IBPS Guide

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CONTENT Topics Quantitative Aptitude Reasoning Ability English Language

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1 to 239 1 to 148 1 to 68

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S.No 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10. 11. 12. 13. 14. 15. 16. 17. 18. 19. 20.

Topics RATIO AND PROPORTION yoursmahboob.wordpress.com SOLUTION AND EXPLANATION OF RATIO AND PROPORTION PROBLEMS ON AVERAGE SOLUTION AND EXPLANATION OF PROBLEMS ON AVERAGE PROFIT & LOSS SOLUTION AND EXPLANATION OF PROFIT & LOSS SIMPLE INTEREST & COMPOUND INTEREST SOLUTION AND EXPLANATION OF SIMPLE & COMPOUND INTEREST PROBABILITY SOLUTION AND EXPLANATION OF PROBABILITY PERMUTATION AND COMBINATION SOLUTION AND EXPLANATION OF PERMUTATION AND COMBINATION BOAT AND STREAMS SOLUTION AND EXPLANATION OF BOAT AND STREAMS SIMPLIFICATION SOLUTION AND EXPLANATION OF SIMPLIFICATION PROBLEMS ON PERCENTAGES SOLUTION AND EXPLANATION OF PROBLEMS ON PERCENTAGES MIXTURE ALLEGATION SOLUTION AND EXPLANATION OF MIXTURE ALLEGATION DATA INTERPRETATION SOLUTION AND EXPLANATION OF DATA INTERPRETATION NUMBER SERIES SOLUTION AND EXPLANATION OF NUMBER SERIES PROBLEMS ON AREAS SOLUTION AND EXPLANATION OF PROBLEMS ON AREAS QUADRATIC EQUATION SOLUTION AND EXPLANATION OF QUADRATIC EQUATION PROBLEMS ON PARTNERSHIP SOLUTION AND EXPLANATION OF PROBLEMS ON PARTNERSHIP PROBLEMS ON AGES SOLUTION AND EXPLANATION OF PROBLEMS ON AGES TIME, SPEED & DISTANCE SOLUTION AND EXPLANATION OF TIME, SPEED & DISTANCE TIME & WORK SOLUTION AND EXPLANATION OF TIME & WORK PROBLEMS ON TRAINS SOLUTION AND EXPLANATION OF PROBLEMS ON TRAINS DATA INTERPRETATION (MISSING DATA TYPE) SOLUTION AND EXPLANATION OF DATA INTERPRETATION (MISSING DATA)

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RATIO AND PROPORTION 1. In a school, 10% of the boys are same in number as 1/5th of the girls. What is the ratio of boys to girls in that school? (a) 1:2 (b) 3:4 (c) 3:2 (d) 2:1 (e) NOT 2. A sum of money is distributed among A, B and C such that A get double of C and B get average of A and B. find the ratio in which the money is distributed? (a) 1:1:7 (b) 2:2:1 (c) 1:1:2 (d) 1:2:3 (e) NOT 3. Divide 27 into two parts so that 5 time the first and 11 times the second together equal to 195. Then ratio of the first and second part is: (a) 10:17 (b) 17:10 (c) 10:13 (d) 1:2 (e) 5:7 4. The speed of a boat in still water is 500% more than the speed of the current. What is the respective ratio between the speed of boat downstream and speed of boat upstream? (a) 4:9 (b) 5:7 (c) 5:6 (d) 11:2 (e) 7:5 5. In a class of 75 students, one-fifth of the total number of girls and three- fifth of total number of boys join a cricket club. If the total number of boys joining the club is 27. What is the respective ratio of the total number of boys to the total number of girls joining the club? (a) 9:4 (b) 9:2 (c) 2:27 (d) 5:2 (e) NOT 6. In a class of 125, 20% students can dance. 2/5 of the total students can sing and 2/5 of the remaining students are good at sports. What is the respective ratio of students who can dance to students who are good at sport? (a) 3:4 (b) 9:8 (c) 5:2 (d) 1:8 (e) 5:4 7. The respective ratio of the number of boys to girls studying in school is 25:29. The total number of students studying in the school is 270. If 15 boys and 15 girls take admission in the school. What will be the new respective ratio of the boys and girls studying in the school? (a) 2:1 (b) 7:8 (c) 5:8 (d) 2:7 (e) 12:7 8. Two numbers are in the ratio of 3:5.if 9 is subtracted from each then they become 12:23. Find the numbers? (a) 23,46 (b) 33,55 (c) 32,16 (d) 13, 28 (e) 14,28 9. The income of A, B and C are in the ratio of 7:9:12 and their spending are in the ratio 8:9:15. If A saves 1/4th of his income, then the saving of A, B and C are in the ratio of : (a) 1:2:3 (b) 3:4:7 (c) 7:9:2 (d)data inadequate (e)NOT 10. The ratio of the number of boys and girls in a college is 5:6. If the percentage increase in the number of boys and girls are 25% and 30 % respectively, then find the new ratio? (a) 120:131 (b) 125:156 (c) 123:121 (d) cannot be determined (e) NOT 11. In a bag, there are coins of 25p, 10p and 5p in the ratio of 1:2:3. If there is Rs. 30 in all, how many 5p coins are there? (a) 750 (b) 100 (c) 150 (d) 200 (e) 450 www.ibpsguide.com | www.ibpsguide.in|mock.ibpsguide.in| www.sscexamguide.com CopyrightŠ 2016 IBPS Guide | For Queries contact – admin@ibpsguide.com Page-1

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12. Seats for mathematics, physics and English in a school are in the ratio 6:7:9. There is proposal to increase these seats by 40%, 30% and 60% respectively. What will be the ratio of increased seats? (a) 13:45:34 (b) 13:34:45 (c) 84:91:144 (d) 15:26:31 (e) NOT 13. An amount of Rs. 2430 is divided among P, Q and R such that if their shares be reduced by Rs. 5, Rs. 10 and Rs. 15 respectively the remainders will be in the ratio of 3:4:5. Then Q‘s share was: (a) 200 (b) 800 (c) 450 (d) 1200 (e) 1000 14. The ratio of the incomes of A and B is 5:4 and the ratio of their expenditure is 3:2. If at the end of the year, each saves 1600, then the income of B is : (a) 1600 (b) 2400 (c) 3200 (d) 2000 (e) NOT 15. The side of triangles are in the ratio ½:1/3:1/4 and its perimeter is 104 cm. the length of the longest side is: (a) 32 cm (b) 20 cm (c) 54 cm (d) 56 cm (e) 48 cm 16. The ratio of third proportional to 16 and 26 and the mean proportional between 9 and 25 is : (a)13:60 (b) 169:60 (c) 60:169 (d) 60:31 (e) 60:13 17. What is the ratio whose terms differ by 50 and the measure of which is 3/7? (a) 2:5 (b) 4:5 (c) 3:7 (d) 5:7

(e) 5:8

18. It is given that x varies inversely as square of y, then z varies as cube of y. if y=3, then the ratio of x/z is? (a) 1/9² (b) 1/9³ (c) 1/27³ (d) 1/3² (e)NOT 19. 40 kg of an alloy M is mixed with 100 kg of alloy N. if alloy M has silver and gold in ratio 3:2 and alloy N has silver and gold in ratio 1:4, then the ratio of silver and gold in the new alloy is : (a) 11:24 (b) 23:14 (c) 4:25 (d) data inadequate (e) NOT 20. The ratio between product of two numbers and difference of two numbers if 45:2, what is the ratio of LCM/ HCF of two numbers? (a) 1:2 (b) 3:4 (c) 3:4 (d) data inadequate (e) NOT 21. Ravi invest in two schemes in the ratio 12:17 for two years, after that he increase his investment by 15%, what is the ratio of the profit he got in two schemes? (a) 4:19 (b) 5:14 (c) data inadequate (d) 14:11 (e) NOT 22. The ratio of two consecutive odd numbers is in ratio 14:27. What is the ratio of difference and sum of these two numbers? (a) 54:13 (b) 26:81 (c) 13:28 (d) 13:41 (e) 12:25 23. In a school 20 % of literate boys are same as illiterate girls and literate girls are 1/5 of illiterate boys. What is the ratio between total boys and total girls? (a) 4:1 (b) 5:1 (c) 6:1 (d) cannot be determined (e) NOT 24. The average age of three girls is 25. Fifteen year hence, the ratio is in the proportion 3:5:7. The age of youngest girl is? (a) 20 (b) 24 (c) 25 (d) 23 (e) NOT www.ibpsguide.com | www.ibpsguide.in|mock.ibpsguide.in| www.sscexamguide.com Copyright© 2016 IBPS Guide | For Queries contact – admin@ibpsguide.com Page-2

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25. If 10% of x is 45% of y and 35% of y is 12% of z then x: y: z is? (a) 12:10:35 (b) 9:2:45 (c) 6:10:15 (d) 54:12:35

(e)NOT

26. Three containers have their volumes in the ratio 3:4:5. They are full of mixture s of milk and water. The mixtures contain milk and water in the ratio of (4:1), (3:1) and (5:2) respectively. The contents of all these three containers are poured into a fourth container. The ratio of milk and water in the fourth container is : (a) 157:53 (b) 1:1 (c) 3:20 (d)34:19 (e) NOT 27. Rajiv has 14 currency notes in his pocket consisting of only Rs. 20 and Rs. 10 notes. The total money value of the notes is Rs. 230. The ratio of Rs. 10 notes to Rs. 20 that Rajiv has is: (a) 4/5 (b) 1/6 (c) 1/1 (d) 5/9 (e) NOT 28. A, B and C share a sum of money in the ratio 7:8:16. If C receives Rs. 27 more than A, then the total money shared was? (a) 65 (b) 93 (c) 445 (d) 450 (e) 280 29. A, B and C can complete a work in 2, 3 and 4 days respectively. If they complete the work together, in what ratio they should divide the money? (a) 3:2:4 (b) 4:5:9 (c) 5:6:7 (d) 2:9:1 (e) 6:4:3 30. Two cogged wheels of which one has 16 cogs and other 27, work into each other. If the latter turns 80 times in three quarters of a minute, how often does the other turn in 8 second? (a) 12 (b) 26 (c) 24 (d) 48 (e) 96 31. If ½ of the number of white mice in a certain laboratory is 1/8 of the total number of mice and 1/3 of the number of grey mice is 1/9 of the total number of mice, then what is the ratio of white mice to grey mice? (a) 2:3 (b) 4:5 (c) 3:4 (d) 3:7 (e) 16:27 32. The ratio of incomes of John and Joe is 3:5 and ratio of their expenditure is 5:1. Who saves more? (a) John (b) Joe (c) neither of them (d) cannot be determined (e) NOT 33. A and B can complete a work in 2 & 3 days respectively. They complete a work together and get Rs. 50 as the wages. How should they divide it? (a) 1:2 (b) 1:3 (c) 1:5 (d) 3:2 (e) 3:1 34. A certain ship floats with 3/5 of its weight above the water. What is the ratio of the ship‘s submerged weight to its exposed weight? (a) 3:8 (b) 3:5 (c) 2:3 (d) 2:5 (e) NOT 35. If a carton containing dozen mirrors is dropped, which of the following cannot be the ratio of broken to unbroken mirrors? (a) 1:1 (b) 2:1 (c) 3:2 (d) 3:1 (e) NOT DIRECTION: Each of the statements given below is followed by two statements I and II. Study both the statement and state the relationship between both the statements and give your answer as: (a) If I>II (b) If I≥II (c) If I=II or no relation can be made or data inadequate www.ibpsguide.com | www.ibpsguide.in|mock.ibpsguide.in| www.sscexamguide.com Copyright© 2016 IBPS Guide | For Queries contact – admin@ibpsguide.com Page-3

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(d) (e) 36.

If I<II If I≤II The radius of the circle is 14 cm.

I. II. 37. I. II. 38. I. II. 39. I. II. 40. I. II.

Calculate the ratio of shaded to unshaded region? Ratio is 4:5. The ratio between A and B‘s salary is 4:9. Expenditure of A: expenditure of B =5:7 Saving of A and B is ratio 6:7. An amount is distributed between four brothers A, B, C and D. Ratio of A:D is 5:6 Ratio between A, B, C and D is 1:2:3:1.. An amount of 50000 is distributed between three friends X, Y and Z. Share of X, Yand Z is in ratio 4:6:15. Ratio of X/Z = 1/5. Area of a rectangle is 2746 square cm. Perimeter of rectangle is 206 cm. Length and breadth are in the ratio 1/3.

DIRECTION: Each of the questions below consist of a question and two statements I and II. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statement are sufficient to answer the question. Read both statement and give answer as(a) If data in statement I alone is sufficient to answer the question (b) If statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question. (c) If both statement together is required to answer the question (d) If either of statement is sufficient to answer the question (e) If neither of statement is sufficient to answer the question. 41. What is the ratio of two numbers? I. Two numbers are such that sum of twice the first and thrice the second number is 36 and the sum of thrice the first number and twice the second number is 39. II. First number is 40 more than second number. 42. The ratio of area of curved surface of a cone, a hemisphere and a cylinder is? I. Radius and height of all are equal. II. Radius of hemisphere is 12 cm. 43. The base of the two triangles is in ratio of? I. Area of the two triangles is in the ratio of 3:4. II. Area of both triangles is in ratio of 5:7 and each has same height. 44. The ratio of time taken by three cars to travel same distance is? I. Speed of first car and second car is in ratio of 2:3 II. Speed of first car and third car is in ratio 1:2. 45. Find the original bill? www.ibpsguide.com | www.ibpsguide.in|mock.ibpsguide.in| www.sscexamguide.com Copyright© 2016 IBPS Guide | For Queries contact – admin@ibpsguide.com Page-4

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I. Present bill is Rs. 4500. II. The wages of labour in a factory increased in ratio 22:25. 46. What was the price of horse A last year? I. The ratio of price of horse A and B is 4:5. This year an increase of 25% take place in price of A and in B an increase of Rs. 50000. And their price is now in ratio 9:10. II. The ratio of price of horse A and B is 9:5. This year a decrease of 25% take place in price of A. 47. What is the staff strength of company R? I. Total number of officers is 132. II. Male and female employees are in ratio 2:3. 48. What was the original fraction? I. By an increase of 200% and 300% respectively to a fraction results into 6/11. II. By a decrease of 50% and40% respectively, a fraction results to 5/6. 49. How many students are there in the class? I. The ratio between boys and girls is 7:9 II. Difference between boys and girls is 14. 50. What is total amount of B and C together? I. Sum of money divided among A, B, C and D in the ratio of 3:5:8:9. Share of D is Rs. 1872 more than share of A. II. Sum of money divided among A, B, C and D in the ratio of 3:7:9:13. Share of C is Rs. 11172 more than share of A.

SOLUTION AND EXPLANATION OF RATIO AND PROPORTION 1. (d) 10% of boys = 1/5 of girls Boys/girls = 1/5: 1/10/100 = 2:1 2.(b) According to the question, A= 2C and B =A+B/2, A: B: C = A: A: A/2 = 1:1:1/2 = 2:2:1. 3.(b) Let the first number be 27-x and second number be x, 5(27-x) +11x = 195, Then x = 10, so the ratio is 17/10. 4.(e) Let speed of boat in still water is u and speed of current is v Then u =6v Ratio= speed of downstream: speed of upstream = u+v: u-v = 7:5 5.(b) Given, 3/5 of total boys joined the club = 27, so total boys = 45, Total girls = 75-45 = 30, Girls joining club = 1/5 * 30 = 6. Ratio is = 27/6 = 9/2. 6.(e) www.ibpsguide.com | www.ibpsguide.in|mock.ibpsguide.in| www.sscexamguide.com CopyrightŠ 2016 IBPS Guide | For Queries contact – admin@ibpsguide.com Page-5

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Ratio is = 5/4. 7.(b) Boys/girls = 25/29, boys + girls = 270, Then girls = 145 and boys = 125, After admission of 15 boys and 5 girls new ratio = 140/160 = 7/8. 8.(b) Let the numbers be x and y, Then numbers are 33, 55. 9.(e) Income of A, B & C are in ratio of 7:9:12 and their spending in the ratio of 8:9:15. For A, 7x- 8y =7/4x, then x= 32y/21, savings of A, B & C is 7/4x: 9(x-y): 12x-15y On putting the value of x = 32y/21 in the ratio we get ratio as 56:99:69. 10.(b) The new ratio between boys and girls are 11.(c) Let the total number of coins be x. then, 60x/100 = Rs. 30 Then x= 50, 5p coins = 3*50 = 150. 12.(c) The new ratio is = 6 * 140/100: 7* 130/100: 9 * 160/100= 84:91:144. 13.(b) Total reduced amount = 2430 – (5+10+15) = 2400. Q‘s share = 14.(c) Let the income be x and expenditure be y, Then, 5x-3y = 1600 And 4x- 2y = 1600 On solving both equation, we get x = 800, income of B = 4x = 3200. 15.(e) Let the side of triangle be a, b, and c so a+b+c = 104cm, Also a: b: c = ½:1/3:1/4. x/2 +x/3 + x/4 = 104 cm x = 96 Longest side is x/2 = 48 cm. 16.(b) Third proportion of 16:26 is 169/4 and mean of 9 and 25 is (9*25)^1/2 = 3*5 = 15 Ratio is 169/4:15 = 169:60. www.ibpsguide.com | www.ibpsguide.in|mock.ibpsguide.in| www.sscexamguide.com Copyright© 2016 IBPS Guide | For Queries contact – admin@ibpsguide.com Page-6

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17.(c) Let the number be x and x+50, then x: x+50 = 3:7. Then x = 75/2. Ratio is 75/2: 175/2 = 3/7. 18.(e) As per the question, x = 1/y² and z = y³, so ratio of x/z = 1/y^5 = 1/243 19.(a) In alloy M, silver is 3/5 * 40 = 24 kg. In alloy N silver is 1/5*100 = 20 kg, Total silver content in new mixture is 44 kg, Ratio of silver to gold in new mixture is 44/96 = 11/24. 20.(d) Let the numbers be x and y, x*y/x-y = 45/2. Since no other data is given We cannot calculate HCF and LCM so data inadequate. 21.(c) Initial investment = 12:17, after increase investment = 12:17, We cannot calculate the profit ratio as no other information is given regarding profit received by him. 22.(a) Given, a/a+2 = 14/27, then two consecutive odd number = 28/13, 54/13 Ratio = 26/13: 82/13 = 13:41. 23.(b) 20% of literate boys = illiterate girls And literate girls = 1/5 * illiterate boys Ratio of total boys and total girls = 5:1 24.(b) Let the three girls be a, b and c, Then a+b+c = 25*3 After 15 years a+b+c = 120 And their ratio of age after 15 year is given as 3:5:7, So on using above data we get age of youngest girl = 24. 25.(d) According to the question, 10/100x = 45/100y so x/y = 9/2 Also 35/100y = 12/100z, And y/z =12/35 So x: y: z = 54:12:35 26.(a) Let the three containers contain 3x, 4x and 5x litres of mixtures respectively Milk and water in 1st mixtures is 12x/5 and 3x/5 litres. www.ibpsguide.com | www.ibpsguide.in|mock.ibpsguide.in| www.sscexamguide.com Copyright© 2016 IBPS Guide | For Queries contact – admin@ibpsguide.com Page-7

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Similarly milk and water in 2nd mixture is 3x and x. And milk and water in 3rd mixture is 25x/7 and 10x/7 litres. Total milk in final mixture = 314x/35 litres. Total water in final mixture = 106x/35 litres. Ratio of water milk to water = 157:53. 27.(d) Let the 20 rupees note be x and 10 rupees note be y. From the question it is known that x+y = 14 And 2x + y =23. X =9 and y= 5. Ratio is 5/9. 28.(b) Ratio of A, B & C is 7:8:16. Difference of A and C is 9x. As per the question 9x = 27, x = 3. Total money = 31 * 3 = 93. 29.(e) Efficiency of A: Efficiency of B: Efficiency of C = ½:1/3:1/4 = (6:4:3)/12 So ratio is 6:4:3. 30.(c) By using chain rule 27*8*80 = x*45*16. Then x= 24 times. 31.(c) ½ of white mice = 1/8 of total mice And 1/3 of grey mice = 1/9 of total mice. White mice/grey mice = ¼: 1/3 = 3:4 32.(d) Saving = income-expenditure More data is needed to answer the question. 33. (d) Rs. 50 is to be divided in the ratio of their efficiency, Efficiency of A: efficiency of B = ½:1/3 = 3:2/6 = 3:2. 34.(c) Ship submerged weight: exposed weight = 2/5: 3/5 = 2:3. 35.(c) From all the options, option (c) cannot be the ratio as 2+3 = 5 is not a factor of 12. 36.(c) From statement I, no measurement of triangle is given so we cannot find the ratio www.ibpsguide.com | www.ibpsguide.in|mock.ibpsguide.in| www.sscexamguide.com Copyright© 2016 IBPS Guide | For Queries contact – admin@ibpsguide.com Page-8

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From statement II, ratio is 4:5. So relation cannot be made. 37.(c) From statement I, saving of A & B= 4x-5y: 9x-7y. Ratio cannot be calculated. From statement II, saving of A& B = 6:7. No relation can be made. 38.(d) From statement I, ratio of A: D = 5:6. From statement II, ratio of A: D = 1:1. I< II. 39.(d) From statement I, we can find the ratio of X/Z = 4:15 From statement II, X/Z = 1/5. I< II. 40.(a) From statement I, Length + breadth = 103 cm, area = 2746. On solving length: breadth = 54/49. From statement II, length: breadth = 1:3. I>II. 41.(a) From statement I, let the two number be x and y. 2x +3y = 36, 3x +2y = 39, on solving x/y = 3/2. From statement II, x/y = y+40/y not determined. 42.(a) From statement I, radius and height is same, ratio is 1:2^1/2:2^1/2 From statement II, curved surface area of hemisphere is 2*pi*12². 43.(b) From statement I, b1h1/b2h2 = 3/4 From statement II, b1h1/b2h2 = ¾, h1=h2, so b1/b2 =3/4 44.(c) From statement I, speed of first car: speed of second car = 2:3. From statement II, speed of first car: speed of third car = 1:2 On combining both we ratio as 2:3:4. 45.(e) From statement I, present bill = Rs. 4500 From statement II, wages of labour increased in ratio = 22:25. Also by combining both statements we do get the required result. 46.(a) From statement I, 125/100*4x/5x + 50000 = 9/10, x = 10000, price of horse last year = 40000 From statement II, ratio after increase is 9:4. www.ibpsguide.com | www.ibpsguide.in|mock.ibpsguide.in| www.sscexamguide.com Copyright© 2016 IBPS Guide | For Queries contact – admin@ibpsguide.com Page-9

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47.(e) From statement I, total officer = 132. From statement II, male: female employee = 2:3. Only officer strength is given not any other grade strength so we cannot calculate the total staff strength. 48.(d) From statement I, let the fraction be x/y. After an increase of 200% and 300% the fraction is 6/11. Original fraction is 6/11 * 400/300 = 8:11. From statement II, original fraction = 5/6 * 60/50 = 1:1. 49.(c) From statement I, boys: girls = 7:9. From statement II, boys-girls = 14. On combining both statements, total strength is 112. 50.(d) From statement I, ratio of A, B, C & D is 3x:5x:8x:9x, 6x = 1872, x= 312, B+C= 13x= 4056. From statement II, ratio of A, B, C and D is 3:7:9:13, let x be the multiplier, then 6x = 11172, x = 1862 B+C = 16x= 29792. PROBLEMS ON AVERAGE 1). There are 45 students in a class. The no. of boys is 5 more than girls. The average weight of boys is 5 more than average weight of girls. The total weight of boys is 100 more than girls. Calculate the average weight of the class? (a) 50.1kg (b) 51.1 kg (c) 49.1kg (d) 50kg (e)52kg 2). If there are 10 people in a trip then the average height of all is 160 cm, but if 8 people go in the trip then the average height reduces by 1 cm. find the average height of remaining two? (a) 160 cm (b) 164 cm (c) 155 cm (d) 170 cm (e) 164.5 cm 3). In a family of 8 of three generation, there are two fathers, two mothers, two brothers, and two male children. The total age of the female member of the family is 5 less than total age of male member of the family. What is the difference in the average age of male and female member of the family? (a) 5 (b) 10 (c) 15 (d) 12 (e) Data inadequate 4). The average of three numbers is 59. When six more numbers are included the average becomes one-third more of the previous average, what is difference between the averages of the two set of numbers? (a) 19.4 (b) 19.3 (c) 19.5 (d) 9.7 (e) 20.17 5). Two trains moving in opposite direction have an average speed of 56km/hr both. If both runs in same direction than the average speed of both train will be? (a) 56km/hr (b) 50 km/hr (c) 56.7 km/hr (d) cannot be determined (e) None 6). There are 35 students in a lecture of physics, in which the difference between the girls and boys is 5. The average of marks got by girls is 5 more than boys and the total marks got by boys are 50 less than girls. What is the average mark of total students? www.ibpsguide.com | www.ibpsguide.in|mock.ibpsguide.in| www.sscexamguide.com CopyrightŠ 2016 IBPS Guide | For Queries contact – admin@ibpsguide.com Page-10

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(a) 160/7

(b) 150/9

(c) 130/9

(d) 190/9

(e)190/7

7). Four boxes full of apples are placed one by one in a big box. The average height and length of the small boxes are in ratio of 5:7. The average of breadth of all boxes is 4 more than average of height. Calculate the approximate average volume of all four boxes if total height of all boxes is 60 cm. (a) 48857 (b) 48867 (c) 47885 (d) 48897 (e) None of these 8). The average age of Arun and his wife was 25 at the time of their marriage and it increases by 3 at the birth of their child. What is the average age of the three at present at the 5th birthday of their son? (a) 53/3 (b) 65/3 (c) 71/3 (d) 25 (e)23 9). The difference between the averages of two set of numbers is 6, if total numbers are 10 and the total sum of second set is 56. What is the average of sum of both set? (a) 50 (b) 65 (c) 60 (d) cannot be determined (e) None of these 10). The average score of a cricketer is 100 in 15 matches, if his average score for 7 matches is 10 more than average score of 8 matches than what is difference in the averages of first 7 matches and last 8 matches if the cricketer scores 480 runs in last 8 matches? (a) 5 (b) 4 (c) 6 (d) 12 (e) 10 11). The average runs of a cricketer in a tournament, in which he played 14 matches, was 47. His average runs in the first seven matches are 57 and that in the last five matches are 44. If the runs made by him in 8th match are 15, how many runs did he make in 9th match? (a) 24 (b) 25 (c) 20 (d) 16 (e) 30 12). The average weight of 70 students in a class calculated as 40 kg. Later it was found that the weight of one of the student was calculated as 64kg instead of 32kg. What is the actual average weight of the students in the class? (a) 34.5 (b) 40.5 (c) 39 (d) 39.5 (e) 40.1 13). There are 45 students in a hostel. Due to the admission of 15 new students the expenses of the mess were increased by Rs. 60 per day while the average expenditure per head diminished by Re. 1. What was the original expenditure of the mess? (a) 675 (b) 670 (c) 360 (d) 480 (e) 390 14). In an examination, a student‘s average marks were 65 per paper. If he had obtained 20 more marks for his English paper and 5 more marks for his science paper, his average per paper would have been 70. How many papers were there in the examination? (a) 5 (b) 10 (c) 6 (d) 11 (e) NOT 15). A motorist travels to a place 200 km away at an average speed of 40 km/hr and returns at50 km/hr. his average speed for the journey is how much less than its total speed? (a) 300/7 (b) 400/9 (c) 200/9 (d) 350/9 (e) NOT 16). The arithmetic mean of the scores of a group of students in a test of mathematics was 48. The brightest 20% of them secured a mean score of 75 and dullest 25% a mean score of 30. The mean score of the remaining 55% is: (a) 560/11 (b) 56 (c) 510/11 (d) 670/11 (e) NOT www.ibpsguide.com | www.ibpsguide.in|mock.ibpsguide.in| www.sscexamguide.com Copyright© 2016 IBPS Guide | For Queries contact – admin@ibpsguide.com Page-11

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17). Of the 5 numbers the average of first 4 numbers is greater than average of last 4 numbers by 6. What is the average of 5 numbers if the sum of middle 3 numbers is 59 and also last number is less than the average by 2? (a) 27 (b) 29 (c) 26 (d) cannot be determined (e) 3 18). A company produces on an average of 500 items per month for the first 4 months. How many items it must produce on an average per month over the next 8 month, to make average of 1000 items per month? (a) 1250 (b) 1350 (c) 1150 (d) 1550 (e) 1300 19). The average of 5 numbers is a and the average of three of these is b. if the average of last two is c, then which of the following is correct relation between a, b and c? (a) b=a+c (b) 2a=3b+2c (c) 5a=3b+2c (d) a=b+c (e) a=b/c 20). In a coaching center the fees of girls is less than boys as some percent concession is given to girls to encourage them towards higher education. The average fee taken by 50 girls is Rs 2500 per year and the number of boys joining the center is 200. What is the average fee of all students if fees of each boy are 50% more than that of girls? (a) 3000 (b) 2700 (c) 3500 (d) cannot be determined (e) 4500 21). A person invests Rs 505 on an average per month in different schemes and saves Rs 404 on an average per month. What is the difference in the amount he invests to save? (a) 1111 (b) 2121 (c) 1212 (d) 1215 (e) NOT 22). The average age of a group of student of 40 is 12, if age of teacher and caretaker is included than the average of whole is, also it is given than the average age of teacher and caretaker is 36 more than the average age of whole group? (a) 13.8 (b) 13.4 (c) 15.6 (d) 15.5 (e) 23.9 23). The average monthly income of a family of four earning members was Rs 15005. One of the daughters in the family got married and left home, so the average monthly income of the family came down to Rs 14560. What is the monthly income of the married daughter? (a) 13460 (b) 14360 (c) 16439 (d) 16340 (e) 15649 24). There are three numbers A, B and C such that the sum of twice B to thrice C is 200. And the sum of twice A and thrice C is 250 and also A and B are in ratio of 2:3. What is the average of the three numbers? (a) 45.6 (b) 34.8 (c) 34.5 (d) 33.5 (e) 37.5 25). The annual income of a person is Rs. 3, 60, 000 and average expenditure is Rs. 16,000. What is the ratio of average saving to average income? (a) 7/15 (b) 6/13 (c) 3/4 (d) 9/17 (e) 4/9 26). In a club of 5 members when a member is retired & new member join the club then the average age of all the members becomes same which it was before 2 yrs. Then find the difference between the age of new member & the person replaced from the committee (a) 14 (b) 10 (c) 15 (d) 17 (e) 16 27). A team of 10 members is taken part in a competition of shooting. The best secure 90 pts. If he secured 95 points then the average becomes 90. Then find the total points of the team? (a) 900 (b) 890 (c) 790 (d) 895 (e) 995 www.ibpsguide.com | www.ibpsguide.in|mock.ibpsguide.in| www.sscexamguide.com CopyrightŠ 2016 IBPS Guide | For Queries contact – admin@ibpsguide.com Page-12

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28). The average monthly consumptions of rice by a family are 25 kg. If a new member joined them for three months the annual consumption of rice remains the same as before. What is the total rice in kg consumed yearly by the family? (a) 350 kg (b) 450 kg (c) 400 kg (d) 500 kg (e) 300 kg 29). A PVR usually sell 500 tickets in a week and Rs 2, 50,000 is the monthly income that the PVR get while selling the tickets. What is the average amount per person it gets? (a) 135 (b) 125 (c) 145 (d) 356 (e) 120 30). Mohan consist 3 times the amount of sohan and sohan consists of 50% more amount than pranav. If average of all amounts are 14,000, than find the amount of Mohan? (a) 24000 (b) 16000 (c) 25000 (d) 27000 (e) 23000 31). The average of first 15 prime numbers between 10 to 250 is? (a) 124/3 (b) 45.5 (c) 56/3 (d) 110/3 (e)112/5 32). The ratio of a two-digit natural number to a number formed by reversing its digits is 9:7. Which of the following is the average of sum of all the numbers of all such pairs? (a) 45 (b) 55 (c) 67 (d) 76 (e) Cannot be answered 33). Consider a class of 50 students whose average weight is 40 kg. X new students join this class whose average weight is y kg. If it is known that X +y=50, what is the possible average weight of the class now? (a) 45.56 kg (b) 45.66 kg (c) 45 kg (d) 46.56 kg (e) 50.45 kg 34). In a club of 10 members, average age of member is get down by 5 when two new member join them and also it get up when two member left the club what is the difference between the average of the 2 left to 2 joined? (a) 15 (b) 20 (c) 40 (d) 30 (e) 10 35). A plant of height 15 cm was brought in Ravi‘s garden, day by day it grows to certain height. Ravi on Monday notice that it grows to 2.05 mm. after 3 days his wife notice that it grows to 1.01 cm. on the last day of week his son calculated the average height as 1 cm. what is the total height increased in the remaining days? (a) 6.99 cm (b) 6.99mm (c) .679 dm (d) 2.99 cm (e) NOT 36). The average temperature of the town in the first four days of a month was 58 degrees. The average for 2nd to 5th days was 60 degrees. If the temperatures of the 1st and 5th days were in the ratio of 9:11, then what is the temperature on the 5th day? (a) 36 (b) 45 (c) 44 (d) 55 (e) 60 37). The average consumption of petrol by a vehicle for the first seven month is 45 liters and last five month is 40 liters, what will be the ratio of consumption of petrol by the vehicle in the first and last month together if the difference in consumption of the two month is 5 liters and also the average of remaining month is 50 liters? (a) 10/11 (b) 12/11 (c)11/12 (d) 11/10 (e) NOT

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38). A scooter travel with starting speed of 40 km/hr to 5 places total distance is 400 km at different speed with equal time, what is the average speed with which it travels if it is known that at each interval speed increases to 3 km/hr? (a) 45 (b) cannot be determined (c) 43 (d) 50 (e) 40 39). The average age of 3 children in a family is 20% of the average age of mother and the eldest child. The total age of father and the youngest child is 35 years. If the mother‘s age is 30 and average age of father and mother is 32, what is the age of second child? (a) 5 (b) 12 (c) 7 (d) 9 (e) Data inadequate 40). A cricketer scores 25 runs in 25th inning and reduces its average by 3 runs; if he had made 45 runs he would hade scored a total of 5000 runs. What is the approximate average run before 25th innings? (a) 206 (b) 207 (c) 208 (d) 204 (e) 201 Direction: Each one of the following questions given below consist of a statement and/or a question and two statements I and II given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statement(s) is/are sufficient to answer the given question. Read both thee statement and give answer as: (a)- If data in statement I is sufficient to answer the question (b)- If data in statement II is sufficient to answer the question (c)- If both the statement are required to answer the question (d)- If either statement I or statement II is required to answer the question (e)- If both the statement I and II are not sufficient to answer the question. 41). What is the average age of all employees of a company? I. Total number of employee is 400. II. The elder employee is 20 year more than average age. 42). How many candidates were interviewed everyday by the panel A out of the three panels A, B and C? I. The three panels on an average interview 15 candidates everyday. II. Out of a total of 45 candidates interviewed everyday by the three panels, the number of candidates interviewed by panel A is more by 2 than the candidates interviewed by panel C and is more by 2 than the candidates interviewed by panel B. 43). Praneet average marks is 5 more than what he got in English, what is his marks in geography? I. The average mark is 65. II. Total subject is 5 and the sum of English and geography is 104. 44). What is sushi‘s average salary? I. Her salary at the time of joining was Rs 10000 and the salary increase every year by 10%. II. She had joined exactly 5 yrs ago. 45). How many students are there in the class who has an average age of 15? I. The ratio between the boys and girls is 4:3, total ages of whole class is 420. II. The ratio between the average age of girls and boys is 13:15. 46). What is the average age of Neeta and David? I. The ages of Neeta and David are 6:7. II. After 6 years, the ratio of their ages will be 15:17. 47). A sum of money is divided among four brothers P, Q, R and S in the ratio 3:7:9:13. What is the average sum of money? I. The share of P and R together is Rs 11312. II. Share of S is more than Q 48). Whose body weight is second highest among the five boys vinay, Rajiv, sanjeev, ramesh and ajay? I. Average weight of vinay, sanjeev and ajay is 59 kg, also weight of Rajiv is 58 kg, and ramesh is 70 kg. The weight of sanjeev and ajay is 65 kg and 60 kg respectively. www.ibpsguide.com | www.ibpsguide.in|mock.ibpsguide.in| www.sscexamguide.com Copyright© 2016 IBPS Guide | For Queries contact – admin@ibpsguide.com Page-14

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II. Average weight of vinay, Ramesh and Rajiv is 69 kg, also weight of Rajiv is 68 kg, and ramesh is 75 kg. The weight of sanjeev and ajay is70 kg and 69 kg respectively. 49). In an exam, find the no. of qualified students of class? I. Average marks of 120 students are 35. II. Average marks of disqualified is 15. 50). Find the age of father? I. Average age of family members is 25 years. II. When the age of father is included the average of 5 member which is 20 increases by 25%. SOLUTION AND EXPLANATION OF PROBLEMS ON AVERAGE 1.(b) Total student =45 Let no of boys be x then girls will be 45-x. As given x = 45-x +5. Then x = 25. Let total weight of boys and girls be A and B respectively. Then A/25 + 5 = B/20, also A = 100 + B. On solving we get A+ B =1900 dividing by 45 we get 51.1 as answer. 2.(b) Total height of 10 people is 1600 cm (10*160) When people = 8, total height is 1272 cm (8*159) Average of remaining two is (1600-1272)/ 2 = 164 cm. 3.(e) Female are 3 and male are 5 Total age of male – total age of female = 5. No other information is given so data inadequate 4.(e) a+b+c= (3*59) Let six new numbers be y then a+b+c +y= (59 +1/3) * 9 On solving we get difference as 20.17 5.(d) Let speed of both the train be x and y, then 2xy/(x+y) = 56 km/hr. If both run in same direction than average speed will be 2xy/(x-y). Since there is no data for x and y so answer is (d). 6.(e) Case 1: when boys> girls Total student =35 Let no of boys be x then girls will be 35-x. As given x = 35-x +5. Then x = 20. Let total weight of boys and girls be A and B respectively. Then A/15 + 5 = B/20, also A = 50 + B. On solving we get a negative value which is incorrect, so this assumption is wrong. www.ibpsguide.com | www.ibpsguide.in|mock.ibpsguide.in| www.sscexamguide.com Copyright© 2016 IBPS Guide | For Queries contact – admin@ibpsguide.com Page-15

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Case 2: when boys< girls Total student =35 Let no of girls be x then boys will be 35-x. As given x = 35-x +5. Then x = 20. Let total weight of boys and girls be A and B respectively. Then A/20 - 5 = B/15, also B = 50 + A. On solving we get average marks as 190/9 7. (a) The ratio between height and length is 5:7 and also average breath is 4 more than average height. Total height is 60 cm. Then we get total breath as 19*4=68 then total length will be 300/7. Then average volume (total L* total B * total H) will be total volume/4. i.e.48857. 8.(c) Arun +wife = 50 Arun + wife = 56 at the birth of their son. After 5 years average age =71/3 9.(d) Let the two set sum be A and B and total numbers in each set be n and m respectively. A/n –B/m =6 Also m+n =10, B=56 On solving inadequate data problem take place so answer is (d). 10.(e) Total score = 1500 runs. Also total runs in 7 matches/7 = 10 + total runs in last 8 matches/8 Total runs in 8 matches are 480. On solving we get average of 7 matches as 70, Difference is 10. 11.(a) Correct equation is (47*14)- (57*7)-(44*5)-15= 9th match run 12.(d) (70*40-32)/70 = 39.5 13.(c) Let original average expenditure be y then 60 (y-1) – 45y = 60 The y= 8 The original expenditure is 8*45= 360. 14.(e) Let no. of papers be x Then 65x + 20 +5 = 70x x=5 15.(b) 2*40*50/ (40+50) =400/9 16.(c) Let the mean score be x. 20*75 + 25* 30 + 55*x =4800 On solving x= 510/11 17.(b) www.ibpsguide.com | www.ibpsguide.in|mock.ibpsguide.in| www.sscexamguide.com Copyright© 2016 IBPS Guide | For Queries contact – admin@ibpsguide.com Page-16

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Let the five numbers be a, b, c, d and e and their average be x. Then a+b+c+d/4- b+c+d+e/4 =6 and a+b+c+d +e = 5 *y Also b+c+d = 59. And e=y +2 59 +a+e=5y => 61 + a = 4y Also a-e =24 => putting e = y+2, a-y = 26 On solving both equation we get y = 29. 18.(a) Let items in 8 month be x, then 2000+8x= 12000 On solving x=1250 19.(c) Sum of 5/5 =a, sum of 3/3 =b, sum of remaining 2/2=c. So a= (3b+2c)/5 20.(c) Total fees of girls = 125000 in a year. Total fees of boys (boys=200) will be 150% of 2500 = 3750 *200. Average fees = (3750*200 +125000)/250= 3500 21.(c) 505-404=101*12 = 1212. 22.(a) (480+ teacher+ caretaker) /42 = y (average of all). Teacher + caretaker =2y + 72. Then average age of whole (y) is 13.8. 23.(d) (15005*4)- (14560*3) = 16340 24.(e) 2B+ 3C =200 2A + 3C = 250 A/B =2/3 Average of 3 numbers is 37.5 25.(a) 14000/30000=7/15 26.(b) Solution of this is 5*2. 27.(d) 90+ sum of scores of 9 member = 10y. Also 10y + 5 = 90*10. Total points are 895. 28.(e) 25*12=300 kg 29.(b) 500 tickets per week, so total ticket in a month are 2000. Therefore average amount per persons is 250000/2000 = 125 30.(d) Mohan = 3 sohan, sohan = 150/100 pranav. Also Mohan + sohan+ pranav = 42000. By using above data we get Mohan amount as 27000. 31.(d) www.ibpsguide.com | www.ibpsguide.in|mock.ibpsguide.in| www.sscexamguide.com CopyrightŠ 2016 IBPS Guide | For Queries contact – admin@ibpsguide.com Page-17

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(11+13+17+19+23+29+31+37+41+43+47+53+59+61+67)/15 = 110/3 32.(e) (10x+y)/ (10y+x) = 9/7which results into x/y = 61/83 x+y /2 cannot be calculated as no more data is given to calculate the value o x or y. 33.(a) As given n>40. And m<10, also m+n =50 By using assumption we get that m* (n-40)/ (m+40) is maximum. Using trial and error approach method we get m=5 and n= 45. So average = 40 + (45-40)*5/45 = 40.56 kg 34.(e) Let the average age of 10 members be x, then total age = 10x. The two member joined be a and b, and two member left be c and d. On solving we get a+b = 2x-60, c+d = 2x-40. The difference is 10 35.(a) Let the remaining sum be x 1.01 + x/no. of days = 1,1.01+ x/7=1 x= 6.99 cm 36.(c) (60*4)- (58*4) = fifth day temperature– first day temperature First/fifth = 9/11 Fifth =44 degree 37.(b) (7*45)+ (5*40)-(8*50) =115=1st month petrol consumption (a)+ last month petrol consumption(b) Also a-b = 5 So a/ b= 60/55=12/11 38.(b) With an equal increase of 3km/hr speed, total speed = 40, 43, 46, 49 and52 km/hr. Average speed =400/5*time taken in each intervals is not given, so answer is (b) 39.(e) Let three children be a, b and c, then (a+b+c)/3= 20% * (mother + a)/2 Also total age of father and youngest child, father + c =35. Mother‘s age = 30 Average age of father and mother is 32 so father‘s age = 34. Then c= 1 By using above information we get a+b+1=3/5 * (30 +a)/2. More data is required to answer this questions option (e) is correct 40.(a) (Runs in 24 innings + 25)/ 25 = average-3 Also runs in 24 innings + 45 = 5000 Then average runs in 24 innings is 4955/24= 206.4= approx. 206. 41.(e) From statement I total employee is 400. Not adequate data to find the average age From statement II average age of all employees cannot be calculated. On combining we do not get the desired result. So option (e) is correct. 42.(b) From statement I A+B+C /3 = 15 From statement II A=C+2, C= B+2, A+B+C = 45, then total candidate interviewed in panel A is 17. www.ibpsguide.com | www.ibpsguide.in|mock.ibpsguide.in| www.sscexamguide.com Copyright© 2016 IBPS Guide | For Queries contact – admin@ibpsguide.com Page-18

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43.(c) From statement I, average marks are 65. From statement II, subjects=5, English + geography = 104 On combining both statement we get English = 60 and geography as 44 44.(c) From statement I, first salary is 10000; every year 10% increment takes place, next year is 11000, and so on. From statement II, total year of joining till now is 5, average of five year is to calculated, By combining both the statement we get the desired result. 45.(e) From statement I, it is not cleared about the total strength of students. From statement II, only the ratio between the ages of boys and girls is given, which is inadequate. On combining we get that total number of student is multiple of 7 but we do not get the total number, so option (e) is correct. 46.(c) From statement I, Neeta/David= 6/7 From statement II, (Neeta +6)/David + 6= 15/17, On combining both statements we get the age of Neeta and David, by which we can find the average age of both. 47.(a) From statement I, 3x+9x/32= 11312, x= 4242, total = 4242 *42 From statement II, S>Q From statement I we get the desired result so option (a) is correct 48.(d) Both the individual statement can be used to answer the following question 49.(e) From statement I, total marks of class = 120*35 From statement II, average marks of disqualified student are given which is inadequate. So option (e) is correct. 50.(c) From statement I, average age is 25 years From statement II, average of 5 member = 20, After inclusion average = 25, total age now is 15(25*6). On combining both statements we get total age before age inclusion as 100. So age of father is 50 (150-100). PROFIT & LOSS 1. A man sold an article for Rs. 6800 and incurred a loss. Had he sold the article for Rs. 7600, his gain would have been equal to half of the amount of the loss that he incurred. At what price should he sell the article to have 20 % profit? (a) Rs. 8000 (b) Rs. 8500 (c) Rs. 8800 (d) Rs. 9000 (e) Rs.7500 2. The cost price of two cars is same. One is sold at a profit of 20% and the other for Rs. 360 more than the first one. If the overall profit earned after selling the tables is 22%, then what is the cost price of each chair? (a) Rs.10,00,000 (b) Rs. 15,00,000 (c) Rs. 9,00,000 (d) cannot be determined (e) NOT 3. If a shopkeeper marks the price of goods 50% more than their cost price and allows a discount of 40%, what is his gain or loss percent? www.ibpsguide.com | www.ibpsguide.in|mock.ibpsguide.in| www.sscexamguide.com CopyrightŠ 2016 IBPS Guide | For Queries contact – admin@ibpsguide.com Page-19

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(a)

10 % loss

(b) 5% profit

(c) 15 % loss

(d) 5 % loss

(e) NOT

4. A retailer brought 40 kg of wheat at a discount of 15 % on the market price. Besides, he was given 6 kg of wheat free of cost, by the retailer for purchasing bulk quantity. If retailer sold the entire quantity of rice at the marked price to his customers, then approximately what was his profit percent? (a) 50% (b) 25% (c) 18% (d) 35% (e) NOT 5. A shopkeeper bought 30 kg of wheat at the rate of Rs. 45 per kg. He sold 30 % of total quantity at the rate of Rs. 50 per kg. Approximately, at what price per kg should he sell the remaining quantity to make 28 % profit? (a) Rs.69 per kg (b) Rs. 40 per kg (c) Rs.60.85 per kg (d) Rs. 54.70 per kg (e) NOT 6. A mobile phone and a tablet were sold at a profit of 10% and at a loss of 6 % respectively. If the cost price of the mobile is 1.5 times of the tablet, what is the overall profit percentage earned by selling both the articles? (a) 4% (b) 1% (c) 5% (d) 8% (e) 2% 7. Prateek sold a music system to karthik at 20 % profit and karthik sold it to sweta at 40 % profit. If sweta paid Rs. 10500 for the music system, what amount did Prateek pay for the same? (a) 6250 (b) 5000 (c) 8000 (d) 7500 (e) 9000 8. A shopkeeper makes a default of 5% on purchasing the goods and again makes a default of 5 % on selling the goods then find the total profit percent? (a) 10.25% (b) 15.5% (c) 12% (d) 10.5% (e) NOT 9. On selling a book in Rs. 60, publisher get 1/11 part of its cost as loss, then find cost price of the book? (a) 55 (b) 66 (c) 61 (d) 77 (e) 68 10. The profit after selling a pair of shirts for Rs. 863 is same as loss incurred after selling the same pair of shirts for Rs. 633. What is the cost price of the pair? (a) 748 (b) 568 (c) 650 (d) data inadequate (e) 550 11. A shopkeeper sold his article with 10 % profit and used the weights which are 20 % less than the real weights. Then find his total profit %? (a) 45.5% (b) 37.5% (c) 25% (d) data inadequate (e) NOT 12. Ram sold an article with 2.5% loss. If he sold it 100/- more then Ram get 7.5% profit. What will be the selling price of article if Ram wants to earn 12.5% profit? (a)1200 (b) 1000 (c) 1205 (d) 1125 (e) NOT 13. Rajesh purchase some card board of Rs. 14000, paid Rs. 300 for loading & paid Rs. 1300 as wages & prepared 350 boxes. If he sold boxes @ Rs. 55 per box, then Find his profit %? (a) 23.4% (b) 10% (c) 13% (d) 18% (e)21.3% 14. A shopkeeper allows 23 % commission on his advertised price and still makes a profit of 10%. If he gains 56/- on one item, his advertised price of the item in Rs. Is? (a) Rs.450 (b) Rs. 623 (c) Rs. 639 (d) cannot be determined (e) NOT

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15. The cost of an apple is twice that of a bananas and the cost of a banana is 25% less than that of a guava. If the cost of each type of fruit increase by 10 %, then the percentage increase in cost of 4 bananas, 2 apples and 3 guavas is : (a) 20% (b) 10% (c) data inadequate (d) either (a) or (b) (e) 4% 16. A trader bought two horses for Rs. 18500. He sold one at a loss of 25% and other at a profit of 10%. If the selling price of both horse is same, then their cost price are respectively? (a) 12000, 8000 (b) 13000,7000 (c) 7250, 12750 (d) 13750, 6250 (e) NOT 17. If cost price of 15 articles is same as selling price of 10 articles, then find gain percent? (a) 50% (b) 30% (c) 40% (d) 20% (e) 25% 18. A businessman sold 2/3 of his stock at a gain of 20% and the rest at a gain of 14%. The overall percentage of gain to the businessman is: (a) 16 % (b) 18% (c) 10% (d) 15% (e) NOT 19. A house worth Rs. 180000 is sold to B by A at 5 % profit; B sells the house back to A at 3 % loss. Then in entire transaction, what A got? (a) Loss of 2% (b) gain of 2% (c) gain of 1.85% (d) no loss, no profit (e) NOT 20. A dairyman pays Rs. 25.60 per litres of milk. He adds water and sells the mixture at Rs. 20 per litres, thereby making 35 % profit. The proportion of water to milk received by the customers is: (a) 361/39 (b) 45/67 (c) 34/89 (d) 91/125 (e) 67/70 21. In a certain store, the profit is 280 % of the cost. If the cost increases by 25% but, the selling price remains constant, approximately what percentage of the new cost price is the profit? (a) 70% (b) 155% (c) 255% (d) 100% (e) NOT 22. Ajay purchased 15 kg wheat @ 15 per kg & 12 kg wheat @ 14 per kg. He mixed both pulses & sold the mixture @ 20 per kg, find his profit percent? (a) 25% (b) 37.4% (c) 20.6% (d) 40.1% (e) NOT 23. Ravi sold his goods at C.P. but in place of 1 kg he used the weights of 980 gm, and then, calculates his profit percent. (a) 5% (b) 3.23% (c) 2.04% (d) 4.2% (e) NOT 24. A shopkeeper sold a machine with 10 % profit. If he sold it Rs. 80 less amount he gets 10 % loss. Find the cost price of a machine? (a) Rs. 550 (b) Rs.450 (c) Rs. 440 (d) Rs. 480 (e) Rs. 400 25. Rajesh invest in two schemes, in one scheme he get 5% profit and in other scheme he get 10 % profit, what is his total profit if he invest in the ratio of 4:9 respectively? (a) 50/3% (b) 120/7% (c) 110/3% (d) cannot be determined(e) NOT 26. David runs a shop and sold 11 toffees in Rs. 1 then he get 20% loss. How many toffees he give to a customer in a Rs. 1 to earn 10 % profit? (a) 10 (b) 6 (c) 9 (d) 8 (e) 11

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27. A shopkeeper sold his goods at cost price. By using defective weights he earns 11 1/9 % profits. Then find how much goods he given to a customer in place of 1 kg? (a) 990 gms (b) 960 gms (c) 940 gms (d) 870 gms (e) 900 gms 28. A fruit seller consists 28 kg of apple. Some part of apple he sold at 15% profit & remaining with 10 % loss. In total transaction he gets profit of 10%, then find how much apple he sold at loss? (a) 23 kg (b) 12.8 kg (c) 12.8 kg (d) 5.6 kg (e) NOT 29. On selling an article in Rs. 6500 in place of Rs. 7200 Herman incurred 4 % more loss, what is the cost price of articles? (a) 18000 (b) 16500 (c) 17500 (d) 14500 (e) NOT 30. A shopkeeper purchased an article and sold it with 10% loss. If he purchased it at 20% less cost and sold it 55 Rs. more then he get 40% profit. Find the cost price of the article? (a) Rs. 240 (b) Rs. 260 (c) Rs. 300 (d) Rs. 200 (e) NOT 31. When a person sold 20 articles in Rs. 60 then he get 25% profit, and then find how many articles he purchase in Rs. 60? (a) 28 (b) 25 (c) 23 (d) 30 (e) NOT 32. After successive discount of 7% and 12% an article was sold for Rs. 205. What is the original price of the article? (a) Rs. 255 (b) Rs. 260 (c) Rs. 245 (d) Rs. 234 (e) NOT 33. A man bought some fruit at the rate of 16 for Rs, 24 and sold them at the rate of 10 for 22. Find the profit percent? (a) 70% (b) 140/3% (c) 240/7% (d) data inadequate (e) NOT 34. The ratio between cost price and loss is 6:1, what is the ratio of loss to selling price? (a) 1:5 (b) 2:5 (c) 3:5 (d) 1:6 (e) 2:3 35. If selling price of an article is 5/4 of cost price, and the ratio between profit and selling price is 1: 2, profit is what percent of cost price? (a) 125% (b) 120% (c) 13.5% (d) 67.5% (e) 75.5% DIRECTION: Each of the questions below consist of a question and two statements I and II. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statement are sufficient to answer the question. Read both statement and give answer as(a) If data in statement I alone is sufficient to answer the question (b) If statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question. (c) If both statement together is required to answer the question (d) If either of statement is sufficient to answer the question (e) If neither of statement is sufficient to answer the question. 36. How much profit did the company earn in the year 2010? I. The company earned 40 % profit more in the year 2011 than that of 2009. II. The company earned a total profit of Rs. 15 crore in the year 2009 and 2010 together. 37. What is the profit earned by selling a laptop of Rs. 25600? I. The cost price of 5 laptops is equal to selling price of 4 laptops. II. 23 % profit is earned in selling each laptop. www.ibpsguide.com | www.ibpsguide.in|mock.ibpsguide.in| www.sscexamguide.com CopyrightŠ 2016 IBPS Guide | For Queries contact – admin@ibpsguide.com Page-22

