KARUNYA ENTRANCE EXAMINATION - 2025 (KEE’25)
SAMPLE Question Paper
For the candidates who have studied Mathematics in +2
Mathematics
Physics
Chemistry
English
For the candidates who have not studied Mathematics in +2
Biology
Physics
Chemistry
English General Aptitude
General Aptitude
PART A(1) - MATHEMATICS
1. The number of elements in the set
�� ={(��,��,��):��,��,�� ∈��,��+2��+3�� =42,��,��,�� ≥0} is equal to
(a) 170
(b) 169 (c) 150 (d) 154
2. Let ��={��∈��:������(��,45)=1} and �� ={2��:�� ∈{1,2,3, 100}}. The sum of all the elements of ��∩�� is
(a) 5264
(b) 5260 (c) 5280 (d) 5296
3. If ��(��)=log(1+�� 1 ��), then ��( 2�� 1+��2) is equal to (a) (��(��))2 (b) (��(��))3 (b) 2��(��) (d) 3��(��)
4. If ��(��)= 4��+3 6�� 4,�� ≠ 2 3 and (������)(��)=��(��), where ��:�� {2 3}→�� {2 3}, then (����������)(4) is equal to (a) 19 20
(b) 19 20 (c) -4 (d) 4
5. If cos4�� cos2�� + sin4�� sin2�� =1 then sin4��+sin4 �� is equal to (a) sin2��sin2�� (b) cos2 ��cos2 �� (c) 2sin2 ��sin2 �� (d) 2cos2 ��cos2 ��
Model Question Paper
6. If �� and �� are the solution of the equation atan��+���������� =��, then tan(��+��) is equal to (a) 2���� ��2+��2 (b) 2���� ��2 ��2 (c) 2���� ��2 ��2 (d) 2���� ��2 ��2
7. If �� =√��
2 �� then the difference between the maximum and minimum values of ��2 is given by (a) (�� ��)2 (b) 2√��2 +��2 (c) (��+��)2 (d) 2(��2 +��2)
8. lim ��→∞{
is
to (a) 1 (b) 0 (c) 2√2 (d) 1 √2
9. Find the matrix A such that
10. Let �� =[2 1 2 6 2 11 3 3 2] and �� =[1 2
5
2 7 1 5]. The sum of all prime factors of |�� 1���� 2��| is equal to (a) 26 (b) 27 (c) 66 (d) 23
11. The value of �� for
|=0 lie in the interval (a) (-2,1) (b) (-3,0) (c) ( 3 2, 3 2) (d) (0,3)
12. If the system of linear equations �� 2��+��= 4 2�� ����+3�� =5 3�� ��+����=3 has infinitely many solutions, then 12��+13�� is equal to (a) 60 (b) 64 (c) 54 (d) 58
Model Question Paper
13. If �� =√��+√��+√��+ .∞ then (2�� 1)���� ���� is (a) 1 (b) 1 2 (c) 3 2
14. Let ��:�� →�� be a function defined as ��(��)= { sin(��+1)��+sin2�� 2�� ,������ <0 ��
(d) 0
3 √��,������ =0 ���� 5 2 ,���� �� >0 If f is continuous at x=0, then the value of a+b is equal to (a) 5 2 (b) -2
(c) 3 (d) 3 2
15. The function ��(��)= �� ��2 6�� 16, �� ∈�� { 2,8}
(a) decreases in (-2,8) and increases in ( ∞, 2)∪(8,∞) (b) decreases in ( ∞, 2)∪( 2,8)∪(8,∞) (c) decreases in ( ∞, 2) and increases in (8,∞) (d) increases in ( ∞, 2)∪( 2,8)∪(8,∞)
16. The number of points where the curve �� =��5 20��3 +50��+2 crosses the x-axis is (a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 4 (d) 5
17. If ∫ 1 √3+x+√1+x 1 0 dx=a+b√2+c√3, where a,b,c are rational number then 2a+3b-4c is equal to (a) 4 (b) 10 (c) 7 (d) 8
