Humanities

Test Information Guide: College-Level Examination Program® 2009-10 Humanities

© 2009 The College Board. All rights reserved. College Board, College-Level Examination Program, CLEP, and the acorn logo are registered trademarks of the College Board.

CLEP TEST INFORMATION GUIDE FOR HUMANITIES

2007-08 National CLEP Candidates by Age* Under 18 6%

History of CLEP Since 1967, the College-Level Examination Program (CLEP) has provided over six million people with the opportunity to reach their educational goals. CLEP participants have received college credit for knowledge and expertise they have gained through prior course work, independent study, or work and life experience.

30 years and older 33% Not reported 3%

18-22 years 36%

23-29 years 21%

* These data are based on 90% of CLEP test-takers who responded to this survey question during their examinations.

Over the years, the CLEP examinations have evolved to keep pace with changing curricula and pedagogy.

Typically, the examinations represent material taught in introductory college-level courses from all areas of the college curriculum. Students may choose from 34 different subject areas in which to demonstrate their mastery of college-level material.

2007-08 National CLEP Candidates by Gender

Today, more than 2,900 colleges and universities recognize and grant credit for CLEP.

Philosophy of CLEP Promoting access to higher education is CLEP’s foundation. CLEP offers students an opportunity to demonstrate and receive validation of their collegelevel skills and knowledge. Students who achieve an appropriate score on a CLEP exam can enrich their college experience with higher-level courses in their major field of study, expand their horizons by taking a wider array of electives, and avoid repetition of material that they already know.

Computer-Based CLEP Testing The computer-based format of CLEP exams allows for a number of key features. These include: • a variety of question formats that ensure effective assessment • real-time score reporting that gives students and colleges the ability to make immediate creditgranting decisions (except for English Composition with Essay and, beginning July 2010, College Composition, which require faculty scoring of essays twice a month) • a uniform recommended credit-granting score of 50 for all exams • “rights-only” scoring, which awards one point per correct answer • pretest questions that are not scored but provide current candidate population data and allow for rapid expansion of question pools

CLEP Participants CLEP’s test-taking population includes people of all ages and walks of life. Traditional 18- to 22-year-old students, adults just entering or returning to school, homeschoolers, and international students who need to quantify their knowledge have all been assisted

by CLEP in earning their college degrees. Currently, 60 percent of CLEP’s test-takers are women and 54 percent are 23 years of age or older.

For over 30 years, the College Board has worked to provide government-funded credit-by-exam opportunities to the military through CLEP. Military service members are fully funded for their CLEP exam fees. Exams are administered at military installations worldwide through computer-based testing programs and also—in forward-deployed areas— through paper-based testing. Approximately one-third of all CLEP candidates are military service members.

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CLEP Exam Development

The Committee

Content development for each of the CLEP exams is directed by a test development committee. Each committee is composed of faculty from a wide variety of institutions who are currently teaching the relevant college undergraduate courses. The committee members establish the test specifications, based on feedback from a national curriculum survey; recommend credit-granting scores and standards; develop and select test questions; review statistical data; and prepare descriptive material for use by faculty (Test Information Guides) and students planning to take the tests (CLEP Official Study Guide).

The College Board appoints standing committees of college faculty for each test title in the CLEP battery.

Committee members usually serve a term of up to four years. Each committee works with content specialists at Educational Testing Service to establish test specifications and develop the tests. Listed below are the current committee members and their institutional affiliations.

College faculty also participate in CLEP in other ways: they convene periodically as part of standard-setting panels to determine the recommended level of student competency for the granting of college credit; they are called upon to write exam questions and review forms; and they help to ensure the continuing relevance of the CLEP examinations through the curriculum surveys.

Sterling Bland, Jr., Chair

Rutgers University at Newark

Eugene Greco

Miami Dade College

Carey Rote

Texas A&M University at Corpus Christi

Edward Uehling

Valparaiso University

The primary objective of the committee is to produce tests with good content validity. CLEP tests must be rigorous and relevant to the discipline and the appropriate courses. While the consensus of the committee members is that this test has high content validity for a typical introductory humanities course or curriculum, the validity of the content for a specific course or curriculum is best determined locally through careful review and comparison of test content with instructional content covered in a particular course or curriculum.

The Curriculum Survey The first step in the construction of a CLEP exam is a curriculum survey. Its main purpose is to obtain information needed to develop test content specifications that reflect the current college curriculum and recognize anticipated changes in the field. These surveys of college faculty are conducted in each subject every three to five years depending on the discipline.

Specifically, the survey gathers information on: • the major content and skill areas covered in the equivalent course, and the proportion of the course devoted to each area • specific topics taught and the emphasis given to each topic • specific skills students are expected to acquire and the relative emphasis given to them • recent and anticipated changes in course content, skills, and topics • the primary textbooks and supplementary learning resources used • titles and lengths of college courses that correspond to the CLEP exam

The Committee Meeting The exam is developed from a pool of questions written by committee members and outside question writers. All questions that will be scored on a CLEP exam have been pretested; those that pass a rigorous statistical analysis for content relevance, difficulty, fairness, and correlation with assessment criteria are added to the pool. These questions are compiled by test development specialists according to the test specifications, and presented to all the committee members for a final review. Before convening at a twoor three-day committee meeting, the members have a chance to review the test specifications and the pool of questions available for possible inclusion in the exam.

