjusting blood volume and blood pressure, regulating blood plasma concentrations of ions, stabilizing blood pH, conserving nutrients by preventing their loss in urine, and removing drugs and toxins from the bloodstream. Learning Outcome: 24.1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 143) Describe the concentric layers of connective tissue that protect and anchor the kidney. (Module 24.2B) Answer: The layers of connective tissue that protect and anchor the kidney are the fibrous capsule, the perinephric fat (perirenal fat capsule), and the renal fascia. The fibrous capsule covers the surface of the kidney; the perinephric fat is a cushioning thick layer of adipose tissue surrounding the fibrous capsule; and the renal fascia is a dense, fibrous outer layer that anchors the kidney to surrounding structures. Learning Outcome: 24.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 144) Describe the structures of the collecting system. (Module 24.4C) Answer: The main structures of the collecting system are the collecting duct and papillary duct. The collecting system is a series of tubes that carry tubular fluid away from the nephron. The collecting duct, composed of intercalated cells and principal cells, carries tubular fluid through the osmotic gradient in the renal medulla. The papillary duct collects tubular fluid from multiple collecting ducts and delivers it to a minor calyx. Learning Outcome: 24.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 145) Can the water permeability of the PCT or DCT ever change? Explain. (Module 24.12A) Answer: The permeability of the PCT cannot change, and water reabsorption occurs whenever the osmotic concentration of the peritubular fluid exceeds that of the tubular fluid. However, the permeability of the DCT to water increases in response to antidiuretic hormone (ADH) Learning Outcome: 24.11 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

146) Explain why patients on dialysis often receive Epogen or Procrit, synthetic forms of erythropoietin. (Module 24.14C) Answer: Patients on dialysis are often given Epogen or Procrit (synthetic forms of erythropoietin) to treat anemia, which occurs because their malfunctioning kidneys produce too little erythropoietin. Erythropoietin is the hormone that stimulates the development of red blood cells in the red bone marrow. Learning Outcome: 24.14 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 147) Why is urinary obstruction at the urethra more dangerous than at the ureter? (Module 24.18B) Answer: Urinary obstruction at the urethra is more dangerous than urinary obstruction in the ureter because urine would be prevented from exiting the body and would build up in the urinary bladder, leading to rupture of the urinary bladder. Obstruction of a ureter would interfere with the flow of urine between the kidney and the urinary bladder. Obstruction of only one of the two ureters is less hazardous than obstruction of two urethrae because the kidney could still excrete wastes that could be voided. Learning Outcome: 24.18 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying

Visual Anatomy and Physiology, 3e (Martini) Chapter 25 Fluid, Electrolyte, and Acid-Base Balance Multiple Choice Questions 1) Intracellular fluid is found only within A) blood vessels. B) lymph. C) the cells of the body. D) the interstitial space. E) the cerebrospinal fluid. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 25.1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 2) In an adult male, the body consists of about A) 60 B) 90 C) 40 D) 10 E) 80 Answer: A Learning Outcome: 25.1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

percent water.

3) About two-thirds of the body's fluid is within cells and is termed A) intracellular B) intercellular C) extracellular D) interstitial E) vital Answer: A Learning Outcome: 25.1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 4) In an adult female, the body consists of about _ A) 60 B) 50 C) 40 D) 70 E) 80 Answer: B Learning Outcome: 25.1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

percent water.

fluid.

5) When water is lost, but electrolytes are retained, A) the osmolarity of the extracellular fluid falls. B) osmosis moves water from the intracellular fluid to the extracellular fluid. C) both the extracellular fluid and the intracellular fluid become more dilute. D) there is an increase in the volume of the intracellular fluid. E) None of the answers is correct. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 25.1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 6) Which body system is not involved in fluid, electrolyte, and acid-base balance? A) cardiovascular B) muscular C) integumentary D) endocrine E) All systems produce metabolic wastes and therefore are involved in fluid and electrolyte balance. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 25.1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 7) Metabolic water is A) water consumed as liquid. B) water produced through anabolic processes. C) water produced through catabolic processes. D) water consumed in food. E) the combination of all water consumed per day. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 25.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 8) Rapid water movement between the extracellular fluid and the intracellular fluid is termed A) fluid balance. B) fluid compartmentalization. C) dehydration. D) buffering. E) fluid shift. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 25.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

9) With regard to fluid balance, water gains occur primarily in the A) cardiopulmonary system. B) digestive tract. C) kidneys. D) lungs. E) liver. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 25.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 10) The principal cation in cytoplasm is A) sodium. B) potassium. C) calcium. D) magnesium. E) chloride. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 25.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 11) Which of the following is required as a cofactor for hemoglobin synthesis? A) manganese B) phosphorus C) zinc D) copper E) None of the answers is correct. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 25.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 12) The ions in highest concentration in the extracellular fluid are sodium and A) chloride. B) potassium. C) calcium. D) magnesium. E) phosphorus. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 25.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

13) With regard to mineral balance, the primary site of ion loss in the body is A) the epithelial lining of the small intestine and colon. B) sweat gland secretions. C) the skeleton. D) the kidneys. E) the liver. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 25.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 14) Which hormone(s) is released by cardiac muscle cells in response to increased atrial distension? A) ADH B) aldosterone C) PTH D) acetylcholine E) natriuretic peptides Answer: E Learning Outcome: 25.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 15) Consuming a meal high in salt will A) drastically increase the osmolarity of the blood. B) result in a temporary increase in blood volume. C) decrease thirst. D) cause hypotension. E) decrease renin secretion. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 25.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 16) Antidiuretic hormone does not A) inhibit water intake. B) increase thirst. C) cause water to shift out of the ICF. D) increase ECF volume. E) increase ECF sodium concentration. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 25.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

17) Increased blood volume will A) decrease natriuretic peptide release. B) decrease sodium loss in urine. C) decrease water loss in urine. D) decrease thirst. E) increase aldosterone release. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 25.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 18) Which hormone stimulates the thirst mechanism? A) ADH B) epinephrine C) aldosterone D) natriuretic peptides E) norepinephrine Answer: A Learning Outcome: 25.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 19) Which substance plays a central role in determining the rate of sodium reabsorption? A) ADH B) aldosterone C) extracellular fluid D) natriuretic peptides E) epinephrine Answer: B Learning Outcome: 25.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 20) The release of natriuretic peptides from the heart will cause the following response A) decrease of ADH release. B) increase in aldosterone release. C) increase in epinephrine. D) increase in norepinephrine. E) increase in blood volume. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 25.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

21) Homeostatic mechanisms that monitor and adjust the composition of body fluids respond to changes in the A) intracellular fluid. B) plasma membrane. C) extracellular fluid. D) solid components. E) cytosol. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 25.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 22) The amount of potassium excreted by the kidneys is regulated mainly by A) ADH. B) aldosterone. C) parathormone. D) atrial natriuretic peptides. E) glucocorticoids. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 25.5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 23) Secretion of potassium into the urine is A) decreased by aldosterone. B) associated with the secretion of sodium from the distal tubules and collecting ducts. C) increased when the exchange pump binds H+. D) increased by aldosterone. E) None of the answers is correct. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 25.5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 24) All of the following factors are consistent with hypokalemia except A) decreased aldosterone secretion. B) overuse of diuretics. C) kidney failure. D) reduction in sodium reabsorption. E) a potassium level above 7 mEq/L. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 25.5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

25) Normal K+ concentration in extracellular fluid is A) 1.5 B) 1.5-3.0 C) 3.5-5.0 D) 5.5-7 E) 135 Answer: C Learning Outcome: 25.5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

mEq/L.

26) A(n) acid is an acid that can leave solution and enter the atmosphere. A) fixed B) organic C) volatile D) weak E) hydrophobic Answer: C Learning Outcome: 25.6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 27) A(n) acid is an acid that cannot leave solution and enter the atmosphere. A) fixed B) organic C) volatile D) weak E) hydrophobic Answer: A Learning Outcome: 25.6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 28) play(s) a key role in maintaining acid-base homeostasis by eliminating carbon dioxide. A) The respiratory system B) The urinary system C) Buffer systems D) Metabolically active cells E) All of the answers are correct. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 25.6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

29) Small amounts of acids are generated during the catabolism of amino acids and compounds that contain phosphate groups A) fixed B) organic C) volatile Answer: A Learning Outcome: 25.6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 30) A chemical that minimizes changes in the pH of a body fluid by releasing or binding hydrogen ion is called a(n) A) electrolyte. B) acid. C) alkali. D) compensation. E) buffer. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 25.7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 31) A(n) consists of a combination of a weak acid and its associated anion. A) water balance B) exchange pump C) leak channel D) fixed acid E) buffer system Answer: E Learning Outcome: 25.7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 32) The normal pH range for extracellular fluid is A) 6.95-7.00. B) 7.15-7.25. C) 7.25-7.35. D) 7.35-7.45. E) 7.45-7.55. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 25.7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 33) When the blood pH falls below 7.35, A) acidemia B) alkalemia Answer: A Learning Outcome: 25.7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

results.

34) When the pH rises above 7.45, a state of A) acidosis B) alkalosis Answer: B Learning Outcome: 25.7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

exists.

35) The primary role of the carbonic acid-bicarbonate buffer system is to A) buffer stomach acid. B) buffer carbonic acid formed by carbon dioxide. C) limit pH changes caused by organic and fixed acids. D) buffer the urine. E) increase ventilation. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 25.8 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 36) The hemoglobin buffer system exists in A) intracellular fluid only. B) extracellular fluid only. C) both intracellular fluid and extracellular fluid. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 25.8 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 37) Which buffers/buffer system exist(s) only in intracellular fluid? A) plasma protein buffers B) the hemoglobin buffer system C) amino acid buffers D) the carbonic acid-bicarbonate buffer system E) the phosphate buffer system Answer: E Learning Outcome: 25.8 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 38) Excess hydrogen ion is eliminated from the body largely by A) sweating. B) the kidneys. C) the liver. D) the feces. E) buffers. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 25.9 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

39) When the pH of the extracellular fluid drops, the kidneys A) excrete more hydrogen ions. B) excrete more bicarbonate ions. C) reabsorb bicarbonate ions. D) excrete more hydrogen ions and excrete more bicarbonate ions. E) excrete more hydrogen ions and reabsorb bicarbonate ions. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 25.9 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 40) Prolonged vomiting can result in A) respiratory acidosis. B) respiratory alkalosis. C) metabolic acidosis. D) metabolic alkalosis. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 25.9 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 41) A person who consumes large amounts of sodium bicarbonate ("baking soda") to settle an upset stomach risks A) respiratory acidosis. B) respiratory alkalosis. C) metabolic acidosis. D) metabolic alkalosis. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 25.9 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 42) Which of the following descriptions best fits the acid-base disorder metabolic alkalosis? A) consequence of hyperventilation, for example in fever or mental illness B) consequence of prolonged vomiting C) consequence of reduced alveolar ventilation, for example due to COPD D) consequence of tissue hypoxia, for example in ischemic conditions Answer: B Learning Outcome: 25.9 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 43) Hypoventilation leads to A) respiratory acidosis. B) respiratory alkalosis. C) metabolic acidosis. D) metabolic alkalosis. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 25.10 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 10

44) Which of the following descriptions best fits the acid-base disorder respiratory acidosis? A) consequence of hyperventilation, for example in fever or mental illness B) consequence of prolonged vomiting C) consequence of reduced alveolar ventilation, for example due to emphysema D) consequence of tissue hypoxia, for example in ischemic conditions Answer: C Learning Outcome: 25.10 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 45) Which of the following descriptions best fits the acid-base disorder respiratory alkalosis? A) consequence of hyperventilation, for example in fever or mental illness B) consequence of prolonged vomiting C) consequence of reduced alveolar ventilation, for example due to COPD D) consequence of tissue hypoxia, for example in ischemic conditions Answer: A Learning Outcome: 25.10 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 46) Hyperventilation will pH. A) raise (increase) B) lower (decrease) Answer: A Learning Outcome: 25.10 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 47) Which solid component makes up most of the body mass? (Module 25.1C) A) carbohydrates B) minerals C) lipids D) vitamins E) proteins Answer: E Learning Outcome: 25.1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 48) Identify routes of fluid loss from the body. (Module 25.2A) A) Water can be lost during the production of saliva and gastric secretions, and by urination and in feces. B) Water can be lost during anabolism, and in the production of bile and gastric secretions. C) Water can be lost during urination, evaporation at skin and lungs, and in feces. D) Water can be lost during catabolism and anabolism. E) Water can be lost during catabolism, by evaporation at skin and lungs, and by urination. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 25.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

49) Describe a fluid shift. (Module 25.2B) A) A fluid shift is a slow transfer of water from the ECF into the ICF. B) A fluid shift is a slow transfer of water from the ICF into the ECF. C) A fluid shift is the rapid movement of water from the ECF and ICF into the solid components in response to an osmotic gradient. D) A fluid shift is the rapid movement of water from the solid compartments into the ECF and ICF in response to an osmotic gradient. E) A fluid shift is the rapid movement of water between the ECF and ICF in response to an osmotic gradient. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 25.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 50) Explain dehydration and its effect on the osmotic concentration of blood. (Module 25.2C) A) Dehydration occurs when water gains outpace water losses causing the osmotic concentration of blood plasma to decrease. B) Dehydration occurs when water losses outpace water gain causing the osmotic concentration of blood plasma to decrease. C) Dehydration occurs when water gains outpace water losses causing the osmotic concentration of blood plasma to increase. D) Dehydration occurs when water losses outpace water gain causing the osmotic concentration of blood plasma to increase. E) Dehydration occurs when water losses equal water gains but the osmotic concentration of the ICF increases. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 25.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 51) Define mineral balance. (Module 25.3A) A) Mineral balance occurs when the blood plasma concentration of sodium is equal to potassium. B) Mineral balance occurs when the blood plasma concentration of sodium is equal to chloride. C) Mineral balance occurs when ion gains are equal to ion losses. D) Mineral balance occurs when the minerals in the ICF are isotonic to the minerals in the ECF. E) Mineral balance occurs when ion gain and loss is equal to water gain and loss. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 25.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