18. If ∫ [��2] 2 0 ���� =�� √2 ��√3 where �� and �� are relatively prime. Then ��2 ��2 is (a) 20 (b) 24 (c) 30 (d) 36
19. If ��(��)=∫ cos��cos√�� 1+sin2√�� ��2 ��2 16 ����, then find ���� ���� at �� =�� is 2��
(a) �� 2 (b) �� (c) 2�� (d) �� 8
20. The area bounded by the lines ��=||�� 1| 2| is (a) 4 (b) 2 (c) 1 (d) 1 2
21. The area bounded by the curve 4��2 =��2(4 ��)(�� 2) is equal to (a) �� 8 (b) 3�� 8 (c) 3�� 2 (d) �� 16
22. The solution curve of the differential equation �� ���� ���� =��(log�� �� log�� ��+1), �� >0,��>0 passing through the point (��,1) is (a) |log�� �� ��|=�� (b) |log�� �� ��|=��2 (c) |log�� �� ��|=�� (d) 2|log�� �� ��|=��+1
23. If �� ={�� ∈��:|�� ��|=|��+��|=|�� 1|}, then n(s) is (a) 1 (b) 0 (c) 3 (d) 2
24. If ��,�� be the roots of the quadratic equation ��2 ��+2=0 with ����(��)> ����(��), then ��6 +��4 +��4 5��2 is equal to (a) 8 (b) 13 (c) 18 (d) 0
25. All the letters of the word “GTWENTY” are written in all possible ways with or without meaning and these words are written as in dictionary. The serial number of the word “GTWENTY” is (a) 553 (b) 580 (c) 585 (d) 598
26. The number of integers, greater than 7000 that can be formed, using the digits 3,5,6,7,8 without repetition is (a) 120 (b) 168 (c) 220 (d) 48
27. Number of 4-digit number that are less than or equal to 2800 and either divisible by 3 or by 11 is equal to (a) 610 (b) 685 (c) 710 (d) 730
28. If 8=3+ 1 4(3+��)+ 1 42 (3+2��)+ 1 43 (3+3��)+⋯.+∞ then the value of p is
(a) 10 (b) 13 2 (c) 7 3 (d) 9
29. In an AP, the sixth terms ��6 =2. If the ��1��4��5 is the greatest, then the common difference of the AP is equal to (a) 3 2 (b) 8 5 (c) 2 3 (d) 5 8
30. The sum of the series
+.. up to 10 terms is (a) 45 109 (b) 45 109 (c) 55 109 (d) 55 109
31. If the circle ��2 +��2 =9 and ��2 +��2 +8��+�� =0 touch each other, then c is equal to (a) 15 (b) -15 (c) 16 (d) -16
32. An ellipse has its centre at (1,-1), semi major axis = 8 and it passes through the point (1,3). The equation of ellipse is
(a) (��+1)2 64 + (��+1)2 16 =1
(b) (�� 1)2 64 + (��+1)2 16 =1
(c) (�� 1)2 16 + (��+1)2 64 =1 (d) (��+1)2 64 + (�� 1)2 16 =1
33. If P(0,1,2), Q(4,-2,1) and O(0,0,0) are three points, then ∠������ = (a) �� 6 (b) �� 4 (c) �� 3 (d) �� 2
34. The distance between the orthocenter and circumcentre of the triangle with vertices (1,2), (2,1) and (3+√3 2 , 3+√3 2 ) is (a) 0 (b) √2 (c) 3+√3 (d) none of these
35. The ratio in which the line 3��+4��+2=0 divides the distance between the lines 3��+4��+5=0 and 3��+4�� 5=0 is (a) 1:2 (b) 3:7 (c) 2:3 (d) 2:5