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38. What is the loss incurred by the shopkeeper on selling the article in his shop? I. Labeled price of the article sold was 120 % of cost price. Discount offered was 40 %. II. Cost price is greater than selling price. 39. Find the ratio between the two selling price of an article? I. The loss incurred on selling the article to B by A is same as profit made by selling the article to C by A. II. The loss incurred on selling the article to C by A is same as profit made by selling the article to B by A. loss incurred by A = 100. 40. What is the ratio of selling price and cost price of the bicycle? I. The profit made by trader is 40% of cost price. II. The ratio between loss and cost price is 4:5. 41. What is the loss %? I. Loss incurred by selling the product is same as profit made by selling the same product at same cost price. II. Loss = 20% of C.P. 42. Find cost price of the book? I. Selling price of the book is 145% of cost price. And selling price =200 II. Ratio of selling S.P. and C.P. is 13:10. 43. Find his profit percent? I. S.P. is 45% of C.P. II. C.P. is 100% of S.P. 44. At what price should Rose sell the article to have 15 % profit? I. The initial selling price is 400/-. II. Initial profit is 5%. 45. What was the cost price of the washing machine purchased by Mary? I. Mary got 10 % concession on the labeled price and sold the washing machine for Rs. 6000 with 20 % profit on the labeled price. II. Mary got 10 % discount on purchasing the washing machine. 46. An item costing Rs. 45000 is sold at certain discount. Find the rate of discount offered? I. The profit earned after discount is 5% II. The item is marked at a price 25% above the cost price. 47. What is the marked price of bag? I. Cost price is Rs. 500. II. Selling price is 23% more than marked price. 48. How many articles were sold? I. Total profit is Rs. 3530. And S.P. per article is 655/II. Cost price per article is 545/49. A shopkeeper sells some chocolates at Rs. 200 each. What percent profit does he make? I. Number of chocolates sold is given II. Cost price of each chocolate is given. 50. What is the ratio of C.P. to S.P.? I. Profit % = 80% II. Loss % = 10%. SOLUTION AND EXPLANATION OF PROFIT & LOSS Solution and explanation of Profit and loss: 1. (c) Let cost price of an article is cp. Also selling price = 7600. www.ibpsguide.com | www.ibpsguide.in|mock.ibpsguide.in| www.sscexamguide.com CopyrightŠ 2016 IBPS Guide | For Queries contact – admin@ibpsguide.com Page-23

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7600-cp = (cp-6800)/2=> cp = 22000/3. Then selling price of article to have 20% profit = 120/100 * cp=120/100* 22000/3 Selling price= 8800 rupees. 2. (c) Let the SP of first car be SP1 and second car be SP2, then SP1= 120/100 * CP SP2 = 360 +SP1 (120/100*CP) = 1806/5 CP Total profit= (total SP- total CP)/total CP * 100 = (SP1+SP2-2CP)/2CP*100= (1812/5-2) CP/2CP *100 Then on solving CP = Rs. 9, 00,000. 3. (a) Let CP be 100 Then Marked price= 150 After a discount of 40%, SP = 90 Loss percent = (100-90)/100*100=10%. 4. (d) Let the cost price of wheat per kg be 100. At a discount of 15 % the consumer pay (85 * 40) = 3400 rupees. If retailer has not allowed discount then selling price of 40 + 6 kg wheat = 46 * 100 = 4600 rupees. % profit = 4600-3400/3400 * 100 = 1200/3400 * 100= 35 %( approx.) 5. (c) Initial total price= 30 * 45 = Rs. 1350 To have 28 % profit, selling price of 30 kg is Rs. 1728. Price of 70% quantity is (1728-450)/ 70% * 30=Rs. 60.85. 6. (a) Cost price of mobile = 1.5 of cost price of tablet SP of mobile = 110/100 * CP of mobile SP of tablet = 94/100 * CP of Tablet. Total CP = 2.5 of CP of tablet Total SP = 2.59 of CP of tablet % profit = 4%. 7. (a) Amount payed by Prateek = 8. (a) Total profit = % Default 1+ % Default 2 + %Default 1 * % Default 2 = 5 + 5+ 25/100 = 10.25% 9. (b) CP-SP = LOSS CP – 60 = CP/11 CP = 66. 10. (a) According to the question, 863-CP = CP-633 CP = (863 +633)/2 =1496/2 = 748. 11. (b) 12. (d) According to the question, www.ibpsguide.com | www.ibpsguide.in|mock.ibpsguide.in| www.sscexamguide.com Copyright© 2016 IBPS Guide | For Queries contact – admin@ibpsguide.com Page-24

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97.5% of CP +100 = 107.5% of CP 10% of CP=100. CP=1000 After 12.5% profit, CP=112.5/100 * 1000 CP = 1125 13. (a) Total selling price = 350 * 55 = 19250 Total cost price= 14000 + 300 +1300 =15600 Rajesh profit % = 19250-15600/15600 *100 = 23.4 % 14. (c) Commission= 23% Profit = 56/Profit % = 10% Let advertised price of the item be x SP = x-23 CP = 100/110 *SP Also SP-CP = 56 10/110 SP = 56 SP = 56*11 So, x = 616+23 = 639. 15. (b) Let the price of guava be 100. Then price of banana = 75% of guava = 75 And price of apple = 150. After 10 % increase in all prices the new prices are Guava = 110, banana = 82.5 and apple = 165. % increase in cost of 4 bananas, 2 apples and 3 guavas = 990-900/900 * 100 = 10% 16. (e) SP1 of first horse = 75% of CP1. SP2 of second horse = 110% of CP2 Also SP1=SP2 75/100 * CP1 = 110/100 *CP2 And CP1+CP2 = 18500 On solving we get, CP1 = 11000 CP2 = 7500. 17. (a) 18. (a) Let x be the overall % of gain By using the rule of alligation, 20 % 14 % X 2/3 1/3 20-x: x-14 = 2:1 3x= 48 Then, x = 16%. www.ibpsguide.com | www.ibpsguide.in|mock.ibpsguide.in| www.sscexamguide.com Copyright© 2016 IBPS Guide | For Queries contact – admin@ibpsguide.com Page-25

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19. (c) Total profit that A received = 5-3-15/100 = 1.85% of initial price Total profit of A= 1.85% * 180000. = gain of 1.85 %. 20. (d) Cost price =20 *100/135 = 400/27. Proportion of water to milk = = 91/125. 21. (c) Profit = 280/100 CP SP-CP = 280/100 CP, SP =380/100 * CP Also CP increases to 25%, new CPn = 125/100 * CP But SP remain the same, new profit = 380/100 – 125/100 = 255/100 CP= 255% of CP 22. (b) Total cost price = 15*15 + 12* 14= 393 Selling price = 27*20 = 540 Profit % = 540-393/393 * 100= 37.4% 23. (c) Profit % = 20/980 *100 = 2.04% 24. (e) SP OF MACHINE = 110/100 CP Also SP -80 = 90/100 * CP Solving above both equation we get cost price = 440/110 * 100 = 400. 25. (c) Total price = 4/13 * 5 + 9/13 * 10 = 110/13 % 26. (d) As per the question, Where x = no. of toffees to get 10% profit. 110/11 * 80/100=x Then on solving we get x = 8. 27. (a) Let the default weight be x =>x/100-x * 100 =100/900 Then x= 10 gms. Correct weight = 990 gms. 28. (d) Let x kg of apple be sold at 15 % profit Then, 115% of x + 90% of (28-x) =20 On solving we get x = 22.4 kg. Quantity of apples sold at loss = 28-22.4 = 5.6 kg. 29. (c) By selling the article at Rs. 6500 Herman get 4% more loss instead of Rs. 7200. So it is clear that 7200-6500=4% of x (cost price) Then, cost price of the article = 17500. 30. (e) Let CP1 be x = 100% SP1 = 90% OF x CP2 = 80% OF x SP2 = 80 * 140 /100 = 112% OF x www.ibpsguide.com | www.ibpsguide.in|mock.ibpsguide.in| www.sscexamguide.com Copyright© 2016 IBPS Guide | For Queries contact – admin@ibpsguide.com Page-26

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SP2-SP1 = 55 112% of x – 90% of x = 55 22% of x = 55 Then x = 250 31. (b) SP of an article = Rs. 3(60/20) Profit % = 25% CP of an article = 3 *100/125 = Rs. 2.4 per article. In Rs. 60 the original quantity= 60/2.4 = 25 articles 32. (e) Total discount = 7+12+12*7/100= 19.84% Original price = 205/80.16 *10000 = 2050000/8016 = 255.75. 33. (b) Profit percent = (22/10- 24/16)/24/16 * 100 = 140/3 % 34. (a) CP/LOSS = 6/1 CP/CP-SP= 6/1 SP =5/6 CP LOSS= 1/6 CP LOSS/SP = 1/5 35. (d) SP = 5/4 CP PROFIT/SP = ½ PROFIT/5/4CP = ½ PROFIT/CP = ½ * 5/4 *100= 67.5% 36. (e) From statement I, let profit in year 2009 be x, then profit in 2011 = 140%x From statement II, total profit in 2009 +2010 = 15 crore, Also on combining both statements we do not get the desired result. 37. (c) From statement I, CP of 5 laptop = SP of 4 laptops, SP= 25600, CP = 4/5*25600, PROFIT = SP-CP. From statement II, PROFIT % =23, SP=25600, PROFIT = 23/100 * 100/123 * SP By using either of statement we can calculate the profit. 38. (e) From statement I, loss% = 80 % CP From statement II, CP> SP, Also by combining both statements we do not get the required result. 39. (e) From statement I, LOSS OF A-B = PROFIT OF A-C From statement II, LOSS OF A-C = PROFIT OF A-B Also on combining both statements, we do not get the required result. 40. (d) From statement I, profit = 40% of CP, SP/CP = 140/100 From statement II, LOSS/CP = 4/5, SP/ CP = 1/5 41. (b) From statement I, LOSS = PROFIT From statement II, loss % = 20 % 42. (a) From statement I, SP = 145% OF CP, SP /CP = 145/100, CP = 200*100/145 www.ibpsguide.com | www.ibpsguide.in|mock.ibpsguide.in| www.sscexamguide.com Copyright© 2016 IBPS Guide | For Queries contact – admin@ibpsguide.com Page-27

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From statement II, SP/CP = 13/10 43. (e) From statement I, loss occurred instead of profit From statement II, loss occurred instead of profit 44. (c) From statement I, SP = 400/From statement II, PROFIT = 5% On combining both statements, SP to have 15% profit is 400*115 / 105. 45. (a) From statement I, labeled price = 6000*100/120=5000, price at which Mary purchased = 4500/From statement II, discount = 10%, 46. (c) From statement I, profit % after discount = 5%, From statement II, 45000= 125% of CP, CP = 36000, ON combining both statements we get, SP = 105% OF CP = 37800, Discount offered = 45000-37800/45000 * 100 = 16% 47. (e) From statement I, CP = 500/From statement II, SP = 123% MP, Also On combining both the statement we do not get the required result 48. (c) From statement I, SP= 655/- and total profit = 3530. From statement II, CP = 545/-, Total articles = 3530/ (655-545) = 33 49. (b) From statement I, if no. of chocolates is known we cannot find as cost price of each chocolate is not given. From statement II, if cost price of each chocolate is given then we can calculate the profit % of chocolates. 50. (d) From statement I, SP-CP/CP = 80/100, CP/SP = 100/180 From statement II, CP-SP/CP = 10/100, CP/SP = 100/90 SIMPLE INTEREST & COMPOUND INTEREST 1. The simple interest obtained when a sum of money is invested for 4 years at 18 % per annum is Rs. 427 more than the simple interest for 2 years at 22% per annum. What is the amount obtained when the same sum of money is invested for 4 years at 20 % per annum? (a) Rs.122000 (b) Rs. 122200 (c) Rs. 112200 (d) Rs. 10000 (e) NOT 2. John invests certain sum for 2 years in scheme A offering compound interest of 20% per annum. He also invests less than previous by Rs. 1600 in scheme B for 3 years offering simple interest at 10% per annum. The interest received from scheme A was twice the interest received from scheme B. what is the sum of money invested by John in scheme B? (a) Rs. 3400 (b) Rs. 7800 (c) Rs.4400 (d) R.s 8400 (e) NOT 3. The simple interest @ 6% per annum received on a principal of Rs. X was Rs. 482.40 when invested for 3 years in scheme A. if the scheme B offered compound interest at 10 % per annum compounded annually, what was the interest received by investing Rs. X-680 for 2 years in scheme B? (a) Rs. 280 (b) R.s 890 (c) Rs. 840 (d) Rs. 210 (e) Rs. 420

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4. An equal amount of sum is invested in scheme M and scheme N. both the schemes offer simple interest at the rate of 12% and 9% respectively. If at the end of two years the total amount received from both the schemes together was Rs. 19360, what is the amount received by investing in scheme M? (a) Rs. 7900 (b) Rs. 5300 (c) Rs. 8000 (d) Rs. 7100 (e) Rs. 12000 5. An interest of Rs. 8384 is received when a certain sum of money is invested in scheme X for 4 years which offers interest of 8% per annum. When the same money is invested in scheme Y amount received is Rs. 39562, what is the rate of interest offered by scheme Y? (a) 11¾% (b) 12¾% (c) 11% (d) 15% (e) 16½% 6. A sum of money was invested for 5 years in a scheme which offers simple interest at a rate of 12% per annum. The amount received after 5 years was reinvested in the same scheme for 10 years. If the amount received after reinvesting for the same period is Rs. 782 more than initial sum of money, what was the initial sum of money invested in the scheme? (a) Rs. 190 (b) Rs. 750 (c) Rs. 20 (d) Rs. 850 (e) NOT 7. The compound interest accrued on an amount of Rs. 22000 at the end of two years is Rs. 5596.8. What would be the simple interest accrued on the same amount at the same rate in the same period? (a) Rs.5280 (b) Rs. 6280 (c) Rs. 7820 (d) Rs. 5820 (e) Rs. 3280 8. The simple interest obtained on an amount of Rs. 45000 at the end of 4 years is Rs. 15300. What would be the approximate interest obtained on the same amount at half the initial rate and double the initial period if compounded quarterly? (a) Rs. 18000 (b) Rs. 17809 (c) Rs.18109 (d) data inadequate (e) NOT 9. Ravi invests an amount of Rs. 39300 for 4 years at the rate of 4 % per annum. David invests Rs. 45000 at the same rate of interest for 5 years. What will be the interest they both together get by investing total amount at the rate of 6% per annum for 10 years compounded half yearly? (a) Rs. 56020 (b) Rs. 80279 (c) Rs. 20400 (d) Rs. 70020 (e) NOT 10. Karan took a loan at simple interest rate of 6% in the first year with an increase of 0.5 % in each subsequent year. She paid interest of Rs. 3375 after 4 years. How much loan did she take? (a) Rs. 45000 (b) Rs. 40000 (c) Rs. 56000 (d) Rs. 62000 (e) NOT 11. Mr. John invested Rs. 10000 with the rate of interest 10 % per annum. The interest was compounded half-yearly for the first one year and in the next year it was compounded annually. What will be the total interest earned at the end of two years? (a) Rs. 3157.5 (b) Rs. 2127.5 (c) Rs. 1050 (d) Rs. 1905.5 (e) NOT 12. A loan is discharged in three equal installments of Rs. 133.10 each. If the rate of interest is 10%, find the amount of loan? (a) Rs.100 (b) Rs. 331 (c) Rs. 1231 (d) Rs .1331 (e) Rs. 1431 13. A certain sum doubles in two years under compound interest at a certain rate of interest. In how many years would a sum becomes 16 times itself at the same rate of interest again under compound interest? (a) 2 years (b) 6 years (c) 10 years (d) 15 years (e) NOT 14. Divide Rs. 3903 between A and B, so that A‘s share at the end of 7 years may be equal to B‘ share at the end of 9 years, compound interest being at 4%: www.ibpsguide.com | www.ibpsguide.in|mock.ibpsguide.in| www.sscexamguide.com Copyright© 2016 IBPS Guide | For Queries contact – admin@ibpsguide.com Page-29

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(a) Rs. 2300, Rs. 1303 (e) NOT

(b) Rs. 1000, Rs. 2903

(c) Data inadequate

(d) Rs. 2028, Rs. 1875

15. Raj borrowed Rs. 20000 partly from a friend at 12 % SI and remaining from a bank at 15 % SI. At the end of 2 years, he paid back an amount of Rs. 25700. What is the amount borrowed from the bank? (a) Rs. 10000 (b) Rs. 12000 (c) Rs. 16000 (d) Rs. 25000 (e) Rs. 15000 16. Ravi bought a car for Rs. 600000. He paid Rs. 100000 cash down and the rest at the end of 2 years at the rate of 15 % SI. Hoe much more did he pay? (a) Rs. 150000 (b) Rs. 300000 (c) Rs. 200000 (d) Rs. 100500 (e) NOT 17. Which of the following is the best investment for Rs. 30000? (a) 12% at SI for 4 years (b) 11% CI for 2 years (c) 15% SI for 2 years (e) None of these

(d) either (a) or (b)

18. What are the least complete years in which a sum of money put at 20 % compound interest will be more than doubled? (a) 2 years (b) 3 years (c) 5 years (d) 4 years (e) NOT 19. If x, y and z are three sums of money such that y is the simple interest on z and z is the simple interest on x for same rate of interest and for same period, then the relation between x, y and z is? (a) z =x/y (b)x²=z*y (c) x=z=y (d) y=z*x² (e) z²=x*y 20. Raj borrowed some money at the rate of 6% p.a. for the first three years, 9 % p.a. for the next five years and 13 % p.a. for the period beyond 8 years. If the total amount interest paid by him at the end of eleven years is Rs. 8160, how much money did he borrow (a) Rs.8000 (b) Rs. 7500 (c) Rs. 6500 (d) Rs .8500 (e) Rs. 10000 21. A certain amount earns simple interest of Rs. 1120 after 8 years. Had the interest 3% more, how much more interest would it have earned? (a) 3% (b) data inadequate (c) 5% (d) 5.6% (e) NOT 22. Mary borrowed Rs. 960 from John at 12% p.a. SI for 6 years. He then added some more money to the borrowed sum and lent it to Peter at 14 % p.a. If Mary gains Rs. 200 in the whole transaction, how much money did he add from his side? (a) Rs. 1061 (b) Rs. 101 (c) Rs. 1205 (d) Rs. 1000 (e) Rs. 981 23. What interest will he had on Rs. 450 in 2 years, if an interest of Rs. 0.80 is charged on Rs. 2 for 4 years? (a) Rs. 150 (b) Rs. 110 (c) Rs. 90 (d) Rs. 50 (e) Rs. 80 24. The simple interest accrued on a sum of money is Rs. 1200 in 4 years at the rate of 8%.what will be the compound interest on thrice that of the principal at the rate of 6 % in 3 years? (a) Rs. 3145.6 (b) Rs. 1340.8 (c) R.s 1980.7 (d) Rs. 2148.93 (e) NOT 25. Abhishek invested Rs. 3000 into two parts in such a way that if one part be put at 5% SI and other at 6 % the yearly income may be Rs. 180. How much did he invest at 6%? (a) Rs. 1550 (b) Rs. 180 (c) Rs. 1200 (d) data inadequate (e) NOT www.ibpsguide.com | www.ibpsguide.in|mock.ibpsguide.in| www.sscexamguide.com Copyright© 2016 IBPS Guide | For Queries contact – admin@ibpsguide.com Page-30

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26. An amount of Rs. 70000 becomes Rs. 80000 in 5 years at a certain rate of interest. If the rate becomes 1.5 times of itself, the amount of the same principle in 5 years will be. (a) Rs. 80000 (b) Rs.85000 (c) Rs. 75000 (d) data inadequate (e) NOT 27. Ravi invested an amount for 2 years at the rate of 15 % at simple interest per annum. Had the interest been compounded, he would have earned Rs. 450 more as interest. What was the amount invested? (a) Rs. 440 (b) Rs. 450 (c) Rs. 430 (d) Rs. 420 (e) Rs. 390 28. What amount installment will discharge a debt of Rs. 1680 due in 3 years at 12 % simple interest? (a) Rs.500 (b) Rs. 325 (c) Rs. 525 (d) Rs. 530 (e) NOT 29. Divide Rs. 2400 in three part such that amounts after 2, 3 and 4 years respectively may be equal, the rate of interest being 4% per annum at simple interest. The third part is: (a) Rs. 830 (b) Rs. 770 (c) Rs. 780 (d) Rs. 850 (e) Rs. 790 30. John borrowed some money at the rate of 5% p.a. for the first three years, 7 % p.a. for the next four years and 10 % p.a. for the period beyond seven years. If the total amount interest paid by him at the end of eleven years is Rs. 9296, how much money did he borrow? (a) Rs.11025 (b) Rs. 11200 (c) Rs. 10000 (d) Rs. 12025 (e) NOT 31. The price of a washing machine worth Rs. 20,000 is to be paid in 20 installments of Rs. 1000 each. If the rate of interest be 6% per annum and the first installment be paid at the time of purchase, then the value of the last installment covering the interest as well will be: (a) Rs.1215 (b) Rs.2200 (c) Rs.1350 (d) Rs.1050 (e) NOT 32. Radhika lent out a certain sum of money on simple interest and the same sum on compound interest at a certain rate of interest per annum. He noticed that the ratio between the difference of compound interest and simple interest of 4 years and that of 2 years is 15:8. The rate of interest per annum is: (a) 4.5% (b) 20.3% (c) 40/3% (d) 24/7% (e) 56/9% 33. A man lent out some part of money at 5% rate of interest in compound interest compounded quarterly for four and half years. What will be the interest if the same amount is invested at simple interest at double rate of interest and thrice the time period? (a) Rs. 10.3% (b) 15.5% (c) 7% (d) data inadequate (e) NOT 34. What will be the principal if it invested at same rate of interest of 10% for 4 years and 5 years respectively yielding interest as Rs.40 and Rs. 50 respectively? (a) Rs.200 (b) Rs.100 (c) Rs.150 (d) Rs.125 (e) Rs.135 35. A sum of money is invested at simple interest at 14% per annum which becomes double in 4 years. In what year it will become 7 times of it? (a) 24 years (b) 20 years (c) 15 years (d) 18 years (e) NOT 36. Ron whose income is 400000 per annum invested a sum of money at 15% per annum for 5 years at SI; the amount he received is reinvested at compound interest at the rate of 20% for 10 years. What is the total amount if he invests 25% of his monthly salary? (a) Rs. 90296.15 (b) Rs. 98067.5 (c) Rs. 98000 (d) Rs. 96056 (e) NOT

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37. What annual payment will discharge a debt of Rs. 3810 due in a year at 50/3 % per annum compound interest? (a) Rs.1210 (b) Rs. 1710 (c) Rs. 1540 (d) Rs. 3410 (e) NOT 38. A man lends Rs. 30000 in four parts. If he gets 8% on Rs. 6000; 7.5% on Rs 12000 and 0.5 % on Rs. 2500; what % must he get for remainder, if his average annual interest is 8.6%? (a) 10% (b) 15% (c) 12% (d) 12.5% (e) NOT 39. An amount of Rs. 50000 is invested in two parts. The first yields an interest of 9% p.a. and the second, 11% p.a. if the total interest at the end of one year is 9.75%, then the amount invested in latter parts is? (a) Rs. 28500 (b) Rs. 52050 (c) Rs. 43750 (d) Rs. 45000 (e) Rs. 23560 40. A sum of money lent at compound interest for 2 years at 20 % per annum would fetch Rs. 482 more, if the interest was payable half-yearly than if it was payable annually. The sum is: (a) Rs. 14000 (b) Rs. 12000 (c) Rs. 150000 (d) Rs. 100000 (e) Rs.20000 Direction: each of the questions below consists of a question and two statements numbered I and II given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both statements and give answer as (a). if the data in statement I is alone sufficient to answer the question (b). if the data in statement II is alone sufficient to answer the question (c). if the data in both the statements together is necessary to answer the question (d). if the data in either statements is sufficient to answer the question. (e). if the data in both the statements is not sufficient to answer the question. 41. What is the rate of interest p.c.p.a? I. The difference between the compound interest and simple interest on an amount is Rs. 1060 at the end of 2 years. II. An amount doubles itself in 5 years with simple interest. 42. What is the rate of interest on an amount of Rs. 12000 deposited in the bank? I. The simple interest for two years is Rs. 3000. II. The difference between the simple interest and compound interest for 2 years is Rs. 180. 43. What would be the difference between the simple interest and the compound interest on a sum of money at the end of 5 years? I. The sum fetches a total interest of Rs. 2000 as simple interest at the end of 8 years. II. The difference between the SI and CI at the end of 2 years is Rs.15. 44. A sum of money is put at SI and CI both, what is the difference in rate of interest? I. SI obtained is Rs. 60. II. CI obtained is Rs. 65. 45. A sum of money is placed at compound interest. In how many years will it amount to sixteen times of itself? I. The sum doubles itself in 4 years. II. The sum amounts to 8 times in 12 years. 46. How much money did Pankaj invest? I. The sum invested gets doubled, when invested at 10 % per annum for 15 years. II. The period of investment is 5 years. 47. What is the principal sum? www.ibpsguide.com | www.ibpsguide.in|mock.ibpsguide.in| www.sscexamguide.com CopyrightŠ 2016 IBPS Guide | For Queries contact – admin@ibpsguide.com Page-32

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I. Ratio of SI and CI of same principal, rate of interest and time is 4:5. II. SI is Rs. 45 for 2 years at the rate of 2%. 48. In how many years will a sum of money put at simple interest treble itself? I. Rate of interest is 16%. II. Interest earned in 4 years is half the sum. 49. What will be the ratio of interest of money invested in SI and CI? I. CI on certain sum for 4 years is Rs. 30. II. SI on certain sum for 5 years is half the CI for the same. 50. What is the total amount earned by a man investing half of its salary in SI at the rate of interest 5% for 1 year and half of the remaining amount at CI? I. Rate of interest of CI is 4%. II. After investment amount remained is Rs. 10000.

SOLUTION AND EXPLANATION OF SIMPLE INTEREST & COMPOUND INTEREST 1. (a) đ?‘ƒ ∗ 18 ∗ 4 đ?‘ƒ ∗ 22 ∗ 2 = + 427 100 100 On solving we get P = Rs. 122000 2. (c) Let the sum be X invested in scheme A 20

2

Then as per question, đ?‘‹ 1 + 100 = 2 ∗ Then X = 6000 Sum invested in scheme B is 4400.

đ?‘‹âˆ’1600 ∗3∗10 100

3. (e) 482.40∗100 X= 6∗3 = 2680 10

Interest on 2680-680=Rs.2000 is 2000 1 + 100

2

− 2000 = đ?‘…đ?‘ . 420

4. (c) Let the principal be P, đ?‘ƒâˆ—2∗12 đ?‘ƒâˆ—2∗9 Then 100 + đ?‘ƒ + 100 + đ?‘ƒ = 19360 On solving we get P = 8000 5. (b) đ?‘ đ?‘˘đ?‘š ∗ 8 ∗ 4 = 8384 100 Then sum is Rs. 26200 26200 ∗ 4 ∗ đ?‘&#x; + 26200 = 39562 100 Then rate = 12.75% 6. (d) According to question, www.ibpsguide.com | www.ibpsguide.in|mock.ibpsguide.in| www.sscexamguide.com CopyrightŠ 2016 IBPS Guide | For Queries contact – admin@ibpsguide.com Page-33

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đ?‘ƒ ∗ 5 ∗ 12 100 + đ?‘ƒ ∗ 5 ∗ 12 = 780 + đ?‘ƒ 100 On solving we get P as Rs. 850 7. (a) đ?‘&#x; 2 − 22000 = 5596.8, đ?‘Ąđ?‘•đ?‘’đ?‘› đ?‘&#x; = 12% 100 SI will be 22000 * 12* 2/100 = Rs. 5280 22000 1 +

8. (c) Rate of interest = 15300 * 100/(45000*4) = 8.5%. CI will be 45000 1 +

8.5 8

100

32

= 18109.34 ≅ 18109

9. (b) Amount received by Ravi is 45588 Amount received by David is 54000 Total amount = 99588 3 Interest= 99588(1 + 100 )²° -99588 = 80279. 10. (a) After four years, 7.5 * 1* P / 100 = 3375, P = 45000. 11. (b) After first investment amount = 11025, Then interest after second investment=11025(1+10/100)-11025 = Rs. 2127.5. 12. (b) 133.1 =

đ?‘Žđ?‘šđ?‘œđ?‘˘đ?‘›đ?‘Ą 3

∗

10 100

100 1 − 110 On solving we get amount = Rs. 331. 13. (b)

đ?‘&#x; đ?‘Ľ = 2đ?‘ƒ 100 Let 1 + đ?‘&#x;/100) ≅ đ?‘… Then đ?‘… đ?‘Ľ = 2 đ?‘ƒ 1+

đ?‘&#x;

đ?‘›

Also đ?‘ƒ 1 + 100 = 8đ?‘ƒ đ?‘&#x; đ?‘› 1+ = 23 100 đ?‘œđ?‘&#x; đ?‘… đ?‘› = 23 đ?‘… đ?‘› = (đ?‘…^2)3 đ?‘›â‰…3 14. (d) www.ibpsguide.com | www.ibpsguide.in|mock.ibpsguide.in| www.sscexamguide.com CopyrightŠ 2016 IBPS Guide | For Queries contact – admin@ibpsguide.com Page-34

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Let the share of A be X, đ?‘‹ 4 2 = 1+ 3903 − đ?‘‹ 100 đ?‘Ąđ?‘•đ?‘’đ?‘› đ?‘‹ = đ?‘…đ?‘ . 2028 Rs.3903-Rs.2028 = Rs.1875 invested in scheme B. 15. (e) 12 ∗ 2 ∗ đ?‘Ľ 20000 − đ?‘Ľ ∗ 15 ∗ 2 + = 25700 100 100 On solving we get x = 5000, so the amount borrowed from bank = Rs. 15000 16. (a) 500000 ∗ 2 ∗ 15 = 150000 100 17. (a) On solving each we get that option (a) yield more interest. 18. (d)

20 đ?‘Ľ đ?‘ƒ 1+ > 2đ?‘ƒ 100 đ?‘Ľ 6 1 + 5 > 2, Approximately x = 4 years. 19. (e) According to question, z*r*t/100 =y and z = x*r*t/100 Then relationship between x, y and z is z²=x*y 20. (a) đ?‘Ľ ∗ 6 ∗ 3 đ?‘Ľ ∗ 9 ∗ 5 đ?‘Ľ ∗ 13 ∗ 3 + + = 8160 100 100 100 On solving we get x = Rs. 8000. 21. (b) đ?‘ƒâˆ—đ?‘&#x;∗8 = 1120 100 P* r = 14000 Two quantities are unknown, so data inadequate. 22. (a) 960∗12∗6 Interest = 100 = 691.2 Total gain in whole transaction = 200, Interest that Mary have while lending money to Peter = 691.2+200=891.2. Total amount = 1061 23. (c) 2∗đ?‘&#x;∗4 100 Then rate = 10% 0.8 =

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450 ∗ 2 ∗ 10 = đ?‘…đ?‘ . 90 100 24. (d) Principal on whom SI accrued is Rs. 1200 is Rs. 3750. 6

Then CI = 11250 1 + 100

3

− 11250 = đ?‘…đ?‘ . 2148.93

25. (d) đ?‘Ľâˆ—đ?‘Śâˆ—5 3000 − đ?‘Ľ ∗ 6 ∗ đ?‘Ś + = 180 100 100 Two quantities are unknown, so data inadequate. 26. (b) 10000 ∗100 20 Rate = 5∗70000 = 7 % New rate = 30/7% Amount = 70000+ (70000*30/7*5)/100=Rs. 85000 27. (a) đ?‘ƒ ∗ 15 ∗ 2 15 + 450 = đ?‘ƒ 1 + 100 100 đ?‘ƒ = đ?‘…đ?‘ . 440

2

28. (a) Let P be the annual installment, đ?‘ƒ ∗ 12 ∗ 1 đ?‘? ∗ 12 ∗ 2 đ?‘ƒ+ + đ?‘?+ + đ?‘? = 1680 100 100 On solving we get P = Rs. 500 29. (a) Let first part be X and second part be Y then third part = 2400-X-Y đ?‘‹âˆ—2∗4 đ?‘Œâˆ—3∗4 2400 − đ?‘‹ − đ?‘Œ ∗ 4 ∗ 4 đ?‘‹+ = đ?‘Œ+ = 2400 − đ?‘‹ − đ?‘Œ + 100 100 100 On solving we get Y = Rs. 770.7 Third part = Rs. 830 30. (b) đ?‘Ľ ∗ 5 ∗ 3 đ?‘Ľ ∗ 7 ∗ 4 đ?‘Ľ ∗ 4 ∗ 10 + + = 9240 100 100 100 On solving we get x = Rs. 11200. 31. (b) Amount left after first installment = Rs. 19000 Each amount of installment = Rs. 1000. Interest which is to be paid with each installment = (100*6*20)/100 = 1200 Total amount to be paid = Rs. 2200. 32. (c)

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đ?‘†đ??ź 15 = đ??śđ??ź 8 đ?‘ƒâˆ—đ?‘…∗đ?‘‡ 15 100 = đ?‘‡ 8 đ?‘… đ?‘ƒ 1 + 100 − đ?‘ƒ On putting the value of T =2 and solving the above equation we get R = 40/3%. 33. (d) Incomplete data, so data inadequate. 34. (b) đ?‘–đ?‘›đ?‘Ąđ?‘’đ?‘&#x;đ?‘’đ?‘ đ?‘Ą đ?‘‘đ?‘–đ?‘“đ?‘“đ?‘’đ?‘&#x;đ?‘’đ?‘›đ?‘?đ?‘’ ∗ 100 10 ∗ 100 đ?‘?đ?‘&#x;đ?‘–đ?‘›đ?‘?đ?‘–đ?‘?đ?‘™đ?‘’ = = = 100 đ?‘&#x;đ?‘Žđ?‘Ąđ?‘’ ∗ đ?‘Ąđ?‘–đ?‘šđ?‘’ đ?‘‘đ?‘–đ?‘“đ?‘“đ?‘’đ?‘&#x;đ?‘’đ?‘›đ?‘?đ?‘’ 10 ∗ 1 35. (a) đ?‘ 2 − 1 đ?‘‡2 = ∗ đ?‘‡1 đ?‘ 1 − 1 On using the above equation, T2 = 24 years. 36. (a) Monthly payment =Rs. 100000/3 Amount invested = 25% of Rs. 100000/3= Rs. 25000/3 25000 ∗15∗5 Interest = 3∗100 = đ?‘…đ?‘ . 6250 New interest =

43750 3

20

∗ 1 + 100

37. (b) Let each installment be x đ?‘Ľ đ?‘Ľ + 50 50 (1 + 3 ∗ 100) 1 + 3 ∗ 100

2

10

+

= đ?‘…đ?‘ . 43750

đ?‘Ľ 50 1 + 3 ∗ 100

3

= 3810

Then x= Rs.1710. 38. (d) Total interest yield on Rs. 50000 = Rs. 2580 Interest yield from other = Rs. 1392.5 Interest required from remaining = Rs. 1187.5 Rate of interest needed= 12.5% 39. (c) Let the first part be x, đ?‘Ľ ∗ 11 ∗ 1 50000 − đ?‘Ľ ∗ 9 ∗ 1 9.75 ∗ 50000 + = 100 100 100 Then x = Rs. 6250 The amount invested in 11% interest = Rs. 43750 40. (e) Let P be the sum of money, www.ibpsguide.com | www.ibpsguide.in|mock.ibpsguide.in| www.sscexamguide.com CopyrightŠ 2016 IBPS Guide | For Queries contact – admin@ibpsguide.com Page-37

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10 4 đ?‘ƒ 1+ − 1 = 482 + đ?‘ƒ 100 On solving P = Rs. 20000

20 1+ 100

2

−1

41. (b)

From statement II:

2

đ?‘…

1 + 100

From statement I:đ?‘ƒ

đ?‘ƒâˆ—đ?‘…∗5 100

−1 −

đ?‘ƒâˆ—đ?‘…∗2 100

= 1060

= đ?‘ƒ, đ?‘… = 20%

42. (a) 12000 ∗đ?‘…∗2 From statement I: 100 = 3000, đ?‘… = 12.5% From statement II: đ?‘ƒ

2

đ?‘…

1 + 100

−1 −

đ?‘ƒâˆ—đ?‘…∗2 100

= 180

43. (c) From statement I: P*R=25000 From statement II: đ?‘ƒ

2

đ?‘…

1 + 100

−1 −

đ?‘ƒâˆ—đ?‘…∗2 100

= 15

On solving both equations we get R 44. (e) From statement I: SI=Rs.60 From statement II: CI=Rs. 65 We cannot find the interest as no other information is given. 45. (d) đ?‘…

From statement I: đ?‘ƒ 1 + 100

4

đ?‘…

đ?‘…

= 2đ?‘ƒ, 1 + 100

12

đ?‘…

4

=2 12

From statement II: đ?‘ƒ 1 + 100 = 8đ?‘ƒ, 1 + 100 =8 Either using (a) or (b) we can get the desired result. 46. (e) From statement I: p*10*15/100 = p, incorrect statement From statement II: time =5 47. (b) From statement I: data inadequate From statement II: 45*100/ (2*2) 48. (c) From statement I: r=16% From statement II: interest earned in 4 years = sum/2 On combining both statements we get desired result. 49. (b) From statement I: CI= Rs.30 From statement II: SI/CI = 1/2 www.ibpsguide.com | www.ibpsguide.in|mock.ibpsguide.in| www.sscexamguide.com CopyrightŠ 2016 IBPS Guide | For Queries contact – admin@ibpsguide.com Page-38

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50. (c) From statement I: let the amount invested be x Also x/2 is invested in SI and x/4 is invested in CI, total amount = 13/50x From statement II: x/4 = 10000, x =40000. On combining both statements we get the required result.

PROBABILITY 1. There are two bags A and B, bag A contains 6 red balls and 10 green balls and ball B contains 4 red balls and 6 green balls. One bag is selected at random; from the selected bag one ball is drawn at random. What is the probability that the ball drawn is red? (a) 31/80 (b) 1/4 (c) 5/13 (d) 33/65 (e) 23/60 2. An urn contains 10 black and 5 white balls. Two balls are drawn from the urn one after the other without replacement. What is the probability that both drawn balls are black? (a) 1/5 (b) 4/7 (c) 3/7 (d) 3/4 (e) 2/3 3. John played a game where 5 dice are thrown, what is the probability of rolling not even one pair with 5 dice? 5! 4! 3! 5! (a) 64 (b) 62 (c)4 2 (d) 6 (e) NOT 4. The letters H, I, I, N and D are written on a slip of paper. The five slips of paper are placed in a hat. The slips are then selected one at a time from the hat, what is the probability that the order in which they are chosen spells HINDI? (a) 1/60 (b) 1/120 (c) 1/15 (d) 1/90 (e) 1/30 5. A committee of 3 members is to be selected out of 3 men and 2 women. What is the probability that the committee has at least one woman? (a) 27/130 (b) 12/25 (c) 9/10 (d) 20/33 (e) 14/25 6. A box contains 2 red caps and 4 blue caps and 5 green caps, if two caps are picked then what is the ratio of the probability that both are blue and probability that at least one is red? (a) 2/3 (b) 1/4 (c) 5/11 (d) 4/11 (e) 1/3 7. What is the probability that the leap year selected at random will contains 53 Saturday? (a) 1/7 (b) 1/2 (c) 6/7 (d) 2/7 (e) NOT 8. A bag contains 4 red balls, 6 white balls, 8 green balls and 10 black balls. If one ball is drawn at random, find the probability that it is black. (a) 5/14 (b) 8/27 (c) 3/29 (d) 2/15 (e) NOT 9. (a)

Ron throws a dice 6 times, what is the probability of rolling a 6 on all five dice? 1 66

3!

(b) 66

1

(c) 56

1

(d) 61

(e) 6

10. There are 10 females and 8 males prepared to work in a committee. What is the probability that there are exactly three females on the committee? www.ibpsguide.com | www.ibpsguide.in|mock.ibpsguide.in| www.sscexamguide.com CopyrightŠ 2016 IBPS Guide | For Queries contact – admin@ibpsguide.com Page-39

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(a) 1/8

(b) 2/9

(c) 3/10

(d) data inadequate

(e) NOT

11. A couple plans to have five children, what is the probability that they will have 3 boys and 2 girls? (a) 5/16 (b) 4/19 (c) 3/5 (d) 2/17 (e) NOT 12. A bag contains 50 tickets numbered from 1 to 50. Two tickets are drawn at random. What is the probability that both numbers are prime? (a) 6/71 (b) 3/35 (c) 4/35 (d) data inadequate (e) NOT 13. A bag contains 7 blue balls and 8 yellow balls. If two balls are drawn randomly, then find the probability of no ball being yellow. (a) 63/121 (b) 65/132 (c) 35/132 (d) 123/155 (e) 54/173 14. In a bag there are 6 red balls and 9 green balls. Two balls are drawn at random, what is the probability that at least one of the balls drawn is red? (a) 23/124 (b) 6/17 (c) 317/455 (d) 321/456 (e) 231/314 15. One card is drawn from a pack of 52 cards. What is the probability of getting neither a king nor a heart card? (a) 4/13 (b) 2/39 (c) 1/13 (d) 1/4 (e) 4/13 16. In a class, 30 % of the students offered English, 20% offered Hindi and 10 % offered both. If a student is selected at random, what is the probability that he has offered English or Hindi? (a) 2/5 (b) 2/3 (c) 3/2 (d) 3/10 (e) NOT 17. From a pack of 52 cards, two cards are drawn together at random. What is the probability of both the card being kings? (a) 1/221 (b) 1/13 (c) 2/169 (d) 2/13 (e) NOT 18. In a lottery, there are 10 prizes and 25 blanks. A lottery is drawn at random. What is the probability of getting a prize? (a) 1/10 (b) 5/7 (c) 3/7 (d) 2/7 (e) 5/9 19. A man and his wife appear in an interview for two vacancies in the same post. The probability of husband‘s selection is 1/7 and the probability of wife‘s selection is 1/5. What is the probability that only one of them is selected? (a) 1/3 (b) 1/35 (c) 2/7 (d) 1/25 (e) 1/49 20. A speaks truth in 75% cases and B in 80% of the cases. In what percentage of cases are they likely to contradict each other, narrating the same incident? (a) 25% (b) 32 % (c) 35% (d) 40% (e) NOT 21. Four whole numbers taken at random are multiplied together. The chance that the last digit in the product is 1, 3, 7 or 9 is: (a) 16/625 (b) 14/625 (c) 16/525 (d) data inadequate (e) NOT 22. When two dice are thrown , the probability that the difference of the number on the dice is 2 or 3 is: (a) 23/36 (b) 7/18 (c) 1/9 (d) 1/4 (e) 1/2 www.ibpsguide.com | www.ibpsguide.in|mock.ibpsguide.in| www.sscexamguide.com Copyright© 2016 IBPS Guide | For Queries contact – admin@ibpsguide.com Page-40

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23. A number is chosen at random among the first 120 natural numbers. The probability of the numbers chosen being a multiple of 5 or 15 is: (a) 1/4 (b) 7/120 (c) 55/60 (d) 1/5 (e) NOT 24. In a shuffling a pack of 3 are accidently dropped then the chance that missing card should be of different suit is: (a) 169/425 (b) 123/425 (c) 1/ 52 (d) 1/13 (e) 17/169 25. If the probability of machine failing in a day is 0.95 the probability of its working for four consecutive days without failing is: (a) 0.05 (b) 0.05^2 (c) (0.05) ^4 (d) 5 (e) 1 26. If n integers taken at random are multiplied together then the probability that the last digit of the product is 2, 4, 6, 8 is : (a)

4 đ?‘› −2đ?‘› 5đ?‘›

(b)

4 đ?‘› −22 5đ?‘›

(c)

4 đ?‘› −2đ?‘› 5đ?‘› +1

(d)

4 đ?‘› −2đ?‘› 5đ?‘› +1

(e) NOT

27. The probability of occurrence of a multiple of 2 on a dice and a multiple of 3 on the other dice, if both are thrown together is : (a) 1/3 (b) 4/3 (c) 5/24 (d) 9/37 (e) NOT 28. Seven black balls and three white balls are randomly placed in a row. The probability that no two black balls are placed adjacently equals(a) 1/24 (b) 13/120 (c) 7/15 (d) 8/15 (e) NOT 29. 10 persons are seated at round table. What is the probability that two particular persons sit together? (a) 3/9 (b) 2/9 (c) 1/9 (d) 4/9 (e) 4/7 30. The probability that a teacher will give one surprise test during any class meeting in a week is 1/5. If a student is absent twice. What is the probability that he will miss atleast one test? (a) 1/15 (b) 2/11 (c) 4/17 (d) 3/4 (e) 1/15 Direction: study the following data and answer the following questions: A box contains 2 blue caps, 4 red caps, 5 green caps and 1 yellow cap. 31. If two caps are picked at random, what is the probability that atleast one is red? (a) 19/33 (b) 2/15 (c) 9/11 (d) 17/33

(e) NOT

32. If two caps are picked at random, what is the probability that both are blue? (a) 1/36 (b) 1/66 (c) 1/45 (d) 1/24

(e) NOT

33. If one cap is picked at random, what is the probability that it is either blue or yellow? (a) 1/36 (b) 2/19 (c) 3/17 (d) 4/19 (e) Âź 34. If four caps are picked at random, what is the probability that none is green? (a) 3/125 (b) 5/44 (c) 7/99 (d) 8/99

(e) NOT

35. If three caps are picked at random, what is the probability that two are red and one is green? (a) 3/22 (b) 6/11 (c) 4/11 (d) 5/22 (e) 7/22 www.ibpsguide.com | www.ibpsguide.in|mock.ibpsguide.in| www.sscexamguide.com CopyrightŠ 2016 IBPS Guide | For Queries contact – admin@ibpsguide.com Page-41

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Direction: study the following data and answer the following questions: A bag contains some white balls and some red balls. The probability that two balls drawn is of same color is 7/15 and the probability when one balls are drawn the probability of getting white ball is ½. 36. What is the ratio of number of white balls to red balls? (a) 1:1 (b) 2:1 (c) 4:1 (d) 4:3 (e) NOT 37. What is the probability when two balls are drawn and neither of them is of same color? (a) 7/15 (b) 8/15 (c) 3/5 (d) 2/15 (e) 11/15 38. What is the probability that a ball drawn from the bag is red? (a) 3/4 (b) 1/2 (c) 3/5 (d) 1/3

(e) NOT

39. If three balls are drawn, what is the probability that all is of same color? (a) 1/4 (b) 1/5 (c) 1/3 (d) 2/3

(e) 4/5

40. If two balls are drawn at random, what is the ratio of probability of drawn ball is of white color to red color? (a) 2:3 (b) 4:3 (c) 3:4 (d) 1:1 (e) NOT Direction: study the following data and answer the following questions: There are two boxes A and B containing 20 balloons each of three colors red, pink and yellow. The probability of picking a red balloon from both boxes is ¼. The probability of picking a pink balloon in box A is 1/10. The probability of picking a yellow balloon is box B is 9/20. Also the ratio of yellow balls in boxes A and B is 4:3. 41. What is the total number of red and pink balloon? (a) 20 (b) 19 (c) 14 (d) 15 (e) 18 42. What is the ratio of probability of picking red balloon from box A and yellow balloon from box B? (a) 3:2 (b) 4:5 (c) 2:1 (d) 2:3 (e) 1:2 43. How many yellow balloons are there in box A? (a) 15 (b) 9 (c) 6

(d) 4

(e) 12

44. What is the probability of picking a Red balloon in box A? (a) 3/10 (b) 4/9 (c) 5/11 (d) 7/10

(e) 1/2

45. What is probability of picking two balloons of same color from box B? (a) 45/181 (b) 23/190 (c) 63/190 (d) 34/191

(e) NOT

Direction: each of the questions below consists of a question and two statements numbered I and II given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both statements and give answer as (a). if the data in statement I is alone sufficient to answer the question (b). if the data in statement II is alone sufficient to answer the question (c). if the data in both the statements together is necessary to answer the question (d). if the data in either statements is sufficient to answer the question. (e). if the data in both the statements is not sufficient to answer the question. 46. What is the probability of picking two balls of same color? I. There are total 15 balls in a bag. www.ibpsguide.com | www.ibpsguide.in|mock.ibpsguide.in| www.sscexamguide.com Copyright© 2016 IBPS Guide | For Queries contact – admin@ibpsguide.com Page-42

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II. 47. I. II. 48. I. II. 49. I. II. 50. I. II.

There are 4 red and 5 blue balls in a bag. What is the probability that both numbers are not prime? A bag contains 19 tickets numbered from 1-19. The last ticket number is 15 more than first ticket number. What is the probability when two caps are drawn and neither of them is of same color? A box contains 1 blue caps, 4 red caps and 1 yellow cap. A box contains 3 blue, 4 red and 5 yellow caps. What is the probability of drawing both the card being kings? Only Red colored cards are shuffled. Only black colored cards are shuffled. What is the probability that only one is selected after interview? Total candidate is 20. Probability of candidate clearing the written exam is ½.

SOLUTION AND EXPLANATION OF PROBABILITY 1. (a) Bags A contains 6 red and 10 green balls Probability to draw 1 red ball = 6C1/16C1 = 6/16 = 3/8 Bag B contains 4 red an 6 green balls Probability to draw 1 red ball = 4C1/10C1 = 4/10 =2/5 Probability to select 1 bag = ½ Hence the required probability = ½(3/8+2/5) = 31/80 2. (c) Probability that both balls drawn be black = 10C2/15C2 = 10*9/(15*14) = 3/7 3. (a) The sample space when all dice are different are- (1, 2, 3, 4, 5), (1, 2, 3, 4, 6), (1, 2, 3, 5, 6), (1, 2, 4, 5, 6), (1. 2. 4. 5. 6), (1, 3, 4, 5, 6) and (2, 3, 4, 5, 6). For each set numbers can be arranged in 5! Ways Therefore the numbers of way is 6 * 5! Probability = (6*5!)/ 6^5 =5! /6^4. 4. (a) There are 5! Arrangement of the 5 letters:, total sample = 5! Probability = 1/5! = 1/120 But there are two identical alphabet, so probability = 2/120 = 1/60. 5. (c) Case.1- when 1 woman is selected, Probability = (2C1*3C2)/5C3 = 3/5 Case.2- when there is 2 women and 1 man Probability = (2C2*3C1)/ 5C3 = 3/10 Required probability = 3/5 + 3/10 = 9/10 6. (e)

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4đ??ś2 đ?‘?đ?‘&#x;đ?‘œđ?‘?đ?‘Žđ?‘?đ?‘–đ?‘™đ?‘–đ?‘Ąđ?‘Ś đ?‘Ąđ?‘•đ?‘Žđ?‘Ą đ?‘Ąđ?‘¤đ?‘œ đ?‘?đ?‘Žđ?‘™đ?‘™ đ?‘‘đ?‘&#x;đ?‘Žđ?‘¤đ?‘› đ?‘–đ?‘ đ?‘?đ?‘™đ?‘˘đ?‘’ 1 11đ??ś2 đ?‘&#x;đ?‘Žđ?‘Ąđ?‘–đ?‘œ = = = 2đ??ś1 ∗ 9đ??ś1 3 đ?‘?đ?‘&#x;đ?‘œđ?‘?đ?‘Žđ?‘?đ?‘–đ?‘™đ?‘Ąđ?‘Ś đ?‘Ąđ?‘•đ?‘Žđ?‘Ą đ?‘Žđ?‘Ąđ?‘™đ?‘’đ?‘Žđ?‘ đ?‘Ą đ?‘œđ?‘›đ?‘’ đ?‘–đ?‘ đ?‘&#x;đ?‘’đ?‘‘ 11đ??ś2 7. (d) Total days in a leap year= 366 days= 52 weeks 2 days For 53rd Saturday there are two favourable cases from 7 possible cases Fri sat 2 favourable cases Sat sun Sun Mon Mon Tues Tues wed Wed Thurs Thurs Fri Required probability = 2/7 8. (a) 10đ??ś1 5 Required probability = 28đ??ś1 = 14 9. (a) The probability of rolling 6 on a single time= 1/6 1 Probability of rolling 6 in a throw of dice 6 times = 6 6 10. (d) Probability cannot be determined as there is no data that provide the information about how many members should be there in the committee. 11. (a) Possible arrangement = B B B G G Number of outcomes= 5! / (3!*2!)=10 The couple plans to have 5 children, in each case there is 2 possibility= 2*2*2*2*2 = 32 Probability = 10/32 = 5/16 12. (b) Total prime numbers present between 1- 50 = (2, 3, 5, 7, 11, 13, 17, 19, 23, 29, 31, 37, 41, 43, 47)= 15 Probability = 15C2/50C2 = 3/35 13. (c) Sine ball drawn should not be yellow, means all balls should be blue 7đ??ś2 35 Required probability = 15đ??ś2 = 132 14. (e) Case.1- one ball is red and one ball is green 6đ??ś1∗9đ??ś1 Probability = 15đ??ś2 = 54/105 Case.2- both balls are red 6đ??ś2 Probability = 15đ??ś2 = 30/105 Required probability = 54/105 + 30/105 = 28/35 15.

