VTNE Practice Questions And Answers 100% Correct

VTNE Practice Questions And Answers 100% Correct An animal that is dehydrated before surgery may require a _____ because _____ of the cell volume occurs after rehydration. a) blood/plasma transfusion; dilution b) blood/plasma transfusion; hemoconcentration c) splenectomy; hemoconcentration d) splenectomy; sequestration - a) blood/plasma transfusion; dilution Rehydration may necessitate a blood or plasma transfusion because dilution of the blood cell volume occurs with rehydration.

Platelets in mammals: a) appear within RBC agglutinations in cases of hemolytic anemia. b ) do not have nuclei. c) appear as microfilaria in a Wright-stain smear. d) are too small to be detected, even clumped, on the feathered edge of a blood smear. - b) Do not have a nuclei In mammals, platelets are nonnucleated fragments of cytoplasm released from megakaryocytes in the bone marrow.

Fleas are: a) endoparasites. b)pseudoparasites. c) periodic parasites. d) ectoparasties - Ectoparasites Parasites are divided into two large groups: endoparasites (internal parasites), which include nematodes, cestodes, trematodes, protozoa, and acanthocephalans; and ectoparasites (external parasites), which include fleas.

Actinobacillosis is usually treated with antibiotics, an antiinflammatory drug, and intravenous administration of: a) sodium iodide. b) penicillin c) dexamethasone. d) oxytetracycline. - a) sodium iodide.

Actinobacillosis (wooden tongue) is diagnosed by oral examination and biopsy, with isolation of the organism. It is treated with sodium iodide and antibiotics, as well as antiinflammatory drugs.

In the infection process, a reservoir refers to: a) transmission of infection by direct contact with skin, secretions, excretions, or mucous membranes of an infected animal. b) the portal of entry by which the pathogen gains entry into a new host. c) a pathogen's mode of transmission. d) an animal, insect, or fomite in or on which a pathogen can survive. - d) an animal, insect, or fomite in or on which a pathogen can survive.

A reservoir can be an animal, insect, or fomite (an inanimate substance or object such as water, a bowl, a cage, clipper blades, an instrument, a towel, or scrubs) in or on which a pathogen can survive Treatment for galactostasis: a) is indicated during the first 1 to 3 weeks of the postpartum period. b) is begun during weaning and focuses on decreasing milk production and inflammation, using warm compresses. c)focuses on treating the inflammation and massaging the affected mammary gland. d) involves a decrease in milk production, coupled with cold compresses to reduce ever. b) is begun during weaning and focuses on decreasing milk production and inflammation, using warm compresses.

Treatment is begun if galactostasis occurs during the weaning period and focuses on decreasing milk production (reducing food and water intake and preventing nursing) and decreasing inflammation with gentle application of warm compresses.

An allergic disease associated with airway inflammation, bronchoconstriction, and excessive mucous production is: a) influenza. b) herpes. c) recurrent airway obstruction. d)viral arteritis. - c) recurrent airway obstruction Heaves, or recurrent airway obstruction (RAO), is an allergic airway disease caused by airway inflammation, narrowing of small airways (bronchoconstriction), and excessive mucus production.

The analgesic effect of NSAIDs is due to:

a) interaction with receptors in the central nervous system. b) interaction with specific opioid receptors in the brain and spinal cord. c) interaction with histamine receptors. d)modification of the inflammatory response. - modification of the inflammatory response.

Nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) provide analgesia by modifying the inflammatory response.

A 10% concentration of solution contains _____ of a dug per _____ of solution. a) 1 g; 100 ml b)1 mg; 10 ml c) 10 mL; 100 mL d)100 g; 100 ml - c) 10 mL; 100 mL Percent solutions can be expressed as vol/vol, meaning the number of milliliters (mL) of a drug in 100 mL of solution. For example, a 10% solution (vol/vol) solution contains 10 mL of a drug in 100 mL of solution.

Cushing syndrome, or _____, primarily affects dogs and is characterized by _____. a)hypothyroidism; an underactive thyroid, resulting in subnormal circulating levels of the thyroid hormones, which causes a subsequent decrease in the metabolic rate b) diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA); the presence of ketones in the urine c) hypoadrenocorticism; inadequate secretion of glucocorticoids and mineralocorticoids, primarily cortisol and aldosterone d) hyperadrenocorticism; elevated circulating levels of cortisol produced by the adrenal cortex - d) hyperadrenocorticism; elevated circulating levels of cortisol produced by the adrenal cortex Hyperadrenocorticism, or Cushing syndrome, is a disease that primarily affects dogs and is characterized by elevated circulating levels of cortisol (hypercortisolemia) produced by the adrenal cortex.

Which drugs can be administered safely via the endotracheal route? a)Atropine, lidocaine, epinephrine, naloxone, vasopressin b) Dopamine, epinephrine c) Corticosteroids, atropine, vasopressin d) Epinephrine, naloxone only - a ) Atropine, lidocaine, epinephrine, naloxone, vasopressin Drugs that are safe to administer through an endotracheal tube are easily remembered by the acronym NAVEL (naloxone, atropine, vasopressin, epinephrine, lidocaine).

Two tests that can evaluate the intrinsic and common pathways of the coagulation cascade are the activated clotting time (ACT) and the _____, which measures the time it takes for the primary platelet plug to form. a) bleeding time b) CPPT c) hemostasis d) PT - a) bleeding time Using laboratory testing, the coagulation cascade can be divided into two pathways that result in formation of thrombin, the "intrinsic" and "extrinsic" pathways. Two tests that can be performed in house are the bleeding time and the activated clotting time (ACT). The bleeding time measures the time it takes for the primary platelet plug to form.

Artie, a Pekinese, has begun losing weight and experiences some anorexia. He is frequently suddenly exhausted. Tests indicate that Artie has _____, or disease of the heart muscle. a) cardiovascular disease b) cardiomuscular disease c) cardiomyopathy d) congestive heart failure - c) cardiomyopathy Cardiomyopathy is a disease (-pathy) of the heart (cardi/o) muscle (my/o) In a blood smear, oxidative damage results in __________, which are RBCs in which the hemoglobin has shifted to one side of the cell, creating a clear area outlined by a thin rim of membrane. a) keratocytes b) eccentrocytes c) spherocytes d) acanthocytes - b) eccentrocytes Eccentrocytes are RBCs in which the hemoglobin has shifted to one side of the cell, creating a clear area outlined by a thin rim of membrane.

Hepatic encephalopathy can be caused by: a) the presence of trypsin in the liver and pancreas, causing autodigestion. b) persistent endoparasites, ulcerations, neoplasms, or coagulopathies. c) complications of pancreatitis. d) exposure of the brain to gastrointestinal (GI) toxins as a consequence of decreased liver function or portosystemic shunts. - d) exposure of the brain to gastrointestinal (GI) toxins as a consequence of decreased liver function or portosystemic shunts.

Hepatic encephalopathy results when the brain is exposed to GI toxins, such as ammonia, as a consequence of decreased liver function or the presence of portosystemic shunts, which compromise the normal functioning of liver detoxification or the enterohepatic circulation.

In evaluating a blood smear: a) the counting area, where most of the evaluation takes place, is between the body and the feathered edge. b) cell morphology can only be accurately evaluated in the largest, "body" area of the smear. c) the counting area is the largest part, and is a homogenous area beginning at the end of the slide where the drop of blood was placed. d) cell morphology should only be evaluated at the feathered edge, where the cells are spread thinly and appear singly. - a) In evaluating a blood smear: The counting area is between the body and the feathered edge and contains a monolayer of cells. In this region, RBCs, WBCs, and platelets can be identified and their morphology can be adequately evaluated. Most of the blood smear evaluation is performed in the counting area. In the body, the blood smear is thick and the cells are piled on top of each other so it is difficult to identify cells or evaluate cell morphology. At the feathered edge, many of the cells may be broken, distribution of cells may be uneven, and RBCs often lose their central zone of pallor.

Pyometra, metritis, and endometrial hyperplasia may be treated with a(n): a) onychectomy. b) anastomosis. c) urethrostomy. d) ovariohysterectomy. - d) ovariohysterectomy. terine diseases that may require ovariohysterectomy include metritis, pyometra, uterine prolapse, endometrial hyperplasia, neoplasia, injury, neglected dystocia, and congenital abnormalities.

The veterinarian uses a(n) ______ to stabilize a fracture, placing pins through the skin and bone. a) osteotome b) external fixator c) trephine d) rongeur - b) external fixator External fixation is a means of stabilizing fractures using pins or wire placed through the skin and bone.

Which of the following is not a key aspect of recumbent care? a) Taking care of the recumbent patient's airways involves humidification, sterile suctioning, and changing the ET tube daily. b) Appropriate bedding and padding can reduce the incidence of decubital ulcer development. c) Do not apply fluorescein stain to the corneas of a patient who is under general anesthesia. d) None of the above. All are key aspects of recumbent care. - c) Do not apply fluorescein stain to the corneas of a patient who is under general anesthesia.

Animals under general anesthesia can develop corneal ulceration. Examining the corneas with a fluorescein stain daily or every other day is a good way to detect ulcers early, allowing for early and efficient treatment.

Vertical measurements on an ECG paper represent: a) time expressed in seconds. b)strength of the electrical impulse expressed in millimeters per millivolt. c)time expressed in millimeters per second. d) strength of the electrical impulse expressed in millivolts. - d) strength of the electrical impulse expressed in millivolts.

All standard ECG paper is composed of narrow vertical and horizontal lines 1 mm apart, creating a grid of 1-mm boxes. Vertical measurements represent strength of the electrical impulse expressed in millivolts (mV) and horizontal measurements represent time expressed in seconds (sec).

A surgeon removes a devitalized section of intestine and then performs a(n): a) onychectomy. b) urethrostomy. c) ovariohysterectomy. d) anastomosis. - d) anastomosis.

Anastomosis is performed after damaged tissue or a tumor requires a segment of the gastrointestinal tract to be removed.

Surgically prepared skin is considered _______, not ________. a) sterile; aseptic b) aseptic; sterile c) scrubbed; aseptic d) clean; aseptic - b) aseptic; sterile

The skin is prepared with aseptic technique prior to surgery, but the skin should never be considered sterile.

In evaluating an antibody response using serologic testing, the first sample is taken: a) only after the animal has had time to develop a humoral immune response. b) when the patient initially shows clinical signs and is presented for examination. c)only after vaccination to ensure accuracy. d)within 1 to 3 days of the second sample, when titer increases are most meaningful. - b) when the patient initially shows clinical signs and is presented for examination.

When evaluating an antibody response, paired samples taken 1 to 3 weeks apart are usually needed to diagnose an active infection because of the time it takes for an animal to develop a humoral immune response. The first sample is taken when the patient initially shows clinical signs and is presented for examination.

You notice a family of neonatal piglets establishing teat order. Naturally, the ______ mammary glands are most sought after. a) caudal b) middle c )nearest random d) cranial - d) cranial Because more milk is produced in the cranial mammary glands, the stronger, more assertive piglets will fight to claim these teats.

When collecting blood for a complete blood count (CBC), which of the following is not true? a) If clots are present, a new sample should be collected. b) 2 ml of blood is sufficient for a CBC from any animal species. c) The collection tube should be inverted 10-15 times before further processing to ensure the RBCs, WBCs, and platelets are evenly dispersed in the sample. d) None of the above. A, B, and C are all true. - d) None of the above. A, B, and C are all true.

All of the answers are true for collecting a CBC from any animal species. Samples are collected in a collection tube containing an anticoagulant and should be labeled immediately with identifying information as well as the date and time the sample was collected.

Fescue toxicosis is a nutritional disease that can involve lameness, tail-tip necrosis, abortion, and/or decreased milk production. This disease affects: a) pigs.

b)sheep. c) both B and C. d) horses. - b)sheep.

Cattle and sheep suffer from fescue toxicosis, as demonstrated in Table 10-1.

A(n) _______ is a detailed step-by-step description for performing a test and operating an instrument. a) Levy-Jennings chart b) QC c) iSTAT d) SOP - d) SOP It is important to have a standard operating procedure (SOP) for each instrument. An SOP is a detailed step-by-step description for performing a test and operating an instrument.

This ensures that the test is performed in a uniform fashion every time, whether by the same technician or multiple technicians.

Your patient's fecal sample shows streaks of blood on the outsides of otherwise normally formed stools, a symptom you quickly identify as: a) hematochezia. b) melena. c) tenesmus. d) hematemesis. - a) hematochezia.

Hematochezia is the presence of blood in the feces. It can be seen with diarrhea or as streaks of blood on the outside of normally formed stools.