PART – A (2) BIOLOGY
1. Which of the following bacteria is used for leaching Iron Ore?
a) Acidithiobacillus ferrooxidans
c) Escherichia coli
b) Plasmodium falciparum
d) Mycobacterium tuberculosis
2. A serious infection in which the air sacs fill with pus and other liquid. Lobar pneumonia affects one or more sections (lobes) of the lungs, this condition can be caused by following organisms
a) SARS-COV-2
b) Streptococcus pneumoniae
c) Respiratory syncytial virus (RSV) d) All of the above
3. The Cry protoxin is activated by solubilization and proteolytic cleavage under the alkaline gut conditions prevalent in susceptible insects is produced by
a) Bacillus thuringiensis
c) Azospirillum brasilense
b) Azotobacter vinelandii
d) None of the above
4. Taq polymerase enzyme’s optimum temperature is
a) 75 Celsius to 80 Celsius
c) 5 Celsius to 28 Celsius
b) 0 Celsius to 37 Celsius
d) 15 Celsius to 25 Celsius
5. In future we might be able to completely cure Diabetes Mellitus type I by a) Insulin b) Glucagon
c) replacement of pancreatic beta cells by gene therapy
d) transplantation of liver
6. Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium operates in the absence of a) Gene flow
c) Natural selection
b) Mutation
d) All of these
7. Which of the following is only surviving naturing Habitat of Asiatic lion
a) Nairobi
c) Gir National Park in Junagarh
8. Western Ghats could be an example of a) biodiversity hotspots
c) Botanical Garden
9. Human Genome Project was completed on a) April 2003
c) April 1990
b) Zimbabwe
d) Kanha National Park M.P
b) National Park
d) All of the above
b) May 2000
d) None of the above
10. In Miller & Urey’s experiment which molecules were used to replicate primitive atmosphere
a) CO2, H2O, O2
c) NH3, CH4, H2O H2
11. Lamark’s theory was disproved by a) Charles Darwin
b) N2, O2, H2
d) None of the above
b) August Weismann c) Gregor Mendel
d) Hargobind Khorana
12. RNA Primer is used in a) translation
b) transcription c) transformation
d) replication
13. Genetic code is a) triplet
b) universal c) degenerate
d) All of the above
14. Name hormone which is detected using kit in pregnant urine sample? a) FSH
b) LH c) Hcg
d) None of the above
15. Protein synthesis corresponds to the process of a) duplicating required DNA for synthesis of proteins b) formation of amino acids from mRNA c) formation of mRNA from DNA template d) formation of amino acids from DNA template directly
16. This was the first restriction endonuclease that was discovered a) BamHI
b) EcoRI c) HindIII
17. Competitive Inhibitor of enzyme is a) Penicillin
d) HindII
b) malonate c) cyclosporin
18. This cell organelle does not contain DNA
a) Nucleus
c) Lysosomes
d) both b & c
b) Mitochondria
d) Chloroplast
19. What are the differences in the specific regions of DNA sequence called during DNA finger printing?
a) Non repetitive DNA
c) Satellite DNA
b) Repetitive DNA
d) Histone DNA
20. Which type of ecological pyramid would be obtained with the following data? Secondary consumer: 120g; Primary consumer: 60g; Primary producer: 10g