52) Identify the electrolytes absorbed by active transport. (Module 25.3B) A) sodium, calcium, magnesium, iron, phosphate, and sulfate B) potassium, chloride, iron, and iodide C) hydrogen, bicarbonate, sulfate, and potassium D) chloride, iodide, and nitrate E) zinc, copper, chloride, and calcium Answer: A Learning Outcome: 25.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 53) What effect does inhibition of osmoreceptors have on ADH secretion and thirst? (Module 25.4A) A) increased ADH secretion and increased thirst B) increased ADH secretion and suppressed thirst C) decreased ADH secretion and increased thirst D) decreased ADH secretion and suppressed thirst E) increased ADH secretion but no change in thirst Answer: D Learning Outcome: 25.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 54) What effect does aldosterone have on sodium ion concentration in the ECF? (Module 25.4B) A) Aldosterone increases urinary sodium retention and therefore decreases sodium ion concentration in ECF. B) Aldosterone decreases urinary sodium retention and therefore increases sodium ion concentration in ECF. C) Aldosterone decreases urinary sodium retention and therefore decreases sodium ion concentration in the ECF. D) Aldosterone does not affect urinary sodium retention and therefore has no effect on sodium ion concentration in ECF. E) Aldosterone increases urinary sodium retention and therefore increases sodium ion concentration in ECF. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 25.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 55) Which organs are primarily responsible for regulating the potassium ion concentration in the ECF? (Module 25.5A) A) lungs B) kidneys C) adrenal glands D) lymph nodes E) intestines Answer: B Learning Outcome: 25.5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 13

56) Identify factors that cause potassium excretion. (Module 25.5B) A) Potassium excretion is caused by an increase in aldosterone stimulation and when the pH of the ECF increases. B) Potassium excretion is caused by an increase in aldosterone stimulation and when the pH of the ECF decreases. C) Potassium excretion is caused by a decrease in aldosterone stimulation and when the pH of the ECF increases. D) Potassium excretion is caused by a decrease in aldosterone stimulation and when the pH of the ECF decreases. E) Potassium excretion is caused by an increase in aldosterone stimulation and when the pH of the ECF is neutral. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 25.5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 57) Define hypokalemia and hyperkalemia. (Module 25.5C) A) Hypokalemia is defined as blood Na+ levels below 136 mEq/L and hyperkalemia is defined as blood Na+ levels above 145 mEq/L. B) Hypokalemia is defined as blood Na+ levels above 145 mEq/L and hyperkalemia is defined as blood Na+ levels below 136 mEq/L. C) Hypokalemia is defined as blood K+ levels below 3.5 mEq/L and hyperkalemia is defined as blood K+ levels above 5.0 mEq/L. D) Hypokalemia is defined as blood K+ levels above 5.0 mEq/L and hyperkalemia is defined as blood K+ levels below 3.5 mEq/L. E) Hypokalemia is defined as blood pH below 7.35 and hyperkalemia is defined as blood pH above 7.45. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 25.5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 58) When is your body in acid-base balance? (Module 25.6A) A) when the loss of hydrogen ions is offset by the production of bicarbonate ions and pH becomes alkaline B) when the production of hydrogen ions exceeds the loss of hydrogen ions and pH becomes acidic C) when the loss of hydrogen ions exceeds the production of hydrogen ions and pH becomes alkaline D) when the production of hydrogen ions is precisely offset by the production of sodium ions and pH remains within normal limits E) when the production of hydrogen ions is precisely offset by their loss and pH remains within normal limits Answer: E Learning Outcome: 25.6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

59) What is the primary challenge to acid-base homeostasis? (Module 25.6B) A) The primary challenge is the difficulty exhaling CO2 causing accumulation of acid. B) The primary challenge is that buffer systems only work within tissues not in the blood plasma. C) The primary challenge is that blood pH must be maintained at exactly 7.0. D) The primary challenge is that the body generates a variety of acids during normal metabolic operations causing a decrease in pH. E) The primary challenge is that only the lungs can increase pH. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 25.6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 60) Define acidemia and alkalemia. (Module 25.7A) A) Acidemia is when pH decreases below 4.8 and alkalemia is when pH increases above 11.4. B) Acidemia is when pH increases above 7.45 and alkalemia is when pH decreases below 7.35. C) Acidemia is when pH increases above 11.4 and alkalemia is when pH decreases below 4.8. D) Acidemia is when pH decreases below 7.35 and alkalemia is when pH increases above 7.45. E) Acidemia is when pH decreases below 1 and alkalemia is when pH increases above 13. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 25.7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 61) What intermediate compound formed from water and carbon dioxide directly affects the pH of the ECF? (Module 25.7B) A) bicarbonate B) carbonic acid C) carbonic anhydrase D) hydrogen E) hydroxide Answer: B Learning Outcome: 25.7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 62) Summarize the relationship between PCO2 levels and pH. (Module 25.7C) A) A direct relationship occurs between the levels of PCO2 and pH. B) An inverse relationship occurs between the levels of PCO2 and pH. C) A direct relationship occurs between the levels of PCO2 and pH when the pH is below 7.35. D) A direct relationship occurs between the levels of PCO2 and pH when the pH is above 7.45. E) A inverse relationship occurs between the levels of PCO2 and pH when the pH is between 7.35 and 7.45. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 25.7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

63) Identify the body's three major buffer systems. (Module 25.8A) A) hemoglobin buffer system, amino acid buffer system, and the plasma protein buffer system B) hemoglobin buffer system, amino acid buffer system, and the protein buffer system C) phosphate buffer system, protein buffer system, and the carbonic acid-bicarbonate buffer system D) renal buffer system, respiratory buffer system, and the carbonic acid-bicarbonate buffer system E) renal buffer system, respiratory buffer system, and the phosphate buffer system Answer: C Learning Outcome: 25.8 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 64) Which fluids are buffered by the phosphate buffer system? (Module 25.8B) A) ECF, blood plasma B) ICF, blood plasma C) ICF, ECF, blood plasma D) ECF, urine E) ICF, urine Answer: E Learning Outcome: 25.8 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 65) Describe the carbonic acid-bicarbonate buffer system. (Module 25.8C) A) The carbonic acid-bicarbonate buffer system uses the hydrogen ions created by the metabolic and fixed acids to generate carbonic acid which dissociates into H2O and CO2, which can be eliminated by the lungs. B) The carbonic acid-bicarbonate buffer system uses hemoglobin to buffer hydrogen ions. C) The carbonic acid-bicarbonate buffer system uses the side group, the amino group, and the carboxylate group of amino acids to buffer pH changes. D) The carbonic acid-bicarbonate buffer system uses the kidneys to secrete or excrete bicarbonate to buffer pH. E) The carbonic acid-bicarbonate buffer system uses the lungs to exhale CO2 to buffer pH. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 25.8 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

66) Describe metabolic acidosis. (Module 25.9A) A) Metabolic acidosis occurs when pH decreases due to an impaired ability to remove CO2 by the lungs. B) Metabolic acidosis occurs when pH increases due to faster CO2 elimination by the lungs than production. C) Metabolic acidosis occurs when pH decreases due increased numbers of fixed and metabolic acids, from bicarbonate loss, or from depletion of bicarbonate reserve when hydrogen ions are not adequately excreted by the kidneys. D) Metabolic acidosis occurs when pH increases due to the removal of hydrogen ions when bicarbonate ion concentrations are elevated. E) Metabolic acidosis occurs when pH increases due to an impaired ability to remove CO2 by the lungs. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 25.9 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 67) Describe metabolic alkalosis. (Module 25.9B) A) Metabolic alkalosis occurs when pH decreases due to an impaired ability to remove CO2 by the lungs. B) Metabolic alkalosis occurs when pH increases due to faster CO2 elimination by the lungs than production. C) Metabolic alkalosis occurs when pH decreases due increased numbers of fixed and metabolic acids, from bicarbonate loss, or from depletion of bicarbonate reserve when hydrogen ions are not adequately excreted by the kidneys. D) Metabolic alkalosis occurs when pH increases due to the removal of hydrogen ions when bicarbonate ion concentrations are elevated. E) Metabolic alkalosis occurs when pH increases due to an impaired ability to remove CO2 by the lungs. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 25.9 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 68) If the kidneys are conserving HCO3- and eliminating H+ in acidic urine, which is occurring: metabolic alkalosis or metabolic acidosis? (Module 25.9C) A) metabolic alkalosis B) metabolic acidosis Answer: B Learning Outcome: 25.9 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying

69) What would happen to the blood PCO2 of a patient who has an airway obstruction? (Module 25.10A) A) Blood PCO2 would increase, resulting in respiratory acidosis. B) Blood PCO2 would increase, resulting in respiratory alkalosis. C) Blood PCO2 would decrease, resulting in respiratory acidosis. D) Blood PCO2 would decrease, resulting in respiratory alkalosis. E) Blood PCO2 would increase, resulting in metabolic acidosis. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 25.10 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 70) How would a decrease in the pH of body fluids affect the respiratory rate? (Module 25.10B) A) Respiratory rate would increase. B) Respiratory rate would decrease. C) Respiratory rate would not change. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 25.10 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Essay Questions 71) The maintenance of normal volume and composition of extracellular and intracellular fluids is vital to life. List and briefly describe the kinds of homeostasis involved. Answer: Three types of homeostasis are involved: fluid balance, electrolyte balance, and acidbase balance. Fluid balance means that the total quantity of body water remains almost constant and that the distribution between the intracellular fluid and extracellular fluid are normal. Electrolyte balance implies the same thing for ions. Acid-base balance means that the pH of the extracellular fluid is maintained in the range of 7.35 to 7.45, and that gains or losses of hydrogen ion as a consequence of metabolism are followed by equivalent losses or gains so as to maintain constant buffer reserves. Learning Outcome: 25.2, 25.4, 25.5, 25.7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 72) Why does potassium concentration rise in patients with acidosis? What is this called? What effects does it have? Answer: When pH is low, hydrogen ion levels in the blood are high and also in the interstitial and peritubular fluid. Hydrogen ion competes with potassium ion for the sodium countercurrent exchanger in the tubules. As hydrogen ion secretion rises (which compensates for the acidosis), potassium is retained and hyperkalemia develops. If severe enough, muscle cramps and cardiac arrhythmias result. Learning Outcome: 25.5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

73) Fred has emphysema, a form of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease. Blood tests show that his pH is low but almost normal, yet his bicarbonate levels are elevated significantly. How can this be? What would urinalysis show? Answer: Emphysema limits ventilation in the alveoli of the lungs, leading to increased carbon dioxide in Fred's body. Because Fred's condition is chronic, his body has compensated for the excess carbonic acid (the result of hypercapnia due to poor ventilation) by increasing the amount of bicarbonate to match the elevated level of hydrogen ion. This compensation for respiratory acidosis was accomplished by the kidney's secretion of hydrogen ion in both the proximal and distal convoluted tubules and the retention of bicarbonate from the elevated carbonic acid. Urinalysis would indicate a very low pH and high levels of ammonia, produced by the distal tubule to absorb the secreted hydrogen ion. Learning Outcome: 25.9, 25.10 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 74) Define ECF and ICF. (Module 25.1A) Answer: The ECF, or extracellular fluid, is made up of the interstitial fluid of peripheral tissues and the plasma of circulating blood. The ICF, or intracellular fluid, consists of the cytosol inside cells. Learning Outcome: 25.1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 75) Describe the fluid compartments. (Module 25.1B) Answer: The fluid compartments are the ECF and the ICF, which behave as separate sections and maintain different ionic compositions. Learning Outcome: 25.1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 76) Explain the significance of two important body minerals: sodium and calcium. (Module 25.3C) Answer: Sodium is a major cation that is essential for normal membrane function. Calcium is a cation that is essential for normal muscle and neuron function and for normal bone structure. Learning Outcome: 25.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 77) Compare the three categories of acids. (Module 25.6C) Answer: Volatile acids can leave solution and enter the atmosphere. Fixed acids remain in body fluids until excreted by the kidneys. Metabolic acids are participants in, or by-products of, cellular metabolism. Learning Outcome: 25.6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

Visual Anatomy and Physiology, 3e (Martini) Chapter 26 The Reproductive System Multiple Choice Questions 1) What is the function of gonads? A) produce gametes B) transport gametes C) produce hormones D) produce gametes and produce hormones E) None of the answers is correct. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 26.1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 2) The reproductive system does not include A) gonads and external genitalia. B) ducts that receive and transport the gametes. C) accessory glands and organs that secrete fluids. D) mammary glands. E) None of the answers is correct. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 26.1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 3) The male gonad is called a(n) A) ductus. B) epididymis. C) scrotum. D) testis. E) spermatid. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 26.1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 4) Which of the following muscles move the testes towards the body? A) the cremaster B) the tunica muscularis C) the biceps brachii D) the dartos E) both the cremaster and the dartos Answer: E Learning Outcome: 26.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

5) Inward projections of the tunica albuginea, known as septa, divide the testis into A) seminiferous tubules. B) straight tubules. C) lobules. D) rete testis. E) the epididymis and the testis proper. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 26.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 6) The external marking of the boundary between the two testes is the A) spermatic cord. B) raphe. C) tunica albuginea. D) acrosome. E) dartos muscle. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 26.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 7) The spermatic cord is A) a bundle of tissue that contains the ductus deferens, blood vessels, nerves, and lymphatics that serve the testis. B) a narrow opening that links the scrotal chamber with the peritoneal cavity. C) the external marking of the boundary between the two chambers of the scrotum. D) a layer of smooth muscle in the skin of the scrotal sac. E) a dense layer of connective tissue that surrounds the testis. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 26.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 8) The tough fibrous capsule that surrounds the testis is called the A) median raphe. B) spermatic cord. C) tunica albuginea. D) dartos. E) epididymis. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 26.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

9) The male reproductive system is most closely associated with which of the following systems? A) muscular B) urinary C) endocrine D) digestive E) integumentary Answer: B Learning Outcome: 26.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 10) In what order does sperm produced in the semiferous tubules pass through the following structures before being stored in the epididymis? 1) Efferent ductules 2) Straight ductules 3) Rete testis A) 1,3,2 B) 1,2,3 C) 3,2,1 D) 2,3,1 E) 2,1,3 Answer: D Learning Outcome: 26.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

Figure 26-1 11) Identify the structure labeled "11." A) bulbourethral gland B) prostate gland C) seminal gland (seminal vesicle) D) epididymis E) ductus deferens Answer: B Learning Outcome: 26.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 12) Identify the structure labeled "3." A) corpora cavernosa B) prostatic urethra C) corpus spongiosum D) penile urethra E) ejaculatory duct Answer: D Learning Outcome: 26.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

13) Identify the structure labeled "4." A) testis B) prostate gland C) seminal gland (seminal vesicle) D) epididymis E) ductus deferens Answer: E Learning Outcome: 26.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 14) Identify the structure labeled "10." A) testis B) prostate gland C) seminal gland D) epididymis E) ductus deferens Answer: C Learning Outcome: 26.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 15) Contraction of the cremaster muscles A) relaxes the scrotal sac. B) pulls the testes closer to the body cavity. C) propels sperm through the urethra. D) moves sperm through the ductus deferens. E) both relaxes the scrotal sac and propels sperm through the urethra. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 26.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 16) Contraction of the dartos muscle A) elevates the scrotal sac. B) produces an erection. C) propels sperm through the urethra. D) moves sperm through the ductus deferens. E) initiates seminal emission. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 26.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

