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THE
UNIVERSAL
PROPHET
Ahmed Ali
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INDEX Introduction A passage from letter of Paul And its synopsis
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a. Migration of Abraham b. The exile of son and wife c. ordered by God - but not by Sarah - disclosed d. Ishmael was infant - but not 16 years old e. Fountain of water
Sacrifice of the only son
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a. The only son of Abraham was Ishmael: but not Isaac b. Thine only son - Isaac? c. Ishmael was given in sacrifice before the birth of Isaac d. Sacrifice (Thine only son) whom thou lovest e. Sacrifice of the only son substituted by a ram: Abraham returns to Beersheba
Church manipulated: Imputed sacrifice to Isaac: so as to attribute promise of universal prophet to Jesus 37 a. The universal prophet was promised b. The Universal prophet was to come from Ishmaelites- Jesus admitted. c. Universal prophet establishes the Kingdom of God-admitted by Jesus d. God says 'Israel would none of me' - Jesus explains its reasons
Hagar the second wife of Abraham a. Hagar a handmaid of Sarah? Concubine of Abraham? b. Hagar a co-wife of Sarah and equal partner in the family c. Sarah was barren - Hagar was taken as second wife, with the consent of Sarah d. Some facts about Abraham's family e. Church is terribly afraid of Hagar and Ishmael f. Ishmael mocked at Isaac: a mournful clain of Church
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Was Hagar really the handmaid of Sarah?
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a. Isaac was born after promise - so also Ishmael was born after promise of God b. promises of God to Abraham relating to Ishmael c. The heir of the promises was he that was born out of Abraham's own bowels d. A little manipulation - results in great loss e. Hagar was taken as a wife to Abraham even before the first promise of a child f. Ishmael was legal heir to the promise of Universal prophet g. Progenitor of the Universal prophet: Isaac or Ishmael? h. Cast out bondwoman and her son - scripture says? i. Bondwoman's son was the real inheritor of the promise - as he was born out of the bowels of Abraham
Ishmael: The progenitor of the Universal prophet
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a. Affliction of Hagar- not because she was dealt oppresively by Sarah: but because she remained unproductive b. Ishmael a wild man: Urdu and Telugu versions interpreted to mean "a man like wild ass"
He shall dwell among all his brethren a. Hagar had a high reputation in her family as well as in the community b. A clue about the person of Universal prophet: He was to come from Egyptian blood relation (Numbers 24:8, Hosea 12:13, and 11:1) c. Another clue: He was to come from Mount Paran (Deuteronomy 33:2, Hebakkuk 3:3) d. One more clue: He was to give law: (Deuteronomy 33:2, 18:18 19) e. He was to come from Ishmaelites
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Law was to come (Deuteronomy 33:2)
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a.Prophecy recorded in past tense - a glaring manipulation b. Second part should be in future tense - its reasons
Law was to come from right hand 109 Prophetic office commissioned to Moses: According to Qur'an (Qur'an 19:52) 110 Law given to Moses (Qur'an 20:80) 110 a . Commentaries of Mr Abdullah Yusuf Ali- about Sinai and its right side and Paran b. Ascertained information by the Quranic and Biblical quotations when compared
A Universal law was to come from the prophet like Moses from Arabia (Deut 33:2; 18:18;Galatians 4:22-25;Isaiah 13:51-54; 2:3;Micah 4:2;Habakkuk 3:3) 118 a. New law would come only when Mosaic law completely be broken (Jermiah 31:31-33) b. Another prophecy (Isaiah 8:14-16) c. All Israelitic prohets spoke Hebrew d. A law was to come from Ishmaelites- Arabians (Isaiah 28:2-13) e. Law in another tongue (Qur'an 26:192-196, Isaiah 28:11 and 5:15-16) f. And this is the refershing - meaning revivalism or reminder
A Universal prophet was promised to Abraham a. Jesus was for Israelites only b. Jesus commands his disciples not to preach others except Israelites c. Jesus reminds the prophecy made to Moses d. Vineyard parable by Jesus (Matthew 21:41-44; Isaiah 28:16; Psalm 118:22-23) Another prophecy (Luke 13:25-29) e. Balaam's prophecy (Numbers 24:8-9) f. Barren woman and desolated woman
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g Barren woman that keeps house - Sarah Desolated woman that hath many more children-Hagar (Galatians 4:27; Psalm 113:9; Isaiah 54:1; Matthew 21:42) h. Promises about Ishmael i. A promise about Isaac j. Recollection of some important points k. In religious aspect majority cannot be determined on world census records but by the number of real followers (Isaiah 54:1, Hosea 11:1) l. Universal prophet did not come until the period of John and Jesus m. John and Jesus were in expectation of the advent of the Universal prophet n. Principle elements of the religion were given to all nations by their respective prophets (Isaiah 61:11) o. The religion given by the Universal prophet is not a new religion but a reminder of the religion given to every people (Qur'an 53:56, 46:9, 80:11-12, 38:87, 42:13, 41:43) p. A prophecy of Jesus about Universal prophet (John 14:26-27, Isaiah 52:7) q. Church ascribes the prophecy made by God through Moses
about the advent of a prophet like himself - to Jesus (Deuteronomy 18:18 - its exposition under Acts 3:1925) r. The advent of the Universal prophet was to take place in the last deays (Isaiah 2:2-3; Micah 4:1-2) s. Jesus prays for the advent of Universal prophet t. The mountain of the Lord's house was to be exalted above all mountains and all nations should flow into it (Micah 4:1-2; Isaiah 2:2-3) Mohammad is a prophet like Moses (Isaiah 49:6) 183 a. Bravery of the Universal prophet and the confirmation of Jesus(Isaiah 5:26-30,Galatians 4:22-25, Matthew 21:42-44)
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b. Who this stone had been which was rejected? c. Not rejected by God d. Isaiah 18:3 Prophet Mohammad is salvation for all nations (Isaiah 52:10) Zion (Jermiah 50:4-6, John 4:20-21, Haggai 2:7-9) 198 a. Isaiah 60:14-16 -The sons also of them that afflicted shall come bending unto thee b. And they that despised thee shall bow themselves down at the soles of thy feet c. And they shall call thee the city of the Lord, the Zion of the Holy one of Israel d. Zion is the place where God dwells (Joel 3:16-18) e. Zion is known as the place where the House of God exists (Genesis 21:17-21, Habakkuk 3:3-7, Joel 3:18, Psalm 46:4 Isaiah 60:14 , Danial 7:14) f. Theocracy had to be restored (a. Isaiah 2:3-4, b. Micah 4:2-3, c. Daniel 4:26, d. Isaiah 24;23,) g. Comes out of Zion:(e. Psalm 110:2,f.psalm 146:10, g.Psalm149:2, h. Isaiah 9:6-7) h. Whom does the title wonderful attract? i. The kingdom of God was to restore yet (Isaiah 24:23 ) Jesus did not give law And prayed for theocrasy j. The Zeal of the Lord of hosts will perform this Isaiah 9:7 k. Now let us examine this prophecy- Psalm 84:4-7 and Jermiah 50:3-6 l. Significance of ZION. BETHEL m. A fountain of Water was miraculously provided for Hagar and Ishmael (The meaning of Beer-sheba) n. Ezekiel 37:22-28 o. A similar prophecy. Zechariah 6:12-13 p. Zion - Law was to come from q. Zion - Theocracy
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r. Paran transformed as Zion - synopsis s. Paran is the place of Arabia Polygamy 289 a. Polygamy not forbidden - But mistaken (Isaiah 4:12) b. Example I David c. Example II Soloman d. Example III Abraham e. Example IV Esau S/o Isaac f. Example V Jocob S/o Isaac g. The another device that pastors make h. Battles-Fought for Religion: Defencive only but not aggressive i. Qur'an: A product of malpractice? copied from Bible? j. Trance of a prophet mistaken for trance followed by epileptic attack k. Prophecy of Isaiah about the unlettered prophet (Isaiah 29:11-12)
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Introduction I being a Muslim, it has been my regular habit of studying the Qur'an. I have gone through the following verse many a time. But on one particular event, when the verse once again happened to come under my study, I was inspired to conduct a rsearch on the Bible to find out whether the name of the unlettered prophet, has really been mentioned in Torah and Gospel, as proclaimed by Qur'an. From that time onwards I started studying the Bible. The verse Those who follow the Messenger the unlettered prophet, whom they find mentioned in their own (scriptures); - in the Law and the Gospel; - for he commands them what is just and forbids them what is evil; he allows them as lawful what is good and forbids them from what is bad; he releases them from their heavy burdens and from the yokes that are upon them, so it is those who believe in him, honour him, help him, and follow the Light which is sent down with him, - it is they who will prosper. -Qur'an 7:157 Those who follow the Messenger the unlettered prophet... This clause speaks of the persons who had embraced Islam from the Jewish and Christian communities. It is they that occupied a considerable majority in Arab apart from Arabian polythiests. As it focusses on saying "that they find the mention of the Messenger the unlettered prophet in their Torah and Gospel" the information as provided therein, applies only to Jews and Christians themselves. This clearly points out on the fact that a number of prophecies regarding the advent of prophet Mohammad (s) have been incorporated in The Bible, by different prophets including Jesus. And thus my research work on the Bible particularly basing on the point of prophecies regarding the advent of the unlettered prophet and on other points secondarily has been continuing ever since, the result of which is the product of this book "The Universal prophet" in addition to a few others1. The repetition of the verses and of some statements may annoy our readers. They appear as repetitions but to be frank
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they are repeated only when the necessity became inevitable as and when the matter concerned with such repetitions is dealt with some new argument on some other prophecy. However we hope the readers will bear with us in such unavoidable circumstances and extend their cooperation. Our earth planet which is known as world is a tiny part of the universe. It is the only place for human inhabitation. For the guidance of mankind, prophets were appointed from among themselves. All the former prophets were sent to their respective nations and regions. But the case of the last prophet is different from all other prophets. He has been sent for the entire mankind hence he is a "World Prophet". We know that the abode of mankind is the place called earth. And hence his teachings are necessary only to the world but not for the entire universe. The fact is known that there is no inhabitation of mankind on any other part of the universe except on the earth, and so prophets' guidance is necessary to the world only. The last prophet has been appointed for the entire mankind hence in the logical way we prefer to name him "Universal Prophet" rather than 'World Prophet', as there is no prophet except him in the whole universe. Readers are requested to note that though a greater part of prophecies has been discussed, a few other prophecies have been left untouched as they are, in one way or the other give the same impact. The detailed discussion on the subject discloses the fact that how the prophecies are misinterpreted and tried to attribute to the person of Jesus. An unbiased study of our discussions helps the readers to understand the prophecies about whom they aptly applicable to - whether to Jesus or prophet Mohammad. AHMED ALI Author
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In the name of Creator
THE UNIVERSAL PROPHET A PASSAGE FROM LETTER OF PAUL Tell me, ye that desire to be under the law, do ye not hear the law? For it is written, that Abraham had two sons, the one by a bondmaid, the other by a freewoman. But he who was of the bondwoman was born after the flesh; but he of the freewoman was by promise. Which things are an allegory: for these are the two covenants: the one from the mount Sinai, which gendereth to bondage, which is Hagar. For this Hagar is mount Sinai in Arabia and answereth to Jerusalem which now is and is in bondage with her children. But Jerusalem which is above is free, which is the mother of us all. For it is written, Rejoice, thou barren that bearest not; break forth and cry, thou that travailest not: for the desolate hath many more children than she which hath an husband. Now we, brethren, as Isaac was, are the children of promise. But as then he that was born after the flesh persecuted him that was born after the Spirit, even so it is now. Nevertheless what saith the scripture? Cast out the bondwoman and her son: for the son of the bondwoman shall not be heir with the son of the freewoman. So then, brethren, we are not children of the bondwoman, but of the free. -Galatians 4:21-31
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The above passage is taken from the letter by paul to Galatians. This passage, however finds no place and no relevance to the letter when it is observed keeping in view of the theme and the purpose and intention with which it had been written. And at the same time it rather contradicts the very purpose of the letter which it had mainly been intended for. However, as according to the present matter at issue, we are not concerned about the letter on the whole and the contradictions therein. But what primarily needed is- the above passage: for it provides some fundamental facts about the universal prophet Mohammad. So, now let us discuss these points one after another basing on the passage and the other relevant scriptural facts. The above passage is consisting of two kinds of verses, those are ...
1. Decesive in meaning which give clear meaning enabling even a lay man to understand without least trouble, and 2. Allegoric which also convey the clear meaning of it; yet some literary and grammatical knowledge is required to know its perspective meaning. Synopsis of the passage From the above passage it is evident that Abraham had two sons, one was born by a bondwoman and the other by a freewoman respectively. The first was born after the flesh means by means of natural phenomenon by human intercourse resulting in conception. The second by spirit- means by special favour of God by spiritual means (miraculouslyGalatians 4:29). These two women are two covenants out of whom two great progenies of two great nations followed, each through each of them respectively. So far it is well and good. But what surprising is, the fact that the further verses rather seem to be of derogatory in nature against one progeny particularly so that the superiority might be well imputed to the latter one. Their superiority complex and the claim of alleged legal inheritance of both spiritual and material over the former one went so far as to declare...
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Nevertheless what saith the scripture? cast out the bondwoman and her son: for the son of the bondwoman shall not be heir with the son of the freewoman. -Galatians 4:30 And further attempts were made to provoke anger and create unending disharmony and hatred against each other by the false accusation such as... But as then he that was born after the flesh persecuted him that was born after the spirit, even so it is now. -Galatians 4:29 And again the spiritual inheritance was tried forcibly to be captured by creating wrong interpretation and misconception of the verse... For it is written, Rejoice, thou barren that bearest not; break forth and cry, thou that travailest not: for the desolate hath many more children than she which hath an husband. -Galatians 4:27 Now we have to know about the following persons and points so as to know the facts what they had really been originally and how they have been perverted subsequently. 1. Abraham 2. Bondwoman 3. Freewoman 4. Two sons of Abraham (a) Ishmael by Hager (b) Isaac by Sarah. 5. Two covenants (laws): one from each woman respectively, and 6. Keyverses of the passage as here under mentioned to be discussed...
a. But he who was by the bondwoman was born after the flesh; but he of the free woman was by promise. -Galatians 4:23 b. Which things are an allegory for these are the two covenants; the one from mount Sinai which gendereth to bondage which is Hagar. -Galatians 4:24 c. For this Hagar is mount Sinai in Arabia and answereth to Jerusalem which now is, and is in bondage with her chldren. But Jerusalem which is above is free which is the mother of us all.
-Galatians 4:25-26
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d. For it is written, Rejoice thou barren that bearest not; break forth and cry, thou that travailest not: for the desolate hath many more children than she which hath an husband. -Galatians 4:27 e. Now, we, brethren, as Isaac was, are the children of promise. But as then he that was born after the flesh persecuted him that was born after the spirit even so it is now. Nevertheless what saith the scripture? Cast out the bondwoman and her son: for the son of the bondwoman shall not be heir with the son of the freewoman. So brethren, we are not children of the bondwoman, but of the free. -Galatians 4:28-31 1. Abraham :
a) He was so named as he was to become the father of many nations. Thus God says: Neither shall thy name any more be called Abram, but thy name shall be Abraham, for a father of many nations have I made thee -Genesis 17:5 b. He was a prophet of God. "... for he is a prophet". -Genesis 20:7
c. He was so obedient to God, and righteous in his deeds that God called him a friend of Himself. And the scripture was fulfilled which saith, Abraham believed God and it was imputed unto him for righteouness: and he was called the friend of God -James 2:23
d. He passed through the trials of God all successful and hence he was promised.
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Migration of Abraham This was the first trial of God with Abraham. God commanded him to leave his father's house and his native place (country). Thus we read: Now the Lord had said unto Abraham, Get thee out of thy country and from thy kindred and from thy father's house, unto a land that I will shew thee. -Genesis 12:1 Abraham obeyed God So abraham departed, as the Lord had spoken unto him... -Genesis 12:4
The Exile: of son and wife The exile of his only beloved son and beloved wife. This was the second trial of God with Abraham. And God said unto Abraham, Let it not be grievous in thy sight because of the lad and because of thy bond woman... -Genesis 21:12
NB: Manipulations of the church can be disclosed as we go through the arguments.
Ordered by God: but not by Sarah-disclosed The exile of his only beloved son Ishmael and his beloved wife Hagar was commanded by God. It is, anyway, conceivable how horrible the matter was it to send out the only child who was given in his old age and the mother who gave birth to it. Is it possible for any man to cast out of his sight, to those that became the delight of his sight? But the friend of God, the most obedient, being a prophet, Abraham exiled his wife Hagar along with his only child who was hardly a year old to the wilderness of Beersheba, the place uninhabited where even water was not available. While ordering the exile, God said to Abraham "Let it not be grievous in thy sight because of the lad and because of thy bondwoman" (Gen-
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esis 21:12). This shows that how great love and affection that Abraham had for them. But one should not misunderstand that he became disobedient in carrying on, the God's commandment. The further verses speak how spontaneously he obeyed in exiling his beloved son and wife. Abraham spontaneously made arrangements for the exile and sent them out. Thus we read in Genesis... And Abraham rose up early in the morning, and took bread and a bottle of water and gave it unto Hagar putting it on her shoulder and the child and sent her away: and she departed and wandered in the wilderness of Beer-Sheba -21:14 And the water was spent in the bottle and she cast the child under one of the shrubs -21:15 And she went, and sat her down over against him a good way off, as it were a bow's shot: for she said, Let me not see the death of the child. And she sat over against him, and lift up her voice and wept. 21:16 And God heard the voice of the lad; and the angel of God called to Hagar out of heaven, and said unto her what aileth thee Hagar? Fear not; for God hath heard the voice of the lad where he is -21:17 Arise, lift up the lad and hold him in thine hand; for I will make him a great nation. -21:18 And God opened her eyes and she saw a well of water: and she went and filled the bottle with water and gave the lad drink. -21:19 And God was with the lad; and he grew and dwelt in the wilderness and became an archer. -21:20 The above verses prove that Abraham had spontaneously obeyed God's command and exiled Hagar along with his only child. Thus he came out all successful from God's second trial also.
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Ishmael was infant below a year at his exile but not 16 years old as church manipulated Now let us have a glance over the manipulations of the Church. A close examination of the verses reveals the fact that this second trial of banishment took place while Ishamael was just below one year old child. But what makes one think seriously is the point that why church has presented this event to have been taken place after the birth of the second son Isaac to Abraham by Sarah. Thus we read as has been recorded as preamble for the banishment (Genesis 21:8-13). And the child [Isaac] grew, and was weaned: and Abraham made a great feast the same day that Isaac was weaned. -21:8 And Sarah saw the son of Hagar the Egyptian [Ishmael], which she had born unto Abraham, mocking (21:9) wherefore she said unto Abraham, cast out this bondwoman and her son: for the son of this bondwoman shall not be heir with my son, even with Isaac. -21:10 And the thing was very grievous in Abraham's sight because of his son -21:11 And God said unto Abraham, let it not be grievous in thy sight because of the lad, and because of thy bondwoman; in all that Sarah hath said unto thee, hearken unto her voice: for in Isaac shall thy seed be called -21:12 And also of the son of the bondwoman will I make a nation, be cause he is thy seed -21:13 The above passage (Genesis 21:8-13) is the preamble of the banishment of Hagar which we made mention earlier under reference Genesis 21:14-20 in our page 7. In this passage the perversion of the facts according to their fancy and that how Church had tampered the text of the Bible can be seen.
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The reason for such heinous task is nothing but as we told earlier, that the Church had been in constant pertinacity to derogate the progeny of Ishmael and to exalt the supremacy of Israelites over Ishmaelites through whom the universal prophet was promised. And thus to attribute this promise of God made to Abraham, to the person of Jesus, the descendant from the progeny of Isaac (the Israelites). Before going into details, let us first know the age difference between Ishmael the first son and Isaac the second son of Abraham. This will help a lot to make easy our further arguments.
A. Abraham was 86 years old when Hagar gave birth to Ishmael (Genesis 16:16). B. And Abraham was 100 years old, when Isaac was born to him (Genesis 21:5). Thus at the time when Isaac was born (100-86) Ishmael was 14 years old. So the age difference between Ishmael and Isaac was 14 years. Ishmael was elder and Isaac was younger. The preamble of the event as recorded in the Bible is closely examined as here under so that the facts that how the Church manipulated can be brought into limelight. A. And the child (Isaac) grew and was weaned. And Abraham made a great feast the same day that Isaac was weaned (Genesis 21:8).
Note: On examination of the Biblical records we have derived that the age difference betwen Ishmael and Isaaac was 14 years. Naturally the weaning of milk for a child takes at least 2 years. Thus by the time when Isaac was weaned, the age of Ishmael was 16 years.
B. And Sarah saw the son of Hagar the Egyptian, which she had born unto Abraham, mocking (Genesis 21:9). In this verse it is stated that
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Ishmael 16 years old boy mocked at Isaac the two years old child. In the family where there was only one boy till fourteen long years, and then if the second child happened to be his companion and family member, what great pleasant the homely environment to the first boy is beyond expression. This is but natural phenomenon in the attitude of the children in particular. If that be the case can anybody believe that Ishmael had mocked at Isaac? That too at the age of sixteen years? Let us for some time agree that Ishmael had mocked. But we would like to question the Church, whether it would make any difference for the boy of two years either he be mocked at or appeased by? Of course makes no difference and if at all there was some irritable reaction in Isaac, as is found in the cases of most sensitive boys in very rare and exceptional cases, that mockery even, can be taken as a play of the boy, but not a matter so seriously be taken into account to. But it troubled and teased the Church very much and termed that mockery, after all a silly thing, as persecution and declared as hereunder to create dishormony as we earlier said. But as then he that was born after flesh [Ishmael] persecuted him that was born after spirit [Isaac] even so now it is. -Galatians 4:29
NB: Why and when the Church developped this type of hatred againstIshmael and his progeny can be noticed while going through our arguments. The child Isaac who was mocked at was calm. But the Church is troubled. What a great sin had Ishmael committed! Mocked!? Unpardonable sin, which made them to pass a decree against Ishmael that he should be banished and his mother too, though she was innocent, merely because she gave birth to him (perhaps). Wherefore she [Sarah] said unto Abraham, cast out this bondwoman and her son: for the son of this bond woman shall not be heir with my son, even with Isaac. -21:10
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And the thing was very grievous in Abraham's sight because of his son -Genesis 21:11 This verse (Genesis 21:11) may be the one which might have been stated in some other context. Abraham's grievance for his son might be of some other reason which is nowhere recorded in the Bible, yet can be predicted that some domestic affairs between the fellow- wives1 that generally take place (happen) in polygamy might have brought up such a situation (God knows). In the verse (Genesis 21:10) Sarah says that Ishmael was the son of a bondmaid as if that he had no sonship with Abraham and deprived Ishmael of his spiritual as well as material inheritance of Abraham's legacy by commanding the banishment of Hagar along with Ishmael. But in the verse (Genesis 21:11) it is stated that anything against Ishmael was very grievous in the sight of Abraham and thus the inheritance was also protected. Contradiction, of course between these two verses is obvious on account of displacement of the verse under Ref: Genesis 21:11
C. And God said unto Abraham let it not be grievous in thy sight because of the lad, and because of thy bondwoman; in all that Sarah hath said unto thee, hearken unto her voice: for in Isaac shall thy seed be called -Genesis 21:12 And also the son of the bondwoman will I make a nation, because he is thy seed. -Genesis 21:13 In the verse 21:12 it is stated that Abraham's seed shall be called (only) in Isaac. This is the key point which Church was particular to bring about, to deprive the Ishmaelites of the legal inheritance of the legacy of Abraham. For this reason only this preamble of the banishment has been created which facts can be disclosed by the event itself as recorded in the Bible. Further in the verse 21:13 Abraham was promised that God would make Ishmael also a nation because he was his seed. Thus the attempts of the Church which they made to snatch away the legal inheritance of Ishmael and his progeny, are made null and void by declaring that Ishmael was also a son of Abraham and thus Ishmael and his seed continue to
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inherit the father Abraham's legacy both spiritual and material whatever. Examine the two clauses of the two verses.
1. For in Isaac shall thy seed be called -21:12 2. Ishmael is thy seed -21:13 Example:
1. You shall be called good. (No guarantee is there whether there be any goodness in him; but he shall be called good).
2. You are good. (Goodness is affirmed. No matter whether one calls him good or bad). Keeping in view of this example the above clauses of the two verses as cited above may be examined so as to know in whom the prominence of being his seed is applicable to whether in Isaac or in Ishmael. As a matter of fact, at the time of exile, Ishmael was only an infant of below one year. Therefore Isaac was not yet born. If this be the case where is the chance to declare as...
For in Isaac shall thy seed be called? Is this only point not enough to prove that how the Church has manipulated the things according to their whims and fancies? This event of banishment starts from Genesis 21:8-20. This passage can be divided under two parts one from Genesis 21:8-13 as preamble of the event, and the second from Genesis 21:14-20 as the actual event of banishment. These two parts contradict with each other. Let us examine. According to the preamble of the banishment event it is learnt that Hagar and Ishmael were sent out of their house on the accusation that Ishmael mocked at Isaac on the feast of his (Isaac's) weaning. This goes
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to prove beyond doubt, that by that time, Ishmael was about sixteen years old. But according to the narrations as regards to the event of banishment, all the verses very convincingly prove that Ishmael was an infant below a year. Please observe the following points as narrated in the event. ... and took bread and a bottle of water and gave it unto Hagar putting it on her shoulder and the child and sent her away. -Genesis 21:14 In the above verse it is evident that bread and bottle of water and the child were put on the shoulder of Hagar. Were the child sixteen years old, could the mother have carried him on her shoulder all the way to Beer-sheba? Could he not have accompanied with his mother by walking along with her? And further if he were sixteen years old as recorded in the preamble, he could have accompanied his mother in the walk and hence, as both were being sent, the clauses should have originally been to read as "sent them away" and 'they departed and wandered' but not as 'sent her away' and she departed and wandered' . Here the clause 'sent her away' means to say clearly that the child was on her shoulder, and she was being sent out. So the clause is a literal proof that at the time of banishment, Ishmael was an infant of below one year. And further verses make this point clear. ... and she cast the child under one of the shrubs -Genesis 21:15 She cast the child... wherefrom? From her shoulder. Whereon? on the ground under the shrub. This clearly speeks of the fact that she brought her child keeping it on her shoulder right from the house to the place of Beer-sheba, where at last cast the child under one of the shrubs. Was he really a boy of sixteen years old? ...Let me not see the death of the child -Genesis 21:16 Thus Hagar thinks within herself and sat herself aloof weeping. Were he really sixteen years old, could he not have come to his mother and consoled her?
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Were he the cause (as he was accused to have mocked at Isaac) for her banishment, could he not have repented himself and asked his mother for his forgiveness? Was he a physically handicapped one or dumb who despite his age, could not move from the place where he was cast down? and speak with his mother? or was he a notorious mischief monger who was ammusingly watching the play (episode) his mother was enacting as a result of his own mischief? May God forbid. He was an infant helplessly crying for milk and the poor mother helplessly sat aloof from the child not bearing her son to be famished. Then God showered His mercy on both the child and the mother... Fountain of water gushed forth miraculouslyAnd God heard the voice of the lad; and the angel of God called to Hagar out of heaven and said unto her what aileth thee, Hagar? fear not; for God hath heard the voice of the lad where he is. Arise lift up the lad and hold him in thine hand: for I will make him a great nation. -Genesis 21:17-18 And again when God miraculously created a spring of water Hagar hastened herself and filled the bottle with water and gave the lad drink (Genesis 21:19) This goes to prove that Ishmael was only an infant. All these points are self evident to prove that the banishment of Hagar along with her child took place while Ishmael the child was yet an infant below a year of age; but not sixteen years old boy as has been made apparent from the narrations as recorded in their preamble for this event. Then therefore there arises no question of the existence of Isaac at all, who as a matter of fact was born after fourteen years after the birth of Ishmael. As such the command of Sarah for Hagar's banishment is also proved to be baseless. Then therefore the verse "Wherefore she [Sa-
rah] said unto Abraham, cast out this bondwoman and her son: for the son of this bondwoman shall not be heir with my son even with Isaac" (Genesis 21:10) is proved to be an interpolation and after thought development of the church which has been inserted after the seed of Ishmael the followers of Mohammad came out all successful and dominant over spiritual as well as material inheritance of Abraham as had been promised to him which we will discuss in detail in our further arguments.
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If the banishment was not commanded by Sarah, there come some logical questions as regards to it.
1. Why was the banishment imposed? 2. And by whom was it decreed? Let us for a while agree that Sarah had demanded the banishment of Hagar in envious retaliation against her fellow- wife1 on any other reason rather than what is being discussed. Were it so she could have expelled Hagar and her child Ishmael from their house and Hagar could have taken shelter in some neighbouring house of the same place or at the most in some adjacent village. But the thing is not so. She was sent to Beer-sheba a remote wilderness uninhabited and where even water was not available. As a matter of fact God wanted to try Abraham and see whether his love and obedience for Him surpass the love and affection that he had on his beloved son Ishmael who was given to him in his old age. And Abraham (might have) revealed this decree of God before Hagar. And she being an obedient handmaid of God, whole heartedly accepted to co-operate with Abraham in this trial of God. This was the reason that why though she was sent to Beer-sheba where no human being was there nor anything to eat nor even to drink, could not leave that place until she received help from God Himself... Beer-sheba was, most presumably the place which had been pointed out by God, just as the place of sacrifice of Abraham's only son was pointed out (Genesis 22:2). Otherwise she could have gone some where else where she could have been provided shelter and food by any on humanitarian grounds. Of course this (the truth pertaining to trial) is nowhere recorded in the Bible in clear terms for the obvious reasons that the Church which has been in persistent trials to derogate Ishmael and his posterity could never leave any matter intact recorded in favour of them except those which they might have not understood to have been stated in their (Ishmaelites) favour or with a blind hope that they could twist them in their (Israelite's) favour.
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However just in obedience to the God's command Abraham sent Hagar to Beer-sheba with some bread and a bottle of water along with his child Ishmael (Genesis 21:14). What little bread and water was given to her was consumed (Genesis 21:15). She was starving and thirsty. In this way perhaps a day or two might have been spent. She wandered in the wilderness in search of water all the time as long as she could. As it was a wilderness uninhabited she could not get herself separated from the child. She could not keep the child at any place for fear of animal attack or any other fateful calamity. What all efforts she made in search of water to quench off her thirst, all the time she was carrying the child on her shoulder. Starvation and thirst on one hand and on the other the suckling to the child and running here and there in search of water made her so weak which might have resulted in absorption of milk in her breasts. Then the child began to cry for milk. The more she tried to console the child by her false suckling with empty breasts the more the child was crying for milk. She could tolerate every thing for her. But she was not able to bear the cry of the child which was as if it were piercing her ears and pricking in the heart. So... ... She cast the child under one of the shrubs. And she went and sat her down over against him a good way off as it were a bow shot: for she said Let me not see the death of the child. And she sat over against him and lift up her voice and wept. -Genesis 21:15-16 Then And God heard the voice of the lad: And the angel of God called to Hagar out of heaven and said unto her what aileth thee Hagar? fear not: for God hath heard the voice of the lad where he is. Arise lift up the lad and hold him in thine hand; for I will make him a great nation. -Genesis 21:17-18 God did not keep quiet with mere promise to make the child a great nation but showered His mercy on both the mother and child by creating miraculously a spring of water there : which is according to Islamic version called water of Zam-Zam, which has been gushing forth eversince, just near the Holy Kaba in Macca.
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And God opened her eyes and she saw a well of water; and she went and filled the bottle with water and gave the lad drink -Genesis 21:19 And God opened her eyes and she saw a well of water -21:19 What a humourous clauses are these! They impress to mean that a well was already existing there. But all the time Hagar was blind and was not able to see it. What is it that Church is going to lose if it clearly mention that God had miraculously created a spring of water there? Is it a greater thing to veil over than the appearance of the angel of God and giving her the glad tidings about Ishmael saying that God would make him a great nation (Genesis 21:17-18)? However what all these points which are discussed so far lead to think, that it does not behove to the majesty of the Church to give a clear picture of the things and to make mention of the favours conferred upon Hagar and Ishmael. As a matter of fact the eyes of Hagar were not opened to see the well of water but a spring of water was miraculously provided for them, just like a ram was found in the thicket by Abraham to sacrifice in his son's stead. There was no ram already available there. But when Abraham was about to sacrifice his only son, God miraculously provided the ram to substitute his son's sacrifice (Genesis 22:13). Not only God had provided water for them, but also sustenance for their subsistence. Though it is not recorded in the Bible the following verse confirms it.
And God was with the lad and he grew and dwelt in the wilderness and became an archer -Genesis 21:20
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Sacrifice of the only son This is the third trial of God with Abraham. And it came to pass after these things that God did tempt Abraham and said unto him, Abraham and he said, Behold here I am. And he said, take now thy son, thine only son Isaac, whom thou lovest, and get thee into the land of Moriah; and offer him there for a burnt offering upon one of the mountains which I will tell thee of. And Abraham rose up early in the morning, and saddled his ass, and took two of his young men with him, and Isaac his son, and clave the wood for the burnt offering, and rose up, and went unto the place of which God had told him. Then on the third day Abraham lifted up his eyes and saw the place afar off. And Abraham said unto his young men, Abide ye here with the ass; and I and the lad will go yonder and worship, and come again to you. And Abraham took the wood of the burnt offering and laid it upon Isaac his son: and he took the fire in his hand, and a knife; and they went both of them together. And Isaac spake unto Abraham his father, and said my father: and he said, Here am I, my son. And he said, Behold the fire and the wood: but where is lamb for a burnt offering? And Abraham said, my son, God will provide for himself a lamb for a burnt offering! so they went both of them together. And they came to the place which God had told him of, and Abraham built an altar there, and laid the wood in order, and bound Isaac his son, and laid him on the altar upon the wood. And Abhraham stretched forth his hand and took the knife to slay his son. And the angel of the Lord called unto him out of heaven and said, Abraham, Abraham; and he said, Here am I. And he said, lay not thine hand upon
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the lad, neither do thou any thing unto him: for now I know that thou fearest God, seeing thou hast not withheld thy son, thine only son from me. And Abraham lifted up his eyes, and looked, and behold, behind him a ram caught in a thicket by his horns: and Abraham went and took the ram, and offered him up for a burnt offering in the stead of his son. And Abraham called the name of that place Jehovah- Jireh: as it is said to this day. In the mount of the Lord it shall be seen. And the angel of the Lord called unto Abraham out of heaven the second time and said, By myself have I sworn, saith the Lord, for because thou hast done this thing and hast not withheld thy son, thine only son: That in blessing I will bless thee and in multiplying I will multiply thy seed as the stars of the heaven, and as the sand which is upon the sea shore, and thy seed shall possess the gate of his enemies; and in thy seed shall all the nations of the earth be blessed; because thou hast obeyed my voice. So Abraham returned unto his young men, and they rose up and went together to Beer-sheba; and Abraham dwelt at Beer-sheba. -Genesis 22:1-19
The only son of Abraham was Ishmael: but not IsaacAccording to the above passage we came to know that God ordained Abraham to offer his only son in sacrifice. The only son means that there is no other son beside him, a well known fact even to a lay man which point however, needs no explanation. This goes to prove beyond doubt that the sacrifice was ordained even before the birth of Isaac the second son to Abraham. So the only son invariably refers to the first son Ishmael. But what perturbs one to find is that it is mentioned in the Bible saying as "Thine only son Isaac" (Genesis 22:2). It is not a contradiction which generally takes place as a result of two different statements for any particular issue, but a glaring interpolation wilfully committed. The only son refers to Ishmael but not to Isaac.
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The second reason isit is said as 'thine only son'. Only son refers to the elder son even before the birth of the second son or successive children. Were there two sons at that time the use of the word 'only son' remains humorous and meaningless. So it proves beyond doubt that this trial of sacrifice took place while Ishmael being the only son even before the birth of Isaaac. As regards to this we have a good reference in the passage itself. When Abraham was about to sacrifice his son with the knife, the angel of God called him and said-
And he [the angel of God] said, lay not thine hand upon the lad, neither do thou any thing unto him: for now I know that thou fearest God, seeing thou hast not withheld thy son thine only son from me. -Genesis 22:11-12 The above underlined part of the verse goes to explain that God saying through his angel as... "I tried you asking to exile your only son along with your wife Hagar, to see whether you would obey me in that respect or that you would keep yourself behind out of love and affection for your only son. Though it was a matter unacceptable easily for a man to get himself away from the only child who was given to him in his old age, from which trial you have gone through successful. Yet it was not as horrible and impracticable as the sacrifice of your only child. Now you have on my command, did not care even your only beloved son. The sacrifice of your only son is a token which has marked an end whithin itself of any trial. No trial whatever, can be greater than the spontaneous sacrifice of the only son by a father. So, as you have come out of this trial too successfully, you have proved yourself as a God fearing man whose love and obedience for his Lord surpassed over the love and affection on anybody else in the world". Now we would like to invite the attention of the readers to ascertain keeping in view of these facts whether both the trials (Banishment & Sacrifice) were made with the same person the only son Ishmael or one with Ishmael and the other with Isaac as Church contends.
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Thine only son - Isaac? Take note of the clause 'Thine only son Isaac' from the verse Genesis 22:2 Bear in mind that this was commanded by God to Abraham who had two sons, the elder son Ishmael and the younger one Isaac. Had the verse been to read as 'thine only son Ishmael' there would have been no problem to understand that this commandment was made even before the birth of the younger son Isaac. But it is clearly mentioned as ... 'thine only son Isaac' which gives rise to suspect-
1. ... whether God was sane or insane by that time who did not possess so much of literary Knowledge (May God forbid) as even an elementary student who can unhesitatingly declare that a great blunder had been committed in the literary aspect. 2. ... that Ishmael might have been dead by that time so that the term of the 'only son' could be applicable to Isaac. Was Ishmael really dead by that time? No. After the death of Abraham both the sons were present to bury their father. Thus we read:
And his [Abraham's] sons Isaac and Ishmael buried him [Abraham] in the cave of Mechpelah... -Genesis 25:9 Could a dead son have ever buried his dead father?
3. ... that God might have disqualified the sonship of Ishmael and deleted his name from the rolls1 of sonship to Abraham.
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But contrary to this, that to whatever extent the church may try to prove that Ishmael is not the son of Abraham spiritually or whatever, that God himself confirms the sonship of Ishmael with a promise... Thus we read: (God said to Abraham)
And also of the son of bondwoman [Ishmael] will I make a nation, because he is thy seed -Genesis 21:13 Now the question is not whether he was a son of a bondwoman or a freewoman, but what we primarily need is, whether he was a son of Abraham or not. It is proved beyond doubt that he was a son. Then therefore the command for the sacrifice of his only son most reasonably applicable to Ishmael only being the elder son. And it can also be inferred that by that time Isaac was not yet born. Had Isaac already born by that time God would not have said... 'Thine only son Isaac' but rather would have said in clear terms as... 'thine son Isaac' if God were particular with Isaac's sacrifice. Now we leave this matter here for the discretion of the readers to ascertain keeping in view of these facts discussed to whom the term 'only son' reasonably applicable to... whether to Ishmael or Isaac.
Ishmael was given in sacrifice before the birth of Isaac Further Bible provides a very useful information to prove that the trial of sacrifice took place while Ishmael was the only son and that even before the birth of Isaac, the second one1. Here we must bear in mind that the age difference between Ishmael and Isaac was fourteen years. That means when Ishmael attained his fourteen years age, then Isaac was born. Therefore 'the only son' who was taken for sacrifice must not above the age of thirteen years, by that time. please note the following points in conformity with the above matter.1
1. The bundle of wood necessary for the burnt offering was laid upon the son who was being taken for sacrifice (Genesis 22:6).
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This proves beyond doubt that the son was not below the age of ten years. Were it not so, the bundle of wood could not have been possibly carried by him.
2. And again the boy enquired ignorantly... Where is the lamb for burnt offering? -Genesis 22:7 Ignorantly asking for the lamb necessary for the sacrifice and carrying the bundle of wood necessary for the same, is posssible only with a boy aged between 10-12 years. If he were above this age he could have smelt that he himself was the scapegoat, and would not have ignorantly asked about the lamb necessary for the sacrifice. And if he were below this age carrying of the bundle of wood could not have been possible for him.
3. And again if the boy were above this age it could not have been possible for the old father to bind the son and to lay him upon the altar of wood (Genesis 22:9). 4. And if he were below this age not knowing the weight of the commandment of God, would have created a lot of hue and cry; though not could escape. 5. What the fact is, when asked about the lamb, the father might have disclosed the fact to the boy that he himself was the lamb to whom he was going to sacrifice, and the son might have readily accepted to be sacrificed for God1 just like his mother Hagar readily accepted to be banished in obedience to the God's command and extended her full co-operation to Abraham in carrying on the trial of banishment succesfully. And this was the reason how the old father could manage to carry out the ordained sacrifice in a very calm manner.
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The above points most authentically prove that the boy who was taken for the burnt offering, was most presumably about the age of twelve or thirteen years. These points however basing on the age factor keeping in view of the term 'The only son' most reasonably applicable to Ishmael only as until after he attained his age of fourteen years, Isaac the second son of Abraham did not exist at all. The Church may try to defend the above points by saying that the points discussed under age factor can also be applicable to Isaac. We too agree for this. But this argument can be dampened by the term 'The only son'.
Sacrifice (Thine only son) whom thou lovest The third important point that leads us to declare that it was Ishmael that was taken for sacrifice but not Isaac is as follows: Further take note of the clause, 'whom thou lovest' (him thou offer in sacrifice) of the verse Genesis 22:2. When it is made clear that the sacrifice was commanded to Abraham, his only son, even before the birth of Isaac, it is meaningless again to probe into the matter whether he loved Ishmael or Isaac; because by that time Isaac did not exist at all. Yet let us examine that how great love and affection that Abraham had on Ishmael so that the matter can be well decided.
a. Our readers are well aware that Abraham remained childless upto his 75 years age. b. When the word of God came to him in vision, he expressed his fond hope for a child as his heir and desparately enquired God that what was He going to give him when he was going childlesss. (Genesis 15:2) c. Then God promised him of a son showing the stars and asssuring him saying 'so shall thy seed be.' (Genesis 15:5) d. Abraham believed the promise of God and was curiously ex-
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pecting for a child further ten years more. Thus eversince he married he had been expecting for a child upto his eighty five (85) years age. e. Now Sarah the wife of Abraham too lost all her hopes and gave Hagar to be his wife (Genesis 16:3). We have discussed this point in our coming pages in detail. f. 'And Hagar bare Abraham a son: and Abraham called his son's name which Hagar bare Ishmael. (Genesis 16:15)
g. Thus he obtained a child for himself in his eighty six (86) years age. (Genesis 16:16) In a situation such as this, it is needless to write that however great poet or writer one may be cannot do justice to describe the affection and love that Abraham had on Ishmael.
h. In this way Abraham spent fourteen(14) long years with Ishmael. i. We have another proof which show that the love and affection that Abraham had on Ishmael was greater than any thing else. This is why when Abraham was being promised of a second son Isaac, Abraham showed his contentment only with Ishmael and unmindfulness to have another child for him. Thus we read:
And Abraham said unto God, O that Ishmael might live before thee! -Genesis 17:18
j. And again that what ever light thing that was against to Ishmael, was very grievous in the sight of Abraham. Thus we read:
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And the thing was very grievous in Abraham's sight because of his son [Ishmael] -Genesis 21:11
k. And what most note worthy is that even before and after the birth of Isaac, Abraham lived with Hagar and Ishmael at Beersheba. Thus we read:
So Abraham returned unto his young men and they rose up and went together to Beer-sheba; and Abraham dwelt at Beersheba. -Genesis 22:19 Above is the verse relating to the period even before the birth of Isaac. Yet what we want to point out from it is that Abraham was living with Hagar and Ishmael at Beer-sheba. It does not mean that he never turned upto Kirjathebra, where Sarah was living. Now and then he might be coming; but most of his time was spent with Ishmael and Hagar at Beer-sheba. This point further can be proved from the following points. Our above proclamation in point (k) that Abraham lived with Hagar and Ishmael, at Beer-sheba, even before and after the birth of the second son Isaac, rather seems to be ambiguous for our christian brethren; as it is recorded in the Bible that until after two years of the birth of Isaac they all lived together as one family. Therefore it cannot be contradictory if it is admitted that Abraham lived with (Ishmael the first son and Hagar the second wife) to a limited duration of fourteen years before Isaac's birth and only two years after. But his living at Beer-sheba with them is a matter inconceivable, because as according to Church, Beer-sheba is the place where Hagar and Ishmael were migrated to, by Abraham on the command of Sarah, the first wife as an everlasting and irrevokable punishment for them. If this be the case where was chance for Abraham to reunite again with them at Beer-sheba? Thus they logically pose. Before going into argument the foremost important point that one should know is that whether Ishmael was exiled to Beer-sheba while he was an infant as we say or sixteen years old boy as Church makes it apparent in its interpolated preamble to the event of Banishment. How-
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ever this point has been discussed and proved in our previous pages 620 which may once again be recollected. To make sure that Ishmael was exiled in his infancy, please go through Genesis 21:14-19. So it may be noted that Ishmael was exiled while he was an infant below a year. Thus Abraham again became childless. The age difference between Ishmael and Isaac was fourteen years. Thus, if the contention of the Church were true, Abraham remained further thirteen years without the company of his child after his exile. If this be the case, when God was again promising him of a second son, Isaac, could ever Abraham have showed his contentment only with the first son Ishmael saying as'O that Ishmael might live before thee!'? Do the words spoken at the time of the promise of a second son, saying as 'Oh that Ishmael might live before thee!' not prove with authenticity that he was sharing and enjoying the company of the first son Ishmael at Beer-sheba? And again does God's promise of a second son by Sarah the first wife at Mamre, not prove that he was coming now and then to the first wife also? Then do these points not prove that Abraham lived with Ishmael and Hagar even before and after the birth of Isaac as we told? And again, even at the time of Sarah's death he was not with Isaac and Sarah but might be with Ishmael and Hagar at Beer-sheba. Please examine the following:
And Sarah died in Kirjathebra; the same is Hebron in the land of canaan, and Abraham came to mourn for Sarah and to weep for her. -Genesis 23:2 In view of these points, we can easily imagine that whom did Abraham love and to whom the words 'Thou lovest' applicable to. In clear terms as Abraham loved Ishmael, keeping in view of the term 'whom thou lovest', (him thou give in sacrifice), it can be well established that it was Ishmael who was given in sacrifice.
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Sacrifice of the only son substituted by a ram : only son was saved: Abraham returned to Beer-sheba with his son and dwelt there: And the fourth important point which leads us to conclude that it was Ishmael that had been taken to offer in sacrifice- but not Isaac, is as follows: Kudos to Abraham! the most obedient servant of God who did not care his beloved only son to offer him in the sacrifice. Did God really want the blood and the flesh of his son? No. But He wanted to see the faith and spontaneous sacrifice of Abraham. When Abraham was about to slay, God well pleased with his sacrifice and said-
... lay not thine hand upon the lad, neither do thou anything unto him: for now I know that thou fearest God, seeing thou hast not withheld thy son, thine only son from me. -Genesis 22:12 Thus when God prevented Abraham to sacrifice his only son and when the commandment for the sacrifice was withdrawn by God Himself, Abraham took the boy and his young men and returned to Beersheba where he dwelt. Thus we read:
So Abraham returned to his young men, and they rose up and went together to Beer-sheba; and Abraham dwelt at Beer-sheba. -Genesis 22:19 Our discerning readers well remember that Beer-sheba was the place where Hagar and Ishmael were migrated to, and were living there. Araham's return to Beer-sheba goes to prove beyond doubt that he brought the son from there and returned to there again. If it were not Ishmael, why did he return to Beer-sheba? And if it were Isaac, he should have gone to kirjathebra in the land of Canaan where Sarah was living, instead of Beer-sheba.
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Church manipulated: imputed sacrifice to Isaac: so as to attribute promise of universal prophet to Jesus All these points prove that Church had manipulated and made interpolations in the text to mean as Isaac was the son demanded for the sacrifice with an intent to attribute the blessings and promises made to the son taken for sacrifice, to Isaac from whose posterity Jesus descended so as to ascribe all these to Jesus himself finally.1
The universal prophet was promised Now let us examine the promises made to Abraham.
A. And I will make of thee a great nation, and I will bless thee, and make thy name great: and thou shalt be a blessing. And I will bless them that bless thee; and curse him that curseth thee; and in thee shall all families of the earth be blessed. Genesis 12:2-3 B. ...lift up now thine eyes, and look from the place where thou art northward, and southward, and eastward, and westward: for all the land which thou seest, to thee will I give it, and to thy seed for ever. -Genesis 13:14-15 C. And in thy seed shall all the nations of the earth be blessed; because thou hast obeyed my voice. -Genesis 22:18 The keypoint of the above promises of God made to Abraham isthat God would raise the universal prophet from the progeny of Abraham. Because all the above promises stress upon saying as-
'And in thee shall all families of the earth be blessed'. -Genesis 12:3
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And in thy seed shall all the nations of the earth be blessed. -Genesis 22:18 It is a well-known fact that Abraham had two sons1. Ishmael the elder 2. Isaac, the younger. No doubt that both the sons were blessed and the promises made were applicable to both of them in general; because both were the seed of Abraham. Accordingly, the spiritual leadership was given to the progeny of Isaac- the younger son of Abraham. A number of prophets one after another successively appeared from his progeny particularly for the Israelites, a great nation amongst whom the last prophet was Jesus. Thus the blessings and promises made to the progeny of Isaac were fulfilled. When it is agreed that Jesus was the last link of the chain of Israelitic line of prophets, it is evident that no prophet was again to appear from the progeny of Isaac. As all these prophets were sent for the Israelitic tribes only, further it implies, that as has been promised to Abraham, the universal prophet was yet to appear. Then therefore, the universal prophet was inevitably to appear from the progeny of Ishmael; the brethren of Isaac's progeny (Deuteronomy 18:18). We shall discuss this prophecy elsewhere. As regards to this Jesus himself agrees with us in the interpretation for his parable of vineyard describing as -
NB: First part of the passage is a parable (Matthew 21:33-41) while the latter part is a reminder of the prophecy which is a scriptural fact. Jesus saith unto them, Did ye never read in the scripture, The stone which the builders rejected, the same is became the head of the corner: this is the Lord's doing, and it is marvellous in our eyes? Therefore say I unto you, the kingdom of God shall be taken from you, and given to a nation bringing forth the fruits thereof.
-Matthew 21:42-43
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Here the kingdom of God means the spiritual leadership.
NB: We shall discuss this prophecy in detail when we take up this as a separate one for discussion. When God was well pleased with the sacrifice of his only son, He declared as here under.
And said, By myself have I sworn, saith the Lord, for because thou hast done this thing and hast not withheld thy son thine only son: -Genesis 22:16 Thus after swearing, God blessed him and promised the universal prophet to be sent form his progeny.
That in blessing I will bless thee, and in multiplying I will multiply thy seed as the stars of the heaven, and as the sand which is upon the sea shore: and thy seed shall possess the gate of his enemies: And in thy seed shall all the nations of the earth be blessed: because thou hast obeyed my voice. -Genesis 22:17-18
The universal prophet was to come from Ishmaelites - Jesus admitted We know that Jesus was not the universal prophet but one, sent for the lost sheep of Israel (Matthew 15:24). But the promise is obvious to have been made for the universal prophet. Prophet Mohammad the descendant from the progeny of Ishmael was sent as the universal prophet. These points we have discussed in our another book ‘That Prophet’also. Then therefore the above promise is proved to have been made for Ishmael and at the same time it discloses the fact that it was Ishmael who was offered in sacrifice. And again let us examine the same in an another way. While promising Abraham, God asked him to see the northward and the southward
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and the eastward and the westward, and promised that all that land would be given to his seed. This means that a universal prophet would come out of his progeny who would invite people towards the religion of God from all the quarters of the land. We have a good reference from the saying of Jesus himself that this promise of God did not take place until his times; which further imply to mean that it would take place in the times of universal prophet who was to come after him.
Universal prophet establishes the kingdom of Godadmitted by Jesus And they shall come from the east, and from the west, and from the north, and from the south and shall sit down in the kingdom of God. -Luke 13:29 Here in this verse a noteworthy point is 'and shall sit in the kingdom of God'. From the study of the Bible it becomes evident that the kingdom of God (Theocracy) was established in the time of Moses and continued under Joshua but later rejected by Israelites, which was to be restored again. From the study of gospel it is proved that Jesus had asked his disciples to pray for the kingdom of God to come(Luke 11:2)1. That means until his time the kingdom of God (theocracy) had not yet been re-established on the earth. But prophet Mohammed established (restored) the kingdom of God (theocracy) on the earth where in all nations from all quarters of the earth joined. This is another authentic proof that the promise was made about Ishmael the first son of Abraham, from whose posterity the advent of prophet Mohammed took place.
God says 'Israel would none of me'- Jesus explains its reasons And again Jesus' teachings clearly point out that the Israelites (the progeny of Isaac) were distorted from the right path and were following the traditions of their forefathers which however had no religious sanction. We have discussed as regards to these points very comprehensively in our another book- 'That Prophet'.
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Now again examine that how these points further reiterated by John the Baptist.
And think not to say within yourselves, we have Abraham to our father: for I say unto you, that God is able of these stones to raise up children unto Abraham -Mathew 3:9 In the above verse it is explained that whoso rejoices himself as the son of Abraham cannot be the real son ( in the sense as the follower of Abraham). Because if at all God wanted to multiply the seed of Abraham (only numerically) He could have made even the stones to become as the seed of Abraham. God does not want the number or the nominal professionals or the claimants, but wants the real followers of Abraham. Most presumably, this was the reason why God declared as regarding them, in the following verse.
But my people would not hearken to my voice: and Israel (The progeny of Isaac) would none of me -Psalm 81:11 Now let us think about the christians the last sect from Isaac's progeny. The real seed of Abraham is he that really follows the religion of Abraham. What is the religion of Abraham? The religion of Abraham is the perfect obedience to God. An everlasting covenant was made between God and Abraham- the circumcision was commanded to Abraham.
And God said unto Abraham, Thou shalt keep my covenant therefore, thou and thy seed after thee in their gerenations. This is my covenant, which ye shall keep, between me and you and thy seed after thee: Every man child among you shall be circumcised. And ye shall circumcise the flesh of your foreskin; and it shall be a token of the covenant betwixt me
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and you. And the uncircumcised man child whose flesh of his foreskin is not circumcised, that soul shall be cut off from his people; he hath broken my covenant. -Genesis 17:9-14 Now come to the point. We Muslims followers of Mohammed the descendant from the progeny of Ishmael undergo the circumcision as has been decreed upon Abraham as an everlasting covenant. But the christians who claim themselves to be the real seed of Abraham through the progeny of Isaac do not observe this everlasting covenant of God made with Abraham. God says:
This is my covenant, which ye shall keep, between me and you and thy seed after thee: Every man child among you shall be circumcised -Genesis 17:10 Paul the founder of Christianity says:
Behold, I Paul say unto you, that if ye be circumcised, Christ shall profit you nothing -Galatians 5:2 God stressingly says:
And the uncircumcised man child whose flesh of his foreskin is not circumcised that soul shall be cut off from his people: he hath broken my covenant. -Genesis 17:14 Paul says:
For in Jesus Christ neither circumcision availeth anything, nor uncircumcision: but faith which worketh by love. -Galatians 5:6 Now we leave this matter for the discretion of the readers to determine that who is really deserving to be called as the seed of Abraham whether Muslims the descendants from the progeny of Ishmael or the Christians the descendants from the posterity of Isaac.
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Further Qur'an stresses upon the following:
A. And they say, 'Be ye Jews or Christians that you may be rightly guided. say: 'Nay, follow ye the religion of Abraham who was ever inclined to God; he was not of those who set up gods with God. -Qur'an 2:135 B. When his Lord said to him, 'Submit', he said, 'I have submitted to the Lord of the worlds'. -Qur'an 2:131 C. The same did Abraham enjoin upon his sons- and so did Jacobsaying: 'O my sons, truly Allah has chosen this religion for you; so let not death overtake you except when you are in a state of submission. -Qur'an 2:132 D. And who will turn away from the religion of Abraham but he who is foolish of mind? Him (Abraham) did we choose in this world, and in the next he will surely be among the righteous. -Qur'an 2:130 From the above it is noticed that God exhorted to follow the religion of Abraham. It does not mean that one should follow the religion founded by Abraham, but explicitly points out that one should follow the religion which Abraham had followed. Then what is the religion that Abraham had followed? It is mentioned in the above verses of Qur'an which read as follows:
1. Abraham was ever inclined to God (2:135) 2. He was not of those who set up gods with God. (2:135) 3. He was obedient to God. (3:67)
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4. He was righteous. (2:130) 5. when his Lord said to him, 'Submit' he said- 'I have submitted to the Lord of the worlds. (2:130) The same religion he had enjoined upon his children, saying- ' O my sons, truly Allah has chosen this religion for you: so let not death overtake you except when you are in a state of submission.' (2:132) Had Muslims the descendants of Ishmael's progeny not inherited the spiritual leadership of Abraham's promises, could ever have a place been provided in their Qur'an for such verses as mentioned above? Further while promisig Abraham, God said-
I will bless them that bless thee -Genesis 12:3 For the information of our readers I would like to mention that we Muslims, in our daily prayers pray God as follows:
... O Lord, shower thy mercy and blessings on prophet Mohammed as thou hast showered thy mercy and blessings on Abraham... We think that these few points are enough to enlighten our readers so as to make them self-sufficient to decide whether the above promises in general and about the advent of the universal prophet in particular apply to the descendants from the progeny of Isaac or Ishmael.
