Answers to Course Quiz

ANSWERS TO COURSE QUIZ

1. Answer: a. The dartos and cremaster muscles will contract or relax in order to increase or decrease testicular temperature during extremes of the environment around them. 2. Answer: d. The tunica albuginea is the tough outer layer of the testes. It is white in color and internally divides the testis into up to 400 lobules. 3. Answer: b. Cryptorchidism is the failure of the testes to descend in utero, which normally happens during the seventh month of intrauterine life. 4. Answer: c. There are tight junctions between Sertoli cells that provide the blood-testes barrier that can prevent autoantibodies from getting to the germ cells in order to generate an immune response. 5. Answer: d. A sperm stem cell or the least mature of all the sperm cells is called a spermatogonium. It undergoes meiosis to make increasingly mature spermatozoa. 6. Answer: b. Spermiogenesis is what happens to an immature sperm cell in order to change its features to look more like mature sperm. 7. Answer: a. The acrosome is the cap on the front end of the sperm cell that contains enzymes which are responsible for burrowing into the egg cell coating. 8. Answer: a. The glans penis is the most sensitive part of the penis because it contains the most nerve cell endings. 9. Answer: c. The prepuce is also called the foreskin. It is a collar around the end of the penis that retracts during sexual arousal. 10. Answer: b. It is luteinizing hormone that is responsible for the stimulation of the Leydig cells that, in turn, make testosterone. Luteinizing hormone is made by the pituitary gland. 11. Answer: a. The clitoris is the part of the female external genitalia that is analogous to the male glans penis. It has the great number of nerve endings and is highly sensitive to stimulation. 12. Answer: d. The mons pubis is the anterior fat pad in women that covers the pubic bone. After puberty, this is covered with hair.

13. Answer: b. Lactobacillus organisms are resident bacteria that lower the pH of the vaginal secretions so as to reduce the incidence of certain infections in the vagina. 14. Answer: a. All stem cells in the ovary start meiosis prior to birth but the cells are arrested during the first stage of meiosis until puberty, when the follicles will continue to mature and develop. 15. Answer: c. Granulosa cells are the supporting cells to the oocytes inside the follicle. 16. Answer: a. The theca cells are found in secondary follicles. They make estrogen that support the ongoing process of folliculogenesis. 17. Answer: d. The tertiary follicle has a central fluid-filled antrum so it is often referred to as an antral follicle. 18. Answer: c. The LH surge or marked increase in luteinizing hormone is what ultimately triggers ovulation in females. 19. Answer: b. The corpus luteum secretes progesterone, which prevents more dominant follicles from developing and is supportive to the beginning stages of pregnancy, should this occur. 20.Answer: a. Fertilization generally happens in the fallopian tube, which gives the growing zygote a chance to grow somewhat before it implants into the uterine lining itself. 21. Answer: d. The stratum functionalis is the innermost part of the uterus. It is shed each menstrual cycle if it is not needed to nourish the growing zygote and embryo. 22.Answer: b. The SRY gene does not make testosterone directly but recruits other genes that ultimately lead to the development of the spermatogonia and the testes in the male fetus. The SRY gene is carried on the Y chromosome. 23.Answer: d. The Wolffian duct is the male reproductive duct. It is stimulated by testosterone. When this happens, the Mullerian or female duct will degrade or degenerate. 24.Answer: c. Each of these plays a role in the determination of menarche in females except for physical height, which does not by itself play a role.

25. Answer: a. Each of these is a characteristic of either males or females but not both, except for axillary and pubic hair growth, which happens in both males and females. 26.Answer: b. The limbic system is deep within the brain and includes several structures that control one’s emotions and emotional behavior. 27. Answer: c. The inhibitory parts of the brain will limit socially inappropriate urges so that they do not get expressed. If these areas are damaged, people would act out their sexual urges without thought of whether or not they are appropriate. 28.Answer: a. Women actually respond less to visual stimuli compared to men.

The other statements are true of sexual differences between men and women. 29.Answer: d. The major medical benefit of doing a male circumcision is that it decreases the incidence of HIV disease in people who live in high-risk areas of the world. 30.Answer: b. Smegma is the whitish substance between the foreskin and the glans penis. It was once considered dirty and it was thought that it contributed to disease so circumcision was recommended by American and

British doctors. 31. Answer: c. The peak time of a woman’s libido is the time just before and through ovulation, when she is most likely to conceive a child. 32.Answer: d. In women, the increase in progesterone during the last part of the menstrual cycle will decrease her ability to have an orgasm. 33. Answer: b. After menopause, the estrogen levels will decrease and the testosterone levels will increase. These have the effect of either increasing or decreasing libido after menopause. 34.Answer: a. Each of these drugs will decrease libido except for dopaminergic drugs, which tend to increase libido. 35. Answer: b. It takes women about ten minutes to have an orgasm, while it takes men about four minutes to do the same thing. 36.Answer: c. Exogenous testosterone works quickly and well in men to restore libido but it doesn’t work as quickly nor as well in women.