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At the meeting, the committee determines whether the questions are appropriate for the test and, if not, whether they need to be reworked and pretested again to ensure that they are accurate and unambiguous.

Finally, draft forms of the exam are reviewed to ensure comparable levels of difficulty and content specifications on the various test forms. The committee is also responsible for writing and developing pretest questions. These questions are administered to candidates who take the examination and provide valuable statistical feedback on student performance under operational conditions.

credit-granting score of 50 across all subjects, with the exception of four-semester language exams, which represents the performance of students who earn a grade of C in the corresponding college course.

Once the questions are developed and pretested, tests are assembled in one of two ways. In some cases, test forms are assembled in their entirety. These forms are of comparable difficulty and are therefore interchangeable. More commonly, questions are assembled into smaller, content-specific units called testlets, which can then be combined in different ways to create multiple test forms. This method allows many different forms to be assembled from a pool of questions.

CLEP Credit Granting

The American Council on Education, the major coordinating body for all the nation’s higher education institutions, seeks to provide leadership and a unifying voice on key higher education issues and to influence public policy through advocacy, research, and program initiatives. For more information, visit the ACE CREDIT Web site at www.acenet.edu/acecredit.

CLEP uses a common recommended credit-granting score of 50 for all CLEP exams.

This common credit-granting score does not mean, however, that the standards for all CLEP exams are the same. When a new or revised version of a test is introduced, the program conducts a standard setting to determine the recommended credit-granting score (“cut score”).

A standard-setting panel, consisting of 15–20 faculty members from colleges and universities across the country who are currently teaching the course, is appointed to give its expert judgment on the level of student performance that would be necessary to receive college credit in the course. The panel reviews the test and test specifications and defines the capabilities of the typical A student, as well as those of the typical B, C, and D students.* Expected individual student performance is rated by each panelist on each question. The combined average of the ratings is used to determine a recommended number of examination questions that must be answered correctly to mirror classroom performance of typical B and C students in the related course. The panel’s findings are given to members of the test development committee, who make a final determination, with the help of Educational Testing Service and College Board content and psychometric specialists, about which raw score is equivalent to B and C levels of performance.

Test Specifications Test content specifications are determined primarily through the curriculum survey, the expertise of the committee and test development specialists, the recommendations of appropriate councils and conferences, textbook reviews, and other appropriate sources of information. Content specifications take into account: • the test’s purpose • the intended test-taker population • the titles and descriptions of courses the test is designed to reflect • the specific subject matter and abilities to be tested • the length of the test, types of questions, and instructions to be used

Recommendation of the American Council on Education (ACE)

* Student performance for the language exams (French, German, and Spanish) is defined only at the B and C levels.

The American Council on Education’s College Credit Recommendation Service (ACE CREDIT) has evaluated CLEP processes and procedures for developing, administering, and scoring the exams.

Effective July 2001, ACE recommended a uniform

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Humanities Description of the Examination

The subject matter of the Humanities examination is drawn from the following topics. The percentages next to the topics indicate the approximate percentages of exam questions on those topics.

The Humanities examination tests general knowledge of literature, art, and music and the other performing arts. It is broad in its coverage, with questions on all periods from classical to contemporary and in many different fields: poetry, prose, philosophy, art, architecture, music, dance, theater, and film.

The examination requires candidates to demonstrate their understanding of the humanities through recollection of specific information, comprehension and application of concepts, and analysis and interpretation of various works of art.

Because the exam is very broad in its coverage, it is unlikely that any one person will be well informed about all the fields it covers. The exam contains approximately 140 questions to be answered in 90 minutes. Some of these are pretest questions that will not be scored. Any time candidates spend on tutorials or providing personal information is in addition to the actual testing time.

50%

Literature 10% Drama 10–15% Poetry 15–20% Fiction 10% Nonfiction (including philosophy)

50%

The Arts 20% Visual arts: painting, sculpture, etc.

5% Visual arts: architecture 15% Performing arts: music 10% Performing arts: film, dance, etc.

The exam questions, drawn from the entire history of art and culture, are fairly evenly divided among the following periods: Classical, Medieval and Renaissance, seventeenth and eighteenth centuries, nineteenth century, and twentieth century. At least 5–10 percent of the questions draw on other cultures, such as African, Asian, and Latin American. Some of the questions cross disciplines and/or chronological periods, and a substantial number test knowledge of terminology, genre, and style.

For candidates with satisfactory scores on the Humanities examination, colleges may grant up to six semester hours (or the equivalent) of credit toward fulfillment of a distribution requirement.

Some may grant credit for a particular course that matches the exam in content.

Note: This examination uses the chronological designations b.c.e. (before the common era) and c.e. (common era). These labels correspond to b.c. (before Christ) and a.d. (anno Domini), which are used in some textbooks.