Cerebrospinal (CSF) fluid from a horse is collected at the: a) atlantooccipital space. b) sacrococcygeal junction. c) cervical thoracic junction. d) lumbosacral space. - d) lumbosacral space.

In horses with spinal cord disease, CSF is collected under sedation from the lumbosacral space.

The most common nutritional disease of pot-bellied pigs is: a) malnourishment. b) stunted growth. c) anorexia.

d) obesity. - d) obesity.

The most common nutritional disease of pot-bellied pigs is obesity; however, many stunted and malnourished pigs are also seen owing to their owners' misguided attempts to keep them small.

You examine a microhematocrit tube after centrifugation. The buffy coat: a) is the uppermost layer and contains plasma. b) represents the middle layer and contains packed red blood cells (RBCs). c) contains white blood cells (WBCs) and platelets and is the middle layer between plasma and RBCs. d) is in the lower portion and contains packed RBCs. - c) contains white blood cells (WBCs) and platelets and is the middle layer between plasma and RBCs. After centrifugation, there are three visible components of the blood in the microhematocrit tube: a column of packed RBCs at the bottom, a buffy coat layer of WBCs and platelets just above the packed RBCs, and finally, plasma at the top.

A unicellular parasite is: a) a protozoan. b) a zoonosis. c) coenurus. d) a trematode. - a) a protozoan.

A protozoan is a unicellular organism. Some protozoans are parasitic in human beings and in wild and domestic animals.

Which of the following statements is false regarding calves with diarrhea? a) Milk and milk products should be warmed before being offered. b) Cows should be vaccinated before calving. c) Poor sanitation and poor nutrition can contribute to the development of diarrhea. d) Warm intravenous fluids should be administered and supplemented with dextrose and bicarbonate as needed. - a) Milk and milk products should be warmed before being offered.

A variety of management conditions, including poor nutrition and improper sanitation, may cause or contribute to the development of diarrhea in calves. Sick, weak calves should be started on warm, balanced intravenous fluids supplemented with dextrose and bicarbonate. On farms where calf diarrhea is a persistent problem, it is very important to ensure adequate colostrum feeding and it may also be necessary to vaccinate cows and heifers before calving.

Your equine patient develops rhinopneumonitis, caused by _____, which produces respiratory disease, abortion, and neonatal and neurologic disease (ascending paralysis) in horses. a) herpesvirus b) influenza c) gttural pouch mycosis d) strangles - a) herpesvirus Equine herpesvirus (the causative agent of rhinopneumonitis) is a contagious virus that produces respiratory disease, abortion, and neonatal and neurologic disease (ascending paralysis) in horses.

The veterinarian is about to perform a vaginal examination on a cow with dystocia. As you prep the perineal area, which of the following is not true? a) The perineal scrub will decrease uterine and vaginal contamination. b) The perineal scrub is not intended to achieve asepsis. c) Some veterinarians prefer to begin by cleaning out the rectum so that the cow does not defecate on the clean field. d) It is imperative to clean the perineal area before the rectal portion of the examination. d) It is imperative to clean the perineal area before the rectal portion of the examination.

The perineal area should be prepped before the vaginal examination so manure and dirt are not carried into the vagina. The perineal scrub is not intended to achieve asepsis but to decrease uterine and vaginal contamination. If a rectal examination is performed, do not clean the perineal area until after the rectal examination is completed. Some veterinarians prefer to begin by cleaning out the rectum so that the cow does not defecate on the clean field Most surgical instruments are made of: a) silver. b)stainless steel. c) chrome. d) titanium. - b) stainless steel Most surgical instruments are made of satin-finished stainless steel Hypoadrenocorticism is: a) a result of overproduction of the pituitary hormone adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH). b) due to excess cortisol production by the adrenal gland. c) due to a decrease in adrenal gland function.

d) associated with the excess production of glucocorticoids. - c) due to a decrease in adrenal gland function.

Diseases of the adrenal gland occur either due to an increase in function (hyperadrenocorticism) or a decrease in function (hypoadrenocorticism Which nutritional myodegenerative disease may be caused by a deficiency of gestational vitamin E and/or selenium? a) Johne disease b) Caseous lymphadenitis c) Caprine arthritis-encephalitis d) White muscle disease - d) White muscle disease White muscle disease (WMD), also known as nutritional myodegeneration, occurs in young calves, lambs, and kids born to dams receiving diets deficient in selenium during gestation.

What covers the feet of horses to help decrease contamination in the surgical suite? a) Sterile surgical tape b) Obstetric sleeves c) Fluid bags d) Paper booties - b) Obstetric sleeves Large examination gloves or obstetric (OB) sleeves are used to cover the feet of the horse to reduce contamination of the surgical suite.

To avoid infection from _____, pregnant women must avoid contact with soil, cat litter, raw meat, and cats excreting oocysts. a) Toxoplasma gondii b) Giardia c) Cheyletiella d) Dipylidium caninum - a) Toxoplasma gondii Though humans can be infected from a cat that is shedding oocysts, people are more often infected from eating raw or undercooked meat containing cysts. Pregnant women should be extra cautious about avoiding contact with soil, cat litter, and cats excreting oocysts, and should not eat raw meat.

When collecting serum samples, be sure to: a) refrigerate the sample during the clotting procedure. b) never use a tube containing a serum separator.

c)separate the serum as soon as a firm clot has formed. d) ensure that the sample contains fibrin to avoid false analyte measurements. - c) separate the serum as soon as a firm clot has formed.

Serum should be separated as soon as a firm clot has formed. When removing the upper serum layer from the tube, it is important to avoid pulling up cells from the clot into the serum sample. Some red-top tubes contain a serum separator to aid in clean removal of the serum. Refrigeration of the sample during the clotting procedure is not recommended, because it will delay clot formation. This can result in an incompletely clotted sample at the time of serum removal or formation of a fibrin clot above the cells in the serum portion of the sample. The presence of fibrin in a sample can clog analyzer tubing or falsely alter the measured amount of an analyte. __________ is the condition of an abnormally thickened portion of the articular cartilage. a) Rheumatoid arthritis b) Osteoarthritis c) Arthrodesis d) Osteochondrosis - d) Osteochondrosis Osteochondrosis is an abnormally thickened portion of the articular cartilage Which of the following means of hemostasis is avoided during equine abdominal surgery? a) Suction b) Sponge c) Clamping with ligation d) Hemostats in combination with electrocautery - b) Sponge Sponge hemostasis is avoided in equine abdominal surgery because of the potential for loss of a sponge within the abdominal cavity, which can be devastating and life threatening to a horse.

During surgery, you hand the veterinary surgeon a(n) _____, which she uses to cut bone by applying the blade end to the area to be cut before pounding on the flared end of the handle with a mallet. a) external fixator b) rongeur c) trephine d) osteotome - d) osteotome Osteotomes and chisels are used to cut bone. Osteotomes and chisels are used by pounding on the flat or flared end of the instrument with a mallet.

Which is the correct order of the phases of nociception?

a) Electrical, chemical, cardiovascular b) Injury, heat and swelling, inflammation c) Mechanical, chemical, thermal d) Transduction, transmission, modulation - d) Transduction, transmission, modulation Nociception, derived from the Latin word nocere (to injure), includes three distinct phases: transduction, transmission, and modulation.

According to the text, which of the following is not a common small animal emergency? a) Respiratory distress b) Urethral obstruction c) Acute abdomen d) All of the above are common small animal emergencies. - d) All of the above are common small animal emergencies.

In addition to A, B, and C, some of the most common small animal emergencies include trauma, gastric dilation volvulus (GDV), and toxin exposure.

The condition in which air becomes trapped between the body wall and the lung is called: a) flail chest. b) hemothorax. c) pneumothorax. d) subcutaneous emphysema. - c) pneumothorax. he presence of air in the pleural space indicates a pneumothorax. Pneumothorax is commonly secondary to external trauma to the chest cavity that allows the influx of air into the pleural space, which collapses the lung and prevents reexpansion.

Chemotherapeutic drugs: a) can help patients avoid the bone marrow suppression side effect seen with radiation therapy. b) cannot differentiate between cancer cells and normal cells that have high proliferation rates, such as the cells of bone marrow, the gastrointestinal tract, or hair follicles. c) target primarily slowly proliferating cells. d) have certain safe levels of occupational exposure, unlike radiation. - b) cannot differentiate between cancer cells and normal cells that have high proliferation rates, such as the cells of bone marrow, the gastrointestinal tract, or hair follicles.

Chemotherapy targets cells undergoing rapid proliferation, such as neoplastic cells.

However, chemotherapeutic agents cannot differentiate between cancer cells and normal cells that have high proliferation rates, such as the cells of bone marrow, the gastrointestinal tract, or hair follicles.

Which of the following medication routes has the highest bioavailability? a) Oral b)Intramuscular c)Intravenous d) Bioavailability is not related to the route; it is related to the concentration of the drug. c) Intravenous Bioavailability is the fraction of the drug that actually reaches the blood stream. When administering a drug intravenously, the bioavailability is 100%. Orally ingested drugs need to pass through the stomach and then into the small intestine before making it into the blood stream, and a fraction of the bioavailability remains at that point.

An animal that assumes a praying or play bowing position most likely has _____ pain. a) neurologically induced b) abdominal c) thoracic d) musculoskeletal - b) abdominal Animals with severe abdominal pain will often adopt a posture with an arched back and the hind legs moved backward, whereas others will repeatedly stretch into a "praying" posture, with the forelimbs down and stretched in front of them while the hind limbs remain standing in a normal position.

Unstained smears being sent to a reference laboratory should be: a) frozen. b) stored at room temperature. c) preserved with formalin before shipping. d) stored in a refrigerator. - b) stored at room temperature.

Unstained smears being sent to a reference laboratory should be stored at room temperature, not in a refrigerator or freezer, because water condensation will damage the cells. Unstained smears should be stored away from formalin fumes.

Which of the following statements is not true regarding anthrax? a) Anthrax-contaminated carcasses should be buried in lime or incinerated. b) Anthrax is endemic in many areas of the southern United States. c) If an animal is suspected of having anthrax, necropsy should be performed and the brain sent to the state veterinarian.

d) Contact the area's federal veterinarian immediately if an animal is suspected of having anthrax. - If an animal is suspected of having anthrax, necropsy should be performed and the brain sent to the state veterinarian.

Because people can easily contract this disease, it is important not to perform necropsy on any animal suspected of dying from anthrax.

First-degree AV block occurs when: a) there is no conduction of sinus impulses through the AV node. b) the sinus impulse is blocked at the level of the left or right bundle branch but is conducted normally through the opposite bundle branch. c) there is intermittent disruption of AV nodal conduction. d) conduction through the AV node is delayed. - d) conduction through the AV node is delayed.

First-degree AV block occurs when conduction through the AV node is delayed, causing a prolonged PR interval on the ECG. First-degree AV block is typically idiopathic, due to AV nodal fibrosis or vagal stimulation or induced by drugs.

Trocar, sleeve, blunt obturator, triangulation, and light cable are all terms used in _____ surgery. a) orthopedic b) ophthalmologic c) emergency d) arthroscopic - d) arthroscopic In arthroscopy, the sharp trocar is a pointed instrument that is inserted inside a hollow, cannula-type instrument called the arthroscope sleeve. The trocar and sleeve unit are used to penetrate the fibrous portion of the joint capsule through a stab incision. Once the sharp trocar has penetrated the fibrous joint capsule, the sharp trocar is replaced with an obturator. A fiber-optic light cable is attached directly to the optical light port on the arthroscope. Finally, the arthroscopic operation is performed via a technique called triangulation.

Both a goat and a sheep are scheduled for surgery. Which of the following presurgical injections will each animal be given? a) An anticonvulsant b) NSAIDs c) Tetanus toxoid or antitoxin d) Ceftiofur - c) Tetanus toxoid or antitoxin

Small ruminants are extremely susceptible to tetanus; therefore, tetanus toxoid and/or antitoxin should be given to small ruminants any time surgery is performed or an injury occurs For tracheostomy in a calf, you will use a ______mm ID tube. a) 10- to 15b) 10- to 12c) 15- to 20d) 5- to 10- - d) 5- to 10If a patient is presented with an upper airway obstruction, then a tracheostomy can be performed to permit the animal to breathe. Calves and small ruminants will require 5- to 10-mm ID tubes.

You are attempting to calibrate a microscope. Starting on low power (10´ magnification), you focus on the 2-mm line on the stage micrometer and then rotate the eyepiece so that the hash-mark scale is parallel to the stage micrometer scale, aligning the zero point on both scales. Now you notice that the 0.125-mm mark aligns with the "10" hash mark on the eyepiece. What is the distance between each hash mark on the eyepiece? a) M 0.0125 µm b) 12.5 µm c) 1.25 µm d) 0.125 µm - b) 12.5 µm The steps described in the question are repeated at each magnification; the distance between hash marks (µm) for the lowest power (10´) is 12.5 µm.