37. Answer: d. Auditory stimuli are considered secondary to the other types of erotic stimuli that can cause sexual arousal. 38.Answer: a. Each of these is universally considered to be an erogenous zone in humans, except for the axilla, which may or may or may not be erogenous. 39.Answer: a. Women rate olfactory stimuli the greatest in terms of potentially turning off sexual desire. 40.Answer: d. BDSM has a great deal to do with the attainment of sexual arousal through role playing. 41. Answer: b. Each of these things will happen during sexual arousal in males except that the scrotal temperature will more likely increase due to increased blood flow. 42.Answer: c. The slang term “blue balls” relates to having testicular pain or discomfort from having prolonged sexual arousal without ejaculation. 43.Answer: c. During the refractory period, no orgasms are possible until this period dissipates. 44.Answer: d. Most women cannot attain a purely vaginal orgasm because of a decreased number of nerve endings in this area of the genitals. 45. Answer: a. The presence of pelvic and perianal muscle contractions is the best predictor of the presence of a female orgasm. 46.Answer: a. The first feeling upon the threatened or actual loss of a caregiver is the feeling of anxiety and then sometimes anger. If this does not improve, the child develops grief and despair. 47. Answer: c. The anxious-avoidant child both wants attachment and is anxious about being unattached but wants to avoid being rejected by their caregiver. 48.Answer: c. The dismissive-avoidant attachment style in adults involves a great dependence on personal independence and a denial of the need for intimacy. 49.Answer: a. Each of these is a feature of physical attractiveness seen by both genders as being attractive. A low waist-to-hip ratio is seen as attractive to males with regard to females. 50.Answer: c. Each of these is something a woman is attracted to in a man except for wider hips, which is not considered physically attractive.

51. Answer: b. The woman is more likely to choose a masculine phase as being attractive if they are in the follicular phase of the menstrual cycle. This is believed to be evolutionarily advantageous. 52. Answer: b. A woman with each of these features is said to be more attractive; however, most of the time, wide-set eyes are considered more attractive. 53. Answer: d. Thinness is more likely to be something women judge about other women rather than men actually preferring thinner women. Most cultures involve men preferring plumper women. 54. Answer: a. In reality, short women are seen as attractive, while taller men are seen as attractive. The other statements are true. 55. Answer: b. The three components of love in the triangular theory of love are passion, intimacy, and commitment—each of which is necessary for complete love. 56. Answer: a. Agape is pure love or complete love. This is different from eros or romantic love, storge, which is parental love, and philia, which is love for one’s community. 57. Answer: c. Sternberg theory on love is the most commonly accepted theory on love today. It is based on three components: commitment, passion, and intimacy. 58.Answer: a. Emotional intimacy is involved most with love and with actually falling in love with another person, although each of these is an aspect of intimacy. 59. Answer: d. Swinging involves different couples who engage in casual or recreational sex with other people as a form of sexual activity. 60.Answer: c. An open relationship or open marriage involves a couple who engages in sexual activity apart from themselves as part of a relationship choice. 61. Answer: c. Edging involves starting and then stopping masturbation just before an orgasm is reached in order to attain an even stronger climax at some point in the process.

62.Answer: a. The male G-spot is considered to be the prostate gland. It is stimulated by inserting a finger inside the rectum and massaging the prostate gland. 63.Answer: d. The glans penis has the greatest number of nerve endings and will most likely lead to male orgasm when stimulated in masturbation. 64.Answer: c. Masturbation was considered a psychiatric problem until 1868, when it was taken out of the Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Psychiatric