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Hagar the second wife of Abraham. The church pronounces the above name HAAGAR 'G' as in 'Governor'. But we Muslims call her name HAAJARA which can also be written as HAAGERA pronouncing 'G' as in 'George'. Hagar of the Church is a Hebrew word meaning for flight. Hajara is an Arabic word meaning (v.t) to abandon, to forsake. HIJRAH = (N) flight HAAJARA = (v.i) to migrate MUHAAJIR = (N) Emigrant, refugee. However 'HAGAR' (flight) of the Church and HAJARA (abandon, forsake) and HAAJARA (migrate) are one and the same in meaning. Because even as according to the Church, the flight of one results in migration only. So the name of Hagar in all the different forms as stated above with its meanings are applicable to Hagar the second wife of Abraham; as we all know that it was Hagar who was exiled to Beer-sheba. As regards to this we made an elaborate discussion in the previous pages.
Hagar a handmaid of Sarah? Concubine of Abraham? The Biblical narrations as regards to her, however do not give a clear picture whether she was a legal wife of Abraham or a handmaid of Sarah, who latter became a concubine of Abraham just to produce children for Sarah.
a. Sarah had a handmaid whose name was Hagar.
-
Genesis 16:1 b. I [Sarah] pray thee [Abraham] go in unto my maid [Hagar]: it may be that I may obtain children by her. -Genesis 16:2
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c. And Abraham gave all that he had unto Isaac. But unto the sons of concubines which Abraham had, Abraham gave gifts and sent them away from Isaac his son while he yet lived... -Genesis 25:5-6 This last passage speaks that Hagar was the concubine of Abraham. Sarah longed to have children by Hagar for her and to achieve this objective she gave Hagar to Abraham to be his wife. Thus we read:
d. And Sarah said unto Abraham, Behold now, the Lord hath restrained me from bearing: I pray thee, go in unto my maid: it may be that I may obain children by her. And Abraham hearkened to the voice of Sarah. And Sarah Abraham's wife took Hagar her maid the Egyptian, after Abraham dwelt ten years in the land of Canan, and gave her to her husband Abraham to be his wife1. -Genesis 16:2-3 This passage explicitly points out that Hagar was a legal wife of Abraham but not a concubine1 or a handmaid.
Hagar a co-wife of Sarah and equal partner in the family Now the question is that why Sarah had selected her handmaid to be her co-wife2. Were there no freewomen from good families available? or nobody did come forward to be given in marriare with Abraham an old man of 85 years? or the freewomen were afraid to join the family of Abraham because of the wickedness of Sarah? (may God forbid). Whatever be the reason, the lot came in favour of Hagar to be the wife of Abraham a great prophet and friend of God. When once Hagar was given in marriage with Abraham (to be his wife), she was no more a handmaid were she really a handmaid, but became equal partner with Sarah, the first wife of Abraham in all the domestic affairs as well as all personal and private and public matters of the family, whatever might she be and her position before she was given to Abraham to be his wife.
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Example: A post graduate is there. No doubt that in his childhood he was an elementary student. And in his boyhood he was a high school student. And in his youth he was a college student. And after passing through all these stages, he has come out successfully from his post graduation. Now the question is, can any sensible man treat him either as an elementary or high school student even though that it is an undeniable fact that he had passed through all these stages? So is the case with Hagar too. What was she before, is immaterial. But what was she after she was given to Abraham is a point to be taken into consideration. According to the following she was a legal wife.
...and gave her to her husband Abraham to be his wife. -Genesis 16:3 This was the reason, why, when Sarah became disgusted with Hagar on some natural petty reasons that generally go with co-wives1, Sarah realized her husband's mistake of having taken Hagar to be her co-wife, and expressed her helplessness and grievances before Abraham in haste. As regards to this, we have in Bible as here under.
And Sarah said unto Abraham, my wrong be upon thee: I have given my maid into thy bosom: and when she saw that she had conceived, I was dispised in her eyes: the Lord judge between me and thee. -Genesis 16:5 The above verse and its relative other verses are tampered and some passages are added in support of the fiction presented by the church to defame Hagar and her progeny. This point can be well perceived on going through our arguments right from the beginning. Yet let us agree with Church and examine the logical points.
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In reply to this Abraham said to Sarah as here under.
But Abraham said unto Sarah, Behold, thy maid is in thy hands do to her as it pleaseth thee. And when Sarah dealt hardly with her, she fled from her face. -Genesis 16:6 Though Hagar was no more a handmaid but a wife co-equal with Sarah, Abraham said as above only with an idea to appease Sarah; and to console her just as in the same way as Jacob presented himself as a servant of Esau his own brother just to appease him, which can be seen from Genesis 32:18-20 and 33:5,8,14,15.
1. Had Hagar not attained the status of a wife how could she have despised Sarah? (Whatever may be the reason). 2. Were Hagar still a handmaid, could Sarah have not sent her away? (without hesitation). 3. Had Hagar been given in the bosom of Abraham just to produce children for Sarah just in the degraded capacity of a concubine, could they have not waited till the eggs were fully hatched by Hagar? (Had Hagar despised her after her conception). The answer for all these questions, in all probabilities, is nothing but, that Hagar was the second wife of Abraham, who was taken in legal wedlock when the first one was proved to be a barren1. Had Hagar not really been given in marriage with Abraham, and had she not acquired the real status of a wife, could ever Sarah have felt and expressed her helplessness when she had found herself despised of as above? (Refer Genesis 16:5) And again: It is a matter of commonsense. However generous and liberal a woman may be, she can tolerate any thing for her but cannot even imagine the existence of another woman as her co-wife. But Sarah sacrificed
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and gave her consent to take Hagar as her co-wife (Genesis 16:3), Just for the fufilment of her long desire for children, so that she might have children by Hagar (Genesis 16:2). She could have adopted any child. But she wanted to have an heir of Abraham through his own loins, even stepson to hereself...
...Behold now, the Lord hath restrained me from bearing. I pray thee go in unto my maid: it may be that I may obtain children by her.
-Genesis 16:2
...and gave her to her husband Abraham to be his wife. Genesis 16:3 This point also gives sufficient proof that Hagar was the legal wife of Abraham and that Ishmael was his seed and legal heir.
Sarah was barren - Abraham wanted to have his heir from his own loins - so Hagar was taken as second wife, with the consent of Sarah In a situation such as this, at the time, when her long desire was about to be fulfilled, and the fruit for which she had sacrificed the bosom of her husband to another woman- was about to fall in her hands, could she ever have dealt hardly with the tree that was yielding the fruit for her? or with the hen that was hatching the egg for her? Never. Therefore whatever passage or verse of the Bible or the gospel that contradicts to this logic can be termed only as an addition subsequently made. The church may defend this point by saying that Sarah was also blessed with a child. And therefore she was no longer in need of Hagar or her son. We agree that Sarah was also blessed with a child of her own womb. But when? Had she conceived just after the conception of Hagar and had Isaac been given to her immediately after the birth of Ishmael, it is but natural
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to get such sort of envious environment developped between the cowives and the stepbrothers. But the case with Sarah is not like that. She gave birth to Isaac only after 14 long years after the birth of Ishmael. Therefore the plea of church in their defence as regards to this, is ruled out.
Some facts about Abraham's family Let us bear in mind the following points: 1. Sarah was found barren. So it was determined that she could no longer conceive. (Genesis 11:30) 2. Sarah and Abraham longed to have a child as their heir. 3. They did not like to adopt any child but he [Abraham] wanted to have a son of his own loins. 4. For this purpose, with the consent of Sarah, Hagar was taken as a second wife. 5. After a long long expectation, in his 86th year, Abraham was blessed with a child Ishmael. 6. One can imagine that how much affection and love that Sarah might have had on the child Ishmael for whose sake, she had sacrificed her husband's bosom to another woman. It cannot be exaggaration if we say with certainty in one word that she loved Ishmael more than his own mother herself. 7. Thus the child Ishmael became a delight of the eyes of all the household. He was an infant king with no crown of thorns in the family kingdom of Abraham. Thus was the situation when God wanted to try Abraham and asked him to exile Hagar along with the child.
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Thus a trial was made by God to see whether their love and affection for God surpass the love and affection that they had on the boy. Was this trial confined only to Abraham and Hagar? No. Sarah was also involved in it. This is how, truly speaking the affection and love that Sarah had on Ishmael was comparitively greater than the affection and love that Abraham and Hagar themselves had on the lad. Sarah really might have worried very much to get herself separated from the child even more than Abraham himself. Yet, in obedience to God's command she also extended her full cooperation with Abraham as did Hagar. Thus all the family members came out successful from the trial of desertion of Hagar and Ishmael. In this trial the role of Sarah and her sacrifice was most commendable, which can in no way be termed as less than any one else'. Basing on these facts and logic and reasoning it cannot be exaggaration if we say that it was a greater trial for Sarah in disguise than the trial for Hagar and Abraham themselves. And this was why God well pleased with the sacrifice of Sarah and granted her also a son of her own from her own womb, though of late, so as to cool her eye. Indeed it was a suitable reward for her sacrifice. Thus not only her long desire for a child was fulfilled, but at the same time a great promise was also made. Thus it was in the plan of God to raise two great nations from the two sons of Abraham through two women respectively who are allegorically described as two covenants (Galatians 4:22-24)1.
And God said unto Abraham, as for Sarai thy wife, thou shalt not call her name Sarai, but Sarah shall her name be. And I will bless her, and give thee a son also of her and she shall be a mother of nations, kings of people shall be of her. -Genesis 17:15-16 I invite the attention of our discerning readers towards the above clause of the verse (17:16)
... and give thee a son also of her. In the literary aspect, the above clause speaks a lot, that how God equated the status of Ishmael and Isaac as the seed of Abraham, and Hagar and Sarah as cowives (of Abraham) with no distinction between
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them however more Church may try to exclude Ishmael and his progeny from the seed of Abraham and to snatch away Hagar from the bosom of Abraham.
Church is terribly afraid of Hagar and Ishmael Despite all these facts the Church argues that Hagar and Ishmael had no right of inheritance of the legacy of Abraham both spiritual or material whatever. So let us for a while agree with the Church that Hagar was only a bondmaid of Sarah who was given into the bosom of Abraham just to produce children for Sarah. But when Sarah was also blessed with a child Isaac, the need of Hagar and her son Ishmael was no more felt necessary. And more over Ishmael the son of bondmaid committed a very great sin. That is- while he was yet a boy mocked at Isaac the son of freewoman Sarah. And hence they were cast out. Thus there ended the matter of Hagar and Ishmael, didn't it? Were they really the ones that had no any significance and prominence, their names could never have been remembered. But their case does not seem to be so. As a matter of fact how many people are not begetting children through their concubines openly and secretly? Are all such offspring ever being remembered by people? But what made Church to be afraid of Hagar and Ishmael? Before going into details, let us recall to our minds the incident that how all the twelve sons of Jacob whose (Jacob's) name was latter changed by God as Israel (Genesis 35:10) (8 sons by 2 wives and 4 sons by 2 concubines) became 12 tribes of Israelites. Jacob (Israel) married the two daughters of Laban his maternal uncle. The first wife was Leah and the second Rachel. At the time of their marriage Leah was given a handmaid by name Zilpah and Rachel was given a handmaid by name Bilhah (Genesis 29:16-29). Rachel the younger was barren (Genesis 29:31). Leah gave birth to four sons one after another continually (Genesis 29:32-35). So Rachel envied her sister Leah (Genesis 30:1) and gave her husband her handmaid, Bilhah to be his wife and she conceived and gave birth to two children for Jacob one after another (Genesis 30:4-8).
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And again Leah gave her handmaid Zilpah to Jacob to be his wife to conceive as she ceased to bear. And Zilpah gave birth to two sons for Jacob. (Genesis 30:9-13) And again Leah conceived and brought forth two more sons to Jacob. (Genesis 30:17-20) Leah also delivered a daughter whose name was Dinah. (Genesis 30:21) Now the turn of the second wife Rachel came. God remembered her and opened her womb also and she conceived and begot a son Joseph. (Genesis 30:22-24) While on journey back to canaan, Rachel while delevering another son died and father called his name Benjamin. (Genesis 35:17-19) Thus Jacob (Israel) was blessed with 12 sons and 1 daughter. By Leah the first wife By Rachel the second wife
6 sons. 2 sons.
By Zilpah (the handmaid of Leah)
2 sons.
By Bilhah (the handmaid of Rachel) 2 sons Total
12 sons
All these are the twelve tribes of Israel: and this is it that their father spake unto them, and blessed them every one according to his blessing he blessed them. -Genesis 49:28
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Thus the 12 sons of Jacob (Israel) became 12 tribes of Israelites who inherited the spiritual and material legacy of their father Jacob (Israel). No son whether he be the son of handmaid of first wife or the son of the handmaid of the second wife deprived of the inheritance. This speaks with authenticity that the biblical term for 'Gave her to be his wife' denotes to be given in marriage only, but not keeping them as concubines. However this further goes to prove that Zilpah and Bilha were no more handwomen nor concubines. Yet church calls them as concubines only with the main idea to justify their calling Hagar as handmaid and concubine, or if they were really concubines of Jacob the words used in their favour 'gave them to be his wives' might have been added latter to diminish the real meaning of it in favour of Hagar and to create a misconception that she was only a concubine, and the words 'gave her to be his wife' were not used to mean as 'gave her in marriage'- but synonimously to mean for 'copulation' as in the case of Zilpah and Bilhah. Whatever they might be in fact, but what noteworthy is their (Zilpah's and Bilhah's) sons equally inherited and received the blessings of their father along with the sons of his own wives Leah and Rachel. If this be the case with bondwomen and concubines of Jacob (Israel) what made church to exclude Ishmael from Abraham's seed and to deprive him of his inheritance? Further, neither the first wife Leah nor the second wife Rachel had ever declared saying as 'cast out these bondwomen and their children: for the sons of these bondwomen shall not be heirs with our sons even with our own,' as we have an affirmative (positive) declaration recorded to have been stated by Sarah which reads as here under.
wherefore she said unto Abraham, cast out this bond woman and her son: for the son of this bondwoman shall not be heir with my son, even with Isaac.
-Genesis 21:10
Keeping in view of the points discussed so far and considering the issue at hand with logic and reasoning- does the above decree which has beeen recorded to have been made by Sarah not prove beyond doubt, that it was not really made by Sarah but the interpolation added by the church itself in between the period of 650-700AD when the Muslim domination was getting a remarkable momentum both spiritually and geographically, whose spiritual leader Mohammed happened to be from
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the progeny of Ishmael? This was not done to create hurdles in the spread of Islam but with main intention to guard their own community so that it might not get attracted by the teachings of Islam. It is not our presumption. As regards to this the church has come out openly. Read the following passage in which the underlined verses are interpolated.
For this Hagar is mount sinai in Arabia and answereth to Jerusalem which now is and is in bondage with her children. But Jerusalem which is above is free which is the mother of us all. For it is written, Rejoice thou barren that bearest not: breakforth and cry, Thou that travailest not: for the desolate hath many more children than she which hath an husband. Now we brethren, as Isaac was are the children of promise. But as then he that was born after the flesh persecuted him that was born after the spirit even so it is now. Nevertheless what saith the scripture? Cast out the bondwoman and her son: for the son of the bondwoman shall not be heir with the son of the freewoman. So then brethren, we are not children of the bondwoman but of the free free.
-Galatians 4:25-31
Even a cursory reading of the above passage can make one to derive at the opinion that how clear attempts are made to defame one branch (Ishmael) and to up hold the supremacy of the another branch (Isaac) over the first. This is purely intended to create superiority feeling and inferiority complex between the branches (progeny of Ishmael and posterity of Isaac) of the tree (family) of Abraham; so that the Israelites (Jews and Christians) Isaac's progeny may feel proud of their blessed supremacy and hate the inferiority of the progenitors of prophet Mohammad and thus not to allow them (mainly Christains) to look at or even hear the teachings of Islam.
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INFERIORITY OF ISHMAEL/ SUPERIORITY OF ISAAC/ DISADVANTAGES OF ISHMAELITES. ADVANTAGES OF ISRAELITES.
A. Abraham had two sons One by handmaid. (Ishmael) -Galatians 4:22
other by freewoman (Isaac)
NB: Thus in the very first instance the seeds of hatred were sown. The racial division between the two sons of Abraham was made. Superiority and inferiority feeling was created. B. Born after flesh.
Born by promise.
C. Covenants: (laws) One from the progeny of Hagar.
Another from the progeny of Sarah.
D. Followers are in bondage to the law.
Free from the bondage to the law just as the above Jerusalem is free.
E. Mother was desolated and so they have no father.
But we are having our father Abraham.
F. They may be more in number But our status is greater, as is written in the scripture,(4:27) because we are born after Yet they are born after flesh. (4:29) Spirit. (4:29) G. They were cast out in the dustbin like rubbish (garbage). (4:30)
As we are from freewoman, we are kept honoured. (4:30)
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H. Ishmael was not at all a heir of Abraham. I. Ishmael persecuted Isaac.
But we are real heirs of Abraham. So also the progeny of Ishmael persecuting the progeny of Isaac.
Thus after explaining comparatively the merits and advantages of Isaac and His progeny and alleged demerits and disadvantages of Ishmael and his progeny, church once again reminds its followers saying as...
So then brethren, we are not children of the bondwoman, but of the free -4:31 This is to say in other words: Brethren! let none of us pay heed to the teachings of Mohammad that has come out of the progeny of a handmaid and he has no right of inheritance with the promises made with our father Abraham and the blessings which all we have now inherited (Romans 15:8). Are you willing to join the fold of a handmaid? Are we not the children of a freewoman and is not our mother Sarah's progeny a virtuous one and greater in status than the progeny of one that had been desolated and cast out? So brethren!
What saith the scripture? Cast out the bondwoman and her son: for the son of the bondwoman shall not be heir with the son of the free woman. (4:30) This is to interpret: Brethren! cast out the teachings of Mohammad as his progenitors were cast out. Because just as his progenitors could not become the heirs of the promises, so also the progeny cannot become heir with us.
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Now observe the key verse (4:29) of the passage.
But as then he that was born after the flesh persecuted him that was born after the spirit, even so it is now -4:29 This is to interpret as: Then Ishmael persecuted : Then Ishmael persecuted Isaac. Now the progeny of Ishmael (The followers of Mohammad) are persecuting the progeny of Isaac (the followers of Jesus). 'Even so it is now 4:29' means just as Ishmael then persecuted Isaac so also now (at the time of Paul) the progeny of Ishmael (Mohammad's followers) is persecuting the progeny of Isaac (the followers of Jesus). One wonders as to how this thing has been recorded to have been taken place in the days of paul. As a matter of fact the Muslims (the followers of Mohammad, the descendants from the progeny of Ishmael), came into being only after 610 AD. This is one example that how Church added necessary interpolations according to its convenience. The professional preachers try to defend this as the prophecy by Paul. This is not a prophecy but a clear interpolation recorded to have been happening current in the times of Paul. Where were Muslims in the times of Paul? Does this singular point not prove that Church had imputed some of the interpolations done by it to have been done by Paul in his own times? Now let us go back again to our point whether Hagar was really a bondmaid and concubine as church defames her. Meanwhile let us have a glance over the accusation that Church had made for the desolation of Hagar.
Ishmael mocked at Isaac: a mournful claim of churchBut as then he that was born after the flesh persecuted him that was born after the spirit... -Galatians 4:29
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Thus Church has accused that Ishmael persecuted Isaac. On examination of the scriptures to find out where and how did Ishmeal persecute Isaac, it is noticed that Ishmael mocked at Isaac (Genesis 21:9). In our previous arguments it is proved that mocking of Ishmael at Isaac was only the latter thought development of the Church. Even if we agree that Ishmael had mocked at Isaac, that too only once in his boyhood- is it so great a sin to term it as pesecution? Now let us recall to our minds that how (worst) great a heinous sin had been committed by one of the heads of the twelve tribes of Israelites. Earlier to this we learnt that Jacob (Israel) had two wives and two handmaids as concubines. Of them Bilhah was the handmaid of Rachel the second wife of Jacob. The first son of Jacob by leah the first wife, was Reuben. Now what painful is that Reuben the first son of Jacob copulated with Bilhah the concubine of his father. That is to say in other words that he had lain down with his stepmother. Thus we read in Genesis:
And it came to pass, when Israel (Jacob) dwelt in that land that Reuben went and lay with Bilhah his father's concubine: and Israel heard it. Now the sons of Jacob were twelve. -Genesis 35:22 As regards to this the first thing that should be taken into consideration is, whether Reuben copulated with the concubine of his father or raped her. Examination of the verse reveals the fact that it was not a rape but an illegitimate copulation. In rape the male is guilty while the female is helpless innocent victim. But in copulation both male and female are equally responsible for the sinful act. Because in copulation without the consent and willingness of the woman, one cannot copulate. Who seduces whether male or female is not the question. One seduces and the other keeps tender attitude.
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One attracts and the other succumbs; one expresses the ambition and the other exposes willingness; one offers and the other accepts. Thus both male and female extend each other's co-operation in making the environments favourable to carryout the proposed copulation. So as regards to this we cannot find fault only with either of the male or of the female. Now the quesion is- was the stepmother of Reuben not equally sinful? Were they both not accomplice in the same crime? Now what our question is- is the mocking of Ishmael at Isaac a greater sin than of the concubine of Jacob lying with her stepson Reuben? Though Bilhah the concubine of Jacob committed such a heinous sinful act with her stepson, the church was not hurt and in its sight it was (is) so simple and a common thing as it were nothing. But as for the matter concerned with Ishmael- simply because he mocked at Isaac it grieved the church so much as it could not tolerate anymore to see the face of Hagar who gave birth to Ishmael and then therefore it passed a decree saying as'Cast out the bondwoman and her son: for the son of the bondwoman shall not be heir with the son of the freewoman' (Galatians 4:30). In connection to this we cannot ignore how aptly Jesus had remarked saying as-
Ye blind guides which strain at a gnat and swallow a camel -Matthew 23:24 And again if Hagar and Ishmael were ones that had no status to be equal members of the family, we would like to question the Church that why the son of Isaac the elder one Esau married the daughter of Ishmael? (Genesis 28:9 & 36:3) Does this act not prove that Hagar was not at all a handmaid of Sarah and that Ishmael was not the son of concubine of Abraham as Church brands them to be? And does this also not prove that they were not cast out unceremoniously by the decree of Sarah but they were sent to Beer-sheba in compliance to carryout the trial of God the exile of unweaned only child along with the mother Hagar as we stated earlier?
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WAS HAGAR REALLY A HANDMAID OF SARAH? On examination of the points discussed so far, the subtle acts that how Church played to brand Hagar and Ishmael as ones that had no eminence at all in any respect, are unveiled. Then therefore we can say with certainty that she was not at all a handmaid of Sarah. But she was the handmaid of the Lord, in the sense as a submissive servant of God. We have a similar handmaid in the Gospel too. That is Mary the mother of Jesus.
And Mary said, Behold the handmaid of the Lord: be it unto me according to thy word. And the angel departed from her. -Luke 1:38 Diligent examination of the glad tidings given to the handmaid Mary and the handmaid Hagar by the angel of God brings out a very clear picture that shows the equal similarities between Mary the mother of Jesus and Hagar the mother of Ishmael.
a. Angel of God appeared to Mary with a glad tiding that she was bringing forth a sonAnd the angel said unto her, Fear not Mary: for thou hast found favour with God. And behold thou shalt conceive in thy womb and bring forth a son and shalt call his name Jesus. -Luke 1:30,31 Similarly Hagar was also given glad tidings of a son:
And the angel of the Lord said unto her, Behold, thou art with a child, and shalt bear a son, and shalt call his name Ishmael because the Lord hath heard thy affliction. -Genesis 16:11
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'Because the Lord hath heard thy affliction'- can be interpreted to mean as-
Fear not Hagar for thou hast found favour with God.
b. Angel said with Mary: And the angel came in unto her, and said, Hail, thou, that art highly favoured, the Lord is with thee: blessed art thou among women. -Luke 1:28 Similarly with Hagar too: (in second time)
...and Angel, said unto her, what aileth thee, Hagar? Fear not; for God hath heard the voice of the lad where he is. -Genesis 21:17 Is it necessary to interpret that Hagar was also favoured highly by God and was one that was blessed among women as was in the case of Mary? Were she not favoured highly by God and were she not a one blessed among women the angel would not have called upon her twice on two different occasions with glad tidings from God saying as- '...because the Lord hath heard thy affliction' And 'What aileth thee Hagar? Fear not, for God hath heard the voice of the lad-'
c. The angel said to Mary about her son And he shall reign over the house of Jacob for ever; and of his kingdom there shall be no end. -Luke 1:33 Similarly the angel said to Hagar about her son Ishmael-
And the angel of the Lord said unto her, I will multiply thy seed exceedingly, that it shall not be numbered for multitude. -Genesis 16:10
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And Again
... For I will make him a great nation -Genesis 21:18
d. As regards to the child (Jesus) of Mary ... and the grace of God was upon him -Luke 2:40 (Jesus says) And he that sent me is with me. -John 8:29 (ie) God was with Jesus. Similarly God himself was with Ishmael the son of Hagar.
And God was with the lad... -Genesis 21:20 The above comparison made between Hagar and her child (Ishmael) and Mary and her child (Jesus) shows very clearly that what was the status of Hagar and Ishmael and that how great obedient servants were they in the sight of God. If Hagar and Ishmael were ones that had no inheritance of the promises made to Abraham (Genesis 21:10) and if Hagar were after all a bondmaid of Sarah (Genesis 16:1) and that Ishmael were a son of a concubine (Genesis 25:5,6) and if they Hagar and Ishmael had no prominent recognition at allwe would like to ask the churchWhy Hagar was conferred with a favour of God who sent His angel on two occasions with glad tidings about Ishmael? And why were a number of promises made by God about Ishmael? And why angel appeared to Hagar with a gladtiding and a promise to her son Ishmael?
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And the angel of the Lord said unto her, I will multiply thy seed exceedingly, that it shall not be numbered for multitude. And the Angel of the Lord said unto her, Behold thou art with child and shalt bear a son, and shalt call his name Ishmael: because the Lord hath heard thy affliction -Genesis 16:10-11 And again in the second time the angel appeared to Hagar and promised as follows-
And God heard the voice of the lad [Ishmael] and the angel of God called Hagar out of heaven and said unto her what aileth thee Hagar? fear not; for God hath heard the voice of the lad where he is. Arise, lift up the lad, and hold him in thine hand: for I will make him a great nation. -Genesis 21:17-18 If Hagar and Ishmael were really the valueless stuff (Garbage) to be cast out into the dustbin as Church makes them out to be (apparent by their writings)-
1. Why the angel of God called upon Hagar twice on two different occasions with the glad tidings for her son Ishmael? 2. And why were promises made about her seed- Ishmael (and his progeny)? 3. And are the promises made to Hagar about her son by God through the angel also equally valueless to be thrown into the dustbin? 4. And do angels of God appear to ordinary people such as handwomen and concubines? 5. And do angels descend from heaven, to call upon people without any strong spiritual significance and purpose?
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6. Does God select the names of such ones who have no spiritual significance and appoint his angels to advise their parents to name them after the manner as had been selected by Him? Angel of God said to Hagar:
...and shalt bear a son and shalt call his name Ishmael... -Genesis 16:11 Angel of God said to Mary
...and bring forth a son, and shalt call his name Jesus. -Luke 1:31 Angel of God said to Zachariah:
...And thy wife Elisabeth shall bear thee a son and thou shalt call his name John. -Luke 1:13 And God said to Abraham-
...Sarah thy wife shall bear thee a son indeed; and thou shalt call his name Isaac... -Genesis 17:19 We leave all these questions to the discretion of the discerning readers. Above all what most important to note is, even if the angels of God appear to ordinary people the message they give cannot be free from spiritual significance and importance just as in the case of shepherds who were informed about Jesus (Luke 2:8-20). Now let us examine some key verses of this passage under discussion so that we can know more about the progenitors of 'THE UNIVERSAL PROPHET-MOHAMMAD'
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Isaac was born after promise - so also Ishmael was born after promise of God a. But he who was by the bondwoman was born after the flesh: but he of the freewoman was by promise. -Galatians 4:23
1. According as to above it is a known fact that the bondwoman means Hagar the second wife of Abraham who was given in marriage when the first wife Sarah was found to be a barren. (Genesis 16:1-3) 2. Freewoman means Sarah the first wife of Abraham, that who when they became despair of the hope of conceiving as she was barren (Genesis 11:30) Hagar was taken by her husband Abraham to be his wife so that she could have children by her (Genesis 16:1-4). 3. Son of bondwoman means Ishmael (Genesis 16:15). 4. And the son of freewoman means Isaac (Genesis 21:3). The above verse (Galatians 4:23) gives rise of a notion that Isaac was born by promise and that no promise was made about the first son Ishmael. But this is not correct. Both the sons were given to Abraham by promises only. Ishmael was also born by promise just as Isaac had been conceived of by a promise. When God was giving a series of promises to Abraham, one after another, as Abraham was childless even upto his very old age, enquired God desperately that what was He going to give him, when he was going childless and expressed his reluctant desire to make steward of his house as his heir. Then God promised and assured him that none could be his heir, except the one that was born out of his own loins. Thus was Abraham
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comforted and he believed in God and was expecting for a child (Refer to Genesis 15:3-6). In due course (after 10 years) God conferred upon him the favour of the fulfilment of the promise and a son was born to him, by Hagar, whose name was Ishmael (Genesis 16:15). Then does it not mean that Ishmael was also born to Abraham only after the promise? As a matter of fact the promises made to Abraham were quite clear as they were specifically spoken pointing out to whom they aptly applicable to: whether to Ishmael or Isaac. No doubt the promises were made to both the sons of Abraham as they were his seed; and out of whom two covenants were to come (Galatians 4:22-24).
Promises of God to Abraham relating to Ishmael 1. At the time of commanding Abraham to get out of his country and father's house God promised him saying asAnd I will make of thee a great nation, and I will bless thee and make thy name great: and thou shalt be a blessing: And I will bless them that bless thee and curse him that curseth thee: and in thee shall all families of the earth be blessed. -Genesis 12:2-3 The key point of the above promise is that the universal prophet was promised to be raised from the seed of Abraham.
A. ...and in thee shall all families of the earth be blessed -Genesis 12:2-3 B. And in thy seed shall all the nations of the earth be blessed... -Genesis 22:18 C. ...for I will make him a great nation
-Genesis 21:18
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2. After Lot was separated from him, Abraham was again promised. ...and look from the place where thou art northward and southward, and eastward and westward: For all the land which thou seest, to thee will I give it, and to thy seed for ever. (Genesis 13:14-17) This symbolic promise also was made for the advent of the universal prophet through his progeny.
3. when Abraham came to Mamre in Hebron in Canaan he was again promised. After these things the word of the Lord came unto Abraham in a vision, saying, Fear not, Abram: I am thy shield, and thy exceeding great reward. And Abram said, Lord God, what wilt thou give me, seeing I go childless, and the steward of my house is this Eliezer of Damascus? And Abram said, Behold, to me thou hast given no seed: and lo, one born in my house is mine heir. And behold, the word of the Lord came unto him, saying, This shall not be thine heir; but he that shall come forth out of thine own bowels shall be thine heir. And he brought him forth abroad, and said, Look now toward heaven, and tell the stars, if thou be able to number them; and he said unto him, so shall thy seed be. And he believed in the Lord; and he counted it to him for righteousness. -Genesis 15:1-6 This promise was also of the same nature as of those that were earlier made. But here a son was promised that would inherit the promise for the advent of the universal prophet explicitly pointing on the hint 'He that shall come forth out of thine own bowels shall be thine heir'.
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All the above promises speak clearly that Abraham was promised a son who would become the heir of the promise made to him about the advent of the universal prophet.
Hagar was taken as second wife after Sarah was detected to be a barren, even before all the promises were made - but not after Abraham had dwelt ten years at Canaan as church tries to impress to mean asIf any man is promised of a son who is having only one wife it is but natural that the wife will also be expecting to have a son from her bowels by her husband whom a son is promised. But here it is an open fact that Abraham had two wives. It is recorded in the Bible that Hagar (the second wife) was given to him after ten years after their dwelling at Canaan. Thus we read in Genesis 16:3
And Sarai Abraham's wife took Hagar her maid the Egyptian, after Abraham had dwelt ten years in the land of Canaan, and gave her to her husband Abraham, to be his wife. Here it may be observed that why the specific mention of time (period) as regards to Hagar's company with Abraham as his wife was made, as to have been taken place as after ten years after Abraham had dwelt at Canaan? According as to the present arguments it is not necessary to discuss whether Hagar was a handmaid of Sarah and whether she was given by Sarah or that Abraham himself had taken her as his second wife to keep up his progeny. But the more important point to know here is whether she was really given into the bosom of Abraham after ten years as recorded in the Bible. The other passages of the Bible which we shall put forth in the discussion as according to its necessity will reveal the fact that Hagar was not given really after ten years after their dwelling at Canaan but was taken as a legal wife even at the time when Sarah the first wife was detected and proved to be a barren even while they were at 'Ur of Chaldees' or at Haran long before the first promise of God was made.
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And what is the motive behind on specifically and stressingly recording that she was given to be a wife after ten years after their dwelling at Canaan? This has been interpolated so as to make people believe that Hagar became the second wife of Abraham only after ten years after all the promises were made. Here one may surprise as to why this silly point has become such a major factor as taken for discussion. Does it make any difference if she were to be given after the promises or before? Of course makes no difference in general matters but pertaining to the case of Hagar in this particular issue at hand, the point whether she was given in marriage after the promises were made to Abraham or before must be made clear. It may be recollected that a number of promises were made to Abraham as regards to his seed and progeny. But to the great surprise, Abraham was not yet blessed with a child. So when again a promise was being made, Abraham desperately asked God that what was He going to give him, when he was going childless expressing his reluctant and unpleasant willingness to take one at last as his heir that would born in his house. (we read in Genesis 15:2-3)
And Abraham said, Lord God, what wilt thou give me, seeing I go childless, and the steward of my house is this Eliezer of Damascus? And Abraham told, Behold to me thou hast given no seed: and lo, one born in my house is mine heir. Then as a reply to the above, God clarifies as hereunder --
And, behold, the word of the Lord came unto him saying, this shall not be thine heir: but he that shall come forth out of thine own bowels shall be thine heir heir. And he brought him forth abroad, and said, look now toward heaven and tell the stars if thou be able to number them: and he said unto him, so shall thy seed be. And he believed in the Lord; and he counted it to him for his righteousness righteousness. -Genesis 15:4-6
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From the foregoing passage it is learnt:
1. that the heir of the promises made to Abraham was to come from his own bowels. Thus it is made clear that none could be his heir for the promise except the one that would come forth from his own bowels. Thus was stressingly said by God, and 2. that Abraham believed in the Lord; to say in clear terms that Abraham believed that as has been told by God that his real heir would be he that would come out of his own bowels. And again 3. that God accepted that what Abraham believed was a certain decree of Himself that was to take effect without fail. God said that the heir of the promises would be one that would born out of Abraham's own bowels What a curious fact is that if any person is promised of a son out of his own bowels and if he were a man of only one wife it is but natural that he should be expecting a son only through the womb of his only wife 'as he believed'. But this was not the case with Abraham. He had two wives. The first one Sarah being a barren he took Hagar as his second wife to keep up his posterity. When Abraham was promised a son 'and he believed in the Lord'. So his belief is to be considered as a main criterion to detect as to whom he believed as the mother of his heir whether Sarah or Hagar. And again one son cannot be expected from two wombs. So it must be either Sarah or Hagar to whom he believed as his heir's womb. But Sarah was barren (Genesis 11:30); and as a matter of fact this was the reason that why Abraham took his second wife Hagar. So without a doubt it was Hagar whom he believed as the mother of his heir.
A little manipulation - results in great loss The above well established logic cannot be ruled out unless the existence of Hagar is outright denied as a consort of Abraham before the times of all these promises were made. Therefore it is so interpolated to mean as that Hagar was given to be a consort of Abraham after ten
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years he had dwelt in Canaan. This was done purely with a malicious intention to make people believe that it was Sarah being the only wife, whom Abraham regarded and believed as the mother of his heir.
Hagar was taken as a wife to Abraham even before the first promise of a child Though it is interpolated in the Bible as that Hagar was given to be a wife to Abraham after ten years of their dwelling at Canaan, we have so many other verses and passages which all not only contradict to this but also prove that she was taken into legal wedlock even while they were at Ur of chaldees, immediately after when Sarah was detected to be a barren (Genesis 11:30). As regards to her consortium with Abraham the chronological datum has not specifically been recorded. Yet what we can say with certainty is that Hagar became the second wife of Abraham even long before the first promise of God was made to him at Haran. I would like to draw your kind attention on the following points. while giving Hagar as a second wife to Abraham, Sarah expressed her fond desire for children.
...it may be that I may obain children by her... -Genesis 16:2 This speaks-
1. ...the couple was very much desirous to have children for them. 2. ...the second wife was taken upon the mutual consent of the couple. 3. ...the second wife was taken only when it was determined that the first wife was not at all fit for conception. 'But Sarai was barren: she had no child'. (Genesis 11:30)
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4. ...the couple was not willing to adopt any child. The first wife Sarah wanted to have even stepchildren out of her husband's own bowels even by her co-wife1. '...the Lord hath restrained me from bearing...' (Genesis 16:3) 5. ...thus it became imperative to Abraham to accept the offer of his wife, of the second wife, to obtain children by her, as the first one was barren. '...and gave her (Hagar) to her (Sarah's) husband Abraham to be his wife'. (Genesis 16:3) Now the question is whether Hagar was taken as a second wife after the promises of God were made or before. On observation of the Bible it can be well established that she was taken even before the promises were made. Were Hagar the second wife of Abraham not existing in association in his consortium2 even before the promises of God were made and if there were only wife Sarah at the time when the first promise of God was made at Haran, regarding the multiplication of his seed, Sarah being a barren, should Abraham have not expressed his doubt as that how he could have a son from the womb of a barren, as he did when a specific promise for the birth of Isaac was made through the womb of Sarah in her old age? We can see from the following that how great an impossible matter was it for Abraham to believe that Sarah would conceive.
Then Abraham fell on his face, and laughed, and said in heart, shall a child be born unto him that is an hundred years old? and shall Sarah that is ninty years old bear? -Genesis 17:17 The above may be about the improbability of conceiving in old age. If this be about menopause, does the improbability of conceiving also not applicable for a barren woman? Of course the proximity of improbability between these two disqualifications runs parallel.
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And again to make Abraham believe that Sarah would definitely conceive, God stressingly said-
...Sarah thy wife shall bear thee a son indeed... -Genesis 17:19 This shows clearly that till this promise Abraham had not even a vestige of thought that Sarah would conceive; because she was a barren at her youth (Galatians 4:27) and now menopause. A known fact is that conceiving of menopause and barren are equally improbable. No doubt Abraham being a prophet, and friend of God, after God's stressing assurance believed that God could do any thing and thus believed that he would get miraculously a son by Sarah. But his expression of doubt in the beginning when this specific promise was being made, reveals the fact that in all previous times when promises were made he did not express such doubt as this. Why? Not because that he was unaware of Sarah's barrenness but because he was having his second wife Hagar's consortium1 whom he took particularly to keep up his lineage by her. So when promises were made to him about his seed, he believed that he would get children by Hagar the second wife. This fact leads us to conclude that Hagar was taken into the consortium of Abraham even before these promises were made and that it was Hagar whom Abraham believed as the womb of his promised seed. And again what surprising to note is that not only Abraham but Sarah also did not believe that she (Sarah) would conceive.
And he [angel] said, I will certainly return unto thee according to time of life: and lo, Sarah thy wife shall have a son. And Sarah heard it in the tent door which was behind him. Now Abraham and Sarah were old and well stricken in age; and it ceased to be with Sarah after the manner of women. Therefore Sarah laughed within herself saying, After I am waxed old shall I have pleasure, my lord being old also? And the Lord said unto Abraham wherefore did Sarah laugh, saying shall I of a surety bear a child, which am old? Is anything too hard for the
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Lord? At the time appointed I will return unto thee, according to the time of life and Sarah shall have a son. -Genesis 18;10-14 Take note of the verse-
Therefore Sarah laughed within herself saying, after I am waxed old shall I have pleasure, and my lord being old also? -Genesis 18:12 This speaks very clearly that the couple was physically quite unfit to go through the natural phenomenon and inevitable process of cohabitation without which conceiving is generally not possible. And the angel assures saying as- 'Is any thing too hard for the Lord?' (Genesis 18:14) This does not mean that God would renew their youth or restore the sexual appetite with necessary potentiality to go through the natural process necessary for conception; but rather means to interpret that God was able of making Sarah conceive miraculously without the necessary cohabitation (sexual intercourse) just as in the case of Mary who conceived Jesus without all such general and natural process (Luke 1:34). This point goes to prove that it was a matter not possible for general cases unless God's extraordinary favour was conferred upon. Church also agrees that Isaac was born by Sarah miraculously (Galatians 4:29)1. Here what we want to point out is that Sarah until this event never believed that she would conceive.
And she [Sarah] said, who would have said unto Abraham, that Sarah should have given children suck? for I have born him a son in his old age. -Genesis 21:7 Thus she expressed, because in all her youth she was barren. The most noteworthy point here is, that her above expression emphasises more on the point of her being barren in her youth rather than on her
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cessation of womanly nature in her old age. This point has also been corroborated by the church-
...Rejoice thou barren that bearest not... -Galatians 4:27 Does it mean that she [Sarah] did not believe right from the day she was given into the bosom of Abraham? No, not at all. She was expecting the favour of God of a child as do every married female and male. But what a curious fact is when she was proved to be a barren (Genesis 11:30) she gave up all such hopes and expectations and determined to take a fellow wife2 to herself so as to keep up legitimate posterity of Abraham.
Now Sarah Abraham's wife bare him no children: and she had an handmaid, an Egyptian whose name was Hagar. And Sarah said unto Abraham, Behold now, the Lord hath restrained me from bearing: I pray thee, go in unto my maid: it may be that I may obtain children by her. And Abraham hearkened to the voice of Sarah. And Sarah Abraham's wife took Hagar her maid the Egyptian, after Abraham had dwelt ten years in the land of Canaan and gave her to her husband Abraham to be his wife. -Genesis 16:1-3 The above passage provides in nutshell that how and when and why that Hagar was taken as a second wife to Abraham. 'Now Sarah Abraham's wife bare him no children' of the first verse; and 'Behold now the Lord hath restrained me from bearing' of the second verse bear testimony to the fact that by the time when Sarah was detected and proved to be a barren, Hagar was taken as second wife. Further the words spoken by Sarah at the time of taking Hagar as her co-wife1 are most noteworthy.
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'It may be that I may obtain children by her'. It explains very convincingly that Sarah expected that she would get children by Hagar. This further explains in very clear terms that Hagar was taken even before the first promise of God which was made at Haraan. Were it not so- could Sarah ever have taken another woman to be a wife to her husband to conceive children for her with no faith in God's promises? And could Abraham ever have accepted and taken the consortium1 of second wife to get children despite clear promises of God, were they made earlier? Does this not speak in an unequivocal term that Hagar was taken as a second wife long before the promises of God, were made to them? As a matter of fact, taking of Hagar in to his consortium would not have necessitated the godly people like Abraham and Sarah when specific number of promises of God were made, had Hagar been not taken much more earlier than these promises were made. And another noteworthy thing is that if Hagar was taken as second wife after the promises of God were made as recorded in the Bible, would God not have intervened and stopped Sarah and Abraham from taking Hagar for the sake of children? Let us recall here the event of God's sending glad tidings to Sarah saying that she would bear a son. On hearing the message of God Sarah laughed within herself with great surprise as that how she could conceive in her old age. To this God assured her through the same angel that it would be done indeed as nothing was impossible with God (Genesis 18:9-14). If thus was the reaction of God for the simple cause of expressing doubt by Sarah, what would have been the fate of them, had she offered another woman (Hagar) to obtain children by her even after a number of promises were made by God? What we mean to say in clear terms is that all these points prove that Hagar was taken as a second wife long before the promises of God were made when the first wife Sarah was detected and proved to be a barren. And then therefore it is proved beyond doubt that it was Hagar whom Abraham believed as the womb of his promised seed.
Ishmael was legal heir to the promise of universal prophet When once it is agreed that Ishmael was also born by a promise, now there arises a question whether Ishmael was a legal heir to the promise made to Abraham for the advent of the universal prophet from his progeny or Isaac as the church argues.
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Now let us bear in mind that Abraham had two sons. The first one Ishmael who was born to him at his 86 years age. The second son was Isaac who was born to him later at the age of 100 years. So the age difference between the first and second son was 14 years. Now the question is to whom do the earlier promises made to Abraham even at the time that no child was born to him reasonably applicable towhether to the first born Ishmael or the later born Isaac. The Church argues that all the promises were made only about Isaac. But according to us, the promise to raise the universal prophet was to take effect from the lineage of Ishmael the first son of Abraham who was also born to him by promise of God. This is how let us examine. First reason is as follows: Had those earlier promises been made about Isaac, there should have no fresh and specific promise been made again about Isaac.
... And I will bless her [Sarah] and give thee a son also of her:yea I will bless her and she shall be a mother of nations; kings of people shall be of her. -Genesis 17:16 The above is a promise made to Abraham specifically pointing about Isaac. Does it not clearly show that a fresh promise had been made about Isaac? The Church may try to explain this as a reminder or renewal of the earlier promises. But examination of the promise reveals the fact that it was neither a reminder nor renewal of the earlier ones but a new and fresh promise specifically made about Isaac. When once it is admitted so, does it not logically prove that the earlier promises made before to this, in no way attract to the person of Isaac but to the first son Ishmael? Further take note of the clauses of the passage...
And I will bless her [Sarah]
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And give thee a son also of her... Basing on the above two clauses of the passage a man with minimum literary knowledge can conclude that when this specific promise is made about the birth of Isaac with a stress on the above two clauses that all the former promises applicable to Ishmael the first son only, but the second son Isaac is in no way concerned with them. And at the same time it also rules out the claim of the Church that it was only the renewal and reminder of the old promises. Example: I presented one golden chain to my friend asking him to adorn the same to his son. And accordingly he gave away the golden chain to the first son who was born 10 years after its presentation. And after 14 years, his another wife gave birth to a second son to him. If I were particular that the golden chain given by me should be given to the second son, I should have said to my friend to hand over the golden chain given by me to the second son explaining him clearly that it was meant for his second son only but not for the first son. But quite contrary to this, before the birth of the second son, I prepared another golden chain and presented again to my friend asking him to give it to his second son born to him by another wife. Then does it not mean that the first golden chain was exclusively for the first son and the second golden chain for the second son? Is there any doubt still? Exactly in the same way the promises made before the birth of the first son apply only to the first son Ishmael like the first golden chain meant for the first son of our example, as specific another promise was made about the second son just as the presentation of the second golden chain of our example. If there were no separate promises made one before the birth of the first son and another one before the birth of the second son; that is, if were no specific promises made about Isaac separately there could have been some doubt as to whom the earlier promise belongs to- whether to the first born Ishamel or to the second one Isaac. But here the case is not ambiguous. Both the sons were separately promised. So at the first
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instance it is made clear that the promises made before the birth of Ishmael apply to him, and the further specific promises made about Isaac invariably apply to Isaac. When once it is agreed as above the promise made before the birth of the first son to raise up of the universal prophet from among the seed of Abraham most reasonably and logically applicable to Ishmael only. And therefore that Universal prophet was to come from the lineage of Ishmael. To up hold their arguments that all the promises made to Abraham even before the birth of the first son Ishmael were applicable only to the second son Isaac, but not to Ishmael, it appears that a prophecy which speaks specifically about the progeny of Isaac (Genesis 15:13-14) has been displaced and arranged in between the order of promises made to Ishmael. As a result, a great deal of ambiguity among the promises made has been developped. But keeping in view of the facts discussed so far, the subtlety played can be well traced. II Reason: We have another hint in the scriptures to prove that all the earlier promises were made about Ishmael but not about Isaac. While promising the birth of Isaac God changed the name of the first wife of Abraham.
And God said unto Abraham, as for Sarai thy wife, thou shalt not call her name Sarai, but Sarah her name shall be. -Genesis 17:15 Why this change in her name was ordered, God Himself provides the answer in the following verse.
And I will bless her and give thee a son also of her: yea I will bless her and she shall be a mother of nations kings of people shall be of her. -Genesis 17:16
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While specifically promising about Isaac, God changed her name as Sarah instead of Sarai, explaining the reason. Were there any place for Isaac in those (earlier) promises, the name of Sarai should have been changed as Sarah even at that time only when earlier promises were made. To rebut our above point church forwards the event of the change of the name of Abraham (Genesis 17:5) also. Were the change of name of Abraham a truth this might have been done even at the time of the first promise itself. So the mention of this event either here in this passage may be due to the wanton displacement or interpolation. III Reason: Abraham remained childless till his old age. God promised him of a son. He believed in God and it was counted as his righteouness. (Genesis 15:1-6) Thus Abraham believed in God that the promises made to him would take effect in his seed. The key point of the promise under (Ref. Genesis 12:2-3) is that God promised Abraham that He would raise the universal prophet from among his seed. And again the promise under Ref. Genesis 13:14-171 is both symbolic as well as literal. It symbolizes for the advent of the universal prophet to be raised from Abraham's seed. And in literal sense- the greater part of the geographical territory would be under the control of the seed of Abraham. Accordingly the seed of Abraham inherited the land as promised to Abraham to be given to his seed- whether they be Jews and Christians or Muslims. However this point does not contradict to our argument that the promises made before the birth of Isaac exclusively apply to Ishmael. As regards to the inheritance of land and property and such other things can be inherited by all seed (all members of his family or progeny) as according to what one is deserved or alloted by God as one's own lot. But as for the inheritance of the promise of the universal prophet he was to come from a single man because one prophet or person cannot come out of two wombs. Therefore this promise unlike the other ones applicable to only one person through whose lineage the
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advent of the universal prophet was to take effect to. One can come to this conclusion after going through our arguments.
Progenitor of the universal prophet: Isaac or Ishmael? Now the question is that from whose progeny the advent of the universal prophet was to take effect to- whether from Ishmael's as we argue or from Isaac's as church contends. Now come to the point of our argument. Abraham had two sons. Elder was Ishmael and younger Isaac. The age differnce between them was fourteen years. At the time of these promises, as a matter of fact Abraham was childless. Under Ref: Genesis 15:1-6 while again promising him of the universal prophet to clear off his despair of having no child, God assured and promised Abraham of a son who would be his heir.
And he believed in the Lord... -Genesis 15:6 Thus the belief of Abraham became a criterion which helps in detecting the progenitor of the universal prophet as the same one as to whom Abraham believed. Now the questions is- who was that seed (son) whom Abraham believed as the progenitor of universal prophet? We must bear in mind that this promise was made to him when he was childless. As soon as the promise was made, he believed it. So it was the first son (Ishmael) whom he believed as the progenitor of that prophet as until after fourteen years after the birth of Ishmael there was no question of the existence of the second son Isaac. And so eversince Abraham was promised he was in the same belief. The church object to this and say that because Abraham had only one wife Sarah by the time of these promises were made to Abraham, he believed that the promise was to be fulfilled through Sarah's womb as until after ten years there was no question of the second wife Hagar.
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Then therefore the promise to raise the universal prophet was to come from the progeny of Isaac the first wife's son, but not from the progeny of Ishmael the son of the second wife. Of course, this logic can be admitted provided there were only one wife Sarah at the times of all these promises. But the case here is not like that. Hagar the second wife was also present. Sarah was barren and this was the reason why the second wife Hagar was given in the bosom of Abraham to produce children for them. If this be the case, is it not a fact that Abraham believed that he would beget his heir of the promise through the womb of Hagar the second wife? The presence of Hagar as a second wife to Abraham even before the times of all these promises were made- is proved in our previous arguments- please refer pages 7085. Just for arguments sake let us cooperate with the Church for a while and accept that at the time of these promises Sarah being the only wife that Abraham believed that his promised heir would come out of her womb. Were it so the first thing that we should take into consideration is that Abraham believed that the promise would take effect from the first son. His belief was not whether the first wife or the second wife or some one else give birth to his son (heir) but his unconfounded belief was on the point that the heir of the promise should be the one that would come forth out of his own bowels. This is what God had also made it clear saying -
...But he that shall come forth out of thine own bowels shall be thine heir -Genesis 15:4 But what noteworthy is that God did not say- (At that time)
...Sarah thy wife also shall bear thee a son indeed... as had been said when specifically pointing about Isaac. (Genesis 17:19) Let us think in other way too: If any man is promised of a son, who is having only one wife, it is but natural that the wife will also be expecting to have a son from her own womb by her husband whom a son is promised.
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So also Sarah might be expecting for the promised son through her womb. But what important to note here is that the belief of Abraham should be taken into consideration but not of Sarah's, because it is clearly said that Abraham's belief was accepted by God as his righteousness (Genesis 15:6). Abraham's unconfounded belief in God's promise was that the heir of the promise made to him was he that would come forth out of his own bowels (Genesis 15:4). But his unconfounded belief was not that Sarah's womb would be the source through which his heir of the promise would come forth because he knew that Sarah was a barren (Genesis 11:30). And this was the reason that why when Sarah became sure that she would no more conceive, and that when she was recommending to take the Egyptian- Hagar to be his wife with a fond hope to keep up the posterity of Abraham and to have children for her through another woman Hagar, Abraham could not refuse to have another wife; but readily accepted to take Hagar as his second wife (Genesis 16:1-4). If what we have said is not a truth Abraham would have definitely said to Sarah that he had believed that the heir of the promise of God would come forth from her[Sarah] womb only. And should have warned her not to be despair of conceiving with words such as 'God hath restrained me from bearing'. And also should have rejected to have another wife saying that Sarah would definitely conceive a son for him the heir of the promise as he believed and the belief of which also had been counted by God as righteousness (Genesis 15:6). But quite contrary to this Abraham accepted the second wife Hagar. Does this point not prove that Abraham never regarded and believed Sarah as one the mother of his heir of the promise of God? And again were it not so, and if Abraham had not believed his first son Ishmael to be the heir of the promise, could ever had he intervened when God was promising him the second son Isaac, and showed his
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contentment only with the first son expressing his reluctance to have another son? We read in Genesis.
And God said unto Abraham, As for Sarai, thy wife, thou shalt not call her name Sarai, but Sarah shall her name be. And I will bless her and give thee a son also of her: yea, I will bless her, and she shall be a mother of nations: kings of people shall be of her. Then Abraham fell upon his face and laughed and said in his heart shall a child be born unto him that is an hundred years old? and Sarah that is ninety years old, bear? And Abraham said unto God, O, that Ishmael might live before Thee!
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Genesis 17:15-18 Does this not speak that Abraham was not at all fondly hoping to have another son? Does this not prove that what all promises were made to Abraham (Except those specifically made latter about Isaac) were made in favour of Ishmael? Does it not prove that Abraham believed those promises which all speak about the advent of the universal prophet to take effect from the offspring of the first son Ishmael- by Hagar? Was that belief of Abraham a mere false prediction? or delusion? No. What he believed, God counted it as his righteousness (Genesis 15:6). In other words God approved and affirmed that what Abraham believed his son Ishmael to be the progenitor and heir of the promise for the rise of the universal prophet was quite right. When God Himself had affirmed it, then where is chance for any other interpretation? Can there be any place for all such verses or passages as speak contrary to this fact?
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IV. Reason is as follows: Now let us discuss in an another way. Examine some verses of the passage under discussion (Galatians 4:21-31)
A. Now we, brethren, as Isaac was, are the children of promise (Galatians 4:28) In the very beginning of this chapter we have proved in our arguments that Ishmael was also born by a promise. So if the descendants of Isaac the Israelites (Jews and Christians) were by promise, the case with Ishmaelites (Muslims) was also by promise. Here the promise is used in literal sense only which is applicable to both sons.
