Cognition, 6E Gabriel A Radvansky Test Bank

TEST BANK Gabriel A. Radvansky University of Notre Dame

COGNITION 6th EDITION

Gabriel A. Radvansky University of Notre Dame

Mark H. Ashcraft

University of Nevada, Las Vegas

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Cognition, 6th ed.

Test Bank

Radvansky/Ashcraft

Chapter 1: Cognitive Psychology: An Introduction Multiple Choice Questions 1.

The student of mental activity and thinking, broadly conceived, is called __________. a. cognitive science b. mind science c. cognitive studies d. mind studies

Page: 2 Type: conceptual Answer: a 2.

When did the cognitive revolution occur? a. early 1970s b. late 1950s c. late 1850s d. mid-1940s

Page: 2 Type: factual Answer: b 3.

Memory does NOT involve __________. a. a mental storage system b. acquiring information c. complex decision making d. mental processes

Page: 6 Type: conceptual Answer: c 4.

The mental process of acquiring and retaining information for later retrieval is __________. a. cognition b. memory c. planning d. forecasting

Page: 6 Type: conceptual Answer: b 5.

Cognition does NOT involve __________. a. reflexes b. mental activities c. perceiving d. understanding

Page: 6 Type: conceptual Answer: a

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Cognition, 6th ed.

Radvansky/Ashcraft

The collection of mental processes and activities used in perceiving, remembering, thinking, and understanding is __________. a. operations b. mentalism c. cognition d. computational neuroscience

Page: 6 Type: conceptual Answer: c 7.

People first began wondering about how the mind worked __________. a. after the cognitive revolution b. after Aristotle c. after Descartes d. before any of these people or events

Page: 7 Type: conceptual Answer: d 8.

Reductionism is __________. a. the method in which observers are carefully trained to report on inner sensations and experiences b. the building blocks underlying the structure of the brain c. the branch of experimental psychology that deals with human participants as they learn verbal materials, e.g., items or stimuli composed of letters and/or words d. attempting to understand a complex event by breaking the event down into its components

Page: 7 Type: conceptual Answer: d 9.

Ecological validity means __________. a. the amount of experimental control the experimenter has over the important manipulations b. acquiring and retaining information for later retrieval c. attempting to break down complex events by breaking them down into their components d. representative of the real world

Page: 7 Type: conceptual Answer: d 10. If we hear a complaint that experimental psychology research lacks ecological validity, the person is complaining that __________. a. the research is not representative of real-world situations b. the research lacks sufficient precision c. the research lacks an appropriate comparison group d. we are attempting to understand complex phenomena by breaking them down into their components Page: 7 Type: applied Answer: a 11. If something is generalizable to real-world situations, it __________. a. is pragmatic b. acquires an air of confidence c. has ecological validity d. no longer is basic science Page: 7 Type: conceptual Answer: c

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Cognition, 6th ed.

Radvansky/Ashcraft

12. A person trying to understand complex events by breaking them down into their components is using __________. a. fragmentation b. reductionism c. a parsing approach d. distillation Page: 7 Type: applied Answer: b 13. Who said, “I think, therefore I am”? a. Rene Descartes b. William James c. Aristotle d. Immanuel Kant Page: 7 Type: factual Answer: a 14. Empirical observations are those that __________. a. rely on observation, experimentation, or measurement b. characterize an entire set of research data c. are conducted in a field setting outside the laboratory d. compare people of different ages at a given moment in time Page: 9 Type: conceptual Answer: a 15. The philosophy that observation is to be the basis for much of science is __________. a. empiricism b. rationalism c. structuralism d. functionalism Page: 9 Type: conceptual Answer: a 16. Which of the following is NOT true? a. Wundt established the first psychological laboratory. b. Wundt’s student Titchner advocated the approach known as structuralism. c. Wundt believed strongly that the proper topic for psychology was “conscious processes and immediate experience.” d. Wundt advocated the approach known as functionalism.

Page: 9 Type: factual Answer: d 17. Who is credited with being the first experimental psychologist? a. Wilhelm Wundt b. William James c. Edward Titchner d. John Watson Page: 9 Type: factual Answer: a

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Cognition, 6th ed.

Radvansky/Ashcraft

18. Radical empiricists believe that the mind starts out as a __________. a. cogito blanco b. tabula rasa c. scientia est potestas d. semper fideles Page: 9 Type: conceptual Answer: b 19. Many of the topics of Wundt’s research would fall under what we now label as ________ psychology. a. clinical b. counseling c. industrial/organizational d. cognitive Page: 9 Type: conceptual Answer: d 20. Titchener is most strongly associated with __________. a. structuralism b. functionalism c. the cognitive revolution d. Gestalt psychology Page: 10 Type: factual Answer: a 21. Hermann Ebbinghaus was the first person to systematically study __________. a. perception b. attention c. problem solving d. memory Page: 10 Type: factual Answer: d 22. Edward Titchener believed __________. a. that nothing worthwhile would come of studying mental processes b. that mental illness, educational applications, and social psychology were “impure” because they could not be studied using introspection c. that the appropriate goal for psychology was the objective assessment of association formation d. that the functions of consciousness, rather than its structure, were of interest Page: 10 Type: conceptual Answer: b 23. Which is true of Ebbinghaus? a. He was interested in memory. b. He was interested in perception. c. He was interested in reasoning. d. He was interested in studying introspection.

Page: 10 Type: factual Answer: a

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Cognition, 6th ed.

Radvansky/Ashcraft

24. Most associated with the method of savings is __________. a. Hermann von Ebbinghaus b. William James c. Wilhelm Wundt d. B.F. Skinner Page: 10 Type: factual Answer: a 25. William James believed __________. a. that nothing worthwhile would come of studying mental processes b. that mental illness, educational applications, and social psychology were “impure” because they could not be studied with introspective methods c. that the appropriate goal for psychology was the objective assessment of association formation d. that the functions of consciousness, rather than its structure, were of interest Page: 11 Type: conceptual Answer: d 26. An approach that asks the questions “What is it for?” and “How does it adapt?” is __________. a. functionalism b. structuralism c. empiricism d. reductionism Page: 11 Type: conceptual Answer: a 27. William James’s research output was __________. a. high b. low c. skewed d. artificial Page: 11 Type: factual Answer: b 28. Behaviorism had its strongest impact __________. a. on the popular press b. in clinical treatments c. in America d. with education Page: 12 Type: factual Answer: c 29. How do some psychologists describe the transition from behaviorism to cognitivism? a. a revolution b. a regression c. a simple relabeling d. a tragedy Page: 12 Type: factual Answer: a

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Cognition, 6th ed.

Radvansky/Ashcraft

30. Which is NOT a characteristic of behaviorism? a. scientific study of behavior b. focus on observable, quantifiable behavior c. antimentalist d. the first major school of thought in experimental psychology Page: 12 Type: conceptual Answer: d 31. The behaviorist manifesto is associated with __________. a. Hull b. Watson c. Skinner d. Tolman Page: 12 Type: factual Answer: b 32. __________ believed that observable, quantifiable behavior is the proper topic of psychology, not the fuzzy and unscientific concepts of thoughts, mind, and consciousness. a. Wundt b. Watson c. Ebbinghaus d. James Page: 12 Type: factual Answer: b 33. Neobehaviorism differs from behaviorism in __________. a. allowing the scientific study of observable behavior b. allowing introspective methodologies c. incorporating psychophysiological measures d. allowing unobserved mediating variables Page: 12 Type: conceptual Answer: d 34. Which was NOT a reason for the rise to dominance of behaviorism? a. seemingly endless debates within structuralism regarding “appropriate” interpretation b. physics envy c. success in modeling learning d. The tabula rasa position provided a superior account for species-specific behaviors.

Page: 12 Type: conceptual Answer: d 35. According to behaviorists and neobehaviorists, the ultimate purpose of research on learning was to understand __________. a. the building blocks of conscious experience b. the acquisition of behavior by conditioning c. performance, rather than learning d. memory, rather than cognition Page: 12 Type: conceptual Answer: b

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Cognition, 6th ed.

Radvansky/Ashcraft

36. Which of the following was NOT a challenge to the behaviorist approach? a. language b. attention c. vigilance d. S–R learning Page: 13 Type: conceptual Answer: d 37. Which of the following does NOT challenge a pure behaviorist perspective? a. demonstrated effects of attention b. the role of vigilance in a skilled performance task c. language d. incorporating Pavlov’s work on classical conditioning Page: 13 Type: conceptual Answer: d 38. What was a problem with traditional behaviorism as revealed to experimental psychologists doing work during World War II? a. Most of the Army and Navy had to deal with people, not rats. b. Much longer retention periods of knowledge were involved. c. It did not address practical concerns, such as vigilance. d. The principles of behaviorism were all shown to be incorrect.

Page: 13 Type: factual Answer: c 39. Which of the following was an outgrowth of Ebbinghaus’s work on memory? a. B.F. Skinner’s behaviorism b. verbal learning theorists c. researchers studying operant conditioning d. Gestalt psychology Page: 14 Type: factual Answer: b 40. One of the legacies of verbal learning was that __________. a. it reinforced the dominant behaviorist ideals about mental activity b. it provided a way to study mental processes in an objective manner c. no one could find any theoretical basis for the work d. an effective counterweight to research on verbal behavior was found Page: 14 Type: conceptual Answer: b 41. __________ wrote a review of Skinner’s Verbal Behavior. This review clearly illustrated the shortcomings of the behaviorist account of language. a. Descartes b. James c. Watson d. Chomsky Page: 15 Type: factual Answer: d

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Cognition, 6th ed.

Radvansky/Ashcraft

42. The cognitive manifesto is associated with __________. a. Thorndike b. Chomsky c. Sperling d. Bartlett Page: 15 Type: factual Answer: c 42. The essence of Chomsky’s review of Skinner’s Verbal Behavior book was that __________. a. Skinner failed to supply an adequate computer model of verbal learning b. Skinner relied too heavily on animal models c. Skinner failed to consider the role of attention d. Skinner’s work was a mere terminological revision, in which terms borrowed from the laboratory were used in the full vagueness of their ordinary usage Page: 15 Type: conceptual Answer: d 43. Which of the following is a common analogy used by cognitive psychologists to describe or characterize how people think? a. attention b. digital computer c. context d. structuralist perspective Page: 19 Type: conceptual Answer: b 44. Which of the following is a central analogy of cognitive psychology? e. the flowchart f. the building blocks underlying the structure of the brain g. the whole is greater than the sum of the parts: the importance of context. h. the digital computer Page: 19 Type: conceptual Answer: d 45. In response to a difficult question, a person is likely to respond more slowly than if an easy question had been asked. In terms of the overall response times, the difficult question would yield __________. a. response times with lower numbers b. response times with higher numbers c. response times would not differ d. not enough information has been provided Page: 20 Type: applied Answer: b

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Cognition, 6th ed.

Radvansky/Ashcraft

46. In response to an easy question, a person is likely to answer quicker than if a hard question was asked. With a sufficiently powerful experiment, it is likely that a statistical analysis would reveal that __________. a. response times would be lower for difficult questions than for easy questions b. response times would be higher for difficult questions than for easy questions c. response times would not differ for easy and difficult questions d. not enough information has been provided Page: 20 Type: applied Answer: b 47. How many milliseconds in a second? a. 1/100th b. 10 c. 100 d. 1000 Page: 20 Type: factual Answer: d 48. What is a good means of assessing how much a person remembers from something they read earlier? a. response time b. accuracy c. verbal reports d. content analysis Page: 21 Type: conceptual Answer: b 49. What type of information is useful in identifying instances in which a person has distorted memory? a. intrusions rather than accuracy b. strictly accuracy c. skewed response times d. formative interference Page: 22 Type: conceptual Answer: a 50. The Atkinson & Shiffrin model provides a useful summary of overall cognitive function. Their model is normally referred to as __________. a. the standard model b. a connectionist model c. a process model d. a channel capacity model Page: 23 Type: factual Answer: a 51. Which of the following is NOT part of the “standard theory”? a. long-term memory b. sensory register c. STM/working memory d. explicit memory Page: 23 Type: factual Answer: d

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Cognition, 6th ed.

Radvansky/Ashcraft

52. In cognition, STM almost always refers to __________. a. sensory terminal memory b. short-term memory c. salience to me d. standard theory of memory Page: 23 Type: factual Answer: b 53. The act of taking in information and converting it to a usable mental form is __________. a. STM b. connectionism c. retrieval d. encoding Page: 23 Type: factual Answer: d 54. What is a way of making a theory more explicit about how cognition proceeds during a task? a. Create a process model. b. Deconstruct a simulation. c. Formulate a mathematical inference machine. d. Establish a protocol.

Page: 24 Type: factual Answer: a 55. A lexical decision task is __________. a. a process model b. a connectionist model c. a word decision task d. a priming task Page: 24 Type: factual Answer: c 56. The word frequency effect illustrates __________. a. serial exhaustive processing of the memory set b. congruency effects c. the fact that common words produce larger response times d. the fact that common words produce smaller response times Page: 25 Type: conceptual Answer: d 57. Accounts positing independent nonoverlapping stages of processing are referred to as __________. a. protocol models b. stage models c. parallel processing models d. conceptually driven processing models Page: 26 Type: factual Answer: b

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Cognition, 6th ed.

Radvansky/Ashcraft

58. Which of the following is NOT an assumption of a strict serial processing approach? a. independent and nonoverlapping stages b. sequential stages of processing c. Response times indicate processing duration. d. parallel processing Page: 26 Type: conceptual Answer: d 59. The sentence “I do not have to attend to what the cat will eat tomorrow” includes ten occurrences of the letter T. The Radvansky and Ashcraft text argues that people’s difficulties in finding all of the Ts reflects __________. a. channel capacity b. a failure to read the textbook c. top-down processing d. connectionist modeling Page: 27 Type: conceptual Answer: c 60. How can context influence processing? a. It can guide the flow of cognition. b. There are no clear influences. c. by situating the information d. through a process of content restriction Page: 27 Type: conceptual Answer: a 61. In terms of the flow of information processing, ___________ is an influence of environmental factors on thought, whereas ____________ is an influence of prior conceptions or expectations on thought. a. bottom-up processing; top-down processing b. top-down processing; bottom-up processing c. reality-based processing; imagination-based processing d. imagination-based processing; reality-based processing Page: 27 Type: conceptual Answer: a 62. What of the following is NOT a discipline in cognitive science? a. computer science b. anthropology c. architecture d. philosophy Page: 29 Type: factual Answer: c

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Cognition, 6th ed.

Radvansky/Ashcraft

63. What is the name for the larger discipline that cognitive psychology is a part of, and that also includes disciplines like computer science, anthropology, and philosophy? a. mind science b. cognitive science c. mental matters d. arts and science Page: 29 Type: conceptual Answer: b 64. What is the term used for the regulation of cognitive resources? a. systemization b. mental management c. cerebral guidance d. attention Page: 30 Type: conceptual Answer: d 65. What theme of the textbook takes the assumption that cognition functions in a way to capture the ways in which people interact with the world? a. embodiment b. metacognition c. representation d. conceptually driven processing Page: 30 Type: conceptual Answer: a 66. Our awareness of our own cognition and knowledge and insight into its workings is __________. a. response time b. attention c. self-actualization d. metacognition Page: 30 Type: factual Answer: d

True/False Questions: 67. A cognitive revolution is part of our day-to-day existence (e.g., whenever we change our minds).

FALSE (p. 2) 68. Wundt established the first psychological laboratory. TRUE (p. 9) 69. Wundt believed strongly that the proper topic for psychology was “conscious processes and immediate experience.” TRUE (p. 9) 70. Reductionism was the first major psychological approach. FALSE (p. 7) 71. Overall, behaviorism contributed in a positive manner to the development of many tools we use when investigating topics in cognitive psychology. TRUE (p. 12) 72. The study of aggression was a major contributor to the paradigm shift away from behaviorism.

FALSE (p. 13) 73. The information-processing approach is a general model of human memory and cognitive systems. TRUE (p. 18)

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Cognition, 6th ed.

Radvansky/Ashcraft

74. The concept of channel capacity, while important for information processing, is not as relevant for cognitive psychology. FALSE (p. 18) 75. The basic idea behinds Donder’s use of response times is that response time reflects the difficulty of mental processes. TRUE (p. 20) 76. The “standard model of memory” refers to an information-processing model of human cognition. TRUE (p. 23) 77. The Atkinson & Shiffrin model (1968, 1971) provides a useful summary of overall cognitive function.

TRUE (p. 23) 78. Low-frequency words produce faster RTs than high-frequency words. FALSE (p. 25) 79. The study of cognition is more fruitful when considered in the context of an understanding of neuroscience.

TRUE (p. 29) 80. A course in cognitive psychology is more likely to tell you about common performance limitations than is a course in psychopathology of children or with a specialization in abnormal psychology. TRUE (p. 29)

Fill in the Blank/Short Answer: 81. The interdisciplinary development of cognitive psychology is called _______. (COGNITIVE SCIENCE).

82. Define memory.

83. __________ is the mental processes of acquiring and retaining information for later retrieval and the mental storage system that enables the processes of encoding, storage, and retrieval. (MEMORY) 84. Define cognition.

85. ____________ is the scientific study of human memory and mental processes, including such activities as perceiving, remembering, using language, reasoning, and problem solving. (COGNITION) 86. Identify two important contributions of behaviorism to cognitive psychology.

87. Describe the important features of behaviorism.

88. Describe two important causes that contributed to the cognitive revolution.

89. What is the information-processing approach?

90. What are the two major assumptions of the strict information-processing approach?

91. Identify a key assumption of the analysis of response time data. (LONGER TIME→ MORE WORK) 92. What are two areas, other than psychology, that fall under the rubric of cognitive science? (LINGUISTICS, PHILOSOPHY, COMPUTER SCIENCE, NEUROSCIENCE, ANTHROPOLOGY) 93. Draw a schematic of the general process model proposed by Sternberg to account for performance during a lexical decision task. What are its stages?

94. What are the three main memory stores in the standard model of memory? (SENSORY REGISTER, SHORT-TERM MEMORY, LONG-TERM MEMORY)

Essay Questions: 95. Describe the differences among reductionism, structuralism, and functionalism.

96. Wundt wanted to study “conscious processes and immediate experience.” How do the research tools (equipment and methodology) that are available today contribute to a greater understanding of “conscious processes and immediate experience” than was possible using trained introspection and structuralism?

97. It is broadly accepted that behaviorist accounts of language are seriously flawed. Why? (Note: be sure to evaluate more than just Chomsky’s response to Skinner.)

98. Recent developments within cognitive psychology have contributed to the development of the interdisciplinary field of cognitive science. Describe how the contributions of both neurophysiology and computer science have helped us to understand more about how people think.

99. Why would some people consider cognitive psychology to be a core discipline in the broader field of psychology?

100. What are the three major assumptions of cognitive psychology? Why is each considered important?

101. The Atkinson & Shiffrin model provides a useful summary of overall cognitive function. What does a process model add to the description (i.e., what do we gain by using a process model)?

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Cognition, 6th edition

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Radvansky/Ashcraft

Chapter 2: Cognitive Neuroscience and Cognitive Science

Multiple Choice Questions: 1.

Neurologically, a dissociation is when __________. a. one component of mental functioning is disrupted, but others are not b. the activities of the mind can be separated from those of the body c. different neural processes operate separately d. neuroimaging can be isolated from neurophysiology

Page: 33 Type: factual Answer: a 2.

When there is a disruption of one mental process (but not others) due to brain damage, this is called a __________. a. association b. dissociation c. partonomy d. finding

Page: 33 Type: conceptual Answer: b 3.

If one patient has a neurological disruption of mental process A but not mental process B, and another patient has a neurological disruption of mental process B, but not mental process A, this is called __________. a. a double blind study b. transcranial activity c. a double dissociation d. morphological distinction

Page: 33 Type: conceptual Answer: c 4.

What are the basic building blocks of the nervous system? a. neurotransmitters b. neurons c. dendrites d. action potentials

Page: 34 Type: factual Answer: b 5.

__________ is the cell that is specialized for receiving and transmitting a neural impulse. a. Synapse b. Myelin c. Neuron d. Node

Page: 34 Type: factual Answer: c

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Cognition, 6th edition

How many neurons does a typical person have in his or her brain? a. millions b. trillions c. thousands d. billions

Page: 34 Type: conceptual Answer: d 7.

How many neural connections exist in each person’s brain? a. billions b. thousands c. millions d. trillions

Page: 34 Type: factual Answer: d 8.

Information comes into a neuron through the __________. a. axon b. dendrites c. myelin sheath d. nodes of Ranvier

Page: 34 Type: factual Answer: b 9.

A neuron’s myelin (if it has any) is produced by __________. a. the axon b. dendrites c. other neurons d. glial cells

Page: 34 Type: factual Answer: d 10. Unmyelinated neurons correspond to __________. a. dark matter b. dark energy c. gray matter d. white matter Page: 36 Type: factual Answer: c 11. What kinds of neurons are most commonly found in the brain? a. sensor neurons b. motor neurons c. dissociation neurons d. interneurons Page: 36 Type: factual Answer: d

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Cognition, 6th edition

Radvansky/Ashcraft

12. What is it called when a neuron fires? a. synapsing b. excitation c. inhibition d. an action potential Page: 36 Type: factual Answer: d 13. A neuron has a resting potential of __________. a. – 70 mV b. 0 mV c. + 30 mV d. + 170 mV Page: 36 Type: factual Answer: a 14. A __________ is NOT a type of cell. a. synapse b. receptor c. effector d. interneuron Page: 36 Type: factual Answer: a 15. When an action potential moves down a neuron, the action potential is said to be __________. a. transmitted b. propagated c. activated d. motivated Page: 37 Type: conceptual Answer: b 16. Neuronal action potentials follow __________. a. temporal markers b. the all or none principle c. in sequence d. an encoding stage Page: 37 Type: conceptual Answer: b 17. The region where neurotransmitters cross from one neuron to another is called the __________. a. dendrite b. axon c. neurotransmitter d. synapse Page: 37 Type: factual Answer: d

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Cognition, 6th edition

Radvansky/Ashcraft

18. The typical size of a synapse is __________. a. 100–200 millimeters b. 100–200 angstroms c. 5–10 picoleptors d. 25–35 picoleptors Page: 37 Type: factual Answer: b 19. Typical neurons in the cortex synapse with how many other neurons? a. 1–6 b. 1,000,000–2,000,000 c. 100–15,000 d. 20–30 Page: 37 Type: factual Answer: c 20. The synapsing of a give neuron with many other neurons is called __________. a. multiplicity b. magnification c. divergence d. diffusion Page: 37 Type: factual Answer: c 21. What is the name of chemicals that accentuate or diminish the effects of neurotransmitters? a. neuromodulators b. magnifiers c. diminishers d. proto-neurotransmitters Page: 38 Type: factual Answer: a 22. What is acetylcholine an important neurotransmitter for? a. creating new neurons b. memory enhancement c. slowing the spread of neural activity d. mammals Page: 38 Type: factual Answer: b 23. What of the following is an excitatory neurotransmitter that is important for memory formation? a. dendrition b. magnesium c. glutamate d. GABA Page: 38 Type: factual Answer: c

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Cognition, 6th edition

Radvansky/Ashcraft

24. What of the following is an inhibitory neurotransmitter that is important for memory formation? a. carbon b. magnesium c. glutamate d. GABA Page: 39 Type: factual Answer: d 25. Which memory formation process is for the temporary retention of information? a. consolidation b. long-term potentiation c. reconsolidation d. short-term potentiation Page: 39 Type: conceptual Answer: b 26. Which type of memory process is most likely disrupted by a blow to the head? a. consolidation b. long-term potentiation c. reconsolidation d. short-term potentiation Page: 39 Type: conceptual Answer: b 27. What process does long-term potentiation (LTP) reflect? a. the creation of new AMPA receptors b. the creation of new NMDA receptors c. the expansion of axon terminals d. the high loading of neurotransmitters Page: 39 Type: conceptual Answer: a 28. What is the name of the process that creates durable memories? a. long-term potentiation b. neural plasticity c. pruning d. consolidation Page: 40 Type: conceptual Answer: d 29. How long is long-term potentiation (LTP)? a. angstroms b. millimeters c. days d. years Page: 40 Type: conceptual Answer: c

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Cognition, 6th edition

Radvansky/Ashcraft

30. Memory consolidation in the nervous system is aided by __________. a. activity b. sleep c. inhibition d. stem cells Page: 40 Type: factual Answer: b 31. The top layer of the brain, responsible for higher-level mental processes, is __________. a. neocortex b. brainstem c. corpus callosum d. parietal lobe Page: 41 Type: factual Answer: a 32. The part of the brain responsible for governing functions such as digestion, heartbeat, and breathing is the __________. a. cerebellum b. parietal lobe c. corpus callosum d. brainstem Page: 42 Type: factual Answer: d 33. The structure known as the “gateway to the cortex” is the __________. a. thalamus b. brainstem c. hippocampus d. fissure of Rolando Page: 42 Type: factual Answer: a 34. The primary bridge across which messages pass between the left and right halves of the cortex is the __________. a. thalamus b. corpus callosum c. hippocampus d. hypothalamus Page: 42 Type: factual Answer: b 35. The subcortical structure important for memory is the __________. a. thalamus b. corpus callosum c. hippocampus d. hypothalamus Page: 42 Type: factual Answer: c

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Cognition, 6th edition

36. The hippocampus is important for __________. a. memory b. emotion c. vision d. hearing Page: 42 Type: factual Answer: a 37. The amygdala is important for __________. a. memory b. emotion c. vision d. hearing Page: 42 Type: factual Answer: b 38. The subcortical structure important for emotion is the __________. a. amygdala b. corpus callosum c. hippocampus d. hypothalamus Page: 42 Type: factual Answer: a 39. Which of the following is NOT a lobe of the brain? a. lateral b. parietal c. temporal d. occipital Page: 43 Type: factual Answer: a 40. Which of the following is NOT a lobe of the cortex? a. frontal b. parietal c. occipital d. amygdala Page: 43 Type: factual Answer: d 41. Which lobe of the cortex is most important for vision? a. frontal b. parietal c. occipital d. temporal Page: 43 Type: factual Answer: c

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Cognition, 6th edition

Radvansky/Ashcraft

42. Which lobe of the cortex is most important for memory? a. frontal b. parietal c. occipital d. temporal Page: 43 Type: factual Answer: d 43. What is the name of the numbering system used to identify different locations in the cortex? a. Brodmann’s areas b. The American Cortical Numeration (ACN) c. Freud’s index d. Catalog of Cortical Areas Page: 43 Type: factual Answer: a 44. The receptive and control centers for one side of the body are in the opposite hemisphere of the brain. This is referred to as __________. a. double dissociation b. corpus callosum c. hemispheric specialization d. contralaterality Page: 44 Type: factual Answer: d 45. Contralateral connections refer to __________. a. the idea that the body is represented in an inverted form in the brain b. the ways in which one hemisphere of the brain is largely hooked up to the same side of the body c. signals crossing from one half of the brain to the other over the corpus callosum d. two theories that are in opposition to one another Page: 44 Type: conceptual Answer: b 46. The specialization of function between the left and right hemispheres is known as __________. a. dissociation b. corpus callosum c. hemispheric specialization d. hemispatial neglect Page: 45 Type: factual Answer: c 47. Cerebral lateralization is the idea that __________. a. different functions depend more on one hemisphere than the other in the brain b. brain states tend to drive people toward one political opinion or the other c. there is more cerebral activity on the sides of the brain than in the middle d. the brain has two halves Page: 45 Type: conceptual Answer: a

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Cognition, 6th edition

Radvansky/Ashcraft

48. One form of surgical intervention to combat severe epilepsy is __________. a. appendectomy b. severing the corpus callosum c. hemispherectomy d. frontal lobotomy Page: 46 Type: factual Answer: b 49. Sperry (1964) examined patients who had their corpus callosum severed. He was interested in investigating __________. a. cerebral lateralization b. animus c. basic functions (e.g., breathing, heart rate, temperature regulation) d. Penfield stimulation Page: 46 Type: factual Answer: a 50. Penfield is famous for his work on __________. a. color vision b. sensory–motor reflex arc c. basic functions (breathing, heart rate, temperature regulation) d. direct stimulation Page: 48 Type: factual Answer: d 51. The __________ is the part of the brain responsible for processing touch information from throughout the body. a. occipital lobe b. cerebellum c. sensory cortex d. motor cortex Page: 48 Type: factual Answer: c 52. The __________ is the part of the brain responsible for processing voluntary movement information for throughout the body. a. occipital lobe b. cerebellum c. sensory cortex d. motor cortex Page: 48 Type: factual Answer: d 53. Mirror neurons are active when __________. a. a person performs an action b. a person watches another person doing an action c. a person plans a movement d. all of the above Page: 49 Type: conceptual Answer: d

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Cognition, 6th edition

Radvansky/Ashcraft

54. The dorsal pathway in vision is responsible for processing __________ information. a. “where” b. “what” c. “who” d. “when” Page: 49 Type: factual Answer: a 55. Visual information about where something is located is processed by the __________ pathway. a. medial b. posterior c. forsal d. ventral Page: 49 Type: factual Answer: c 56. The ventral pathway in vision is responsible for processing __________ information. a. “where” b. “what” c. “who” d. “when” Page: 49 Type: factual Answer: b 57. Visual information about what something is gets processed by the __________ pathway. a. medial b. posterior c. dorsal d. ventral Page: 49 Type: factual Answer: c 58. What is an emergent property? a. an activity that occurs only when it is allowed to emerge b. a newly developing skill c. a property that emerges when several smaller units work together d. a newly developing feature Page: 50 Type: factual Answer: c 59. What is a process that occurs when several smaller units work together? a. mirror neurons b. emergent property c. embodied cognition d. cortical stimulation Page: 50 Type: conceptual Answer: b

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Cognition, 6th edition

Radvansky/Ashcraft

60. What does a CT scan use x-rays to measure? a. brain structure b. blood flow c. electrical activity d. personality characteristics Page: 51 Type: factual Answer: a 61. Which neuroimaging technique uses x-rays to measure brain structure? a. CT scan b. MRI scan c. fMRI scan d. PET scan Page: 51 Type: factual Answer: a 62. What does an MRI scan use magnetic fields to measure? a. brain structure b. blood flow c. electrical activity d. personality characteristics Page: 51 Type: factual Answer: a 63. Which neuroimaging technique uses magnetic fields to measure brain structure? a. CT scan b. MRI scan c. fMRI scan d. PET scan Page: 51 Type: factual Answer: b 64. Which neuroimaging technique provides good “when” information but not very good “where” information? a. ERP b. CT scan c. fMRI d. the Penfield technique Page: 52 Type: conceptual Answer: a 65. Which of the following techniques would NOT provide information about brain structure? a. CT scan b. ERP recordings c. Neurosurgery d. MRI scan Page: 52 Type: factual Answer: b

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66. What does a single cell recording measure? a. brain structure b. blood flow c. electrical activity d. personality characteristics Page: 52 Type: factual Answer: c 67. Which neuroimaging technique uses electrical charges to measure neural activity? a. CT scan b. MRI scan c. fMRI scan d. single cell recordings Page: 52 Type: factual Answer: d 68. What do event-related potentials (ERPs) measure? a. brain structure b. blood flow c. electrical activity d. neurogenesis Page: 52 Type: factual Answer: c 69. Which neuroimaging technique uses electrical activity to measure neural activity? a. CT scan b. MRI scan c. ERP recordings d. special populations Page: 52 Type: factual Answer: c 70. Which of the following does NOT use electrical charges to measure neural activity? a. single cell recordings b. MRI scan c. ERP recordings d. TMS Page: 52 Type: factual Answer: b 71. Which part of an ERP recording indicates surprise, incongruence, or unexpectedness? a. P600 b. N400 c. all of it d. none of it: ERPs record baseline activity only.

Page: 53 Type: factual Answer: b

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72. What is transcranial magnetic stimulation (TMS) used for? a. altering brain structure b. changing blood flow levels c. altering electrical activity d. reducing neurogenesis Page: 54 Type: factual Answer: c 73. Which neuroimaging technique uses magnetic fields to disrupt normal electrical activity in the brain? a. CT scan b. MRI scan c. ERP recordings d. TMS Page: 54 Type: factual Answer: d 74. Which of the following does NOT use metabolic charges to measure neural activity? a. PET scan b. MRI scan c. ERP recording d. none of the above Page: 54 Type: factual Answer: b 75. What is the name of the signal from an fMRI recording that indicates level of brain activity? a. BOLD b. N400 c. neural spike d. brain waves Page: 54 Type: factual Answer: a 76. Which neuroimaging technique uses blood flow to measure neural activity? a. PET scan b. MRI scan c. ERP recording d. TMS Page: 54 Type: factual Answer: a 77. Which neuroimaging technique uses radioactive isotopes to measure blood flow in the brain? a. CT scan b. MRI scan c. fMRI scan d. PET scan Page: 54 Type: factual Answer: d

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Radvansky/Ashcraft

78. Which neuroimaging technique uses blood flow to measure neural activity? a. MRI scan b. fMRI scan c. ERP recording d. TMS Page: 54 Type: factual Answer: b 79. Which neuroimaging technique uses magnetic fields to measure blood flow in the brain? a. CT scan b. MRI scan c. fMRI scan d. PET scan Page: 54 Type: factual Answer: c 80. Which technique uses brain damage to make inferences about neural activity? a. direct stimulation b. lesioning c. PET scans d. neuroreduplication Page: 56 Type: factual Answer: b 81. Which technique uses electrical impulses to assess brain functionality? a. direct stimulation b. lesioning c. ERP induction d. the Penfield withdrawal technique Page: 56 Type: factual Answer: a 82. What is a way to study how different brain structures influence cognition without studying people with lesions or other kinds of brain damage? a. narcotics b. stimulants c. psychotropics d. special populations Page: 56 Type: factual Answer: d 83. __________ is a computer-based technique for modeling complex systems in which knowledge is represented by the strength of the excitatory or inhibitory connections between massively interconnected nodes. a. Coaxial modeling b. Computer-aided modeling c. Connectionist modeling d. Associationist modeling Page: 57 Type: factual Answer: c

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84. Which of the following does NOT go with the others? a. connectionist models b. neural net models c. parallel distributed processing models d. mental models Page: 57 Type: conceptual Answer: d

True/False Questions: 85. If one mental process is disrupted by brain damage and others are not, this is called a dissociation. TRUE (p. 33) 86. Myelin sheaths are created by glial cells. TRUE (p. 34) 87. Every action potential is the same. TRUE (p. 37) 88. The action potential occurs at the synapse. FALSE (p. 37) 89. GABA is an excitatory neurotransmitter involved in memory and learning. FALSE (p. 39) 90. Long-term potentiation has a shorter duration than consolidation. TRUE (p. 40) 91. The cerebral cortex is wrinkled in order to increase the surface area in a small volume. TRUE (p. 42) 92. “Language on the left” refers to contralaterality. FALSE (p. 55) 93. The different areas of the cortex are specialized for different kinds of neural computation. TRUE (p. 45) 94. Each hemisphere of the brain is a single sheet of neural tissue; the lobes are merely separated by larger folds and convolutions of the cortex. TRUE (p. 44) 95. Hemispheric specialization refers to the fact that the receptive and control centers for one side of the body are in the opposite hemisphere of the brain. FALSE (p. 45) 96. All neuroimaging measures are focused on revealing structure. FALSE (p. 52) 97. PET scans involve the injection of a radioactive isotope into the bloodstream. TRUE (p. 55) 98. An advantage of computer modeling is that it forces theorists to be very explicit. TRUE (p. 57) 99. Connectionist models are inspired by the structure of the brain and neural communication. TRUE (p. 57) 100. Connectionist models have been verified using fMRI recordings. FALSE (p. 57)

Fill in the Blank/Short Answer: 101. A disruption of one mental process, but not others, as a result of brain damage is called a(n) ____________.

(DISSOCIATION) 102. What sort of effect is needed to show that two neurological processes are independent? (DOUBLE DISSOCIATION) 103. For a neuron, information may come in the ____________ and out the ________________. (DENDRITES; AXON) 104. Draw a picture of a neuron. Label at least five of the important components.

105. What is the name of the process generated when a neuron fires? (ACTION POTENTIAL) 106. What is the name of a neurotransmitter important for memory formation? (GLUTAMATE) 107. Long-term potentiation involves the creation of new __________ receptors. (AMPA) 108. The four major lobes of the brain are: FRONTAL, ___________, ____________, and __________.