(a)

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Probability of not getting a king nor a heart = 16C1/52C1 = 4/13 16. (a) Probability of student offered English = 30/100 =3/10 Probability of student offered Hindi = 20/100 =1/5 Probability of student offered both = 10/100 =1/10 Probability that student has offered Hindi or English = 3/10 +1/5 – 1/10 = 2/5 17. (a) Probability that both the card being king = 4C2/52C2 = 1/221 18. (d) Probability of getting a prize= 10C1/35C1 = 2/7 19. (c) Probability of man‘s selection is 1/7 Probability of wife‘s selection is 1/5 Probability that any one of them is selected = probability of man‘s selection and not wife selection or probability of wife‘s selection not man Then probability =

1

1

∗ 1−5 7

+

1

1

∗ 1−7 5

10

2

= 35 = 7

20. (c) Probability that A speaks truth is 75/100 = ¾ Probability that B speaks truth = 80/100 =4/5 Probability that A and B contradict each other = probability that A speaks truth and B tell lie or A tell a lie and B speaks truth. Required probability =

3 4

4

∗ 1−5

+

4 5

3

∗ 1−4

7

= 20 ∗ 100 = 35%

21. (a) If product of all these numbers (1, 3, 7 or 9) be at the end digits Then there are 4^4 favourable cases Total cases = 10^4 44

16

Hence the required possible cases = 10 4 = 625 22. (b) The total sample space = {(1, 3), (1, 4), (2, 4), (2, 5), (3, 1), (3, 5), (3, 6), (4, 1), (4, 2), (4, 6), (5, 2), (5, 3), (6, 3), (6, 4)} = total 14 Probability = 14/36 = 7/18 23. (d) Total sample space = (5, 10,……..1200 = total 24 cases Probability =24/120 =1/5 24. (a) Total ways of selection = 52C3=22100 There are 4 suits and each one has 13 cards so selection = 4C3 * 13C1 * 13C1 * 13C1 = 8788 Required probability = 8788/22100 = 169/425 25. (c) Probability of machine failing in a day = 0.95 Then probability of machine working in a day =1-0.95 = 0.05 www.ibpsguide.com | www.ibpsguide.in|mock.ibpsguide.in| www.sscexamguide.com Copyright© 2016 IBPS Guide | For Queries contact – admin@ibpsguide.com Page-45

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Probability of machine working for 4 consecutive days= (0.05) ^4 26. (a) According to the question, if the last digit in the product is 2, 4, 6 or 8 then the last digit in all n numbers should not be 0 and 5 and the last digit of all numbers should not be selected from (1, 3, 7 or 9). Then favourable cases = 8^n – 4^ n And the total space can have any of 10 numbers, so total space = 10^n 8đ?‘› −4 đ?‘›

4 đ?‘› −2đ?‘›

Therefore probability = 10 đ?‘› = 5đ?‘› 27. a) Probability of getting a multiple of 2 in one dice= 3/6 = ½ Probability of getting a multiple of 3 in another dice is 2/6 = 1/3 Probability when both dice is thrown together= 2*1/2*1/3 = 1/3 28. (c) Since no two black balls are placed adjacent to each other, then we have to place white balls in between them so that no black ball is adjacently equal. So then total number of alternate place is 8 Therefore there are 8 places to place white balls therefore no. of ways to place them = 8C3=56 The number of ways to place all balls = 10! / (7!*3!) = 120 Therefore required probability = 56/120 = 7/15 29. (b) Total no. of ways to sit 10 person in a round table = (10-1)! = 9! Since two person sit always together, so number of ways to sit will = (9-1)! = 8! Also the no. of ways in which the two person sit = 2! Therefore required probability = (8!*2!)/9! = 2/9 30. (a) The probability of student absent = 2/6 = 1/3 The probability of teacher taking a surprise test = 1/5 Therefore the probability that he student will miss the test = 1/3 * 1/5 = 1/15 31. (a) 4đ??ś1∗8đ??ś1 4đ??ś2 16 1 19 Probability = + = + = 12đ??ś2 12đ??ś2 33 11 33 32. (e) 2đ??ś2 1 Probability = 12đ??ś2 = 132 33. (e) 2đ??ś1 1đ??ś1 Probability = probability if it is blue +probability if it is yellow = 12đ??ś1 + 12đ??ś1 =3/12 = Âź 34. (c) 7đ??ś4 7 Probability that none of the ball is green = 12đ??ś4 = 99 35. (a) 4đ??ś2∗5đ??ś1 3 Probability that two are red and one is green = 12đ??ś3 = 22 36. (a) Let total numbers of white ball be x and red balls be y đ?‘Ľđ??ś2 đ?‘Śđ??ś2 7 Then given, đ?‘Ľ+đ?‘Ś đ??ś2 + đ?‘Ľ+đ?‘Śđ??ś2 = 15 ---- (1) Also xC1/(x+y) C1 = ½, Then, x/x+y = ½, => x= y www.ibpsguide.com | www.ibpsguide.in|mock.ibpsguide.in| www.sscexamguide.com CopyrightŠ 2016 IBPS Guide | For Queries contact – admin@ibpsguide.com Page-46

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Putting x= y in equation (1) We get y= 8 and x= 8 So there are 8 white balls and 8 red balls Ratio of white balls to red balls = 1:1 37. (b) Probability = 8C1 * 8C1/16C2 = 8*8/(16*15) *2 = 8/15 38. (b) Probability of ball drawn is red= 8C1/16C1 = 8/16 = 1/2 39. (b) Probability= (8C3 +8C3)/16C3 = (56+56)/ 560 = 1/5 40. (b) đ?‘?đ?‘&#x;đ?‘œđ?‘?đ?‘Žđ?‘?đ?‘–đ?‘™đ?‘–đ?‘Ąđ?‘Ś đ?‘œđ?‘“ đ?‘?đ?‘Žđ?‘™đ?‘™ đ?‘‘đ?‘&#x;đ?‘Žđ?‘¤đ?‘› đ?‘–đ?‘ đ?‘&#x;đ?‘’đ?‘‘ đ?‘?đ?‘œđ?‘™đ?‘œđ?‘&#x; 8đ??ś1 Ratio =đ?‘?đ?‘&#x;đ?‘œđ?‘?đ?‘Žđ?‘?đ?‘˘đ?‘–đ?‘™đ?‘–đ?‘Ąđ?‘Ś đ?‘œđ?‘“đ?‘?đ?‘Žđ?‘™đ?‘™ đ?‘‘đ?‘&#x;đ?‘Žđ?‘¤đ?‘› đ?‘–đ?‘ đ?‘¤đ?‘•đ?‘–đ?‘Ąđ?‘’ đ?‘?đ?‘œđ?‘™đ?‘œđ?‘&#x; = 8đ??ś1 = 1: 1 41. (b) According to the question, probability of red balloons if both boxes taken together = Âź, total balls = 40 Then total red balloons in A and B = x/40 = Âź => x = 10 Probability of pink balloons in box A = 1/10 Total balloons in A is 20, pink balloons in A = 2(2/20 = 1/10) Probability of picking a yellow balloon in Box B is 9/20, total yellow balloon in box B = 9 Also ratio of yellow balloon in A and B =4:3 Yellow balloon in A /9 = 4/3, yellow balloon in A = 12. Therefore there are (20-12-2) = 6 red balloons in box A And in box B we have 9 yellow balloon, 4 red balloon and 20-9-4 = 7 pink balloons. Total no. of red and pink balloons = 6+4+2+7 = 19. 42. (d) đ?‘?đ?‘&#x;đ?‘œđ?‘?đ?‘Žđ?‘?đ?‘–đ?‘™đ?‘–đ?‘Ąđ?‘Ś đ?‘œđ?‘“ đ?‘”đ?‘’đ?‘Ąđ?‘Ąđ?‘–đ?‘›đ?‘” đ?‘Ž đ?‘&#x;đ?‘’đ?‘‘ đ?‘?đ?‘Žđ?‘™đ?‘™đ?‘œđ?‘œđ?‘› đ?‘“đ?‘&#x;đ?‘œđ?‘š đ??´

Ratio = đ?‘?đ?‘&#x;đ?‘œđ?‘?đ?‘Žđ?‘?đ?‘–đ?‘™đ?‘–đ?‘Ąđ?‘Śđ?‘œđ?‘“

đ?‘”đ?‘’đ?‘Ąđ?‘Ąđ?‘–đ?‘›đ?‘” đ?‘Śđ?‘’đ?‘™đ?‘™đ?‘œđ?‘¤ đ?‘?đ?‘Žđ?‘™đ?‘™đ?‘œđ?‘œđ?‘› đ?‘“đ?‘&#x;đ?‘œđ?‘š đ?‘?đ?‘œđ?‘Ľ đ??ľ

=

6 20 9

20

6

2

=9=3

43. (e) There are 12 yellow balloons in box A. 44. (a) Probability of picking a red balloons in box A = 6/20 = 3/10 45. (c) 4đ??ś2+7đ??ś2+9đ??ś2 63 Probability of getting two same balloons = = 20đ??ś2 190 46. (b) From statement I, total balls = 15 From statement II, probability = (4C2/9C2 + 5C2/9C2) 47. (a) From statement I, total number between 1-19 which are not prime = 11, probability = 11/19 From statement II, last ticket number is 15 more than first ticket, it is not given the range of numbers So statement (a) is sufficient. 48. (d) From statement I, probability = đ?‘?đ?‘&#x;đ?‘œđ?‘?đ?‘Žđ?‘?đ?‘–đ?‘™đ?‘–đ?‘Ąđ?‘Ś đ?‘œđ?‘“ đ?‘œđ?‘›đ?‘’ đ?‘?đ?‘™đ?‘˘đ?‘’ đ?‘?đ?‘Žđ?‘?đ?‘ + đ?‘œđ?‘›đ?‘’ đ?‘&#x;đ?‘’đ?‘‘ đ?‘œđ?‘&#x; đ?‘?đ?‘&#x;đ?‘œđ?‘?đ?‘Žđ?‘?đ?‘–đ?‘™đ?‘–đ?‘Ąđ?‘Ś đ?‘œđ?‘“ đ?‘œđ?‘›đ?‘’ đ?‘?đ?‘™đ?‘˘đ?‘’ +

1 đ?‘Śđ?‘’đ?‘™đ?‘™đ?‘œđ?‘¤đ?‘œđ?‘&#x; đ?‘?đ?‘&#x;đ?‘œđ?‘?đ?‘Žđ?‘?đ?‘–đ?‘™đ?‘–đ?‘Ąđ?‘Ś đ?‘œđ?‘“ đ?‘œđ?‘›đ?‘’ đ?‘Śđ?‘’đ?‘™đ?‘™đ?‘œđ?‘¤+đ?‘œđ?‘›đ?‘’ đ?‘&#x;đ?‘’đ?‘‘ From statement II, đ?‘?đ?‘&#x;đ?‘œđ?‘?đ?‘Žđ?‘?đ?‘–đ?‘™đ?‘–đ?‘Ąđ?‘Ś đ?‘œđ?‘“ đ?‘œđ?‘›đ?‘’ đ?‘?đ?‘™đ?‘˘đ?‘’ đ?‘?đ?‘Žđ?‘?đ?‘ + đ?‘œđ?‘›đ?‘’ đ?‘&#x;đ?‘’đ?‘‘ đ?‘œđ?‘&#x; đ?‘?đ?‘&#x;đ?‘œđ?‘?đ?‘Žđ?‘?đ?‘–đ?‘™đ?‘–đ?‘Ąđ?‘Ś đ?‘œđ?‘“ đ?‘œđ?‘›đ?‘’ đ?‘?đ?‘™đ?‘˘đ?‘’ +

1 đ?‘Śđ?‘’đ?‘™đ?‘™đ?‘œđ?‘¤đ?‘œđ?‘&#x; đ?‘?đ?‘&#x;đ?‘œđ?‘?đ?‘Žđ?‘?đ?‘–đ?‘™đ?‘–đ?‘Ąđ?‘Ś đ?‘œđ?‘“ đ?‘œđ?‘›đ?‘’ đ?‘Śđ?‘’đ?‘™đ?‘™đ?‘œđ?‘¤+đ?‘œđ?‘›đ?‘’ đ?‘&#x;đ?‘’đ?‘‘ www.ibpsguide.com | www.ibpsguide.in|mock.ibpsguide.in| www.sscexamguide.com CopyrightŠ 2016 IBPS Guide | For Queries contact – admin@ibpsguide.com Page-47

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49. (d) 2đ??ś2 1 From statement I, probability = 26đ??ś2 = 13∗25 2đ??ś2

1

From statement II, probability = 26đ??ś2 = 13∗25 50. (c) From statement I, total candidate = 20 From statement II, probability of candidate clearing the written exam = ½ On combining both statement, We have 10 candidates, who cleared the exam, So the probability that only one of them is selected after interview = 10C1/20C1 = 10/20 = ½

PERMUTATION AND COMBINATION 1. At an election, three wards of a town are to be canvassed by 4, 5 and 8 men respectively. If there are 20 men, in how many ways they can be allotted to the different wards? (a) 4!*5!*8!/20! (b) 1240 (c)20890 (d)20!/17! (e)not 2. In how many different ways can 4 boys and 3 girls be arranged in a row such that all boys stand together and all girls stand together? (a) 288 (b) 144 (c) 56 (d) 64 (e) NOT 3. Out of 5 men and 3 women, a committee of 3 members is to be formed so that it has 1 woman and 2 men. In how many different ways can it be done? (a) 24 (b)30 (c) 45 (d) 72 (e) 10 4. In how many different ways can the letters of the word LONELY be arranged, so that the vowels are at the two ends? (a) 120 (b) 720 (c) 360 (d) 48 (e) 60 5. While packing for a business trip Rajesh has packed 3 pairs of shoes, 4 pants, 3 half-pants, 6 shirts, 3 sweater and 2 jackets. The outfit is defined as consisting of a pair of shoes, a choice of ‗lower wear‘, a choice of ‗upper wear‘ and finally he may or may not choose to wear a jacket. How many different outfits are possible? (a) 240 (b) 3! (c) 5*3! (d) 2!*3! (e) 378 6. The number of ways in which the letters of the word CAPSULE can be rearranged so that the even places are always occupied by consonants is: (a) 576 (b) 6! (c) 4!*2! (d) 3!*6 (e) NOT 7. The number of ways in which 20 different flowers of two colors can be set alternatively on a necklace, there being 10 flowers of each color is: (a) 20! (b)10! * 10! (c) 20!*10 (d) 10!*2 (e) NOT 8. Calculate the number of ways a mixed double tennis player can be arranged, if there are a total of 9 couples and no couple plays in the same game? (a) 1244 (b) 1512 (c) 1516 (d) 1412 (e) 2342 www.ibpsguide.com | www.ibpsguide.in|mock.ibpsguide.in| www.sscexamguide.com CopyrightŠ 2016 IBPS Guide | For Queries contact – admin@ibpsguide.com Page-48

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9. In how many different ways can the letter s of the word ‗PRESENTEE‘ be arranged? (a) 15120 (b) 9! (c) 9! /2 (d) 9! /3 (e) NOT 10. How many four letter distinct initials can be formed using the alphabets of English language such that the last of the four words is always a consonant? (a) 26² (b) 26³ (c) 26³*21 (d) 26² *21 (e) 26*21 11. Find the numbers of ways in which the first, second, fourth and seventh letter of word EXHIBITION can be arranged? (a) 4! (b) 4! – 1! (c)5!-1 (d)5! +2 (e) NOT 12. Out of 5 women and 4 men, a committee of three members is to be formed in such a way that atleast one member is a woman. In how many different ways can this be done? (a) 150 ways (b) 200 ways (c) 196 ways (d) 120 ways (e) 156 ways 13. In how many ways can the letters of the word ‗RIDDLED‘ can be arranged? (a) 70 ways (b) 35 ways (c) 81 ways (d) 720 ways

(e)5040 ways

14. There are five comics numbered from 1 to 5. In how many ways can they be arranged, so that part-1 and part-3 are never together? (a) 72 (b)25 (c) 36 (d) 64 (e) NOT 15. How many words of 4 consonant and 3 vowels can be made from 12 consonants and 4 vowels, if all the letters are different? (a) 12C4*4C3*7! (b)12C3*7! (c) 14C2 *2! (d) 13P2*7! (e) NOT 16. In how many ways can seven friends be seated in a row having 40 seats, such that no to friends occupy adjacent seats? (a) 40P7 (b) 40C2 (c) 35C2 (d) 36P7 (e) 36P7*2! 17. Find the total number of distinct vehicle numbers that can be formed using two letters followed by two numbers. Letters need to be different. (a) 4500 ways (b) 54000 ways (c) 65000 ways (d) 12000 ways (e) 26! 18. How many words can be formed by rearranging the letters of the word ASCENT such that A and T occupy the first and last position respectively? (a) 4! (b) 6! (c) 5!*2 (d) 4!*2 (e) NOT 19. Each of the letters A, H, I, M, O, T, U, V, W, X and Z appears same when looked at in a mirror. They are called symmetric letters. The other letters in the alphabet are asymmetric letters. How many three letter computer password can be made without repletion with atleast two symmetric letters? (a) 12870 (b) 12! (c) 12! /2! (d) Data inadequate (e) NOT 20. How many integers, greater 999 but not greater than 4000, can be formed with the digit 0, 1, 2, 3 and 4, if repletion of digits is allowed? (a) 346 (b) 376 (c) 456 (d) data inadequate (e) NOT 21. In how many rearrangement of the word AMAZED, is the letter ‗E‘ positioned in between the 2 ‗A‘s? www.ibpsguide.com | www.ibpsguide.in|mock.ibpsguide.in| www.sscexamguide.com Copyright© 2016 IBPS Guide | For Queries contact – admin@ibpsguide.com Page-49

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(a) 60

(b) 120*2!

(c) 720

(d) 120

(e) 150

22. In a group of students, there are 5 freshmen, 8 sophomores and 7 juniors in a football club. A group of 6 students will be chosen to compete in a completion. How many combinations of participating students are possible if the group has to consist of all exactly 3 freshmen? (a) 4500 (b) 5650 (c) 7240 (d) 4550 (e) 4510 23. Find the number of ways in which 8064 can be resolved as the product of two factors? (a) 48 (b) 12 (c) 30 (d) 28 (e) 24 24. In how many different ways the letters of the word ‘DETAIL‘ be arranged in such a way that the vowels occupy only the odd positions? (a) 5! (b) 36 ways (c) 4! (d) 5!*2! (e) 4!*2! 25. Which of the following is the value of r, if 6Pr = 360 and 6Cr = 15. (a) 7 (b) 4 (c) 2 (d) 5

(e) NOT

26. A class photograph has to be taken. The frontrow consists of 6 girls who are sitting. 20 boys are standing behind. The two corner positions are reserved for the 2 tallest boys. In how many ways can the students be arranged? (a) 18!*10 (b) 18!*10! (c) 18!*1440 (d) 10!*18 (e) NOT 27. If the letters of the word LABOUR are permuted in all possible ways and the words formed by the activity are arranged in a dictionary, then calculate the rank of the word LABORU. (a) 105 (b) 241 (c) 240 (d) 120 (e) 242 28. In IPL, there are 153 matches played, every two team played one match with each other. The number of teams participating in the championship is: (a) 18 (b) 35 (c) 20 (d) 19 (e) 16 29. Calculate the number of diagonals which can be drawn in a hexagon? (a) 15 (b) 9 (c) 7 (d) 12

(e) 13

30. If there are two brothers among a group of 20 people. Calculate the number of ways in which the group can be arranged in a line so that they are always together? (a) 18! (b)18!*1! (c) 3*18! (d) 18! / 3! (e) 19! * 2 31. In how many different ways the word‘ REPEAT‘ be arranged such that first and last position is held by R and T respectively? (a) 24 ways (b) 120 ways (c) 60 ways (d) 40 ways (e) NOT 32. Calculate the number of ways in which 6 yellow balls and 6 red balls be arranged, such that each color group is always together? (a) 12! (b) 10!*2 (c) 2!*6!*6! (d) 15! (e) 12!*18! 33. Calculate the number of 5 digit positive numbers, sum of whose digits is odd. (a) 45000 (b) 23000 (c) 41000 (d) 13000

(e) 35000

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34. How many alphabets need to be there in a language if one were to make 1 million distinct 3 digit initials using the alphabets of the language? (a) 1000 (b) 10 (c) 1500 (d) 100 (e) NOT 35. When four dice are rolled simultaneously, in how many outcomes will atleast one of the dice shows 3? (a) 120 (b) 24 (c) 671 (d) 501 (e) 162 36. How many words can be formed by using all letters of the word ‗INHIBITION‘ so that vowels always come together? (a) 10! (b) 3600 (c) 7200 (d)1800 (e) NOT 37. From a group of 7 men and 6 women, five persons are to be selected to form a committee so that at least 3 men are there on the committee. In how many ways can it be done? (a) 120 (b) 150 (c) 140 (d) 105 (e) NOT 38. How many 3 digit can be formed from the digits 2, 4, 6, 8, 5, 7 and 1 which are divisible by 5 and none of the digits is repeated? (a) 120 (b) 200 (c) 250 (d) 40 (e)30 39. Out of 7 consonants and 4 vowels, how many words of 3 consonants and 2 vowels can be formed? (a) 210 (b) 25200 (c) 210*2! (d) 70 (e) NOT 40. In how many ways a committee, consisting of 5 women and 6 men can be formed from 8 men and 15 women? (a) 8C2*2! (b)8C6 * 15C5 (c) 8C5*15C6 (d) cannot be determined (e) NOT Direction: each of the questions below consists of a question and two statements numbered I and II given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both statements and give answer as (a). if the data in statement I is alone sufficient to answer the question (b). if the data in statement II is alone sufficient to answer the question (c). if the data in both the statements together is necessary to answer the question (d). if the data in either statements is sufficient to answer the question. (e). if the data in both the statements is not sufficient to answer the question 41. In how many ways letter of the word can be arranged? I. The word is RECONCILATION. II. The total alphabet of the digit is 12. 42. The ratio of arrangement of two words is? I. First word is PRACTICAL. II. Second word can be arranged in 60 ways. 43. Find how many alphabets are there in the word that is arranged in 180 ways? I. The word is LEADER II. The word has 3 same alphabets. 44. What is the value of r? I. 10Cr = 1. II. nPr =2. 45. In how many ways a committee of 6 members can be selected? I. If 3 male members should be included. www.ibpsguide.com | www.ibpsguide.in|mock.ibpsguide.in| www.sscexamguide.com Copyright© 2016 IBPS Guide | For Queries contact – admin@ibpsguide.com Page-51

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II. 46. I. II. 47. I. II. 48. I. II. 49. I. II. 50. I. II.

If only 4 female members is to be included. In how many ways a batch of 10 candidates can be selected for test? There are total 56 candidates who filled the form. Female candidate selected is 16. In how many ways English and Hindi books are arranged? Two books on Hindi may not be together. There are 21 English and 19 Hindi books. What is the value of n? nPr = 1 and nC1 = 4. nC1 = 1. In how many different ways total students can be arranged? There are total 4 boys and 3 girls in the group. Arrangement is made such that all boys stand together and all girls stand together. What is the ratio of ways of arrangement of two different words? The ways of arranging the two words are 45 and 95. First word is TAROT. SOLUTION AND EXPLANATION OF PERMUTATION AND COMBINATION

1. (a) The no. of ways so that 20 men can be allotted = 20!/4!*5!*8! As after each allotment men get reduced. 2. (a) BBBB GGG No. of ways in which all girls stand together and all boys stand together = 2!*4!*3! = 288. 3. (b) No. of ways of selecting 1 woman and 2 men = 3C1 * 5C2 = 30 4. (d) There are 6 spaces in which both ends is to be filled by vowels, to arrange vowels there are2! Ways The left 4 places can be filled by remaining alphabets in 4! Ways So total no. of ways= 2! * 4! = 48 5. (e) The no. of ways in which different outfit are possible = 3C1(shoes)*7C1(pants and half-pants)*9C1(shirts and sweater)*2C1(jackets) = 3*7*9*2 = 378 6. (a) The no. of ways in which consonant occupies even place = 4! The no. of ways in which odd places is filled is 4! , so total ways= 4! * 4! = 576 7. (b) Total ways in arranging flowers of one color = 10! Total ways in which flowers of another color is arranged = 10! Therefore total ways to arrange whole flowers = 10! * 10! 8. (b) No. of double tennis player =9C2 = 36 www.ibpsguide.com | www.ibpsguide.in|mock.ibpsguide.in| www.sscexamguide.com CopyrightŠ 2016 IBPS Guide | For Queries contact – admin@ibpsguide.com Page-52

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No. of ways of forming a mixed double tennis player so that no couple plays in the same game =7C2=21 Total ways = 2(it is said couple) * 21 * 36 =1512 9. (a) Total no. of ways = 9! /4! (4 E is present) = 15120 10. (c) No. of ways of selecting consonant in the last letter = 21 Other letters can be filled by either consonant or vowel so there are 26 ways Therefore Total ways =26*26*26*21 = 26³*21 11. (a) The letters are E, X, I and T So total no. of ways = 4! 12. (b) Case.1- woman-1 and men=2 No. of ways = 5(woman) * 4(men) * 3(men) = 60 Case.2- 2 woman and 1 man No. of ways= 5(woman) *4(woman) * 4(man)= 80 Case.3- all are woman No. of ways = 5*4*3 = 60 Total ways = 60+80+60 = 200 13. (b) No. of ways to arrange the word RIDDLED = 7! / 3! = 35 14. (a) Total no. of ways in which 5 parts of comic can be arranged = 5! =120 Total no. of ways in which part-1 and part-3 are always together= 4!*2! = 48 Therefore total no. of ways = 120-48 = 72 15. (a) The no. of ways to have 4 consonants and 3 vowels = 12C4 * 4C3 But to have letters all different no. of ways = 12C4 * 4C3 * 7! 16. (d) Total no. of seat left after occupying by seven friends = 40-7 = 35 Therefore there are total 36 alternate seats. Hence seven friends can be seated in 36C7 ways so that no two friend occupy adjacent seat 17. (c) No. of ways to select 2 distinct alphabets from 26 = 26P2 Also there are total 10 digits so to select one number we have 10 ways and two select another number we have 10 ways So there are total 10*10 = 100 ways to select numbers Then combinations of letters and numbers = 26P2 *100 = 65000 ways 18.

(a)

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First and last letter is to be filled by A and T Then only four letters are left So there are 4! Ways to arrange the word. 19. (e) Case.1- two symmetric and 1 asymmetric No. of ways = 11C2*15C1= 825 Case.2- all symmetric No. of ways = 11C3 = 165 Total ways to have 3 letter password = 3!*(825+165) = 5940 20. (b) The first digit is 1000, a 4 digit number And the last digit = 4000, the only 4 digit numbers to start with 4 There fore there are four digits in each integer, and first digit can be 1, 2 and 3 Second, third and fourth cab be 0, 1, 2, 3 and 4 i.e. 5 ways So total ways = 3*5*5*5 = 375 +1 for 4000 21. (d) The combination of both A and E is AAE, AEA & EAA In each case only AEA have E in between which is one-third of all combinations Total no. of ways of arranging the word is 6! / 2! = 360 Total ways to have E in between = 360/3 = 120 22. (d) No. of ways of have exactly 3 freshmen = 5C3 * 15C3 = 4550 23. (e) Total pairs is (1*064), (2*4032), (3*2688), (4*2016), (6*1344), (7*1152), (8*1008), (9*896),12*672), (14* 576), (16 *504), (18*448), (21*884), (24*336), (28*288), (32*252), (36*224), (42*192), (48*168), (56*144), (63*128), (68*126), (72*112) and (84*96). = 24 ways 24. (b) Vowels to occupy odd position, no. of ways= 3! Other positions can fill in 3! Ways Total no. of ways = 3!*3! = 36 25. (b) 6Pr= 360, 6! / (6-r)! = 360 6Cr = 15, 6!/(6-r)!*r! = 15 So r! = 360/15 = 24(4*3*2*1) So r= 4! 26. (c) Two tallest boys can be arranged in 2! Ways And other in 18! Ways And arrangement of girls = 6! Total ways of arrangement = 18!*2!*6! = 18! * 1440 27. (b) The word is LABOUR To arrange the word alphabetically, we have first word as ABLORU www.ibpsguide.com | www.ibpsguide.in|mock.ibpsguide.in| www.sscexamguide.com CopyrightŠ 2016 IBPS Guide | For Queries contact – admin@ibpsguide.com Page-54

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So to have A as first letter there are 5! = 120 ways Then second is B as first letters (BALORU) no . Of ways = 5! =120 Next word will be LABORU so its position = 120+120+1 = 241 28. (a) According to the question nC2 = 153 Or n! / (n-2)! * 2! = 153=> n*(n-1)/2 = 153 On solving we get n= 18 29. (b) Total no. of diagonals in a hexagon= 6C2=15 But there are sis sides also, so total diagonals = 15-6 = 9 30. (e) There are total 20 people Sine two brother always stand together so total ways = 19!*2! 31. (a) First and last letter is to be filled by R and T Then only four letters are left So there are 4! =24 no. of ways to arrange the word. 32. (c) Considering yellow balls a group and red balls a group So no. of ways = 2!* 6! * 6! 33. (a) There are total 9*10^4 = 90000 5 digit numbers In 90000 numbers half will be even and half will be odd So there are 45000 odd numbers 34. (d) To make 3 letters word using 1 million alphabets We have x^3 = 1million Then x^3 = 10^6 So x = 100 35. (c) Total no. of outcomes when 4 dice is thrown is 6^4 = 1296 Total no. of ways when none of dice shows 3 = 5^4 = 625 Total ways in which atleast one of them is 3 in four dice = 1296-625= 671 36. (d) Total no. of ways so that vowels always come together= 37. (a) Case.1- men-3, women = 2 No. of ways= 7C3 * 6C2= 35*15=525 Case.2- men = 4 and women = 1 No. of ways= 7C4 * 6C1 = 210 www.ibpsguide.com | www.ibpsguide.in|mock.ibpsguide.in| www.sscexamguide.com CopyrightŠ 2016 IBPS Guide | For Queries contact – admin@ibpsguide.com Page-55

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Case.2- men= 5 and women = 0 No. of ways = 7C5 = 21 Total ways = 525+210+21 = 756 38. (e) For three digit numbers to be divisible by 5 last digits should be 5 Remaining two spaces can be filled as6 and 5 ways So total ways to have 3 digit = 6*5*1(5) = 30 39. (b) No. of ways of selecting (3 consonants and 2 vowels) = 7C3 * 4C2 = 210 No. of groups each having 3 consonants and 2 vowels = 210 Each group contains 5 letter, so no. of ways to arrange 5 letter among themselves =5! There no. of words = 210 * 5! = 25200 40. (b) No. of ways to form a committee consisting of 5 women and 6 men = 15C5 * 8C6 41. (a) From statement I, total no. of ways = 13! / (2!*2!*2!*2!) From statement II, total ways =12!, but alphabet is not given so it may or may not contain identical letters but we do not have confirm result by statement II. 42. (c) From statement I, first word is PRACTICAL no. of ways to arrange = 9! / (2!*2!) = 90720 From statement II, second word arrangement = 60 ways Ratio = 90720/60 = 1512:1. 43. (e) From statement I, word is LEADER, arrangement =6! /2! = 360 From statement II, identical alphabet= 3 Both statementsare not sufficient to answer the question. 44. (e) From statement I, 10Cr =1, either r= 1 or r= 9 From statement II, nPr = 2 two unknown value is given. 45. (e) From statement I, total male member present = 3, both how many member should be there in the committee is not given From statement II, total female members to be included = 4, not any other information is given. 46. (e) From statement I, total candidate who filled the form = 56 dat is not given regarding the selection of candidates. From statement II, female candidate= 16 no other information is given which hirs needed to answer the question 47.

(b)

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From statement I, no. of English books is not given From statement II, there is (21+19)! Ways to arrange books. 48. (d) From statement I, nC1 = 4 => n! / (n-1)!*1! = 4 => n= 4 and nPr = 4 From statement II, nC1 = 1=> n = 1 49. (a) From statement I, boys= 4 and girls = 3 total ways of arrangement = 7! From statement II, no. of boys and girls is not given 50. (a) From statement I, ratio = 45/95 = 9/19 From statement II, first word= TAROT, no. of ways = 5! /2! = 60 Only statement (a) is sufficient to answer the question.

BOAT AND STREAMS 1. A boat running downstream covers a distance of 30 km in 2 hours while coming back the boat takes 6 hour to cover the same distance. If the speed of current is half that of the boat, what is the speed of that boat? (a) 10 kmph (b) 15 kmph (c) 20 kmph (d) 12 kmph (e) NOT 2. The distance between A and B is 80 km. Boat P could travel from point A to B upstream and point B to A downstream in total 30 hours. Boat Q could travel from point A to B upstream and point B to A downstream in total 9 hours. If the speed of boat Q in still water is thrice of boat P in still water, what is the speed of boat Q if speed of current remains constant for both? (a) 12kmph (b) 18 kmph (c) 15 kmph (d) 20 kmph (e) 12.5 kmph 3. A boat takes 2 hours to travel 28 km upstream. If the respective ratio between speed of boat downstream and speed of boat upstream is 9:7, what is the speed of current? (a) 3 kmph (b) 1 kmph (c) 2.4 kmph (d) 2 kmph (e) 5 kmph 4. A boat moves down the stream at the rate of 1 km in 5 minutes and up the stream at the rate of 1 km in 10 minutes. The speed of boat is: (a) 2.5 m/sec (b) 1.5 m/sec (c) 3.0 m/sec (d) 5.5 m/sec (e) 5.6 m/sec 5. A boat covers a distance of 30 km upstream in 2 hours while it take 1/2 hours to cover the same distance downstream, then what is the ratio of speed of the boat and rate of stream? (a) 2:13 (b) 15:9 (c) 14:9 (d) 5:1 (e) 16:3 6. A motor boat in still water travels at a speed of 36 km/h. it goes 56 km upstream in 1 hour 45 minutes. The time taken by it to cover the same distance down the stream will be: (a) 2 hrs (b) 1 hr 24 mins (c) 2 hrs 20 mins (d) 3 hrs (e) NOT 7. A boat can travel with a speed of 16 km/hr in still water. If the rate of the stream is 5 km/hr, then what is the time taken by the boat to cover distance of 84 km downstream? (a) 1 hours (b) 4 hours (c) 5 hours (d) 2.5 hours (e) NOT www.ibpsguide.com | www.ibpsguide.in|mock.ibpsguide.in| www.sscexamguide.com CopyrightŠ 2016 IBPS Guide | For Queries contact – admin@ibpsguide.com Page-57

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8. A person can row 7½ kmph in still water. It takes him twice as long as to row up a distance as to row down the same distance. Find the speed of the stream. (a) 1½ kmph (b) 2½ kmph (c) 3½ kmph (d) data inadequate (e) NOT 9. A man rows 27 km with the stream and 15 km against the stream taking 4 hrs each time. Find his rate per still water? (a) 21/4 kmph (b) 24/5 kmph (c) 4/3 kmph (d) 16/7 kmph (e) 15/7 kmph 10. A boat can row ¾th of a km against the stream in 11½ minutes and return in 7½ minutes. Find the speed in still water. (a) 1.44m/sec (b) 1.21 m/sec (c) 1.38 m/sec (d) 1.56 m/sec (e) 1.38 km/hr 11. A boat takes 19 hrs for travelling downstream from point A to point B and coming back to a point C midway between A and B. if the speed of the stream is 4 kmph and the speed of the boat in still water is 14 kmph, what is the distance between A and B? (a) 180 km (b) 240 km (c) 160 km (d) 200 km (e) 190 km 12. I row from A to B against the current in 8 hours and from B to A in 2 hours. If the speed of the river is 9 m/sec, what is the speed of the boat in still water? (a) 12 m/sec (b) 15 m/sec (c) 8 m/sec (d) 16 m/sec (e) NOT 13. A man goes by motor boat a certain distance upstream at 15 km/ hr and returns the same downstream at 20 km/hr. the total time taken for the journey was 7 hrs. Find how far did he go? (a) 50 km (b) 45 km (c) 60 km (d) 30 km (e) NOT 14. In one hour a boat goes 11 km along the stream and 5 km against the stream. The speed of the boat in still water is? (a) 8 kmph (b) 16 kmph (c) 7 kmph (d) 4 kmph (e) 3 kmph 15. A man row 18 kmph in still water. It takes him thrice as long as row up as to row down the river. Find the rate of stream. (a) 4/33 kmph (b) 3/34 kmph (c) 4 kmph (d) 2/27 kmph (e) 1/3 kmph 16. A boat against the current of water goes 9 km/hr and in the direction of the current 12 km/hr. the boat takes 4 hours and 12 minutes to move from A to B. what is the distance between A and B? (a) 180km (b) 200km (c) 189/5 km (d) data inadequate (e) NOT 17. A man row up the stream 15 km and down the stream 35 km taking 5 hours each time. The velocity of the current is: (a) 1½ kmph (b) 3 kmph (c) 2 kmph (d) 2¾ kmph (e) 4½ kmph 18. In a stream running at 2 kmph, a motorboat goes 6 km upstream and back again to starting point in 33 minutes. Find the speed of the motorboat in still water. (a) 11kmph (b) 14 kmph (c) 33 kmph (d) 22 kmph (e) 16 kmph 19. A man can row 40 km upstream and 55 km downstream in 13 hours also, he can row 30 km upstream and 44 km downstream in 10 hours. Find the speed of the man in still water and the speed of the current. www.ibpsguide.com | www.ibpsguide.in|mock.ibpsguide.in| www.sscexamguide.com Copyright© 2016 IBPS Guide | For Queries contact – admin@ibpsguide.com Page-58

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(a) 8 kmph, 3 kmph (b) 3 kmph, 8kmph

(c) 12 kmph, 5 kmph (d) 5 kmph, 1 kmph

(e) NOT

20. A boat can row 16 km/hr along the current and 14 km/hr against the current. Find the speed of the current and speed of the boat in still water? (a) 2 kmph, 15 kmph (b) 2 kmph, 12 kmph (c) 2 kmph, 32 kmph (d) 12 kmph, 12 kmph (e) 1 kmph, 15 kmph 21. A boat moves down the stream at the rate of 1 km in 6 minutes and up the stream at the rate of 1 km in 10 minutes. The speed of current is: (a) 6 kmph (b) 9 kmph (c) 10 kmph (d) 4 kmph (e) 2 kmph 22. A boat goes 16 km upstream in 2 hours and downstream in 1 hour. Find how much time this boat will take to travel 32 km in all still water? (a) 2 hrs 25 mins (b) 2 hrs 40 minutes (c) 1 hrs 56 minutes (d) 50 minutes (e) NOT 23. A man takes 3 hr and 45 minutes to row a boat 15 km with the current in a river and 2 hours 30 minutes to cover a distance of 5 km against the current. Find the ratio of the speed of the boat in still water and the speed of the current? (a) 6:1 (b) 3:1 (c) 5:1 (d) 4:1 (e) 9:1 24. A boat crew can row a 4 mile course in 20 min in still water and in 16 min with the tide. How long will it take to row the course against the tide? (a) 26 mins 40 sec (b) 24 mins (c) 30 mins 12 sec (d) data inadequate (e) 19 mins 25. A man rows with the stream 10 km per hour and against the stream at 5 km per hour. Man‘s rate in still water is: (a) 2.5 kmph (b) 7.5 kmph (c) 5 kmph (d) 15 kmph (e) NOT 26. A boat takes 90 min less to travel 36 miles downstream then to travel the same distance upstream. If the speed of the boat in still water is 10 mph. the speed of the stream is: (a) 3 kmph (b) 1 kmph (c) 2 kmph (d) 3.5 kmph (e) 5.6 kmph 27. At his usual rowing rate, Sameer rows 12 miles down stream in a river in 6 hrs less than it takes him to travel the same distance upstream. But if he could double his usual rowing rate for his 24 miles round the downstream 12 miles would then take only one hour less than the upstream 12 miles. What is the speed of the current in miles per hours? (a) 8/3 miles/hr (b) 5 miles/hr (c) 5/2 miles/hr (d) data inadequate (e) NOT 28. A boat takes 21 hrs for travelling downstream from point A to point B and coming back to a point A. if the velocity of the stream is 4 kmph and the speed of the boat in still water is 14 kmph, what is the distance between A and B? (a) 36 km (b) 45 km (c) 62 km (d) 29 km (e) NOT 29. A man row 71/2 kmph in still water. If in a river running at 1.5 km an hour, if takes him 50 min to row to place and back. How far off is the place? (a) 2 km (b) 4 km (c) 5 km (d) 9 km (e) 3 km 30. Speed of a boat in standing water is 9 kmph and the speed of the stream is 1.5 kmph. A boy rows to place at a distance of 105 km and comes back to the starting point. The total time taken by him is: www.ibpsguide.com | www.ibpsguide.in|mock.ibpsguide.in| www.sscexamguide.com Copyright© 2016 IBPS Guide | For Queries contact – admin@ibpsguide.com Page-59

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(a) 25 hrs

(b) 28 hrs

(c)18 hrs

(d) 24 hrs

(e) 15 hrs

31. Ravi can row at 5 kmph in still water. If the velocity of the current is 1 kmph and it takes him 1 hour to row to a place and come back, how far is the place? (a) 2400 meters (b) 24 meters (c) 24 km (d) 96 meters (e) NOT 32. Rajesh takes twice as long to row a distance against the stream as to row the same distance in favor of the stream. The ratio of the speed of the boat( in still water) and the stream is: (a) 4:1 (b) 3:1 (c) 5:1 (d) 6:19 (e) 4:1 33. A boat can row 1/4th of a km against the stream in 11½ minutes and return in 9½ minutes. Find the speed in still water. (a) 0.4 m/sec (b) 0.6 m/sec (c) 1.42 m/sec (d) data inadequate (e) NOT 34. A boat can row 36 km/hr along the current and 24 km/hr against the current. Find the ratio of the speed of the current and speed of the boat in still water? (a) 7:2 (b) 5:1 (c) 6:7 (d) 1:5 (e) 2:3 35. A man can row 50 km upstream and 45 km downstream in 13 hours also, he can row 30 km upstream and 60 km downstream in 10 hours. Find the speed of the man in still water and the speed of the current. (a) 10 kmph, 5 kmph (b) 15 kmph, 2 kmph (c) 12 kmph, 2 kmph (d) data inadequate (e) NOT Direction: given below are two statements, you have to decide by studying the statements about the relation between them and give your answer as: (a) I>II (b) I<II (c) I=II or inadequate data or relationship cannot be made. (d) I≥II (e) I≤II. 36. I. A boat covers 24 km upstream and 36 km down stream in 6 hours while it covers 36 km upstream and 24 km downstream in 6 hours. II. The velocity of the current is 4 kmph. 37. I. Ratio of upstream speeds and downstream speeds is 4:7. II. A man takes 3 hrs 45 mins to row a boat 15 km downstream of a river and 2 hours 20 mins to cover a distance of 7 km upstream. 38. I. A man rows with the stream 10 km per hour and against the stream at 5 km per hour. II. Ratio of boat in still water to velocity of current is 3:1. 39. I. The speed of boat in still water is 20 kmph; it takes 1 hr to travel upstream. II. Ratio of time taken in upstream to downstream is 3:2. 40. I. The speed of current is 4kmph; it travels 6 km upstream and return back in 2 hrs. speed of boat is: II. The speed of boat in still water is 1 kmph; it travels 6 km downstream and returns back in 2 hrs.

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Direction: each of the questions below consists of a question and two statements numbered I and II given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both statements and give answer as (a). if the data in statement I is alone sufficient to answer the question (b). if the data in statement II is alone sufficient to answer the question (c). if the data in both the statements together is necessary to answer the question (d). if the data in either statements is sufficient to answer the question. (e). if the data in both the statements is not sufficient to answer the question. 41. What distance (in km) the boat can travel downstream in 36 minutes? I. The distance travelled by the boat in 40 minutes is equal to the distance travelled by the boat downstream in 24 minutes. II. The speed of the water current is 4 km/hr. 42. What is the speed of boat in still water? I. The boat covers a distance of 35 km in 5 hrs in downstream. II. The boat takes 7 hrs to cover the distance in upstream. 43. What is the speed of the boat in still water? I. The sum of the speeds of the boat, upstream and downstream is 12 kmph. II. The speed downstream of the boat is thrice the speed upstream. 44. A boat takes a total time of three hours to travel downstream from P to Q and upstream back from Q to P. what is the speed of the boat in still water? I. The speed of the river current is 1 kmph. II. The distance between P and Q is 4 km. 45. What is the speed of the stream? I. The distance travelled upstream in 2 hours by the boat is more than the distance travelled by it downstream in 1 hr by 4 km. II. The ratio of the speed upstream to the speed downstream of a boat is 2:3. 46. What is the ratio of speed of boat to stream? I. A man takes twice as long to row a distance against the stream as to row distance in favour of the stream. II. A man takes one- third times to row a distance in favour of stream as to row against the stream. 47. What is the ratio of time taken to row upstream to downstream? I. Ratio of speed of boat in still water to velocity of current is 5:4. II. Difference between speeds of boat to speed of current is 2 kmph. 48. What is the speed of boat in still water? I. Upstream speed is 4 kmph. II. Ratio of upstream speed to velocity of current is 1:2. 49. What is the percentage of upstream speed with respect to down stream speed? I. The speed of boat in still water is twice the speed of current. II. Ratio of speed of current to speed of boat is 2:1. 50. What is the speed of the boat in still water? I. In a to and fro journey between two points, the average speed of boat was 6 kmph. II. Upstream speed is 6 kmph.

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SOLUTION AND EXPLANATION OF BOAT AND STREAMS 1. (a) Downstream speed = 15kmph Upstream speed = 5 kmph Speed of boat = (downstream speed + upstream speed) / 2= (15+5)/2 = 10 kmph. 2. (b) Let up be speed of boat P in still water, uq be speed of boat Q in still water and vp be speed of current. According to the question, 80 80 + = 30 đ?‘˘đ?‘? − đ?‘Łđ?‘? đ?‘˘đ?‘? + đ?‘Łđ?‘? 80 80 + = 9 đ?‘˘đ?‘ž − đ?‘Łđ?‘? đ?‘˘đ?‘ž + đ?‘Łđ?‘? Also it is given uq=3up, vp = vq which is already used. Then by putting the values and solving both equation We get speed of boat Q, uq= 18 kmph 3. (d) Upstream speed = 28/2 kmph = 14 kmph, let downstream speed be x Ratio given is downstream speed/upstream speed = 9/7 đ?‘Ľ 9 = , đ?‘Ľ = 18 đ?‘˜đ?‘šđ?‘?đ?‘•. 14 7 đ?‘‘đ?‘œđ?‘¤đ?‘›đ?‘ đ?‘Ąđ?‘&#x;đ?‘’đ?‘Žđ?‘š đ?‘ đ?‘?đ?‘’đ?‘’đ?‘‘ − đ?‘˘đ?‘?đ?‘ đ?‘Ąđ?‘&#x;đ?‘’đ?‘Žđ?‘š đ?‘ đ?‘?đ?‘’đ?‘’đ?‘‘ 18 − 14 đ?‘ đ?‘?đ?‘’đ?‘’đ?‘‘ đ?‘œđ?‘“ đ?‘?đ?‘˘đ?‘&#x;đ?‘&#x;đ?‘’đ?‘›đ?‘Ą = = = 2 đ?‘˜đ?‘šđ?‘?đ?‘• 2 2 4. (a) Downstream speed = 1000/5*60 = 10/3 m/sec Upstream speed = 1000/10*60 = 5/3 m/sec Speed of boat = ½ *(10/3 + 5/3) = 2.5 m/sec 5. (b) Upstream speed = 30/2 = 15 kmph Downstream speed = 30/1/2 = 60 kmph 60+15 15 Ratio of speed of the boat to rate of stream = 60−15 = 9 6. (b) Speed of boat in still water = 36 kmph Time taken to go 56 km upstream = 1hr 45 mins = 1ž hrs Then upstream speed = 56/ (1ž) = 32 kmph We know that speed of boat in still water – rate of stream =upstream speed So we get the rate of stream = 36-32 = 4 kmph Then downstream speed = 36+4 kmph = 40 kmph Time taken to cover 56 km downstream = 56/40 =1 hrs 24 mins 7. (b) Speed of boat = 16 kmph Speed of stream = 5 kmph Downstream speed = 16+5 kmph = 21 kmph Time take to go 84 km downstream = 84/21 = 4 hours 8. (b) Let speed of boat = u and speed of stream = v www.ibpsguide.com | www.ibpsguide.in|mock.ibpsguide.in| www.sscexamguide.com CopyrightŠ 2016 IBPS Guide | For Queries contact – admin@ibpsguide.com Page-62

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Speed of boat in still water = u= 7½ kmph Upstream time = 2 * downstream time Or, upstream speed = ½ * downstream speed i.e. u-v = ½*(u+v) on solving we get u = 3v, also u= 7½ kmph Speed of stream = v = 5/2 kmph 9. (a) Upstream speed = 15/4 kmph and downstream speed = 27/4 kmph Speed of boat in still water = (15/4 + 27/4)/2 = 21/4 kmph 10. (c) Upstream speed = 750 meters/ 690 sec (23/2 *60) Downstream speed = 750 meters/ 450 sec (15/2 *60) 750

750

+

Speed of boat in still water = 690 2 450 = 1.38 đ?‘š/đ?‘ đ?‘’đ?‘? 11. (a) According to the question, Speed of boat = 14 kmph Speed of stream = 4 kmph Let the distance be x Therefore upstream speed = 14-4 = 10 kmph Downstream speed = 14+4 = 18 kmph Then we have, đ?‘Ľ 2

đ?‘Ľ

+ 18 = 19 đ?‘œđ?‘› đ?‘ đ?‘œđ?‘™đ?‘Łđ?‘–đ?‘›đ?‘” đ?‘¤đ?‘’ đ?‘”đ?‘’đ?‘Ą đ?‘Ľ = 180 đ?‘˜đ?‘š 12. (b) Time taken to row upstream = 8 hrs Time taken to row downstream = 2 hours Speed of stream = 2.5 m/sec Let distance travelled be x and speed of boat be u Then u+2.5 = x/2 and u-2.5 = x/8 On solving both equation, We have u = 15 m/sec and distance = 35 km 13. (c) According to the question, Let distance be x Then, x/15 + x/20 = 7 On solving we get x = 60 14. (a) Upstream speed = 5 kmph Downstream speed = 11 kmph Speed of boat = (11+ 5) /2 = 8 kmph 15. (d) Time take to row upstream (Tu) = 3 * time taken to row downstream (Td) Speed to row upstream = 1/3 * speed taken to row downstream. Given Tu + Td = 18 1/Su + 1/Sd = 18 Putting Su = 1/3 * Sd We have Sd = 4/ 18 kmph 10

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Su = 4/54 kmph Speed of stream = (Sd-Su)/2 = 2/27 kmph 16. (c) Upstream speed = 9km/hr Downstream speed = 12 km/hr Time taken = 4 hrs 12 mins Distance = 9*21/5 = 189/5 km 17. (c) Upstream speed = 15/5 = 3 kmph, downstream speed =35/5 = 7 kmph Speed of current = (7-3)/2 = 2 kmph 18. (d) Let speed of boat be y And distance be x đ?‘Ľ đ?‘Ľ 33 + = đ?‘Ś − 2 đ?‘Ś + 2 60 Also x = 6 km Then by solving the above equation, We have y = 22 kmph 19. (a) Let speed of boat = u and speed of stream be v According to the question 40 55 + = 13 đ?‘˘âˆ’đ?‘Ł đ?‘˘+đ?‘Ł 30 44 + = 10 đ?‘˘âˆ’đ?‘Ł đ?‘˘+đ?‘Ł Let 1/(u-v) be x and 1/(u+v) be y 40x + 55y = 13 and 30x + 44 y = 10 On solving we get x = 1/5 and y = 1/11 Then we get u = 8 kmph And v =3 kmph 20. (e) Speed of boat = (speed against the current + speed in favour of current)/2 = (16+14)/2 = 15 kmph Speed of current = (speed in favour of current _ speed against the current)/2 = (16-14)/2 = 1 kmph 21. (e) Downstream speed = 1/6 * 60 = 10 kmph Upstream speed = 1/10 * 60 = 6 kmph Speed of current = ½ *(10-6) = 2kmph 22. (b) Upstream speed = 16/2 = 8kmph Downstream speed = 16/1 = 16 kmph Speed of boat in still water =1/2 * (16+8) = 12 kmph Time taken to travel 32 km = 32/12 = 8/3 hours 23. (b) Time taken to row downstream = 3 hr 45 mins = 15/4 hrs Downstream speed = 15/15/4 = 4 kmph www.ibpsguide.com | www.ibpsguide.in|mock.ibpsguide.in| www.sscexamguide.com CopyrightŠ 2016 IBPS Guide | For Queries contact – admin@ibpsguide.com Page-64

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Similarly upstream speed = 2 kmph Ratio = 4+2/(4-2) = 6/2 = 3:1 24. (a) Speed of boat crew = 4/20*60 = 12 miles/hour Downstream speed = 4/16*60 = 15 miles/hr Speed of tide = 15-12 = 3 miles/hr Upstream speed = 12-3 = 9 miles/hour Time taken = 4/9 hours = 26 mins 40 sec 25. (b) Man‘s rate in still water = (10+5)/2 = 7.5 kmph 26. (c) 36 3 36 + = 10 + đ?‘Ł 2 10 − đ?‘Ł On solving we get v = 2kmph Speed of stream = 2 kmph 27. (a) According to the question, 12 12 + 6= đ?‘ˆ+đ?‘Ł đ?‘ˆâˆ’đ?‘Ł And 12 12 +1= 2đ?‘ˆ − đ?‘Ł 2đ?‘ˆ − đ?‘Ł By solving above equation, Then v = 8/3 miles/hr 28. (e) According to the question, đ?‘Ľ đ?‘Ľ + = 21 đ?‘˘âˆ’đ?‘Ł đ?‘˘+đ?‘Ł Where u = 14 kmph and v = 4 kmph Then we get x = 135 km 29. (e) Speed of boat = 7.5 kmph Speed of stream = 1.5 kmph đ?‘Ľ đ?‘Ľ 50 + = 9 6 60 Then x = 3 km 30. (d) Speed of boat in standing water = 9 kmph Speed of stream = 1.5 kmph Upstream speed = 7.5 kmph and downstream speed = 10.5 kmph 105 105 Time taken = 10.5 + 7.5 = 24 đ?‘•đ?‘œđ?‘˘đ?‘&#x;đ?‘ 31. (a) We have x/4 + x/6 = 1 www.ibpsguide.com | www.ibpsguide.in|mock.ibpsguide.in| www.sscexamguide.com CopyrightŠ 2016 IBPS Guide | For Queries contact – admin@ibpsguide.com Page-65

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x = 12/5 km= 2400 meters 32. (b) Let speed of boat be u and speed of stream be v Upstream time = 2 * downstream time Upstream speed = ½ * downstream speed Or, u-v= (u+v)/2 We get u/v = 3/1. 33. (a) Upstream speed = 250/ (11.5*60) Downstream speed = 250/ (9.5*60) Speed of boat in still water = (25/69 + 25/57)/2 = 0.4 m/sec 34. (d) 36−24 1 Ratio = 36+24 = 5 35. (a) 50 45 + = 13 đ?‘˘âˆ’đ?‘Ł đ?‘˘+đ?‘Ł 30 60 + = 13 đ?‘˘âˆ’đ?‘Ł đ?‘˘+đ?‘Ł Let 1/(u-v) be x and 1/(u+v) be y 50x + 45y = 13 and 30x + 60 y = 10 On solving we get x = 1/5 and y = 1/15 Then we get u = 10 kmph And v =5 kmph 36. (b) I. 24 36 + = 6 đ?‘˘âˆ’đ?‘Ł đ?‘˘+đ?‘Ł 36 24 + =6 đ?‘˘âˆ’đ?‘Ł đ?‘˘+đ?‘Ł Let 1/ (u-v) be x and 1/(u+v) be y 24x + 36y = 6 and 36x + 24y = 6 On solving we get x = 1/10 and y = 1/10 Then we get u = 10 kmph And v =0 kmph II. Velocity of current = 4 kmph So I<II 37. (b) I. Upstream speed /downstream speed = 4/7 II. Downstream speed = 15/ 3hrs 45m in = 4 kmph and upstream speed = 7/ 2 hrs 20 mins = 3 kmph Ratio = ž II>I 38. (c) I. Ratio can be calculated = (10+15)/(15-10) = 3/1 II. Ratio = 3/1 www.ibpsguide.com | www.ibpsguide.in|mock.ibpsguide.in| www.sscexamguide.com CopyrightŠ 2016 IBPS Guide | For Queries contact – admin@ibpsguide.com Page-66

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So I=II 39. (c) I. We cannot determine upstream speed as more data is required II. Ratio = 3:2 So data inadequate 40. (c) 6 6 I. + đ?‘Ľ+4 = 2 đ?‘Ľâˆ’4 đ?‘œđ?‘› đ?‘ đ?‘œđ?‘™đ?‘Łđ?‘–đ?‘›đ?‘” đ?‘¤đ?‘’ đ?‘”đ?‘’đ?‘Ą đ?‘Ľ = 2đ?‘˜đ?‘š/đ?‘• 6 6 II. + = 2 we are not able to determine the value of x 1−đ?‘Ľ

1+đ?‘Ľ

đ?‘ đ?‘œ đ?‘‘đ?‘Žđ?‘Ąđ?‘Ž đ?‘–đ?‘›đ?‘Žđ?‘‘đ?‘’đ?‘žđ?‘˘đ?‘Žđ?‘Ąđ?‘’ 41. (c) I. 40 * u = ( u+v) *24 Or, 2u = 3v II. Also v = 4 kmph By combining both statement we have u= 6 kmph 42. (c) I. Downstream speed = 35/5 = 7 kmph II. Upstream time = 7 hrs By combining both equation, We have speed of boat = (7+35/7)/2 = (7+5)/2 = 6 kmph 43. (a) I. Let the speed of boat be u Then, u+ (u+v) + (u-v) = 12, Then, u= 4 kmph II. (u+v) = 3(u-v) Only statement (a) is required to answer the question. 44. (c) I.