Disorders. 65. Answer: d. Each of these is a category of people who are difficult to study with regard to sexual fantasies; however, research is best able to judge arousal in heterosexual men who fantasize. 66.Answer: b. Sexual fantasies can be very powerful and can affect a person’s real-life sexual behavior. They can be simple or very dangerous and can lead to role playing. 67. Answer: d. Fellatio is the practice of stimulating the male penis with the mouth. It can be practiced by people of either sexual orientation. 68.Answer: b. Cunnilingus is the sexual practice of sexually stimulating the female genitalia with the mouth, which can be practiced by people of any sexual orientation. 69.Answer: c. Both the condom and the dental dam can be used to reduce the incidence of STDs when doing oral sex. 70.Answer: b. In non-human animals, pheromones can be used to determine if a female is in estrus but the role in humans is blunted and probably does not play a major role in intercourse. 71. Answer: c. Vaginal intercourse is the most common sexual activity in all humans—both men and women. It is the most studied sexual behavior as well. 72. Answer: c. The average age at starting sexual intercourse in the US is 17 years, which is true of both boys and girls. 73. Answer: b. Each of these can be a reason for male-female couples to have anal intercourse except that it does not prevent STDs.

74. Answer: c. Receptive anal intercourse is most associated with passing on HIV disease among any other sexual activity. 75. Answer: a. Female to male anal intercourse with a strap-on dildo is what is referred to as pegging colloquially. 76. Answer: b. Of these, serotonin is considered inhibitory to the desire for sex, while the other hormones and neurotransmitters will be excitatory to the desire for sex. 77. Answer: c. Each of these is a criterion for hypoactive sexual desire disorder except the person does not need to have a documented low testosterone level, although this could be a factor in some people with HSDD. 78. Answer: a. The female equivalent of sexual dysfunction is sexual arousal disorder. It involves a lack of interest in sexual activity when the person is in a situation that should induce sexual arousal. 79. Answer: b. Anorgasmia is most likely to affect women after menopause and is least likely to affect young men. In fact, it is rare in young men. 80.Answer: a. Each of these drugs can contribute to anorgasmia, except for hormonal birth control, which is least likely to be causative of anorgasmia. 81. Answer: d. If you’ll remember, testosterone levels increase after menopause but a decrease in estrogen can cause anorgasmia. Less commonly is the problem psychological or related to one’s belief system. 82.Answer: b. The most common factor related to vaginismus is the presence of prior sexual trauma that leads to involuntary muscle contractions of the pelvic musculature that prevent penetration of the vagina. 83.Answer: c. Each of these can be causative of secondary vaginismus, except for diabetes, which can cause other sexual problems but not vaginismus. 84.Answer: d. Vaginismus is difficult to treat medically but each of these drugs except for testosterone has been used and sometimes will be effective. 85.Answer: b. The presence of an erection during sleep will be assessed by doing a nocturnal penile tumescence test. 86.Answer: c. A penile ultrasound is done on the erect penis in order to assess the patient for atherosclerotic causes of erectile dysfunction.

87. Answer: d. Alprostadil is a form of prostaglandin that can be used locally but not orally to induce an erection within minutes of administration. 88.Answer: b. Cycling for prolonged periods of time can damage the pelvic nerves, which can lead to a host of male sexual dysfunctions, including delayed ejaculation. 89.Answer: d. There are no drugs for delayed ejaculation. SSRIs can cause the problem and even sildenafil can prolong the latency time. 90.Answer: d. Syphilis is curable with antibiotics, while the others are viral diseases that can be managed with medications but are not considered to be curable. 91. Answer: c. Any type of penetrative sex is likely to cause an STI; however, anal sex is slightly more likely to pass on an STI compared to vaginal penetrative sex. 92.Answer: b. Each of these can be a complication of a chlamydia infection except for birth defects, which do not occur because of these types of infections. 93.Answer: c. About 80 percent of infected women with chlamydia do not have any symptoms of the disease. 94.Answer: a. Each of these is part of an infection called pelvic inflammatory disease except for the vulva, which is not generally a part of this disorder. 95. Answer: a. A major complication of gonorrhea in men is epididymitis. In women, PID or pelvic inflammatory disease can be causative. Other findings can include arthritis, endocarditis, and meningitis. 96.Answer: c. Because of the high risk of coinfection with other organisms, these should be tested for but the highest risk of coinfection occurs with chlamydia. 97. Answer: d. It is possible to pass the infection from one person to another without the presence of actual sores due to skin shedding of the virus. 98.Answer: b. The most common STI in the United States is human papillomavirus. It is not the most reported disease, however, because it is not a reportable disease by the CDC.