(TEMPORAL; PARIETAL; OCCIPITAL) 109. List three different types of data sources that cognitive psychologists have used to learn about hemispheric lateralization: ____________, ____________, and ____________. (any of: LESION, DIRECT STIMULATION, ERP, fMRI, CT, PET, etc.)

110. Two neuroimaging techniques for assessing brain structure are ___________ and____________. (CT scans; MRI scans) 111. The neuroimaging technique that uses EEG recordings to assess changes in brain activity as a function of some external stimulus occurs is called __________. (ERP RECORDING) 112. What is the name of the signal that is derived from an fMRI scan in order to assess the level of activity in a certain part of the brain? (BOLD) 113. How did Penfield assess the functional role of different brain areas? (DIRECT STIMULATION)

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Essay Questions: 114. Why is the finding of a double dissociation more informative in cognitive neuroscience than the finding of a single dissociation?

115. What are the implications of long-term potentiation (LTP) and consolidation for how one should go about learning things to last a long time?

116. How can you tell if different areas of the brain are specialized for handling different types of cognition?

117. What are the advantages and limitations of neuroimaging methods to assess cognition?

118. Identify a problem in cognitive psychology and describe how you might use two different neuroimaging techniques to test address this problem.

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Chapter 3: Sensation and Perception

Multiple Choice Questions: 1.

What is the name of the part of the eye that converts light to neural impulses? a. cochlea b. iris c. retina d. lens

Page: 62 Type: factual Answer: c 2.

Items presented 20 degrees off centerline, in the right visual field, __________. a. will be processed by only the right eye and then initially processed in the brain by the occipital lobe in the left hemisphere b. will be processed by only the left eye and then initially processed in the brain by the occipital lobe in the left hemisphere c. will be processed by both eyes and then initially processed in the brain by the occipital lobe in the left hemisphere d. will be processed by both eyes and then initially processed in the brain by the occipital lobes on both sides

Page: 62 Type: conceptual Answer: c 3.

What is the role of the retina in vision? a. to convert light energy into neural impulses b. to focus the image on the eye c. to filter out unwanted visual noise d. back propagation

Page: 62 Type: factual Answer: a 4.

Light, upon entering the eye, will never shine on, pass through, or illuminate which of the following structures? a. cornea b. lens c. optic chiasm d. blind spot

Page: 62 Type: factual Answer: c 5.

The region of the retina responsible for precise focused vision is the __________. a. input layer b. pigmented layer c. fovea d. ganglia

Page: 62 Type: factual Answer: c

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Which of the following is NOT true of the human visual system? a. The initial processing of a stimulus presented in the right visual field (e.g., 20 degrees off centerline on your right-hand side) will be in the left hemisphere (left occipital lobe). b. The duration of visual sensory memory is about 250–500 milliseconds. c. Most information is taken up in the first brief period (about 50 milliseconds) of a new fixation. d. There are more rods at the fovea than there are cones.

Page: 62 Type: factual Answer: d 7.

The initial encoding of the stimulus from the environment into the nervous system is best described as __________. a. the sensory register b. sensation c. perception d. representation

Page: 65 Type: factual Answer: b 8.

Sensation is __________. a. the emotional feeling the accompanies perception b. one’s sensitivity to other people in the world c. the interpretation of perceptual signals d. the detection of external energy from the environment

Page: 65 Type: factual Answer: d 9.

The process of interpreting and understanding sensory information is best described as __________. a. the sensory register b. sensation c. perception d. representation

Page: 65 Type: factual Answer: c 10. Perception is __________. a. the emotional feeling the accompanies perception b. one’s sensitivity to other people in the world c. the interpretation of perceptual signals d. the detection of external energy from the environment Page: 65 Type: factual Answer: c 11. Rapid movement of the eye is __________. a. saccade b. smooth pursuit c. fixation d. foveation Page: 67 Type: factual Answer: a

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12. What is a saccade? a. a visual neural signal b. a visual fixation c. a smooth eye movement d. a rapid eye movement Page: 67 Type: factual Answer: d 13. During __________, the eye is held steady and visual information is gathered. a. saccade b. smooth pursuit c. fixation d. foveation Page: 67 Type: factual Answer: c 14. What is a fixation? a. a visual neural signal b. a period when the eye is not moving c. a smooth eye movement d. a rapid eye movement Page: 67 Type: factual Answer: b 15. A saccadic eye movement (not including initiation time) takes approximately __________. a. 1–5 ms b. 25–100 ms c. 250–300 ms d. 400–700 ms Page: 67 Type: factual Answer: b 16. The entire fixation–saccade cycle repeats itself __________. a. approximately once per second b. approximately twice per second c. approximately three times per second d. as often as ten times per second Page: 67 Type: factual Answer: c 17. Visual information is NOT gathered during __________. a. transductions b. fixations c. saccades d. peripherals Page: 67 Type: factual Answer: c

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18. What of the following can occur because of a saccade? a. blind sight b. change blindness c. motion sickness d. transmutation Page: 67 Type: factual Answer: b 19. If I present you with a picture of a fishing trawler, but then remove (and alternatively replace) the anchor on the bow of the trawler whenever you move your eyes, you are likely to remain unaware of the addition and removal of the anchor for quite some time. This reflects __________. a. anchoring and adjustment b. channel capacity c. change blindness d. apperceptive agnosia Page: 67 Type: applied Answer: c 20. Change blindness is associated with __________. a. hemispheric neglect b. blindsight c. inability to pick up changes that occur during saccades d. bad fashion choices Page: 67 Type: conceptual Answer: c 21. Discontinuity in vision refers to __________. a. color opponent processing b. the attentional role of temporal persistence c. the belief that “things” shoot out of our eyes to help us see things d. the fixation–saccade cycle of visual uptake Page: 67 Type: conceptual Answer: d 22. A lightning strike produces visual persistence due to __________. a. continued retinal activity of the receptor cells b. the span of apprehension c. the iconic sensory register d. apperception Page: 68 Type: applied Answer: c 23. The apparent persistence of a stimulus beyond its real physical duration is __________. a. experimental realism b. ecological validity c. discontinuity in vision d. visual persistence Page: 68 Type: factual Answer: d

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24. Visual persistence is __________. a. when you see spots in front of your eyes after looking directly at a light bulb b. the apparent persistence of a stimulus beyond its real physical duration c. being able to see after taking a blow to the head d. when visual information dominates over auditory information Page: 68 Type: factual Answer: b 25. Another name for visual sensory memory is __________. a. iconic memory b. echoic memory c. trans-saccadic memory d. perception Page: 68 Type: factual Answer: a 26. Visual information is said to be held in __________. a. iconic memory b. echoic memory c. trans-saccadic memory d. perception Page: 68 Type: conceptual Answer: a 27. Consider the partial report condition as reported by Sperling (1960) in his iconic memory experiments.

Which of the following is NOT true? a. Accuracy decreased with cue delay. b. Only one row of letters had to be reported. c. Context dependence was clearly illustrated. d. A tone was used as a cue.

Page: 69 Type: conceptual Answer: c 28. The difference between partial report and full report is typically used to investigate __________. a. journalism b. iconic (or echoic) memory c. ecological validity d. bipolar synapse Page: 69 Type: conceptual Answer: b 29. George Sperling, in his 1960 monograph, discusses the implications of results obtain from a procedure called partial report. What topic was he investigating? a. long-term memory b. iconic memory c. pre-categorical acoustic storage d. lexical processing Page: 69 Type: factual Answer: b

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30. The number of items recallable after any short display is called __________. a. visual sensory memory duration b. working memory capacity c. the span of apperception d. articulation span Page: 69 Type: factual Answer: c 31. Span of apprehension is __________. a. how long a person can retain information in iconic memory b. the number of items recallable after any short display c. the finding that it is easier to perceiving thing within reaching distance d. the finding that it is easier to perceive things that we understand Page: 69 Type: factual Answer: b 32. Sperling’s studies in visual apprehension revealed that more information was available than could be reported by use of his __________ report condition. a. partial b. whole c. verbal d. visual Page: 69 Type: factual Answer: a 33. The name of the mental representation in visual sensory register is __________. a. icon b. echo c. formant d. image Page: 70 Type: factual Answer: a 34. Masking is __________. a. a later visual stimulus affecting the perception of an earlier one b. forgetting as a passive process, like decay c. always performed using a very simple visual pattern, a fragment or component that can appear in combination with other features d. Mar De Graw processing Page: 71 Type: conceptual Answer: a

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35. If I present a name for 50 milliseconds (on a computer screen) and then replace the word with a picture of a New Orleans celebration on top of the location where the word used to be, this is most likely to be part of a study investigating __________. a. the Mozart effect b. the Generation effect c. alexia d. masking Page: 71 Type: applied Answer: d 36. Focal attention __________. a. always involves looking directly at something b. always is data-driven c. always is conceptually driven d. always is the mental process of visual attention Page: 72 Type: conceptual Answer: c 37. Another name for visual attention is __________. a. focal attention b. iconic memory c. stimulus-driven attention d. conceptually driven attention Page: 72 Type: factual Answer: a 38. Trans-saccadic memory is memory for __________. a. visual information across eye movements b. sensory information that initiates a saccade c. auditory transience information d. tactile (touch) information Page: 72 Type: factual Answer: a 39. Visual memory across eye movements is also called __________. a. iconic memory b. trans-saccadic memory c. echoic memory d. dynamic memory Page: 72 Type: factual Answer: b 40. Which of the following is NOT a Gestalt principle? a. closure b. good continuation c. proximity d. recency Page: 74 Type: factual Answer: d

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41. Which Gestalt principle would be best for determining the shape of two overlapping objects? a. good continuation b. resolution c. proximity d. focus Page: 74 Type: conceptual Answer: a 42. Which of the following is NOT a Gestalt grouping principle? a. reduction b. good continuation c. proximity d. closure Page: 74 Type: factual Answer: a 43. Which of the following is a Gestalt grouping principle in which an object is visually separated from its environment? a. reduction b. figure–ground c. proximity d. closure Page: 74 Type: conceptual Answer: b 44. Which of the following is a Gestalt grouping principle in which gaps in an image are accounted for? a. good continuation b. figure–ground c. proximity d. closure Page: 74 Type: conceptual Answer: d 45. Which of the following is a Gestalt grouping principle that describes that idea that objects that share a common texture could be grouped together? a. good continuation b. similarity c. proximity d. closure Page: 74 Type: conceptual Answer: b 46. Which of the following is a Gestalt grouping principle that describes that idea that objects that move together could be grouped together? a. good continuation b. similarity c. common fate d. closure Page: 75 Type: conceptual Answer: c

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47. The following are four accounts of how we perform pattern recognition. Which of these accounts is the most likely to encounter difficulties as a result of the problem of invariance? a. connectionist models b. recognition by components c. template matching d. feature matching Page: 76 Type: conceptual Answer: c 48. The name for a stored visual pattern used in perception is __________. a. model b. memory c. template d. organization Page: 76 Type: factual Answer: c 49. What perceptual process is based on simple visual elements that are then used in combination? a. feature analysis b. Gestalt c. template d. acquisitive Page: 76 Type: factual Answer: a 50. Which of the following is NOT associated with Pandemonium? a. decision demon b. feature detection c. selfridge d. serial processing Type: factual Answer: d Page: 76 51. Which of the following is a model of visual processing using the elements of feature detection? a. PDP b. Pandemonium c. RBC d. template theory Type: factual Answer: b Page: 76 52. Which area of the brain is where feature detection begins? a. ventral pathway b. cingulate gyrus c. V1 d. T3 Type: factual Answer: c Page: 78

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53. What type of processing is area V1 specialized for? a. feature detection b. geon processing c. object mapping d. common fate tracing Type: factual Answer: a Page: 78 54. What aspect of perception does the Pandemonium model illustrate? a. Geons are the foundation of perception. b. It is a problem-solving process. c. The end results of perceptual processing are not open to conscious awareness. d. It is strongly conceptually driven.

Type: conceptual Answer: b Page: 78 55. Which area of the brain is important for processing movement? a. V1 b. MT c. SPC d. DD Type: factual Answer: b Page: 78 56. What is beta movement in perceptual processing? a. the illusion of movement from theater marquee lights b. the illusion of movement from rapidly presented pictures c. movement that is excluded from processing in area MT of the brain d. actual, real movement that the brain can actively perceive Type: factual Answer: b Page: 78 57. What is the name of the illusion of movement from rapidly presented pictures? a. alpha movement b. the phi phenomenon c. beta movement d. the psy phenomenon Type: factual Answer: c Page: 78 58. What is the phi phenomenon in perceptual processing? a. the illusion of movement from theater marquee lights b. the illusion of movement from rapidly presented pictures c. movement that is excluded from processing in area MT of the brain d. actual, real movement that the brain can actively perceive Type: factual Answer: a Page: 78

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59. What is the name of the illusion of movement from theater marquee lights? a. alpha movement b. the phi phenomenon c. beta movement d. the psy phenomenon Type: factual Answer: b Page: 78 60. Which of the following influences data-driven processing in vision? a. visual texture b. expectations c. context d. long-term memory Type: conceptual Answer: a Page: 79 61. Which of the following does NOT influence conceptually driven processing in vision? a. visual texture b. expectations c. context d. long-term memory Type: conceptual Answer: a Page: 79 62. Which of the following best illustrates top-down processing? a. Selfridge’s Pandemonium model b. template-matching models of visual or auditory processing c. feature-based models of visual or auditory processing d. Warren and Warren’s phoneme replacement studies Page: 79 Type: conceptual Answer: d 63. The influence of context on perception illustrates the operation of __________ processing. a. featured-based b. sensory c. conceptually driven d. data-driven Page: 81 Type: conceptual Answer: c 64. Which of the following is NOT a model of pattern recognition? a. Chinese room b. feature analysis c. template matching d. Pandemonium Page: 81 Type: factual Answer: a

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65. In a rapid serial visual presentation of a set of numbers or letters (one at a time), there is a tendency to “miss” any repeated letter, especially if there are only one or two intervening items. This reflects __________. a. repetition blindness b. span of apprehension c. apperceptive agnosia d. partial report Page: 81 Type: applied Answer: a 66. Repetition blindness reflects the operation of __________ processing. a. orthogonal b. discursive c. data-driven d. conceptually driven Page: 81 Type: conceptual Answer: d 67. A perceptual phenomenon that reflects conceptually driven processing is: a. color perception b. depth perception c. transduction d. repetition blindness Page: 81 Type: conceptual Answer: d 67. The sign WELCOME to ILLNOIS contains a spelling error (Illnois should be Illinois). Your (presumed) initial “correct” reading of the sign reveals __________. a. introspection b. conceptually driven processing c. bottom-up influences d. recognition by components Page: 81 Type: applied Answer: b 68. Connections models have all of the following EXCEPT __________. a. input units b. output units c. connecting units d. hidden units Page: 83 Type: factual Answer: c 69. What could the input units of a connectionist model correspond to? a. input units b. output units c. connecting units d. hidden units Page: 83 Type: conceptual Answer: c

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70. The units of a connectionist model that are neither the input nor the output units are called what? a. metric units b. parallel units c. connecting units d. hidden units Page: 84 Type: factual Answer: d 71. What are the units of a connectionist model that could be thought of as doing the actual recognizing of a perceptual stimulus? a. input units b. output units c. connecting units d. hidden units Page: 84 Type: conceptual Answer: b 72. What changes in a connectionist model as new information is learned? a. input units b. output units c. connections d. hidden units Page: 84 Type: conceptual Answer: c 73. Which of the following provides evidence consistent with Biederman’s recognition by components model? a. the importance of context effects b. neuropsychological investigations of Gestalt form processing c. recoverable and nonrecoverable objects d. the three-eared man procedure Page: 87 Type: conceptual Answer: c 74. What is a geon? a. a Gestalt grouping unit b. a geometrical connectionist model c. a basic building block of 3D perception d. a primitive feature detector Page: 87 Type: conceptual Answer: c 75. What is the name for primitive building blocks of 3D perception? a. features b. apperceptions c. modals d. geons Page: 87 Type: conceptual Answer: d

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76. Geons can be abstracted using the __________ in an image. a. vertices b. curves c. shading d. lines Page: 87 Type: conceptual Answer: a 77. Which of the following is a model of pattern recognition? a. RT b. RBC c. ACT d. SOA Page: 87 Type: factual Answer: b 78. A limitation of Biederman’s recognition by components (RBC) model is that __________. a. it is neurologically implausible b. there are no animal models for the process c. it is strictly data-driven d. it is strictly conceptually driven Page: 88 Type: factual Answer: c 79. Biederman’s recognition by components (RBC) model does NOT account which of the following? a. People can identify what an object is as fast as they even note that something is there. b. People can abstract the three-dimensional building blocks as needed. c. People can perceive overall object shapes as well as components. d. People can rely on their prior expertise.

Page: 88 Type: conceptual Answer: b 80. Visual perception may be embodied by people __________. a. mentally simulating how they would interact with an object b. because the eyes are in the front of the head c. using preexisting propositional codes to represent information d. without any aid from mental imagery of any kind Page: 89 Type: conceptual Answer: a 81. Tucker and Ellis (1998) found that people identified an object faster when the grip for that object was __________. a. absent b. occluded c. oriented to their non-dominant hand d. oriented to their dominant hand Page: 90 Type: factual Answer: d

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82. From an embodied view of perception, a hill appears steeper if you are wearing __________. a. a windbreaker b. hiking boots c. warm-up sweats d. a heavy backpack Page: 90 Type: conceptual Answer: d 83. Agnosia is __________. a. a failure or deficit in recognizing objects b. a failure or deficit in recognizing words c. an inability to remember how to use objects d. an inability to remember how to produce language Page: 91 Type: factual Answer: a 84. Prosopagnosia is __________. a. a disruption in the ability to recognize faces b. a problem remembering the names of objects c. a disruption in the ability to recognize objects d. a problem remembering the names of people Page: 91 Type: factual Answer: a 85. A disruption in face recognition is called __________. a. apperceptive agnosia b. prosopagnosia c. normal agnosia d. associative agnosia Page: 91 Type: factual Answer: b 86. Apperceptive agnosia is __________. a. trouble perceiving faces b. trouble writing c. trouble reading d. trouble perceiving patterns Page: 92 Type: factual Answer: d 87. Trouble perceiving patterns corresponds to __________. a. object agnosia b. word agnosia c. associative agnosia d. apperceptive agnosia Page: 92 Type: factual Answer: d

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88. A failure or deficit in recognizing objects __________. a. aphasia b. amnesia c. agnosia d. alexia Page: 92 Type: factual Answer: c 89. The ability to make a mental percept but inability to associate the pattern with any particular meaning is __________. a. apperceptive agnosia b. associative agnosia c. cortical blindness d. semantic inhibition Page: 92 Type: factual Answer: b 90. A disruption in the ability to pair a visual pattern with its meaning is __________. a. apperceptive agnosia b. prosopagnosia c. normal agnosia d. associative agnosia Page: 92 Type: factual Answer: d 91. Associative agnosia is __________. a. A disruption in the ability to recognize faces b. A problem pairing a visual pattern with its name c. A disruption in the ability to recognize objects d. A problem pairing a visual pattern with its meaning Page: 92 Type: factual Answer: d 92. Your sense of hearing is called __________. a. hearing b. listening c. audition d. acoustics Page: 94 Type: factual Answer: c 93. Generally, humans can hear frequencies as low as __________. a. 5 cycles per second b. 20 cycles per second c. 100 cycles per second d. 1000 cycles per second Page: 94 Type: factual Answer: b

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94. Generally, humans can hear frequencies as high as __________. a. 1000 cycles per second b. 5000 cycles per second c. 10000 cycles per second d. 20000 cycles per second Page: 94 Type: factual Answer: d 95. Another name for auditory sensory memory is __________. a. echoic memory b. iconic memory c. hearing d. listening Page: 94 Type: factual Answer: a 96. Which of the following components are in the correct order for auditory processing? a. eardrum, hammer, basilar membrane b. middle ear, cochlea, stirrup c. anvil, optic chiasm, occipital lobe d. eardrum, auditory nerve, oval window Page: 95 Type: factual Answer: a 97. Which of the following is NOT part of the auditory system? a. aqueous humor b. cochlea c. anvil d. little hairs on the basilar membrane Page: 95 Type: factual Answer: a 98. Which of the following is NOT part of the auditory system? a. montblanc b. cochlea c. anvil d. basilar membrane Page: 95 Type: factual Answer: a 99. Visual information endures in visual sensory memory for about 250 milliseconds, after which it fades away (decays). How long does auditory sensory memory for spoken language or other complex sounds last? a. 250 to 500 milliseconds b. 500 to 1000 milliseconds c. About 1–2 seconds d. About 2–4 seconds Page: 96 Type: factual Answer: a

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100. Auditory information endures in auditory sensory memory for two to four seconds (depending on the stimulus material), after which it fades away (decays). How long does visual sensory memory last? a. 250 milliseconds b. 500 milliseconds c. About 1–2 seconds d. About 2–4 seconds Page: 96 Type: factual Answer: a 101. The “three-eared man” procedure is most likely to be used to investigate __________. a. template matching b. iconic memory c. the problem of invariance d. what Crowder refers to as “precategorical acoustic storage” Page: 96 Type: conceptual Answer: d 102. The capacity of echoic memory is __________ than iconic memory. a. shorter b. longer c. larger d. smaller Page: 96 Type: conceptual Answer: d 103. In sensory memory research, the advantage in recall of the last few items in a list when those items have been presented orally rather than visually is referred to as __________. a. modality effect b. semantic awareness c. iconic memory d. span of apprehension Page: 96 Type: factual Answer: a 104. In sensory memory research, the modality effect is __________. a. Better memory for things seen at the end of a list compared to things heard at the end of a list b. Better memory for things heard at the end of a list compared to things seen at the end of a list c. Better memory for things seen at the start of a list compared to things heard at the start of a list d. Better memory for things heard at the start of a list compared to things seen at the start of a list Page: 98 Type: factual Answer: b 105. The disruption of auditory span when there is a sound following the end of a series is called __________. a. backward masking b. suffix effect c. functional atrophy d. forward masking Page: 98 Type: factual Answer: b

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106. The disruption of auditory span when there is a sound following the end of a series is called: a. Backward masking b. Suffix effect c. Functional atrophy d. Forward masking Page: 98 Type: factual Answer: b 107. The suffix effect is __________. a. a disruption of auditory span when there is a picture following the end of a series b. an enhancement of auditory span when there is a picture following the end of a series c. a disruption of auditory span when there is a sound following the end of a series d. an enhancement of auditory span when there is a sound following the end of a series Page: 98 Type: factual Answer: c 108. Which of the following best captures the consequence of the problem of invariance? a. a problem for computer voice recognition b. a problem of visual template matching c. a problem for Warren & Warren’s phoneme replacement studies d. a problem involving tachistoscopic presentation Page: 98 Type: factual Answer: a

True/False Questions: 109. At least some of the cones in the fovea seem to have their own “private” bipolar cells for relaying impulses.

TRUE (p. 62) 110. Summarization and compression of visual receptor inputs characterize human visual processing. TRUE (p.

62) 111. There are more cones than rods at the fovea. FALSE (p. 62) 112. Contralaterality in the visual system means that everything taken in by the right eye is processed in the left hemisphere. FALSE (p. 62) 113. Generally, more receptors synapse onto each bipolar cell in the periphery than in the fovea. TRUE (p. 62) 114. Visual information is gathered during saccades, and not fixations. FALSE (p. 67) 115. The capacity of iconic memory is typically four to five items. FALSE (p. 69) 116. Eye movements can be deliberately initiated through intentional processing. TRUE (p. 71) 117. Trans-saccadic memory occurs by perception using object files. TRUE (p. 72) 118. The Gestalt grouping principle of closure allows us to identify objects when only parts of them are seen TRUE (p. 74) 119. Template matching is preferred over feature analysis in human vision. FALSE (p. 76) 120. Biederman’s recognition by components (RBC) theory is constrained to the identification of twodimensional objects. FALSE (p. 87) 121. There are separate “what” and “where” pathways in visual object processing. TRUE (p. 93) 122. Both ears project auditory sensations to both hemispheres of the brain. TRUE (p. 94) 123. The suffix effect is superior memory for items at the end of a visual list. FALSE (p. 98)

Fill in the Blank/Short Answer: 124. The reception of stimuli from the environment is __________ and the interpretation of those stimuli is __________. (SENSATION; PERCEPTION)

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125. The jerky movements when we send our eyes from one location to another are called __________.

(SACCADES) 126. Memory for visual information across eye movements is called __________. (TRANS-SACCADIC MEMORY) 127. Draw a diagram that illustrates (and labels) the important components of the eye.

128. What is the name of the part of the retina where vision is the most acute? (FOVEA) 129. What is the duration of information in visual sensory memory (iconic memory)?

130. What is the name of Selfridge’s early data-driven theory of vision that tries to capture how feature detection and analysis are involved in perception? (PANDEMONIUM) 131. What is the name of a phenomenon in which people perceive motion when in fact there is none? (BETA MOVEMENT or PHI PHENOMENON) 132. What are three layers of units found in connectionist models? (INPUT, HIDDEN, and OUTPUT) 133. Define repetition blindness.

134. Define change blindness.

135. What are three of the Gestalt grouping principles?

136. What is the name of the basic building block in Biederman’s recognition by components (RBC) theory?

(GEON) 137. The type of agnosia in which people have difficulty recognizing faces is ___________.

(PROSOPAGNOSIA) 138. The type of agnosia in which people have difficulty perceiving stimulus patterns as a Gestalt is called _______________________. (APPERCEPTIVE AGNOSIA) 139. Consider Biederman’s RBC model of visual object identification. RBC stands for ________________________________________. (RECOGNITION BY COMPONENTS) 140. Define associative agnosia.

141. Draw a diagram that illustrates (and labels) the important components of the auditory system (outer, middle, and inner ear).

Essay Questions: 142. Describe a) Sperling’s use of partial report and b) the theoretical importance of this work.

143. What are the implications for human cognition, given that iconic memory has a large capacity and short duration in terms of what we are and are not able to see in the world?

144. What evidence is there that only the first 50 ms of a fixation are used by the visual system?

145. Describe (in detail) an experiment investigating the duration characteristics of the visual sensory register.

146. What role do the sensory registers play in perception? What would our experience of the world be like without them?

147. Provide two examples illustrating conceptually driven processing—one for visual processing, the other for auditory processing.

148. Describe the three-eared man procedure (as used by Crowder).

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Chapter 4: Attention

Multiple Choice Questions: 1.

Which of the following is NOT an aspect of input attention? a. supervisory attentional system b. spotlight attention c. arousal d. orienting reflex Page: 102 Type: factual Answer: a 2.

Which of the following is NOT an aspect of controlled attention? a. supervisory attentional system b. spotlight attention c. selective attention d. mental resources Page: 102 Type: factual Answer: b 3.

General alertness/basic arousal is controlled (at least in part) by the __________. a. thalamus b. brain stem c. corpus callosum d. cerebellum Page: 103 Type: factual Answer: b 4.

The guidance of executive attention is associated with the __________. a. brainstem b. anterior cingulate c. cerebellum d. superior parietal lobe Page: 103 Type: factual Answer: b 5.

Neurologically, orienting is associated with the __________. a. brainstem b. anterior cingulate c. cerebellum d. superior parietal lobe Page: 103 Type: factual Answer: d

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6.

Which of the following is NOT an aspect of attention? a. Practice in using attention increases its limits almost indefinitely. b. We cannot attend to everything we are presented with. c. Some tasks do not involve much attention. d. Some tasks require less attention with practice.

Page: 103 Type: conceptual Answer: a 7.

For the metaphor of attention as a process, __________. a. attention is a limited capacity b. it is something that grows and develops over time c. attention serves to direct mental processing d. it is something that shifts and degrades over time Page: 103 Type: conceptual Answer: c 8.

For the metaphor of attention as a mental resource, __________. a. attention is finite b. it is something that grows and develops over time c. attention serves to direct mental processing d. it is something that shifts and degrades over time Page: 104 Type: conceptual Answer: a 9.

__________ processes involve conscious processing, conscious awareness that a task is being performed, and usually conscious awareness of the outcome of that performance. a. Explicit b. Prospective c. Implicit d. Orienting Page: 105 Type: conceptual Answer: c 10. Which of the following terms is the least similar to the others? a. controlled b. implicit c. conscious d. explicit Page: 105 Type: conceptual Answer: b 11. Over time, vigilance at a task that requires sustained attention declines because __________. a. responses detection declines b. attention stops working (it goes into sleep mode) c. perceptual processes become fatigued d. the response bias changes Page: 105 Type: factual Answer: d

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12. __________ is the maintenance of attention for infrequent events over long periods of time. a. Inhibition of return b. Visual search c. Vigilance d. Anticipatory processing Page: 105 Type: factual Answer: c 13. In vigilance tasks, performance starts to decline after __________. a. 20–35 minutes b. 5–15 minutes c. 1–2 minutes d. 60–90 minutes Page: 105 Type: factual Answer: a 14. For two groups of novice typists, the first group spends 90 minutes learning how to use a standard keyboard (the upper left row starts with “QUERTY”), then spends 90 minutes learning a different layout (the upper left row starts with “RDOVAK”). The second group spends 90 minutes learning the RDOVAK keyboard (and never sees to the QUERTY keyboard). Finally, each group is given a typing test on the RDOVAK keyboard. a. The first group will perform better. b. The second group will perform better. c. Both groups will perform at the same level. d. Why are there only three options? I think a third group is needed.

Page: 105 Type: applied Answer: b 15. Tasks that can be done with little involvement of attention are more likely to be labeled __________. a. formal b. informal c. implicit d. explicit Page: 105 Type: conceptual Answer: c 16. Tasks that require the involvement of attention are more likely to be labeled __________. a. formal b. informal c. implicit d. explicit Page: 105 Type: conceptual Answer: d

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17. Conscious processing, conscious awareness that a task is being performed, and (usually) conscious awareness of the outcome of that performance describe __________. a. implicit processing b. explicit processing c. input attention d. input processing Page: 105 Type: conceptual Answer: b 18. If I show you the word fragment “B O __ __ __” and ask you to complete the word with any English word, this task would best be described as __________. a. word stem completion b. fractional completion c. implicit memory test d. a test of word priming Page: 106 Type: applied Answer: a 19. If I had you perform a stem completion task but had you exclude words from a list that I had just given you, your results are likely to illustrate __________. a. Stroop interference b. orienting reflex c. implicit memory d. spotlight attention Page: 106 Type: conceptual Answer: c 20. __________ is the reflexive redirection of attention that orients you toward the unexpected stimulus so that you can devote deliberate attention to it if warranted. a. RAS b. Orienting reflex c. Psychological refractory period d. Habituation Page: 107 Type: conceptual Answer: b 21. Which of the following terms is associated with the idea of redirecting attention to an unexpected event? a. orienting reflex b. inhibition of return c. motion drive d. unplanned attention Page: 107 Type: factual Answer: a

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22. Which of the following terms is NOT likely to result in attention capture? a. change in color b. sudden movement c. abrupt onset of a stimulus d. conceptually driven arousal levels Page: 107 Type: factual Answer: d 23. Which of the following terms is NOT a physiological response during an orienting reflex? a. change in heart rate b. respiration rate altered c. widening of audition d. pupil dilation Page: 107 Type: conceptual Answer: c 24. Which of the following is an aspect of human facial expression that can direct our attention? a. eye gaze b. eyebrow lifting c. nasal flares d. chin wrinkling Page: 107 Type: conceptual Answer: a 25. Evolutionary accounts of attention suggest that __________. a. attention is evolutionarily relatively new b. attention is driven solely by perception c. our faces and eyes communicate where we are attending d. mate selection is driven by effectiveness in attending to courtship cues Page: 107 Type: conceptual Answer: c 26. Attention capture occurs for __________ events. a. important b. natural c. embodied d. unexpected Page: 107 Type: factual Answer: d 27. Attention capture and orienting are important because they allow __________. a. for neurological bonding b. retinotopic filament reduction to occur c. the preparation of an appropriate response d. what was previously not allowed Page: 107 Type: conceptual Answer: c

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28. Which neural pathway is more likely to be involved in the orienting reflex? a. dorsal pathway b. ventral pathway c. medial pathway d. frontal pathway Page: 108 Type: conceptual Answer: a 29. Habituation is __________. a. a reduction in the orienting response to familiar stimuli b. the forming of a new bad habit c. found in people with stunted neural processes d. unaffected by memory Page: 108 Type: factual Answer: a 30. A reduction in the orienting response to familiar stimuli is __________. a. adaption b. elision c. stunting d. habituation Page: 108 Type: factual Answer: d 31. __________ is a gradual reduction of the orienting response back to baseline. a. Vigilance b. Fatigue c. Habituation d. Implicit processing Page: 108 Type: factual Answer: c 32. Which is a model of visual attention? a. thespian model b. spotlight model c. pre-categorical stage model d. script theory Page: 109 Type: factual Answer: b 33. Which is NOT true of Posner’s spatial cueing task? a. Participants were to maintain fixation at the center of the screen throughout each trial. b. Useful advance information led to facilitation. c. Misleading cues lead to costs. d. Neutral cues facilitated the movement of the spotlight of attention.

Page: 109 Type: conceptual Answer: c

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34. A speed-up in processing from an attentional cue is called __________. a. facilitation b. inhibition c. a boost d. segmentation Page: 110 Type: factual Answer: a 35. A slowdown in processing from an invalid attentional cue is called __________. a. a cost b. inhibition c. a boost d. segmentation Page: 110 Type: factual Answer: a 36. Which is NOT true of spotlight attention? a. It operates very early in perception. b. It enhances the detection of events within its beam. c. it provides the encoding route into the visual system. d. It is reliant on the voluntary allocation of mental effort or concentration.

Page: 110 Type: conceptual Answer: d 37. When you move your spotlight of attention, it __________. a. sweeps across the visual field b. contracts c. expands d. jumps from one point to another Page: 110 Type: conceptual Answer: d 38. Which of the following is NOT associated with Posner’s spatial cueing task? a. facilitation b. valid trial c. encoding stimulus information d. All of the above are associated with Posner’s spatial cueing task.