đ?‘Ľ đ?‘˘âˆ’1

+

� �+1

= 3

II. đ?‘Ľ = 4 đ?‘˜đ?‘š On combining both statement, Then u = 3 kmph 45. (b) I. Upstream distance in 2 hours is more than downstream distance in 1 hr by 4km II. (u-v)/(u+v) = 2/3 Then, u/v = 5/1, So speed = 5 kmph. 46. (c) I. Tu = 2 Td, Su=1/2 * Sd, u-v = ½*(u+v) u/v = 3/1 II. Tu = 3* Td, Su = 1/3 * Sd, u-v = 1/3*(u+v), 2/1. 47. (a) I. Speed of boat : velocity of current = 5:4, www.ibpsguide.com | www.ibpsguide.in|mock.ibpsguide.in| www.sscexamguide.com CopyrightŠ 2016 IBPS Guide | For Queries contact – admin@ibpsguide.com Page-67

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Upstream speed: downstream speed= 1/9 Upstream time/downstream time = 9:1 II. Speed of boat- speed of current = 2 kmph 48. (c) I. Upstream speed = 4 kmph II. Upstream speed / velocity of current = ½ Om combining both statement, speed of boat = 8+4 = 12 kmph 49. (d) I. Speed of boat = 2 * speed of current Then, Upstream speed / downstream speed = 1/3 II. Ratio is 2/1 III. Ratio can be calculated by using either statement. 50. (c) I. (Up + down)/2 =6 2đ?‘Ľ đ?‘Ľ đ?‘Ľ =6 + đ?‘˘đ?‘? đ?‘‘đ?‘œđ?‘¤đ?‘› Down speed = 6 kmph and II. upstream speed = 6kmph By combining both statement we have speed of boat = (6+6) /2 = 12/2 = 6 kmph

SIMPLIFICATION 1). What will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following questions? 4

(? )5 = 36

9 1

(? )5

a) 324

b) 342

c) 18

d) 361

e) 4

Directions (2-6): what will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following equations? 2). √2900 Ă— √498 ’ √251 = ? ’ 8 (a) 600 (b) 670 (c) 770 (d) 750 (e) 730 3). 56% of 450 + ? = 300 a) 52 b) 48

c) 42

d) 56

4). 271.5 Ă— 273.5 = 27? a) 5 b) 7

c) 3

d) 2

5). 27.06 Ă— 25 -? = 600 a) 76.3 b) 76.7

c) 76.5

d) 76.2

6). Ă—2= ? a) 12.5

c) 13

d) 14

b) 11

e) 11.25

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Directions (7 -11): what should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following questions? 7).

a) 7

b) 14

c) 14.26

8). 56% of 958 +67% of 1008 = ? % of 2000 a) 60.592 b) 47.622 c) 42.86

d) 15

e) None of these

d) 91.455

e) None of these

9). 72.3× 494.7× 633.4×815.85×63? a) 16.25 b) 15.1 c) 13.4

d) 18.9

e) None of these

10). (?)2 + (164)2 = (307)2 - 272 a) 151 b) 189 c) 211

d) 259

e) None of these

Directions ( Q. 11 -15): What Value should come in place of question mark (?) in the following questions? 11). (3 / 5) of (2 / 7) of (35 / 18) of ? = 405 a) 1375 b) 1275 c) 1285 d) 1215 12). 24 % of 6550 – 175 % of ? = 697 a) 500 b) 475

c)

e)

1325

675

d) 825

13). (1/7) of 254 of (1/8) = ? ÷ 21 a) 96(1 / 4) b) 95(1 / 7) c) 98(2 / 7) d) 96 (3 / 7) e) 14). (2892 ÷12) × 13 = ? % of 2410 a) 241 b) 342

c)

15). [(√(81 × 64) / (4.5)] × 18 = (?)2 - 153 a) 21 b) 23 c) 17

d) 19

975

e)

150

95(1 / 4)

230

d) 130

e)

e)

22

Directions (Q. 16 -20): What approximate value should come in place of question mark (?) in the following questions ? (Note: you are not expected to calculate the exact value.) 16). 799.99 ÷ 12.492 = ? – 323.469 a) 380 b) 382

c)

17). (√728.68 ’ 2.7)2 + 224 = (18)? a) 2 b) - 2 c) 4

d) – 5

18). (4429 ÷ 44.3) × 18.75 – 289.59 = ? a) 1485 b) 1585 c) 1425

d) 1685

e)

1365

19). (1 / 8) of 2768 + 2835.42 = ? - 297 a) 3528 b) 3478 c) 3472

d) 3078

e)

3178

388

d) 378

e)

372

e) - 4

20). 238.49 + 69 % of 791.213 = (?)2 www.ibpsguide.com | www.ibpsguide.in|mock.ibpsguide.in| www.sscexamguide.com Copyright© 2016 IBPS Guide | For Queries contact – admin@ibpsguide.com Page-69

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a)

27

b) 28

c)

30

d) 31

e)

29

Directions (Q. 21–25): What approximate value will come in place of question mark (?) in the given question? (you are not expected to calculate exact value). 21). 105.27 % of 1200.11 + 11.80% of 2360.85 = 21.99% of ? + 1420.99 a) 500 b) 240 c) 310 d) 550 22). 0.98% of 7824 + 4842 ÷ 119.46 - ? = 78 a) 30 b) 60 c) 40 d) 50

e)

70

23). (41.992 – 18.042) - ? = 13.112 – 138.99 a) 4004 b) 1200 c) 1720 d) 8432

e)

1410

24). 24.962 / (34.11 + 20.05) + 67.96 + 89.11 = ? a) 884 b) 546 c) 252

d) 424

25). √( 2025.11) ×√( 256.04) + √( 399.95) × √(?) = 33.98 × 40.11 a) 1682 b) 1024 c) 1582 d) 678 e)

e)

960

e)

170

1884

Directions(26-30): What approximate value should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following questions? (You are not expected to calculate the exact value.) 26). (24/9)2 × (399/39) ÷ (41/899) = ? a) 1600 b) 1650 c) 1700

d) 1550

27). – (4.99)3 + (29.98)2 – (3.01)4 = ? a) 550 b) 590

c)

28). [ (7.99)2 – (13.001)2 + (4.01)3 ]2 = ? a) -1800 b) 1450 c) -1660

d) 1660

e) -1450

29). √(675.001) + (4.005)3 = ? a) 17 b) 57 c)

d) 47

e)

27

30). √(727.99950) + (5.1961)2 = ? ÷ (2/10.7960) a) 53 b) 44 c) 5 d) 15

e)

10

43

31). (72)2 ÷ ∛(46650) = ? a) 169 b) 196 32). √(6148) – 4 × ? = 726 ÷ 11 a) 3 b) 5 c)

c)

7

33). √(5378) × √(3360) ’ √(360) = ? a) 200 b) 250

1750

620

d) 650

144

d) 9

c)

e)

300

e)

e)

690

d) 136

e)

124

d) 225

e) None of these

11

34). √(624.98) + √(729.25) = ? www.ibpsguide.com | www.ibpsguide.in|mock.ibpsguide.in| www.sscexamguide.com Copyright© 2016 IBPS Guide | For Queries contact – admin@ibpsguide.com Page-70

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a)

58

b) 56

c)

52

35). √(6550) ’ 3.005 × 4.99901 = ? a) 135 b) 142

d) 63

c)

e)

61

153

d) 128

e)

155

Directions(36-45): What approximate value should come in place of question mark (?) in the following questions? 36). (789.689÷25)% of 2160 = ?+180.892 a) 509 b) 502 c) 620 d) 590 e) 420 37). (17.85)2×6.05 + (43.02)2×7.49=? a) 15728 b) 18728 c) 16728

d) 14728

e)

12728

38). 67.485%of 6480-(2342.87÷65)=? a) 4070 b) 4270 c) 4770

d) 4370

e)

4170

39).68%of4096+17%298.878-1875=(?)2 a) 21 b) 541 c) 461

d) 31

40). (√3968.659)%of7300’149.569=?+2086 a) 2013 b) 2453 c) 2513 d) 2813

e)

2523

41). 1439’16×14.99+√228=? a) 1315 b) 1365 c)

d) 1465

e)

1265

42). (11.92)2+(16.01)2=?2×(3.85)2 a) 15 b) 2 c) 4

d) 55

e)

5

43). (19.97%of781)+?+(30%of87)=252 a) 40 b) 50 c) 25

d) 70

e)

80

44). 820.01÷21×2.99+?=240 a) 105 b) 173

c)

123

d) 234

e)

143

45).299÷12×13.95+?=(24.02)2 a) 285 b) 225

c)

325

d) 150

e)

185

1215

46). 92 × 576 ’ 2√1296 = (?)3 + √49 a) 3 b) (9)2 c) 9

d) 27

e)

331

e) None of these

47). (√8 × √8)(1/2) + (9)(1/2) = (?)3 + √8 – 340 a) 7 b) 19 c) 18 d) 9

e)

None of these

48). (15 × 0.40)4 ÷ (1080 ÷ 30)4 × (27 × 8)4 = (3 × 2)?+5 a) 8 b) 3 c) 12 d) 16

e)

None of these

49).

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a)

18

b) 16

c) 12

d) 15

e)

None of these

24

b) 25

c)

d) 22

e)

None of these

50).

a)

23

SOLUTION AND EXPLANATION OF SIMPLIFICATION Explanation: 1). (a) 4

(? )5 = 36

9 1

(? )5

? 4/5+1/5 = 324 ? = 324 2). (d)

3).(b) 56% of 450 + ? = 300

252 + ? = 300 ? = 300-252 = 48 4). (a)

?=5 5). (c) 27.06 ×25 – ? = 600 676.5 – ? = 600 ? = 676.5 – 600= 76.5 6). (e)

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7). (c)

8). (a) ? % of 2000 = 56% of 958+67% of 1008 ? × 2000 = 53648+67536 ? = = 60. 592 9). (b)

10). (b)

Answers: 11). d) 12). a) 13). e) 14). d) 15). a) 16). c) 17). a) 18). b) 19). b) 20). b) 11. (3 / 5) × (2 / 7) × (35 / 18) × ? = 405 Or, ? = [(405 × 5 × 7 ×18) / (3 × 2 × 35)] = 1215 Answer: d) www.ibpsguide.com | www.ibpsguide.in|mock.ibpsguide.in| www.sscexamguide.com Copyright© 2016 IBPS Guide | For Queries contact – admin@ibpsguide.com Page-73

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12. 24 % of 6550 – 175 % of ? = 697 Or, [(24 × 6550) / 100 ] – [175 × ?/ 100] = 697 or, [(1572 - 697) × 100] / 175 = ? :. ? = (87500 / 175) = 500 Answer: a) 13. 254 × (1 / 7) × (1 / 8) = ? ÷ 21 Or, ? = [(254 × 21) / 56] = 95 (1 / 4) Answer: e) 14. [(? × 2410) / 100] = (2892 ÷ 12 ) × 13 = 241 × 13 = 3133 :.? = [(3133 × 1000) / 2410] = 130 Answer: d) 15. [(√(81 × 64) ’ (4.5))] × 18 = (?)2 – 153 Or, (9 × 8 ÷ 4.5) × 18 = (?)2 - 153 Or, 16 × 18 + 153 = (?)2 :. ? = √(288 + 153) = √441 = 21 Answer: a) 16. ? – 323.5 ≈ 800 ’ 12.5 Or, ? ≈ 64 + 323.5 = 387.5 ≈ 388 Answer: c) 17. (18)? ≈ (27 ’ 2.7)2 + 224 =100 + 224 = 324 ≈ (18)2 Or, (18)? ≈ 182 :. ? ≈ 2 Answer: a) 18. ? ≈ (4430 ’ 44. 3) × 18.75 – 290 =100 × 18.75 – 290 = 1875 – 290 = 1585 Answer: b) 19. ? – 297 = (1/8) × 2768 + 2835.42 ≈ 346 + 2835 = 3181 :. ? = 3181 + 297 = 3478 Answer: b) 20. (?)2 ≈ 69 % of 791 + 238.5 = [(69 * 791) / 100] + 238.5 = 546 + 238.5 = 784.5 ≈ 784 :. ? = √784 = 28 Answer: b) Answers: 21). d) 22). c) 23). e) 24). e) 25). b) www.ibpsguide.com | www.ibpsguide.in|mock.ibpsguide.in| www.sscexamguide.com Copyright© 2016 IBPS Guide | For Queries contact – admin@ibpsguide.com Page-74

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21). 105.27% of 1200.11+ 11.08% of 2360.85 = 21.99% of ? + 1420.99 => 105% of 1200 + 12% of 2360 = 22% of ? + 1421 => 1260 + 2832 = 022 × ? + 1421 => 022 × ? = 122.2 => ? = (122.2 / 0.22) = 555.45 ≈ 550 Answer: d) 22). 0.98% Of 7824 + 4842 ÷ 119.46 - ? = 78 => 1% Of 7824 + 4842 ÷ 126 - 78 =? => ? = 7824 + 40.35 – 78 = 40.59 ≈ 40 Answer: c) 23). (41.992 – 18.042) - ? = 13.112 – 138.99 => (422 – 182) - ? = 132 – 139 => {( 42 + 18) ( 42 - 18)} - ? = 169 – 139 => {60 × 24} - ? = 30 => 1440 - ? = 30 => ? = 1410 Answer: e) 24). 24.962 / (34.11 + 20.05) + 67.96 + 89.11 = ? = (252 / 54.16) + 67.96 + 89.11 = (625 / 54) + 67.96 + 89.11 = 11.5 + 68 + 89 = 168.5 ≈ 170 Answer: e) 25). √( 2025.11) ×√(256.04) + √(399.95) ×√(?) = 33.98 × 40.11 =>√(2025) ×√(256) + √(400) ×√(?) = 34 × 40 => 45 × 16 + 20 ×√(?) = 34 × 40 => 720 + 20 × √(?) = 1360 => 20 × √(?) = 1360 – 720 => 20 ×√( ?) = 640 ? = (32)2 = 1024 Answer: b) Answers: 26).a) 27).e)

28).d)

29).c)

30).e)

31).c)

32).a)

33).d)

34).c)

35).a)

26). ?= (24/9)2 × (399/39) ÷ (41/899) => ? = (24/9)2 × (399/39) × (899/41) => ?= 7.11 × 10.23 × 21.92 => ? = 1594.35 = 1550 (approx.) Answer: a) 27). ?= -(4.99)3 + (29.98)2 – (3.01)4 => ? = - (5)3 + (30)2 – (3)4 => ? = - 125 + 900 – 81 => ?= 900 – 206 => ?= 694 => ?= 690 (approx.) Answer: e) www.ibpsguide.com | www.ibpsguide.in|mock.ibpsguide.in| www.sscexamguide.com Copyright© 2016 IBPS Guide | For Queries contact – admin@ibpsguide.com Page-75

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28). [(7.99)2 – (13.001)2 + (4.01)3]2 =>[ (8)2 – (13)2 + (4)3 ]2 = ? =>[ 64 – 169 + 64 ]2 = ? => (-41)2 = ? :. ? = 1681 (:. – x- => +) ≈1660 Answer: d) 29). √(675.001) + (4.005)3 = ? => ? ≈ √(26×26) + (4)3 = 26 + 64 = 90 Answer: c) 30). √(727.9995) + (5.1961)2 = ? ÷ (2/10.7960) => √729 + 52≈ ? ’ (2/11) => 27 + 25 = ? ÷ (2/11) => 52 × (2/11) = ? ≈ 10 Answer: e) 31). ? = (72)2 ÷ ∛(46650) ∛(46650) ≈ ∛(36×36×36) ≈ 36 => ? = [(72×72)/36] = 144 Answer: c) 32). √(6148) – 4 × ? = 726 ÷ 11

:. √6148 ≈ 78 => 78 – 4 × ? = (726/11) = 66 => [(78-66)/4] = ? ? ≈ 3 Answer: a) 33). ? ≈ √[(5400×6400)/360] = 225 Answer: d) 34). ?= √625 + √729 = 25 + 27 = 52 Answer: c) 35). √6550 + 3.005 × 4.9901 = ? www.ibpsguide.com | www.ibpsguide.in|mock.ibpsguide.in| www.sscexamguide.com Copyright© 2016 IBPS Guide | For Queries contact – admin@ibpsguide.com Page-76

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√6550 ≈ √(81×81) ≈ 81 Now, 81 + 3 × 5 ≈ [(81 ×5)/3] ≈ 135 Answer: a) Answers: 36).b) 37).c) 38).d) 39).d) 40).c) 41).b) 42).e) 43).d) 44).c) 45).b) 36. ? + 180.892 = (789.689 ’ 25)% of 2160 ≈ (790 ’ 25)% of 2160 = [(31.6 × 2160) / 100] = 682.56 ≈ 683 Or, ? ≈ 683 – 181 = 502 Answer: b) 37. ? = (17.85)2 × 6.05 + (43.02)2 × 7.99 ≈ 320 × 6.05 + 1849 × 8 = 1936 + 14792 = 16728 Answer: c) 38. ? ≈ 68% of 6480 – (2342 ÷ 65) ≈ 4406.4 – 36 ≈ 4370 Answer: d) 39. (?)2 ≈ 68% of 4096 + 17% of 298.878 – 1875 ≈ 2785 + [(17 × 300) / 100] – 1875 = 2785 + 51 – 1875 = 961 :. ? = √(31 × 31) = 31 Answer: d) 40. ? + 2086 = (√3968.659)% of 7300 ≈ [(63 × 7300) / 100] = 4599 :. ? ≈ 4599 – 2513 Answer: c) 41. 1439 ’ 16 × 14.99 + √(228) ≈ 1440 ’ 16 × 15 + 15 = 90 × 15 + 15 = 1350 + 15 = 1365 Answer: b) 42. ?2 × (3.85)2 = (11.92)2 + (16.01)2 ≈ (12)2 + (16)2 = 144 + 256 = 400 Or, ?2 × 16 ≈ 400 Or, ?2 ≈ (16 / 400) = 25 :. ? ≈ √(5 × 5) = 5 Answer: e) 43. (19.97% of 781) + ? + (30% of 87) = 252 Or, [(20 × 780) / 100] + ? + [(30 × 87) / 100] ≈ 252 Or, ? ≈ 252 – 156 – 26 = 70 Answer: d) 44. 820 ’ 21 × 3 + ? ≈ 240 www.ibpsguide.com | www.ibpsguide.in|mock.ibpsguide.in| www.sscexamguide.com Copyright© 2016 IBPS Guide | For Queries contact – admin@ibpsguide.com Page-77

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Or, 39 × 3 + ? ≈ 240 Or, ? ≈ 240 – 117 = 123 Answer: c) 45. ? ≈ (24.02)2 – 299 ÷ 12 × 13.95 ≈ 576 – 25 × 14 = 576 – 350 = 226 ≈ 225 Answer: b) Answers: 36).b) 37).c) 38).d) 39).d) 40).c) 41).b) 42).e) 43).d) 44).c) 45).b) 36. ? + 180.892 = (789.689 ’ 25)% of 2160 ≈ (790 ’ 25)% of 2160 = [(31.6 × 2160) / 100] = 682.56 ≈ 683 Or, ? ≈ 683 – 181 = 502 Answer: b) 37. ? = (17.85)2 × 6.05 + (43.02)2 × 7.99 ≈ 320 × 6.05 + 1849 × 8 = 1936 + 14792 = 16728 Answer: c) 38. ? ≈ 68% of 6480 – (2342 ÷ 65) ≈ 4406.4 – 36 ≈ 4370 Answer: d) 39. (?)2 ≈ 68% of 4096 + 17% of 298.878 – 1875 ≈ 2785 + [(17 × 300) / 100] – 1875 = 2785 + 51 – 1875 = 961 :. ? = √(31 × 31) = 31 Answer: d) 40. ? + 2086 = (√3968.659)% of 7300 ≈ [(63 × 7300) / 100] = 4599 :. ? ≈ 4599 – 2513 Answer: c) 41. 1439 ’ 16 × 14.99 + √(228) ≈ 1440 ’ 16 × 15 + 15 = 90 × 15 + 15 = 1350 + 15 = 1365 Answer: b) 42. ?2 × (3.85)2 = (11.92)2 + (16.01)2 ≈ (12)2 + (16)2 = 144 + 256 = 400 Or, ?2 × 16 ≈ 400 Or, ?2 ≈ (16 / 400) = 25 :. ? ≈ √(5 × 5) = 5 Answer: e) 43. (19.97% of 781) + ? + (30% of 87) = 252 Or, [(20 × 780) / 100] + ? + [(30 × 87) / 100] ≈ 252 www.ibpsguide.com | www.ibpsguide.in|mock.ibpsguide.in| www.sscexamguide.com Copyright© 2016 IBPS Guide | For Queries contact – admin@ibpsguide.com Page-78

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Or, ? ≈ 252 – 156 – 26 = 70 Answer: d) 44. 820 ’ 21 × 3 + ? ≈ 240 Or, 39 × 3 + ? ≈ 240 Or, ? ≈ 240 – 117 = 123 Answer: c) 45. ? ≈ (24.02)2 – 299 ÷ 12 × 13.95 ≈ 576 – 25 × 14 = 576 – 350 = 226 ≈ 225 Answer: b) Answers: 46). c) 47). a) 48). b) 49). d) 50). b) 46). (?)3 + √49 = 92 × 876 ’ 2√1296 (?)3 + 7 = 92 × 576 ÷ 2 × 36 (?)3 + 7 = 92 × 576 ÷ 72 (?)3 + 7 = 92 × 8 (?)3 + 7 = 736 (?)3 = 736-7 = 729 = ∛729 ?=9 Answer: c) 47). (?)3 (?)3 (?)3

(?)3 + √8 – 340 = (√8 × √8)(1/2) + (9)(1/2) + √8 – 340 = √8 + 3 = √8 + 3 - √8 + 340 = 343

? = ∛343 ?=7 Answer: a) 48). (3 × 2)? + 5 = (15 × 0.40)4 ÷ (1080 ÷ 30)4 × (27 × 8)4 (3 × 2)? + 5 = (6)4 ÷ (36)4 × (216)4 (6)?+5= (6)4 ÷ (62)4 ×(63)4 (6)?+5= (6)-4 × (6)12 ?+5=8 ?=8–5=3 Answer: b) 49).

Answer: d) www.ibpsguide.com | www.ibpsguide.in|mock.ibpsguide.in| www.sscexamguide.com Copyright© 2016 IBPS Guide | For Queries contact – admin@ibpsguide.com Page-79

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50). 34 / 17 = ?/12.5 ? = 25 Answer: b)

PROBLEMS ON PERCENTAGES 1. An entry fee in a fair is Re. 1. Later, this was increased by 20% which decreases the sale by 25%. The percentage decrease in the number of visitors is? (a) 35% (b) 62.5% (c) 45% (d) 37.5 (e) NOT 2. A‘s average expenditure is 140% of sum of average savings of B and C both, if total saving of C is double of B and A‘s average income to average saving ratio is 5/3 and saving of A is 36000 in a year, then what is total saving of B? (a) 1000 (b) 1200 (c) 1500 (d) 2000 (e) NOT 3. Peter earned 50% more than sum of Ravi and Rajesh whereas Rajesh earnings are one third of that of peter. What is the percentage earning of Ravi more than Rajesh? (a) 10% (b) 15% (c) 50% (d) 0% (e) 100% 4. In a fraction the numerator is 5 more than denominator and the sum of two numbers is 20% more than difference of two numbers. By what percentage numerator is greater than denominator? (a) 200% (b) 500% (c) 1100% (d) 1000% (e) 100% 5. Two peoples P and Q invest their savings in the ratio of 4/9, by what percent P‘s investment is less than the sum of their saving? (a) 25% (b) 45% (c) 35% (d) data inadequate (e) NOT 6. In year 2013, the number of students in school A was half that of in school B. In the year 2014, the number of students was more than that in previous year by 20% in each of the schools. In the year 2015, the number of students in school A was one-fourth of the sum of those in schools A and B together in the year 2014. The number of students in the school A in the year 2015 was what percent less than that in the year 2014? (a) 20% (b) 10% (c) 25% (d) 46% (e) 0% 7. The population of a town grows at the rate of 20% in every 6 years. In how many years it will double itself? (a) 5 (b) 6 (c) 4 (d) data inadequate (e) NOT 8. A man invests equal sums in 6% and 8% stock, and gets 10% for his money. The 6% stock is at Rs. 60. What is the sum in which he purchased the 8% stock? (a) 80 (b) 50 (c) 60 (d) 70 (e) None 9. In an election, A wins over B by a margin of 280 votes, which is 14% of total number of votes. If 1% votes are invalid, how many votes were valid? (a) 2000 (b) 1890 (c) 1450 (d) 1790 (e) 1980 10. A uniform cylindrical tank is initially filled to 40 % of its capacity. The radius of the base of the tank is increased by 15%. By what percentage (approx.) of the height of the tank does the level of water fall? www.ibpsguide.com | www.ibpsguide.in|mock.ibpsguide.in| www.sscexamguide.com Copyright© 2016 IBPS Guide | For Queries contact – admin@ibpsguide.com Page-80

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(a) 5%

(b) 10%

(c) data inadequate

(d) 9%

(e) NOT

11. A gave 10% salary to mother. Out of remaining half in insurance and PPF in the ratio 5: 7. If total of what he gave to mother and what invested in PPF is 10,400. Find A‘s salary? (a) 28000 (b) 30000 (c) 28690 (d) 30500 (e) NOT 12. Mohan invests 21% of her monthly salary, i.e., Rs.9996 in Fixed Deposits. Later he invests 27% of her monthly salary on Life Insurance Policies; also he invests another 9% of his monthly income on Mutual Funds. What is the total annual amount invested by Mohan? (a) 22500 (b) 22372 (c) 22547 (d) 21000 (e) 24000 13. Meera‘s English test consist of 75 questions from three sections- i.e. A, B and C. 20 questions from section A, 15 questions from section B and 40 question from section C. Although, she answered 80% of section A, 60% of section B and45% of section C correctly. She did not pass the test because she got less than 60% of the total marks. How many more questions she would have to answer correctly to earn 60% of the marks which is passing grade? (a) 4 (b) 1 (c) 5 (d) 2 (e) NOT 14. 450 chocolates were distributed equally among children in such a way that the number of chocolates received by each child is 20% of that of total number of children. How many chocolates did each child receive if 10% of chocolates are taken back by teacher? (a) 10 (b) 45 (c) 15 (d) 5 (e) 9 15. In 2014, the population of village X was 20% more than the population of village Y. the population of X in 2015 increased by 10% as compared to the previous year. If the population of village X in 2015 was 5610. What was the population of village Y in 2014? (a) 4000 (b) 5008 (c) 4300 (d) 4250 (e) NOT 16. In 2010, the total monthly salary of Kailash and Deepak together was Rs. 30000. In 2011, monthly salary of both increased by 15% and 20% respectively from previous year. After the given increment, Kailash salary becomes 75% of Deepak‘s salary. What was Kailash salary in 2010? (a) 13171 (b) 15000 (c) 16731 (d) 5400 (e) 10020 17. Ram gave 25% of salary to Rakesh. From the money Rakesh received, he spent 20% on buying stationary and books and 35% on clothes. After the mentioned expenses, he was left with Rs. 2700, and then what is the sum of 65% of ram and the money Rakesh received? (a) 15600 (b) 6000 (c) 14000 (d) 21000 (e) 21600 18. A shopkeeper sold an article at 20% discount and earned a profit of 4%. By what percent the marked price of the article more than the cost price? (a) 40% (b) 30% (c) 45% (d) 50% (e) NOT 19. Akash scored 73 marks in subject B. he scored 56% marks in subject X and Y marks in subject C. Maximum marks in each subject were 150. The overall percentage marks obtained by his brother is what percent, if it is known that he has 4% more than his brother? (a) 56% (b) 45% (c) Data inadequate (d) 35% (e) 76%

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20. Mr. Gagan spends 50% of his monthly income on household items and out of the remaining he spends 50% on transport, 25% on entertainment, 10 % on sports and remaining amount is Rs. 900 is saved. What is the percent of saved amount with respect to entertainment? (a) 60% (b) 50% (c) 70% (d) 105% (e) 10% 21. A man purchased a plot of Rs. 729000 and constructed a building over it of cost Rs. 1331000. If the cost of plot is increases by 10% per year and the cost of building is decreased by 10 % per year. Then find after how many years the cost of both plot and building become the same? (a) 1 (b) 3 (c) 3/2 (d) 4 (e) 5 22. 300gm of sugar solution contains 40% sugar. How much sugar is mixed into it such that new solution consist 50% sugar? (a) 40 gm (b) 30 gm (c) 60 gm (d) 10 gm (e) NOT 23. When the price of eggs is decreased by 35% then a person can purchase 4 dozen more eggs in Rs. 152. What is the difference between the initial price and reduced price per dozen of the eggs? (a) 113/6 (b) 266/131 (c) 133/10 (d) 560/93 (e) 939/130 24. In a recent survey, 40% houses contained two or more people. Of those houses containing only one person, 25% were having only a male. What is the percentage of all houses, which contain exactly one female and no males? (a) 45% (b) 20% (c) 30% (d) 40% (e) 10% 25. In a restaurant, 50% had vegetarian lunch while 40% had non-vegetarian lunch and 30% had both types of lunch. If 110 people were present, how many did not eat either type of lunch? (a) 55 (b) 44 (c) 66 (d) 77 (e) 10 26. A car travel at a speed 40% more than a bike, if the bike had travel 10 km in 10 minutes, then its speed will be what percent of car? (a) 300/7 % (b) 700/9% (c) 550/7% (d) 560/9% (e) 500/7% 27. What percentage of numbers from 1 to 80 have squares that end in the digit 4? (a) 75% (b) 25% (c) cannot be determined (d) 0%

(e) 20%

28. The sum of two numbers is 40% of sum of third and fourth number, by what percent is the average of third and fourth number is greater than average of first and second number? (a) 60% (b) 40% (c) 50% (d) 75% (e) 100% 29. A uniform cylindrical tank is initially filled to 60 % of its capacity. The radius of the base of the tank is increased by 5%. By what percentage (approx.) of the height of the tank does the level of water fall? (a) 9% (b) 10% (c) 12% (d) 6% (e) 11% 30. A‘s weight is 120% more than E and 20% less than D. by how much percent D‘s weight is greater than E? (a) 100% (b) 150% (c) 200% (d) 10% (e) NOT 31. A lab assistant notice that .08% of solution is curbed so he removed it from the container. How many will he notice to remove 2ml of solution? (a) 250ml (b) 2.5 ml (c) 250 liters (d) 2.5 liters (e) 25 liters www.ibpsguide.com | www.ibpsguide.in|mock.ibpsguide.in| www.sscexamguide.com Copyright© 2016 IBPS Guide | For Queries contact – admin@ibpsguide.com Page-82

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32. A batsman score 130 runs which include 4 sixes and 5 fours, what is the difference between the percentages of total runs he made while running between the wickets and sixes? (a) 45% (b) 57% (c) 29% (d) 50% (e) 48% 33. The length, breadth and height of a room is in the ratio of 7:9:3, if the builder increase each quantity by 5% then the percentage increase in the cost of painting the room will be if it known that total cost of initial measurement was Rs. 15000? (a) 10% (b) data inadequate (c) 6% (d) 9% (e) NOT 34. The height of Fatima is 40 % less than Damini, and Damini is 45% more than average height of Suman and Fatima. Calculate the difference in percentage of height of Damini with respect to other girls? (a) 70% of Damini‘s height (b) 10% of Damini height (c) 55% of Damini‘s height (d) 78% of Damini‘s height (e) none of these (NOT) 35. A man invest 20% of his monthly income in mutual funds, 15% of remaining to other two schemes, also his monthly expense is one-third of what he invest in mutual funds, how much percent is saving of the man in a month? (a) 42% (b) 52% (c) 12% (d) 22% (e) 14% 36. If cost of wheat increase to Rs. 18 from Rs. 16 per kg, then by how much percentage a family reduces his consumption to maintain the same cost? (a) 80% (b) 60% (c) 20% (d) 70% (e) not 37. If income tax is reduced by 23%, the net income increase by 2%, what is the rate of income tax? (a) 4% (b) 5% (c) 2% (d) 10% (e) 8% 38. A sum is divided between A and B in the ratio of 1:2. A purchased a car from his part, which depreciates 14*2/7% per annum and B, deposited his amount in a bank, which pays him 20% interest per annum compounded annually. By what percentage will the total sum of money increase after two years due to this investment pattern (approximately)? (a) 21% (b) 20% (c) 15% (d) 29% (e) 23% 39. A class consists of three departments in which 50, 60 & 70 students are enrolled. If 10%, 20% & 10% are declared passed, and then find the total % of failed students? (a) 68.33% (b) 57.97% (c) 78.67% (d) 86.67% (e) 90% 40. The radius and circumference of a circle is in ratio 7:9, there is increase in radius and area of the circle by 50% both, what is the percentage of circumference is of to area of circle? (a) 50% (b) 25% (c) cannot be determined (d) 60% (e) NOT Directions (41-50): Each question below is followed by two statements I and II. You are to determine whether the data given in the statement is sufficient to answer the question. You should use the data and your knowledge of Mathematics to choose between the possible answers. Give answer— (a) If the question can be answered by using statement I alone but cannot be answered by statement II alone. (b) If the question can be answered by using statement II alone but cannot be answered by statement I alone. (c) If both statements I and II together are required to answer the question. (d) If the answer can be found by using any of the two statements alone. (e) If both the statements together are not sufficient to answer the question. www.ibpsguide.com | www.ibpsguide.in|mock.ibpsguide.in| www.sscexamguide.com Copyright© 2016 IBPS Guide | For Queries contact – admin@ibpsguide.com Page-83

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41. The original quantity is: I. In some quantity, 60% is alcohol and 40% water. II. If 10 liters of pure alcohol is added, the strength of water is 20%. 42. How many boys play both football and hockey? I. There are 600 boys in hostel. II. 75% boys play hockey and 45% play football 43. Find the percentage change in tax collection? I. Water tax is increased by 20% and consumption decreased by 20%. II. Water tax is increased by 10%. 44. How many bags are made in March? I. The production of bags gets reduced by 10% from month of February. II. There are total 2000 bags in January. 45. What percentage of people watches neither two channels A and B? I. 40% of the people watch channel A and 50% watches channel B. and 10% of people watches both channel. II. 45% of the people watch channel B and 50% watches channel A. and 5% of people watches both channel. 46. What percentage of science student passes the exam? I. There are total 150 boys and 100 girls in the class. II. Ratio between the passed boys in geography to science is 7:9. 47. 56% of A is what percentage of B? I. A is 2.5 times of C II. C is 6 times of B. 48. By what percentage the areas of a trapezium decrease? I. The difference between the two parallel side increases by 1 %. II. The area is 3/5 times of previous area. 49. Find the number of valid votes obtained by other candidate? I. 7500 total votes are polled between two candidates; among them 20% votes are declared invalid, and also one candidate get 55% vote. II. 8000 total votes are polled and the ratio of valid votes between candidates is 3/7. 50. 45% of 56% of D is E which is average of 25% of C and A. calculate A? I. D is half of C II. A is double of D

SOLUTION AND EXPLANATION OF PROBLEMS ON PERCENTAGES 1. (d) Let total sale be 100 units, original visitor be 100. Reduced visitor = 100*100/120, % decrease in number of visitor = 100-75/1.2 = 37.5%. 2. (d) Let Ea be average expenditure of A and Sb & Sc be total savings of B & C. Then Ea/12 = 140% * (Sb/12 +Sc/12) Also Sb =Sc/2, and Ia/Sa = 5/3. On solving we get Sb = 2000. www.ibpsguide.com | www.ibpsguide.in|mock.ibpsguide.in| www.sscexamguide.com CopyrightŠ 2016 IBPS Guide | For Queries contact – admin@ibpsguide.com Page-84

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3. (e) Peter = 150/100 * (Ravi + Rajesh), Rajesh =1/3 * peter. On solving we get earnings of Ravi is same as Rajesh. I.e. 100%. 4. (c) Let the fraction be X/Y. X = Y+5, X + Y = 120% of (X-Y). On solving we get X= 5.5 & Y= 0.5, percentage = 1100% 5. (d) Ratio between savings of P and Q is 4:9, more data is need to answer the question, so data inadequate 6. (c) In 2013, A = B/2 In 2014, A & B becomes 1.2 times the value in 2013. In 2015 A = Âź *(A+ B) in 2014. So A = 9/20 B %= (3/5-9/20)*100*5/3 7. (c) Let the population be P and x be number of years P (1+20/100) ^x= 2P 1.2^x=2 Therefore x is approximately = 2 8. (c) Let the investment be x 6x/60+8x/y= .1*2x Then y = 80. 9. (e) Valid votes = 280*100*90/ (2000*100)= 1980. 10. (b) The tank is filled to 40% of capacity, so let height of the tank be h= 0.4h. Also radius increases to 15%, new radius is r= 1.15r. đ?œ‹ ∗ đ?‘&#x; 2 ∗ (0.4đ?‘•) = đ?œ‹ ∗ 1.15đ?‘&#x; 2 ∗ đ?‘•â€˛ 0.4 đ?‘•â€˛ = 1.3225 0.4 % height of tank is 0.4 − 1.3225 ∗ 100 ≅ 10% 11. (c) A‘s salary = 10400*400/145= 28690(approx.) 12. (b) Mohan monthly salary is (9996*100)/21 = 47600, Total annual amount invested by Mohan is 21 + 27 + 9 % ∗ 47600 = đ?‘…đ?‘†. 27132. 13. (d) www.ibpsguide.com | www.ibpsguide.in|mock.ibpsguide.in| www.sscexamguide.com CopyrightŠ 2016 IBPS Guide | For Queries contact – admin@ibpsguide.com Page-85

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Let x be the mark that Meera get on attempting the question correctly. (0.8 ∗ 20 + 0.6 ∗ 15 + .45 ∗ 40)đ?‘Ľ = 43đ?‘Ľ Since 43x < 0.6*75x There Meera should attempt 2 more questions to pass the test 14. (e) Total distributed chocolate is 0.9 * 450 = 405 Let no. of children be x 405/x=20%x Then, x=45 15. (d) 5610 ∗100∗100 The population of village Y in 2014 = 110∗120 = 4250 16. (a) In 2010, Kailash + Deepak = 30000 In 2011, after increment, Kailash‘s salary = 75% of Deepak‘s salary 115/110 K = 75% * 120/100 D=> K = 90/115 D Kailash salary in 2010 =

30000 ∗115∗90 205∗115

≅ 13171

17. (e) 65 Total amount = 6000 ∗ 25 + 6000 = 21600 18. (b) 80%đ?‘œđ?‘“ đ?‘šđ?‘Žđ?‘&#x;đ?‘˜đ?‘’đ?‘‘ đ?‘?đ?‘&#x;đ?‘–đ?‘?đ?‘’ − đ?‘?đ?‘œđ?‘ đ?‘Ą đ?‘?đ?‘&#x;đ?‘–đ?‘?đ?‘’ = 4% đ?‘?đ?‘œđ?‘ đ?‘Ą đ?‘?đ?‘&#x;đ?‘–đ?‘?đ?‘’ Marked price = 1.3 * cost price Marked price is 0.3*100 = 30% of cost price 19. (c) 73 + 84 + đ?‘Ľ 157 + đ?‘Ľ ∗ 100 = ∗ 100 450 450 No more data is given by which x can be found. 20. (a) Let x be the monthly income of Gagan Then, 15*50*x= 900*100*100 X = 12000 % of saved amount with respect to entertainment = 900/12.5%*12000 = 3/5 *100 = 60% 21. (b) According to the question, 10 đ?‘Ľ 10 729000 1 + = 1331000 1 − 100 100

đ?‘Ľ

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11 đ?‘Ľ 11 = 9 9 Then, x = 3

3

22. (c) 40% đ?‘œđ?‘“ 300+đ?‘Ľ Ratio of sugar and water in new solution is 60%đ?‘œđ?‘“ 300 = 1/1 đ?‘Ľ = 60 đ?‘”đ?‘šđ?‘ of sugar should be mixed. 23. (e) Reduced price per kg = 35% * 152/4= 133/10 Initial price pre kg = (133/10 *100)/65=266/13 Difference in price is 133/10 – 266/13= 939/130 24. (a) Let the no. of house be x Houses having one female = (100-25) % *(100-40) % *x=9/20x 9đ?‘Ľ 20 ∗ 100 = 45% đ?‘Ľ 25. (b) It is given n (A) = 50% *110 (vegetarian lunch) And n (B) = 40% * 110 (non vegetarian lunch) đ?‘› đ??´ ∊ đ??ľ = 30% ∗ 110 (both type of vegetarian lunch) So đ?‘› đ??´ âˆŞ đ??ľ = đ?‘› đ??´ + đ?‘› đ??ľ − đ?‘› đ??´ ∊ đ??ľ = 66 No. of people not eating either type of lunch is 110-66=44 26. (a) Speed of bike /speed of car = 60/140 *100=300/7 % 27. (b) Only two numbers are their in the range having 4 in unit place so, 2/8*100=25% 28. (c) (a+b) = 40% * (c+d) Required % = (a+b)/(c+d) * 100 = 50% 29. (d) The tank is filled to 60% of capacity, so let height of the tank be h= 0.6h. Also radius increases to 5%, new radius is r= 1.05r. đ?œ‹ ∗ đ?‘&#x; 2 ∗ (0.6đ?‘•) = đ?œ‹ ∗ 1.05đ?‘&#x; 2 ∗ đ?‘•â€˛ 0.6 đ?‘•â€˛ = 1.1025 0.6 % height of tank is 0.6 − 1.1025 ∗ 100 ≅ 6% 30. (b) A= 120%E A = 80% D D/E*100 120/80 *100 = 150% www.ibpsguide.com | www.ibpsguide.in|mock.ibpsguide.in| www.sscexamguide.com CopyrightŠ 2016 IBPS Guide | For Queries contact – admin@ibpsguide.com Page-87

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31. (d) 0.08% *x = 2ml Then x= 2500 ml=2.5 liters 32. (e) Total runs made by batsman by running between the wickets = 130-(4*6 + 5*4)=86 Required % = (86-24)/130 *100=620/13% 33. (b) Length, breadth and height are in the ratio of 7:9:13 5% increase in each quantity take place Then the ratio remains same From the given data, it is not cleared about the cost of painting the wall per square cms. So we cannot get the increase percentage of cost of painting. 34. (e) Fatima‘s height= 60% Damini‘s height Also, Damini‘s height = 145 %*( suman height + 60% Damini‘s height) Then the difference in percentage of height of Damini with respect to other girls = (138-100) %= 38% 35. (a) Total money invested in a month is 58% of monthly income Therefore total saving is (100-58) %=42% 36. (c) Percentage increase in cost of wheat is 25% % decrease in consumption = 25/125 * 100 %. 37. (e) Let income be 100 Then income tax be x% Net income in month = 100-x 23% of x=2 %( 100-x) Then x= 8% 38. (b) Let the sum distributed be 300 A=100 and B = 200 Value of the car after 2 years = 100(1- 100/7/100) ^2=100*6/7*6/7= 73(approx.) Interest % = 20% B‘ amount after 2 year = 200(1+20/100) ^2=288 Increase in value = 73+288-300=61 39. (d) Total student passed in all department together = 24 Total failed student = 180-24=156 Failed percentage = 156/180 * 100 = 86.67% www.ibpsguide.com | www.ibpsguide.in|mock.ibpsguide.in| www.sscexamguide.com Copyright© 2016 IBPS Guide | For Queries contact – admin@ibpsguide.com Page-88

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40. (c) Radius/circumference= r/2*pi*r=7/9 (incorrect), % cannot be calculated 41. (c) From statement I, alcohol =60 % of x and water is 40% of x From statement II, x+10 then water is 20% of (x +10) From both statement we get 0.6x +10/ 0.4x=4/1 so original quantity is 10 liters 42. (e) From statement I, total boys =600 From statement II, hockey playing boys = 450 and 270, we cannot find the boys playing both games so (e) is correct answer 43. (d) From statement I, % change in tax = 20% From statement II, % change in tax = 10% 44. (c) From statement I, bags in February is 90% of January From statement II, bags in January = 2000, On combining both we get 90% * 2000 bags are made in March 45. (d) From statement I, 0.9x-0.1x=0.8x, % of people watches neither two channels is (100-80) % From statement II, 0.45x+.5x- .05x=0.9x, % of people watches neither two channels is (100-90) % 46. (e) From statement I, total student = 250 From statement II, we ratio of boys passed in geography to science = 7:9 Also on combining both we do not get the desired result. 47. (c) From statement I, A=2.5 *C From statement II, C= 6*B On combining we get, 56%*A/B *100, also A=15B, A=840% of B 48. (b) From statement I, the difference between two parallel side = 101% From statement II, 3/5 *100=60% 49. (a) From statement I, valid votes by other candidate= 45% *80% *7500=2700 From statement II, no valid vote % is given so data inadequate 50. (e) From statement I, D= C/2 From statement II, A=2D On combining both statement we requires more data regarding E . www.ibpsguide.com | www.ibpsguide.in|mock.ibpsguide.in| www.sscexamguide.com CopyrightŠ 2016 IBPS Guide | For Queries contact – admin@ibpsguide.com Page-89

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MIXTURE ALLEGATION 1. A Jar contains a mixture of milk and water in the ratio of 3:1. When 4 litres of the mixture is taken out and therefore 3 litres of milk is added to the remaining mixture. The respective ratio of milk and water in the resultant mixture thus formed is 4:1. What was the initial quantity of water in the mixture? (a) 5L (b) 6 L (c) 4 L (d) 2 L (e) NOT 2. Vessel A contains a mixture of apple juice and orange juice in the respective quantity of 16 litres and 4 litres. Vessel B contains a mixture of orange juice and apple juice in the respective quantity of 24 litres and 6 litres. Mixture from vessel A and B, are both mixed together in vessels C. what is the resultant percentage of apple juice in the vessel C? (a) 60% (b) 70% (c) 50 % (d) 80% (e) 40% 3. The concentration of spirit in three different vessels A, B and C are 45%, 30% and 25% respectively. If 4 liters from vessel A, 5 litres from vessel B and 6 litres from vessel C are mixed, find the concentration of spirit in the resultant solution. (a) 32 % (b) 55% (c) 24% (d) 10 % (e) 16% 4. Two solutions of 90% and 97% purity are mixed resulting in 21 litres of mixture of 94% purity. How much is the quantity of the first solution in the resulting mixture? (a) 3L (b) 9 L (c) 15 L (d) 11 L (e) 12 L 5. Vessel A contains a mixture of milk and water in the respective quantities of 20 litres and 4 litres. Vessel B contains a mixture of milk and water in the ratio of 3:1. Mixture from vessel A and B are both mixed together in the vessel C. if the resultant percentage of water in vessel C was 20%, what was the initial quantity of the mixture in vessel B? (a) 50/3 L (b) 8/3 L (c) 20/ 3 L (d) cannot be determined (e) 32 /3 L 6. Jar A contain X litres of pure milk only. A 27 litres of mixture of milk and water in the ratio of 4:5 is added to jar A. the new mixture thus formed in Jar A contains 70 % milk, what is the value of X? (a) 23 L (b) 31 L (c) 17 L (d) 40 L (e) NOT 7. A vessel was containing 80 litres of pure milk. 16 litres of pure milk was taken out and replaced with equal amount of water. 16 litres of newly formed mixture of water and milk was taken out and then 24 litres of water was added to the mixture. What is the respective ratio between the quantity of milk and water in the final mixture? (a) 32:23 (b) 23:32 (c) 25:27 (d) 69:56 (e) NOT 8. In what ratio should two qualities of coffee powder having the rates of Rs. 47 per kg and Rs. 32 per kg be mixed in order to get a mixture that would have a rate of Rs. 37 per kg? (a) 5:7 (b) 9:14 (c) 1:2 (d) 2:1 (e)1:3 9. A mixture of 125 gallons of wine and water contains 20% of water. How much water must be added to mixture in order to increase the percentage of water to 25% of the new mixture? (a) 25 gallons (b) 12.5 gallons (c) 50 gallons (d) 10 gallons (e) 25/3 gallons 10. A cistern contains 50 litres of water. 5 litres of water is taken out of it and replaced by wine. The process is repeated again. Find the propagation of wine and water in the resulting mixture. (a) 19/81 (b) 12/17 (c) 19/82 (d) 81/19 (e) NOT www.ibpsguide.com | www.ibpsguide.in|mock.ibpsguide.in| www.sscexamguide.com CopyrightŠ 2016 IBPS Guide | For Queries contact – admin@ibpsguide.com Page-90

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11. In what ratio should a 20% methyl alcohol solution be mixed with a 50% methyl alcohol solution so that the resultant solution has 40% methyl alcohol in it? (a) 1:5 (b) 2:5 (c) 1:2 (d) 4:5 (e) NOT 12. In a mixture of milk and water 270 L, there is milk and water in ratio 7:5. How much water is added to get ratio 9:5 finally. (a) 121 L (b) 143 L (c) 30 L (d) 171 L (e) 111 L 13. A shopkeeper consist 2000 kg of sugar, some part of it he sold with 8% profit & the remaining with 18 %. In total transaction he gets 14 % profit, then find how much sugar he sold with 18 % profit? (a) 1500 kg (b) 1000 kg (c) 1200 kg (d) 1020 kg (e) 800 kg 14. In what ratio must a person mix three kinds of wheat costing him Rs. 1.20, Rs. 1.44 and Rs. 1.74 per kg., so that the mixture may be worth Rs. 1.41 per kg? (a)1:7:11 (b)17:11:8 (c) 11:77:7 (d) 21:79:11 (e) 11:17:77 15. A butler stole wine from a butt of sherry which contained 40% of spirit and he replaced what he had stolen by wine containing only 16% spirit. The butt was then of 24% strength only. How much of the butt did he steal? (a) 2/3 (b) 1/3 (c) 1/2 (d) 1/4 (e) 2/7 16. A man possessing Rs. 8400 lent a part of it at 8% simple interest and the remaining at 6 2/3% simple interest .His total income after 1 ½ years was Rs. 882. Find the sum lent at different rates. (a) 2200, 6200 (b) 1200, 7200 (c) 5600, 1800 (d) 2100, 6300 (e) NOT 17. A man travelled a distance of 80 km. in 7 hours partly on foot at the rate of 8 km. per hour and partly on bicycle at 16 km. per hour. Find the distance travelled on foot. (a) 32 (b) 48 (c) 36 (d) 50 (e) 41 18. (a)

In what ratio must water be mixed with milk to gain 16 % on selling the mixture at cost price? 4:29 (b) 4:25 (c) 17:4 (d) 1:9 (e) NOT

19. A jar full of whisky contains 40% alcohol. A part of this whisky is replaced by another containing 19% alcohol and now the percentage of alcohol was found to be 26%. The quantity of whisky replaced is: (a) 2/3 (b) 5/3 (c) 1/3 (d) 2/5 (e) 3/4 20. A bar is creating a new signature drink. They are using two alcoholic ingredients in the drink: vodka and gin. They are using two non-alcoholic ingredients in the drink: orange juice and cranberry juice. The alcoholic ingredients contain 40% alcohol. The non-alcoholic ingredients contain no alcohol. How many liters of non-alcoholic ingredients must be added to 6 liters of alcoholic ingredients to produce a mixture that is 15% alcohol? (a) 15 (b) 20 (c) 5 (d) 10 (e) 16 21. A sum of Rs.312 was divided among 100 boys and girls in such a way that the boy gets Rs.3.60 and each girl Rs.2.40 the number of girls is? (a) 50 (b) 20 (c) 40 (d) 80 (e) 55

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22. A woman sold 100 oranges at $12.10, some at the rate of 3 for 35 cents and the rest at 7 for 85 cents. How many were sold at the first rate? (a) 10 (b) 12 (c) 26 (d) 30 (e) 9 23. Two brands of detergent are to be combined. Detergent X contains 20 percent bleach and 80 percent soap, while Detergent Y contains 45 percent bleach and 55 percent soap. If the combined mixture is to be 35 percent bleach, what percent of the final mixture should be Detergent X? (a) 40% (b) 20% (c) 45% (d) 29% (e) 75% 24. From the container of wine, containing 40 liters, 25/4 liters are drawn out and the cask is filled up with water. If the same process is repeated once again, what will be the number of liters of wine left in the container? (a) 29.16 L (b) 32 L (c) 28.5 L (d) 25 L (e) NOT 25. Ram buys some bananas at 5 per rupee from one trader and a similar quantity at 7 rupee from another trader. He mixed both the varieties and sells the entire lot at 6 per rupee. What is the profit or loss % that he makes? (a) No loss, no profit (b) 1% loss (c) 1% profit (d) 25% profit (e) NOT 26. 5 liters are drawn from a cask full of alcohol and it is then filled with water. 5 liters of the mixture are drawn and the cask is again filled with water. The quantity of wine now left in the cask to that of the water in it is in the ratio 361:39. How much does the cask hold? (a) 150 L (b) 300 L (c) 180 L (d) 200 L (e) 100 L 27. 3 glasses equal in measurements are filled with a mixture of alcohol and water in the ratio of 2:1, 3:1 and 2:3 respectively. The contents of the three glasses are emptied into a single empty vessel. What is the proportion of alcohol and water into it? (a) 61/109 (b) 109/71 (c) 109/47 (d) cannot be determined (e) NOT 28. Vessel A contains two types of cooking oil in the ratio 4:3 and vessel B contains the two type of oil in the ratio of 7:2. In what proportion should they be mixed to get a mixture which contains the two cooking oil in ratio of 3:2? (a) 2 :9 (b) 5:63 (c) 56:9 (d) 3:5 (e) 4:11 29. A mixture contains spirit and water in the ratio of 7:3. How much should be withdrawn and water substituted in its place, so that in the resulting mixture, there may be half spirit and half water? (a) 2/3 (b) 1/5 (c) 2/5 (d) 1/7 (e) 3/7 30. Ravi purchase 20 dozen copies @ Rs. 108 per dozen. He sold 8 dozen copies with 10% profit and the remaining 12 dozen with 20% profit. Then find his profit in total transaction? (a) 16% (b) 15% (c) 20% (d) 32% (e) NOT 31. A shopkeeper mixed 125 kg of type I wheat is with two other type II and III of wheat whose quantity is in ratio 5:7 respectively. Calculate the quantity of type II wheat if the total cost of wheat is 24 rupees per kg? (a) 36 kg (b) 120 kg (c) 100 kg (d) 146 kg (e) data inadequate 32. Approximately how much rice of cost Rs. 23 /kg is mixed with 70 kg of rice of cost Rs. 17 /kg, such that on selling the mixture at the rate 20 /kg shopkeeper gets 15% profit? www.ibpsguide.com | www.ibpsguide.in|mock.ibpsguide.in| www.sscexamguide.com CopyrightŠ 2016 IBPS Guide | For Queries contact – admin@ibpsguide.com Page-92

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(a)

6 kg

(b) 5 kg

(c) 15 kg

(d) 25 kg

(e) NOT

33. In what ratio water & milk is mixed such that on selling the mixture at cost price shopkeeper get 20% profit? (a) 1:4 (b) 1:6 (c) 1:5 (d) 1:7 (e) 1:3 34. How many kilograms of sugar costing Rs 9 per kg must be mixed with 36 kg of sugar costing Rs 7 per kg so that there may be a gain of 10% by selling the mixture at Rs. 9.24 per kg? (a) 16 kg (b) 84 kg (c) 15 kg (d) 48 kg (e) 30 kg 35. (a)

In what ratio must water be mixed with milk to gain 16 2/3 % on selling the mixture at cost price? 1:9 (b) 2:3 (c) 1:2 (d) 1:6 (e) NOT

36. The ratio of quantity of acid and water in a mixture is 1:3. If 5 litres of acid is further added to the mixture, the new ratio becomes 1:2. The quantity of new mixture in litres is : (a) 40 L (b) 50 L (c) 45 L (d) data inadequate (e) NOT 37. A shopkeeper buys 2/3rd of goods with 5 % profit and remaining with 2 % loss. In total transaction he get 4000 profit, then find the cost price of total good? (a) 150000 (b) 20000 (c) 50000 (d) 250000 (e) 210000 38. A shopkeeper buys wine of type I with 30 % profit and wine of type II with 15% profit, in what ratio the shopkeeper mixed the two wines to get 50 % profit on selling the wine at the average price of both type of wine? (a) 3:8 (b) 24:29 (c) 2:9 (d) data inadequate (e) NOT 39. Coffee worth Rs 200 per kg and Rs 175 per kg is mixed with a third variety in the ratio 1:1:3. If the mixture is worth Rs 225 per kg, the price of the third variety per kg will be? (a) 185 kg (b) 150 kg (c) 120 kg (d) 205 kg (e) 600 kg 40. A lump of two metals weighting 20 grams is worth Rs. 85 but if their weights be interchanged, it would be worth Rs. 80, if price of one metal is Rs 5 per gram, find the weight of other metal? (a) 10 gms (b) 20 gms (c) 15 gms (d) 8 gms (e) NOT Direction: Given below are questions followed by statements, choose the statement or statements that give the answer of the question. And give answer as: (a) If statement I alone is required. (b) If statement II alone is required to answer the question (c) If both statement is required to answer the question. (d) If either of statement can give the answer to the question. (e) If both statement together cannot give the appropriate result and more data is needed. 41. I. II. 42. I. II. 43.