Note: Although the images that accompany some of the questions in this guide are printed in black and white, any works that are reproduced in the actual test will be in color.

Knowledge and Skills Required Questions on the Humanities examination require candidates to demonstrate the abilities listed below, in the approximate percentages indicated. Some questions may require more than one of the abilities.

• Knowledge of factual information (authors, works, etc.) (50 percent of the examination) • Recognition of techniques such as rhyme scheme, medium, and matters of style, and the ability to identify them as characteristics of certain writers, artists, schools, or periods (30 percent of the examination) • Understanding and interpretation of literary passages and art reproductions that are likely to be unfamiliar to most candidates (20 percent of the examination)

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H U M A N I T I E S

Sample Test Questions

3. Which of the following has as its central theme a boat journey up a river in Africa?

The following sample questions do not appear on an actual CLEP examination. They are intended to give potential test-takers an indication of the format and difficulty level of the examination and to provide content for practice and review. Knowing the correct answers to all of the sample questions is not a guarantee of satisfactory performance on the exam.

(A) Lord of the Flies (B) Middlemarch (C) Catch-22 (D) Heart of Darkness (E) Vanity Fair

Directions: Each of the questions or incomplete statements below is followed by five suggested answers or completions. Select the one that is best in each case.

4. Which of the following is often a symbol of new life arising from death?

(A) A gorgon (B) The minotaur (C) A unicorn (D) A griffin (E) The phoenix

1. Often read as a children’s classic, it is in reality a scathing indictment of human meanness and greed. In its four books, the Lilliputians are deranged, the Yahoos obscene.

(A) Tom Jones (B) David Copperfield (C) The Pilgrim’s Progress (D) Gulliver’s Travels (E) Alice in Wonderland

5. The lute is most similar to the modern (A) guitar (B) piano (C) violin (D) accordion (E) flute

2. Which of the following deals with the bigotry an anguished African American family faces when it attempts to move into an all-white suburb?

6. The troubadours of the Middle Ages are best described as

(A) Eugene O’Neill’s Desire Under the Elms (B) Arthur Miller’s Death of a Salesman (C) Ossie Davis’ Purlie Victorious (D) Edward Albee’s Who’s Afraid of Virginia Woolf?

(E) Lorraine Hansberry’s A Raisin in the Sun

(A) poet-musicians (B) moralistic orators (C) freelance illustrators (D) character actors (E) religious philosophers

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H U M A N I T I E S

Erich Lessing/Art Resource, NY © Werner Forman/CORBIS

7. The illustration shown above is an example of which of the following?

9. The figurine shown above is of which of the following origins?

(A) Fresco (B) Tapestry (C) Bas-relief (D) Mosaic (E) Triptych

(A) Mayan (B) African (C) Inuit (D) Celtic (E) Ancient Greek

Réunion des Musées Nationaux/ Art Resource, NY

8. The sculpture shown above is by (A) Henry Moore (B) Louise Nevelson (C) Edgar Degas (D) Gianlorenzo Bernini (E) Auguste Rodin

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H U M A N I T I E S Questions 10 –12 refer to the following lines.

10. Which excerpt contains several examples of onomatopoeia?

(A) “Where the bee sucks there suck I In a cowslip’s bell I lie . . .”

(B) “Exult O shores and ring O bells! But I with mournful tread Walk the deck my Captain lies, Fallen cold and dead.”

(C) “Ring out, wild bells, to the wild sky.”

(D) “O! what a noble mind is here o’erthrown: And I . . . now see that noble and most sovereign reason, Like sweet bells jangled, out of tune and harsh, . . .”

(E) “Oh, the bells, bells, bells!

What a tale their terror tells Of Despair! . . . Yet the ear, it fully knows, By the twanging, And the clanging, . . .

In the jangling, And the wrangling . . .”

11. Which is from Hamlet?

12. Which alludes to Abraham Lincoln’s death?

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H U M A N I T I E S Questions 13 –15 refer to the following image.

Bridgeman Art Library

13. The work pictured above is

15. The work is located in the

(A) a fresco (B) a stabile (C) a woodcut (D) an illumination (E) an etching

(A) Alhambra (B) Sistine Chapel (C) Parthenon (D) palace at Versailles (E) Cathedral of Notre-Dame

14. The theme of the work is the (A) sacrifice of Isaac (B) expulsion from Eden (C) reincarnation of Vishnu (D) creation of Adam (E) flight of Icarus

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H U M A N I T I E S Questions 16–17 refer to the following descriptions of the stage settings of plays.

(A) The exterior of a two-story corner building on a street in New Orleans which is named Elysian Fields and runs between the L and N tracks and the river (B) The living room of Mr. Vandergelder’s house, over his hay, feed, and provision store in Yonkers, fifteen miles north of New York City (C) In, and immediately outside of, the Cabot Farmhouse in New England, in the year 1850 (D) The stage of a theater; daytime (E) A room that is still called the nursery. . . . It is May, the cherry trees are in blossom, but in the orchard it is cold, with a morning frost.