You are treating a dog who is suffering malabsorption, eating constantly yet losing weight.

He has chronic diarrhea that is pale, fatty, and voluminous. He is diagnosed with EPI, which is: a) characterized by painful straining at urination or defecation. b) caused by complications of advanced diabetes mellitus (DM). c) caused by insufficient production and secretion of pancreatic digestive enzymes. d) characterized by an accumulation of lipids or fats in the cytoplasm of more than 80% of the hepatocytes. - c) caused by insufficient production and secretion of pancreatic digestive enzymes.

Exocrine pancreatic insufficiency (EPI) is caused by insufficient production and secretion of pancreatic digestive enzymes.

During surgery, the veterinarian wants to remove a core of bone for biopsy. He asks you for a T-shaped, tubular instrument with a cylindrical cutting blade called a(n): a) trephine. b) osteotome.

c)rongeur. d) external fixator. - a) Trephines Trephines and Jamshidi needles are specially designed to remove a core of bone for biopsy.

Trephines are T-shaped reusable stainless steel tubular instruments with a cylindrical cutting blade similar to that used in a traditional punch biopsy.

In arthroscopic surgery, burs (or burrs) are: a) removed from the animal's coat before the procedure. b) the pumps used to deliver fluids to the surgical site. c) a type of forceps used to grasp and remove osteochondral chip fragments. d) often referred to as a motorized arthroplasty system. - d) often referred to as a motorized arthroplasty system.

Motorized burs (or burrs) are often referred to as a motorized arthroplasty system. The system consists of a small rounded bur attached to a power-driven shaft. The bur and shaft are enclosed in a sleeve, with a portion of the bur protected to prevent inadvertent damage to surrounding articular cartilage.

Which of the following practices helps ensure adequate steam penetration in the autoclave? a) Keeping the pack weight below 5 kg b) Stacking packs on top of each other c) Leaving less than 2 cm of space between packs and between the packs and autoclave walls d) Keeping the pack size smaller than 30 cm by 30 cm by 50 cm - d) Keeping the pack size smaller than 30 cm by 30 cm by 50 cm It is recommended that packs be no larger than 30 cm by 30 cm by 50 cm and weigh no more than 5.4 kg, depending on the type of material being autoclaved.

How is an antiseptic different from a disinfectant? a) The former kills or inhibits infectious agents on living tissues and the latter on inanimate objects. b) The former is used in consumer cleaners and the latter in cleaners intended for hospital use only. c) The former kills only growing bacteria, whereas the latter kills growing bacteria, bacterial spores, and viruses. d) The former is used only in soaps and the latter only in foams or liquids. - a) The former kills or inhibits infectious agents on living tissues and the latter on inanimate objects.

Disinfectants are chemical agents that are applied to inanimate objects to destroy the vegetative forms of bacteria but not necessarily the spore forms. Antiseptic agents, such as iodine or chlorhexidine, are substances used on living tissue to effect antisepsis A cat's serum sample is orange in color, indicating the presence of: a) normal serum. b) Lipemia. c) in vitro hemolysis. d) bilirubin. - d) bilirubin.

The presence of bilirubin in serum or plasma imparts a yellow to orange color. Normal serum should be clear and colorless, and lipemia appears as a hazy to overtly milky fluid.

Hemolysis is characterized by red discoloration.

What is the single most common disease syndrome in adult dairy cows? a) Lymphosarcoma b) Periparturient hypocalcemia (milk fever) c) Mastitis d) Bovine respiratory disease syndrome - c) Mastitis Economically, mastitis is one of the most important diseases in the dairy industry, and it is the single most common disease syndrome in adult dairy cows.

Which of the following must always be supplemented to beef cattle feeding with pasture grasses? a)Minerals b) Energy in the form of grain c) Fat d) Protein - a) Minerals Trichuris vulpis of the dog, fox, and coyote can be found in the: a) small intestine. b) right ventricle and pulmonary arteries. c) stomach d) cecum. - d) cecum.

Trichuris vulpis resembles a whip, hence its name, the whipworm. For both species of whipworms, a very fresh fecal sample is best for diagnosis. The veterinary technician must be able to recognize the whipworm's unique whiplike shape. Trichurids are associated with the cecum and portions of the large intestine.

For which of the following procedures would it be most beneficial to count the gauze sponges used for hemostasis? a) Feline gastrointestinal surgical repair b) Feline castration c) Feline declawing procedure d) Adult canine tail amputation - a) Feline gastrointestinal surgical repair Surgical sponges and gauze should be counted prior to the initiation of surgery. In addition, gauze that is placed into a cavity should be accounted for and tracked closely. Prior to closure of that cavity, the surgical assistant should be sure that the gauze has been removed and all gauze is accounted for. However, it is important that none of the gauze sponges fall into the abdominal cavity unnoticed. Serious life-threatening consequences could occur If the contents of a horse's large intestine are to be evacuated, a sterile-draped tray is prepared on which the ______ is to be placed. a) ingesta b) mesentery c) colon d) small intestine - c) colon If the contents from the large intestine are to be evacuated, a colon tray is positioned along side of the horse and draped with sterile impervious drapes that allow the large colon to be placed onto the tray away from the abdominal opening.

Fecal samples collected from small animals using the ______ collecting method should be used for direct examination only because of the amount collected this way. a) jarred b) owner-bagged c) gloved-finger d) fecal loop - d) fecal loop Fecal samples collected directly from the animal at the veterinary hospital using a fecal loop should be used for direct examination only, as the amount collected is relatively small.

You are asked to prepare Brownie, a 6-month-old, brown-tabby domestic shorthair cat, for castration. He will be restrained in the dorsal recumbent position with his hind legs tied cranially to expose the scrotal region. How do you prepare his scrotum? a) Shave with a safety razor and perform a surgical scrub. b) Shave with a no. 40 clipper blade and perform a surgical scrub. c) Pluck hair and perform a surgical scrub.

d) Leave hair on the scrotum and perform a surgical scrub. - c) Pluck hair and perform a surgical scrub.

For this procedure, the scrotal hair is plucked rather than clipped.

Which of the following is not usually part of the patient data-gathering phase in the nursing process? a) Performing a physical examination b) Identifying and prioritizing to generate a technician evaluation c) Gathering the initial medical history from the owner d) Reviewing the medical record for the past history - b) Identifying and prioritizing to generate a technician evaluation The veterinary technician gathers subjective and objective patient data, including taking an initial medical history; reviewing the medical record for past historical information; and gathering data during the physical examination.

As you monitor your postsurgical patient, you are aware that packed cell volume (PCV) and total protein (TP) values can drop up to _____ due to anesthesia and surgery, even if no blood loss occurs. a) 15% b) 20% c) 10% d)35% - c) 10% It is not unusual for the PCV and TP to drop up to 10% as a result of anesthesia and surgery, even when no major blood loss occurred. __________ are important mediators of hypersensitivity reactions and contain substances that can damage and kill some parasites. a) Eosinophils b) Metamyelocytes c) Döhle bodies d) Neutrophils - a) Eosinophils Eosinophils circulate in low numbers in health. They are important mediators of hypersensitivity reactions and contain substances that can damage and kill some parasites.

One common physiologic response to pain is: a) pupillary constriction. b)warm (not hot) extremities. c) an increased heart rate and blood pressure level.

d) a decreased respiratory rate. - c) an increased heart rate and blood pressure level.

Physiologic pain signs may be obvious and include an increased heart rate and blood pressure level, an increased respiratory rate, and vocalization.

Platelets in birds and reptiles: a) have nuclei and are called thrombocytes. b) lack nuclei. c) have a prominent central zone of pallor. d) lack cytoplasm. - a) have nuclei and are called thrombocytes.

In birds and reptiles, platelets have nuclei and are called thrombocytes.

Increased serum _____ is a normal physiologic response in the fasted horse. a) sorbitol dehydrogenase b) gamma-glutamyl transferase c) bilirubin d) creatine phosphokinase - c) bilirubin Serum bilirubin concentrations will increase dramatically if feed is withheld for more than 24 hours. This condition, which is called fasting hyperbilirubinemia, is a normal physiologic response in horses and does not indicate liver disease.

If using an aminoglycoside antimicrobial agent to treat a patient, it is important to monitor the patient because these agents are known to cause: a) liver problems. b) heart problems. c) kidney problems. d) an increase in blood pressure. - c) kidney problems.

Aminoglycoside antimicrobials (gentamicin, amikacin sulfate) are efficacious against gramnegative pathogens and can be administered intramuscularly or intravenously. These antimicrobials are nephrotoxic, so renal function should be monitored during therapy.

Lidocaine and bupivacaine are examples of which drug class? a) a2-Agonists b) NSAIDs c) Opioids d) Local anesthetics - d) Local anesthetics

Local anesthetics work by totally disrupting neural transmission of information. Lidocaine, the most widely used local anesthetic, takes effect in 3 to 5 minutes and is effective for 60 to 90 minutes. Bupivacaine takes longer to take effect (15 to 20 minutes), but its anesthetic and analgesic effects last 6 to 8 hours.

Nacho, a dog, is exhibiting dyspnea. The mucous membranes show signs of pallor. The veterinarian diagnoses this as ______, or deficient oxygenation of the tissues. a)dyspnea b) hypoxemia c) hemoptysis d) hypoxia - d) hypoxia Hypoxia is defined as deficient oxygenation of the tissues. It manifests clinically as tachypnea, cyanosis or pallor, and dyspnea.

Pepper has an echocardiogram after surgery, and the veterinarian sees shadows that suggest the possibility of heart disease. Pepper has no symptoms, however, and is sent home after recovering well from surgery. Because Pepper is asymptomatic, the veterinarian instructs the owner to monitor for rapid breathing, or _____, which can be the first sign that heart disease has progressed to heart failure. a) inadequate tissue perfusion b) tachypnea c) bradycardia d) syncope - b) tachypnea It is recommended that asymptomatic patients be closely monitored. This includes obtaining periodic echocardiograms and, perhaps more importantly, educating the owners to monitor the resting respiratory rate at home for tachypnea, one of the earliest signs of heart failure.

Variation in the PR interval may occur with: left atrial enlargement. a) atrioventricular dissociation. b) right ventricular enlargement. c) right atrial enlargement. - a) atrioventricular dissociation.

The PR interval indicates conduction time through the AV node. Variation in the PR interval may occur with changes in vagal tone or with AV dissociation.

Which of the following types of fluids is most often used for arthroscopic procedures to aid in visualizing the intraarticular space? a) 5% Dextrose in water

b) 50% Dextrose in water c) 0.45% Sodium chloride with 10 ml/L of chlorhexidine added d) Any sterile, balanced electrolyte solution - d) Any sterile, balanced electrolyte solution Sterile fluid, usually a balanced electrolyte solution, is infused into the joint under pressure to maintain distention of the joint capsule, which is essential for visualization of the intraarticular space.

Aseptic technique: a)requires that all cages be cleaned and thoroughly disinfected between patients. b) is only used for emergency surgery. c) includes all steps taken to prevent contamination of the surgical site by infectious agents. d) requires all people involved in patient care to wash their hands thoroughly with an antibacterial soap between patients. - c) includes all steps taken to prevent contamination of the surgical site by infectious agents.

Aseptic technique includes all steps taken to prevent contamination of the surgical site by infectious agents.

Hypoalbuminemia may develop from loss through: a) the gastrointestinal tract. b) the kidney. c) decreased production due to liver failure. d) all of the above.

Hypoalbuminemia may develop from loss through the kidney or gastrointestinal tract or from decreased production due to liver failure. Both albumin and globulin can decrease with hemorrhage. - d) all of the above.

Hypoalbuminemia may develop from loss through the kidney or gastrointestinal tract or from decreased production due to liver failure. Both albumin and globulin can decrease with hemorrhage.

You are unsure whether a ferret that has received an adrenalectomy is experiencing a significant amount of pain. What is the best way to determine whether this patient needs analgesics? a) The rule of thumb is that if a procedure would be painful for you to endure, it is likely that it is painful for the animal. b) Check the body temperature; if it is more than 2° F above normal less than 12 hours after the surgery, administer analgesics. c)Check the respiratory rate; if it is greater than two times normal, administer analgesics.

d) Check the heart rate; if it is greater than two times normal, administer analgesics. - a) The rule of thumb is that if a procedure would be painful for you to endure, it is likely that it is painful for the animal.

If a procedure or injury would be painful to you, it is likely to be painful to other animals.