Page: 110 Type: conceptual Answer: d 39. According to the textbook, which of the following is the LEAST likely to be a feature of performance on a visual search task that leads to the apparent “pop-out” of the target from the background distractor items? a. rapid search b. sequential search c. parallel search d. input attention Page: 111 Type: conceptual Answer: b

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40. Searching for a red circle in a field of green squares is likely to yield __________. a. a steep search function b. a shallow search function c. evidence favoring the existence of serial exhaustive search d. evidence for the operation of a supervisory attentional system Page: 111 Type: applied Answer: b 41. Which is likely to produce the shallowest search slopes in a visual search task? a. a small range of set sizes b. searching for a red X among green Os c. a large range of set sizes d. searching for a black T among rotated black Ls Page: 111 Type: conceptual Answer: b 42. In visual search, __________. a. conjunction searches are generally faster than disjunction searches b. parallel search generally takes longer than serial search c. the kinds of distractors can critically influence search rates d. the search slope refers to the cost per additional target in the display Page: 111 Type: conceptual Answer: c 43. If a pop-out effect does not occur, the visual search is best described as a __________ search. a. failed b. obligatory c. parceled d. conjunction Page: 111 Type: factual Answer: d 44. What parts of the brain are implicated in the operation of inhibition of return? a. the superior colliculus and the parietal lobe b. the corpus collosum and the hypothalamus c. the tegmentum and the trigeminal nerve d. the temporal lobe and the thalamus Page: 112 Type: factual Answer: a 45. The attention process that keeps a person from searching the same place over and over is __________. a. Type I selection b. inhibition of return c. multimodal modificational attention d. sensory biases Page: 112 Type: factual Answer: b

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46. It appears that hemineglect is caused by __________. a. an inability to perceive objects as wholes b. an inability to disengage attention from a stimulus on the nonneglected side c. countless repetition leading to dangerous automatization d. slow, attentionally demanding processing that is open to conscious awareness Page: 116 Type: conceptual Answer: b 47. The loss of the ability to direct attention to one side of the visual world is called __________. a. inattention b. hemi-inhibition c. hemineglect d. attenuation Page: 116 Type: factual Answer: c 48. The ability to attend to one source of information while ignoring or excluding other ongoing messages around us is __________. a. selective attention b. explicit attention c. automatic d. reliant on early selection Page: 119 Type: conceptual Answer: a 49. Conscious processing is __________. a. intentional b. usually rapid (<1 second) c. not open to awareness or introspection d. not resource demanding Page: 119 Type: conceptual Answer: a 50. Controlled attention is NOT __________. a. deliberate b. voluntary c. automatic d. effortful Page: 119 Type: factual Answer: c 51. The deliberate, voluntary allocation of mental effort is associated with __________ attention. a. exogenous b. ordinary c. streamlined d. controlled Page: 119 Type: factual Answer: d

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52. Selective attention involves __________. a. only attending to salient objects b. having attention drawn to unexpected events c. a narrowing of the attentional spotlight d. selecting one stimulus over others Page: 119 Type: conceptual Answer: d 53. The failure to process perceptually available information is called __________. a. inattention blindness b. distraction c. duality d. ataxia Page: 120 Type: factual Answer: a 54. The cocktail party effect refers to __________. a. attenuation b. selection c. masking d. priming Page: 121 Type: conceptual Answer: b 55. A different audio message is played to each ear. The task is to repeat back the message as soon as it is heard (e.g., Cherry, 1954; Lindsay & Norman, 1977). This task is most commonly called __________. a. masking b. priming c. shadowing d. repetition blindness Page: 121 Type: factual Answer: c 56. Some of the original work using the shadowing task was performed by __________. a. Norman b. Triesman & Gelade c. Cherry & Taylor d. Sperling Page: 121 Type: factual Answer: c 57. The shadowing task is __________. a. the workhorse of audiovisual perception research b. to repeat the message out loud as soon as it is heard c. to listen (“shadow”) for comprehension of the content d. best described as a serial, discrete attentional process that uses input attention Page: 121 Type: conceptual Answer: b

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58. Shadowed speech is __________. a. generally fluid b. often monotone (with little intonation) c. for the unattended channel d. completely automated Page: 122 Type: factual Answer: b 59. Regarding the to-be-ignored channel in a shadowing task, __________. a. participants rarely notice if the gender of the speaker is switched b. participants rarely notice if a word is repeated 35 times c. participants rarely notice if the speaker is replaced by a tone d. participants typically notice if there is a change in the language being spoken Page: 122 Type: factual Answer: b 60. Another way of describing Broadbent’s filter theory of selective attention is: a. early selection b. middle selection c. late selection d. multimode model Page: 122 Type: factual Answer: a 61. For early filter theories of attention, selection is based on __________. a. semantic meaning b. multimodalities c. physical characteristics d. inhibition Page: 123 Type: factual Answer: c 62. Another way of describing Treisman’s attenuation theory is: a. early selection b. middle selection c. late selection d. multimode model Page: 123 Type: factual Answer: c 63. Attenuation theory is associated with __________. a. Broadbent b. Moray c. Norman d. Treisman Page: 123 Type: factual Answer: d

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64. For later filter theories of attention, selection is based on __________. a. semantic meaning b. multimodalities c. physical characteristics d. inhibition Page: 124 Type: factual Answer: a 65. The finding that people will not remember a word repeated 35 times in an unattended ear during a shadowing task, but will notice their name, is consistent with __________ theories of attention. a. modern b. progressive c. late selection d. early selection Page: 124 Type: factual Answer: c 66. Unattended information is more likely to be noticed (grab attention) if it is __________. a. not semantically meaningful b. played backwards c. presented in a foreign language d. consistent with one’s goals Page: 124 Type: conceptual Answer: d 67. In a shadowing task, when the participant follows the semantic content of the message across to the to-beunattended channel, this is consistent with all but __________. a. early selection b. late selection c. multimodal model of attention d. Radvansky’s pertinence model Page: 124 Type: conceptual Answer: a 68. According to Lavie, the attentional filter is more likely to be guided by physical characteristics when attention is __________ and by semantic characteristics when attention is __________. a. not taxed; taxed b. taxed; not taxed c. voluminous; limited d. limited; voluminous Page: 125 Type: conceptual Answer: b

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69. The attention mechanism that keeps salient but irrelevant information from entering the current stream of thought is __________. a. selection b. mitigation c. repression d. inhibition Page: 125 Type: factual Answer: d 70. When talking about attention, the role of inhibition is to __________. a. reduce the influence of salient but irrelevant information b. help people forget bad events c. reduce the amount of attention available d. slow thinking down so that it is more precise Page: 125 Type: factual Answer: a 71. A decrease in the ability to access information that was just a distractor item, but is now the target item, is called __________. a. the Stroop effect b. reductionism c. inhibition of return d. negative priming Page: 125 Type: factual Answer: d 72. Negative priming in attention is __________. a. a slowdown in the normal priming effect b. priming for emotionally negative information c. slower responses to a recently inhibited stimulus d. enhanced with late filter attention processes Page: 125 Type: factual Answer: c 73. Another name for the psychological refractory period is __________. a. attentional blink b. negative priming c. mind wandering d. STEM attention Page: 127 Type: factual Answer: a 74. What is the name for the brief slowdown in processing that occurs immediately after processing another event? a. attentional blink b. negative priming c. mind wandering d. STEM attention Page: 127 Type: factual Answer: a

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75. During the attentional blink, what happens? a. The eyes blink. b. Attentional processing can catch up. c. There is a loss of irrelevant information. d. There is a brief slowdown in processing.

Page: 127 Type: factual Answer: d 76. Which of the following is NOT part of a strict division (according to the text) between automatic and conscious processes? a. intentionality b. openness to introspection c. attentional requirements (e.g., capacity used) d. speed to complete processing (<1 second) Page: 128 Type: conceptual Answer: d 77. The route to automaticity is __________. a. practice and memory b. introspection and effort c. selection and filtering d. hemiselection Page: 128 Type: factual Answer: a 78. Controlled processing requires __________. a. mind storms b. external stimuli c. attention d. the refractory period Page: 128 Type: conceptual Answer: c 79. Which is NOT true? a. An automatic process does not reveal itself to conscious awareness. b. An automatic process is always very fast (>1 second). c. A fully automatic process uses few, if any, conscious resources. d. An automatic process is triggered without intentionality.

Page: 128 Type: conceptual Answer: b 80. Automatic processes require __________. a. intense concentration b. cognitive control c. residual resources d. little or no conscious attention Page: 128 Type: factual Answer: d

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81. Stroop interference is likely to reflect all but __________. a. extinction b. priming c. automatic processing d. spreading activation Page: 128 Type: conceptual Answer: a 82. The important variable in a Stroop task is typically __________. a. masking b. set size c. prime target relatedness d. congruency Page: 128 Type: conceptual Answer: d 83. Stroop effects reflect the operation of __________. a. neural signaling b. over-education c. blindsight d. attentional control Page: 128 Type: conceptual Answer: d 84. Which of the following is NOT a criterion for a process to be called automatic? a. It occurs very slowly. b. It consumes few cognitive resources. c. It occurs without intention. d. It is unconscious.

Page: 128 Type: conceptual Answer: a 85. According to Shiffrin and Schneider, which of the following is most likely to lead to more automatic processing? a. consistent mapping b. variable mapping c. structured mapping d. ecto-reticular mapping Page: 131 Type: conceptual Answer: a 86. With sufficient practice, people can read stories at normal rates, with high levels of comprehension, while simultaneously taking dictation. a. false, according to Shiffrin & Schneider b. true, according to Spelke, Hirst, & Neisser c. false, according to Broadbent d. true, according to Johnston & Heinz Page: 131 Type: factual Answer: b

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87. Practice at a task makes it more __________ and less __________. a. automatic; controlled b. controlled; automatic c. perceptual; linguistic d. linguistic; perceptual Page: 131 Type: conceptual Answer: a 88. What is the name of the phenomenon in which a person does an unintended, but more automatic action in place of an intended, less automatic action? a. negative priming b. action slip c. inhibition of return d. habituation Page: 132 Type: factual Answer: b 89. What is an action slip? a. an occasion when manual grip is not sufficient b. when a person does an unintended behavior c. starting an action, but failing to complete it d. saying one thing when you mean another Page: 132 Type: factual Answer: b 90. What of the following does NOT capture the nature of a behavior don during an action slip? a. unintended b. inappropriate c. harmful d. automatic Page: 132 Type: conceptual Answer: c 91. What of the following does NOT capture the nature of a behavior don during an action slip? a. frequently done b. done during distraction c. increases with concentration d. is environmentally cued Page: 132 Type: conceptual Answer: c 92. What is one practical way to avoid an action slip? a. Use a checklist. b. Take lots of caffeine. c. Avoid talking to other people. d. Never do anything more than once.

Page: 134 Type: applied Answer: a

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93. Which of the following factors does NOT influence the likelihood a person will mind wander? a. amount of residual attention b. personal concerns or anxieties c. low engagement in the current task d. low intelligence Page: 134 Type: conceptual Answer: d 94. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of mind-wandering thoughts? a. attention consuming b. inappropriate c. current concerns d. task related Page: 134 Type: conceptual Answer: a 95. Which of the following is NOT an indicator of mind wandering? a. eye movements not tied to reading patterns b. Eyes become foggy. c. erratic eye movement d. more eye blinks Page: 134 Type: factual Answer: b

True/False Questions: 96. In cognitive psychology, “attention” has only a single meaning. FALSE (p. 102) 97. Controlled attention refers to forms of processing in which there is a deliberate voluntary allocation of mental effort or concentration. TRUE (p. 102) 98. Vigilance tasks show that attention becomes disengaged after two hours. FALSE (p. 105) 99. Attention capture occurs when there is some sufficient physical change in the environment. TRUE (p. 107) 100. Under most circumstances, spotlight attention traverses the visual field from place to place rather than appearing and disappearing. FALSE (p. 109) 101. A word repeated 35 times in the unattended channel during a shadowing task is typically not detected or recognized by the participant. TRUE (p. 122) 102. When the attention mechanism of inhibition is used, the suppression of irrelevant information is eliminated.

FALSE (p. 125) 103. A delay in a second decision or response cycle, if it is required immediately after a preceding decision, is called the psychological refractory period. TRUE (p. 127) 104. In the Stroop task, one is to identify the spelling of words (e.g., RED, GREEN, BLUE, YELLOW) which have been physically colored (e.g., in red, in green, in blue, or in yellow). FALSE (p. 127) 105. Automatic processes are not open to introspection. TRUE (p. 128) 106. Practice and memory lead to automaticity. TRUE (p. 131) 107. Automatic processing is always better than controlled processing. FALSE (p. 132)

Fill in the Blank/Short Answer: 108. The grabbing of attention by an unexpected event is called __________.

(ORIENTING REFLEX or ATTENTION CAPTURE) 109. Reduced orienting response to a constant and familiar state is called __________.

(HABITUATION) 110. The mental attention-focusing mechanism that prepares you to encode stimulus information is called ___________ attention. (FOCAL, INPUT, SPOTLIGHT)

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111. Maintaining attention for infrequent events over long periods of time is called_____________.

(VIGILANCE, SUSTAINED ATTENTION) 112. In hemineglect, the tendency to ignore the contralateral field when a competing stimulus is present in the ipsilateral field is called ____________. (EXTINCTION) 113. Two tasks are presented such that one task captures the person’s attention as completely as possible. We examine performance on that primary task as well as (very likely) the information picked up from the secondary task. This procedure is called the __________________ procedure. (DUAL-TASK) 114. The decline in response time when a previously ignored distractor becomes a target is called ___________.

(NEGATIVE PRIMING) 115. The execution of an unintended, but more automatic, action in the place of an intended, and less automatic, action is called __________.

(ACTION SLIP)

Essay Questions: 116. Describe Posner’s spatial cueing task. What are the important concepts associated with this task and some of the important implications of some of the results that have been obtained using this task (or its variants)?

117. Describe two pieces of evidence against “early selection.”

118. Provide a specific example and explain the underlying logic of using dual-task procedures to help us to learn about cognitive functioning.

119. How are the phenomena of negative priming and the attention blink similar, and how are they different?

120. How is attention involved in the occurrence of mind wandering?

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Chapter 5: Short-Term Working Memory

Multiple Choice Questions: 1.

Which refers to a completely different thing than short-term memory? a. primary memory b. Baddeley’s “mental workbench” c. supervisory attentional system d. implicit memory Page: 138 Type: factual Correct: d 2.

Short-term memory is also called __________. a. primary memory b. sensory memory c. daily memory d. experience memory Page: 138 Type: factual Correct: a 3.

Short-term memory span is often correlated with __________. a. creativity b. aptitude c. intelligence d. motivation Page: 139 Type: factual Correct: c 4.

Which of the following can aid in using short-term memory? a. span of apprehension b. digit span c. span of immediate memory d. chunking Page: 139 Type: conceptual Correct: d 5.

A chunk is __________. a. a richer, more complex, unit of information b. the information-processing bottleneck c. related to the single-channel hypothesis d. semantic bifurcation Page: 139 Type: factual Correct: a

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Test Bank

Cognition, 6th ed.

Radvansky/Ashcraft

“Seven plus or minus two” is NOT associated with __________. a. Miller b. chunk c. capacity of STM d. capacity of the sensory register Page: 139 Type: conceptual Correct: d 6.

7.

Seven plus or minus two units of information describes __________. a. the duration of short-term memory b. the capacity of short-term memory c. the forgetting rate of short-term memory d. an experimental construct for constructing memory lists Page: 139 Type: factual Correct: b 8.

Traditionally, according to Miller, the capacity of short-term memory is thought to be __________. a. seven plus or minus two units of information b. whatever is in the primacy effect c. about 30 seconds d. whatever can be managed by a serial exhaustive search Page: 139 Type: factual Correct: a 9.

Another was to think of chunking in short-term memory is as __________. a. expanding b. recoding c. synthesizing d. analyzing Page: 140 Type: conceptual Correct: b 10. Which is NOT true? a. There is a subgrouping effect in memory span, with the first half enjoying an advantage over the second half. b. A mnemonic is a recording strategy (especially when LTM is involved). c. Forgetting simply due to the passage of time is called decay. d. The span of apprehension is the same size for auditory and visual materials.

Page: 140 Type: conceptual Correct: d 11. More recently, memory researchers such as Cowan have taken the view that the capacity of short-term memory is more like __________ units of information. a. seven b. one c. four d. nine Page: 140 Type: factual Correct: c

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12. In remembering the letter sequence {BYGROUPINGITEMSQUICKLY}, which is NOT true? a. We use recoding. b. We use larger-than-letter chunks. c. We use an automatic mnemonic strategy. d. We use Process I to help learn the material.

Page: 140 Type: conceptual Correct: d 13. Being given a set of 3 letters to memorize (e.g., BEL) and then being asked to count backwards from some number (e.g., 274) likely means that you are performing which test? a. digit span b. probe–digit c. Brown-Peterson d. Sternberg Page: 141 Type: applied Correct: c 14. First, people are to attend to a to-be-remembered three-letter stimulus, and then they are shown a number.

They are to count backwards by threes from the number. At the end of the variable length period of counting, the people were asked to report the original three-letter stimulus. Which test is this? a. paired associate learning b. Brown-Peterson task c. mental rotation d. Sternberg task Page: 141 Type: factual Correct: b 15. The initial interpretation of the results from the Brown-Peterson task was that short-term memory forgetting was caused by a(n) __________ process. a. decay b. interference c. suppression d. articulatory Page: 141 Type: factual Correct: a 16. People are presented with 16 digits, read one at a time. The last digit is a repetition of a previous digit. A person is to report the number that followed the repeated digit when it was presented for the first time. The name for this task is the __________ task. a. digit span b. Brown-Peterson c. probe–digit d. Sternberg Page: 141 Type: factual Correct: c

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17. The initial “Peterson & Peterson” interpretation of the Brown-Peterson task result was that the performance decrement was due to memory decay across time. This interpretation was later challenged by __________. a. Triesman & Gelade b. Cooper & Shepard c. Waugh & Norman d. Johnston & Heinz Page: 142 Type: factual Correct: c 18. At this point, it seems that the most likely explanation for forgetting in short-term memory is __________. a. decay b. interference c. suppression d. failure Page: 142 Type: factual Correct: b 19. Performance on the Brown-Peterson task is generally very good on the first few trials, but then begins to rapidly decay across the continued trials. This illustrates __________. a. proactive interference b. decay c. mnemonic failure d. interference theory Page: 143 Type: conceptual Correct: a 20. The cost to memory because of previously encountered information is called __________. a. proactive interference b. retroactive interference c. mnemonic failure d. interference theory Page: 143 Type: factual Correct: a 21. The cost to memory because of more recently encountered information is called __________. a. proactive interference b. retroactive interference c. mnemonic failure d. interference theory Page: 143 Type: factual Correct: b 22. Newer information interferes with older information in __________. a. a new theory of decay b. release from PI c. proactive interference d. retroactive interference Page: 143 Type: factual Correct: c

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23. Proactive interference is __________. a. a cost in the ability to remember due to memories of prior events b. A cost in the ability to remember due to memories of more recent events c. trouble a person has in recalling items as they get further along in a list d. trouble a person has in recalling items for items early on in a list Page: 143 Type: factual Correct: a 24. Retroactive interference is __________. a. a cost in the ability to remember due to memories of prior events b. a cost in the ability to remember due to memories of more recent events c. trouble a person has in recalling items as they get further along in a list d. trouble a person has in recalling items for items early on in a list Page: 143 Type: factual Correct: b 25. Release from PI is __________. a. improvement in memory with a switch in context b. improvement in memory with a switch in content c. decline in memory with a switch in context d. decline in memory with a switch in content Page: 144 Type: conceptual Correct: b 26. Serial recall is __________. a. a recall task in which people must recall the list items in their original order of presentation b. the elevation of recall at the early positions of the list in a recall task c. the memory task in which the list items may be recalled in any order, regardless of their order of presentation d. the component of short-term memory that holds information currently being rehearsed Page: 145 Type: factual Correct: a 27. “Recall the items in their original order.” This best describes which type of recall? a. serial b. parallel c. implicit d. proactive Page: 145 Type: factual Correct: a 28. Recency effects are most associated with __________. a. long-term memory storage b. short-term memory storage c. the dual-coding hypothesis d. cued recall Page: 145 Type: factual Correct: b

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29. Better memory for items at the beginning and end of a list is called the __________. a. Sternberg effect b. proactive interference phenomenon c. retroactive interference bias d. serial position curve Page: 145 Type: factual Correct: d 30. The X-axis on a serial position curve holds which of the following? a. RT b. accuracy c. serial position d. set size Page: 145 Type: factual Correct: c 31. In recall performance, the elevated recall of the first few items in a list (presumably because the items have the greatest chance of being transferred to LTM) is referred to as the __________. a. primacy effect b. word superiority effect c. recency effect d. salience effect Page: 145 Type: factual Correct: a 32. Adding 30 seconds of backwards counting between the study and test phases of a free recall list learning task __________. a. will increase the recency effect b. will reduce the primacy effect c. will increase the primacy effect d. will reduce the recency effect Page: 147 Type: conceptual Correct: d 33. Presenting a list of words at a faster rate on a list learning task __________. a. will increase the recency effect b. will reduce the primacy effect c. will increase the primacy effect d. will reduce the recency effect Page: 147 Type: conceptual Correct: b 34. Who is the cognitive psychologist best known for his work on studying the search for information in shortterm memory? a. Sperling b. Sternberg c. Donders d. Triesman Page: 148 Type: factual Correct: b

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35. The decrease in performance for items at end of a list when a person encountered extra-list material after the list has been presented is referred to as the __________. a. primacy effect b. suffix effect c. rehearsal effect d. recency effect Page: 148 Type: factual Correct: b 36. Speeding up the rate of presentation in a list learning task will most likely __________. a. increase recency effects b. decrease recency effects c. increase primacy effects d. decrease primacy effects Page: 148 Type: applied Correct: d 37. Donders’ method of subtraction __________. a. is principally used to determine the time required for numeric processing b. uses the time difference between tasks that only differ at one processing stage c. reveals that memory loss is principally due to interference rather than decay d. is a recognition task Page: 148 Type: factual Correct: b 38. What is the best way to describe Donders’ chronometric method? a. multiplicative factors b. divisive factors c. subtractive factors d. additive factors Page: 148 Type: factual Correct: c 39. Which of the following is NOT true? a. Serial position is an important determinant of RT in the Sternberg task. b. A process model is a flowchart of the separate mental processes that occur during each trial. c. There is a linear increase in RT with memory set size in the Sternberg task. d. In serial self-terminating search, the search process halts when a target is found.

Page: 149 Type: conceptual Correct: a 40. Which is NOT a criticism of Sternberg’s conclusions about memory search? a. Processes may cascade. b. Processes may slow down if performed in parallel. c. With practice, automaticity develops and may free up otherwise required resources. d. The difference measure should only measure the process of interest, but it is virtually impossible to devise two tasks that differ on the presence or absence of only one process (thus there is no appropriate comparison).

Page: 149 Type: conceptual Correct: d

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41. During each trial, the set is scanned one item at a time until the entire set is processed. This describes which kind of search? a. serial self-terminating b. serial controlled c. serial position d. serial exhaustive Page: 151 Type: factual Correct: b 42. The Sternberg task produces __________. a. identical set size functions for yes and no trials b. approximately a 2:1 ratio in the slopes for “no” and “yes” trials c. a flat function d. a serial position curve Page: 151 Type: conceptual Correct: a 43. According to Sternberg, short-term memory is search using what kind of process? a. a serial exhaustive search b. a parallel search c. a serial self-terminating search d. a bi-metric search Page: 151 Type: factual Correct: a 44. The success of the Sternberg task illustrates the usefulness of __________. a. free recall b. serial position curves c. chunking d. chronometric methods Page: 151 Type: conceptual Correct: d 45. Working memory differs from short-term memory in that __________. a. more information can be retained b. they are exactly the same concept c. STM is serial and WM is parallel d. WM involves actively manipulating information Page: 152 Type: factual Correct: d 46. Warrington & Shallice report a patient with a grossly defective STS (a digit span of two). This patient __________. a. had normal performance on the Brown-Peterson task b. had reasonable learning, memory, and comprehension c. had profound retrograde amnesia d. had no ability to store new long-term memories Page: 152 Type: factual Correct: b

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47. Which of the following is NOT a component of Baddeley’s working memory model? a. long-term memory b. episodic buffer c. central executive d. visuospatial sketchpad Page: 153 Type: conceptual Correct: a 48. According to Baddeley’s model, working memory is __________. a. a unitary structure b. not much different from long-term memory c. a collection of different processes d. almost exactly the same thing as short-term memory Page: 153 Type: factual Correct: c 49. Which is of the following does DLPFC mean? a. dorsolateral prefrontal cortex b. Donder’s limitation on processing for functional content c. Dumke’s lateralized posterior frontal cortex d. Drake’s language-processing function center Page: 153 Type: factual Correct: a 50. DLPFC is __________. (Choose the best answer.) a. active in tests involving executive control b. active in tests involving visuospatial processing c. active in tests involving articulatory planning d. active in tests involving episodic recall Page: 153 Type: factual Correct: a 51. The region known as DLPFC (dorsolateral prefrontal cortex) is associated with __________. a. memory encoding b. executive control c. release from PI d. serial position effects Page: 153 Type: factual Correct: b 52. Which is NOT true? a. PET scans (or fMRI or other neuro-investigative brain imagining techniques) essentially use Donder’s subtractive method to narrow down which cognitive activities involve which neural mechanisms. b. Spatial working memory typically relies on extrastriate occipital processing of the prefrontal cortex. c. Articulatory rehearsal typically relies on left hemispheric processing. d. When spatial information is required for responding, the premotor region of the brain is active.

Page: 153 Type: conceptual Correct: b

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53. Which part of the working memory system is responsible for regulating the flow of information? a. phonological loop b. central executive c. episodic Buffer d. visuospatial sketchpad Page: 154 Type: factual Correct: b 54. The central executive depends most critically on what part of the brain? a. the hindbrain b. the corpus callosum c. the hypothalamus d. the prefrontal cortex Page: 154 Type: factual Correct: d 55. What sort of secondary task in a dual-task study would most likely disrupt the central executive? a. random number generation b. articulatory suppression c. counting backward d. pursuit rotor tracking Page: 154 Type: conceptual Correct: a 56. Baddeley & Hitch (1974) report an experiment in which participants were to perform a reasoning task of various difficulty (“A precedes B” T/F? “B does not precede A” T/F? etc.). In addition to this primary task they were to repeat “the the the,” repeatedly count from 1 to 6, or repeat a set of random digits.

Performance was compared against single-task performance. a. The dual-task demands affected each difficulty condition equally. b. The dual-task demands of the verbal task did not affect reasoning performance. c. The dual-task demands were particularly pronounced for the negative passive condition. d. The dual-task demands were particularly pronounced when the second task was the random digit task, especially in the negative passive condition.

Page: 155 Type: conceptual Correct: d 57. What are the two components of the phonological loop? a. visuospatial sketchpad and episodic buffer b. articulatory store and phonological loop c. phonological store and articulatory loop d. fast and slow tracking Page: 155 Type: factual Correct: c

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58. Information that is stored and processed in the phonological loop is most likely __________. a. temporal b. in a verbal/acoustic memory code c. kinematic in nature d. exempt from any influences of information in the episodic buffer Page: 155 Type: conceptual Correct: b 59. Which of the following effects is NOT a hallmark of the phonological loop? a. articulatory suppression b. verbal coding c. phonological similarity effect d. boundary extension Page: 155 Type: conceptual Correct: d 60. Processing in the visuospatial sketchpad is least likely to be disrupted by __________. a. tapping out a pattern with your fingers b. visual noise in a display (such as a series of random patterns) c. articulatory suppression d. the passage of time Page: 156 Type: conceptual Correct: c 61. Mental manipulation of a visual short-term memory code that reorients the imagined object in space is __________. a. channel capacity b. the visuospatial sketchpad c. the acoustic–articulatory store d. mental rotation Page: 157 Type: factual Correct: d 62. In mental rotation, response speed is a function of __________. a. the plane of rotation b. the angle of rotation c. psychophysical principles d. exogenous cues Page: 157 Type: conceptual Correct: b 63. Which of the following effect s is NOT a hallmark of the visuospatial sketchpad? a. dual-task effects b. boundary extension c. representational momentum d. mental rotation Page: 157 Type: conceptual Correct: a

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64. What is the boundary extension effect? a. retaining information beyond the bounds of the experiment b. remembering more of a picture than was actually seen c. extending memory beyond the boundary of 7 +/– 2 items d. cognition that is not defined by cultural boundaries Page: 159 Type: factual Correct: b 65. What component of working memory is involved in binding information from different modalities and from long-term memory? a. central executive b. peripheral binder c. episodic buffer d. all of the subsystems Page: 160 Type: factual Correct: c 66. The episodic buffer of working memory __________. a. integrates information to create new episodic memories b. is most strongly analogous to short-term memory c. has an extremely small capacity d. is independent of any information in long-term memory Page: 160 Type: factual Correct: a 67. The reason for doing a dual-task study is to assess __________. a. the speed of working memory retrieval b. what happens when working memory resources are drained c. the operation of the episodic buffer d. the mind Page: 161 Type: factual Correct: b 68. In a dual-task procedure, Logie had participants do mental addition or an imaging task as one task and a letter span or visual span task as the other task. The results __________. a. proved Sternberg wrong b. were inconsistent with the notion of memory decay due to forgetting c. were inconsistent with the predictions of resource accounts d. were consistent with domain-specific resource accounts Page: 163 Type: factual Correct: d 69. Which describes how Engle investigated working memory span? a. 1 9 7 6 4 3 → “What were the numbers?” b. 1 9 7 6 4 3 2 1 5 8 3 2 7 5 4 8 → “The answer is ‘four.’” c. Brooks F dual-task procedure d. My family worked on the farm. CUP I was tired so I went to sleep. BLUE → “CUP BLUE” Page: 164 Type: factual Correct: d

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70. Daneman & Carpenter found that people with a working memory span of 2 got ____ percent correct in the “7 ago” condition of their pronoun test, but people with a memory span of 5 got ___ percent correct on the same test under the same conditions. a. 0; 100 b. 20; 80 c. 40; 60 d. 60; 40 Page: 165 Type: factual Correct: a 71. On a working memory span test, people are asked to _________ some items, while ___________ others. a. encode; retrieving b. store; articulating c. transpose; sequencing d. retain; processing Page: 165 Type: factual Correct: d 72. “WM = STM + controlled attention” Whose equation is this? a. Baddeley b. Sternberg c. Engle d. Jonides Page: 166 Type: factual Correct: c 73. When do high and low memory span subjects NOT show equivalent amounts of Stroop interference? a. when the word color and word spelling are 100 percent incongruent b. when the word color and word spelling are 50 percent incongruent c. when the word color and word spelling are 20 percent incongruent d. In all of the above conditions, high-span subjects show less interference.

Page: 167 Type: conceptual Correct: c 74. Which is NOT true? a. High-span people are more able to flexibly allocate their attention across the visual display. b. High-span people can “resist” orienting towards the onset of a visual cue more successfully than can low-span subjects. c. High-span people have less difficulty switching from the anti-saccade task to the pro-saccade task. d. Working memory span is not related to the suppression or inhibition of attention.

Page: 167 Type: conceptual Correct: d

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75. Rosen & Engle examined high- and low-span people performing an animal name generation task. Which did they demonstrate? a. High-span people performed the same as the low-span people (even at the one minute mark). b. In a dual-task condition, the high-span people performed better than the low-span people. c. High-span people showed more proactive interference in the task than the low-span people. d. It is hypothesized that the high-span people’s performance under standard conditions reflects both “normal” retrieval as well as an additional process of guided strategic retrieval.

Page: 167 Type: factual Correct: d 76. When reading a text that is accompanied by pictures, people with __________ are more likely to be led astray and distracted by irrelevant pictures. a. low memory spans b. high memory spans c. unbalanced working memories d. more cylindrical Page: 167 Type: conceptual Correct: a 77. Compared to people with smaller working memory spans, people with higher working memory spans show a(n) → a. inverted fan effect b. similar fan effect c. larger fan effect d. smaller fan effect Page: 168 Type: factual Correct: d 78. Which of the following is NOT affected by working memory span size? a. long-term memory retrieval b. sensation c. reasoning d. attention Page: 168 Type: conceptual Correct: b 79. People with larger working memory spans are more likely to make __________ choices. a. sustainable b. subtle c. moral d. obscure Page: 169 Type: factual Correct: c

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80. Under what circumstances do people with smaller working memory spans outperform people with larger working memory spans? a. in finding simpler solutions to problems, rather than persisting with more complex solutions b. in the size of their Stroop effects c. in the ability to divide their attention across a broad range of tasks d. in just about every way possible Page: 169 Type: factual Correct: a

True/False Questions: 81. Primary memory is the first memory system encountered as information enters the system. FALSE (p. 138) 82. The “Peterson & Peterson” interpretation of the Brown-Peterson task result was that the performance decrement was due to decay across time. TRUE (p. 141) 83. The recency effect in short-term memory is better memory for items at the beginning of a list. TRUE (p.

145) 84. The primacy effect is due to rehearsal. TRUE (p. 145) 85. People will remember less from a list of words that sound similar than a list of words that sound different.

TRUE (p. 155) 86. Processing information in the articulatory loop can disrupt processing in the visuospatial sketchpad.

FALSE (p. 156) 87. With representational momentum, people misremember moving objects as being further along their path of travel. TRUE (p. 159) 88. Working memory span test scores are correlated with intelligence scores. TRUE (p. 165) 89. High-span people show more interference on the Brown-Peterson task than do low-span people. FALSE (p.

168) 90. Logical reasoning is one of those rare cases in which cognitive performance is unaffected by working memory span. FALSE (p. 169)

Fill in the Blank/Short Answer: 91. Why are cognitive psychologists so excited by Miller’s “magical number seven plus or minus two”? What is it and what does it represent?

92. How do we get more information into Miller’s magical number seven plus or minus two?

93. Draw the pattern of results that you would expect to obtain in a serial self-terminating search.

94. When the decline in performance caused by the previously given memory lists interfering forward in time with your recollection of the most recent list is greatly reduced as a result of a switch in the semantic category content of the current to-be-remembered stimulus list, you are experiencing ______________________. (RELEASE FROM PI [PROACTIVE INHIBITION]) 95. Poorer memory for an item because of memories of prior items is called __________. (PROACTIVE INTERFERENCE) 96. Poorer memory for an item because of memories of more recent items is called __________.

(RETROACTIVE INTERFERENCE) 97. Diagram a schematic of the process model Sternberg proposed for his version of the Sternberg search task.

98. Draw a “typical” serial position curve. Label the axes. Label the important features.

99. The four major components of Baddeley’s working memory model are ______________, _____________, ______________, and ______________. (CENTRAL EXECUTIVE; PHONOLOGICAL LOOP; VISUOSPATIAL SKETCHPAD; EPISODIC BUFFER) 100. Draw Baddeley’s view of the human working memory system. Diagram the important parts. List at least one function for each component.

101. What are the two components of the phonological loop? (ARTICULATORY LOOP & PHONOLOGICAL STORE) 102. What are some of the effects that demonstrate the operation of the visuospatial sketchpad?

103. What parts of the brain are implicated in working memory operation?

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104. The correlation between working memory span scores and memory retrieval is __________. (POSITIVE)

Essay Questions: 105. Describe the procedure used in the Brown-Peterson task, the standard findings, and the more recent conclusions drawn from the work of Waugh & Norman.

106. Provide a description of a real-world example that would illustrate the principles of proactive and retroactive interference.

107. Describe the procedure used in the Sternberg search paradigm, the standard findings, and the standard interpretation of the theoretical implications of those findings.

108. Briefly describe three pieces of evidence in support of Baddeley’s working memory model.

109. Describe the individual differences approach to the examination of working memory. Please be as specific as possible, and be sure to use technical terminology appropriately.

110. Name one aspect of cognition that is influenced by the operation of working memory, and described the nature of this influence.

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Chapter 6: Learning and Remembering

Multiple Choice Questions: 1.

According to Squire, what is LTM knowledge that can influence thought or behavior without any necessary involvement of conscious awareness? a. episodic b. explicit c. functional d. nondeclarative Page: 174 Type: factual Answer: d 2.

The knowledge that you acquire in class is more likely to be stored in __________ memory. a. declarative b. simple c. implicit d. nondeclarative Page: 174 Type: factual Answer: a 3.

Declarative memories are more likely to be __________, whereas nondeclarative memories are more likely to be__________. a. implicit; explicit b. explicit; implicit c. formal; informal d. informal; formal Page: 174 Type: conceptual Answer: b 4.

Episodic memories generally convey __________. a. general world knowledge b. skills c. hunches d. personally experienced events Page: 174 Type: conceptual Answer: d 5.

Semantic memories generally convey __________. a. general world knowledge b. skills c. hunches d. personally experienced events Page: 174 Type: conceptual Answer: a

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6.

Which is a classic mnemonic device? a. subtractive method b. method of loci c. additive factors method d. method of savings Page: 175 Type: factual Answer: b 7.

Which does NOT contribute to how mnemonics work? a. acquisition/encoding: structure for learning (encoding) the information b. retention: builds a durable record c. retrieval: provides effective retrieval cues d. confidence: overlearning increases our willingness to rely on memory Page: 175 Type: conceptual Answer: d 8.

The mnemonic that relies on a person using a set of already familiar places is called overlearning a. peg-word mnemonic b. trails task c. the method of loci d. familiarity mnemonic Page: 175 Type: factual Answer: c 9.