17) The is an opening through which the spermatic cord passes. A) seminiferous tubule B) inguinal canal C) scrotal cavity D) efferent ductule E) infundibulum Answer: B Learning Outcome: 26.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 18) The is a layer of smooth muscle in the skin of the scrotal sac. A) rete testis B) raphe C) dartos muscle D) tunica albuginea E) cremaster muscle Answer: C Learning Outcome: 26.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 19) The is a fleshy pouch suspended below the perineum and anterior to the anus. A) scrotum B) rete testis C) raphe D) prostate gland E) bulbourethral gland Answer: A Learning Outcome: 26.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 20) At 8 months development in a male fetus, the testes A) remain in the abdominal cavity. B) have been pulled through the abdominal musculature into the scrotum. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 26.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 21) Sperm develop from stem cells called A) spermatogonia. B) primary spermatocytes. C) secondary spermatocytes. D) spermatids. E) spermatozoa. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 26.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 6

22) When spermatogonia divide, the two daughter cells produced are a spermatogonium and a A) sperm. B) spermatocyte. C) spermatid. D) spermatozoon. E) Sertoli cell. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 26.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 23) The cells that are formed during spermatogenesis by the first meiosis are called A) spermatogonia. B) primary spermatocytes. C) secondary spermatocytes. D) spermatids. E) spermatozoa. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 26.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 24) The process of spermiogenesis produces A) spermatogonia. B) primary spermatocytes. C) secondary spermatocytes. D) spermatids. E) spermatozoa. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 26.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 25) The special type of cell division required to produce gametes is called A) mitosis. B) meiosis. C) maturation. D) capacitation. E) fertilization. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 26.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

26) Secondary spermatocytes each contain A) 23 single chromosomes. B) 23 chromosomes, each with a pair of duplicate chromatids. C) twice the diploid number of chromosomes. D) 46 pairs of chromosomes. E) 46 chromosomes. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 26.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 27) In a mature human spermatozoan, A) the acrosome is next to the tail. B) the middle piece contains the chromosomes. C) the tail contains the mitochondria. D) the head contains 46 chromosomes. E) the acrosome is next to the nucleus, and the head contains 23 chromosomes. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 26.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 28) During meiosis I, in maternal and paternal systems, chromosomes fuse together during the process called to form a . A) synapsis; chromatid B) prophase I; chromatid C) synapsis; spermatid D) metaphase II; tetrad E) synapsis; tetrad Answer: E Learning Outcome: 26.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 29) How many tetrads form during synapsis? A) 23 B) hundreds C) thousands D) 46 E) 4 Answer: A Learning Outcome: 26.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

30) Secondary spermatocytes divide to produce chromosomes. A) millions of; 46 B) four; 23 C) one; 46 D) millions of; 23 E) four; 46 Answer: B Learning Outcome: 26.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

spermatids, each having

31) Which of the following is true immediately after a spermatogonium completes cell division? A) Mature spermatozoa enter the lumen. B) Fusion of diploid nuclei occurs. C) The primary spermatocyte is directed toward the lumen of the seminiferous tubule. D) Daughter cells of spermatogonia are haploid. E) Spermiogenesis begins. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 26.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 32) Spermatids mature into spermatozoa by the process of A) spermatogenesis. B) meiosis. C) mitosis. D) spermiogenesis. E) capacitation. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 26.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 33) The is the part of the sperm that contains the DNA. A) acrosomal cap B) head C) neck D) middle piece E) flagellum Answer: B Learning Outcome: 26.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

34) In a spermatozoan, activity in the A) endoplasmic reticulum B) Golgi apparatus C) nucleus D) mitochondria E) lysosomes Answer: D Learning Outcome: 26.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

provides energy required to move the tail.

35) The of a sperm contains the enzymes essential for fertilization. A) acrosomal cap B) neck C) middle piece D) flagellum E) None of the answers is correct. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 26.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 36) Interstitial cells produce A) sperm. B) inhibin. C) nutrients. D) androgens. E) androgen-binding protein. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 26.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 37) Sperm production occurs in the A) ductus deferens. B) seminiferous tubules. C) epididymis. D) seminal glands. E) rete testis. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 26.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

38) Nurse cells are not A) found in the seminiferous tubules. B) important in forming the blood-testis barrier. C) involved in coordinating spermatogenesis. D) precursors to gametes. E) also called Sertoli cells. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 26.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 39) The stage at which a spermatozoan detaches from the nurse cells and enters the seminiferous tubule is called A) division. B) meiosis. C) spermiation. D) spermiogenesis. E) capacitation. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 26.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 40) What is the proper arrangement of the four structures listed below into the order in which sperm pass from the testis to the urethral meatus? 1. ductus deferens 2. urethra 3. ejaculatory duct 4. epididymis A) 1, 3, 4, 2 B) 4, 3, 1, 2 C) 4, 1, 2, 3 D) 4, 1, 3, 2 E) 1, 4, 3, 2 Answer: D Learning Outcome: 26.5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 41) The small paired structures at the base of the penis that secrete a thick, alkaline mucus are the A) seminal vesicles. B) prostate glands. C) vestibular glands. D) Bartholin's glands. E) bulbourethral glands. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 26.5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 11

42) Spermatozoa functionally mature within the A) epididymis. B) ductus deferens. C) rete testes. D) seminiferous tubules. E) seminal gland. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 26.5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 43) The organ that surrounds the urethra and secretes an antibiotic protein is the A) seminal gland (seminal vesicle). B) bulbourethral gland. C) prostate gland. D) vestibular gland. E) Bartholin's gland. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 26.5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 44) The organ that monitors and adjusts the composition of tubular fluid, recycles damaged spermatozoa, and is the site of sperm maturation is the A) ductus deferens. B) rete testis. C) seminal gland. D) epididymis. E) prostate gland. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 26.5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 45) The organ that carries sperm from the epididymis to the urethra is the A) ductus deferens. B) epididymis. C) seminal gland. D) ejaculatory duct. E) corpus cavernosum. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 26.5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

46) The is/are in contact with the posterior side to the urinary bladder. A) prostate gland B) bulbourethral gland C) seminal glands D) corpus cavernosum E) testes Answer: C Learning Outcome: 26.5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 47) Where in the male reproductive system would you expect to find the most mature spermatozoa? A) in the seminiferous tubules B) in the head of the epididymis C) in the ductus deferens and ejaculatory duct D) in the seminal gland E) in the prostate gland Answer: C Learning Outcome: 26.5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 48) Functions of the accessory glands of the male reproductive system include all of the following except A) producing spermatozoa. B) meeting the nutrient needs of spermatozoa for motility. C) propelling spermatozoa and fluids along the reproductive tract. D) producing buffers. E) activating the spermatozoa. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 26.5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 49) Sperm are moved along the ductus deferens by A) hydrostatic force. B) ciliary action. C) peristaltic contractions. D) suction. E) hydraulic action. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 26.5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

50) The carries fluid from the seminal gland through the prostate. A) ductus deferens B) ejaculatory duct C) corpora cavernosa D) efferent tubule E) ampulla Answer: B Learning Outcome: 26.5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 51) Which of these glands secretes a fluid that lubricates the tip of the penis? A) prostate B) seminal gland C) bulbourethral gland D) vestibular gland E) Bartholin's gland Answer: C Learning Outcome: 26.5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 52) Contractions of the bulbospongiosus muscles result in A) erection. B) emission. C) ejaculation. D) detumescence. E) impotence. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 26.6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 53) Which of the following is not required for arousal to occur? A) There must be sufficient blood hydrostatic pressure. B) The sacral spinal cord must be intact. C) Nitric oxide must be present. D) Sympathetic stimulation of sacral nerves. E) Parasympathetic stimulation of pelvic nerves. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 26.6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

54) The organ that delivers semen into the female reproductive tract is the A) urethra. B) ejaculatory duct. C) penis. D) corpus cavernosum. E) corpus spongiosum. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 26.6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 55) The fold of skin that covers the glans penis is the A) ejaculatory duct. B) prepuce. C) corpus cavernosum. D) corpus spongiosum. E) penile urethra. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 26.6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 56) The erectile tissue that surrounds the urethra is the A) membranous urethra. B) penile urethra. C) glans penis. D) corpus spongiosum. E) corpus cavernosum. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 26.6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 57) The paired erectile bodies in the penis are the A) membranous urethra. B) penile urethra. C) corpus spongiosum. D) corpora cavernosa. E) prepuce. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 26.6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

58) Emission and ejaculation require all of the following except A) sympathetic stimulation. B) peristaltic contractions of the ampulla. C) propulsion of semen. D) contractions of the bulbospongiosus muscle. E) contraction of the dartos muscles. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 26.6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 59) is defined as an inability to achieve or maintain an erection. A) Infertility B) Benign prostatic hypertrophy C) Emission D) Sterility E) Impotence Answer: E Learning Outcome: 26.6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 60) The penetrates the urogenital diaphragm. A) penile urethra B) membranous urethra C) prostatic urethra Answer: B Learning Outcome: 26.6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 61) The passes through the shaft of the penis to the external urethral meatus. A) penile urethra B) membranous urethra C) prostatic urethra Answer: A Learning Outcome: 26.6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 62) The penile urethra passes through the corpus A) cavernosum. B) spongiosum. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 26.6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

63) The primary role of FSH in males is to A) stimulate the interstitial cells to produce testosterone. B) stimulate the nurse cells to produce inhibin. C) initiate sperm production in the testes. D) develop and maintain secondary sex characteristics. E) influence sexual behaviors and sex drive. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 26.7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 64) The pituitary hormone that stimulates the interstitial cells to secrete testosterone is A) FSH. B) LH. C) ACTH. D) ADH. E) GH. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 26.7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 65) Testosterone is secreted by the A) hypothalamus. B) adenohypophysis. C) nurse cells. D) interstitial cells. E) suprarenal cortex. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 26.7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 66) A male bodybuilder starts taking injections of testosterone (an anabolic steroid) on a daily basis. After 3 weeks, which of the following would you not expect to observe? A) increased sex drive B) decreased levels of GnRH C) decreased levels of LH and FSH D) decreased levels of DHT E) None of the answers is correct. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 26.7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

67) A boy has a genetic mutation such that FSH is not produced, but LH is normal. After the boy grows to maturity, it is likely he will A) not develop secondary sex characteristics. B) be sterile. C) be impotent. D) have impaired function of the interstitial cells. E) produce large amounts of inhibin. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 26.7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 68) The nurse cells of the seminiferous tubules do all of the following except A) maintain the blood-testis barrier. B) support spermiogenesis. C) secrete inhibin. D) secrete testosterone. E) secrete androgen-binding protein. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 26.7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 69) Which of the following is not true of interstitial cells? A) They are found in the tissue between seminiferous tubules. B) They respond to luteinizing hormone. C) They produce testosterone. D) They help establish male secondary sex characteristics. E) They produce inhibin. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 26.7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 70) The main organs of the female reproductive tract include all of the following except the A) vagina. B) urinary bladder. C) uterus. D) ovaries. E) mammary glands. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 26.8 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

71) Which structure(s) of the female reproductive system contain(s) glands that lubricate the vaginal entrance? A) mammaries B) uterus C) gonads D) labia E) uterine tube Answer: D Learning Outcome: 26.8 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 72) Fertilization of an ovum usually takes place in the A) ovary itself. B) uterine tube. C) uterus. D) cervix. E) vagina. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 26.8 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 73) The broad ligament does all of the following except A) enclose the ovaries, uterine tubes, and uterus. B) support and stabilizes the position of the ovary. C) stay continuous with the parietal peritoneum. D) subdivide the peritoneal cavity. E) attach to floor of the pelvic cavity. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 26.9 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 74) The region where blood vessels enter the ovary is called the A) infundibulopelvic ligament. B) tunica albuginea. C) ovarian umbilical cord. D) ovarian hilum. E) ovarian ligament. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 26.9 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

Figure 26-2 75) Identify the structure labeled "2." A) ureter B) uterine tube C) suspensory ligament D) ovarian ligament E) infundibulum Answer: B Learning Outcome: 26.9 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 76) Identify the structure labeled "9." A) uterus B) vagina C) cervix D) clitoris E) greater vestibular gland Answer: A Learning Outcome: 26.9 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

77) Identify the structure labeled "12." A) uterus B) vagina C) clitoris D) labium E) ovary Answer: B Learning Outcome: 26.9 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 78) What is not produced by the structure labeled "1"? A) ova B) estrogen C) progesterone D) inhibin E) FSH Answer: E Learning Outcome: 26.9 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 79) Identify the structure labeled "11." A) ureter B) uterus C) vagina D) cervix E) infundibulum Answer: D Learning Outcome: 26.9 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 80) The is a pocket formed between the posterior wall of the uterus and the anterior surface of the rectum. A) fundus B) vesico-uterine pouch C) ampulla D) recto-uterine pouch E) infundibulum Answer: D Learning Outcome: 26.9 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

81) The ligament that attaches the ovary to the uterus is the A) inguinal B) mesovarium C) suspensory D) ovarian E) broad Answer: D Learning Outcome: 26.9 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

ligament.