99.Answer: a. Anyone who engages in multiple episodes of unprotected sex with infected partners is at risk for passing on or contracting the disease. Almost all sex workers get herpes at some point in their lives. 100. Answer: b. Most children are born with hepatitis B from vertical transmission. These children can be prevented from getting this at birth by giving immune globulin and by starting hepatitis B vaccinations. 101. Answer: a. The patient with primary syphilis will have a painless chancre of the genitals or lips. 102. Answer: c. Each of these can be transmitted through vertical transmission except for trichomonas. 103. Answer: d. Tertiary syphilis involves having nerve or neurological symptoms, which is sometimes referred to as neurosyphilis 104. Answer: b. Most of the transmission of syphilis involve men having sex with men. 105. Answer: a. HIV can be transmitted through contact with all of these fluids but saliva itself cannot transmit the disease. 106. Answer: d. Trichomonas can cause each of these symptoms but it does not generally lead to shallow ulcers of the genitals. 107. Answer: b. The eggs of the pubic louse exist on coarse hairs. It does not like to be attached to scalp hair. 108. Answer: b. Pubic lice do not easily survive outside of the human host and die within 2 days when not able to receive a blood meal. 109. Answer: d. Each of these is true of HPV infections but the viruses that cause common warts do not cause genital warts. 110. Answer: b. Each of these is true of the HPV vaccine except that it is not effective in helping those who are already infected with the virus. 111. Answer: a. Each of these birth control methods has a high theoretical success rate but a low practical success rate, except for the IUD, which has a high theoretical and practical success rate. 112. Answer: d. The mini-pill is a progestin-only pill that does not contain estrogen. Pills and other methods that contain estrogen increase the risk of blood clots.

113. Answer: b. Each of these is a way that hormonal birth control decreases the risk of pregnancy, except that they do not kill sperm cells. 114. Answer: c. High-dose estrogen in a birth control device or pill can cause each of these things but no hormonal birth control method containing estrogen will increase the cervical cancer risk. 115. Answer: d. The male condom is the most commonly used technique used throughout the world as birth control. 116. Answer: d. These forms of birth control done on an emergency basis can be used within 120 hours after unprotected sex and will decrease the risk of pregnancy. 117. Answer: c. The corona radiata is a layer of follicular cells outside the egg cell that must be gotten through in order to mix the sperm and egg cell. 118. Answer: b. The zona pellucida is made from extracellular matrix material, namely glycoproteins, that must be gotten through in order to fertilize the egg. 119. Answer: c. Each of these can be phenomena seen in sexual responsiveness in pregnant women, except that there is a prolonged resolution phase rather than a shorter resolution phase. This is because of prolonged vulvar congestion. 120. Answer: b. Most women have sufficiently healed enough to resume sexual activity at six weeks following the delivery. 121. Answer: a. Each of these can play a role in decreasing sexual satisfaction in the first trimester except for decreased breast sensitivity, which does not play a role. 122. Answer: c. Mood changes play the biggest role in affecting a woman’s level of sexual functioning after she has a baby. The other factors do not play a role. 123. Answer: b. At twelve weeks’ gestation, the uterus can first be felt above the level of the pubic symphysis or pubic bone. 124. Answer: d. A full-term pregnancy is 40 weeks in total length, from the time of the first day of the last menstrual period to the delivery of the infant. 125. Answer: a. Folate is necessary for the prevention of spina bifida in the developing fetus. It is often recommended before getting pregnant, is found in prenatal vitamins, and is found fortified in many different foods.

126. Answer: b. In the second stage of labor, the infant is expelled from the uterus through the vagina. This stage can be very short in a multiparous patient or can be up to 2 or more hours in the primiparous patient. 127. Answer: b. Most pregnancies that end in miscarriage will terminate because of a major chromosomal abnormality in the fetus. 128. Answer: a. Medical abortions involve using medications to kill the embryo or fetus as well as to allow the uterus to contract and expel the products of conception. 129. Answer: a. The XY person who does not have an active SRY gene will be born and will develop into a phenotypical female. 130. Answer: b. The person with Turner syndrome will be phenotypically a girl at birth and will not mature sexually so she will be phenotypically a girl at the time of adult maturity. 131. Answer: c. The patient with Klinefelter syndrome has phenotypically male genitalia but will have decreased body hair and testicles that are not as developed as a normal male. They will still seem like an adult male with subtle differences noticeable on a physical examination. 132. Answer: b. A major feature seen in men more than women is increased visuospatial skills. 133. Answer: a. Children form gender stereotypes by about 10 months of age, when they can somewhat primitively associate certain tools with specific genders. 134. Answer: c. Children apparently know the gender they belong to by the age of 18 months and seek information about what it all means at and after this time. 135. Answer: c. By the age of three years, children begin to prefer same-sex playmates. 136. Answer: d. Gender role is behavioral and is determined by multiple factors, while gender identity is how you see yourself personally in terms of gender.