The mnemonic that relies on a person using a previously memorized rhyme is called __________. a. peg-word mnemonic b. trails task c. the method of loci d. familiarity mnemonic Page: 176 Type: factual Answer: a 10. The reduction in the number of trials (or the time, in other studies) necessary for relearning compared to the original learning is a result of __________. a. operant learning b. savings c. metamemory d. mnemonic device Page: 178 Type: factual Answer: b 11. In __________, a list is originally learned, set aside for some period of time, then later relearned to the same criterion of accuracy. a. a relearning task b. a cued recall task c. paired associate learning d. a mnemonic task Page: 178 Type: factual Answer: a

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12. Which is NOT part of Ebbinghaus’s legacy? a. use of operational definitions b. use of statistical testing c. use of rigorous methodology d. use of mnemonic devices to cue memory recall Page: 178 Type: conceptual Answer: b 13. In the Ebbinghaus’s tradition, savings are __________. a. the amount of information saved from forgetting over time b. the reduction in confusion from preexisting knowledge c. a reduction in the number of trials to relearn a set of information d. an increase in the speed with which memories are recalled Page: 178 Type: factual Answer: c 14. The relearning task in the Ebbinghaus tradition is when __________. a. people need to change how they learn information b. previously learned information needs to be purged or forgotten to make room for new information c. there is a reduction in the amount of time needed to learn something d. people are asked to relearn a set of information after it has been forgotten Page: 178 Type: factual Answer: d 15. In general, memory is better after __________ practice than __________ practice. a. distributed; massed b. massed; distributed c. concentrated; intense d. intense; concentrated Page: 179 Type: factual Answer: a 16. People feel like they are working harder with __________ practice, but they are really not learning all that much. a. distributed b. massed c. episodic d. semantic Page: 179 Type: factual Answer: b 17. __________ is knowledge about one’s own memory functioning: how it works and fails to work. a. Metaanalysis b. Metacognition c. Metaawareness d. Metamemory Page: 180 Type: factual Answer: d

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18. Metamemory is __________. a. knowledge of how memory works in other people b. awareness of one’s own memory contents and processes c. knowing what other people are likely to know d. knowledge that is inborn or innate Page: 180 Type: factual Answer: b 19. Another name for the von Restorff effect is __________. a. the memory effect b. the forgetting effect c. chunking d. the isolation effect Page: 181 Type: factual Answer: d 20. The improved retention of one piece of information that is made distinct or different from the information around it (e.g., underlining one word in a to-be-remembered list in red ink) is __________. a. content accuracy b. technical accuracy c. priming d. von Restorff / isolation effect Page: 181 Type: applied Answer: d 21. Better recall for items in a list that were made unusual in some fashion (e.g., bold or underlined) is called __________. a. the von Restorff / isolation effect b. the vividness effect c. autobiographical memory d. the flashbulb memory effect Page: 181 Type: factual Answer: a 22. The isolation effect is __________. a. the fact that repetition leads to stronger memory traces b. the fact that the frequency of events seems to be encoded into memory easily (or automatically) c. improved memory for one piece of evidence that has been made distinct or different d. the fact that rehearsal organization and imagery lead to better retrieval Page: 181 Type: factual Answer: c 23. The deliberate cycling or practice of information is called __________. a. learning b. studying c. encoding d. rehearsal Page: 182 Type: factual Answer: d

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24. Rehearsal is __________. a. the same as learning b. largely ineffective c. the deliberate cycling or practice of information d. another term for memory retrieval Page: 182 Type: factual Answer: c 25. Rehearsing information makes memories __________. a. more durable b. retrieved more slowly c. increasingly competitive d. more likely to succumb to a state of neural flux Page: 182 Type: factual Answer: a 26. Items presented early on in a list are more likely to get __________. a. less interference b. slow-moving alpha waves c. procedural memory support d. more rehearsal Page: 183 Type: factual Answer: d 27. Primacy effects are associated with __________. a. long-term memory storage b. short-term memory storage c. dual coding d. cued recall Page: 183 Type: conceptual Answer: a 28. Maintenance rehearsal __________. a. is low-level, repetitive kind of rehearsal b. is higher recall for later list items c. is higher recall for earlier list items d. measures working memory span Page: 184 Type: factual Answer: a 29. Elaborative rehearsal is a. is nonsense syllable recall b. means reinforcement increasing likelihood of recall c. is meaning-related complex rehearsal/encoding d. measures working memory span Page: 184 Type: factual Answer: c

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30. Maintenance vs. elaborative rehearsal is primarily associated with __________. a. depth of processing b. the method of savings c. paired associate learning d. encoding specificity Page: 184 Type: conceptual Answer: a 31. After showing you a picture, I ask you, “Was it a BOY or a GIRL?” <you answer>, and then I ask: “Did you see a BALL or a BAT?” <you answer>. This type of memory test would best be defined as __________. (Note: it is safe to assume that you have now finished your duties as a participant in my research.) a. free recall b. paired associate learning c. recognition d. method of savings Page: 185 Type: applied Answer: c 32. A problem for Craik & Lockhart’s depth of processing account is __________. a. circular reasoning b. that shallow processing leads to maintenance rehearsal c. that deep processing involves elaborative encoding d. that shallow processing is less cognitively demanding than deeper processing Page: 185 Type: conceptual Answer: a 33. Which of the following could reflect a problem for the depth of processing account? a. task effects (e.g., comparing cued versus free recall) b. mnemonic devices leading to improved memory performance c. definingness d. that the amount of time spent remembering a “G-word” during a maintenance rehearsal task did not impact accuracy of recall (Craik & Watkins, 1973) Page: 185 Type: conceptual Answer: a 34. Which of the following is a critical failure of the depth of processing account? a. easy to understand b. task effects c. savings scores d. retroactive interference Page: 185 Type: conceptual Answer: b

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35. Which of the following is a critical failure of the depth of processing account? a. defining levels independently of retention b. elaborative rehearsal c. subtractive method d. mnemonic encoding Page: 185 Type: conceptual Answer: a 36. With respect to levels of processing, task effects refer to __________. a. maintenance rehearsal producing superior recall when compared with Elaborative rehearsal b. higher recall for earlier list items c. the fact that recognition reflects familiarity and actual recognition d. the fact that maintenance rehearsal can lead to equal or superior recognition performance compared with Elaborative rehearsal Page: 185 Type: conceptual Answer: d 37. Which of the following types of memory tasks generally requires the greatest proportion of conscious processing? a. free recall b. cued recall c. recognition d. procedural Page: 186 Type: conceptual Answer: a 38. Paired associate learning __________. a. always uses nonsense syllables b. inherently requires an active, strategic kind of rehearsal c. learning a list so that the correct response item can be reproduced when the stimulus item is presented d. clustered list learning Page: 186 Type: factual Answer: c 39. What is the best thing to which a person can relate information for better memory? a. visual images b. context c. the self d. time Page: 187 Type: factual Answer: c 40. What is the self-reference effect? a. lower memory for items that contain the word “self” b. better memory for items that contain the word “self” c. the finding that memory is better for information related to the self d. the finding that memory is worse for information related to the self Page: 187 Type: factual Answer: c

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41. Superior memory for information that was produced by a person (rather than simply read or heard) benefits from __________. a. encoding specificity b. the generation effect c. emotion-induced memory d. recognition enhancement Page: 187 Type: factual Answer: b 42. The generation effect reflects what sort of cognitive processing? a. evolutionary enhancement b. categorical organization c. transience effect d. deep processing Page: 187 Type: conceptual Answer: d 43. Which of the following, like the enactment effect, comes about as a result of an increase in elaborative processing? a. the generation effect b. trace consolidation c. release from PI d. practice effects Page: 187 Type: conceptual Answer: a 44. What is the finding that memory is better when people actually do something? a. the enactment effect b. trace consolidation c. release from PI d. practice effects Page: 187 Type: factual Answer: a 45. The enactment effect is a form of __________. a. elaborative processing b. maintenance rehearsal c. procedural memory d. iconic memory Page: 187 Type: factual Answer: a 46. Multimodal effects on learning __________. a. improve dialog recall by actors when dialog and stage movements are practiced together b. demonstrate that visual images are better remembered than words c. make it clear that mnemonic devices are limited in application to highly effortful learning d. reveal that it is possible to gain positive knowledge about human memory Page: 188 Type: conceptual Answer: a

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47. Endel Tulving presented people with a long list of unrelated words several different times. Each time the list was presented, the order of the items was rearranged. After each list presentation, Tulving had the participants free recall as many of the words on the list as possible. When he analyzed the order in which the words were recalled, he discovered that the subjects had developed their own groupings of the words.

This consistency illustrates __________. a. Miller’s magical number seven b. implicit knowledge c. declarative knowledge d. subjective organization Page: 190 Type: applied Answer: c 48. Words that denote concrete objects, as opposed to abstract words, can be encoded into memory twice: once in terms of their verbal attributes, and once in terms of their image-based properties. This __________. a. increases the likelihood that the words will be recalled or remembered b. illustrates the dual-coding hypothesis c. relies on visual and verbal codes in memory d. all of the above Page: 191 Type: conceptual Answer: d 49. Words that denote concrete objects, as opposed to abstract words, can be encoded into memory twice: once in terms of their verbal attributes, and once in terms of their image-based properties. This illustrates __________. a. semantic integration b. the dual-coding hypothesis c. propositional representation d. cued recall Page:191 Type: conceptual Answer: b 50. Each item is encoded into a richer memory representation—one that includes any extra information about the item that was present during encoding. The hypothesis that the specific nature of an item’s encoding, including all related information that was encoded along with it, determines how effectively the item can be retrieved. This describes __________. a. dual coding b. semantic integration c. subjective organization d. encoding specificity Page: 191 Type: factual Answer: d 51. __________ is the hypothesis that the specific nature of an item’s encoding, including all related information that was encoded along with it, determines how effectively the item can be retrieved. a. Depth of processing b. The method of savings c. Elaborative encoding d. Encoding specificity Page: 192 Type: conceptual Answer: d

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52. What is encoding specificity? a. better memory when the retrieval context matches the encoding context b. the idea that learning is better in some contexts than others c. learning that is better for specific ideas than for general gist information d. losing specific information over time, but retaining the gist Page: 192 Type: factual Answer: a 53. __________ is a useful prompt or reminder for the information to be retrieved. a. A mnemonic b. A retrieval cue c. Introspection d. Encoding specificity Page: 193 Type: factual Answer: b 54. A retrieval cue __________. a. prompts a person to start recalling b. often misleads the retrieval process c. helps direct memory search d. indicates when retrieval is to be terminated Page: 193 Type: conceptual Answer: c 55. Which of the following describes the improved ability to remember things better when you are drunk if you learned them while you were drunk? a. state-dependent learning b. mood-congruent learning c. release from interference d. encoding specificity Page: 193 Type: factual Answer: a 56. State-dependent learning can be thought of as a form of __________. a. retrieval failure b. recognition association c. the enactment effect d. encoding specificity Page: 193 Type: factual Answer: d 57. The loss of information from memory due to the passage of time is __________. a. interference b. savings c. decay d. forgetting Page: 194 Type: factual Answer: c

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58. Which does NOT belong? a. decay b. law of disuse c. maintenance d. loss due to the passage of time Page: 194 Type: conceptual Answer: c 59. The principle that Ebbinghaus used his method of savings to investigate is __________. a. interference b. memory loss c. elaborative encoding d. spreading activation Page: 194 Type: conceptual Answer: b 60. Forgetting one memory as a result of the influence of other memories occurs as a result of __________. a. interference b. proactivity c. decay d. the Sommerset effect Page: 195 Type: conceptual Answer: a 61. Jenkins & Dallenbach (1924) report an experiment in which participants underwent a nonsense syllable study phase followed by sleep or waking across a delay of either 1, 2, 4, or 8 hours. They report __________. a. less integration in the sleep condition b. better memory in the sleep condition c. more memory consolidation and integration in the sleep condition d. less memory consolidation and integration in the sleep condition Page: 195 Type: factual Answer: b 62. In memory retrieval, interference is caused by __________. a. the passage of time b. other memories c. neural noise d. declining abilities Page: 195 Type: conceptual Answer: b 63. Memories are made more permanent over time by the occurrence of __________. a. interference b. accessibility c. availability d. consolidation Page: 196 Type: factual Answer: d

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64. Consolidation in memory is __________. a. a result of an increase in the effects of interference over time b. less effective than organization c. a process of making memories more permanent over time d. largely found in nonhuman animals Page: 196 Type: factual Answer: c 65. Which would lead to the most (“massive”) negative transfer in a paired associates learning task? a. A–B, C–D b. A–B, B–Br c. A–B, A–B' d. A–B, B–A Page: 197 Type: factual Answer: b 66. “Loss from memory” is __________. a. interference b. decay c. forgetting d. temporaneous Page: 197 Type: factual Answer: b 67. Recognition failure of recallable words is __________. a. when weakly associated items are cue paired in initial learning (glue–CHAIR) are then often not recognized in a contextualized recall situation (desk, top, chair) b. any long-term memory knowledge that can influence thought and behavior without any necessary involvement of conscious awareness c. an explanation for “forgetting” of some target information in which related or recent information competes with or causes the loss of the target information d. the loss of memory or memory abilities caused by brain damage or disease Page: 198 Type: conceptual Answer: a 68. Forgetting is NOT a result of __________. a. a loss in accessibility b. interference c. inhibition d. consolidation Page: 198 Type: conceptual Answer: d 69. The idea that the von Restorff effect requires explicit, declarative memories is supported by what evidence? a. People remember that which is is distinctive. b. encoding-specific effects in this effect c. an absence of an effect for amnesiacs d. negative transfer effects Page: 194 Type: factual Answer: c

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70. TOT stands for __________. a. thematic ortho-treatment b. thalamic operation of transfer c. tip of the tongue d. temporal ordering of the thematic content Page: 198 Type: factual Answer: c 71. Momentarily unable to recall some shred of information, often a person’s name, that the individual knows is stored in LTM: this is an example of __________. a. TOT b. POT c. ACT d. RAS Page: 198 Type: factual Answer: a 72. During a TOT state, a person has access to __________ in long-term memory. a. nothing b. partial information c. consolidation d. interference Page: 198 Type: factual Answer: b 73. Information that is in memory, but cannot be retrieved at the moment, is said to be __________ but not __________. a. available; accessible b. accessible; available c. consolidated; interfered with d. interfered with; consolidated Page: 199 Type: conceptual Answer: a 74. If information is __________, it can be retrieved, and so can also said to be __________. a. available; accessible b. accessible; available c. consolidated; interfered with d. interfered with; consolidated Page: 199 Type: conceptual Answer: b 75. If people are given pieces of information and asked to report the rest, this is called a __________ test. a. free recall b. cued recognition c. free recognition d. cued recall Page: 201 Type: factual Answer: d

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76. What is the effect of testing on memory relative to studying more? a. They are the same. b. It depends on the context. c. Memory is better with studying. d. Memory is better with testing.

Page: 201 Type: factual Answer: d 77. The testing effect is the finding that __________. a. memory is better if people take a test rather than restudy b. memory is worse if people take a test rather than restudy c. information is forgotten soon after people take a test d. people care more about information if they think they will need to take a test Page: 201 Type: factual Answer: a 78. What is the part-set cuing effect? a. superior memory if people are presented with part of a set as retrieval cues b. worse memory if people are presented with part of a set as retrieval cues c. the ability to remember only the part that was cued from a larger set d. improved memory when memory cues are partial rather than complete Page: 201 Type: factual Answer: b 79. Memory cues do not always help memory, as illustrated by the __________. a. consolidation effect b. interference effect c. part-set cuing effect d. encoding specificity principle Page: 201 Type: factual Answer: c 80. Amnesia is __________. a. a temporary inability to remember something b. any kind of forgetting c. catastrophic memory loss beyond normal forgetting d. only found when there is severe psychological, but not neurological, trauma Page: 203 Type: factual Answer: c 81. What is the catastrophic loss of memories beyond what would be expected by normal forgetting? a. agnosia b. amnesia c. aphasia d. hypermnesia Page: 203 Type: factual Answer: b

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82. Loss of memories prior to an injury is called __________. a. retrograde amnesia b. retrograde interference c. anterograde amnesia d. anterograde interference Page: 203 Type: factual Answer: a 83. Loss of the ability to form new memories after an injury is called __________. a. retrograde amnesia b. retrograde interference c. anterograde amnesia d. anterograde interference Page: 203 Type: factual Answer: c 84. Retrograde amnesia is __________. a. the inability to form new memory after an injury b. the inability to remember anything from when you were an infant c. the loss of memories prior to an injury d. a progressively degenerative condition Page: 203 Type: factual Answer: c 85. Retrograde amnesia exhibits __________. a. persistence b. random relapses c. nothing out of the ordinary d. Ribot’s Law Page: 203 Type: factual Answer: d 86. Ribot’s Law is __________. a. the finding that, with retrograde amnesia, older memories are more preserved b. the finding that, with anterograde amnesia, older memories are more preserved c. the finding that, with retrograde amnesia, older memories are less preserved d. the finding that, with anterograde amnesia, older memories are less preserved Page: 203 Type: factual Answer: a 87. What is the name of the principle that captures the idea that, with retrograde amnesia, newer memories are more likely to be disrupted, and older memories are more likely to remain intact? a. The Peter Principle b. Ribot’s Law c. Easterbrook Hypothesis d. Ebbinghaus Rule Page: 203 Type: factual Answer: b

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88. What is lost with anterograde amnesia? a. newer memories b. older memories c. the ability to recall, but not the ability to recognize d. the ability to form new memories Page: 203 Type: factual Answer: d 89. According to the HERA model, which part of the brain is more involved in episodic retrieval? a. both hemispheres b. the amygdala c. right hemisphere d. left hemisphere Page: 205 Type: factual Answer: c 90. According to the HERA model, which part of the brain is more involved in semantic retrieval? a. both hemispheres b. the amygdala c. right hemisphere d. left hemisphere Page: 205 Type: factual Answer: d 91. Damage to what part of the brain led to H.M.’s severe anterograde amnesia? a. hippocampus b. corpus callosum c. right hemisphere d. left hemisphere Page: 205 Type: factual Answer: a 92. What kind of memory is relatively intact in people with anterograde amnesia? a. episodic b. declarative c. implicit d. explicit Page: 206 Type: factual Answer: c 93. Which of the following is NOT a kind of test of implicit memory? a. repetition priming b. word stem completion c. free recall d. word fragment completion Page: 208 Type: factual Answer: c

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94. What phenomenon has been attributed, at least in part, to the operation of implicit memory? a. extrasensory perception b. déjà vu c. photographic memory d. agnosia Page: 208 Type: factual Answer: b

True/False Questions: 95. Explicit processes are potentially reportable; implicit processes are those that are not. TRUE (p. 174) 96. Semantic and episodic memories convey very similar kinds of information. FALSE (p. 174) 97. LTM is best thought of as a unitary memory store of to-be-retained information. FALSE (p. 174) 98. Aristotle invented mnemonic devices. FALSE (p. 175) 99. The “peg” for the peg-word mnemonic has to be “one is a bun. . . .” FALSE (p. 176) 100. Ebbinghaus demonstrated that overlearning leads to a stronger record in memory. TRUE (p. 179) 101. The savings score indicates the reduction in trials to relearn the material. TRUE (p. 180) 102. Massed practice leads to more enduring memories than distributed practice does. FALSE (p. 179) 103. Rehearsal is principally responsible for primacy effects. TRUE (p. 183) 104. Maintenance rehearsal will never lead to multiple memory codes. FALSE (p. 184) 105. Memory is impaired by acting something out, as opposed to just listening and focusing attention. FALSE (p. 188) 106. Memory retrieval is generally better when the retrieval context is similar to the encoding context. TRUE (p.

192) 107. Recall tasks often underestimate the amount of information that was learned. TRUE (p. 193) 108. Forgetting often occurs in memory because of an overabundance of neural consolidation. FALSE (p. 195) 109. Information stored in long-term memory may be available, even when not accessible. TRUE (p. 199) 110. The part-set cuing effect shows that memory is worse if people are given part of a set of information as a retrieval cue. TRUE (p. 201) 111. Implicit memory is long-term memory retrieval or performance that entails deliberate recollection or awareness. FALSE (p. 208) 112. Left hemisphere lesions of the hippocampus generally yield amnesia for only verbal memories. TRUE (p.

194) 113. Retrograde amnesia is a loss in the ability to form new memories. FALSE (p. 206)

Fill in the Blank/Short Answer: 114. Memories for personally experienced events are typically called ___________________ memories.

(EPISODIC) 115. The primary stimulus materials used by Ebbinghaus in his research were ___________________.

(NONSENSE SYLLABLES; CVC TRIAGRAM) 116. Knowledge about one’s own memory, how it works, and how it fails to work is _________________.

(METAMEMORY) 117. Memory is worse with ___________ practice than with ___________ practice. (MASSED; DISTRIBUTED) 118. Memory is better with ___________ rehearsal than with ___________ rehearsal. (ELABORATIVE; MAINTENANCE) 119. According to Paivio’s dual-coding hypothesis, memory is better when there is a(n) ___________ code and a(n) ___________ code. (VERBAL; IMAGE) 120. Superior memory when the encoding context and the retrieval context are the same is called ___________.

(ENCODING SPECIFICITY) 121. Two effects that were discussed in the text that reflect elaborative processing are ____________ and _____________. (SELF-REFERENCE; ENACTMENT; GENERATION) 122. The two basic types of interference that can disrupt memory and cause forgetting are ___________ interference and ____________ interference. (PROACTIVE; RETROACTIVE)

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123. Momentarily unable to recall some shred of information, often a person’s name, that is known to be stored in long-term memory; includes the sense of being on the verge of retrieving the target concept: _________________________________ (TIP OF THE TONGUE) 124. Forgetting may occur if the information is ___________ in long-term memory, but not ____________.

(AVAILABLE; ACCESSIBLE) 125. Disruption of memory of events occurring after brain injury, especially a disruption in acquiring new longterm memories, is called ___________________. (AMNESIA or ANTEROGRADE AMNESIA) 126. H.M. suffered from severe anterograde amnesia because of extensive damage to his ___________.

(HIPPOCAMPUS)

Essay Questions: 127. Why did Ebbinghaus use nonsense syllables?

128. What are some reasons that distributed practice may lead to better memory than massed practice?

129. Describe two pieces of evidence that support the dual-coding hypothesis.

130. What is the testing effect in memory, and what implications does it have for educational practices?

131. H.M. was an anterograde amnesic. Discuss how he performs on a novel motor task such as mirror-tracing a star pattern. How does his performance change across several days of practice? What does he report?

132. Describe two pieces of evidence that support the existence of a meaningful distinction between implicit and explicit memory.

133. What are three aspects of normal memory processes that are highlighted or illustrated by people with amnesia? Be specific about what kind of amnesia you are referring to for each one.

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Chapter 7: Knowing

Multiple Choice Questions: 1.

Which is NOT true of semantic memory? a. general world knowledge b. a person’s mental encyclopedia and dictionary c. includes language d. critically depends on pituitary functioning Page: 211 Type: conceptual Answer: d 2.

Semantic memory is memory for __________. a. general world knowledge b. the meaning of individual experiences only c. commonly exacted behaviors (e.g., riding a bicycle) d. things that are not reconsolidated Page: 211 Type: factual Answer: a 3.

Hintzman (1978) referred to semantic memory as __________. a. hierarchical memory b. connectionist memory c. generic memory d. category memory Page: 211 Type: factual Answer: c The first person to use the term “semantic memory” was __________. a. Bartlett b. Wundt c. Sternberg d. Quillian Page: 212 Type: factual Answer: d 4.

5.

The kind of memory that is thought to be largely similar across different people is __________. a. paralinguistic b. episodic c. semantic d. direct Page: 212 Type: conceptual Answer: c

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Loftus and Palmer’s (1974) research showed that eyewitness reports varied as a function of the wording of a question. This suggests that __________. a. semantic memory knowledge biases how we remember events b. people often do not listen closely to questions c. semantic memory research is not very ecologically valid d. there is an inheritance of concepts across domains Page: 212 Type: conceptual Answer: a 6.

7.

Which is NOT part of the Collins & Quillian model? a. nodes b. network c. bridging d. spreading activation Page: 213 Type: conceptual Answer: c “ROBIN is a BIRD” is NOT an example of __________. a. nodes b. network c. bridging d. spreading activation Page: 213 Type: conceptual Answer: d 8.

9.

Concepts are represented in a semantic network by __________. a. nodes b. networks c. links d. spreading activation Page: 213 Type: factual Answer: a 10. Associations are represented in a semantic network by __________. a. nodes b. networks c. links d. spreading activation Page: 213 Type: factual Answer: c 11. In the Smith et al. (1974) model of semantic memory, __________ is the features and properties of a concept that are essential to its meaning: for example, “bearing live young,” for “mammal.” a. definingness b. perceptual category c. prototyping d. cognitive economics Page: 215 Type: factual Answer: a

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12. “Defining feature” is most associated with __________. a. Bartlett’s mental workbench b. connectionist models c. Collins and Quillian’s hierarchical model d. Smith’s feature list model Page: 215 Type: conceptual Answer: d 13. In a feature list model of semantic memory, the structure of semantic memory comes from __________. a. the nodes and links b. the structure of the lists and the retrieval processes c. the structure of the world d. the structure of our minds Page: 215 Type: conceptual Answer: b 14. Features that are common, but not essential, to the meaning of a concept, are __________. a. characteristics b. defining c. necessary and sufficient d. parallel Page: 215 Type: factual Answer: a 15. A simple sentence presented for a person’s yes/no decision is a __________. a. Stage I comparison b. Sternberg search task c. lexical decision task d. sentence verification task Page: 217 Type: factual Answer: d 16. In testing their model, Collins & Quillian __________. a. used a lexical decision verification task b. were unable to account for serial exhaustive memory search functions c. demonstrated that concepts closer together in the network are responded to faster d. used both RT and accuracy measures Page: 217 Type: conceptual Answer: b 17. Which of the following is NOT true of Collins & Quillian’s revised semantic network model? a. Typical or central members of the category are connected to the superordinate node by shorter pathways. b. can handle typicality effects c. retains the exclusively hierarchical organizational structure d. has difficulty with perceptual symbols Page: 220 Type: conceptual Answer: c

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18. Kounios & Holcomb concluded that the N400 ERP component reflects __________. a. serial position effects b. semantic priming c. unrelatedness d. relatedness Page: 220 Type: factual Answer: c 19. P300 stands for __________. a. positive ERP b. 300 milliseconds after presentation c. an index of cognitive processing d. all of the above Page: 220 Type: factual Answer: d 20. N400 stands for __________. a. a node in a semantic network b. an integrative function in the nomological network c. negative 400 mV spike d. negative spike at 400 ms Page: 220 Type: factual Answer: d 21. In semantic memory tasks, response time is speeded up or judgments are made more easily when the concepts are closer together in semantic distance—that is, when they are more closely related. The effect is reversed when the comparison is false; that is, RT is longer for the comparison “a whale is a fish” vs. “a whale is a bird.” This is an example of __________. a. superordinate effect b. semantic relatedness effect c. subordinate effect d. Hampton priming Page: 220 Type: conceptual Answer: b 22. Which of the following could be used as evidence AGAINST a “hierarchical” organization of semantic memory? a. serial position curve b. typicality effects c. hierarchical deconstruction d. cognitive economy Page: 221 Type: conceptual Answer: b

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23. The amplitude of N400 ERPs was markedly lower in the right than in the left hemisphere for abstract words as compared to concrete words. Both amplitudes were lower for abstract relative to concrete words.

This is evidence of __________. a. serial position effect b. Pavio’s dual-coding hypothesis c. semantic priming d. natural categories Page: 222 Type: factual Answer: b 24. Holcomb’s sentence “Armed robbery implies thief used a weapon” is a _________ sentence, whereas “Armed robbery implies thief used a rose” is a __________ sentence. a. concrete–concrete; anomalous–concrete b. congruent–concrete; anomalous–concrete c. congruent–abstract; anomalous–abstract d. “right”; “wrong” Page: 222 Type: conceptual Answer: b 25. The study by Pecher, Zeelenberg, & Barsalou (2003) supports the use of perceptual symbols in semantic memory in that __________. a. people showed priming based on abstract concepts b. people showed priming based on perceptual modality c. there was evidence that priming was greater when the probes were shown perceptually d. there was evidence that priming was greater when the probes were shown abstractly Page: 224 Type: factual Answer: b 26. According to Barsalou (1999), the idea that semantic memory cues perceptual symbols suggests that __________. a. semantic memory is built up from sensory and motor elements derived from experience b. there is no utility in people forming categories c. a reanalysis of Collins and Quillian’s model shows it to be correct d. semantic memory is the same thing as episodic memory Page: 224 Type: factual Answer: a 27. Which is NOT true of connectionism? a. localist representation b. a framework in which interconnected nodes in a network, pathways, and priming can be studied c. The nodes can represent almost any kind of information, from simple line segments (letter recognition) to complex features (e.g., has wings, red breast, can fly, etc.). d. In principle, any type of knowledge can be represented by nodes and the weighted connections between them.

Page: 225 Type: conceptual Answer: b

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28. Connectionist models of memory are inspired by what? a. the nervous system b. telephone switchboards c. computer motherboards d. the grand interconnectivity of life Page: 225 Type: factual Answer: a 29. Which is NOT a purported advantage of using connectionist modeling to study cognition? a. structural similarity to neural connections b. Individual units within connectionist models are “similar” to neurons. c. The yes/no of neural firing mirrors the on/off binary aspect of connectionist units. d. Massive parallel functions allow us to extrapolate beyond what computers can model.

Page: 225 Type: conceptual Answer: d 30. Connectionist models embody the idea that semantic memories are __________. a. localized in certain, precise spots b. not really semantic after all c. an innate part of who we are at birth d. two across a network Page: 225 Type: conceptual Answer: d 31. Anomia is a __________. a. deficit in reading due to brain injury b. deficit in comprehension due to brain injury c. deficit in word finding due to brain injury d. deficit in memory due to brain injury Page: 228 Type: factual Answer: c 32. A person who has difficulty retrieving the names of things from semantic memory has a condition called __________. a. anomia b. ataxia c. agraphia d. amusia Page: 228 Type: factual Answer: a 33. Lexical means __________. a. meaning b. dictionary c. response time d. network Page: 228 Type: factual Answer: b

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34. A person with anterograde amnesia would be expected to show __________ semantic priming effects, compared to normal controls. a. similar b. larger c. smaller d. adaptive Page: 234 Type: conceptual Answer: a 35. Priming effects reveal what about semantic memory? a. when it was learned b. how it is structured c. when a connectionist network has transformed into a semantic network d. that there is functionally no end to semantic memory Page: 230 Type: conceptual Answer: b 36. The proper term for better-than-baseline response (generally a result of useful advance information) is __________. a. facilitation b. typicality c. prototyping d. stroop Page: 230 Type: factual Answer: a 37. SOA is __________. a. semantic order of activation b. semantics and orthographic analysis c. a timing measure d. a measure of semantic relatedness Page: 230 Type: factual Answer: c 38. The term “cost” is used in cognitive research under what circumstances? a. prototypic processing b. functional amnesty c. negative influence on processing d. an indication of larger semantic networks Page: 231 Type: factual Answer: c 39. “Lag 2” in a priming task reflects __________. a. cost b. facilitation c. two intervening items or trials d. the time increase required for participants to perform the more difficult task Page: 231 Type: factual Answer: c

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40. In a priming experiment using lexical decision, what is the best “neutral” condition? a. truck–robin b. XXXX–dog c. France–Switzerland d. doctor–nurse Page: 231 Type: applied Answer: b 41. Loftus & Loftus (1974) report a priming experiment using prime target pairs with a prime target delay of either 0 ms or 2500 ms. They also performed cross-trial priming with a lag of zero or two. Which did they NOT find? a. Related primes produced facilitation. b. Repeating categories produced facilitation. c. Priming effects increased with increasing SOA. d. Priming effects increased with lag.

Page: 231 Type: factual Answer: d 42. Neely (1977) used an SOA manipulation in a lexical decision task with the participants either expecting a category switch (BODY–robin) or not expecting a switch (BODY–arm). The data illustrate __________. a. standard semantic priming when a category shift was to-be-expected b. Standard semantic priming when a category shift was to-be-expected at (only) the long SOA condition c. that at the short SOA, he found standard semantic priming regardless of whether the shift was expected or unexpected d. that at the long SOA (but not the short SOA), he found standard semantic priming regardless of whether the shift was expected or unexpected Page: 233 Type: factual Answer: c 43. Neely (1977) used an SOA manipulation in a lexical decision task to illustrate __________. a. long-term memory storage b. short-term memory storage c. the dual-coding hypothesis d. that both automatic and controlled processing can be implicated in priming Page: 233 Type: conceptual Answer: d 44. Which is NOT true? a. Semantic priming can occur even in the absence of conscious awareness of prime identity. b. In artificial categorization tasks, participants can be successfully oriented to classify on the basis of “diagnostic” features or “prototypical” features using short-term memory storage. c. Semantic memory is organized according to semantic relatedness among concepts. Both automatic and controlled processing can be implicated in priming. d. Regardless of SOA, implicit priming will overwhelm explicit priming.

Page: 233 Type: conceptual Answer: d

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45. In what way was the foundational research by Bartlett different from than by Ebbinghaus? a. the use of delayed recall b. It focused on meaningful materials. c. using human research subjects d. carefully controlling the materials to be memorized Page: 235 Type: conceptual Answer: b 46. Schemata aid in what aspect of memory? a. reconstructive processes b. reproductive recall c. analogical reasoning d. propositional coding Page: 236 Type: conceptual Answer: a 47. What nature of memory is best illustrated by the operation and influence of schemata during memory retrieval? a. forgetting b. compartmentalization c. learning d. reconstruction Page: 236 Type: conceptual Answer: d 48. What are the mental representations that serve as a framework or body of knowledge for commonly experienced aspects of life called? a. lexicons b. parsecs c. schemata d. partonomies Page: 237 Type: factual Answer: c 49. Mental categories allow us to __________. a. predict the ways in which we should interact with new instances b. spend more time trying to figure out what things are c. find the needle in the haystack d. overcome our biases and prejudices derived from stereotypes Page: 243 Type: conceptual Answer: a 50. In semantic categories, the degree to which items are viewed as typical, central members of a category; the central tendency of a category: __________. a. semantic activation b. typicality c. inheritance d. priming Page: 245 Type: conceptual Answer: b

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51. According to the classic view of categorization, which of the following would NOT be used by people to create their semantic categories? a. necessary features b. sufficient features c. rules d. prototypes Page: 244 Type: conceptual Answer: d 52. Rips (1975) reported an experiment in which subjects read a story about an island inhabited by only eight species of animals: sparrows, robins, eagles, hawks, ducks, geese, ostriches, and bats. The evidence indicated __________. a. support for prepositional theories of representation b. support for PDP models c. support for the dual-coding hypothesis d. evidence for prototype effects Page: 245 Type: conceptual Answer: d 53. In semantic memory research, the result that typical members of a category tend to be judged as members of the category more rapidly than atypical members is called the __________. a. typicality effect b. redundancy gain c. feature effect d. familiarity bias Page: 245 Type: factual Answer: a 54. In semantic memory, which of the following is NOT a characteristic of mental categories? a. typicality effects b. rule-based organization c. correlated attributes d. family resemblance Page: 245 Type: conceptual Answer: b 55. An abstract central core of a mental category is a(n) __________. a. core feature list b. exemplar c. prototype d. ad hoc category Page: 246 Type: factual Answer: c

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56. Which is NOT a principle proposed to contribute to classification and categorization? a. prototype comparison b. Type II class action c. exemplar-based representation d. explanation-based organization Page: 247 Type: conceptual Answer: b 57. Which is NOT true of categories? a. Mental categories involve fuzzy boundaries. b. Typical members resemble the prototype of the category. c. Diffusion reduces the priming effects for central categorical membership. d. Evidence supports the notion that multiple types of categorization are used.

Page: 247 Type: conceptual Answer: c 58. When are ad hoc categories created? a. over a long period of time b. on the fly c. during childhood d. after a great deal of experience Page: 247 Type: factual Answer: b 59. Which theory of semantic memory is most consistent with the existence of ad hoc categories? a. semantic networks b. classic view of categorization c. connectionist d. temporal lobe theories Page: 247 Type: conceptual Answer: c 60. The idea that people treat members of a category as if they had some shared common underlying quality is __________. a. psychological essentialism b. prototypicality c. exemplarism d. extractionistics Page: 248 Type: factual Answer: a

True/False Questions: 61. A semantic network represents the order in which different types of information were learned. FALSE ( p.

213) 62. Collins & Quillian demonstrated that property pathways were stronger than isa pathways. FALSE (p. 213) 63. In a feature list theory, each concept captures the relative importance of various features. TRUE (p. 215) 64. Semantic memory is organized according to semantic relatedness among concepts. TRUE (p. 215)

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65. The amplitude of N400 ERPs was markedly lower in the right than in the left hemisphere for abstract words as compared to concrete words. Both amplitudes were lower for abstract relative to concrete words.

TRUE (p. 223) 66. Abstract words activate right and left hemisphere processing equally. FALSE (p. 223) 67. Embodied cognitive processes play no role in semantic memory. FALSE (p. 223) 68. The more you know about something, the more complex your representational schema is, and the harder it is to access specific information. FALSE (p. 224) 69. Most connectionist networks will include both facilitating and inhibitory connections. TRUE (p. 226) 70.