What is ratio in which both type of wheat is mixed? Quantity of Wheat of type A is 45 kg. Quantity of wheat of both type is in ratio = 9:13. In what quantity tea of type A is mixed with tea of type B? 40 kg of type B is mixed with type A in the ratio of 4:5. Rs 4 per kg of tea of type A is mixed with Rs. 6 per kg of tea of type B. How much quantity of alcohol remains in the container?

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I. A container contains 55 liters of pure alcohol. II. 11 litres of alcohol is replaced with water twice. 44. What is the respective ratio between the quantity of milk and water in the final mixture? I. The mixture is sold at 20 % profit. II. The mixture contains 20 % water. 45. In what amount wheat of X variety is brought by shopkeeper? I. 45 kg of wheat of X variety is mixed with Y variety in ratio 6:7. II. Total quantity of mixture is 80 kg. 46. How much water must be added to get ratio 19:5 finally? I. Total quantity of alcohol is 5 L more than water. II. A mixture contains alcohol and water in the ratio of 14:5. 47. What was the initial quantity of water in the mixture? I. If 5 L of water is removed the concentration of alcohol is 5%. II. If 10 litres of water is removed the concentration of alcohol is 5 % more than water. 48. How many liters of non-alcoholic ingredients must be added to 10 liters of alcoholic ingredients to produce a mixture that is 25% alcohol? I. A bar is using two alcoholic ingredients in the drink: vodka and gin. II. They are using two non-alcoholic ingredients in the drink: orange juice and cranberry juice. The alcoholic ingredients contain 60% alcohol. The non-alcoholic ingredients contain no alcohol. 49. What is the resultant percentage of apple juice in the vessel C? I. Apple juice is in first container is half of its concentration in second container. II. Ratio of apple juice and mango juice in 1st container is 4:9. 50. Calculate the quantity of type II wheat if the total cost of wheat is 30 rupees per kg? I. Type I is more in quantity as compared to type II. II. 45 kg of type I brought at 20 Rs per kg is mixed with type II in the ratio 4:5.

SOLUTION AND EXPLANATION OF MIXTURE ALLEGATION 1. (c) Let Jar has contained milk and water 3x and x respectively. Total mixture in jar = 3x +x =4x. Now, quantity of milk in 4 L mixture = 3x/4x * 4 = 3 L, and quantity of water is 4-3 = 1 L. according to question

3đ?‘Ľâˆ’3+3 đ?‘Ľâˆ’1

4

= 1 => 3đ?‘Ľ = 4đ?‘Ľ − 4

Therefore x = 4 L. 2. (d) Total quantity of vessel C is 16+4+6+24 = 50 L. Resultant percentage of apple juice in vessel C is 16 + 24/50 * 100 =80 % 3. (a) Spirit concentration in vessel A = 45% * 4 L=1.8 L Spirit concentration in vessel B = 30% * 5 L= 1.5 L Spirit concentration in vessel C = 25% * 6 L= 1.5 L Total concentration of spirit all vessels concentrations are mixed = (1.8L +1.5L + 1.5L)/15 L * 100 = 32%.

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4. (b) By using rule of alligation, 90% 97% 94% 3(97-94) 4(94-90) Therefore the quantity of first solution in the resulting mixture is 3/7 * 21 = 9 litres 5. (c) According to the question the concentration of water in vessel A = 1/6. The concentration of water in vessel B = ¼ Concentration of water in vessel C = 20 % = 1/5. Therefore, 1/6 ¼ 1/5 ½ 1/3 Ratio in which both vessels water is mixed is 3:2. 6. (a) Quantity of milk and water in 27 L of mixture is 12 L and 15 L. According to question, the new mixture contain 70% milk so 30% is water Let the pure milk in Jar A be X Then,

X+12 15

70

= 30

3X = 69 X = 23 L. 7. (a) Pure milk = 80 L Replaced water = 16 L Now, in mixture ratio of milk to water = 64:16 = 4:1 Milk pure water 4/5 0 X X-0 4/5-X X/4/5 – X=64/24 3X = 32/5-8X X = 32/55 – milk Hence water to milk = 32:23. 8. (c) 1st quality 47

2nd quality 32 37

5

10

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Ratio is 5:10 i.e. 1:2. 9. (e) According to question, 20% ∗ đ?‘œđ?‘“ 125 đ?‘”đ?‘Žđ?‘™đ?‘™đ?‘œđ?‘›đ?‘ + đ?‘Ľ 1 = 25% = 125 đ?‘”đ?‘Žđ?‘™đ?‘™đ?‘œđ?‘›đ?‘ + đ?‘Ľ đ?‘”đ?‘Žđ?‘™đ?‘™đ?‘œđ?‘›đ?‘ 4 On solving we get x = 25/3 gallons. 10. (a) 5

The quantity of water left = 50 1 − 50

2

= 40.5 L

Propagation of wine and water in the resultant mixture = 9.5/40.5=19/81. 11. (c) By using rule of alligation, 1st solution 2nd solution 20% 50% 40% 10% 20% So the ratio is 1:2. 12. (d) The quantity of water in the mixture = 5/12 * 270 L=112.5 L. Let x be the quantity of water to be added to the mixture. According to question, 112.5 + x 9 = 270 − 112.5 5 Then x = 171 L. 13. (e) Let x kg of sugar is sold at 8% and (2000-x) kg at 18 % Then, 8% 18% 14% 4% 6% 2 3 Quantity of sugar sold at 8 % profit is đ?‘Ľ 2 = , 2000 − đ?‘Ľ 3 on solving we get x = 800 kg 14. (c) Let mix the first and third kind of wheat to get a mixture worth Rs 1.41 per kg www.ibpsguide.com | www.ibpsguide.in|mock.ibpsguide.in| www.sscexamguide.com CopyrightŠ 2016 IBPS Guide | For Queries contact – admin@ibpsguide.com Page-96

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I.e. wheat of 1st kind per 1 kg 120 paisa

wheat of 2nd kind per 1 kg 174 paisa 141 paisa

33 paisa 21 paisa st By alligation rule, quantity of 1 kind: quantity of 3rd kind = 33:21=11:7. Let mix quantity of first and second kind of wheat to get a mixture worth Rs. 1.41 per kg I.e. wheat of 1st kind per 1 kg wheat of 2nd kind per 1 kg 120 paisa 144 paisa 141 paisa 3 paisa 21 paisa st nd So the ratio of quantity of 1 kind: quantity of 2 kind = 33:21 = 1:7. Om combining both ratios we get Quantity of 2nd kind: quantity of 3rd kind = 11/7 * 7/1 = 11/1 Ratio of 1st kind: quantity of 2nd kind: quantity of 3rd kind = 1:7:7/11 = 11:77:7. 15. (a) As per the question and by using rule of alligation, Spirit concentrations are 40% 16% 24% 8% 16% So the ratio = 8:16 = 1:2 Therefore the butler steals 2/(2+1) = 2/3 of the butt. 16. (d) Rate of interest on Rs. 8400 = Rate % of 1st sum 8%

100∗882∗2 8400 ∗3

= 7%

rate of 2nd sum 6 2/3% 7%

1/3 1 Therefore the ratio is 1:3 Money lent at 8% and 6 2/3 % are Rs. 2100 and Rs. 6300 respectively. 17. (a) By using rule of alligation 8 km/hr 16 km/hr 80/7 km (In 1 hr) 32/7 24/7 Therefore time taken on foot: time taken on bicycle = 32:24 = 4:3 Thus in 7 hours, he took 4 hour to travel on foot, distance travel in 4 hours = 4* 8 = 32 km.

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18. (b) By using rule of alligation, Water milk So 0 25/29 4/29 So the ratio is 4:25.

1 25/29

19. (a) Alcohol concentrations are in the ratio of, 40% 19% 26% 7 14 The ratio is 7:14 = 1:2. Therefore the quantity of whisky replaced is 2/3. 20. (d) According to the question Alcohol ingredients contain 40% alcohol and resultant mixture needs to have 15% alcohol only. Let the concentration of non-alcoholic ingredients be x liters Then we have (6+x) *15% = 6*40% + x * (0% alcohol concentration) On solving we get x =10 liters. 21. (c) Let amount received by each student be x, then x= 312/100 = 312 paisa. Then by using rule of alligation, 360 paisa 240 paisa 312 paisa 72 48 3 2 So no. of girls = 2/5 * 100 = 40. 22. (e) Let 21 orange at each rate is sold Then for 21 oranges, rate of 1st type = 35*7=245 cents Rate of 2nd type = 85 *3 = 255 cents For the total 1210/100 *21 = 254.1 cents By using rule of alligation, 245 255 254.1 0.9 9.1 Therefore the ratio in which they are sold is 9:91 According to the question, 9/91 = x/100-x www.ibpsguide.com | www.ibpsguide.in|mock.ibpsguide.in| www.sscexamguide.com CopyrightŠ 2016 IBPS Guide | For Queries contact – admin@ibpsguide.com Page-98

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Then x = 9. 23. (a) Ratio of bleach in X is 1:5 Ratio of bleach in Y is 9:20 By using rule of alligation 1/5 9/20 7/20 1/10 3/20 The percentage of detergent X is 2/5 * 100 = 40% 24. (c) The number of liters of wine left in the container is, By using formula, đ?‘Œ đ?‘›

Quantity of liquid remains in the container after n operation = đ?‘‹ 1 − đ?‘‹

Where X is original quantity, Y is the quantity taken out, n= times of operation. 25 2 40 1 − 4 ≅ 28.5 đ??ż 40 25. (a) By using rule of alligation, 1st trader 2nd trader 5 7 6 1 1 They are mixed in equal proportion, say if 6 bananas are brought from both trader each, then total amount ram pays = 5*6 + 7*6 = 72 (COST PRICE) At 6 per rupee = 6*12 = 72(SELLING PRICE), so no loss and no profit. 26. (e) 5 2 đ?‘‹ 1 − đ?‘„đ?‘˘đ?‘Žđ?‘›đ?‘Ąđ?‘–đ?‘Ąđ?‘Ś đ?‘œđ?‘“ đ?‘¤đ?‘–đ?‘›đ?‘’ đ?‘™đ?‘’đ?‘“đ?‘Ą đ?‘‹ = 361 = đ?‘žđ?‘˘đ?‘Žđ?‘›đ?‘Ąđ?‘–đ?‘Ąđ?‘Ś đ?‘œđ?‘“ đ?‘¤đ?‘Žđ?‘Ąđ?‘’đ?‘&#x; đ?‘‹ 400 Where, X is the volume of cask. Then X = 100 L. 27. (b) The three ratios are 2:1, 3:1 and 2:3 When they are mixed and put in new vessel then the ratio will be Alcohol quantity in each glasses are 2/3, ž and 2/5. Taking LCM of denominator we get 60, 2/3 * 60, ž * 60 and 2/5 * 60 = 40, 45 and 24 liters. Adding three of these = 40+45+24=109 liters.

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Similar method will be applied for quantity of water then after adding we get 71 liters as answer so the ratio of alcohol and water in the large glass is 109:71. 28. (c) Using quantity of type I cooking oil, then by using rule of alligation, 4/7 7/9 3/5 8/45 1/35 So the ratio is 8/45: 1/35 = 56:9. 29. (b) đ?‘žđ?‘˘đ?‘Žđ?‘›đ?‘Ąđ?‘–đ?‘Ąđ?‘Ś đ?‘œđ?‘“ đ?‘ đ?‘?đ?‘–đ?‘&#x;đ?‘–đ?‘Ą 7 = đ?‘žđ?‘˘đ?‘Žđ?‘›đ?‘Ąđ?‘–đ?‘Ąđ?‘Ś đ?‘œđ?‘“ đ?‘¤đ?‘Žđ?‘Ąđ?‘’đ?‘&#x; 3 Let x be the quantity of spirit to be drawn out and x water to be added to the mixture. 7−đ?‘Ľ 1 = 3+đ?‘Ľ 1 Then x = 2 L. Total liters = 7+3 = 10, quantity withdrawn = 2/ 10 = 1/5. 30. (d) By using rule of alligation. 10% profit 20% profit X 8 12 đ?‘‹ − 10 8 = 20 − đ?‘‹ 12 X = 16 %. 31. (e) The ratio of all types of wheat is 125: 5x: 7x. Cost of mixed wheat per kg = Rs. 24. By using this data we cannot calculate the quantity of type II wheat. 32. (b) By using rule of alligation, Rs. 23 Rs. 17 20*100/115 9 So the ratio is9:129= 3:43 3/43 = x/70 Then, x = 5 kg (approx.) 33. (c) Water 0

129

milk 1 5/6 (1*100/(100+20))

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1/6

5/6

So the ratio = 1:5. 34. (b) Using alligation rule, 9 8.4 1.4 Ratio is 7:3 7/3 = x/36, x = 84 kg. 35. (d) Water 0 1 6/7

7 0.6

milk

1/7

6/7

Ratio is 1:6. 36. (c) According to the question, 1 4đ?‘Ľ + 5 = 1 3 2 4đ?‘Ľ Then x = 40 L. So new quantity is (40 +5) L =45 L. 37. (a) 5% profit

2%loss

X 2/3 1/3 5−đ?‘Ľ = 1/2 đ?‘Ľâ€” 2 Then x = 8/3, the cost price of total goods is 4000 *3/8 *100 = 150000. 38. (d) By using rule of alligation, 30% X*100/150 2x/3 -0.15

15% 0.3 -2x/3

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Ratio is 2đ?‘Ľ 3 − 0.15 2đ?‘Ľ 0.3 − 3 so data inadequate. 39. (b) Since coffee worth Rs. 200 and R.s 175 is mixed in equal ratio. So the average of both = 200 + 175 / 2 = 187.5 By using rule of alligation, 187.5 3rd quantity(x) 225 x- 225 37.5 Then, x-225/37.5 =2/3 Third quantity price is, x = 150 kg. 40. (e) Since it is given in the question that the price changes when their weight get exchanged, So total quantity of both metals will be same Then cost of type I metal + cost of type II metal = (80 + 85)/20= 8.25. Cost of type II metal = 8.25-5 = 3.25. Mean of lump = 85/20 By using rule of alligation, 5 3.25 17/4 So, 1 ž The weight of type II metal = 3/7 * 20 =60/7 gms. 41. (b) From statement I, quantity of wheat of type A = 45 kg From statement II, quantity of wheat of both type is in ratio = 9:13. Quantity of 2nd type is 5*13 = 65. Both type of wheat is mixed in ratio 9:13. 42. (a) From statement I, quantity of type B =40kg, B: A = 5:4. 40/x = 5/4 then a = 32 kg. From statement II, ratio is 6-x/x-4 43. (c) From statement I, total quantity = 55 litres From statement II, no. of operation = 2, quantity replaced = 11. On combining both statement, 55(1-11/55) ^2 = 176/5 L of alcohol remains. 44. (d) From statement I, by using alligation rule we can find the ratio of water and milk. From statement II, 20 % water is present so ratio of milk and water is 4:1. 45. (e) From statement I, data is not sufficient to answer the question. From statement I, no rice of wheat is given www.ibpsguide.com | www.ibpsguide.in|mock.ibpsguide.in| www.sscexamguide.com CopyrightŠ 2016 IBPS Guide | For Queries contact – admin@ibpsguide.com Page-102

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On combining both statements we are not getting the desired result. 46. (c) From statement I, alcohol = 5L +water, From statement II, initial ratio = 14:5, 14x/5x +y = 19/5. 14x = 5 + 5x. On combining both statements we get the answer. 47. (e) From statement I, let x be total quantity of mixture, then x-5, alcohol concentration =5%. From statement II, x-10L, alcohol = 10 L = water concentration, Also on combining we do not get the desired result. 48. (c) From statement I, data inadequate to answer the question, From statement II, Alcohol ingredients contain 60% alcohol and resultant mixture needs to have 65% alcohol only. Hence we have (10+x) *25% = 10*60% + x * (0%) On solving we get x =70/13. 49. (e) From statement I, quantity of apple juice in 1st container =quantity of apple juice in 2nd container/2. From statement II, apple juice/mango juice = 4:9. By combining both statements we do not get the required result. 50. (b) From statement I, type I>type II From statement II, quantity of type II wheat is 45/x = 4/5, x=45*5/4 = 225/4 kg.

DATA INTERPRETATION Directions (01 to 05): Study the given table carefully and answer the questions asked below. The given table represents the no. of candidates appeared and qualified during 1991 to 1996 from 6 states. Year 1991 1992 1993 1994 1995 1996 State App. Qual. App. Qual. App. Qual. App. Qual. App. Qual. App. Qual. A 5600 840 7250 925 8250 876 7856 824 8349 932 7964 853 B 7200 864 8100 640 7865 792 8425 896 7658 878 8107 940 C 4850 588 6450 650 7120 685 7763 735 6984 792 7058 827 D 6325 745 7185 795 8545 842 6987 898 5896 685 6754 746 E 5200 640 6225 685 7962 934 7645 888 7389 843 7766 812 F 6500 820 7380 860 6895 788 7844 762 8105 798 8934 911 1). In which of the given years the No. of candidates appeared from state D has maximum percentage of qualified candidates. a. 1992 b. 1995 c. 1993 d. 1994 e. None of these 2). What is the difference between total candidates appeared in six states in the year 1991 and 1993? a. 6915 b. 10692 c. 10962 d. 9615 e. None of these www.ibpsguide.com | www.ibpsguide.in|mock.ibpsguide.in| www.sscexamguide.com CopyrightŠ 2016 IBPS Guide | For Queries contact – admin@ibpsguide.com Page-103

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3). The percentage increase/decrease in the number of the appeared to the qualified candidates in the state B is _____ in 1991. a. 1.25 b. 2.25 c. 2.50 d. 1.00 e. 1.50 4). What is the difference between total qualified candidates in six states in the years 1993 and 1996? a. 217 b. 172 c. 168 d. 226 e. None of these 5). What is the percent of the total qualified candidates to the total number of appeared candidates among all the six states in 1996? a. 15 b. 11 c. 19 d. 13 e. 14 Directions (Q. 6-10): Refer to the bar-graphs below and answer the questions that follow. Movement of share prices of four companies in five trading sessions and the volumes on these.

6). Which of the following scrips shows the highest increase in the share price between 31/7 and 6/ 8 and by how much? a) Goetze ® 9.5 b) Raasi ®11 c) Tata Telecom ® 7d) Kesoram ®10 e) None 7). Which of the following scrips clocks the highest turnover on 31/7? (Turnover = Volume × Share price) a) Goetze b) Raasi c) Kesoram d) Tata Telecom e) None of these 8). Which of the following sets of scrips has shown an increase in volumes from 31/7 to 6/8? www.ibpsguide.com | www.ibpsguide.in|mock.ibpsguide.in| www.sscexamguide.com Copyright© 2016 IBPS Guide | For Queries contact – admin@ibpsguide.com Page-104

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a) Goetze, Raasi e) None of these

b) Raasi, Kesoram

c) Kesoram, Goetze d) Raasi, Tata Telecom

9). What is the percentage change in the turnover of Tata Telecom from 31/7 to 6/8? a) -5% b) -9% c) 5% d) 9% e) None of these 10). The price of which of the following scrips shows the highest percentage increase from 31/7 to 6/ 8? a) Goetze b) Raasi c) Kesoram d) Tata Telecom e) None of these Directions (11 – 15): Read the following table carefully to answer these questions: A committee prepared a list of twenty players each in Test, ODI and T20 cricket tournaments, out of 39 players. Three players are there who are in Test and ODI list but not in T20. Four players are there who are in Test and T20 list but not in ODI, and same number of players are there who are in all the three lists. 11. How many players are there who are in exactly one list? (a) 18 (b) 20 (c) 22 (d) 24 (e) 32 12. How many players are there who are in exactly two lists? (a) 13 (b) 15 (c) 17 (d) 19 (e) 20 13. How many players are there who are in at least in two lists? (a) 11 (b) 14 (c) 17 (d) 21 (e) 28 14. How many players are there who are in at most in two lists? (a) 33 (b) 35 (c) 37 (d) 39 (e) 41 15. How many players are there who are in ODI and T20 list but not in Test lists? (a) 10 (b) 8 (c) 6 (d) 4 (e) 2 Direction (16 to 20): Answer the questions on the basis of the following information. Prakash has to decide whether or not to test a batch of 1000 widgets before sending them to the buyer. In case he decides to test, he has two options: (a) Use test I ; (b) Use test II. Test I cost Rs. 2 per widget. However, the test is not perfect. It send bad ones to the buyer as good. Test II costs Rs. 3 per widget. It brings out all the bad ones. A defective widget identified before sending can be corrected at a cost of Rs. 25 per widget. All defective widgets are identified at the buyer‘s en per defective widget has to be paid by Prakash. 16). Prakash should not test if the number of bad widgets in the lot is: (a) less than 100 (b) more than 200 (c) between 120 & 190 end and penalty of Rs. 50

(d) Cannot be found out.

17). If there are 120 defective widgets in the lot, Prakash: (a) should either use Test I or not test. (b) should either use Test II or not test. (c) should use Test I or Test II. (d) should use Test I only. 18). If the number of defective widgets in the lot is between 200 and 400, Prakash: (a) may use Test I or Test II (b) should use Test I only. (c) should use Test II only (d) cannot decide. www.ibpsguide.com | www.ibpsguide.in|mock.ibpsguide.in| www.sscexamguide.com Copyright© 2016 IBPS Guide | For Queries contact – admin@ibpsguide.com Page-105

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19). If Prakash is told that the lot has 160 defective widgets, he should: (a) use Test I only (b) use Test II only. (c) do no testing. (d) either use Test I or do not test. 20). If there are 200 defective widgets in the lot, Prakash: (a) may use either Test I or Test II (b) should use Test I or not use any test (c) should use Test II or not use any test. (d) cannot decide.

Directions (Q. 21-25): Study the following graph carefully and answer accordingly: The following graph shows the production of rice (in million tonnes) in seven states from 2011 to 2013.

21). Which of the following states show the maximum percentage increase in the production of rice from 2011 to 2013? a) C b) G c) E d) A e) None of these 22). By what per cent the production of rice in 2011 produced by state B is less than that by state F in 2013? a) 50% b) 33 1/3 % c) 40% d) 25% e) None of these 23). Find the average production of rice (in million tonnes) by all states in 2012. a) 55.42 b) 65 c) 60 d) 50.82 e) 70.67 24). The rice produced by states D and F together in 2011 is what per cent more than that by state B and D together in 2013? a) 50% b) 33.33% c) 40% d) 60% e) None of these 25). Which of the following states shows a continuous decrease in the production of rice over the years? a) A b) B c) C d) G e) None of these Directions (Q. 26-30): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below: The bar-graph shows the production of steel in a country (in lakh tonnes) in different years. www.ibpsguide.com | www.ibpsguide.in|mock.ibpsguide.in| www.sscexamguide.com CopyrightŠ 2016 IBPS Guide | For Queries contact – admin@ibpsguide.com Page-106

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The pie-chart shows the production of steel (in lakh tonnes) by five different companies in 2012. These companies are the only ones to produce steel in all the given years..

26). In the year 2012, what was the production of steel by Company C (in lakh tonnes)? a) 98.6 b) 103.2 c) 112.6 d) 123.4 e) 132.5 27). In how many years is the production of steel more than 10% more/less than the previous year ‘s production? a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4 e) 5 28). Company A produced 18% of the total steel produced every year except in 2012. What was the total production of steel by Company A for the given years (in lakh tonnes)? (Do not take 2012 into account.) a) 462.60 b) 531.20 c) 591.70 d) 651.8 e) 720.6 29). In how many years was the production of steel more than the average production for the given years? a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4 e) 5 30). What is the angle subtended by Company D in the steel production in 2012? a) 18° b) 36° c) 144° d) 72° e) 54° www.ibpsguide.com | www.ibpsguide.in|mock.ibpsguide.in| www.sscexamguide.com Copyright© 2016 IBPS Guide | For Queries contact – admin@ibpsguide.com Page-107

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Directions (Q. 31-35): Study the bar chart carefully to answer the questions given below: The number of factories of various industries in India and Pakistan

31). If the ratio of production of Steel in India to that in Pakistan is 5 : 3 and the production of Steel in India is 1000 tonnes, what is the ratio of the productivity (production/no. of factories) of Steel in India to that of Pakistan? a) 5 : 4 b) 4 : 3 c) 3 : 2 d) 2 : 1 e) None of these 32). What is the difference between the total number of factories in India and that in Pakistan? a) 250 b) 150 c) 50 d) 5 e) 100 33). The number of Cotton factories in Pakistan is what per cent of the total number of Cement factories in India? a) 53.5% b) 59.9% c) 57.14% d) 50% e) 48.7% 34). If Pakistan and India export 40% and 30% respectively of their production of Fertilizer, then what is the difference between the amounts of Fertilizer theyused for themselves? (The production of Pakistan is 50 tonnes per factory and that of India is 60 tonnes per factory) a) 15 tonnes b) 0 tonne c) 35 tonnes d) 32 tonnes e) 11 tonnes 35). If the production of Cement in India is 24500 tonnes and that in Pakistan is 14500 tonnes, then what is the difference between their productivity (production/ number of factories)? a) 4.3 tonnes b) 6 tonnes c) 5.714 tonnes d) 8.2 tonnes e) 7.9 tonnes

Directions(Q36-40) Study the following graph carefully and answer the questions given below it:

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36). In which year is the value of sugar exported per tonne the highest? (a)2009 (b)2008 (c)2010 (d)2012 (e)2013 37). In which of the following years is the percentage increase in the value of sugar exported over the previous year the minimum? (a) 2009 (b)2011 (c)2012 (d)2013 (e)2010 38). In how many years the quantity of sugar exported is more than the average quantity of sugar exported for the given period? (a)1 (b)2 (c)3 (d)4 (e)5 39). What is the difference in the value of sugar per kg exported in 2009 and that in 2012? (a)Rs 2 (b)Rs 1.50 (c)Rs 1 (d)Rs 5 (e)Rs 2.50 40). From 2013 to 2014, if there is a 2.5% increase in the quantity of sugar exported and 40% increase in the value, then what is the value of sugar exported per kg in 2014? (a)Rs 11 (b)Rs 12 (c)Rs 13 (d)Rs 14 (e)Rs 15 www.ibpsguide.com | www.ibpsguide.in|mock.ibpsguide.in| www.sscexamguide.com CopyrightŠ 2016 IBPS Guide | For Queries contact – admin@ibpsguide.com Page-109

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Directions (41-45) Read the Pie-chart and table carefully and answer the questions that follow:

41). In which year is the increase in the number of customers of the company highest over the previous year? (a)2010 (b)2011 (c)2012 (d)2013 (e)2009 42). How many customers took vehicle insurance in 2012? (a)46500 (b)58500 (c)78000 (d)47800 (e)64000 43). What % of the total customers for the year 2012 do the customers covered under the health insurance and property insurance together form? (a)15% (b)20% (c)30% (d)35% (e)45% 44). The pie-chart for various schemes is the same for all the years. When was the number of life insurance customers the highest? (a)2010 (b)2009 (c)2013 (d)2012 (e)2011 www.ibpsguide.com | www.ibpsguide.in|mock.ibpsguide.in| www.sscexamguide.com CopyrightŠ 2016 IBPS Guide | For Queries contact – admin@ibpsguide.com Page-110

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45). From the data of question 9, what is the approximate % increase in the number of customers under retirement plan from 2010 to 2012? (a)25% (b)30% (c)35% (d)40% (e)45% Directions (Q. 46-50): The following bar chart shows the total number of readers of newspaper The Hindu and Economic Times over the period of 2001 to 2005 and the table shows the percentage of female readers among them.

46). What is the total number of female readers of newspaper Economic Times in the year 2004? a) 21480 b) 22320 c) 23760 d) 24850 e) 25200 47). What is the difference between the total male readers of newspaper The Hindu and its total female readers in the year 2001? a) 8620 b) 7840 c) 7450 d) 7280 e) 7060 48). What is the ratio of the total male readers of newspaper The Hindu in the year 2003 to the total female readers of newspaper Economic Times in the year 2005? a) 22 : 21 b) 13 : 22 c) 24 : 23 d) 25 : 24 e) 16 : 15 49). What is the average number of male readers of newspaper Economic Times over the years? a) 21320 b) 22640 c) 23450 d) 24780 e) 25160 50). The total number of female readers of newspaper The Hindu in the year 2002 is approximately what per cent of the total number of male readers of newspaper Economic Times in the year 2002? a) 65% b) 63% c) 61% d) 59% e) 57% www.ibpsguide.com | www.ibpsguide.in|mock.ibpsguide.in| www.sscexamguide.com CopyrightŠ 2016 IBPS Guide | For Queries contact – admin@ibpsguide.com Page-111

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SOLUTION AND EXPLANATION OF DATA INTERPRETATION Answer: 1). d) 2). c) 3). a) 4). a) 5). b) 1). In 1994 – 898 (maximum) 2). In 1991 – 5600 + 7200 + 4850 + 6325 + 5200 + 6500 = 35675 In 1993 – 8250 + 7865 + 7120 + 8545 + 7962 + 6895 = 46637 Difference = 46637 – 35675 = 10962 3). Decrease is by 24 Increase is by 1900 Required percentage = (24 ×100)/ 1900 = 1.25% 4). In 1993 – 876 + 792 + 685 + 842 + 934 + 788 = 4917 In 1996 – 853 + 940 + 827 + 746 + 812 + 911 = 5089 Difference = 5089 – 4971 = 172 5). Required percentage = (5089/46583) × 100 = 10.92% = 11% Answers: 6)b 7)b 8)c 9)c 10)c 6). By observation, Raasi Cement shows the highest increase in the share price. Answer: b) 7). By observation, it is either Tata or Raasi. Tata‘s turnover = 20,000 × 42 = Rs 840,000 Raasi‘s turnover = 15,000 × 58 = Rs 870,000 Hence, Raasi‘s turnover is highest on 31/7. Answer: b) 8). By observation, it is Goetze and Kesoram. Answer: c) 9). Tata‘s turnover on 31/7 was Rs 840,000. On 6/8, it was 49 × 18,000 = Rs 882,000. Percentage change = (882000-840000)/840000 = 5% Answer: c) 10). By observation, it is either Raasi or Kesoram. For Raasi, % increase = (69-58)/58 » 19% For Kesoram, % increase = (50-41.5)/41.5 = 20% Answer: c)

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9 + 3 + 13 – x + 4 + 4 + x + 12 – x = 39 45 – x = 39 x = 45 – 39 = 6 11. (c) 9 + 7 + 6 = 22 12. (a) 6 + 4+ 3 = 13 13. (c) 6 + 4+ 3 + 4 = 17 14. (b) 6 + 4+ 3 + 22 = 35 15. (c) 16). (a) Total number of batches = 1000 Let p be the total number of bad widgets Therefore the total number of good ones will be (1000 –p). On test I his total cost will be = Rs.2 (1000) + 25 x 0.8p + 50 x 0.2p On test 2 his total cost will be = Rs. 3(1000) + 25 x p Now, it will be worth testing if the cost of testing is less than the cost of penalty levied on the defective pieces. Let us check all the choices:

Above 100 defectives cost is cheaper than the penalty. But for 100 defectives the cost of penalty is the same as that for testing. Therefore we come to this conclusion that below 100 defectives, the penalty will be less than the cost of testing and hence it is not worth testing. 17).d) If there are 120 widgets, he should go for test I as it is cheaper 18).(c) From the table we can say that if the number of defectives is between 200 & 400, he should go for Test II as it is cheaper. 19).(a) In case of 160 defectives he should use test I as it is cheaper. www.ibpsguide.com | www.ibpsguide.in|mock.ibpsguide.in| www.sscexamguide.com Copyright© 2016 IBPS Guide | For Queries contact – admin@ibpsguide.com Page-113

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20). (a) As the cost of both the Tests is same = Rs.8000. Prakash may use either Test I or Test II for 200 widgets Answers: 21).e 22).b 23).c 24).a 25).b 21). There is maximum gap between 2011 and 2013 for state F. And maximum percentage increase is also for state F. Answer: e) 22). Required less % = 105 – 70 / 105 = 33 1/3 % Answer: b) 23). Avg. production = 80 + 60 + 20 + 50 + 50 + 80 + 80 / 7 = 60 million tonnes Answer: c) 24). Required more % = (45 + 75 – 55 + 25) / (55 + 25) × 100 = 50% Answer: a) 25). Given data shows that B state shows a continuous decrease in the production of rice over the years. Answer: b) Answers: 26)b 27)c 28)a 29)c 30)e 31)a 32)e 33)c 34)b 35)b 26). Required production = 12 / 100 × 860 = 103.2 lakh tonnes. Answer: b) 27). Production increase from 2009 to 2010 = (690 – 500) / 500 × 100 = 38% increase From 2010 to 2011 = 90 / 690 × 100 = 13.04% decrease From 2011 to 2012 = 260 / 600 × 100 = 43.33% increase From 2012 to 2013 = 80 / 860 × 100 = 9.30% decrease Thus these years are 2010, 2011 and 2012. Hence, there are only three years. Answer: c) 28). Total production of steel by Company A in year 2009, 2010, 2011 and 2013 = 500 × 18 / 100 + 690 × 18 / 100 + 600 × 18 / 100 + 780 × 18 / 100 = 18 / 100 × (500 + 690 + 600 + 780) = 18 / 100 × 2570 = 462.6 lakh tonnes. Answer: a) 29). Average production = 500 + 690 + 600 + 860 + 780 / 5 = 686 lakh tonnes Hence the production of steel is more than average production in the year 2010, 2012 and 2013. Thus, there are only three years in which production of steel is more than average production. Answer: c) www.ibpsguide.com | www.ibpsguide.in|mock.ibpsguide.in| www.sscexamguide.com Copyright© 2016 IBPS Guide | For Queries contact – admin@ibpsguide.com Page-114

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30). Let the angle be x°. Then, x / 360 × 860 = 129 (15% of 860 = 129) x = 129 – 360 /860 = 54°. Answer: e) 31). Production of Steel in India = 1000 tonnes Productivity of Steel in India = 1000 / 800 = 1.25 tonnes per factory P = 600 tonnes Productivity of Steel in Pakistan = 600 / 600 = 1 tonnes per factory Required ratio = 1.25: 1 = 125 : 100 = 5 : 4. Answer: a) 32). Total factories in India = 300 + 500 + 500 + 700 + 800 = 2800 Total factories in Pakistan = 500 + 400 + 700 + 500 + 600 = 2700 Required difference = 2800 – 2700 = 100. Answer: e) 33). Total number of Cotton factories in Pakistan = 400 Total number of Cement factories in India = 700 Required % = 400 × 100 / 700 = 57.14 % of the number of Cement factories in India. Answer: c) 34). Production of fertilizer in Pakistan = 50 × 700 = 35000 tonnes Export of Pakistan is 40% of its production. Then, the Fertilizer used by Pakistan itself = 35000 × 60 / 100 = 21000 tonnes Production of Fertilizer in India = 60 × 500 = 30000 tonnes India exports 30% of its production. So, Fertilizer used by India itself = 30000 × 70 / 100 = 21000 tonnes Required difference = 21000 – 21000 = 0 tonne. Answer: b) 35). Productivity of Cement = Production per factory Productivity of Cement in India = 24500 / 700 = 35 tonnes Productivity of Cement in Pakistan = 14500 / 500 = 29 tonnes Required difference = 35 – 29 = 6 tonnes. Answer: b) 36). Value per tonne = Value/tone Answer- c) 37). % increase = (difference/Previous year) × 100 Now 2009 to 2010 = [(165 - 144)/144] × 100 Answer- a) 38). Average quantity of export of sugar = (12 + 15 + 10 + 13 + 20 + 22)/6 =92/6, = 15.33 tonne www.ibpsguide.com | www.ibpsguide.in|mock.ibpsguide.in| www.sscexamguide.com Copyright© 2016 IBPS Guide | For Queries contact – admin@ibpsguide.com Page-115

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Thus, in the year 2012 and 2013, the export quantity of sugar was more than average quantity of sugar export. Answer- b) 39). Difference = [(230×1000)/ (20 × 1000)] - [(165×1000)/ (15 × 1000)] = 11.5 – 11, = Rs. 1.5 Answer- b) 46).c 47).b 48).a 49).d 50).b 46). Total number of female readers of newspaper Economic Times in the year 2004 = 44000 × 54 / 100 = 23760 Answer: c) 47). Difference = 56000 × (57 – 43) / 100 = 560 × 14 = 7840 Answer: b) 48). Required ratio = 48000 × 55 / 100 ÷ 45000 × 56 / 100 = 48 × 55 / 45 × 56 = 66 : 63 = 22 : 21 Answer: a) 49). Average number of male readers of newspaper Economic times = 1000 / 5 × 100 × (42 × 49 + 64 × 55 + 54 × 52 + 44 × 46 + 45 × 44) = 2 × (2058 + 3520 + 2808 + 2024 + 1980) = 2 × 12390 = 24780 Answer: d) 50). Total number f male readers of newspaper The Hindu in the year 2002 = 60000 × 37 / 100 = 22200 Total number f male readers of newspaper Economic Times in the year 2002 = 64000 × 55 / 100 = 35200 Required % = 22200 / 35200 × 100 = 63.068 = 63% Answer: b) 40). Quantity of sugar exported in 2014 = 1.25 × 22 tonnes = 27.5 tonnes Value of sugar exported in 2014 = 1.4 × 275 = Rs. 385 thousand Therefore value per kg in 2014 = [(1.4×275)/ (1.25 × 22)] = Rs. 14 Answer- d) 41). From the graph we see increase in the number of customers only in the year 2010 and 2012. So, in 2010  2880 – 2371 = 504 thousand In 2012  3900 – 2716 = 1184 thousand Answer- c) 42). Required number of customers = (54/360) × 3900 thousand = 585 thousand Answer- b) www.ibpsguide.com | www.ibpsguide.in|mock.ibpsguide.in| www.sscexamguide.com Copyright© 2016 IBPS Guide | For Queries contact – admin@ibpsguide.com Page-116

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43). Health insurance cover customers = (72/360)×3900 = 780 Properly insurance cover customers = (54/360) ×3900 = 585 Total = 780 + 585 = 1365 Required % = (1365/3900) × 100 = 35% Answer- d) 44). Answer- d) 45). Number of customers under retirement plan in 2010  (36/360) × 2880 = 288 Similarly, 2012  (36/360) × 3900 = 390 Answer- c) Answers: 46).c 47).b 48).a 49).d 50).b 46). Total number of female readers of newspaper Economic Times in the year 2004 = 44000 × 54 / 100 = 23760 Answer: c) 47). Difference = 56000 × (57 – 43) / 100 = 560 × 14 = 7840 Answer: b) 48). Required ratio = 48000 × 55 / 100 ÷ 45000 × 56 / 100 = 48 × 55 / 45 × 56 = 66 : 63 = 22 : 21 Answer: a) 49). Average number of male readers of newspaper Economic times = 1000 / 5 × 100 × (42 × 49 + 64 × 55 + 54 × 52 + 44 × 46 + 45 × 44) = 2 × (2058 + 3520 + 2808 + 2024 + 1980) = 2 × 12390 = 24780 Answer: d) 50). Total number f male readers of newspaper The Hindu in the year 2002 = 60000 × 37 / 100 = 22200 Total number f male readers of newspaper Economic Times in the year 2002 = 64000 × 55 / 100 = 35200 Required % = 22200 / 35200 × 100 = 63.068 = 63% Answer: b)

NUMBER SERIES 1). 17, 17, 34, 20, 20, 31, 23 a) 26 23 b) 34 20 c) 23 33

d) 27 28

e) 23 28

2). 6, 20, 8, 14, 10, 8, 12 a) 14 10 b) 2 18 c) 4 12 d) 2 14 e) 14 14 www.ibpsguide.com | www.ibpsguide.in|mock.ibpsguide.in| www.sscexamguide.com Copyright© 2016 IBPS Guide | For Queries contact – admin@ibpsguide.com Page-117

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3). 21, 25, 18, 29, 33, 18 a) 43 18 b) 41 44 c) 37 18

d) 37 41

e) 38 41

4). 75, 65, 85, 55, 45, 85, 35 a) 25 15 b) 25 85 c) 35 25

d) 85 35

e) 25 75

5). 21, 9, 21, 11, 21, 13, 21, ... What number should come next? a) 14 b) 15 c) 21 d) 23 e) None of these 6). 32, 34, 37, 46, 62, 87, 123 a) 34 b) 37 c) 62

d) 87

e) 46

7). 7, 18, 40, 106, 183, 282, 403 a) 18 b) 282 c) 40

d) 106

e) 183

8). 850, 843, 829, 808, 788, 745, 703 a) 843 b) 829 c) 808

d) 788

e) 745

9). 33, 321, 465, 537, 573, 590, 600 a) 321 b) 465 c) 573

d) 537

e) 590

10). 37, 47, 52, 67, 87, 112, 142 a) 47 b) 52 c) 67

d) 87

e) 112

11). 850, 600, 550, 500, 475, 462.5, 456.25 a) 600 b) 550 c) 500 d) 462.5

e) None of these

12). 2, 10, 18, 54, 162, 486, 1458 a) 18 b) 54 c) 162

d) 10

e) None of these

13). 13, 25, 40, 57, 79, 103, 130 a) 25 b) 40 c) 57

d) 79

e) None of these

14). 8, 12, 24, 46, 72, 108, 216 a) 12 b) 24 c) 46

d) 72

e) None of these

15). 142, 119, 100, 83, 65, 59, 52 a) 65 b) 100 c) 59

d) 119

e) None of these

16). 18, 119, 708, 3534, 14136, 42405 a) 708 b) 3534 c) 14136

d) 42405

e) 119

17). 5, 7.5, 11.25, 17.5, 29.75, 50, 91.25 a) 7.5 b) 17.5 c) 29.75 d) 91.25 18). 35, 118, 280, 600, 1238, 2504, 5036 a) 118 b) 280 c) 600 19). 10, 12, 28, 90, 368, 1840, 11112

e) 50

d) 1238

e) 5036

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a) 1840

b) 368

c) 90

d) 28

e) 12

20). 7, 4, 5, 9, 20, 51, 160.5 a) 4 b) 5 c) 9

d) 20

e) 51

21). 1788, 892, 444, 220, 112, 52, 24 a) 52 b) 112 c) 220

d) 444

e) None of these

22). 7, 12, 40, 222, 1742, 17390, 208608 a) 7 b) 12 c) 40

d) 1742

e) 208608

23). 80, 42, 24, 13.5 8.75, 6.375, 5.1875 a) 8.75 b) 13.5 c) 24

d) 6.375

e) 42

24). 2, 9, 32, 105, 436, 2195, 13182 a) 436 b) 2195 c) 9

d) 32

e) 105

25). 4, 2.5, 3.5, 6.5, 15.5, 41.25, 126.75 a) 2.5 b) 3.5 c) 6.5 d) 15.5 e) 41.25 26). 2, 5, 11, 23, ? a) 46 b) 52

c) 47

d) 57

e) 48

27). 198, 194, 185, 169, ? a) 92 b) 136 c) 144

d) 112

e) None of these

28). 101, 100, ?, 87, 71, 46 a) 92 b) 88 c) 89

d) 96

e) None of these

29). 100, 50, 52, 26, 28, ?, 16, 8 a) 30 b) 36 c) 14

d) 32

e) None of these

30). 462, 420, 380, ?, 306 a) 322 b) 332 c) 342

d) 352

e) None of these

31). 0, 6, 24, 60, 120, 210, ? a) 290 b) 240 c) 336

d) 504

e) None of these

32). 3, 15, 35, 63, ?, 143 a) 120 b) 110 c) 99

d) 91

e) None of these

33). 4, 9, 19, 39, 79, ? a) 159 b) 119

d) 169

e) None of these

34). 5, 10, 8, 12, 11, 14, ?, 16 a) 17 b) 13 c) 20

d) 14

e) None of these

35). 3, 6 18, 72, ? a) 144 b) 216

d) 360

e) 152

c) 139

c) 288

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36). 24, 60, 120, ?, 110 a) 300 b) 336

c) 420

d) 525

e) 250

37). 5, 16, 51, 158, ? a) 1452 b) 483

c) 481

d) 1454

e) 1500

38). 4, ?, 144, 400, 900, 1764 a) 25 b) 36 c) 49

d) 100

e) 120

39). 8, 3, 11, 14, 25 a) 50 b) 39

d) 11

e) 12

40). 980, 392, 156.8, ?, 25.088, 10.0352 a) 66.04 b) 61.28 c) 63.72

d) 64.85

e) None of these

41). 77, 59, 55, 35, 25, ? a) 24 b) 28

c) 20

d) 27

e) 29

42). 99, 82, 18, 11, ? a) 5 b) 10

c) 2

d) 9

e) 8

43). 17, 36, 74, 150, ?, 606 a) 250 b) 303

c) 300

d) 302

e) 305

44). 51975, 9450, 2100, 600, 240, 160, ? a) 80 b) 120 c) 320

d) 240

e) None of these

45). 17, 36, 52, 63, 67, ? a) 71 b) 72 c) 62

d) 63

e) None of these

46). 10, 28, 64, 115, 175, ? a) 252 b) 272 c) 232

d) 300

e) None of these

47). 64, 72, 79, 93, 103, ? a) 104 b) 105 c) 107

d) 110

e) None of these

48). 5, 20, 53, 112, 205, ? a) 320 b) 330 c) 340

d) 350

e) None of these

49). 20, 20, 10, 30, 7.5, ? a) 32.5 b) 37.5 c) 41.25 d) 43.25

e) None of these

50). 64, 66, 72, 88, 128, ? a) 256 b) 246 c) 224

d) 226

c) 29

e) None of these

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SOLUTION AND EXPLANATION OF NUMBER SERIES 1). e) This is an alternating subtraction series with repetition. There are two different patterns here. In the first, a number repeats itself; then 3 is added to that number to arrive at the next number, which also repeats. This gives the series 17, 17, 20, 20, 23, and so on. Every third number follows a second pattern, in which 3 is subtracted from each number to arrive at the next: 34, 31, 28. 2). d) This is an alternating addition and subtraction series. In the first pattern, 2 is added to each number to arrive at the next; in the alternate pattern, 6 is subtracted from each number to arrive at the next. 3). d) This is a simple addition series with a random number, 18, interpolated as every third number. In the series, 4 is added to each number except 18, to arrive at the next number. 4). b) This is a simple subtraction series in which a random number, 85, is interpolated as every third number. In the subtraction series, 10 is subtracted from each number to arrive at the next. 5). b) In this alternating repetition series, the random number 21 is interpolated every other number into an otherwise simple addition series that increases by 2, beginning with the number 9. 6). a)

So the wrong number is 34 which must be 33. 7). c)

So, the wrong number is 40 which must be 51. 8). d)

So, the wrong number is 788 which must be 780. 9). e) www.ibpsguide.com | www.ibpsguide.in|mock.ibpsguide.in| www.sscexamguide.com CopyrightŠ 2016 IBPS Guide | For Queries contact – admin@ibpsguide.com Page-121

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So, the wrong number is 590 which must be 591. 10). a)

So, the wrong number is 47 which must be 42. 11). a)

So, wrong number = 600 Correct number = 850 – 200 = 650 12). d)

So, wrong number = 10 Correct number = 2 × 3 = 6 13). c)

So, wrong number = 57 Correct number = 40 + 18 = 58 14). c)

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So, wrong number = 46 Correct number = 24 × 1.5 = 36 15). a)

So, wrong number = 65 Correct number = 83 – 13 = 70 16). b) The Pattern is as follows

Hence, number 3534 is wrong and should be replaced by 3535. 17). c) The pattern is as follows

Hence, number 29.75 is wrong and should be replaced by 28.75. 18). d) The pattern is as follows

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Hence, number 1238 is wrong and should be replaced by 1236. 19). a) The pattern is as follows

Hence, number 1840 is wrong and should be replaced by 1850. 20). e) The pattern is as follows