21. He believed that tragedy causes the proper purgation of those emotions of pity and fear which it has aroused.

The author and concept referred to in the sentence above are (A) Plato . . . hubris (B) Gottfried Wilhelm Leibniz . . . monad (C) Aristotle . . . catharsis (D) John Locke . . . tabula rasa (E) Immanuel Kant . . . the categorical imperative 22. Which of the following composers was Picasso’s closest musical contemporary?

(A) Claudio Monteverdi (B) Franz Joseph Haydn (C) Frédéric Chopin (D) Igor Stravinsky (E) Ludwig van Beethoven

16. Which is for a play by Tennessee Williams?

17. Which is for a play by Anton Chekov?

Questions 18–20 refer to the following people.

(A) Georges Bizet, Wolfgang Amadeus Mozart, Richard Wagner (B) Robert Altman, Ingmar Bergman, Federico Fellini (C) John Cage, Aaron Copland, Paul Hindemith (D) Allen Ginsberg, Sylvia Plath, Gwendolyn Brooks (E) I. M. Pei, Ludwig Mies van der Rohe, Frank Lloyd Wright

23. Which of the following satirizes the eighteenthcentury doctrine “whatever is, is right” in this “best of all possible worlds”?

(A) James Joyce’s Ulysses (B) Voltaire’s Candide (C) Daniel Defoe’s Moll Flanders (D) Victor Hugo’s Les Miserables (E) Nathaniel Hawthorne’s The Scarlet Letter 24. Haiku is a form of Japanese (A) drama (B) poetry (C) pottery (D) sculpture (E) architecture

18. Which is a group of architects?

19. Which is a group of composers of opera?

20. Which is a group of twentieth-century poets?

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H U M A N I T I E S 25. The terms “pas de deux,” “plié,” “tendu,” and “glissade” are primarily associated with

29. Brave New World, 1984, and The Handmaid’s Tale all deal with

(A) ballet (B) string quartets (C) painting (D) theater (E) opera 26. Which of the following terms describes a literary or dramatic form of discourse in which a character reveals thoughts in a monologue?

(A) star-crossed lovers (B) the problems of the aged (C) extrasensory phenomena (D) Platonic love (E) dystopian futures 30. During his travels, his overexcited imagination invariably blinds him to reality; he thinks windmills are giants, flocks of sheep are armies, and galley slaves are oppressed gentlemen.

(A) Denouement (B) Understatement (C) Scenario (D) Soliloquy (E) Exposition

The sentence above describes (A) Rasselas (B) Robinson Crusoe (C) Sir Lancelot (D) Robin Hood (E) Don Quixote

Questions 27–28 refer to the following symphony.

Mozart’s Symphony in D major, No. 35, is divided into the following four parts.

I. Allegro con spirito II. Andante III. Menuetto IV. Finale: presto

31. Which of the following, although he is sometimes called a tragic hero, is also recognized as the villain of John Milton’s epic, Paradise Lost?

(A) Satan (B) Gabriel (C) Samson (D) Adam (E) Demigorgon

27. The parts are known as (A) arias (B) themes (C) codas (D) acts (E) movements

Questions 32–33 refer to the following.

(A) France during the French Revolution (B) Russia during the Napoleonic Wars (C) England during the Crimean War (D) Germany during the First World War (E) Spain during the Spanish Civil War

28. Which two parts have the fastest tempos?

(A) I and II (B) I and III (C) I and IV (D) II and III (E) II and IV

32. Which is the setting for most of the events in A Tale of Two Cities?

33. Which is the setting for events in War and Peace?

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H U M A N I T I E S 36. Which of the following writers is correctly matched with the literary form he or she frequently used?

(A) Saul Bellow . . . poetry (B) Eugene O’Neill . . . the short story (C) Walt Whitman . . . the novel (D) Susan Sontag . . . drama (E) Jonathan Edwards . . . the sermon 37. Choral music without instrumental accompaniment is known as (A) improvisation (B) a cappella (C) atonality (D) modulation (E) harmony Bridgeman Art Library

34. The vase shown above was most likely created in

38. La Dolce Vita, La Strada, and 81/2 are films directed by (A) Alfred Hitchcock (B) Cecil B. De Mille (C) Ingmar Bergman (D) Robert Altman (E) Federico Fellini

(A) South America (B) the Pacific Islands (C) Asia (D) North America (E) Africa 35. Grendel, “the mighty demon that dwelt in darkness,” is a character in

39. Artists associated with this nineteenth-century movement created images based on emotion, imagination, and the irrational.

(A) The Sorrows of Young Werther (B) Ivanhoe (C) The Faerie Queene (D) Beowulf (E) The Canterbury Tales

Which of the following movements is referred to above?

(A) Romanticism (B) Art Deco (C) Art Nouveau (D) Social realism (E) Abstract expressionism

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H U M A N I T I E S Questions 40–42 refer to the following periods in art and music history.