In connectionist models, the weight of a connection determines its strength. TRUE (p. 226) 71. The lexical decision task requires that people know the meaning of the target word. FALSE (p. 230) 72. Lexical decision performance logically requires semantic access. FALSE (p. 230) 73. Lexical decision performance is typically measured by response time. TRUE (p. 230) 74. Priming effects always show facilitation relative to baseline. FALSE (p. 233) 75. There is an implicit component to priming. TRUE (p. 234) 76. Schemata are a form of episodic memory. FALSE (p. 234) 77. People use schemata and scripts to help them reconstruct memories of past events. TRUE (p. 236) 78. Schemata both help and hurt memory. TRUE (p. 236) 79. According to the classic view of mental categorization, categories are based around necessary and sufficient features. TRUE (p. 244) 80. The classic view of categorization has stood the test of time and captures much of how people mentally create and use categories. FALSE (p. 244) 81. Most people’s definition of “teddy bear” could be used to demonstrate the concept of a category central tendency. TRUE (p. 245) 82. Explanation-based theories of categorization are based on probabilistic information. FALSE (p. 247)

Fill in the Blank/Short Answer: 83. Semantic memory captures ________________________ information.

(GENERIC/GENERAL/ENCYCLOPEDIC) 84. Hintzman referred to semantic memory as ________ memory. (GENERIC) 85. In a semantic network, concepts are represented by ________ and associations are represented by ________. (NODES; LINKS) 86. In connections networks, knowledge is represented in the strength of the ____________.

(CONNECTIONS/LINKS) 87. SOA stands for ________________________. (STIMULUS ONSET ASYNCHRONY) 88. In a priming task, the first stimulus is called the _____________, and the next stimulus is called the ____________. (PRIME; TARGET) 89. In studies of mental processing, the number of intervening trials between a prime and a target is the ____________. (LAG) 90. What type of memory process does a schema or script aid in? (RECONSTRUCTIVE) 91. A type of mental representation that is similar to a schema, but which captures the temporal order of events, is called a(n) _____________. (SCRIPT) 92. The two kinds of probabilistic categorization are the _____________ and _________________ views.

(PROTOTYPE; EXEMPLAR) 93. The idealized average of all category members is called a(n) _________. (PROTOTYPE) 94. A category that is created on the fly is called a(n) __________ category. (AD HOC)

Essay Questions: 95. What is an advantage of feature list theories of semantic memory compared to semantic network models?

96. Why would semantic memory have characteristics that reflect embodied cognition?

97. With respect to models of the mind, what is connectionism?

98. What are the four frequently mentioned advantages of using connectionism to study cognition?

99. Describe how a priming task can be used to demonstrate both implicit and explicit processing.

100. Describe a situation in which a cost relative to a baseline might be demonstrated in a priming task.

101. How are schemata likely to change of the course of one’s life?

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102. Describe (define) the dissociation referred to as a category-specific deficit.

103. What are the relative advantages and disadvantageous of the various theories of mental categorization?

104. In what ways are schemata and categories similar, and in what ways are they different?

105. To what degree do mental categories reflect the way the world is, and to what degree to they reflect how we mentally organize the world?

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Chapter 8: Using Knowledge in the Real World

Multiple Choice Questions: 1.

__________ is remembering to do something in the future. a. Persistent memory b. Prospective memory c. Transient memory d. Constructive memory Page: 251 Type: factual Answer: b Which is NOT one of Schacter’s “seven sins of memory”? a. transfer b. transience c. blocking d. suggestibility Page: 252 Type: factual Answer: a 2.

Which of the following is NOT one of Schacter’s “seven sins of memory”? a. persistence b. reconstruction c. transience d. suggestibility Page: 252 Type: factual Answer: b 3.

An example of “blocking” in memory is __________. a. Stanford vs. Cal State b. TOT c. normalization d. misattribution Page: 252 Type: conceptual Answer: b 4.

Which is NOT a “sin of omission” (Schacter, 1999)? a. misattribution b. suggestibility c. bias d. absentmindedness Page: 252 Type: conceptual Answer: d 5.

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Which of these “sins of memory” is not like the others? a. persistence b. transience c. blocking d. absentmindedness Page: 252 Type: conceptual Answer: a 6.

Which of these is not one of the “sins of commission” of human memory? a. suggestibility b. bias c. blocking d. misattribution Page: 252 Type: conceptual Answer: c 7.

8.

Which is a way of representing propositions? a. RBC b. node plus pathway c. propositional prototyping d. fuzzy boundaries Page: 253 Type: factual Answer: b 9.

What is a proposition in memory? a. a possibility b. a suggestion c. the network of interconnected facts d. a simple idea unit Page: 253 Type: factual Answer: d 10. The smallest unit of knowledge that can stand as an assertion is a __________. a. phoneme b. proposition c. morpheme d. mnemonic Page: 253 Type: factual Answer: b 11. Sachs (1967) investigated memory by using passages of meaningful text. After a delay of 80 syllables in the passage, a multiple choice recognition task for a preceding sentence produced __________. a. almost perfect recognition b. chance recognition across superficial and deep structural changes c. chance recognition if meaning held constant d. very high levels of accuracy for discriminating the original sentence Page: 254 Type: factual Answer: c

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12. Someone tells you about an event she experienced. Later, you try to remember just what was said.

According to research, such as that by Sachs (1967), you are most likely to recall __________. a. the general gist of what was said, but not the exact wording b. what was told to you verbatim c. a lot of errors, apart from what actually happened d. your desire to tell other people about the event Page: 254 Type: applied Answer: a 13. Kintsch & Bates (1977) gave a surprise recognition test to students two or five days after a classroom lecture. Which was NOT true? a. Verbatim memory was worse at five days than at two days. b. Students were better at rejecting jokes not told than rejecting jokes that were told. c. Memory details were better than general statements. d. Ones were remembered better than twos.

Page: 255 Type: factual Answer: d 14. What is the fan effect? a. the finding that memory is better for fans of a topic b. an increase in retrieval time with an increase in the number of newly learned associations with a concept c. an increase in memory performance when there is a fan on to drown out ambient noise d. an change in the loss of memories as a function of the orthographic neighborhood Page: 256 Type: factual Answer: b 15. __________ is an increase in response time with an increase in the number of newly learned associations with a concept. a. Priming b. Flashbulb memory c. Von Restorff effect d. Fan effect Page: 256 Type: factual Answer: d 16. Which of the flowing is retained in memory for the longest period of time? a. situation model b. propositional encoding c. surface form d. textbase Page: 258 Type: factual Answer: a

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17. What is the rate of forgetting of information at the textbase level? a. less than both the surface form and situation model b. more than both the surface form and situation model c. more than the surface form, less than the situation model d. more than the situation model, less than the surface form Page: 258 Type: conceptual Answer: d 18. What is a piece of evidence that our memory for simple ideas is influenced by the structure of the world? a. People do not remember information based on mental scripts. b. We remembering things related to ourselves better. c. You remember class topics better when you are sitting in the classroom. d. Walking through doorways causes forgetting.

Page: 260 Type: factual Answer: d 19. What happens to the fan effect if a set of facts can be integrated into a common situation model? a. It is inverted. b. nothing c. It is increased. d. It is reduced.

Page: 260 Type: conceptual Answer: d 20. What is the best way to characterize the research concerning the fan effect? a. It is too inconsistent. b. It reveals the ways in which concepts are organized and retrieved from memory. c. There is no consistent way that everyone processes information. d. The more you know, the faster you can remember.

Page: 260 Type: conceptual Answer: b 21. What is the best way to describe our memory for events in our lives? a. detailed b. permanent c. gist-based d. fluid Page: 260 Type: conceptual Answer: c 22. Metamemory is __________. a. memory for large concepts b. knowledge of one’s own memory c. a holistic approach to psychological science d. a large analysis of data from a large number of memory studies Page: 260 Type: factual Answer: b

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23. A person’s understanding of the contents and processes of their own memory is called __________. a. insight b. introspection c. propositional knowledge d. metamemory Page: 260 Type: factual Answer: d 24. Source monitoring is __________. a. knowing what is real and what is not as it is happening b. being able to tell whether someone else is remembering accurately c. knowing where information came from d. making a mistake about how old a memory is Page: 261 Type: factual Answer: c 25. Fiction becoming fact is a result of a problem in __________. a. source monitoring b. memory retrieval c. feeling of knowing d. prospective memory Page: 261 Type: conceptual Answer: a 26. __________ is the ability to identify where information in a memory came from. a. Source monitoring b. Feeling of knowledge c. Judgment of learning d. Cryptomnesia Page: 261 Type: factual Answer: a 27. Cryptomnesia is __________. a. conscious plagiarism b. a failure in source monitoring c. found after brain damage d. unconscious feeling of knowing Page: 262 Type: factual Answer: b 28. __________ is confusing a memory of having done something with having only thought about doing something. a. cryptomnesia b. source monitoring failure c. retrieval interference d. a fan effect Page: 262 Type: conceptual Answer: b

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29. Prospective memory __________. a. is related to proactive interference b. is better when it is time-based c. is better when it is event-based d. is better in older adults Page: 262 Type: factual Answer: c 30. The term for memory for the future is __________. a. source monitoring b. inference making c. proactive memory d. prospective memory Page: 262 Type: factual Answer: d 31. Remembering to do some task in the future is called __________. a. prospective memory b. cryptomnesia c. perspective memory d. semantic integration Page: 262 Type: factual Answer: a 32. Cryptomnesia is more likely to occur when __________. a. prospective memory is involved b. attention is focused c. attention is divided d. judgments of learning are low Page: 262 Type: conceptual Answer: c 33. Cryptomnesia reflects a breakdown in __________. a. structural organization b. source monitoring c. propositional coding d. mental integration Page: 262 Type: conceptual Answer: b 34. Judgments of learning are more accurate __________. a. immediately b. after a delay c. never d. over a period of many weeks Page: 264 Type: conceptual Answer: b

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35. Even if a person cannot remember something in the moment, it is still possible for them to give __________. a. feeling of knowing judgment b. a judgment of learning c. up d. an assessment of performance Page: 264 Type: conceptual Answer: a 36. The fact that people can give feeling of knowing judgments that are high and accurate suggests that __________. a. no one is immune to error b. metamemory is debunked c. relearning can occur d. forgetting can be temporary Page: 264 Type: conceptual Answer: d 37. A defining characteristic of the tip of the tongue (TOT) state is that __________. a. forgetting occurs b. the forgetting function is parabolic c. retrieval is imminent d. people are not good at assessing whether they have learned something Page: 265 Type: factual Answer: c 38. When you forget something, but feel like retrieval is imminent, this is called __________. a. directed forgetting b. judgment of learning c. a tip of the tongue (TOT) state d. feeling of knowing Page: 265 Type: factual Answer: c 39. What is the name for the phenomenon in which a person remembers events that never happened? a. imagination b. false memory c. cryptomnesia d. super-consciousness Page: 266 Type: factual Answer: b 40. A false memory is memory for __________. a. events that never happened b. things you know are not true c. things that have not happened yet, but will d. all of the above Page: 266 Type: factual Answer: a

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41. Roediger & McDermott (1995) did an experiment in which people were presented with lists of semantically related items and then (after a short interval filled with an arithmetic task) given a yes/no recognition test, which included critical lures among the items. Their work illustrated __________. a. misinformation acceptance b. repressed memories c. implicit memory d. false memories Page: 266 Type: conceptual Answer: d 42. When people are given lists of related words, and then later falsely recall a word that is strongly related to the others, but not actually said, the experimental paradigm is called a __________. a. vigilance method b. DRM paradigm c. elicitation technique d. distorting manipulation Page: 266 Type: factual Answer: b 43. In the Bransford & Franks (1971) experiment, people incorrectly reported recognizing the “three” phrase “The ants ate the sweet jelly that was on the table” as an “old” sentence despite the fact that that particular set of propositions had never been presented together in one sentence. This type of error illustrates __________. a. a false alarm b. evidence for semantic integration c. poor technical accuracy d. All of the above Page: 268 Type: conceptual Answer: d 44. What are the consequences of mentally integrating information? a. Interference can be reduced. b. People have trouble remembering individual events. c. Source monitoring becomes more difficult. d. all of the above Page: 268 Type: conceptual Answer: d 45. If people witness a car accident, they may later misremember what they saw because they discussed the accident with other witnesses. This is a result of memory __________. a. expansion b. recursion c. integration d. retrieval Page: 268 Type: applied Answer: c

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46. The most likely problem for the effective and fair use of eyewitness testimony in court proceedings is __________. a. humans’ poor gist accuracy b. humans’ poor detail accuracy c. human use of case grammar d. humans’ adoption of script theory Page: 271 Type: applied Answer: b 47. Which is LEAST associated with false memories? a. semantic associations and script knowledge b. DRM task c. critical lures d. garden path sentences Page: 271 Type: conceptual Answer: d 48. In the leading questions/memory distortion work by Loftus, people were shown a video of a car crash and then asked how fast the cars were going when they hit/smashed/collided/bumped/contacted each other. One week later, the “hit” group reported seeing broken glass to a greater extent than the “contacted” group. This most clearly demonstrates __________. a. memory distortion b. the misinformation effect c. semantic illusion d. the isolation effect Page: 272 Type: conceptual Answer: a 49. In the leading questions/memory distortion work by Loftus, people were shown a video of a car crash and then asked how fast the cars were going when they hit/smashed/collided/bumped/contacted each other. The between-group difference in the immediate report of the speeds the cars were traveling (e.g., across the smashed and contacted groups) likely indicates __________. a. suggestibility b. false memory c. memory impairment d. all of the above Page: 272 Type: conceptual Answer: d 50. In the leading questions/memory distortion work by Loftus, people were shown a video of a car crash and then asked how fast the cars were going when they hit/smashed/collided/bumped/contacted each other. One week later, the “hit” group reported seeing broken glass to a greater extent than the “contacted” group. This most clearly demonstrates __________. a. overconfidence in memory b. the misinformation effect c. a memory impairment d. the von Restorff effect Page: 272 Type: conceptual Answer: c

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51. Reporting having seen a yield sign in a video of a car crash (when no sign was present) after being asked a question that mentioned a yield sign (e.g., “Did the car slow down at the yield sign prior to the accident?”) most clearly demonstrates __________. a. the misinformation effect b. misattribution theory c. source knowledge d. overconfidence Page: 273 Type: applied Answer: a 52. Which is NOT mentioned as a source of memory distortion? a. encoding specificity b. source misattribution c. misinformation acceptance d. overconfidence in memory Page: 274 Type: conceptual Answer: a 53. Which of the following does NOT lead to stronger memory distortions? a. repetition of misinformation b. repeated recall of misinformation c. repeated questioning d. immediate rather than delayed retrieval Page: 274 Type: conceptual Answer: d 54. Lindsay et al. (2004) report describing a pseudo-event (a childhood story of putting green slime in a teacher’s desk) in the context of two “real” events from the person’s own childhood. Half were also shown their (real) grade school class picture. They were to come back in a week for further testing. Which describes their result after this one-week delay? a. In the photo group, the “thought did it” percentage went from 30 percent to 70 percent (i.e., the majority reported the activity as true after the one-week delay). b. In the photo group, the “thought did it” percentage remained at 30 percent throughout. c. In the nonphoto group, the “thought did it” percentage remained at 15 percent throughout. d. In the nonphoto group, the “thought did it” percentage remained at 30 percent throughout.

Page: 274 Type: factual Answer: a 55. Reconsolidation is when __________. a. a person remembers more on a second attempt b. memories become temporarily malleable when they are retrieved c. the process of time makes memories more permanent d. multiple traces of a memory are stored in long-term memory Page: 274 Type: factual Answer: b

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56. The plastic, malleable state a memory is in when it is retrieved and then stored again is called __________. a. consolidation b. reconsolidation c. reconstruction d. misleading post-event information Page: 274 Type: factual Answer: b 57. __________ refers to the ease with which something is processed or comes to mind. a. Processing fluency b. Source effect c. Semantic processing d. Reconstruction Page: 276 Type: factual Answer: a 58. Overconfidence in memory derives from __________. a. poor metamemory b. source misattribution c. processing fluency d. All of the above can lead to overconfidence in memory.

Page: 276 Type: conceptual Answer: d 59. Imagining that something happened increases the later likelihood of reporting that it did happen; this phenomenon is known as __________. a. hogwash b. vividness c. imagination inflation d. veridical recall Page: 277 Type: factual Answer: c 60. Intentional forgetting of painful or traumatic experiences is known as __________. a. von Restorff b. posttraumatic stress disorder c. repression d. revision Page: 277 Type: factual Answer: c 61. Memory for our life narrative is called __________. a. autobiographical memory b. personal memory c. episodic memory d. self-narrative memory Page: 279 Type: factual Answer: a

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62. Bahrick, Bahrick, & Wittlinger produce a study: “Fifty years of names and faces.” They report __________. a. excellent preserved recall for names b. excellent preserved recall for names despite picture cues c. poor levels of recognition for pictures d. excellent preservation at a picture-matching task Page: 280 Type: factual Answer: d 63. Bahrick, Bahrick, & Wittlinger suggest that the reasons for the high level of residual knowledge in the “Fifty years of names and faces” include __________. a. preservation and arsicitiness b. overlearning and distributed practice c. elaborative encoding and maintenance rehearsal d. protection from decay based on length of exposure Page: 280 Type: factual Answer: b 64. Work by Bahrick et al. on “Fifty years of names and faces” demonstrates that some kinds of memory __________. a. are constantly changing in their meaning b. can last for very long periods of time c. do not belong to individual people d. actually get better with age Page: 280 Type: factual Answer: b 65. Diary studies in which psychologists studied their own autobiographical memories find that __________. a. knowledge about memory impairs its study b. Ebbinghaus was wrong about just about everything c. unpleasant memories are recalled better over time d. pleasant memories are recalled better over time Page: 281 Type: factual Answer: d 66. The inability to remember life events before two to four years of age is called __________. a. reminiscence bump b. infantile amnesia c. cognitive development d. arcsine correction Page: 281 Type: factual Answer: b 67. Which of the following is NOT an explanation of infantile amnesia? a. hippocampus development b. development of the concept of the self c. increase in procedural memories d. increased language skills Page: 282 Type: conceptual Answer: c

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68. The existence of infantile amnesia illustrates that __________. a. much of our lives, even from birth, is buried deep in memory b. very young children are experiencing catastrophic losses of memory due to developmental traumas c. human memory takes some time to develop d. memory works backwards Page: 282 Type: conceptual Answer: c 69. The reminiscence bump is __________. a. inability to remember life events before the ages of two to four b. increased memory for traumatic events c. the ability to recover memories that had previously been forgotten d. superior memory for life events, better than would be expected by the forgetting curve, around the age of twenty Page: 282 Type: factual Answer: d 70. What is the name for the phenomenon that people tend to have better memories for their lives around the age of twenty than would otherwise be expected? a. reminiscence bump b. neurological peaking c. developmental coordination d. impaired forgetting Page: 282 Type: factual Answer: a 71. Which of the following is NOT an adequate account of the reminiscence bump? a. cultural scripts b. high incidence of “firsts” in one’s life c. a loss of interference in the nervous system when one is this age d. better retrieval cues for this period of one’s life Page: 283 Type: conceptual Answer: c 72. What is a particularly effective cue for eliciting spontaneous autobiographical memories? a. pictures b. odors c. music d. sleep Page: 283 Type: conceptual Answer: b 73. Spontaneous memories are strongly triggered by __________. a. other memories b. neurostasis c. episodic semantics d. odors Page: 284 Type: factual Answer: d

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74. What is the best conclusion that we can make about human memory? a. People have trouble remembering most things. b. We would eventually forget everything if we lived long enough. c. It is amazing how much information it actually does hold. d. It is a system that is not well-tuned with the environment.

Page: 284 Type: conceptual Answer: c

True/False Questions: 75. Imagination inflation is one of the seven sins of memory. FALSE (p. 252) 76. Suggestibility inflation is one of the seven sins of memory. TRUE (p. 252) 77. A proposition is the smallest unit of knowledge that can stand as a separate assertion. TRUE (p. 253) 78. Node plus pathway is a method for representing propositions. TRUE (p. 253) 79. Propositional representations reflect the gist of what was encountered before. TRUE (p. 253) 80. Bates, Masling, and Kintsch (1978) found that if students were quizzed about their memory for what exactly was said during earlier class lectures, they were more likely to remember course content than the jokes. FALSE (p. 255) 81. A fan effect is an increase in retrieval time with an increase in the number of newly learned associations with a concept. TRUE (p. 256) 82. Information is remembered longer at the situation model level than at the propositional textbase level.

TRUE (p. 258) 83. The fan effect can be reduced by segregating information into separate situation models. FALSE (p. 260) 84. Walking through doorways causes forgetting. TRUE (p. 260) 85. Source monitoring refers to the ease with which something is processed or comes to mind. FALSE (p. 261) 86. People’s judgments of learning for information they just studied is often very accurate. FALSE (p. 264) 87. Memory can be described as an incredibly powerful system that is, nonetheless, quite prone to error. TRUE (p. 264) 88. Reconsolidated memories are almost always more accurate than the originals. FALSE (p. 295) 89. False memories are more likely to be created if a person tries to form a mental image in their mind to help them remember. TRUE (p. 266) 90. Studies of autobiographical memory reveal memory for one’s life story. TRUE (p. 279) 91. Long-term autobiographical memories are highly unreliable. FALSE (p. 280) 92. Infantile amnesia reflects a catastrophic forgetting of information following continued neurological development. FALSE (p. 282) 93. People tend to remember life events around the age of twenty better than would otherwise be expected.

TRUE (p. 282)

Fill in the Blank/Short Answer: 94. Three of the seven sins of memory are ______________, ______________, and _______________.

(TRANSIENCE; ABSENTMINDEDNESS; BLOCKING; MISATTRIBUTION; SUGGESTIBILITY; BIAS; PERSISTENCE) 95. The memory unit that codes meaning is called a(n) __________________. (PROPOSITION or PROPOSITIONAL REPRESENTATION) 96. If a person learns a lot of facts about a concept, such as learning that “THE HIPPIE WAS IN THE PARK,” “THE HIPPIE WAS IN THE MUSEUM,” and “THE HIPPIE WAS IN THE SCHOOL,” his or her memory will be affected compared to learning just one of these facts. This is called the ___________.

(FAN EFFECT) 97. The form of mental representation that is best retained over long periods of time is the __________.

(SITUATION MODEL) 98. Remembering a fact correctly from past experience but attributing it to an incorrect source or context is ____________________. (SOURCE MISATTRIBUTION) 99. The two basic kinds of prospective memory are ____________ and ____________. (TIME-BASED; EVENT-BASED)

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100. When a memory is retrieved, held in a more malleable state, and then restored, this is called _______________. (RECONSOLIDATION) 101. A memory for an event that never happened is called a(n) _______________. (FALSE MEMORY) 102. The improved retention of one piece of information that is made distinct or different from the information around it is _____________________________. (VON RESTORFF EFFECT) 103. What were the central findings of Bahrick’s work on “Fifty years of names and faces”?

(OVERLEARNING and DISTRIBUTED PRACTICE led to BETTER MEMORY RETENTION)

Essay Questions: 104. Pick one of the “seven sins of memory” and explain how this impedes memory and how it might actually help under some circumstances.

105. What is one practical consequence of people having more accurate memories at the situation model level than the propositional textbase level?

106. Using at least five appropriate technical terms and their associated theories covered in this chapter, define the circumstances in which you are most and least likely to accept the story of a friend as being true (e.g., a supposed memory of their first rollercoaster ride).

107. Given the complexity of memory, what sort of normal memory processes can lead to a memory becoming distorted over time?

108. The lexical decision stimuli will be the items: DUCK GRILL MANGO YELLOW Using these items, how might you test priming on a lexical decision task for words that appeared between two propositions in the same sentence and across two different sentences?

109. What are some of the arguments for why there is better memory for events in the reminiscence bump?

110. What are some of the explanations for infantile amnesia, and what implications do they have for how our sense of self changes over time (if at all)?

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Chapter 9: Language

Multiple Choice Questions: 1.

The formal discipline that takes language as its topic is __________. a. psycholinguistics b. speech pathology c. linguistics d. audiology Page: 288 Type: factual Answer: c 2.

__________ is a shared symbolic system of communication. a. A linguistic universal b. A language c. Verbal learning theory d. Diagnostics Page: 289 Type: factual Answer: b 3.

Language is a ____________ system. a. symbolic b. communication c. shared d. all of the above Page: 289 Type: factual Answer: d Which of the following was NOT one of Hockett’s linguistic universals? a. duality of patterning b. arbitrariness c. displacement d. encoding Page: 289 Type: factual Answer: d 4.

5.

Features or characteristics that are common to all languages are __________. a. a linguistic universal b. a “true” language c. a semanticity test d. a Chinese room test Page: 289 Type: factual Answer: a

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The linguistic universal that specifies that “language conveys meaning” is __________. a. duality of patterning b. total feedback c. productivity (generativity) d. semanticity Page: 289 Type: factual Answer: d 6.

“Each unit of language has a physical resemblance to its referent” is a definition of __________. a. ideographic system b. iconic system c. symbolic system d. cognitive economics Page: 290 Type: factual Answer: b 7.

8.

Which of the following is NOT associated with the concept of arbitrariness? a. onomatopoeia b. connections that are learned c. naming d. changes in definitions across time Page: 291 Type: conceptual Answer: a 9.

Which of the following is NOT associated with the concept of arbitrariness? a. connections that are learned b. flexibility c. naming d. discreteness Page: 291 Type: conceptual Answer: d 10. Language is __________. a. uniquely human b. found in any form of communication c. a rudimentary form of thought d. only valid if it is spoken Page: 293 Type: factual Answer: a 11. Animals possess the ability to __________. a. use language b. communicate c. use sign language d. communicate about objects that are not present Page: 293 Type: factual Answer: b

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12. Animals lack the ability to communicate using the language universal of __________. a. arbitrariness b. semanticity c. displacement d. vocalization Page: 293 Type: conceptual Answer: c 13. Which of Miller’s (1973) five levels of language analysis is the analysis of word meaning and the integration of word meaning within phrases or sentences? a. deep structure b. semantic analysis c. phonological analysis d. syntactic analysis Page: 295 Type: factual Answer: b 14. Which of Miller’s (1973) five levels of language analysis is the analysis of phrase and sentence meaning with reference to knowledge in semantic memory? a. belief-level analysis b. semantic analysis c. phonological analysis d. conceptual analysis Page: 295 Type: factual Answer: d 15. The internalized knowledge of language and its rules that fully fluent speakers of a language have is known as__________. a. competence b. performance c. articulation d. processing fluency Page: 295 Type: factual Answer: a 16. That background characteristics within the language have been proposed to change how people understand the world reflects __________. a. semantic functionality b. encoding specificity c. the case grammar approach d. the Sapir-Whorf hypothesis Page: 295 Type: factual Answer: d

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17. Sapir and Whorf proposed that the language you know shapes the way you think about events in the world around you; this phenomenon is known as __________. a. semantic functionality b. encoding specificity c. case grammar d. linguistic relativity Page: 295 Type: factual Answer: d 18. __________ supported the idea that how we think is influenced by the specific language that we speak. a. Whorf b. Hockett c. Miller d. Chompsky Page: 295 Type: factual Answer: a 19. Three variables are relevant to the production of consonants in English. They include all of the following EXCEPT __________. a. place of articulation b. manner of articulation c. voicing d. authorization Page: 298 Type: factual Answer: d 20. The number of phonemes in English is approximately __________. a. 200 b. 100 c. 50 d. 25 Page: 299 Type: factual Answer: c 21. The sounds of language are graphically illustrated in __________. a. electrographs b. phonographs c. spectrographs d. audiophiles Page: 300 Type: factual Answer: c 22. The inability of a native Spanish-speaking monolingual individual to differentiate “EYES” from “ICE” reflects __________. a. semantic categorization b. morpheme-based processing c. categorical perception d. syntactic analysis Page: 300 Type: conceptual Answer: c

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23. The extensiveness of your knowledge of the rules of permissible sound combinations in English refers to your __________. a. discreteness b. phonemic competence c. productive vocabulary d. receptive vocabulary Page: 302 Type: factual Answer: b 24. Coarticulation is most likely to be encountered __________. a. in most phrases b. in barbershop quartets c. only when voicing d. only with transformational perception Page: 303 Type: conceptual Answer: a 25. Our ability to detect variations in speech sounds despite co-articulation and from speaker to speaker reflects __________. a. bad planning b. infant perceptual errors c. speech-to-sound correspondence rules d. the problem of invariance Page: 303 Type: factual Answer: d 26. __________ is a situation in which existing knowledge of language biases one’s reasoning about what one is hearing. a. Veracity effect b. Top-down bias c. Representativeness d. Confirmation bias Page: 305 Type: factual Answer: b 27. Which does NOT provide evidence for top-down processing in auditory language comprehension? a. our belief that the pauses between words are larger than the pauses within words b. the problem of invariance c. phonemic restoration effect (Warren & Warren) d. trichromatic theory (Young, von Helmholtz) Page: 305 Type: conceptual Answer: d 28. Categorical perception of phonemes suggests that speech perception is __________. a. strongly influenced by conceptually driven processes b. accurately reflective of the underlying continuum of sounds c. more innate than acquired d. strongly linked to vision Page: 305 Type: conceptual Answer: a

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29. Sentence structure is synonymous with __________. a. prescriptive grammar b. case grammar c. syntax d. semantics Page: 308 Type: factual Answer: c 30. The ordering of words in a sentence to show their relation to one another is __________. a. morphological analysis b. syntax c. propositional representation d. spreading activation Page: 308 Type: factual Answer: b 31. “Fire engine red” versus “red fire engine” illustrates the importance of __________. a. word order b. spreading activation in a semantic network c. interactionist approach to language d. phrase order Page: 309 Type: applied Answer: a 32. {(the patio)(resembles(a junkyard))} reflects __________. a. phrase structure b. semantic cases c. morphological analysis d. categorical perception Page: 310 Type: applied Answer: a 33. Which is NOT associated with transformational grammar? a. phrase structure rules b. semantic roles c. deep structure d. lexical insertion rules Page: 312 Type: conceptual Answer: b 34. Which of the following is NOT included within Chomsky’s transformational grammar? a. deep structure b. integration of semantic representation c. surface structure d. semantic cases Page: 312 Type: conceptual Answer: d

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35. Which is NOT true of the sentence “The shooting of the hunters was terrible”? a. It is an ambiguous sentence. b. It reveals a limitation of a pure phrase structure approach. c. It has only one surface structure. d. It illustrates the disambiguating role of syntax.

Page: 312 Type: conceptual Answer: d 36. Derivational complexity refers to __________. a. the number of grammatical transformations applied b. the number of underlying propositions c. the number of independent concepts d. the number of phrase structures Page: 313 Type: factual Answer: a 37. Which is NOT true? a. Syntactic structures can be primed. b. More accessible information tends to be reported earlier in a sentence. c. We delay sentence initiation if the concepts are hard to retrieve. d. Transformational grammar assumes that we are aware of the semantic content before deriving phrase structures.

Page: 314 Type: conceptual Answer: d 38. The idea that language users tend to put older concepts earlier in an utterance than new concepts is called __________. a. asymmetric binding b. the given-new strategy c. temporal consistency d. into question Page: 315 Type: factual Answer: b 39. Which is NOT a speech error? a. shift b. exchange c. voicing d. preservation Page: 316 Type: factual Answer: c 40. “To beer a pour” is an illustration of __________. a. a speech error b. a spectrogram c. a blend d. phase structure grammar Page: 316 Type: applied Answer: a

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41. The reality and nature of speech errors suggest that __________. a. Freudian interpretations are always correct b. cognition is flawed beyond usefulness c. scientists are way too picky d. language production is a complex set of steps Page: 316 Type: conceptual Answer: d 42. Mental lexicon is also known as __________. a. semantics b. syntax c. grammar d. sentence planning Page: 317 Type: factual Answer: a 43. Mental lexicon includes __________. a. words and their meaning b. phrase structure c. syntactic rulebook d. propositional memory Page: 317 Type: factual Answer: a 44. The smallest unit of meaning in language is __________. a. phoneme b. morpheme c. lexicon d. syntax Page: 318 Type: factual Answer: b 45. Which of the following is a morpheme? a. Ga as in garage b. -s as in cars c. Disposable as in disposable diaper d. Puh as in puh-leeze do not ask me about this Page: 318 Type: applied Answer: b 46. Polysemy is __________. a. different syntaxes used to convey the same idea b. the same syntax used to convey multiple ideas c. when one word has multiple meanings d. when multiple words mean the same thing Page: 319 Type: factual Answer: c

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47. People who are bilingual show __________ intelligence compared to people who speak one language. a. lower b. higher c. similar d. different Page: 320 Type: factual Answer: c 48. Your understanding of the function served by KEY in the phrase “the key opened the door” is most closely related to which theoretical view of language processing? a. Craik & Lockhart’s “depth of processing” account b. elaborative encoding c. Chomsky’s transformational grammar d. the case grammar approach Page: 323 Type: conceptual Answer: d 49. The idea that the words in a sentence influence each other in terms of their meaning and relate to the concepts conveyed by other words is best captured by the theory of __________.: a. syntactic rules b. semantic cases c. pragmatic origins d. phonetic coarticulation Page: 323 Type: factual Answer: b 50. Fillenbaum’s sentence “Don’t print that or I won’t sue you” is best described as __________. a. perverse threat b. threat c. disordered threat d. conjunctive statement Page: 325 Type: applied Answer: a 51. According to studies (such as that by McCandliss, Posner, & Givon [1997]), how many weeks of processing words in a new language does it take for brain activity to resemble that with words in one’s native language? a. one b. forty c. twenty-five d. five Page: 330 Type: factual Answer: d

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52. Right hemisphere language processing focuses more on __________. a. integrating lexical information at the sentence level b. articulating language c. making remote associations d. fine-grained, analytic processing Page: 331 Type: factual Answer: c 53. ERP studies investigating semantically anomalous sentences reveal that these sentences produce a distinctive __________. a. N400 ERP pattern b. P600 ERP pattern c. syntactic priming function d. expressive aphasia Page: 331 Type: factual Answer: a 54. ERP studies investigating syntactically anomalous sentences reveal that these sentences produce a distinctive __________. a. N400 ERP pattern b. P600 ERP Pattern c. syntactic priming function d. expressive aphasia Page: 331 Type: factual Answer: b 55. The disruption (a loss of all or some) of previously intact language skills caused by a brain-related disorder or injury is __________. a. aphasia b. agnosia c. apraxia d. agraphia Page: 332 Type: factual Answer: a 56. The disruption (a loss of all or some) of previously intact visual object recognition abilities caused by a brain-related disorder or injury is __________. a. alexia b. agraphia c. anomia d. agnosia Page: 332 Type: factual Answer: d

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57. Which of the following does NOT belong? a. Broca’s aphasia b. conduction aphasia c. production aphasia d. expressive aphasia Page: 332 Type: conceptual Answer: b 58. Aphasia is a loss of __________. a. spoken language hearing b. the ability to write c. language abilities d. memory for verbs Page: 332 Type: factual Answer: c 59. In Wernicke’s aphasia, __________ is NOT preserved. a. comprehension b. repetition c. naming d. syntax Page: 333 Type: conceptual Answer: a 60. The disruption (a loss of all or some) of previously intact word finding, either lexical or semantic, caused by a brain-related disorder or injury is __________. a. alexia b. agraphia c. anomia d. agnosia Page: 334 Type: factual Answer: c 61. In conduction aphasia, __________ is NOT preserved. a. comprehension b. repetition c. naming d. syntax Page: 334 Type: conceptual Answer: b 62. Right hemisphere damage can result in a loss in the ability to __________. a. draw inferences b. repeat language heard verbatim c. produce language d. comprehend language Page: 335 Type: conceptual Answer: a

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True/False Questions: 63. Linguistics is the study of language as it is used and learned by people. FALSE (p. 288) 64. The study of linguistics was one of the foundations of the cognitive revolution. TRUE (p. 288) 65. Sign language is a true language. TRUE (p. 289) 66. Spreading activation is a linguistic universal. FALSE (p. 289) 67. Understanding productivity is argued to be the key to understanding language. TRUE (p. 293) 68. George Miller suggested the idea of linguistic relativity. FALSE (p. 295) 69. Languages with more phonemes allow more complex ideas to be communicated. FALSE (p. 299) 70. Vowels involve no disruption of the airflow. TRUE (p. 300) 71. With training, grammatical versus ungrammatical sentence structures do not impact shadowing performance. FALSE (p. 304) 72. The fact that it is harder to understand someone on the telephone than someone you are speaking to in person is inconsistent with the motor theory of speech perception. FALSE (p. 306) 73. In speech, pauses between words are greater than pauses within words. FALSE (p. 307) 74. Any theory of speech recognition must account for both data-driven and conceptually driven processing.