a) Upright pyramid of numbers
b) Upright pyramid of biomass
Model Question Paper
c) Pyramid of energy
d) Inverted pyramid of biomass
21. Which plant group is characterized by the presence of vascular tissues?
a) Bryophytes
c) Algae
b) Angiosperms
d) Fungi
22. The bulk of carbon die oxide CO2 released from the body tissues in to the blood is present as
a) Bicarbonate in blood plasma and RBC’s
b) Free CO2 in blood plasma
c) 70% carbaminohemoglobin and 30% as bicarbonate
d) carbaminohemoglobin in RBC’s
23. Erythropoietin is produced in
a) Liver
c) Kidney
24. Urine formation involves the process of
a) Ultrafiltration
c) Secretion
25. Cofactors are
a) Prosthetic Groups
c) Metallic ions
b) Heart
d) Pancreas
b) Selective reabsorption
d) All of the above
b) Co-enzymes
d) All of the above
26. The number of Mitotic divisions required to produce 128 cells from single is
a) 7
c) 14
27. Guttation is the result of
a) Diffusion
c) Transpiration
b) 8
d) 36
b) Osmosis
d) Root Pressure
28. The osmotic expansion in cell is regulated by
a) Mitochondria
c) Vacuoles
b) Plastids
d) Ribosomes
29. Which of the main amino acid required for transamination?
a) Tyrosine
c) Glutamic acid
30. End product of EMP Pathway is
a) Citric acid
c) Ascorbic acid
b) Proline
d) Alanine
b) Pyruvic acid
d) Oxalic acid
31. The first reaction in photorespiration
a) Carboxylation
c) Oxygenation
32. Naturally Kinetin Occurs in
a) Coconut Milk
c) Corn
33. Auxin can be bio assayed by
a) Hydroponics
c) Lettuce hypocotyl elongation
34. Botanical Name of potato is
a) Mangifera indica
c) Panthera leo
35. Milk protein is coagulated by a) acidic medium
c) neutral medium
b) Decarboxylation
d) Phosphorylation
b) Pineapple
d) None of the above
b) Potometer
d) Avena coleoptile
b) Solanum tuberosum
d) Solanum Melongena
b) basic medium
d) None of the above
PART - B PHYSICS
1. For a body in motion, its force time graph is shown below. The mass of the particle is ‘m’ .The change in momentum of the particle over the time interval from zero to 8 s is:
a) 24 Ns
c) 12 Ns
b) 20 Ns
d) 3 Ns
2. If the distance from the earth to the sun is reduced to half its present value. Then the number of days in a year would become
a) 64.5
c) 182.5
b) 129
d) 730
3. A cylinder of mass m and density ρ hanging from a string is lowered into a vessel of cross sectional area A containing a liquid of density σ (< ρ) until it is fully immersed. The increase in pressure at the bottom of the vessel is
a) zero
c) mgρ/(σA)
b) mg/A
d) mgσ/(ρA)
4. Two charges are separated by a distance 20 cm in vacuum. The magnitude of the charges is 4x10-9C and -16x10-9 C. The position of the neutral point from the small charge is
a) 40/3 cm
c) 20 cm
b) 20/3 cm
d) 10/3 cm
5. The capacities of two parallel plate condensers A and B are 1µF and 5µF. they are charged separately to same potential of 100V. Now the positive plate of A is connected to the negative plate of B and the negative plate of A to the positive plate of B then a) final charge on A and B are 200/3 µC and 1000/3 µC
b) the loss of charge is 1.63x10-2J
c) both 1 and 2 are correct
d) both 1 and 2 are wrong
6. A proton, a deuteron and an alpha particle having same momentum enter a uniform magnetic field at right angles to the field. Then the ratio of their angular momenta during their motion in the magnetic field is
a) 2:2:1
c) 4:1:2
b) 2:1:3
d) 4:2:1
7. Which of the following statements is true about the LCR circuit connected to an AC source at resonance?
a) Voltage across R equals the applied voltage.
b) Voltage across R is zero
c) Voltage across C is zero.
d) Voltage across L equals the applied voltage.
8. Assertion: No interference pattern is detected when two coherent sources are infinitely close to each other.
Reason: The fringe width is inversely proportional to the distance between the two slits.
a) If both assertion and reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
b) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
c) If assertion is true but reason is false.
d) If the assertion and reason both are false.
e) If assertion is false but reason is true.
9. When an inert gas is filled in the place vacuum in a photo cell, then
a) Photo-electric current is decreased
b) Photo-electric current is increased
c) Photo-electric current remains the same
d) Decrease or increase in photo-electric current does not depend upon the gas filled
10. The ratio of the speed of the electrons in the ground state of hydrogen to the speed of light in vacuum is
a) 1/2
b) 1/137
b) 2/137
d) 1/237
11. A rod is heated by preventing it from expanding. The stress developed is independent of
a) Material of the rod
c) Length of rod
12. A liter of alcohol weighs
a) Less in winter than in summer
b) Rise in temperature
d) None of above
b) Less in summer than in winter
c) Some both in summer and winter
d) None of the above
13. In an AC circuit, the voltage applied is E=E0 sin ωt. The resulting current in the circuit is
I=I0 sin (ωt−π/2)
The power consumption in the circuit is given by
a) P=0
c) P=√2 E0I0
b) P=E0I0
d) P=(E0I0)/ √2
14. Which of the following statements is wrong?
a) Infrared photon has more energy than the photon of visible light
b) Photographic plates are sensitive to ultraviolet rays
c) Photographic plates can be made sensitive to infrared rays
d) Infrared rays are invisible but can cast shadows like visible light rays
15. Which radiation in sunlight, causes heating effect?
a) Ultraviolet
c) Visible light
b) Infrared
d) All of these
16. A screen is placed 2.1 m away from a slit of size 0.15 cm. On illuminating it by a light of wavelength 5x105 cm. The width of central maxima will be
a) 70 mm
c) 1.4 mm
b) 0.14 mm
d) 0.14 cm
17. Two beams of light having intensities I and 4I interfere to produce a fringe pattern on a screen. The phase between the beams is π/2 at point A and π at point B. Then, the difference between the resultant intensities at A and B is
a) 2I
c) 5I
b) 4I
d) 7I
18. For making the core of electromagnets, which among the following materials can be preferred
a) Soft iron
c) Copper-nickel alloy
19. Modulus of rigidity of a liquid
a) Non zero constant
c) Zero
b) Steel
d) Air
b) Infinite
d) Cannot be predicted
20. Find the shear strain developed in a rod of length 2 m and radius 1 cm which is fixed from one end is given a twist of 0.8 radians.