44. Giselle, La Bayadere, and Coppelia are all (A) ballets (B) farces (C) epics (D) operettas (E) oratorios

(A) Renaissance (B) Baroque (C) Romantic (D) Impressionist (E) Modern

45. Flashback refers to 40. To which period do Debussy and Renoir belong?

(A) the repetition of key elements of a drama (B) a scene showing events that happened at an earlier time (C) a rapidly changing series of images (D) the lighting design for a play or movie (E) the outcome of the main plot in a dramatic piece

41. To which period do Leonardo and Palestrina belong?

42. To which period do Delacroix and Brahms belong?

46. Which of the following insists on the necessity of living a simple, natural, individualistic life?

43. Sometimes called a religion, sometimes referred to as “the religion of no religion,” sometimes identified simply as “a way of life,” its development can be traced from its origins in India in the sixth century b.c.e. to Japan in the twelfth century c.e. by way of China and Korea, and to the United States in the twentieth century.

(A) Henry Wadsworth Longfellow’s The Song of Hiawatha (B) Mark Twain’s A Connecticut Yankee in King Arthur’s Court (C) Nathaniel Hawthorne’s The House of the Seven Gables (D) Henry David Thoreau’s Walden (E) Edgar Allan Poe’s The Raven

To which of the following does the statement above refer?

(A) Hinduism (B) Zen Buddhism (C) Islam (D) Confucianism (E) Shintoism

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H U M A N I T I E S 50. It was a school of the early twentieth century whose adherents designed buildings and objects in a functional style consistent with the era of mass production. Its use of industrial materials served as a basis for the International Style.

The school described above is known as (A) Art Deco (B) Bauhaus (C) Neoclassicism (D) the Baroque (E) Cubism

Digital Image © The Museum of Modern Art/Licensed by SCALA/ Art Resource, NY

47. The painting shown above is

51. Question 51 refers to the following plays by William Shakespeare.

(A) The Tempest (B) Hamlet (C) A Midsummer Night’s Dream (D) Macbeth (E) Much Ado About Nothing

(A) James McNeill Whistler’s White Girl (B) Marc Chagall’s Around Her (C) Andrew Wyeth’s Christina’s World (D) Henri Rousseau’s The Dream (E) Grant Wood’s American Gothic

Which two plays are tragedies?

Questions 48–49 refer to the following descriptions of gods in Greek mythology.

(A) Son of Zeus and Hera, he is the god of fire and the forge.

(B) The god of revelry and wine, he later became patron of the theater.

(C) His daughter was born full-grown from his forehead.

(D) Euripides was the first to depict him with bow and arrow; in art, he was represented first as a youth and later as a small child.

(E) He is the god of the sun, the patron of poetry, and the ideal of male beauty.

(A) A and C (B) A and E (C) B and C (D) B and D (E) D and E 52. All of the following are percussion instruments EXCEPT (A) the triangle (B) the harp (C) the gong (D) tympani (E) cymbals

48. Which describes Apollo?

49. Which describes Dionysus?

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H U M A N I T I E S Questions 53–55 refer to the following lines of poetry.

Line (5)

(10)

(15)

Fear no more the heat o’ the sun, Nor the furious winter’s rages; Thou thy worldly task hast done, Home art gone, and ta’en thy wages: Golden lads and girls all must, As chimney-sweepers, come to dust.

54. The poem is addressed to (A) young lovers (B) doctors (C) kings (D) scholars (E) the dead 55. “To thee the reed is as the oak” (line 10) suggests that

Fear no more the frown o’ the great; Thou art past the tyrant’s stroke; Care no more to clothe and eat; To thee the reed is as the oak: The scepter, learning, physic, must All follow this, and come to dust.

(A) distinctions no longer matter (B) little trees are as strong as big trees (C) all things change (D) ignorance causes fear (E) nature is unknowable

Fear no more the lightning flash, Nor the all-dreaded thunder stone; Fear not slander, censure rash; Thou hast finished joy and moan: All lovers young, all lovers must Consign to thee, and come to dust.

53. The rhyme scheme of each stanza is (A) aabbcc (B) ababab (C) aaaabb (D) abcabc (E) ababcc

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H U M A N I T I E S

Werner Forman/Art Resource, NY © Archivo Iconografico, S.A./CORBIS

56. The style of the statue shown above can best be described as

57. The painting shown above was created by (A) African (B) Mayan (C) ancient Greek (D) Qing Dynasty (E) contemporary American

(A) John Constable (B) William Blake (C) Anthony Van Dyck (D) Gilbert Stuart (E) Aubrey Beardsley

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H U M A N I T I E S 58. Which is a group of novelists?

(A) Rita Dove, Marianne Moore, Adrienne Rich (B) Meryl Streep, Glenn Close, Claire Bloom (C) Toni Morrison, Doris Lessing, Isabel Allende (D) Leontyne Price, Renée Fleming, Dawn Upshaw (E) Diane Arbus, Margaret Bourke-White, Dorothea Lange 59. Two artists who used striking light and dark contrasts are (A) Rembrandt van Rijn and Artemisia Gentileschi (B) Sandro Botticelli and Sofonisba Anguissola (C) Georges Seurat and Claude Monet (D) Pablo Picasso and Georges Braque (E) Michelangelo Buonarroti and Judith Leyster

Vassar College Art Gallery, Gift of Mrs. Charlotte Mahon, ’11

60. The statue shown above belongs to which of the following historical periods?

(A) Ancient Egyptian (B) Pre-Columbian (C) Medieval European (D) Eighteenth-century European (E) Nineteenth-century American

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H U M A N I T I E S 61. Which is a group of composers?