TRUE (p. 338) 75. In transformational grammar, because of the separation of the treatment of semantics, a sentence’s true meaning may not be reflected in its surface structure. TRUE (p. 312) 76. Deep structures are converted into surface structures by transformational rules. TRUE (p. 312) 77. In TG, “The boy kissed the girl” and “Did the boy kiss the girl?” differ in their deep structure. FALSE (p.

312) 78. Chomsky’s work never dealt satisfactorily with meaning. TRUE (p. 314) 79. Exposure to a syntactic structure can prime future use of that structure. TRUE (p. 314) 80. The syntactic structure of sentences can prime your use of those same syntactic structures. TRUE (p. 314) 81. We begin our utterances before the syntax and semantics of the final portion of the sentence have been worked out. TRUE (p. 314) 82. We begin our utterances when the first part of the sentence has been planned but before the syntax and semantics of the final portion have been worked out. TRUE (p. 314) 83. In sentence production, information that is more readily available generally occurs earlier. TRUE (p. 315) 84. In the case grammar approach, a semantic case is the same thing as a case role. TRUE (p. 323) 85. Syntax is not influenced by semantics. FALSE [p326] 86. The influence of both syntax and semantics on language processing is called the interactionist view.

TRUE (p. 326) 87. Garden path sentences facilitate comprehension. FALSE (p. 327) 88. Case grammar can handle figurative use of words (e.g., the stressors chased him in his sleep). TRUE (p.

329) 89. With sufficient exposure, the ERPs to nonsense words look like ERPs to meaningful words. TRUE (p.

331) 90. People with conduction aphasia have difficulty accurately repeating what they have just heard. TRUE (p.

334) 91. Agraphia is an inability to do mathematical computations. FALSE (p. 334) 92. Only the left hemisphere is involved in language processing. FALSE (p. 335)

Fill in the Blank/Short Answer: 93. What is the difference between linguistics and psycholinguistics?

94. What is the name of the idea that there is no direct correspondence between the words of a language and the thing it represents? (ARBINTRARINESS) 95. Identify the three basic and two additional levels of analysis that are used in language comprehension: 1. Phonology 2. _______________ (SYNTAX) 3. _______________ (LEXICAL or SEMANTIC) 4. _______________ (CONCEPTUAL) 5. Belief 96. The study of the sounds of a language is called ________. (PHONOLOGY)

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97. Identify two weaknesses of the transformational grammar approach.

98. How do the approaches of transformational grammar and case grammar differ?

99. According to Chomsky’s transformational grammar theory, each utterance has a ____________ structure and a corresponding _________ structure. (SURFACE; DEEP) 100. What is the mental lexicon?

101. Provide an example of a statement in which semantics overpowers syntax.

102. Provide an example of a garden path sentence.

103. What is polysemy?

104. The smallest meaningful unit of language is called a ____________. (MORPHEME) 105. The loss of the ability to produce language is associated with ________ aphasia. (BROCA’S) 106. The loss of the ability to comprehend language is associated with ________ aphasia. (WERNIKE’S)

Essay Questions: 107. How are the concepts of language and communication similar, and how are they different?

108. In what ways are language processes rigid, and in what ways are they flexible?

109. When a person moves from one place to another, he or she may retain an accent that is consistent with where he or she was from originally. How does this relate to categorical perception?

110. How do the effects caused by damage in Wernicke’s and Broca’s areas differ? Be sure to use appropriate technical terms.

111. Discuss the strengths and weaknesses of using patterns of preserved and impaired language functions after brain damage or injury to learn about human language processing.

112. Some people have described language as being a window into cognition. Why do you think a person would say this?

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Chapter 10: Comprehension: Written and Spoken Language

Multiple Choice Questions: 1.

Conceptual knowledge is important for comprehension because comprehension is about __________. a. meaning b. linguistic structure c. thinking d. perception Page: 338 Type: conceptual Answer: a 2. Your acceptance of the ideas conveyed to you while you are trying to comprehend language reflects your __________. a. knowledge b. experience c. competence d. beliefs Page: 338 Type: conceptual Answer: d 3.

Consider: phoneme detection is harder if the phoneme occurred in an ambiguous word (e.g., /b/ in BOXER from “Ken liked the boxer”). Which concept is MOST related? a. online comprehension task b. pragmatic task c. case grammar d. transformational grammar Page: 339 Type: factual Answer: b 4.

In language comprehension, pragmatics refers to __________. a. word orderings b. what is practical to do and what is not c. extralinguistic factors that guide understanding d. strictly linguistic factors that guide understanding Page: 339 Type: factual Answer: c 5.

In language, a comprehension measure in an experiment that gets at cognitive processes that occurring at that time is said to b __________.: a. phenomenological b. experimental c. online d. linguistic Page: 340 Type: factual Answer: c

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6.

One online measure of language comprehension is __________. a. reading time b. response time c. reaction time d. release time Page: 340 Type: factual Answer: a 7.

Which of the following is NOT an online measure of language comprehension processes in cognition? a. reading time b. word naming c. lexical decision d. recall Page: 340 Type: conceptual Answer: d 8.

Which of the following is NOT an online measure of language comprehension processes in cognition? a. fMRI recordings b. verbal protocols c. ERP recordings d. paired associates Page: 340 Type: conceptual Answer: d 9.

What is metacomprehension? a. knowing the thought processes that go on during comprehension b. monitoring how well you understand something c. being able to draw upon extensive semantic memories during comprehension d. understanding what other people understand Page: 341 Type: factual Answer: b 10. Monitoring how well you understand something is __________. a. personal insight b. linguistic apprehension c. metacomprehension d. impossible Page: 341 Type: factual Answer: c 11. The ability to monitor one’s own understanding of what is being read is __________. a. metacomprehension b. implicature c. comprehension d. analysis by synthesis Page: 341 Type: factual Answer: a

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12. What are judgments of learning (JOLs)? a. estimates of how well one’s self has learned something from what he or she has read b. estimates of how well a research participant has learned something from what he or she has read c. a test of a person’s knowledge after reading something d. knowing what other people will have learned from reading a text Page: 341 Type: factual Answer: a 13. What is the name for estimates of how well one’s self has learned something from what he or she has read? a. feeling of knowing b. estimates of knowledge c. self-reflective assessment d. judgments of learning Page: 341 Type: factual Answer: d 14. In general, how good are people’s judgments of learning (JOLs) of what they have read? a. perfect b. poor c. very good d. completely absent Page: 341 Type: factual Answer: b 15. What is the labor in vain effect? a. when people spend time trying to learn information that is beyond their current level of knowledge b. trying to teach someone who is not motivated to learn c. working hard to get someone to understand what you are saying only to find out that he or she had the wrong idea all along d. Teaching someone something, only to have him or her forget it soon after Page: 341 Type: factual Answer: a 16. The labor in vain effect reflects __________. a. trying to study without adequate materials b. continuing to try to recall and remember information that just isn’t in memory c. attempts to study information beyond one’s current ability d. the forgetting of information in permastore Page: 341 Type: applied Answer: c 17. What is it called when people spend time trying to learn information that is beyond their current level of knowledge? a. pragmatics b. labor in vain c. region of proximal learning d. misunderstanding Page: 341 Type: factual Answer: b

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18. What is the region of proximal learning? a. age-appropriate reading materials b. age-appropriate classroom styles c. the time of day when a person is most alert (because of circadian rhythms) d. information that is just beyond one’s current level of knowledge Page: 342 Type: factual Answer: d 19. What is the name for information that is just beyond one’s current level of knowledge? a. the unknown b. zone of understanding c. just within reach knowledge d. region of proximal learning Page: 342 Type: factual Answer: d 20. Knowing a person’s region of proximal learning helps avoid __________. a. metacomprehension responsibilities b. false consensus c. the labor in vain effect d. providing judgments of learning Page: 342 Type: factual Answer: c 21. The process of comprehension in Gernsbacher’s theory, of building a mental representation of the meaning of sentences, is __________. a. the situation model b. structure building c. suppression d. the process model Page: 342 Type: factual Answer: b 22. Which is NOT part of Gernsbacher’s structure-building framework? a. shifting b. laying a foundation c. mapping information d. pragmatic assessment Page: 342 Type: factual Answer: d 23. __________ is a control structure in Gernsbacher’s structure building framework. a. Suppression b. Mapping c. Enhancement d. Refocusing Page: 343 Type: factual Answer: c

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24. Introduction of a new character in a narrative story is most associated with __________. a. mapping b. shifting c. foundation building d. suppression Page: 344 Type: conceptual Answer: b 25. As new substructures are developed, memory nodes for related concepts increase activation; memory nodes for no longer related information decrease in activation. Gernsbacher defines this as __________. a. enhancement and suppression b. facilitation and suppression c. enhancement and repression d. facilitation and repression Page: 344 Type: factual Answer: a 26. Situation models do all of the following EXCEPT __________. a. represent a possible world described in a passage of text b. represent the propositional coding of the information c. include inferences drawn while comprehending d. include spatial and temporal information Page: 345 Type: conceptual Answer: b 27. A __________ is a memory representation of a possible word situation. For example, a representation of the situation described in a passage of text a. situational model b. process model c. reference model d. semantic model Page: 345 Type: factual Answer: a 28. A __________ is a representation of the event described in a passage of text. a. simulation model b. process model c. situation model d. path model Page: 345 Type: factual Answer: c 29. __________ is a means of assessing comprehension online. a. Eye tracking b. Recognition memory c. Concept sorting d. Discourse analysis Page: 346 Type: factual Answer: a

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30. An eye tracker can be used in language comprehension research to __________. a. reduce reading speed b. give faster memory tests c. know when a person is done reading d. monitor understanding Page: 346 Type: conceptual Answer: d 31. __________ is a principle measure of online reading comprehension. a. Think-aloud procedure b. Gaze duration c. ERP d. Accuracy Page: 346 Type: factual Answer: b 32. In an online reading task, poor readers tend to return to previous words that they have already read to a much greater extent than better readers do. Just & Carpenter (1980, 1987, 1992) refer to this “return” as __________. a. foveation fixation b. regressive movements c. saccadic return d. functional processing Page: 347 Type: factual Answer: b 33. Which of the following is NOT associated with online eye movement research? a. immediacy assumption b. eye–mind assumption c. saccades d. displacement Page: 347 Type: conceptual Answer: d 34. During reading, the eye remains fixated on a word as long as the word is being actively processed. This reflects __________. a. eye–mind assumption b. immediacy assumption c. direct reference d. the “assist” function Page: 347 Type: factual Answer: a

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35. The assumption that readers try to interpret each content word of a text as that word is encountered in the passage—that is, we do not take in a group of words before starting to process them—is __________. a. eye–mind assumption b. immediacy assumption c. direct reference d. the “assist” function Page: 347 Type: factual Answer: b 36. The act of using a pronoun or possessive (or synonym) to refer back to a previously mentioned concept is __________. a. anaphoric reference b. anomic reference c. alexic reference d. aphritic reference Page: 354 Type: factual Answer: a 37. Alluding to a concept using another name is __________. a. deceptive b. reference c. authorized inference d. unauthorized inference Page: 354 Type: factual Answer: b 38. “Maria-José was studying hard for her cognition exam.” a. Cognition exam is the agent. b. Maria-José is the antecedent of her. c. Studying hard is an anaphoric reference. d. Studying and exam are concurrent references.

Page: 354 Type: applied Answer: b 39. The act of using a pronoun or possessive later on is __________. a. the recency effect b. an anaphoric reference c. situational cueing d. facilitation of structure building Page: 354 Type: conceptual Answer: b 40. The finding that people read more slowly when they encounter a name anaphor in a text demonstrates __________. a. anaphoric cuing b. antecedent processing cost c. repeated name penalty d. reduced semantic implicature Page: 354 Type: conceptual Answer: c

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41. What is the repeated name penalty? a. slower reading times for names of characters that repeat (e.g., Tom Tom) b. poorer memory for names that are repeated in a text c. disrupted cognition when a person’s name is repeated by a different character d. slower reading times of a sentence that repeats the name of a character Page: 354 Type: factual Answer: d 42. Which of the following represents indirect reference by characterization? a. Identity: Michelle bought a computer. It was on sale. b. Probable parts: Erick bought a used snowboard. The bindings are broken. c. Optional roles: I taught a class yesterday. The chalk tray was empty. d. Causes: Thuy answered a question in class. The professor had called upon her.

Page: 355 Type: applied Answer: c 43. Which of the following represents direct reference? a. Identity: Michelle bought a computer. It was on sale. b. Probable parts: Erick bought a used snowboard. The bindings are broken. c. Optional roles: I taught a class yesterday. The chalk tray was empty. d. Causes: Gweneth answered a question in class. The professor had called upon her.

Page: 355 Type: applied Answer: c 44. Which provides evidence for structure building? a. immediacy b. shifting c. advantage of first mention d. suppression Page: 356 Type: conceptual Answer: c 45. Which provides evidence for structure building? a. bridging b. mapping c. advantage of clause recency d. suppression Page: 356 Type: conceptual Answer: c

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46. “Advantage of first mention” is __________. a. characters and ideas that were mentioned in the very first sentence, at the beginning of the entire episode; they retain a special significance b. the process of comprehension in Gernsbacher’s theory, of building a mental representation of the meaning of sentences c. the linguistic process of alluding to a concept by using another name (e.g., pronouns or synonym); use of this will require the reader/listener to find the connections to the other concepts in the sentence d. the mental processes of reference, implication, and inference during language comprehension; it is required for the process of constructing a connection between concepts Page: 356 Type: factual Answer: a 47. Gernsbacher’s “advantage clause recency” produces a significant recency advantage __________. a. for 50–60 milliseconds b. for 150 milliseconds c. for 1–2 seconds d. regardless of the test interval Page: 356 Type: factual Answer: b 48. Which is NOT true of sentences with definite and indefinite articles? a. The word “the” is a cue for discourse coherence. b. The word “the” enables us to perform the mapping process more efficiently and accurately. c. Sentences with the word “the” show greater evidence of coherent processing than those with indefinite articles. d. Indefinite articles produce greater brain activation than definite articles.

Page: 356 Type: conceptual Answer: d 49. “In the mind of the speaker” a. enhancement b. inference c. processing fluency d. implication Page: 358 Type: conceptual Answer: d 50. __________ is the intended reference, whereas __________ are the connections drawn by the reader. a. Implication; inferences b. Inference; implications c. A target; cues d. A cue; targets Page: 358 Type: conceptual Answer: a

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51. An intended reference in a sentence or utterance is __________. a. inference b. implication c. reference d. simple reference Page: 358 Type: factual Answer: b 52. Connections between concepts drawn by readers is __________. a. inference b. implication c. reference d. simple reference Page: 358 Type: factual Answer: a 53. Clark’s “bridging inference” includes all but __________. a. reference b. implication/implicature c. indirect reference d. conversational maxims Page: 359 Type: factual Answer: d 54. An inference that draws a connection between stated concepts in a text is called __________. a. elaborative b. maintenance c. semantic d. bridging Page: 359 Type: factual Answer: d 55. An inference that is intended by a speaker or writer is called __________. a. authorized b. explicit c. necessary d. bridging Page: 359 Type: factual Answer: a 56. Research by Zwaan, Stanfield, and Yaxley (2002) has shown that situation model construction of sentences such as The ranger saw the eagle in the sky involves __________. a. propositional coding b. semantic case roles c. overt cognition d. embodied semantics Page: 360 Type: conceptual Answer: d

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57. What is a speech act? a. any kind of explicit speech b. pretending to speak, but not really doing it c. the intended consequence of what is said d. early language attempts by infants Page: 360 Type: factual Answer: c 58. If a person signals that he wants you to help him by saying “Boy, these bags are heavy,” the intention to get you to help is called a(n) __________. a. request b. speech act c. articulatory action d. goal Page: 360 Type: applied Answer: b 59. Situation models likely involve __________ qualities. a. numinous b. perceptual c. authoritative d. dualist Page: 361 Type: conceptual Answer: b 60. People are more likely to make _____________ inferences than _____________ inferences. a. explicit; implicit b. implicit; explicit c. forward; backward d. backward; forward Page: 361 Type: factual Answer: d 61. Which of the following is NOT an event dimension in Zwaan’s event indexing model? a. serial position b. causality c. space d. intentionality Page: 362 Type: conceptual Answer: a 62. One factor that can influence language comprehension ability of a person is __________. a. utterance speed b. regional accent c. genetics d. working memory capacity Page: 362 Type: factual Answer: d

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63. Neurologically, the right hemisphere is more involved in _____________, whereas the left hemisphere is more involved in _____________. a. generating remote associations; deriving specific word meanings b. deriving specific word meanings; generating remote associations c. implication; inference making d. inference making; implication Page: 362 Type: factual Answer: a 64. What is it called when a person alters his or her situation model to account for new information? a. updating b. modification c. inferencing d. accommodating Page: 362 Type: factual Answer: a 65. In the work by Morrow, Greenspan, and Bower (1987) people first memorized a map of a building. Then, when they read stories, they were probed for objects in that building. What they found was that the further a story protagonist was from other objects, __________. a. the faster the response times b. the slower the response times c. the more accurate the responses d. the less accurate the responses Page: 362 Type: factual Answer: b 66. Work in cognitive science has shown that research and findings from language comprehension can be extended to understanding how people process __________. a. word lists b. snapshots c. nonsense syllables d. films Page: 364 Type: factual Answer: d 67. If people memorize a map, and then traverse in a virtual environment, rather than read a text, the availability of knowledge about objects in the environment __________. a. is the same as it would be for people who read b. is worse than for people who read c. shows a different pattern compared to people who read d. is better than it would be for people read Page: 365 Type: factual Answer: c

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68. Work in cognitive science has shown that research and findings from language comprehension can be extended to understanding how people process __________. a. word lists b. snapshots c. nonsense syllables d. virtual environments Page: 365 Type: factual Answer: d 69. Which is NOT related to the structure of conversations? a. turn taking b. social roles c. availability d. setting Page: 367 Type: conceptual Answer: c 70. “Turn yielding” cues include all but __________. a. a long pause at the end of a statement b. directed communication to another participant c. a drop in pitch or loudness d. breaking eye contact Page: 367 Type: conceptual Answer: d 71. Which is NOT one of the four conversational maxims identified by Grice (1975)? a. quantity b. quality c. manner and tone d. recipient awareness Page: 368 Type: factual Answer: d 72. The broad term for the rules that govern our conversational interactions is __________. a. conversational laws b. conversational principles c. conversational expectations d. conversational maxims Page: 368 Type: factual Answer: d

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73. The idea that each person in a conversation implicitly assumes that all speakers are following the rules and that each contribution to the conversation is a sincere, appropriate contribution—the most basic conversational postulate, stating that participants cooperate by sharing information in an honest fashion—is __________. a. the “Cooperative” principle b. the “Quality” principle c. the “Belief” principle d. the “Manner” principle Page: 368 Type: factual Answer: a 74. The following interaction most likely reflects which conversational problem?

BOB: “I bought a new laptop yesterday.”

JOHN: “I bought a new shirt yesterday.” a. violation of topic maintenance b. violation of quality c. violation of quantity d. failure to express a rule violation Page: 368 Type: applied Answer: a 75. In Keysar’s investigations of conversations, __________. a. kids, but not adults, show egocentric utterances (expecting others to know what we know and failing to take the others’ knowledge into perspective) b. adults initially planned utterances are egocentric (ambiguous or difficult for the listener to comprehend) c. adults effectively “repair” almost all egocentricities in their initial utterance d. our speech is almost entirely driven by our direct and second-order theories Page: 368 Type: factual Answer: b 76. Rather than deliberate manipulations based on direct and second-order theories, conversational utterances are largely based on __________. a. conventional analysis b. egocentric perspectives c. availability bias d. cognitive resource maintenance Page: 368 Type: factual Answer: b 77. In conversation, your beliefs about what your conversational partner knows about you and your interests— what they think you are like—reflect __________. a. primary theory b. direct theory c. derivative theory d. second-order theory Page: 370 Type: conceptual Answer: d

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78. In conversation, your beliefs about your conversational partners’ knowledge and interests reflect __________. a. primary theory b. direct theory c. derivative theory d. second-order theory Page: 370 Type: conceptual Answer: b 79. If, prior to a guest speaker coming in, your boss noted “the water glasses are empty,” which would be true? a. The statement would be processed more slowly than it would had it been made by a coworker. b. The statement would be processed more quickly than it would had it been made by a coworker. c. The statement would be processed at the same rate than it would had it been made by a coworker. d. The statement would violate the quantity and clarity metric.

Page: 370 Type: applied Answer: b 80. Which one of the following does the following exchange illustrate?

Question: “Do you accept credit cards?”

Answer: “Even debit and Carte Blanche.” a. indirect request b. unauthorized implication c. manner and tone violation d. second-order theory Page: 371 Type: applied Answer: a 81. Work on gesture and language production and comprehension suggests that gestures __________. a. have a strictly social function b. have a strictly linguistic function c. have both social and linguistic functions d. can impede the ability to solve problems Page: 374 Type: factual Answer: c

True/False Questions: 82. Pragmatics in language comprehension do not take into account real-world knowledge. FALSE (p. 339) 83. Judgments of learning can be thought of as metacomprehension measures. TRUE (p. 341) 84. Situation models capture the propositions conveyed by a text. FALSE (p. 345) 85. After you have completed your reading of a sentence, word-for-word recall is very poor. TRUE (p. 345) 86. Just & Carpenter examined fixation durations to investigate comprehension time at the level of ideas and propositions. TRUE (p. 347) 87. The Just & Carpenter model of reading (1980) uses working memory as the location of knowledge integration. TRUE (p. 347) 88. During ordinary reading, almost all content words are fixated. TRUE (p. 350) 89. There is no evidence that contradicts the immediacy and eye–mind assumptions in eye-tracking research.

FALSE (p. 353) 90. References have to occur within the same sentence. FALSE (p. 354) 91. Every theory of comprehension must include reference and inference processing. TRUE (p. 354) 92. When reading a text, people always read a person’s name faster the second time they encounter it. FALSE (p. 356)

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93. The advantage of first mention supports Gernsbacher’s structure-building framework. TRUE (p. 356) 94. The advantage of clause recency is limited to highly constrained languages such as English (versus, for example, more flexible languages such as Latin or Spanish). FALSE (p. 356) 95. fMRI studies show greater RIGHT hemisphere activation for sentences with definite articles than sentences with indefinite articles. TRUE (p. 357) 96. A speech act is the act of producing a spoken speech signal. FALSE (p. 360) 97. Skilled readers often skip content words. FALSE (p. 361) 98. Less skilled readers resolve pronouns as well as more skilled readers, but only when they are integrating meanings together. TRUE (p. 362) 99. Suppression ability is predictive of being a good versus poor reader. TRUE (p. 362) 100. Poor readers are less adept at suppressing irrelevant information. TRUE (p. 362) 101. The greater your working memory capacity is, the greater the likelihood of successful bridging. TRUE (p.

362) 102. Phonological information is activated during silent reading. TRUE (p. 387) 103. Sarcastic statements generally violate conversational maxims. TRUE (p. 368) 104. Our speech is almost entirely driven by our direct and second-order theories. FALSE (p. 370) 105. Gestures do not aid in language production. FALSE (p. 374)

Fill in the Blank/Short Answer Questions: 106. What is the name of the study of extralinguistic factors that influences language processing?

(PRAGMATICS) 107. What is the name of the effect that shows that people typically start by studying information that is way too hard for them? (LABOR IN VAIN EFFECT) 108. What are three online measures of language comprehension? (READING TIME, NAMING TIME, LEXICAL DECISION, VERBAL PROTOCOLS, ERP RECORDINGS FMRI RECORDINGS) 109. What are the two fundamental assumptions of using eye movement data to analyze language processing?

(THE IMMEDIACY AND EYE–MIND ASSUMPTIONS) 110. The assumption in eye movement research that readers try to interpret each content word of a text as that word is encountered in the passage is the ________________________. (IMMEDIACY ASSUMPTION) 111. The connections between concepts in an utterance are called ____________, and the intended reference of an utterance is called ____________. (INFERENCE; IMPLICATION) 112. What are the five dimensions of Zwaan’s event indexing model? (SPACE, TIME, ENTITIES, INTENTIONALITY [GOALS], CAUSALITY) 113. What is the name of the effect that results when people inappropriately get a proper name as an anaphoric reference? (REPEATED NAME PENALTY) 114. What are two of the Gricean maxims of conversation? (COOPERATIVITY PRINCIPLE, RELEVANCE, QUANTITY, QUALITY, MANNER AND TONE)

Essay Questions: 115. What is the role of pragmatics in sentence comprehension?

116. Knowing what you know about metacomprehension, what would you recommend people do when they are studying? Be sure to identify the relevant metacomprehension principles by name.

117. What are three levels of representation in language comprehension, and which of these best corresponds to our everyday understanding of “understanding”?

118. In what ways can eye tracking data be described as a “window into the mind”?

119. Define unauthorized inference, and then write out a short dialog that illustrates an unauthorized inference.

Describe which component of the dialog produces the unauthorized influence.

120. Describe two pieces of research that support the general idea of drawing inferences as a stage of online comprehension.

121. How does embodied cognition influence language processing?

122. How can language comprehension research be extended to our understanding of other aspects of the world?

123. Describe the role of working memory in reading.

124. How can priming research be used to learn about conversational interaction?

125. What is the difference between a direct and a second-order theory?

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Chapter 11: Decisions, Judgments, and Reasoning

Multiple Choice Questions: 1.

A syllogism is __________. a. a logical truth b. only applicable to abstract problems c. a three-statement logical form d. an ancient, but flawed system Page: 378 Type: factual Answer: c 2.

A three-statement logical form is called __________. a. incomplete b. modus ponens c. valid d. a syllogism Page: 378 Type: factual Answer: d 3.

What is a belief bias in reasoning? a. mistakes in reasoning based on beliefs about how reasoning works b. misplaced belief in logical forms c. drawing conclusions based on one’s prior beliefs d. failure to see the reasons behind other people’s beliefs Page: 379 Type: factual Answer: c 4.

Consider this problem. What does it represent?

No A are B. No B are C. Thus, no A are C. a. logically valid syllogism b. invalid syllogism c. confirm the antecedent d. illicit conversion Page: 380 Type: applied Answer: b 5.

Which is TRUE? a.

In general, research evidence indicates that people tend to act as logically rational decision makers. b.

Denying the consequent leads to a valid inference. c.

Affirming the antecedent does not lead to a valid inference. d.

In conditional reasoning, an illicit conversion is best described as a network error.

Page: 382 Type: factual Answer: b

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6.

Consider this problem. What does it represent?

Premise 1: If it is a weekend, Mark is sailing.

Premise 2: Mark is sailing.

Conclusion: It is a weekend. a. syllogistic reasoning b. affirm the antecedent c. illicit conversion d. deny the antecedent Page: 383 Type: applied Answer: c 7.

Which does NOT reflect valid conditional reasoning? a. deny the antecedent b. modus tollens c. modus ponens d. deny the consequent Page: 383 Type: conceptual Answer: a

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8.

Form errors in reasoning occur because __________. a. logical reasoning forms don’t take into account the real world b. people don’t use proper logic notation c. euler circles have been shown to be false d. people use invalid logical forms, such as affirming the consequent Page: 383 Type: conceptual Answer: d 9.

Which is the most likely error in scientific hypothesis testing? a. confirmation bias b. modus ponens c. modus tollens d. anchoring and adjustment heuristic Page: 384 Type: conceptual Answer: a 10. Consider this problem. What does it represent?

If it is a weekend, Mark is sailing.

Mark is sailing.

Thus, it is a weekend. a. valid syllogistic reasoning problem b. invalid syllogistic reasoning problem c. valid conditional reasoning problem d. invalid conditional reasoning problem Page: 384 Type: applied Answer: c 11. Consider this problem. What does it represent?

Premise 1: If Mark drew it, it is a duck.

Premise 2: Mark drew it.

Conclusion: It is a duck. a. conditional reasoning b. affirm the antecedent c. valid inference d. all of the above Page: 384 Type: applied Answer: d 12. In reasoning, the tendency to search for evidence that confirms a conclusion is called __________. a. confirmation bias b. insight c. counterfactual reasoning d. availability heuristic Page: 384 Type: factual Answer: a

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13. In reasoning, the tendency to search for evidence that confirms a conclusion is __________. a. confirmation bias b. the search for positive evidence c. a major source of human error in decision making d. all of the above Page: 384 Type: conceptual Answer: d 14. Which of the following is a search error? a. confirmation bias b. deny the antecedent c. affirm the consequent d. misattribution Page: 384 Type: conceptual Answer: a 15. The search for positive evidence only is labeled the __________. a. confirmation bias b.

Pollyanna effect c. overconfidence error d. anti-negativity tendency Page: 384 Type: factual Answer: a 16. Johnston-Laird reports that people’s performance on the Wason card task can be greatly improved by __________. a. using Venn diagrams b. seeking disconfirmation c. making the situation concrete d. casting a more appropriate frame via headers Page: 385 Type: factual Answer: c 17. Johnson-Laird argued that __________. a.

Humans cannot use formal logic b.

Humans use mental models of the described state of affairs c.

Human decision making is intrinsically connected to language skills d.

Human decision making relies on explicit hypothesis testing Page: 387 Type: factual Answer: b 18. __________ is(are) defined as “mental representations of meanings of the terms in reasoning problems.” a. Formal logic b. Venn diagrams c. Mental models d. Semantic networks Page: 387 Type: factual Answer: c

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19. Which is NOT true? a. If a conclusion matches the first mental model derived from the problem, it is particularly easy (and thus likely) to accept the (potentially false) conclusion, leading to fallacies or errors in reasoning. b. In statistics, we test against the null hypothesis in hopes that our evidence will be inconsistent with the predicted “no effect” outcome. c. When hypothesis testing with increasingly complex if–then relations, the typical mistake is to search for positive, confirming evidence. d. The strongest logical test of a scientific theory is to see if the hypothesized effects are produced in accordance with the theoretical predictions.

Page: 387 Type: factual Answer: d 20. __________ is the study of the relationship between physical stimuli and the perceived characteristics of those stimuli: the study of how perceptual experience differs from the physical stimulation being perceived. a. Simulation heurisitc b. Naïve physics c. JND d. Psychophysics Page: 388 Type: factual Answer: d 21. The amount of change required for people to detect the change is __________. a. JND b. Weber’s constant c. Helmholtz’s equation d. Fechner’s phallia Page: 389 Type: factual Answer: a 22. Decisions about size differences are sped up when the stimuli differ by a greater amount. This reflects __________. a. JND b. distance effect c. discriminability index d. spatial cueing Page: 389 Type: conceptual Answer: b 23. Making judgments about which is smaller—a “1” or a “2” versus a “1” or a “4”—will illustrate __________. a. the symbolic congruity effect b. the Stroop effect c. the imagery effect d. the symbolic distance effect Page: 389 Type: conceptual Answer: d

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24. Which is NOT true of judgments of number magnitude? a. The larger the difference between the digits, the faster the judgments are made. b. Just as in psychophysics, the psychological difference is a direct function of physical difference. c. Judgment time is affected by semantic congruity. d. When people make mental comparisons and judgments of purely symbolic quantities, there is a pronounced semantic distance effect.

Page: 389 Type: conceptual Answer: b 25. Using this picture and asking “Which {balloon // yo-yo} is higher” (the example from the text) will illustrate __________.

a. b. c.

the symbolic distance effect the semantic congruity effect the fact that decisions about size differences are sped up when the stimuli differ by a greater amount the magnitude effect

d.

Page: 390 Type: applied Answer: b

26. RT is longer for the comparison “a whale is a fish” than for “a whale is a bird.” This reflects __________. a. the semantic congruity effect b. the Stroop effect c. the imagery effect d. the symbolic distance effect Page: 391 Type: applied Answer: a 27. Consider this pair of judgments about which is smaller: “Which is smaller, a sheep or a bear?” and “Which is smaller, a mouse or a rat?” The faster response to the second question illustrates __________. a. the semantic congruity effect b. the imagery effect c. the number magnitude effect d. the symbolic distance effect Page: 391 Type: applied Answer: a 28. Make a judgment about which is rounder: an apple or a pear versus a toothpick or an oar. The difference between these judgments will illustrate __________. a. the semantic congruity effect b. the von Restorff effect c. the imagery effect d. the recency effect Page: 391 Type: conceptual Answer: a

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29. Asking a subject to judge which set of clock hands produces a larger angle—“3:20 or 7:25” and then “2:15 or 9:20”—produces all but __________. a. symbolic distance effect b. evidence for the use of visual imagery c. the semantic congruity effect d. slower response times for “3:20 vs. 7:25” than for “2:15 vs. 9:20” Page: 391 Type: applied Answer: c 30. In the __________, knowledge from a variety of sources is factored into a decision (e.g., Chicago judged north of Rome based on “Northern North America” vs. “Southern Europe”). a. symbolic distance effect b. semantic imagery effect c. semantic congruity effect d. plausible reasoning hypothesis Page: 395 Type: conceptual Answer: d 31. An algorithm is __________. a. a specific rule or solution procedure that is certain to yield the correct answer if followed correctly b. an informal “rule of thumb” method for solving problems, not necessarily guaranteed to solve the problem correctly, but usually much faster or more tractable than other alternatives c. the act of someone who reasons; to think logically; to analyze with reason d. the mental representation of meaning in a reasoning problem Page: 397 Type: factual Answer: a 32. A heuristic is __________. a. a specific rule or solution procedure that is certain to yield the correct answer if followed correctly b. an informal “rule of thumb” method for solving problems, not necessarily guaranteed to solve the problem correctly, but usually much faster or more tractable than other alternatives c. the act of someone who reasons; to think logically; to analyze with reason d. the mental representation of meaning in a reasoning problem Page: 398 Type: factual Answer: b 33. A heuristic is to __________ as an algorithm is to __________. a. correct; incorrect b. incorrect; correct c. likelihood; certainty d. certainty; likelihood Page: 398 Type: conceptual Answer: c

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34. Consider the following problem and then choose which of the statements below is NOT true.

If each of 10 people at a meeting shakes hands (once) with every other person, how many handshakes are exchanged? a. The descriptive model might be “Ten people shaking hands with nine folks each… a couple fewer because you want to avoid repetitions . . . say something like maybe sixty to seventy?” b. The normative method will yield the “correct” answer: in this case, N x ((N-1)/2). c. A heuristic approach is not necessarily systematic or orderly, instead relying on educated guessing. d. The algorithmic approach will differ substantially from the normative model of what is “right”; that is, it is particularly prone to distortions, inaccuracies, and omissions.

Page: 398 Type: conceptual Answer: b 35. A reasoning heuristic in which we judge the likelihood of some event by deciding how much that event seems to be like the larger group or population from which it was drawn is a(n) __________. a. association heuristic b. availability heuristic c. normative heuristic d. representativeness heuristic Page: 400 Type: factual Answer: d 36. The representativeness heuristic is a bias to make decisions based on __________. a. how closely one outcome resembles the population of possible outcomes b. whether an option is represented in the set of possible outcomes c. how well one can represent the choice to other people d. the degree to which a choice represents a correct answer Page: 400 Type: factual Answer: a 37. There are two hospitals; one averages 45 births per day, the other 15 births per day. You are asked, “In any given year, which hospital will have a higher percentage of days during which more than 60 percent of the babies born will be male?” The correct answer is __________. a. the “45” hospital b. the “15” hospital c. that there is an equal chance of either d. that there is insufficient information provided (thus, we cannot answer the question) Page: 402 Type: applied Answer: b 38. The bias or heuristic that includes the law of small numbers is __________. a. veracity bias b. availability heuristic c. representativeness heuristic d. confirmation bias Page: 402 Type: factual Answer: c

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39. The belief that small samples will be representative of the population from which they are selected is __________. a. the law of large numbers b. the central limit theorem c. the fallacy law of small numbers d. called sensitivity to sample size Page: 402 Type: factual Answer: c 40. Kahneman & Tversky (1973) report having people read various personality descriptions and then estimate the likelihood or probability that a person was a member of one or another profession. To a surprising degree, people’s estimates are influenced by the similarity of the description to a widely held stereotype.