82) The ligament extends from the lateral surface of the ovary to the pelvic wall. A) inguinal B) tunica albuginea C) suspensory D) ovarian E) broad Answer: C Learning Outcome: 26.9 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 83) Which of the following best describes the mesovarium? A) a thickened fold of mesentery that supports and stabilizes the ovary B) an expanded funnels that opens into the pelvic cavity C) an extensive mesentery that encloses the ovaries, uterine tubes, and uterus D) a layer of squamous or cuboidal cells that covers the ovary E) the inner lining of the uterus Answer: A Learning Outcome: 26.9 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 84) Which of the following statements concerning oogenesis is false? A) Oogenesis begins before birth. B) Ova develop from stem cells called oogonia. C) An ovum completes meiosis II after it is fertilized. D) About half the oogonia complete mitosis between birth and puberty. E) By the time of their birth, girls have already lost about 80 percent of their oocytes. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 26.10 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

85) The granulosa cells of developing follicles work with thecal cells to produce A) estrogens. B) progesterone. C) FSH. D) LH. E) GnRH. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 26.10 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 86) What structure releases the secondary oocyte during ovulation? A) zona pellucida B) Graafian follicle C) secondary follicle D) antrum E) primary follicle Answer: B Learning Outcome: 26.10 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 87) The primary follicle develops from the A) ovarian hilum. B) ovarian follicles. C) primordial follicle. D) ovarian stroma. E) granulosa cells. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 26.10 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 88) Which of the following is greater? A) the number of primordial follicles in the ovaries at birth B) the number of primordial follicles in the ovaries at puberty Answer: A Learning Outcome: 26.10 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 89) The is the region between the developing oocyte and the granulosa cells. A) corona radiata B) egg nest C) antrum D) corpus albicans E) zona pellucida Answer: E Learning Outcome: 26.10 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 23

90) The consists of the follicle cells that cling to the oocyte after ovulation. A) corona radiata B) egg nest C) antrum D) corpus luteum E) zona pellucida Answer: A Learning Outcome: 26.10 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 91) The structure that transports the ovum to the uterus is the A) uterosacral ligament. B) vagina. C) uterine tube. D) infundibulum. E) myometrium. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 26.11 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 92) The organ that provides mechanical protection and nutritional support for the developing embryo is the A) vagina. B) uterine tube. C) ovary. D) uterus. E) cervix. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 26.11 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 93) Which of the following properly describes the cervix? A) It is a constricted passageway at the superior end of the uterine cavity. B) It connects to the uterine cavity by the internal os. C) Its outer layer is called the perimetrium. D) It contains fingerlike projections called fimbriae. E) It connects the ampulla and infundibulum. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 26.11 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

94) The thick muscular layer of the uterus is the A) endometrium. B) perimetrium. C) myometrium. D) uterometrium. E) None of the answers is correct. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 26.11 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 95) Which region of the uterine tube captures the ovum? A) ampulla B) anterior segment C) infundibulum D) posterior segment E) isthmus Answer: C Learning Outcome: 26.11 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 96) The is the rounded portion of the uterine body superior to the attachment of the uterine tubes. A) body B) cervix C) myometrium D) fundus E) internal os Answer: D Learning Outcome: 26.11 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 97) The portion of the uterine tube that ends in fingerlike fimbriae is the A) ampulla. B) distal segment. C) infundibulum. D) proximal segment. E) isthmus. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 26.11 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

98) The opening connecting the uterus to the cervical canal is the A) uterine lumen. B) internal os. C) ampulla. D) isthmus. E) external os. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 26.11 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 99) The funnel-like opening at the distal end of the uterine tube is called the A) ampulla. B) ovary. C) isthmus. D) infundibulum. E) external os. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 26.11 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 100) The are fingerlike projections that capture the freshly ovulated ovum. A) vesico-uterine pouches B) fimbriae C) areolae D) polar bodies E) uterine tubes Answer: B Learning Outcome: 26.11 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 101) The main portion of the uterus is called the A) fundus. B) cervix. C) internal os. D) body. E) cervical canal. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 26.11 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

102) The region between the internal os and the external os is the A) ampulla. B) vagina. C) cervical canal. D) uterine tube. E) isthmus. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 26.11 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 103) The internal os connects the uterine cavity to the A) ovary. B) uterine tube. C) vagina. D) urethra. E) cervical canal. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 26.11 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 104) The is the outer lining of the uterus. A) perimetrium B) myometrium C) germinal epithelium D) uterine lumen E) endometrium Answer: A Learning Outcome: 26.11 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 105) The is the inner lining of the uterus. A) perimetrium B) myometrium C) germinal epithelium D) uterine lumen E) endometrium Answer: E Learning Outcome: 26.11 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

106) Which structure in the female reproductive system is not lined with cilia? A) uterine tube B) infundibulum C) ampulla D) isthmus E) broad ligament Answer: E Learning Outcome: 26.11 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 107) The average length of the uterine cycle is A) 16 days. B) 19 days. C) 21 days. D) 28 days. E) 35 days. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 26.12 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 108) During the proliferative phase of the uterine cycle, A) the corpus luteum is forming. B) the functional zone of the endometrium is restored. C) the fertilized ovum implants. D) the uterine glands enlarge. E) menses occurs. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 26.12 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 109) Which of the following best matches the term endometrium? A) thick layer of smooth muscle cells B) supports the uterus anteriorly C) supports the uterus laterally D) consists of a basilar zone and a functional zone E) after ovulation, the ovum is captured by it Answer: D Learning Outcome: 26.12 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

110) The onset of the first uterine cycle is called A) menarche. B) menstruation. C) menopause. D) menstrual cycle. E) menses. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 26.12 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 111) is the process of sloughing off the old functional layer of the endometrium. A) Menarche B) Menstruation C) Perimenopause D) Menopause E) Ovulation Answer: B Learning Outcome: 26.12 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 112) arteries supply blood to the functional zone of the endometrium. A) Straight B) Arcuate C) Spiral D) Radial E) None of the answers is correct; the functional zone of the endometrium is not vascularized. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 26.12 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 113) All of the following are true of the vagina except that it A) serves as a passageway for the elimination of menstrual fluids. B) receives the penis during coitus. C) holds spermatozoa prior to their passage to the uterus. D) forms the lower portion of the birth canal. E) loses a portion of its lining during menses. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 26.13 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

114) The vagina is A) lined by simple columnar epithelium rich in goblet cells. B) similar to the inner lining of the uterus. C) another term for the cervix. D) a muscular tube extending between the uterus and the external genitalia. E) a muscular tube extending between the uterus and the anus. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 26.13 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 115) The vulva includes all of the following except the A) mons pubis. B) vagina. C) labia minora. D) clitoris. E) labia majora. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 26.13 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 116) The space bounded by the labia minora is the A) fornix. B) vestibule. C) hymen. D) clitoris. E) isthmus. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 26.13 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 117) Fatty folds of skin that encircle and partially conceal the labia minora and vestibule are the A) fornices. B) ampullae. C) labia majora. D) mons pubis. E) vestibular arches. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 26.13 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

118) The clitoris A) is derived from the same embryonic structures as the scrotum in males. B) is encircled by the mons pubis. C) is topped by vestibular glands. D) contains erectile tissue comparable to the corpora cavernosa of the penis. E) is protected by the vesico-uterine pouch. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 26.13 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 119) The is the region of the vagina that surrounds the cervix. A) rugae B) fornix C) dartos D) fundus E) external os Answer: B Learning Outcome: 26.13 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 120) Another term for vulva is A) gonads. B) vagina. C) female external genitalia. D) accessory glands. E) labia. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 26.13 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 121) The shallow recess that surrounds the cervical protrusion into the vagina is called the A) vestibule. B) fornix. C) pudendum. D) hymen. E) prepuce. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 26.13 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

122) The pigmented skin that surrounds the nipple is the A) zona reticularis. B) fornix. C) zona pellucida. D) peripapilla. E) areola. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 26.14 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 123) The production of milk is called A) letdown. B) lactation. C) menstruation. D) colostrum. E) secretion. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 26.14 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 124) are the organs of milk production. A) Cowper's gland B) Lactiferous ducts C) Mammary glands D) The pudenda E) Bartholin's glands Answer: C Learning Outcome: 26.14 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 125) The glandular tissue of the breast consists of separate lobes, each containing several secretory A) sinuses. B) lobules. C) alveoli. D) areolae. E) papillae. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 26.14 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

126) Which of the following is not true of the suspensory ligaments of the breasts? A) They separate the lobes of the breast. B) They support the breast tissue. C) They are composed of fibrous tissue. D) They extend from the muscular wall out to the nipple. E) They carry milk to the nipple. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 26.14 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding 127) The breasts are attached to the chest superficial to the A) serratus anterior B) trapezius C) subclavius D) pectoralis major E) rectus abdominis Answer: D Learning Outcome: 26.14 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

muscle.

128) During menses, A) progesterone levels are high. B) a new uterine lining is formed. C) secretory glands and blood vessels develop in the endometrium. D) the old functional layer is sloughed off. E) the corpus luteum is most active. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 26.15 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 129) The uterine phase that develops because of a fall in progesterone levels is A) menses. B) the proliferative phase. C) the secretory phase. D) the follicular phase. E) the luteal phase. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 26.15 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

130) The principal hormone secreted by the corpus luteum is A) LH. B) FSH. C) progesterone. D) luteosterone. E) estrogen. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 26.15 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 131) Menstruation is triggered by a drop in the levels of A) FSH. B) LH. C) relaxin. D) progesterone. E) inhibin. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 26.15 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 132) The surge in luteinizing hormone that occurs during the middle of the ovarian cycle triggers A) follicle maturation. B) menstruation. C) ovulation. D) menopause. E) atresia. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 26.15 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 133) A rise in the blood levels of follicle-stimulating hormone at the beginning of the ovarian cycle is responsible for A) follicle maturation. B) menstruation. C) ovulation. D) menopause. E) atresia. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 26.15 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

134) Which of the following is not a function of the ovaries? A) secretion of hormones B) production of oocytes C) formation of immature gametes D) secretion of inhibin E) responding directly to GnRH Answer: E Learning Outcome: 26.15 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 135) A mature follicle releases an ovum in response to a surge in A) follicle-stimulating hormone. B) luteinizing hormone. C) estrogen. D) progesterone. E) oxytocin. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 26.15 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 136) After ovulation, the ovary secretes A) luteinizing hormone. B) estrogen. C) progesterone. D) FSH. E) both estrogen and progesterone. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 26.15 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 137) A sample of a woman's blood is analyzed for reproductive hormone levels. The results indicate a high level of progesterone, relatively high levels of inhibin, and low levels of FSH and LH. The female is most likely experiencing of the uterine cycle. A) the proliferative phase B) menses C) the secretory phase D) menarche E) menopause Answer: C Learning Outcome: 26.15 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

138) On which of the following days would the level of LH be highest in a female? A) the day before ovulation B) the first day of menses C) 3 days before ovulation D) 3 days after ovulation E) the day of ovulation Answer: A Learning Outcome: 26.15 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 139) Which of the following statements about the uterine cycle is false? A) The first occurrence is termed menarche. B) It is ultimately controlled by GnRH. C) It continues during pregnancy. D) It often involves painful myometrial contraction. E) It is divided into three phases. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 26.15 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 140) Which of the following interactions is incorrect regarding the reproductive system? A) The endocrine system provides hormones that regulate the gonads. B) The male urethra is a structure shared by the urinary and reproductive systems. C) The sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous system are both involved in erection and ejaculation. D) The gonads produce hormones that influence muscular development. E) A vasectomy is an effective way of preventing ovulation. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 26.15 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 141) Secondary sexual characteristics A) may develop in response to testosterone. B) may develop in response to estrogen. C) are usually apparent at birth. D) may develop in response to testosterone or estrogen. E) None of the answers is correct. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 26.15, 26.7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

142) Follicle-stimulating hormone A) stimulates the thyroid follicles. B) stimulates spermatogenesis. C) stimulates maturation of primordial follicles in the ovary. D) is important only in females. E) stimulates spermatogenesis and stimulates maturation of primordial follicles in the ovary. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 26.15, 26.7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 143) In a(n) , each ductus deferens is cut, and either a segment is removed and the ends tied (or cauterized) or silicone plugs are inserted. A) prostatectomy B) tubal ligation C) vasectomy D) hysterectomy E) ovariectomy Answer: C Learning Outcome: 26.16 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 144) Which of the following is a barrier method of birth control? A) rhythm method B) diaphragm C) hormonal post-coital contraception D) oral contraceptives E) tubal ligation Answer: B Learning Outcome: 26.16 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 145) "Natural family planning" is an alternative term for which form of birth control? A) the rhythm method B) an intrauterine device C) hormonal post-coital contraception D) oral contraceptives E) vasectomy Answer: A Learning Outcome: 26.16 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

146) The method of birth control involves taking either combination estrogen/progesterone birth control pills or progesterone-only pills in two large doses 12 hours apart within 72 hours of unprotected sexual intercourse. A) oral contraceptive B) progesterone-only C) intrauterine device D) rhythm method E) hormonal post-coital contraception Answer: E Learning Outcome: 26.16 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 147) Enlargement of the prostate gland, or over age 50. A) fibrocystic disease B) prostate cancer C) testicular cancer D) carcinoma E) benign prostatic hypertrophy Answer: E Learning Outcome: 26.17 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

, typically occurs spontaneously in men

148) The pathogen responsible for nearly 75% of cervical cancers is A) Borrelia burgdorferi. B) Human immunodeficiency virus. C) Chlamydia. D) Human papillomavirus. E) Herpes simplex. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 26.17 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 149) What are the functions of the gonads? (Module 26.1A) A) produce and store gametes B) secrete digestive enzymes C) regulate body temperature D) activate the parasympathetic nervous system E) control acid-base regulation Answer: A Learning Outcome: 26.1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

150) Name the structures of the male external genitalia. (Module 26.1B) A) penis, testis, and urethra B) prostate gland, epididymis, and testis C) penis, urethra, and scrotum D) prostate gland, seminal gland, and bulbo-urethral gland E) penis, testis, and scrotum Answer: C Learning Outcome: 26.1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 151) Name the structures of the male internal genitalia. (Module 26.1C) A) penis, urethra, scrotum, prostate gland, and seminal gland B) testis, scrotum, epididymis, bulbo-urethral gland, penis, seminal gland C) urethra, penis, testis, ductus deferens, seminal gland, bulbo-urethral gland D) ductus deferens, seminal gland, prostate, bulbo-urethral gland, epididymis, testis E) testis, epididymis, prostate, scrotum, urethra Answer: D Learning Outcome: 26.1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 152) Identify the complex network of channels that is connected to the seminiferous tubules. (Module 26.2A) A) raphe of scrotum B) rete testis C) straight tubule D) ductus deferens E) epididymis Answer: B Learning Outcome: 26.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 153) On a warm day, would the cremaster muscle be contracted or relaxed? Why? (Module 26.2B) A) The cremaster muscle would be contracted so the scrotum would be pulled close to the body. B) The cremaster muscle would be contracted so the scrotum could descend away from the body. C) The cremaster muscle would be relaxed so the scrotum would be pulled close to the body. D) The cremaster muscle would be relaxed so the scrotum could descend away from the body. E) The cremaster muscle would be contracted so the testes can descend into the scrotal cavities. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 26.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying

154) Define spermatogenesis. (Module 26.3A) A) Spermatogenesis is the production of sperm using spermiogenesis. B) Spermatogenesis is the production of sperm using mitosis. C) Spermatogenesis is the production of sperm using meiosis. D) Spermatogenesis is the production of sperm using mitosis and meiosis. E) Spermatogenesis is the production of sperm using mitosis, meiosis, and spermiogenesis. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 26.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 155) How many sperm will eventually be produced from each primary spermatocyte? (Module 26.3B) A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4 E) 6 Answer: D Learning Outcome: 26.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 156) List the structures of a sperm. (Module 26.3C) A) acrosome, head, neck, middle piece, and tail B) head, neck, and tail C) acrosome, spermatid, and spermiogenic head D) nucleus, lysosomes, peroxisomes, and Golgi apparatus E) acrosome, head, cilia, and flagella Answer: A Learning Outcome: 26.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 157) What is the function of interstitial endocrine cells? (Module 26.4A) A) Interstitial endocrine cells undergo meiosis to become sperm. B) Interstitial endocrine cells secrete inhibin. C) Interstitial endocrine cells produce androgens, such as testosterone. D) Interstitial endocrine cells produce seminal fluid. E) Interstitial endocrine cells form the blood testis barrier. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 26.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