B. But as then he that was born after the flesh persecuted him that was born after the spirit... -Galatians 4:29 Whether one was persecuted by the other is a point of secondary importance, while the verse provides two important facts. These are-
1. that Ishmael was born after flesh means, he was born after the natural phenomenon of human intercourse which resulted in his mother Hagar's conception. Thus Ishmael's birth was a normal and natural one (Genesis 16:1-4). 2. but the case with the birth of Isaac was not like that. It was quite unnatural and abnormal. He was born after the spirit. That means he was born miraculously without the interference of parent's natural necessary copulation without which conception is not possible. The mother of Isaac, Sarah was not only a barren but also had attained menopause, yet God gave them a son by name Isaac, miraculously. Nothing is impossible with God. He can create children from the stones or even from nothing.
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1. And think not to say within yourselves we have Abraham to our father: for I [John] say unto you that God is able of these stones to raise up children unto Abraham. -Mathews 3:9 2. And the Lord God formed man of the dust of the ground and breathed into his nostrils the breath of life; and man became a living soul. -Genesis 2:7 When God is able of raising up of children to Abraham even from stones, why one wonder or hesitate to believe that Isaac was born miraculously? Was the case of Isaac unique of this type? No. We have similar cases one with John and the other with Jesus. We have discussed these points in detail in our other book 'THAT PROPHET' which may be referred so as to understand the points easily. So it is proved beyond doubt that the birth of Isaac was a miraculous one while the birth of Ishmael was just a natural one. And this fact is also admitted by the church (Galatians 4:29).
But as then he that was born after the flesh persecuted him that was born after the Spirit... -Galatians 4:29
Cast out bondwoman and her son - scripture says? C. Nevertheless what saith the scripture? Cast out the bondwoman and her son: for the son of the bondwoman shall not be heir with the son of the freewoman. -Galatians 4:30 In the above, Paul reminds in his letter to Galatians saying as 'Nevertheless what saith the scripture?' as if, to impress that what was he going to write was already incorporated in the scripture. Our readers well remember that we have proved in our arguments under the sub-heading 'The Exile' in pages 6-20, that what has been recorded to have been decreed by Sarah (Genesis 21:10)1 is no more than an interpolation. And so whether it was in the scripture of original manuscript or not is a point left for the discretion of the readers. But what one can notice is that church is very particular to cast out Hagar and her son Ishmael from their memories by reminding again and again to its followers. And those who
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hanker after such passages disclose themselves as ones responsible for such interpolated passages. If not why one should emphasize on those parts (writings) repeatedly? The decree of Sarah to cast out the bondwoman and her son Ishmael whether a fact or fiction is not the point now to be discussed, but what we primarily point out is even if it were a truth, the event happened some thousands of years ago, and accordingly they might have been cast out and the matter there ended, and became a thing quite forgotten. Now what we would like to question the church is that why is it so afraid even to see the shadows of the debris of the graves of them who are no more traced anywhere?
Bondwoman's son was the real inheritor of the promise as he was born out of the bowels of Abraham It seems that Church has inserted the interpolation and imputed to have been decreed by Sarah and reminds once again by saying- 'Nevertheless what saith the scripture? Cast out the bondwoman and her son: for the son of the bondwoman shall not be heir with the son of the freewoman' (Galatians 4:30). Let us not worry whether it is a truth or interpolation made by the church to derogate the posterity of Ishmael out of whom prophet Mohammad happened to be the universal prophet; so as to guard their people and not to allow them to scatter and enter into the group of Mohammed. If what we say is not a truth why is church so afraid of even to hear the name of Ishmael? And why are they not able to forget them? If they were once cast out to whom Church is going to cast out again in commemoration of the casting out of Ishmael and his mother if it is not an unceasing trial of the Church to cast out the teachings of Mohammed so as to guard their own people not to become his followers? Whatever be these things but what we primarily need is whether Ishmael was son of Abraham or not? God says in Bible:
...because he is thy seed. -Genesis 21:13
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Now the question is that who was the real seed appointed to inherit the promise for the universal prophet- whether Ishmael or Isaac? When Abraham was childless he was promised by God-
...he that shall come forth out of thine own bowels shall be thine heir. -Genesis 15:4 In the above verse, a son was promised and at the same time it was also made clear that no one could be his heir except the son that would come forth out of his own bowels. We do not mind that who would inherit the worldly wealth such as movables and immovables, but we are particular to find out that who would inherit the spiritual universal leadership promised to Abraham through his seed. By the time of promise Abraham and Sarah might not have had in their knowledge that Abraham would be blessed with two sons. But can anybody think that it was not in the knowledge of God? It is needless to write that God being the Creator and Master of all the worlds without whose knowledge no leaf of any tree falls, knew that Isaac was to follow after fourteen years after the birth of Ishmael. The most remarkable point here to discuss is that when God was aware of the fact that Abraham was to be blessed with two sons that why he had used the singular number while promising- 'a son' as his heir for the universal spiritual leadership?
He that shall come forth... Then therefore even though Abraham had two sons, the promise is applicable to only one son. Now the question is who that son was whether Ishmael or Isaac? In our foregoing pages we learnt that Ishmael was born after flesh means- born by means of natural phenomenon of cohabitation of his parents. That means Ishmael was born, out of the bowels of Abraham (Genesis 16:4), while Isaac was miraculously born that means he did not
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come out of the bowels of Abraham but by the mercy of God he was born. These points have also been admitted by the church (Galatians 4:29)1. Now we leave this point for the discretion of the readers to whom the promise reasonably applicable to:
...he that shall come forth out of thine own bowels shall be thine heir. -Genesis 15:4 From the above verse a crucial hint that one who was to inherit the promise of the universal prophet can be seen. That is to say that one who is born out of his own bowels is the progenitor of the universal prophet. The Church attributes the inheritance to the second son Isaac, the progenitor of Jesus so as to ascribe this promise to Jesus himself. But the examination of the various biblical narrations help us to find out whether it was the first son Ishmael or the second son Isaac as the real progenitor of the universal prophet. In view of the above hint he must be one that had been born out of the bowels of Abraham. In this connection please observe the following-
But as he who was born according to the flesh then persecuted him who was born according to spirit, even so it is now. (The Open Bible)-Galatians 4:29 The above passage is taken from the letter of Paul to Galatians. Taking into consideration of the context it can be well explained that the one who was born according to the flesh was Ishmael and the other one was Isaac who was born according to the spirit. We find in this passage two allegoric descriptions about two births of two sons respectively. The first one was born out of flesh meaning born out of parents' own bowels. The other son was born according to spirit means born miraculously without the natural process necessary for conception which point makes clear that the second son was not born out of his father's own loin (bowels). This further establishes that the first son was born out of his own bowels which point makes clear that it was the first son who was the progenitor of the promised universal prophet. So it is evident that the first son Ishmael was the progenitor from whose progeny the advent of the universal prophet was to take place.
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ISHMAEL: THE PROGENITOR OF THE UNIVERSAL PROPHET Ishmael is a word in Hebrew language meaning for 'God hears'1. The first son of Abraham1 by Hagar the second wife2 was named as Ishmael as suggested by God Himself through His angel3. He was so named because God heard the affliction of his mother1.
Affliction of Hagar - Not because she was dealt oppressively by Sarah: but because she remained unproductive And the angel of the Lord said unto her, I will multiply thy seed exceedingly that it shall not be numbered for multitude. And the angel of the Lord said unto her [Hagar] Behold thou art with child and shalt bear a son and shalt call his name Ishmael: because the Lord hath heard thy affliction. -Genesis 16:11 In the above passge God discloses the cause of Hagar's affliction. It is not because she was dealt oppressively by Sarah, but because she remained unproductive. This fact can be noticed by the good news given by the angel; saying as- 'I will multiply thy seed exceedingly, that it shall not be numbered for multitude. Thou art with child, and shalt bear a son and shalt call his name Ishmael; because the Lord hath heard thy affliction'. Basing mainly on the point 'Thou art with child, and shalt bear a son and shalt call his name Ishmael' one can decisively declare that the affliction of Hagar was not because she was oppresively dealt by Sarah but because she did not conceive for which purpose only she was taken as second wife and hence no longer wished to be in the company of Abraham's family. And another point from the above passage is that God says through His angel 'Behold thou art with child'. This goes to prove that until after she was informed by the angel, she did not know that she had conceived. If this be the fact where is the chance to say that she had de-
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spised Sarah after knowing that she had conceived as recorded under Genesis 16:3-6?1 Here one may object and argue that merely basing on the statement 'Behold thou art with child' it cannot be admitted that she was not in know of her conception as we say. Such words as these, for example, 'Behold you are a married woman... not a child', can be said only to emphasise on the point of her elderliness but not as an information about her having been already given in marriage. In the same way the angel might have emphasised on the point of her having had conceived, but it is not an information. Yes, of course we do admit this. But one should know the fact that women can notice their conception only after a period between 1 to 3 months. During this period of her unawareness, the angel might have said that God would multiply her seed exceedingly and then said, 'Thou art with child' This order of promise and then making her aware of her conception - emphasises more on her unawareness of her conception than on any other vague explanation. Thus the objection is ruled out. And taking into consideration the whole passage and the sum and substance of our coming arguments one has inevitably to accept that the affliction of Hagar was not because she was dealt oppressively by Sarah. She had a respectful treatment in her family- Then therefore no question of despising and no question of hard dealing with her. Thus our argument sustains. The angel of God while informing Hagar that she was with child, explains her the three characteristic features of the child as-
1. And he will be a wild man. 2. His hand will be against every man and every man's hand against him. 3. And he shall dwell in the presence of all his brethren. (Genesis 16:12) Now let us discuss the above three characteristics.
Ishmael a wild man: Urdu and Telugu versions interpreted to mean as 'a man like wild ass' 1. And he will be a wild man-
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what was really meant by 'A wild man' is traceable as 'a man who was an inhabitant of a desert or wilderness' as recorded in the following passage.
And God was with the lad and he grew and dwelt in the wilderness and became an archer. And he dwelt in the wilderness of Paran: and his mother took him a wife out of the land of Egypt
-Genesis 21:20-21
But to the great surprise the Telugu and Urdu versions interpreted the phrase 'a wild man' as ..... to mean in English as 'He will be a man like wild ass'. If he were really a man like a wild ass could Hagar have not enquired the angel that what was the favour that God was going to confer on her by giving her such a son as one no better than a wild ass? If the phrase 'He will be a wildman' were taken to mean as 'He will be an unruly and unprincipled man' it also does not stand true because Esau the first son of Isaac had married the daughter of Ishmael1. If he were really a man possessing the nature of a wild ass or an unruly and unprincipled one, could ever Esau had married his daughter? And another more important thing is - when Abraham was being promised of another son Isaac by Sarah, he shows his reluctance to have another son by expressing his contentment only with the first son Ishmael by Hagar2. What we pin point from this passage3 is that if Ishmael were a wild man to mean either as unruly man or just as a man with characteristic nature of a wild ass (as recorded in Telugu and Urdu versions) would ever have Abraham showed his contentment saying as- 'O that Ishmael might live before thee! [why another son Isaac?]. Then therefore the phrase under question can inevitably be taken to mean as 'a man who dwelt in wilderness' as recorded in the passage (Genesis 21:20-21) which has a great significance with another prophecy of Deuteronomy 33:2
2. His hand will be against every man and every man's hand against him. This is to mean as saying that he would be against to all peoples and
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all peoples would be against him. We learnt from the former pages that the universal prophet was promised to Abraham from his progeny. It is an established fact that prophets were sent for reforming the people. The work of reformation evidently falls against the then prevailing practices of the people. Prophets cannot compromise with the wrong practices of the people, but openly condemn them. Thus every prophet becomes against to the people to whom he is sent. Except this promised universal prophet, all other prophets were sent to the communities to which they belonged. But the case with the promised universal prophet from the posterity of Abraham the father of all nations was not confined to any particular people or nation but for all peoples and nations1. Thus it is allegorically stated that Ishmael's hand will be against every man and every man's hand against him. In brief this clause implies as the reminder of the promise of the universal prophet from Abraham's posterity through Hagar's lineage. To say in clear terms that the advent of the universal prophet would take place from Ishmaelites.
HE SHALL DWELL AMONG ALL HIS BRETHREN 3. And he shall dwell in presence of all his brethrenThis clause has a great significance with an another prophecy which speaks that God would raise them up (Israelites - Abraham's progeny by Sarah) a prophet from among their brethren (Ishmaelites - Abrahams progeny by Hagar) Deuteronomy 18:18. This prophecy is discussed in the coming pages. We can see from the passage (Genesis 16:1-9) the reasons recorded as follows, which necessitated Hagar for her flight from her house to the place of wilderness where the angel of God appeared: Synopsis of the passage Genesis 16:1-9
1. Sarah gives Hagar to her husband to be his wife so as to have children by her.
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2. Hagar conceives. And as a result of this Hagar despises her mistress Sarah. 3. Sarah disputes with Abraham- complains about how she is despised by Hagar. Abraham gives permission to deal with her [Hagar] as she [Sarah] pleases. And she deals intensly with Hagar and hence she flees from her presence (Genesis 16:6). Hagar had a high reputation in her family as well as in the community These reasons as recorded in the passage appear to be after thought development of the church to curtail the status of Hagar in the sight of general public. This point has been proved in convincing manner in many places of our previous arguments. Had she really been oppressively dealt by Sarah, it is evident that she might not have had any place of reputation in her family except as a bondmaid. But contrary to these likely misconceptions Hagar had a remarkable reputation in her community as well as in her family.
1.The well of water in the wilderness where she met the angel of God was named after the manner she uttered- as 'Beer-Lahai roi' (Genesis 16:13-14). 2. Abraham named her (Hagar's) son 'Ishmael'. This is the name suggested by God through His angel to Hagar. She might have told all this event to Abraham and accordingly he named his son who was born to Hagar as 'Ishmael- to mean as God hears'. This shows that Hagar had a significant reputation in her family and her word was regarded as gospel truth (Genesis 16:15). The points so far discussed prove that what all derogatory or defamatory statements are found in the Bible against Hagar and Ishmael are mere interpolations subsequently added. The manipulations of the church played an enormous role in conceiling the facts.
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A clue about the person of universal prophet: He was to come from Egyptian blood relation Now let us recall to our minds the events and promises made to Abraham in favour of the universal prophet who was to appear from his seed through the lineage of Hagar (i.e) Ishmael and how they correspond with the prophecies made in different places through different prophets. The advent of the universal prophet as promised to Abraham through Hagar's progeny was reminded through many prophets. Let us discuss a few of them.
1. when Israel was a child, then I loved him, and called my son out of Egypt.
-Hosea 11:1 [This prophecy has also been
discussed in our coming pages 176-185) From the above prophecy we can find a clue about the advent of the universal prophet. The clue: He was to come from Egyptian family... (and called my son out of Egypt.) This prophecy has twofold meaning; figurative as well as literal. Literal meaning: When Israel was a child, then I loved him, and called my son out of Egypt. Israel is the later name of Jacob (Genesis 32:28). The community of Israel is called by the name of Israel (Jacob). When Israel was a child... in this phrase Israel refers to the community of Israelites. When Israel was a child... it means in the very early period after the formation of Israelite communityI loved him... I showered my mercy on the community. ...and called my son out of Egypt: Here in this clause my son refers to the Israelite community. God says in Jermiah 31:9 '...for I am a father
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to Israel...' in other words God calls Israel 'my son'. Hence under this reference, my son refers to the Israelite community as we interpret. Now the Question is Jacob (Israel) was settled in Canaan. As such when and how Israel was in Egypt so as to call 'his son from Egypt?'. A short (Brief) story that how the Israel went and settled at Egypt and after five centuries they were delivered from the bondage of Egyptians and brought to Canaan. Jacob had twelve sons. All the posterity of these twelve sons are called twelve tribes of Israelites (Jews). Of these twelve sons, the eleventh son Joseph was very dear to Jacob and he loved him very much. Except the last one Benjamen, all brothers became envious of Joseph. So one day they planned to take him to the forest where they used to take their flock for Pasture. On the permission of their father they took him to the forest where they thought of killing him. But the eldest brother Reuben advised them not to kill but to cast him in a pit. Accordingly they cast him in to the pit and went and reported to their father that some wild animal had devoured Joseph. But he suspected the mischief of his sons and with a hope on God, he was ever expectant of his meeting with his Joseph. The mercy of God over shadowed Joseph. Luckily there he suffered no discomfort in the pit. Meanwhile a company of Ishmaelites came and camped in the wilderness. And it so happened that the Midianites who were merchantmen came and found the boy in the pit and drew him up and sold for twenty pieces of silver to Ishmaelites. Joseph was brought to Egypt and was sold to Potiphar an officer in the kingdom of Pharaoh. Years passed by. Joseph was very beautiful. Potiphar's wife had cast her eye on Joseph and enticed him to have an illegitimate sexual intercourse. He refused. She became angry and with false accusations Joseph was put in prison. One day his two coprisoners had dreams for which Joseph's interpretation proved correct. After some period Pharaoh the king also
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had a dream for which there was no one to interpret. So the former prisoner took to the notice of Pharaoh how his and his companion's dreams as interpreted by Joseph proved true. And so Pharaoh sent word for Joseph- and he came and heard his dream and gave his interpretation. To the great surprise of the king the things took place exactly as had been interpreted by Joseph which made the king to beleive him as a man of God (Genesis 41:38). And made him ruler over all the land of Egypt (Genesis 41:39-45). On account of great famine, Joseph's brothers came to collect grain from him. Joseph recognised them to be his brothers while they could not identify him. He dealt favourably and gave them much grain and their money was also put in their bags. When they came again to collect grain he asked them to tell him about their family. On knowing the welfare of his old father and youngest brother, he asked them to bring the last brother Benjamen. And on the third occasion to bring his father Jacob and all the members of his family. So Jacob took all his family members who were around seventy souls to Egypt and settled there. Thus by a prophet (Joseph) Israel was taken to Egypt.1 Some years after the death of Joseph, the fame and prominence of Israel began to decline and eventually became slaves of Egyptians. By the time of Ramses the second, the king and the Egyptians oppressed them very cruelly. Their affliction went beyond to their tolerance and began to cry for the help of God. God had already arranged and appointed Moses, the prophet to go to Egypt and deliver the Israelites from the bondage of Egyptians. After passing through so many hassles, Moses brought the Israel from Egypt. Thus by the one prophet the Isreal was delivered from Egyptian's bondage1 . Thus the overall period of their stay at Egypt was roughly around five centuries whose population reached to two millions. Thus in the above prophecy a literal description has been made that how the Israel was taken to Egypt and delivered from the bondage of Egyptians saying 'I called my son from out of Egypt'.
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Thus in the above prophecy a literal description has been made, that how Israel was delivered from the bondage of Egypptians saying 'I called my son from out of Egypt'. But surprisingly enough Christian theologians try to attribute the allegorical saying 'I called my son out of Egypt' to the person of Jesus who was taken for shelter in Egypt, for a short period, to hide the birth of child Jesus for fear of infanticide decreed by the then ruler Herod. This they do to attribute the main clue of he prophecy 'I called my son out of Egypt' which shows clear testimony that the universal prophet had to come from the progenitor who had the blood relation with the Egyptian family. If we take the figurative meaning of the above prophecy it means to say as follows. When Israel was a child means in the early period of the formation of the Israel community, God says, 'I loved him and called my son out of Egypt. 'He loved him- whom he loved was not Israel but the son whom he called out of Egypt. This goes to mean as saying whom God had selected as a son (means a prophet) figuratively means "whom He had appointed as the universal prophet". Called my son out of Egypt meansthe universal prophet was to come from the progenitor who had the blood relation with Egyptian family. How this was fulfilled in the person of universal prophet let us examine. We have a corresponding information in Numbers 24:8 God brought him forth out of Egypt. Now let us examine who was it that came from Egyptian family whether Isaac or Ishmael.
Sarah was a chaldean (Native of Ur, chaldees) Genesis11:28,29 Isaac's wife also was chaldean. (Native of Ur, of chaldees.) Genesis 24:4, 36-38 Hagar was an Egyptian (native of Egypt) Genesis 16:1 Ishmael's wife also was an Egyptian.(Native of Egypt) Genesis 21:20-21
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And God was with the lad (Ishmael) and he grew and dwelt in the wilderness and became an archer. And he dwelt in the wilderness of Paran: and his mother took him a wife out of the land of Egypt. -Genesis 21:20-21 Thus it is proved that the universal prophet was to come from the progeny of Ishmael but not of Isaac. But the church tries to attribute the above prophecy (Hosea 11:1and Numbers 24:8) to the person of Jesus, a descendant from Isaac's progeny by advocating that no sooner was he delivered at Bethlehem, than his parents took him to Egypt for fear of infanticide by Herod the then king and brought to Israel after a few days after the death of the king. St. Luke makes no mention of taking the child Jesus to Egypt- He was born at Bethlehem and remained there upto the end of her days of purification and then came to Jerusalem, Luke 2:1-7+221. If this be the unstable stand of Church, how can the prophecy that 'I called my son from Egypt' be applicable to Jesus who was born from a non- Egyptian origin, at Behtlehem and merely because he was taken to Egypt for a tentative abode not more than a few days? (Matthew 2:1 and 13-15) We leave the matter for the discretion of our readers whether the prophecy applies to one that comes from the progeny of Ishmael having an Egyptian origin or from the progeny of Isaac whose origin goes to chaldees (?) We know that the wilderness of Paran (Beer-sheba) was an un-inhabited place where Hagar and Ishmael were exiled to. There the angel of God appeared to Hagar and gave glad tidings that how her son Ishmael would become a great nation.
And also of the son of the bondwoman will I make a nation, because he is thy seed. And Abraham rose up early in the morning and took bread, and a bottle of water, and gave it unto Hagar, putting it on her shoulder, and the child, and sent her away: and she departed, and wandered in the wilderness of Beer-sheba. And the water was spent in the bottle, and she
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cast the child under one of the shrubs. And she went and sat her down over against him a good way off, as it were a bowshot: for she said, let me not see the death of the child. And she sat over against him, and lift up her voice, and wept. And God heard the voice of the lad; and the angel of God called to Hagar out of heaven, and said unto her, what aileth thee, Hagar? fear not; for God hath heard the voice of the lad where he is. Arise lift up the lad, and hold him in thine hand: for I will make him a great nation. And God opened her eyes, and she saw a well of water; and she went, and filled the bottle with water, and gave the lad drink. And God was with the lad: and he grew, and dwelt in the wilderness, and became an archer. And she dwelt in the wilderness of Paran and his mother took him a wife out of the land of Egypt. -Genesis 21:13-21 Thus the wilderness of Paran became a city1. And all his progeny spread all over the surrounding land known as Arabia with great spiritual significance2. Thus Paran can be identified as a place belonging to another nation different from Canaan (Judea)3. Prophets used to set their faces towards it while they perform any spiritual rite4. In that wilderness the Hebrews (all Jews means all the twelve tribes of Israelites) used to offer sacrifices4. Thus abundant spiritual prominence has been accredited to it.
Another clue: He was to come from Mount Paran We have an another corresponding prophecy which focusses upon the supremacy of Mount Paran-
And he said The Lord came from Sinai and rose up from seir unto them: he shined forth from Mount Paran and came with ten thousands of Saints; from his right hand went a fiery law for them. -Deuteronomy 33:2 Similar prophecy:
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God came from teman, and the Holy One from Mount Paran. -Habakkuk 3:3 On examination of the prophecy, we can find that the person who was to come with a fiery law was to come from the Mount Paran. This makes clear that he was to come from the lineage of Ishmael, because it was he (Ishmael) who dwelt in the wildness of Paran. Wilderness of Paran (Genesis 21:21) and Mount Paran (Deuteronomy 33:2) may be taken as one place to mean as a mount in the wilderness of Paran just as a Mount on which Moses was given law is called a Mount in the wilderness of Sinai(Exodus19:1,3).
One more clue: He was to give law: From his right hand went a fiery law for them. -Deuteronomy 33:2 Another distinction of this prophet is that he should give a law. After Moses no other prophet did give law- as all prophets that followed after him followed the law given by him only.
For the law was given by Moses, but grace and truth came by Jesus Christ. -John 1:17 The above verse makes clear that as many prophets (includingJesus) as appeared after Moses, all had followed the law given through him (Moses). And what a curious fact is that Jesus was the last link of the prophets of the chain of Israelitic prophets. And the prophecy speaks that one fiery law was to come from the right hand. Then therefore it is evident that Universal Prophet with a fiery law was to come from Ishmaelites. Now let us examine an another prophecy which confirms these two points- those are 1. Law was to come 2. from Ishmaelites.
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I will raise them up a prophet from among their brethren, like unto thee, and will put my words in his mouth; and he shall speak unto them all that I shall command him. And it shall come to pass, that whosoever will not hearken unto my words which he shall speak in my name, I will require it of him. -Deuteronomy 18:18-19 The above prophecy was told to Moses. Here God promised that He would raise a prophet like unto Moses. What do the clauses such as-
1. like unto thee... 2. I will put My words in his mouth... 3. He shall speak all that I shall command him... mean to convey as? Like unto thee means like unto Moses. He was a prophet through whom a law was given on Mount Sinai to Isralites. So also the promised prophet should give a law. This is one of the similarities between that pophet and Moses (like unto thee). Consecutive two clauses also emphasise on the point of giving law.
He was to come from Ishmaelites Let us see whether he was to come from Israelites or Ishmaelites. The prophecy under discussion provides a good hint to prove that he was to come from Ishmaelites. Clue: I will raise them up a prophet from among their brethren... The pronouns, we see as underlined above- 'them' and 'their' represent to israelites. Hence 'brethren' of the prophecy represent to Ishmaelites. Then the complete prophecy means to read asGod will raise up a prophet for Israelites from ishmaelites. But church not only contradict our argument but also try to rebut by
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saying that 'That Prophet' was to come from the brethren of Israelites, means - 'from among Israelites themselves' they contend thus. Here one must know that the advent of the prophet of the prophecy (Deuteronomy 18:18) was made to all the twelve tribes of Israelites; that is to say that all Israelites as one community. If that prophet were really to come from the Israelites, the term of the prophecy should have been to read as- 'I will raise them up a prophet from among themselves' but should not be under any circumstances as- 'from among their brethren' which clause speaks of some other community. Who else could have been the brethren of Israelites other than Ishmaelites? Two nations and communities Ishmaelites and Israelites came from two progenies one from Ishmael and the other from Isaac, two brothers respectively (Galatians 4:22)1.
LAW WAS TO COME In this regard let us have a close examination of the passage-
And he said, The Lord came from Sinai and rose up from seir unto them; he shined forth from Mount Paran and he came with ten thousands of Saints: from his right hand went a fiery law for them. -Deuteronomy 33:2
prophecy recorded in past tense - a glaring manipulation We find this passage to have been recorded in past tense which concludes to mean that all the terms of it had already been fulfilled. Then therefore there remains no question of looking forward for the fulfilment of any of the points mentioned therein. But analytic study of the passage, keeping in view of other prophecies as recorded in various places reveals that it is partly spoken about the incidents which already had happened and the other part as an exposition with an addition of three more points to the prophecy as made mention in Deuteronomy 18:18-19 which was yet to be taken place in future. As we said the other part of the (prophecy) passage under discussion provides the clue to identify the progenitor of 'That (universal) Prophet' (Deuteronomy 18:18)1 and the place (country) from where he was to come. This part can be taken as an indepenent prophecy by itself or as mere exposition of the prophecy under reference [Deuteronomy 18:18]1.
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First part of the passage.
The Lord came from Sinai... -Deuteronomy 33:2 This was said about two events; one in which Moses was commissioned with prophetic office on Mount Sinai before going to Egypt to release the Israelites from the slavery of Egyptians. And the other relating to the event in which he was given law on the same mount- Sinai, after their exodus on the way to Canaan. In both events the glory of God was seen. In this way it is said that 'the Lord came from Mount Sinai...'
Second part should be in future tense - its reasons Now let us examine the second part of the passage. He shined forth from mount Paran and he came with ten thousands of saints: from his right hand went a fiery law for them. This part is a prophecy and hence it should have been recorded in future tense on the following reasons. Points that are to be taken into consideration
1. The context clearly says that it has been said by Moses himself. 2. It was Mount Sinai where he was given law but not Mount Paran. But here he speaks about a person that came [was to come] with ten thousands of Saints and with a fiery law from Mount Paran. Then therefore this part of the passage in no way can be attributed to Moses himself. 3. This- he said after the accomplishment of the events of the appearing of God's glory on Mount Sinai- 'The Lord came from Mount Sinai...' 4. And we cannot find at anywhere in Bible a person with ten thousands of Saints with fiery law had ever appeared. Therfore this was yet to take place in the then following future only. 5. So it must be taken only as a prophecy but not as an event which
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had already been given effect to. Basing on these facts it should have been recorded in future tense only but not in past tense as has been done. 6. Further it may be taken to mean that Mount Sinai and Mount Paran are two distinct places of one region symbolic for the country wherefrom the advent of that prophet was to take place. 7. Then therefore this speaks that it is only an exposition of the promised prophecy of God which he (Moses) made vide Deuteronomy 18:18. 8. So the second part of the passage under discussion should have been recorded in future tense only but not in past as no evidence of any event of giving the law from Mount Paran had ever taken place, prior to its saying. The passage contains two parts. The first part speaks that how Moses was made a prophet and that how a law was given to him on one and the same mount Sinai in two different occasions. As this is the information about the event which had happened already it is necessarily be made mention in past tense only and accordingly so it is done. So far it is well and good. But the second part is the information which deals with a prophecy. And prophecy absolutely makes mention of the things which were / are yet to be taken place in future. As such it should in no way be presented in past tense. But what surprising is the Churh is particular in providing the prophecy also in the past tense with an intent to make people believe that what prophecy says had already been happened. Thus not to allow to seek for its fulfilment or to investigate for the person and place about whom the prophecy is made. And what their contention is that all the terms of the passage were fulfilled on mount Sinai itself. As regards to this we would like to mention that according to the Book of Exodus Moses was given law on mount Sinai. If the contention of Church were true there could have been no place for another law to be given on mount Paran. Thus it makes clear that mount Sinai and mount Paran are two distinctly different places- former one on which Moses was given law
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and latter is the mount Paran where from a law was promised to be given. What our contention is that the Divine Glory was to appear from Mount Paran which point should have been mentioned in future tense only but not in past, as till then no divine glory appeared from Mount paran. This is another reason that why the second part of the passage should have been mentioned in future tense only. Some explain the clause- 'he came with ten thousands of saints' - as a figurative description of the ten commandments given to Moses. Then therefore it refers to Moses only. But this argument is dampened by its successive clause- 'from his right hand went a fiery law for them'. If ten thousands of Saints are taken to mean as the ten commandments of the law, further stress on saying 'from his right hand went a fiery law for them' should not have been added. Some try to attribute this passage as a prophecy about Jesus by taking the meaning of 'ten thousnds of saints' as simile for remaining ten disciples out of twelve of whom one betrayed Jesus and the other one repudiated his being a disciple. But further clause 'from his right hand went a fiery law' disqualifies the contention, as Jesus had not given law, but followed the then Mosaic law (Mathew 5:17) and ordained his followers to follow it meticulously (Matthew 5:17-20). Thus it is made clear that ten thousands of Saints cannot be the ten commandments of the law nor can be attributed to the disciples of Jesus. Then therefore it may be taken for granted to have been said by Moses about the advent of a prophet that was to come after him as promised by God in [Deuteronomy 18:18] with an additional information (clue) focussing on his successful mission with great number of his dedicated followers and the place of his advent as Mount Paran. Then therefore it must be taken as an exposition on the prophecy by Moses. A prophecy or its exposition always speaks of the events to be taken place in future. This is one more reason why the second half of the passage should be only in future tense but not in past tense.
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As regards to the second clause of the first part '...and rose up from Sier unto them:' appears to be of no greater significance than mere passing of Moses and his company through Seir after receiving the law on Mount Sinai en-route to Canaan. Thus we read from Deuteronomy :
Then we turned and took our journey into the wilderness by the way of the Red sea, as the Lord spake unto me: and we compassed mount Seir many days. And the Lord spake unto me, saying, ye have compassed this mountain long enough. turn you northward. And command thou the people, saying, ye are to pass through the coast of your brethren the children of Esau, which dwell in Seir: and they shall be afraid of you: take ye good heed unto yourselves therefore, Meddle not with them: for I will not give you of their land no, not so much as a foot breath: because I have given Mount Seir unto Esau, for a possession. Ye shall buy meat of them for money, that ye may eat: and ye shall also buy water of them for money that ye may drink. For the Lord thy God hath blessed thee in all the works of thy hand: he knoweth thy walking through this great wilderness: these forty years the Lord thy God hath been with thee: thou hast lacked nothing. And when we passed by from our brethren the children of Esau, which dwelt in Seir, through the way of the plain from Elath and from Ezion-Gaber, we turned and passed by the way of the wilderness of Moab. -Deuteronomy 2:1-8 Some Muslim Theologians opined this Seir to be the place which covers the area where Jesus had preached. But to my poor geographical knowledge it does not seem to be correct. In this regard, if my view point is found to be incorrect I may be provided with necessary information and guidance for which I shall be indebted to.
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LAW WAS TO COME FROM RIGHT HAND Before we take up the second part of the passage, which is a prophecy, let us think of its last clause- 'From his right hand went a fiery law for them'. When once it is agreed that it is a prophecy, it should be recorded only in future tense. Then the clause is to be read 'from his right hand will come/go a fiery law for them'. This speaks of a prophet that was to come after Moses with a law. It does not mean that prophets after Moses had not come. A number of prophets did come. But they were all annotators and followers of the then existing Mosaic law only. But here the argument is about a law giving prophet. And when it is read together with its former clause 'He shined forth [will shine] from Mount Paran'- it discloses the place where from that prophet was to come - was Paran. Taking this clause (fiery law from right hand), and comparing with the following two verses of the Qur'an, Church further argues that the second part of the passage also speaks of the events relating to the manifestation of divine glory only which appeared on Mount Sinai and hence no prophet was ever to come with a law. We do admit that Moses was given law on the right side of the Mount Sinai. But what our contention is that this clause- 'Right side of the Mount Sinai' in the present context, relates to the second part which pin points on the progenitor of that prophet and of the place of his advent. Let us examine the Quranic verses which speak of right side- and the commentary on the relevant points so as to find out the importance of the 'Right hand' or Right side'
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PROPHETIC OFFICE COMMISSIONED TO MOSES ACCORDING TO QUR'AN And we called him from the right side of the Mount and made him draw near to us for special communion. -Qur'an 19:52 The above passage speaks of the event in which Moses was commissioned with the prophetic office even before the exodus of Israelites from Egypt. It refers to Exodus 3:1-17. He was called from the right side of the Mount. There, in that event, the law was not given, but was only bestowed with prophetic office. This is what is meant by- 'and made him draw near to us for a special communion'. This point we have discussed in the beginning.
LAW GIVEN TO MOSES O children of Israel, we delivered you from your enemy and we made a covenant with you on the right side of the Mount and we sent down on you Manna and Salwa. -Qur'an 20:80 This passage speaks of the event in which Moses was given law after the exodus of Israelites from Egypt, on the same Mount. Here also he was called from the right side of the Mount. Thus according to these two Qur'anic references, two significant events have been given effect to, on one and the same Mount. In the former one Moses was bestowed prophet-hood while in the latter, the law was given. Both events happened only on the right side of the Mount where the Divine Glory manifested, the point which exalts the spiritual significance of the right side of the Mount Sinai. Now the point is that both in Bible and Qur'an the words such as 'from his right hand' and 'right side of the Mount' have been highlighted. Law does not come from hands to discriminate the right hand or the left but comes from the mouth only. The case of Moses is exceptional from all other law receivers. He was given writtten tables of law [Deuteronomy
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4:13 Exodus 24:12 and Qur'an 7:145]. But what our contention here is that the 'right hand' or 'the right side' represents more on the region (place) which falls to the 'right hand' or 'right side' of the Mount Sinai, wherefrom the promised prophet was to come with a fiery law than on any thing else. And furthermore its spiritual significance has been multiplied by the biblical information saying as 'ye shall serve God upon this Mount' (Exodus 3:12) and God says to Moses 'put off thy shoes from off thy feet, for the place where on thou standest is holy ground' (Exodus 3:5). Both according to Qur'an and Bible, Sinai is the Mount situated in the region of Midian, the place of Jethro, the father-in-law of Moses. It is not the region of Canaan (Palestine) but lies in between Egypt and Canaan. The Bible identifies it as Arabia. 'For this Hagar is Mount Sinai in Arabia'. This speaks very clearly that the Mount Sinai is in Arabian country and Midian is its region (Exodus 2:15 + 3:12).
Sinai is the Mount situated in the land of Midian Thus it is evident that a prophet from Arabia was to come who would bring them a fiery law. However this point adversely effects the Church as it regards the law as a curse and therefore has excluded the law from the law of God (Galatians 3:13 + 23-25). And another thing is if they accept this point they tend to accept THAT PROPHET which is an act of suicide on its part. Prophet Jesus' advent was from Palastine but not from Arabia. Then therefore the term of the prophecy which is under discussion cannot be twisted in favour of Jesus. So the whole passage has been articulated to read in past tense so as to attribute it to Moses and thereby to avoid adverse consequences that may pose naturally if it is recorded exact in the form as it had been originally revealed.
Commentaries of Mr. Abdullah Yusuf Ali- About Sinai and its right side and Paran Now let us know about Sinai and its right side and Paran- from the commentaries of Mr. Abdullah yusuff Ali, a renowned Arabic scholor and Qur'an translator in English language with commentary.
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1. Abdullah Yusuff Ali writes in his commentary on the verse 20:10 under note no. 2542. The spiritual history of Moses begins here. It was his spiritual birth. His physical life, infancy and upbringing are referred to later on, to illustrate another point. Moses when he grew up left the place of Pharaoh and went to Midionite people in the Sinai Peninsula. He married among them, and was now travelling with his family and his flocks, when he was called to his mission by God. He went to look for a fire for comfort and guidance. He found a higher and holier comfort and guidance. The whole passage is full of the highest mystic meaning which is reflected in the short rhymed verses in the original. Both the rhythms and the meaning suggest the highest mystery.
2. Commentary on 19:52 under note 2504. The incident here I think refers to the incidents described more fully in 20:9-36 a reference may also be made to Exodus 3:1-18 and 4:1-17. There is a great deal of mystic meaning. The time is when Moses (with his family) was travelling and grazing the flocks of his father-in-law Jethro just before he got his commission from God. The place is somewhere near Mount Sinai (Jabal Musa). Moses sees a fire in the distance, but when he goes there, he hears a voice that tells him 'it is sacred ground'. God asked him to put off his shoes and to draw near. And when he went near, great mysteries were revealed to him. He was given commission, and his brother Aaron was given to him to go with him and aid him. It is after that he and Aaron went and faced Pharaoh in Egypt, as narrated in 7:103-144 etc. The right side of the mountain may mean that Moses heard the voice from the right side of the mountain as he faced it; or it may have the figurative meaning of 'right' in Arabic, ie, the side which was blessed or sacred ground.
3. Commentary on 20:40 under note 2563 Years passed. The child grew up. In outward learning he was of the house of Pharaoh. In the inner soul and sympathy he was of Israel. One day he went to the Israelite colony and saw all the Egyptian oppresion under which Israel laboured. He saw an Egyptian smitting an Israelite apparently with impunity. Moses felt bretherly sympathy and smote the
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Egyptian. He did not intend to kill him but infact the Egyptian died of the blow. When this became known, his position in Pharaoh's household became impossible. So he fled out of Egypt and was only saved by God's grace. He fled to the Sinai Peninsula, to the land of the Midianites, and had various adventures. He married one of the daughters of the Midianite chief and lived with Midianites for many years as an Egyptian stranger. He had many trials and temptations, but he retained his integrity of character.
4. On verse 20:40 under note: 2504 See last note. After many years spent in a quiet life, grazing his father-in-law's flocks, he came one day to the valley of Tuwa underneath the great mountain mass of Sinai called tur (in Arabia). The peak on the Arabian side (where Moses was) was called Horeb by the Hebrews. Then was fulfilled God's plan: he saw the fire in the distance and when he went up, he was addressed by God and chosen to be God's messenger for that age.
5. Commentary on 20:77 under note 2599 Time passes and atlast Moses is commanded to leave Egypt with his people by night. They were to cross the Red sea into the Sinai Peninsula. They were told to have no fear of Pharaoh, or of the sea or of the unknown desert country of Sinai into which they were going. They crossed dry shod, while Pharaoh who came into pursuit with his troops was overwhelmed by the sea. He and his men all perished. There is no emphasis on this episode here. But the emphasis is laid on the hard task which Moses had with his own people after he had delivered them from Egyptian bondage.
6. Commentary on 20:80 under note: 2601 Right side: compare 19:52 and note 2504 toward the end. The Arabian side of Sinai (Jabal Musa) was the place where Moses was first received his commission before going to Egypt and also where he received the law after the exodus from Egypt on the way to Canaan.
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7. Commentary on 28:44 under note 3376 The Sinai Peninsula is in the north-west corner of Arabia. But the reference here is I think to the westren side of the valley of Tuwa. Mount Tur, where Moses received his prophetic commission, is on the westren side of the valley.
8. Commentary on 2:246 under note 277 The next generation after Moses and Aaron was ruled by Joshua, who crossed the Jordan and settled the tribes in Palestine. His rule lasted for 25 years, after which there was a period of 320 years when the Israelites had a chequered history. They were not united among themselves and suffered many reverses at the hands of the Midianites, Amelekites and other tribes of Palestine. They frequently lapsed into idolatry and deserted the worship of the true God. From time to time a leader appeared among them who assumed dictatorial powers. Acting under a sort of theocratic commission from God, he pointed out their backslidings, reunited them under his banner and restored from time to time and place to place, the power of Israel. These dictators are called judges in the English translation of the old testament. The last of their line was Samuel who marks the transition towards the line of kings on the one hand and of the later prophets on the other. He may be dated approximately about the 11th century B.C. We quote below some references from the Bible relevant on the subject which are helpful to check the correctness of the points relating to geographical information as provided so far. Some biblical references, which coordinate with the Qur'anic verses and its relevant commentaries relating to geographical information as provided:
a. ...But Moses fled from the face of Pharaoh and dwelt in the land of Midian... Exodus 2:15 b. Now Moses kept the flock of Jethro his father-in-law the priest of Midian: and he led the flock to the backside of the desert and came to the mountain of God, even to Horeb. -Exodus 3:1
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c. And the Lord said unto Moses in Midian, go return into Egypt: for all the men are dead which sought thy life.
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Exodus 4:19 d. And he said, draw not nigh hither, put off thy shoes from off thy feet, for the place where on thou standest is holy ground. -Exodus 3:51 e. And he said, certainly I will be with thee, and this shall be a token unto thee, that I have sent thee; when thou hast brought forth the people out of Egypt, ye shall serve God upon this Mountain. -Exodus 3:12 f. And they took their journey from Elim, and all the congragtion of the children of Israel came unto the wilderness of sin which is between Elim and Sinai on the fifteenth day of the second month after their departing out of the land of Egypt. -Exodus 16:1 g. In the third month, when the children of Israel were gone forth out of the land of Egypt, the same day came they into the wilderness of Sinai. -Exodus 19:1 h. The Lord came down upon mount Sinai on the top of the mount: and the Lord called Moses up to the top of the mountain: and Moses went up. -Exodus 19:20 i. These are the commandments which the Lord commanded Moses for the children of Israel in Mount Sinai. -Leviticus 27:34
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j. And afterward the people removed from Hazeroth and pitched in the wilderness of Paran. -Numbers 12:16 k. And the Lord spake unto Moses saying, send thou men, that they may search the land of Canaan which I give unto the children of Israel: of every tribe of their fathers shall ye send a man every one a ruler among them. And Moses by the commandment of the Lord sent them from the wilderness of Paran...
-Numbers 13:1-3
l. These be the words which Moses spake unto all Israel on this side of Jordan in the wilderness in the plain over agianst the Red sea, between Paran and Tophel, and Laban and Hazeroth and Dizahab. -Deuteronomy 1:1 m. Remember ye the law of Moses my servant which I commanded unto him in Horeb for all Israel, with the statutes and judgments. -Malachi 4:4 n. And the children of Israel took their journeys out of the wilderness of Sinai, and the cloud rested in the wilderness of Paran. -Numbers 10:12
Ascertained information by the Qur'anic and Biblical quotations when comparedFrom the commentaries on Qur'anic verses relevant to the subject on hand, and the Biblical quotations as recorded above bring out the precise and concise information as mentioned below. Biblical Midian or Qur'anic Madyan, is a place where Moses dwelt after he fled from Egypt. Exodus 2:15 Qur'an 28:22 Horeb the mountain of God, -Exodus 3:1-20
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is where Moses was commissioned with prophetic mission. God's Glory was seen on Mount Horeb. -Exodus 3:5 Hence it is a holy place where one should not tread on with shoes. But put off as a mark of respect to God. On this Mount -Exodus 3:12 Israelites should serve God probably as a mark of gratitude for having been delivered from the bondage of Egyptians. Mount Horeb is Mount Sinai -Malachi 4:4 + Leviticus 27:34 Mount Sinai is also called Mount Horeb. This is the Mount where Moses was bestowed with prophetic mission and also the law was given to Israelites. Note: The Holy Mount of God, Horeb or Sinai is in the land of Midian. And Midian is the region of Arabia. Paran is a wilderness region in the Sinaitic peninsula. Therefore Mount Sinai, Mount Paran, Midian are the regions of Arabia. (Exodus 19:20 Leviticus 27:34 Numbers 12:16, 13:1-3 and Galatians 4:24-25)
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A UNIVERSAL LAW WAS TO COME, FROM THE PROPHET LIKE MOSES, FROM ARABIA Now let us turn towards the second part of the passage under discussion.
'He will shine forth from mount Paran' -Deuteronomy 33:2 When once it is made known that Paran is the region of Arabia, it is evident that the prophecy (second part of the passage Deuteronomy 33:2) speaks of a prophet that was to come from Arabia. The former part of the passage shows that Moses was commissioned with prophetic office and law also was given on one and the same mount Sinai which is also situated in Arabian territory. Thus the whole passage (Deuteronomy 33:2) speaks of two laws of which one was already given on mount Sinai, and the other was promised to be given from mount Paran. However both mount Sinai and mount Paran are situated in the Arabian territory. It is one more point that focusses on the similarity of "that prophet" with Moses (... a prophet like unto thee -Deuteronomy 18:18). Just as Moses was given law in the Arabian territory, so also one who was to come in the likeness of Moses was also to be given law in the same territory1. As the former law was given to Moses, it is evident that it came from the progeny of Sarah (Isaac) and the latter one was to come from the lineage of Hagar (Ishmael). As regards to this we have a good reference in the annotation of Paul in his epistle to -Galatians 4:22-25
For it is written, that Abraham had two sons, the one by bondmaid [Hagar], the other by freewoman [Sarah] ...for these are the two covenants [laws]. The promised universal prophet who was to come from the progeny of Ishmael by Hagar to Abraham had to appear from Paran- the region of Arabia1. He had to give the universal law as after him there comes no prophet.
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Thus one covenant (law) came from mount Sinai and the other was promised to be sent from mount Paran.
...he shined forth from mount Paran -Deuteronomy 33:2 ...and the Holy one from mount Paran. -Habakkuk 3:3 Hearken unto me, my people: and give ear unto me, O my nation: for a law shall proceed from me and I will make my judgment to rest for a light of the people
-Ishaih 51:4
God reminds here of the promised law which was to come after Moses. As it was being reminded through the prophet Isaiah it is made clear that the second law had not yet come upto the time of prophet Isaiah. So the promised law as made through Moses (Deuteronomy 18:18) had yet to come.
And many nations shall come and say, come and let us go upto the mountain of the Lord, and to the house of the God of Jacob and he will teach us of his ways, and we will walk in his path: for the law shall go forth of Zion and the word of the Lord from Jerusalem.
-Micah 4:2 (also refer Isaiah 2:3)
As according to Moses, he was promised by God that He would raise up a prophet just in the likeness of Moses himself from among Isralites' brethren, (Deuteronomy 18:18). We have already discussed this prophecy focussing on two points only. But basing on mere these words people may not understand that another law would come again as already a law was given through Moses. And so to make it clear that a law would indeed come, it is again informed by Moses under the prophecy Deuteronomy 33:2 that the law giving prophet would come from Mount Paran who would give a fiery law. This prophecy has also been discussed. Prophet Isaiah also reminded that God would send a law.
...For a law shall proceed from me. -Isaiah 51:4
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In addition to the above reminder the same point has once again been prophesied by Isaiah under ref . 2:3 as mentioned in the above passage. The same prophecy, in verbatim, has been repeated by the prophet Micah under reference 4:2 also. Thus in these two prophecies the place from where that universal law giving prophet had to come has been mentioned symbolically saying as Zion.
...for the law shall go forth of Zion.. -Micah 4:2 ...for out of Zion shall go forth the law -Isaiah 2:3 The word of the Lord from Jerusalem. Thus the law was to come from Zion and the 'word of Lord' means the 'promise of God' as made in Isaiah 7:14 a symbolic description of Jesus' advent is informed. As regards to Zion we shall discuss else where.
New law would come only when Mosic Law would completely be broken Behold the days come, saith the lord, that I will make a new covenent with the house of Israel and with the house of Judah. (31) Not according to the covenant that I made with their fathers in the day that I took them by the hand to bring them out of the land of Egypt : which my covenant they brake, saith the Lord. (32) But this shall be the covenant that I will make with the house of Israel; After those days, saith the Lord, I will put my law in their inward parts; and write it in their hearts; and will be their God, and they shall be my people (33) -Jermiah 31:31-33
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The above is a prophecy made through the prophet Jermiah stressing on the point of giving a new law (covenant). It may be taken as a reminder of the prophecy of Moses under refernce Deuteronomy 18:18. Moses was a prophet who gave the law to Israelites and at the same time he prophesied about an another law to be given through THAT PROPHET Deuteronomy 18:18 and 33:2. In the above prophecy of Jermiah God says- '... I will make a new covenant' means a new law will be given which will supersede the old one given by Moses. It is mentioned in the prophecy clearly that only when the law of Moses would completely be broken, then the new law would be given 'which my covenant they brake'. Now let us have a glance over Moses' law that how it was borken. Jews were partial in law (Malachi 2:9). They obsrved the easier matters but heavier laws were disobeyed
... because they have transgressed the laws, changed the ordinance, broken the everlasting covenant.
-Isaiah 24: 5
And they bend their tongues like their bow for lies; but they are not valiant for the truth upon the earth: for they proceed from evil to evil, and they know not me, saith the Lord. -Jermiah 9:3 Qur'an confirms in the following verse.
And surely among them is a section who twist their tongues while reciting the Book, that you may think it to be part of the Book, while it is not part of the Book. And they say, it is from Allah; while it is not from Allah; and they utter a lie against Allah, knowingly. -Qur'an 3:78 Latter, Christians regarded the law as a curse- (Galatians 3:10-13)1. Thus after the complete decline of the Moses' law, the promised law through That Prophet (Deuteronomy 18:18) would be given. This speaks clerly that only after Jesus that the universal prophet would come through whom the universal law would be given.
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And what noteworthy points from the prophecy Jermiah 31:31-33 are-
1. I will put my law in their inward parts and write it in their hearts and 2. I will be their God and they shall be my people. The first point is the symbolic assertion showing that the community of that universal prophet consists of great number of people who commit the Qur'an (law given) to memory. This is the meaning of God's saying- 'I will put my law in their inward parts: and write it in their hearts'. Thus we find in Muslim community hundreds- nay thousands of 'Huffaaz'- the people who committed Qur'an to memory. This practice (tradition) has been coming right from the days of prophet Mohammad and will continue (if God be willing) for ever. And the second part is- 'I will be their God and they shall be my people'- meaning that this community does not call themselves as the sons and daughters of God as Israelites and christians do but insist on calling themselves as slaves (Ibaadi) and prefer to call God as their Master and creator but not as Father.
... and will be their God and they shall be my people. -Jermiah 31:33 ...So shall they be my people and I will be their God. -Ezekiel 37:23 ...and they shall be my people and I will be their God. -Ezekiel 11:20 ...a name better than of sons and of daughters: I will give them an everlasting name, that shall not be cut off. -Isaiah 56:5 Another prophecy Isaiah 8:14-16 We have an another prophecy as mentioned below which focus upon all points.
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But he shall be a sanctuary: but for a stone of stumbling and for a rock of offence to both the houses of Israel, for a gin and snare to the inhabitants of Jerusalem (14) And many among them shall stumble and fall and be broken and be snared and be taken. (15) Bind up the testimony, seal the law among my disciples.
-Isaiah 8:14-16
In the above prophecy we have a mention of '...both the houses of Israel...' which speaks of two houses of Israel1. A known fact is that there are twelve tribes in Israelites. But the two houses of Israel appears to be a clause unfamiliar to the Christian world. For this they give various interpretations none of which agrees with factual reality. Jesus was sent to Israelite community as a prophet to reform them. Reformations never agree with the invented traditions. To set right such traditions only, the reformers do appear. They never compromise with the invented dogmas and beliefs but openly criticise them and show the correct path. This act generally effects adversly. So the community raises its voice against the prophet and try to make an end of him and his reformative teachings. This is the case with majority of the community except a few who would believe in the prophet and accept his reformations. They never form as a new community but remain in their former community as a reformed sect. Their way of prayer, place of worship, scriptures to be read- all remain one and the same except the reformations put forth. This was the exact case with the early disciples of Jesus. In the beginning though they were afflicted by the majority, they continued the preaching of Jesus' mission ceaselessly which act turned them to a majority. Then the unreformed Jews began to tolerate them rather than afflicting. Thus both the reformed Jews (the early disciples of Jesus) and the unreformed Jews remained as two houses of Jews2. This is what meant by... 'both houses of Israel' of the prophecy. They do not know what Christianity is, which is the religion, named after Christ, by Paul- the founder of Christianity with all contrary to the teachings of Jesus. After some decades, the followers of early apostles of Jesus were divided into another sect under the leadership of Paul which superseded the original followers of Peter's group. This group was known as Nazarenes, at last
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who in long run disappeared. Paul named his followers as Christians and established Churches as places of whorship and gospels were written to be read in Churches. However higher prominence is given to epistles of Paul than the gospels This is the brief history of two houses of Israel. Thus two houses of Israelites stand for Jews and Christians1.
Now let us know some more points of the prophecy (Isaiah 8:1416). a. And he shall be for a sanctuary- this is to mean as saying that he who binds up the testimony and seal the law among his disciples shall be to them a Holy one and the place where his prophetic mission was started is known as sanctuary meaning a holy place. b. But for a stone of stumbling and for a rock of offence to both the houses of Isrealc. for a gin and for a snare to the inhabitants of Jerusalem. These two clauses under reference (B) and (C) show that when the two houses of Israel and the inhabitants of Jerusalem refuse him and revolt against him, then the repercussions they meet would be very bad. This is the prophecy about the universal prophet Mohammad. But Christians attribute this to the advent of Jesus himself. Had the clause under reference (B) only about the house of Israel, as they (many of them) had refused to accept him as a prophet; and had he been victorious over Jews- the prophecy could have been applicable to Jesus. But as many days as he was present among them, after his supposed resurrection, he led his mission in secret; he remained himself in undergrounds and in disguise for fear of Jews. If this be his helpless position, how can one dare attribute the prophecy which speaks about one's bravery in conveyance of message to the person of Jesus who remained dismayed with all his disadvantages? Moreover the prophecy speaks about two houses of Israel which includes his own reformed group of Jews who gradualy turned into Christianity. Then therefore the question of rejecting Jesus by the second house does not come at all. This further makes clear that it is not the prophecy about Jesus but about one that comes after him with great might and power who became victorious over all his enemies. The consecutive verse speaks of this fact.
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d. And many among them shall stumble and fall , and be broken and be snared and be taken. Many of them means many among Jews and Christians (two houses of Israel)- not all but many which speaks the fact that many of them accepted "that prophet" and became his followers. Here one must bear in mind that though he was victorious- he had never launched forcible conversions. What all these points make clear is that he could resist enemy with all his might so that his mission might not be succumbed at the hands of enemy as it was done in the case of poor Jesus. The same thing has been reiterated by Jesus himself in the parable of vineyard.