This reflects __________. a. the availability heuristic b. general world knowledge c. the vividness effect d. the representativeness heuristic Page: 403 Type: conceptual Answer: d 41. Stereotypes are a reflection, in part, of the __________ heuristic. a. availability b. representativeness c. belief bias d. prejudice Page: 403 Type: conceptual Answer: b 42. Kahneman & Tversky (1973) report having people read various personality descriptions and then estimate the likelihood or probability that a person was a member of one or another profession. They report __________. a. good use of prior odds in the “bare bones” situation b. that stereotypic information biased the reported likelihood in the direction of the stereotype c. that worthless information did not bias the reported likelihood; prior probabilities were retained unless the information was consistent with a stereotype d. that the descriptive model deviated strongly from the normative model Page: 403 Type: conceptual Answer: c 43. Which of the following represented a “belief” effect? a. Clinical psychologists deviate from the DSM-IV based on their personal views of cause–effect relations. b. Israeli students tend to judge simultaneous events in history from Europe as occurring before the matched event in North America. c. the confirmation bias d. all of the above Page: 404 Type: conceptual Answer: d

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44. Making a decision based on ease of retrieval of relevant examples from memory (e.g., the “words with K in the first/third position” example) is __________. This is an informal approach that can be extremely useful in many situations, but it sometimes produces the wrong answer. a. representativeness heuristic b. Bayes’ theorem c. availability heuristic d. all of the above Page: 405 Type: factual Answer: c 45. __________ is a decision-making strategy based on the ease of retrieval from memory. a. Representativeness heuristic b. Retrieval effect c. Availability heuristic d. Algorithm Page: 405 Type: factual Answer: c 46. If you make a decision about what most households in the country are like by thinking about what your college friends are like, you are succumbing to the __________ heuristic. a. representativeness b. retrieval c. availability d. belief bias Page: 405 Type: factual Answer: c 47. The anchoring and adjustment effect most likely reflects the __________. a. representativeness heuristic b. scope ratio c. availability heuristic d. simulation heuristic Page: 405 Type: conceptual Answer: c 48. Judging events as more frequent or important just because they are more familiar in memory illustrates __________. a. familiarity bias b. salience bias c. vividness bias d. the effect of general world knowledge Page: 406 Type: factual Answer: a

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49. In the three months following the 9/11 attack on the World Trade Center buildings in New York City, the rate of traffic fatalities increased by about 350 people. This increase was most likely due to the operation of __________. a. the effect of sample size b. the familiarity bias c. the salience bias d. the representativeness heuristic Page: 406 Type: applied Answer: c 50. When we alter an unusual story element, substituting a more typical or normal element in its place, we refer to this as reflecting __________. a. the simulation heuristic b. downhill change c. uphill change d. the familiarity bias Page: 407 Type: factual Answer: b 51. In terms of undoing, which is most involved? a. tending to maintain properties of the main object or focus of the story unless a different focus is provided b. satisficing c. the law of small numbers d. counterfactual thinking driven by availability and frequency effects Page: 407 Type: conceptual Answer: a 52. The simulation heuristic involves __________. a. running a computer simulation of human cognitive decision making b. imagining the outcome of your own actions c. making a model of the event to help your decision making d. imaging other possible outcomes of an event Page: 407 Type: conceptual Answer: d 53. When doing counterfactual thinking, what kind of change is the easiest to imagine and then base decisions upon? a. uphill b. downhill c. transverse d. inverted Page: 409 Type: factual Answer: b

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54. Two groups of participants read identical stories that differed in their endings: meeting a new person and having the story end in a marriage proposal, a rape scenario, or, as a control, a neutral ending (Carli, 1999).

People __________. a. showed no difference in the accuracy of their recall for story elements b. in both experimental groups reported “being able to predict” how the story would end c. in both experimental groups illustrated undoing effects d. showed evidence for semantic congruency effects in recall Page: 411 Type: conceptual Answer: b 55. The argument that there is a central flaw in heuristics and bias research—that it is a mistake to assume that the correct answer to any decision-making problem must be the normative answer supplied by classic probability theory—is __________. a. counterfactual thinking b. inductive rationalization c. adaptive thinking d. recognition heuristic Page: 412 Type: conceptual Answer: d 56. A German sample was better at (correctly) identifying that San Diego was more populous than San Antonio than a U.S. sample. This result is best described as reflecting __________. a. the chronic underfunding of the U.S. educational system b. the recognition heuristic c. the frequency heuristic d. the simulation heuristic Page: 413 Type: applied Answer: b 57. The mistaken belief that a compound outcome of two characteristics can be more likely than either one of the characteristics by itself is __________. a. the conjunction fallacy b. the compound bias c. the law of small numbers error d. satisficing Page: 413 Type: factual Answer: d 58. Recent research suggests that what sort of reasoning might be influencing how people make decisions? a. political b. religious c. temporal d. causal Page: 416 Type: factual Answer: d

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59. Sometimes people make decision-making errors because of limited __________. a. heuristics b. domain knowledge c. algorithms d. imagination Page: 418 Type: factual Answer: b 60. __________ is(are) defined as people’s misconceptions of the physical world, in particular their understanding of the principles of motion. a. Simulation heuristic b. Mental models c. Naïve physics d. Self-conceptualization of beliefs Page: 419 Type: factual Answer: c 61. Naïve physics refers to __________. a. errors in physical reasoning b. early learning of physical principles c. counterfactual reasoning d. our implicit understanding of the physical world Page: 419 Type: factual Answer: d 62. The “roadrunner effect” (dropping off a cliff) reflects __________. a. naïve physics b. ambiguity c. counterfactual reasoning d. downhill change Page: 421 Type: conceptual Answer: a 63. The difference in “guestimate” answers for 8x7x6x5x4x3x2x1 versus 1x2x3x4x5x6x7x8 reveals __________. a. the prototypicality heuristic b. the simulation heuristic c. the availability heuristic d. the recognition heuristic Page: 423 Type: conceptual Answer: a

True/False Questions: 64. In general, research evidence indicates that people act as rational decision makers. FALSE (p. 378) 65. Denying the consequent leads to a valid inference. TRUE (p. 382) 66. Affirming the antecedent does not lead to a valid inference. FALSE (p. 382) 67. In conditional reasoning, an illicit conversion is a form error. TRUE (p. 385) 68. In conditional reasoning, the confirmation bias is a search error. TRUE (p. 385) 69. Using concrete rather than abstract concepts tends to improve reasoning accuracy. TRUE (p. 385)

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70. Adults often will not demonstrate formal or abstract reasoning processes when presented with abstract problems. TRUE (p. 385) 71. Mental models exist only for concrete systems. FALSE (p. 387) 72. If a conclusion matches the first mental model derived from the problem, it is particularly easy (and thus likely) to accept the (potentially false) conclusion, leading to fallacies or errors in reasoning. TRUE (p.

387) 73. In statistics, we test against the null hypothesis in hopes that our evidence will be inconsistent with the predicted “no effect” outcome. TRUE (p. 387) 74. When hypothesis testing with increasingly complex if–then relations, the typical mistake is to search for positive, confirming evidence. TRUE (p. 388) 75. The strongest logical test of a scientific theory is to see if the hypothesized effects are produced in accordance with the theoretical predictions. FALSE (p. 388) 76. It is incorrect to think of human decision making as a search for evidence. FALSE (p. 388) 77. The subjective experience of magnitude is a direct function of the amount of physical stimulation. FALSE (p. 389) 78. Geography questions can show semantic congruity and symbolic distance effects. TRUE (p. 389) 79. In judgments of “bigness,” “8 vs. 12” will be judged more quickly than “8 vs. 9.” TRUE (p. 389) 80. The psychological distance between small numbers is compressed relative to the psychological difference between large numbers. FALSE (p. 389) 81. When using numbers as stimuli, comparison judgments can reveal both semantic congruity and symbolic distance effects. TRUE (p. 391) 82. The SNARC effect refers to decisions about numbers. TRUE (p. 393) 83. Limits on our knowledge of the domain often lead us to rely on heuristics. TRUE (p. 398) 84. When tossing a coin, the order HHHHTTT is just as likely as HTHTHTH. TRUE (p. 400) 85. Recent work on “fast and frugal” heuristic, in particular the recognition heuristic and the “take the best” heuristic, reveal that simple one-reason decision-making heuristics often do a very good job. TRUE (p.

414) 86. Frontal lobe regions are particularly important for reasoning. TRUE (p. 424) 87. The thalamus is particularly important for reasoning. FALSE (p. 424)

Fill in the Blank/Short Answer: 88. When might you use a Euler circle diagram? What would be particularly important to keep in mind? (Use an example.)

89. Provide an example of (and then define) an illicit conversion. Use (and define) any relevant technical terms that would be appropriate.

90. The result, in a symbolic comparison task, in which two relatively different stimuli (e.g., 1 vs. 8) are judged more rapidly that two relatively similar stimuli (e.g., 1 vs. 2). This effect is called ________. SYMBOLIC DISTANCE EFFECT 91. What is the SNARC effect?

92. What is the difference between an algorithm and a heuristic?

93. The reasoning heuristic in which we predict a future event or imagine a different outcome to completed events is called the ________________________ heuristic. SIMULATION 94. Consider which card or cards you would turn over to obtain conclusive evidence about the following rule: A CARD WITH A VOWEL ON IT WILL HAVE AN EVEN NUMBER ON THE OTHER SIDE. Note: Each card has a number on one side and a letter on the other. Circle the relevant letters/numbers.

(ANSWER: E, 3, I, 9)

E

3

2

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P

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9

Essay Questions: 95. For the purposes of this course, why do we care about mental models? As a product designer, how might discovering knowledge about users’ mental models help me?

96. Define (and use examples to illustrate) the semantic distance effect and the semantic congruity effect.

97. In using the simulation heuristic to “undo” an event that has already happened, what kind of change is most and least likely to be suggested by the person imagining a different outcome?

98. Describe how the owners of a used car lot might try to use some of the heuristics discussed in this chapter to their advantage.

99. Pick one example of a fast and frugal heuristic, define it, and explain why people might use it most of the time.

100. Why might we care about naïve physics?

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Chapter 12: Problem Solving

Multiple Choice Questions: 1.

In studies of problem solving, a word-for-word transcription of what the participant said aloud during the problem-solving attempt is __________. a. Gestalt b. functional analysis c. introspection d. a verbal protocol Page: 430 Type: factual Answer: d 2.

In studies of problem solving, a verbal protocol involves __________. a. detailed notes taken by an experimenter during problem solving b. providing exceptionally detailed verbal instructions to people prior to problem solving c. a transcription of people’s verbalizations as they solve problems d. a structured verbal guide for people as they solve problems Page: 430 Type: factual Answer: c 3.

Gestalt is __________. a. a form b. a function c. production d. implicit Page: 430 Type: factual Answer: a 4.

A German term adopted into psychological terminology referring to an entire pattern, form, or configuration is __________. a. Eichler b. Eichenbaum c. Gestalt d. Diatrics Page: 430 Type: factual Answer: c 5.

Which does NOT illustrate Gestalt psychological principles? a. Kohler’s work with insight learning in apes b. Maier’s “two-string problem” c. good continuation d. means–end analysis Page: 431 Type: conceptual Answer: d

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The example from the text, “A room full of Ph.D.s and nobody can open a book” (using a partially open textbook to adjust height of projection from a slide projector with a broken base), illustrates __________. a. functional fixedness b. conditional reasoning c. syllogistic reasoning d. means–end analysis Page: 431 Type: conceptual Answer: a 6.

7.

In problem solving, an inability to think of or consider anything but the customary uses for objects and tools is referred to as __________. a. functional fixedness b. conditional reasoning c. causal analysis d. negative set Page: 431 Type: factual Answer: a 8.

Wasting a lot of time opening junk mail, even when the envelope is obviously not a real bill, might reflect __________. a. functional fixedness b. implicit set c. syllogistic reasoning d. means–end analysis Page: 431 Type: applied Answer: a 9.

The water jug experiment (Luchins, 1942) illustrates __________. a. preservative fixation b. Gestalt influences c. negative set d. insight through analogy Page: 433 Type: factual Answer: c 10. Which is TRUE of Gestalt psychology? a. It led researchers to think about how a person perceives the whole of a problem. b. The “whole” perspective makes it easier to accept their research at face value. c. The effectiveness of the reductionist approach inherent in Gestalt problem-solving research could not be relied upon to produce valuable insights. d. The definition of “goal” as the desired endpoint or solution of the problem-solving activity is problematic.

Page: 433 Type: factual Answer: a

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11. The apparently sudden arrival at a solution to a problem, without the normal feeling of getting warmer, is __________. a. algorithmic solutions b. analogical reasoning c. insight d. clarification of the goal state Page: 436 Type: factual Answer: c 12. In problem solving, insight is __________. a. a sudden understanding of the solution to a problem b. a person arrives at any kind of a solution to a problem c. the cognitive skills acquired by practicing problem solving d. when one can introspect on the steps one takes to solve a problem Page: 436 Type: factual Answer: a 13. Insight problem solving is associated with __________. a. deep thought b. careful, step by step thinking c. the “Aha!” experience d. the Luchin’s effect Page: 436 Type: conceptual Answer: c 14. Metcalfe & Weibe (1986, 1987) studied how people solve problems. Their most important finding was __________. a. implicit memory can be spared despite poor explicit memory b. people have good insight into their ability to solve routine, but not insight, problems c. people have good insight into their ability to solve insight problems d. people are good at solving insight problems, unless reasoning by analogy is required Page: 436 Type: factual Answer: b 15. For insight problems, the feeling of getting “warmer” as one closes in on the solution __________. a. is a strong indicator b. is largely absent c. reveals itself in the verbal protocols d. is experienced in moderation Page: 436 Type: factual Answer: b 16. Neuropsychological research supports each of the following claims EXCEPT __________. a. left frontal involvement in solving problems by analogy b. left parietal involvement in solving problems by analogy c. right hemisphere involvement in solving insight problems involving semantic memory d. a hypothalamic pathway used for solving insight problems involving semantic memory Page: 438 Type: factual Answer: d

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17. What is it called if people can solve a problem after not thinking about it? a. insight b. analogy c. Einstellung d. incubation Page: 438 Type: factual Answer: d 18. In problem solving, what is incubation? a. the feeling of getting warmer as people approach a solution b. when people come to be able to solve a problem after not thinking about it for a while c. when people take the advice of others to solve a problem d. when people are provided with a hint to how to solve a problem Page: 438 Type: factual Answer: b 19. According to neuropsychological research, insight problem solving is more likely to occur when there is increased cortical activity __________. a. unilaterally b. in both hemispheres c. in the frontal lobes d. in the striatum Page: 438 Type: conceptual Answer: c 20. Incubation in problem solving is __________. a. a myth b. counterproductive c. useful only with mathematical problems d. a period during which the problem is not consciously being worked on Page: 438 Type: factual Answer: d 21. Neuropsychological research shows that during insight problem solving, __________. a. people need to be released from frontal lobe suppression b. the frontal lobes need to suppress irrelevant thoughts c. cortical activation is nearly shut down d. cortical activation is at its highest Page: 438 Type: factual Answer: a 22. __________ is setting a problem aside for a period of time to help solve it. a. Incubation b. Negative set c. Functional fixedness d. Problem space Page: 438 Type: factual Answer: a

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23. A complex kind of problem solving in which relationships in one situation are mapped onto another to solve a problem is __________. a. production system b. mental model c. insight problem d. analogy Page: 439 Type: factual Answer: d 24. Which of the following is NOT a constraint of multiconstraint theory (Holyoak & Thagard, 1997)? a. the similarity of the source and target domains b. parallelism of the structure of the problems c. the similarity of the purpose or goal of the problems d. our procedural operators required to institute the solutions Page: 442 Type: conceptual Answer: d 25. Problem solving by assessing the relationship between two similar situations or problems involves __________. a. insight b. analogy c. Einstellung d. mental set Page: 439 Type: factual Answer: b 26. Analogy is used in problem solving __________. a. by comparing the current situation to other similar ones b. in a way that assesses the non-digital components c. to always be successful d. at the outset Page: 439 Type: conceptual Answer: a 27. Many scientific breakthroughs involve __________ problem solving. a. neurological b. analogical c. conceptual d. abstract Page: 439 Type: conceptual Answer: b 28. People typically __________ analogies to solve problems. a. do not spontaneously use b. avoid c. fail when using d. do not see the point of using Page: 440 Type: conceptual Answer: a

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29. When using analogy to solve problems, the current problem is called the __________domain. a. source b. problem c. solution d. target Page: 442 Type: factual Answer: d 30. When using analogy to solve problems, a similar problem is called the __________domain. a. source b. problem c. solution d. target Page: 443 Type: factual Answer: a 31. What of the following is NOT one of the three factors that guide problem solving according to Holyoak and Thagard’s multiconstraint theory? a. problem similarity b. problem structure c. purpose of an analogy d. problem solution Page: 443 Type: conceptual Answer: d 32. Analogical problem solving can be troubled if people focus on __________. a. only the current problem b. deep relations c. superficial characteristics d. abstract geons Page: 443 Type: factual Answer: c 33. Analogical problem solving depends on finding __________. a. a parallel structure b. an orthogonal structure c. a perpendicular structure d. an oblique Page: 443 Type: factual Answer: a 34. According to the multiconstraint theory of problem solving, analogical problem solving is aided by finding and using __________. a. the stated goals in a problem b. observed stimuli c. first impressions d. an exclusive focus on the problem Page: 443 Type: factual Answer: a

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35. In terms of consciousness, analogical problem solving __________. a. is always conscious b. is always unconscious c. cannot be related d. is sometimes conscious and sometimes unconscious Page: 444 Type: conceptual Answer: d 36. Neurological research on analogical problem solving has found that __________. a. overall brain activity can change b. the hemispheres are differentially involved c. human brains are only beginning to evolve to solve problems d. subcortical structures are the most active Page: 446 Type: factual Answer: b 37. According to Radvansky & Ashcraft, which of the following is NOT one of the central characteristics of problem solving? a. goal directedness b. the problem space c. cognitive operations d. sequence of operations Page: 447 Type: conceptual Answer: b 38. What is the name for the desired endpoint of problem solving? a. goal b. operator c. problem space d. sequence Page: 447 Type: factual Answer: a 39. The initial, intermediate, and goal states in a problem and the problem solver’s knowledge and any external resources that can be used to solve the problem are collectively referred to as __________. a. subgoal decomposition b. the problem space c. sequence of operations d. mental representation Page: 449 Type: factual Answer: b 40. Which is NOT mentioned in the text in the context of the problem space? a. branching b. pruning c. fertilizing d. blocking Page: 449 Type: conceptual Answer: c

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41. Operators are __________. a. one’s knowledge of a specific domain or topic b. the structure of the problem c. our purposes or goals in solving the problem d. a legal move or operation that can occur during the solution of a problem Page: 449 Type: factual Answer: d 42. All of the following occur in problem space EXCEPT __________. a. applying operators b. triad analysis c. conducting a constructive search d. drawing inferences Page: 449 Type: conceptual Answer: b 43. A problem with explicit and complete initial and end states is called __________. a. ill-defined b. still-defined c. well-defined d. all-defined Page: 450 Type: factual Answer: c 44. Well-defined problems have all of the following EXCEPT __________. a. explicit initial state b. explicit end state c. complete specification d. ambiguous operators Page: 450 Type: conceptual Answer: d 45. A problem with vaguely specified states and operators are called __________. a. ill-defined b. still-defined c. well-defined d. all-defined Page: 450 Type: factual Answer: a 46. Well-defined problems have all of the following EXCEPT __________. a. vague states b. clear end points c. ambiguous operators d. open-ended solutions Page: 450 Type: conceptual Answer: b

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47. What does the following represent?

DONALD GERALD ROBERT a. conditional reasoning b. syllogistic reasoning c. cryparithmetic d. the fundamental heuristic Page: 451 Type: factual Answer: c 48. Recursively getting closer and closer from the current state towards the solution state is __________. a. means–end analysis b. general problem solver (GPS) c. anticipating outcomes d. working backwards Page: 454 Type: factual Answer: a 49. Of the problems discussed in the text, which does NOT illustrate means–end analysis? a. hobbits & orcs problem b. missionaries & cannibals problem c. bronze coin problem d. Tower of Hanoi Page: 454 Type: conceptual Answer: c 50. What is means–ends analysis? a. keeping in mind the end goal state and working through the changes that will move you from that state to the current state b. getting to the end of problem by any means necessarily to solve it successfully c. using the end state of the problem as a means of solving it d. repeatedly determining the difference between the current and goal state and finding a way to reduce that difference Page: 454 Type: factual Answer: d 51. Which of the following is most helpful in solving the four-disc Tower of Hanoi problem? a. insight b. satisficing c. means–end analysis d. problem space violation Page: 456 Type: factual Answer: c

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52. The first genuine computer-based model of problem-solving behavior was __________. a. AMD b. GPS c. PDQ d. SOA Page: 458 Type: factual Answer: b 53. What is distinctive about the General Problem Solver (GPS)? a. It was one of the first computer programs made to solve problems. b. It as a complete failure. c. It has not had to be modified at all over the decades. d. It illustrates the catastrophic consequences of arrogance and hubris in some academics.

Page: 458 Type: factual Answer: a 54. Which is NOT true of production statements and/or production system models? a. Productions are either condition–action or if–then relations. b. If a production’s conditions are satisfied, the production action takes place. c. GPS was the first production systems model in psychology. d. Production system models are only used in psychological modeling.

Page: 458 Type: conceptual Answer: d 55. In the General Problem Solver (GPS) program, a production was __________. a. causally independent b. a condition–action pair c. content free d. a rigorous testing method Page: 458 Type: factual Answer: b 56. Which of the following was a limitation of the General Problem Solver (GPS)? a. It was over-dependent on means–end analysis. b. It had trouble with the Tower of Hanoi problem. c. It was implemented on a computer. d. It did not have face validity.

Page: 459 Type: factual Answer: a 57. Which is NOT a suggestion to help improve problem solving? a. Increase domain knowledge. b. Follow a systematic plan. c. Work backwards. d. Avoid inferences.

Page: 460 Type: conceptual Answer: d

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58. Which is NOT true of increasing domain knowledge? a. A person with only limited knowledge of a topic is far less able to solve problems efficiently in that domain. b. Chess masters need only a glimpse of a chess board to remember where all the (legally located) pieces are. c. Extensive domain knowledge leads to the development of expertise. d. Developing inferences will allow us to break a large problem into separate subgoals.

Page: 460 Type: conceptual Answer: d 59. In problem solving, what is domain knowledge? a. what a person knows about the topic of a problem b. how broad a person’s knowledge is in general c. knowledge that is only applicable to one specific domain, and can never be used for any others d. copyrighted material Page: 460 Type: conceptual Answer: a 60. Which is NOT true? a. Satisficing is the heuristic in which we find a solution to a goal or subgoal that is satisfactory, but not necessarily the best possible solution. b. An initially “satisfactory” solution to a problem may give additional insights into further refinements of the solution. c. Deficiencies in what was thought to be satisfactory achievement of a subgoal may be illustrated as work progresses on attaining the next subgoal. d. “Rough drafts” in the context of satisficing are restricted to establishing “production rules” for production models.

Page: 460 Type: conceptual Answer: d 61. Automating some aspects of problem solving __________. a. is impossible b. can facilitate performance c. requires rigorous verbal protocols d. is never a good idea Page: 461 Type: factual Answer: b 62. Following a systematic plan is most useful for __________. a. relatively short problems b. long, multi-step problems c. well-defined problems d. ill-defined problems Page: 461 Type: factual Answer: b

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63. Inferences can help problem solving because __________. a. not all of the relevant information is explicitly stated b. the solution is not provided c. means–end analysis is limited d. we all have cultural biases Page: 462 Type: factual Answer: a 64. It can be helpful to break a problem down into smaller components called __________. a. subgoals b. chunks c. operating units d. packets Page: 462 Type: factual Answer: a 65. Working backwards entails __________. a. the careful documentation of a well-specified goal or end-state b. establishing a representation of the full problem space c. tracing the solution pathway in reverse order d. establishing subgoal states that allow recycling Page: 463 Type: factual Answer: c 66. __________ in problems that ask “Is there a way to . . . ?” or “Is it possible that . . . ?” a. You should work backwards b. You should work forwards c. You should draw a diagram d. You should search for contradictions Page: 463 Type: conceptual Answer: d 67. Using the solution to a problem as basis for solving a problem is part of the strategy of __________. a. satisficing b. developing subgoals c. working backwards d. analogical reasoning Page: 463 Type: factual Answer: c 68. Which involves searching for relations? a. solving the Tower of Hanoi problem b. reasoning by analogy c. means–end analysis d. changing the problem representation Page: 464 Type: factual Answer: b

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69. In problem solving, __________. a. solving the Tower of Hanoi requires declarative memory b. means–end analysis is only useful when used by production systems c. finding relations across problems can require sufficient time for the participants to discover useful information from related problems d. exhaustively searching the problem space in an algorithmic fashion will highlight the inadequacies of whatever representational scheme has been adopted unless the participant is instructed to “work backwards” from the desired end-state Page: 464 Type: conceptual Answer: c 70. Changing the representation may involve all EXCEPT __________. a. scratch paper b. physical representation c. visualization d. Any of the above could be classified as “changing the representation.”

Page: 464 Type: conceptual Answer: d 71. H.M., the famous anterograde amnesic, would likely __________. a. show normal learning curves on problem-solving tasks b. have profound retrograde amnesia c. be unable to solve the Tower of Hanoi problem d. show normal free recall performance in a word problem task Page: 465 Type: conceptual Answer: a 72. Which is NOT true of practice? a. People routinely believe that stunning talent and amazing accomplishment derive from inherited, genetic, or “interior” explanations. b. Dedicated, regular, long-term practice leads to high levels of skilled performance. c. Practice within a particular domain strengthens that knowledge, pushes problem-solving components closer to automaticity, and gives you a deeper understanding of the domain. d. It will yield special-purpose heuristics that combat mundane stereotyped knowledge through the development of stronger declarative memory production systems.

Page: 466 Type: conceptual Answer: d 73. Consider the following: Three men want to cross a river; they find a boat, but it is a very small boat. It will only carry 200 pounds. The men are named Large (200 lbs), Medium (120 lbs), and Small (80 lbs). How can they all get across? They might have to make several trips in the boat (VanLehn, 1989). a. two trips b. three trips c. five trips d. cannot be done (evidence for the importance of searching for contradictions) Page: 466 Type: applied Answer: c

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True/False Questions: 74. The data from verbal protocols and the use of verbal protocol analysis is still a lingering source of discomfort within cognitive psychology. TRUE (p. 430) 75. Research has demonstrated that the concept of “insight” is useful only for introspective reports. FALSE (p.

430) 76. Functional fixedness occurs when people think about objects in the standard way. TRUE (p. 431) 77. When people think about objects only in the standard way, this is called negative set. FALSE (p. 431) 78. People are good at predicting whether they would be successful in solving routine problems. TRUE (p.

436) 79. Insight problem solving typically involves not working slowly toward a solution. TRUE (p. 438) 80. The right hemisphere tends to be more active during insight problems than during routine problems. TRUE (p. 438) 81. Incubation never leads to correct problem solving. FALSE (p. 438) 82. Neuroimaging work suggests that, surprisingly, the frontal lobes are not involved in insight problem solving. FALSE (p. 438) 83. Neurological studies show that problem solving can be helped by increased neural suppression of remote associations. FALSE (p. 438) 84. Problem solving can be facilitated by analogical reasoning. TRUE (p. 439) 85. The similarity of the source and target domains is one of the constraints in multiconstraint theory. TRUE (p. 442) 86. Procedural knowledge is a general term referring to one’s knowledge of a specific domain or topic, especially in problem solving. FALSE (p. 444) 87. Ill-defined problems can be solved. TRUE (p. 450) 88. Newell & Simon’s GPS model can often provide a very good description of human problem-solving performance. TRUE (p. 458) 89. An important characteristic of GPS is its formulation as a production system. TRUE (p. 458) 90. The means–end analysis used by GPS illustrated the importance of means–end analysis for an understanding of human problem solving. TRUE (p. 458)

Fill in the Blank/Short Answer: 91. In studies of problem solving, a word-for-word transcription of what the subject said aloud during the problem-solving attempt is a ______________________. (VERBAL PROTOCOL) 92. In problem solving, a tendency to become accustomed to a single approach or way of thinking about a problem, making it difficult to recognize or generate alternative approaches, is _______________________. (NEGATIVE SET) 93. The early work on problem solving was done by the German _____________ psychologists. (GESTALT) 94. Thagard & Holyoak (mutliconstraint theory) suggest three constraints on problem-solving performance.

What are they? (PROBLEM SIMILARITY, PROBLEM STRUCTURE, PURPOSE OF THE ANALOGY) 95. What are the four general characteristics of problem solving as defined by Anderson (1980, 1985), as discussed by Radvansky & Ashcraft in the course text? (GOAL DIRECTEDNESS, SEQUENCE OF OPERATIONS, COGNITIVE OPERATIONS, SUBGOAL DECOMPOSITION) 96. A problem that has clear initial and end states is called _______________. (WELL-DEFINED) 97. A _____________________ is a pair of statements, called either a condition–action pair or an if–then pair.

In such a scheme, if the “if” condition is satisfied, then the “then” action part of the pair takes place.

(PRODUCTION) 98. Finding an acceptable or satisfactory solution to a problem, even though the solution may not be optimal, is _____________________. (SATISFICING) 99. The name of the first problem-solving program was___________. (GENERAL PROBLEM SOLVER) 100. Identify seven suggestions for improving problem solving (of the ten presented by Radvansky & Ashcraft in the course text). (INCREASE YOUR DOMAIN KNOWLEDGE, AUTOMATE SOME COMPONENTS OF THE PROBLEM-SOLVING SOLUTION, FOLLOW A SYSTEMATIC PLAN, DRAW INFERENCES, DEVELOP SUBGOALS, WORK BACKWARD, SEARCH FOR CONTRADICTIONS,

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SEARCH FOR RELATIONS AMONG PROBLEMS, FIND A DIFFERENT PROBLEM REPRESENTATION, STAY CALM, IF ALL ELSE FAILS TRY PRACTICE)

Essay Questions: 101. Given what you know about what parts of the brain are involved in problem solving, what sorts of brain damage would you expect to impede effective problem solving, and why?

102. How do means–end analysis and working backwards differ?

103. Identify three limitations on the psychological investigation of problem-solving behavior. To the extent possible, discuss how each has been accommodated in previous research.

104. Why might following a systematic plan improve problem solving? Use appropriate technical terms.

105. Using appropriate technical terms, through what mechanism might practice help you to improve your problem solving (that is, WHY is practice useful)?

106. How does problem solving relate to two other forms of cognition that have been discussed earlier in the course? Be specific.

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Chapter 13: Cognition and Emotion

Multiple Choice Questions: 1.

What is emotion? a. a state of mind b. a physiological response c. both A and B d. an illusion of cognition Page: 471 Type: factual Answer: c For emotion, “valence” refers to __________. a. how positive or negative an emotion is b. how strong an emotion is c. the degree to which it conforms to other people’s emotions d. the complexity of an emotion Page: 471 Type: factual Answer: a 2.

For emotion, “intensity” refers to:: a. How positive or negative an emotion is b. How strong an emotion is c. The degree to which it conforms to other people’s emotions d. The complexity of an emotion Page: 471 Type: factual Answer: b 3.

4.

Emotions can best be described as __________. a. monotonic b. elliptical c. logically formal d. multidimensional Page: 471 Type: conceptual Answer: d 5.

Which neurological structure is important for processing emotions? a. occipital lobe b. olfactory bulb c. amygdala d. projective neural cluster Page: 472 Type: factual Answer: c

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6.

The strong ties the amygdala has with sensory information allow for __________. a. rapid responding to biologically significant events b. forward thinking with the frontal lobes c. a more analytic analysis of perceptual images d. rapid rejection of salient information in the immediate environment Page: 472 Type: conceptual Answer: a 7.

Which neurological structure is important for processing emotions? a. anterior cingulate b. dorso-lateral homunculus c. ventro-medial prefrontal cortex d. inferior-parietal lobule Page: 472 Type: factual Answer: c 8.

The person who was less able to control his emotions following a traumatic railroad construction accident when a tamping rod was blown through his brain was __________. a. Paul Broca b. Clem Parsons c. Mordacai Morgan d. Phineas Gage Page: 472 Type: factual Answer: d 9.

Perceptual recognition is __________ for emotional stimuli. a. faster b. slower c. simplified d. complicated Page: 473 Type: factual Answer: a 10. For emotional stimuli, perceptual processing is increased in the __________. a. corpus callosum b. olfactory bulb c. occipital lobe d. pons Page: 473 Type: factual Answer: c 11. For emotional stimuli, there is a(n) __________ in the perceptual processing of details. a. increase b. decrease c. leveling d. convoluting Page: 473 Type: factual Answer: b

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12. If you are afraid of heights, when standing on a balcony looking down, your emotional response will make your estimates of the distance to the ground __________. a. less distorted b. more variable c. larger than actual d. smaller than actual Page: 474 Type: applied Answer: c 13. If there is an emotional relevant stimulus in the environment, such as a spider, the effect it will have on attention will be to __________. a. direct it toward that thing b. direct it away from that thing c. reduce the amount of resources available d. reduce long-term control over attention Page: 475 Type: factual Answer: a 14. The presence of an emotional target in a visual search display make the detection of that target __________. a. slower b. quicker c. complicated d. redundant Page: 475 Type: conceptual Answer: b 15. Consciously directing attention away from a person will later cause you to __________. a. find it easier to perceive that person b. have trouble perceiving that person c. like that person more d. like that person less Page: 476 Type: conceptual Answer: d 16. The drawing of attention to emotional stimuli is more likely to involve the __________ and a reduction in __________. a. amygdala; conscious control b. amygdala; implicit control c. prefontal cortex; conscious control d. prefontal cortex; implicit control Page: 476 Type: conceptual Answer: a

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17. If an emotional item occurs during the “moment” of an attentional blink, that item will __________. a. exert a stronger influence over the processing of other items b. exert a weaker influence over the processing of other items c. be less likely to be identified d. be more likely to be identified Page: 476 Type: factual Answer: d 18. The emotional Stroop task __________. a. reflects emotional responses to having attention divided b. assesses color name in the presence of emotional words c. has not been successful d. has not been empirically validated Page: 476 Type: factual Answer: b 19. On an emotional Stroop task, if the word “pain” is presented in blue, people will __________. a. name the word faster b. name the word slower c. name the color slower d. name the color faster Page: 476 Type: conceptual Answer: c 20. The emotional Stroop task has NOT been used to study __________. a. depression b. anxiety c. post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD) d. dyslexia Page: 476 Type: factual Answer: d 21. Suppressing your emotions causes later __________. a. emotional outbursts b. psychopathology c. misunderstandings d. reductions in self-control Page: 476 Type: factual Answer: d 22. Suppressing emotions may drain resources in what part of the brain? a. tectum b. angular cingulate cortex c. hippocampus d. occipital lobe Page: 476 Type: factual Answer: b

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23. If the amygdala is damaged, classical conditioning to aversive stimuli may be __________. a. magnified b. eliminated c. reversed d. transmogrified Page: 477 Type: factual Answer: b 24. When emotional items, such as words, are encountered, what does the do to brain activity? a. It can suppress it. b. It can increase it. c. There is an increase in lateralized processing. d. There is a decrease in lateralized processing.