Sarcomas can arise from _____, whereas carcinomas can arise from _____. a) organs; cartilage b) mucous membranes; bone c)cartilage; lymph nodes d)skin; connective tissue - c) cartilage; lymph nodes Carcinomas generally spread through both the lymphatic system and the bloodstream, so regional lymph node and lung metastases are commonly seen. Sarcomas, on the other hand, arise from mesenchymal tissues, such as cartilage, connective tissue, or bone.

The most common breed of alpacas are: a) huacaya. b)suri. c) llama. d) camel. - a)huacaya.

Two breeds of alpacas, the huacaya and the suri, have gained popularity in the United States. The huacaya breed is the most common; the fiber of this breed is crimped and shorter than that of the suri.

In both the horse and dog, what is the most commonly encountered adverse reaction to NSAIDs? a) Constipation b) Diarrhea c) Gastrointestinal upset d) Low blood pressure - c) Gastrointestinal upset The most common side effect from NSAIDs in all species is gastrointestinal (GI) upset and/or ulceration, with large animals more likely to experience ulceration Your patient, Miss Marple, a Persian cat, has been sneezing excessively. You most likely suspect that she has: a) Throat or lung cancer. b)inhaled a foreign material. c) an upper respiratory infection.

d) simply experienced normal, routine expulsion of air in an effort to expel respiratory irritants. - c) an upper respiratory infection.

In dogs, persistent sneezing is most commonly seen with inhalation of foreign material, whereas with cats, it is most often associated with upper respiratory viral infections Multimodal analgesia takes advantage of the _______ obtained by combining two or more classes of analgesic drugs to alter more than one phase. a) "kitty magic" B) synergistic effects c) "doubled" neurotransmission d) the wind-up phenomenon - B) synergistic effects Multimodal analgesia takes advantage of the synergistic effects obtained by combining two or more classes of analgesic drugs to alter more than one phase.

Which of the following is not one of the three physical sterilization methods? a) Radiation b) Water c) Heat d) Filtration - b) Water The three physical sterilization methods are filtration (use of a filter to separate particulate matter from liquid or gas), heat (use of wet or dry heat), and radiation (use of radiation to kill microorganisms when another method would cause damage to the other materials) Acarines are: a) any parasitic insect. b) the same as mites or ticks. c) insects with two wings. d) the order that contains fleas. - b) the same as mites or ticks.

Acarines are mites, such as ticks, scabies mites, ear mites, hair follicle and sebaceous glanddwelling mites, chiggers, and "walking dandruff" mites.

Which of the following statements is true concerning veterinary use of controlled substances? a) A controlled substance is a substance that can be sold over the counter. b) A controlled substance is a substance of high abuse potential for which detailed written records of amounts used and amounts on hand are required. c) The law states that controlled substances must be kept in a cabinet.

d) The controlled substances used medically are designated on the label with a skull and crossbones icon. - b) A controlled substance is a substance of high abuse potential for which detailed written records of amounts used and amounts on hand are required.

The use of controlled substances by a registered individual requires accurate record keeping of orders, receipts, and use. The inventory needs to be reconcilable with the records, and all records must be available for inspection by the Drug Enforcement Administration (DEA) at any time.

In some species, neutrophils are called __________because of the intense staining of the granules. a) heterophils b) metarubricytes c) eccentrocytes d) acanthocytes - a) heterophils In some species, neutrophils are called heterophils because of the intense staining of the granules. Heterophils are the most abundant granulocyte in rabbits and in many nonmammalian species. The granules are larger and typically are rod or seed shaped but may appear oval or round in some species. The granules appear dark orange or reddishbrown with routine stains and may obscure the nucleus.

The average heart rate (HR) (in beats per minute) can be calculated by counting the number of: a) millimeters between two R waves and dividing into 3000 when using a paper speed of 50 mm/sec. b)P waves in a predetermined time period and multiplying by the number of QRS complexes in that same time period. c)QRS complexes in a predetermined time period and multiplying the number of complexes by a specific factor. d) millimeters between two R waves and dividing into 1500 when using a paper speed of 25 mm/sec. - c)QRS complexes in a predetermined time period and multiplying the number of complexes by a specific factor.

The average HR is determined by counting the number of QRS complexes in a predetermined time period (usually 3 seconds) and multiplying the number of complexes by a factor (20 when using 3 seconds) to calculate the number of beats per minute.

Which of the following describes the transduction phase of nociception? a) The conversion of energy into an electrical impulse b) The transmission of a nerve impulse to the spinal cord c) The nerve ending's initial contact with a pain-causing energy

d) The activation of sympathetic reflexes to dampen pain - a) The conversion of energy into an electrical impulse The pain pathway from the nerve ending to the central nervous system (CNS) begins at the site of tissue damage.Once their threshold is exceeded, nociceptors (pain receptors) are stimulated, converting mechanical, chemical, and thermal energy into electrical impulses.

This process is called transduction. The electrical impulses are then sent to the CNS during the transmission phase, and the CNS reacts in the modulation phase.

During surgery, you place gelatin foams into the surgical site to provide effective: a) hemostasis. b) wound dressing. c) bandaging. d) packing around cut skin edges during surgery. - a) hemostasis.

Gelatin foams can be placed onto regions of bleeding and provide a framework for the initiation of clotting. Gelatin foams can be cut or torn into shapes that can be more effectively placed into a bleeding site, and these materials are absorbed over time.

A control is: a) software used to record, graph, and analyze control data. b) the antigen measured by any serologic test. c) a calibrator that is used to set up and adjust the instrument and/or procedure to perform correctly and to desired specifications. d) material that contains a known quantity of the analyte that is being tested. - d) material that contains a known quantity of the analyte that is being tested.

Routinely running controls is an integral part of good quality control (QC). A control is material that contains a known quantity of the analyte that is being tested. Controls are used to monitor the performance of a test to ensure that the instrument and/or test procedure is working correctly and consistently. Controls are different from calibrators.

Indications of postoperative pain include a(n): a) decreased heart rate. b) increased appetite. c) decreased respiratory rate. d) increased heart rate. - d) increased heart rate.

During recovery, animals that are in pain, among other things, may vocalize; have elevated heart and respiratory rates; thrash, bite, or chew at the surgery site; and/or become aggressive The term that describes false pregnancy is:

a) Pseudomonas. b) cytokinesis. c) pseudocyesis. d) metritis. - c) pseudocyesis.

Pseudocyesis means false pregnancy and is a result of an endocrine disturbance. _____ provides a means to measure the expired dioxide concentration of expired air, whereas _____ indicates a noninvasive measurement of the hemoglobin-oxygen saturation. a) Blood gas analysis; capnography b) Capnography; pulse oximetry c) Pulse oximetry; capnography d) Capnography; blood gas analysis - b) Capnography; pulse oximetry Capnography, or measurement of carbon dioxide levels, can also provide information about respiratory system function. The pulse oximeter is used to determine the percentage of saturation of red blood cells The classic signs of gastric dilation volvulus (GDV) include all of the following except: a) bloating. b) vomiting. c) straining to defecate. d) retching. - c) straining to defecate.

Gastric dilation volvulus (GDV) is dilation of the stomach with ingesta and gas, with rotation of the stomach into an abnormal position. Vomiting, retching, and bloating (severe distention of the stomach) are classic clinical signs. __________ result from antibody binding to the RBC surface and removal of a portion of the membrane by macrophages; this occurs in immune hemolytic anemia (IHA), which is most commonly recognized in dogs. a) Echinocytes b) Acanthocytes c) Spherocytes d) Leptocytes - Spherocytes are RBCs that lack a central zone of pallor and often appear slightly smaller and denser than normal RBCs. Spherocytes result from antibody binding to the RBC surface and removal of a portion of the membrane by macrophages in the spleen.

This occurs in IHA, which is most commonly recognized in dogs.

Postoperative incision infections and cellulitis can both be treated with: a) bandaging.

b) drainage. c) aspiration. d) warm compresses and systemic antibiotics. - d) warm compresses and systemic antibiotics.

Abscess or infection must be treated by drainage, warm compresses, and systemic antibiotics. Cellulitis is typically not drained but is otherwise treated similarly.

Cestodes are: a) larval tapeworms. b) adult roundworms. c) larval roundworms. d) adult tapeworms. - d) adult tapeworms.

Cestodes are adult tapeworms and metacestodes are the larval stages of tapeworms.

The placenta in a bovine patient is considered retained if not expelled by _____ hours. a) 6 b) 12 c) 2 d) 24 - b) 12 After calving, the placenta is usually passed within 2 to 4 hours and is considered retained if it has not been expelled by 12 hours.

Bob the dog has trouble walking at home and moves around as little as possible, which is not normal for him. On palpating the joints in Bob's hind leg, the veterinary assistant detects the following symptoms: pain, swelling, crepitus, decreased range of motion, and joint laxity. These are consistent with a diagnosis of: a) OA. b) MG. c) FLUTD. d) IMHA. - a) OA. On osteoarthritis (OA), palpation of the affected joint(s) reveals pain, swelling, crepitus, decreased range of motion, and joint laxity. Confirmation of OA is made by radiographs Which antiseptic and disinfectant is bactericidal but does not kill spores or fungi; it has no residual effects; and it is both painful and cytotoxic when used in open wounds? a) Quaternary ammonium b) Chlorhexidine

c) Povidone-iodine d)Alcohol - d)Alcohol Alcohols are bactericidal but are ineffective against spores and fungi. They have no residual effects and are inhibited by organic debris. Ethyl and isopropyl alcohols are more effective than methyl alcohol as disinfecting agents. Alcohols should never be used in open wounds because they are both painful and cytotoxic.

A new horse owner calls to say her 6-year-old quarter horse gelding is sweating, kicking at his abdomen, pawing, and rolling. This horse is exhibiting signs of: a) abdominal pain (colic). b) neck pain. c) a headache. d) lameness (leg pain). - a) abdominal pain (colic).

Signs of moderate to severe gastrointestinal (GI) pain, or colic, include the following: restlessness; pawing; looking and/or kicking at abdomen; frequently lying down and rising; trying to roll; violent movements; bruxism; and tachycardia.

Therapeutic drug monitoring is: a)recommended when a drug has a narrow therapeutic range. b) the periodic measurement of the amount of drug in the blood. c)recommended when the pharmacokinetics of a drug varies greatly between recipients. d) all of the above. - d) all of the above.

The goal of therapeutic drug monitoring is to maximize the efficacy and efficiency of a drug by optimizing drug plasma concentrations. Periodically monitoring the amount of drug in the blood helps determine toxicity, monitor owner compliance, establish efficacy, and detect treatment failure. Adjustments to drug administration can be planned accordingly.

The "flash" sterilization setting on the autoclave is used for: a) cleaning the autoclave. b) motorized equipment such as orthopedic drills. c) items sensitive to heat, such as rubber and some plastics. d) emergency (very rapid) sterilization of instruments. - emergency (very rapid) sterilization of instruments.

Emergency sterilization, also called flash sterilization, is usually performed in prevacuum sterilizers. The recommended exposure time is 3 minutes at 131° C (270° F) As a complication of celiotomy, your patient experiences ____, a temporary loss of intestinal motility.

a) evisceration b)megaesophagus c)ileus d) diarrhea - c) ileus Intestinal ileus is a (usually temporary) loss of intestinal motility. _____ refers to an increased response to a stimulus that is normally painful so that less and less stimulation is required to produce pain, whereas _____ refers to the production of pain in response to a stimulus that does not normally provoke pain. a) Allodynia; hyperalgesia b)Nociception; analgesia c)Analgesia; hyperalgesia d)Hyperalgesia; allodynia - d)Hyperalgesia; allodynia Hyperalgesia is a state in which less and less stimulation is required to initiate pain.

Allodynia results in normally harmless sensations being interpreted as pain In situations in which the veterinary staff is having difficulty stimulating a calf to breathe, _____ can be injected under the animal's _____. a) doxapram hydrochloride; upper eyelid b) epinephrine; tongue c) doxapram hydrochloride; tongue e) epinephrine; upper eyelid - c) doxapram hydrochloride; tongue For difficult cases, doxapram hydrochloride, a respiratory stimulant, may be injected under the tongue to induce respiration.

Syncope is: a) breathing deeply. b) a sympathomimetic agent. c) tranquilizer commonly used in show horses to help them cope with the stress in the judging arena. d) fainting. - d) fainting.

The term for fainting is syncope. Sotalol is used to treat ventricular arrhythmias, specifically boxer ventricular tachycardia and syncope (fainting).

Serum enzymes cannot be used to detect: a) cholestasis.

b) muscle damage. c) hepatocellular injury. d) drug overdose. - d) drug overdose.

Serum enzymes can be used to detect hepatocellular injury, cholestasis, or muscle damage.