Hear another parable: There was a certain householder, which planted a vineyard, and hedged it round about, and digged a winepress in it and built a tower and let it out to husbandmen, and went into a far country: (33) And when the time of the fruit drew near he sent his servants to the husbandmen that they might receive the fruit of it (34) And the husbandmen took his servants, and beat one and killed another and stoned another. (35) Again he sent other servants more than the first: and they did unto them likewise (36) But last of all he sent unto them his son, saying, they will reverence my son (37) But when the husbandmen saw the son, they said among themselves, This is the heir: come let us kill him, and let us seize on his inheritance (38)
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And they caught him, and cast him out of the vineyard and slew him (39) When the Lord therefore of the vineyard cometh, what will he do unto those husbandmen? (40) They say unto him, He will miserably destroy those wicked men and will let out his vineyard unto other husbandmen, which shall render him the fruits in their seasons (41) Jesus saith unto them, did ye never read in the scriptures, The stone which the builders rejected, the same is become the head of the corner: this is the Lord's doing, and it is marvellous in our eyes? (42) Therefore say I unto you, the kingdom of God shall be taken from you, and given to a nation bringing forth the fruit thereof (43) And whosoever shall fall on this stone shall be broken: but on whomsoever it shall fall, it will grind him to powder. (44) -Matthew 21:33-44 The parable of vineyard (Matthew 21:33-44) has been discussed in detail in our coming pages - 160 to 170
e. Bind up the testimony, seal the law among my disciples (Isaiah 8:14-16) Now we have to examine these two clauses to whom they aptly applicable to- whether to Jesus as is being speculated by Church or to the universal prophet Mohammed.
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Bind up the testimony- earlier to this we must know that the testimony taken by all prophets had been one and the same. Except the name of prophet, all prophets took the allegiance (testimony) from all their disciples by making them to utter 'There is no god but one the Almighty and so and so (the name of the acting or presiding prophet) as the messenger of God. As the universal prophet being the last one after whose time no other prophet or messenger comes and takes the testimony (allegiance)- it is said 'Thus he binds the testimony'. It does not mean that after the departure of this prophet, taking of testimony from the people comes to an end- no but continues till the doomsday by his followers. Take note that none can do it in the capacity and status of a prophet. This term of the prophecy also cannot be attributed to the person of Jesus- as he himself promises of another prophet to come after him, while the prophecy under discussion speaks about one who binds up the testimony. Thus we read:
And I will pray the Father and he shall give you another comforter, that he may abide with you for ever. -John 14:16 Another comforter means another prophet (figuratively) only one prophet (another) after Jesus. That he may abide with you for ever- This speaks that all his teachings remain up to doomsday, which speaks of the fact that after him no prophet comes to replace his teachings. Thus he is (was) the last prophet. This is the exact meaning of the last clause of the prophecy 'seal the law among my disciples' which also cannot be attributed to the person of Jesus on the reasons as have been discussed above. We have a relevant reference in Qur'an too.
Mohammad is not the father of any of your men, but he is the Messenger of Allah and the seal of the prophets; and Allah has full knowledge of all things -Qur'an 33:40
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For it is written, that Abraham had two sons, the one by bondmaid the other by freewoman... for these two are the two covenants ... for this Hagar is mount Sinai in Arabia... -Galatians 4:21-22 Thus Paul gives his clear annotation on the subject, that the promised prophet (Deuteronomy 18:18) was to come from the lineage of Hagar (Ishmael) who dwelt at Paran. (Deuteronomy 33:2)
And the God was with the lad [Ishmael] and he grew and dwelt in the wilderness and became an archer. And he dwelt in the wilderness of Paran and his mother [Hagar] took him a wife out of the land of Egypt. -Genesis 21:20-21 ...and called my son out of Egypt. -Hosea 11:1 ...God brought him forth out of Egypt. -Numbers 24:8 Thus the place as Arab, wherefrom the promised law was to be given on mount Paran, is disclosed. Now let us find out the progeny through which that prophet of the prophecy was to come. Paul says that Abraham had two sons- one by Hagar, Ishmael and the other by Sarah, Isaac. And further says that these two women are two covenants [laws]. From our arguments, it is proved that Moses was given law on mount Sinai. Thus the covenant (law) which was to come through the progeny of Sarah had been fulfilled. Then therefore the law which was to come through the progeny of Hagar was to come from mount Paran- means Arab. After Moses, no man from Arab had ever claimed that he was giving law in the capacity of the last prophet except the prophet of Arab, Mohammed, whose lineage went to Ishmael the first son of Abraham by Hagar.
Mohammad is not the father of any of your men but (he is) the apostle of God and the seal of the prophets; And God has full knowledge of all things. -Qur'an 33:40
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All Israelitic prophets spoke Hebrew Thus these two progenies settled in two different nations namely Arabia and Canaan (Palestine), whose languages naturally differ which point is needless to write. All Israelites were Hebrews- meaning Hebrew speaking people (Exodus 3:18, 5:3) God spoke to Moses on mount Sinai (Exodus 3:2-6) In which language did God speak with Moses? It must be only in Hebrew as he was a prophet to Hebrews.
Abraham, the Hebrew -Genesis 14:13 Moses, a prophet for Hebrews. -Exodus 2:11 Jesus spoke Hebrew -Acts 26:14-15 ...I heard a voice speaking unto me and saying in the Hebrew tongue... I said, who art thou, Lord? And he said I am Jesus... Paul, the founder of christianity spoke Hebrew - Acts 21:40
...And when there was made a great silence, he spake unto them in the Hebrew tongue saying... This speaks that as many prophets as appeared in the Israelites all spoke Hebrew language and the books given to them were revealed in the same language1.
A Law was to come from Ishmaelites- Arabians Another tongue will he speak to this people. Whom shall he teach knowledge? And whom shall he make to understand doctrine? them that are weaned from the milk, and
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drawn from the breasts (9) For precept must be upon precept, precept upon precept: line upon line, line upon line: here a little and there a little. (10) For with stammering lips and another tongue will he speak to this people. (11) To whom he said, This is the rest wherewith ye may cause the weary to rest: and this is the refreshing: yet they would not hear. (12) But the word of the Lord was unto them precept upon precept, precept upon precept; line upon line, line upon line- here a little and there a little, that they might go and fall backward and be broken and snared and taken. (13) -Isaiah 28:9-13
Law in another tongue. Another tongue of the above passage connotes for some language other than Hebrew. To ascribe this prophecy to Jesus and his gospel, Church in vain tries by the inscription on the New Testament as 'translated out of the original Greek.' Did Jesus ever preach in Greek language? No. But he spoke Hebrew only which point can be noticed from Matthew 27:46 Acts 26:14-15 etc., So it can be well defined that the Hebrew was the original language of the scripture taught by Jesus, though not instantly recorded in his life time. Later if the gospel was brought in any other language, may it be Greek or Latin- other than Hebrew these languages can be termed as only translations of the original Hebrew language in which the scripture was taught but not written for any extraordinary reasons thereof. a. ...and another tongue will he speak to this people -Isaiah 28:11 means, God will give His law in another tongue. It is the repetition of the prophecy (Deuteronomy 18:18) wherein it is said that He would raise up a prophet from among the brethren of Israelites (ie) Ishmaelites. Ishmaelites are Arabs. And accordingly Qur'an has been revealed in Arabic tongue. Thus the prophecy has been fulfilled in prophet Mohmmad who gave Qur'an in Arabic tongue.
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And verily this is a revelation from the Lord of the worlds. The spirit, faithful to the trust has descended with it-on thy heart, that thou mayest be of the warners, in plain and clear Arabic tongue. And it is surely mentioned in the scriptures of the former peoples. -Qur'an 26:192-196. For them will I turn to the people a pure language that they may all call upon the name of the Lord, to serve him with one consent. -Zephaniah 3:9 As regards to another tongue God makes a stress in the following prophecies too in a very specific manner.
A. Lo, I will bring a nation upon you from far, O house of Israel, saith the Lord; It is a mighty nation, it is an ancient nation, a nation whose language thou knowest not, neither understand what they say.
-Jermiah 5:15-16
In the above prophecy we have three important points to be noted-
1. nation that would come was ancient corresponding to Ishmaelites- 'a nation from far' is symbolic to mean that 'That Prophet' was to come from another nation but not from among yours (theirs) 2. one that speaks another tongue- this corresponds to the point '...and another tongue will he speak to the people' of the prophecy Isaiah 28:11 under discussion. 3. and 'it was a mighty nation'- all these points correspond to the exposition of Jesus on this prophecy in his parable of vineyard.
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Jesus saith unto them, Did ye never read in the scriptures, The stone which the builders rejected, the same is become the head of the corner: This is the Lord's doing, and it is marvellous in our eyes? Therefore say I unto you, The kingdom of God shall be taken from you, and given to a nation bringing forth the fruits there of. And whosoever shall fall on this stone shall be broken: but on whomsoever it shall fall it will grind him to powder. -Matthew 21:42-44 Note: We have the same parable in Luke 20:9-18 wherein we find Jesus saying that the vineyard would be given to others. On hearing this they say 'God forbid'. This point clearly explains that the kingdom of God would be transferred to Ishmaelites from the Israelites. This point is further confirmed by Jesus asking as ' what is then that is written, the stone which the builders rejected, the same is become the head of the corner?' The stone which the builders rejected means - Ishmael. ...the same is become the head of the corner means Ishmael becomes the progenitor of the universal prophet. This is the Lords doing means it is the decree of God. In other words this is to say that the universal prophet would come from Ishmaelites.
B. The Lord shall bring a nation against thee from far, from the end of the earth, as swift as the eagle flieth: a nation whose tongue thou shalt not understand. -Deuteronomy 28:49 This prophecy also speaks about a nation that speaks another tongue. 'from far' means not from among your nation but from other which denotes the progeny of Ishamel. (from among your brethren Deuteronomy 18:18).
b. ...and this is the refreshing: yet they would not hear -Isaiah 28:12
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And this is the refreshing - meaning revivalism or reminder Jesus was sent to Israelites for their reformation. It becomes necessary only when the religion is found contaminated with invented traditions. But they mistook him to be a man not of God and hence they rejected him. Thus not accepting the reformations Jews remained in their former polluted religion. The Jews who believed in Jesus and accepted the reformations were identified by Jews as Nazarenes meaning the Jews who believed in and followed according to the teachings of Jesus that came from nazareth. But later they were supplanted by the group of Paul, who became victorious and established the Christianity with all agianst to the teachings of Jesus. Thus again corruption became prevalent in the reformed Jewdaism. Thus both former Jews (Israelites) and latter Jews (Christians) (both the houses of Israel (Isaiah 8:14)1 were in need of revivalism. This is what God prophesied through the prophet Isaiah saying that He would send them a refreshing-
c. ...and this is the refreshing -Isaiah 28:12 meaning revivalism of the religion. In this regard, we have a corresponding prophecy of Jesus which reads as here under.
...he shall teach you all things and bring all things to your remembrance whatsoever I have said unto you -John 14:26 From the above prophecy of Jesus we can find him saying as 'and [he shall] bring all things to your remembrance'. This act becomes necessary only when his teachings would have been completely forgotten and new doctrines preponderated its place. The above statement of Jesus can be taken to read as-
1. He shall teach you all things whatsoever I have said unto you. 2. He shall bring all things to your remembrance whatsoever I have said unto you (John 14:26)
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The first point can be taken to mean that he would not teach you new things but teach only that which I have taught you; since you would have forgotten them. And the second point- "He shall bring all things to your remembrance whatsoever I have said unto you" means- He shall rule out all wrong dogmas what all prevail in my name and thus he brings the original teachings to your remembrance. Thus his teachings can be taken as revivalism and reminder of his original teachings. This applies to both houses of the Jewdaism (Isaiah 8:14)1
d. But the word of the Lord was unto them precept upon precept, line upon line- Here a little there a little... -Isaiah 28:13 Precept upon precept -line upon line- this part of the passage (prophecy) speaks about the process of its revelation in piecemeal. That means the law was to come in piecemeal as according to the necessity of the occasion and demand of the time. And the verses were to be revealed repeatedly mutually supporting each other. Qur'an virtually agrees this fact in the following verses.
1. And the Qur'an We have revealed in pieces that thou mayest recite it to mankind at intervals, and we have sent it down piecemeal. -Qur'an 17:106 2. God has revealed (from time to time) the most beautiful message in the form of a Book, consistent with itself (yet) repeating (its teaching in various aspects); The skins of those who fear their Lord tremble thereat, then their skins and their hearts do soften to the celebration of God's praises. Such is the guidance of God: He guides therewith whom He pleases but such as God leaves to stray, can have none to guide.
-Qur'an 39:23
3. Surely we have revealed unto thee the Qur'an piecemeal. -Qur'an 76:23
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e. ...here a little and there a little -Isaiah 28:13 Prophet Mohammad contributed his last 23 years in the prophetic service. The first 13 years at Macca, his native place and the later 10 at Madina, after his migration (Hijarah). Hence some portion of the revelations were given at Macca and some other at Madina respectively. This is what meant by 'here a little and there a little'. Thus all the four terms of the prophecy Isaiah 28:9-13 have been fulfilled in the person of Mohammad- the universal prophet.
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A UNIVERSAL PROPHET WAS PROMISED TO ABRAHAM A universal prophet was promised through first son Ishmael by Hagar's progeny fulfilled in prophet Mohammad the prophet of Arab. Let us have a glance over the promises as made pertaining to the universal prophet:
A. And I will make of thee a great nation... And in thee shall all families of the earth be blessed. -Genesis 12:2-3 B. ...seeing that Abraham shall surely become a great and mighty nation, and all the nations of the earth shall be blessed in him. -Genesis 18:17-18 C. And he said, lay not thine hand upon the lad... seeing thou hast not withheld thy son, thine only son from me... saith the Lord, for because thou hast done this thing, and hast not withheld thy son, thine only son, that in blessing I will bless thee, and in multiplying I will multiply thy seed as the stars of the heaven and as the sand which is upon the sea-shore; and thy seed shall possess the gate of his enemies; and in thy seed shall all nations of the earth be blessed; because thou hast obeyed my voice. -Genesis 22:12-18 The clauses such as (1) 'in thee shall all families of the earth be blessed' (2) 'and all the nations of the earth shall be blessed in him' as quoted in the above references under (A) and (B) speak the advent of the universal prophet from the seed of Abraham. And again in the reference (C) above, it is made clear that the universal prophet was promised through the seed of Ishmael, the first son of Abraham 'And in thy seed shall all the nations of the earth be blessed'. And God further provides the reason thereof saying as- 'because thou hast done this thing and
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hast not withheld thy son, thine only son'. This incident refers to the event of Abraham's offering of his only son in sacrifice to God. The phrase 'Thy only son' speaks that this event took place while Ishmael was the only son of Abraham, even before the birth of Isaac the younger son. These points, we have discussed in detail in our earlier pages. Ishmael was the only son of Abraham until the birth of Isaac which took place after (14) years after Ishmael's birth. At no time was Isaac the only son of Abraham which point is most essential to be remembered. These points make clear that the universal prophet was to come from the progeny of Ishmael. This goes to mean that prior to him all prophets were sent to the communities which they belonged to. In Israelites, in the progeny of Isaac the last prophet was Jesus.
A. Jesus was for Israelites only And when he (Herod) had gathered all the chief priests and scribes of the people together, he demanded of them where christ should be born. And they said unto him, in Bethleham of Judea; for thus it is written by the prophet, And thou Bethlehem, in the land of Judea; art not the least among the princes of Judah: for out of thee shall come a governor [Jesus] that shall rule my people Israel.
-Matthew 2:4-6
The underlined clause of the above reference makes it clear that Jesus was a prophet, only to the people of Israel. This point is confirmed by Jesus himself in the following passages.
B. Jesus commands his disciples not to preach others except Israelites: These twelve Jesus sent forth, and commanded them, saying, Go not into the way of the Gentiles and into any city of the samaritans enter ye not: But go rather to the lost sheep of the house of Israel. -Matthew 10:5-6
C. Jesus makes clear that he was sent as a prophet, only to Israelites:
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But he answerd and said, I am not sent but unto the lost sheep of the house of Israel. -Matthew 15:24 From the following passages one can understand Jesus also to have prophesied about the advent of the universal prophet. 'Jesus prophesied' implies to mean the advent of the universal prophet would take place only after Jesus.
A. And I will pray the father, and he shall give you another comforter, that he may abide with you for ever. -John 14:16 B. But the comforter, which is the Holy Ghost, whom the father will send in my name, he shall teach you all things, and bring all things to your remembrance, whatsoever I have said unto you. -John 14:26 C. Howbeit when he, the spirit of truth, is come, he will guide you into all truth: for he shall not speak of himself: but whatsoever he shall hear, that shall he speak: and he will shew you things to come. -John 16:13 From the foregoing prophecy of Jesus under point (C) it can be noticed that Jesus to have reminded the prophecy as made to Moses under reference Deuteronomy 18:18
Jesus reminds the prophecy made to Moses For he shall not speak of himself: but whatsoever he shall hear, that shall he speak and he will shew you things to come. -John 16:13
Original prophecy made by God to Moses ...and will put my words in his mouth: and he shall speak unto them all that I shall command him. -Deuteronomy 18:18
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Comparison: On a close comparison of the two, one cannot miss to find- though not both are verbatim in words - yet similar in meaning in every respect. Church claims the fulfilment of this prophecy (deuteronomy 18:18) in the person of Jesus; while Jesus himself reminds it in his own words under reference John 16:131. From this point it is evident that the advent of the universal prophet would take place only after the departure of Jesus. And what more humourous is- the fulfilment of Jesus' prophecy (John 16:13) is attributed to the person of Holy Spirit who had ever been present on all the prophets. We have discussed these points in our another book 'That Prophet'. Apart from the foregoing points, a clue has been provided by Jesus himself in his parable of vineyard showing that when would the advent of the universal prophet take place.
Hear another parable: There was a certain bouseholder, which planted a vineyard, and hedged it round about and digged a winepress in it, and built a tower, and let it out to husbandmen, and went into a far country (33): And when the time of the fruit drew near, he sent his servants to the husbandmen, that they might receive the fruits of it (34). And the husbandmen took his servants, and beat one, and killed another, and stoned another(35). Again, he sent other servants more than the first; and they did unto them likewise(36). But last of all he sent unto them his son, saying, they will reverence my son (37). But when the husbandmen saw the son, they said among themselves, This is the heir; come, let us kill him, and let us seize on his inheritance (38). And they caught him, and cast him out of the vineyard and slew him (39). When the Lord therefore of the vineyard cometh, what will he do unto those husbandmen? (40). They say unto him, He will miserably
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destroy those wicked men, and will let out his vineyard unto other husbandmen, which shall render him the fruits in their seasons(41). Jesus saith unto them, Did ye never read in the scriptures, The stone which the builders rejected, the same is become the head of the corner: this is the Lord's doing and it is marvellous in our eyes? (42) Therefore say I unto you, The kingdom of God shall be taken from you, and given to a nation bringing forth the fruits thereof(43). And whosoever shall fall on this stone shall be broken: but on whomsoever it shall fall, it will grind him to powder (44). -Matthew 21:33-44 During my arguments with pastors, when the above parable is placed before them to explain my view point, they simply neglected to see what it contains even, saying 'it is a parable'. And they know if they take into consideration the parable, that the matter becomes crystal clear. So they say- 'it is a parable'. parable means ' a story used to illustrate moral or spiritual truth'. So it is no more than a camouflage plea. Opportunism of the pastors can be seen at the time of proclaiming 'he spoke every thing in parables', when the things are needed to be utilized in their favour.
All these things spake Jesus unto the multitude in parables; and without a parable spake he not unto them.
-Matthew
13:34 Take note of the above passagewherein we find the Gospel writer saying as Jesus had said everything in parables only- As according to Pastors, if there is nothing to consider on such parables, what would become of all such teachings of Jesus which he made by parables? If they are regarded to be truth what is the position of a Pastor who says- 'It is a parable?'
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Let us come to the point! From the above parable of vineyard it can be explained ascertain House Holder- God Almighty. vineyard- world; Husbandmen - mankind. servants - prophets. But last of all he sent unto them his son- (means) as a last of the Israelite prophets God sent Jesus. And they caught him and cast him out of the vineyard and slew him- (means) They did not receive him so long as he remained among them.
He came unto his own, and his own received him not. -John 1:11 This further implies to mean that Jesus was sent as a prophet only to the Israelite community but not as a universal prophet. (After his death or departure) What will happen? (Jesus enquires). The answer is given in the following verse 41 of the passage (by the audience).
They say unto him, He will miserably destroy those wickedmen, and will let out his vineyard unto other husbandmen which shall render him the fruits in their seasons (means) The spiritual inheritance would be taken away from Israelites and given to other people that bring forth the fruits in their seasons. This goes to prove that until after Jesus what all God had expected from the people, the progeny of Isaac, the israelites, was not favourably and properly discharged1. Jesus was the last prophet that appeared in the Israelite nation. After his death the spiritual inheritance would be transferred to another people who would render Him the fruits in their seasons. What the church (Christianity) mistakes of this situation is that the spiritual inheritance which had been taken from the Israelites would be given to them (Christians). They think that they are the rightly deserving
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people to inherit as they are, according to their illusion, rendering the fruits to God in the correct manner. The most sensitive point here is that this transfer of spiritual inheritance would be made only after his teachings are completely supplanted by wrong doctrines. Thus the skeliton of christianity under the trade mark of Jesus prevails with no flesh and soul of his real teachings. If this be the fact where is the question of rendering fruits to God and to rejoice that they have inherited the spiritual kingdom of God? It is mere delusion. (To understand this subject our another book 'The profile of Paul' may be referred). In this regard Jesus says, in support of our point that his teachings would be reminded by his successor. Thus we read:
But the comforter, which is the Holy Ghost, whom the Father will send in my name, he shall teach you all things, and bring all things to your remembrance whatsoever I have said unto you. -John 14:26 This is a sure testimony that his real teachings would have been supplanted where the necessity of its reminder becomes inevitable. This underlines on two points.
1. All his teachings would no more remain intact in practice. 2. He that brings them into their remembrance would come only after him (Jesus). Let us have a glance over the corresponding statement of Isaiah in the scriptures as said by Jesus under his parable of Vineyard -Matthew 21:41-44. Therefore thus saith the Lord God, Behold I lay in Zion for a foundation stone... -Isaiah 28:16 As said in the above prophecy Zion is the place where that cornerstone had been laid. Church believes that cornerstone is Jesus himself. But according to him, he (cornerstone) was to come after him. Moreover
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it was to come out of Zion. While Jesus was from Bethlehem (Jerusalem) which is the captive daughter of Zion (Isaiah 52:1-2) (And Jesus says in confirmation of the above and expounds as hereunder from the scripture)
Jesus saith unto them, Did ye never read in the scripture, the stone which the builders rejected, the same is become the head of the corner: this is the Lord's doing and it is marvellous in our eyes? (42) Therefore say I unto you, the kingdom of God shall be taken from you, and given to a nation bringing forth the fruits thereof (43) And whosoever shall fall on this stone shall be broken: but on whomsoever it shall fall, it will grind him to powder. (44)
Synopsis of the parable
(Matthew 21:33-44)
In the above parable Jesus explains that God created the world and man was made His vicegerent in it with dominion over it (Genesis 1:26). And for the guidance of mankind He appointed prophets as teachers and gave law through them. But except a few, all people rejected the prophets. This was the common experience in all nations. Now he (Jesus) speaks particularly about the community of Israel: where many prophets had been sent prior to him and at the last he (Jesus) was sent. This emphasises on the point, as we say, that Jesus was the last of the prophets sent to israelite nation. Him also they rejected. Now he enquires the people around him that what God would do after his departure. And in reply they said that the spiritual inheritance would be taken away from Israelites and it would be given to the other people that bring forth the fruits in their seasons. And in confirmation of this, Jesus explains in the consecutive verses 42-44. And from his reply what noticeable point is (Jesus says)-
The stone which the builders rejected, the same is become the head of corner: This is the Lord's doing.
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Builders - leaders of the Jews (Israelites). Stone that was rejected Ishmael by Hagar, the second wife of Abraham,... (is become) head of the corner- progenitor of the universal prophet. Thus Jesus revealed the fact that the universal prophet as promised to Abraham, was to come from the progeny of Ishmael. This is to mean that Jesus had reminded them the prophecy of David in psalms 118:22-23 as an annotation to his vineyard prophecy.
The stone which the builders refused is become the head stone of the corner. This is the Lord's doing: It is marvellous in our eyes. -Psalm 118:22-23 What curious to know is that Church attributes this prophecy also to Jesus. But in the parable of vineyard Jesus himself illustrates as an explanation that the rejected stone would become corner stone (advent takes place) only after his departure. Then therefore attributing this prophecy to the person of Jesus in no way can be justified and accepted. We have another prophecy by Isaiah regarding this stone under the following passage.
Therefore thus saith the Lord God, Behold, I lay in Zion for a foundation stone a tried stone, a sure foundation: he that believeth shall not make haste. -Isaiah 28:16 The Church attributes this prophecy also to the person of Jesus. This prophecy also speaks of the universal prophet who was to appear from the progeny of Ishmael the first son of Abraham by Hagar. It is said of him (a) foundation stone (b) a tried stone (c) precious cornerstone. Who was it that cornerstone? Who was it that after having been tried became precious cornerstone? It was Ishmael the first son of Abraham by Hagar. How was he tried? While he was an infant below a year of age he was banished along with his mother Hagar to the wilderness of Beersheba. And again when he was a child about 12 years of age he was, on the command of God, taken to be sacrificed. But God well pleased with the sacrifice and declared-
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'...because thou hast done this thing, and hast not withheld thy son, thine only son: That in blessing I will bless thee and in multiplying I will multiply thy seed as the stars of the heaven, and as the sand which is upon the sea shore and thy seed shall possess the gate of his enemies; and in thy seed shall all the nations of the earth be blessed ; because thou hast obeyed my voice. -Genesis 22:16-18 Foundation stone means progenitor of the universal prophet. Thus Ishmael the then only son of Abraham was tried- and regarded as a sure foundation stone and a precious cornerstone through whose progeny the universal prophet was to come... (...In thy seed shall all nations of the earth be blessed.) finally I would like to pin point on the fact that this prophecy can in no way be applicable to Jesus as he was from Bethlehem while the foundation stone was laid in zion
And the angel of the Lord called unto Abraham out of heaven the second time, And said, By myself have I sworn, saith the Lord, for because thou hast done this thing; and hast not withheld thy son, thine only son: That in blessing, I will bless thee, and in multiplying I will multiply thy seed as the stars of the heaven, and as the sand which is upon the sea shore: and thy seed shall possess the gate of his enemies; And in thy seed shall all the nations of the earth be blessed : because thou hast obeyed my voice. -Genesis 22:15-18 The above verses have been discussed in detail in our previous pages. However, we once again would like to remind you that this is spoken in reference to the event of Abraham's offering of his only son in sacrifice to God. This speaks about the promise made to raise the universal prophet from the seed of Abraham (ie) the then only son Ishmael. This is what Jesus intended to expound on, that how the kingdom of God would be withheld from Israelites and would be given to Ishmaelites in the parable
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of vineyard. '...and thy seed shall possess the gate of his enemies'- on this clause of the prophecy, Jesus gives his exposition as below, in continuation to his vineyard parable.
And whosoever shall fall on this stone shall be broken: but on whomsoever it shall fall, it will grind him to powder. -Matthew 21:44
God revealed to Balaam the prophecy by the spirit of God God brought him forth out of Egypt: he hath as it were the strength of an unicorn; he shall eat up the nations his enemies and shall break their bones, and pierce them through with his arrows. He couched, he lay down as a lion, and as a great lion; who shall stir him up? Blessed is he that blesseth thee and cursed is he that curseth thee. -Numbers 24:8-9 This pophecy can be taken as three important points to be discussed.
A. The origin (the nation) where from the advent of the person about whom the prophecy is made was to take place. B. His ferocious difiance and dauntless repel of his enemy. C. People's blessing for his person and the prosperity of his mission (Blessed is he that blesseth thee and cursed is he that curseth thee) These are the important three points which have been incorporated in this prophecy. Let us discuss one by one.
A. The one who was promised to be sent of this prophecy was to come from Egyptian origin... 'God brought him forth out of Egypt'.
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But what curious to note is that despite a clear clue that he would come from the lineage of an Egyptian origin, the Churh ascribes this prophecy to the person of Jesus, whose progenitor Isaac was not from Egyptian origin but of ur of Chaldees(Genesis11:28-29). a. Isaac's mother Sarah was Chaldeean (Genesis 11:28-29) Isaac's wife was also a native of Charldees(Genesis24:4,24:36-38)1. b. Ishmael's mother Hagar was an Egyptian- Native of Egypt (Genesis 16:1) Ishmael's wife was also an Egyptian- Native of Egypt (Genesis 21:20-21). As according to Genesis 11:28 nativity of Abraham and Sarah was UR of Chaldees. God ordered Abraham to leave his native country and his kindred to go to the land [CANAAN] which He would show (Genesis 12:1) So Abraham, Sarah and lot departed from their native country along with Terah and made a short halt at Haran where, abraham's father Terah died (Genesis 11:31) What the Universal truth is- where one is born is one's own native place (country) no matter where one dwells and dies. Thus the native place of Sarah and Abraham was Ur of Chaldees.
Now come to the point of discretion Abraham took word from his chief servant that he would not take a wife to Isaac from the daughters of Canaan (Genesis 24:3) And ordered him to go to his (Abraham's) native place, and to his kindred, to get a wife to his son Isaac. (Genesis 24:4) Accordingly the servant- ...arose and went to Mesopotamia, unto the city of Nahar (Genesis 24:10)
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So city of Nahor means UR of Chaldees. (Genesis 11:25-28) and Mesopotamia can be taken as later name of UR of Chaldees. The Modern name of Mesopotamia is IRAQ. Kindred of Abraham at UR of Chaldees - see Genesis 11:26-29. Rebecca, Isaac's wife was the daughter of Bethuel, the son of Milcah which she bare unto Nahor. Rebecca's brother was Laban. (Genesis 24:20-30) Rebecca, Isaac's wife advises her son Jacob...
Now therefore my son obey my voice and arise flee thou to Laban my brother to Haran. -Genesis 27:43 Isaac the father of Jocob asks him to take a wife from:
Arise go to Padan-aram to the house of thy mother's father; and take thee a wife from thence of the daughters of Laban thy mothers brother. -Genesis 28:2 Perplexity: Abraham sent his chief servant to bring a wife from his (Abraham) kindred and native country (Genesis 24:4). He goes to Mesopotamia (Genesis 24:10). So we are tend to believe that Mesopotamia might be the later name of UR of Chaldees which is now called IRAQ. Isaac sends his son Jocob to get a wife for him from his uncle Laban's daughters. This speaks the fact that Laban's native country was UR of Chaldees [Pedan-arm, Mesopotamia] (Genesis 28:2,5) which is now known as IRAQ. But the statements such as "go to padan-arm" (Genesis 28:2) 'and' Laban son of Bethuel the Syrian (Gensis 28:5) and Laban the Syrian (Genesis 31:20,24) are self contradictory. Syria and Iraq are two different countries. As such Laban cannot be the native of Syria. On any reason he might have been at Syria. But what the fact is Sarah's and Rebecca's native country was UR of Chaldees.
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Above we have two sets of progenies-
a. Isaac's (Sarah) and b. Ishmael's (Hagar) of whom the former's origin goes to Chaldees and the latter's to Egyptian. It is not a mystery which remains too improbable to find out whose progeny is nearer to the prophecy 'God brought him forth out of Egypt'. Thus this prophecy is applicable to the progeny of Ishmael through whom the advent of the universal prophet Mohammed took place. But Jesus was from the progeny of Isaac (Sarah) and so this term of prophecy in no way can be attributed to the person of Jesus. Under the point B the universal prophet's state of courage in establishing his missioin- has been described by Jesus in his parable of vineyard. These points we have discussed in our previous pages 154-160 which rules out the claim of prophecy in favour of Jesus. Now come to the point (C) Apart from having a contrary belief on Jesus as an incarnate of God, blessing him and praying for his prosperity can be termed as blasphemy. Thus no Christian can dare bless Jesus. Yet we do not understand how they dare ascribe this prophecy to the person of Jesus. Their double game is nothing but self-deception. The prophecy clearly speaks- 'Blessed is he that blesses thee...' It is self evident that the followers of the universal prophet Mohammed always bless him and pray for the prosperity of his mission. As regards to this we have a clear commandment of God that every believer should invoke blessings (prayer for his prosperity) on prophet Mohammed in Qur'an under 33:56. We have a corresponding verse in Psalm 72:15
...prayer also shall be made for him continually; and daily shall he be praised.
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We read in Qur'an 33:56
Allah and His angels send blessings on the prophet. O ye who believe! You should invoke blessings on him and salute him with the salutation of peace. All the above three terms most aptly apply to the person of prophet Mohammed, the universal prophet only but in no way can be ascribed to Jesus.
Another prophecy: supports our arguments When once master of the house is risen up and hath shut the door, and ye begin to stand without, and knock at the door, saying, Lord Lord, open unto us: and he shall answer and say unto you, I know you not whence ye are: (25) Then shall ye begin to say, we have eaten and drunk in thy presence; and thou hast taught in our streets (26). But he shall say, I tell you, I know you not whence ye are; depart from me, all ye workers of iniquity (27). There shall be weeping and gnashing of teeth when ye shall see Abraham and Isaac and Jacob, and all the prophets in the kingdom of God, and you yourselves thrust out (28). And they shall come from the east, and from the west and from the north, and from the south, and shall sit down in the kingdom of God (29).
-Luke 13:25-29
From this passage (under verse 25) it can be noticed that after the judgment the people who would have been condemned to Hell would seek the intercession of Jesus. But he would reject by saying 'I know you not whence ye are'. The second verse (26) speaks that those who would have been condemned and would seek the interecession of Jesus, would also be rejected with the same remark 'I know you not whence ye are'.
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These two groups of people may be taken as two houses of the Israelites. The first group- Jews, who did not accept Jesus (...thou hast taught in our streets) and the second group- the Jews, who accepted Jesus1 (which later became Christians) but did not follow the teachings of Jesus and worked contrary to his teachings (...we have eaten and drunk in thy presence.) verse (27) says that their appeals cannot be heard, nor their case be condoned. The verse (28) may be taken to infer Jesus as saying that mere taking birth in the progeny of Abraham- or Isaac or Jacob does not entitle one the eligibility to acquire the kingdom of God, but by means of following as has been ordained by God through them. we have a good reference to this effect in the following passage.
And think not to say within yourselves, we have Abraham to our father: for I say unto you, that God is able of these stones to raise up children unto Abraham. And now also the axe is laid unto the root of the trees: therefore every tree which bringeth not forth good fruit is hewn down and cast into the fire -Matthew 3:9-10 What the striking point from the above is- so will be the fate of those who regard themselves as the followers of Jesus but work contrary to his teachings; which point is made clear in the following passage.
Many will say to me in that day, Lord, Lord, have we not prophesied in thy name and in thy name have cast out devils? and in thy name done many wonderful works? (22) And then will I profess unto them, I never knew you: depart from me, ye that work iniquity(23). Therefore whosoever heareth those sayings, and doeth them, I will liken him unto a
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wise man, which built his house upon a rock: (24) And the rain descended and the floods came: and the winds blew and beat upon that house: and it fell not: for it is founded upon a rock(25). And every one that heareth these sayings of mine and doeth them not, shall be likened unto a foolish man, which built his house upon the sand(26). And the rain descended, and the flood came, and the winds blew and beat upon that house and it fell: and great was the fall of it (27). -Matthew 7:21-27 Verse 291 is the key verse of the passage Luke 13:25-29 under discussion. We learnt from our arguments that the universal prophet had not appeared until the time of Jesus who was the last prophet of Israelites. Then therefore the promised universal prophet was to appear only after Jesus which point also made clear in the parable of vineyard. In this verse, the significant point is that those that accupy the kingdom of God come from the four corners of the land which is a symbolic identity of the universal prophet. The successful entry of his followers into the kingdom of God is figuratively described in the parable of vineyard saying as- 'and will let out his vineyard unto the other husbandmen which shall render him the fruits in their seasons' and 'Therefore say I unto you, the kingdom of God shall be taken from you and given to a nation bringing forth the FRUITS thereof (Matthew 21:33-44). This may be taken as the exposition of Jesus on the promise of God made to Abraham about the advent of the universal prophet significantly saying as
...I have blessed him [Ishmael] and will make him FRUITFUL and multiply him exceedingly ... Genesis 17:20
Barren woman and desolated woman Paul speaks of two prophecies corresponding to two women respectively. (1) Barren woman (2) Desolated woman. We generally find somany barren women and desolated ones. It is a common thing with many of the women which phenomena take place as a result of their natural or
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social ill-fate. So we have to know to whom do the above epithets aptly applicable to. We have also to know in whose case these prophecies represent to, which have been termed as barren woman and desolated one respectively. Now let us examine what Paul says in this connection.
Rejoice thou barren that bearest not: for the desolate hath many more children than she which hath an husband. -Galatians 4:27 What important thing that should be remembered here is- this is not a prophecy made by Paul but a reminder, of the prophecies what we have in the scriptures1. In the above reminder we have apparently three women (1) Barren (2) desolated one (3) And she which has a husband. Here glad tidings are given to barren saying that the desolated woman hath many more children than the one that hath husband. Desolated one and one that hath husband makes out to mean that these two women were two wives of one husband (Abraham) respectively. Of them one was detained with him (and hath a husband) and the other was desolated (desolated woman). Now the question comes that who was the Barren. The barren woman was symbolic description of the one that was detained with husband (she which hath an husband) and hence they correspond to one and the same woman Sarah. If one wife was desolated the other remains at home and keeps the company of her husband. And it was Hagar that was desolated (Genesis 21:1-21). Desolated hath many more children than she which hath husband (Barren). This speaks that Barren woman was also blessed with children.
He maketh the barren woman to keep house, and to be a joyful mother of children. praise ye the Lord. -Psalm 113:9 Sing, O barren, thou that didst not bear: break forth into singing, and cry aloud, thou that didst not travail with child: for more are the children of the desolate than the children of the married wife saith the Lord.
-Isaiah 54:1
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Barren woman that keeps house - Sarah. Desolated woman that hath many more childrenHagar. (Galatians 4:27)Jesus says while bringing into the remembrance of the audience (explaining the vineyard parable) the prophecy as stated in the scriptures...
Jesus saith unto them, Did ye never read in the scriptures- The stone which the builders rejected the same is become the head of the corner: this is the Lord's doing and it is marvellous in our eyes? -Matthew 21:42 The 'stone which the builders rejected' and the 'desolated woman' can be taken to mean as one person- that is Hagar, the mother of Ishmael. 'Barren woman that keeps house' and 'the married wife' can be taken to mean as Sarah the mother of Isaac. Thus two progenies came into being one by Isaac Israelites and the other by Ishmael Ishmaelites (Arabs). These points can be noticed in the exposition of Paul regarding these two posterities under Ref. Galatians 4:21-301 Jesus clearly admitted that the rejected stone (desolated-rejected one) becomes the corner stone. We have discussed and proved that Hagar was the rejected stone. This is to mean as saying that the prophet that would come from the progeny of Ishmael, the first son of Abraham by Hagar becomes the corner stone. Thus the Arabs become spiritual inheritors as promised to Abraham, and the universal prophet was to come from Arabia. Now let us have a glance over the promises as made about the two sons the progenitors of two progenies, Israelites and Ishmaelites respectively. Before we discuss we would like to bring to your notice that Abraham was blessed and promised material favours as well as spiritual privileges of which the main one was the promise of the advent of the universal prophet from his seed. Three different promises were made on three different occasions.
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Promises about Ishmael A. And I will make of thee a great nation, and I will bless thee and make thy name great: and thou shalt be a blessing: And I bless them that bless thee, and curse him that curseth thee: and in thee shall all families of the earth be blessed. -Genesis 12:2-3 B. For all the land which thou seest, to thee will I give it and to thy seed for ever. And I will make thy seed as the dust of the earth: so that if a man can number the dust of the earth, then shall thy seed also be numbered.
-Genesis 13:15-16
C. After these things the word of the Lord came unto Abraham in a vision, saying fear not Abraham: I am thy shield and thy exceeding great reward. And Abraham said, Lord God what wilt thou give me, seeing I go childless and the steward of my house is this Eliezer of Damascus? And Abraham said, Behold, to me thou hast given no seed: and, lo, one born in my house is mine heir. And, behold, the word of the Lord came unto him saying, This shall not be thine heir: but he that shall come forth out of thine own bowels shall be thine heir. And he brought him forth abroad, and said, Look now toward heaven and tell the stars if thou be able to number them: and he said unto him, so shall thy seed be. And he believed in the Lord; and he counted it to him for righteousness.
-Genesis 15:1-6
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A promise about Isaac Let us see the promise made about Isaac through Abraham.
And God said unto Abraham, As for Sarai thy wife, thou shalt not call her name Sarai, but Sarah shall her name be. And I will bless her, and give thee a son also of her, and she shall be a mother of nations: kings of people shall be of her. Then Abraham fell upon his face, and laughed, and said in his heart, shall a child be born unto him that is an hundred years old? and Sarah, that is ninety years old, bear? And Abraham said unto God, O that Ishmael might live before thee. And God said, Sarah thy wife shall bear thee a son indeed: and thou shalt call his name Isaac: and will establish my covenant with him for an eveslasting covenant, and with his seed after him. And as for Ishmael, I heard thee: Behold, I have blessed him and will make him fruitful and will multiply him exceedingly; twelve princes shall he beget, and will make him a great nation. But my covenant will I establish with Isaac, which sarah shall bear unto thee at this set time in the next year. -Genesis 17:1521
Recollection of some important points 1. The first three prophecies as mentioned under references (A) Genesis 12:2-3 (B) Genesis 13:15-16 and (C) Genesis 15:1-6 were made to Abraham even before he was conferred with a child. The statement of God saying 'This shall not be thine heir, but he that come forth out of thine own loins shall be thine heir'(Genesis 15:16) evidently proves that the above three assurances were made to Abraham even before he was blessed with a child.
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2. Abraham was having two wives- one Sarah the first one and the second, Hagar. 3. The second wife Hagar was blessed with a child by name Ishmael as promised to Abrham at his 86 years age. 4. When Ishmael attained 13 years of age Abraham was promised a second son Isaac by first wife Sarah (Genesis 16:16). 5. When Abraham was 100 years old Sarah gave birth to Isaac (Genesis 17:17). 6. Thus age difference between Ishmael and Isaac was 14 years. 7. This goes to prove that Ishmael was the only son of Abraham for fourteen long years until Isaac was given birth. As soon as Isaac was born, Ishmael was no more the only son. Let us bear in mind that when God was well pleased with the attempt of sacrifice to God- God forbade to carry on the sacrifice and blessed saying- 'for because thou hast done this thing and hast not withheld thy son, thine only son...' This logic leads to conclude that it was Ishmael who was taken for sacrifice even before the birth of Isaac the second son. This further rules out the claim of Church that it was Isaac whom Abraham took for sacrifice. 8. At no time was Isaac the only son of Abraham, as he was given birth when Ishmael the first son was fourteen years old, and both the sons buried their father who died at the age of 175 years (Genesis 25:7-9). This goes to prove that there was no chance to regard Isaac as the only son of Abraham. But as there was no birth of Isaac until Ishmael attained fourteen years, it
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can be accepted that Ishmael was the only son of Abraham for about fourteen long years. 9. From the promise under reference (c) above Genesis 15:1-6 it can be noticed that Abraham believed God. This is to mean as saying that Abraham believed that he would really be blessed with a child from his own loins: and he that who comes out of his own loins would be the heir of the promise for the advent of the universal prophet (Genesis 15:6). 10. Further we have another proof that Abraham believed that Hagar his second wife would give him the son and accordingly he was given the son Ishmael by Hagar. This fact can be disclosed by the promise of God made about the birth of Isaac. Until then he had no least idea that Sarah would conceive and bring forth a son. Had the promises made in the beginning been made relating to Isaac, no further promise under reference of Genesis 17:1516 was necessary. Pastors say to this point that it is not a new promise, but old one only which has been renewed. They should read it with an open mind but not with open eyes (Genesis 17;1516). 11. We have another reason to say that Abrahm never believed that Sarah would bring forth a child through her bowels. At the time of receiving the promise, Abrahm fell on his face and said unto God 'O that Ishmael might live before thee! This is to mean as saying "why another son Isaac, let Ishmael live before thee" (Genesis 17:17-18). Does this point not emphatically prove that Abraham had not at all expected the birth of a second son? and that he had believed the first son Ishmael only, as his heir from whose posterity the advent of the universal prophet would take place?
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12. Under the promise (c) above under referance Genesis 15:1-6 it is assured to Abraham that his heir would be one that "cometh forth out of thine own bowels". And Ishmael was the child that had been conceived by means of natural phenomenon of parents' natural sexual cohabitation and Isaac was born by means of miracle. Thus Ishmael's birth was natural and Isaac's was miraculous (Galatian 4:23). So Ishmael was the heir of the promise for the advent of a universal prophet, (...he that shall come forth out of thine own bowels shall be thine heir).
In religious aspect majority cannot be determined basing on world census records but by the number of real followers Here what one should note is that the desolated woman Hagar would have more children (Ishmaelites) than the children of the woman that keepeth husband (Israelites). Thus we read in Isaiah 54:1
Sing o barren, thou that didst not bear; break forth into singing and cry aloud, thou that didst not travail with a child: for more are the children of desolated than the children of the married wife, saith the Lord. Now let us see how can they be more in number. As a matter of fact the children of barren (chiristians + Israelites -Acts 26:7) are more than the children of desolated (Ishmaelites=Muslims) according to the world census records. So according to the present statastics, the prophecy seems to be incorrect. But the word of God- a prophecy made through the prophets, cannot under any circumstances go wrong. Then what the mystery is, should be made clear.
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In this regard we have a good reference in the following passage-
And think not to say within youselves, We have Abraham to our father: for I say unto you, that God is able of these stones to raise up children unto Abraham. And now also the axe is laid unto the root of the trees: therefore every tree which bringeth not forth good fruit is hewn down, and cast into the fire. -Matthew 3:9-10 From the above passage we can understand that one who is born in any community, cannot be the real member of that community unless one keeps the religious rudiments of the community in strict observance. God wants not the descendants but takes the number of people that really follow its founder. Contrary to the fundamentals the children of barren, that keepeth husband (Israelites) followed in their invented traditions neglecting the law of God.
1....Because they have forsaken the covenant of the Lord their God and worshipped the other gods and served them -Jermiah 22:9 2. ...they have transgressed the laws, changed the ordinance, broken the everlasting covenant... -Isaiah 24:3-6 Christians regard law as a curse. Christ hath redeemed us from the curse of the law...
-Galatians 3:10 keeping in view of the above points it can be well concluded that the spiritual privilege of both the houses of Israel had been gradually declined. Thus though they are numerically more according to world records, they became less in divine records. The spiritual inheritance has been transferred to Ishmaelites, the children of desolated woman. Thus though they are less numerically according to world census, they are more in
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number than Israelites in the divine rcords. Now let us examine another prophecy
When Israel was a child, then I loved him, and called my son out of Egypt. -Hosea 11:1 This passage appears as God saying that He loved him [Israel] and called His son [Jesus] out of Egypt. This is the interpretation of the Church. But this interpretation is not correct. He called His son (The universal prophet) out of Egypt even before Israel was born. So there is no question of his being a child. This is to mean as saying that He would raise up the promised universal prophet from the progeny of Ishmael whose genealogy goes to Egyptian family. In this regard we have extensively discussed in our previous pages (104-109). In the literal sense one may mistake the prophecy that God loved Israel. But the passages under reference, Jermiah 18:121 16:11-122 and 23:16-183 prove that Isreal kindled the indignation of God by all its unlawful acts, so much so God declared thatBut my people would not hearken to my voice; and Israel would none of me. -Psalm 81:11 Therefore it can be taken to mean as that whom God loved was not Israel but His son whom He called out of Egypt. As we said earlier that there was no question of Israel as he was not at all born at the time of God's calling His son out of Egypt, (Genesis 16:1-4 and 15-16). Now the question comes that who was it whom He called from Egypt. Gospel writer Matthew mentions in his gospel under reference 2:15 that this prophecy has been fulfilled in the person of infant Jesus who was taken to Egypt for fear of infanticide by the king Herod, for a temporary period (2 or 3 months) and brought back to Jerusalem. As regards to this we have discussed in our previous pages4 and proved that the prophecy can in no way be applicable to Jesus, but it became evident that the universal prophet who was to come from the progenitors of Egyptian fmily - Ishmael, had not come uptill the time of Jesus and was to come only after Jesus as proclaimed by Jesus himself in the vineyard parable. Here he reminds the scripture as here under-
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Therefore I say unto you, the kingdom of God shall be taken from you, and given to a nation bringing forth the fruits thereof -Matthew 21:43 Let us remember here the promise made in regard to the progeny of Ishmael 'and I will make him fruitful (Genesis 17:20) 'which is corresponding to the proclamation of Jesus' '...the kingdom of God shall be taken from you and given to a nation bringing forth the fruits thereof' This point unequivocally establishes the fact that Jesus was not the promised universal prophet but the promised universal prophet was to come only after Jesus.
Universal prophet did not come until the period of John and Jesus Universal prophet means a prophet who was appointed for all nations. Till the advent of this prophet all other prophets were sent as regional prophets for their respective communities.
And in thy seed shall all the nations of the earth be blessed: because thou hast obeyed my voice.
-Genesis 22:18
The above verse speaks of the promise made to Abraham. This promise was made by God as a reward and special blessing to Abraham as he obeyed His voice. This discloses the fact that he had obeyed every order of God and came out all successful from all the trials of God in carrying on His command however adverse it might have been towards his person, with explicit faith and love on God. The reward that he was going to be blessed with, is explained as- "in thy seed shall all the nations of the earth be blessed". Thus Abraham was to become the father of all nations.
And in thy seed shall all nations of the earth be blessed... This goes to mean as saying 'the Universal prophet will manifest from the progeny of your son (seed).'
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Abraham had two sons Ishmael and Isaac.
for it is written that Abraham had two sons, the one by bondmaid, the other by free woman. -Galatians 4:22 Thus it is proved that Abraham had two sons out of whom two progenies flourished (viz.) 1. Ishmaelites 2. Israelites through the progeny of Ishmael and Isaac respectively. As many prophets as appeared from the progeny of Isaac all were sent to Israelite community only but there appeared no prophet in the status of the universal prophet even until the time of John and Jesus who were also awaiting for the advent of the Universal prophet.
John and Jesus were in expectation of the advent of the Universal prophet Now let us have a glance over the following passages which disclose this fact.
A. I indeed baptize you with water unto repentance: but he that cometh after me is mightier than I, whose shoes I am not worthy to bear: he shall baptize you with the Holy Ghost and with fire. -Matthew 3:11 The above prophecy has been discussed most elaborately in our another book under title :'That Prophet'. The above prophecy speaks of a prophet to come after the prophesying person. Most evidently this prophecy seems to have been spoken about in reference to the universal prophet. As a matter of fact 'That Prophet' and 'The Universal Prophet' refers to one person that was to come as a guide to the entire mankind. If we accept the prophesying person as John and the person about whom it was prophesied as Jesus, John could have in no way further enquired Jesus as follows:
Now when John had heard in the prison the works of Christ he sent two of his disciples and said unto him. "Art thou he that should come, or do we look for another?� -Matthew 11:2-3
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The enquiry of John to Jesus 'Art thou he that should come or do we look for another?'- is an authentic proof that the promised universal prophet had not appeared upto the time of John and Jesus. As John enquired whether he should look for another, he himself could in no way be the universal prophet. Now there remains one person, Jesus the last link of the chain of prophets sent to the community of Israel, from the lineage of Isaac.
Was Jesus the Universal Prophet? Let us see what he says in this regardFrom the following points one can very easily perceive that Jesus was in no way can be the universal prophet. But he was only a prophet who was sent to Israelites (Jews) as a last prophet among them as a reformer. Reformative work only meant for the people who have strayed from the right path.
And Jesus answering said unto them, they that are whole need not a physician: but they that are sick. I came not to call the righteous, but sinners to repentance. -Luke 5:31-32 At the time of sending his disciples to preach in other places, he strictly ordered them not to preach among non-Israelites. Thus he did because he was not the universal prophet but one sent for Israelite community.
These twelve Jesus sent forth and commanded them saying, Go not into the way of the Gentiles and into the city of Samaritans enter ye not: But go rather to the lost sheep of the house of Israel.
-Matthew 10:5-6
He stresses on the point of not going to any other people except that of Israel and the reason thereof is as follows:
But he [Jesus] answered and said, I am not sent but unto the lost sheep of the house of Israel. -Matthew 15:24
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This discloses that Jesus was not at all the universal prophet. He also made clear on the point of his being a reformer.
When Jesus heard it, he saith unto them they that are whole have no need of the physician, but they that are sick: I came not to call the righteous, but sinners to repentance. -Mark 2:17 Thus from his own sayings as recorded in the above passages it became evident that he was a reformer sent for the community of Isaraelites only. Then therefore in no way can he be the universal prophet who was to come as promised to Abraham. But the church maintains that he (Jesus) was the universal prophet and to counteract the clear passages as recorded above, it forwards the following passages in its defence.
A. Go ye therefore and teach all nations baptizing them in the name of the Father and of the son and of the Holy Ghost. -Matthew 28:19 B. And he said unto them, Go ye into the all world and preach the Gospel to every creature.
-Mark 16:15
C. And that repentance and remission of sins should be preached in his [Jesus] name among all nations beginning at Jerusalem. -Luke 24:47 At the first glance the above A,B,C references appear, Jesus to have ordered his disciples to preach all nations of the world and to every creature. In this regard what important to note is the word 'every creature' refers to every Jew and 'all nations of the world' refers to all nations of the world where in Jews scattered and settled. As regards to this let us observe what Jesus has told in the following.
And other sheep I have which are not of this fold: them also I must bring and they shall hear my voice: and there shall be one fold and one shepherd.
-John 10:16
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"And other sheep I have, which are not of this fold"-means "I have other Jews which are not of this fold, which means Jews who scattered in other nations of the world". But church takes its meaning for gentiles1. It is not correct. This mystery can be unveiled by the following passage.
For we have found this man a pestilent fellow and a mover of sedition among all the Jews throughout the world and a ringleader of the sect of the Nazarenes. -Acts 24:5 Who were the proclaimers and on whom the proclamation was made is a matter of no importance in the present context, but what was proclaimed is that the accused was the mover of sedition (disorder) among all the Jews throughout the world. This point discloses that the Jews were scattered all over the world to whom it was that Jesus had ordered his disciples to preach. Thus it is made clear that whom Jesus had to preach of the other nations were not gentiles as church speculates but 'all Jews who were scattered all over the world' as we say. This point further rules out the claim of church and pinpoint on the fact that Jesus was not the universal prophet but a reformer of the Israelite community only.
But he [Jesus] answered and said, I am not sent but unto the lost sheep of the house of Israel -Matthew 15:24 What more does the church need than the above authentic and clear saying of Jesus which dampens all its efforts to establish the point of Jesus' being a universal prophet? Then therefore this further elucidates on the point that the promised universal prophet was to come only after Jesus himself. So Jesus by himself cannot be the universal prophet. Let us examine another prophecy
Principle elements of the religion were given to all nations by their respective prophets For as the earth bringeth forth her bud and as the garden causeth the things that are sown in it to spring forth: So Lord God will cause righteousness and praise to spring forth before all the nations. -Isaiah 61:11
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The above prophecy is deeply involved in figure of speech.
A. for as the earth bringeth forth her bud... B. and as the garden causeth the things that are sown in it to spring forth 'Bud' of the clause under (A) and 'spring forth' of the clause under (B)... are two significant words which are symbolic description of the 'ground' and 'plant' respectively which bring forth its fruits. This speaks the fact that the seeds which were useful to reap the fruits, what was intended for, have been already sown. This metaphoric description stands to symbolise for the rudiments of the religion which had been given to all nations of the world. This also disclose the hidden fact that they were not ripe-enough to reap to the extent as had been desired of. Here one should not mistake the words that the religion was not ripe enough to reap, in its literel sense but the people were not responding to the religious rudiments in its perspective way as had been expected of by God. This goes to mean that the religion of all nations, though was perfectly taught by their respective prophets, had been gradually declined.