158) Describe the process of spermiation. (Module 26.4B) A) During spermiation, a primary spermatocyte becomes a secondary spermatocyte. B) During spermiation, a secondary spermatocyte becomes a spermatid. C) During spermiation, a spermatid becomes a sperm. D) During spermiation, a sperm loses its tail. E) During spermiation, a sperm loses its attachment to the nurse cell and enters the lumen of the seminiferous tubule. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 26.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 159) What is the role of nurse cells? (Module 26.4C) A) Nurse cells produce testosterone. B) Nurse cells undergo spermatogenesis to become mature sperm. C) Nurse cells secrete androgens. D) Nurse cells create a microenvironment that supports spermatogenesis and form the blood testis barrier that isolates sperm from the blood. E) Nurse cells undergo synapsis to create secondary spermatocytes. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 26.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 160) What is the function of the ductus deferens? (Module 26.5A) A) stores sperm and transports sperm to the ejaculatory duct B) produces sperm and secretes testosterone C) secretes the majority of semen D) produces alkaline, mucus secretions E) carry fluid from the seminal gland and ampulla to the urethra Answer: A Learning Outcome: 26.5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 161) What are the functions of the bulbo-urethral glands? (Module 26.5B) A) Bulbo-urethral glands produce about 60 percent of the volume of semen. B) Bulbo-urethral glands produce the antibiotic protein, seminalplasmin. C) Bulbo-urethral glands produce testosterone. D) Bulbo-urethral glands produce inhibin. E) Bulbo-urethral glands produce mucus that neutralizes acid in the urethra and lubricates the penis. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 26.5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

162) Trace the ductal pathway from the epididymis to the urethra. (Module 26.5C) A) epididymis, ductus deferens, ampulla of ductus deferens, ejaculatory duct, urethra B) epididymis, seminal gland, ampulla of ductus deferens, ductus deferens, ejaculatory duct, urethra C) epididymis, prostate gland, ejaculatory duct, ampulla of ductus deferens, ductus deferens, urethra D) epididymis, ejaculatory duct, ductus deferens, ampulla of ductus deferens, urethra E) epididymis, ejaculatory duct, prostate gland, ductus deferens, ampulla of ductus deferens, seminal glands, urethra Answer: A Learning Outcome: 26.5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 163) Name the three columns of erectile tissue in the penis. (Module 26.6A) A) corpus vaginalis and the paired corpora albuginea B) ischiocavernosus and the paired bulbospongiosus C) corpus spongiosum and the paired corpora cavernosa D) ischial ramus and the paired crura of the penis E) root of the penis, prepuce, and the glans penis Answer: C Learning Outcome: 26.6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 164) An inability to contract the ischiocavernosus and bulbospongiosus would interfere with which phase of the male sexual response? (Module 26.6B) A) arousal B) emission C) ejaculation D) erection E) impotence Answer: C Learning Outcome: 26.6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 165) Identify the sources of hormones that control male sexual and reproductive functions. (Module 26.7B) A) adrenal gland and the testes B) adrenal gland, anterior lobe of the pituitary gland, and the testes C) testes, seminal glands, prostate, and bulbo-urethral glands D) hypothalamus, anterior lobe of the pituitary gland, and the testes E) hypothalamus, anterior lobe of the pituitary gland, and the adrenal gland Answer: D Learning Outcome: 26.7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

166) What effect would low FSH levels have on sperm production? (Module 26.7C) A) Low FSH levels would decrease the level of testosterone which increases sperm production. B) Low FSH levels would decrease the level of testosterone which decreases sperm production. C) Low FSH levels would increase the level of testosterone which increases sperm production. D) Low FSH levels would increase the level of testosterone which decreases sperm production. E) Low FSH levels would increase the level of inhibin which increases sperm production. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 26.7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 167) Name the structures of the external genitalia. (Module 26.8B) A) cervix and vagina B) urethra, clitoris, and vagina C) mons pubis, clitoris, and labia D) urethra, vagina, mammary glands E) ovary, uterine tube, uterus, and vagina Answer: C Learning Outcome: 26.8 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 168) Where does fertilization normally occur? (Module 26.8C) A) vagina B) ovary C) uterus D) labia E) uterine tube Answer: E Learning Outcome: 26.8 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 169) Distinguish between the vesico-uterine and recto-uterine pouches. (Module 26.9A) A) The vesico-uterine pouch is between the uterus and the right lateral wall of the pelvis and the recto-uterine pouch is between the uterus and the left lateral wall of the pelvis. B) The vesico-uterine pouch is between the uterus and the left lateral wall of the pelvis and the recto-uterine pouch is between the uterus and the right lateral wall of the pelvis. C) The vesico-uterine pouch is between the uterus and the posterior wall of the bladder and the recto-uterine pouch is between the uterus and the anterior surface of the colon. D) The vesico-uterine pouch is between the uterus and the anterior surface of the colon and the recto-uterine pouch is between the uterus and the posterior wall of the bladder. E) The vesico-uterine pouch is between the uterus and the inferior surface of the stomach and liver and the recto-uterine pouch is between the uterus and the pelvic floor. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 26.9 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

170) What roles do the ovaries perform? (Module 26.9B) A) produce oocytes and provide the site for fetal development B) produce oocytes, secrete female sex hormones, secrete inhibin C) secrete female and male sex hormones and secrete catecholamines D) produce oocytes, anchor and support the uterus structurally, and act as the site for fertilization E) secrete FSH and LH to control female reproductive cycles Answer: B Learning Outcome: 26.9 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 171) Name the structures enclosed by the broad ligament, and describe the function of the mesovarium. (Module 26.9C) A) ovaries, uterine tubes, and uterus; the mesovarium supports and stabilizes the uterus B) uterine tubes, uterus, cervix, and vagina; the mesovarium supports and stabilizes the vagina C) ovaries uterine tubes, and cervix; the mesovarium supports and stabilizes the cervix D) ovaries uterine tubes, and uterus; the mesovarium supports and stabilizes the vagina E) ovaries, uterine tubes, and uterus; the mesovarium supports and stabilizes each ovary Answer: E Learning Outcome: 26.9 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 172) Define oocyte. (Module 26.10A) A) Oocyte is an immature female gamete. B) Oocyte is a mature female gamete. C) Oocyte is the nest a gamete develops in. D) Oocyte is the stage of a female gamete during ovulation. E) Oocyte is the empty follicle after ovulation. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 26.10 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 173) How do recently released secondary oocytes reach the uterine tube? (Module 26.11A) A) vesicular exocytosis B) vesicular endocytosis C) axonal transport D) smooth muscle contractions E) ciliary fluid currents Answer: E Learning Outcome: 26.11 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

174) Describe the three layers of the uterine wall. (Module 26.11B) A) The endometrium is the outer, glandular layer; the myometrium is the middle, muscular layer; the perimetrium is the inner, incomplete serosal layer. B) The endometrium is the outer, muscular layer; the myometrium is the middle, incomplete serosal layer; the perimetrium is the inner, glandular layer. C) The endometrium is the inner, glandular layer; the myometrium is the middle, muscular layer; the perimetrium is the outer, incomplete serosal layer. D) The endometrium is the middle, muscular layer; the myometrium is the inner, glandular layer; the perimetrium is the outer, incomplete serosal layer. E) The endometrium is the outer, incomplete serosal layer; the myometrium is the inner, muscular layer; the perimetrium is the middle, glandular layer. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 26.11 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 175) Name the regions of the uterus. (Module 26.11C) A) cardia, fundus, and body B) fundus, body, and vagina C) uterine tube, body, and cervix D) fundus, body, and cervix E) head, body, and neck Answer: D Learning Outcome: 26.11 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 176) Name the layers of the endometrium. (Module 26.12A) A) deeper basal layer and superficial functional layer B) deeper functional layer and superficial basal layer C) deeper smooth muscle layer and superficial epithelial layer D) deeper epithelial layer and superficial smooth muscle layer E) deeper myometrium layer and superficial perimetrium layer Answer: A Learning Outcome: 26.12 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 177) How long does each menstruation typically last? (Module 26.12B) A) 1-2 days B) 3-5 days C) 1-7 days D) 7-10 days E) 14 days Answer: C Learning Outcome: 26.12 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

178) Identify the functions of the vagina. (Module 26.13B) A) produce mucus, protect the uterus from pathogens, and sheds its inner layer during menstruation B) produce oocytes, secrete female sex hormones, and secrete inhibin C) primary site of fertilization, site of fetal development, and sheds its inner layer during menstruation D) passageway for elimination of menstrual fluids, receives the penis during sexual intercourse, and forms the inferior portion of the birth canal E) passageway for elimination of menstrual fluids, receives the penis during sexual intercourse, and is the site of fetal development Answer: D Learning Outcome: 26.13 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 179) Cite the similarities that exist between certain structures in the reproductive systems of females and males. (Module 26.13C) A) The prostate gland in males is similar to the uterus in females and the both the male penis and female vagina contain erectile tissue. B) The ductus deferens in males is similar to the vagina in females and both males and females have folds of tissue called hymen. C) The scrotum in males is similar to the mons pubis in females and the urethra of both males and females travels through the reproductive structures. D) The seminal glands in males are similar to the greater vestibular glands in females and both males and females produce gametes outside of the body. E) The greater vestibular glands in females are similar to the bulbo-urethral glands in males and the both male penis and female clitoris contain erectile tissue. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 26.13 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 180) Define lactation. (Module 26.14A) A) Lactation is the secretion of prolactin by the anterior pituitary gland. B) Lactation is the secretion of oxytocin by the posterior pituitary gland. C) Lactation is the production of milk by the mammary glands. D) Lactation is the act of breastfeeding an infant. E) Lactation is the development of the breasts at puberty. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 26.14 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

181) Explain whether the blockage of a single lactiferous sinus would or would not interfere with the delivery of milk to the nipple. (Module 26.14B) A) Blockage of a single lactiferous sinus would interfere with the delivery of milk because each gland has only one lactiferous sinus. B) Blockage of a single lactiferous sinus would interfere with the delivery of milk because although each gland has several lactiferous sinuses, only one can be active at a time. C) Blockage of a single lactiferous sinus would not interfere with the delivery of milk because milk doesn't travel through the lactiferous sinuses to exit the nipple. D) Blockage of a single lactiferous sinus would not interfere with the delivery of milk because each gland has several lactiferous sinuses. E) Blockage of a single lactiferous sinus would interfere with the delivery of milk because the lactiferous sinus is where the milk is produced. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 26.14 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 182) Trace the route of milk from its site of production to the body surface. (Module 26.14C) A) secretory alveoli, lactiferous sinus, lactiferous duct, ducts within a lobule, surface of the nipple B) secretory alveoli, ducts within a lobule, lactiferous duct, lactiferous sinus, surface of the nipple C) surface of the nipple, secretory alveoli, ducts within a lobule, lactiferous sinus, lactiferous duct D) ducts within a lobule, secretory alveoli, lactiferous sinus, lactiferous duct, surface of the nipple E) lactiferous sinus, lactiferous duct, ducts within a lobule, surface of the nipple, secretory alveoli Answer: B Learning Outcome: 26.14 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 183) What ovarian cycle changes would result if the LH surge did not occur? (Module 26.15A) A) If the LH surge did not occur, follicles would not develop, estrogen levels would increase, and the oocyte would not develop. B) If the LH surge did not occur, oocyte and follicular development would be faster and estrogen and progesterone levels would be higher. C) If the LH surge did not occur, the secondary oocyte would not complete meiosis I, ovulation would not occur, and the corpus luteum would not form. D) If the LH surge did not occur, the secondary oocyte would not complete meiosis I, ovulation would occur around day 7, and the corpus albicans would not form. E) If the LH surge did not occur, the menstrual phase would continue past day 7, inhibin secretion would not occur, and estrogen secretion would not occur. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 26.15 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying

184) What uterine cycle event occurs when estrogen and progesterone decrease? (Module 26.15B) A) ovulation B) ovarian follicle development C) repair and regeneration of the functional layer D) secretion by uterine glands E) destruction of the functional layer and menstruation Answer: E Learning Outcome: 26.15 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 185) Which birth control method provides some protection against sexually transmitted diseases? (Module 26.16A) A) birth control pills B) diaphragm with spermicide C) condoms D) intrauterine device E) surgical sterilization Answer: C Learning Outcome: 26.16 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 186) The use of which birth control method often results in the cessation of the uterine cycle? (Module 26.16B) A) condoms B) intrauterine device C) diaphragm with spermicide D) progesterone-only shots E) the rhythm method Answer: D Learning Outcome: 26.16 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 187) Define vasectomy. (Module 26.16C) A) Vasectomy is the surgical sterilization of females by blocking the uterine tubes. B) Vasectomy is the surgical sterilization of females by removal of the uterus. C) Vasectomy is the surgical sterilization of males by the removal of the testes. D) Vasectomy is the surgical sterilization of males by the removal of the prostate gland. E) Vasectomy is the surgical sterilization of males by cutting the ductus deferens. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 26.16 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

188) Compare benign prostatic hypertrophy with prostate cancer. (Module 26.17A) A) Benign prostatic hypertrophy affects the seminal glands in addition to the prostate whereas prostate cancer just affects the prostate gland. B) Benign prostatic hypertrophy affects young men whereas prostate cancer affects older men. C) Benign prostatic hypertrophy affects older men whereas prostate cancer affects young men. D) Benign prostatic hypertrophy is an enlargement of the prostate whereas prostate cancer is a malignancy. E) Benign prostatic hypertrophy is a malignancy whereas prostate cancer is a shrinkage of the prostate gland. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 26.17 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 189) Which pathogen is associated with most cases of cervical cancer? (Module 26.17B) A) human immunodeficiency virus B) human papillomavirus C) Chlamydia D) Syphilis E) rhinovirus Answer: B Learning Outcome: 26.17 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Essay Questions 190) How are male and female reproductive systems functionally different? Answer: In males, the gonads (testes) secrete androgens and produce hundreds of millions of gametes (sperm) each day. The sperm are mixed with secretions, forming semen, and are expelled from the body during ejaculation into the female. In females, the gonads (ovaries) secrete estrogen and progesterone and release a single ovum (gamete) every month. The vagina receives the penis during sexual intercourse and the ejaculate is deposited near the external os of the uterus. If the ovum is fertilized and implants in the endometrium, the female's body nourishes the development of the embryo and fetus until birth. Learning Outcome: 26.3, 26.4, 26.5, 26.6, 26.10, 26.13, 26.14 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 191) How does mitosis differ from meiosis? Answer: All body cells that divide, except those destined to be gametes, use mitosis to replicate the set of chromosomes and pass a complete diploid set of chromosomes (23 pairs, total of 46 for humans) to each daughter cell. In meiosis, each daughter cell receives half that many chromosomes, only one from each pair (23 chromosomes), the haploid complement. Meiosis occurs in two stages, meiosis I and meiosis II, whereas mitosis occurs in a single stage. In meiosis I, the homologous pairs stick to each other in synapsis, giving the process of gene exchange to scramble the genome as a tetrad. In meiosis II, each dyad is separated, leading to another pair of daughter cells with a haploid number of chromosomes. Learning Outcome: 26.3, 26.10 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 49