Which of the following terms describes the presence of an opening in a surgical drape to allow exposure to a specific area while covering a broader area? a) Cut-out b)Surgical stage slit c) Fenestration d) Window - c) Fenestration Surgical drapes with varying sizes of fenestrations are commercially available and can also be created easily by cutting a nonfenestrated drape with scissors. A fenestrated drape is ideal for exposing only the surgical field.

When selecting a cuff to use to indirectly measure a cat's or dog's blood pressure, the _____ of the cuff should be approximately _____ of the circumference of the limb at the site of cuff placement. a) circumference; 30% b) width; 40% c) length; 40% d) diameter; 30% - b) width; 40% The blood pressure cuff width should approximate 40% of the circumference of the limb at the site of cuff placement.

A test for gastrointestinal parasites, ________ requires that the solution used in the test must have a higher specific gravity than that of the parasitic material. a) fecal flotation b) fecal suspension c) fecal sedimentation d) direct smear of fecal matter - a) fecal flotation Two types of procedures are most often used in veterinary hospitals: flotation and sedimentation. Fecal flotation methods are based on the specific gravity of parasitic material and fecal debris. To allow for flotation of parasite eggs, oocysts, and other life cycle stages, the flotation solution must have a higher specific gravity than that of the parasitic material.

Which of the following tests is essential for the evaluation of primary renal disease? a) Urinalysis b) Serum chemistry panel c) WBC d) CBC - a) Urinalysis A urinalysis is essential for the evaluation of primary renal disease.

Fluid collected from thoracic and abdominal effusions can be put in EDTA tubes to: a) prevent clotting (in case the sample is contaminated with blood). b) keep it sterile. c) prevent cloudiness during centrifugation. d) preserve clarity and color. - a) prevent clotting (in case the sample is contaminated with blood).

Fluid should be placed in collection tubes containing EDTA to prevent clotting in case the sample is contaminated with blood Arterial blood samples should be drawn from the _____ or femoral artery. a) dorsal metatarsal b) saphenous c) cephalic d) caudal - a) dorsal metatarsal Arterial blood samples are commonly obtained from the dorsal metatarsal artery or femoral artery.

An abnormal P wave likely indicates: a) ventricular chamber enlargement. b) an electrical impulse of supraventricular origin. c)right or left atrial enlargement. d) bundle branch block. - c)right or left atrial enlargement.

Identification of the P waves indicates whether there is normal coordinated atrial activation, abnormal (ectopic) atrial activation, or no activation. Measuring P wave height and width determines the presence of atrial enlargement.

When passing sharp instruments or scalpel blades, the sharp components should be passed: a) only after asking the surgeon to verify that the b) instrument or blade is the right one. slowly.

c) in such a way that the surgeon's open palm is avoided (i.e., pass the instrument or blade from your pen-hold grasp to the surgeon's pen-hold grasp).

D) away from the surgeon's hand. - D) away from the surgeon's hand.

The scalpel blade should be passed with the blade away from the surgeon's hand to prevent accidental injury.

At high doses, narcotics can cause excitement in: a) cats. b) horses. c)collie breeds or mixes. d) goats. - b) horses.

Although this side effect is rare in patients in pain, opioids may cause excitement in large animal species, especially horses and pigs, and are often used with a sedative (e.g., xylazine, romifidine, or detomidine) in these species. Cattle, sheep, and goats generally become lightly sedated with opioids but may have behavioral changes such as restlessness and vocalization.

Amino acids are made up of carbon, oxygen, _____, and _____. a)phosphorus; potassium Correct Answer b) nitrogen; sulfur You Answered c) calcium; phosphorus protein; nitrogen - Amino acids consist of nitrogen, carbon, oxygen, and sulfur. The deconstruction, or deamination, process releases these elements into the body's system and results in either their elimination from the body or their use as energy.

When a large section of intestine has become necrotic, it is necessary to perform _____ and _____. a) resection; intussusception b) resection; anastomosis c) intussusception; resection d) intussusception; anastomosis - b) resection; anastomosis In some instances, devitalized tissue must be removed via resection and anastomosis.

Devitalized intestine is discolored and lacks a blood supply.

Tail docking and dewclaw removal in a puppy should occur between days: a) 3 and 5. b) 15 and 20.

c) 7 and 10. d) 10 and 14. - a) 3 and 5.

Tail docking and dewclaw removal should be performed during the first week of life (at 3 to 5 days of age).

What is the first thing a technician should ascertain from a telephone triage with an owner who is worried about his or her pet? a) Whether the animal is having difficulty breathing b) A name and phone number where the caller can be contacted if disconnected c) Whether the animal is experiencing life-threatening breathing d) None of the above . - b) A name and phone number where the caller can be contacted if disconnected An established system for asking pertinent questions can aid the technician in helping clients deal with emergency or frightening situations with their pets. It is best to obtain a number where the caller can be reached at the onset of the call to establish a clear communication plan if accidentally disconnected.

What certification identifies to the public those online pharmacy sites that are appropriately licensed and legitimately operating over the Internet? a)NABP b) VIPPS c) USP d) FDA - b) VIPPS Verified Internet Pharmacy Practice Sites (VIPPS) is a voluntary accreditation program of the National Association of Boards of Pharmacy (NABP) that provides a VIPPS seal of verification to Internet pharmacies that are appropriately licensed and legitimately operated.

Which of the following drugs is used to treat ventricular tachycardia? a) Dopamine b) Lidocaine c) Sodium bicarbonate d) Glucocorticoids - b) Lidocaine Lidocaine is an antiarrhythmic medication used to treat rapid or unstable ventricular tachycardias.

The most common late postoperative complication of _____ is stricture, generally manifested as stranguria. a) urethrostomy b) ovariohysterectomy c) anastomosis d) onychectomy - a) urethrostomy The most common late postoperative complication of urethrostomy is stricture, a narrowing of the urethral opening due to excessive scar tissue formation. Self-mutilation of the surgery site by licking can increase the change of stricture formation and must be prevented. Strictures typically manifest as chronic stranguria (straining to urinate).

A veterinarian who has a patient with congestive heart failure (CHF) administers _____ in hopes of improving the heart's ability to pump blood by increasing the calcium concentration. a) enrofloxacin b) digoxin c) prednisone d) furosemide - b) digoxin Digoxin is a naturally derived drug used in patients that have CHF to improve the heart's ability to pump blood. Digoxin increases the calcium concentration in cardiac muscle cells, increasing the strength of muscle contractions.

An accumulation of purulent secretions and fluid within the lining of the uterus is termed: a) pyometra. b) metritis. c) endometriosis. d) pyoderma. - a) pyometra.

Pyometra is a condition of the uterus in which endometrial hyperplasia has resulted in increased uterine secretions, including pus (py/o) and accumulation of fluid in the uterus with secondary infection.

After ethylene oxide sterilization, materials should be: placed in an autoclave at 131° C (267.8° F) for 3 minutes. a) quarantined in a well-ventilated area for at least 7 days. b) packed closely in an air-tight cabinet. c) rinsed well in sterile, distilled water. - a) quarantined in a well-ventilated area for at least 7 days.

After ethylene oxide sterilization, materials should be quarantined in a well-ventilated area for a minimum of 7 days or in an aerator for 12 to 18 hours Feeding inadequate forages with little or no grain can create a deficiency of usable ______ during the last trimester of pregnancy in ewes carrying twins or triplets and can lead to _____ and ____ in the mother. a) carbohydrates; paralysis; coma b) protein; abortion; paralysis c) protein; paralysis; coma d) carbohydrates; abortion; paralysis - a) carbohydrates; paralysis; coma Feeding inadequate forage with little or no grain can create a deficiency of usable carbohydrates during the last trimester of pregnancy in ewes carrying twins or triplets and can lead to paralysis and coma in the mother. Prevention is the least expensive route to avoid pregnancy disease in the breeding flock. Energy requirements are highest during lactation and proportional to the number of lambs the ewe is nursing Bovine respiratory disease syndrome (BRDS), commonly called _____, is caused by a combination of respiratory bacteria, viruses, and _____. a) hardware disease; stress b) founder; poor nutrition c) shipping fever; stress d) lumpy jaw; enterotoxins - c) shipping fever; stress This syndrome is caused by a complex interaction of respiratory viruses, bacteria, and stress. Transportation, cold weather, close confinement, and exposure to viral and bacterial pathogens predispose to the development of respiratory disease. BRDS in feedlot cattle is often referred to as shipping fever.

Swelling and infection along tissue planes in a postoperative incision that may be red, warm, and associated with elevated body temperature may be a sign of: a) decubital ulcer. b) cellulitis. c) dermal edema. d) ascites. - b) cellulitis.

If incision swelling occurs 4 to 6 days postoperatively, is warm to the touch, or is associated with an elevated body temperature, is reddened, and/or is draining, the possibility of infection or cellulitis (infection along tissue planes) must be considered. _____ can result from the rupture of retropharyngeal lymph nodes occurring secondary to infectious strangles in horses.

a) Maxillary sinusitis b) Allergic airway disease c) Pleuritis d) Guttural pouch empyema - d) Guttural pouch empyema A bacterial infection of the guttural pouch (empyema) usually is a sequel to strangles or retropharyngeal lymph node abscesses. For example, in strangles, the abscesses under the mandible enlarge, rupture, and drain purulent exudate. The retropharyngeal lymph nodes may rupture into the guttural pouches, resulting in guttural pouch empyema and purulent nasal discharge.

Measuring the hematocrit, hemoglobin concentration, and ________ can be used to determine the oxygen-carrying capacity of blood. a) RBC count b) cell volume of reticulocytes c) WBC count d) platelet volume distribution width - a) RBC count PCV (or HCT), RBC count, and hemoglobin concentration are used to evaluate RBC mass, which is an indication of the oxygen-carrying capacity of blood.

As you review the nursing care plan for Sparky, a rabbit, the data you encounter will contain: a) the veterinarian's list of orders related to his or her diagnosis. b) information about implementation of the patient's actual assessment or examination needs. c)information about interventions specific to your own evaluation of Sparky. d) the SOAP format. - c)information about interventions specific to your own evaluation of Sparky.

The nursing care plan refers to the entire list of interventions specific to each technician evaluation for a particular patient.

Which of the following bacteria is most likely associated with the gangrenous form of mastitis in sheep and goats? a) Staphylococcus aureus b) Streptococcus c) Pasteurella haemolytica d) Pseudomonas - a) Staphylococcus aureus

S. aureus is associated with the gangrenous form of mastitis in small ruminants, which may be severe enough to cause death of the animal.

You discover that your patient is unable to breathe unless the patient is upright, a sign referred to as: a) orthopnea. b) dyspnea. c) hypoxemia. d) hypoxia. - a) orthopnea.

Orthopnea is the inability to breathe except when in an upright position; Which method of helping a downed cow stand is the best option for supporting an animal for long periods of time? a) Pulley system b) Hydroflotation c) Sling d) Hip lifter - b) Hydroflotation Hydroflotation is just one option for assisting down cows to stand but is the best option for supporting cattle for long periods of time. Compared with the other methods of assisting down cows to rise, this is the method associated with the least trauma to the animal and is likely to have the most favorable outcome.

An echogram of your patient, a cat, shows an increased thickness of the left ventricle wall and a small ventricular lumen, which confirms a diagnosis of: a) hypertrophic cardiomyopathy (HCM). b) degenerative atrioventricular valve disease. c) dilated cardiomyopathy (DCM). d) aortic thromboembolism (ATE). - a) hypertrophic cardiomyopathy (HCM).

HCM is the most common form of feline cardiomyopathy and is characterized by an increased thickness of the left ventricle wall and a small ventricular lumen.

When you add liquid reagent to a serum sample: a) the chemical reaction produces a colored chemical product. b) it preserves that sample for shipment to a laboratory. c) it clots and solidifies the sample. d) it causes evaporation and a desiccated product that can be viewed microscopically. - a) the chemical reaction produces a colored chemical product.

Addition of the patient sample to the liquid reagent results in a chemical reaction and subsequent development of a colored chemical product.

Which of the following drugs promotes diuresis and decreases cerebral edema in a patient following cardiac arrest by drawing water from the interstitial space between cells? a) Mannitol b) Dobutamine c) Glucocorticoids Ld) idocaine - a) Mannitol Mannitol is an osmotic diuretic, which remains in the intravascular space and draws water from the interstitial space between cells. This causes a shift of fluid from the tissues into the bloodstream, thereby expanding vascular volume, promoting diuresis, and decreasing cerebral edema in a patient following cardiac arrest.

Bloody diarrhea and pale mucous membranes in very young puppies are signs of: a) Ancylostoma caninum. b) Trichuris vulpis. c) Strongylus vulgaris. d) ascarids. - a) Ancylostoma caninum.