The religion given by the universal prophet is not a new religion but a reminder of the religion given to every people A. Just as the earth bringeth forth her bud...[plant and its buds] B. and as the garden causeth the things that are sown in it to spring forth... C. [so] the Lord God will cause righteousness and praise to spring forth before 'all nations'. A, B. This is the figurative description of the universal prophet (all nations) through whom the religion given to all prophets to all nations would come under one canopy and the rudiments of the religion would be reminded. Here one should not mistake that a new religion would be given through that universal prophet. But the religion what had been given
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to each nation would be reformed and the same religion would be reminded. Here one should note that the religion was not to be reformed but the people of that religion were to be reformed. This is because they were following the traditions of their forefathers neglecing the real rudiments of the religion given by God. Thus what would be given by the universal prophet was not a new religion but of their own in the form of reformation and reminder. This discloses the fact that the rudiments of all religions and its belief is one and the same. Qur'an confirms this point:
a. This is a warner1 from among the class of warners2 of old. -Qur'an 53:56 b. say, ' I am1no new messenger, nor do I know what will be done with me or with you in this life. I do but follow what is revealed to me; and I am but a plain warner. -Qur'an 46:9 c. Nay! surely it 2is a Reminder- so let him, who desires, pay heed to it...
-Qur'an 80:11-12
d. It is nothing but a Reminder for all peoples. -Qur'an 38:87 The above verses imply to mean that prophet Mohammed was not a new messenger and his teachings were also not new ones but only a reminder of the earlier teachings and at the same time it is explained that his book Qur'an was/is a reminder to all nations (a reminder for all peoples 38:87). In the same manner the following verses disclose the fact that the Religion what he preached is not a new Religion but only a reminder and continuation of the former Religion that was given to other prophets.
He has prescribed for you the Religion which he enjoined on Noah and which we have revealed to thee, and which we enjoined on Abraham and Moses and Jesus, saying 'remain steadfast in obedience and be not divided therein. Hard upon
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the polytheists is that to which thou callest them. God chooses for Himself whom He pleases and guides to Himself him who turns to Him. -Qur'an 42:13 Nothing is said to thee but what was said to the messengers before thee. Thy Lord is indeed the Master of forgiveness and also the Master of painful chastisement.
-Qur'an 41:43
A prophecy of Jesus about universal prophet In this regard the words of Jesus which he expounded to his disciples while promising of the comforter who was to come after him are noteworthy:
But the comforter, which is the Holy Ghost, whom the father will send in my name, he shall teach you all things and bring all things to your remembrance whatsoever I have said unto you. Peace I leave with you my peace I give unto you: not as the world giveth give I unto you. Let not your heart be troubled neither let it be afraid. -John 14:26-27 From the above passage it can be noticed that there was another comforter to come after Jesus, who would teach his community all things and bring all things to their remembrance. This goes to mean that they would forget, what all was taught by Jesus and he that was to come would remind them. This is to mean, the Religion which comforter would preach is no other than what Jesus had taught them which fact can be well understood by the consecutive verse..."peace I leave with you, my peace give I unto you. Let not your heart be troubled neither let it be afraid." From the above warning of Jesus it can be well presumed that his real teachings would be supplanted by all innovated doctrines which are quite contrary to the teachings of Jesus. When the comforter reminds them the real teachings of Jesus, they naturally appear paradoxical and hence the people generally become hesitant to accept them. This was the reason that why Jesus told them- "let not your heart be troubled neither let it be afraid."
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The above prophecy may be taken to mean that Jesus had given his exposition on the following prophecy of Isiah.
How beautiful upon the mountains are the feet of him that bringeth good tidings that publisheth PEACE: that bringeth good tidings of good that publisheth salvation: that saith unto Zion thy God reigneth -Isaiah 52:7 A known fact is that a number of prophets were sent into the world. They all gave the good tidings of salvation, provided the people do good. Good means the acts to be performed as had been enjoined to do and desist from doing all those acts which had been prohibited: by means of which one can get the salvation. This is the PEACE that was published by all prophets. And this is why Jesus reiterates on the point particularly prophesying about the advent of the universal prophet saying as 'PEACE' I leave with you, my PEACE I give unto you'. This is to mean that what the comforter would give is no other than what he (Jesus) had given. In this connection he clearly explained by saying 'But the comforter which is the Holy Ghost, whom the father send in my name he shall teach you all things and bring all things to your remembrance what soever I have said unto you'. This is one clue to identify that prophet as the universal prophet. And another clue we have in the prophecy of Isaiah (52:7) 'How beautiful upon the mountains are the feet of him who... that saith unto ZION thy God reigneth'. This is to mean as saying that he would establish the THEOCRACY in ZION. Pertaining to this we have discussed in our coming pages from 242 onwards.
C. So the Lord God will cause righteousness and praise 1to spring forth before all nations. This is the last clause of the prophecy Isaiah 61:11 under discussion. God explains that just as ground brings forth the bud and the garden springs forth the fruits, so also the univarsal prophet brings forth righteousness and praise before all the nations1. Jesus also prophesies about the universal prophet saying him as comforter figuratively who was to come after him and that how he establishes the righteousness saying as follows. So it can be taken to mean as Jesus to have confirmed the above prophecy of Isaiah about the advent of the universal prophet who was to come after him.
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And when he is come, he will reprove the world of sin, and of righteousness1 and of judgment: -John 16:8 The Church cannot attribute this prophecy to Jesus: as these are the words prophesied by Jesus himself. So it tries to impute this prophecy to the Holy Spirit. Here what one should note is that prophets cannot do anything or speak of their own will. God sends the message to the prophets through Holy Spirit. What they hear from him that only they speak to the people. Thus Holy Spirit is a mediator between God and prophet. This fact can be noticed from the statement of Isaiah himself.
The Spirit of the Lord is upon me: because the Lord hath anointed me [chosen me to act as his prophet] to preach good tidings unto the meek: he hath sent me to bind up the broken hearted, to proclaim liberty to the captives and the opening of the prison to them that are bound.
-Isaiah 61:1
So it became evident that there must be a prophet chosen of God on whom there descends the Holy Spirit and teaches the message what he brings from God: and accordingly the prophet acts and discharges his duty as has been conveyed through Holy Spirit. So a prophet cannot do any thing without the association of the Holy Spirit nor Holy Spirit can by himself do any thing without the company of the prophet. And this is how both of them unitedly perform the enjoined duty by God.
But the prophet which shall presume to speak a word which I have not commanded him to speak or that shall speak in the name of other gods even that prophet shall die. -deuteronomy 18:20 We can see a similar warning in Qur'an too.
And if he (Mohammad) had forged a false saying concerning Us; we surely would have seized him by his right hand. And
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then we certainly would have cut off his life artery (aorta). And none of you could have withheld Us from him. -Qur'an 69:44-47 Jesus again prophesied as follows:
a. And when he is come, he will reprove the world of sin, and of righteousness, and of judgment. -John 16:8 b. Howbeit when he the spirit of truth is come he will guide into all truth: for he shall not speak of himself: but whatsoever he shall hear that shall he speak: and he will shew you things to come. -John 16:13 The first of the above two passages under point (a) Jesus reiterates that there would come the universal prophet who would reprove the world of sin and of righteousness and of judgment. And the second point under (b) explains the method of the revelation and as how a prophet conveys the message to people. Here, The Holy Spirit hears from God and speaks to the prophet. The prophet hears from the Holy Spirit and conveys the message to the people what he hears from the Holy Spirit. Thus Holy Spirit is a mediator between God and prophet, and the prophet is a mediator between Holy Spirit and the people. Hence it is said of the prophet as "Howbeit when he the spirit of truth is come he will guide you into all truth: for he shall not speak of himself but whatsoever he shall hear that shall he speak; and he will shew you things to come". Thus it is made clear that a prophet would teach to the people what he hears from the Holy Spirit but Holy Spirit by himself would not speak to people so as to ascribe the prophecy to Holy Spirit. In an another way it can be said that this is the reminder of the prophecy as made to Moses in Deuteronomy which reads as follows.
I will raise them up a prophet from among their brethren, like unto thee, and will put my words in his mouth: and he shall speak unto them all that I shall command him. -Deuteronomy 18:18
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Let us discuss this prophecy in an another way:
Church ascribes the prophecy made by God through Moses about the advent of a prophet like himself - to Jesus. The prophecy as made to Moses (Deuteronomy 18:18) has once again been reminded in the Book of Acts, as here under.
1.Repent ye therefore and be converted, that your sins may be blotted out, when the times of refreshing shall come from the presence of the Lord (19) 2. And he shall send Jesus Christ, which before was preached unto you: (20) 3. Whom the heaven must receive until the times of restitution of all things which God hath spoken by the mouth of all his holy prophets since the world began (21) 4. for Moses truly said unto the fathers, A prophet shall the Lord your God raise up unto you of your brethren like unto me: him shall ye hear in all things whatsoever he shall say unto you. (22) 5. And it shall come to pass that every soul which will not hear that prophet shall be destroyed from among the people (23) 6. Yea, and all the prophets from Samuel and those that follow after as many as have spoken, have likewise foretold of these days (24) 7. And ye are the children of the prophets and of the Covenant which God made with our fathers saying unto Abraham, And in thy seed shall all the kindreds of the earth be blessed. (25) -Acts 3:19:25
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ANALYSIS 1. Repent ye therefore (verse no. 19) This clause is suggestive of repentance for Jews who ignorantly put Jesus on cross-
and be converted... This clause is suggestive of accepting Jesus as a man of God whom they thought to be heretic, not knowing his real mission.
That your sins may be blotted out This is to mean as saying that if they act accordingly it is likely that their sins may be pardoned.
When the times of refreshing shall come from the presence of the Lord: In this clause the times of refreshing are reminded. Here we have a word 'Refreshing' which does not mean that the Jews who struggled a lot to put an end to the mission of Jesus would be provided with refreshments to refill the vigour which they had lost in all their evil devices against Jesus (19 verse). But it is a warning (glad tidings) of the advent of the universal prophet as a reformer (21 verse)1. So the word 'Refreshing' stands for reformation and reminder of what they have forgotten.
2. And he shall send Jesus Christ which before was preached unto you (verse No. 20) This speaks that God will send Jesus Christ. Thus his second coming is stressed. As regards to this we do not find the exact period in which he will manifest in his second time as all the gospels provide irrelevant information1. Yet the verse discloses the most important information about the coming of the 'Times of Restitution' that it would take place after his departure and before his second coming-
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3. whom [Jesus] the heaven must receive until the times of restitution of all things which God hath spoken by the mouth of all his holy prophets since the world began -(verse No 21) The above verse seems to be rather complicated. So let us have an analytic discussion. Let us devide the verse under two parts. 1st part: Whom [Jesus] the heavens must raceive until the times of restitution of all things 2nd part: Which God hath spoken by the mouth of all his holy prophets since the world began. According to the first half Jesus must stay in heavens- how long should he thus stay? Answer for this, is given saying- 'until the times of restitution of all things'. This further makes clear that the times of restitution of all things were promised. Now the question is whether Jesus' second coming would take place before or after the restitution of all things. To know this no need of taking trouble but the answer as provided in the verse is enough since it begins saying as 'the heavens must receive him (Jesus) until the times of restitution of all things'. This clearly speaks that the second coming of Jesus would take place only after the formation of the times of restitution of all things. This underlines on the fact that 'the times of restitution' would take place in between the period after Jesus' departure and before his second coming. Now let us see about the second half: Which (about this thing) God hath spoken by the mouth of all his holy prophets since the world began. This makes clear that God has informed about this by all his holy prophets since the world began. The point is not clear whether the information is provided about the second coming of Jesus or about the coming of 'the times of restitution of all things'. The context makes this clear that stress is made on the information given about the 'coming times of restitution of all things' only, since this point is further corroborated by verse 24-'yea, and all the prophets from Samuel and those that follow after, as many as have spoken, have likewise foretold of these days. As about giving the information which we have in the
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verse 21, we read as God saying- '(information given) by the mouth of all his holy prophets since the world began'; seems to be a figurative description only to represent on the fact of having been foretold by many prophets. This is because the universal prophet was promised to Abraham to be sent from his lineage. And so it is enough that the information about him should be given by the prophets that followed after him but not necessarily to be informed by all the holy prophets since the world began. In confirmation to this the verse 24 speaks as follows- 'yea, and all the prophets from Samuel and those that follow after as many as have spoken, have likewise foretold of these days (the days of universal prophetthe times of restitution). And this is quite reasonable as according to the context. In the above verse the key words 'The times of restitution of all things' the meaning of which should be known. The word 'Restitution' means (1) to restore or pay back the stolen or lost things to its owner when they are recovered. (2) to compensate in the form of money for the injury or damage caused. So according to context the first meaning is aptly applicable to. 'Restitution' is figuratively used to remind what all, people had forgotten the principle elements of their religion. Thus it further focusses on the point that the universal prophet would remind the people of all nations. This period is described as the "times of Restitution" in the verse under discussion. Thus the points (2) & (3) (verses 20,21) of the passage suggest that Jesus should be in heavens till the times of Restitution. To say in other way that the times of Restitution would take place in the poriod of the manifestation of the prophet as promised to Moses under Ref: Deuteronomy 18:18. Then therefore it is made clear that the advent of the prophet like Moses would take place only after the departure of Jesus. This point dampens the claim and speculation of the Church that the promised prophet was/is Jesus himself. This goes to mean that the times of restitution (reminding of the forgotten rudiments of the religion) would take place only after the departure of Jesus. Jesus also reiterates on this point saying as - "But the comforter which is the Holy Ghost whom the father will send in my
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name he shall teach you all things and bring all things to your remembrance whatsoever I have said unto you" (John 14:26). And this point is further corroborated by the saying of Jesus as here under.
But when the comforter is come whom I will send unto you from the Father, even the spirit of truth, which proceedeth from the Father, he shall testify of me: And ye also shall bear witness, because ye have been with me from the beginning -John 15:26-27 We have an another information as follows: What is the significance of the times of Restitution? It is explained in the point (4) under verse 22 of the passage.
For Moses truly said unto the fathers a prophet shall the Lord your God raise up unto you of your brethren like unto me: him shall ye hear in all things whatsoever he shall say unto you. And point (5) under verse 23 of the passage says-
And it shall come to pass that every soul which will not hear that prophet shall be destroyed from among the people. This verse shows the importance on believing on that prophet. If one does not believe that prophet he shall be destroyed from among the people is a clear indication that the promised prophet (Deuteronomy 18:18) has been appointed for all nations in the capacity of the universal prophet. Taking this point into consideration in no way can it be applicable to Jesus as he was sent only for the lost sheep of Israelites (Matthew 15:24). That too the prophet for all nations was to come only after the departure of Jesus as according to this passage (2) and (3) under verses 20, 21: as attested by Jesus himself.
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Whose progeny was he to come from? point (7) under verse 25 of the passage provides its answer.
Ye are the children of the prophets and of the covenant which God made with our fathers saying unto Abraham- and in thy seed shall all kindred of the earth be blessed. This point has been discussed in many of our pages and proved that the promised universal prophet was to be sent through the seed of Abraham (ie) the first son Ishmael by Hagar. The whole argument is being revolved only on this point throughout our book. Prophet Mohammad for all nations and for entire world:
It is nothing but a Reminder for all peoples -Qur'an 38:87 Nay, it is naught but a source of honour for all the worlds. -Qur'an 68:52 In brief: The passage acts 3:19-25 expounds on the facts relating to the prophet like Moses of Deuteronomy 18:18 and also on the promise made to Abraham to raise the universal prophet from his seed (Genesis 22:15-18). So according as to the exposition made in the passage Acts 3:19-25 it can be concluded that the prophecy made through Moses for the advent of a prophet like himself and the promised universal prophet to be raised from the seed of Abraham is one and the same person. We have two words times of "Refreshing" (19) and times of 'restitution' (21)- which both the words represent to the only act which yields the only result. Refreshing means reformation of the polluted religion Restoration means to give back the forgotten (lost) religious rudiments (ie) to remind their forgotten religion.- When do these two acts
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take place? Ans: In the times of a prophet like Moses (22) Deut 18:18 What is the period of his advent? Ans: In between the priod after Jesus' departure and before his second coming (20)
Jesus attests: a. And I will pray the Father and he shall give you another comforter [this is to mean as saying- 'the comforter will come after me.] -John 14:16 b. But the comforter which is the Holy Ghost, whom the Father will send in my name, he shall teach you all things (refreshing 19) and bring all things to your remembrance (restitution 21) whatsoever I have said unto you -John 14:26 C. for if I go not away the comforter will not come... -John 16:7 I will pray the Father' 'He shall give you another comforter' 'for if I go not away the comforter will not come' are the self evident clauses which make clear that the comforter comes only after the departure of Jesus. Then therefore it is proved beyond doubt that prophet Mohammed the descendent from the progony of Ishmael, who manifested after the departure of Jesus is the universal prophet as promised to Abraham and the prophet of the prophecy of Moses "like unto himself". Then therefore the trials of the Church to attribute these two epithets to Jesus proved to be a fallacy.
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Now let us examine another prophecy:
The advent of universal prophet was to take place in the last days And it shall come to pass in the last days, that the mountain of the Lord's house shall be established in the top of the mountains and shall be exalted above the hills: and all nations shall flow into it. And many people shall go and say come ye and let us go upto the mountain of the Lord to the house of the God of Jacob: and he will teach us of his ways and we will walk in his paths: for out of zion shall go forth the law and the word of the lord from Jerusalem. -Isaiah 2:2-3
N.B: We can see the same prophecy to have been quoted by the prophet Micah, in verbatim with little difference in few words in his book Micah 4:1-2 A. And it shall come to pass in the last days... The above clause explains that the advent of the universal prophet would take place in the last days. 'The last days' do not refer to the days in which the doomsday will take effect but speaks of the days of the universal prophet after whom there comes no prophet nor prophecy. So these days are in the figure of speech described as last days. However this symbolizes for the last prophet after whom no prophet comes. This evidently speaks of the universal prophet. The sum and substance of these points is, the universal prophet would be the last prophet. The last prophet means there should be no prophet after him. The church at-
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tributes this epithet to Jesus. Here we must know that Jesus was the last prophet for Israelites but not for all nations1. But here the argument is going on about the advent of the universal prophet who was appointed for all nations of the world. Let us examine what Jesus says in this regard.
Jesus prays for the advent of universal prophet 1. And I will pray the Father and he shall give you another comforter that he may abide with you for ever -John 14:16 a. Another comforter means another prophet b. that he may abide with you for ever- This means as saying that he is the last prophet after whom no prophet comes- and thus the law given by him continues till the end of the world. Thus 'he shall abide with you for ever'.
2. And when he is come he will reprove the world of sin and of righteousness and of judgment. -John 16:8 The word- 'world' in the clause of the above verse, is not spoken in the sense of 'people' as is used in many other places but here it conveys to mean as 'all nations of the world'
The mountain of the Lord's house was to be exalted above all mountains and all nations should flow into it B. The mountain of the Lord's House shall be in the top of the mountains and shall be exalted above the hills and all nations shall flow into it. (Isaiah 2:2-3 and Micah 4:1-2) We can notice a symbolic description of the Lord's house. We will discuss about the House of the Lord in coming pages. It is certain that this house cannot be the temple of Jerusalem as it has been differentiated by the following clauses...
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a. As made mention in the last clause of the second verse saying as '...all nations shall flow into it'.
b. And in the last clause of the third verse saying as 'for out of zion shall go forth the law and the word of the Lord from Jerusalem. As according to the point above (a)- 'all nations shall flow into it' very clearly speaks of the universal prophet which point further makes clear that it is not spoken about the advent of Jesus as Church presumes since Jesus was sent only for the community of Isralites1 while the prophecy speaks about one who is appointed for all nations- hence it refers to the universal prophet. As according to the point (b) above- 'Zion' is not the place where the ministry of Jesus had been carried out but stands for the place where from the advent of a law giving prophet would take place. Jesus was not a law giving prophet2. But the prophecy speaks about a law giving prophet and the place where from his advent would take place saying as- 'for out of Zion shall go forth the law which is differentiated by another clause which clerly points out saying as 'the word of the Lord from Jerusalem'. Here the word means- 'the promise'. About whom the propmise was made? This point is explained through Isaiah in the seventh chapter.
Therefore the Lord himself shall give you a sign: Behold a virgin shall conceive and bear a son... -Isaiah 7:14 Thus a law giving prophet would come out of Zion and the promise (word) of God would come from Jerusalem. Therefore by no means this prophecy (Isaiah 2:2-3 and Micah 4:1-2) can be attributed to Jesus.
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Another prophecy
MOHAMMAD IS A PROPHET LIKE MOSES And he said, it is a light thing that thou shouldest be my servant to raise up the tribes of Jacob, and to restore the preserved of Israel. I will also give thee for a light to the gentiles, that thou mayest be my salvation unto the end of the earth. -Isaiah 49:6 The above prophecy also speaks about the advent of the universal prophet.(that thou mayest be my salvation unto the end of the earth) Now let us have an analytic study of the verse: or its relative clauses or its relevant information. paraphrase of the above prophecy: And he said = and God said
It is a light thing = it is very easy thing (for you) Thou should be my servant = (for you) to be my prophet. What was it that is described as an easy thing? (it is a light thing). The answer is given as saying "To raise up the tribes of Jacob, and to restore the preserved of Israel." To raise up the tribes of Jacob means to reform all the tribes of Israel- to bring them to their former original rudiments of their religion. Preserved of Israel = Those who were intact in their original religion (uncorrupted), and believed on Jesus as Christ.
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This is to mean as saying those that were intact uncorrupted from the 12 tribes of Israelites and those that believed on Jesus as Christthey will also be restored means the universal prophet make them also follow the law given by him. (Galatians 4:24-25)1 I will also give thee for a light to the Gentiles = Though the universal prophet from one branch of Abraham, he would be entrusted the office of the universal prophet. I will also give thee for a light to the Gentiles = This is to mean as saying
I will make you a light (guide) to the Gentiles also. Gentiles means all nations (mankind) other than Israelites. Thus the universal prophet who was to come from the brethren of Israelites (Deutornomy 18:18) (ie) Ishmaelites; the seed of Abraham was appointed for all nations. That thou mayest be my salvation unto the end of the earth- This is the affirmation of the points what we have mentioned about the universal prophet. The clause 'I will also give thee for a light to the Gentiles' includes the Israelites also. The clause speaks that he (the universal prophet) would be a guide for Gentiles also, meaning- a guide not only for gentiles but also for you (Israelites)1. Thus the clause goes to stress on the point of 'a guidance for the entire world'. This point is further corroborated by its following clause 'That thou mayest be my salvation unto the end of the earth'. Not only this but the whole context stands in support of this point. In the prophecy Isaiah 49:6 under discussion the key verse (clause) is 'I will also give thee for a light to the Gentiles' wherein the word 'Light' is stressed. And it means 'Lamp' which produces bright light by which the darkness of ignorance can be dispelled. 'Lamp' also stands for the revelation (scripture) by means of which ample light of guidance can be provided. 'Lamp' also can be interpreted to mean a prophet who leads the mankind to the right path.
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Qur'an virtually agrees these three qualities in the person of prophet Mohammad which read as follows:
A. O prophet, truly We have sent thee as a witness and a bearer of glad tidings, and a warner and as a summoner unto Allah by His command and as a Lamp that gives bright light. -Qur'an 33:45-46 B. And thus have we revealed to thee the word by our command. Thou didst not know what the Book was nor what the faith. But we have made it (the Revelation) a light whereby we guide such of our servants as we please. And truly thou guidest mankind to the right path. -Qur'an 42:53 C. O people of the book! there has come to you our Messenger who unfolds to you much of what you had kept hidden of the Book and pass over much. There has come to you indeed from Allah a light and clear Book. -Qur'an 5:15 In the above verse, Qur'an says that the people of Book had concealed much of its facts. How they manipulated, Qur'an makes mention as follows.
And surely among them is a section who twist their tongues while reciting the Book, that you may think it to be part of Book while it is not part of the Book. And they say 'It is from Allah': while it is not from Allah: and they utter a lie against Allah knowingly. -Qur'an 3:78
N.B: It is not mere accusation- but we find the same statement in their book also.
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A. And they bend their tongues like their bow for the lies but they are not valiant for the truth; for they proceed from evil to evil and they know not me saith the Lord. -Jermiah 9:3 B. The earth also is defiled under the inhabitants there of: because they have transgressed the laws, changed the ordinance broken the everlasting covenant. -Isaiah 24:5 Jesus was not a universal prophet but a prophet sent to the lost sheep of Israel1.
Jesus also affirms: Howbeit when he, the spirit of truth is come he will guide you into all truth: for he shall not speek of himself: but whatsoever he shall hear that shall he speak: and he will shew you things to come. -John 16:13 To speak in other way it can be taken as the exposition of the prophecy of Deuteronomy 18:18 by God which reads as follows.
I will raise them up a prophet from among their brethren like unto thee [Moses] and I will put my words in his mouth; and he shall speak unto them all that I shall command him. Qur'an confirms: Prophet Mohammed is a prophet like Moses
A. Verily we have sent to you a Messenger, who is a witness over you, even as we sent a messenger to Pharaoh. Qur'an 73:15
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B. Would you question the messenger sent to you, as Moses was questioned before this? And whoever takes disbelief in exchange for belief has undoubtedly gone astray from the rigth path. -Qur'an 2:108 C. They said 'O our people we have heard a Book, which has been sent down after Moses, confirming that which is before it; it guides to the truth and to the right path. -Qur'an 46:30 The above Qur'anic references imply to mean as saying that Mohammad was a prophet like Moses. In these verses the simile is "Just as a prophet was sent to pharaoh so also a prophet (Mohammad) has been sent to you" As it was Moses who was sent to Pharaoh- it infers that Mohammad is a prophet like Moses as said in Deuteronomy 18:18. And 'we have heard a book which has been sent down after Moses' is the fulfilment of promise of God made saying to Moses '...and I will put my words in his mouth and he shall speak unto them all that I shall command him'. Another prophecy
Bravery of the universal prophet and the confirmation of Jesus A. And he will lift up an ensign to the nations from far and will hiss unto them from the end of the earth: and behold they shall come with speed swiftly: (26) B. None shall be weary nor stumble among them: none shall slumber nor sleep; neither shall the girdle of their loins be loosed nor the latchet of their shoes be broken: (27) C. whose arrows are sharp and all their bows bent, their horses' hoofs shall be counted like flint and their wheels like a whirlwind: (28)
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D. Their roaring shall be like a lion, they shall roar like young lions: yea, they shall roar and lay hold of the prey and shall carry it away safe and none shall deliver it (29) E. And in that day they shall roar against them like the roaring of the sea: and if one look unto the land behold darkness and sorrow and the light is darkened in the heavens there of. (30) -Isaiah 5:26-30 The first verse of the above prophecy also speaks about the advent of the universal prophet (lift up an ensign to nations from far...) This information was given to Israelites and a hint was provided to them that he would come from far- means not from among them but from their brethren, as prophesied in Deuteronomy 18:18. Israelite's brethren are Ishmaelites (Galatians 4:22). This goes to mean as saying that the universal prophet was to come from the progeny of Ishmael (the son born to Abraham by Hagar). This prophecy cannot be attributed to Jesus as he was the Israelite from the lineage of Isaac. 'Lift up an ensign to nations from far' significantly speaks on the fact that he does not belong to Israelitic nation Canaan (Palestine) but from far means from Arabia1. This is the another meaning of the clause. Thus both the meanings reasonably apply to prophet Mohammad. Thus we read from the following-
'for it is written that Abraham had two sons the one by bond maid the other by a free woman. But he who was of the bondwoman was born after the flesh; but he of the free woman was by promise, which things are an allegory: for these are the two covenants; the one from the mount Sinai which gendereth to bondage which is Hager. For this Hagar is mount Sinai in Arabia... Arabia...' -Galatians 4:22-25. From this, the promise made to Abraham about the advent of the universal prophet from his seed, Ishmael by Hagar who was to appear not from Israelities but from their brethren Ishmaelites (Deut 18:18) who are the natives of Arabia- all these points have been confirmed.
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Further the subsequent verses speak the bravery of the followers of the universal prophet. As regards to this let us have a glance on the statement of Jesus which reads as follows.
Jesus saith unto them, Did ye never read in the scriptures, The stone which the builders rejected, the same is become the head of the corner; this is the Lord's doing and it is marvellous in our eyes? Therefore say I unto you the kingdom of God shall be taken from you and given to a nation bringing forth the fruits thereof. And whosoever shall fall on this stone shall be broken: but on whomsoever it shall fall it will grind him to powder. -Matthew 21:42-44 According to Matthew 21:42-44, Jesus is believed to have said that the rejected stone had been given a premier place as corner stone (Head of the corner) Rejected stone : Was it rejected by God as has been speculated by Church? No. Scripture says clearly that the builders rejected it (the stone which the builders rejected). How the rejected stone became the corner stone? Though it was rejected by the builders- God awarded a high privilege to it by making it as the head of the corner (This is Lord's doing). When does a man begin to marvel about? Only when he happens to hear or see anything contrary to his expectations. Thus it is understood that the Jews had been expecting the promised universal prophet would come from the lineage of Isaac (Abraham's son by Sarah) from among their own community. But on hearing that he would come out of their brethren Ishmaelites (as promised to Moses under Deuteronomy 18:18), as the interpretation given by Jesus under parable of vineyard, they marvelled. This is why Jesus says 'This is the Lord's doing and it is marvellous in our eyes'.
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Further it is understood that Jesus to have said that all these things are incorporated in the scriptures and enquired - 'Did ye never read in the scriptures?' The most important thing that we should know from this exposition of Jesus is whether he stressed on the point of rejection of the stone or a stress has been made on this stone's becoming corner stone which point has been repeatedly mentioned in the scriptures by asking the people around him- 'Did ye never read in the scriptures The stone which the builders rejected the same is become the head of the corner: this is the Lord's doing and it is marvellous in our eyes?' This convincingly proves that Jesus had suggested that everyone should accept the head corner stone (universal prophet) as it was he that had been conferred this privilege by God Himself.
Who this stone had been which was rejected? And the child grew and was weaned; and Abraham made a great feast the same day that Isaac was weaned. And Sarah saw the son of Hagar the Egyptian which she had born unto Abraham, mocking. Wherefore she said unto Abraham cast out this bondwoman and her son: for the son of the bondwoman shall not be heir with my son even with Isaac. -Genesis 21:8-11 From the above passage we came to know that it was Ishmeal that had been rejected by Sarah his stepmother but not by God. But as a matter of fact it was neither Sarah nor God that had rejected. As regards to this we have explained in our former pages that it was only a trial of God to examine whether the obedience and love towards God of all the family members, surpass the love and affection that they had on the child or keep themselves behind disobeying in carrying on the command of God to abandon Hagar and her child Ishmael in the wilderness of Beer-sheba which was latter called Paran. Then by whom was he rejected so as to provide information that the rejected stone became corner stone? If the imposition of banishment were true punishment of God why was he made the corner stone? Were he really a rejected (useless) stone why God had conferred his favours upon him?
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1. As soon as he was conceived of- the angel of God appeared to his mother Hagar and saidBehold thou art with child and shalt bear a son and shalt call his name Ishmael, because the Lord hath heard thy affliction -Genesis 16:11
2. When the goodnews of the second son was being given, Abraham showed his contentment only with the first son and says to GodO that Ishmael might live before thee! (In the sense why another son in this old age?)
3. And God promised about Ishmael: Behold I have blessed him, and will make him fruitful and will multiply him excedingly -Genesis 17:20
4. Inheritance - safeguarded And also of the son of bond woman will I make a nation because he is thy seed -Genesis 21:13 From the above verse both sons- one born to the freewoman and the other born to bondmaid had inherited equal share of sonship of Abraham. Thus none is cast out1.
5. When Hagar reached to Beer - sheba, the bread and water was spent which resulted in the absorption of her milk from her breasts. Then she apprehended the death of the child and put him under a shrub and sat far from him so that not to see the child famished to death.
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Angel appears: Had they really been rejected could ever the angel of God have appeared to them?
God heard the voice of the lad; and the angel of God called to Hagar out of heaven and said unto her what aileth thee Hagar? fear not; for God hath heard the voice of the lad where he is. -Genesis 21:17
6. Promise was made: Arise, lift up the lad and hold him in thine hand for I will make him a great nation. -Genesis 21:18
7. A fountain of water was miraculously created : And God openend her eyes, and she saw a well of water2; and she went and filled the bottle with water and gave the lad drink. -Genesis 21:19
8. He was brought up under the care of God: And God was with the lad; and he grew and dwelt in the wilderness and became an archer. -Genesis 21:20
Not rejected by God: Keeping in view of all these points can anybody say that Ishmael is the rejected stone? What curious to note is that Paul has contradicted the exposition as given by Jesus on this subject under Ref: Matthew 21:42. Read the statement of Paul. The contrast between Jesus and Paul can be well traced.
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We read in Galatians 4:30-31
Neverthless what saith the scripture? Cast out the bond woman and her son: for the son of the bondwoman shall not be heir with the son of freewoman. So brethren, we are not children of the bondwoman, but of the free. Now let us recollect what Jesus had said in this regard. (It is already discussed in our previous pages) Ref Matthew 21:421
1. Jesus enquires- Did ye never read in the scriptures? As regards to the progeny of Abraham through Hagar it was believed that God had rejected Hagar and her son Ishmael. In this connection God might have revealed the fact through the former prophets. Thus the fact was incorporated in the scriptures. This point can be known by the saying of Jesus- 'Did ye never read in the scriptures?' What is it that was to be read in the scriptures? Jesus further says 'The stone which the builders rejected, the same is become the head of the corner'.
2. The stone which builders rejected- Thus he made it clear that the stone was not rejected by God but only by the builders. 3. Builders wanted that the stone should be eliminated like an unwanted guest. 4. But God made it the head of the corner (universal prophet) (this is Lord's doing).
5. But for Jews it became a thing that was never expected of (It is marvellous in our eyes). Thus the scripture given by Jesus is suggestive of accepting the stone.
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Now observe the above statement of Paul under Ref: Galatians 4:3031
1. He begins with words saying as 'Nevertheless what saith the scripture?' It is a direct suggestion to the readers that what he was going to say- is a scriptural ordinance. It is not the scripture that orders but an order crept into scripture as a result of the manipulations of the builders- imputing it to have been decreel by Sarah. Pastors try to defend it by saying as God had advised Abraham to listen what Sarah says- in all that Sarah hath said unto thee hearken unto her voice (Genesis 21:12) and so, the order of Sarah can be taken as scriptural ordinance - is the contention of Church. As regards to this we have explained in diverse forms, in our earlier arguments. 2. Further he (Paul) suggests to be proud as they were not the sons of bondwoman but of free. Thus Paul contradicted Jesus' suggestions in favour of Ishmael. Where does he come from? He comes from Arabia. We have an information as follows: given by Paul which he extracted from scriptures as he begins saying as "For it is written..."
for this Hagar [mother of Ishmael] is mount Sinai in Arabia. -Galatians 4:25 What would be the privilege of the rejected stone?
The same is become the head of the corner [the universal prophet]. This is the Lord's doing...
-Matthew 21:42
Thus in clear terms Jesus affirmed that the universal prophet would come from the progeny of Ishmael who would become the head of the corner. He comes from Arabia, which is the nation where Ishmaelites predominated.
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Isaiah had prophesied in another place as follows:
All ye inhabitants of the world and dwellers on the earth see ye, when he lifteth up an ensign on the mountains: and when he bloweth a trumpet hear ye. -Isaiah 18:3 It is said about the one who would give his message to all the world; while Jesus was sent for Israelites only. Let us examine another prophecy which deals with the advent of a prophet for all nations:
Prophet Mohammad is salvation for all nations The Lord hath made bare his holy arm in the eyes of all the nations; and all the ends of the earth shall see the salvation of our God. -Isaiah 52:10 This prophecy also speaks of the universal prophet by saying "and all the ends of the earth shall see the salvatin of our God". 'Salvation' is a religious terminology connotes to mean"to save a man from committing sin and from the evil consequences thereof". Thus the whole earth shall see the salvation means a universal prophet would be appointed as a saviour of the world. In this regard Jesus himself corroborates with our point of view by prophesying as -
A. And when he is come he will reprove the world of sin and of righteousness and of judgment. -John 16:8 B. And I say unto you, That many shall come from the east and west, and shall sit down with Abraham and Isaac and Jacob in the kingdom of heaven. But the children of the kingdom shall be cast out into outer darkness: there shall be weeping and gnashing of the teeth. -Matthew 8:11-12
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C. There shall be weeping and gnashing of teeth, when ye shall see Abraham and Isaac and Jacob and all the prophets in the kingdom of God, and you yourselves thrust out. And they shall come from the east and from the west and from the north, and from the south and shall sit down in the kingdom of God. -Luke 13:28-29 From the foregoing three prophecies by Jesus it is made clear that the universal prophet was to come after him. Further he stresses on the point that the universal prophet's followers would sit along with Abraham, Isaac and Jacob and with all other prophets in the kingdom of God. They come from the four corners of the earth as he was the prophet appointed for all the nations. He clearly prophesied that those who do not follow him would be cast out into outer darkness. This can be taken as the interpretation of the following verse of the original prophecy which reads as follows:
And it shall come to pass that whosoever will not hearken unto my words which he shall speak in my name I will require of him. -Deuteronomy 18:19 And the same thing is corroborated in the Book of Acts under the following verse.
And it shall come to pass that every soul, which will not hear that prophet, shall be destroyed from among the people. -Acts 3:23 The more important point that can be taken from Jesus' above prophecy under Ref. Matthew 8:11-12 is that the people belonging to both the houses of Israel (ie) [many of] Israelites and Christians would not believe that universal prophet but reject him, the requittal for this is that they would be rejected by God which point can be noticed from-
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But the children of kingdom shall be cast out into outer darkness: There shall be weeping and gnashing of teeth. -Matthew 8:12 In no way this prophecy can be applicable to Jesus as he was a prophet, only to the community of Israel while the prophecy is about the universal prophet1.
All ye inhabitants of the world, and dwellers on the earth see ye, when he lifteth up an ensign on the mountains; and when he bloweth a trumpet hear ye. -Isaiah 18:3 ZION
In those days, and in that time, saith the Lord, the children of Israel shall come and the children of Judah together, going and weeping they shall go and seek the Lord their God. They shall ask the way to zion with their faces witherward saying, come, and let us join ourselves to the Lord in a perpetual covenant that shall not be forgotten. My people have been lost sheep: their shepherds have caused them to go astray, they have turned them away on the mountains: they have gone from mountain to hill, they have forgotten their resting place. jermiah 50:4-6
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Zion: Now let us discuss about zion The prophecy speaks about... In those days, and in that time which is to mean as saying- 'in the days and times after the advent of the universal prophet'. Further it is recorded God to have said in the prophecy, that the children of Israel and the children of Judah- 'Shall come and go weeping'. In the above clause of the prophecy two communities have been mentioned who would weep. Let us know about the two communities as mentioned in the prophecy before knowing the cause for their weeping. One of the two communities is the children of Israel means all Jews. And the another community is the children of Judah. Here differentiating children of Judah from the children of Israel appears to be incorrect. Because the twelve tribes of Israel includes the children of Judah also1. So it is not 'children of Judah' but the another house of Israel (ie) Christians. This point can be seen from another prophecy where the mention of saying as 'both the houses of Israel'(Isaiah 8:14). Thus the Jews from all the twelve tribes of Israelites who did not believe in Jesus remained as one house, and the Jews who believed in Jesus2 and later became as Christians are the second house of Israel. In our former pages we have discussed the parable of vineyard as recorded in St. Matthew under Ref: 21:33-45. It is also incorporated in the St. Luke under Ref: 20:9-19. Here what important to note is that the Church tries to defend saying that what Jesus had reiterated in the above passage is that 'God shall come and destroy these husbandmen' the allegory stands signifying the Israelites and therefore in no way it applies to Christians. And on the other hand it claims that having Jesus clearly said that God shall give the vineyard to others- it exclusively applies to Christians. They further say 'the others' of this clause simbolically stands for Christians. Thus the interpretation made by us may be rejected. In this regard our humble reply is that we too accept this objection if Jesus had preached a religion of his own under the style of 'Christianity'. What the fact is that he came as a reformer of the Judaism. We have proved this point in our former pages. Therefore the places of worship and the book of law and main tenets of religion all were one and the same except the reformations made for both the reformed Jews and the Jews who did not accept the reforma-
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tions. The followers of Jesus lived only as reformed tribe of Jews. They never formed as a thirteenth new tribe but remained in their former tribes only to which they belonged to and came from. Therefore they altogether lived as one community (Jews) except Jews calling them as Nazarenes as an identification as the followers of Jesus' reformations. It is a fact that in early periods of Jesus' teachings Jews thought him to be a heretic person who was creating disorder in their religion and hence they attempted to kill him. But after Jesus' departure his mission won a significant place in society by the ceaseless propagation of his twelve appostles and other disciples. Thus they occupied majority number in synagoguesthe common places of worship for the two houses of Israelites. The Jews who persecuted them in the early period when they were in minority, began to live cooperatively in harmony and preferred tolerance to oppression. '...unto which promise our twelve tribes instantly serving God...' Acts 26:5-8. Thus they lived as two houses of Jewdaism. After a period of 2-3 decades gradually breaches were caused in their community and a separate religion by name Christianity came into being under the leadership of Paul. Churches as places of worship were established and Gospels were wtritten to be read in the Churches. Thus these two houses of Israel are 1. Jews that did not believe in Jesus and 2. Jews that believed on Jesus1 but later became Christians. To know more about, please read our another book under the title 'The Profile of Paul'. Now let us turn up to our arguments. Therefore it may be noted that those 'come and go' weeping are not really the children of Israel and children of Judah as recorded in the passage, but it exactly means to say as the children of Israel (Jews twelve tribes) and the Christians. They come and go weeping- why? This is because the spiritual inheritance has been taken away from them and the advent of the universal prophet took place from the Ishmaelites as promised to Abraham. These two houses of Israel were under strong belief that the universal prophet would rise from their own community (ie) from the progeny of Isaac1. Jesus clearly said this fact in the parable of vineyard:
He [God] shall come and destroy these husbandmen [Israelites] and shall give the vineyard to others. And when they heard it, they said, God forbid. And he [Jesus] beheld them, and said, what is this then that is written, the stone which the builders rejected, the same is become the head of the corner? -Luke 20:16-17
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This is to mean as saying- 'the person and his birth place whom you rejected, the same would become the head of the corner'. This is to say in clear terms that his person and place where he lived would be given high priority in religious aspect as they (Jews) would be proved unfit to be firm on religious rudiments as enjoined upon them. And the another clause of the prophecy under discussion (Jermiah 50:4-6) speaks that- "they shall go and seek Lord their God." This is to mean as saying that many of them believe on God taking that the universal prophet was sent by Him. Here a question may be raised that the prophecy says, "They shall seek the Lord God" which is to mean all the people belonging to the two houses of Israel, while our exposition says "many of them". For this our humble answer is that Jesus was sent for all the Israelites. Did all of them believe? no, some of them believed and some of them did not. This is the case with our present arguments too. 'They shall seek the way to Zion... come let us join ourselves to the Lord in a perpatual covenant that shall not be forgotten'. This part of the prophecy speaks of the place where from the advent of the Universal prophet takes place- the place is known as the House of God (EL-Bethel). In those days and in that time, both the houses of Israel shall ask the way to zion, speaks explicitly that it (ZION) was not figurative of Jerusalem as some explain, but quite another, as these two houses (Jews and Christians) were well aware with Jerusalem as they had been regular worshippers in it (Jerusalem), and as such there remains no meaning in searching for zion if it were really corresponds to Jerusalem as is the speculation of many Christians. . More over Jews had no other temple as the place of worship than the Temple of Jerusalem. This point is further accepted by the clauses 'they shall ask the way to zion' and "they have forgotten their resting place". This point further proves that the zion was existent which they neglected out of envy. It is not the temple of Jerusalem but it is the House of God which was built by Abraham even before Jerusalam. In this regard we have a good reference in the gospel of John 4:20-21 which shows Jesus to have said...
The woman saith unto him, sir, I perceive that thou art a prophet. Our fathers worshipped in this mountain; and ye say that in Jerusalem is the place where men ought to worship. Jesus saith unto her, woman, believe me, the hour cometh when ye shall neither in this mountain nor yet at Jerusalem worship the father. -John 4:20-21
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The above dialogue of the Samaritan woman and Jesus clearly underlines on the fact that the place of worship with its excellency changes from temple of Jerusalem to some other place. The same point has been prophesied by the prophet Haggai.
And I will shake all nations and the desire of all nations shall come; and I will fill this house with glory saith the Lord of hosts. The silver is mine and the gold is mine saith the Lord of hosts. The glory of this latter house shall be greater than of the former, saith the Lord of hosts: and in this place I will give peace saith the Lord of hosts. -Haggai 2:7-9 What God prefers to call 'latter house' in this prophecy by Haggai, was actually built by Abraham (ie) (EL-Bethel [zion]) which was the former house. But in fact Jerusalam was built latter. So it is the latter house but not former as proclaimed in the prophecy. It is indeed paradoxical as it appears to be. The mystery can be disclosed if we ponder over the fact that God prefers to call it as latter, because it had lost its former glory as'They have forgotten their resting place' and it was filled with the idols. As now God was going to restore its glory back at the hands of the Universal Prophet, above the glory of latter house, God named this 'former house' as the 'latter house'. It is the will of God as the change of the status has begun by saying- 'silver is mine and the gold is mine' which stresses on the exclusive will of God where there is no means of interference of any other in God's decrees. This logic leads to conclude that the 'former house' is called latter and vice versa. This is one explanation regarding the calling of 'former house' as 'latter house'. And another explanation is, the prophet- Mohammed used to face towards latter house while in prayer. But when he received commandment of God to change his direction of face towards former house, he and his disciples turned the direction of face towards former house. Thus the former house became latter house. And accordingly in the proph-
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ecy of Haggai it is said 'The glory of this latter house shall be greater than the former house'. Both explanations are correct in case of latter house1. Thus it is made clear in the prophecy of Haggai that the latter house of God will be filled with glory of God which will be greater than the glory of former house. This will be done in the time of the Universal prophet as prophecy clearly says 'I will shake all nations' and "the desire of all
nations" Haggai 2:7 which point makes it clear that it was prophesied about the Universal prophet's advent and his place of whorship (House of God). We know that, prophet Jesus was only for the Israelitic nation but not for all nations.
...and come let us join ourselves to the Lord in a perpetual covenant that shall not be forgotten. This is another clause of the prophecy under discussion Jermiah 50:4-6. Let us discuss about this also. "a perpetual covenant that shall not be forgotten" means the law which will be for all nations lasts for ever and ever. For the clarification of the above point please take note of the following:
For it is written that Abraham had two sons, the one by bondmaid the other by a freewoman... for these are two covenants; the one from the mount Sinai. -Galatians 4:22-24 From the above, the 'covenant' means the law. The one covenant (law) was given to Moses on mount Sinai. Mount Sinai is in Arabia...
For this Hagar is mount Sinai in Arabia. -Galatians 4:25 This speaks very clearly that Arabia is the place whereat Moses was given law and so also, the second law also was to come from Arabia. This is one more resemblance of that prophet who was promised to be
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sent, at the time of giving law to Moses on Mount Sinai in Arabia, 'a prophet like unto thee will I raise from your brethren -Deuteronomy 18:18'. This prophecy has been discussed here and there in our previous arguments which all provide a comprehensive exposition on the prophecy. If the second law was also given, it goes to mean, after that lawgiving prophet, no other prophet ever comes until the end of the world. Thus he is the Universal prophet who was to come from Hagar's lineage as promised to Abraham (Genesis 12:1-3). In spite of clear prophecies why people were confounded and confused in recognizing the Universal prophet-God Himself provides the reason in the prophecy, Jermiah 50:4-6.
My people have been lost sheep: their shepherds have caused them to go astray, they have turned them away on the mountains; they have gone from mountain to hill, they have forgotten their resting place.
[Note: This trend is still continuing among the religious heads of all groups from all religious communities.] In the above verse it is explained that how the two houses of Israel had been strayed. Another prophecy- Isaiah 60:14-16
The sons also of them that afflicted thee shall come bending unto thee; and all they that despised thee shall bow themselves down at the soles of thy feet; and they shall call thee the city of the Lord, The Zion of the Holy one of Israel. Whereas thou hast been forsaken and hated, so that no man went through thee, I will make thee an eternal excellency, a joy of many generations. Thou shalt also suck the milk of the Gentiles and shall suck the breast of kings: and thou shalt know that I the Lord am thy saviour and thy redeemer, the mighty one of Jacob. -Isaiah 60:14-16
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In the above prophecy we have three verses. Let us examine the first verse:
The sons also of them that afflicted shall come bending unto thee; and they that despised thee shall bow themselves down at the soles of thy feet; and they shall call thee, The city of the Lord, The Zion of the Holy One of Israel.
The sons also of them that afflicted shall come bending unto thee: Who were the sons that had afflicted? They were the sons (progeny) of Ishmael the first son of Abraham who settled in Arabia. They afflicted means they were real worshippers of the God of Abraham and Ishmael and Isaac in the beginning. How had they afflicted? They were keeping the house of God as pure as it was in the beginning without any polytheistic activities entertained therein. But later on as the years passed by they gradually inclined towards polytheism and began to fill the House of God, with so many idols whom they worshipped. Thus they afflicted the House of God.
And they that despised thee shall bow themselves down at the soles of thy feet: Who were these that despised the House of God? These were the sons (progeny) of Isaac the second son of Abraham, who were latter called by the name Israelites. They reverred the House of God in the beginning but later on they despised. To show that they had reverence towards it in the beginning no documentary evidence is necessary as the verse says... 'They that despised thee...' Having no love and affection towards it in the beginning the question of despising does not come at all. This is how please examine the following example:
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Example: He divorced. The word divorce within itself includes the act of taking one as a legal wife under matrimonial ceremonies. If there is no solemnizing of marriage, the question of divorce does not come. So also they despised the House of God means in the beginning they were in good attachment of reverence as the House of God.
And they shall call thee the city of the Lord, The Zion of the Holy One of Israel When do they call it the city of the Lord, the Zion of the Holy One? In the land of Arabia the Arabs, the progeny of Ishmael was in majority as polytheists and the second place was occupied by both Israelites and Christians. There was no question of Gentiles but with exception of very few. And they shall call thee the city of the Lord, (whom?) The Zion of the Holy one of Israel- we are discussing about the city which had been afflicted and despised. From our arguments it can be disclosed that it is the city of Paran. God says 'They call thee the city of the Lord, the ZION of the Holy one of Israel'. This point makes clear that the Paraan is the city of God the symbolic name of which is ZION wherefrom the advent of the Holy one was to take place. The recognition as made above would come after the advent of the universal prophet and after his victory over the Arab nation. All people of the Macca except a few accepted the universal prophet and began to follow his guidance. The people of Macca who revolted against the universal prophet Mohammad, in the beginning, when he came out victorious, they with their own hands removed all idols from Zion and cleansed it from polytheistic practices. This act is described by God saying as 'whereas thou hast been forsaken and hated so that no man went through thee, I will make thee an eternal excellency a joy of many generations'. This goes to mean as saying that as it has been restored by the hands of the universal prophet its excellency lasts eternally. How the Arabs were defeated- the following prophetic passage speaks in clear terms:
The burden upon Arabia in the forest in Arabia shall ye lodge O ye travelling companies of Dedanim.
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The inhabitants of the land of Tema brought water to him that was thirsty, they prevented with their bread him that fled. For they fled from the swords, from the drawn sword and from the bent bow, and from the grievousness of the war. For thus hath the Lord said unto me within a year according to the years of an hireling and all the glory of Kedar shall fail: And the residue of the number of Archers the mighty men of Kedar shall be diminished: for the Lord God of Israel hath spoken it. -Isaiah 21:13-17 The above prophecy speaks that how the Arabs (Quraish) who tried to kill prophet Muhmmad were utterly defeated. When they tried to kll him, he escaped from there giving them the slip and migrated to Madina where he was welcomed by its people. There he could form some group of people who helped him in launching counter attacks to the Arabs - the enemy who invaded on Madina also. Thus the Arabs attempted to attack the prophet and his followers with man power which was three times more, so as to make an end of the prophet and his followers and thus to uproot his mission. But prophet Mohammed and his followers gave them counter attacks all the times so much so the enemy was defeated and surrendered while many had lost their lives. We have a corresponding affirmation by Jesus which reads as follows.
Jesus saith unto them, did ye never read in the scriptures, the stone which the builders rejected the same is become the head of the corner: this is the Lord's doing and it is marvellous in our eyes? Therefore say I unto you, the kingdom of God shall be taken from you and given to a nation bringing forth the fruits thereof. And whosoever shall fall on this stone shall be broken: but on whomsoever it shall fall, it will grind him to powder.
Matthew 21:42-44
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Now let us examine the last verse of the prophecy under discussionIsaiah 60:14-16
Thou shall also suck the milk of the Gentiles and shall suck the breast of kings: and thou shalt know that I the Lord am thy saviour and their redeemer the mighty one of Jacob. This verse corresponds to the advent of the universal prophet. Until the advent of the universal prophet the glory of the God's House in Zion was confined to the house of Abraham (ie) both Ishmaelites and Israelites. But they profaned its glory as explained by us in our former pages. After the advent of the universal prophet the glory of God's House became common to all people of the world. This is what the clauses- 'Thou shalt suck the milk of the gentiles' and 'shall suck the breast of kings' of Isaiah 60:16 and this is how the glory of latter house shall be greater than the former and this is the place where one can get peace asing to Haggai 2:9. accordZion
is the place where God dwells
The Lord also shall roar out of Zion and utter his voice from Jerusalem: and the heavens and the earth shall shake but the Lord will be the hope of his people and the strength of the children of Israel. So shall ye know that I am the Lord your God dwelling in Zion my Holy mountain: Then Jerusalem be holy and there shall no strangers pass through her any more. And it shall come to pass in that day that the mountains shall drop down new wine and the hills shall flow with milk and all the rivers of Judah shall flow with waters and a fountain shall come forth of the house of the Lord and shall water the valley of shittim -Joel 3:16-18
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Let us take some important clauses from the above prophecy: 'The Lord also shall roar out of Zion' from these words'roar out of Zion' may be taken as figurative to mean as 'out of Zion law shall come forth'. Just as--
A. For a law shall proceed from me
-Isaiah 51:4
B. ...from his right hand went a fiery law for them -Deuteronomy 33:2 C. For out of Zion shall go forth the law... -Isaiah 2:3 D. For the law shall go forth out of Zion... -Micah 4:2 E. The place where God dwells [House of God] is Zion... -Joel 3:17 F. ...The Lord of hosts which dwelleth in mount ZION-Isaiah 8:18
Zion is known as the place where The House of God exists A fountain shall come forth of the house of the Lord: Now let us see where from the fountain came.
And God heard the voice of the lad [Ishmael]; and the angel of God called to Hagar out of heaven and said unto her what aileth thee Hagar? fear not: for God hath heard the voice of the lad where he is. Arise lift up the lad and hold him in thine hand for I will make him a great nation. And God opened her eyes and she saw a well of water; and she went and filled the bottle with water and gave the lad drink. And God was with the lad and he grew and dwelt in the wilderness and became an archer. And he dwelt in the wilderness of Paran and his mother took him a wife out of the land of Egypt. -Genesis 21:17-21
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The above passage which provides prophetic message has been discussed in our previous pages. In the above passage a well of water1 was found by Hagar after her eyes were opened by God. Whereas a fountain of water was created by God for the lad and the mother. Our readers have found so many articulations of the Church, as have been pointed out by us in throughout our arguments. Were it really a well of water, in the wilderness, in the well, water gathers at the deep of the bottom of well. To draw the water from there it would have been another problem for Hagar. Unless she could get about 20 meters of rope and a bucket it could not have been possible for her to draw the water from the well. But as soon as she found it, she filled the bottle with water. This goes to mean, it was not a well of water but a fountain of water wherefrom the water has been gushing forth ever since to this day. That place is called Paran. From the passage under discussion it can be noticed that the place wherefrom a fountain comes forth- is the House of Lord. Therefore Paran can be termed as the House of God and also the city of God.1
God came from Teman and the Holy one from mount Paran. Selah. His glory covered the heavens and the earth was full of his praise. And his brightness was as the light, he had horns coming out of his hand and there was the hiding of his power. Before him went the pestilence and burning coals went forth at his feet. He stood and measured the earth: he beheld and drove asunder the nations and the everlasting mountains were scattered, the perpetual hills did bow; his ways are everlasting. I saw the tents of cushan in affliction: and the curtains of the land of Midian did tremble. -Habakukk 3:3-7 The first verse of the passage speaks of two persons (viz) (1) God came from Teman and (2) The holy One from mount Paran. Thus the God and the Holy one- two persons are obvious. The first clause of the first verse speaks about God who came from Teman (or South)1. However as this is a prophecy it should have been written only in future tense. Then therefore the second clause makes it clear that somebody who is called Holy One was to come from mount Paran. Now the question is that who was it that had to come from mount paran. The answer for this we can see from the following:
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And she went, sat her down over against him a good way off, as it were a bow shot, for she said, let me not see the death of the child, and she sat over against him and lift up her voice and wept. And God heard the voice of the lad; and the angel of God called to Hagar out of heaven and said unto her what aileth thee Hagar? fear not: for God hath heard the voice of the lad where he is. Arise lift up the lad and hold him in thine hand : for I will make him a great nation. And God opened her eyes and she saw a well of water and she went and filled the bottle with water and gave the lad drink. And God was with the lad; and he grew and dwelt in the wilderness and became an archer. Paran: and his mother took And he dwelt in wilderness of Paran him a wife out of the land of Egypt. -Genesis 21:16-21 And God opened her eyes and she saw a well...
a. ...and a fountain shall come forth of the House of Lord -Joel 3:18 b. There is a river, the streams thereof shall make glad of the city of God... -Psalm 46:4 From the above passage it is learnt that Ishmael the first son of Abraham and his mother Hagar were the only two persons who dwelt in Paran1. They dwelt there under the mercy of God who miraculously provided fountain of water and sustenance. And it was a wilderness and so there was no inhabitation of man. But as the fountain began to flow water ceaslessly (till this day) the area became fertile and gradually people began to come and dwell there. Ishmael lived there not for a month or two but (probably) the whole term of life. The follwing verse discloses these facts.