a) 0.002
c) 0.008
b) 0.004
d) 0.016
21. A cricket ball of mass 150 gm moving at a rate of 20 m/s is caught by a player. If the catching process be completed in 0.1 s, then the force of the blow exerted by the ball on the hands of the player is
a) 0.3 N
c) 300 N
b) 30 N
d) 3000 N
22. The maximum static frictional force is
a) Equal to twice the area of surface in contact
b) Independent of the area of surface in contact
c) Equal to the area of surface in contact
d) None of the above
23. On either ends of a massless string passing over a frictionless pulley two bodies of mass 3 kg and 4 kg are suspended. The acceleration of the system is (take g=9.8m/s2)
a) 4.9m/s2
c) 1.4m/s2
b) 2.45m/s2
d) 9.5m/s2
24. Starting from rest, a body slides down a 45° inclined plane in twice the time it takes to slide down the same distance in the absence of friction. The coefficient of friction between the body and the inclined plane is
a) 0.33
c) 0.75
b) 0.25
d) 0.80
25. A completely inelastic collision is one in which the two colliding particles
a) Are separated after collision
b) Remain together after collision
c) Split into small fragments flying in all directions
d) None of the above
26. The kinetic energy of a particle moving along a straight line increases uniformly with respect to the distance travelled by it. The force acting on the particle is (v is the speed of particle at any time) a) constant
c) proportional to v2
b) proportional to v
d) inversely proportional to v
27. The charge on 500cc of water due to protons will be
a) 6.0×1027C
c) 6×1023C
b) 2.67×107C
d) 1.67×1023C
28. The electric field inside a spherical shell of uniform surface charge density is
a) Zero
b) Constant, less than zero
c) Directly proportional to the distance from the centre
d) None of the above
29. An electric dipole of moment p is placed in the position of stable equilibrium in uniform electric field of intensity E. It is rotated through an angle θ from the initial position. The potential energy of electric dipole in the final position is
a) pEcosθ
c) pE(1−cosθ)
b) pEsinθ
d) −pEcosθ
30. A soap bubble of radius R is blown. After heating the solution a second bubble of radius 2R is blown. The work required to blow the second bubble in comparison to that required for the first bubble is a) Double
c) Slightly less than four times
b) Slightly less than double
d) Slightly more than four times
PART – C CHEMISTRY
1. Given the numbers : 161 cm, 0.161 cm, 0.0161 cm. The number of significant figures for the three numbers are
a) 3, 4 and 5 respectively
c) 3, 3 and 3 respectively
b) 3, 3 and 4 respectively
d) 3, 4 and 4 respectively
2. 12g of urea is dissolved in 1 litre of water and 68.4 g of sucrose is dissolved in 1 litre of water. The lowering of vapour pressure of first case is
a) equal to second
c) less than second
b) greater than second
d) double that of second
3. A pressure cooker reduces cooking time for food because
a) boiling point of water involved in cooking is increased
b) the higher pressure inside the cooker crushes the food material
c) cooking involves chemical changes helped by a rise in temperature
d) heat is more evenly distributed in the cooking space
4. Which of the two ions from the list given below have the geometry that is explained by the same hybridization of orbitals, NO2 – , NO3 – , NH2 –, NH4 + , SCN– ?
a) NO2 – and NO3 –
c) SCN– and NH2 –
5. In paper chromatography moving phase is
a) liquid and stationary phase in solid
b) liquid and stationary phase is liquid
c) solid and stationary phase is solid
d) solid and stationary phase is liquid
b) NH2 – and NO3 –
d) NO2 – and NH2 -
6. In the electrolytic cell, flow of electrons is from a) cathode to anode in solution
b) cathode to anode through external supply
c) cathode to anode through internal supply
d) anode to cathode through internal supply
7. The conductivity of strong electrolyte is a) Increase on dilution slightly
b) Decrease on dilution
c) Does not change with dilution
d) Depend upon density of electrolytes itself
8. Which one of the following statements for the order of a reaction is incorrect ?
a) Order can be determined only experimentally.
b) Order is not influenced by Stoichiometric coefficient of the reactants.
c) Order of reaction is sum of power to the concentration terms of
reactants to express the rate of reaction.
d) Order of reaction is always whole number.