(A) Jacob Epstein, Käthe Kollwitz, Auguste Rodin (B) Maurice Ravel, Jacques Offenbach, Jules Massenet (C) Francois Truffaut, Jean-Luc Godard, Claude Chabrol (D) Claude Monet, Auguste Renoir, Berthe Morisot (E) Charles Lamb, Thomas De Quincey, John Ruskin

65. Fagin, Pip, and Ebenezer Scrooge are characters created by (A) George Eliot (B) Elizabeth Barrett Browning (C) Sir Walter Scott (D) Edith Wharton (E) Charles Dickens 66. Which is a group of poets?

(A) Percy Bysshe Shelley, S.T. Coleridge, John Donne (B) Henry Moore, Christo, Maya Lin (C) Martin Luther, John Calvin, John Knox (D) Sergey Eisenstein, Martin Scorsese, David Lynch (E) Arturo Toscanini, Pierre Boulez, Georg Solti

62. He composed in a wide variety of musical genres, including nine symphonies, 32 piano sonatas, and an opera. The composer is (A) Sergei Rachmaninoff (B) George Frideric Handel (C) Ralph Vaughan Williams (D) Gustav Mahler (E) Ludwig van Beethoven 63. A famous biographer and voluminous journal writer, the author was one of the most prolific in the eighteenth century. The writer is (A) Samuel Pepys (B) James Michener (C) James Boswell (D) Aphra Behn (E) Lord Chesterfield 64. An important structural innovation of Gothic architecture was the use of (A) post and lintel (B) catacombs (C) cantilevering (D) flying buttresses (E) Doric columns

Questions 67–69 refer to the following excerpt from a play.

The quality of mercy is not strain’d, It droppeth as the gentle rain from heaven Upon the place beneath: it is twice blest; Line It blesseth him that gives and him that takes: (5) ‘Tis mightiest in the mightiest: it becomes The throned monarch better than his crown; His sceptre shows the force of temporal power, The attribute to awe and majesty, Wherein doth sit the dread and fear of kings; (10) But mercy is above this sceptred sway; It is enthroned in the hearts of kings . . . .

67. Lines 1–3 use which of the following figures of speech?

(A) Alliteration (B) Simile (C) Onomatopoeia (D) Hyperbole (E) Apostrophe

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H U M A N I T I E S 68. Which of the following is closest in meaning to “becomes” in line 5?

73. Originally composed in 1928 as a ballet, this one-movement composition is Maurice Ravel’s most famous. The work described is

(A) Reaches (B) Develops (C) Happens (D) Suits (E) Grows

(A) Bolero (B) Firebird (C) Porgy and Bess (D) Rhapsody in Blue (E) The Unanswered Question

69. The lines are spoken by 74. George Bernard Shaw’s Pygmalion was the basis for which movie?

(A) Portia in The Merchant of Venice (B) Cleopatra in Antony and Cleopatra (C) Desdemona in Othello (D) Katherine in The Taming of the Shrew (E) Rosalind in As You Like It

(A) Cat on a Hot Tin Roof (B) My Fair Lady (C) Who’s Afraid of Virginia Woolf?

(D) Ben Hur (E) Doctor Zhivago

70. The work of the artist Giotto strongly influenced which of the following?

75. A Farewell to Arms, The Naked and the Dead, and The Things They Carried share a thematic focus on

(A) Ancient Roman sculpture (B) Persian miniatures (C) Early Renaissance painting (D) European Romantic painting (E) American Colonial folk art

(A) greed and consumerism (B) famous shipwrecks (C) dignity and loss in time of war (D) the Great Depression (E) the difficulties of adolescence

71. Pablo Picasso and Georges Braque are associated with which art movement?

76. The Decameron was written by

(A) German Expressionism (B) Fauvism (C) Futurism (D) Surrealism (E) Cubism

(A) Ovid (B) Virgil (C) Giovanni Boccaccio (D) Dante (E) Sir Thomas Malory

72. Ragtime, marching band music, and the blues all strongly influenced which form of music?

(A) Country music (B) Silent film scores (C) Rap (D) Jazz (E) Gospel

77. Which of the following correctly pairs a novelist with a work she created?

(A) Jane Austen . . . The Mill on the Floss (B) Emily Brontë . . . Evelina (C) George Eliot . . . Wuthering Heights (D) Fanny Burney . . . Persuasion (E) Charlotte Brontë . . . Jane Eyre

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H U M A N I T I E S 78. The terms “adagio,” “cadenza,” and “opus” are all associated with

82. Born in Africa and brought to the United States as a slave as a young child, she was taught to read and write by her slaveholders and published her first poem at the age of 12. She was the first African American to publish a book and the first African American woman to earn a living from her writing.