Hence, number 51 is wrong and should be replaced by 52.5. 21). b) The pattern is as follows

Hence, number 112 is wrong and should be replaced by 108. 22). b) The pattern is as follows 7×2-2×1=12 12×4-(4×2)=40 40×6-(6×3)=222 222×8-(8×4)=1742=1744 1744×10-(10×5)=17390 17390×12-(12×6)=208608 Hence, number 1742 is wrong and should be replaced by 1744. 23). c) www.ibpsguide.com | www.ibpsguide.in|mock.ibpsguide.in| www.sscexamguide.com Copyright© 2016 IBPS Guide | For Queries contact – admin@ibpsguide.com Page-124

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The pattern is as follows

Hence, number 24 is wrong and should be replaced by 23. 24). d) The pattern is as follows

Hence, number 32 is wrong and should be replaced by 30. 25). c) The pattern is as follows

Hence, number 6.5 is wrong and should be replaced by 6.75. 26). c) The pattern is as follows

27). c) The pattern is as follows

28). d) The pattern is as follows

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Missing number = 100 – (2)2 = 100 – 4 = 96 29). c) The pattern is as follows

Missing number = 28 / 2 = 14 30). c) The pattern is as follows

31). c) The pattern is as follows 03 – 0 = 0 23 – 2 = 6 33 – 3 = 24 43 – 4 = 60 53 – 5 = 120 63 – 6 = 210 73 – 7 = 336 ? = 336 32). c) The pattern is as follows 3 = 1 × 3 à 15 = 3 × 5 35 = 5 × 7 à 63 = 7 × 9 99 = 9 × 11à 143 = 11 × 13 ? = 99 33). a) The pattern is as follows

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34). d) There are two alternate series

35).d)

36).b)

37).c)

38).b)

39).b)

40).e)

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41).c)

42).a)

43).d)

44).c)

45). c) 17 + (5*4 -1) = 36 36 + (5*4 – 4) = 52 52 + (5*4 – 9) = 63 63 + (5*4 – 16) = 67 67 + (5*4 – 25) = 62 46). c) 10 + (21 – 3) = 28 28 + (42 – 6) = 64 64 + (63 – 12) = 115 115 + (84 – 24) = 175 175 + (105 – 48) = 232 www.ibpsguide.com | www.ibpsguide.in|mock.ibpsguide.in| www.sscexamguide.com Copyright© 2016 IBPS Guide | For Queries contact – admin@ibpsguide.com Page-128

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47). b) 64 + (6+4 – 2) = 72 72 + (7 +2 – 2) = 79 79 + (7 + 9 – 2 ) = 93 93 + (9 + 3 -2) = 103 103 + (1 +0 +3 -2) = 105 48). c) 5 + (4^2 – 1) = 20 20 + (6^2 -3) = 53 53 + (8^2 -5) = 112 112 + (10^2 – 7) = 205 205 +(12^2 – 9) = 340 49). b) 20*1 = 20 20 ÷ 2 = 10 10 * 3 = 30 30 ÷4 = 7.5 7.5 * 5 = 37.5 50). c) 64 + (1*2) = 66 66 + (2*3) = 72 72 + (4*4) = 88 88 + (8*5) = 128 128 + (16*6) = 224 PROBLEMS AREAS 1. The side of a square is equal to the length of a rectangle: also the side of square is twice the breadth of the rectangle. If the sum of the areas of square and rectangle is 54 cm², what is the length of the rectangle? (a) 6 cm (b) 8 cm (c) 7 c m (d) 10 cm (e) 4 cm 2. The numeric value of the perimeter of a rectangular field is less than that of its area by 128. If the breadth of the same field is halved, then the numeric value of the perimeter of the field becomes 40 less than its area. What is the area of the rectangular field? (a) 196 cm² (b) 216 cm² (c) 144 cm² (d) 176 cm² (e) NOT 3. A rectangular garden of length 12 m is surrounded by a 2 m wide path. If the area of the garden is 84 m² and the cost of gravelling is Rs. 8 per m², what is the total cost of gravelling the path? (a) Rs. 680 (b) Rs. 736 (c) Rs. 820 (d) Rs. 450 (e) NOT 4. The circumference of circle is 74 m more than its diameter. If the radius of another circle is 3.5 m more than the radius of first circle, what is the circumference of the second circle? www.ibpsguide.com | www.ibpsguide.in|mock.ibpsguide.in| www.sscexamguide.com Copyright© 2016 IBPS Guide | For Queries contact – admin@ibpsguide.com Page-129

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(a) 215 m

(b) 110 m

(c) 135 m

(d) 90 m

(e) 120 m

5. The cylinder of radius 8m and height 10 m is melted down and all the metal is used to recast a new solid cylinder with radius 12 m. what is the height of the new cylinder? (a) 3 m (b) 4 m (c) 4.44 m (d) 5 m (e) 6 m 6. A circular copper wire of radius 35 cm is bent to form a rectangle. If the length and breadth of the new figure form are in ratio of 5:2, what is the length of the rectangle? (a) 78.55 cm (b) 68 cm (c) 55 cm (d) 67 cm (e) NOT 7. The length and breadth of a rectangular lawn are 36 m and 20 m respectively. It has two roads, each 3 m wide and one parallel to the breadth and the other parallel to the length. What is the cost of gravelling the two roads at the rate of Rs. 38? (a) Rs. 6014 (b) Rs. 6720 (c) Rs. 6042 (d) Rs. 1245 (e) Rs. 5678 8. The sum of the side of a square and the length of a rectangle is 30 m and the sum of the side of the square and breadth of the rectangle is twice its breadth, what is the respective ratio of the area of the square and the area of the rectangle? (a) 3:4 (b) 5:6 (c) 7:8 (d) data inadequate (e) NOT 9. The length of a rectangular shaped metal is thrice its breadth. If the area of the rectangular plot is 7744 sq. m, what is the radius of the circular loop formed using the rectangular loop? (a) 28 m. (b) 42 m (c) 36 m (d) 34 m (e) 44 m 10. A cylinder, a hemisphere and a cone stand on the same base and have the same height and also both quantities are equal to each other. The ratio of the area of their curved surface is : (a) 1:2:3 (b) 6:2:√3 (c) 3√2:√2:1 (d) both (b) and (c) (e) NOT 11. The sum of the side of a square and the length of a rectangle is 36 m and the sum of the side of the square and breadth of the rectangle is 24 cm the length of rectangle is twice the breadth, what is the respective ratio of the area of the square and the area of the rectangle? (a) 2:1 (b) 1:2 (c) 3:4 (d) 6:1 (e) NOT 12. The area of a square is 1444 cm². The breadth of a rectangle is 1/4th the side of the square and the length of the rectangle is thrice of the breadth. What is the difference between the area of the square and the area of the rectangle? (a) 1100 cm² (b) 567 cm² (c) 1173.75 cm² (d) data inadequate (e) NOT 13. A ladder 2 m long is placed in a street so as to reach a window 1.6 m high and on turning the ladder to the other side of a street, it reaches a point 1.2 m high. The width of the street is: (a) 3 m (b) 2.8 m (c) 5 m (d) 6 m (e) 10 m

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14. A rectangular lawn is 80 meters long and 60 meters wide. The total time taken by a man to walk along its diagonal at the speed of 18 km. per hour is: (a) 45 second (b) 20 second (c) 10 sec (d) 15 sec (e) 30 sec 15. If the diameter of the base circle of a cone is equal to 45 cm and the generator is 23 cm, then the length of the axial section will be: (a) 4.8 cm (b) 9.6 cm (c) 12 cm (d) 7,2 cm (e) 3.6 cm 16. If the lateral surface of a cylinder is developed in a square whose diagonal is 2^½ cm long, then the surface area of a cuboid whose volume is equal to that of cylinder is? (a) 45 cm² (b) 81 cm² (c) data inadequate (d) 56 cm² (e) 49 cm² 17. If in an isosceles triangle, ‗a‘ is length of the base and ‗b‘ is the length of one of equal sides, then its area is: (a) đ?‘Ž ∗ √(đ?‘? 2 −

đ?‘Ž2 4

)

đ?‘Ž

(b) 2 ∗ √(đ?‘? 2 −

đ?‘Ž2 4

)

(c)đ?‘? ∗ √(đ?‘? 2 −

đ?‘Ž2 4

)

(d) a*b

(e) NOT

18. A plot of land is the shape of a right angled isosceles triangle. Length of the hypotenuse side is 50 and cost of fencing is Rs. 3 per meter. The cost of fencing the plot will be: (a) Rs. 567 (b) Rs. 689 (c) data inadequate (d) Rs. 450 (e) Rs. 510 19. Length of the largest rod that can be placed in a room 30m long,25 meter broad and 18m high is: (a) 43 m (b) 51 m (c) 44 m (d) 55 m (e) NOT 20. A reservoir in the form of frustum of a right circular cone. It is 8 cm across at the top and 4 cm across at the bottom. It is 6 cm deep. Its capacity is: (a) 196 cmÂł (b) 176 cmÂł (c) 216 cmÂł (d) data inadequate (e) NOT 21. A metal sheet 27 cm long, 8 cm broad and 1 cm thick is melted into a cube. The difference between the surface areas of the two solids will be: (a) 35 cm² (b) 75 cm² (c) 29 cm² (d) 36 cm² (e) NOT 22. The perimeter of a rhombus is 200 cm. if the diagonals are in ratio 5:6, what will be the area of rhombus? (a) 4918 cm² (b) 5234 cm² (c) 6124 cm² (d) 4561 cm² (e) 5462 cm² 23. A circular disc of area 3.43Ď€ m² rolls down an incline of 8.8 km length. What is the number of revolution it makes during this journey? (a) 400 (b) 756 (c) 440 (d) 770 (e) 660 24. Find the length of the canvas 4 meters in width required to make a cylindrical form of 12 meters in diameter and 5.6 m in height? (a) 34.8 m (b) 28.2 m (c) 4.8 m (d) 54 m (e) 52.8 m www.ibpsguide.com | www.ibpsguide.in|mock.ibpsguide.in| www.sscexamguide.com CopyrightŠ 2016 IBPS Guide | For Queries contact – admin@ibpsguide.com Page-131

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25. The adjacent sides of a parallelogram are 4 cm and 8 cm and the angle between them is 45°. The area of the parallelogram is? (a) 16 (b) 32 (c) 16√2 (d) 8 (e) NOT 26. Four circular plates are placed in such a way that each circle touches the other two. What will be the area of the portion enclosed by the circles if all circles has same radius? (a) 4r² (b) r² (c) 3r² (d) 2r² (e) NOT 27. If the height of triangle is decreased by 40 %, and its base remains same, then what percent area of new triangle is with respect to the original? (a) 70% (b) 40% (c) 35% (d) 60% (e) 25% 28. A same length of wire is used to make rhombus, square and rectangle, what will be the ratio of area of these figures? (a) 2:3 (b) 4:1 (c) data inadequate (d) 1:2 (e) NOT 29. A cow is tethered in the middle of a field with a 14 feet long rope. If the cow grazes 220 sq. ft. per day, then approximately what time will be taken by the cow to graze twice the whole field? 5

(a) 3 3 đ?‘‘đ?‘Žđ?‘Śđ?‘

3

(b) 5 5 đ?‘‘đ?‘Žđ?‘Śđ?‘

(c) 5 days

(d) 7 days

(e) 10 days

30. An equilateral triangle is described on the diagonal of a square. What is the ratio of the area of the triangle to that of the square? (a)

√3 2

(b) 1:2

(c) √3: 1

(d) 1:√2

(e) 1:1

31. If every side of an equilateral triangle is doubled, the area of the new triangle is how much times more than the old area? (a) 3 times (b) 4 times (c) remains same (d) 10 times (e) 2 times 32. ABC is a triangle with base AB. D is the point on AB such that AD = 5 and DB = 3. What is the area of triangle ADC and triangle ABC? (a) 212 cm² (b) 45 cm² (c) 56 cm² (d) Data inadequate (e) NOT 33. An error of 1 % in excess is made while measuring the side of a square. The percentage of error in the calculated area of the square is? (a) 3% (b) 2.01% (c) 1.01% (d) 1% (e) 2% 34. A took 20 seconds to cross a rectangular field diagonally walking at the rate of 68 m/min and B took the same time to cross the same field along its side walking at the rate of 50 m/min. the area of the field is? (a) 234 m² (b) 256 m² (c) 256 cm² (d) 189 cm² (e) NOT 35. A towel when bleached was found to have lost 10 % of its length and 8% of breadth. The percentage of decrease in area is : www.ibpsguide.com | www.ibpsguide.in|mock.ibpsguide.in| www.sscexamguide.com CopyrightŠ 2016 IBPS Guide | For Queries contact – admin@ibpsguide.com Page-132

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(a) 17.2% decrease

(b) 15 % decrease

(c) 18% decrease

(d) data inadequate

(e) NOT

Direction: each of the questions below consists of a question and two statements numbered I and II given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both statements and give answer as (a). if the data in statement I is alone sufficient to answer the question (b). if the data in statement II is alone sufficient to answer the question (c). if the data in both the statements together is necessary to answer the question (d). if the data in either statements is sufficient to answer the question. (e). if the data in both the statements is not sufficient to answer the question. 36. What is the height of the cylinder (in m)? I. The volume of the cylinder is 4158 m³. II. The total surface area of the cylinder is 1485 m² 37. What is the capacity of the cylindrical tank? I. Radius of base is half of the height. II. Area of base is 616 cm² 38. What is the area of circular ground? I. The circumference of the ground is x cm. II. The diameter of the ground is y cm. 39. What is the cost of flooring the rectangular hall? I. The area of the hall is same as that of the parallelogram. II. The cost of flooring is Rs. 350 per square meter. 40. What is the area of the trapezium? I. Adjacent side of trapezium is in ratio of 4:5. II. Difference between the opposite sides is 4 cm. 41. What will be the area of the uncovered region? I. The area of rectangular hall is 605 cm². II. A circular bed is placed in the hall at the centre. 42. The area of parallelogram is equal to the area of a circle. What is the length of the rectangle? I. Radius of circle is equal to height of parallelogram. II. Perimeter of parallelogram is 15 cm more than circle. 43. What is the area of circle? I. A chord of length 5 cm subtended an angle of 90° at the centre. II. Perimeter of circle is equal to length of the rectangle. 44. A path around a circular ground is made. What is the area of the path? I. The difference between the perimeters of both circular grounds is 44 cm. II. The difference between areas of both circular grounds is 56 cm². 45. What is the area of a right-angled triangle? I. One of the angle measures 60°. II. Difference between length and height of a triangle is 3 cm. DIRECTION: given below is the question followed by two statements. Study the statements and predict the relation between both the statements as: (a) I>II www.ibpsguide.com | www.ibpsguide.in|mock.ibpsguide.in| www.sscexamguide.com Copyright© 2016 IBPS Guide | For Queries contact – admin@ibpsguide.com Page-133

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(b) (c) (d) (e)

I<II I=II, no relation can be made or data in adequate I≤II I≥II

46.

Given below are a parallelogram and a rectangle.

I. II. 47.

Area of the shaded region is 56 cm² and length and breadth of rectangle is 8 cm and 5 cm. Difference of areas is 16 cm². The radius of circle is 7 cm.

I. II. 48.

Perimeter of the rectangle is 44 cm and perimeter of figure excluded circle is 48 cm. Perimeter of the triangular part is 36 cm. The sides of a triangle are 4cm, 3 cm and 5 cm.

I. II. 49. I. II. 50. I. II.

The area of semi circle is 22 cm². The ratio of area of triangle to total area is 6:7 A sphere is placed at the top of a cylinder such that it closed the cylinder from the top. The radius of the base and height of cylinder is 7cm and 12 cm respectively. The total surface area of figure is 90 cm² A cone is placed at the top of a cuboid covering the upper surface are of cuboid. The curved surface area of cone is 550 m² and radius of base of the cone is 7 cm. The height of the cone is 20 cm.

SOLUTION AND EXPLANATION OF PROBLEMS ON AREAS 1. (a) Let the side of square be a and length & breadth of rectangle be l and b. Then according to the question, a=l and a= 2b, so l=2b. Total area = 54 sq. cm www.ibpsguide.com | www.ibpsguide.in|mock.ibpsguide.in| www.sscexamguide.com Copyright© 2016 IBPS Guide | For Queries contact – admin@ibpsguide.com Page-134

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a² +l*b = 54 Or 3l²/2 = 54, on solving we get length of rectangle = 6 cm. 2. (d) Let length and breadth of rectangular field be l and b, Given that perimeter of rectangular field (P) = area (A) -128 P = l*b -128--- (1) Also new breadth = b/2 New P = New A – 40 P = l*b/2 – 40--- (2) Solving eq. (1) and (2), we get P = 48 So area = 48 + 128 = 176 sq. cm. 3. (b) Area of rectangle = 84 sq. m Breadth of rectangle = 84/12 = 7 m Measurement of new rectangle after wide path made is 16mx11m Area of new rectangular garden = 16 * 11 = 176 sq. m. Area of path = 176- 84 = 92 sq. m Cost of gravelling the path = 92* 8 = Rs. 736. 4. (b) According to the question, Circumference of circle = 74 + diameter 2 * π* radius = 74 + radius Then radius = 14 m Radius of another circle = 14 + 3.5 m = 17.5 m Circumference of circle = 2*π* 17.5 = 110 m. 5. (c) Volume of old cylinder = volume of new cylinder Π * r² * h= π* R²*H Given values, r= 8 m, h =10 m and R = 12 m By putting the above value in the equation, We get Height of new cylinder = 4.44 m. 6. (a) Perimeter of circular wire = perimeter of rectangle 2* π* 35 = 2(length +breadth) Also length: breadth = 5x: 2x On solving we get length = 78. 55cm 7.

(c)

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Length and breadth of rectangular lawn = 36 m and 20 m. Area of the path = 36*3 + 20 * 3 – (3*3) = 159 sq. cm Cost of gravelling the path = 159 * 38 = Rs. 6042. 8. (d) Let length and breadth of rectangle is l and b and side of square = a Then according to the question, a +l = 30 and a+b = 2b=>a+b Ratio = area of square: area of rectangle = a²: lb More data is required to answer the question 9. (a) Let length and breadth of rectangular shaped metal be l and b, Then, l= 3b And area = 7744 sq. cm, l*b =7744 By using above data we get b = 44 cm and l = 132 cm Perimeter of rectangle = circumference of circle 2( l +b) = 88= 2*Ď€*r Then radius of circle = 28 cm. 10. (d) The ratio of curved surface of cylinder, hemisphere and cone is 2*Ď€*r*h: 2/3*Ď€*r²: Ď€*r*√(đ?‘•2 + đ?‘&#x; 2 ) Where r= h, then ratio is 6: 2: 3√2 or 3√2: √2: 1 11. (b) Let a be the side of square and l and b be length and breadth of rectangle According to the question, l+ a = 36 and a+b = 24 Also l = 2b Using given data we get l = 24 cm and b = 12 cm and a = 12 cm. Ratio = 12*12: 12*24 = 1:2. 12.

(c)

Breadth of rectangle =

√1444 4

= 9.5 đ?‘?đ?‘š

Length = 3 * breadth = 28.5 cm Area = 28.5 * 9.5 = 270 .75 sq. cm Difference in area = 1444- 270.75 = 1173.25 sq. cm 13. (b) The width of the street = √22 − 1.62 + √22 − 1.22 = 2.8 đ?‘š www.ibpsguide.com | www.ibpsguide.in|mock.ibpsguide.in| www.sscexamguide.com CopyrightŠ 2016 IBPS Guide | For Queries contact – admin@ibpsguide.com Page-136

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14. (b) The diagonal of the rectangular lawn = √802 + 602 = 100 đ?‘š Speed =18 km/ hr = 5m/sec Time taken by man = 100/5 = 20 second. 15. (a) Generator = slant height = 23 cm and radius = 45/2 cm Height of axial section = √232 − 22.52 = 4.8 đ?‘?đ?‘š. 16. (c) Diagonal of square = √2 Let a be the side of the square, a = 1cm. Lateral surface of cylinder = perimeter of square = 4 2*Ď€*r*h = 4 Two entities remain unknown, so data inadequate 17.

(a)

Height of the isosceles triangle = Area = base * height = a*

đ?‘?2 −

đ?‘?2 −

đ?‘Ž 2 2

đ?‘Ž 2 2

18. (c) For fencing perimeter of land i.e. isosceles triangle is required which needed more data So data inadequate 19. (a) Length of the longest rod = √302 + 252 + 182 = 43 đ?‘š 20.

(b) 1

1

Capacity of frustum = 3 ∗ đ?œ‹ ∗ đ?‘•đ?‘’đ?‘–đ?‘”đ?‘•đ?‘Ą đ?‘&#x; 2 + đ?‘&#x; ∗ đ?‘… + đ?‘… 2 = 3 ∗ đ?œ‹ ∗ 6 ∗ 22 + 42 + 2 ∗ 4 Capacity = 176 cmÂł. 21. (a) Surface area of cuboid = 27*8 + 8*1 + 1*27 = 251 cm² Surface area of cube = 6 * a * a = 216 cm² Difference in area = 251-216 = 35 cm². 22. (a)

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5đ?‘Ľ 2

2

6đ?‘Ľ + 2

2

= 50

On solving we get x = 100/√61 Diagonals are 500/√61đ?‘Žđ?‘›đ?‘‘ 600/√61 Area = product of diagonals = 4918 sq. cm 23. (b) According to the question, Area = 3.43Ď€ m² = Ď€ * r² Then r = 0.7√7 Circumference of circular disc = 44√7/10 Number of revolution = 8800/44√7 * 10 ≅ 756 24.

(e)

Length of the canvas = 25.

2∗đ?œ‹âˆ—5.6∗6 2∗đ?œ‹âˆ—4

= 52.8 m

(c)

45° Sin 45 = x/4 1/ √2 = đ?‘Ľ/4 Then height of parallelogram = x = 2√2đ?‘?đ?‘š Area of parallelogram = base * height = 8 * 2√2 = 16√2đ?‘ đ?‘ž. đ?‘?đ?‘š 26.

(c)

Area of shaded region = 4 * r*r Area of unshaded region = 4*r*r – r*r = 3*r². 27. (a) Area of triangle = ½ * base * height www.ibpsguide.com | www.ibpsguide.in|mock.ibpsguide.in| www.sscexamguide.com CopyrightŠ 2016 IBPS Guide | For Queries contact – admin@ibpsguide.com Page-138

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New height h‘ = 60/100 * h = 0.6h New area = ½ *base * 0.6 h = 3/10 * old area % of areas = 30% 28. (c) Let a be side of square, x be side of rhombus and l and b be length and breadth of rectangle Then 4a=4x=2(l+b) No more data is given which is required to answer the question, hence data inadequate. 29.

(b)

Time taken by the cow to cover twice the whole field =

đ?œ‹âˆ—14∗14∗2 220

=

28 5

3

= 5 5 đ?‘‘đ?‘Žđ?‘Śđ?‘

30. (a) Let side of square = a Then area of square = a² Side of equilateral triangle will be √2đ?‘Ž Area of equilateral triangle = Ratio of areas = 31.

√3 2 đ?‘Ž 2

√3 2

(b)

Old area of equilateral triangle =

√3 2 đ?‘Ž 4

Where a be side of triangle When a becomes double, New area =

√3 4

∗ 2đ?‘Ž

2

= 4 ∗ đ?‘œđ?‘™đ?‘‘ đ?‘Žđ?‘&#x;đ?‘’đ?‘Ž

32. (d) More data is needed to answer the question 33. (b) Total error = 1% +1% + 1%*1% = 2.01% 34. (b) Distance travelled by A = 68 *20/60 = 68/3 meters Distance travelled by B = 50 * 20/60 mins = 50/3 meters Other side = Area = 2√59 ∗ 35.

68 2 3 50 3

−

50 2 3

= 2√59

≅ 256 đ?‘?đ?‘š2

(a)

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Total decrease in area = -10%-8% + 10%*8% = -17.2% 36. (c) From statement I, volume = 4158 cu. m From statement II, surface area = 1485 sq. cm Combining both statement we get r = 28/5 cm and height = 42.2 cm 37. (c) From statement I, radius= height/2 From statement II, area= 616 cm²=> radius = 14 cm Combining both statement height = 28 cm Then volume = π*14²*28 = 17248 m³. 38. (d) From statement I, circumference = x cm, 2*π*r = x, r= x/(2*π), area = x²/4π From statement II, diameter = y cm, radius = y/2 cm, area = π*(y/2)² By using either data we can get the required result. 39. (e) From statement I, area of hall = area of parallelogram From statement II, cost of flooring per sq. meter= Rs. 350 More data is needed to answer the question. 40. (e) From statement I, let the adjacent sides be 4x and 5x From statement II, altitude = 4 cm. More data is needed to answer the question. 41. (e) From statement I, area of rectangular hall = 605 cm² From statement II, circular bed has covered the area, but its measurement or data regarding it is not given so neither I nor II can give the answer. 42. (e) From statement I, area of parallelogram = base * height = area of circle also r = h From statement II, perimeter of parallelogram = 15 + circumference of circle By combining both statement we get l = 7.5 cm, More data is needed to answer the question. 43. (a) From statement I, let the radius = R²+R² = 5² R²= 25/2, area = π*25/2 90° www.ibpsguide.com | www.ibpsguide.in|mock.ibpsguide.in| www.sscexamguide.com Copyright© 2016 IBPS Guide | For Queries contact – admin@ibpsguide.com Page-140

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From statement II, 2*Ď€*r = length of rectangle Only statement I is needed to answer the question. 44. (b) From statement I, 2*Ď€*(R-r) = 44cm, R-r = 7 cm From statement II, area of path = difference between the outer to inner circle = 56 cm². Only statement II is sufficient to answer the question, 45. (e) From statement I, one angle = 60° From statement II, length- height = 3 cm More data is required to answer the question. 46. (c) From statement I, area of shaded region = 56cm², area of rectangle = 8*5 = 40 cm² So difference in area = 56-40 = 16 cm². From statement II, difference in area =16 cm² Relation between both statement is I=II 47. (b) From statement I, perimeter of rectangle = 44cm, perimeter of excluded part = 48 cm Perimeter of triangle = 48-half perimeter of circle-2*length of rectangle +diameter of circle = 48-22-16+14= 24 cm From statement II, perimeter = 36 cm Statement I<statement II 48.

(b)

Area of triangle can be calculated by using data and formula

đ?‘ ∗ đ?‘ − đ?‘Ž ∗ đ?‘ − đ?‘? ∗ đ?‘ − đ?‘? đ?‘¤đ?‘•đ?‘’đ?‘&#x;đ?‘’ đ?‘ =

đ?‘Ž+đ?‘?+đ?‘? 3

From statement I, area of semicircle = 22 cm² ratio = 6/6+22 = 3/14 From statement II, ratio = 6/7 So, statement II> statement I. 49.

(a) 2

From statement I, total surface area = 2đ?œ‹ ∗ đ?‘&#x; ∗ đ?‘• + 3 ∗ đ?œ‹ ∗ đ?‘&#x;² = 630 đ?‘?đ?‘š² From statement II, total surface area = 90 cm² Statement I > statement II 50.

(a)

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From statement I, đ?œ‹ ∗ đ?‘&#x; ∗ √đ?‘•2 + đ?‘&#x; 2 = 550 đ?‘Žđ?‘›đ?‘‘ đ?‘&#x; = 7 đ?‘?đ?‘š, đ?‘œđ?‘› đ?‘ đ?‘œđ?‘™đ?‘Łđ?‘–đ?‘›đ?‘” đ?‘¤đ?‘’ đ?‘”đ?‘’đ?‘Ą đ?‘•đ?‘’đ?‘–đ?‘”đ?‘•đ?‘Ą = 24 đ?‘?đ?‘š From statement II, height = 20 cm We can say that Statement I >statement II QUADRATIC EQUATION Directions (1-5) : In each of these questions, two equations are given. You have to solve these equations and find out the values of x and y and Give answer a) If x>y b) If x ≼ y c) If x<y d) If x ≤ y e) If x=y or relationship cannot be established 1). I. 6x = 4y + 186 3 II. y = √46656 2). I. (81)1/4x + (343)1/3 =0 35 +93

II. 6 6 = y3 3). I. 3x + 5y = 34.5 II. 4x – 9y = -1 32 4). I. 3x – � - 4 = 0 II. 3y -

14

2

đ?‘Ś

= 19

5). I. x + 16x + 64 = 0 Directions (6-10) : In each of these questions, two equations are given. You have to solve these equations and find out the values of x and y and Give answer a) If p > q b) If p ≼ q c) If p < q d) If p ≤ q e) If p = q or relationship cannot be established 2 6). I. p + 13p + 40 = 0 II. q2 + 7q + 12 = 0 7). I. p = (-10)2 II.q2 + q – 9900 =0 2 8). I. p -5p + 6 = 0 II. q2 – 4q + 3 = 0 9). I. p Ă— 35% - p/20 =6 II. q2 = 400 10). I. 17p2 – 14p – 43 = - 40 II. q2 = 5q + 204 Directions (Q. 11–15): In each of these questions, two equations numbered I and II with variables x and y are given. You have to solve both the equations to find the value of x and y. Give answer (a) if x > y (b) if x ≼ y www.ibpsguide.com | www.ibpsguide.in|mock.ibpsguide.in| www.sscexamguide.com CopyrightŠ 2016 IBPS Guide | For Queries contact – admin@ibpsguide.com Page-142

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(c) if x < y (d) if x ≤ y (e) if x = y or relationship between x and y cannot be determined. 11). I. 5x2 – 8x + 3 = 0 II. 3y2 + 5y – 2 = 0 12). I. x8 – (3 * 8)17/2 /√x = 0 II. 11/√y + 18/√y = √y 13). I. √169 x2– 2197 = 0 II. √ (484) y + 132 = 0 14). I. (625)(1/4) x + √ (1225) = 155 II. 225y2 + 18 = 279 15). I. x2 – 7x + 12 = 0 II. y2 – 9y + 20 = 0 Directions (Q.16-20): In each of these questions, two equations (I) and (II) are given. You have to solve both the equations and give answer (a) if x > y (b) if x < y (c) if x ≥y (d) if x ≤ y (e) if x = y or relationship between x and y cannot be determined. 16). I. 8x+y = 10 II. 4x + 2y = 13 17). I. (x+3) (y+2) = 12 II. 2xy + 4x + 5y = 11 18). I. (3x-2)/y = (3x+6)/ (y+16) II. (x+2)/(y+4) = (x+5)/(y+10) 19). I. x2 + 20x + 4 = 50 – 25x II. y2 – 10y – 24 = 0 20). I. (x2-10x + 16) / (x2 – 12x + 24) = 2/3 II. y2 – y – 20 = 0 Directions (21 - 25): In each of these questions, two equations (I) and (II) are given. You have to solve both the equations and give answer (a) if x < y (b) if x > y (c) if x ≤ y (d) if x ≥y (e) if x = y or relationship between x and y cannot be determined. 21). I. 6x2 – 49x + 99 = 0 II. 5y2 + 17y + 14 = 0 22). I. 5x2 = 19x-12 II. 5y2 + 11y = 12 23). I. x3 = (1331)1/3 II. 2y2 – 21y + 55 = 0 24). I. 5x = 7y + 21 www.ibpsguide.com | www.ibpsguide.in|mock.ibpsguide.in| www.sscexamguide.com Copyright© 2016 IBPS Guide | For Queries contact – admin@ibpsguide.com Page-143

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II. 11x + 4y + 109 = 0 25). I. 2x2 – 11x+12 = 0 II. 2y2-17y+36 = 0 Directions (Q. 26-30): In the following questions, two Equations I and II are given. You have to solve both the equation. Give Answer a) If x > y b) If x ≥ y c) If x < y d) If x ≤ y e) If x = y or the relationship cannot be established 26). I. 5x2 – 18x + 9 = 0 II. 20y2 – 13y + 2 = 0 27). I. x3 – 878 = 453 II. y2 – 82 = 39 28). I. 3/√x + 4/√x = √x II. y3 – (7)7/2 /√y = 0 29). I. 9x – 15.45 = 54.55 + 4x II. √(y + 155) – √36 = √49 30). I. x2 + 11x + 30 = 0 II. y2 + 7y + 12 = 0 31). I. x2 – 19x + 84 = 0 II. y2 – 25y + 156 = 0 32). I. x3 – 468 = 1729 II. y2 – 1733 + 1564 = 0 33). I. 9/√x + 19/√x = √x II. y5 – (2 × 14)11/2 /√y = 0 34). I. √(784)x + 1234 = 1486 II. √(1089)y + 2081 = 2345 35). I. 12/√x - 23/√x = 5√x II. √y/12 - 5√y/12 = 1/√y Directions (Q. 36-44) In each question, two equations numbered I and II have been given. You have to solve both the equations and mark the appropriate option. 36). I. 2x2 + 19x + 45 = 0 II. 2y2 + 11y + 12 = 0 a) x > y b) x ≥ y c) x < y d) Relationship between x and y cannot be determined e) x ≤ y 37). I. 3x2 - 13x + 12 = 0 II. 2y2 - 15y + 28 = 0 a) x ≥ y b) Relationship between x and y cannot be determined c) x > y d) x < y e) x ≤ y 38). I. x2 = 16 II. 2y2 - 17y + 36 = 0 www.ibpsguide.com | www.ibpsguide.in|mock.ibpsguide.in| www.sscexamguide.com Copyright© 2016 IBPS Guide | For Queries contact – admin@ibpsguide.com Page-144

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a) b) c) d) e)

x<y Relationship between x and y cannot be determined x>y x≥y x≤y

39). I. 6x2 + 19x + 15 = 0 II. 3y2 + 11y + 10 = 0 a) x ≤ y b) x < y c) x ≥ y d) x > y e) Relationship between x and y cannot be determined 40). I. 2x2 - 11x + 15 = 0 II. 2y2 - 11y + 14 = 0 a) x ≤ y b) x > y c) x ≥ y d) x < y e) Relationship between x and y cannot be determined 41). I. x2 + 9x - 36 = 0 II. y2 - 2y - 24 = 0 a) x = y or relationship cannot be established b) x < y c) x ≥ y d) x ≤ y e) x > y 42). I. 6x – 5y = 17 II. 3x – 4y = 13 a) x > y b) x ≤ y c) x = y or relationship cannot be established d) x ≥ y e) x < y 43). I. x = (- 3)2 II. y2/3 = 64 a) x > y b) x < y c) x ≥ y d) x ≤ y e) x = y or relationship cannot be established 44). I. x2 - 20x + 99 = 0 II. y2 - 18y + 72 = 0 a) x < y b) x > y c) x = y or relationship cannot be established d) x ≤ y e) x ≥ y www.ibpsguide.com | www.ibpsguide.in|mock.ibpsguide.in| www.sscexamguide.com Copyright© 2016 IBPS Guide | For Queries contact – admin@ibpsguide.com Page-145

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Directions (Q. 45-49) In the following questions, two equations I and II are given. You have to solve both the equations. Give Answer a) If x > y b) If x ≥ y c) If x < y d) If x ≤ y e) If x = y or the relation cannot be established 45). I. (25 / x2) – (12 / x) + (9 / x2) = (4 / x2) II. 9.84 – 2.64 = 0.95 + y2 46). I . √(900)x + √(1296) = 0 II. (256)1/4 y + (216)1/3 = 0 47). I. [(3)5 + (7)3 / 3] = x3 II. 7y3 = - (15 × 2) + 17y3 48). I. (x1/4 / 16)2 = 144 / x3/2 II. y1/3 × y2/3 × 3014 = 16 × y2 49). I. 3x2 – 9x + 28 = 0 II. 5y2 – 18y + 16 = 0 Directions (Q. 50-54) In the following questions, two equations I and II are given. You have to solve both the equations. Give Answer a) If x > y b) If x ≥ y c) If x < y d) If x ≤ y e) If x = y or the relationship cannot be established 50). I. x2 – 1200 = 244 II. y + 122 = 159 SOLUTION AND EXPLANATION OF QUADRATIC EQUATION Solutions 1). a) x=55, y=36 x>y 2). c) x = -7/3, y=5.45 x<y 3). a) x = 13/2, y=3 x>y 4). e) x = 4, -8/3, y = 7, -2/3 No relation 5). e) x = -8, -8, No relation 6). c) p = -8, -5, q = -4, -3 p<q 7). a) p = 100, q = - 100, 99 p>q 8). e) p = 3,2 q = 3, 1 No relation 9). b) p = 20 q = ± 20 p≥q 10). e) p = 1, -3/17 q = -12, 17 No relation Solutions 11). a) I. 5x2 – 5x – 3x + 3 = 0 www.ibpsguide.com | www.ibpsguide.in|mock.ibpsguide.in| www.sscexamguide.com Copyright© 2016 IBPS Guide | For Queries contact – admin@ibpsguide.com Page-146

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5x(x – 1) –3 (x – 1) = 0 x = 1, 3/5 II. 3y2 + 6y – y – 2 = 0 3y (y + 2) –1 (y + 2) = 0 (y + 2) (3y – 1) = 0 y = –2, 1/3 x>y 12. c) I. x17/2 = (24)17/2 x = 24 II. y = 29 y>x 13). a) I. 13x = 2197 x = 169 II. 22y = – 132 y=–6 x>y 14). a) I. √ (25)x +35 = 155 x = 120/5 = 24 II. 15y = 261 y = 17.4 x>y 15). d) I. x2 – 4x – 3x + 12 = 0 (x – 4) (x – 3) = 0 x = 4, 3 II. y2 – 5y – 4y + 20 = 0 (y – 5) (y – 4) = 0 y = 5, 4 y ≥x 16). b) From both equations x =7/12, y = 16/3 y>x 17). e) xy + 3y + 2x + 6 = 12 2xy + 6y + 4x = 12 ---- (i) 2xy + 5y + 4x = 11 ---- (ii) From eq. (i) – (ii) y=1 From eq. (i) www.ibpsguide.com | www.ibpsguide.in|mock.ibpsguide.in| www.sscexamguide.com Copyright© 2016 IBPS Guide | For Queries contact – admin@ibpsguide.com Page-147

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x=1 x=y 18). b) (3x-2)/y = (3x+6)/(y+16) 48x-8y = 32 ----- (i) (x+2)/(y+4)= (x+5)/(y+10) y = 2x ---- (ii) from Equations (i) & (ii) x=1, y=2 y>x 19). e) From the given Equation x=1, -46 y = -2, ½ No relation 20). e) From 1st equations x2 – 6x = 0 x=0, 6 From 2nd equation (y+4) (y-5) y= -4, 5 No relation 21). b) 6x2-49x+99=0 (3x-11)(2x-9) =0 x=11/3, 9/2 5y2 + 17y + 14 = 0 (5y+7)(y+2) = 0 y=-2, -7/5 x>y 22). d) 5x2-19x+12 = 0 x=3, 4/5 5y2+11y=12 y=4/5, -3 x≥y 23). b) x=11 2y2 – 21y + 55 = 0 (2y-11)(y-5)=0 y=5, 11/2 x>y www.ibpsguide.com | www.ibpsguide.in|mock.ibpsguide.in| www.sscexamguide.com Copyright© 2016 IBPS Guide | For Queries contact – admin@ibpsguide.com Page-148

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24). b) From given equations x=-7 y=-8 x>y 25). c) 2x2-11x+12 = 0 x=3/2, 4 2y2-17y+36 = 0 y= 4, 9/2 y≥x 26).a) I. 5x2 – 18x + 9 = 0 5x2 – 15x – 3x + 9 = 0 5x (x -3) – 3(x - 3) = 0 (x - 3) (5x – 3) = 0 x = 3 or 3/5 II. 20y2 – 13y + 2 = 0 20y2 – 8y – 5y + 2 = 0 4y(5y - 2) -1(5y - 2) = 0 (4y - 1) (5y - 2) = 0 y = 1/4 or 2/5 Clearly x > y 27).b) I. x3 – 878 = 453 x = 3√1331 = 11 ; x = 11 II. y2 – 82 = 39 y2 = 82 + 39 = 121 y = ±11 x≥y 28).e) I. 3/√x + 4/√x = √x 3 +4 = x x=7 II. y3 – (7)7/2 /√y = 0 y3+1/2 – (7)7/2 = 0 y7/2 = 77/2 ; y = 7 Clearly, x = y 29).e) I. 9x – 15.45 = 54.55 + 4x 9x - 4x = 70 5x = 70 ; x = 14 www.ibpsguide.com | www.ibpsguide.in|mock.ibpsguide.in| www.sscexamguide.com Copyright© 2016 IBPS Guide | For Queries contact – admin@ibpsguide.com Page-149

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II. √(y + 155) – √36 = √49 √(y + 155) = 6 + 7 ; √(y + 155) = 13 y + 155 = 169 y = 169 – 155 = 14 Clearly, x = y 30).c) I. x2 + 11x + 30 = 0 x2 + 6x + 5x + 30 = 0 x(x +6) + 5(x + 6) = 0 (x + 5) (x + 6) = 0 x = -5 (or) -6 II. y2 + 7y + 12 = 0 y2 + 4y + 3y + 12 = 0 y(y+4) + 3(y+4) = 0 (y+3) (y+4) = 0 y = -3 (or) -4 x<y 31).d) I. x2 – 19x + 84 = 0 x2 – 12x – 7x + 84 = 0 x(x - 12) -7(x - 12) = 0 x = 7 (or) 12 II. y2 – 25y + 156 = 0 y2 – 12y – 13y + 156 = 0 y(y - 12) – 13(y - 12) = 0 (y - 12) (y - 13) = 0 Y = 12 (or) 13 Clearly, x ≤ y 32).b) I. x3 – 468 = 1729 x3 = 1729 + 468 = 2197 x = 3√2197 = 13 II. y2 – 1733 + 1564 = 0 y2 – 169 = 0 y = ±13 x≥y 33).e) I. 9/√x + 19/√x = √x (9 + 19) / √x = √x 28 = √x ×√x ; x = 28 II. y5 – (2 × 14)11/2 /√y = 0 [y5 √y – (28)11/2] / √y = 0 a y11/2 – (28)11/2 = 0 y = 28 www.ibpsguide.com | www.ibpsguide.in|mock.ibpsguide.in| www.sscexamguide.com Copyright© 2016 IBPS Guide | For Queries contact – admin@ibpsguide.com Page-150

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Clearly, x = y 34).a) I. √(784)x + 1234 = 1486 √(784)x = 1486 – 1234 ; √(784)x = 252 x = 252 / 28 ; x = 9 II. √(1089)y + 2081 = 2345 √(1089)y = 2345 – 2081 ; √(1089)y = 264 y = 264 / 33 ; y = 8 x>y 35).a) I. 12/√x - 23/√x = 5√x (12 - 23) / √x = 5x ; -11 x = -11/5 II. √y/12 - 5√y/12 = 1/√y (√y-5√y) / 12 = 1/√y ; -4√y ×√y = 12 -4y = 12 ; y = -3 Clearly, x>y 36). c) I. 2x2 + 19x + 45 = 0 2 × 45 = 90 = (10 × 9) (10 + 9 = 19) x = (-10/2), (-9/2) (dividing by co efficient of x2 and changing signs) x = -5, -4.5 II. 2y2 + 11y + 12 = 0 2 × 12 = 24 (8 × 3 = 24) (8 + 3 = 11) y = (-8/2), (-3/2) ) (dividing by co efficient of y2 and changing signs) y = -4, -1.5 Hence x < y 37). d) I. 3x2 - 13x + 12 = 0 12 × 3 = 36 (-9 × -4 = 36) (-9 – 4 = -13) x = 9/3, 4/3 (dividing by co efficient of x2 and changing signs) x = 3, 4/3 II. 2y2 - 15y + 28 = 0 2 × 28 = 56 (-8 × -7 = 56) (-8 -7 = -15) (dividing by co efficient of y2 and changing signs) y = 4, 3.5 Hence = x < y 38). e) I. x2 = 16 x = ±4 II. 2y2 - 17y + 36 = 0 2 × 36 = 72 (-9 × -8 = 72) (-9 -8 = -17) y = 9/2, 8/2 (dividing by co efficient of y2 and changing signs) y = 4.5, 4 Hence = x ≤ y www.ibpsguide.com | www.ibpsguide.in|mock.ibpsguide.in| www.sscexamguide.com Copyright© 2016 IBPS Guide | For Queries contact – admin@ibpsguide.com Page-151

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39). c) I. 6x2 + 19x + 15 = 0 6 × 15 = 90 (10 × 9 = 90) (10 + 9 = 19) x = -10/6, -9/6 (dividing by co efficient of x2 and changing signs) x = -5/3, -3/2 = -1.66, -1.5 II. 3y2 + 11y + 10 = 0 3 × 10 = 30 (6 × 5 = 30) (6 + 5 = 11) y = -6/3, -5/2 (dividing by co efficient of y2 and changing signs) y = -1.6, -2 Hence x ≥ y 40). e) I. 2x2 - 11x + 15 = 0 2 × 15 = 30 (-6 × -5 = 30) (-6 – 5 = -11) x = -6/2, -5/2 (dividing by co efficient of x2 and changing signs) x = 3, 2.5 II. 2y2 - 11y + 14 = 0 2 × 14 = 28 (-7 × -4 = 28) (-7 -4 = -11) y = 7/2, 4/2 (dividing by co efficient of y2 and changing signs) y = 3.5, 2 Hence relationship cannot be established. 41). a) I. x2 + 9x - 36 = 0 x2 + 12x -3x -36 = 0 x (x + 12) – 3 (x +12) = 0 (x - 3) (x + 12) = 0 x = 3, -12 II. y2 - 2y - 24 = 0 y2 - 6y + 4y – 24 = 0 y (y - 6) + 4 (y - 6) = 0 (y + 4) (y - 6) = 0 y = - 4, 6 Hence relationship cannot be established 42). a) I. 6x – 5y = 17 ..(i) II. 3x – 4y = 13 ..(ii) Solving (i) × 3 – (ii) × 6, we get 18x – 15y = 51 -18x + 24y = -78 We get 9y = -27 y = -3 Putting the value of y in equation (i), we get 6x = 2, x = 1/3 Hence x >y 43). b) I. x = (- 3)2 = 9 II. y2/3 = 64 y1/3 = 8; y = 82×(3 / 2) = 512 www.ibpsguide.com | www.ibpsguide.in|mock.ibpsguide.in| www.sscexamguide.com Copyright© 2016 IBPS Guide | For Queries contact – admin@ibpsguide.com Page-152

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Hence x < y 44). c) I. x2 - 20x + 99 = 0 x2 – 11x – 9x + 99 = 0 x(x - 11) -9 (x - 11) = 0 (x - 9) (x - 11) = 0 x = 9,11 II. y2 - 18y + 72 = 0 y2 – 12y – 6y +72 = 0 y(y - 12) -6 (y - 12) = 0 (y - 6) (y - 12) = 0 y = 6, 12 Hence relationship cannot be established. 45).b) I. (25/x2 ) + (9/x2 ) – (4/x2 ) = (12/x) (25 + 9 - 4) / x2 = 12/x = 30/x2 = 12/x 12x = 30 x = 30 / 12 = 5/2 = 2.5 II. 9.84 -2.64 = 0.95 + y2 7.2 – 0.95 = y2 y = √(6.25) = ± (2.5) clearly x ≥ y 46).a) I. √(900)x + √(1296) =0 √(900)x = -√(1296) 30x = -36 x = -36 / 30 = -1.2 II. (256)1/4 y = (216)1/3 (44)1/4 y = - (63)1/3 ; 4y = -6 Y = -(6/4) = -1.5 Clearly, x > y 47).a) I. [(3)5 + (7)3] / 3 = x3 (243 + 343) / 3 = x3 (586 / 3) = x3 II. 7y3 = -30 + 17y3 = 10y3 = 30 y3 = 30/10 = 3 clearly, x > y 48). c) I. (x1/4 / 16)2 = (144 / x3/2 ) = (x1/2 / 256) = (144 / x3/2 ) (x1/2 ) × (x3/2 ) = 256 × 144 x2 = (256 × 144) x = √(256 × 144) x = ± (16 × 12) = ±192 II. y1/3 × y2/3 × 3104 = 16y2 y × 3104 = 16y2 3104 = 16y www.ibpsguide.com | www.ibpsguide.in|mock.ibpsguide.in| www.sscexamguide.com Copyright© 2016 IBPS Guide | For Queries contact – admin@ibpsguide.com Page-153

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Y = 3104 / 16 = 194 Clearly, x > y 49). a) I. 3x2 – 9x + 28 = 0 3x2 - 12x – 7x + 28 = 0 3x (x - 4) – 7 (x - 4) = 0 (x - 4) (3x - 7) = 0 x = 4, 7/3 II. 5y2 – 18y + 16 = 0 5y2 – 10y – 8y + 16 = 0 5y (y - 2) – 8 (y - 2) = 0 (y - 2) (5y - 8) = 0 Y = 2, 8/5 Clearly, x > y 50). e) I. x2 = 1200 + 244 x2 = 1444 x = √(1444) = ± 38 II. y = 159 – 122 = 37 Clearly, x > y or x < y Hence, the relationship cannot be established. 51). a) I. 14x + 7x = 59 + 25 21x = 84; x = 4 II. √(y + 222) = √(36) + √(81) √(y + 222) = ± 6 ±9 √(y + 222) = ± 15 Taking (+ve) sign, √(y + 222) = 15 y + 222 = 225 y = 225 – 222 = 3 Taking (-ve) sign, √(y + 222) = -15 (y + 222) = 225 Y = 225 – 222 = 3 Clearly, x > y 52). e) I. 144x2 = 16 + 9 144x2 = 25 ;x2 = 25 / 144 x = ± 5 / 12 II. 12y = √49 - √4 12y = ± 7 – (± 2) 12y = ± 5 y = ± 5 / 12 clearly, x = y 53).c) x2 – 9x + 20 = 0 x2 – 5x -4x +20 = 0 www.ibpsguide.com | www.ibpsguide.in|mock.ibpsguide.in| www.sscexamguide.com Copyright© 2016 IBPS Guide | For Queries contact – admin@ibpsguide.com Page-154

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x(x - 5) – 4 (x - 5) = 0 (x - 5) (x - 4) = 0 x = 5 or 4 II. y2 – 13y + 42 = 0 y2 – 7y – 6y + 42 = 0 y(y - 7) – 6 (y - 7) = 0 (y - 7) (y - 6) = 0 Y = 6 (or) 7 Clearly, x < y 54).e) I. (2√x + 3√x) / 10 = 1 / √x 2x + 3x = 10 5x = 10 x=2 II. (10 - 2) / √y = 4 √y 8 = 4y y=8/4=2 Clearly, x = y PROBLEMS ON PARTNERSHIP 1). HarshaBhogle started a business by investing Rs. 36000. After 4 months Raghu joined him with some investment. At the end of the year, the total profit was divided between them in the ratio of 9 : 7. How much capital was invested by Raghu in the business? a) Rs 40000 b)Rs 42000 c) Rs 35000 d) None of these 2). K started some business with Rs 26000. After 3 months H joined him with his money of Rs 16000. After some time R joined them with Rs 25000. At the end of the year, out of a total profit of Rs 15453, R gets Rs 3825 as his share. How many months after H joined the business did R join? a) 3 months b) 6 months c) 4 months d) 5 months 3). X, Y and Z started a business with their investments in the ratio 1:2:4. After 6 months X invested the half amount more as before and Y invested twice the amount as before while Z withdraw 1/4th of their investments. Find the ratio of their profits at the end of the year. a) 6:13:15 b) 3:15:16 c) 5:12:14 d) None of these 4). Ranbir started a business with Rs 52000 and after 4 months Randheer joined him with Rs 39000. At the end of the year, out of total profits Randheer received total of Rs 20000 including 25% of the profits as commission for managing the business. What amount did Ranbir receive? a) Rs 10000 b) Rs 40000 c) Rs 30000 d) Rs 20000 5). A company makes a profit of Rs 9,00,000, 20% of which is paid as taxes. If the rest is divided among the partners A, B and C in the ratio of 1 : 3/2 : 2, then the shares of A, B and C are respectively. a) 2,40,000 : 3,20,000 : 1,60,000 b) 3,20,000 : 2,40,000 : 1,60,000 www.ibpsguide.com | www.ibpsguide.in|mock.ibpsguide.in| www.sscexamguide.com Copyright© 2016 IBPS Guide | For Queries contact – admin@ibpsguide.com Page-155

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c) 1,60,000 : 3,20,000 : 2,40,000

d) 1,60,000 : 2,40,000 : 3,20,000

Q (6 – 7): Four friends P, Q, R & S have some money among them one day they decided to equate the money, so first P gave Q what Q had initially, then Q gave R what R had initially. Again R gave S what S had initially and finally S had doubled the money of P. Thus each of them had equal sum of Rs 48. 6). What was the initial amount of Q? a) Rs 36 b) Rs 54 c) Rs 45 d) Rs 42 7). What was the amount with R after second transaction? a) Rs 45 b) Rs 69 c) Rs 72

d) Rs 84

8). Divide Rs 6940 in such a way that X gets 2/3rd of what Y gets and Ygets3/5th of what Z gets? What is the share of X & Y? a) Rs 1982 b) Rs 1388 c) Rs 3470 d) None of these 9). The ratio of income of Kamlesh and Rathi is 2 : 3. The sum of their expenditure is Rs 8000 and the amount of savings of Kamlesh is equal to the amount of expenditure of Rathi. What is the sum of their savings? a) Rs 22,000 b) Rs 4,000 c) Rs 16,000 d) Rs 12,000 10). Airtel and Vodafone entered into a partnership just 5 months ago. The ratio of profit claimed by Airtel and Vodafone is 6 : 17. If Vodafone had just started his business 12 months ago with Rs 1275, what is the amount contributed by Airtel? a) Rs 980 b) Rs 1080 c) Rs 1200 d) Rs 998 11). L& M enter into a partnership for a year. L contributes Rs 3000 and M Rs 4000. After 4 months, they admit N, who contributes Rs 4500. If M withdraws his contribution after 6 months, how would they share a profit of Rs 1000 at the end of the year? a) Rs 250, Rs 200, Rs 550 b) Rs 150, Rs 200, Rs 650 c) Rs 375, Rs 250, Rs 375 d) None of these 12). X, Y & Z are in a partnership. X contributes Rs 3,20,000 for 4 months, Y contributes Rs 5,10,000 for 3 months and Z contributes Rs 2,70,000 for 5 months. If the total profit be Rs 1,24,800 then X‘share of profit is a) Rs 38400 b) Rs 45900 c) Rs 41500 d) None of these 13). P, Q , R enter into partnership with capitals in the ratio 5 : 6 : 8. At the end of the businessterm, they received the profits in the ratio 5 : 3 : 12. Find the ratio of time for which they contributed their capitals? a) 2 : 1 : 3 b) 8 : 15 : 30 c) 2 : 3 : 1 d) 3 : 2 : 1 14). R & S invested Rs 16,000 and Rs 12,000 respectively. After 3 months, R withdrew Rs 5000, while S invested Rs 5000 more. After 3 months more, T joins the business with a capital of Rs 21,000. After a year, they obtained a profit of Rs 26,400. By what amount does the share of S exceed the share of T? a) Rs 3600 b) Rs 3800 c) Rs 4600 d) None of these www.ibpsguide.com | www.ibpsguide.in|mock.ibpsguide.in| www.sscexamguide.com Copyright© 2016 IBPS Guide | For Queries contact – admin@ibpsguide.com Page-156