137. Answer: c. Masculine cultures are focused on individualism and success, where feminine cultures favor quality of life, caring for others, and collectivism. 138. Answer: b. Men in the men’s rights movement believe they are discriminated against with regard to each of these areas except for jobs and employment. 139. Answer: a. Each of these is true of crime and gender roles, except that intimate partner violence is the same in same-sex couples compared to heterosexual couples. 140. Answer: c. Transsexual people undergo sexual transformation, while transgender people do not necessarily do this as part of their gender identity. 141. Answer: c. Not all transgender people have gender dysphoria, which is a

DSM-5 classification. It can refer to people who want to undo their transition.

Gender dysphoria simply refers to the distress associated with one’s gender assignment. 142. Answer: a. When a trans woman takes hormone therapy, breast growth will occur but surgery and things like laser hair removal and voice lessons are necessary to change these things. 143. Answer: d. While there are many theories, including genetic predisposition, no one knows exactly why one person will be transgender and another person will not be transgender. 144. Answer: b. Androphilia is a person who is attracted to masculinity. It is a term that avoids confusion as to whether a person is straight or gay, particularly if they are transgender. 145. Answer: c. A sapiosexual person is attracted to the intelligence of another person. It is not strictly a sexual orientation because it does not refer to sex. 146. Answer: a. Biology is believed to play the largest role in determining sexuality. Parental upbringing and early childhood experiences are not believed to play a role. 147. Answer: b. Sexual identity refers to the psychological feelings a person has around their sex. It is also referred to as gender identity.

148. Answer: a. The Kinsey scale measures the degree to which a person is either heterosexual or homosexual, implying that individuals exist on a continuum between the two. 149. Answer: c. The Klein Sexual Orientation Grid focuses on past, present, and ideal orientation patterns, which is not the case with the Kinsey Scale, which does not discriminate well between behavior and psychological attraction. 150. Answer: d. Each of these plays a role in sexual orientation; however, one’s gender identity does not generally play a role in orientation. 151. Answer: c. While the other three groups are determined to be forms of sexual orientation, the term “asexual” is not always considered one of these main categories of sexual orientation. 152. Answer: b. Each of these is true of children raised in a same-sex couple environment except that they do not have an increased risk of being gay themselves. 153. Answer: c. LGBT youth have an increased risk of each of these things and also face more bullying and lack of support by peers. 154. Answer: a. The most-practiced behavior in this population is oral sex, followed by mutual masturbation and then anal sex. 155. Answer: c. Men who are receptive partners in MSM and anal sex often achieve an orgasm through stimulation of the prostate gland. 156. Answer: d. Each of these is increased in those who practice MSM behavior, except for chlamydia, which is not increased in this population. 157. Answer: a. Breast or nipple stimulation among lesbian women is commonly part of foreplay or an indication of a desire for sexual activity. 158. Answer: c. Oxytocin is released with sexual stimulation of the breasts and nipples. It decreases anxiety and promotes bonding in a lesbian couple. 159. Answer: d. Each of these terms, frottage, tribadism, and dry humping mean the same thing, while cunnilingus is a different sexual activity altogether. 160. Answer: a. Each of these is a normal behavior in children except for initiating sex with adults, which involves an increase in sexualization and possible history of abuse.

161. Answer: c. Exposure to explicit sex and sexual information in the media and on the internet have increased the sexualization of children and an increase in sexual knowledge in these children. 162. Answer: a. Masturbation occurs first in infancy and involves rubbing one’s genitals or other hand to genital contact. 163. Answer: c. Much of the increase in sexual thinking and behaviors in adolescence is caused by a large influx of sex hormones in the adolescent body. 164. Answer: d. Each of these is true of the differences in sexual activity in boys and girls, except that boys are less likely to think about the risks of having sex than girls, who are more conflicted about having sex. 165. Answer: a. Each of these is true of issues regarding loss of virginity in adolescents except for the fact that girls often feel an attachment to their virginity. 166. Answer: c. About 80 percent of adolescent males have sexual performance anxiety as their most common sexual problem. 167. Answer: a. The most common sexual problem in sexually active adolescent females is difficulty attaining an orgasm, although there can be a variety of other sexual difficulties. 168. Answer: b. There is, in fact, less flexibility when it comes to peer expectations of same-sex attraction in boys than there is in girls, which limits its expression in this population. 169. Answer: c. Each of these is true of sex education except that lack of sex ed has a negative impact on teen health and levels of abstinence. 170. Answer: a. Each of these is true of sexual desire in older individuals except that it does not drop off dramatically after sixty but persists until older age. 171. Answer: c. Most older adults simply feel that advancing age most affects their level of sexual functioning. Others will blame some of the other issues mentioned. 172. Answer: a. The downside of sex for pleasure was that sex that did not lead to orgasm was felt to be un-sexual and not worth it.