(A) music (B) theater (C) painting (D) sculpture (E) poetry

The poet described is (A) Edna St. Vincent Millay (B) Sylvia Plath (C) Phyllis Wheatley (D) Emily Dickinson (E) Marianne Moore

79. A composer and organist of the Baroque period, he created such works as the Brandenburg Concerti, the Goldberg Variations, and the Well-Tempered Clavier.

The composer described is (A) Franz Joseph Haydn (B) Hector Berlioz (C) Franz Schubert (D) Johann Sebastian Bach (E) Ludwig van Beethoven

83. The American Civil War is the setting for a novel by (A) Stephen Crane (B) Ernest Hemingway (C) Booth Tarkington (D) John Dos Passos (E) Joseph Heller

80. What is the correct chronological order of the following composers?

I. George Frideric Handel II. Philip Glass III. Franz Liszt

84. Tartuffe, The Misanthrope, and The Bourgeois Gentleman are all comedies written by (A) Gustave Flaubert (B) Henrik Ibsen (C) Victor Hugo (D) Molière (E) August Strindberg

(A) I, II, III (B) I, III, II (C) II, I, III (D) II, III, I (E) III, I, II 81. Which of the following is a nineteenth-century artist who was influenced by Japanese prints and is known as both a painter and a printmaker?

85. Which of the following is the most famous example of a structure built as a Christian church and later converted to a mosque?

(A) Alhambra palace in Granada, Spain (B) Mosque of Selim II in Edirne, Turkey (C) Hagia Sophia in Istanbul, Turkey (D) The ziggurat in Ur, Iraq (E) Dome of the Rock in Jerusalem, Israel

(A) Salvador Dalí (B) Thomas Gainsborough (C) Henri Matisse (D) Mary Cassatt (E) Georgia O’Keeffe

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H U M A N I T I E S

Study Resources

Answer Key

Most textbooks used in college-level humanities courses cover the topics in the outline given earlier, but the approaches to certain topics and the emphases given to them may differ. To prepare for the Humanities exam, it is advisable to study one or more college textbooks, which can be found in most college bookstores. When selecting a textbook, check the table of contents against the knowledge and skills required for this test.

To do well on the Humanities exam, you should know something about each of the forms of literature and fine arts from the various periods and cultures listed earlier, in the paragraph following the examination percentages. No single book covers all these areas, so it will be necessary for you to refer to college textbooks, supplementary reading, and references for introductory courses in literature and fine arts at the college level. Two such resources are: Philip E. Bishop, Adventures in the Human Spirit, 5th edition, Upper Saddle River, NJ: Prentice Hall, 2007 and Henry M. Sayre, The Humanities: Culture, Continuity, and Change, Volumes I and II, Upper Saddle River, NJ: Prentice Hall, 2007.

In addition to reading, a lively interest in the arts— going to museums and concerts, attending plays, seeing motion pictures, watching public television programs such as Great Performances and Masterpiece Theatre, and listening to radio stations that play classical music and feature discussions of the arts — constitutes excellent preparation.

Visit www.collegeboard.com/clepprep for additional humanities resources. You can also find suggestions for exam preparation in Chapter IV of the Official Study Guide. In addition, many college faculty post their course materials on their schools’ Web sites.

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H U M A N I T I E S

Test Measurement Overview Format There are multiple forms of the computer-based test, each containing a predetermined set of scored questions. The examinations are not adaptive. There may be some overlap between different forms of a test: any of the forms may have a few questions, many questions, or no questions in common. Some overlap may be necessary for statistical reasons.

In the computer-based test, not all questions contribute to the candidate’s score. Some of the questions presented to the candidate are being pretested for use in future editions of the tests and will not count toward his or her score.

Scoring Information CLEP examinations are scored without a penalty for incorrect guessing. The candidate’s raw score is simply the number of questions answered correctly. However, this raw score is not reported; the raw scores are translated into a scaled score by a process that adjusts for differences in the difficulty of the questions on the various forms of the test.

Scaled Scores The scaled scores are reported on a scale of 20–80.

Because the different forms of the tests are not always exactly equal in difficulty, raw-to-scale conversions may in some cases differ from form to form. The easier a form is judged to be, the higher the raw score required to attain a given scaled score. Table 1 indicates the relationship between number correct (raw score) and scaled score across all forms.

The Recommended Credit-Granting Score Table 1 also indicates the recommended credit-granting score, which represents the performance of students earning a grade of C in the corresponding course.

The recommended B-level score represents B-level performance in equivalent course work. These scores were established as the result of a Standard Setting Study, the most recent having been conducted in 2001. The recommended credit-granting scores are based upon the judgments of a panel of experts currently teaching equivalent courses at various colleges and universities.

These experts evaluate each question in order to determine the raw scores that would correspond to B and C levels of performance. Their judgments are then reviewed by a test development committee, which, in consultation

with test content and psychometric specialists, makes a final determination. The standard-setting study is described more fully in the earlier section entitled “CLEP Credit Granting” on page 4.