Page: 477 Type: factual Answer: b 25. Compared to neutral information, emotional information is remembered __________. a. better b. in less detail c. more slowly d. pragmatically Page: 478 Type: factual Answer: a 26. Which of the following is the most important factor in influencing whether an emotional event is remembered? a. the valence of the memory b. its intensity c. the number of emotions experienced d. the complexity of the emotion experienced Page: 479 Type: conceptual Answer: b 27. What part of the brain is heavily involved in the creation of emotionally laden memories? a. amygdala b. precuneus c. corpus callosum d. tegmentum Page: 479 Type: factual Answer: a 28. If an emotional picture is presented after an item the subject tried to recall, as in the Finn and Roediger (2011) study, then memory for those items will be __________. a. impaired due to increased effort b. improved due to increased effort c. impaired during reconsolidation d. improved during reconsolidation Page: 479 Type: conceptual Answer: d

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29. People remember emotional information better because that information is __________. a. more important to us b. activating more brain structures c. more distinctive d. all of the above Page: 480 Type: conceptual Answer: d 30. Improved access to information in long-term memory that is consistent with one’s current mood is called __________. a. mood-dependent memory b. mood-congruent memory c. mood-induced memory d. mood-reflective memory Page: 480 Type: factual Answer: b 31. Mood-congruent memory is __________. a. better memory retrieval when one is in a positive mood b. better memory retrieval when one is in a negative mood c. improved access to information in long-term memory that is consistent with one’s current mood d. finding it easier to remember things when your moods at encoding and retrieval are the same Page: 480 Type: factual Answer: c 32. Improved access to information in long-term memory when one’s mood at retrieval is the same as one’s mood at encoding is called __________. a. mood-dependent memory b. mood-congruent memory c. mood-induced memory d. mood-reflective memory Page: 480 Type: factual Answer: a 33. Mood-dependent memory is __________. a. finding it easier to remember things when your moods at encoding and retrieval are the same b. improved access to information in long-term memory that is consistent with one’s current mood c. better memory retrieval when one is in a positive mood d. better memory retrieval when one is in a negative mood Page: 480 Type: factual Answer: a 34. What kind of information is better remembered in flashbulb memories comported to normal memories? a. details b. information about surprising events c. false memories d. all of the above Page: 481 Type: conceptual Answer: d

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35. Flashbulb memories are more likely to change for __________ memories. a. negative b. positive c. intense d. calm Page: 481 Type: conceptual Answer: b 36. Flashbulb memories are always highly accurate. a. false b. true c. It depends. d. only when they are emotional Page: 481 Type: conceptual Answer: a 37. In order for a flashbulb memory to be created, you need __________. a. the event to be surprising b. to experience the event as important c. to have an emotional response d. all of the above Page: 481 Type: factual Answer: d 38. According to the Yerkes-Dodson law, memory is worse at __________. a. low levels of emotional intensity b. high levels of emotional intensity c. low and high levels of emotional intensity d. moderate levels of emotional intensity Page: 483 Type: factual Answer: c 39. The idea that memory is better at moderate levels of emotional intensity is consistent with __________. a. Easterbrook hypothesis b. the Yerkes-Dodson law c. von Restorff effect d. mood-congruent memory Page: 483 Type: conceptual Answer: b 40. According to the Easterbrook hypothesis, we have poorer overall memory at high levels of emotional intensity because __________. a. the neurological system is overwhelmed with all of the extra processing b. we can no longer effectively direct our attention to important things c. attention is focused on the central aspects of an event at the expense of peripheral aspects d. the amygdala takes over and shuts down processing in the hippocampus Page: 483 Type: factual Answer: c

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41. At high levels of emotional intensity, better memory for central details of an event result in __________ memories. a. Easterbrook b. flashbulb c. tunnel d. tensor Page: 483 Type: factual Answer: c 42. The weapon focus effect is __________. a. when the presence of a weapon causes you to retrieve violence-related memories b. the inability to focus on a weapon present in a scene because it is so aversive c. the inverse of tunnel memories d. poorer memory for other event details when a weapon is present Page: 484 Type: factual Answer: d 43. Prosody is carried by __________. a. the semantics of what is said b. emotional overtones c. hand gestures d. the speech signal Page: 485 Type: factual Answer: d 44. Prosody is __________. a. the manual gesture that accompanies speaking b. the facial expression that accompanies speaking c. the accent one speaks with d. the up and down pitch of speech to convey emotions Page: 485 Type: factual Answer: d 45. The up and down changes in pitch when one speaks are called __________. a. prosody b. articulation c. enunciation d. emoting Page: 485 Type: factual Answer: a 46. Prosody is to speaking as __________ is to __________. a. quotes; typing b. emoticons; texting c. fingers; signing d. cursive; writing Page: 485 Type: conceptual Answer: b

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47. Emotional prosody is processed more by __________. a. the motor cortex b. the angular cingulate c. the left hemisphere d. the right hemisphere Page: 485 Type: factual Answer: d 48. Processing emotion in language can be impeded if the __________ is damaged. a. pons b. corpus callosum c. amygdala d. left hemisphere Page: 485 Type: factual Answer: c 49. What influence do emotions have on the processing of otherwise abstract words, like “redemption”? a. They make them easier to process. b. They make them harder to process. c. Emotion is not involved with abstract words. d. It depends on the valence of the emotion.

Page: 486 Type: conceptual Answer: a 50. Understanding emotion involves some element of __________. a. recursion b. perspective taking c. modeling d. segmenting Page: 487 Type: conceptual Answer: b 51. How is emotion processed at the situation model level of language comprehension? a. People only determine it if it is explicitly pointed out. b. People track it and update it when it changes. c. only in terms of the reader’s emotional response to what is being read d. only in terms of the emotions a story character is experiencing Page: 487 Type: conceptual Answer: b 52. People represent the experience of emotion in a described event __________. a. internally, as the character experiences it b. externally, as an observer would experience it c. both A and B d. only by the reader Page: 487 Type: factual Answer: c

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53. Emotional information in a story is strongly tied to character __________. a. manifestations b. goals c. propositions d. stigmata Page: 487 Type: factual Answer: b 54. Emotional stress can sometimes impede performance because a person’s working memory __________. a. has a heightened level of capacity b. becomes entirely centered on the visuospatial sketchpad c. is occupied with off-topic thoughts d. stops working Page: 488 Type: factual Answer: c 55. Emotional stress can result in __________. a. increased cardiovascular efficiency b. decreased gastrointestinal control c. increased gastrointestinal control d. decreased cardiovascular efficiency Page: 488 Type: factual Answer: d 56. Performing below one’s normal level of performance because of emotional stress is called __________. a. whiffing it b. choking under pressure c. crumbling under the stress d. blanking out Page: 489 Type: factual Answer: b 57. What is “choking under pressure”? a. letting your emotions run wild b. when true performance levels are revealed c. below-typical performance as a result of stress d. allowing the unconscious to take over Page: 489 Type: factual Answer: c 58. Performance pressure that is oriented towards the end result of a task is called __________. a. outcome-based b. monitoring c. choking d. stress Page: 490 Type: factual Answer: a

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59. Performance pressure that is oriented towards how a task is done is called __________. a. outcome-based b. monitoring c. choking d. stress Page: 490 Type: factual Answer: b 60. Outcome-based pressure is caused by __________. a. automatic processes being disrupted by conscious ones b. emotional overload c. the intrusion of irrelevant thoughts d. knowing that stress can impair your outcome Page: 490 Type: factual Answer: c 61. Outcome-based pressure can be overcome by __________. a. focusing on how a task is being done b. thinking about what a relief it will be when the task is over c. imagining the end result d. lowering one’s expectations Page: 490 Type: factual Answer: a 62. Monitoring pressure is caused by __________. a. emotional overload b. the intrusion of irrelevant thoughts c. knowing that stress can impair your outcome d. automatic processes being disrupted by conscious ones Page: 490 Type: factual Answer: d 63. Monitoring pressure can be overcome by __________. a. focusing on how a task is being done b. thinking about what a relief it will be when the task is over c. lowering one’s expectations d. imagining the end result Page: 490 Type: factual Answer: d 64. Stereotype threat is __________. a. doing worse because of the activation of negative stereotype about oneself b. negative responses to a person who makes decisions based on stereotypes c. threating someone else based on your negative stereotypes d. the threat of legal action resulting from having been found to make decisions using stereotypes Page: 491 Type: factual Answer: a

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65. What is the term for when a person performs poorly on an exam after they are reminded (even subtly) that they are a member of a minority group? a. prejudicial performance b. stereotype threat c. cultural bias d. social stigmata Page: 491 Type: factual Answer: b 66. Stress can actually improve performance when it is viewed as __________. a. outcome-based b. monitoring in nature c. a challenge d. chokeless Page: 491 Type: factual Answer: c

True/False Questions: 67. Emotion is independent of cognition. FALSE (p. 471) 68. The only important dimension of emotion is valence. FALSE (p. 471) 69. The amygdala is an important neurological structure for processing emotions. TRUE (p. 472) 70. Emotions can meaningfully affect perceptual processes. TRUE (p. 473) 71. Emotional items facilitate performance on the Stroop task. FALSE (p. 475) 72. Suppressing emotions gives you greater attentional control later. FALSE (p. 476) 73. If the amygdala is damaged, people can still show basic classically conditioned emotional responses.

FALSE (p. 477) 74. Emotional information is typically remembered better than neutral information. TRUE (p. 478) 75. Emotional information can modify previous memories during reconsolidation. TRUE (p. 479) 76. Emotional memories benefit less from the consolidation process that occurs during sleep. FALSE (p. 479) 77. Mood-congruent memory means that it is easier to remember when your mood state at retrieval is the same as it was at encoding. FALSE (p. 480) 78. Mood-dependent memory means that it is easier to remember when your mood state at retrieval is the same as it was at encoding. TRUE (p. 480) 79. Flashbulb memories can sometimes contain errors. TRUE (p. 481) 80. The Yerkes-Dodson law states the moderately emotional events are remembered worst. FALSE (p. 483) 81. The Easterbrook hypothesis suggests that at high levels of arousal, memory is better for central details, but worse for peripheral details. TRUE (p. 483) 82. Tunnel memories are found at low levels of emotional arousal. FALSE (p. 484) 83. Prosody communicates emotional information in spoken language. TRUE (p. 485) 84. Prosody is processed more by the right hemisphere. TRUE (p. 485) 85. Abstract language can be made more concrete, and more understandable, if it is tied to emotion. TRUE (p.

486) 86. Monitoring pressure is when a person focuses on how they are doing a task. TRUE (p. 490) 87. Stress always impairs performance. FALSE (p. 491)

Fill in the Blank/Short Answer: 88. Emotions are characterized by their ___________ and their _____________. (VALENCE; INTENSITY) 89. The part of the cortex that is important for processing emotional information is the __________________.

(VENTROMEDIAL PREFRONTAL CORTEX)

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90. If you are afraid of snakes, if you see one, it will appear ____________ compared to the way it will appear to someone who is not afraid. (CLOSER) 91. A brain structure that is often important in emotional memories is the ____________. (AMYGDALA) 92. The finding that information that is consistent with your current emotion is more accessible is called _____________ memory. (MOOD-CONGRUENT) 93. The finding that it is easier to remember things that were learned in the same emotion as a person is experiencing during retrieval is called __________________ memory. (MOOD-DEPENDENT) 94. Highly detailed memories for the context in which surprising and important information is learned are called ____________. (FLASHBULB MEMORIES) 95. The inverted U-shaped function showing that there is better memory for events that elicit moderate levels of emotional arousal is called the _______________ . (YERKES-DODSON LAW) 96. The idea that, at high levels of emotional arousal, memory is better for central details than peripheral details is called the _____________. (EASTERBROOK HYPOTHESIS) 97. The expression of emotional can be conveyed in spoken language through the use of _____________.

(PROSODY) 98. For choking under pressure, the type of pressure that occurs when a person focuses on the end result of the task is called _________ pressure. (OUTCOME-BASED) 99. For choking under pressure, the type of pressure that occurs when a person focuses on how they are doing a task is called _________ pressure. (MONITORING)

Essay Questions: 100. What help can emotion be to human cognition?

101. What is an advantage of perception being distorted for emotional stimuli?

102. What is one disadvantage to attention for emotional information, and how might this be corrected (if at all)?

103. How do emotional responses during a crime influence an eyewitness’s later memory?

104. What are some of the arguments for and against the idea that flashbulb memories are special?

105. Emotional information can be conveyed using prosody. What are three other ways that language users can convey emotion to other people?

106. Emotion can make otherwise abstract concepts easier to understand. How does this tie in to ideas of embodied cognition?

107. What are some examples of three ways that people can reduce pressure during a task in order to improve performance?

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Chapter 14: Cognitive Development Multiple Choice Questions: 1.

What is a lifespan perspective? a. knowing that people live an entire life b. your current perspective in life distorts your perspective on the others. c. the acknowledgement that people are always in a state of development d. seeing a person’s whole life in a one perspective Page: W-2 Type: factual Answer: c 2.

The acknowledgment that there is no such thing as a person who is not in some stage of development is consistent with __________. a. a lifespan perspective b. cognitive psychology c. humanistic psychology d. life Page: W-2 Type: conceptual Answer: a 3.

A study that tracks the same group of people over time is called a(n) __________ study. a. experimental b. longitudinal c. cross-sectional d. observational Page: W-2 Type: factual Answer: b 4.

A study that compares people in different age groups is called a(n) __________ study. a. experimental b. longitudinal c. cross-sectional d. observational Page: W-2 Type: factual Answer: c 5.

A longitudinal study is __________. a. quicker b. more restricted c. not prone to participant dropouts d. more accurate Page: W-2 Type: conceptual Answer: d

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6.

Compared to a longitudinal study, a cross-sectional study is __________. a. more accurate b. particularly prone to participant dropouts c. quicker d. more correlational Page: W-2 Type: conceptual Answer: c 7.

Which of the following neurological structures is NOT well-developed in humans at birth? a. hippocampus b. thalamus c. medial temporal lobe d. occipital lobe Page: W-3 Type: factual Answer: a 8.

Which of the following structures is well-developed in humans at birth? a. hippocampus b. prefrontal cortex c. thalamus d. none of these Page: W-3 Type: factual Answer: c 9.

Why might humans be born so neurologically immature relative to other animals? a. They are bigger than some animals. b. lack of normal exposure to nature during development c. Increased technology available for humans has stunted neurological growth. d. They have more complex nervous systems.

Page: W-3 Type: conceptual Answer: d 10. How do infants respond to the mother’s voice soon after birth? a. They prefer the sound of it. b. They cannot distinguish from those of other adults. c. They are bored with it and prefer novel voices. d. The cannot process it well, as the auditory system is not fully developed.

Page: W-3 Type: factual Answer: a 11. What kind of visual images do infant prefer? a. low-contrast b. pictures of objects c. high-contrast d. fast moving Page: W-4 Type: factual Answer: c

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12. How acute is infant face perception after one year? a. still almost completely absent b. adult-like c. only for family members d. halfway to adult capacity Page: W-4 Type: conceptual Answer: b 13. Which of the following is the most difficult for an infant to perceive? a. father’s voice b. non-family-member faces c. caricatures d. toys Page: W-4 Type: conceptual Answer: c 14. Which of the following would an infant find most difficult to perceive? a. a line drawing of an object b. biological motion c. the sound of a music box d. the touch of sandpaper Page: W-4 Type: conceptual Answer: a 15. Knowing how many things can be seen is also called __________. a. math intelligence b. span of apprehension c. counting capacity d. basic number sense Page: W-4 Type: factual Answer: d 16. What is basic number sense? a. knowing that the number line starts on the left b. some understanding of how many items are in a display c. the conceptual knowledge that some numbers are bigger than others d. the ability to count to ten Page: W-4 Type: factual Answer: b 17. How many different types of systems are involved in basic number sense? a. one b. two c. three d. four Page: W-4 Type: factual Answer: b

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18. The precise basic number sense system is good for __________. a. doing math b. counting backwards c. large numbers of items d. small numbers of items Page: W-4 Type: factual Answer: d 19. The approximate basic number sense system is good for a. doing math b. counting backwards c. large numbers of items d. small numbers of items Page: W-4 Type: factual Answer: c 20. Children show visual search attention processes that __________. a. are far ahead of those of adults b. are way behind those of adults c. are similar to those of adults d. can be described logarithmically Page: W-5 Type: factual Answer: c 21. With very young children, the Stroop task shows a(n) __________ effect. a. augmented b. inverse c. delayed d. negligible Page: W-5 Type: factual Answer: d 22. The Stroop effect is larger in young children who __________. a. lack mathematical skills b. have developed problem-solving skills c. read poorly d. read well Page: W-7 Type: conceptual Answer: d 23. What is the name for the inability to remember life events from before the ages of two to four? a. memory development b. infantile amnesia c. childhood forgetting d. retrograde interference Page: W-8 Type: factual Answer: b

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24. At what age does infantile amnesia begin to let up? a. one b. three c. birth d. ten Page: W-8 Type: factual Answer: b 25. What type of memory is more likely to be well-developed at birth? a. episodic b. nondeclarative c. semantic d. autobiographical Page: W-8 Type: factual Answer: b 26. A very young child calls a tortilla a pancake. What principle does this example illustrate? a. overextension b. precategorical thinking c. developmental reversals d. poor parenting Page: W-8 Type: applied Answer: a 27. Rovee-Collier was able to illustrate that infants exhibit some characteristics of episodic memory. What is the name of the method she used to do this, using a ribbon that was tied to the infant’s ankle and to an overhead mobile? a. direct activation b. autobiographical encoding c. similarity attachment d. conjugate reinforcement Page: W-9 Type: factual Answer: d 28. What are the cognitive processes that Rovee-Collier’s conjugate reinforcement technique measures in infants? a. attention b. language c. problem solving d. memory Page: W-9 Type: factual Answer: d

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29. The conjugate reinforcement technique of Rovee-Collier has been used to show that infants have some form of __________ memory. a. semantic b. episodic c. procedural d. automatic Page: W-9 Type: factual Answer: b 30. The development of the concept of the self helps with the development of __________ memory. a. semantic b. short-term c. autobiographical d. motor Page: W-9 Type: factual Answer: c 31. The development of semantic memory and the routines of life that go with it lead young children to prefer __________. a. repetition b. novelty c. rapid pacing d. colors Page: W-10 Type: factual Answer: a 32. Because young children have less developed semantic memories, this leads them to sometimes __________. a. under-extend a category b. over-extend a category c. be at a loss as to what something is d. use overly detailed life scripts Page: W-10 Type: conceptual Answer: b 33. Baillargeon has shown that short-term memory development can be observed early on by the existence, duration, and effectiveness of __________. a. object permanence b. encoding awareness c. serial position effects d. encoding specificity Page: W-10 Type: factual Answer: a

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34. An infant who exhibits object permanence is able to __________. a. remember an object that is no longer visible b. remember the name of an object c. hold objects in their hands d. treat an object as a solid Page: W-10 Type: conceptual Answer: a 35. Suppose that an infant sees you throw a doll behind a screen, and sees a ball emerge on the other side. If they do not exhibit surprise at seeing this, this means that they lack __________. a. intelligence b. perceptual exactitude c. sufficient attentional resources d. object permanence Page: W-10 Type: applied Answer: d 36. Which of the following is NOT a reason for smaller working memory span in children? a. slower speaking rates b. weaker neurological binding c. smaller vocabularies d. poorer metacognitive skills Page: W-10 Type: conceptual Answer: b 37. The slower speaking rates of children can lead to __________. a. smaller working memory spans b. lack of interest by adults c. greater semantic activation d. complex sentence constructions Page: W-10 Type: conceptual Answer: a 38. Children can do was well as—if not better than—adults on a working memory span task if __________. a. the adults are made to recall things while sitting in a small chair b. the tester treats them as equals, and doesn’t talk down to them c. no more than two words are presented each second d. they involve things that are interested in is focused on Page: W-10 Type: factual Answer: d 39. An important thing that aids in how effective children’s memories are is __________. a. decreases in breathing rates b. increased effectiveness in processing sugars during digestion c. the development of metacognition d. reduced emotional inhibitions Page: W-10 Type: factual Answer: c

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40. Increased metacognitive skills can lead to children __________. a. focusing less on forgetting b. showing improved memory performance c. exhibiting reverse von Restorff effects d. becoming increasingly attention fragmenters Page: W-10 Type: factual Answer: b 41. The development of language skills in children is __________ in adults. a. completely unrelated to that b. the same as c. faster than d. slower than Page: W-11 Type: conceptual Answer: c 42. One of the problems that children face in learning a language is the high degree of __________ of spoken language. a. consistency b. arrhythmia c. variability d. tension Page: W-11 Type: conceptual Answer: c 43. Which of these is a basis for determining what stage of development a child is in? a. syntactic complexity level (SCL) b. average output time (AOT) c. adult language similarity (ALS) d. mean language unit (MLU) Page: W-11 Type: factual Answer: d 44. The stages of language development can be best thought of as being __________. a. discrete b. artificial c. algorithmic d. overlapping Page: W-12 Type: conceptual Answer: d 45. The babbling stage of language can best be described as __________. a. morphotactic b. irregular c. regressive d. prelinguistic Page: W-12 Type: factual Answer: d

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46. The babbling stage of language development is useful for __________. a. practicing making language sounds b. learning a second language c. cross-validation d. nonparametric correlations Page: W-12 Type: factual Answer: a 47. Categorical phoneme perception emerges during which stage of language development? a. single word b. babbling c. conversational d. auditory Page: W-12 Type: factual Answer: b 48. For children in the single-word stage of language development, single words __________. a. often lack prosody b. are often over-expanded c. are different from the ones that adults use d. can convey complex ideas Page: W-13 Type: factual Answer: d 49. During the single-word stage of language development, a child may have a working vocabulary of about ________ words. a. 5 b. 100 c. 20 d. 75 Page: W-13 Type: factual Answer: c 50. During the two-word stage of language development, the words are largely __________ words. a. function b. content c. helping d. compound Page: W-14 Type: factual Answer: b 51. During the two-word stage of language development, _____________ occur(s). a. the word explosion b. formal operations c. categorical speech perception d. speech segmentation Page: W-14 Type: factual Answer: a

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52. A child who is in the two-word stages is likely _________ old. a. ten months b. eighteen months c. three years d. five years Page: W-14 Type: conceptual Answer: b 53. During the word explosion, a child’s vocabulary goes from about ________ words to __________ of words at age 5. a. 40; hundreds of thousands b. 15; millions c. 50; thousands d. 30; hundreds Page: W-14 Type: conceptual Answer: c 54. During the multiword stage of language development, children’s speech becomes __________. a. precisely adult-like b. more syntactically complex c. more like motherese d. louder Page: W-14 Type: conceptual Answer: b 55. Linguistic competence is to __________ as linguistic performance is to __________. a. formal; informal b. informal; formal c. understanding; speaking d. speaking; understanding Page: W-14 Type: factual Answer: c 56. In general, during language development, linguistic competence __________ linguistic performance. a. is unrelated to b. is locked to c. lags behind d. outpaces Page: W-14 Type: factual Answer: d 57. Children learn language from adults with the help of __________. a. visual symbols b. child-directed speech c. explicit memory cues d. linguistic modifiers Page: W-15 Type: factual Answer: b

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58. Which of the following is NOT a feature of child-directed speech? a. higher voice pitch b. slower speech c. quieter voice d. exaggerated speaking Page: W-15 Type: conceptual Answer: c 59. Based on research by Linda Smith, we know that children find it easier to learn the name of an object when that object __________. a. fills the child’s field of vision b. is pointed at by the parent c. is held by the child d. is in movement, by itself or moved by a parent Page: W-15 Type: conceptual Answer: a 60. When a child says “goed” instead of “went,” this is a sign that __________. a. poor parenting has led to developmental delays b. the child has learned a grammatical rule c. children are not as smart as adults d. the child may be dyslexic Page: W-16 Type: conceptual Answer: b 61. Which of the following is an example of over-regularizing in language development? a. “Ba-ba” (for bottle) b. “Super-mega-huge” c. “Comed” d. “Kitty” (for skunk) Page: W-16 Type: conceptual Answer: c 62. Which of the following is NOT a researcher known for work on childhood development? a. Hasher b. Piaget c. Vygotsky d. Bruner Page: W-16 Type: factual Answer: a 63. According to Piaget, when is a child in the sensorimotor stage? a. birth to age two b. ages two to seven c. ages seven to eleven d. age eleven and up Page: W-17 Type: factual Answer: a

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64. Which of the following is a developmental accomplishment during the sensorimotor stage? a. conservation of mass b. perspective taking c. abstract thinking d. object permanence Page: W-17 Type: factual Answer: d 65. According to Piaget, when is a child in the preoperational stage? a. birth to age twp b. ages two to seven c. ages seven to eleven d. age eleven and up Page: W-18 Type: factual Answer: b 66. According to Piaget, when is a child in the concrete operations stage? a. birth to age two b. ages two to seven c. ages seven to eleven d. age eleven and up Page: W-18 Type: factual Answer: c 67. Which of the following is a developmental accomplishment during the preoperational stage? a. conservation of mass b. perspective taking c. abstract thinking d. object permanence Page: W-18 Type: factual Answer: a 68. Which of the following is a developmental accomplishment during the concrete operations stage? a. conservation of mass b. perspective taking c. abstract thinking d. object permanence Page: W-18 Type: factual Answer: b 69. According to Piaget, when is a child in the formal operations stage? a. birth to age two b. ages two to seven c. ages seven to eleven d. age eleven and up Page: W-19 Type: factual Answer: d

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Cognition, 6th ed.

Radvansky/Ashcraft

70. Which of the following is a developmental accomplishment during the formal operations stage? a. conservation of mass b. perspective taking c. abstract thinking d. object permanence Page: W-19 Type: factual Answer: c 71. Vygotsky emphasized the roles of __________ and __________ in childhood development. a. individual differences; culture b. intelligence; abilities c. genetics; parenting d. family; friends Page: W-19 Type: factual Answer: a 72. According to Vygotsky, knowledge that is just beyond a child’s ability is said to be in the __________. a. learning range b. zone of proximal development c. reachable future d. penumbra Page: W-19 Type: factual Answer: b 73. According to Bruner, childhood development occurs __________. a. as a progression through well-defined stages, starting with the sensori-motor stage b. as a result of the influence of the culture a child is in, often through language c. through the building of new knowledge on the scaffolding of old knowledge d. in ways that reflect the individual differences among various children Page: W-19 Type: factual Answer: c 74. According to Bruner, the stages of childhood development include all of the following EXCEPT __________. a. iconic representation b. enactive representation c. symbolic representation d. propositional representation Page: W-19 Type: factual Answer: d 75. Which of the following is NOT a neurological change that accompanies aging? a. decline in the dopamine system b. slower neural firing c. loss of function in the tectum d. reduced frontal lobe function Page: W-20 Type: factual Answer: c

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Cognition, 6th ed.

Radvansky/Ashcraft

76. What do changes in neural firing mean for older adults? a. Some neurotransmitters stop working. b. Emotions are stunted. c. Their hair turns white. d. Cognition proceeds more slowly.

Page: W-20 Type: factual Answer: d 77. What part of the frontal lobe is most affected by aging? a. dorsolateral b. ventromedial c. rear strip d. all of it Page: W-20 Type: factual Answer: a 78. How is the lateralization of functions in the cortex affected by aging? a. decreases b. increases c. becomes absent d. is unaffected Page: W-21 Type: factual Answer: a 79. What is the formal name of the hardening of the lens in vision associated with aging? a. presbycusis b. presbyopia c. cataracts d. glaucoma Page: W-21 Type: factual Answer: b 80. What is presbyopia as it relates to aging and vision? a. retinal atrophy b. retinal detachment c. a softening of the lens d. a hardening of the lens Page: W-21 Type: factual Answer: d 81. What is the formal name of the loss of hair cells in the cochlea in hearing associated with aging? a. presbycusis b. presbyopia c. cataracts d. glaucoma Page: W-22 Type: factual Answer: a

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Cognition, 6th ed.

Radvansky/Ashcraft

82. What is presbycusis as it relates to aging and hearing? a. a stiffing of the eardrum b. a loosening of the eardrum c. a loss of hair cells d. an overabundance of inappropriate hair cells Page: W-22 Type: factual Answer: c 83. Because of age-related changes in hearing, older adults would have the greatest difficulty understanding which of the following people? a. a woman b. a man c. a foreigner d. someone on the other end of a telephone line Page: W-22 Type: conceptual Answer: a 84. Because of age-related changes in hearing, older adults would have the greatest difficulty distinguishing between which of the following words? a. dog, dig b. please, peas c. run, ruin d. close, clothe Page: W-22 Type: applied Answer: d 85. Which of the following attentional processes does NOT show age-related declines? a. conjunction search b. pop-out effect c. orienting reflex d. attentional blink Page: W-22 Type: factual Answer: b 86. Older adult have been found to mind wander __________ younger adults. a. as often as b. less often than c. more often than d. with increased frequency relative to Page: W-22 Type: factual Answer: b 87. Some age-related declines in attention can be attributed to declines in __________. a. early filters b. late filters c. world knowledge d. inhibition Page: W-23 Type: factual Answer: d

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Cognition, 6th ed.

Radvansky/Ashcraft

88. For older adults, short-term/working memory span scores are generally __________ those of younger adults. a. lower than b. higher than c. the same as d. more inverted than Page: W-23 Type: factual Answer: a 89. It has been suggested that declines in short-term/working memory capacity in older adults may be due to declines in__________. a. long-term memory b. perception c. inhibition d. language Page: W-24 Type: factual Answer: c 90. One aspect of episodic memory that shows clear declines in older adults is a decline in __________. a. mental organization b. the use of context c. the ability to use familiarity information d. semantic memory Page: W-24 Type: factual Answer: b 91. Compared to younger adults, older adults show larger __________ effects. a. context b. priming c. creativity d. fan Page: W-24 Type: factual Answer: d 92. For information that is remembered from episodic long-term memory, the quality of that information for older adults is __________ episodic long-term memory quality for younger adults. a. more convoluted than b. worse than c. better than d. the same as Page: W-24 Type: factual Answer: d 93. Relative to younger adults, semantic memory in older adults is __________. a. just as good b. disconnected c. reciprocal d. impoverished Page: W-25 Type: factual Answer: a

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Cognition, 6th ed.

Radvansky/Ashcraft

94. Because of changes in semantic memory over the lifetime, if given a vocabulary test, older adults tend to perform __________ younger adults. a. worse than b. better than c. the same as d. faster than Page: W-25 Type: factual Answer: b 95. With the natural aging process, semantic priming effects __________. a. stay the same b. grow larger c. grow smaller d. become more fragmented Page: W-25 Type: factual Answer: a 96. Which of the following metamemory processes is NOT affected by the natural aging process? a. source monitoring b. subjective organization c. prospective memory d. false memories Page: W-25 Type: conceptual Answer: b 97. Compared to younger adults, the vocabularies of older adults are __________. a. stricter b. looser c. smaller d. larger Page: W-25 Type: factual Answer: d 98. Older adults may have trouble accessing a prior referent to an anaphor (such as a pronoun) because of agerelated limitations in __________. a. semantic memory b. procedural memory c. working memory d. sensory memory Page: W-25 Type: factual Answer: c 99. Older adults may have trouble accessing processing __________ sentences. a. declarative b. interrogative c. syntactically complex d. morphologically ambiguous Page: W-28 Type: factual Answer: c

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Cognition, 6th ed.

Radvansky/Ashcraft

100. Older adults may find it easier to process ____________ sentences. a. declarative b. interrogative c. syntactically simple d. morphologically ambiguous Page: W-28 Type: factual Answer: c 101. Language processing is relatively well-preserved at the __________ level for older adults. a. verbatim b. situation model c. textbase d. propositional Page: W-29 Type: factual Answer: b 102. Older adults show differences from younger adults in logical reasoning for __________ problems. a. all kinds of b. just the simplest c. largely abstract d. only the most complex Page: W-30 Type: factual Answer: d 103. Older adults appear to spend __________ time gathering information to make decisions. a. less b. more c. enough d. inadequate amounts of Page: W-31 Type: factual Answer: a 104. When making decisions, younger adults are better at __________ sequences, whereas older adults are better at __________ sequences. a. independent; dependent b. dependent; independent c. random; ordered d. ordered; random Page: W-31 Type: factual Answer: a 105. Compared to younger adults, older adults tend to show a greater __________. a. use of heuristics b. logical reasoning bias c. hindsight bias d. decision-making hierarchy Page: W-31 Type: factual Answer: c

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Test Bank

Cognition, 6th ed.

Radvansky/Ashcraft

106. Older adults exhibit flashbulb memory effects that are __________ those of younger adults. a. larger than b. smaller than c. more focused relative to d. similar to Page: W-32 Type: factual Answer: d 107. Older adults exhibit a __________ with regard to emotion and cognition. a. negativity effect b. positivity effect c. intensity effect d. muted effect Page: W-33 Type: factual Answer: b

True/False Questions: 108. The prefrontal cortex is well-developed at birth. FALSE (p. W-3) 109. At birth, memory and hearing are so underdeveloped that even the mother’s voice is unfamiliar to the infant. FALSE (p. W-3) 110. The precise number aspect of basic number sense develops earlier in infants than the approximate number sense. TRUE (p. W-5) 111. Children show a pop-out effect of attention in visual search just like adults. TRUE (p. W-5) 112. An infant is no more likely to show recognition of the mother’s voice than any other familiar voice (e.g., the father’s). FALSE (p. W-8) 113. The developmental cognition of object permanence is present at birth. FALSE (p. W-10) 114. In children, linguistic performance typically precedes linguistic competence. FALSE (p. W-14) 115. In Bruner’s developmental progression, iconic representation follows enactive representation. TRUE (p.

W-19) 116. Older adults are slower in part because their neurons fire more slowly. TRUE (p. W-20) 117. Older adults need reading glasses because of neurological declines in perception. FALSE (p. W-21) 118. Age-related changes in attention involve an increase in inhibitory processes. FALSE (p. W-23) 119. Episodic memory shows noticeable declines as a person ages. TRUE (p. W-24) 120. Older adults do NOT show declines in semantic memory. TRUE (p. W-25) 121. Older adults show difficulties at all levels of language processing. FALSE (p. W-29) 122. Older adults may be more dependent on schemas and scripts during language comprehension. TRUE (p.

W-29) 123. Older adults show marked declines in logical reasoning with advancing age. FALSE (p. W-30) 124. While younger adults are more impulsive, older adults are slower and more deliberative in their decision making. FALSE (p. W-31) 125. Older adults’ declines in episodic memory do not appear to affect their creation and use of flashbulb memories. TRUE (p. W-32) 126. Older adults are more likely to focus on emotionally positive than emotionally negative information. TRUE (p. W-33)

Fill in the Blank/Short Answer: 127. A study that follows the same people over a span of time is called a ___________ study.

(LONGITUDINAL) 128. An infant’s visual system matures to adults levels by __________________ of age. (ONE YEAR) 129. The idea of how many objects are in a perceptual display is called ________________. (BASIC NUMBER SENSE)

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Cognition, 6th ed.

Radvansky/Ashcraft

130. An indicator of literacy can be found in children who are given the ___________ task in which words are printed in different colors. (STROOP) 131. The inability to remember any life events before the ages of two to four is called___________.

(INFANTILE AMNESIA) 132. The use of an incorrect word to name something in young children may be due to __________________.

(OVEREXTENSION) 133. Starting at around eighteen months of age, there is a dramatic increase in the number of words that a child knows called the ____________. (WORD EXPLOSION) 134. In children, linguistic ___________ typically precedes linguistic ______________ . (COMPETENCE; PERFORMANCE) 135. The way that adults communicate with young children is often called _____________. (CHILDDRECTED SPEECH) 136. According to Vygotsky, children acquire new knowledge that is in their zone of _____________.

(PROXIMAL DEVELOPMENT) 137. The hardening of the lens in the eye that accompanies aging is called __________. (PRESBYOPIA) 138. The loss of hair cells in the cochlea that accompanies aging is called __________. (PRESBYCUSIS) 139. Older adults show noticeable declines in __________ declarative memory, but not ____________ declarative memory. (EPISODIC; SEMANTIC) 140. When reading a fable, older adults may be more likely to draw an inference about the moral than younger adults because of preserved processing at the ____________ level. (SITUATION MODEL) 141. The emotional focus of older adults has led Carstensen to term their bias in emotional valence the ____________ effect. (POSITIVIY)

Essay Questions: 142. What are the benefits of studying cognitive development for the understanding of cognition more generally?

143. What are some aspects of cognition that are underdeveloped at birth?

144. What are Piaget’s stages of cognitive development?

145. What are ways that older adults can compensate for declines in the speed of neural firing that accompanies aging?

146. What areas of memory are preserved in aging, and how can these areas of preservation be used to compensate for other age-related declines?

147. How could age-related changes in language processing influence the instructions a doctor would give her older patients? Be specific about which cognitive processes need to be considered and how these would be addressed.

148. How does what we know about the semantic memories and reasoning abilities of older adults play into the idea that wisdom accompanies aging?

149. What are some of the reasons for older adults exhibiting a positivity bias in cognition, and how can this be elicited in younger adults?

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