9. The actinoids exhibit more number of oxidation states in general than the lanthanoids. This is because
a) the 5f orbitals extend further from the nucleus than the 4f orbitals
b) the 5f orbitals are more buried than the 4f orbitals
c) there is a similarity between 4f and 5f orbitals in their angular part of the wave function
d) the actinoids are more reactive than the lanthanoids
10. [Sc(H2O)6]3+ ion is
a) colourless and diamagnetic
c) colourless and paramagnetic
b) coloured and octahedral
d) coloured and paramagnetic
11. According to the postulates of Werner for coordination compounds
a) primary valency is ionisable
b) secondary valency is ionisable
c) primary and secondary valencies are non-ionisable
d) only primary valency is non-ionisable
12. The compound formed on heating chlorobenzene with chloral in the presence of concentrated sulphuric acid is
a) Freon
c)Gammexane
b)DDT
d) Hexachloroethane
13. When phenol reacts with CHCl3 and NaOH the product obtained would be
a) Salicylaldehyde b) p-hydroxbenzaldehyde
c) Both (a) and (b) d) Chloretone
14. In Rosenmund reaction, a) aldehydes are reduced to alcohols b) acids are converted to acid chlorides
c) alcohols are reduced to hydrocarbons d) acid chlorides are reduced to aldehydes
15. Aspirin is an acetylation product of a) p-Dihydroxybenzene b) o-Hydroxybenzoic acid c) o-Dihydroxybenzene d) m-Hydroxybenzoic acid
16. The reagent that can be used to distinguish between methanoic acid and ethanoic acid is a) Ammoniacal silver nitrate solution b) Neutral ferric chloride solution c) Sodium carbonate solution d) Phenolphthalein
17. Which one of the following is the strongest base in aqueous solution?
a) Methylamine
c) Aniline
18. Identify the correct IUPAC name
b) Trimethylamine
d) Dimethylamine
a) (CH3CH2)2NCH3 = N-Ethyl-N-methylethanamine
b) (CH3)3CNH2 = 2-methylpropan-2-amine
c) CH3NHCH (CH3)2 = N-Methylpropan-2-amine
d) (CH3)2CHNH2 = 2, 2-Dimethyl-N-propanamine
19. Deficiency of vitamin B6 causes
a) loss of fertility
c) scurvy
b) impaired clotting
d) Convulsions
20. For a dilute solution, Raoult’s law states that
a) the lowering of vapour pressure is equal to the mole fraction of the solute
b) the relative lowering of vapour pressure is equal to the mole fraction of the solute
c) the relative lowering of vapour pressure is proportional to the amount of solute in solution
d) the vapour pressure of the solution is equal to the mole fraction of the solvent
21. Activation energy of the reaction is
a) the energy released during the reaction
b) the energy evolved when activated complex is formed
c) minimum amount of energy needed to overcome the potential barrier
d) the energy needed to form one mole of the product
22. In nucleic acids, the sequence is
a) phosphate - base – sugar
c) base- sugar – phosphate
b) sugar- base-phosphate
d) base- phosphate - sugar
23. Which one of the following is an outer orbital complex and exhibits paramagnetic behaviour?
a) [Ni(NH3) 6 ] 2+
c) [Cr(NH3) 6 ] 3+
b) [Zn(NH3) 6 )]2+
d) [Co(NH3 ) 6 ] 3+
24. Primary and secondary amines can be distinguished by a) Schiff’s reagent
c) Hofmann’s bromamide reaction
b) Carbylamine reaction
d) Biuret reaction
25. The product formed in Aldol condensation is
a) a beta-hydroxy aldehyde or a beta-hydroxy ketone
b) an alpha-hydroxy aldehyde or ketone
c) an alpha, beta unsaturated ester
d) a beta-hydroxy acid
PART D - ENGLISH
Questions in this part contain Comprehension type questions in the form of short passages or lines of poems or a dialogue. The candidate should read the given text and answer the set of Questions. Each question has 4 choices, out of which choose the best answer.
Read the passage. Then answer the questions below.
The word euthanasia is of Greek origin and literally means “a good death.” The American Heritage Dictionary defines it as “the act of killing a person painlessly for reasons of mercy.” Such killing can be done through active means, such as administering a lethal injection, or by passive means, such as withholding medical care or food and water.