Panel members participating in the most recent study were: Michael Babcock Eugene Crook Sarah Garman Joel Hollander Enid Housty Marilyn McKay John Peterman Jon Roberts Terri Whitney Jan Widmayer

Liberty University Florida State University Miami-Dade Community College Florida Gulf Coast University Hampton University Barry University William Paterson University Saint Thomas Aquinas College North Shore Community College Boise State University

To establish the exact correspondences between raw and scaled scores, a scaled score of 50 is assigned to the raw score that corresponds to the recommended credit-granting score for C-level performance. Then a high (but in some cases, possibly less than perfect) raw score will be selected and assigned a scaled score of 80. These two points—50 and 80—determine a linear raw-to-scale conversion for the test.

Validity Validity is a characteristic of a particular use of the test scores of a group of examinees. If the scores are used to make inferences about the examinees’ knowledge of a particular subject, the validity of the scores for that purpose is the extent to which those inferences can be trusted to be accurate.

One type of evidence for the validity of test scores is called content-related evidence of validity. It is usually based upon the judgments of a set of experts who evaluate the extent to which the content of the test is appropriate for the inferences to be made about the examinees’ knowledge. The committee that developed the CLEP Humanities examination selected the content of the test to reflect the content of the general Humanities curriculum and courses at most colleges, as determined by a curriculum survey. Since colleges differ somewhat in the content of the courses they offer, faculty members should, and are urged to, review the content outline and the sample questions to ensure that the test covers core content appropriate to the courses at their college.

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Table 1: Humanities Interpretive Score Data American Council on Education (ACE) Recommended Number of Semester Hours of Credit: 6

Course Grade

B

C

Scaled Score 80 79 78 77 76 75 74 73 72 71 70 69 68 67 66 65 64 63 62 61 60 59 58 57 56 55 54 53 52 51 50* 49 48 47 46 45 44 43 42 41 40 39 38 37 36 35 34 33 32 31 30 29 28 27 26 25 24 23 22 21 20

Number Correct 107-110 105-106 103-104 100-102 98-100 97-98 95-96 93-94 91-92 89-91 87-89 85-87 83-85 82-83 80-81 78-80 76-78 74-76 73-74 71-73 69-71 68-69 66-68 64-66 63-64 61-63 59-61 58-59 56-58 55-56 53-55 51-53 50-51 48-50 47-48 45-47 44-45 42-44 41-42 39-40 38-39 36-37 35-36 33-34 32-33 31-32 29-30 28-29 26-27 25-26 23-24 22-23 21 19-20 18-19 16-17 15-16 14-15 12-13 11-12 0-11

*Credit-granting score recommended by ACE. Note: The number-correct scores for each scaled score on different forms may vary depending on form difficulty.

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H U M A N I T I E S Another type of evidence for test-score validity is called criterion-related evidence of validity. It consists of statistical evidence that examinees who score high on the test also do well on other measures of the knowledge or skills the test is being used to measure. Criterion-related evidence for the validity of CLEP scores can be obtained by studies comparing students’ CLEP scores with the grades they received in corresponding classes, or other measures of achievement or ability. At a college’s request, CLEP and the College Board conduct these studies, called Admitted Class Evaluation Service, or ACES, for individual colleges that meet certain criteria. Please contact CLEP for more information.

Reliability The reliability of the test scores of a group of examinees is commonly described by two statistics: the reliability coefficient and the standard error of measurement (SEM). The reliability coefficient is the correlation between the scores those examinees get (or would get) on two independent replications of the measurement process. The reliability coefficient is intended to indicate the stability/consistency of the candidates’ test scores, and is often expressed as a number ranging from .00 to 1.00. A value of .00 indicates total lack of stability, while a value of 1.00 indicates perfect stability. The reliability coefficient can be interpreted as the correlation between the scores examinees would earn on two forms of the test that had no questions in common.

Statisticians use an internal-consistency measure to calculate the reliability coefficients for the CLEP exam.

This involves looking at the statistical relationships among responses to individual multiple-choice questions to estimate the reliability of the total test score. The formula used is known as Kuder-Richardson 20, or KR-20, which is equivalent to a more general formula called coefficient alpha. The SEM is an index of the extent to which students’ obtained scores tend to vary from their true scores.1 It is expressed in score units of the test. Intervals extending one standard error above and below the true score (see below) for a test taker will include 68 percent of that test taker’s obtained scores.

Similarly, intervals extending two standard errors above and below the true score will include 95 percent of the test taker’s obtained scores. The standard error of measurement is inversely related to the reliability coefficient. If the reliability of the test were 1.00 (if it perfectly measured the candidate’s knowledge), the standard error of measurement would be zero.

Scores on the CLEP examination in Humanities are estimated to have a reliability coefficient of 0.92. The standard error of measurement is 2.76 scaled-score points.

1

True score is a hypothetical concept indicating what an individual’s score on a test would be if there were no errors introduced by the measuring process. It is thought of as the hypothetical average of an infinite number of obtained scores for a test taker with the effect of practice removed.

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