Canine hookworms (Ancylostoma caninum) are voracious blood feeders. Pale mucous membranes and hydremia (watery blood) may be seen, signaling anemia, particularly in young puppies. Diarrhea may also be observed, either blood tinged or black and tarry.

Which of the following conditions can cause hypoxia? a) Reduced blood flow b) Hypoventilation c) Decreased oxygen-carrying capacity d) All of the above - d) All of the above Hypoxia can result from reduced blood flow (e.g., congestive heart failure), decreased oxygen-carrying capacity (e.g., anemia), hypoventilation (e.g., pleural effusion), or ventilation/perfusion mismatch (e.g., pneumonia).

As a general rule of thumb, the PaO2 should be approximately _____ times the FiO2. a) 5 b) 3 c) 250

d) 10 - a) 5 The PaO2 is obtained from the arterial blood gas, and the FiO2 is the fraction (percentage) of inspired oxygen in decimal form. Normal PaO2/FiO2 ratio values range from 400 to 500, and the PaO2 is approximately four to five times higher than the FiO2. The lower the PaO2/FiO2 ratio, the worse the patient's oxygenation.

All horses in the United States should be vaccinated against: a) Eastern and Western equine and West Nile encephalomyelitis. b) Eastern and Western encephalitis and strangles. c) tetanus and influenza. d) heaves and tetanus. - a) Eastern and Western equine and West Nile encephalomyelitis.

Horses in the United States should be vaccinated against Eastern and Western equine and West Nile encephalomyelitis viruses before the mosquito season in the spring.

Which of the following may fall under the role of a surgical assistant in the postoperative management of a patient? a) Participate in writing the medical report. b) Assure that any biopsy samples collected during the c) surgery are properly identified and submitted. d) All of the above are correct. - d) All of the above are correct.

Clean the wound and surrounding skin immediately after the surgery before the animal becomes fully conscious.

A surgical assistant may have a number of responsibilities postsurgery. In addition to the ones mentioned above, an assistant may also need to bandage wounds or discuss what bandaging is needed with another technician.

It is your first day of work, and you are checking on a hospitalized patient. You see the phrase "Monitor for strangulation" in the medical report. Strangulation refers to: ileus. a) a large umbilical hernia. b) intussusception. c) loss of the intestinal blood supply with devitalization and possible intestinal perforation, which is seen in conjunction with some hernias. - c) loss of the intestinal blood supply with devitalization and possible intestinal perforation, which is seen in conjunction with some hernias.

Large umbilical hernias can result in intestinal entrapment (incarceration) within the confines of the hernia, with resultant strangulation (loss of intestinal blood supply with devitalization and possible intestinal perforation). If intestinal strangulation occurs, surgical repair becomes an emergency.

Guttural pouch mycosis is caused by a: a) bacteria. b) fungus.

C) virus. d) prion. - b) fungus.

A fungal infection of the guttural pouch, called guttural pouch mycosis, is often caused by Aspergillus spp High reticulocyte counts of more than 60,000/ml in dogs and more than 50,000/ml in cats are compatible with: a) ingestion of wilted maple leaves or onions. b) lead toxicity. c) ingestion of zinc-containing objects. d) regenerative anemia. - regenerative anemia.

The percentage of reticulocytes or corrected reticulocyte percentage (CRP) can be used to assess regeneration if the RBC count is not available. Reticulocyte counts of more than 60,000/ml (or a CRP >1%) in dogs and more than 50,000/ml (or a CRP >0.4%) in cats are compatible with regenerative anemia.

Highly irritating drugs can severely damage blood vessels and surrounding tissue if: a) injected outside the vein. b) given with epinephrine. c) given in combination with dimethyl sulfoxide (DMSO). d) not given with corticosteroids. - injected outside the vein. any parenterally administered drugs cause significant tissue irritation and necrosis if administered outside the vein (extravasation).

The total hip prosthesis consists of a long stem that fits inside the proximal _____; a special cup replaces the _____. a) humerus; acetabulum b) femur; greater trochanter c) femur; acetabulum d) femur; femoral head - c) femur; acetabulum The femoral prosthesis consists of a long stem that is placed inside the proximal femur using bone cement or screws (cementless) and a ball that replaces the femoral head. A special cup replaces the acetabulu

You are examining a fecal specimen microscopically. The initial plane of focus should be that of air bubbles because: a) most helminth eggs are found in this plane. b) segments are most easily identified in this plane. c) it is the most powerful setting. d) this is the plane most useful in detecting the helminthic mouth (the most immediate identifying factor). - a) most helminth eggs are found in this plane.

The microscope should be focused continually with the fine-tuning knob during the examination. The initial plane of focus should be that of air bubbles because most helminth eggs are found in this plane.

A trematode is commonly referred to as: a) any flatworm. b) any roundworm. c) a tapeworm. d) a fluke. - d) a fluke.

Trematodes (digenetic flukes) are flatworms that parasitize a wide variety of domesticated and wild animals.

Medications dispensed that are considered unsafe for laypersons to administer without monitoring by a licensed veterinarian are called _____ drugs and bear the "caution" sign, which restricts the use of the drug. a) counterfeit b) compounded c) legend d) controlled - c) legend Each new animal drug is approved by the Food and Drug Administration (FDA) as a prescription drug (also known as a legend drug or Rx drug). Prescription animal drugs are defined as approved drugs that may only be dispensed by or under the direction of a licensed veterinarian due to their potential for toxicity or abuse.

Every time you enter a ward that holds infectious patients, you wash your hands and don shoe covers, a gown, and examination gloves before entering. This is referred to as _____ nursing. a) barrier b) zoonotic c) nosocomic

d) isolation - Personnel in isolation facilities should thoroughly wash their hands and don shoe covers, a gown, and examination gloves, before entering the ward (this is termed barrier nursing).

Which disinfectant is effective against bacteria, but not against spores or some viruses and is very bland and nontoxic? a) Povidone-iodine b) Alcohol c) Quaternary ammonium d) Chlorhexidine - c) Quaternary ammonium Quaternary ammonium compounds are synthetic cationic detergents that act on cell membranes and are effective against bacteria but not against spores or some viruses. Bland and nontoxic, these agents are quite popular.

Low-pressure bleeding from small vessels can be controlled by: a) gently wiping the area with sterile gauze. b) doing nothing; low-pressure bleeding should be allowed to stop on its own. c) sustained pressure with a dry surgical glove. d) sustained pressure through a gauze sponge. - d) sustained pressure through a gauze sponge.

Applying pressure via gauze sponges may be sufficient for certain bleeding vessels.

Trocar, sleeve, blunt obturator, triangulation, and light cable are all terms used in _____ surgery. a) orthopedic b) emergency c) ophthalmologic d)arthroscopic - d)arthroscopic an arthroscopy, the sharp trocar is a pointed instrument that is inserted inside a hollow, cannula-type instrument called the arthroscope sleeve. The trocar and sleeve unit are used to penetrate the fibrous portion of the joint capsule through a stab incision. Once the sharp trocar has penetrated the fibrous joint capsule, the sharp trocar is replaced with an obturator. A fiber-optic light cable is attached directly to the optical light port on the arthroscope. Finally, the arthroscopic operation is performed via a technique called triangulation.

Taper needles are most commonly used to pierce _____ tissue.

You Answered

a) muscle, tendon, and ligament b) skin, sinus, and cartilage c) intestinal, subcutaneous, and fascia d) brain, liver, and kidney - c) intestinal, subcutaneous, and fascia Taper needles contain a sharp tip that is capable of piercing and spreading tissue without cutting surrounding tissues. Common locations where taper needles are used include the intestines, subcutaneous tissue, and fascia For tracheostomy in a calf, you will use a ______mm ID tube. a) 15- to 20b) 10- to 15c)5- to 10d) 10- to 12- - c)5- to 10If a patient is presented with an upper airway obstruction, then a tracheostomy can be performed to permit the animal to breathe. Calves and small ruminants will require 5- to 10-mm ID tubes.

It is imperative to a calf's survival to receive colostrum within the first _____ of life. a) week b) 2 hours c) day d) 6 hours - In calves, specialized epithelial cells in the jejunum and ileum absorb antibodies by pinocytosis. These cells are replaced soon after birth by normal intestinal epithelial cells, and absorption of antibodies terminates within 24 hours of birth. For that reason, the bovine neonate receives an appropriate dose of colostrum within the first 6 hours of life.

The placenta in a bovine patient is considered retained if not expelled by _____ hours. a) 24 b) 12 c) 6 d) 2 - b) 12 After calving, the placenta is usually passed within 2 to 4 hours and is considered retained if it has not been expelled by 12 hours.

RBCS from ______ have the largest diameter and the least anisocytosis. a) cats b) horses c)sheep

d) dogs - d) dogs Among the commonly evaluated domestic animals, RBCs from dogs have the largest diameter (7 m), followed by RBCs from cats (5.8 m), horses (5.7 m), cows (5.5 m), sheep (4.5 m), and goats (3.2 m); RBCs from dogs typically have very little anisocytosis. _____, you give the operating room a thorough cleaning that includes all permanent structures, floors, and cabinets, as well as removing, cleaning, and disinfecting all movable equipment. a) Once a week b) At the end of the surgery day c) At the beginning of the surgery day d) Once a month . - a) Once a week Once a week, the operating room should undergo a thorough cleaning in which movable equipment is removed and cleaned with a disinfectant solution. Permanent structures, such as walls, air vents, window sills, light fixtures, and the surgical table should also be wiped clean For tracheostomy in a calf, you will use a ______mm ID tube. a) 15- to 20b) 10- to 15c) 5- to 10d) 10- to 12- - c) 5- to 10if a patient is presented with an upper airway obstruction, then a tracheostomy can be performed to permit the animal to breathe. Calves and small ruminants will require 5- to 10-mm ID tubes.

It is imperative to a calf's survival to receive colostrum within the first _____ of life. a) week b) 2 hours c) day d) 6 hours - d) 6 hours In calves, specialized epithelial cells in the jejunum and ileum absorb antibodies by pinocytosis. These cells are replaced soon after birth by normal intestinal epithelial cells, and absorption of antibodies terminates within 24 hours of birth. For that reason, the bovine neonate receives an appropriate dose of The placenta in a bovine patient is considered retained if not expelled by _____ hours. a) 24

b) 12 c) 6 d) 2 - b) 12 After calving, the placenta is usually passed within 2 to 4 hours and is considered retained if it has not been expelled by 12 hours.

Which nutritional myodegenerative disease may be caused by a deficiency of gestational vitamin E and/or selenium? a) Caseous lymphadenitis b) Johne disease c) Caprine arthritis-encephalitis d) White muscle disease - d) White muscle disease White muscle disease (WMD), also known as nutritional myodegeneration, occurs in young calves, lambs, and kids born to dams receiving diets deficient in selenium during gestation.

What is the last step in draping a patient before equine orthopedic surgery? a) An adhesive, impervious plastic, iodine-impregnated drape is wrapped over the incision site. b) The limb is fed through a fenestration up to the sterile hand towels. c) An impervious orthopedic stockinet is placed over the limb. d) A large drape is fenestrated by cutting a 'cross' in the center of the drape to accommodate the limb. - a) An adhesive, impervious plastic, iodine-impregnated drape is wrapped over the incision site.

A large drape is fenestrated by cutting a 'cross' in the center of the drape to accommodate the limb. The limb is then fed through the fenestration up to the sterile hand towels, and the entire animal is draped off. The drape is secured at the top of the surgical field with towel clamps. An adhesive, impervious plastic, iodine-impregnated drape is wrapped over the incision site.

In arthroscopic surgery, burs (or burrs) are: a) removed from the animal's coat before the procedure. b) a type of forceps used to grasp and remove osteochondral chip fragments. c) the pumps used to deliver fluids to the surgical site. d) often referred to as a motorized arthroplasty system. - c) often referred to as a motorized arthroplasty system.

Motorized burs (or burrs) are often referred to as a motorized arthroplasty system. The system consists of a small rounded bur attached to a power-driven shaft. The bur and shaft are enclosed in a sleeve, with a portion of the bur protected to prevent inadvertent damage to surrounding articular cartilage.

Sarcomas can arise from _____, whereas carcinomas can arise from _____. a) organs; cartilage b) mucous membranes; bone c) skin; connective tissue d) cartilage; lymph nodes - d) cartilage; lymph nodes Carcinomas generally spread through both the lymphatic system and the bloodstream, so regional lymph node and lung metastases are commonly seen. Sarcomas, on the other hand, arise from mesenchymal tissues, such as cartilage, connective tissue, or bone.