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15). A & B enters into a speculation. A puts in Rs 50 and B puts in Rs 45. At the end of 4 months A withdraws half his capital and at the end of 6 months B withdraws half of his capital. C then enters with a capital of Rs 70. At the end of 12 months, in what ratio will the profit be divided? a) 60 : 51 : 34 b) 70 : 61 : 44 c) 80 : 61 : 54 d) 80 : 81 : 84 16). Four milkmen hires a pasture. A has 18 cows that graze for 4 months, B has 25 cows that graze for 2 months, C has 28 cows that graze for 5 months and D has 21 cows that graze for 3 months. If A pays Rs 360 then what is the rent of the pasture? a) Rs 1625 b) Rs 1240 c) Rs 1340 d) Rs 2260 17). P & Q rent a pasture for 10 months; and Q puts in 90 oxen for 7 months. How many oxen can Q put in for the remaining 3 months, if he pays half as much as P? a) 105 b) 110 c) 115 d) 120 18). Two partners invest Rs 125000 and Rs 85000 respectively in a business and agree that 60 % of the profit should be divided equally between them and the remaining profit is to be treated as interest on capital. If one partner gets Rs 300 more than the other, find the total profit made in the business. a) Rs 3739.50 b) Rs 3937.50 c) Rs 3749.50 d) Rs 3947.50 19). The investments made by P & Q are in the ratio 3 : 2. If 5% of total profit is donated and P gets Rs 8550 as his share of profit then what is the amount of total profit? a) Rs 14000 b) Rs 15000 c) Rs 11050 d) Rs 12020 20). MrArjun opened a workshop investing Rs 40000. He invested additional amount of Rs 10000 every year. After two years his brother Sukesh joined him with an amount of Rs 85000. Thereafter Sukesh did not invest any additional amount. On completion of for years from the opening of workshop they earned an amount of Rs 195000. What will be Arjun share in the earning? a) Rs 85000 b) Rs 110000 c) Rs 135000 d) Rs 95000 21). P, Q &R are in a partnership. P advances one – fourth of the capital for one – fourth of the time. Q contributes one – fifth of the capital for half of the time. R contributes the remaining capital for the whole time. How should they divided a profit of Rs 1140? a) Rs 100, Rs 160, Rs 880 b) Rs 110, Rs 140, Rs 860 c) Rs 120, RS 150, Rs 840 d) Rs 140, Rs 170, Rs 830 22). R, P, G start a business jointly. Twice the capital of R is equal to Thrice the capital of P and the capital of P is four times the capital of G. Find the share of P in an annual profit f Rs 148500. a) Rs 54000 b) Rs 64000 c) Rs 56000 d) Rs 55000 23). A, B & C invested capitals in the ratio of 4 : 6 : 9. At the end of the business term, they received the profit in the ratio of 2 : 3 : 5. Find the ratio of their time for which they contributed their capitals. a) 1 : 1 : 9 b) 2 : 2 : 9 c) 10 : 10 : 9 d) 9 : 9 : 10 www.ibpsguide.com | www.ibpsguide.in|mock.ibpsguide.in| www.sscexamguide.com Copyright© 2016 IBPS Guide | For Queries contact – admin@ibpsguide.com Page-157

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24). Akshita, Maneesha, Ankita take a car on rent and they use that car for 14h, 16h and 22h, respectively. What amount will be paid by Ankita, if total rent of the car is Rs 2080? a) Rs 880 b) Rs 1280 c) Rs 1040 d) Rs 960 25). Sajid invested 10% more than the investment of Monika and Monika invested 10% less than the investment of Ravi. If the total investment of all the three persons is Rs 5780, find the investment of Ravi. a) Rs 2010 b) Rs 2000 c) Rs 2100 d) Rs 2210 26). Suman&Kanika invest Rs 3000 and Rs 4000 respectively in a business. Suman receives Rs 10 per month out of the profit as a remuneration for running the business and the rest of the profit is divided in proportion to the investments. If in a year Suman totally receives Rs 390, what does Kanika receive? a) Rs 630 b) Rs 360 c) Rs 480 d) Rs 380 27). Kritika, Amisha&Anisha became partners in a business by investing money in the ratio of 5 : 7 : 6. Next year, they increased their investments by 26%, 20% and 15% respectively. In what ratio should profit earned during 2nd year be distributed? a) 21 : 28 : 23 b) 23 : 28 : 21 c) 28 : 23 : 21 d) 35 : 41 : 7 28). Akash and Virat started a joint business. Akash‘s investment was thrice the investment of Virat and the period of his investment was twice the period of investment of Virat. If Virat got Rs 6000 as profit, then what will be the 20% of the total profit? a) Rs 5000 b) Rs 8400 c) Rs 3500 d) Rs 4500 29). Pamela and Nicole started a business with Rs 20000 and Rs 35000 respectively. They agreed to share the profit in the ratio of their capital. Rachel joins the partnership with the condition that Pamela, Nicole and Rachel will share profit equally and pays Rs 220000 as premium for this, to be shared between Pamela & Nicole. This is to be divided between Pamela and Nicole in the ratio of a) 10 : 1 b) 1 : 10 c) 9 : 10 d) 10 : 9 30). Tatsat and Mohan invested an amount of Rs 16000 &Rs 12000 respectively. After 3 months Tatsat takes out Rs 5000, while Mohan puts in Rs 5000 more. After 3 months more, Rohan joins the business with a capital of Rs 21000. After a year, they earned a profit of Rs 13200. By what value does the share of Mohan exceeds the share of Rohan? a) Rs 1600 b) Rs 1800 c) Rs 2100 d) Rs 2300 31). Rs 171 are divided among four friends in the ratio of (1/3) : (1/4) : (1/5) : (1/6). What is the amount of the person who got the greatest share? a) 14 b) 40 c) 36 d) 60 32). Rs 4536 is divided among 4 men, 5 women & 2 boys. The ratio of share of a man, a woman and a boy is 7 : 4 : 3. What is the share of a woman? a) Rs 336 b) Rs 498 c) Rs 166 d) Rs 256 www.ibpsguide.com | www.ibpsguide.in|mock.ibpsguide.in| www.sscexamguide.com Copyright© 2016 IBPS Guide | For Queries contact – admin@ibpsguide.com Page-158

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33). J, K and L enters into a partnership with an amount of Rs 10000 each. After 4 months, J invests an additional Rs 2000. Three months later, K invests Rs 4000 and L at the same time withdraws Rs 2000. Profit at the end of the year is Rs 217000. What are their respective shares if L is to be allowed Rs 2000 as monthly salary from profits at the end? a) Rs 68000, Rs 70000, Rs 55000 b) Rs 70000, Rs 75000, Rs 50000 c) Cannot be determined d) None of these 34). Rs 535 is divided among P, Q , R so that if Rs 15, Rs 10, Rs 30 be subtracted from their respective shares, the remainders would have been in the ratio 4 : 5 : 7. What was their initial shares( in Rs)? a) Rs 136, Rs 155, Rs 230 b) Rs 130, Rs 150, Rs 225 c) Rs 135, Rs 160, Rs 240 d) None of these 35). Three men rent a farm for Rs 7000 per annum. One man puts 110 cows for 6 months, the second puts 50 cows for 9 months and the third puts 440 cows for 3 months. What part of the rent should the second person pay? a) 1/13 b) 5/14 c) 5/27 d) None of these 36). An amount of money is distributed amongst A, B & C such that A gets half that of B and B gets twice that of C. what is the ratio of the share of B to that of the sum of the shares of A & B? a) 2 : 5 b) 2 : 3 c) 3 : 2 d) 4 : 3 37). P, Q & R started a business in which Q and R were sleeping partners. They invested Rs 4,000, Rs 3,000 and Rs 7,000 respectively for a period of one year. P is paid 10% of the profit as compensation for his work, and then the rest is shared in the ratio of their investments among all the three. If P gets Rs 6,000 as his share of profit, find out the amount that Q and R together receive. a) Rs 9,000 b) Rs 7,500 c) Rs 9,600 d) Rs 10,800 (38 – 40) Harsh invested some money with the bookies. He invested on the odds of England winning which was 1 : 3( for every Re1 invested he gets Rs 3 if the result is in his favour). He knew about fixing of the matches played by India and invested some amount at odds of 1 : 4 of India losing the match. Both India & England won their respective matches. England played Australia while India played Sri Lanka. The following questions are independent of each other. 38) If Harsh‘s profit on his investment wsa 150% what is the ratio of investments in the two cases? a) 5 : 1 b) 1 : 5 c) 1 : 4 d) 4 : 1 39). If Harsh gained on the whole $2,00,000 and his investments were in the ratio 3 : 4, find the total amount invested. a) $7,00,000 b) $2,80,000 c) $3,00,000 d) $4,00,000 40). If the ratio of investment was 1: 2 in the two cases, and India lost the match, what would the gain on investment be? www.ibpsguide.com | www.ibpsguide.in|mock.ibpsguide.in| www.sscexamguide.com Copyright© 2016 IBPS Guide | For Queries contact – admin@ibpsguide.com Page-159

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a) 466.66%

b) 133.33%

c) 266.66%

d) 233.33%

41). R, S & T had different amounts of money with them. R had an amount equal to the average of the total. R spent half of what he had, S two – thirds of what he had, and T spent all the money he had. What was remaining with them was half of S had originally. What was the percentage of total amount spent by the three together? a) 90% b) 80% c) 75% d) 60% 42). Tina, Ishan, Abhishek& Fatima have a total of Rs 80. If Tina‘s share increases by Rs 3, Ishan‘s share increases by one – third of his share, Abhsishek‘s share decreases by 20% and Fatima‘s share decreases by Rs 4, all of them would have equal amounts of money. Fatima‘s original share is a) Rs 24 b) Rs 24.75 c) Rs 23.75 d) Rs 20 43). Raghini deposited Rs 1,000 at the start of year 2002 in a bank offering interest of 10%compounded annually. However, she used to withdraw a fixed amount at the end of every year. When she withdrew that fixed amount at the end of 2004, she discovered that no money is left in her deposit. Find that fixed amount. a) Rs 364.61 b) Rs 402.11 c) Rs 430.25 d) Rs 492.95 44). P, Q and R invested their money in the ratio 3 : 4 : 5 respectively. The total amount invested by them was Rs 4,60,000 and the profit earned was 40% of the amount invested. If they invested for the time period in the ratio 5 : 4 : 3, then what was the profit (in Rs) received by Q? a) 56,000 b) 60,000 c) 64,000 d) 68,000 45). Jack started a business with Rs 52000 and after 4 months Rajeev joined him with Rs39000. At the end of the year, out of the total profit Rajeev received total of Rs 20000 including 25% of the profits as commission for managing the business. What amount did Jack receive? a) 20500 b) 21000 c) 20000 d) 30000 46). Riya, Shamita and Shilpa invest Rs 50000 for a business. Riya invests Rs 4000 more than Shamita and Shamita invests Rs 5000 more than Shilpa. Out of the total profit of Rs 70000, what is the share received by riya? a) Rs 29400 b) Rs 30000 c) Rs 35000 d) Rs 40000 47). Raghav began a business with Rs 2250 and was joined afterwards by Raman with Rs 2700. If the profits at the end of the year were divided in the ratio of 2 : 1, after how much time Raman joined the business? a) 5 months b) 6 months c) 3 months d) 7 months 48). Jayesh, Gyanesh, Brijesh form a company. Jayesh invests half of Brijesh expecting a return of 10%. Gyanesh invests three – fourths of Brijesh, expecting a return of 15% on it. Brijesh invests Rs 3000 and the profit of the firm is 25%. How much would Gyanesh share of profit be more than that of Jayesh‘s share if Gyanesh gets an additional 8% for managing the business? ( Assume that their expectations with rest to returns on capital invested are met before profit is divided in the ratio of capitals invested). a) 20% b) 18% c) 15% d) Cannot be determined www.ibpsguide.com | www.ibpsguide.in|mock.ibpsguide.in| www.sscexamguide.com Copyright© 2016 IBPS Guide | For Queries contact – admin@ibpsguide.com Page-160

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49). MrSinghania after selling 5.5% stock at Rs 92 realizes 32200. Then he invested (1/3) of the amount in 4.5% stock at Rs 92(2/5) of the amount at Rs 115 in 5% stock and the remaining in 6% stock at rs 56. The change in his income. a) Rs 56 loss b) Rs 78 profit c) Rs 80 profit d) None of these 50). P, Q, R & S purchased a cineplex for Rs 56 lakhs. The contribution of Q, R and S together is 460% that of P, alone. The contribution of P, R & S together is 366.66% that of Q‘s contribution and the contribution of R is 40% that of P, Q and S together. The amount contributed by S is : a) 10 lakh b) 12 lakh c) 16 lakh d) 18 lakh

SOLUTION AND EXPLANATION OF PROBLEMS ON PARTNERSHIP

1). b) (36,000 * 12)/(x * 8) = 9/7 So x = 42,000 2). a) Ratio ( of share) of profits = (26,000 * 12) : ( 16000 * 9 ) : (25000 * R) =312 : 144 : 25R Now R‘s share = 25R/(456 + 25R) = 3825/15453 R=6 Therefore R joined 3 months later than H joined. 3). c) Let us assume their initial investments were x, 2x and 4x respectively. Therefore, ratio of their investments during the whole year = [(x * 6) + (3x/2 * 6)] : [(2x * 6) + (4x * 6)] : [(4x * 6) + (3x * 6)] = 15x : 36x : 42x = 5 :12 :14 4). d) Profit‘s share of Ranbir and Randheer are = [(52,000 * 12) : (39,000 * 8)] = 2 : 1 Let the profit be Rs x, then Randheer receives 25% as comparison for managing business, the remaining 75% of the total profit x is shared between Ranbir and Randheer in the ratio 2 :1. Hence Randheer will get 1/3rd part of this in addition to his commission. Hence his total earning = 0.25x + 1/3 * 0.75x S o 0.5x = 20,000 we get x=40,000 So, the remaining profit goes to Ranbir, hence the profit of Ranbir is Rs 20,000 5). amount left after paying 20% taxes is = 7,20,000 = the amount invested to earn further profit adding the ratios of their shares we get sum as = 9/2 their profits are in the ratio = [(1 * 2/9 * 7,20,000) : ( 3/2 * 2/9 * 7,20,000) : ( 2 * 2/9 * 7,20,000)] = 1,60,000 : 2,40,000 : 3,20,000

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6 – 7)

6) Ans is option c) Initially P Q R S

Q R S P

P 69 24 24 24 48

7) Ans is option d) Q 45 90 48 48 48

R 42 42 84 48 48

S 36 36 36 72 48

8) c) X : Y = 2 : 3 &Y:Z=3:5 X:Y:Z=2:3:5 So, (X + Y) + Z = 5 : 5 = 1 : 1 Hence, Share of (X + Y) = (1/2) * 6940 = Rs 3470 9) d) Let the incomes of K and R is 2x and 3x Let the savings of K be S, then the expenditure of R be S Also expenditure of K = 2x – S Given (2x – S) + S = 8000 x = 4000 Total income of K &R = 2x + 3x = 5 * 4000 = 20000 Total savings of K &R = 20,000 – 8000 = Rs 12,000

10) b) (Profit of Airtel)/(Profit of Reliance) = ( time period * amount of Airtel invested)/(time period * amount of reliance invested) Which gives 6/17 = (5 * K)/(12 * 1275) We get K = 1080

13) b) Since the ratio of shares of the profits are directly proportional to that of ratio of product of investment nd time for which sum is invested. So applying this we get –: (2 * 4) : (3 * 5) : (5 * 6) = 8 : 15 : 30 www.ibpsguide.com | www.ibpsguide.in|mock.ibpsguide.in| www.sscexamguide.com Copyright© 2016 IBPS Guide | For Queries contact – admin@ibpsguide.com Page-162

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14) a)

[(16000 * 3) + ( 11000 * 9)] : [(12000 * 3) + ( 17000 * 9)] : [ 21000 * 6] (48000+ 99000) : (36000 + 153000) : (126000) 147 : 189 : 126 49 : 63 : 42 Total of the terms of ratios = 154 S‘s share – T‘s share = 63 – 42 = 21 (21 * 26400)/154 = 3600 15) d)

A (50 * 4 + 25 * 8) 400 80

16) a) No of cows Month

17) a)

A 18

B : (45 * 6 + 45/2 * 6) : 405 : 81 :

B

C : (70 * 6) : 420 : 84 :

25 2 50

4 72 *5 360 Total rent =325 * 5 = Rs 1625 ( 90 * 7)/(x * 3) = 2/1 x = (90 * 7)/(2 * 3) =105

C

: 28 5 140

D 21 3 63

= 325 *5 Rs 1625

18) b) The ratio of profit = 125000 : 85000 = 25 : 17 Therefore 60% is divided equally. So the difference between 40% of their profit is 300 i.e. (40*25x)/100 – (40*17x)/100 = 300 10x – 6.8x = 300 3.2x = 300 So x =93.75 Total profit = 25x + 17x = 42x = 42 * 93.75 = Rs 3937.50 19) b) Let the Total profit = 100 Donation = 5% of 100 = Rs 5 Remaining is Rs 95 3 : 2 of 95 57 : 38 P‘s share is Rs 57 57 * 150 = Rs 8550 (actual profit of P) 38 * 150 = 5700 ( profit of Q) Total profit of ( P + Q) = 8550 + 5700 = 14250 95% = 14250 100% = (100 * 14250)/95 = 15000

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20) b) st

1 year 2nd year 3rd year 4th year

22

ArjunSukesh 40 50 60 70 220 195000

0 0 85 85 170 = 22 : 17

17

110000

85000

21) a) P’s share : Q’s share : R’s share = ( ¼ * ¼ ) : (1/5 * 1/2) : {1 – (1/4 +1/5)} * 1 = 1/16 : 1/10 : 11/20 Multiplying each fraction by LCM of 16, 10 and 20 i.e. 80 We have 5 : 8 : 44 P‘s share = (5/57) * 1140 = Rs 100 Q‘ share = (8/57) * 1140 = Rs 160 R‘s share = (44/57) * 1140 = Rs 880 22) a) Let G‘s capital = 1 Then, P‘s capital = 4 2(R‘s capital) = 3(P‘s capital) = 3 * 4 = 12 Therefore, R‘s capital = 12/2 = 6 So, R‘s share : P‘s share : G‘s share = 6 : 4 : 1 Thus, P‘s share profit = [4/(6 + 4 + 1)] * 148500 = (4/11) * 148500 = 4 * 13500 = Rs 54000 23) d) Let required ratio of time be t1 : t2 : t3 Then using Ratio of investments = Ratio of profits 4 t1 : 6 t2 : 9 t3 = 2 : 3 : 5 Take first two terms of the ratio, 4 t1/(6 + t2) = 2/3 t1/t2 = 1/1 = 9/9 t1 : t2 = 9 : 9 taking last two terms of the ratio, (6 t2)/(9 t3) = 3/5 t2/t3 = 9/10 Hence, t1 : t2 : t3 = 9 : 9 : 10

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24) a)

Akshita‘s share : Maneesha‘s share : Ankita‘s share = 14 : 16 : 22 = 7 : 8 : 11 Amount paid by Ankita = [11/(7 + 8 + 11)]* 2080 = (11 * 2080)/26 = 11* 80 = Rs 880

25) b) let share of Ravi be 100 . then share of Monika = 90 and share of Sajid = 99 Sajid : Monika : Ravi = 99 : 90 : 100 Therefore investment of Ravi = [5780/(99 + 90 + 100)] * 100 = Rs 2000 26) b) Let the annual profit be Rs x. Then Rs(x – 120) will be distributed between Suman and Kanika as their shares of profit. Ratio of profits = Ratio of investments So, Suman :Kanika = 3000 : 4000 = 3 : 4 Therefore 120 + ( x – 120)*(3/7) = 390 Which gives (x – 120) = 630 So, B‘s share = (4/7) * (x – 120) = Rs 360 27) a)

Let the investment of Kritika during first year = 5x Investment of Amisha during first year = 7x Investment ofAnisha during first year = 6x Then, their investment during second year are (126% of 5x) : (120% of 7x) : (115% of 6x) = 630 : 840 : 690 = 21 : 28 : 23 28) b)

Let investment of Virat be x for y months. Then Akash‘s investment = 3x for 2y months Therefore Akash‘s :Virat‘s= (3x * 2y)/(x * y)= 6xy : xy = 6 : 1 Let the total profit = m Then, m *(1/7) = 6000 So m = 6000 * 7 = Rs 42000 Therefore, 20% of 42000 = Rs 8400

29) a) Ratio of total capital of Pamela and Nicole = 20000 *12 : 35000 *12 = 240000 : 420000 Now, Rachel gives Rs 220000 to both to make the capital equal. Therefore Pamela‘s capital : Nicole‘s capital = 240000 : 420000 +200000 :20000 = 440000 : 440000 If Pamela takes Rs 200000 and Nicole takes Rs 20000 from Rachel Then, both have the equal capital Therefore required ratio of dividend amount www.ibpsguide.com | www.ibpsguide.in|mock.ibpsguide.in| www.sscexamguide.com Copyright© 2016 IBPS Guide | For Queries contact – admin@ibpsguide.com Page-165

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= 200000 : 20000 = 20 : 2 = 10 : 1. Hence Pamela & Nicole should divide amount in the ratio 10:1 30) b) Tatsat‘s share : Mohan‘s share : Rohan‘s share = [ 16000 * 3 +(16000 – 5000) * 9] : [ 12000 * 3 + (12000 + 5000) * 9] * [21000 * 6] = [(16 * 3 + 11 * 9) : (12 * 3 + 17 * 9) : (21 * 6 ) = 147 : 189 : 126 = 7 : 9 : 6 Hence, Mohan‘s share exceeds Rohan‘s share by [(13200) * (9 – 6)]/(7 + 9 +6) = rs 1800 31) d) LCM of 3, 4, 5 & 6 is 60 so the amounts are invested in the ratio 20 : 15 : 12 : 10 whose total is = 60 The first share gives (20/57) * 171 = Rs 60. Hence this one is has got the greatest share. 32) a) given ratio of a share of a man, woman and a boy is 7 : 4 : 3. So ratio of share of 4 men, 5 women and 2 boys is = 7 * 4 : 4 * 5 : 4 * 2 = 28 : 20 : 6 so sum total becomes 54 And the share of a woman becomes [(5 * 4)/54] * 4536 = Rs 336 33) a)J‘s capital investment in that year = 10000 * 4 + 12000 * 8 = 1,36,000 K ‗s capital investment in that year = 10000 * 7 + 14000 * 5 = 1,40,000 L‘s investment in that year = 10000 * 7 + 8000 * 5 = 1,10,000 Ratio in which profits are to be shared = 68 : 70 : 55 Annual salary of L = 2000 * 12 = Rs 24,000 Profit to be shared = 217000 – 24000 = Rs 193000 J‘s share = (193000 * 68)/193 = Rs 68000 K‘s share = Rs 70000 L‘s share = Rs 55000 34) c) Total amount deducted is 15 + 10 + 30 = 55 Amount left = 535 – 55 = 480 Now Rs 480 is divided in the ratio 4 : 5 : 7 So after deduction –: share of P = (4/16) * 480 = 120 Share of Q = (5/16) * 480 = 150 Share of R = (7/16) * 480 = 210 Therefore, initial share of P = 120 + 15 = Rs 135 Initial share of Q = 150 + 10 = Rs 160 Initial share of R = 210 + 30 = Rs 240 35) c) Ratio of contributions expected from the three men = (110 * 6) : (50 * 9) : (440 * 3) = 22 : 15 : 44 Therefore secondman must pay 15/81th or 5/27th of the total 36) b) A = ½ B, B = 2C or A/B = ½, B/C = 2/1 A:B:C=1:2:1 Shares of A, B and C are x, 2x, x www.ibpsguide.com | www.ibpsguide.in|mock.ibpsguide.in| www.sscexamguide.com Copyright© 2016 IBPS Guide | For Queries contact – admin@ibpsguide.com Page-166

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B/(A + B) = 2x/(x + 2x) = 2x/3x = 2/3 37) d) P, Q & R are to share profit in the ratio 4 : 3 : 7. But since P is to receive 10% profit, only 90% is to be shared. P‘s total share = 10% of profit + (4/14) * 90% of profit = 6000 Or ( 10 + 180/7)% of profit(p) gives p = 6000 Or (250/7)% of Profit(p) gives p = Rs 16800 Q and R‘s share combined = (10/14) of 90% profit = (10/14) * ( 90/100) * 16800 = Rs 10800 38) a) Supose he invested Rs ‗x‘ and Rs ‗y‘ in the matches of England and India respectively. From the first match he will get 3x, but from the second he will get nothing. Now, 3x = (x + y) + ( x + y)(150/100) or x/y = 5/1 39) a) Suppose he invested 3X on the first match and 4X on the second match. He will get back 3X * 3 = 9X So again = 9X – 7X = 200000 or X = 100000 Therefore Total investment = 7X = 7 * 100000 = 700000 40) c) Investment = x + 2x = 3x He gets back 3x + 8x = 11x. So gain = 8x Gain percentage = (8x/3x)*100 = 266.66% 41) c) T = (R + S + T)/3 So, Originally S had an amount = 2T – R Now R‘ = R/2, S‘ = S/3, T‘ = 0 Therefore R/2 + S/3 = (1/2)(2T – R) = S/2 Therefore S = 3R, T = 2R = (R + 3R +2R) – 3R/2 = 4.5R Percentage of amount spent = 75% 42) c) Let Tina‘s share be T, Ishan‘sbe I, Abhishek be A and Fatima‘s be F Given that T + 3 = I + I/3 = 80A/100 = F – 4 We get T=F–7 I = (3/4)(F – 4) and A = (5/4)(F – 4) Also given that T + I + F + A = 80 Substituting the values from 1), 2) and 3) in 4), we get [F + 3F/4 + 5F/4 + F] – 7 – 3 – 5 = 80 or F = 23.75 43) b) Let the fixed amount be Rs x. Amount at the end of 2002 = Rs 1000 * 1.1 – x Amount at the end of 2003 = Rs [(1000 * 1.1 – x) * 1.1 – x], because interest would be calculated upon the remaining amount. Amount at the end of 2004 = Rs [(1000 *1.1 – x) * 1.1 – x] * 1.1 – x But the amount at the end of 2004 was zero. Thus, [(1000 * 1.1 – x) * 1.1 – x] * 1.1 – x = 0 So, 1000 = (x/1.1³) + (x/1.1²) + (x/1.1) www.ibpsguide.com | www.ibpsguide.in|mock.ibpsguide.in| www.sscexamguide.com Copyright© 2016 IBPS Guide | For Queries contact – admin@ibpsguide.com Page-167

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i.e. 1331 = 3.31x which gives x = Rs 402.11 44) c) Amount invested = Rs 4,60,000 Profit earned = Rs 1,84,000 Ratio of shares of profit for, Q & R = 15 : 16 : 15 So, Q receives 16 * 4,000 = Rs 64,000 45) c) Ratio of profit of Jack & Rajeev = Amount of capital invested * Time period of investment = 52000 * 12 : 39000 * 8 = 2 : 1 Let the total profit = Rs x Rajeev receives 25% as commission for managing business. Then, the remaining 75% of the total profit x is shared between Jack & Rajeev in the ratio 2 : 1 Hence, Rajeev will get 1/3rd part of 75% in addition to his commission. Hence, Rajeev total earning = 25% of total profit + (1/3) * 75% of total profit = 0.25x + (1/3) * 0.75x 20000 = 0.25x + 0.25x Which gives x= 40000 So, the remaining amount of profit goes to Jack. Hence, Jack‘s total earning = Total profit - Rajeev‘s total earning = 40000 – 20000 = Rs 20000. 46) a) Let investment of Shilpa = Rs x Then, investment of Shamita = Rs( x + 5000) And investment of Riya = Rs (x + 9000) According to the question, x + (x + 5000) + ( x + 9000) = 50000 3x + 14000 = 50000 3x = 36000 x = 12000 clearly, investment of Shilpa = Rs12000 investment of Shamita = Rs (x + 5000) = 12000 + 5000 = Rs 17000 Investment of Riya = rs( x + 9000) = 12000 + 9000 = Rs 21000 So, Riya‘sshare :Shamita‘s share : Shilpa‘s share = 21000 : 17000 : 12000 = 21 : 17 :12 Hence, Riya‘s share = [21/(21 +17 + 12)] * 70000 = Rs 29400 47) d) Let Raman remained in the business for ‗x‘ months. Then, Raghav : Raman = (2250 * 12) : ( 2700 * x) 2 : 1 = (27000 : 2700x) = (10 : x) Therefore, 10/x = 2/1 [since Ratio of profit is 2 :1] So, 2x = 10 x = 10/2 we get x =5 Hence, Raman joined after ( 12 – 5 )= 7 months www.ibpsguide.com | www.ibpsguide.in|mock.ibpsguide.in| www.sscexamguide.com Copyright© 2016 IBPS Guide | For Queries contact – admin@ibpsguide.com Page-168

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48) d) The total investment will be Jayesh + Gyanesh + Brijesh. Brijesh being 3000, Gyanesh will be 2250 and jayesh will be 1500 The total investment is : 6750 Returns to be given on their expectations : Jayesh = 150, Gyanesh = 337.5 and Brijesh = 0 From this point calculate the total profit, subtract Jayesh‘s andGyanesh‘s expected returns and Gyanesh‘s share of profits for managing the business before dividing the profits in the ratio of capital invested. 49) c) Let MrSinghania has ‗x‘ shares of 5.5% x * 92 = 32,200 x = 350 shares income = 350 * 5.5 = 1925 Now, after investment his income is [ ( 1/3) * (32200/92) * 4.5] + [ (2/5) * (32200/115) * 5] + [ (4/15) * (32200/56) * 6] = 525 + 560 + 920 = 2005 Profit = 2005 – 1925 = Rs 80 50) d) P + Q + R + S = 56 Q + R + S = 4.6 P P + Q + R + S = 5.6 P [adding P on both sides] 56 lakh = 5.6P P = 10 lakh Similarly 4(P + R + S) = (11/3)Q P + Q + R + S = (14/3)Q Q = 12 lakh Similarly 4(P + Q + R + S) = R P + Q + S = 2.5 R P + Q + R + S = 3.5 R We get R = 16 lakh Therefore, S = ( P + Q + R + S) – (P + Q + R) = 18 lakh PROBLEMS ON AGES Q 1 – 3) Eight years ago there were 5 members in the Robin‘s family and then the average age of the family was 36 years. Mean while Robin got married and gave birth to a child. Still the average age of his family is same now. Q 1) The present age of his wife is: a) 25 years b) 26 years c) 32 years d) Data insufficient Q2) The age of his wife at the time of his child‘s birth was. If the difference between the age of her child and herself was 26 years: a) 25 years b) 26 years c) 20 years d) Data insufficient www.ibpsguide.com | www.ibpsguide.in|mock.ibpsguide.in| www.sscexamguide.com Copyright© 2016 IBPS Guide | For Queries contact – admin@ibpsguide.com Page-169

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Q 3) The age of Robin at the time of his marriage was: a) 22 years b) 23 years c) 26 years d) Can‘t be determined Q 4) Eleven years earlier the average age of a family of 4 members was 28 years. Now the age of the same family with six members is yet the same, even when 2 children were born in this period. If they belong to the same parents and the age of the first child at the time of birth of the younger child was same as there were total family members just after the birth of the youngest members of this family, then the present age of the youngest member of the family is: a) 3 years b) 5 years c) 6 years d) None of these Q 5) The average age of all the 100 employees in an office is 29 years, where 2/5th of the number of employees are ladies and the ratio of average age of men to women is 5:7. The average age of female employees is : a) 18 years b) 35 years c) 25 years d) None of these Q 6) There are two houses in parliament. One is LokSabha and the other one is RajyaSabha and the member of parliaments (MPs) in both the houses is 300 & 200 respectively. The average age of the members of LokSabha and RajyaSabha is 40 years and 50 years respectively. A member of the RajyaSabha is 40 years & 50 years respectively. A member of the RajyaSabha when elected for the LokSabha also, he left the RajyaSabha and becomes the member of the LokSabha. Thus the average age of both the houses increases. Which one of the following statements is tr a) The age of this member is greater than 50 years b) The age of this member is less than 40 years c) The age of this member is greater than 40 but less than 50 years d) None of these Q 7) The average weight of all the 11 players of Indian cricket team is 50 kg. If the average of first six lightest weight of players is 49 kg and that of the six heaviest players is 52 kg. The average weight of the player which lies in the sixth position in the list of players when all the 11 players are arranged in the order of increasing or decreasing weights: a) 56 kg b) 52 kg c) 51 kg d) None of these Q 8) The total age of all guests in the party was 540 years. If a South Indian couple(guests) left the party, then the average of the remaining guests still remained unchanged, where the age of both the husband and wife(the South Indian couple) was same, then the average age of this couple and the total number of guests in the party, respectively, can be: a) 18, 27 b) 20, 27 c) 15, 38 d) Can‘t be determined Q 9) In the PGI hospital Muradnagar, the sum of the ages of all the 29 people i.e. Physicians, surgeons and nurses is 696. If the age of each physician, each surgeon and each nurse be 1 year, 6 years and 3 years more, then the average age of the whole staff would have been 3 years more. If the number of surgeon is a square root of a two digit number which is also a perfect cube, then the number of nurses in the hospital is: a) 12 b) 15 c) 16 d) None of these www.ibpsguide.com | www.ibpsguide.in|mock.ibpsguide.in| www.sscexamguide.com Copyright© 2016 IBPS Guide | For Queries contact – admin@ibpsguide.com Page-170

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Q 10) The average age of board of directors of a company, having 10 directors was 48 years. Coincidentally when a director aged 53 resigned from the board of directors, another director died on the same day. So a new director joined the board of directors aged 34. Next year in the same month the average age of all the 9 directors was found to be 46 years. The age of the late( i.e. dead) director at the time of his death was : a) 56 years b) 53 years c) 57 years d) None of these Q 11) The average age of all the 20 students of a class is 24. The minimum age of a student is 18 and the maximum age of another student in the same class is 30 years. When the two students whose average age was 26 years rusticated from the class but later on one of the rusticated student was readmitted. Now the average age of the class is: a) 23.89 years b) 28.39 years c) 25 years d) Can‘t be determined Q 12) The ratio between the present ages of Raj & Ravi is 3:7, respectively. After 4 yr, Ravi‘s age will be 39 yr. what wasRaj‘s age 4 yr ago? a) 12 yr b) 13 yr c) 19 yr d) None of these Q 13) Four years ago Rajeev was 3/4th times of Rakesh. Four year hence, Rajeev‘s age will be 5/6 times that of Rakesh. What is the present age of Rajeev? a) 15 yr b) 16 yr c) 18 yr d) None of these Q 14) The present age of Kailash‘s father is four times of Kailash‘s age. Five years back, Kailash‘s father was seven times as old as Kailash was at that time. What is the present age of Kailash‘s father? a) 84 yr b) 70 yr c) 40 yr d) 35 yr Q 15) Ajay‘s brother is 3 year elder to him. His father was 28 year of age when his sister was born, while his mother was 26 year of age when he was born. If his sister was 4 year age when his brother was born, the ages of Ajay‘s father and mother respectively when his brother was born were a) 32 yr& 23 yr b) 32 yr& 29 yr c) 35 yr& 29 yr d) 35 yr& 33 yr Q 16) There are 3 members in a family, mother, father and son. The average age of the three members was 42 years on the day of their son‘s marriage. After 6 years of the marriage, the average age of the family will be 36 years when a grandson was born after 2 years of the marriage. Find the age of the daughter – in – law at the time of marriage. a) 26 yrs b) 27 yrs c) 28 yrs d) 29 yrs Q 17) Savita‘s present age is 6/5 times of her age at the time of her marriage and she got married 6 years ago. Age of her son is 1/12 of her current age. Find the age of her son. a) 2 yrs b) 5 yrs c) 4 yrs d) 3 yrs Q 18) At present, the sum of the ages of R, S & T is 150 years, whereas 10 years ago, the ratio of their age was 5:4:3. Find the ratio of their ages 10 years hence. a) 7 : 5 : 3 b) 7 : 6 : 5 c) 4 :3 : 5 d) 6 :9 : 5 www.ibpsguide.com | www.ibpsguide.in|mock.ibpsguide.in| www.sscexamguide.com Copyright© 2016 IBPS Guide | For Queries contact – admin@ibpsguide.com Page-171

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Q 19) The average age of a family of 10 members is 20 years. If the age of the youngest member of the family is 10 years, then the average age of the members of the family just before the birth of the youngest members was approximately – a) 9(1/11) yrs b) 9(1/10) yrs c) 11(1/9) yrs d) 9(1/8) yrs Q 20) 5 years ago, the average age of J, K, L & M was 45 years with N joining them now, the average age of all the five is 49 years. How old is N? a) 40 yrs b) 45 yrs c) 50 yrs d) 55 yrs Q 21) If 6 years are subtracted from the present age of Raghav and the remainder is divided by 18, then the present age of his grandson Arav is obtained. If Arav is 2 years younger to Rahul whose age is 5 years, then what is the age of Raghav? a) 96 years b) 84 years c) 48 years d) 60 years Q 22) At present age of his father is five times that of the age of his son. Three years hence, the father‘s age would be four times that of his son‘s age. Find the present ages of the father and the son. a) 35 yrs, 7 yrs b) 35 yrs, 11 yrs c) 45 yrs, 9 yrs d) 25 yrs, 12 yrs Q 23) The age of man is 4 times that of his son. 5 years ago, the man was nine times as old as his son was at that time. What is the present age of that man? a) 28 yrs b) 32 yrs c) 34 yrs d) 36 yrs Q 24) Carmella got married 9 years ago. Today her age is 1(1/3) times of her age at the time of marriage. At present her daughter‘s age is 1/6th of her age. What was her daughter‘s age two years ago? a) 6 years b) 7 years c) 3 years d) Can‘t be determined Q 25) The ratio between the ages of a father and a son respectively. Four years hence the ratio between the ages of the son and his mother will be 1:2 respectively. What is the ratio between the present ages of the father and the mother respectively? a) 3:4 b) 5:4 c) 4:3 d) Can‘t be determined Q 26) If the ages of A & C are added to twice the age of B, the total becomes 59. If the ages of B and C are added to thrice the age of A, the total becomes 68. And if the age of A is added to thrice the age of B and thrice the age of C, the total becomes 108. What is the age of A? a) 15 yrs b) 19 yrs c) 17 yrs d) 12 yrs Q 27) Present age of Rahil is 8 years less than Reena‘s age. If 3 years ago Reena‘s age was ‗x‘, which of the following represents Rahil‘s present age? a) x + 3 b) x – 5 c) x – 3 + 8 d) x + 3 + 8 Q 28) M said to N ―I am twice as old as you were when I was as old as you are‖ The sum of their ages is 63 years. Find the difference of their ages. a) 27 years b) 21 years c) 9 years d) 6 years www.ibpsguide.com | www.ibpsguide.in|mock.ibpsguide.in| www.sscexamguide.com Copyright© 2016 IBPS Guide | For Queries contact – admin@ibpsguide.com Page-172

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Q 29) There are 6 students in a class. The ages ( in years) of exactly three students are prime numbers and the ages ( in years) of the other three students are even numbers. If the ages ( in years) of all the six students in the class are in arithmetic progression, then what is the average age(in years) of the students in the class? a) 5.5 b) 6 c) 4.5 d) Cannot be determined Q 30) A man‘s age is 150% of what it was 10 years ago, but 75% of what it will be after 10 years. What is his present age? a) 25 years b) 30 years c) 35 years d) None of these Q 31) The average age of Riya‘s family consisting of 5 members 3 years ago was 35 years. One year ago a new baby was born in this family. Three years hence the average age of the family will be: a) 36 years b) 34(5/6) years c) 35(4/5) years d) None of these Q 32) 10 years ago the average age of all the 25 teachers of the girls college was 45 years. 4 years ago, the principal has retired from her post at the age of 60 year. So after one year a new principal whose age was 54 years recruited from outside. The present average age of all the teachers is, if principal is also considered as a teacher: a) 54(18/25) b) 55(17/25) c) 49(1/2) d) None of these Q 33) The ratio of the ages of the father and the daughter at present is 3:1. Four years ago the ratio was 4:1. The average age of her father and daughter 2 years hence will be: a) 24 b) 26 c) 25 d) 36 Q 34) The average age of a family of 6 members 4 years ago was 25 years. Mean while a child was born in this family and still the average age of the whole family is same today. The present age of the child is : a) 2 years b) 1(1/2) years c) 1 year d) Data insufficient Q 35) There are only five people in Aryan Verma‘s family. Aryan, his wife, a son and two daughters. The daughter‘s age is 4/5th of the elder daughter‘s age. The age of eldest daughter is 3/8th times of her father Aryan and the age of the son is 1/5th that of his father Aryan. 4 years ago the age of her wife was 8 times that of his son and now the sum of the ages of the younger daughter and wife is same as the sum of the ages Aryan and his son. The average age of the family is: a) 22.22 years b) 25,4 years c) 21.2 years d) None of these Q 36) In a combined family the average age of 4 males and 7 females is 42 and 20 years respectively. If two persons whose average age is 13 years have left the family and other three people joined the family whose respective ages are 11, 15 and 28 years, then the average age of the new family is increased by: a) 4 years b) 1 year c) 3 years d) None of these Q 37) The ratio of age of X & Y is x:y. if X‘s age is increased by 3 years and Y‘s age is increased by 2 years then new ratio of their ages becomes 24 : 25. Given that the sum of their actual ages is 93 years. Find the actual ratio of their ages. www.ibpsguide.com | www.ibpsguide.in|mock.ibpsguide.in| www.sscexamguide.com Copyright© 2016 IBPS Guide | For Queries contact – admin@ibpsguide.com Page-173

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a) 21:22

b) 42:45

c) 45:48

d) Can‘t be determined

Q 38) The ratio of age between S:T is 6:5 and the age of each U and V is 9/10 times that of T. Age of X is less than S but greater than T . The ratio ages between T & W is 2:3 also age of S is 3 years less than W. What is the ratio of ages of S and X if all the ages are in integers? a) 12:11 b) 9:7 c) 24:19 d) 12:13 Q 39) Arya, Sansa& Lisa are three sisters. Arya and Sansa are twins. The ratio of sum of the ages of Arya&Sansa is same as that of Lisa alone. Three years earlier the ratio of age of Arya and Lisa was 2:7. What will be the age of Sansa 3 years hence? a) 21 years b) 16 years c) 8 years d) 12 years Q 40) A couple got married 9 years ago when the age of wife was 20% less than her husband. 6 years from now the age of wife will be only 12.5% less than her husband. Now they have its children including single, twins and triplets and the ratio of their ages is 2:3:4 respectively. What can be the maximum possible value for the present age of this family? a) 110 years b) 103 years c) 105 years d) 83 years Q 41) The average age at present of Charles, Kate, their daughter and their son, who is just born, is 22.5 years. Their daughter was born 10 years ago. The average age of Charles, his parents and Kate 15 years back, was 38.75 years. The average age of Charles and his parents, 20 years back, was 38(1/2) years. What is Kate‘s age at present? a) 20 years b) 25 years c) 40 years d) 35 years Q 42 –44)People of all ages enjoy visiting an children‘s exhibition, especially children( people below the age of 15. On a Sunday, many people visited the exhibition. All of them came as a family of two people or more than two people, where there was at least one child per family. The entry details of some families as recorded by the exhibition‘s ticketing system is given below. The age of any person is taken as the integral number of years he/she has lived so far. Family

Chowdhary family Agarwal family Devgan family

Age of the eldest member ( in years) 50

Age of the youngest Member( in years) 8

Average age of all the Children( in years) 10.4

19 15

4 6

11.5 12.3

Q 42) Devgan family came with 25 people out of which 20 were children. What is the average age of members of Devgan family? a) 21.25 years b) 13.04 years c) 12.84 years d) 11.65 years Q 43) What is the minimum possible number of people of Agarwal family who visited the exhibition? www.ibpsguide.com | www.ibpsguide.in|mock.ibpsguide.in| www.sscexamguide.com Copyright© 2016 IBPS Guide | For Queries contact – admin@ibpsguide.com Page-174

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a) 4

b) 5

c) 6

d) 3

Q 44) If the average age of members of Chowdhary family visiting the exhibition is 14 years, then what is the least number of members in Chowdhary family? a) 7 b) 8 c) 11 d) 10 Q 45) The ratio of present age of Satyam to that of sahil is 3:11. Sahil is 12 yr younger than Reshma. Reshma‘s age after 7 yr will be 85 yr. What is the present age of Satyam‘s father, who is 25 yr older than Satyam? a) 43 yr b) 67 yr c) 45 yr d) None of these Q 46) The average age of a man and his son is 27 yr. the ratio of their ages is 8:1, respectively. What will be the son‘s age after 6 yr? a) 6 yr b) 14 yr c) 12 yr d) 8 yr Q 47) Atpresent, Prateek is three times Anoop‘s age. After 7 yr, Prateek will be twice Anoop‘s age. Then how many times will Prateek‘s age be in another 14 yr time with respect to Anoop‘s age then? a) 1 b) 3 c) 2 d) 1.5 Q 48 – 49) In the parliament, in a particular session all the women which constitutes 1/5th strength of the LokSabha, left the house due to the rejection of their demand. Actually they were asking for the 50% reservation of seats in the Loksabha. Thus the average age of the remaining members of the house(i.e. the LokSabha) increases by 1/4th than it was earlier when all the members( i.e. men & women) were present. Q 48) The total strength of the LokSabha is: a) 300 MPs b) 475 MPs c) 526 MPs d) None of these Q 49) If the average age of women b 30 years then the average age of male members in the LokSabha will be: a) 26 b) 34 c) 40 d) None of these Q 50) The average age of 100 nurses in a nursing home in 1982 was 50 years. In 1984, 20 nurses retired from their job, whose average age was 60 years. After a huge gap in 1987, 40 nurses were mployed whose average age was 38 years. The average age of all the nurses in 1990 was: a) 53 years b) 51 years c) 48.5 years d) Data insufficient

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SOLUTION AND EXPLANATION OF PROBLEMS ON AGES (1 – 3) 8 years ago Presently

No of family members 5 (If) 5 7

Average 36 (36 + 8) = 44 36

Total 180 220 252

1). d) it is clear from the above table that data is insufficient. 2). b) Since we know that the difference between the age of any two persons remains always constant, while the ratio of their ages gets changed as the time changes. So, if the age of his child be x (presently) Then the age of wife be x + 26 (presently) Thus, the total age = x + (x + 26) = 32 [ 252 – 220 =32] x=3. Therefore the age of her child is 3 years and herself is 29 years. Hence her age at the time of birth of her child was 26 years. 3). d) Since there is no clue there so it can‘t be determined. 4). a)

Eleven years earlier Presently

No of family members 4 If 4 6

Average

Total

28 39 28

112 156 168

Since it is obvious that just after the birth of the youngest member (i.e. child) was 6 family members in the family. Therefore at the time of the birth of the youngest child the elder child‘s age was 6 years. Now the sum of their ages = x + (x +6) = 12 = ( 168 – 156) ; x =3 & ( x + 3) = 9 5). b) going through the options : (40 * 35) + ( 60 * 25) = 29 * 100 since there are 40 ladies and 60 gents. 6). c)

No of Mp’s Ave age

Lok Sabha 300 40

Rajya Sabha 200 50

Since when a member of Rajya Sabha joins the Lok Sabha and the average age of both the house increases, it means the average of this member must lie between 40 & 50. When the age of this member is greater than 40, then the average age of the Lok Sabha increases. Again when the age of this member is less than 50, then after leaving it, the average age of the Rajya Sabha increases. www.ibpsguide.com | www.ibpsguide.in|mock.ibpsguide.in| www.sscexamguide.com Copyright© 2016 IBPS Guide | For Queries contact – admin@ibpsguide.com Page-176

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7). a) Let J, K ,L, M, N, O, P, Q, R, S, T be the 11 players in the order of increasing weight then, J + K + L + M + N + O = 49 * 6 = 294 O + P + Q + R + S + T = 52 * 6 = 312 And J + K + L + M + N + O + P + Q + R + S + T = 50 * 11 = 550 Therefore O = ( J + K + L + M + N + O) + ( O + P + Q + R + S + T) – ( J + K + L + M + N + O + P + Q + R + S + T) = 294 + 312 – 550 = 56 Hence the average weight of O = 56 kg. Q 8) b) Solving through option we get 540/27 = 20 [540 – (2 * 20)]/25 = 20 Hence option b) is correc. Q 9) d) No of members Increase in average age Increase in total age

Physician ( 21 – x) 1 ( 21 – x)

Surgeon 8 6

Nurse x 3

48

3x

(Number of members in the staff) * (average age) = total age 29 * 24 = 696 29 * 27 = 783 Hence change in total age = 87 Since P + S + N = 29 Therefore if there would be x nurses then there must be (21 – x) physicians. Again total change( or increase) in age = ( 21 – x) + 48 + 3x = 87 ; x = 9 Q 10) a) Just before death and resignation Just after death and resignation One year later

No of directors 10

Average age 48

9 9

46

Total age 480 {480 – (53 + x) +34} 414

So one year later, after the incident Total age = { 480 – ( 53 + x) + 34} + 9 * 1 = 414 x = 56 years. Q 11) d) Since we don‘t know their ages individually so we cannot calculate the average of a class when a student of unknown age readmitted in the class. www.ibpsguide.com | www.ibpsguide.in|mock.ibpsguide.in| www.sscexamguide.com Copyright© 2016 IBPS Guide | For Queries contact – admin@ibpsguide.com Page-177

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Q 12) d) let Raj and Ravi‘s ages are 3x yr and 7 yr respectively. Therefore 7x + 4 = 39; x=5 Hence, Raj‘s age 4 yr ago = 11 yr Q 13) b) 4 yr ago, let Rakesh‘s age = x yr and Rajeev‘s age = 3x/4 yr Now, Rakesh present age = ( x+4) yr And Rajeev present age = (3x/4 + 4) yr According to the question, 5(x + 4 + 4)/6 = (3x/4 + 4 + 4) ; x = 16 ; so Rajeev present age = 16 yrs Q 14) c)Let the present age of Kailash be x. Then the present age of Kailash‘s father = 4x Now, 5 yr ago, Kailash‘s father‘s age = 7 * Kailsh‘s age 4x – 5 = 7( x – 5) 3x = 30 x = 10 Kailash‘s present age = x= 10 yr So Kailash‘s father present age 4x = 4 * 10 = 40 yr Q 15) a) When Ajay was born, his mother‘s age was 26 yr and his elder brother was 3 yr elder to him. Mother‘s age when brother was born = 26 – 3 = 23 yr Ajay‘s father was 28 yr of age when his sister was born and his sister was 4 yr of age when his brother was born. So age of father when brother was bron = 28 + 4 = 32 yr Q 16) a) At the time of marriage = Mother + father + son = 42 * 3 = 126 yrs After 6 yrs = 126 + 6 + 6 +6 = 144 yrs Current :- M + F + Son + Daughter – in – law + child = 36 * 5 = 180 yrs 144 + Daughter – in – law + 4 = 180( as child was born after 2 yrs of marriage so he is of 4 yrs now) Daughter – in – law = 180 – 148 = 32 yrs At the time of marriage = 32 – 6 = 26 yrs. Q 17) d) (6/5) *6 36 – current age and 6/5 *6 30 – at the time of marriage Hence son‘s age = 36/12 = 3 yrs Savita‘s current age is 6/5 times of her age at the time of her marriage which means her current age is 6 units and her age at the time of marriage was 5 units. But she got married 6 years ago which means 1 unit is equal to 6 years so her current age is 36 years and her son‘s age is 1/12 of her current age i.e. 3 years

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Q 19 c) Sum of present ages of 10 members = 20 * 10 = 200 yrs Total age of members 10 yrs ago = 100 yrs[200 – ( 10 * 10)] Required average = 100/9 = 11(1/9)yrs Q 20) b) sum of present ages of J, K , L, M is = 45 * 4 + 5 *4 = 200 yrs Sum of present ages J, K , L, M & N = 49 * 5 = 245 yrs Present age of N = 245 – 200 = 45 yrs Q 21) d) Rahul present age = 5 yrs So, Arav‘s age present age = ( 5 – 2) = 3 yrs According to the question, (R – 6)/18 = 3 Raghv‘s age = 18 * 3 + 6 = 60 yrs Q 22) c)let the present age of son = x years present age of his father = 5x years 3 years hence, son‘s age will be (x+3) years & his father‘s age will be (5x + 3) years According to question 5x + 3 = 4(x + 3) X=9 Present age of father = 5x = 5 * 9 = 45 years and present age of son = x = 9 years Q 23) b) Let the age of man be 4x years and age of his son be x years 5 years ago the ages of man and his son were (4x – 5) years and ( x – 5) years respectively. According to question, (4x – 5) = 9(x – 5) 4x – 5 = 9x – 45 5x = 40 x=8 www.ibpsguide.com | www.ibpsguide.in|mock.ibpsguide.in| www.sscexamguide.com Copyright© 2016 IBPS Guide | For Queries contact – admin@ibpsguide.com Page-179