192) Imagine that a seven-year-old girl develops a hormone-secreting ovarian tumor derived from granulosa cells. What signs of the disease would you expect? Answer: Granulosa cells produce estrogen, so a tumor involving these cells would lead to highly elevated levels of estrogen. Estrogen would set in motion the development of secondary sex characteristics, such as breast enlargement, deposition of fat in characteristic places, development of axillary and pubic hair and apocrine sweat glands, along with accelerated skeletal growth. Learning Outcome: 26.15 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 193) Identify important regulatory hormones that establish and maintain male sexual function. (Module 26.7A) Answer: Important regulatory hormones that establish and maintain male sexual function are follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH), luteinizing hormone (LH), and gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH). Testosterone is the most important androgen, although some tissues, such as the external genitalia and prostate, are more responsive or sensitive to dihydrotestosterone (DHT). Learning Outcome: 26.7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 194) Identify the main organs of the female reproductive system. (Module 26.8A) Answer: The main organs of the female reproductive system are the external genitalia (vulva and urethra) and the internal genitalia (ovaries, uterine tubes, uterus, and vagina). Learning Outcome: 26.8 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 195) List the important events in follicle development. (Module 26.10B) Answer: Follicle development may take a year to complete. Important events include (1) formation of primary ovarian follicles from primordial ovarian follicles in an egg nest, (2) formation of secondary ovarian follicles, and (3) formation of tertiary ovarian follicles. During the monthly ovarian cycle one tertiary ovarian follicle matures, releases a secondary oocyte at ovulation, and forms a corpus luteum, which will degenerate into a corpus albicans if fertilization doesn't occur. Learning Outcome: 26.10 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 196) What are the main differences in gamete production between males and females? (Module 26.10C) Answer: Males produce gametes from puberty until death; females produce gametes from puberty until menopause. Males produce many gametes at a time; females typically produce one or two per 28-day ovarian cycle. Males release mature gametes that have completed meiosis; females release secondary oocytes suspended in metaphase of meiosis II. Learning Outcome: 26.10 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

197) Describe the phases of the uterine cycle. (Module 26.12C) Answer: The uterine cycle begins with the menstrual phase, an interval marked by the destruction of the functional layer and menstruation (menses). After menstruation, the proliferative phase begins, during which the functional layer undergoes repair and thickens. Following the proliferative phase is the secretory phase, during which uterine (endometrial) glands enlarge. Learning Outcome: 26.12 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 198) Describe the anatomy of the vagina. (Module 26.13A) Answer: The vagina is a muscular tube extending between the uterus and external genitalia; its lining forms folds called rugae. The proximal portion of the vagina is marked by the cervix, which dips into the vaginal canal, and the shallow recess known as the vaginal fornix. The hymen, a thin epithelial fold, partially blocks the entrance to the vagina until physical distortion ruptures it. Learning Outcome: 26.13 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 199) Define sexually transmitted disease. (Module 26.17C) Answer: Sexually transmitted diseases are infections that are transferred from person to person primarily or exclusively by sexual contact or intercourse. Learning Outcome: 26.17 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

Visual Anatomy and Physiology, 3e (Martini) Chapter 27 Development and Inheritance Multiple Choice Questions 1) The gradual modification of anatomical structures during the period from conception to maturity is A) development. B) differentiation. C) embryogenesis. D) capacitation. E) All of the answers are correct. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 27.1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 2) Each of the following statements concerning development is true except A) embryonic development includes the events that occur in the first 2 months. B) fetal development occurs from the 9th week until birth. C) the first trimester is when the fetus first looks distinctively human. D) postnatal development begins at birth. E) organ development is complete by the end of the 6th month. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 27.1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 3) is the time spent in growing within the uterus. A) Gastrulation B) Gestation C) Development D) Pregnancy E) Embryonization Answer: B Learning Outcome: 27.1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 4) After fertilization, the first cell division is completed A) within a few seconds. B) within the hour. C) about 6 hours later. D) in 12 hours. E) more than a day later. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 27.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

5) During amphimixis, A) sperm become capacitated. B) the zygote is formed with 46 chromosomes. C) the male and female pronuclei fuse. D) meiosis occurs. E) gametes are formed. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 27.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 6) Which of the following is not part of fertilization? A) release of acrosomal enzymes B) oocyte activation C) completion of meiosis II D) amphimixis E) completion of meiosis I Answer: E Learning Outcome: 27.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 7) The individual cells produced by cleavage are called A) embryos. B) blastomeres. C) blastocytes. D) blastocysts. E) zygotes. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 27.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 8) Contact of a sperm with the oocyte membrane does not cause A) oocyte activation. B) completion of the second meiosis. C) formation of the second polar body. D) membrane fusion. E) a decrease in calcium released from the oocyte. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 27.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

9) Fertilization is complete when which of the follow occurs? A) oocyte activation B) pronucleus formation C) spindle formation D) amphimixis and cleavage E) formation of blastomeres Answer: D Learning Outcome: 27.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 10) Completion of cytokinesis does not lead to A) production of two blastomeres. B) division of the cytoplasm into two portions. C) initiation of interphase. D) completion of cleavage. E) formation of a polar body. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 27.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 11) The almost identical cells produced by cleavage divisions are called A) morulas. B) blastomeres. C) trophoblasts. D) blastocoeles. E) ova. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 27.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 12) Under the influence of the trophoblast, maternal blood vessels in the endometrium A) disappear. B) attach to the inner cell mass. C) break down and form lacunae. D) form a capillary network in the trophoblast. E) increase in size and penetrate the blastocyst. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 27.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

13) A space opens within the inner cell mass that will form the A) blastocoele. B) lacunae. C) amniotic cavity. D) chorion. E) allantois. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 27.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 14) The process of cell division that divides the cytoplasm of the zygote among blastomeres is called A) cleavage. B) implantation. C) placentation. D) embryogenesis. E) blastulation. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 27.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 15) Attachment to and penetration of the endometrium by the blastocyst is referred to as A) cleavage. B) implantation. C) placentation. D) embryogenesis. E) fertilization. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 27.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 16) After 3 days, a pre-embryo becomes a solid ball of cells known as a A) chorion. B) blastomere. C) lacuna. D) morula. E) blastocyst. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 27.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

17) A blastocyst is a(n) A) extra-embryonic membrane. B) solid ball of cells. C) hollow ball of cells. D) portion of the placenta. E) origin of the urinary bladder. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 27.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 18) The inner cell mass of the blastocyst will A) form the placenta. B) form the morula. C) form the embryo. D) form blood vessels of the placenta. E) provide nutrients for early growth. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 27.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 19) During implantation, the A) syncytial trophoblast erodes a path through the endometrium. B) inner cell mass begins to form the placenta. C) maternal blood vessels in the endometrium are walled off from the blastocyst. D) entire trophoblast becomes syncytial. E) inner cell mass is temporarily deprived of nutrients. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 27.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

Figure 27-1 20) Identify the structures labeled "4." A) zygotic twins B) morula C) blastomere D) trophoblast E) polar bodies Answer: E Learning Outcome: 27.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 21) Identify the stage labeled "12." A) zygote B) morula C) blastocyst D) trophoblast E) cytotrophoblast Answer: D Learning Outcome: 27.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

22) Identify the stage labeled "8." A) zygote B) early morula C) blastomere D) trophoblast E) advanced morula Answer: E Learning Outcome: 27.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 23) What is the developmental fate of "9?" A) forms the embryo B) forms the trophoblast C) forms the chorion D) forms the placenta E) dissolves completely Answer: A Learning Outcome: 27.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 24) Which of the following descriptors regarding the trophoblast is false? A) spreads into the endometrium B) absorbs nutrients released by degenerating endometrial glands C) has both a syncytial and cellular component D) is derived from the inner cell mass E) causes maternal blood vessels to break down Answer: D Learning Outcome: 27.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 25) Identify what process is occurring at the structure labeled "6." A) fertilization B) ovulation C) cleavage D) migration E) gastrulation Answer: C Learning Outcome: 27.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

26) During gastrulation, A) the blastomeres fuse. B) the placenta penetrates the endometrium. C) three germ layers are formed. D) blastomeres form. E) the neural tube closes. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 27.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 27) The region known as the primitive streak is the site of A) migration of mesodermal cells to form the endoderm. B) endoderm formation. C) ectoderm formation. D) migration of ectodermal cells to form the mesoderm. E) amnion formation. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 27.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 28) The ectoderm forms A) muscle. B) blood. C) neural tissues. D) the lining of the stomach and small intestine. E) the urinary system. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 27.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 29) The mesoderm forms A) muscle. B) epidermis. C) the brain. D) the lining of the digestive tract. E) respiratory epithelium. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 27.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

30) The endoderm forms A) muscle. B) blood. C) neural tissue. D) skin. E) the urinary bladder. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 27.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 31) The trophoblast has many of the characteristics of A) cardiac B) cancer C) infectious D) smooth muscle E) None of the answers is correct. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 27.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

cells.

32) By day 12 of embryonic development, mesoderm begins to form through A) embryogenesis. B) gastrulation. C) mitosis. D) meiosis. E) None of the answers is correct. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 27.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 33) The oval, three-layered sheet produced by gastrulation is called the A) embryo. B) ectoderm. C) inner cell mass. D) embryonic disc. E) yolk sac. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 27.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

34) The mesoderm and the cytotrophoblast combine to form the A) amnion. B) amniotic sac. C) chorion. D) allantois. E) None of the answers is correct. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 27.5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 35) The extra-embryonic membrane that forms blood cells is the A) yolk sac. B) amnion. C) allantois. D) chorion. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 27.5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 36) The extra-embryonic membrane that forms a fluid-filled sac is the A) yolk sac. B) amnion. C) allantois. D) All of the answers are correct. E) None of the answers is correct. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 27.5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 37) The extra-embryonic membrane that forms the fetal portion of the placenta is the A) yolk sac. B) amnion. C) allantois. D) chorion. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 27.5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 38) All of the following are true of the allantois except A) it derives partly from endoderm. B) it projects into the umbilical stalk. C) it derives partly from mesoderm. D) part will develop as the urinary bladder. E) it acts as the fetal bone marrow. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 27.5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 10

39) Which of the following is not one of the extra-embryonic membranes? A) yolk sac B) amnion C) allantois D) chorion E) umbilical cord Answer: E Learning Outcome: 27.5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 40) Endoderm + mesoderm = which extra-embryonic membrane(s)? A) chorion B) amnion C) allantois D) yolk sac E) both yolk sac and allantois Answer: E Learning Outcome: 27.5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

Figure 27-2 41) Identify the structure labeled "4." A) amnion B) chorion C) myometrium D) placenta E) endometrium Answer: D Learning Outcome: 27.6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 42) Identify the structure labeled "7." A) amnion B) chorion C) myometrium D) placenta E) endometrium Answer: B Learning Outcome: 27.6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

43) Identify the structure labeled "3." A) umbilical cord B) placenta C) myometrium D) amniotic cavity E) yolk sac Answer: A Learning Outcome: 27.6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 44) Identify the structure labeled "6." A) umbilical cord B) placenta C) chorion D) amnion E) myometrium Answer: D Learning Outcome: 27.6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 45) Identify the structure labeled "5." A) amniotic cavity B) chorion C) amnion D) placenta E) endometrium Answer: A Learning Outcome: 27.6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 46) The is formed by a portion of the allantois, blood vessels, and remnants of the yolk sac. A) amnion B) body stalk C) chorion D) umbilical cord E) placenta Answer: D Learning Outcome: 27.6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

47) The embryonic heart starts beating as blood begins to flow through chorionic vessels at approximately of development. A) day 3 B) day 12 C) week 2 D) week 3 E) the second trimester Answer: D Learning Outcome: 27.6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 48) Which of the following does not occur during the first trimester? A) cleavage B) implantation C) separation of blastomeres to form monozygotic twins D) gastrulation E) organs become functional Answer: E Learning Outcome: 27.6, 27.8 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 49) The hormone that increases the flexibility of the pubic symphysis during pregnancy is A) oxytocin. B) progesterone. C) human chorionic gonadotropin. D) human placental lactogen. E) relaxin. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 27.7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 50) The placenta is not a source of which of the following hormones? A) hCG B) relaxin C) placental lactogen D) progesterone E) prolactin Answer: E Learning Outcome: 27.7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 51) Deoxygenated blood is carried to the placenta by the A) umbilical vein. B) umbilical arteries. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 27.7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 14

52) Oxygenated blood is carried away from the placenta by the A) umbilical vein. B) umbilical arteries. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 27.7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 53) The period of gestation when the rudiments of all major organ systems are established is the trimester. A) first B) second C) third Answer: A Learning Outcome: 27.8 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 54) The period of gestation that is characterized by the largest fetal weight gain and fat deposition is the trimester. A) first B) second C) third Answer: C Learning Outcome: 27.8 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 55) Embryonic and early fetal development occurs in the A) first B) second C) third Answer: A Learning Outcome: 27.8 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 56) All of the following occur during pregnancy except A) a woman's respiratory rate and tidal volume increase. B) maternal blood volume increases. C) maternal nutrient requirements increase. D) a woman's glomerular filtration rate increases. E) a woman's bladder capacity increases. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 27.9 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

trimester.

57) By the end of gestation, which of the following has not occurred? A) Maternal blood volume has increased 50%. B) Maternal nutritional requirements has increased 30%. C) The uterus has increased in size by 10 fold. D) The kidney's GFR has increased 2 fold. E) The bladder size has been reduced. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 27.9 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 58) In pregnancy, expansion of the uterus results from A) increased production of additional smooth muscle cells. B) hypertrophy of smooth muscle cells. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 27.9 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 59) During gestation, contraction of the myometrium is inhibited by placenta. A) progesterone B) estrogen C) oxytocin D) prostaglandins E) inhibin Answer: A Learning Outcome: 27.10 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 60) The first stage of labor is the A) dilation B) expulsion C) placental D) contraction E) neonate Answer: A Learning Outcome: 27.10 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

stage.