173. Answer: c. Each of these is an untrue statement except that people with disabilities can use assistive devices or sex toys to enhance their sexual experience. 174. Answer: d. The high rate of sexual abuse and incest is known in the population so there are some states that have programs for the identification and prevention of this type of victimization. 175. Answer: b. Many victims of sexual violence experience depression, PTSD, and anxiety after being victimized by sexual aggression. These can be longlasting phenomena if help is not given to them after the event or events. 176. Answer: c. The term “sexual harassment” was first written about in the 1970s. There were several legal precedents set around this phenomenon, which lead to the first laws being created against it in the early 1980s. 177. Answer: b. There is no restriction as to the genders of either the victim or perpetrator of sexual harassment. 178. Answer: c. These can all be types of sexual harassment perpetrators but the perpetrator who gets an ego boost by exerting dominance over the victim is the most common type. 179. Answer: a. it is more likely that the victim turned accuser will experience isolation and hostility by other coworkers, including people of their same gender, even though others will come forward to admit their own harassment issues. 180. Answer: d. While the definition of sexual assault is a broad one, it usually involves some type of actual physical contact with the victim, which puts sexual harassment in a different category of sexual aggression. 181. Answer: d. Most perpetrators are unrelated but known to the victim, while 30 percent are related to the victim. Stranger perpetrators make up just 10 percent of perpetrators. 182. Answer: a. Each of these is a reason why a child will not come forward to speak of their abuse but being aroused or “liking the activity” is generally not one of them.

183. Answer: c. Rape and sexual assault are sometimes terms used interchangeably but sexual assault can involve non-penetrative sexual activities and rape usually means penetration of some sort. 184. Answer: a. Each of these is a factor in determining consent of the victim.

While a sexually aroused victim may or may not be consenting to the act, this is not usually a factor in determining the actual fact of consent legallyspeaking. 185. Answer: c. Under the current federal statutes, rape of the mouth must be by a genital organ and not necessarily another object. The others represent what rape means. 186. Answer: d. Each of these is true of marital rape except that a woman does not automatically give consent to intercourse by marrying her husband. 187. Answer: d. Each of these can be detected and treated in the immediate aftermath of a rape, except for STDs, which take a minimum of 72 hours to be able to detect. Sometimes, however, prophylactic treatment can be given for

STDs. 188. Answer: c. Each of these is associated with the child who has been sexually abused, although sexually acting out is most associated with this type of experience. 189. Answer: b. Each of these contributes to an increase in the risk of psychological harm to the child victim except there is increased risk if the perpetrator is known to the victim. 190. Answer: a. Just about anything can be the object of a fetish, although the most common fetish is that to clothing. The type of clothing is greatly dependent on the person. 191. Answer: c. Each of this is a possible relationship between sexual fetishes and their origin, except that it is not associated with sexual trauma in childhood. 192. Answer; a. Each of these is a common paraphilia except for necrophilia or an attraction to having sex with a dead body, which is quite rare.

193. Answer: c. Frotteurism is the intentional rubbing of one’s body parts against those of another nonconsenting adult. This is a relatively common paraphilia. 194. Answer; a. These drugs are anti-androgens that decrease male libido and reduce the incidence and intensity of fantasies. 195. Answer: c. Each of these plays a role in developing a paraphilia but there is no evidence that increase male hormones actually play any type of role. 196. Answer: a. Penile plethysmography can detect sexual arousal even when the person personally denies that such arousal exists. 197. Answer: c. Each of these describes a feature of voyeurism as a paraphilic disorder but simply having the fantasies or tendencies is not enough to cause a disorder. 198. Answer: a. Cross-dressing or transvestism usually starts in late childhood.

It may be a fetish and may not be; it is almost exclusively seen in males. 199. Answer: c. Each of these is a phenomenon that can be seen in crossdressers but the comorbidity of PTSD is not typically seen. 200. Answer: d. Each of these is a major factor in deciding if a paraphilia is a true disorder. The presence of frequent fantasies is not enough to qualify as being part of a paraphilic disorder.