In recent years in the United States, there have been numerous cases of active euthanasia in the news. They usually involve the deliberate killing of ill or incapacitated persons by relatives or friends who plead that they can no longer bear to see their loved ones suffer. Although such killings are a crime, the perpetrators are often dealt with leniently by our legal system, and the media usually portrays them as compassionate heroes who take personal risks to save another from unbearable suffering. The seeming acceptance of active forms of euthanasia is alarming, but we face a bigger, more insidious threat from passive forms of euthanasia. Every year, in hospitals and nursing homes around the country, there are growing numbers of documented deaths caused by caregivers withholding life-sustaining care, including food and water, from vulnerable patients who cannot speak for themselves.
While it is illegal to kill someone directly, for example with a gun or knife, in many cases the law has put its stamp of approval on causing death by omitting needed care. Further, many states have “living will” laws designed to protect those who withhold treatment, and there have been numerous court rulings which have approved of patients being denied care and even starved and dehydrated to death.
Because such deaths occur quietly within the confines of hospitals and nursing homes, they can be kept hidden from the public. Most euthanasia victims are old or very ill, so their deaths might be attributed to a cause other than the denial of care that really killed them. Further, it is often relatives of the patient who request that care be withheld. In one court case, the court held that decisions to withhold life-sustaining care may be made not only by close family members but also by a number of third parties, and that such decisions need not be reviewed by the judicial system if there is no disagreement between decision makers and medical staff. The court went so far as to rule that a nursing home may not refuse to participate in the fatal withdrawal of food and water from an incompetent patient!
“Extraordinary” or “heroic” treatment need not be used when the chance for recovery is poor and medical intervention would serve only to prolong the dying process. But to deny customary and reasonable care or to deliberately starve or dehydrate someone because he or she is very old or very ill should
not be permitted. Most of the cases coming before the courts do not involve withholding heroic measures from imminently dying people, but rather they seek approval for denying basic care, such as administration of food and water, to people who are not elderly or terminally ill, but who are permanently incapacitated. These people could be expected to live indefinitely, though in an impaired state, if they were given food and water and minimal treatment.
No one has the right to judge that another’s life is not worth living. The basic right to life should not be abridged because someone decides that someone else’s quality of life is too low. If we base the right to life on quality-of-life standards, there is no logical place to draw the line.
To protect vulnerable patients, we must foster more positive attitudes towards people with serious and incapacitating illnesses and conditions. Despite the ravages of their diseases, they are still our fellow human beings and deserve our care and respect. We must also enact
positive legislation that will protect vulnerable people from those who consider their lives meaningless or too costly to maintain and who would cause their deaths by withholding life-sustaining care such as food and water.
Questions
1) The tone of the author can best be described as a) Pleading b) argumentative c) Compassionate d) emphatic
2) In paragraph 3, the author finds starvation and dehydration induced euthanasia is to be “more insidious" because a) euthanasia is legally considered to be a criminal act b) the public’s attitude toward euthanasia is becoming more positive c) it often involves those who cannot protest d) the patient has asked to die with dignity
3) As used in paragraph 3, what is the best synonym for insidious? a) Mischievous b) treacherous c) Seductive d) apparent
4) The author maintains that death by withholding care is a) largely confined to hospitals b) largely confined to the terminally ill c) Often requested by family members d) approved by living wills
5) As used in paragraph 7, which is the best definition of abridged? a) Trimmed b) curtailed c) Lengthened d) extended
PART E – GENERAL APTITUDE
1. The LCM of two numbers is 84, and their HCF is 6. If one of the numbers is 42, what is the other number?
a) 14
c) 36
b) 12
d) 28
2. A shopkeeper buys an item for ₹1,200 and sells it at a profit of 15%. What is the selling price?
a) ₹1,320
c) ₹1,390
b) ₹1,380
d) ₹1,440
3. In how many different ways can the letters of the word "LEMON" be arranged?
a) 60
c) 240
b) 120
d) 720
4. A car covers a distance of 300 km at a speed of 60 km/hr. If the speed is increased to 75 km/hr, how much time will it save?
a) 1 hour
c) 2 hours
b) 1.5 hours
d) 2.5 hours
5. If ₹10,000 is invested at 10% per annum compound interest, what will be the amount after 2 years?
a) ₹12,000
c) ₹12,200
b) ₹12,100
d) ₹12,210