All horses in the United States should be vaccinated against: a) tetanus and influenza. b) Eastern and Western equine and West Nile encephalomyelitis. c) heaves and tetanus. d)Eastern and Western encephalitis and strangles. - b) Eastern and Western equine and West Nile encephalomyelitis.

Horses in the United States should be vaccinated against Eastern and Western equine and West Nile encephalomyelitis viruses before the mosquito season in the spring.

Which of the following is not one of the three physical sterilization methods a) Heat b) Radiation c) Filtration d) Water - The three physical sterilization methods are filtration (use of a filter to separate particulate matter from liquid or gas), heat (use of wet or dry heat), and radiation (use of radiation to kill microorganisms when another method would cause damage to the other materials).

Which of the following statements regarding automated hematology analyzers is not true? a) Hematology analyzers use light scatter, impedance technology, and various staining methods to count and evaluate cells. b) Special stains can be used to differentiate various cell populations. c) Instrument settings for the size of each cell type are universal to all species. d) Results are generally accurate, reproducible, and ready in a short period of time. - c) Instrument settings for the size of each cell type are universal to all species.

Instrument settings may vary from species to species. Some newer automated hematology analyzers come with computerized settings that detect the species and adjust the instrument's settings accordingly, however the laboratory should validate each machine for the species being evaluated What covers the feet of horses to help decrease contamination in the surgical suite? a) Obstetric sleeves b) Sterile surgical tape c) Paper booties d) Fluid bags - a) Obstetric sleeves Large examination gloves or obstetric (OB) sleeves are used to cover the feet of the horse to reduce contamination of the surgical suite.

In some species, neutrophils are called __________because of the intense staining of the granules. a) heterophils b) acanthocytes c) eccentrocytes d) metarubricytes - a) heterophils In some species, neutrophils are called heterophils because of the intense staining of the granules. Heterophils are the most abundant granulocyte in rabbits and in many nonmammalian species. The granules are larger and typically are rod or seed shaped but may appear oval or round in some species. The granules appear dark orange or reddishbrown with routine stains and may obscure the nucleus.

Which of the following must always be supplemented to beef cattle feeding with pasture grasses? a) Minerals b) Energy in the form of grain c) Fat d) Protein - a) Minerals Mineral supplementation will be necessary and is usually offered on a free-choice basis when beef cattle are feeding with pasture grasses.

Polydioxanone is a _______ suture material. a) synthetic nonabsorbable b) natural absorbable

c) synthetic absorbable d) natural nonabsorbable - c) synthetic absorbable The most commonly used synthetic absorbable sutures in veterinary medicine include polyglactin 910, polyglycolic acid, polyglecaprone 25, polydioxanone, and polyglyconate.

Which of the following is an example of a temporary surgical implant? a) Drains b) Wires c) Ingesta d) Screws - a) Drains Drains are the most common temporary implant in veterinary medicine. The drain is inserted into wounds or cavities postsurgery to allow fluid accumulations to drain and eliminate dead space.

The position of a recumbent horse should be changed every ____ hours to help prevent the formation of decubital ulcers. a) 2 b) 6 c) 4 d) 8 - b) 6 Recumbent horses and foals will quickly develop pressure sores (decubital ulcers) over the pelvis (tuber coxae), elbows, and head if not properly managed. The horse's position should be changed every 6 hours; multiple attendants are required to move an adult recumbent horse As you review the nursing care plan for Sparky, a rabbit, the data you encounter will contain: a) information about implementation of the patient's actual assessment or examination needs. b) the veterinarian's list of orders related to his or her diagnosis. c) information about interventions specific to your own evaluation of Sparky. d) the SOAP format. - c) information about interventions specific to your own evaluation of Sparky.

The nursing care plan refers to the entire list of interventions specific to each technician evaluation for a particular patient.

The ST segment indicates the _____ repolarization.

a) time interval from ventricular depolarization to b) positive ventricular c) negative ventricular d) biphasic ventricular - a) time interval from ventricular depolarization to The ST segment indicates the time interval from ventricular depolarization to repolarization.

A modified Wright or Wright-Giemsa stain: a) is of lower quality than most commercially available quick stains. b) has the advantage that the stain itself is not permanent. c) is very expensive but essential for detection of cutaneous mast cell tumors. d) will stain mast cell granules and granules in some lymphocytes purple. . - d) will stain mast cell granules and granules in some lymphocytes purple.

Mast cell granules and granules in some lymphocytes stain purple with Wright and WrightGiemsa stains, whereas some commercially available quick stains do not consistently stain these granules All of the following can contribute to wound dehiscence and evisceration except: a) drug therapy. b) tension on the incision line. c) surgical débridement. d) using inappropriate suture material to close the wound. - c) surgical débridement.

Things that will contribute to wound dehiscence include using inappropriate suture material or suture technique to close a wound; placing tension on the incision line; the development of incision infection, seroma formation, or disease; and/or drug therapy that leads to delayed wound healing.

Cerebrospinal (CSF) fluid from a horse is collected at the: a) cervical thoracic junction. b) sacrococcygeal junction. c) lumbosacral space. d) atlantooccipital space. - c) lumbosacral space In horses with spinal cord disease, CSF is collected under sedation from the lumbosacral space.

A small dog is brought into the clinic by his owner because he is exhibiting _____, a symptom identified as stridor. a) excessive, continual sneezing

b) high-pitched inspiratory wheezing c) loud snorting sounds d) loud snoring with apnea - b) high-pitched inspiratory wheezing Obstruction of the pharynx or larynx can cause stertor, a loud snoring or snorting sound, or stridor, a high-pitched inspiratory wheezing sound.

Surgical catgut is a ________suture material. a) natural absorbable b) synthetic nonabsorbable c) synthetic absorbable d) natural nonabsorbable - a) natural absorbable Natural absorbable sutures consist of either catgut or collagen.

Which of the following practices helps ensure adequate steam penetration in the autoclave? a) Stacking packs on top of each other b) Leaving less than 2 cm of space between packs and between the packs and autoclave walls c) Keeping the pack size smaller than 30 cm by 30 cm by 50 cm d) Keeping the pack weight below 5 kg - c) Keeping the pack size smaller than 30 cm by 30 cm by 50 cm It is recommended that packs be no larger than 30 cm by 30 cm by 50 cm and weigh no more than 5.4 kg, depending on the type of material being autoclaved.

Because the power equipment you need to sterilize cannot tolerate the high temperatures or steam associated with autoclaving, you are choosing to use gas sterilization with: a) glutaraldehyde. b) iodine. c) phenolic. d) ethylene oxide. - d) ethylene oxide.

The most common agents used for gas sterilization are ethylene oxide and hydrogen peroxide gas plasma. The most common agent used for liquid sterilization is glutaraldehyde.

Gloved hands may be rested on a sterile drape or clasped in front of the body in the zone between the _____ and _____.

a) armpits; waist b) shoulders; waist c) shoulders; hips d) chin; waist - b) shoulders; waist Gloved hands may be rested on a sterile drape or clasped in front of the body in the zone between the shoulders and waist.

Guttural pouch mycosis is caused by a: a) virus. b) bacteria. c) fungus. d) prion. - c) fungus A fungal infection of the guttural pouch, called guttural pouch mycosis, is often caused by Aspergillus spp.

Trichuris vulpis of the dog, fox, and coyote can be found in the: a) small intestine. b) stomach. c) cecum. d) right ventricle and pulmonary arteries. - c) cecum.

Trichuris vulpis resembles a whip, hence its name, the whipworm. For both species of whipworms, a very fresh fecal sample is best for diagnosis. The veterinary technician must be able to recognize the whipworm's unique whiplike shape. Trichurids are associated with the cecum and portions of the large intestine. __________ are the predominant type of circulating cell in cattle, sheep, and goats. a) Monocytes b) Basophils c) Lymphocytes d) Mast cells - c) Lymphocytes Lymphocytes are the predominant type of circulating cell in cattle, sheep, and goats, but are less numerous than neutrophils in other species.

Which of the following is true regarding the impact of disease on pharmacokinetics? a) Geriatric patients commonly have an increased hepatic metabolism. b) Cardiovascular disease increases the risk of toxicity to the heart and brain due to increased blood distribution to those organs.

c) Kidney disease or failure interferes with the pharmacokinetics of a drug when frequent urination rapidly expels the drug from the body. d) The gastrointestinal tract of a geriatric patient absorbs drugs more quickly than that of a young patient. - b) Cardiovascular disease increases the risk of toxicity to the heart and brain due to increased blood distribution to those organs.

Changes in the water/sodium balance in the blood of patients with cardiovascular disease alter the distribution of blood flow throughout the body. Patients with kidney disease or failure may build up dangerous concentrations of the drug in their bodies since toxins are not eliminated from the body as efficiently. A geriatric patient's GI tract lacks the absorption rate of that of a younger patient, and geriatric patients typically have decreased hepatic metabolism and renal excretion.

When selecting a cuff to use to indirectly measure a cat's or dog's blood pressure, the _____ of the cuff should be approximately _____ of the circumference of the limb at the site of cuff placement. a) length; 40% b) diameter; 30% c) width; 40% d) circumference; 30% - c) width; 40% The blood pressure cuff width should approximate 40% of the circumference of the limb at the site of cuff placement.

As a general rule of thumb, the PaO2 should be approximately _____ times the FiO2. a) 250 b) 10 c) 3 d) 5 - d) 5 The PaO2 is obtained from the arterial blood gas, and the FiO2 is the fraction (percentage) of inspired oxygen in decimal form. Normal PaO2/FiO2 ratio values range from 400 to 500, and the PaO2 is approximately four to five times higher than the FiO2. The lower the PaO2/FiO2 ratio, the worse the patient's oxygenation.

The veterinarian suspects a horse has Salmonella infection. To detect this, you collect a total of _____ fecal samples for culture at least _____ hours between samplings. a) three; 12 b) three; 24 c) six; 24 d) five; 12

. - d) five; 12 Fecal samples for Salmonella spp. culture should be submitted at least 12 hours apart five times. If culture results are negative for these five samples, the horses are not shedding Salmonella organisms.

The veterinarian is about to perform a vaginal examination on a cow with dystocia. As you prep the perineal area, which of the following is not true? a) Some veterinarians prefer to begin by cleaning out the rectum so that the cow does not defecate on the clean field. b) It is imperative to clean the perineal area before the rectal portion of the examination. c) The perineal scrub will decrease uterine and vaginal contamination. d) The perineal scrub is not intended to achieve asepsis. - b) It is imperative to clean the perineal area before the rectal portion of the examination.

The perineal area should be prepped before the vaginal examination so manure and dirt are not carried into the vagina. The perineal scrub is not intended to achieve asepsis but to decrease uterine and vaginal contamination. If a rectal examination is performed, do not clean the perineal area until after the rectal examination is completed. Some veterinarians prefer to begin by cleaning out the rectum so that the cow does not defecate on the clean field.

The average heart rate (HR) (in beats per minute) can be calculated by counting the number of: a) P waves in a predetermined time period and multiplying by the number of QRS complexes in that same time period. b) millimeters between two R waves and dividing into 3000 when using a paper speed of 50 mm/sec. c) millimeters between two R waves and dividing into 1500 when using a paper speed of 25 mm/sec.

Correct! d) QRS complexes in a predetermined time period and multiplying the number of complexes by a specific factor. - d) QRS complexes in a predetermined time period and multiplying the number of complexes by a specific factor.

The average HR is determined by counting the number of QRS complexes in a predetermined time period (usually 3 seconds) and multiplying the number of complexes by a factor (20 when using 3 seconds) to calculate the number of beats per minute.

Variation in the PR interval may occur with: a) left atrial enlargement. b) right atrial enlargement. c) right ventricular enlargement.

d) atrioventricular dissociation. - d) atrioventricular dissociation.

The PR interval indicates conduction time through the AV node. Variation in the PR interval may occur with changes in vagal tone or with AV dissociation.

A Rouleaux formulation: a) is normal in horses and often shows RBCs appearing like stacked coins. b) indicates anemia in cats and shows RBCs clumped together irregularly. c) most commonly occurs in dogs with immune-mediated hemolytic anemia. d) is a false platelet count. - a) is normal in horses and often shows RBCs appearing like stacked coins.

In the body of the smear, RBCs can be evaluated for rouleaux formation or agglutination— that is, RBCs in chains that resemble a stack of coins. In horses and cats, rouleaux formation is common.

As you monitor your postsurgical patient, you are aware that packed cell volume (PCV) and total protein (TP) values can drop up to _____ due to anesthesia and surgery, even if no blood loss occurs. a) 20% b) 10% c) 15% d) 35% - b) 10% It is not unusual for the PCV and TP to drop up to 10% as a result of anesthesia and surgery, even when no major blood loss occurred.