, produced by the

61) The stage of labor during which the fetus emerges from the vagina is called the stage. A) emergence B) dilation C) placental D) expulsion E) fetal Answer: D Learning Outcome: 27.10 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 62) Stretching of the cervix causes an increase in the blood levels of A) estrogen. B) progesterone. C) oxytocin. D) relaxin. E) chorionic gonadotropin. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 27.10 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 63) Progesterone calms the myometrium and prevents contraction. What factor does not antagonize progesterone and trigger labor and delivery? A) rising estrogen levels increase sensitivity B) rising oxytocin levels lead to uterine contractions C) distortion of the myometrium D) distortion of the cervix E) relaxation of the cervix Answer: E Learning Outcome: 27.10 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 64) The prostaglandins produced in the endometrium A) initiate the release of oxytocin for parturition. B) stimulate smooth muscle contractions. C) initiate secretory activity in the mammary glands. D) constrict the cervix. E) None of the answers is correct. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 27.10 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

65) The placenta is expelled from the uterus during the A) placental B) expulsion C) dilation D) contraction E) afterbirth Answer: A Learning Outcome: 27.10 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

stage of labor.

66) The neonatal period extends A) for the first 24 hours of life. B) for the first month of life. C) until the first birthday. D) from day 1 until day 60. E) until breast feeding stops. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 27.11 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 67) Which hormone stimulates the milk let-down reflex? A) progesterone B) oxytocin C) estrogen D) relaxin E) GnRH Answer: B Learning Outcome: 27.11 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 68) The infancy stage of life is considered to be over when the baby reaches A) 1 year B) 2 years C) 6 months D) 1 month E) 18 months Answer: A Learning Outcome: 27.12 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

of age.

69) The clinical term for "growing old" is A) maturation. B) aging. C) senescence. D) apoptosis. E) senility. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 27.12 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 70) The developmental period heralded by the onset of puberty is known as A) the neonatal stage. B) infancy. C) childhood. D) adolescence. E) maturity. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 27.12, 27.13 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 71) All of the following occur at puberty except A) FSH levels rise. B) GnRH levels decline. C) levels of sex hormones rise. D) skeletal muscle fibers are stimulated. E) secondary sexual characteristics begin to develop. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 27.13 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 72) Which of the following hormones is the cause of most puberty-related changes in a female? A) estrogen B) progesterone C) oxytocin D) relaxin E) chorionic gonadotropin Answer: A Learning Outcome: 27.13 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

73) Which of the following is a puberty-related change caused by increased testosterone levels? A) accelerated bone deposition and skeletal growth B) loss of terminal hairs on the face and chest C) replication of skeletal muscle fibers D) thinning of the vocal folds E) decreased erythropoiesis Answer: A Learning Outcome: 27.13 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 74) Which of the following does not describe non-sex chromosomes? A) diploid B) haploid C) produced by mitosis D) genetically identical E) called somatic cells Answer: B Learning Outcome: 27.14 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 75) How many chromosomes do human somatic cells contain? A) 22 B) 23 C) 44 D) 46 E) 92 Answer: D Learning Outcome: 27.14 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 76) A person's original chromosomes and their component genes constitute that person's A) autosomal inheritance. B) genotype. C) phenotype. D) allele. E) locus. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 27.14 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

77) The traits of an individual controlled by his or her genotype are his or her A) epigenome. B) genotypical inheritances. C) alleles. D) phenotype. E) karyotype. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 27.14 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 78) The various forms of any one gene are called A) homologous. B) homozygous. C) heterozygous. D) autosomes. E) alleles. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 27.15 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 79) If an individual carries a pair of alleles that are the same, the individual is trait. A) homologous B) homozygous C) heterozygous D) autosomal E) polygenic Answer: B Learning Outcome: 27.15 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 80) If an individual carries two different alleles for the same trait, the individual is the trait. A) homologous B) homozygous C) heterozygous D) autosomal E) polygenic Answer: C Learning Outcome: 27.15 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

for the

for

81) Molly is homozygous for the dominant black hair trait. Therefore, A) Molly is a carrier for the black hair trait. B) Molly has black hair. C) Molly has red hair. D) Molly's hair color cannot be determined from this information. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 27.15 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 82) A is used to show all possible combinations of genes that can result from a given parental cross. A) pedigree B) Punnett square C) karyotype D) phenotype E) family tree Answer: B Learning Outcome: 27.15 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 83) In simple autosomal inheritance, phenotypic characters are determined, or controlled, by A) a single pair of alleles. B) multiple alleles. C) the action of a single gene. D) regulator genes on a different chromosome. E) the genes on the Y chromosome. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 27.16 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 84) In polygenic inheritance, phenotypic characters are A) determined by a double pair of alleles. B) determined by interactions among several genes. C) determined by multiple copies of a single gene. D) always controlled by genes on the same chromosome. E) determined by the genes on the Y chromosome. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 27.16 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

85) If a color-blind (X-linked recessive trait) man marries a woman who is heterozygous for the trait, what proportion of their male offspring can be expected to be color blind? A) 1/2 B) 1/4 C) 1/8 D) All E) None Answer: A Learning Outcome: 27.16 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 86) A zygote whose genotype is XX will develop as a A) male. B) female. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 27.16 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 87) A zygote whose genotype is XY will develop as a A) male. B) female. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 27.16 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 88) Which of the following traits is a sex-linked inheritance? A) albino pigmentation B) red hair C) hemophilia D) Huntington's disease E) sickle cell anemia Answer: C Learning Outcome: 27.16 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 89) The "P" in the abbreviation SNP stands for A) pronucleus. B) phenotype. C) prenatal. D) polymorphism. E) placental. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 27.17 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

90) A child born with one lone X chromosome will have A) Klinefelter's syndrome. B) Turner's syndrome. C) Down syndrome. D) Tay-Sachs disease. E) acromegaly. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 27.17 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 91) Trisomy 21 is the clinical term for A) Marfan's syndrome. B) Klinefelter syndrome. C) amyotrophic lateral sclerosis. D) fetal alcohol syndrome. E) Down syndrome. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 27.17 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 92) Define gestation. (Module 27.1A) A) Gestation is the moment of fertilization. B) Gestation is the time after fertilization until implantation. C) Gestation is the time of development during the first and second trimesters. D) Gestation is the time of development during the third trimester. E) Gestation is the time a developing embryo and fetus spends in the uterus. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 27.1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

93) Distinguish among embryonic, fetal, and prenatal development. (Module 27.1B) A) Embryonic development refers to the events that occur during the first 2 months after fertilization. Fetal development begins at the 9th week and continues until birth. Prenatal development consists of both embryonic and fetal development. B) Embryonic development begins at the 9th week and continues until birth. Fetal development refers to the events that occur during the first 2 months after fertilization. Prenatal development consists of both embryonic and fetal development. C) Embryonic development begins at fertilization and occurs until implantation. Fetal development begins at implantation and continues until the end of the second trimester. Prenatal development refers to the events of the third trimester. D) Embryonic development begins at implantation and continues until the end of the second trimester. Fetal development begins at fertilization and occurs until implantation. Prenatal development refers to the events of the third trimester. E) Embryonic development begins at implantation and continues until the end of the second trimester. Fetal development refers to the events of the third trimester. Prenatal development begins at birth and continues to maturity. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 27.1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 94) What is postnatal development? (Module 27.1C) A) Postnatal development refers to the events that occur during the first 2 months after fertilization. B) Postnatal development begins at the 9th week and continues until birth. C) Postnatal development begins at birth and continues to maturity. D) Postnatal development refers to the events of the first and second trimesters. E) Postnatal development refers to the events of the third trimester. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 27.1 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 95) Define fertilization. (Module 27.2A) A) Fertilization is the ejection of the primary oocyte from the ovary. B) Fertilization is the ejection of the secondary oocyte from the ovary. C) Fertilization is the journey the oocyte travels through the uterine tube to reach the uterus. D) Fertilization is the fusion of a secondary oocyte and a sperm to form a zygote. E) Fertilization is the attachment of a zygote to the uterine wall. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 27.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

96) How many chromosomes are contained within a human zygote? (Module 27.2B) A) 8 B) 23 C) 32 D) 46 E) 64 Answer: D Learning Outcome: 27.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 97) Why are numerous sperm required to fertilize a secondary oocyte? (Module 27.2C) A) Multiple sperm are needed to have the required number of chromosomes for the zygote. B) Acrosomal enzymes from multiple sperm are needed to penetrate the corona radiata. C) Multiple sperm are needed because the male pronucleus is smaller than the female pronucleus. D) Multiple sperm are needed to increase the extracellular calcium levels. E) Multiple sperm are needed to provide organelles to the zygote. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 27.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 98) A pre-embryo that consists of a solid ball of cells is known as what type of structure? (Module 27.3A) A) blastomere B) morula C) trophoblast D) cytotrophoblast E) blastocyst Answer: B Learning Outcome: 27.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 99) Describe the trophoblast. (Module 27.3B) A) The trophoblast is the cell layer surrounding the blastocyst. B) The trophoblast is the fluid-filled chamber filled with amniotic fluid. C) The trophoblast is a solid ball of cells. D) The trophoblast is the inner cavity within the blastocyst. E) The trophoblast is a pre-embryo at the four-cell stage. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 27.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

100) Describe the process that forms the primary germ layers and cite the layer that contributes to nearly all body systems. (Module 27.4A) A) Gastrulation forms the primary germ layers from the embryonic disc. The endoderm contributes to nearly all body systems. B) Gastrulation forms the primary germ layers from the embryonic disc. The mesoderm contributes to nearly all body systems. C) Formation of the primitive streak gives rise to the primary germ layers. The ectoderm contributes to nearly all body systems. D) Formation of the primitive streak gives rise to the primary germ layers. The endoderm contributes to nearly all body systems. E) Gastrulation forms the primary germ layers from the embryonic disc. The ectoderm contributes to nearly all body systems. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 27.4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 101) Name the four extra-embryonic membranes. (Module 27.5A) A) yolk sac, amnion, blastocoele, and the trophoblast B) endoderm, mesoderm, ectoderm, gastroderm C) blastodisc, embryonic disc, cytotrophoblast, and syncytiotrophoblast D) amnion, placenta, umbilical stalk, and chorion E) yolk sac, amnion, allantois, and the chorion Answer: E Learning Outcome: 27.5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 102) Describe the placenta. (Module 27.5C) A) The placenta is a layer of cells that surround the yolk sac. B) The placenta forms the interface between the inner cell mass and the trophoblast. C) The placenta forms the interface between the embryonic/fetal system and the maternal system. D) The placenta forms the interface between the blastocoele and the amniotic cavity. E) The placenta contains fluid that surrounds and cushions the embryo or fetus. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 27.5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

103) Describe the chorionic villi. (Module 27.6A) A) The chorionic villi contain fluid that surrounds and cushions the embryo or fetus. B) The chorionic villi forms the interface between the embryonic/fetal system and the amniotic fluid. C) The chorionic villi forms the umbilical cord. D) The chorionic villi are structures that extend into the maternal tissues through which maternal blood flows. E) The chorionic villi form the yolk sac. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 27.6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 104) Identify the structure connecting the fetus to the placenta, and name the extra-embryonic membrane from which it is derived. (Module 27.6C) A) yolk sac; allantois B) yolk sac; chorion C) umbilical cord; allantois D) umbilical cord; chorion E) umbilical cord; amnion Answer: C Learning Outcome: 27.6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 105) The presence of which hormone in the urine provides a reliable indicator of pregnancy, as detected by home pregnancy tests? (Module 27.7B) A) human placental lactogen B) placental prolactin C) relaxin D) LH E) human chorionic gonadotrophin Answer: E Learning Outcome: 27.7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 106) When does the placenta become sufficiently functional to continue the pregnancy? (Module 27.7C) A) after one week B) after one month C) after nine weeks D) after the first trimester E) after the second trimester Answer: D Learning Outcome: 27.7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

107) Define organogenesis. (Module 27.8A) A) Organogenesis is the process of cleavage and implantation. B) Organogenesis is the process of embryo formation during the first twelve weeks. C) Organogenesis is the process of organ formation. D) Organogenesis is the process of organ growth during the third trimester. E) Organogenesis is the process of organ maturation during postnatal development. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 27.8 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 108) A fetus undergoes its largest absolute weight gain during which trimester? (Module 27.8C) A) first trimester B) second trimester C) third trimester Answer: C Learning Outcome: 27.8 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 109) List the major changes that occur in maternal systems during pregnancy. (Module 27.9A) A) decreased respiratory rate and tidal volume, decreased blood volume, increased GFR and nutrient requirements, increases in the size of the uterus and mammary glands B) increased immune function, increased heart rate and blood pressure, decreased nutrient requirements and decreased thermoregulation C) decreased immune function, decreased heart rate and blood pressure, decreased blood volume and GFR, and decreased respiratory rate and tidal volume D) increased respiratory rate and tidal volume, increased blood volume and GFR, increased nutrient requirements, and increases in the size of the uterus and mammary glands E) increased respiratory rate and tidal volume, decreased nutrient requirements, decreased blood volume and GFR, and decreased size of the uterus and mammary glands. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 27.9 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 110) Why does a mother's blood volume increase during pregnancy? (Module 27.9B) A) A mother's blood volume increases to keep up with her increase in tidal volume. B) A mother's blood volume increases to accommodate for flow through the placenta. C) A mother's blood volume increases to keep up with the increase in GFR. D) A mother's blood volume increases to strengthen the immune system. E) A mother's blood volume increases due to the weight of the fetus. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 27.9 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

111) List and describe the factors involved in initiating labor contractions. (Module 27.10A) A) Decreasing estrogen levels causes cervical dilation and endometrial contractions. B) Relaxin causes cervical dilation, fetal weight distorts the myometrium, and the distortion of the cervix and the myometrium triggers release of oxytocin. C) Inhibin causes cervical dilation, fetal weight distorts the myometrium, and the distortion of the cervix and myometrium triggers the release of prolactin. D) Relaxin causes cervical dilation, fetal weight distorts the myometrium, and the distortion of the cervix and myometrium triggers the release of inhibin. E) Falling levels of estrogen and prosterone cause cervical dilation and the shedding of the functional layer which causes myometrial contractions. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 27.10 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 112) Which chemicals are primarily responsible for initiating contractions of true labor? (Module 27.10B) A) prolactin B) progesterone C) relaxin and inhibin D) estrogens and oxytocin stimulate the production of prostaglandins E) LH and oxytocin Answer: D Learning Outcome: 27.10 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 113) Which hormone causes the milk ejection (milk let-down) reflex? (Module 27.11B) A) prostaglandins B) human placental lactogen C) prolactin D) placental prolactin E) oxytocin Answer: E Learning Outcome: 27.11 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