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And God was with the lad; and he grew and dwelt in the wilderness of Paran and his mother took him a wife out of the land of Egypt. -Genesis 21:21 Thus the place became a city and acquired a spiritual significance too the reasons thereof have not been clearly mentioned in the Bible. However the following verses speak about its spiritual propminence. (It was called) ...El-Paran -Genesis 14:6 El- is ancient word for God. And therefore it can be interpreted as 'Paran of God'.
So Jacob came to Luz which is in the land of Canaan that is Beth-el he and all the people that were with him. And he built there an altar and called the place El- Bethel: because there appeared unto him... -Genesis 35:6-7 In the above passage we have a word El - Bethel. Here El is the prefix before Hebrew nouns just as 'the' in English; Beth means house and 'el' represents to Lord God. Therefore the complete 'El - Bethel' means 'the house of God'. In the same way El-Paran is to mean as saying 'Paran of God'. Here is another prophecy:
...they shall call thee, the city of the Lord, the Zion of the Holy One of Israel
-Isaiah 60:14
In the earlier prophecy (Habakukk 3:3-7) the name of the place wherefrom the Holy one was to appear is mentioned as mount Paran. And in this prophecy (Isaiah 60:14) it is said that the Zion belongs to Holy One. So Zion of the Holy One, can be termed as the place known as Paran wherefrom the Holy One was to come. Therefore ZION may be taken as a spiritual description or tittle of Paran. And it is the city of God (Isaiah 60:14). Therefore PARAN is the place where the house of God is existing which is called ZION the city of the Holy One.
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Thus the mount Paran wherefrom God shone (Deuteronomy 33:2) and wherefrom the Holy One was to come was one and the same place which was called Zion. Therefore mount Paran is figuratively called Zion. This point most reasonably agree that Zion is the mount Paran and vice versa. We have another point which proves that the mount of Lord is the place where the only son of Abraham had been offered in sacrifice (Genesis 22:14). We have argued profusely and proved that Ishmael was the only son of Abraham who was given in sacrifice. So the area where Ishmael lived was known as mount of Lord.
...and he shined forth from mount Paran Paran... -Deuteronomy 33:2 ...and the Holy One (came) from mount Paran Paran... -Habakukk 3:3 Thus the place where Ishmael dwelt accumulated great spiritual significance. -Genesis 21:21 And this Paran is a wilderness region of Sinaitic peninsula- which is the region of Arabia. So this can be well- established that Paran is the place that exists in Arabia.
This point can be proved from the following For this Hagar is mount Sinai in Arabia... -Galatians 4:25 Two covenants (laws) were to come - one from the lineage of Sarah which was fulfilled on mount Sinai - and the other through the lineage of Hagar- Ishmaelites (Galatians 4:23-25). Sinai is the place where the Israelites were given law (Exodus 19:1). Keeping these points in mind read the above clause (Galatians 4:25): This is to mean- just as mount Sinai (is an important place for Israelites to receive the law [from the lineage of Sarah]) so also Arabia is an important place to receive the law from the lineage of Hagar. Thus in clear terms that the second law as promised (Deuteronomy 18:18) was to come from Arabia. This is what exactly expounded by 'For this Hagar is mount Sinai in Arabia...' .
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Thus from the progenitor (Ishmael son of Abraham by Hagar) the Holy One, the universal prophet was to come from Arabia, the Paran. Now let us go back to the prophecy under discussion- Habakukk 3:3-7. The third and fourth verses of the prophecy make mention of the high reputation and the privilege given to the Holy One which has been described as here under.
His glory covered the heavens and the earth was full of his praise. And his brightness was as the light: he had horns coming out of his hand and there was the hiding of his power. (3,4) The fourth verse is full of metaphoric description. The first clause says 'his brightness was as the light' which may be taken to mean as 'his way of preaching was as the guidance'. Here we must know that the guidance can be obtained by means of law. This is what the clause 'he had horns comig out of his hand' means to explain as. So it can be interpreted that he gives the law and his teachings work as guidance. As regards to this we have a reference 'from his riht hand went a fiery law for them' (Deuteronomy 33:2). And the second clause 'and there was the hiding of his power'. This goes to mean that he had his power hidden under leadership over his ferocious disciples- 'he came with ten thousands of saints' (Deuteronomy 33:2), which point is further attested by Jesus himself in the parable of Vineyard saying-
Therefore say I unto you, the kingdom of God shall be taken from you, and given to a nation bringing forth the fruits thereof. And whosoever shall fall on this stone shall be broken: but on whomsoever it shall fall it will grind him to powder. -Matthew 21:43-44 Before him went the pestilence and burning coals went forth at his feet: He stood and measured the earth: he beheld and drove asunder the nations and the everlasting mountains were scattered, the perpetual hills did bow, his ways are everlasting. I saw the tents of cushan in affliction: and the curtains of the land of Midian did tremble (5,6,7)
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All these verses speak that how ferociously does the Holy one make wars to repel the enemy that invaded upon his group of believers. And this was attested by Jesus himself in the parable of vineyard.
And whosoever shall fall on this stone shall be broken: but on whomsower it shall fall it will grind him to powder. Further we have an affirmative statement as made by Jesus in the Gospel John 16:8.
And when he is come he will reprove the world of sin and of rightousness and of judgment Another prophecy:
And there was given him dominion and glory and kingdom that all people, nations, and languages, should serve him: his dominion is an everlasting dominion which shall not pass away and his kingdom that which shall not be destroyed. -Daniel 7:14 And there was given him dominion and glory and a kingdom that all people, nations, and languages, should serve him: This means the prophet who was to come would have dominion and glory bestowed which speaks of his high privilege.
a kingdom that all people, nations, and languages should serve him' This symbolizes for his being the universal
prophet. 'His dominion is an everlasting dominion which shall not pass away and his kingdom that shall not be destroyed'.- This is to mean as saying that the law- dominion and kingdom what would be given to him endure till the end of the world as he was the Universal prophet and after him no prophet would come.
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Jesus confirms the above fact:
And I will pray the father and he shall give you another comforter that he may abide with you for ever. -John 14:16 The above prophetic passage explains that there was to come another prophet. And after him no other prophet ever comes. This is true because it is represented by the word "another" which stands for singular person. And he was to come after Jesus only because Jesus himself prays for his advent (I will pray the Father). This rules out all claims of the church which are made in favour of Jesus in attributing the prophecies made relating to the Universal prophet. "...his dominion is an everlasting dominion which Shall not pass away and his kingdom shall not be destroyed"- is affirmed by Jesus saying- "and I will pray the Father and he shall give you another comforter that he may abide with you for ever". From the above arguments it is made clear that this prophet would be for all men of all nations and languages. But Jesus was for Hebrew speaking people (Israelites) only as a regional prophet. And moreover he was not given any kingdom while the Universal prophet had his own kingdom which will endure upto the end of the world. And hence this prophecy in no way can be applicable to Jesus. Kingdom here meansTheocracy, where the prophet acts as viceroy for the devine rule. In this, the law given through scripture should be in rule. This was established by the prophet Mohammad the Universal prophet which endures till the end of the world; This is one more similarity that prophet Mohammad had so as to compare him with prophet Moses while Jesus asked his disciples to pray that the kingdom of God (Theocracy) might come. In other words he and his disciples prayed for the advent of the Universal prophet. This point evidently proves that Jesus can in no way be the promised prophet. Prophet Mohammad the Universal prophet was compared with the prophet Moses (...I will raise them up a prophet from among their brethren like unto thee -Deuteronomy 18:18). Prophet Moses was given law and the theocracy was in rule in his times (Exodus 19:3-6) which continued till upto the last days of his successor Joshua (Joshua 1:18). Israel rejected Theocracy and preferred to be ruled by a king (I Samuel 8:4-9). Thus the kingdom of God (Theocracy) turned into the kingdoms of people.
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Then said Pilate unto them, take ye him and judge him according to your law... -John 18:31 Verses such as these can be seen here and there in the gospels. These are only after thought development of the Church to justify that theocracy was prevalent in the time of Jesus- so as to make people believe that there was no need of awaiting for a prophet who would establish theocracy. Thus to impress that all the prophecies were accomplished by the manifestation of Jesus himself. If it were true that why again Jesus asked his disciples to pray for the Theocracy to come (Luke 11:2)? Does it not prove that it was not theocracy which was prevalent in the times of Jesus? Then should it not to be restituted according to the prophecies?
Theocracy had to be restored: A. And many people shall go and say, come ye, and let us go up to the mountain of the Lord, to the House of the God of Jacob; and he will teach us of his ways, and we will walk in his paths: for out of Zion shall go forth the law and the word of the Lord from Jerusalem. And he shall judge among the nations and shall rebuke many people. -Isaiah 2:3-4 The prophecy made by Isaiah has been corroborated in verbatim by the prophecy of prophet Micah.
B. And many nations shall come and say, come let us go up to the mountain of the Lord, and to the House of the God of Jacob: and he will teach us of his ways and we will walk in his paths; for the law shall go forth of Zion and the word of the Lord from Jerusalem. And he shall judge among many people and rebuke strong nations afar off...
-Micah 4:2-3
C. And whereas they commanded to leave the stump of the tree roots: thy kingdom shall be sure unto thee after that thou shalt have known that the heavens do rule. -Daniel 4:26
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NB:- Heavens do rule means theocracy would be prevalent D. Then the moon shall be confounded and the sun ashamed: when the Lord of hosts shall reign in mount Zion and in Jerusalem and before his ancients gloriously. -Isaiah 24:23
Comes out of Zion: E. The Lord shall send the rod of thy strength out of Zion: rule thou in the midst of thine enemies. -Psalm 110:2 F. The Lord shall reign for ever, even thy God, O Zion, unto all generations: praise ye the Lord. -Psalm 146:10 G. Let Israel rejoice in him that made him: Let the children of Zion be joyful in their king. -Psalm 149:2 H. For unto us a child is born, unto us a son is given: and the Government shall be upon his shoulders: and his name shall be called wonderful, counsellor, The mighty God, the ever lasting Father the prince of peace. Of the increase of his Government and peace there shall be no end, upon the throne of David, and upon his kingdom, to order it, and to establish it with judgment and with justice from henceforth even for ever. The Zeal of the Lord of hosts will perform this. -Isaiah 9:6-7 In the above we have quoted references from the Bible which all go to establish our view point that Jesus was not the promised Universal prophet. He was to come from Abraham's first son's posterity by Hagar (ie) Ishmael- the race of Ishmaelites. The following points focuss more light on our points: ...for out of Zion shall go forth the law and the word of the Lord from Jerusalem. And he shall judge among the nations and shall rebuke many people. These are the last two clauses of the passage under Ref: Isaiah 2:3-4 (under point. A)
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From the first clause it is clear that the promised law giving prophet was to come from Zion. In our previous arguments it is made clear that this Zion is the symbolic name for Paran, Arabia; which in no way can be imputed to Jerusalem since it has been differentiated by saying the word (promise) was to come from it and law from Zion. Here two points must be noted. Jesus who was of Jerusalem did not give law but he was only an annotator of the then existing law, while the person that was to come from Zion was to give law. The same prophecy has been quoted in verbatim in Micah 4:2-3 as mentioned in our point (B) In our point (C) under Daniel 4:26- '...that the heavens do rule' which is to interpret that the Theocracy would be re-established. Jesus prays that ''Theocracy" to come. Therefore it is evidently proved that the person under whose dominion, the kingdom of God (Theocracy) becomes prevalent is not Jesus, but one that comes from Zion, Arabia. And the point (D) admits that the Theocracy would be established in mount Zion- and the further words, make clear that the Theocracy thus established by the Universal prophet who was to appear from Zion would take hold his dominance over Jerusalem and some other nations too (the Lord of hosts shall reign in mount Zion and in Jerusalem and before his ancestors gloriously). This is the reason why in the Bible in some places Jerusalem is said as 'captive daughter of Zion1 'and' daughter of Zion2 Above E, F, G points have been discussed in our coming pages under sub heading the 'kingdom of God was to restore yet' in page 253259. Now let us discuss point (H) under Reference Isaiah. 9:6-7 In this prophecy some specific epithets of the one who was to come have been described, such as... 1. For unto us a child is born, unto us a son is given: 2. and the Government shall be upon his shoulders 3. and his name shall be called wonderful, counsellor, 4. the mighty God, the everlasting Father, the prince of peace.
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5. of the increase of his Government and peace there shall be no end 6. upon the throne of David and upon his kingdom to order it and to establish it with judgment and with justice from hanceforth ever and ever. 7. The Zeal of the Lord of hosts will perform this. 1. The first point speaks about the privilege given to the child. If there is /are no some abnormal characterestic nature/natures in the child, no need comes as to specifically saying as 'For unto us a child is born' and 'unto us a son is given'. Christian theologians hold the birth of Jesus from a virgin's womb as the highest privilege which is attributed to the point (4) above [and his name shall be called] the mighty God, the everlasting Father, the prince of peace. Thus divinity is ascribed to the person of Jesus, son of the virgin.
Therefore the Lord himself shall give you a sign: Behold, a virgin shall conceive, and bear a son, and shall call his name Immanuel.
-Isaiah 7:14
How much more the church beats its breast shouting, Jesus is... the mighty God, the everlasting Father, the prince of peace, the above prophecy of Isaiah basing on which they founded the incarnation theory of Jesus, dampens as it says 'the Lord himself give you- a sign'. Thus Jesus was only a SIGN1 but not divine incarnation in human flesh. Another question is, whether the sign came of its own self or given by Lord? Prophecy makes it clear that it was given by Lord himself. Here what understood is, God did not come of himself as a sign, as is proclaimed by church but He sent the sign. What is the sign? A virgin conceives and brings forth a child. This speaks of high privilege... to whom? To the child who was conceived of or to the virgin who conceived? To whom does/ do the credit of exaltation go? Whether to virgin mother or the child conceived of a virgin? Had the child himself been manifested as a sign then the credit goes to him. But what evident is that he was sent. This implies to mean that there was some one who sent him- and who else could it had been other than God Almighty? And had the virgin conceived of her own self the credit goes to the virgin mother. But in this phenomenon neither child nor the virgin had any part. Depriving both from accredited privilege, the sign stands as a mark of capability of God in doing whatever He likes to bring about, where the child and virgin mother were only instrumental in bringing about the sign.
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If one insists to attribute Jesus the divinity merely because he was born to a virgin, the virgin mother (Mary) is also having the equal share and status in conceiving in her virginity. In spite of all these facts, if Jesus is given the status of divinity; the mother should also have the same right of being awarded the divinity. But she openly proclaimed that she was a handmaid of God (Luke 1:38). If one partner is a servant the other also must be a servant but not God.
Let us examine another relevant point. And behold thou shalt conceive in thy womb and bring forth a son and shalt call his name Jesus -Luke 1:31 According to prophecy Isaiah 7:14 child's name is Immanuel. The meaning of Immanuel is according to the prophecy of Matthew 1:23 in his own words- 'and they shall call his name Emmanuel which being interpreted is, God with us' (Matthew 1:23). We can see the difference in names with its interpretations in the above two prophecies. According to the first- the name is 'Immanuel' to mean 'God with us' and second 'Jesus' which is to mean 'saviour'. Thus the variance between the names with its meanings- of the two prophecies is vivid. There is another relevant proclamation by St. Luke which speaks about the birth of the child.
For unto you is born this day in the city of David, a saviour which is christ the Lord. -Luke 2:11 Unlike the former two prophecies this passage presents a peculiar system of the birth of the child.
'For unto you is born this day in the city of David a saviour which is christ the Lord'. In clear terms it is to mean as saying that christ who is Lord by himself and a saviour, was born that day in the city of David. Thus in this passage God himself is directly born from the womb of a virgin. In this way divinity is awarded to Jesus.
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And again the following passage contradicts the above points.
He shall be great and shall be called the son of the Highest; and the Lord God shall give unto him the throne of his father David; And he shall reign over the house of Jacob for ever and of his kingdom there shall be no end. -Luke 1:32-33 Unlike the former passage, this prophecy speaks of him only as a son of the Highest. In the former passages we learnt that he was an incarnation of God. Thus the SIGN which was to be given to the people has no decisive epithet as to what he is- whether God, Incarnation of God or son of God. But the prophecy Isaiah 9:6-7 presents decisively the following epithets in the person, who was going to appear. '...and his name shall be called (1) wonderful (2) counsellor (3) the mighty God (4) the everlasting Father (5) prince of peace'. Now let us examine the epithets as stated, one by one, whether they can be attributed to the person of Jesus or to the person of promised Universal prophet Mohammad.
1. WONDERFUL: The Church tries to attribute this epithet to Jesus taking his miraculous birth. No doubt that having been conceived of a virgin it can be regarded as a wonderful thing. As regards to the privilege, that should go to the person, in events such as these, we have explained that the privilege goes neither to the mother virgin who conceived nor to the child conceived of from the womb of a virgin; but it purely expresses the capability of God in performing the things whatever he likes to do. If at all church tries to establish divinity to Jesus merely basing on this point, Adam deserves higher right of claiming divinity as he was the person who came into existence without parents.
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Whom does the title wonderful attract? Jesus' birth was a miraculous one- this is a greater privilege than any other. He did a number of such miracles as none ever had done (John 12:37). Basing on these points, Church has founded the Doctrine of Jesus' divinity. We can find Jesus to have spoken on one occasion 'All power is given unto me in heaven and in earth' (Matthew 28:18). Inspite of all these supernatural advantages, he could not restore the kingdom of God on earth- and on the other hand he prayed and asked his disciples to pray that the kingdom of God might come. This is another point which deprives the claim of church that Jesus himself is the prophet like Moses under Reference Deuteronomy 18:18. Moses established the kingdom of God and as it had been vanished it was to be restored by the prophet like Moses. Jesus could not restore but prayed and asked his disciples to pray for it. This makes clear that Jesus cannot be a prophet like Moses. Thus the claim of Church is refuted. The distinguisting characteristics of one who was to appear in the likeness of Moses should give- 1. Law and 2. establish the kingdom of God (Theocracy), while Jesus did not give law and on the other hand prayed for the theocracy that it might come. The following passages disclose this fact
He did not give law but followed the Moses' law. A. For the law was given by Moses, but grace and truth came by Jesus Christ
-John 1:17
B. Think not that I am come to destroy the law or the prophets: I am not come to destroy, but to fulfil. -Matthew 5:17
Jesus prayed for theocracy to come. A. And he said unto them, when ye pray, say our Father which art in heaven, Hallowed be thy name. Thy kingdom come. Thy will be done as in heaven so in earth. -Luke 11:2
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B. Thy kingdom come. Thy will be done in earth, as it is in heaven. -Matthew 6:10 C. But seek ye first the kingdom of God... -Matthew 6:33 From the above references it became clear that the kingdom of God was not prevalent in the days of Jesus and he prayed that it should come. This explicitly proves that Jesus was not the person who had established the kingdom of God which was to be restored.
The kingdom of God was to restore yet: A. Then the moon shall be confounded and the sun ashamed, when the Lord of hosts shall reign in mount Zion and in Jerusalem and before his ancients gloriously. -Isaiah 24:23 B. The Lord shall send the rod of thy strength out of Zion: rule thou in the midst of thine enemeis. -Psalm 110:2 C. The Lord shall reign for ever, even thy God, O Zion unto all generations. praise ye the Lord.
-Psalm 146:10
(also...) D. Let Israel rejoice in him that made him: Let the children of Zion be joyful in their king -Psalm 149:2 E. How beutiful... are the feet of him... that saith unto ZION thy God reigneth. -Isaiah 52:7 F. And they shall call thee, the city of the Lord the ZION of the Holy one of Israel -Isaiah 60:14 From the above references it can be known that the kingdom of God was to be restored... (the Lord of hosts shall reign in mount Zion). And
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was to come with power (the Lord shall send the rod of thy strength). And it shall remain for ever and ever. (The Lord shall reign for ever even thy God ,O Zion unto all generations). All the above references show that it was to come from Zion. From our former pages we came to know that Zion is a symbolic name for Arabia. Therefore it clearly speaks that a universal prophet was to come from Arabia who would establish the kingdom of God with all his might which 'shall be in rule for all generations'. Moses was a prophet under whose supervision and care the kingdom of God was prevalent. After its decline it was not restored upto the time of Jesus. Even Jesus could not restore it as the universal prophet was appointed for this purpose and hence Jesus himself prayed for its restoration1. And so it was to be restored after Jesus, a sure testimony that the promised universal prophet was to come only after Jesus. After Jesus no prophet ever came who proclaimed that he was the prophet like Moses (ie) who should give law and restore the divine rule on the earth. I do not think that it is necessary to place before the readers all these axiomatic historical evidences. Thus prophet Mohammad of Arabia the descendent from the lineage of Ishmael became the head of the kingdom of God on earth. This goes to prove that all the characteristics as made mention in the prophecy of Isaiah 9:6-7 unequivocally applicable to prophet Mohammad.
For unto us a child is born unto us a son is given: and the Government shall be upon his shoulders: and his name shall be called wonderful, counsellor, the mighty God, the everlasting Father the prince of peace. Of the increase of his Government and peace there shall be no end, upon the throne of David and upon his kingdom, to order it, and to establish it with judgment and justice from henceforth even for ever. The Zeal of the Lord of hosts will perform this. -Isaiah 9:6-7 Prophet Mohammad was a posthumous son of Abdullah and while he was yet a child of six years age his mother Bibi Amina died. Thus he became an orphan who could establish the kingdom of God on earth.
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Prophet Moses established the kingdom of God and it was lost. And therefore it was to be restored. All these points we have discussed in our previous pages. As according to the prophecy made to Moses that God would raise a prophet like himself (Moses), there was a prophet to come after him... (from their brethren). In this prophecy the comparison between the two prophets- Moses and the one like unto him chiefly rests on two important features (viz). 1. Giving of law and 2. establishing of the kingdom of God. These two features should be accomplished by one that resembles prophet Moses (...like unto thee). We have learnt that Jesus was a prophet who gave no law nor could he establish the kingdom of God on earth but had been curiously praying God that His kingdom might come which point proves that the prophet like Moses would come only after Jesus. And accordingly prophet Mohammad could restore the kingdom of God. In spite of his being a helpless orphan, poor, and illiterate (Qur'an 7:157) and with enemies all around he could convey the oneness of God among some of his people. Here I do not like to write the historical events relating to his defensive wars etc. which took place during his lifetime. Those that are interested to know may refer the history of 'The prophet Mohammad'. However, with his handful of disciples he came out successful from his battles and established the kingdom of God which is the main reason to describe him- as WONDERFUL1. And the government was on his shoulders- and thus he was a counsellor in all state affairs. And in the kingdom of God there prevails all peace and hence he was called 'The prince of peace'. Then, therefore all these epithets 'wonderful, counsellor, prince of peace' unequivocally can be attributed to the person of 'The universal prophet - Mohammad', but in no way can be awarded to the person of Jesus. Jesus is known to have never claimed to be a king. The following arguments make this point vivid. The main accusation of Jews on Jesus was that he claimed himself to be the king of Jews. And this was the cause why in his interrogation the Governor asked Jesus whether he was the king of Jews.
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These facts can be conceived from the following passages-
a. When the morning was come all the chief priests and elders of the people took counsel against Jesus to put him to death: And when they had bound him, they led him away, and delivered him to Pontius Pilate the Governor.
-Matthew 27:1-2
b. And Jesus stood before the Governor; and the Governor asked him saying, Art thou the king of the Jews? And Jesus said unto him: Thou sayest. -Matthew 27:11 Thus Jesus denied to have said that he was a king of Jews. To counteract this defence statement, the prosecution might have produced a number of witnesses against Jesus whom the Governor might have cross - examined. But prosecution could not produce any proof. And so the Governor, ultimately found Jesus to be innocent. So he determined to release him. This point has been attested by the Gospel writer.
For he (Governor) knew that for envy they had delivered him -Matthew 27:18 And all these points have been explained in nutshell in one verse by John the Gospel writer. We read:
And from thenceforth Pilate sought to release him: but the Jews cried out saying If thou let this man go thou art not caesar's friend: whosoever maketh himself a king speaketh against Caesar. -John 19:12 From these arguments what we primarily want to establish the fact is that Jesus had never claimed to be a king.
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Jesus says in clear terms-
Jesus answered My kingdom is not of this world: if my kingdom were of this world, then would my servants fight that I should not be delivered to the Jews: but now is my kingdom not from hence. -John 18:36 All these points make clear that Jesus never had the Kingdom so as to establish the Theocracy wherein he was to act as a counsellor in all his state affairs. And without Theocracy there can be no peace, a general rule of 'heavens do rule'. Thus he is deprived of the claim of the prince of peace too. Now there remain two titles awarded to that prophet which also need to be discussed.
1. His name shall be called - 'The mighty God' 2. His name shall be called - 'The everlasting Father' What does the kingdom of God stand for? Jesus makes it clear-
Thy kingdom come. Thy will be done in earth, as it is in heaven -Matthew 6:10 And again Daniel makes it clear that the kingdom of God means... the heavens do rule (Daniel 4:26). Here heavens figuratively mean for God. Thus God does rule. Kingdom of God is the exact meaning which can be substituted for 'God rules'. Kingdom means an area of place which is under one's reign. Of God means the kingdom which is under the reign of God. Therefore in the term of Theocracy prophet who acts as a viceroy of God, can be regarded as the ruler of the kingdom of God, and therefore it is figuratively said of him as-
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1. His name shall be called 'The mighty God' 2. His name shall be called 'The everlasting Father'. This is said about one who establishes the Theocracy. Jesus could not establish the Theocracy but prayed for it. Therfore these two terms in no way can be attributed to Jesus1. These titles are only in the figurative sense but not in literal sense as God Himself makes clear that there is none like unto Himself.
1. How then can man be justified with God? or how can he be clean that is born of a woman? -Job 25:4
NOTE: Here one must know that Jesus was also born of a woman. Had the above statement were to read as how can he (man) be clean "that is born by a man?" instead of 'born of a woman' Church could have twisted and say that Jesus had been ex empted from above disqualification as he was born of a virgin without a biological father (man). [how can he be clean that is born of a woman?]
2. For who in the heaven can be compared unto the Lord? Who among the sons of the mighty can be likened unto the Lord? -Psalm 89:6 3. To whom will ye liken me, and make me equal, and compare me, that we may be alike? -Isaiah 46:5 4. To whom then will ye liken me or shall I be equal? saith the Holy one -Isaiah 40:25
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Now we have to examine the second half of the prophecy which reads as here under.
Of the increase of his government and peace there shall be no end, upon the throne of David and upon his kingdom, to order it, and to establish it with judgment and with justice from hence forth even for ever. The Zeal of the Lord of hosts will perform this.
-Isaiah 9:7
The Zeal of the Lord of hosts will perform this... 1. Upon the throne of David and upon his kingdom to order it and to establish it with judgment and with justice from henceforth for ever. This is to mean as saying that his kingdom means Arabia and upon the throne of David means Palestine. Thus he establishes his kingdom of God both at Arabia and Palestine which lasts for ever and ever. It is a known fact that Jesus never ascended the throne of David (Palestine). But in 300 AD, when the Roman emperor became Christian it can be treated as though Jesus became the ruler of Palestine which lasted upto 600 AD upto the rise of Islam. Then Muslims captured Jerusalem and their rule over it lasted upto 1947. Thus the Christian rule lasted for 300 years only while the Muslim rule over Palestine 1350 years. But 1900-2000 AD, Jews intruded in Palestine and occuied 5-10% of the Palestine upto 1945 AD. But from 1947-2000AD they gradually occupied more than 75% of its land. Thus Muslims lost their rule over Palestine. Temporary lapse of Muslim rule for about 60 years (This is written in the year 2009 AD.) cannot overrule the word of God which said 'that it lasts even for ever'. Rise and fall of kingdoms are not constant and permanent. But the word of God never fails. So it can be accepted that his government
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upon the throne of David and upon his kingdom "to order it and to establish with judgment and with justice from henceforth even for ever" to have been fulfilled in the person of the universal prophet Mohammad. Now let us examine the last point of the prophecy...(Isaiah 9:7)
The Zeal of the Lord of hosts will perform this... Before we proceed ahead, let us consider what Jesus has to say on the above verse of Isaiah 9:7 prior to his annotation on this subject... Jesus begins with an enquiry "Did ye never read in the scriptures? ... So this point tells us that what he was going to explain about, had been incorporated in the scriptures. So let us examine the scriptures first.
a. The stone which the builders refused is become the head stone of the corner. This is the Lords doig; it is marvellous in our eyes.
Psalm 118:22-23
B. Therefore thus saith the Lord God, Behold, I lay in Zion for a foundation a stone, a tried stone, a precious corner stone, a sure foundation: he that believeth shall not make haste. -Isaiah 28:16 After thus enquiring he now proceeds to explain what he read in the scriptures"... the stone which the builders rejected the same is become the head of the corner: this is the Lord's doing and it is marvellous in our eyes" Matthew 21:42. This is what is meant by the last clause of Isaiah 9:7 "The Zeal of the Lord of hosts will perform this..."
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Now he explains the consequences thereof:
Therefore say I unto you, the kingdom of God shall be taken from you, and given to a nation bringing forth the fruits thereof. And whosoever shall fall on this stone shall be broken but on whomsoever it shall fall, it will grind him to powder. -Matthew 21:43-44
1. The Kingdom of God shall be taken from you- (Matthew 21:43) 2. The glory of the former House declines- (Haggai 2:7-9) 3. The glory of the latter House shall be greater- (Haggai 2:7-9) QIBLA The above three points mean as saying that people would not worship God at Jerusalem. To be frank God can be worshipped at anywhere. A temple for the worship of God can be built at anywhere- wherein nearby people assemble to render their prayers. Such temples can be seen in thousands in number all over the world. Then what does Jesus mean particularly saying as, the people do not worship in Jerusalem and the place of worship is changed to some other Temple? (John 4:19-21) And what did Haggai mean in prophesying affirmatively even before Jesus' advent saying as 'The glory of this latter house shall be greater than of the former?'(Haggai 2:7-9)1 We are discussing about the Temple of Jerusalem which was built by Solomon (I kings 9:3). People nearby generally assemble in the Temple and worship God. But those who are far away from it worship turning their faces towards Jerusalem Temple2. And the temples built for worship had been constructed in such a way the faces of the devotees therein, remain turned towards Jerusalem. Thus it was treated as the chief Temple of God (House of God) towards which every worshipper keeps his direction of face while in prayer. This direction is known as Qibla in Arabic language. So long as the new cammandment to turn towards the latter house came people used to keep their faces towards it while in worship (prayer). We have a reference to this which reads as follows.
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a. Now when Daniel knew that the writing was signed, he went into his house and his windows being open in his chamber toward Jerusalem he kneeled upon his kneels three times a day and prayed and gave thanks before his God as he did aforetime. -Daniel 6:10 b. But as for me, I will come into thy house in the multitude of thy mercy: and in thy fear will I worship toward thy holy temple. -Psalm 5:7 These verses particularly focus upon the point of keeping one's face towards the Holy temple. The Muslims under the leadership of prophet Mohammed used to turn their faces towards the Temple in Jerusalem, as they believed it as the House of God built by Solomon. Arabs the progeny of Abraham by Hagar through Ishmael had been slipped into the practice of polythiestic activities and filled the Kaba Temple with statues. But when prophet Mohammad happened to present among them, he realized the fact that the Temple of Jerusalem to be the then God's House towards which they should turn their direction of face while in prayer and accordingly they were following. But as according to the above prophecies God Almighty commanded, Mohammed the Universal prophet to change the Qibla (direction) and accordingly they all turned their faces towards the latter house of God while they were in prayers. But some people began to wonder as to what made them change their Qibla. In this regard God Himself provides answer for them in Qur'an which reads as follows.
a. The foolish among the people will say: What has turned them away from their Qibla which they followed? Say 'To Allah belong the East and the West. He guides whom He pleases to the right path.'
-Qur'an 2:142
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b. ...for they shall see eye to eye, when the LORD SHALL BRING AGAIN ZION. -Isaiah 52:8 c. FOR I WILL RESTORE HEALTH UNTO THEE, and I will heal thee of thy wounds saith the Lord; because they called thee an outcast saying this is Zion, whom no man seeketh after. -Jermiah 30:17 The remark of some people as stated in Qur'an 'what has turned them away from their Qibla which they followed?' virtually brings out two facts Viz. 1. In the beginning Muslims turned their faces towards the direction of Temple of Jerusalem and it was their first Qibla and 2. They turned towards another House of God and it is their second Qibla. This is what exactly meant by the prophecy of Haggai 2:9 'The glory of this latter house shall be greater than of the former, saith the Lord of hosts, and in this place give I peace saith the Lord of hosts'. This infers the fact that there was already existing a House of God which had been neglected but Muslims resumed to maintain its former status. PROPHECY Psalm 84:4-7
Surely the first House founded for mankind is that at Bacca [Macca] abounding in blessings and a guidance for all peoples. -Qur'an 3:96 From the above passage we can understand that Bacca was the first name of the place where a sanctuary (Tebernacle) of God was founded. It is now called Macca. We have a corresponding narration by David1 in his Psalms
Blessed are they that dwell in thy House: They will be still praising thee. Selah (4) Blessed is the man whose strength is in thee in whose heart are the ways of them. (5)
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Who passing through the valley of Baca make it a well the rain also filleth the pools (6) They go from stregth to strength every one of them in Zion appeareth before God. (7) -Psalm 84:4-7 As regards to the House of God. As regards to the House of God I would like to quote some Qur'anic verses and some corresponding verses from Bible showing how they agree with the points as mentioned in relevant verses of Qur'an.
The first House (of worship) appointed for mankind was at Bakkah full of blessings and guidance for mankind. -Qur'an 3:96 Some points which are to be considered
1. The first House (of worship). 2. For mankind. 3. The place (territory/city etc) in which it is situated. 4. Salient features: Full of blessings and guidance. 1. The first House goes to mean as saying that there was no such House as this prior to it (For the progeny of Abraham both Israelities and Ishmaelities). In this connection Qur'an agrees with our point of view. a. 'And remember the time when We assigned to Abraham the site of the House... -Qur'an 22:26 From the above we understand that the place where the House of God was to be constructed by Abraham was assigned to him. This clearly
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speaks that there was no House of God existing there.
b. And remember the time when Abraham and Ishmael raised the foundation of the House... -Qur'an 2:127 The above verse brings out the fact that there was no trace of its being existent which altogether establish the fact that it was not a rennovation of old House but new construction. The assignment of its place where it was to be constructed (22:26) and raising the construction from its foundation (2:127): these two points are self sufficient to prove that the House of God was constructed by Abraham and prior to this that there was no House as such. But some Muslim Theologians opine that this House had been existent right from the time of Adam which point Qur'an refutes by the above two verses.
2. For Mankind: This is to say that unlike Jerusalem temple which was only for Israelites (Jews), this House of God is meant for all mankind. This implies to mean that it would be resumed by the universal prophet. The rites to be performed as commanded by God would come into operation (or practice) from his period onwards. 3. The place: Where does it exist? As mentioned in Qur'an we can identify its existing place as Bakka. It is the name of Makka in ancient times. This point can be proved by the support of coming arguments. Surely the first House founded for mankind is that at Becca (The valley of Mecca) abounding in blessings and a guidance for all peoples. -Qur'an 3:96 Blessed are they that dwell in thy House They will be still praising thee. Blessed is the man whose strength is in thee: in whose heart are the ways of them, who passing through the
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valley of Baca make it a well the rain also filleth the pools .They go from stregth to strength every one of them in Zion appeareth before God.
-Psalm 84:4-7
The verse of the above passage 'Blessed is the man in whose heart are the ways of them who passing through the valley of Baca... (means) passing through valley of Baca... (what for-? the telugu version makes it clear stating as 'for pilgrimage'). As stated in the qur'anic verse 3:96 it is admitted in Psalm 84:4-7 that the House of God is at Bakka (or Baca) former name for Makkah and is full of blessings - and its symbolic name is Zion (Psalm 84:4-7). So this speaks about pilgrimage in the valley of Baca. This valley of Bakka (present Makka) of Qur'an and valley of Baca of Bible are one and the same. According to King JamesVersion (old) the verse (5) reads ...in whose heart are the ways of them... while the same version by The title "the Open Bible" states as- ...whose heart is set on pilgrimage. Thus it admits pilgrimage to ZION.
4. Salient features of: Now let us examine this prophecy (Psalm 84:4-7) in detail.
And proclaim the pilgrimage among men: they will come to thee on foot and mounted on every kind of camel lean on account of journeys through deep and distant mountain highways. -Qur'an 22:27 Blessed are they that dwell in thy House: They will be still praising thee. Selah (4) Blessed is the man whose strength is in thee: in whose heart are the ways of them. (5) [whose heart is set on pilgrimage] Who passing through the valley of Baca make it a well; the rain also filleth the pools (6)
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They go from stregth to strength every one of them in Zion appeareth before God. (7) -Psalm 84:4-7 In the above prophetic passage of Bible, David prophesies about the people who go on pilgrimage to the valley of Baca which is represented by name Zion. Therefore ZION is Baca and vice versa under the verse (6) above. Baca of Bible can be well attributed to Bakka of Qur'an (3:96). The main point of the passage Psalm 84:4-7 is about the pilgrimage to the House of God. And the passage describes that the pilgrims who pass through the valley of Baca- every one of them appears in Zion which ultimately goes to mean that the House of God where pilgrims meet is figuratively called as Zion which is situated in the valley of Baca (Bakka). One may object saying that the prophecy of pilgrimage is meant to the Temple of Jerusalem only but not the Temple which is in the valley of Baca called as Zion. What we should know here is that Zion is not Jerusalem but a temple situated in the valley of Baca. Here one should note that the pilgrimage which was going to be appointed as an obligatory rite was prophesied by David. By that time the Jerusalem Temple was not yet built. Therefore it does not in any way attract to the temple of Jerusalem while the House of God which was called figuratively ZION was already constructed by Abraham at the valley of Baca which was termed as the first House of God (Qur'an 3:96). Moreover God ordered Abraham to proclaim the pilgrimage to mankind. Thus we read:
And proclaim unto mankind the pilgrimage. They will come to thee on foot and on every lean camel coming by every distant track. -Qur'an 22:27 And Abraham planted a grove in Beer-sheba (Paran) and called there on the name of the Lord the everlasting God -Genesis 21:33
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In this verse there was the command of pilgrimage and it applies only to the House of God constructed by Abraham but not Jerusalem since it was not yet built. Moreover none of the terms of the prophecy can be attributed to Jerusalam. Thus the objection is ruled out. In this regard we have a prophecy by the prophet Jeremiah
For out of the north there cometh up a nation against her, which shall make their land desolate, and none shall dwell therein: they shall remove they shall depart, both man and beast (3) In those days, and in that time, saith the Lord, the children of Israel shall come, they and the children of Judah together, going and weeping: they shall go and seek the Lord their God.(4) They shall ask the way to Zion with their faces thitherward saying, come, and let us join ourselves to the Lord in a perpetual covenant that shall not be forgotten. (5) My people hath been lost sheep: their shepherds have caused them to go astray, they have turned them away on the mountains: they have gone from mountain to hill, they have forgotten their resting place (6) -Jeremiah 50:3-6 The above prophecy has been discussed in our earlier pages. Yet we want to focus on the necessary points relevant to the present arguments. Please take note on the followingAs according to Jermiah 50 verse 3 a nation that comes from North is the nation of Arab1 under the leadership of prophet Mohammed: and remaining part of the verse speaks about their bravery which has been attested by prophet Jesus under the vineyard parable (Matthew 21:4344)
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As per verse 4- children of Israel and Christians would go seeking the Lord their God. As per verse 5- in continuation of the above verse they ask the way to Zion. 'They seek'- the act of seeking a thing comes only when it is deserted to the extent that its location goes out of the memory of the people. The verses 4 and 5 speak that they seek the Lord God and the way to Zion. This explains that Zion is the place where God dwells meaning the House of God which has been appointed for the pilgrimage...' Blessed are they that dwell in thy house: they will be still praising thee. Blessed is the man whose strength is in thee: in whose heart are the ways of them [that go on pilgrimage], who passing through the valley of Baca [Becca, the ancient name for Mekka] make it a well; the rain also filleth the pools [This is a simile for great multitude of people that go on pilgrimage]. They go from strength to strength every one of them in Zion appear before God. [Thus the pilgrims passing through the valley of Baca appear before God in Zion- Thus the symbolic name for House of God is Zion, which is in the valley of Baca] (Psalm 84:4-7). Now let us go back to our passage under discussion wherein God explains the reason for the desertion of His first House. We read in the last verse of the passage. "My people hath been lost sheep: their shepherds have caused them to go astray they have turned them away on the mountains: they have gone from mountain to hill they have forgotten their resting place"
N.B: This verse speaks openly that the leaders - (shepherds) have intentionally led the people astray. Jeremiah 50:3-6. Thus the last verse of the passage clearly describes Zion to be the resting place.
a. And remember the time when we made the House a resort for mankind and a place of security: and take ye the station of Abraham as a place of prayer. And we commanded Abraham and Ishmael saying 'purify my House for those who perform the circuit and those who remain therein for devotion and those who bow down and fall prostrate in prayer'. -Qur'an 2:125
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b. And by this town of security...
-Qur'an 95:3
c. City of peace -Qur'an 2:126 ... and in this place will I give peace... -Haggai 2;9 d. perform the circuit: walk about Zion, and go round about her... -Psalm 48:12 ... and keep My House clean for those who perform the circuits... -Qur'an 22:26 e. The place of sacrifice:
...The place of sacrifice is at the ancient House. -Qur'an 22:33 ...bring an offering and come into his courts. -Psalm 96:8
Significance of ZION 1. Sing O heavens; and be joyful, O earth: and break forth into singing, O mountains: for the Lord hath comforted his people and will have mercy upon his afflicted. But Zion said, The Lord hath forsaken me, and my Lord hath forgotten me. Can a woman forget her sucking child, that she should not have compassion on the son of her womb? Yea, they may forget, yet will I not forget thee. Behold, I have graven thee upon the palms of my hands: thy walls are continually before me. Thy children shall make haste; thy destroyers and they that made thee waste shall go forth of thee. -Isaiah 49:13-17 2. Therefore thus saith the Lord God, Behold, I lay in Zion for a foundation a stone, a tried stone a precious corner stone, a sure foundation: he that believeth shall not make haste. -Isaiah 28:16
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3. The sons also of them that afflicted thee shall come bending unto thee; and all they that despised thee shall bow themselves down at the soles of thy feet; and they shall call thee, The city of the Lord, The Zion of the Holy one of Israel. -Isaiah 60:14 4. So shall ye know that I am the lord your God dwelling in Zion my holy mountain; then shall Jerusalem be holy and there shall no strangers pass through her any more. -Joel 3:17 5. Then the moon shall be confounded, and the sun ashamed, when the Lord of hosts shall reign in mount Zion, and in Jerusalem and before his ancients gloriously. -Isaiah 24:23 6. How beautiful upon the mountains are the feet of him that bringeth good tidings that publisheth peace that bringeth good tidings of good, that publisheth salvation; that saith unto Zion, Thy God reigneth! -Isaiah 52:7 7. The Lord shall reign for ever even thy God, O Zion unto all generations. praise ye the Lord. -Psalm 146:10 According to first passage, ZION is said to have been lamenting as it had been forsaken and forgotten. So God gives glad tidings to ZION saying to it that though they (people) had forgotten it that He would confer His favour and shower His compassion as much as that a suckling mother loves its child. This shows that ZION is a very dear place to God. According to second passage God says that a precious corner stone a tried stone is laid as a foundation stone in ZION. As regards to this Jesus says- 'Did you never read in the scriptures, the stone which the builders rejected the same is become the head of the corner: this is the Lord's doing and it is marvellous in our eyes? Therefore say I unto you
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the Kingdom of God shall be taken from you and given to a nation bringing forth the fruits thereof- And whosoever shall fall on this stone shall be broken: but on whomsoever it shall fall, it will grind him to powder (Matthew 21:42-43). And further Jesus explained the period of the manifestation of the corner stone which would take place only after his departure vide the parable of vineyard (Matthew 21:33-40). Therefore under this reference it is evident that the corner stone would appear only after the departure of Jesus and hence Jesus was in no way be the corner stone as the Church speculates. Corner stone is a figurative epithet of universal prophet to uphold his significance as an universal and last prophet whose law and theocracy established by him continue till the end of the world. David also proclaimed in Psalm 118:22 saying that - 'The stone which the builders refused is become the head stone of the corner'. He is a prophet as important in the prophetic office of all divine prophets as the corner stone is to the building. In the passage No. 3 God assures that ZION would be called as the city of God the ZION of holy one of Israel. In this passage it can be understood that ZION is both the place occupied by God's House (sanctuary) and the city where God's House is situated. The Zion of holy one means the native place of the Holy one. Holy one of Israel means since this prophecy was addressed to the community of Israel a stress is made to imply 'just as he is Holy to others so also to you too'. Under the passage No. 4- God says that ZION is His dwelling place. Hence ZION is the House of God. As regards to Jerusalem it is implied that it would become holy, only when the former glory of Zion is restituted. In the passage 5- God prophesies that Theocracy would be established in ZION and also in Jerusalem which indicates the fact that the universal prophet after establishing in Zion, Jerusalem would also be joined under Theocracy of ZION.
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Passages 6 and 7 also speak of the Theocracy in Zion which will continue endlessly. Let us recollect once again
a. ... that saith unto ZION, thy God reigneth. -Isaiah 52:7 b. ...send the rod of thy strength out of ZION. -Psalm 110:2 c. The Lord shall reign for ever, even thy God O ZION unto all generations -Psalm 146:10 d. The Lord of hosts shall reign in mount ZION -Isaiah 24:23 e. Let the children of ZION be joyful in their king -Psalm 149:2 Theocracy means Government of God. It does not mean that God Himself directly descends on the earth to rule it but He appoints His prophet as viceroy who rules according to the instructions provided by God through the Holy Spirit. Theocracy was prevalent under the prophet Moses (Exodus 19:3-6) which was continued under Joshua (Joshua 1:18). But Israel rejected it and preferred to be ruled by kings (I Samuel 8:49). We have no trace of Theocracy until the time of Jesus. And more curious fact is that Jesus himself prayed and ordred his disciples to pray that it might come, (Matthew 6:10; Luke 11:2). And the above passages speak of the promises of its establishment in Zion. Therefore it had to be founded in Zion- thus it was to be restored again. From the foregoing points it became evident that ZION has been given a significant high reputation in religious field. Now we have to identify the exact region in which it is located. It is a known fact that the names of places (cities or towns) generally get changed for political, regional or religious and linguistic reasons. For example Burmah as Mayanmar; Madras as Chennai, Ceylone as Srilanka etc. After some centuries, if anybody happens to come accros the respective old names in any of the Geographical or historical books of old times it becomes too impossible to identify the said old names of centuries past in the then existing new globes or maps. Example: Mesopotamia = Iraq, Becca = Makkah
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ZION is a symbolic name stands for Paran. If anybody disagree with this, he should accept that one more law (ie) two laws had to come after Moses (ie) one from mount Paran (Arabia from Hagar's lineage Galatians 4:25) and another from ZION as according to Isaiah 2:3; Micah 4:2 and Isaiah 51:4. As regards to Paran we have the following prophecies. Deuteronomy 18:18 and other such passages as speak that there was a law to come. Therefore contrary to this in no way can it be admitted that two laws were to come. Therefore it is imperative to believe that the Zion and Paran as one and the same place. As regards to Paran we have the following prophecies-
a. ... he shined forth from mount Paran... -Deuteronomy 33:2 b. ...and the Holy one from mount Paran. -Habakkuk 3:3 c. El-Paran - Paran of God - Genesis 14:6 (El-Paran which is by the wilderness) d. Ishmael dwelt in the wilderness of Paran -Genesis 21:21 Now let us examine some verses so as to trace out in which region Paran is located. El- is an ancient word for God. And it is also used as a prefix before nouns of Hebrew words just as 'the' before English nouns. Example:
1. El-Paran which is by the wilderness (Genesis 14:6). When Hagar was exiled with her child Ishmael she wandered in the wilderness of Beer-sheba. It was the former title of the place which latter grew into a city, called Paran. It is by the wilderness. So Beer-sheba and El-Paran which was by the wilderness can be taken as one and the same name referring to El-Paran. So ElParan means Paran of God (Genesis 21:14-21).
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2. Wilderness of Paran- '...and pitched in the wilderness of Paran'. -Numbers 12:16 3. And Moses by the commandment of the Lord sent them from the wilderness of Paran: -Numbers 13:3 4. ...unto the wilderness of Paran... -Numbers 13:26 5. -. the cloud rested in the wilderness of Paran -Numbers 10:12 6. He shined forth from mount Paran. -Deuteronomy 33:2 7. and the Holy one from mount Paran -Habakkuk 3:3 8. ...And David arose and went down to the wilderness of Paran. -I Samuel 25:1 Last three points emphasise the significance of Mount Paran where Hagar and Ishmael lived (Genesis 21:21) The mount in which the only son of Abraham was spontaneously to be given in sacrifice falls only within the area of 8-9 K.M. distance from Beer-sheba (Paran). Hence it is called the mount of the Lord.
And Abraham called the name of that place Jehovah - Jireh: as it is said to this day; in the mount of the Lord it shall be seen -Genesis 22:14 That place is called Mina which is 8-9 KM north of Macca where Muslims observe the tradition of sacrifice in commemoration of Abraham's offering of his only son, Ishmael as one of the important rites to be celebrated in the pilgrimage Hajj. Christian Theologians outright reject saying that the place where the only son of Abraham was given in sacrifice was not Mina of Arabia. But it was called Jehovah - Jireh: as it is said to this day, in the mount of the
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Lord it shall be seen in Canaan. Mina is only 8-9 KM while it took three days of journey for Abraham to reach that place. Hence in no way Mina can be taken as the place of sacrifice. on hearing the commandment of God-
And Abraham rose up early in the morning and saddled his ass and took two of his young men with him and Isaac his son and clave the wood for burnt offering and rose up and went unto place of which God had told him. Then on the third day Abraham lifted up his eyes and saw the place afar off -Genesis 22:3-4
1. Abraham rose up early in the morning and started his journey towards the place where he was to give his son in sacrifice. 2. On the third day Abraham lifted up his eyes and saw the place afar off. Note: The cursory reading of these two points gives rise of misconception that the journey took three days. This makes clear that the place where he offered his son in sacrifice must be above 40 KMs from Paran. In our arguments it can be noticed that Beer-sheba was called Paran (Genesis 21:14,21) where from the place, where actually he was to offer his only son in sacrifice to God, falls within just 8-9 KMs of distance. So it may be taken for granted that what Muslims call Mina was called JehovaJireh in Christian scripture. So according to church it is not the place known as Mina which is just 8-9 KMs from Paran but it must be some other place which must be more than 50-60 KMs distance from Paran. Thus the Church tries to rule out our claim. We do admit that the journey made for three days under any circumstances cannot be less than 60 KMs as logically proclaimed by the Church.
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Now let us observe: The first day morning Abraham rose up early in the morning. Before starting on his journey he might have attended to the call of nature and took bath and had break fast. The same case with his other men too who accompanied him. He prepared his only son to accompany him on his journey. All this process might have taken at least four hours. Thus his journey was begun not immediately after he was risen from his bed early in the morning but might have been started at about 10.00 A.M. And on the third day he reached to the place where from he could see the place from far off, where actually he was to offer his only son in sacrifice to God. On the third day he saw the place from far off. So this must be the time - far before sunset so it must be no more than 4PM. Abraham said to his men 'stay here while I and the son go and offer our prayers and come to you again' (Genesis 22:5).
And they came to the place which God had told him of: and Abraham built an altar there and laid the wood in order and bound Isaac his son and laid him on the altar upon the wood. -Genesis 22:9 And Abraham stretched forth his hand and took the knife to slay his son. But the angel forbids him, not to do any harm to the son. On lifting up his head he found a ram whom he sacrificed. And the second time again a voice was heard saying, the lord well pleased with his obedience and blessed him- We knew when he reached to the place, wherefrom he could see the actual place of sacrifice from far off, the time must be far before the sunset: (ie) it must be only about 4 in the evening. The process of going to the place and building of altar and laying the wood on altar and binding his son and his preparedness to sacrifice his son and the appearing of the angel to forbid his son's sacrifice and finding a ram and giving him in the sacrifice in the stead of his son and again God's blessings and then coming back to the place where he left his men- all
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this process consumes at least 4 hours. Thus 4PM (-) 4 hours makes 12 noon. Thus the time when they came to that place on third day was 12 noon or a little before. Thus the actual journey which took, was not three days but only two days. Because the first day they started journey at about 10 AM and reached the place by before 12 noon of the third day. Thus the actual period of their journey can be taken only as two days. As it was the wilderness, journey after sunset was not possible and so they might have camped in any safe places and took their rest. Thus out of their three days' journey only two days'- two day time journeys (ie) 12+12 hours journey can be taken for granted. Thus it makes their actual journey for one day only out of three days journey as made mention in the Bible. Further there were four people (Viz) 1. Abraham 2. his son 3. two men who were following the poor ass which was loaded with wood necessary for the burnt offering and 3 days provision and other luggage such as beds and pillows etc. necessary in the journey, and the animal was being followed by these four people. The important point that must be taken in to consideration is the little boy who was among them could in no way possibly be able to walk equally along with the elderly people. Even if it is taken for granted that he might have been accomodated on the ass- the continuous journey was not so easy in hot sun even if the wilderness be taken as full of trees and bushes. Can any man continuously walk for 12+12 hours without attending to the call of nature and food and rest? All these inevitable necessities further curtail the actual hours of journey. Thus it can be 12/2 +12/2 = only 12 hours. Thus this can be said as an authentic calculation that the three days of journey be fixed only as a 1/2 day (12 hour) journey. An ass heavily loaded cannot journey more than 8-9 KMs for 12 hours. Thus it is proved beyond doubt that it was Mina which is 8-9 KM from Paran (Makka) where the only son of Abraham was taken to be offered in sacrifice the place where Muslim pilgrims offer their sacrifices in commemoration of Abraham's sacrifice.
BETHEL And Abraham called the name of that place Jeho vah - Jireh: as it is said to this day in the mount of the Lord it shall be seen -Genesis 22:14 Bethel: Where is it situated? It is not in the land of Canaan. Then where is it acrually located at?
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On the commandment of God, Abraham left his native land and started his journey towards the land which was promised by God. We read from the following
A. Now the Lord had said unto Abraham, get thee out of thy country and from thy kindred and from thy father's house unto a land that I shew thee: -Genesis 12:1 B. So Abraham departed, as the Lord had spoken unto him: and lot went with him: and Abraham was seventy and five years old when he departed out of Haran. -Genesis 12:4 C. And Abraham took Sarah his wife and Lot his brother's son and all their substance that they had gathered and the sowls that they had gotten in Haran: and they went forth to go into the land of Canaan; and into the land of Canaan they came. Genesis 12:5 [One should not mistake that they had already entered into the land of Canaan [They went forth to go into the land of Canaan: and into the land Canaan they came]- But they were still on journy to the place which was God going to show them. The following points prove this fact. This makes clear that the journy was still continuing.