Increased serum _____ is a normal physiologic response in the fasted horse. a) gamma-glutamyl transferase b) sorbitol dehydrogenase c) bilirubin d) creatine phosphokinase - c) bilirubin Serum bilirubin concentrations will increase dramatically if feed is withheld for more than 24 hours. This condition, which is called fasting hyperbilirubinemia, is a normal physiologic response in horses and does not indicate liver disease.

In the process known as malignant transformation, an initiated cell undergoes mutations caused by an agent or event that stimulate proliferation of the cell to grow into a neoplasm.

This stage is called:

a) promotion. b) progression. c) initiation. d) proliferation. - a) promotion.

An initiated cell has not yet become a cancerous cell. Further mutations caused by an agent or event stimulate proliferation of the cell to grow into a neoplasm. This stage is called promotion.

The classic signs of gastric dilation volvulus (GDV) include all of the following except: a) retching. b) straining to defecate. c) bloating. d) vomiting. - b) straining to defecate.

Gastric dilation volvulus (GDV) is dilation of the stomach with ingesta and gas, with rotation of the stomach into an abnormal position. Vomiting, retching, and bloating (severe distention of the stomach) are classic clinical signs.

Hypoalbuminemia may develop from loss through: a) the gastrointestinal tract. b)decreased production due to liver failure. b) the kidney. d) all of the above. - d) all of the above.

Hypoalbuminemia may develop from loss through the kidney or gastrointestinal tract or from decreased production due to liver failure. Both albumin and globulin can decrease with hemorrhage.

Which of the following bacteria is most likely associated with the gangrenous form of mastitis in sheep and goats?

You Answered a) Pasteurella haemolytica b) Pseudomonas c) Streptococcus d) Staphylococcus aureus - d) Staphylococcus aureus S. aureus is associated with the gangrenous form of mastitis in small ruminants, which may be severe enough to cause death of the animal.

Anisocytosis can be determined using ____ as a mathematical index. a) MCH

b) Hgb c) MCV d) RDW - d) RDW The RDW is a mathematical index that describes the variation in RBC size or anisocytosis.

Acute laminitis may be due to sudden excess ingestion of _____, or secondary to other diseases, which occur during the _____ period. a) mycotoxins; neonatal b) grain; postparturient c) salt; postparturient d) calcium; neonatal - b) grain; postparturient Acute laminitis occurs sporadically and may be due to sudden excess grain ingestion, or it may occur secondary to other diseases that occur during the postparturient period.

Feeding inadequate forages with little or no grain can create a deficiency of usable ______ during the last trimester of pregnancy in ewes carrying twins or triplets and can lead to _____ and ____ in the mother. a) protein; paralysis; coma b) carbohydrates; abortion; paralysis c) carbohydrates; paralysis; coma d) protein; abortion; paralysis - c) carbohydrates; paralysis; coma Feeding inadequate forage with little or no grain can create a deficiency of usable carbohydrates during the last trimester of pregnancy in ewes carrying twins or triplets and can lead to paralysis and coma in the mother. Prevention is the least expensive route to avoid pregnancy disease in the breeding flock. Energy requirements are highest during lactation and proportional to the number of lambs the ewe is nursing fter performing CPCR on a dog, the animal develops opisthotonus with rigidity in all four limbs. Where is the lesion, and what is the prognosis? a) Intervertebral disk; fair b) Brainstem; grave c) Brainstem; fair d) Cerebrum; poor - b) Brainstem; grave A decerebrate posture indicates a complete disconnect between the forebrain and the brainstem. It is characterized by extreme rigidity of all four legs and may involve opisthotonus (arching of the neck and back). It is accompanied by a stuporous to comatose mentation and carries a grave prognosis.

You and your colleagues attend a lecture on the _____ of a disease to which animals in your patient's farming community have been exposed recently. This particular lecture, then, gives you increased understanding of the mechanism for the development of this particular disease. a) pathology b) histopathology c) etiology d) pathogenesis - d) pathogenesis Pathogenesis is the mechanism for the development of disease and can be acute or chronic.

Pregnant broodmares should be vaccinated for _____ to prevent abortion caused by this disease. a) botulism b) Potomac horse fever c) rabies d) equine herpesvirus infection - d) equine herpesvirus infection Equine herpesvirus (the causative agent of rhinopneumonitis) is a contagious virus that produces respiratory disease, abortion, and neonatal and neurologic disease (ascending paralysis) in horses. Vaccination is recommended for performance horses and broodmares.

You are in charge of training personnel for the new isolation ward of your veterinary hospital. Your coverage of diseases will most likely include a thorough discussion of: a) heaves, strangles, and colitis. b) heaves, EHV-1, and influenza. c) colitis, neurologic EHV-1, and strangles. d) strangles, heaves, and colitis. - c) colitis, neurologic EHV-1, and strangles.

The most common diseases that require an isolation protocol are colitis (salmonellosis), strangles (caused by Streptococcus equi equi), and the neurologic form of EHVYou are attempting to calibrate a microscope. Starting on low power (10´ magnification), you focus on the 2-mm line on the stage micrometer and then rotate the eyepiece so that the hash-mark scale is parallel to the stage micrometer scale, aligning the zero point on both scales. Now you notice that the 0.125-mm mark aligns with the "10" hash mark on the eyepiece. What is the distance between each hash mark on the eyepiece? a) 0.125 µm b) 1.25 µm c) 0.0125 µm d) 12.5 µm - d) 12.5 µm

The steps described in the question are repeated at each magnification; the distance between hash marks (µm) for the lowest power (10´) is 12.5 µm.

Adult pentastomes are always associated with infecting the ________ of the host. a) respiratory system b) cardiovascular system c) mesenchymal tissues d) digestive system - a) respiratory system Pentastomes are parasites that can infect multiple systems of numerous species. Adults mostly infect snakes and reptiles, although there is one kind of pentastome, Linguatula serrate, that can infect mammals. In either case, adult pentastomes are always associated with the respiratory tract.

In the QRS complex, a tall R wave indicates: a) ectopic atrial activation. b) left ventricular enlargement. c) right ventricular enlargement. d) myocardial ischemia. - a) left ventricular enlargement.

A tall R wave is associated with left ventricular enlargement, whereas a deep S wave indicates right ventricular enlargement.

Serum enzymes cannot be used to detect: a) drug overdose. b) muscle damage. c) cholestasis. d) hepatocellular injury. - a) drug overdose.

Serum enzymes can be used to detect hepatocellular injury, cholestasis, or muscle damage. __________ result from antibody binding to the RBC surface and removal of a portion of the membrane by macrophages; this occurs in immune hemolytic anemia (IHA), which is most commonly recognized in dogs. a) Acanthocytes b) Leptocytes c) Spherocytes d) Echinocytes - c) Spherocytes Spherocytes are RBCs that lack a central zone of pallor and often appear slightly smaller and denser than normal RBCs. Spherocytes result from antibody binding to the RBC surface

and removal of a portion of the membrane by macrophages in the spleen. This occurs in IHA, which is most commonly recognized in dogs.

Intravenous catheters should be monitored ______ a day and flushed with heparinized saline every ______ hours. a) once; 6 b) once; 4 c) twice; 4 d) twice; 6 - d) twice; 6 An intravenous (IV) catheter can be placed for repeated administration of medications or continuous fluid infusion. IV catheters should be flushed with heparinized saline flush (2 to 10 U/ml) every 6 hours and monitored twice daily for heat, swelling, and pain around the insertion site.

One symptom indicating that the Arabian horse you are examining is in serious pain is the fact that he has a heart rate higher than ____ beats/minute. a) 40 b) 50 c) 30 d) 60 - d) 60 An increased heart rate (tachycardia) is indicative of pain. A rate of 60 beats per minute or greater indicates serious pain in an adult horse.

You are examining a fecal specimen microscopically. The initial plane of focus should be that of air bubbles because: it is the most powerful setting. a) most helminth eggs are found in this plane. b) this is the plane most useful in detecting the helminthic c) mouth (the most immediate identifying factor).

You Answered d) segments are most easily identified in this plane. - a) most helminth eggs are found in this plane.

The microscope should be focused continually with the fine-tuning knob during the examination. The initial plane of focus should be that of air bubbles because most helminth eggs are found in this plane.

The QT interval represents: a) the total electrical systole. b) atrial depolarization.

c) the mean electrical axis. d) biphasic ventricular repolarization. - a) the total electrical systole.

The QT interval represents total electrical systole and varies inversely with the HR. It is measured from the beginning of the Q wave (R wave if there is no Q wave) to the end of the T wave.

Which two of the "Five Freedoms of Animal Welfare" constitute what is often referred to as "basic patient care" in veterinary technology? a) (1) Freedom from Pain, Injury, or Disease and (2) Freedom from Fear and Distress b) (1) Freedom from Discomfort and (2) Freedom to Express Normal Behavior Correct Answer c) (1) Freedom from Hunger and Thirst and (2) Freedom from Discomfort d) None of the above. The "Five Freedoms of Animal Welfare" are all considered above and beyond "basic patient care." - Providing ready access to food and water (Freedom from Hunger and Thirst) and an appropriate, comfortable, restful environment (Freedom from Discomfort) are both considered basic patient care to be provided to all patients at all times.

Joint supplements are used more commonly in _____ than in any other species. a) horses b) dogs c) camelids d) cattle - a) horses Joint supplements and chondroprotective agents, such as nutraceuticals, chondroitin sulfate, hyaluronic acid, and glycosaminoglycans (GAGs), are used more commonly in horses than in any other species.

Normal serum from horses should be: a) reddish colored. b) pink and milky. c) clear and colorless. d) light yellow. - d) light yellow.

Normal serum from dogs and cats should be clear and colorless, whereas serum from horses and ruminants will have a light yellow color. Hemolysis is characterized by red discoloration of the sample, whereas bilirubin imparts a yellow to orange color.

Which of the following is a pair of heavy operating scissors with a straight or curved blade used to cut tough tissue?

a) Lister scissors b) Metzenbaum scissors c) Bard-Parker scissors d) Mayo scissors - d) Mayo scissors The Mayo dissecting scissors is a heavy-duty operative scissors primarily used for cutting the fascia and other, more dense tissues. The blades may be straight or curved, blunt or sharp, and plain or serrated.

Another name for nucleated RBCs is: a) eccentrocytes. b) Heinz bodies. c) metarubricytes. d) Howell Jolly bodies. - c) metarubricytes.

Occasional nucleated RBCs (nRBCs), or metarubricytes, can be seen in peripheral blood from healthy animals.

Taper needles are most commonly used to pierce _____ tissue. a) muscle, tendon, and ligament b) skin, sinus, and cartilage c) intestinal, subcutaneous, and fascia d) brain, liver, and kidney - c) intestinal, subcutaneous, and fascia Taper needles contain a sharp tip that is capable of piercing and spreading tissue without cutting surrounding tissues. Common locations where taper needles are used include the intestines, subcutaneous tissue, and fascia.

Which of the following statements concerning transduction is most accurate? a) Transduction is the conversion of energy into electrical impulses in specialized nerve endings in response to pain that exceeds the nociceptor's threshold. b) Transduction is the conduction of nerve impulses from the nociceptor to the thalamus. c) Transduction involves the conduction of a painful sensation to a nerve cell located entirely within the central nervous system (CNS) that activates sympathetic reflexes. d) Transduction is the process of carrying a pain nerve impulse along peripheral nerves to the spinal cord. - a) Transduction is the conversion of energy into electrical impulses in specialized nerve endings in response to pain that exceeds the nociceptor's threshold Specialized nerve endings convert mechanical, chemical, and thermal energy into electrical impulses (transduction) once their threshold is exceeded. If the noxious stimulus is large

enough to exceed the nociceptor's threshold, a nerve impulse is generated and transmitted along peripheral nerves to the spinal cord (transmission). These nerve fibers are highly specialized to carry pain information and are distinct from other nerve fibers that typically carry pleasant or neutral sensations. Once at the spinal cord, a nerve impulse is either projected upward to the thalamus and then to other parts of the brain or may be transmitted to a nerve cell located entirely within the CNS that activates sympathetic reflexes. _______ is a CNS disease that results from an underlying defect in thiamine metabolism. a) Polioencephalomalacia b) Gangrenous mastitis c) Agammaglobulinemia d) Keratoconjunctivitis - a) Polioencephalomalacia Polioencephalomalacia may occur following sudden ration changes or excessive sulfur consumption. Patients with polio may experience blindness, ataxia, depression, opisthotonus, convulsions, coma, and even death. Thiamine may be effective in the early stages of the disease, but the longer a patient has had the disease the longer it takes for treatment to work.