114) Name the three major interacting hormonal events associated with the onset of puberty. (Module 27.13A) A) Increased GnRH production, increased LH and decreased FSH production, activation of ovaries and testes by LH. B) Decreased GnRH production due to estrogen and testosterone negative feedback, decrease in LH and FSH release by the anterior pituitary gland, and decreased LH and FSH sensitivity by the ovaries and testes. C) Increased GnRH production, increased sensitivity of the anterior pituitary to GnRH and the subsequent release of LH and FSH, and increased sensitivity of ovaries and testes to LH and FSH. D) Increased hypothalamic LH production, anterior pituitary release of estrogen and testosterone, estrogen activation of ovaries and testosterone activation of testes. E) Increased hypothalamic estrogen and testosterone production, estrogen activation of ovaries and testosterone activation of testes. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 27.13 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 115) Why does a man have a deeper voice and a larger larynx than a woman? (Module 27.13B) A) During fetal development, males lay down more laryngeal tissue than females causing a deeper voice. B) Males are typically larger than females and their larynx is also larger causing a deeper voice. C) Males do not talk as much as females so their laryngeal musculature is not as well developed causing a larger larynx and a deeper voice. D) During puberty, testosterone causes greater laryngeal development than estrogen so a male will have a larger larynx and a deeper voice. E) Males have proportionally larger necks than females so the development of the larynx has more room to expand and this causes a deeper voice. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 27.13 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 116) Why are premenopausal women at lesser risk of atherosclerosis than men? (Module 27.13C) A) Premenopausal women are typically smaller than men reducing the strain on their hearts. B) Premenopausal women are typically less active than men reducing their blood pressures. C) Premenopausal women have higher estrogen levels that decrease plasma cholesterol. D) Premenopausal women eat a better diet than men decreases their plasma cholesterol. E) Premenopausal women are typically more active and have better diets than men reducing their plasma cholesterol. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 27.13 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying

117) How do autosomes and sex chromosomes differ? (Module 27.14B) A) Autosomes are chromosomes in all the cells of the body except gametes. Sex chromosomes are the chromosomes in the gametes. B) Autosomes encode for all genes. Sex chromosomes encode only for genes that produce sperm and oocytes. C) Autosomes contain genes that encode for all components of the reproductive system, such as reproductive organs, glands, and hormones. Sex chromosomes contain genes that encode for allhuman traits except reproduction. D) Autosomes are chromosome pairs 1-22 that affect somatic characteristics. Sex chromosomes are the 23rd pair that determine whether an individual is male (XY) or female (XX). E) Autosomes are chromosomes are the 23rd pair that determine whether an individual is male (XY) or female (XX). Sex chromosomes are chromosome pairs 1-22 that affect somatic characteristics. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 27.14 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 118) How can you tell that the karyotype shown here is male? (Module 27.14C) A) The 23rd pair of chromosomes is XX. B) The 23rd pair of chromosomes is XY. C) The 23rd pair of chromosomes is YY. D) The 23rd pair of chromosomes is YO. E) There are only 22 pairs of chromosomes. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 27.14 Bloom's Taxonomy: Analyzing 119) Define homozygous and heterozygous. (Module 27.15A) A) Homozygous means homologous chromosomes has the same genes. Heterozygous means homologous chromosomes has different genes. B) Homozygous means homologous chromosomes has different genes. Heterozygous means homologous chromosomes has the same genes. C) Homozygous means that homologous chromosomes carry the same allele of a given gene. Heterozygous means that homologous chromosomes carry different alleles of a given gene. D) Homozygous means that homologous chromosomes carry different alleles of a given gene. Heterozygous means that homologous chromosomes carry the same allele of a given gene. E) Homozygous means that all genes are on the same locus. Heterozygous means that all genes are on different loci. Answer: C Learning Outcome: 27.15 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

120) Differentiate between simple inheritance and polygenic inheritance. (Module 27.15B) A) In simple inheritance, phenotype is determined by a single locus. In polygenic inheritance, phenotype is determined by multiple loci. B) In simple inheritance, phenotype is determined by multiple loci. In polygenic inheritance, phenotype is determined by a single locus. C) In simple inheritance, phenotype is determined by only one parent. In polygenic inheritance, phenotype is determined by both parents. D) In simple inheritance, phenotype is determined by interactions among alleles of several different genes. In polygenic inheritance, phenotype is determined by interactions between a single pair of alleles. E) In simple inheritance, phenotype is determined by interactions between a single pair of alleles. In polygenic inheritance, phenotype is determined by interactions among alleles of several different genes. Answer: E Learning Outcome: 27.15 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 121) The trait "freckles" operates through strict dominance. What would be the phenotype of a person who is heterozygous for this trait? (Module 27.15C) A) The person would have the dominant allele for freckles but the phenotype would be "no freckles." B) The person would have the dominant allele for freckles and the phenotype would be "freckles." C) The person would not have the dominant allele for freckles and the phenotype would be "no freckles." D) The person would not have the dominant allele for freckles but the phenotype would be "freckles." E) The person would have only dominant alleles for freckles but the phenotype would be "no freckles." Answer: B Learning Outcome: 27.15 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying

122) Compare strict dominance with codominance. (Module 27.16A) A) In strict dominance, one allele dominates another so a heterozygote will exhibit the dominant phenotype for the trait. In codominance, both alleles are expressed so a heterozygote will exhibit both the phenotypes for the trait. B) In strict dominance, both alleles are expressed so a heterozygote will exhibit both the phenotypes for the trait. In codominance, one allele dominates another so a heterozygote will exhibit the dominant phenotype for the trait. C) In strict dominance, only the dominant allele is even present so the only phenotype expressed is that of the dominant allele. In codominance, only the recessive allele is even present so the only phenotype expressed is that of the recessive allele. D) In strict dominance, heterozygous alleles produce a phenotype that is intermediate to the phenotypes of individuals who are homozygous for one allele or the other. In codominance, one allele dominates another so a heterozygote will exhibit the dominant phenotype for the trait. E) In strict dominance, one allele dominates another so a heterozygote will exhibit the dominant phenotype for the trait. In codominance, heterozygous alleles produce a phenotype that is intermediate to the phenotypes of individuals who are homozygous for one allele or the other. Answer: A Learning Outcome: 27.16 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 123) Why are sex-linked traits expressed more frequently in males than in females? (Module 27.16B) A) Males have fewer chromosomes than females. B) Males have more chromosomes than females. C) Males have more sex chromosomes than females. D) Males have a smaller Y chromosome that contains fewer genes that correspond to the larger X chromosome. E) Males have a larger Y chromosome that contains more genes that correspond to the smaller X chromosome. Answer: D Learning Outcome: 27.16 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

124) Indicate the type of inheritance involved in each of the following situations: (1) children who exhibit the trait have at least one parent who also exhibits it; (2) children exhibit the trait even though neither parent exhibits it; and (3) the trait is expressed equally in daughters and sons. (Module 27.16C) A) (1) simple inheritance (recessive); (2) simple inheritance (dominant); (3) autosomal inheritance B) (1) simple inheritance (recessive); (2) simple inheritance (incomplete dominance); (3) autosomal inheritance C) (1) simple inheritance (dominant); (2) simple inheritance (recessive); (3) autosomal inheritance D) (1) sex-linked inheritance (dominant); (2) sex-linked inheritance (recessive); (3) autosomal inheritance E) (1) polygenic inheritance; (2) simple inheritance (recessive); (3) sex-linked inheritance Answer: C Learning Outcome: 27.16 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 125) Define single nucleotide polymorphism. (Module 27.17A) A) A single nucleotide polymorphism is the presence of a single gene at one locus. B) A single nucleotide polymorphism is a variation in a single base pair in a DNA sequence. C) A single nucleotide polymorphism is a truncated chromosome. D) A single nucleotide polymorphism is a missing chromosome in a set. E) A single nucleotide polymorphism is when a single nucleotide controls the allele's phenotypic expression. Answer: B Learning Outcome: 27.17 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 126) Name the disorder characterized by each of the following chromosome patterns: (1) XO and (2) XXY. (Module 27.17B) A) (1) Down syndrome; (2) Turner syndrome B) (1) Turner syndrome; (2) Down syndrome C) (1) Turner syndrome; (2) Klinefelter syndrome D) (1) Klinefelter syndrome; (2) Turner syndrome E) (1) Klinefelter syndrome; (2) Down syndrome Answer: C Learning Outcome: 27.17 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

Essay Questions 127) List and briefly characterize the three trimesters of gestation. Answer: For convenience, we think of the gestation period as consisting of three integrated trimesters, each lasting 3 months in duration: (1) The first trimester is the period of embryonic and early fetal development. During this period, the rudiments of all the major organ systems appear. (2) The second trimester is dominated by the development of organs and organ systems, a process that nears completion by the end of the sixth month. During this period, body shape and proportions change; by the end of this trimester, the fetus looks distinctively human. (3) The third trimester is characterized by the largest fetal weight gain and deposition of adipose tissue. Early in the third trimester, most of the fetus's major organ systems become fully functional. Learning Outcome: 27.1, 27.8 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 128) Outline the events that take place between exposure of the oocyte to spermatozoa and formation of the first blastomere pair. Answer: Powerful acrosomal hydrolases released from the sperm head create openings between adherent granulosa cells (the corona radiata) and penetrate the zona pellucida. A solitary sperm penetrates to the oocyte membrane to which it fuses, sending its nucleus into the oocyte. This is the moment of fertilization. This triggers maturation of the haploid maternal pronucleus, followed by development of the male pronucleus. These then fuse in the act of amphimixis, the true combining of maternal and paternal haploid chromosome sets to form a unique diploid set of 46. Spindle fibers organize the chromosomes on the metaphase plate after the nuclear envelopes break down. After mitosis is complete, cytokinesis takes place, dividing the original zygote into two daughter cells or pair of blastomeres. This takes more than 30 hours to complete. Learning Outcome: 27.2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 129) A new mother tells you that when she nurses her baby, she feels as if she is having menstrual cramps. How would you explain this phenomenon? Answer: During nursing, the mechanical stimulus of suckling triggers a neural reflex that leads to the release of oxytocin from the posterior pituitary. Oxytocin enters the bloodstream and stimulates contractile cells that surround the secretory cells in the mammary glands to contract and move milk into the lactiferous sinuses–the milk let-down reflex. Oxytocin also stimulates smooth muscle cells of the myometrium, so the rise in oxytocin sometimes leads to uterine contractions as well, producing a feeling similar to menstrual cramping. The uterine contractions help stop uterine bleeding after delivery. Learning Outcome: 27.11 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 130) Explain the effect of testosterone on the male respiratory system at puberty. Answer: Testosterone stimulates growth of the larynx and a thickening and lengthening of the vocal cords. These changes cause a gradual deepening of the voice in males. Learning Outcome: 27.13 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

131) Describe the blastocyst and its role in implantation. (Module 27.3C) Answer: The blastocyst consists of an outer trophoblast and an inner cell mass. Implantation begins about 6 to 9 days after fertilization, when the blastocyst adheres to the uterine lining, or endometrium. The trophoblast cells in contact with the uterine lining divide and form a syncytiotrophoblast that erodes the endometrial lining. Nutrients from uterine glands are absorbed by the syncytiotrophoblast and distributed by diffusion through the cytotrophoblast to the inner cell mass. The blastocyst becomes enclosed within the endometrium by about 10 days after fertilization. Learning Outcome: 27.3 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 132) From which germ layers do the extra-embryonic membranes form, and what are each membrane's functions? (Module 27.5B) Answer: The yolk sac forms from the endoderm and mesoderm; it is an important site of blood cell formation. The amnion forms from the ectoderm and mesoderm; it encloses the fluid that surrounds and cushions the developing embryo and fetus. The allantois forms from the endoderm and mesoderm; its base gives rise to the urinary bladder. The chorion forms from the mesoderm and cytotrophoblast; it surrounds the blastocoele. Learning Outcome: 27.5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 133) Compare the body stalk with the yolk stalk. (Module 27.6B) Answer: The body stalk is the connection between the embryo and the chorion; it contains portions of the allantois and blood vessels that carry blood to and from the placenta. The yolk stalk is the connection between the endoderm of the embryo and the yolk sac. Learning Outcome: 27.6 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 134) Name the hormones synthesized by the syncytiotrophoblast. (Module 27.7A) Answer: The hormones synthesized by the syncytiotrophoblast are human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG), human placental lactogen (hPL), placental prolactin, relaxin, progesterone and estrogens Learning Outcome: 27.7 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 135) Identify the general events of fetal development during the second and third trimesters. (Module 27.8B) Answer: In the second trimester, the organ systems increase in complexity. During the third trimester, many of the organ systems become fully functional. Learning Outcome: 27.8 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding

136) Based on the illustrations showing the locations of the internal organs in nonpregnant and pregnant women, explain why some pregnant women experience difficulty breathing. (Module 27.9C) Answer: Some pregnant women experience difficulty breathing because the enlarged uterus presses up against the abdominal organs and the diaphragm, crowding the lungs. Learning Outcome: 27.9 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying 137) Name the three stages of labor, and describe the events that characterize each stage. (Module 27.10C) Answer: The dilation stage begins with the onset of true labor as the cervix dilates and the fetus begins to move toward the cervical canal; later in this stage, the amnion ruptures. The expulsion stage begins as the cervix dilates completely and continues until the fetus has completely emerged from the vagina (delivery). In the placental stage, the uterus gradually contracts, tearing the connections between the endometrium and the placenta and ejecting the placenta (also referred to as the afterbirth). Learning Outcome: 27.10 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 138) Explain the difference between colostrum and breast milk. (Module 27.11A) Answer: Colostrum contains antibodies and is produced by the mammary glands from the end of the 6th month of pregnancy until a few days after delivery. After that, the glands begin producing breast milk, which contains antibodies and lysozyme but has a higher fat content than colostrum. Learning Outcome: 27.11 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding 139) Name the stages of postnatal development, and describe the time frame involved for each stage. (Module 27.12A) Answer: The postnatal stages of development are the neonatal period, from birth to 1 month; infancy, from 1 month to age 1 year; childhood, from age 1 year until sexual maturation begins; adolescence, which begins with the onset of sexual maturation (puberty) between ages 10 and 15 years and ends when growth in body size is completed (around 18 years); and maturity, which includes the rest of the person's life. A final stage called senescence, or aging, overlaps with maturity. Learning Outcome: 27.12 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering 140) Distinguish between genotype and phenotype. (Module 27.14A) Answer: Chromosomes and their component genes make up the genotype. Anatomical or physiological characteristics from the expression of genes make up the phenotype. Learning Outcome: 27.14 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering

141) Identify the chromosome pair involved in each of the following disorders: (1) ovarian cancer, (2) Tay-Sachs disease, and (3) spinocerebellar ataxia. (Module 27.17C) Answer: (1) ovarian cancer — chromosome pair 9, (2) Tay-Sachs disease — chromosome pair 15, (3) spinocerebellar ataxia — chromosome pair 6 Learning Outcome: 27.17 Bloom's Taxonomy: Analyzing