D. And the Lord appeared unto Abraham, and said unto thy seed will I give this land: and there builded he an alter unto the Lord who appeared unto him (7). And removed from thence unto a mountain on the east of Bethel, and pitched his tent having Beth-el on the west and Hai on the east: and there he builded an after unto the Lord and called upon the name of the Lord (8)
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And Abraham journeyed going on still towards the south (9). -Genesis 12:7-9 The 9th verse under point (D) shows that Abraham was still on journy to reach the place which was promised to be shown by God (Canaan). And according to verse 7, he reached to a place where the Lord appeared and promised him that He would give that land to his seed. And Abraham built an attar unto the Lord that is the House of God [Bethel]. And he moved just away from its precincts and pitched his tent, having Beth-el on the west and Hai on the east. Thus it is evident that Bethel was built by Abraham where he called upon the name of Lord. And then he started his journy towards south [for promised land]. Thus it became evident that Beth-el is not in Canaan. Its symbolic name is ZION: "... and to say unto Zion thou art my people"- Isaiah 51:16. And let Israel rejoice in him that made him: let the children of Zion be joyful in their king. -Psalm 149:2 . Thus both the lands one which was consisting of Beth-el and the other Canaan was promised to Abraham to be given to his seed. Thus two nations are declared as his people [Galatians 4:22-25]. But what surprising is that it has been interpolated to mean that Beth-el is in the territory of Canaan:
So Jacob came to Luz, which is in the land of Canaan that is Beth-el, he and all the people that were with him. And he built there an altar and called the place El-Beth-el: because there God appeared unto him, when he fled from the face of his brother. -Genesis 35:6-7 This goes to mean the House of God. According to Biblical cyclopedic Index prepared by The king James version under the title 'The Open Bible and also at the footnote commentary of the verse Genesis 35:7 its meaning has been given as God of the House of God', taking the meaning of EL as God and Bethel to mean House of God.
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It is manipulated to have been named as Bethel by Jocob. But the first verse of the chapter makes it clear that Jacob had been ordered to go Bethel and dwell there (Genesis 35:1). It makes clear that the Bethel was already existing even before Jacob was born (The study of Bible makes this point clear). EL- Elohe (Genesis 33:20) Eloi... (Mark 15:34) Eli... (Matthew 27:46)
a. And he erected there an altar and called it El-elohe - Israel. -Genesis 33:20 Altar means an elevated area. That is to say- an area built higher to the ground level. Jacob built an altar and called it El-elohe - Israel. In the literal sense it means that the altar built by Jacob was called God of Israel. But in the Telugu version in its footnotes commentary the meaning of the 'El-elohe - Israel' is given to mean 'The God of Israel' is the only God. Let us not worry about the difference in meaning of the sentence, but let us understand the word 'El-elohe' stands for 'The God'. Ilahi1 is one of the names for God in Arabic language of Qur'an.
b. And at the ninth hour Jesus cried with a loud voice, saying Eloi, Eloi, lama sabachthani? Which is being interpreted My God, My God why hast thou forsaken me? -Mark 15:34 In the above passage we find Eloi instead of Elohe, as some new word for God. It is not the difference of words, but the difference in accent of the same word Elohe.
c. And about the ninth hour Jesus cried with a loud voice saying Eli, Eli lama sabachthani? that is to say My God, My God why hast thou forsaken me? -Matthew 27:46 In the above passage a seeming new word for God is seen. It is not a new word, but may be a short form of Elohe. However all the three
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passages make clear that El is the root word for God. Thus El-Beth-el stands for 'the House of God'. Muslims call it the Baithullah. Hebrew : El-Beth-el El = The
House of God
Beth = House El = (of) God Arabic :
Baith - Allah Baith = House
House of God
Allah = (of) God NOTE: If 'El' is accepted as the ancient word for God, the question comes that why a new name is invented? And that why Jesus called Elohi (Eloi or Eli) to mean for God leaving the new name Jehovah? Paran was the place where Hagar and her son Ishmael were exiled to...
And he [Ishmael] dwelt in the wilderness of Paran and his mother [Hagar] took him a wife out of the land of Egypt. -Genesis 21:14 In its early period of inhabitation, it was called Beer-sheba as a title since a fountain of water was miraculously created for Hagar and Ishmael. And the fountain was the real cause of developing the wilderrness into a great city Paran. Thus we read
And Abraham rose up early in the morning and took bread and a bottle of water and gave it unto Hagar putting it on her shoulder and the child and sent her away: and she departed and wandered in the wilderness of Beer-sheba. (14)
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And the water was spent in the bottle and she cast the child under one of the shrubs (15) And she went and sat her down over against him a good way off as it were a bowshot for she said let me not see the death of the child. And she sat over against him and lift up her voice and wept (16) And God heard the voice of the lad; and the angel of God called to Hagar out of heaven and said unto her what aileth thee Hagar fear not; for God hath heard the voice of the lad where he is (17) Arise lift up the lad and hold him in thine hand: for I will make him a great nation (18) And God opened her eyes and she saw a well of water and she went and filled the bottle with water and gave the lad drink. (19) And God was with the lad: and he grew and dwelt in the wilderness and became an archer. (20) And he dwelt in the wilderness of Paran: and his mother took him wife out of the land of Egypt (21) -Genesis 21:14-21 The first verse (14) of the above passage shows the fact that the mother Hagar and the child Ishmael who were exiled stepped in the wilderness whose latter descriptive title may be Beer - sheba. It was wilderness. The water she brought was exhausted. She despaired of their survival. She searched for water running here and there. The angel of God appeared and consoled her by promising that her child would become a very great nation which implies that God would provide sustenance. And accordingly-
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And God opened her eyes and she saw a well of water and she went and filled the bottle with water and gave the lad drink. (19) And God was with the lad: and he grew and dwelt in the wilderness and became an archer. (20) And he dwelt in the wilderness of Paran... (21)
1. The verse 14 of the passage says that the wilderness where Hagar and her child entered was called Beer-sheba. 2. The verse (20) says that God was with the lad: and he grew and dwelt in the wilderness and became an archer. Thus the child and the mother dwelt in the same wilderness. That is to say they came to Beer-sheba and dwelt in Beer-sheba. 3. Verse (21) says that they dwelt in the wilderness of Paran. The last point (3) says that they dwelt in the wilderness of Paran. This shows that Beer-sheba of the former verse, after its evolution as a great city might have been named as Paran. Now the question comes that why it was titled as Beer - sheba. Why was the wilderness of PARAN in the early period before its evoluation as the city entitled as Beersheba? Its answer is given in verse (19) that a fountain of water was miraculously created for them.
A fountain of water was miraculously provided for Hagar and Ishmael
The meaning of Beer-sheba According as to the context of the events recorded in the Bible the meaning of 'Beer' is a well or fountain of water. 'Sheba' represents to 'seven' or 'an oath'.
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In English and Urdu versions it is mentioned as a 'well' (Beer) while in Telugu to mean fountain of water instead of 'well' (Beer). Readers are well aware the difference between a well and fountain. Fountain means a place wherefrom water gushes forth from the earth. In the well also water gushes froth from the earth. But there is some difference between these two. Well needs be dug deep to the water level and a deep ditch must be dug so as the water that gathers from fountain be stored and drawn by bucket or by means of any device arranged for the purpose. The level of water does not rise above more than its level, but gets stored in the ditch dug below for the purpose. As much amount of water is drawn the same amount of water oozes from the earth and gets refilled in the ditch of well. But in no way it can overflow beyond its water level. But the case of fountain is different. In it water spurt forth above the surface of the earth. No need of digging below as in the case of well is necessary but to preserve the water some tanklike thing may be constructed to save the water from not being wasted. It overflows the tank also and flow on the ground to the extent depending on its velocity. If the water from well is not used it becomes, stagnant and contaminated while in fountain over flows on the ground remaining ever pure provided the water is not confined stgnant in any ditch. As regarding the 'Beer' according to context one can conclude that there was no well or fountain (Beer) existing already in the wilderness but it was miraculously provided for Hagar and Ishmael: just as a ram was miraculously provided to be given in sacrifice in the stead of the only son of Abraham (Genesis 22:13) As regards to Beer-sheba we have another explanation too. 'Sheba' means 'an oath' or number 'seven'.
And Abimelech said unto Abraham what mean these 'seven ewe lambs' which thou hast set by themselves? And he [Abraham] said, For these seven ewe lambs shalt thou take of my hand that they may be a witness unto me that I have digged this well [Beer]. Wherefore he called that place 'Beer - sheba': because they sware both of them. -Genesis 21:29-31
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In another place we find Isaac to have named the well (Beer) dug by his servants as 'sheba'. Let us remember the meaning of 'Beer - sheba' once again. 'Beer' means well or fountain and 'sheba' means 'an oath' or number 'seven'. In the foregoing two passages- according to the former one we can predict that the name of 'Beer-sheba' is given to the place as a 'well' [Beer] was miraculously created by God. And according to the second passage the meaning of it is given since Abraham took an oath with Abimelech with seven ewe lambs as an witness as the well (Beer) to have been dug by Abraham. Now examine the third passage-
And it came to pass the same day that Isaac's servants came and told him concerning the 'well' [Beer] which they had digged and said unto him, 'we have found water'. And he called it 'sheba': therefore the name of the city is 'Beer-sheba' unto this day. -Genesis 26:32-33 Let us not go deep into probe of this passage. When Isaac grew old his servants had dug a well and when it was told to him that they had found water, Isaac called it 'Sheba'. Now the question is whether there were two 'wells' and two cities called after the name of Beer-sheba- one dug by Abraham (Genesis 21:29-31) and other by Isaac (Genesis 26:3233). In this passage there is no question of (number) seven or taking of an oath so as to misinterpret the name is given as an oath is made by setting seven ewe lambs etc. for witness as was in the case of Abraham. The servants told that they had found the water and Isaac said 'shebah' and ever since the city is called Beer-sheba. This goes to mean that 'sheba' of Hebrew word bears some different meaning other than seven or an oath as recorded or it may be the corrupt form that gives the meaning 'seven' or an oath' of the correct word that really represents to (real sheba): God knows. But the Church is responsible that it should explain what actually the word 'sheba' means when associated with the word 'Beer' which means fountain. The main question is whether the Beersheba was dug by Abraham (Genesis 21:29-30) or by Isaac (Genesis 26:32-33).
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Some doubts:
1. Was the name of wilderness wherein Hagar with her babe Ishmael entered was called Beer-sheba even before she arrived there? 2. Was it named as Beer-sheba as the fountain of water (well) was created miraculously for them? 3. Was it miraculously provided (Genesis 21:19) or dug by Abraham (Genesis 21:30)? 4. Was it so named as Beer-sheba as Abraham and Abimelech made covenant (oath) by setting seven ewe lambs as witness (Genesis 21:30-31)? 5. Was it its real name or title of the city PARAN after its culmination as a city? Beer-sheba might be the title of the place which later culminated as a great city. The title Beer-sheba was given because in the wilderness where Hagar and Ishmael had been exiled to was uninhabited where even water was not available. God promised Hagar that He would make her son a great nation and hence as a means and source of their sustenance God made the Fountain of water which was just created miraculously. Therefore it was called Beer-sheba. The name of Beer-sheba ought/should have been continued but why it has been changed as PARAN is not beyond to presumption that how the church has played its subtle part to show it as two different places one as Beer-sheba and the other as PARAN1. And another thing is that to curtail the spiritual significance of Beer-sheba it is recorded as that Abraham had dug it2. And in another place it is recorded that Isaac's servants had dug the well in the land of Canan which was called by Isaac as Beer-sheba3. It is still existing in the land of Canaan and in the maps of Bible4 also. Well if this is still existing what became of the Beer-sheba we see as to have been dug by Abraham?5 However it is meaningless to believe that Beer-sheba had been dug by Abraham. No need was there to dig because it was miraculously provided by God in the wilderness of Paran which (was) is in Arabia wherefrom the water has been gushing forth ever since till this day. How-
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ever a cursory reader of the Bible cannot dececively identify the real Beer-sheba wherein a miraculous fountain was created by God among all such confused statements regarding it. And it is likely that one may regard Beer-sheba and Paran as two different places. And this is what actually the Church wants to impress upon the readers. But from our arguments it is made clear that Beer-sheba and Paran are not two different places but only one place.
A. When Hagar and Ishmael were exiled from Canaan they arrived to the wilderness of Beer-sheba where they had been provided spiritual (divine) asylum (Genesis 21:14) B. Fountain of water was miraculously created by God for them, in the wilderness of Beer-sheba (Genesis 21:19) C. And God was with the lad; and he grew and dwelt in the wilderness and became an archer. (Genesis 21:20) NOTE:1. From the above point C, we can notice that he grew and dwelt in the wilderness, which is certain to mean that he dwelt in the wilderness of Beer-sheba only. NOTE:2. Just in continuation to the above its following verse says as recorded in the point D. below. D. And he dwell in the wilderness of Paran: And his mother took him a wife out of the land of Egypt. -Genesis 21:21 Where did he dwell right from his arrival to the wilderness of Beersheba till his growth and marriage? In the wilderness of Beer-sheba only. In the sequence of the above passages can anybody think the wilderness of Beer-sheba and the wilderness of Paran are to be two different places? No. But one has a good reason to believe that this is the only one place with two different names.
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E. And Abraham planted a grove in Beer-sheba and called there on the name of the Lord the everlasting God. -Genesis 21:33
NOTE: This speaks that Abraham was also at Beer-sheba, where he planted a grove and called on the name of God. F. And it came to pass after these things that God did tempt Abraham and said unto him... Take now thy son thine only son Isaac... into the land of Moriah and offer him there for a burnt offering ... -Genesis 22:1-2 G. It was a trial for Abraham. God ordered him to give his only son in sacrifice. And Abraham's spontaneous willingness and acceptance to offer his only son in sacrifice to God, was well pleased by God and with a blessing he was promised that He would multiply the seed of the son as many as the stars of sky and the sand by the seashore (Genesis 22:1-18) H. And so Abraham retuned to his young men and they rose up and went together to Beer-sheba; and Abraham dwelt at Beersheba
-Genesis 22:19
Moriah is the adjacent place to Beer-sheba. It can be seen form the Mount of God. God ordered Abraham to offer his only son in sacrifice. As according to our arguments it is made clear that the Mina is the place where Muslim piligrims offer their sacrificial animals in tradition of commemorial sacrifice of Abraham's only son's sacrifice. Mina is in the 8 or 9 KMs distance from Macca. So Beer-sheba or Paran may be taken as Macca where a miraculous, fountain of water was provided for Hagar and Ishmael which has been gushing forth ever since to this day. Muslims regard that place as Bethel (Baithullah).
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We have other passages also which speak that the Fountain of water springs from the House of God.
A. And it shall come to pass in that day, that the mountains shall drop down new wine and the hills shall flow with milk, and all the rivers of Judah shall flow with waters and a fountain shall come forth out of the House of the Lord and shall water the valley of shittim. -Joel 3:18 B. There is a river the streams whereof shall make glad the city of God the holy place of the tabernacles of the most High. -Psalm 46:4
NOTE: In the foregoing passage the fountain of water is stated as river. And this can be admitted because the miraculous fountain of water which was created for Hagar and Ishmael has been eversince gushing forth the water. And hence it is compared to a river. And it is to flow from the city of God. We learnt from our former pages that Beer-sheba or Paran is the place wherin the House of God is existing. Fountain of water is another clue to identify Paran as the city of God. C. Beer-sheba (Paran) is the place where a miraculous fountain of water has been created which is ceaselessly gushing forth water. So this goes to prove in another way that Paran is the House of God (Bethel) as well as the city of God. Arise lift up the lad and hold him in thine hand for I will make him a great nation. And God opened her eyes and she saw a well of water: and she went and filled the bottle with water and gave the lad drink. -Genesis 21:18-19
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From the above points it is made clear that Paran is the city of God wherein the House of God (Bethel) is existing. Apart from Paran we have another word 'ZION' symbolically used for the House of God or the city of God. And also as a city wherefrom the advent of universal prophet was to take place.
God came from Teman and the Holy one from mount Paran... -Habakkuk 3:3 In the above verse it is made clear that mount Paran is the place wherefrom the advent of the Holy one (The universal prophet) was to take place.
...they shall call thee the city of the Lord the ZION of the Holy one of Israel (Isaiah 60:14) And in this prophecy (Isaiah 60:14) The Zion has been described as the one that belongs to Holy one. So ZION of the Holy one can be taken to mean as Paran and the Holy one was to appear from here only. Therefore Zion may be taken as a symbolic title for Paran. And it is the city of God (Isaiah 60:14). Therefore it is proved beyond doubt that Paran is the place where the House of God is existing which is called ZION the city of the Holy one. Under Deuteronomy 33:2 it is said that God shone from Mount Paran and so the place wherefrom the Holy one was to come was one and the same place called Zion.
And he [Ishmael] dwelt in the wilderness of Paran. -Genesis21:21 And this Paran is a wilderness region of sinaitic peninsula which is the region of Arabia. So this can be well established that Paran is the place ofArabia. This point can be proved from the following
for this Hagar [mother of Ishmael] is mount Sinai in Arabia... -Galatians 4:25
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A prophecy by Ezekiel 37:22-28
And I will make them one nation in the land upon the mountains of Israel; and one king shall be king to them all; and they shall be no more two nations neither shall they be divided into two kingdoms any more at all: (22) Neither shall they defile themselves anymore with their idols nor with their detestable things, nor with any of their transgressions: but I will save them out of all their dwelling places wherein they have sinned and will cleanse them: so shall they be my people and I will be their God. (23) And David my servant shall be king over them; and they all shall have one shepherd: they shall also walk in my judgments and observe my statutes and do them. (24) And they shall dwell in the land that I have given unto Jacob my servant wherein your fathers have dwelt: and they shall dwell therein, even they, and their children, and their children's children for ever, and my servant David shall be their prince for ever. (25) Moreover I will make a Covenant of peace with them: it shall be an everlasting covenant with them and I will place them and multiply them and will set my sanctuary in the midst of them for evermore. (26) My tebernacle also shall be with them: yea I will be their God and they shall be my people. (27)
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And the heathen shall know that I the Lord do sanctify Israel, when my sanctuary shall be in the midst of them for evermore (28)
-Ezekiel 37:22-28
The aforesaid passage is a prophecy by God through the prophet Ezekiel about the advent of the universal prophet with his distinguishing characteristics as cited therein. By the verse 22, it appears as if it speaks only about the Israelite community who were scattered in other nations of heathens. But in fact, on observation of the whole passage, one can derive at the meaning to have spoken about all nations of the world. In this verse the promise of God is seen saying, that He would unite them all as one nation who would remain under the rule of one king. The king here is figuratively used for the advent of a prophet who would become a king. As all nations come under his kingdom it applies exclusively to the person of the universal prophet. One may ask whether the universal prophet had ever been accepted by whole mankind or by all nations. The title of universal prophet symbolizes only on the point of his having been appointed for the entire mankind as a guide (Reformer). The point of accepting or rejecting rests on the will of people. Jesus was a prophet for Israel. Did all Israelites accept him? The verse 23 speaks of heathens (neither shall they defile themselves anymore with their idols...), the point of which makes clear that the universal prophet reforms not only Israelites but also the heathens1. Thus he is for all nations of the world. It is a known fact that Israelites call God as 'Father' and they themselves prefer to be called as the 'sons' of God. And same is the case with Christians too. Hence neither the Jewry nor the Church has any right to claim the prophecy to have been given effect in their favour. Therefore the prophecy had yet to be taken place only after Jesus (so shall they may be my people and I will be their God). And here a distinctive quality of the followers of the universal prophet is mentioned that they address God only as 'God' and they prefer to be called as His people (So shall they be my people and I will be their God). Further the verse says that the heathens of all nations of the world who join in the fold of the universal prophet would shun idolatry and become perfect monotheists. They also come out of the clutches of their transgressions and thence onwards they would not repeat such activities as can be termed as trangressions. And this was done effectively after the
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victory over Makka by Mohammed and the idolators of Makka Temple shunned the idolatry and cleansed the Temple by removing all the idols from it and thus they were cleansed and became monotheists (But I will save them out of their dwelling places wherein they have sinned and I will cleanse them). And this is what the prophecy means to convey its meaning as. Muslims do not call God as Father as others do but prefer to call God only as God and they themselves as His slaves1. This is what meant by- 'so shall they be my people and I will be their God'. Verses 24 and 25 speak of the person of king Dvavid who passed away centuries ago- is a symbolic description for the advent of the universal prophet. This symbolizes on his being a prophet and king just as David had been a prophet2 and king. The Church attributes this term of the prophecy to Jesus. But according to the term he about whom this prophecy was made should be a prophet and king as well. We agree that Jesus was a prophet. But did he ever become a king or ever claimed himself to be a king? No doubt there are some verses in the Gospels which imply to mean that he might have claimed to be the king of Jews. But examination reveals the fact that these are more supportive and affirmative on the point of accusation rather than implied meaning. Let us examine how it isThe death punishment on cross was given to Jesus as a result of conspiracy and false accusations of the Jews who were thirsty of his blood. They wanted to kill him by any possible means.
a. And when he was accused of the chief priests and elders he answered nothing. -Matthew 27:12 b. And Pilate when he had called together the chief priests and the rulers and the people said unto them, ye have brought this man unto me as one that perverteth the people: and bebold I having examined him before you, have found no fault in this man touching those things whereof ye accuse him: 23:13-14
-Luke
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The above two passages explain that Jesus was accused of false allegations that he was perverting the people against king and claiming himself to be the king; and was cross examined by the Governor who found him to be innocent. This goes to mean that Jesus had denied every accusation and withstood to the cross examination firmly.
And when they had plaited a crown of thorns they put it upon his head and a read in his right hand: and they bowed the knee before him and mocked him saying Hail king of Jews! -Matthew 27:29 That what has been recorded in the above passage is an act of derision basing merely on the accusation against him but not an affirmative statement of his bieng a king or a claimant of it.
And Jesus stood before the Governor; and the Governor asked him saying. Art thou the king of Jews? And Jesus said unto him thou sayest. -Matthew 27:11 1 Above verse says that when Jesus was brought before the Governor with (false) accusations the Governor interrogated him whether he was a king of Jews as had been accused of. And Jesus denied. "Thou sayest" is the reply of Jesus meaning 'I am not claiming: but it is thou that say so (you say)' The above arguments evidently prove that Jesus had never been a king nor had he ever claimed to be the king of Jews. In clear terms Jesus himself accepted that he had never been a king over any state of this world. Thus we read-
Jesus answered my kingdom is not of this world: if my kingdom were of this world then would my servants fight that I should not be delivered to the Jews: but now is my kingdom not from hence. -John 18:36
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If this be the fact how can the term of prophecy which foretells the advent of a prophet like David who was a prophet and king of this world be applicable to one whose kingdom is not of this world? But Mohammed was a king besides his being a prophet. Let us discuss the last clause of the verse (25) which reads as follows: And my servant David shall be their prince for ever. We learnt from our foregoing points that David is a simile for the prophet who was to appear in the end of all prophets as the last and universal prophet. This we can say with certainty basing on his characteristics as mentioned in the prophecy under discussion which we will discuss in coming pages too. The comparison between David and the universal prophet is- just as David had been a prophet and king so also the universal prophet should also be a prophet and king. 'He shall be their king for ever' does not mean to say that the universal prophet should have been living for ever but his teachings and law given by him shall be in rule for ever as he is the last prophet after whom there comes no prophet. Now let us see the first part of the verse 26 of the prophecy-
Moreover I will make a covenant of peace with them: it shall be an everlasting covenant with them. In this verse it is made clear that a new law would be given through this promised prophet which remains for ever and ever (Moreover I will make a covenant of peace...). This term is attempted to be attributed to the person of Jesus. But as Jesus did not give new law but had followed the then subsistent Mosaic law the claim can be ruled out. Moreover it is beyond to one's comprehension that how can the Church which regards the law as a curse and believes that it has been exempted from the law can dare ascribe this prophecy which speaks of a prophet that would give a new law- to Jesus Christ in whose name they profess as follows?
Christ hath redeemed us from the curse of the law being made a curse for us; for it is written cursed is every one that hangeth on a tree. -Galatians 3:13
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It may be their erroneous thought. But what more erroneous and surprising is - ascribing the law giving prophet's advent in favour of Jesus despite his clear admission of the following fact.
Think not that I am come to destroy the law or the prophets: I am not come to destroy but to fulfil. For verily I say unto you till heaven and earth pass one jot or one title shall in no wise pass from the law till all be fulfilled. Whosoever therefore shall break one of these least commandments and shall teach men so, he shall be called the least in the kingdom of heaven: but whosoever shall do and teach them the same shall be called great in the kingdom of heaven1.
-Matthew 5:17-19
Now let us take up the first clause of the verse 26 under discussion which provides an important hint saying as 'Moreover I will make a covenant of peace with them'. To make a covenant means to give a law. When there was subsisting law and again if a covenant (law) is promised-it implies to mean that God would give another (new) law. At the first instance the attempt of ascribing this prophecy to the person of Jesus dampens in the light of preceding arguments. And taking the word 'covenant of peace' the Church banks on another prophecy which is exclusively about the universal prophet Mohammad which reads as follows:
How beautiful upon the mountains are the feet of him that bringeth good tidings that publisheth peace; that bringeth good tidings of good that publisheth salvation that saith unto Zion thy God reigneth: -Isaiah 52:7 Here we must know that it was 'peace' only that had been published by all prophets may it be Abraham, Isaac, John, Jesus or Mohammad. No doubt all had published peace. And we equally admit that what had been given by Jesus was also peace. Merely basing on this point the prophecies under discussion cannot be ascribed to Jesus. But particularly the prophecies under discussion are attributable only to the person
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of Mohammad. We have discussed earlier that he was a prophet as well as a king like David. But Jesus was not a king but only a prophet. Hence the term of the prophecy cannot be ascribed to Jesus. In the above prophecy also it is clearly said that he was a prophet who said to Zion 'Thy God reigneth' 'Thy God reigneth' does not mean that God Himself descends on earth and rules. But the prophet who rules the nation according to the law provided by God is known as a Viceroy of God and his governance is termed as kingdom of heaven or kingdom of God. In religious terminology it is called 'Theocracy'. This point also cannot be established in favour of Jesus as he did not establish the kingdom of heaven but throughout his life time had been praying for it and asked his disciples to pray that the kingdom of heaven 'might come1. So it can be well accepted that it was prophet Mohammad who could successfully establish the kingdom of heavan on earth and thus he became a king who said to Zion 'Thy God reigneth'. This point also disqualifies the claim of Church. Zion, a figurative description of the place where the kingdom of heaven had been established by prophet Mohammad is called Makka which should be accepted; or otherwise Church is requested to show us where Zion is. And let us discuss about the last clause of the verse 26 of the prophecy under discussion
And will set my sanctuary in the midst of them for ever and ever. And also the verse 27 of the passage
My tebernacle also shall be with them From the above it can be noticed that a sanctuary was promised to be set in the midst of them which was to remain for ever. And at the same time his tebernacle was also promised to be put in midst of heathens. Hence let us know the meaning of these fwo words. a. Sanctuary means a sacred place or a holy place' which may be used as a place of worship and hence may be taken to mean as a temple. Tebernacle also means Temple. As a matter of fact places for worship (temples) can be built at anywhere and such temples are found in almost all over the earth spread in countless numbers. This prophecy is given
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as an information to the Jews who had/has their main temple at Jerusalem where they used to go to offer their prayers and sacrifices, right from the time of Solomon the king who built it under the instructions of God, up to the time of Jesus and after him until the advent of Mohammad its sanctity continued. These points we can know from the following passages
a. And when they (Mary along with child Jesus) had performed all things according to the law of the Lord, they returned into Galilee to their own city Nazareth. -Luke 2:39 The above passage explains that Jesus after his birth while yet a babe was taken to Jerusalem to perform all things according to the law. According to law means- it was an obligatory duty of every believer, to perform certain rites after the delivery of a child.
b. Now his (Jesus') parents went to Jerusalem every year at the feast of the passover. And when he was twelve years old they went up to Jerusalem after the custom of the feast. And when they had fulfilled the days as they returned the child Jesus tarried behind in Jerusalem: and Joseph and his mother knew not of it. -Luke 2:41-43 This passage also discloses the fact that it was the custom which was an act of obligation that the believers should go to Jerusalem once in a year.
c. Then Paul took the man and the next day purifying himself with them entered into the temple to signify the accomplishment of the days of the purification until that an offering should be offered for every one of them. -Acts 21:26
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The above passage according to context, may it be under pretext or whatever, the fact which can be disclosed is, that going to Jerusalem for offering was an obligatory act. From the above passages the sanctity of Jerusalem as the house of God can be noticed. But in the light of '...and will set my sanctuary in the midst of them for evermore (last clause of the verse 26) and 'My tebernacle also shall be with them... (the first clause of the verse 27)'- it is made clear that Jerusalem's sanctity as house of God was going to be transferred to another temple of God which would be set among heathens. Heathens means other people than Isaraelites. In confirmation to the above points Jesus himself in clear terms states as following.
The woman saith unto him, sir, I perceive that thou art a prophet. Our fathers worshipped in this mountain: and ye say that in Jerusalem is the place where men ought to worship. Jesus saith unto her, woman believe me ,the hour cometh when ye shall neither in this mountain nor yet at Jerusalem worship the Father. -John 4:19-21 Thus Jesus clearly said that the sanctity of the House of God at Jerusalem would not continue and hence the people would not worship Father at Jerusalem but would be transferred to another place (among heathens) where people would worship the Father, God. And also told that the hour was very near. And we have a corresponding prophecy by Haggai:
And I will shake all nations, and the desire of all nations shall come: and I fill this house with glory saith the Lord of hosts. The silver is mine and the gold is mine saith the Lord of hosts. The glory of this latter house shall be greater than of the former saith the Lord of hosts: and in this place will I give peace saith the Lord of hosts. -Haggai 2:7-9
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The prophecy is very clear to understand which needs no explanation. This prophecy we have already dealt in our previous chapters. Here we have taken up this prophecy so as to show that how this prophecy corroborates with our arguments and at the same time to pinpoint on the specific verses which show the greatness of the latter house.
a. And I will shake all nations and the desire of all nations shall come. This corresponds to the universal prophet while Jesus was for Israel only but not for all nations1.
b. And I fill this house with glory- This speaks that the glory of Jerusalem would be declined and the glory of latter house would be greater. This is what Jesus said with the Samaritan woman-
Believe me, the hour cometh when ye shall neither in this mountain nor yet at Jerusalem worship the Father (John 4:21). This clearly says that the place of worship would be transferred to another house of God. This would take place only after the departure of Jesus as it was prophesied by Jesus himself. The above prophecy Ezekiel 37:22-28 which is under discussion focusses upon main three points 1. a new law was promised- 2. Theocrasy was promised to be restored and 3. the change of sanctuary was promised. This is the exact meaning of the prophecy wherein Moses was promised the raise of a prophet like unto himself, Deuteronomy 18:18. Moses was a prophet who gave law and established theocracy and had his sanctuary at Jerusalem Temple. So this speaks clearly that a prophet like Moses had to appear who would fulfill all these three terms.
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Now let us have a glance at a similar prophecy-
And speak unto him, saying thus speaketh the Lord of hosts, saying, Behold the man whose name is the BRANCH, and he shall grow up out of his place and he shall build the temple of the Lord (12). Even he shall build the temple of the Lord and he shall bear the glory, and shall sit and rule upon his throne and he shall be a priest upon his throne and the counsel of peace shall be between them both.
-Zechariah 6:12-13
The above is a prophecy revealed by God through Zechariah. Here God speaks of a person who shall build the temple. In our former arguments we have discussed comprehensively about the two subsistent Houses of God the former one the first House built by Abraham at Arabia and the second one by Solomon at Canaan the temple of Jerusalem. But the prophecy seems to suggest that a person who was known as BRANCH should build the temple of Lord. But it is not correct. Because his forerunner Jesus assured the Samaritan woman that the sanctity of the Jerusalem temple would be transferred to some other House of God in confirmity with the prophecy of Haggai-
'The glory of this latter house shall be greater than of the former, saith the Lord of hosts and in this place will I give peace saith the Lord of the hosts'. -Haggai 2:9 Thus the transfer of the glory of the one house to another is stressed but Jesus did not speak of any third temple. Then what does the meaning of the verse 'Branch - shall build the temple of the Lord? (Zechriah 6:12). In the prophecy we have a person who should build the house of Lord has been figuratively said as BRANCH and building of a temple may be taken to mean that he would restitute the sanctity of the former house of God. Therefore we have to find out who this BRANCH had been. The following may be the annotation on this subject by Paul in his letter to Galatians.
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Tell me, ye that desire to be under the law, do ye not hear the law? (21) For it is written that Abraham had two sons, the one by a bondmaid, the other by a freewoman. (22)
NOTE:Thus two branches from the lineage of Abraham were promised. One Branch by bondmaid- Ishmaelites and the other by freewoman - Israelites But he who was of the bond woman was born after the flesh but he of the freewoman was by promise. (23) Which things are an allegory: for these are the two Covenants; the one from the mount Sinai which gendereth to bondage which is Hagar. For this Hagar is mount Sinai in Arabia and answereth to Jerusalem which now is and is in the bondage with her children. (25)
-Galatians 4:21-25
The annotation of Paul provides the information that from one Branch the advent of Moses took place whom God made a prophet and through him the Israelites were given the law. He was a prophet who established Theocracy. At the time when he was being given the law he was promised a prophet like unto himself (Deuteronomy 18:18) from among their brethren. This goes to mean that from the another Branch there was a prophet to come. The another branch refers to Ishmaelites. So from Ishmaelites the promised prophet was to come. He must have three distinctive qualites (Viz) a law giver -resumer of theocracy. As regards to him Zechariah prophesies- 'Even he shall build the temple of the Lord and he shall bear the glory and shall sit and rule upon his throne and the counsel of peace shall be between them both' (Zechariah 6:13). And Haggai prophecies 'The glory of this latter house shall be greater than the former, saith the Lord of hosts, and in this place will I give peace...' (Haggai 2:9). And Jesus says- '...the hour cometh when ye shall neither in this mountain nor yet at Jerusalem, worship the Father' (John 4:21). Thus he suggests that the glory of former house shall be transferred to
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the latter. As Zachariah said that 'he shall build the temple of the Lord-' it does not mean that he should build a new temple; but restores the lost glory of the latter house. We have discussed all these points here and there in our previous pages which we feel not necessary to be repeated except as the main thing to disclose the identity of the latter house. As regards to the latter house and former House also we have discussed. But now let us know about the latter House. In this connection we have to keep in mind four important points which are helpful in disclosing the latter house and its prominence.
1. The glory of the latter house was to be restituted by a prophet who should give a law - and establish the Theocracy - must be a king (viceroy) of the kingdom of God and he should solve the state affairs and be a priest as well (Zechariah 6:12-13) As God miraculously created a fountain of water for Hagar and Ishmael the place was called Beer-sheba. The water continued to spring eversince and the area became fertile and habitation grew into a great city which was named Paran. Hence the wilderness of Beer-sheba became the wilderness of Paran (Genesis 21:14 + 21:21). Hagar and Ishmael came to the wilderness - The wilderness was called Beer-sheba for the reasons as explained by us. This was the case when Ishmael was an infant. As the habitation grew it became a city which was called Paran. When he grew fit enough for marriage his mother took a wife out of the land of Egypt. Beer-sheba was named even before Isaac was born. The fountain of water was miraculously provided. Hence no necessity was there of digging by manual labour. This is relating only to Beer-sheba. If anybody wants to dig wells for their personal uses according to the necessity, such ones can dig as many wells as possible. There is no bar for it. Original Beer-sheba is in Arabian region. But the Beer-sheba which was dug and named by Isaac when water was found, out of reverence to the original Beer-sheba is in Canaan (Genesis 26:23-25). The original Beer-sheba gradually developed to a city which has been named as Paran. Beer-sheba of Canaan is still existing in the Biblical maps. But what
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became of the original Beer-sheba of Arabian territory? Its name has been tansformed as ZION. This point can be disclosed only when privileges are compared as mentioned in the case of both. Now let us compare the distinctive features of Paran / ZION so as to make sure that Zion is the latter name or a symbolic title of Paran. From the various prophecies we came to know that the universal prophet should possess the four distinctive qualities (Viz)-
1. must be a prophet not for any particular community but for entire mankind (ie) for all nations of the world. 2. must be a lawgiver. Not to any particular nation but to all nations of the world. 3. must be a king to the Theocracy established by him where he should act not only as king and counsellor but also as priest who decrees and explains all religious affairs as well looks after the state affairs. 4. His law should endure until the end of the world as no other prophet should come after him. All these four terms must be fulfilled in the person of universal prophet Mohammad and Qur'an must bear testimony of this fact and his forerunner Jesus should have prophesied. Contrary to this the Church proclaims that all these have been fulfilled in Jesus while our arguments made so far dececively confirm that none of the terms has been fulfilled in Jesus. According to first term he should be a universal prophet: Mohammed was for all mankind:
And we have not sent thee but as a bearer of glad tidings and a warner for all mankind but most men know not -Qur'an 34:28
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But Jesus for Jews only:
But he answered and said, I am not sent but unto the lost sheep of the house of Israel. -Matthew 15:24 Must be a law giver. Mohammed gave law:
And thus have we revealed to thee the inspiration [spirit] by Our command. Thou didst not know what the book was nor what the faith. But We have made it a light whereby We guide such of our servants as we please. And truly thou guidest people to the right path.
-Qur'an 42:52-53
So hold thou fast to that which has been revealed to thee; for thou art on the right path -Qur'an 43:43 While Jesus admitted that he came to follow the then existing law (Matthew 5:17-20) which clearly points out that he did not give any law except as following of the Mosaic law. What more alarming point is that the followers of Jesus after his departure declared that law was a curse and hence Jesus redeemed them from the burden of law. We read as follows:
For as many as are of the works of the law under the curse... (10) Christ hath redeemed us from the curse of the law... (13)1. -Galatians 3:10, 13 There is no blame on Jesus. He clearly told that he came to follow the Mosaic law. And also made it clear that it would remain until as all the promises made therein be fulfilled. This includes the promise of the advent of the universal prophet (Dueteronomy 18:18) also. Only after his advent the Mosaic law would be substituted. Thus we read1.
Howbeit when he the spirit of truth is come he will guide you into all truth: for he shall not speak of himself but whatever he shall hear that shall he speak and he will shew you things to come. -John 16:13
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Thus it may be taken as an exposition of Jesus on Deuteronomy18:18 I will raise them up a prophet from among their brethren, like unto thee and will put my words in his mouth; and he shall speak unto them all that I shall command them -Deuteronomy 18:18 Thus it is made clear that Jesus had openly declared that the prophet promised through Moses like himself would come after his (Jesus) departure. Now what our question is that how the Church who regards law as a curse and imputes on the person of Jesus to have redeemed them from the curse of law, can beat their breasts that Jesus himself is the person in the likness of Moses who was to appear as promised in Deuteronomy 18:18? According to prophecy the main act of the person that appears in the likness of Moses should give a law which should substitute the Mosaic law. And Church regards the law as a curse: yet more amusing thing is that they maintain that the prophet who was to appear in the likeness of Moses, is no other than Jesus himself. We are giving below some passages which all go to explain that there was a law to come from Zion. It is not the city Jerusalem as many pasters claim in haste, out of their ignorance, and try to attribute the prophecy to Jesus taking it (Zion) for the heavenly city1. But Zion is not the heavenly city as is the contention of the Church. But it is the symbolic or figurative title of the place wherefrom the promised prophet was to appear. Regardless of the teachings of Jesus, the Church parrots the words what they read from the letters of Paul1:
1. But ye are come unto mount Sion, and unto the city of the living God, the heavenly Jerusalem and to an innumerable company of angels. -Hebrews 12:23 2. But Jerusalem which is above is free, which is the mother of us all. -Galatians 4:26
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In the latter reference - Jerusalem means Sion (Zion). It can be disclosed on reading together with the former reference. According to above two references it can be inferred to mean that ZION is Jerusalem and vice versa. And it is said that it is above in the heavens. If Jerusalem were ZION by itself how could it have been described as the daughter of Zion? and captive daughter of Zion? moreover it is not in heavens above but it is only on the earth. The following references disclose these facts Zachariah 9:9 Matthew 21:5-7 John 12:15 II Chronicles 5:2 Isaiah 31:4,5 Isaiah 52:2.
ZION - Law was to come from And many nations shall come and say, come, and let us go up to the mountain of the Lord, and to the house of the God of Jacob and he will teach us of his ways, and we will walk in his paths; for the law shall go forth of ZION and the word of the Lord from Jerusalem. -Micah 4:2 And many people shall go and say, come ye, and let us go up to the mountain of the Lord, to the House of the God of Jacob; and he will teach us of his ways, and we will walk in his paths: for out of Zion shall go forth the law and the word of the Lord from Jerusalem. -Isaiah 2:3 And I have put my words in thy mouth, mouth and I have covered thee in the shadow of mine hand, that I may plant the heavens and lay the foundations of the earth and say unto Zion thou art my people. -Isaiah 51:16 For the Lord shall comfort ZION: he will comfort all her waste places: and will make her wilderness like Eden, and her desert like the garden of the Lord: joy and gladness shall be found therein, thanksgiving, and the voice of melody. Hearken unto
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me my people; and give ear unto me, O my nation: for a law shall proceed from me, and I will make my judgement to rest for a light of the people. -Isaiah 51:3-4 They shall ask the way to Zion... saying come, and let us join ourselves to the Lord in a perpetual covenant that shall not be forgotten.
-Jermiah 50:5
ZION - Theocracy Another one more important distinctive quality of the one that was to appear after prophet Jesus was- that he should establish the kingdom of God (Theocracy) and should be a king and counsellor to look after all the state affairs as ordained in law. We are giving below some passages which all go to point out that the Theocracy would be established in the city of ZION which is the place wherefrom the universal prophet had appeared and established the kingdom of God (Theocracy).
How beautiful... are the feet of him... that saith unto ZION thy God reigneth reigneth. -Isaiah 52:7 Then the moon shall be confounded, and the sun ashamed, when the Lord of hosts shall reign in mount ZION... -Isaiah 24:23 The Lord shall send the rod of thy strength out of ZION: rule thou in the midst of thine enemies. -Psalm 110:2 The Lord shall reign for ever, ever even thy God, O ZION unto all generation... -Psalm 146:10
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Let Israel rejoice in him that made him: let the children of Zion be joyful in their king -Psalm 149:2 ...and they shall call thee, the city of the Lord, the ZION of the holy one of Israel -Isaiah 60:14 Thus all the terms as mentioned in the various prophecies have been fulfilled in prophet Mohammad while none of them except being a priest has been fulfilled in the person of Jesus. All prophets had been priests over their followers. This point dampens the claim of Church that Jesus himself is a prophet- one like Moses as prophesied in Deuteronomy 18:18
Paran transformed as ZION- synopsis ...they shall call thee, the city of the Lord, the Zion of the Holy one of Israel
-Isaiah 60:14
And in the prophecy (Habakkuk 3:3-7) the name of the place wherefrom the Holy one was to appear is mentioned as mount Paran. And in the prophecy (Isaiah 60:14) it is said that the Zion belongs to Holy one. So ZION of the Holy one can be termed as the place known as Paran wherefrom the Holy one was to come. Therefore ZION may be taken as a spiritual description (or title) of Paran. And it is the city of God (Isaiah 60:14). Therefore PARAN is the place where the House of God is existing which is called ZION the city of the Holy one. Thus the mount Paran wherefrom God shone (Deuteronomy 33:2) and wherefrom the Holy one was to come was one and the same place which was called Zion. Therefore mount of Paran is figuratively called Zion. This point most reasonably agree, that Zion is the mount Paran and vice versa. we have another point which proves that the mount of the Lord is the place where the only son of Abraham had been offered in sacrifice. And he [Ishmael] dwelt in the wilderness of Paran: and his mother took him a wife out of the land of Egypt (Genesis 21:21). We have argued profusely and proved that Ishmael was the only son of Abraham who was given in sacrifice. So the area where Ishmael lived was known as mount of Lord.
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...and he shined forth from mount Paran Paran. -Deuteronomy 33:2 ...and the Holy one (came) from mount Paran -Habakkuk 3:3 Thus the place where Ishmael dwelt accumulated great spiritual significance (Genesis 21:21) And thus Paran is a wilderness region of sinaitic Peninsula which is the region of Arabia. So this can be well established that Paran is the place in Arabia. This point can be proved from the following-
For this Hagar [mother of Ishmael] is mount Sinai in Arabia... -Galatians 4:25 Two covenants (LAWS) were to come- one from the lineage of Sarah which was fulfilled on mount Sinai (Israelites)- and the other through the lineage of Hagar (Ishmaelites) (Galatians 4:23-25). Sinai is the place where the Israelites were given law (Exodus 19:1). Keeping the above points in mind read the clause 'For this Hagar is mount Sinai in Arabia...' (Galatians 4:25). This is to mean - Just as mount Sinai is an imoprtant place for Israelites to receive the law from the lineage of Sarah, so also Arabia is an important place to receive the law from the lineage of Hagar. Thus in clear terms that the second law as promised (Deuteronomy 18:18) was to come from Arabia. Thus from the progenitor Ishmael son of Abraham by Hagar- the Holy one, the universal prophet was to come from Arabia the Paran. In the above prophetic passage (Isaiah 9:6-7) we have quoted references from the Bible which all go to establish our view point that Jesus was not the promised universal prophet. And it was he who was to come from Abraham's first son's posterity by Hagar (ie) Ishmael - the race of Ishmaelites.
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The following points focuss more light on our views ...for out of Zion shall go forth the law and the word of the Lord from Jerusalem. And he shall judge among the nations and shall rebuke many people. From the first clause it is clear that the promised law giving prophet was to come from Zion. In our previous arguments it is made clear that this Zion is the symbolic name for Paran a city in Arabia which in no way can be imputed to Jerusalem as it has been differentiated by saying "the word (promise) was to come from it while the law was to come from Zion" as made out in Isaiah 2:3-4 and Micah 4:2-3. Hence two points must be noted. Jesus who was of Jerusalem did not give law while the Person that was to come from Zion was to give law. Under reference Daniel- 4:26 '...that the heavens do rule' which is to interpret that theocracy would be re-established. Jesus prays that 'Theocracy' should come. Therefore it is evidently proved that the perosn under whose dominion the kingdom of God (Theocracy) becomes prevalent is not Jesus but one that comes from Zion (Arabia). Thus the universal prophet who was to appear from Zion would take hold his dominance over Jerusalem and some other nations too- (The Lord of hosts shall reign in mount Zion and in Jerusalem and before his ancestors gloriously)1. This is the reason why in the Bible Jerusalem is said to be a captive city of Zion (Isaiah 52:1) and daughter of Zion (Zechariah 9:9) and corroborated by Jesus under Matthew 21:5 and John 12:15. And according to Isaiah 24:23 it is admitted that Theocracy would be established in Zion as well as in Jerusalem. The universal prophet established Theocracy first in Zion which was later extended to some other nations too out of which Jerusalem had been one. And this is the reason why Jerusalem is called 'O captive daughter of Zion' (Isaiah 52:2). From the passages as quoted under the head ZION- THEOCRACY, it can be known that the kingdom of God was to be restored... (the Lord of hosts shall reign in mount Zion). And it was to come with power (the Lord shall send thy rod of thy strength). And it shall remain for ever and ever. (The Lord shall reign for ever even thy God O Zion unto all generations).
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All the passages under discussion show that it was to come from Zion. In our former pages our arguments disclosed the fact that Zion is a symbolic name of a city in Arabia. Therefore it clearly speaks that the universal prophet was to come from Arabia who would establish the kingdom of God with all his might which 'shall be in rule for all generations'. Moses was a prophet under whose supervision and care the kingdom of God had been prevalent. After its decline it was not restored upto the time of Jesus. Even Jesus could not restore it as the universal prophet was appointed for this purpose and hence Jesus himself prayed for its restoration (Matthew 6:10 Luke 11:2). And so it was to be restored after Jesus, a sure testimony that the promised universal prophet was to come only after Jesus. After Jesus no prophet ever came who proclaimed that he himself was the prophet like Moses 1 (ie) who should give law and restore the Divine rule on the earth. I do not think that it is necessary to place before the readers all these axiomatic historical evidences. Thus prophet Mohammad of Arabia the descendant from the lineage of Ishmael became the head of the kingdom of God on earth. This goes to prove that all the characteristics as made mention about the prophecy of the advent of the universal prophet fulfilled in the person of prophet Mohammad1. We have come across with somany points that how Church takes diligent care so as to keep their followers from not taking interest of their independent discretion on any of the points or prophecies other than what have been taught by the Church. At the same time the pastors take their possible efforts to defame Islam and Muslims and especially the prophet Mohammad so as to keep the Christians firm on the dogmas taught by them and to create hatred towards Islam so that they should
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not look at the Islamic literature. They propagate many sorts of subtelties, out of such attempts I would like to discuss on a few. Polygamy: Our India is one of the few nations which do not permit for polygamy. But may have concubines as many as one can maintain. There is no constitutional prohibition for it. Prostitution is strictly prohibited. But to prevent the spread of sexually transmitted diseases, the government itself advises people to use condomes and distributes them free of cost. Of cours, the real motive behind this is to have control over the child births and thus to save the country from poverty and also to save the society from the curse of sexually transmitted diseases. Thus indirect permission for prostitution is given. In some cities licence for public prostitutes is given. What for? The need of woman for man is such. The case of woman is also the same but they maintain secret paramours for fear of society. European and foreign countries have provided more flexibility where sexual activities are treated as a common play of enjoyment. As a result millions of children are found whose fathers are unknown to them. The community such as this speaks very bad about the sanction of polygamy in Islam not knowing its secrecy the point of which is deeply regrettable, nay shameful. Polyandry is prohibited in all nations and religions. It means a married woman (having her husband alive and she being undivorced) should not have legal married wedlock with opposite sex. If this act is legalized it is called polyandry. In polyandry there is a threat of venereal diseases. In the epic of Maha Bharata the character of Droupadi is presented as an unique case to have been involved in polyandry which however does not seem to be reliable. To be frank no nation has given permission for it. In such case the illegal engagements in sex is called not polyandry but secret prostitution. If widows, unmarried women on any particular reason or the girls who reached to their puberty entertain sexual activities before their marriage is a matter of sympathetic consideration to some extent. But what about the married women who keep illegal sexual contacts (secret) with
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others despite their having husbands and children? And their sex partners also (with one or two exceptional cases) are married people only who are having wives and children. What is the reason behind this? In, married sex partners, the inability of satisfying the other partner is the most common reason. When one is dissatisfied with its partner in sex he/she takes the background methods. Widow marriages are termed as an act of social evil and religious tresspass. If an appeal in court of law for divorce is made it can be obtained in one's favour only at the time when she/he actually becomes unfit for remarriage. These are the drawbacks that promote such situation as mentioned above: when female partner is failed to satisfy the sexual appitite polygamous marriages are advisable. But when male partner is not fit (though not quite unfit) to satisfy his lady partner should they (ladies) also not be given the same opportunity for polyandry? No- But they should bear. In case if they cannot be patient they can take divorce and get themselves remarried with some others. Because this is better than keeping secret paramours. When does a woman or man want to take divorce? Only when the partner is disagreeable. And if there is real love and affection between man and wife can there be any plea for divorce? Those that take divorce on petty reasons are only foolish and selfish. Without any strong reason one should never imagine of divorce. One should take partner in marriage with a determinant will that she or he would keep company with her or him for life long. Contrary to this the marriage is not at all a sacred marriage. If the system of divorce is made as easy as one takes the partner in marriage and if the system of matrimony is made easy to the possible extent, not merely on papers of acts and law, but should reflect it in the practical life, the problem can easily be solved. Not only social but also religious reformations must be made. Widow marriages must be wholeheartedly encouraged. A widow must marry a widower only, the concept of which should be erased even from thoughts. The freshers
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should come forward to marry the young widows. If we make this much of sacrifice 90% of the illegal activities can be put to an end. In Arab during the rise of Islam, defencive religious wars frequently had been in progress out of which 'battle of uhad' is most important where many men had been martyred leaving their widows and orphans behind. In the situation such as this God sanctioned permission for polygamy for the protection of orphans and as guardians for widows. The following passage reveals this fact.
If ye fear that ye shall not be able to deal justly with the orphans, marry women of your choice two or three or four; But if ye fear that ye shall not be able to deal justly (with them) then only one or a (captive) that your right hands possess. That will be more suitable to prevent you from doing injustice. -Qur'an 4:3 Before the promulgation of this verse the Arabs were in the habit of marrying countless women and they used to divorce many of them (or some of them) whenever they wished for petty reasons. But by this verse the maximum number of women that one can keeep in wedlock is restricted (minimised) to number four only. The conditional clauses such as -
1. 'If ye fear that ye shall not be able to deal justly with orphans (then) marry women...' and 2. 'But if ye fear that ye shall not be able to deal justly then marry one...' imply the fact that the polygamy is sanctioned only to safeguard the orphans' rights and to be just as guardians for widows by taking them in marriage and were ordered to deal with equity among all his wives. And the second clause as marked above 'If ye fear that ye cannot keep justice among them...' finally suggests for monogamy. But sanction is given
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for polygamy probably to avoid the social evils such as have been stated earlier. Here one thing must be noted. A man who is capable of maintaining 2-4 wives at one period can be able to satisfy all the women who need not go in search of secret paramours. This point annuls the necessity of polyandary which is posed to counteract the polygamy. Most important point that should be noted is that Qur'an does not prohibit widow marriages but encourages. This is a pleasant suggestion we find in this Qur'anic verse under discussion that how generously it safeguards the women rights. If a widow is given social equality with other women of the society and provided remarriage facility and a respectable place in society what more does she expect from the society? On the contrary the social and religious prohibition on widow marriage (though not directly imposed), the mental torture she suffers is more than her suicide on one hand and on the other noticing the belittling attitude of people towards her. The easy way of divorce, suggestion for widow marriages and polygamy it sactioned- are boons in disguise to the mankind provided they are properly used. Not knowing these facts, is not the point of concern of those that shed crocodile tears raising the finger against polygamy, in the pretext of safeguarding the woman rights, but their aim is only to defame Islam. There used to be an official, a son of a leading lady Doctor, with whom I had some acquintance. On one evening he came to my bakery and requested me to come to his house that night and accordingly I went. Then his mother lady Doctor also joined our company. They were Christians. And we three sat and engaged in general talk. Meanwhile the boy (servant) brought us three cups of coffee. After we had had it, the victim began to tell me his story. He loved a girl of Behra caste of Orissa state and married her in a Church without taking it to the notice of his mother. He had no father. And afterwards disputes overtook their mental peace and the husband wanted to get a divorce from her. She refused to do so. So the matter was filed in the court of law seeking divorce. They had been going and coming to the court for more than six years. The matter was there itself where it was started. On his advocate's advice he wanted to declare in the court that he had embraced Isalm. Therefore he requested me to see that a certificate from Mosque committee showing that he had embraced Islam might be given with old date. A false certificate. Though he was a Christian he wanted the blessings of Qur'anic shariat. Why I am writing this is his marriage was not solmnized without his consent nor he discovered later his wife to be not attractive but it was
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a couple who became one in wedlock with good love and affection on each other. They thought that they would not live without each other's company. They became one body and soul and one mind. But as years passed by, minds were changed. What prompted them for divorce is not known to me. But they became each other's enemy. These are common unpleasant circumstances that surpass the love and affection and prompt towards dissolution of the marriage. But I would like to pinpoint on the fact that they were human biengs. They were succumbed to human weakness where separation became inevitable and hence they knocked the doors of court of law. The story is long enough but I conclude here in pointing the way that Islam has provided the fecility of divorce- and how much it is useful for the society can be made known from the person who wishes to take divorce may it be a male or female. Without divorce neither one can get rid of his/her company nor can have a loving consortium. However, is this situation, in any way useful to either of them? Both were suffering. One should not be under false impression that males only are given the chance of divorce. No. Females are also given the way of dissolution of their marriage by producing Qula (separation from husband). Thus both male and female are provided the means of dissolution of their marriage. One day a Hindu couple came to our guru's (Master's)1 house with notary declaration showing that they both had embraced Islam out of their own volition. They requested him to arrange for their marriage. This was also a Fake Marriage. In this case he could not get divorce. But he was in need of marriage. So there was no other go except as pretending as what they were not really. Thus Hindus also came under the shelter of Islamic shariah. God knowing the weakness and necessities of man and woman, and with what hassles they may come across, and how to overcome successfully, God has arranged a good shariah which is being violated and misused by some miscreants. Such experiences I have had a lot with which I have no concern at all. But man must have the fear of God and fear of accountability on the day of judgment which is the only remedy which can solve all the problems and resist against from all illegal deeds.
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Polygamy not forbidden - But mistaken: We have a reference to this effect in the Bible. We read under Ref. Leviticus 18:18
Neither shalt thou take a wife to her sister to vex her to uncover her nakedness beside the other in her life time. The above verse is very clear that a man should not keep two sisters in wedlock at same time. But our pastors twist the same verse so as to mean that man should not entertain polygamy. As regards to this we have in Qur'an a clear ordinance that a man should not have in his wedlock two sisters at a same time.
...and it is forbidden to you to have two sisters together in marriage... -Qur'an 4:23 Scriptures say that one should not keep two sisters together in wedlock at one and the same time. But the Church twisted its interpretation that man is forbidden to have polygamous marriages. It may be their erroneous understanding of the scriptures or may it be their innovation God alone knows. However what the fact is that God knows the past present and future. Everything is in His comprehension. Most probably God knowing that this type of wrong doctrine prevails in the days to come He has prophesied its condonation and anulled by the following prophecy.
And in that day seven women shall take hold of one man, saying, we will eat our own bread and wear our own apparel: only let us be called by thy name to take away our reproach. (1) In that day shall the branch of the Lord be beautiful and glorious and the fruit of the earth shall be excellent and comely for them that are escaped of Israel (2) -Isaiah 4:1-2 The above is a prophecy by God through the prophet Isaiah. In it we have two verses. The first clause of the first verse speaks about the
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days that were to come in the then future wherein restitution of polygamy can be seen (and in that day seven women shall take hold of one man...). This discloses the fact of fraudulent innovation of the prohibition of polygamy which is likely to promote the social evils such as have been mentioned in the beginning while the sanction of it eradicates them. If it were not true the prophecy showing of the coming of seven women to take hold of one man remains meaningless. And the second clause stresses on its immediate necessity (saying- we will eat our own bread and wear our own apparel: only let us be called by thy name to take away our reproach).
1. We will eat our own bread and wear our own apparel 2. Only let us be called by thy name 3. To take away our reproach speak volumes of the depressed state of women in the society that would be prevailing where the necessity of the restitution of polygamy would become most necessary in the same way as it had been from the beginning. Man's knowledge is finite but God's is infinite. Does not He know the consequences of any ordinance on prohibition or permission that He gives to the people? But man with his limited knowledge and speculated over-wisdom speaks as he pleases and thinks himself as very wise and high. Before raising their finger against the polygamy allowed for four women to be kept in one's own wedlock the Church should study the Bible where restitution of polygamy with seven women is allowed. Seven is not the exact number of women allowed in polygamous marriages to be kept in one's own wedlock but it is allegorical use representing for the sanction of polygamous marriages. If it were true that God had really forbidden the polygamy why again at the time of its restoration expresses His delight by saying that 'in that day shall the branch of the Lord be beautiful and glorious and the fruit of the earth shall be excellent and comely for them that are escaped of Israel'? The last clause of this second verse 'them that are escaped of Israel' is rather confused. Christians regard that the glad tidings which have been mentioned in the verse are applicable to them. Because it is
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they that have come out of (escaped) from Israel. But here the good news is given in connection with the restitution of polygamy. And it is they (Christians) that have out of their erroneous interpretation of the verse (Leviticus 18:18) profess the wrong doctrine of the prohibition of polygamy. And still it is continuing in their community. And hence it does not apply to them but to the community which does not speak evil of polygamy. As we said earlier that polygamy is a boon in disguise which brings benevolent results and it can be proved correct as God Himself says in the verse that in that day (in which the polygamy comes into practice) shall the branch of the Lord be beautiful and glorious and the fruit of the earth shall be excellent and comely. Either christians should accept polygamy as a boon for the society or as the Bible is a book consists of false prophecies. Polygamy had been in rule even from the beginning. The king Dasaratha the father of Sri Ram had three wives. 1. Kousalya 2. Kaikeyi 3. Sumitra. Sri Krishna's matrimonial life also had been involved in polygamy. He had two wives 1. Rukmini 2. Satya Bhama and in addition he had a number of Gopikas like Radha etc., We can give such a number of examples. But our Christian friends may not accept these personalities to be holy as they regard every scripture other than their own Bible to be unholy and the stand of majority of Muslims in this regard is same as that of Christians, though Qur'an presents a different view. May God forbid. So now I would like to place the examples of their own great people and prophets and holy people who had been leading their life in polygamy. Our readers may get a doubt that why all these unnecessary points have been discussed. This is in reply to the accusation made on prophet Mohammad as a cheat and false prophet as he had been enjoying polygamous matrimonial activities.
Example 1. David I. He was elected as a prophet: and prince (king)
a. Then Samuel took the horn of oil and anointed in the midst of his brethren: and the spirit of the Lord came upon David that day forward... -I Samuel 16:13
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b. And I will set up one shepherd over them, and he shall feed them, even my servant David: he shall feed them, and he shall be their shepherd. And I the Lord will be their God and my servant David a prince among them; I the Lord have spoken it. -Ezekiel 34:23-24 c. Men and brethren let me freely speak unto you of the patriarch David, that he is both dead and buried and his sepulchre is with us unto this day. Therefore being a prophet and knowing that God had sworn with an oath to him, that of the fruit of his loins, according to the flesh, he would raise up Christ to sit on his throne. -Acts 2:29:30 The above references prove that David was not only a king but also a prophet. II. Jesus takes him as a model and quotes his reference:
But he said unto them, Have ye not read what David did, when he was an hungered, and they that with them: How he entered into the house of God, and did eat the shewbread which was not lawful for them which were with him but only for the priests?
-Matthew 12:3-4
III. He was an author of the Psalms (Psalms were revealed throug him). If one reads his Psalms, one can understand the high standard of his devotion.
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IV. Speaks with God:
And it came to pass after this, that David inquired of the Lord, saying, shall I go up into any of the cities of Judah? And the Lord said unto him, go up. And David said whither shall I go up? And he said unto Hebron. -II Samuel- 2:1 V. He was upright- Mercy of God was on him- Testimony by Soloman
a. And Solomon said, thou hast shewed unto thy servant David my father great mercy, according as he walked before thee in truth and in righteousness, and in uprightness of heart with thee; and thou hast kept for him this great kindness, that thou hast given him a son to sit on his throne, as it is this day. -I kings 3:6 b. God's attestation
And if thou (Solomon) wilt walk in my ways, to keep my statutes and my commandments, as thy father David did walk, then I will lengthen thy days. -I kings 3:14 The references given under above five heads speak the uprightness of David who was a prophet as well as a king. Now let us see his matrimonial life. Engaged in polygamy.
a. According to I Samuel-25:38-44 1- Wife ABIGAIL widow of Nabal 1- also took ABINOAM of Jezreel (perhaps the first wife by name MICHAL daughter of Saul was divorced already).
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b. According to- II Samuel 11:1-27 (one more wife) BATH SHEBA the daughter of ELIM the widow of uriah the Hittite. (Mother of Solomon, II Samuel 12:24) C. ... And gave thee thy master's house and thy master's wives into thy bosom... - II Samuel- 12:7-9
d. In addition to above wives- David took for him many concubines and wives out of Jerusalem after he was come from Hebron... -II Samuel- 5:13 From the information obtained from the above references one can calculate the number of wives at least to be a dozen (12) that David had apart from concubines. Church is proud of being his offspring:
a. The book of the generation of Jesus Christ, the son of David, the son of Abraham -Matthew 1:1 b. (Jesus says) ... I am the root and the offspring of David, and the bright and morning star. -Revelation 22:16 I or Muslims are not against David nor on his polygamous married life but what surprises us is the attitude of the Church that rejects Mohammed as a prophet taking the plea of his engagement in bigamous matrimonial life. Not only they do not regard Mohammed as a prophet but takes this plea and use in anti Islamic propagation. Self introspection is invited.
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Example II. Solomon: Bestowed with wisdom:
Behold, I have done according to thy words: lo I have given thee a wise and an understanding heart: So that there was none like thee before thee, neither after thee shall any arise like unto thee. -I Kings 3:12 God appears in dream: and speaks:
a. In Gibeon the Lord appeared to Solomon in a dream by night: and God said, Ask what I shall give thee. -I Kings 3:5 b. That the Lord appeared to Solomon the second time, as he had appeared unto him at Gibeon -I Kings 9:2 Builds the House of God: God says regarding him 'MY SON'
He [Solomon] shall build an house for my name; and he shall be my son and I will be his father; and I will establish the throne of his kingdom over Israel for ever.
-I Chronicles
22:10 Author of The Book of songs of Solomon (Revealed through Soloman)
And the rest of acts of Solomon, and all that he did, and his wisdom are they not written in the Book of the acts of Solomon? -I Kings 11:41
NOTE: This book of acts might have been included in apocrypha.
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Apocrypha means the Jewish or Christian scriptures which are regarded by them as unreliable and hence they are kept hidden out of reach of the public to study. Entertained in polygamy:
And he had seven hundred wives, princesses and three hundred concubines -I Kings 11:3 All the above references speak of Solomon's greatness. He built the House of God. God called him 'His son' and God was Father to him. It has been said of him as a king with great wisdom and one like him there was born none before him nor after was to born. Thus he was the wisest man in the world. In spite of his being involved in polygamy Church remains unconcerned and it is not a serious point to the Church while the polygamy with only 7-9 women not hundreds but only one digital became a useful device for Church to defame prophet Mohammed, whom only on this plea, they regard him not as a prophet but a cheat.
Example III. Abraham He was a prophet of God:
Now therefore restore the man his wife; for he is a prophet, and he shall pray for thee and thou shalt live: and if thou restore her not, know thou that thou shalt surely die thou and all that are thine. -Genesis 20:7 A FRIEND OF GOD He was upright and obedient to God so much so that God Himself declared Abraham to be His friend.
a. But thou, Israel, art my servant, Jacob whom I have chosen, the seed of Abraham my friend. -Isaiah 41:8
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b. Art not thou our God, who didst drive out the inhabitants of this land before thy people Israel, and gavest it to the seed of Abraham thy friend?
-II Chronicles 20:7
GOD APPEARS
a. After these things the word of the Lord came unto Abraham in a vision saying fear not Abraham: I am thy shield and thy exceeding great reward. -Genesis 15:1 b. And when Abraham was ninety years old and nine, the Lord appeared to Abraham, and said unto him, I am the Almighty God, walk before me, and be thou perfect. -Genesis 17:1 MATRIMONIAL LIFE
a.... the name of Abraham's wife was Sarai (Sarah)... -Genesis 11:29 b. And Sarai [Sarah] Abraham's wife took Hagar her maid the Egyptian... and gave her husband Abraham to be his wife. -Genesis 16:3 c. Then again Abraham took a wife, and her name was Keturah1. -Genesis 25:1 d. But unto the sons of the concubines which Abraham had... - Genesis 25:6 In addition to 3 wives Abraham had many concubines. Thus he was involved in polygamy.
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Example IV.
Esau S/o Isaac
According to Genesis 26:34 - two (2) wives Judith D/o Beeri the Hittite and Bashemath D/o Elon the Hittite. According to Genesis 28:9- 1 wife Mahalath D/o Ishmael sister of Nebejoth According to Genesis 36:2-3 three (3) wives Adah D/o Elon the Hittite. Aholibamah D/o Anah the D/o Zibron the Havite a third oneBashemath D/o Ishmael sister of Nebojoth. According to the above statements it can be easily mentioned that Esau S/o Isaac had been involved in polygamy.
Example V. Jacob S/o Isaac God appears:
And, behold, the Lord stood above it, and said, I am the Lord God of Abraham thy father, and the God of Isaac... -Genesis 28:13 God speaks:
And Jacob said, O God of my father Abraham and God of my father Isaac, the Lord which saidst unto me, Return unto thy country, and to thy kindred, and I will deal well with thee. -Genesis 32:9 Sees Angels:
And Jacob went on his way, and the Angels of God met him. -Genesis 32:1 He also engaged in polygamy: Jacob married two sisters Leah and Rachel. Both were given two handmaids- Thus he keeps all the four women as his wives out of whom
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(12) sons to Jacob were born who became Israelites or Jews (Genesis 29:16-29). Thus a train of people who had been involved in polygamy can be listed. They were not rogues but the most upright and obedient to God who were chosen prophets of God. Yet they married a number of women. There was sanction of polygamy. But when the case of prophet Mohammed's point comes the pastors feel as if they have been stung by a scorpion and to get relief from the pain they use the remedy of his polygamy as means for the propagation purpose to defame Islam and prophet Mohammed and they raise the question that how a man with an enjoyment of life with so many women can be a prophet of God? Prejudice dies hard. Let them have their own self introspection.
The another device that pastors and others make Spread of Islam by sword: India is a secular state. Its constitution has given liberty to every individual to profess any religion and practise it and to preach it. But one should not entice by offering gifts (of any means) or by means of threatening or by means of force. But one can utilize this constitutional right with one's own volition and descretion and freedom of choice. In this regard the constitution is very liberal and hence deserves high appreciation. The forcible conversions it prohibits is the act of most commendable as it safeguards the human rights. Forcible conversion is the act of intrusion into others' own right of liberty and volition. To me it appears that the then constitution writers might have been inspired by God Almighty Himself that it was merely waste of having embraced any religion by means of force. Because such unwilling and feigned and unfair practice of any one's embracing any religion is merely a wasteful act where one gets no reward but punishment. And so force on religious conversions is prohibited both by devine constitution as well as Indian constitution. No Sword - No Force
We know best what they say: and thou hast not been appointed to compel them in any way. So admonish by means of Qur'an him who fears my warning.
-Qur'an 50:45
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Let there be no compulsion in Religion: 1Truth stands out clear from Error: Whoever rejects Evil and believes in God hath grasped the most trustworthy hand-hold that never breaks2. And God heareth and knoweth all things. -Qur'an 2:256 Here these Quranic veses may be twisted to be wrongly interpreted saying that prophet Mohammed had launched forcible conversions and so God had warned him not to do so- He was a prophet of God. And no prophet had ever done as he pleased until as he was directed by God.3 And hence these verses are revealed for Muslim community that they should not force anybody towards Islam in particular and as an admonition in general to show that forcible conversions are of no effect. It is as valueless as a fake currency. As regards to the verse (2:256) Mr Abdullah Yusuff Ali a renowned scholar writes in his commentary under footnotes Nos. 300 and 301 (see the following footnotes on page 342)
Battles - Fought for Religion Defencive only but not aggressive. From the foregoing arguments we came to know that the forcible conversions are prohibited. This applies to all communities. In every community there had been frequent religious wars not for the purpose of conversions but for the sake of defence. When the enemy was trying by all means to oppress the religion of God and wage wars against the prophet and his followers... in circumstances such as these the believers were ordained by God to fight against such people. Battle of Kurukshetra is also this type of defencive war against the enemy who waged war to disrupt the reformative work under- taken by Sri Arjuna by the instruction of Sri Krishna (Paramatma) who was Adhidaiwata appointed by God Almighty. Handful of believers who took part in the Kurukshetra Battle all came out successful except a few. But the enemy Dhritarastrians all were punished to death and none was saved. As regards to this Battle we have dealt very elaborately in our another book under title 'My Findings from Gita - Conform with Qur'an'. In Christianity (Jews of that time) also the same situation took place. Believers were very few. Enemy was very great. But divine help was
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incomparably greater than any thing else. We can find from the following-
a. And he said Hearken ye all Judah and ye inhabitants of Jerusalem and thou king Jehoshaphat. Thus saith the Lord unto you. Be not afraid nor dismayed by reason of this great multitude; for the battle is not yours but God's. (15) Tomorrow go ye down against them: behold they come up by the Eliff of Ziz; and ye shall find them at the end of the brook before the wilderness of Jeruel (16). Ye shall not need to fight in this battle: set yourselves stand ye still and see the salvation of the Lord with you, O Judah and Jerusalem: fear not nor be dismayed; tomorrow go out against them; for the Lord will be with you (17). -2 Chronicles 20:15-17 Jesus orders for the aquisition of weapons:
b. ...and he that hath no sword, let him sell his garment, and buy one. -Luke 22:36 Now let us examine some Qur'anic verses
a. And fight in the cause of Allah against those who fight against you, but do not transgress. Surely Allah loves not the transgressors -Qur'an 2:190 b. But if they desist, then surely Allah is most forgiving, Merciful. -Qur'an 2:192 c. And fight them until there is no persecution and religion is freely professed for Allah. But if they desist then remember that no hostility is allowed except against the agressors. Qur'an 2:193
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d. And if they incline towards peace, incline thou also towards it, and put thy trust in Allah. Surely it is He who is all hearing all knowing. -Qur'an 8:61 e. And if they break their oaths after their covenant, and attack your religion, then fight these leaders of disbelief- surely they have no regard for their oaths that they may desist. -Qur'an 9:12 f. Will you not fight a people who have broken their oaths, and who plotted to turn out the Messenger and they were the first to commence hostilities against you? Do you fear them? Nay Allah is most worthy that you should fear Him, if you are believers. Fight them that Allah may punish them at your hands and humiliate them and help you to victory over them and relieve the minds of a people who believe -Qur'an 9:13-14 G. And kill them wherever you meet them and drive them out from where they have driven you out; for persecution is worse than killing. And fight them not in and near the sacred Mosque until they fight you therein. But if they fight you, then fight them: such is the requital for the disbelievers. -Qur'an 2:191 Let us now analyse some Qur'anic verses as quoted above
a. Under reference of Quranic verse 2:190 we understand that sanction for attacking the enemy is given only in case if they were attacked to defend themselves. Then does it come under the term of aggression? And at the same time believers were warned that they should not transgress as God would not love the transgressors. Does it mean that Islam spread by means of forcible conversions by the help of sword?
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c. Under reference Qur'an 2:193 it can be interpreted that believers are allowed to fight the hostile group as long as they are engaged in ceaseless torture to prevent believers from proffessing their religion freely for God. No hostility is allowed if they desist from such evil. But hostility is allowed only against such people as aggressors. One is allowed to profess the religion that one likes under our Indian constitution and it appears to me as an image of the Divine constitution which God Almighty has provided as birthright of every individual. d. Now let us examine the verse of Qur'an under reference 8:61 The first clause of it reads 'And if they incline towards peace...' Who are they that incline towards peace of this clause? 'They' are they that were oppressing the believers and causing disruption in the way of proffessing their belief. The whole clause means to say that 'if they incline towards peace', the following clause suggests that 'the believers also must incline towards peace'. That means if the oppressive party inclines towards peace they (Believers) must also incline towards peace. Then does this verse suggest for aggression and forcible conversions by sword?
e. According to the verse Qur'an 9:12 the believers are enjoined to fight the leaders of disbelief only in case if they break their oaths after their covenant and attack believers' religion having no regard for their oaths that they might desist from attacking them. Here in this verse also only defencive war is suggested but believers were not provoked to launch the aggressive war so that they could spread Islam by means of sword. f. From the two verses of Qur'an under reference 9:13-14 we can understand that God questioned that why would not they fight a people who had broken their oaths and that who had plotted to turn out the Messenger. And God says in these verses that it
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were the disbelievers themselves who had been first to commence hostilities against the believers. Taking these disorderly activities of the disbelievers into consideration God ordained the believers to fight them without fear and assured the victory to the believers over nonbelievers. Does this passage suggest forcible and aggressive attacks to gain the number of Muslims to considerable extent by the help of sword? Spread of Islam by means of force, sword, inducement and threatall these are only meaningless accustions. The religion (any) needs real believers with unfeigned and unflinching belief and faith. Contrary to these principle elements, if any person embraces any (other) religion is equal to a dead body from whom the life is extincted. Such a man is as useful to the community as is a body without soul. God wants not the number but the true believers.
Qur'an : A product of malpractice: Copied from Bible? "Qur'an is a product of the false prophet Mohammed who copied the matter from the Bible and inserted here and there in Qur'an and posed as if it were the revelation from God through the Holy Spirit Archangel Gabriel". It is an another accusation by the pastors whose un-fledged scriptural knowledge can be made known on seeing the prophecy of Jesus about his (Prophet Mohammad) advent. It is known to our readers that the arguments are being made mainly about the person of the universal prophet Mohammad. Jesus was the forerunner1 of the comforter, the prophet Mohammed had very correctly prophesied what kind of activities that he would accomplish.
a. But the comforter, which is the Holy Ghost, whom the Father will send in my name, he shall teach you all things and bring all things to your remembrance, whatsoever I have said unto you. -John 14:26
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The last clause of the above passage 'whatsoever I have said untoyou'qualify both the acts (1) 'he shall teach you all things' and (2) 'bring all things to your remembrance' This is to mean as saying 'he shall teach you all things' what all I have taught you and 'bring all things to your remembrance' what all I have commanded you. Thus this passage makes clear that the comforter would remind and teach them what all Jesus had taught his followers. If this be the case with the teachings of the comforter what else it (Qur'an) could have been other than mere copy of the Bible, though not verbatim but same in meaning to a greater extent? Many verses of the Qur'an resemble with the teachings of the Bible. Very aptly said Jesus that they would forget all his teachings which comforter (Mohammed) would bring to their remembrance. What deeply regrettable is inspite of this clear prophecy, pastors try to defame and degrade Qur'an, by simply saying 'it is the copy of Bible'. Dear Christian brethren! had the case with Qur'an been not such as this, the prophecy of Jesus about the comforter would have become void. And at the same time Qur'an outright condemns the wrong doctrines of the Church1 which point naturally hurt its feelings. And thus it seems to me that Jesus has rightly warned as follows-
b. Peace I leave with you, my peace I give unto you: not as the world giveth, give I unto you. Let not your heart be troubled, neither let it be afraid. -John 14:27
2. 'he shall testify of me' is the last clause of the verse John 15:26. This means the comforter should give his testimony about Jesus' truthfulness in the Qur'an revealed to him. So it speaks conspicuously that he should state in Qur'an the relevant statements that what all Jesus had taught and commanded. Then the relevance between Qur'an and Bible appears as copy. As Qur'an revealed latter, at the first glance it appears as a copy from Bible. As a matter of fact it reflects more on the point of being a remider as said in the earlier arguments in point (a), rather than being as alleged against.
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c. We have another prophecy of Jesus in which he clearly says -
'He shall glorify me for he shall receive of mine and shew it unto you. All things that the Father hath are mine: therefore said I that he shall take of mine and shall shew it unto you. -John 16:14-15 In the above passage Jesus prophesied that the comforter prophet Mohammed would honour him (he shall glorify me). How he was to be honoured (glorified) by him is also explained in the verse. 'He shall glorify me, for he shall receive of mine and shew it unto you' The main clause we need from the above is, 'He shall receive of mine, and shew it unto you'. This is to mean as saying that the comforter would take from his (Jesus) teachings (Book) and would teach them the same. If this be the truth does not each book resemble the other? Therefore it must be taken for granted that Qur'an is not copy of the Bible, but a reminder of the teachings of Jesus and other prophets. Either one should accept Qur'an as the reminder of the teachings of Jesus and other prophets or as Jesus himself to have deliberately made a mistake by false prophecy. Dear Christian brethren! Which one of the two would you prefer to accept?
Trance of a prophet mistaken for trance followed by epileptic attack by unfledged preachers Before proceeding to the subject Revelation and Trance, I would like to introduce Dr. K.M.Chistie, B.sc; MBBS; M.H.A. He is a doctor by profession. He had been R.M.O of General Hospital Kakinada in the years 1978-80 (I don't exactly remember) and was transferred to Visakhapatnam. He was a Muslim by birth, native of Guntur who converted himself to Christianity, the reasons thereof are not known to me. I had a Bakery just opposite to general Hospital, Kakinada, which is now no more, as it was dismantled in Road widening. During his service at Kakinada, I had frequent occasions of meeting with him. First five days we had religious discussions for 4 - 3- 2- 1 hours respectively. All these four days we had hot discussions on Bible and Qur'an, the points that came on discussion, if God be willing I shall place before readers in my Book, under title - 'Some questions of Genius'. But on the fourth day when I was about to leave I was asked to get myself well prepared on the subject of Miraj the prophet's journey from Masjid-Haram to the distant Masjid by night (in a short time of the later night and his return from there
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to Makka). Four days interval for preparation of the subject was given. Accordingly on 5th night I met him as had been scheduled. After greetings I was welcomed and signed by him to my seat. Arguments began... he affectionately said, "Brother Ahmed Ali, you seem to be an educated man, you are having a great insight both in Qur'an and Bible", he praised a while and then said, 'Just imagine what were the means of conveyance 1400 years ago1 when the event2 is believed to have taken place'. He smiled and continued, 'There were no even bullock - carts in those days. However was it possible for a man to go to a distant place and return back to his native place within hours of the night?' And again questioned, 'Is it possible? Think over the point with reasoning'. I said with a low voice bending down my head 'yes doctor it does not stand to the test of reason. So we shall do one thing...' He interfered anxiously- 'yes-yes what is it?' Then with a serious face rather with a pretence as of a defeated soldier I posed at him a pale and mild smile. Then with more curiosity said he 'Tell me brother what shall we do? I am ready to obey you'. Then I continued and said 'Doctor let us not worship God Almighty (Allah) who was not capable of taking His prophet from Makka to Jerusalem within the hours of night 'What is it that you say?' was his inquisitive question with hidden joy of victory over me. I said 'yes Doctor, let us worship Satan from this time onwards who was competent enough to carry God's prophet Jesus within a moment of time and showed all the nations of the world. 'well' said I 'Am I not correct Doctor?'
And the Devil [Satan] taking him [Jesus] up in to an high mountain showed unto him all the kingdoms of the world in a moment of time1. -Luke 4:5 This (the above) is not a Qur'anic verse. But to him is an authentic record of fact from the Bible. If it were Qur'an, he could have rejected it at the outset but unfortunately it was quoted from Bible. He cannot speak nonsense against Bible as he does about Qur'an. He was speaking on precepts such as reason, logic, and prudence and wisdom, and judgment and with care, and on what not? But when the case of Bible came he became quite silent and understood that he was ensnared. And so he immediately changed the topic. This is no more than a blatant camouflage attempt.
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'Well Mr. Ahmed Ali "was Mohammed the last prophet of God? why not a succession of prophets be, numbering say about 10-20-25... after Jesus?" he questioned me. I replied, 'yes Doctor, there should be no successive line of prophets after Jesus. Because Jesus said '...and God shall give you another comforter...' 2 "The word another" and I continued; "restricts to the only prophet after Jesus. Because the word another signifies the singular number. And so if a line of successive prophets had followed the prophecy of Jesus becomes false and he would be regrded as false prophet (may God forbid)". Therefore I continued, 'according to prophet Jesus there should come only one prophet after him and accordingly prophet Mohammed manifested and declared that after him there comes no prophet as he was the last of the line of prophets'. This reply also spelt adversely to his expectations. Afterwards what happened I should not write because that was an oral conversation not related with scriptures and hence I do not think it is proper to mention in his absence.Foregoing arguments were made basing on scriptural facts and hence I wrote them, as either his absence or presence makes no difference. If anyone is not satisfied and willing to continue the argument he is welcome. Thus he/they may take the place of doctor as my counterpart. Now I continue my introduction of the doctor. We stopped the arguments on the religious matters but continued our friendship. Friendship in the sense that there was no hostility and exchange of hot arguments between the doctor and me. He used to spend some time with me at our Bakery and I used to go to his office whenever necessity of medical help occured and he affectionately attended to my necessity. This tempo was continued for 3 or 4 months. Later he went to Visakhapatnam on leave and finally was transferred. In the year 1982 my first book under title 'Is Atonement Necessary for Salvation?' was printed and published by me. To my surprise (1988 or 89) doctor came to our Bakery with said book and told me that he would discuss on the book not in person but by letters as he had no time- Then I reminded him that I had discussed on the main points from that book and also relating to the points on 'That Prophet' . Then he told me waving the book which he held in his hand 'I will write you letters - you must give answers from Qur'an only but not from Bible'. Immediately he diverted the topic and enquired that how was my first son Fazl-ur-Rahaman who had been mentally retarded and epileptic patient right from his 5 years of
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age who is now no more. For his epilepsy he prescribed a drug- sodium valproate 500 mg'. and advised to use daily one tablet and in haste he went away: In between 1990-91 he wrote me very lengthy letters about nine which altogether make a huge book. To be frank by that time I was very busy in writing the book 'That Prophet'. When I received his first letter I was in last phase of the manuscript of 'That prophet'. After that, I had to start 'The Universal Prophet'. Really what I thought after his first letter was that answering to the letter was merely waste as many of the points had been discussed with him and so I thought that it was a device for interruption in my main work. And my friends also said in the like manner and also advised me not reply his letters. After that I had recieved further eight letters with a number of questions to be answered. I thought it would be better to answer his questions in my another book under title questions of Genius and my Answers which by that time half work had been finished. I have so many questions from others also. I want to answer all these questions in the said book. However the manuscript of the book 'That Prophet' was completed. And afterwards I had to continue the work on 'The Universal Prophet' I began to write of which nearly 1/4 of the manuscript of it was completed, that a demand came from our friends insisting me to write on the Bhagavad Gita. So the manuscript of the book 'My Findings from Gita' was well prepared and in the year 2001 it was published by me under the title 'My findings from Gita Conform with Qur'an'. And another demand for 'Isaiah -53' pressed me into writing it and however got it published. Then 'The Profile of Paul' was another book that was undertaken and was printed in the year 2008. Then came the turn of 'Taht Prophet' which was already prepared and hence got it printed in 2009. After all these, I undertook the remaining work on 'The Universal Prophet' in whose last chapter- under the sub heading of 'Trance' it came into my remembrance, that I had a letter from doctor whose main accusation on the universal prophet was that what all he said was said in his state of trance which he posed as a revelation from God. So I picked up his file and read all the letters from which a letter was found wherein the point of trance is discovered. I want to make a base of this letter and discuss the matter. Hence all this introduction of the doctor necessitated me to place before the readers. Though it at a first glance appears to be waste of time, our readers will appreciate as two points of doctor have been discussed in it and now we are going to have the main argument relating to the subject of 'Trance'. The following is the true copy of the relevant matter on the subject from the letter of doctor. It is placed before our readers so as to make them understand the stand of doctor on the
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revelation of Qur'an and its revealer and dictator. The letter of the doctor: TRUE COPY
I. The Al-Qur'an according to Mr. Mohammad Marmaduke Pickthal an Englishman, a Christian converted to Muhamadism (Islam) in his translation of Qur'an though believes that it can not be translated but translated with the title 'The Meaning of the glorious Koran'. In the introduction to the book he writes as follows (Ref. Page XI) II. The words which came to him in a state of trance are held sacred by the Muslims and are never confounded with those which he uttered when no physical change was apparent in him. The former are the sacred book, the latter the Hadith or Sunnah of the prophet. And because the angel on Mount Hira bade him 'read insisted on his 'Reading' though he was illiterate, the Sacred Book is known as Al-Qur'an 'The Reading'. The reading of a man who knew not how to read. At another place on page X Mr Pickthall writes
III. It was his practice to retire with his family for a month of every year to a cave in the desert hill not far from Mecca, and his chosen month was RAMADAN the month of heat. IV. It was there one NIGHT towards the end of his quiet month that the first revelation came to him when he was forty years old. He was ASLEEP or in a trance when he heard a voice say: 'READ'. He said: I cannot read. The voice again said 'READ'. He said I cannot read. A third time the voice more terrible commanded 'READ'. He said : what can I read. The voice said
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'Read...' This is the reason perhaps, that a group of Muslims (AHL-e-HADITH) pay very little heed to the contents of Qur'an and also because the verses were purported to have been revealed to Mohammad when he never used to be in his total consciousness but either in sleep (at the first occasion) and in a state of 'trance' always whenever a revelation came.
V. As a medical doctor, a Psychologyst and a practising Psychiatrist having adequate knowledge of the levels of consciousness both in health and disease, and the level of consciousness in induced- state of trance without the use of drugs (I mean here, the induction of Hypnosis) I can well appreciate the Psychological state and anaesthesia a condition of trance in certain common Psychiatric illness both of known and idopathic (unknown) origin. You are also well aware of a condition of trance in which a person will never be in a normal state of mind. For example a person who suffers unfortunately from a disease of the brain called Epilepsy goes into the state of trances (Aura) whenever he gets an attack of epilepsy before the onset of the seisure (Fit) in which he perceives things and events which do not exist in reality. These features of the disease are related to any special sense or a combination of senses (eg: one during the pre eleptic aura one may see a lightning (visual) as well the noice of the thunder (auditory pertaining to the sense of hearing and may feel cold due to the notion existing rain or cold wave) These symptoms are known as HALLUCINATIONS. One may experience the same hallucination several times or the hallucinatios may be changing pertaining to different senses. After this phase of Aura follows the spell of the seisure (the fit) in which the patient will not be in a trance but in a state of total unconsciousness.
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VI. When the spell of the unconscious state begin to pass off, the person passes through another state of semi or subconsciousness during which he will be in an [a] state of utter confusion almost similar to the state of 'trance' in which the patient's speech becomes irrational incoherent and without insight and orientation: when he comes out of this state of subconsciousness he slowly regains his normal faculties linked with orientation of time, place and person. Very often the patient after an episode of epileptic attack he prefers to relax or sleep due to physical exhaution and preceding mental confusion. VII. We learnt that the state of trance is not a state of total consciousness. The revelation of this Sacred Book Al-Qur'an is said to have been sent to the Messenger of Allah, Mohammed bin Abdullah while he used to be in a state of trance. VIII. When the earlier righteous men, the prophets Viz. Moses, who stood face to face with the glory of God, Abraham to whose residence the angels (Gabriel) visited and so much so to those prophets namely, Lot, Jacob and Zacharaiah to give the glad tidings from God/warning about the impending wrath of God, they never went into a state of trance. In this respect of receiving the revelation through the angel Gabrail, the messenger Mohammed bin Abdullah was altogether different. The earlier prophets whom Angel Gabriel visited were also humans like Mohammed. IX. The reaction or interaction of Mohammed on seeing the angel for the first time (the would be messenger of Allah) at the age of 40 was terribly afraid of the repeated vision and voice that he is the messenger, even after the self introduction of the angel
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Gabrial that his wife Khadeeja and her cousin Warqua bin Nawfil has to console him and give him the moral assurance that nothing would happen to him. The moral assurance of these two relatives and the social influence of his guardian and protector Abu Talib gave him the courage to proclaim Mohammed to be the messenger of Allah. X. Perhaps out of the enmity, the elders of the tribe of Quraish, thought that he had gone a little mad and also perhaps there was anguish of the gods (idols) which were lying installed in the Kaba for generations. NOTE: The above 10 paragraphs are the sarcastic remarks of the doctor on Mr Mohammad Marmaduke Pickthal's Meaning of the Glorious Koran and prophet Mohammed and on his revelations in the state of TRANCE. I am pleased to write that the matter related to TRANCE taken from the letter of doctor is divided under ten paragraphs. Hence I have marked them to be paragraphs I to X respectively for the easy understanding of the readers. This numbering will be helpful as reference number in our arguments. As according to I para of his letterhe writes about Mr Mohammed Marmaduke Pickthall. The Al-Qur'an according to Mr Mohammed Marmaduke Pickthall, an Englishman, the Christian converted to Muhammadism (Islam) ... Doctor opined that it was Mohammadism the religion which has been peached by prophet Mohammed. 'Mohammadism' is the misnomer of 'Islam' introduced by Britishers in India and other nations where they had been rulers for more than 200-300 years, only to justify their religion which is known as Christianity. After the independence, the people of
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India and other nations began to forget the name Mohammadism and are acquainted with its real name Islam. But what regrettable is that the doctor still remembers its misnomer, though he put Islam in brackets by the side of Mohammadism. To be very frank neither Mohammadism was given by prophet Mohammed nor Christianity by prophet Jesus, but the latter is the religion which came into predominance after the departure of Jesus. Its real founder is one known as St. Paul1. Prophet Jesus was sent as a prophet for Jews. When he was departing from the world he promised of another prophet (comforter)2 after him and the religion which was to be preached by him would be peace which altogether infers that he named his religion and the succeeding one which was to be given is one and the same known as PEACE3. The literal meaning of Islam is peace and submission. Peace can be obtained only when man submits himself to God completely. All prophets preached the way of peace and submission to God and hence all prophets preached the same religion of peace. But under the linguistic and regional influence or wanton perversion4 they are called by different names with which however we are not concerned.
Further the doctor writes about Mr M.M.Pickthall as follows: ...In his tarnslation of Qur'an though believes that it connot be translated but translated with the title 'The Meaning of the Glorious Koran'. It is true that Qur'an or any scripture cannot be translated. (Translated- just as a match can be transmitted live in T.V.) Only in that sense he might have written that "it cannot be translated". The translations of any scripture cannot be said as direct Qur'an, Bible or Gita- The meaning of Qur'an, Meaning of Bible and Meaning of Gita are the correct phrases that one should name their tranlations respectively. Mr. Maramaduke Pickthall did the same (ie) he named his work as 'The meaning of the Glorious Qur'an' for which he deserves appreciation. Further the learned doctor quotes what he found in the introduction to the book [ The meaning of the Glorious Koran] in page No. XI as here under.
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Please see II para of his letter as quoted in verbatim:
a. The words which came to him [Mohammed] in a state of trance are held sacred by the Muslims... b. ...and are never confounded with those which he uttered when no physical change was apparent in him... c. ...The former are the sacred Book, the latter the Hadith or sunnah of the prophet. d. ...And because the angel on Mount Hira bade him 'Read'- insisted on his 'reading' though he was illiterate, the sacred Book is known as Al-Qur'an, 'The reading...' e. ...The reading of a man who knew not how to read. Under point (a) I would like to state that the doctor had mistaken the word 'TRANCE' of prophets which they fall into, at the time of receiving the revelation from God through the Holy Spirit- to be as similar and equal as the trance that of an epileptic patient. The trance caused as a result of the attack of epilepsy is different from the Trance caused by the Divine revelation. This simple difference between the two trances remained undisclosed to the learned doctor who is also a preacher of christianity is a matter of great pity. How he confounded in differentiating these two in spite of having a clear reference in his own book namely the Bible which is an authority for every Christian. And according to them no other scripture stands in par with it. It is commonly believed that exorsists drive away the devils from the bodies of the people that are possessed of devils. They do it by means of incantation. Jesus is also believed to have cast out devils from the bodies of the people that were possessed with devils (Mork 5:1-15 and Mark 16:9). Jesus did it by the power of miracle. In this regard if his miracle is compared (equated) with the exorcism by an exorsist- can the doctor accept it? But he is exultant in equating the TRANCE of an epileptic patient with
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the TRANCE of a prophet when he goes into, at the time of receiving the revelation. Now let us see from Bible the prophets entering into trance at the time of receiving the revelation from God through the Holy Spirit.
I. ... and the spirit of God came upon him. -Numbers 24:2 He hath said, which heard the words of God which saw the trance, but having his vision of the Almighty, falling into a trance eyes open. -Numbers 24:4 II. He hath said which heard the words of God, and knew the knowledge of the most High, which saw the vision of the Almighty, falling into a trance trance, but having his eyes open -Numbers 24:16 If the doctor regards the trance of prophet Mohammed and the message he uttered or proclaimed while in the state of trance to be same as the trance of an epileptic patient, what does he brand the prophet who proclaimed the words of God, which he heard in the vision of the Almighty, falling into a trance, but having his eyes open, under two references as shown above? The following three references are taken from the apostelic activities which proclaim to have received revelation while they were in the state of trance. The alleged trance of these people cannot be accepted as an authentic since the information given thereby contradicts the teachings of Jesus. Here what we should note is under the pretext of trance, they have given misleading dogmas (statements) and they wanted to get them sanctioned by all the followers. In this connection we have made profuse arguments in our another book under the title "The Profile of Paul" which may be referred. Their alleged claim of falling into trance may be a fiction but the procedure of receiving the revelation from God while in the state of trance as admitted by them is an eye opener to the doctor.
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1. And he (Peter) became very hungry, and would have eaten: trance And saw but while they made ready, he fell into a trance. heaven opened and a voice was heard... (Acts 10:10-16) 2. I was in the city of Joppa praying: and in a trance I saw a vision vision... And heared a voice... (Acts 11:5`10) 3. And it came to pass, that when I (Paul) was come again to Jerusalem, even while prayed in the temple, I was in a trance trance: And I saw him (Jesus) saying to me... (Acts 22:17-18) b. Under point (B)- the doctor writes: ...and are never confounded with those which he uttered when no physical change was apparent in him... Here he means as saying that the words uttered by the prophet Mohammed while in a state of trance and the words he told when no physical change (trance) was apparent in him...' Thus he discriminated the two kinds of his teachings as shown in (c) in his letter under para II.
c. ...the former one is the sacred Book, the latter the Hadith or Sunnah of the prophet... It is true that what all he (Prophet Mohammed) said while in a state of trance or in the state of his physical change- are considered by every Muslim as sacred revelation from God through the Holy Spirit. These two states as described in old testament can be seen (1) Trance as discribed in our foregoing pages- and the state of change into another man which is also the state of trance can be noticed from the following.
And the Spirit of the Lord will come upon thee, and thou shalt prophecy with them, and shall be turned into another man man. -I Samuel 10:6
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Doctor writes that the words uttered by prophet while not in a state of trance are called Hadith or Sunnah of the prophet. Here the doctor should note it is true that the former is Hadith but not Sunnah. The latter one Sunnah means the tradition of the prophet. Tradition means the regular habits and practice of any particular act such as keeping beard etc. Hadith is his annotation on Qur'anic topics. These two are the collections of the hearsay that came to the Raavi (means one who tells Hadith or Sunnah) in succession of generation to generation after a long lapse of time of 56 generations. And, so, some people cannot accept them as authentic while some take which stand coherent with Qur'anic teachings while reject all such Hadith or sunnah that contradict Qur'an, which are marked by the Muhadatheen (teachers of Ahaadith) as Zaeef means not reliable (apocriphal).
d. And because the angel on Mount Hiraa bade him 'Read'- insisted on his 'reading' though he was illiterate, the sacred Book is known as Al-Qur'an, 'The Reading...' e. ...The reading of a man who knew not how to read. As regards to the first revelation we have an information that how prophet Mohammed received it at the cave of Hira, as mentioned here under. Proclaim (or read) in the name of thy Lord and cherisher who created[Qur'an 96:1] 'Iqraa' may mean 'read' or 'recite' or 'rehearse' (or) 'proclaim aloud', the object understood being God's message. For an account of the circumstances in which the first revelation- the divine commission to preach and proclaim God's message came to the holy prophet in the cave of Hiraa. In worldly letters he was unversed but with spiritual knowledge his mind and soul were filled, and now had come the time when he must stand forth to the world and declare his mission. Taken from Mr. Abdullah Yousuff Ali's text and translation and commentary on the verse. Sarcasm of the doctor on the first visit of holy spirit (Jibril) to prophet Mohammed at cave of Hiraa, wherein he writes tauntfully as here under.
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d. And because the angel on Mount Hiraa bade him [Mohammed] 'Read' insisted on his 'reading' though he was illiterate, the sacred Book is known as Al-Qur'an, The Reading... e. The reading of a man who knew not how to read. Relating to this event we have a clear prophecy by Isaiah as quoted here under.
And the vision of all is become unto you as the words of abook that is sealed, which [men] deliver to one that is learned, saying, Read this, I pray thee; and he saith, I cannot; for it is sealed: And the book is delivered to him that is not learned [unlettered] saying Read this, I pray thee, and he saith, I am not learned. -Isaiah 29:11-12 i. We find this prophecy under two parts. According to the first part of it, (under verse 11) we understand that a sealed book is given to one that is learned. ii. By whom is it to be given? The answer is given in elleptical words which is understood to mean by 'men' while its consecutive phrase 'Read this, I pray thee' signify to only one person but not men. iii. Taking into consideration also of the command or request 'Read, I pray thee', while saying to the unlettered, it can be concluded that it is not 'men' but only one person (under verse - 12 also).
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iv. The object that was to be given according to both parts is 'The sealed book' what does it consist of ? It consists of vision of all words... (and the vision of all is become unto you as the words of a book that is sealed) in other words the sealed book consists of Revelation. v. We understand that the book is to be given (1) according to first verse to the 'learned one', and his inability in reading it expressed as saying- 'it is sealed'. This verse seems to have been tampered with light touchings such as 'learned one' in the place of 'unlettered', so as to mislead the readers to think of the meaning of the book to be really sealed book in the sense which one cannot read as it is sealed. vi. And the same book (sealed) according to second part is to be given to one that is 'unlettered' (not learned), and his inability in reading it expressed saying as 'I am not learned' (I am unlettered). This is the original prophecy which has been revealed through prophet Isaiah that a sealed book would be given to an unlettered prophet. Now what our question is - does it make any difference when a sealed book is given either to a learned man or to a man who is not learned? Makes no difference because the book is sealed. As it is a sealed book it cannot be read. So the meaning of the 'Sealed Book' must be something other than what it infers to mean as "a firmly packed and sealed book". Now let us know what the correct meaning of the 'sealed book' stands for. Now let us know the mystery about sealed book:
a. Bind up the testimony, seal the law among my disciples. -Isaiah 8:16
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b. Seventy weeks are determined upon thy people and upon thy holy city, to finish the transgression and to make an end of sins, and to make reconciliation for iniquity and to bring in everlasting righteousness and seal up the vision and prophecy, and to anoint the most Holy. -Danial 9:24 The above two verses are prophecies which clearly speak of the advent of the last (universal) prophet after whom there would be no prophet and hence no testimony, and thus he would be seal of the law, vision and prophecy. Thus the book given by him is discribed as 'sealed book' (Isaiah 29:11) in the sense of final book after which there would be no book- no prophet and no prophecy.But the Church argues that these two epithets (1) 'Sealed Book' and (2) 'unlettered one' are aptly applicable to the gospels and to the person of Jesus respectively. To prove Jesus as the seal of prophets it forwards a verse "...for him [Jesus] hath the God the Father sealed (John 6:27). Please note the word seal of this verse cannot be taken to mean in the sense of last, but it means for 'selected one' according to the context. And so the claim of Church is ruled out. WAS JESUS UNLETTERED? The following verse discloses the fact.
And the Jews marvelled, saying, how knoweth this man letters having never learned? -John 7:15 Pastors try in vain to twist this verse to prove that Jesus was unlettered. But according to this one can understand that Jesus knew how to read and write - no matter whether he learnt it by means of schooling or not. The same is attested by the following:
And he [Jesus] came to Nazareth, where he had been brought up; and as his custom was he went into the Synagogue on the sabbath day and stood up for to read. And there was delivered
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unto him the book of the prophet Esaias. And when he had opened the book he found the place where itwas written the spirit of the Lord is upon me because he hath anointed me to preach the gospel to the poor; he hath sent me to heal the broken-hearted to preach deliverance to the captives and recovering of sight to the blind, to set at liberty them that are bruised, to preach the acceptable year of the Lord. And he closed the book, and he gave it again to the minister and sat down. And the eyes of all them that were in the Synagogue were fastened on him. -Luke 4:16-20 This passage also says that Jesus was welversed in reading- thus he was not unlettered. But the prophecy speaks of an unlettered one.
Prophet Jesus - not last prophet Prophet Jesus cannot be the last prophet as he himslf promises about the advent of a comforter after him.
And I will pray the Father, and he shall give you another comforter, that he may abide with you for ever -John 14:16 The above passage speaks that there was another prophet to come after him (I will pray the Father and he shall give you another comforter). He would be the last prophet (that he may abide with you for ever). And after him, he being the last one, there would be no testimony and no law and thus he 'Bind up the testimony, seal the law among my disciples'- the prophecy of which fulfilled in the person of prophet Mohammed.
Muhammed is not the father of any of your men, but (he is) prophets: And God has full the apostle of God and seal of the prophets knowledge of all things. -Qur'an 33:40 This is the meaning of sealed book of the prophecy which is under discussion (Isaiah 29:11, 8:16 and Daniel 9:24).
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Then was it really to be given to the one who was learned? No. Basing on so many points we have discussed and it is proved that it would be given to the last prophet. And the last prophet Mohammed was not learned as stated in its consecutive verse (Isaiah 29:12).
And the book is delivered to him that is not learned saying 'Read this, I pray thee: and he saith, I am not learned'. To this effect we have a reference in Qur'an:
Proclaim! (or Read) in the name of thy Lord and cherisher, who created-created man, out of a (mere) clot of congealed blood. Proclaim! And thy Lord is Most Bountiful,- He who taught (the use of) the pen taught man that which he knew not.
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Qur'an 96:1-5 In the Arabic text the word 'Iqraa!' was heard by prophet Mohammeda cry of the angel (Rooh al Quddus meaning Holy Spirit) who appeared at cave of Hiraa. "Iqraa may mean: Recite, rehearse, read or proclaim. The object that was to be proclaimed understood being the message of God" (Mr Abdullah Yusuf Ali). It was the first revelation that came to the prophet Mohammed and thus he was commissioned for prophetic office to convey and preach the message of God received through the Angel of Revelation (Jibril or Gabriel) who appeared in the form of a man. On hearing the terrific sound 'Read!' he said, "I am not learned and hence cannot read". This was the event which had been discribed by Isaiah in his prophecy under discussion saying as-
And the book is delivered to him that is not learned, sayingRead this, I pray thee, and he saith, I am 'Not learned'. -Isaiah 29:12 Qur'an confirms the above prophecy and shows its fulfilment as here under.
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Those who follow the Apostle, the unlettered prophet whom they find mentioned in their own (scriptures) in the law and the Gospel Gospel; - for he commands them what is just and forbids them what is evil; he allows them as lawful what is good (and pure) and prohibits them from what is bad (and impure), he releases them from their heavy burdens and from the yokes that are upon them. So it is those who believe in him, honour him, help him, and follow the light which is sent down with him.
-Qur'an 7:157
e. ...The readigng of a man who knew not to read The sarcastic remark of the doctor as made above, is the outcome of his ignorance on the prophecy of Isaiah 29:12 wherein he clearly prophesied about the event which has been discussed basing on both the Bible and Qur'an. All the 3-7 paragraphs show the doctors sarcastic remarks about the revelation of prophet Mohammed. It appears that the doctor rejects the words spoken in the stae of trance to be taken as revelation. In support of his supposition he demonstrated a lengthy lecture on the subject of Epilepsy which is useful for the Medicos. And in his 8th paragraph he writes some names of he prophets who received the message from God through the angels yet none of them was stated to have gone into trance. In this regard we do admit that the prophets mentioned by him were not stated to heve fallen into trance nor had they been afraid on seeing the angels at the time of receiving the message from God. By this statement it appears to me that the doctor is under impression that every event in which the descent of angels to give message takes place should be in consistant with each other but should not under any circumstances vary. Angels come from God with necessary instructions which they follow. It is the will of God. Things do not take place according to our presumption but God's will only prevails. The following three passages provide inconsistant events. Then which of them does the doctor reject to accept as the scriptural facts.
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I. Angel appears to the shepherds and the glory of the Lord shone around them. He gave good tidings of the birth of Jesus. And suddenly there appeared a multitude of the heavenly host with the angel. The shephereds received the message. None of them fell into trance nor were they afraid on seeing the angel and the heavenly host. (-Luke 2:8-15) II. Here, the angel descends from heaven to role back the stone from the door of the sepulchre of Jesus on the day he rose from the dead. At the time of his descent there was a great earthquake. In this event we find two groups of people. One was of the ladies that came to see the sepulchre of Jesus and the other was of the keepers (guard) appointed to watch the sepulchre, with a fear lest his disciples might come by the night and steal away the body of Jesus and propagate that he had risen from the dead. Both the groups saw the angel. The former one was quiet with peace while the later was turned as dead for fear of the angel. The angel said to the women- "Fear not ye1" may appear to have recorded showing that the women were also afraid on seeing the angel. But it is not correct.Matthew 28:1-5 The usage of the words such as "fear not" are usually expressed when there is no objection in carrying on the prosposed act in the sense "fear not-carry on and obey as commanded etc", but they are not meant to console anybody who is afraid of. The following two passages reveal this fact1.
Matthew 17:1-8 Jesus took the three disciples up on the mountain where he was transfigured before them.
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He was transfigured (passive voice) which can be interpreted to mean as JESUS TURNED INTO ANOTHER MAN. 1. Transfiguration 2. Transformation 3. taking another from altogether makes to mean that man changes his existing form and appears in another form (ie) turns into another man. It appeared to the disciples as if that Moses and Elias were conversing with Jesus. They might be the angels sent to Jesus with Revelation, in the form of men. Those angels appeared to them like Moses and Elias respectively1. A bright cloud over shadowed and a voice was heard from there. It means REVELATION was heard. They (disciples) were sore afraid (verses 6,7,8) and fell on their faces. Thus we notice from this passage Jesus turned into another man (transfigured) [in other words fell into trance] at the time of receiving revelation and the disciples fell on their faces in oblivion. According to doctor the trance of prophet Mohammed is as unpleasant as the trance of an epileptic patient. Then what does he say about the trance of prophet Jesus? Ezekiel 11:4-5
IV. In this passage the spirit of God fell upon the prophet and revealed the message [and said unto me speak thus saith the Lord...] Ezekiel 2:1-3
V. In this passage we can see the spirit of God entering into the prophet to reveal the message of God [and the spirit entered into me when he spake unto me...]
Zachariah 7:12 VI. From this passage we can understand that former prophets proclaimed the message to the people what they heard from the spirit of God. Daniel 8:15-18 + 27
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VII. Daniel sees a vision the interpretation of which was revealed by GABRIEL who appeared in the form of a man. He was terribly afraied on seeing him and fell ill. a. there stood before me as the appearance of a man (15) b. So he come near where I stood and when he came I was afraid and fell upon my face... (16) c. Now as he was speaking with me, I was in a deep sleep [deep sleep means - a state of trance in which one enters into oblivion where nothing can be noticed except the message.] (18) d. And I Daniel fainted and was sick certain days (27) Daniel 10:7-12 According to this passage: Revelation by the spirit of God is meant only for the prophet of the time. He reveals to the prophet and the prophet in turn convey the same message to the people. Hence at the time of receiving message (Revelation/vision) though the prophet is amidst the multitude of people, except him no other can hear the revelation (vision)
a. And I Daniel alone saw the vision; for the men that were with me saw not the vision... (7) b. ... I retained no strength, (8), yet heard I the voice of his words then I was in a deep sleep1 on my face and my face toward the ground(9).
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According to Qur'an
a. And verily this is a revelation from the Lord of the worlds, The spirit faithful to the trust has descended with it on thy heart that thou mayest be of the warners in plain and clear Arabic tongue. And it is surely (mentioned) in the scriptures of the former peoples -Qur'an 26:192-196 b. God has revealed (from time to time) the most beautiful message in the form of a book, consistent with itself (yet) repeating (its teaching in various aspects). -Qur'an 39:23 c. And argue not with the people of the Book except with what is best; but argue not at all with such of them as are unjust. And say- 'we believe in that which has been revealed to us and that which has been revealed to you; and our God and your God is one; and to Him we submit. -Qur'an 29:46 The well learned doctor has raised somany other questions some in general and others relating to my book under title 'Is Atonement Neccessory for Salvatioin?' They are not answered in this book as they are not relevant to the present arguments. So I put them aside intending to answer all of them in my another book 'Questions of Genius'. I will raise them up a prophet from among their brethren, like unto thee, and will put my words in his mouth; and he shall speak unto them all that I shall command him. (18) And it shall come to pass, that whosoever will not hearken unto my words which he shall speak in my name, I will require it of him. (19) But the prophet which shall presume to speak of word in my name, which I have not commanded him to speak, or that shall speak in the name of other gods even that prophet shall die. (20) Deuteronomy 18:18-20
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The above is a prophecy revealed by God through prophet Moses. In this prophecy God promises to Moses that He would raise a prophet "like unto thee" [I will raise them up a prophet like unto thee]. That is to say that God prophesied through prophet Moses that He would raise up a prophet like Moses.
1. Here we must note that a prophet like Moses was promised to be raised from among their brethren- To whom this prophecy was made? To Israelites. Then who are the brethren of Israelites? Ishmeaelites. Thus it is made clear a prophet like Moses was to appear from Ishmaelites. [For it is written that Abraham had two sons the one by a bondmaid [Ishmael] and the other by a free woman [Isaac] (Galatians 4:22). Thus these two sons are two progenies of Abraham. viz. 1. Ishmaelites and 2. Israelites. 2. What is the significence of the prophet like Moses so as to say that a prophet like you would be manifested? To be frank this is a clue provided to Israelites so that they may easily identify the prophet like Moses. The most important distinction of Moses was he was a prophet who gave law and established the Theocracy. So also the prophet like Moses should give law and establish Theocracy. [...for these [two women] are two covenants (laws); one from Sinai (Arab) and the other from Paran [Arab] (Galatians 4:25). Church claims that Jesus is/was the promised prophet , in the likeness of Moses. But Jesus was not from the progeny of Ishmael. He did not give law (but followed the Moses' law). 3. He could not establish the Theocracy [He prayed that the Theory might be established]. Comprehensive arguments made so far reveal the fact that prophet Mohammed was the universal prophet as promised to Abraham and the prophet in the likeness of Moses.
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Readers are requested to note that this book consists of arguments made basically focussing on the three main points of the prophecy Deuteronomy 18:18-20, (1) he was to appear from Ishmaelites (2) must be a law giver and (3) should establish the theocracy, which is the fulfilment of the promise made to Abraham about the advent of the universal prophet.
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