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Present age of father = 4x = 4 * 8 = 32years Q 24) d)Let the present age of Carmella be ‗x‘ years. 9 years ago, the age of Carmella = (x – 9) years According to question x = 1(1/3) * ( x – 9) x = 4/3 ( x – 9) 3x = 4 ( x – 9) x = 36 present age of Carmella = 36 years present age of her daughter = 1/6 of present age of Carmella = 1/6 * 36 years = 6 years Her daughter age two years ago = ( 6 – 2) = 4 years Q 25) d) Let the present ages of father and son be ‗5x‘ and ‗2x‘ years respectively. after 4 years, son‘s age = ( 2x + 4) years according to question after 4 years -: (age of son)/(age of mother) = ½ (2x + 4)/age of mother = ½ Age of mother = 2 * (2x + 4) = (4x + 8) years Present age of mother = 4x + 8 – 4 = 4x + 4 Ratio between the present age of the father and mother = 5x : (4x + 4) We cannot find the exact value of ratio. Q 26) d) Let the present ages of A, B & C be A years, B years and C years respectively. According to 1st condition of question –: A + 2B + C = 59 ------- 1) According to 2nd condition of question –: 3A + B + C = 68 ------- 2) According to 3rd condition of the question –: A + 3B + 3C = 108 ------- 3) From 2), we get B + C = 68 – 3A ----- 4) From 3), we get A + 3(B + C) = 108 Using 4), we get A + 3(68 – 3A) = 108 A + 204 – 9A = 108 So 8A = 96 ; A = 12 A‘s present age = 12 years Q 27) b) According to question, Present age of Reena = ( x + 3) years Present age of Rahil www.ibpsguide.com | www.ibpsguide.in|mock.ibpsguide.in| www.sscexamguide.com Copyright© 2016 IBPS Guide | For Queries contact – admin@ibpsguide.com Page-180

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= (x + 3) – 8 = (x – 5) years Q 28) c) M N Present age: 2x y Some years before : y x Here , 2x – y = y – x 2x + x = y + y x/y = 2/3 Now M : N 2x y 2*2 3 Present age 4 : 3 Now, the required difference in ages = [63 * ( 4 – 3)]/ ( 4 + 3) = 9 years Q 29) d) arrangements possible are (3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8), (7, 10, 13, 16, 19, 22) & ( 4, 7, 10, 13, 16, 19). Hence cannot be determined. Q 30) b)let the man‘s present age be ‗x‘ years, so 10 years ago he will be = x – 10 So equation becomes –: 150% of (x – 10) = x which gives x= 30. Q 31) b) 3 years ago total age of 5 members = 5 * 35 = 175 years At the time of birth of new baby the total age of family = 175 + (2 * 5) = 185 years The present age of family = 185 + (1 * 6) = 191 years 3 years hence, the average age of family = [191 + (3 * 6)]/6 = 34(5/6) Q 32) a) 10 years ago average age of 25 teachers = 45 years 4 years ago ( just before the retirement of principal) average age of 25 teachers = 45 + 6 = 51 years And the same total age of 25 teachers = 51 * 25 = 1275 years And the total age of remaining 24 teachers when just the principal has retired = 1275 – 60 = 1215 years 1 year later(i.e. 3 years ago from present) total age of 24 teachers ( just before the recruitment of new principal) = 1215 + ( 1 * 24) = 1239 years And the total age of 25 teachers including new principal just after the recruitment = 1239 + 54 = 1293 years Thus the present age of all the 25 teachers = 1293 + ( 3 * 25) = 1368 years Hence, the present average age of the 25 teachers = 1368/25 = 54(18/25) Q 33) b) Given the present age of father and daughter is 3 : 1 so their age let it be 3k & k respectively. four years ago their ages were in the ratio 4 : 1 so equation becomes (3k – 4)/(k – 4) = 4/1 we get k = 12 years. So the present ages of father and daughter is 36 years and 12 years respectively. Therefore 2 years their average will be –: [(36 + 2) + (12 + 2)]/2 = 26 years www.ibpsguide.com | www.ibpsguide.in|mock.ibpsguide.in| www.sscexamguide.com Copyright© 2016 IBPS Guide | For Queries contact – admin@ibpsguide.com Page-181

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Q 34) c) No of family members Average age Total age 4 years ago 6 25 150 Presently 6 29 174 But the no of family members ( presently) = 7 And average age (presently) = 25 Therefore the total age = 25 * 7 = 175 Hence, the age of child = 175 – 174 = 1 year

Thus 4 years ago – : (36k – 4) = 8(8k – 4) K=1 Therefore, the age of Aryan = 40 ; Wife = 36 ; Son = 8 ; Elder daughter = 15 ; Younger daughter = 12 Hence, the average age of the family = 111/5 = 22.22 years Q 36) d) Initially, the total age of family = 4 * 42 + 7 * 20 = 308 and the average age = 308/11 = 28 now, the total age of family = 308 – ( 2 * 13) + (11 + 15 + 28) =336 Now, the new average of the family = 336/12 = 28 Since the average age of the original family and that of new family is same (i.e. 28) Hence, the average age of the new family is increased by 0 year. Q 37) c) x + y = 93 and (x+3)/(y+2) = 24/25 25x – 24y = ( -27) From equations number 1) & 2) x= 45 & y = 48 Q 38) a) T = 5/6 S and U = V = 9/10 T also T = (2/3) W and W – S = 3 from 1) & 2) S/W = 4/5 or W = (5/4) S therefore W – S = 5S /4 – S = 3 from 4) & 5) www.ibpsguide.com | www.ibpsguide.in|mock.ibpsguide.in| www.sscexamguide.com Copyright© 2016 IBPS Guide | For Queries contact – admin@ibpsguide.com Page-182

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S = 12 & W = 15 & T = 10 Also U = V = 9 and X = 11, since T < X < S and X is integer Therefore S : X = 12 : 11 Q 39) c) Since Arya and Sansa are twins so their ages be same. Let their ages be x and age of Lisa be y, then, x+x=y and (x – 3)/(y – 3) = 2/7 7x – 2y = 15 Now, from equation 1), 7x – 4x = 15 ; x = 5 So the age of Sansa 3 years hence will be 5 + 3 = 8 years. Q 40) b) (H – 9)/(W – 9) = 5/4 and (H + 6)/(W + 6) = 8/7 Therefore the present age of husband is 34 and present age of his wife is 29 years. Now, the maximum age of any child must be less than 9 years. Hence their ages can be 2, 3 and 4 years or 4, 6 and 8 years. So the max possible sum of age of this family = 34 + 29 + (1 * 4 + 2 * 6 + 3 * 8) = 103 years Q 41) c) Let Charles present age be c Let Kate present age be k Let daighter‘s present age be d Let Charles‘s parents cumulative present age be p Therefore c + k + d = 22.5 (4) = 90 As d = 10 years, Therefore c + k = 80 years ------1) The average age of Charles‘s parents, Charles and Kate 15 years ago was 38.75 years [(c – 15) + (p – 30) + (k – 15)]/4 = 38.75 c + k + p – 60 = 155 So c + k + p = 215 ------------2) From 1) & 2) p = 135---------3) The average age of Charles‘s parents and Charles 20 years ago was 38.5 years [(c – 20) + (p – 40)]/3 = 38(1/3) c + p – 60 = 115 c = 175 – 135 = 40 --------4) from 1) & 4) we get k = 40 yrs. Q 42 – 44) Q 42) c) Age of eldest member = 15 yrs. Hence, all adults are 15 yrs of age.(less than 15 means child) average age per member www.ibpsguide.com | www.ibpsguide.in|mock.ibpsguide.in| www.sscexamguide.com Copyright© 2016 IBPS Guide | For Queries contact – admin@ibpsguide.com Page-183

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= [(15 * 5) + (12.3 * 20)]/25 = 12.84 yrs Q 43) b) Let there be n children in Agarwal family. Youngest child = 4 yrs. Maximum age that a child can have = 14 years . To minimize the number of people, we assume that there is only one adult having the age of 19 yrs and all the children except the youngest one are 14 yrs old. Total age of all the children = 11.5n = 4 + 14(n – 1) n=4 total members = 5 Q 44) c) Average age of all members = 14 years Age of youngest member = 8 yrs Age of eldest member = 50 yrs Since average age of all members is 14 yrs, we must make sure there is only one adult in Chowdhary family to minimize the number of members. For n children in Chowdhary family, 50 + 10.4n = 14(n + 1) n= 10. Least number of members = 10 + 1 = 11 Q 45) a) Let the present age of Satyam and Sahil are 3x yr & 11x yr respectively. According to question, 11x = 85 – 7 – 12 x=6 Therefore present age of Satyam = 3 * 6 = 18 yr Hence, present age of Satyam‘s father = 18 + 25 = 43 yrs Q 46) c) Let ages of man and his son are 8x yr and x yr, respectively. According to the question, (8x + x)/2 = 27 ; x= (27 * 2)/9 = 6 Hence, age of son after6 yr = 6 + 6 = 12 yr Q 47) a) Let Anoop‘s age = x yr Then Prateek‘s age = 3x yr According to the question, 3x + 7 = 2(x + 7) x=7 Therefore Age of Anoop after 14 yr = 7 = 14 = 21 yr And Prateek‘s present age = 21 yr Hence, Prateek‘s age is one yime that of Anoop‘s age Q 48 – 49) Q 48) d) Let the number of Total Mps = n and their average age be x Then –: n * x = 4n/5 * 5x/4 + ny/5 we get either n = 0 or y =0 www.ibpsguide.com | www.ibpsguide.in|mock.ibpsguide.in| www.sscexamguide.com Copyright© 2016 IBPS Guide | For Queries contact – admin@ibpsguide.com Page-184

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[Since there are only 80% MPs remained in the house which is equal to 4n/5 and the increase in average age = 20% = 5x/4] Thus, there cannot be any possible value of n. Q 49) d) nx = 4n/5 * 5x/4 * (n*30)/5 we get n =0 ( which is impossible) So, there is not any woman MP in the Lok Sabha. Q 50) b)

Just before Retirement Just after Retirement Just before Retirement Just after Retirement

Year/Time 1982 1984

No of Nurses 100 100

Average Age 50 52

1984

80

50

1987

80

53

1987 1990

(80 + 40) = 120 120

48 51

Total Age 5000 5200 (5200 – 20*60) = 4000 4240 (4240 + 38*40) = 5760 6120

TIME, SPEED & DISTANCE Q (1 to 4) Arya is going to cover a distance of 360 km from Lucknow to Varanasi. The first one – third of the distance she covers on a cycle. The second one – third she covers by an auto – rickshaw and the remaining distance she travels by car. The average speed of the journey by a car is 5 times the average speed by cycle and 20 kmph more than the average speed by an auto – rickshaw, but she took 1 hour more by auto – rickshaw than by car. Q 1) What is the average speed of the whole journey? a) 15 kmph b) 24 kmph c) 20 kmph d) None of these Q 2) What is the time taken in the whole jouney? a) 10 h b) 12 h c) 15 h d) None of these Q 3) What is the distance covered by her in last five hours of her journey? a) 250 km b) 240 km c) 200 km d) Can‘t be determined Q 4) Instead of travelling the first one – third by cycle if she travels by same auto – rickshaw with the same average speed, then what is the percentage decrease/ increase in time taken during the entire journey? a) 46.66% b) 33.33% c) 50% d) 25% Q 5) Jennifer and Jacqueline leave towns Delhi and Bihar at 6 am and travels towards Bihar and Delhi respectively. Speed of Jennifer is 60 kmph and speed of Jacqueline is 120 kmph. Kyla leaves Delhi for Bihar sometime later and travels at a speed of 90 kmph. If the distance between Delhi and Bihar is 1080 km and all three meet at the same point on theway, at same time, then at what time did Kyla leave Delhi? www.ibpsguide.com | www.ibpsguide.in|mock.ibpsguide.in| www.sscexamguide.com Copyright© 2016 IBPS Guide | For Queries contact – admin@ibpsguide.com Page-185

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a) 7 am

b) 8 am

c) 7.30 am

d) 10 am

Q 6) A boy while walking diametrically across a semicircular playground, takes 3 minutes less than if she had kept walking round the circular path from P to Q. If she walks 60 metres a minute, what is the diameter of the play ground: a) 60 m b) 48 m c) 84 m d) 315 m Q 7– 8 )Raju& Ravi went from Agra to Delhi by an E-car which is on the way to Kanpur . Rakesh goes from Kanpur to Delhi. The distance between Agra to Kanpur is 700 km and the distance between Kanpur & Delhi is 300 km. speed of Raju and Ravi E-car is 25 kmph and speed of Rakesh is 10kmph. All the three persons start their journey at 10 am. After travelling some miles Ravi sees Rajesh going(by riding on his horse) at 20 kmph to Delhi. Raju& Ravi go ahead meet Rakesh and pick him up. Then they return immediately to Delhi and thus all the four reach at the same time. Q 7) What is the total distance travelled by Raju? a) 400 b) 500 c) 600 d) Can‘t be determined Q 8) What is the total time taken to reach kurukshetra? a) 10 h b) 15 h c) 18 h d) 24 h Q 9) The speed of a truck during the second hour of its journey is 3 times to that in the first hour. Also its third hours speed is the average speed of the first two hours. Had the car travelled at the second hours speed during all the first three hours, then it would have travelled 150 km more. Find the percentage reduction in time in the second case for first three hours: a) 33(1/3) % b) 40% c) 25% d) 50% Q 10) There are three runners Raja, Ram, Mohan with their respective speeds of 10 kmph, 20 kmph and 30 kmph. They are initially at A and they have to run between the two points A & B which are 10 km apart from each other. They start their race at 6 am and end at 6 pm on the same day. If they run between A & B without any break, then how many times they will be together wither at A & B during the given time period? a) 5 b) 7 c) 4 d) 12 Q 11) Aprajita, Akash&Sachin started out on a journey to which the newly released movie ―Sultan‖which was shown at waves multiplex. The multiplex was 120 km away from their starting point of journey. Aprajita&Sachin went by car at the speed of 50 kmph, while Akash travelled by rickshaw at 10 kmph. After a certain distance Sachin got off and travelled the rest distance by another rickshaw at 10 kmph, while Aprajita went back for Akash and reached the destination at the same time that Sachin arrived. The number of hours required for the trip was: a) 4 h b) 5 h c) 4.8 h d) Can‘t be determined Q 12 – 13 ) Anuj&Arushi start towards each other at the same time from Allahabad and Kanpur for their destinations Kanpur & Allahabad respectively which are 300 km apart. They meet each other 120 km away from Allahabad. www.ibpsguide.com | www.ibpsguide.in|mock.ibpsguide.in| www.sscexamguide.com Copyright© 2016 IBPS Guide | For Queries contact – admin@ibpsguide.com Page-186

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Q 12)Salim starts from Allahabad to Kanpur, 1 hour after Anuj starts. Salim meets Arushi 1.5 hours after Salim starts. If the speed of Salim is atleast 20 kmph faster than the speed of Arushi. Which of the following statements is true? a) The minimum possible speed of Anuj is 45 kmph b) The maximum possible speed of Anuj is 45 kmph c) The minimum possible speed of Arushi is 60 kmph d) The maximum possible speed of Arushi is 60 kmph Q 13) What is the minimum speed of Salim to overtake Anuj, before he meets Arushi? ( Use the data from previous question, if necessary) a) 30 b) 40 c) 60 d) None of these Q 14 – 16)Rajeev goes at a speed of 60 kmph. Mohan can go from Chennai to Bengaluru in 2 hours. The distance between Chennai to Bengaluru is equal to the distance between Chennai to Pondicherry. Raghav takes the same time travelling from Bengaluru to Chennai as from Bengaluru to Pondicherry at his regular speed which is twice the speed of Mohan. Q 14) What is the distance between Chennai and Bengaluru? a) 60 km b) 27 km c) 36 km d) 18 km Q 15) How much time will Rajeev take to complete a round trip of the three cities? a) 1 h 12 min b) 1 h 48 min c) 1 h 30 min d) 1 h 36 min Q 16) If Rajeev and Mohan travel towards each other from Bengaluru and Pondicherry respectively, how far from Bengaluru will they meet each other? a) 60/13 b) 27(9/13) c) 37(9/13) d) 360/9 Q 17 – 18)Raghu, Pramod and Patil travel from Allahabad to Lucknow. They have a two seeter bike which can be driven by only Raghu. It is known that due to a very stringent traffic rules only two persons can ride at a time. Lucknow is 180 km away from Varanasi. All of them can walk at 6 kmph, but reach to Lucknow simultaneously also they started their journey simultaneously. Q 17) If the speed of the bike is 36 kmph, then what is the total distance that the bike travels? a) 400 km b) 380 km c) 200 km d) 320 km Q 18) If the speed of the bike is 42 kmph, then what is the shortest possible time in which all three of them can complete the journey? a) 7(1/3) b) 9(4/7) c) 9(3/7) d) Can‘t be determined Q 19 – 20)The ratio of the speeds at which Raj & Manish walk is 3:4. Raj takes 30 minutes more than the time taken by Manish in reaching the destination. Q 19) If Raj drives the car at twice the speed of his walking then the time required his destination by car is: a) 45 min b) 60 min c) 1.5 h d) 1 h 20 min Q 20) What is the total distance travelled by each of them, if the average of speeds of Raj and Manish is 28 kmph? www.ibpsguide.com | www.ibpsguide.in|mock.ibpsguide.in| www.sscexamguide.com Copyright© 2016 IBPS Guide | For Queries contact – admin@ibpsguide.com Page-187

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a) 48 km

b) 60 km

c) 17 km

d) 70 km

Q 21) A busP left Kanpur for Delhi. Two hours later bus Q left from Kanpur to Delhi. Both trucks reached Delhi simultaneously. If the truck had started from Delhi at the same time and travelled towards each other they would meet in 1 h 20 min. Find the time by truck to travel from Kanpur to Delhi(in hours): a) 2 b) 4 c) 5 d) 6 Q 22) Ramesh & Ajay setout at the same time to walk towards each other respectively from Lucknow and Mathura 144 km apart. Ramesh walks at the constant speed of 8kmph, while Ajay walks 4 km in the first hour, 5 km in the second hour, 6 km in the third hour and so on. Then the Ramesh and Ajay will meet: a) In 6 h b) In 8 h c) Midway between Lucknow& Mathura d) 80 km away from Mathura Q 23) Rajshree&Leela started from Varanasi and Gwalior for Gwalior & Varanasi, which are 645 km apart. They meet after 15 hours. After their meeting, Rajshree increased her speed by 3 kmph, they arrived at Gwalior & Varanasi respectively at the same time. What is their initial speeds? a) 24 kmph& 30 kmph b) 25 kmph& 18 kmph c) 18 kmph& 21 kmph d) 20 kmph& 23 kmph Q 24) Los Angeles & San Francisco are two famous cities 300 km apart. Ronaldo starts from Los Angeles at 8 : 24 am. An hour later Rivaldo starts from Los Angeles. After travelling for 1 hour, Rivaldo reaches San Andreas that Ronaldo had passed 40 minutes earlier. San Andreas falls on the way from Los Angeles to San Francisco. If Rivaldo and Ronaldo just reaches San Francisco at the same time, what are the speeds of the Ronaldo and Rivaldo respectively? a) 100 kmph, 125 kmph b) 60 kmph, 80 kmph c) 60 kmph, 75 kmph d) 75 kmph, 100 kmph Q 25) Aburgular sees a jeep at a distance of 250m, coming towards him at 36 kmph. Burgular takes 5 seconds to realize that there is nothing but the a cop is approaching him by jeep and start running away from that cop at 54 kmph. But cop realize after 10 seconds, when the burgular starts running away, that he is actually a burgular and gives a chase at 72 kmph. How long after burgular saw the cop did cop catchup with him and what is the distance cop had to travel to do so? a) 50 s, 1000 m b) 65 s, 1150 m c) 65 s, 1300 m d) 45 s, 1050 m Q 26) Inspired by the ‗Golden Quadrilateral project‘ UP government recently accomplished a diamond triangular project. Under this project the State Government laid down 6 lane roads connecting three cities Ayodhya, Vranasi&Chitrakoot, which are equally separated from each other i.e. in terms of geometry they form an equilateral triangle. Ramu and Shyam start simultaneously from Ayodhya and Banaras respectively, towards Chitrakoot. When Ramu covers 100 kms, Shyamu covers such a distance that the distance between Ramu&Shyamu makes 90 degree angle with the road joining Bnaras and Chitrakoot. What is the distance between Ayodhya& Banaras? a) 250 km b) 450 km c) 300 km d) None of these www.ibpsguide.com | www.ibpsguide.in|mock.ibpsguide.in| www.sscexamguide.com Copyright© 2016 IBPS Guide | For Queries contact – admin@ibpsguide.com Page-188

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Q 27) Two buses R and S simultaneously started on two parallel tracks from Varanasi &Lucknow, which are 390 km apart. The ratio of the speed of R & S is 6:7. After how long ( inkms) travelling, S exchanges the speed with R so that both the trains reach at their destination simulataneously: a) 150 km b) 190 km c) 210 km d) Can‘t be determined Q 28) In a circus there was a cheetah and a Lion walking in the two different rings of same radii. There I observed that when cheetah moved 3 steps, Lion moved 5 steps in the same time, but the distance traversed by cheetah in 5 steps is equal to the distance traversed by Lion in 4 steps. What is the number of rounds that a cheetah made when Lion completed 100 rounds? a) 120 b) 48 c) 75 d) None of these Q 29 – 32)In the following figure the route is shown which is followed by Professor Ajay & Professor Priya, who are visiting faculty at IIM – K and IIM – R respectively. P, Q denote IIM – K & IIM – R respectively and R denotes the residence of Prof. Ajay. They leave home for classes at the same time and their driving speeds are 500/13 kmph& 1200/13 kmph respectively. Also they finish the classes at the same time to reach home. In the figure given below the path adopted by Ajay and Priyais RPQR and RQDR respectively. Prof. Ajay and Prof. Priya are husband and wiferespectively.

P 90

D

500Km R

N

1300Km

650Km 1200Km

Q

Q 29) If both of them start and finish the classes at the same time, then who returned home earlier than other, if no one of them halts for anywhere in the route and they just leave the institution as soon as they finish the lectures? a) Prof Ajay b) Prof Priya c) Return at the same time d) Can‘t be determined Q 30) In the shown figure N & D denotes Gurugram& Faridabad respectively, who returned home late and by how much time, if Priya turned from Gurugram instead of Faridabad: a) Ajay, 9h 10 min b) Ajay, 9h 50 min c) Ajay, 2h 55 min d) Ajay, 16h 10 min Q 31) In the above question how many percent time Priya saved in going via Gurugramof the total time taken previously: a) 10% b) 25% c) 50% d) 17%

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Q 32) If Mrs. Priya wants to watch the premier show of a movie at Pvr cinema in Gurugramwhile returning from institute through KBG. When will she return home given that she spends total time 3 hours at Pvr cinema? a) At the same time as normalb) 5 min late than her husband c) At the same time when her husband returns d) Can‘t be determined Q 33) Two persons start from the opposite ends of a 90 km straight track and run to and fro between the two ends. The speed of first person is 30 m/s and the speed of other is 125/6 m/s. they continue their motion for 10 hours. How many times they pass each other? a) 10 b) 9 c) 12 d) None of these Q 34)Rekha and Bharti start swimming toward each other from the deep end and shallow end respectively of a swimming pool in funcity. They start their swimming simultaneously in the length of 300m pool. The ratio of their speeds is 1:2 respectively. Each swimmer rests for 6 seconds once she reaches the other end and starts swimming back. Where will they meet for the second time in the still water of swimming pool? a) 30 m from the shallow end b) At the shallow end c) At the deep end d) Can‘t be determined Q 35 – 37)A person A started 3 hours earlier at 40 kmph from a place K, then another person B followed him at 60 kmph started his journey at 3O‘ clock, afternoon. Q 35) At what time will they meet to each other( or at what time B will overtake A)? a) 4.30 pm b) 5 pm c) 6 pm d) 9 pm Q 36) At what time the difference between A & B was 30 km, but before B overtakes A? a) 6.30 pm b) 7.30 pm c) 8.75 pm d) None of these Q 37) At what time B will be 30 km ahead of A, after overtaking it? a) 6.45 pm b) 7.30 pm c) 10.30 pm d) 8 pm Q 38) Anisha was travelling in her boat when the wind blew her cap off and the cap started floating back downstream. The boat continued to travel upstream for 12 more minutes before Anisha realized that her cap fallen off and turned back downstream. She caught up with that as soon as it reached the starting point. Find the speed of river if Anisha cap flew off exactly 3 km from where she started: a) 5 kmph b) 6 kmph c) 7.5 kmph d) Can‘t be determined Q 39) P, Q & R participated in a race. P covers the same distance in 49 steps, as Q covers in 50 steps and R in 51 steps. P takes 10 steps in the same time as Q takes 9 steps and R takes 8 steps. Who is the winner of the race? a) P b) Q c) R d) Can‘t be determined Q 40) Raghav drives his truck very fast at 360 kmph. Moving ahead for some hours he finds some problem in headlights of the truck. So he takes 20 seconds in changing in the bulb of the headlight by stopping the www.ibpsguide.com | www.ibpsguide.in|mock.ibpsguide.in| www.sscexamguide.com Copyright© 2016 IBPS Guide | For Queries contact – admin@ibpsguide.com Page-190

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truck. Mean while he notices that another truck which was 400 m back is now 200 m ahead of his truck. What is the speed of this truck? a) 100 kmph b) 92 kmph c) 108 kmph d) 300 kmph Q 41) Two four wheelerVehicle A& Vehicle B travel at 120 kmph and 110 kmph respectively. Points P & Q are marked on the road tracks such that PQ is a straight line. Time taken by vehicle A to completely cross a stationary pole seconds. Time taken by vehicle B and vehicle A to completely cross the line PQ from the instant the front end of respective vehicles cross point P is 36 seconds and 31 seconds respectively. What is the length of the vehicle B? a) 200 m b) 240 m c) 180 m d) 250 m Q 42) Rakesh&Soham are brothers whose shops are located at a distance of 20 km and 24 km respectively from their home. Both of them start at the same time from home every day and reach their respective shops exactly at 10 a.m. When they decided to swap shops for a day.Rakesh started 8 minutes earlier than Soham. If both of them reached on time, what is the speed of Soham? a) 66 kmph b) 60 kmph c) 54 kmph d) 48 kmph Q 43) Dheeraj&Neeraj started biking at 4:00 am and 6:00 am respectively from the opposite ends on a highway 240 km long. On the way, Dheeraj‘s bike got punctured and it took him 2 hours to mend his vehicle. Neeraj also faced an engine malfunction at some point on the way because of which her bike slowed down to 50% of her initial speed of the remaining part of the journey, they finally et each other at 10:00 am. If Neeraj‘s speed was 28 kmph and her speed reduces after integer number of hours, which of the following could not be the speed of Dheeraj‘s? a) 30 kmph b) 35.5 kmph c) 39 kmph d) 42.5 kmph Q 44) In a 100m straight tunnel PQ made on a river, boat A enters from end P and boat B enters from the opposite end Q at the same time. There is a safety point H inside the tunnel at which boat B should reach before boat A to avoid collision. The speed of boat A, boat B and the stream is 60 m/s, 30 m/s and 10 m/s respectively. Find the minimum possible distance HP. a) 77.78 m b) 63.79 m c) 52.48 m d) 55.56 m Q 45) A man walks from A to B and cycles from B to A, a distance of 37.5 km in all spending 2 hours and 40 minutes. He would have taken 2/3rd hour less had he chosen to cycle the entire distance of 37.5 km. what would have been the time taken by him If he had chosen to walk both the ways? a) 3.5 hours b) 3.33 hours c) 3.66 hours d) 3.75 hours Q 46) Sujoy covers a certain distance with his own speed , but when he reduces his speed by 10 kmph his time duration for the journey increases by 40 hours, while if he increases his speed by 5 kmph from his original speed he takes 10 hours less than the original time taken. Find the distance covered by him. a) 1200 km b) 1500 km c) 1600 km d) None of these

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Q 47) Two horses started simultaneously towards each other and meet each other 3 h 20 min later. How much time will it take the slower horse to cover the whole distance if the first arrived at the place of departure of the second 5 hours later than the second arrived at the point of departure of the first? a) 10 hours b) 5 hours c) 15 hours d) None of these Q 48) A motorcyclist left point L for point M. Two hours later, another motorcyclist left L for M and arrived at M at the same time as the first motorcyclist. Had both motorcyclists started simultaneously from L and M travelling towards each, they would have met in 80 minutes. How much time did it take the faster motorcyclist to travel from L to M? a) 6 hours b) 3 hours c) 2 hours d) None of these Q 49) Three cars leave Rajkot for Gandhinagar after euqla time intervals. They reach Gandhinagar simultaneously and then leave for Surat, which is 120 km away from Gandhinagar. The first car arrives there an hour after the second car, and the third car, having reached Surat, immediately reverses the direction and 40 km from Surat meets the first car. Find the speed of the first car. a) 30 kmph b) 19 kmph c) 32 kmph d) 22 kmph Q 50) Sarbajeet and Ajit take a straight route to the same terminal point and travel with constant speeds. At the initial moment, the positions of the two and the terminal point form an equilateral triangle. When Ajit covered a distance of 80 km, the triangle becomes right- angled. When Ajit was at a distance of 120 km from the terminal point, the Sarbajeetarrived at the point. Find the distance between them at the initial moment assuming that there are integral distances throughout the movements described. a) 300 km b) 240 km c) 200 km d) 225 km

SOLUTION AND EXPLANATION OF TIME, SPEED & DISTANCE 1 b) Cycle x

Auto (5x – 20) (t + 1) 120

Speed Time Distance 120 120/(5x – 20) – 120/5x = 1 x² - 4x – 96 = 0 x = 12 average speed = 360/(10 + 3 + 2) = 24 kmph 2 c) Time taken by cycle = 120/12 = 10 h Time taken by auto = 120/40 = 3 h Time taken by car = 120/60 = 2 h Total time = 15 h 3 b) In last 5 hours she covers 240 km ( 120 + 120) 4 a) New time = 3 + 3 + 2 = 8 h

Car 5x t 120

( in km)

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Hence, decrease in time = 7 h Therefore Percentage = (7/15) * 100 = 46.66% 5 b) time taken to meet Jennifer and Jacqueline = 1080/(60 + 120) = 6 h So, in 6 hours Jennifer covers 360 km and this 360 km distance Kyla covers in 360/90 = 4 h Hence, Kyla leaves Delhi 2 hours later than Jennifer i.e. at 8 am. Kyla leaves Delhi 6). c) ( speed of wind)/( speed of car) = (time utilized)/(time saved) 332/x = 332/28 we get x = 28 m/s

Consider only one person either Raju or Ravi since their speed is same and move together. Now, the distance covered by Raju and Rakesh is in the ratio of their speeds. So Raju will cover 500 km to meet Rakesh and thus Raju has to return back 100 km for Delhi. Therefore, Raju will cover 600 km distance. 8). d) Total time = 600/25 = 24 h 9 a) First Second hourhourhour Initial speed x 3x New speed 3x 3x Percentage increase in speed = (3x/6x) * 100 = 50 % Since speed is increased by (50%)1/2 Therefore, time taken will reduce by (33)(1/3)

Third

Total

2x 3x

6x 9x

10) b) A B They will be together at every two hours. Therefore in 12h they will be(6 + 1) = 7 times together at A and they will never meet altogether at B.

A is the starting point of journey. B is the destination. C --- whereSachin has got off D --- whereAprajita picks up Akash Let AD = l and BC = k and CD = x Then (CD + DB)/BC = 50/10 (2x + k)/k = 5/1 x/k = 2/1 (AC + CD)/AD = 50/10 www.ibpsguide.com | www.ibpsguide.in|mock.ibpsguide.in| www.sscexamguide.com CopyrightŠ 2016 IBPS Guide | For Queries contact – admin@ibpsguide.com Page-193

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(2x + l)/l = 5/1 x/l = 2/1 which gives x = 2k = 2l or k = l = x/2 k + x + l = 120 k = 30 km; x = 60 km and l = 30 km total distance travelled = AC + CD + DB = l + x + x + x + k = 240 km time required = 240/50 = 4.8 hr

Let the speeds of Anuj, Arushi and Salim be x, y and z respectively, then x/y = 180/120 which gives x = 2y/3 Note Arushi is faster since she covers 180 km while Anuj covers only 120 km in the same time. Salim meets Arushi 1.5 hours after Salim himself starts and 2.5 hours after Arushi starts Hence, 2.5y + 1.5 z = 300 which gives z= (600 – 5y)/3 Since z≥(y + 20) so (600 – 5y)/3 ≥ (y + 20) So 13) d)

y ≤ 67.5 kmph& x ≤ 45 kmph let ‗t‘ be the time after Arushi starts, when she meets Anuj, then

t = 300/(x + y) this should be less than 2.5 or (x + y) > 120 since y = 3x/2 y > 72 this (y>72) is greater than 67.5 kmph and hence Salim will always overtake Anuj before Arushi.

Time taken to cover AB by (Rr) is 2 hours Time taken to cover AB by Raghav is 1 hour www.ibpsguide.com | www.ibpsguide.in|mock.ibpsguide.in| www.sscexamguide.com Copyright© 2016 IBPS Guide | For Queries contact – admin@ibpsguide.com Page-194

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Time taken to cover by Rajeev is 36 min (1/S3)] t ---- Time, S --- Speed

[t1(of Rp) : t2(of Rv) : t3(of Rr) = (1/S1) : (1/S2) :

AB = 2 * 18 = 36 km

15) b) Time = (3 * 36)/60 = 9/5 h = 1 h 48 min 16) b) Distance from Bengaluru = [60/(60 + 18)] * 36 = 360/13 = 27(9/13) km

Since the speed of bike and walking are different. So, two people partially travelled by bike and rest by walking since all the three persons take equal time to reach the destination. It means initially Raghu will carry either Pramod or Patil to a point A, then this person reach to L by walking and Raghu return to B where he will pick up the third person and reach at L at the same time as the second person. Let EB = k, AB = x , AL = l Now, (EA + AB)/EB = 36/6 (2x + k)/k = 6/1 x/k = 5/2 and (AB + BL)/AL = 36/6 (2x + l)/l = 6/1 x/l = 5/2 x:k:l=5:2:2 x + k + l = 180 x = 100, k = 40 and l =40 km total distance travelled by bike = EA + AB + BL = k + 3x + l = 380 km 18) b) (2x + k)/ k = 42/6 = 7/1 x/k = 3/1 similarly x/l = 3/1 so x : k : l = 3 : 1 : 1 therefore x= 108, k = 36, l = 36 km total distance travelled = k + 3x + l = 396 km required time = 396/42 = 9(3/7) h 19) b)

But

Raj Speed 3 Time 4 4x – 3x = ½ h

: :

Manish 4 3

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So 4x = 2h and 3x = 1.5h Now, since Raj doubles the speed so time will be half of the actual time. Hence, new time will be 1 hour. 20) a) Average speed of Raj & Manish = (3x + 4x)/2 = 28 x=8 speed of Raj = 3 * 8 = 24 Distance travelled = 2 * 24 = 48 km 21) b) Let bus P Takes ‗x‘ hours, then Q takes ( x – 2) hours. 1/x + 1/( x – 2) = 60/80 so x= 4 h 22) c) Distance travelled by them in first hour = 12 km Distance travelled by them in second hour = 13 km Distance travelled by them in 3rd hour = 14 km and so on Thus, in 9 hours they will cover exactly 144 km and in 9 h each will cover half – half the total distance (8 * 9 =72 and 4 + 5 + 6 + 7 + 8 + 9 + 10 + 11 + 12 = 72) 23) d) The sum of their speeds = 615/15 = 43 kmph Notice that they are actually exchanging their speeds. Only then they can arrive at the same time at their respective destinations. It means the difference in speeds is 3 kmph Thus, x + ( x + 3) = 43 so x = 20 & x + 3 = 23 The concept is very similar to the case when after meeting each other they returned to their own places of departure. It can be solved through option also. 24) d) Let Rivaldo covers ‗x‘ km in 1 hour. So Ronaldo takes (2h – 40 min) = 1 h 20 min to cover ‗x‘ km. let speed of Ronaldo and Rivaldo be M & P respectively than. x = M * (4/3) and x = p * 1 M/P = ¾ again 300/M – 300/P = 1 300/3k – 300/4k = 1 so k = 25 M = 3k = 75 kmph and P = 4k = 100 kmph 25) b) Initial speed of cop = 10 m/s Increased speed of cop = 20 m/s Speed of burgular = 15 m/s Initial difference between burgular and cop = 250 m After 5 seconds difference between burgular& cop = 200 + (5 * 10) = 200 m After 10 seconds more the difference between burgular and cop = 200 + (5 * 10) = 250 m Now, the time required by cop between to catch the burgular = 250/5 = 50 s Distance travelled = 50 * 20 = 1000m Total time = 50 + 15 = 65 s Total distance = 1000 + (15 * 10) = 1150 m www.ibpsguide.com | www.ibpsguide.in|mock.ibpsguide.in| www.sscexamguide.com Copyright© 2016 IBPS Guide | For Queries contact – admin@ibpsguide.com Page-196

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(100 + x/2)/100 = (100 + x)/ ( 100 + x – 150) = (speed of Shyamu)/(speed of Ramu) So, (200 + x)/200 = (100 + x)/(x – 50) Solving the above equation we get – : (x – 200) (x + 150) = 0 x = 200 km Therefore distance between Ayodhya and Mirzapur is 300 k since AB = BC = AC 27) c) Basically they will exchange their speeds just after half of the time required for the whole journey. It means after covering 210 km distance they will exchange their speeds. Check it out graphically for more clarification. 28) b) The ratio of speeds = the ratio of distances, when time is constant Therefore the ratio of distances covered by cheetah to the Lion = 12 : 25 Again, ratio of rounds made by cheetah to the Lion = 12 : 25. Hence, cheetah makes 48 rounds, when Lion makes 100 rounds. 29) c) Length of DR = 6000/13( Refer to the triangle drawn in the question) Total distance covered in the returning by Ajay = PD + RD = 2500/13 + 6000/13 = 8500/13KM Required time = (8500/13)/(500/13) = 17 h Total distance covered by Priya while returning = QD + DR = 14400/13 + 600/13 Required time = (20400/13)/(1200/13)= 17 Hence, we can see that both reach at the same time 30) c) The distance of route PDR = 8500/13 and the distance of route QNR = 1300 and the time taken by Ajay is (8500/13)/(500/13) = 17 h and the time taken by Priya is 1300/(1200/13) = 169/12 h = 14 h 05 h. so option c is correct 31) d) Time saved in percentage = (175/1020) * 100 = 17.15% 32) b) Husband takes 17 hours and she takes 14 hours 05 min + 3 h = 17 h 05 min

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33) c) The speeds of two persons is 108 kmph and 75 kmph. The first person covers 1080 km in 10 hours and thus he makes 12 rounds. Thus, he will pass over another person 12 times in any one of the direction. 34) b) Since both rest for 6 seconds so when Bharti is just about to start the journey Rekha reaches there at the shallow end so they meet at the shallow end. 35) d) A started at 12 : 00 noon. B started at 3 pm Required time = (Distance advanced in 3 h)/(Relative speed) = (40 * 3)/20 = 6h Hence, B will overtake at 9 pm. (3 + 6 = 9)

( 20 = 60 – 40)

36) b) Required time = [(Distance advance) – (Required – difference)]/(Relative speed) = (120 – 30)/20 = 90/20 = 4.5 h Thus, at 7.30 pm A & B wil be 30 km apart. 37) c) Required time = ( Distance advanced + Required difference)/Relative speed = (120 + 30)/20 = 150/20 = 7.5h Thus at 10 : 30 pm A & B will be 30 km apart 38) c) Let the speed of boat be B and that of river be R. In 12 minutes the distance between boat and hat = 12(B – R) + 12R = 12 B Now time taken by boat to reach to hat = 12 B/[(B + R) – R] = 12 min Total time = 24 min In 24 minutes had flown off = 3 km Therefore, (24 * R)/60 = 3 So R = 7.5 kmph 39) a) The ratio of speeds of P, Q, R = (10/49) : (9/50) : (8/51) Hence, P is the fastest. 40) c) Speed of this car = [(400 + 200)/20] * [18/5] kmph = 108 kmph 41) a) Train A traveling at 120 kmph = (100/3) m/s Length of the vehicle A = (100/3) * 4 =(400/3) m Since, vehicle B and vehicle A take 36 sec and 31 sec to completely cross the line PQ. So, total distance traveled by vehicle A = (100/3)* 31 = (3100/3) m Therefore, length of the line PQ = (3100/3) – (400/3) = 900 m = 0.9 km Vehicle B travelling at 110 kmph = 110(5/18) = (275/9)m/s Now, total distance traveled by vehicle B = (275/9) * 36 = 1100 m So the length of train B = 1100 – 900 = 200 m 42) a) Since they cover 20 & 24 km in equal time, their speeds will be in the same ratio as their distance covered . Speed = R/S = 20/24 = 5/6 www.ibpsguide.com | www.ibpsguide.in|mock.ibpsguide.in| www.sscexamguide.com Copyright© 2016 IBPS Guide | For Queries contact – admin@ibpsguide.com Page-198

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Hence, 20/6x + 8/60 = 24/5x so x = 11 Soham‘s speed = 66 kmph 43) a) Dheeraj started at 4 : 00 am and his bike broke down for 2 hours. Neeraj started at 6:00am. It is equivalent to 4 hours of journey for both of them. Neeraj‘s initial speed = 28 kmph Distance travelled by Neeraj = 28t +14(4 – t) = 14(t + 4)km, where t is the number of hours post 6:00am at which her bike slowed down. Hence ‗t‘ could be 1, 2 or 3. So, Dheeraj‘s speed ( inkmph) could be 35.5, 39 or 42.5. 44) d) In 5 seconds kokilaben runs 85 m. So, the speed of kokilaben = 17 m/s 45) b) He takes 40 minutes less to cycle than to walk. Thus, on the whole he takes 40 more. Required time = 3 hours 20 minutes or 3.33 hours 46) b) D = S * T With 1st condition when speed decreases eq is–: 4S – T = 40 ------1) With 2nd condition when speed increased eq is –: (– 2S) + T = 10 --------2) Solving the aabove two eq we get S = 25 kmphand T = 60 h hence, distance = 25 * 60 = 1500 km 47) c)speed of tiger = 40 m/min Speed of deer = 20 m/min Relative speed = 40 – 20 = 20 m/min Differences in distances = 50 * 8 = 400 m Therefore, time taken in overtaking (or catching) = 400/20 = 20 min Therefore, distance travelled in 20 min = 20 * 40 = 800 m 48) c) Given that they meet in 80 minutes, when moving towards each other, the sum of their speeds should be such that they cover 1.25% of the distance per minute ( i.e. 75% of the distance per hour). 49) a) Let S1, S2 and S3 be the speeds of the three cars. Then : (120/S1) – (120/S2)hour--------1) It is also known that the speed of the third car is double the speed of the first car. With these realisations, check for factors of 120 which can satisfy the equation above [ Note that in equations like 1) above, normally the respective values of S1 & S2 will be factors of 120.] 50) b) If the side of the initial equilateral triangle is S1, then Ajitcovers (S – 120) kms. Sarbajeet covers S kilometres. Also, when Ajit covers a distance of 80 kilometres.Sarbajeet covers a distance such that the resultant triangle is right angled. Check these conditions through options.

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TIME & WORK Q 1) P, Q and R work together for a particular time to do a certain amount of work.R needs one hour less than P to complete the work. Working together, they require 30 minutes to complete 50% of the job. The work also gets completed if P &Q start working together and P leaves after 1 hour and Q works for a further 3 hours. How much work does R do per hour? a) 16.67% b) 50% c) 66.67% d) 25% Q 2) The total number of men, women & children working in a factory is 18. They earn Rs 4000 in a day. If the sum of the wages of all men, all women and all women and all children is in the ratio of 18:10:12 and if the wages of an individual man, woman and the child is in the ratio 6:5:3, then how much a woman earn in a day? a) Rs 400 b) Rs 250 c) Rs 150 d) Rs 120 Q 3) Two women Radhika&Usha are working together on an embroidery design. If Usha worked alone, she would need eight hours more to complete the design than if they both worked together. Now if Radhika worked alone, it would need 4.5 hours more to complete the design than they both working together. What time would it take Radhika alone to complete the design? a) 10.5 hours b) 12.5 hours c) 14.5 hours d) 18.5 hours Q 4) ‗A‘ takes 4 days to complete 1/3rd of a job. ‗B‘ takes 3 days to complete 1/6th of the same work and ‗C‘ takes 5 days to complete half of the job. If all of them work together for 3 days and ‗A‘ & ‗C‘ quit, how long will it take for ‗B‘ tocomplete the remaining work done. a) 6 days b) 8.1 days c) 5.1 days d) 7 days Q 5) At Call tech solutions Pvt Ltd. There are some engineering students employed as graduate engineer trainee, belonging to two eminent institutions of india.one group belong to MIT and another to NIT. Each student of MIT works for 10 hours a day till 60 days and each student of NIT works for 8 hours till 80 days on the two same projects. The ratio of number of students of MIT and that of NIT is 4:5 respectively. Students of which institution is slower in work and by how much? a) Each student of MIT is 20% less efficient than that of NIT b) Each student of NIT is 33.33% less efficient than that of MIT c) Each student of NIT is 25% less efficient than that of MIT d) Each student of MIT is 33.33% less efficient than that of NIT. Q 6) Consider three friends A, B and C who work at differing speeds. When the slowest two work together they take n days to finish a task. When the quickest two work together they take m days to finish a task. One of them, if he worked alone would take thrice as much time as it would take when all three work together. How much time would it take if all three worked together? a) 3mn/2(m+n) b) 2mn/(m+n) c) 4mn/3(m+n) d) 5mn/(3(m+n) Q 7) Number of units of a good that can be produced by a factory is directly proportional to the square of the number of workers, square root of the number of machines and to the number of hours put in. The factory www.ibpsguide.com | www.ibpsguide.in|mock.ibpsguide.in| www.sscexamguide.com Copyright© 2016 IBPS Guide | For Queries contact – admin@ibpsguide.com Page-200

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produces 200 goods when 4 people work for 8 hours each with 4 machines. When 3 people work for 12 hours each with 9 machines, how many goods will be produced? a) K= 25/32 b) K= 100/163 c) K= 25/256 d) K= 16/29 Q 8) A can complete a task 4 hours lesser time than B takes to complete the same. If A and B together can complete the task in 288 minutes, how long does B alone take to complete the task? a) 1 hr b) 2 hr c) 3 hr d) 12 hrs Q 9) A can do ¼ th of a work in 10 days, B can do 40% of the same work in 40 days and C can do 1/3rd of the work in 13 days. Who will complete the work first? a) A b) B c) C d) Both A & C Q 10) 5 men start working to complete a work in 15 days. After 5 days, 10 women are accompanied by them to complete the work in next 5 days. If the work is to be done by women only, when could the work e over, if 10 women have started it? a) 10 days b) 18 days c) 15 days d) 12 days Q 11) 6 children can do a piece of work in 12 days while 8 men can do the same work in 18 days. The same work can be done by 18 women in 10 days. 4 children, 12 men and 20 women work together for 2 days. If only children have to complete remaining work in 1 day, then find the required number of children? a) 36 b) 24 c) 18 d) None of these Q 12) P can complete a work in 20 days and Q in 30 days. P worked alone for 4 days and then Q completed the remaining work along with R in 18 days. In how many days can R working alone complete the work? a) 12 b) 68 c) 72 d) 90 Q 13) X and Y each working alone can do a work in 15 days and 25 days respectively. They started the work together but Y left after sometime and X finished the remaining work in 7 days. After how many days from start did Y leave? a) 3 b) 5 c) 7 d) 9 Q 14) S & T can do a piece of work in 9 days and 18 days respectively. As they were ill they could do 90% and 72% of their efficiency respectively. How many days will they take to complete the work together? a) 50/7 b) 8 c) 5 d) 10 Q 15) The Niagara Dam has four inlets. Through the first three inlets, the dam can be filed in 12 hours; through the second, the third and the fourth inlet, it can be filled in 15 hours; and through the 1st and the fourth inlet, in 20 hours. How much time will it take all the four inlets to fill up the dam? a) 8 hours b) 10 hours c) 12 hours d) None of these Q 16) A tank of 425 litres capacity has been filled with water through two pipes A & B, pipe A having been opened five hours longer than the pipe B. If the pipe A were open as long as the pipe B and the pipe B was open as long as the pipe A was open, then the pipe A would deliver half the amount of water delivered by www.ibpsguide.com | www.ibpsguide.in|mock.ibpsguide.in| www.sscexamguide.com Copyright© 2016 IBPS Guide | For Queries contact – admin@ibpsguide.com Page-201

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the pipe B; if the two pipes were opened simultaneously, the tank would be filled up in 17 hours. How long was the second pipe open? a) 10 hours b) 12 hours c) 15 hours d) 18 hours Q 17) Two pipes P & Q can fill up half full tank in 1.2 hours. The tank was initially empty. Pipe Q was kept open for half the time required by pipe P to fill the tank by itself. Then, Pipe Q was kept open for as much time as was required by pipe Q to fill up 1/3rd of the tank by itself. It was then found that the tank was 5/6th full. The least time in which any of the pipes can fill up the tank fully is a) 4.8 hours b) 4 hours c) 3.6 hours d) 6 hours Q 18) Ridhima and Vijay are quiz masters preparing for a quiz. In ‗a‘ minutes, Ridhima makes ‗b‘ questions more than Vijay. If it were possible to reduce the time needed by each to make a question by two minutes, then in ‗a‘ minutes Ridhima would make 2b questions more than Vijay. How many questions does Ridhima make in a minutes? a) ¼[2(a+b) - √(2a^2 + 4b^2)] b) ¼[2(a-b) - √(2a^2 + 4b^2)] c) Either a or b d) ¼[2(a-b) - √(2a^2 – 4b^2)] Q 19) A tank of 3600 cubic m is being filled with water. The delivery of the pump discharging the tank is 20% more than the delivery of the pump filling the same tank. As a result, twelve minutes more time is needed ti fill the tank than to discharge it. Determine the delivery of the pump discharging the tank. a) 40m^3/min b) 50m^3/min c) 60m^3/min d) 80m^3/min Q 20) Two forest officials in their respective divisions were involved in the harvesting of tendu leaves. One division had an average output of 21 tons from a square meter and the other division, which had 12 square meter of land less, dedicated to tendu leaves, got 25 tons of tendu from a square meter. As a result, the second division harvested 300 tons of tendu leaves more than first. How many tons of tendu leaves did the first division harvest? a) 3150 b) 3450 c) 3500 d) 3600 Q 21) A pipe can fill a tank in ‗k‘ hours and another can empty it in ‗m‘ hours. If the tank is 1/3rd full then the number of hours in which they will together fill it in is a) (3km)/2(m-k) b) (3km)/(m-k) c) km/3(m-k) d) 2km/3(m-k) Q 22) A tank holds 100 litres of water. Its inlets is 7 cm in diameter and fills the tank at 5 litres/min. The outlet of the tank is twice the diameter of the inlet. How many minutes will it take to empty the tank if the inlet is shut off, when the tank is full and the outlet is opened? a) 7.14 min b) 0.7 min c) 5 min d) 10.0 min Q 23) L takes 4 days to complete one-third of a job, M takes 3 days to complete 1/6th of the same work and N takes 5 days to complete half the job. If all of them work together for 3 days and L & N quit, how long will it take for M to complete the remaining work done. a) 6 days b) 8.1 days c) 5.1 days d) 7 days www.ibpsguide.com | www.ibpsguide.in|mock.ibpsguide.in| www.sscexamguide.com Copyright© 2016 IBPS Guide | For Queries contact – admin@ibpsguide.com Page-202

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Q 24) Threeduggers dug a ditch of 324 meter deep in 6 days working simultaneously. During one shift, the third digger digs as many meters more than second as the second digs more than the first. The third digger‘s work in 10 days is equal to the first digger‘s work in 14 days. How many meters does the first digger dig per shift? a) 15 m b) 18m c) 21m d) 27m Q 25) P, Q & R working together completed a job in 10 days. However, R only worked for the first three days when 37/100 of the job was done. Also, the work done by P in 5 days is equal to the work done by Q in 4 days. How many days would be required by the fastest worker to complete the entire work? a) 20 days b) 25 days c) 30 days d) 40 days Q 26) Three carpenters have to make 80 chairs. They are known to make 20 pieces evrey minute working together. The first carpenter began working alone and made 20 pieces of chairs having worked for sometime more than three minutes. The remaining part of the work was done by the second and the third cook working together. It took a total of 8 minutes to make 80 chairs. How many minutes would it take the first cook alone to cook 160 chairs for a function the next day? a) 16 minutes b) 24 minutes c) 32 minutes d) 40 minutes Q 27 – 31) Read the following and answer the question that follow: A set of 10 pipes(set A) can fill 70% of a tank in 7 minutes. Another set of pipes (set B) fills 3/8 of the tank in 3 minutes. A third set of pipes (set C) can empty 5/10 of the tank in 10 minutes. Q 27) How many minutes will it take to fill the tank if all the 23 pipes are opened at the same time? a) 5 minutes b) 40/7 minutes c) 6 minutes d) 47/7 minutes Q 28) If only half the pipes of set A are closed and only half the pipes of set B are open and all other pipes are open, how long will it take to fill 49% of the tank? a) 16 minutes b) 13 minutes c) 7 minutes d) None of these Q 29) If 4 pipes are closed in set C, and all other remain open, how long will it take to fill the tank? a) 5 minutes b) 6 minutes c) 7 minutes d) 7.5 minutes Q 30) If the tank is half full and set A & set B are closed, how many minutes will it take for set C to empty the tank if alternate taps of set C are closed. a) 12 minutes b) 20 minutes c) 40 minutes d) 16 minutes Q 31) if one pipe is added for set A and set B and set C‘s capacity is increased by 20% on its original value and all the taps are opened at 2.58pm, then at what time does the tank get filled?(if it is initially empty) a) 3.05 pm b) 3.04 pm c) 3.10 pm d) 3.03 pm Q 32) Rajeev can do as much work in 2 days as Brijesh can do in 3 days and Brijesh can do as much in 4 days as Daljeet in 5 days. A piece of work takes 20 days if all work together. How long Brijesh take to do all the work by himself? www.ibpsguide.com | www.ibpsguide.in|mock.ibpsguide.in| www.sscexamguide.com Copyright© 2016 IBPS Guide | For Queries contact – admin@ibpsguide.com Page-203

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a) 82 days

b) 44 days

c) 66 days

d) 50 days

Q 33) In a factory, there are equal number of men and women. Men workfor 6 hour a day and children for 4 hour a day. During festival time, the work load goes up by 50%. The government rule does not allow women to work for more than 6 hour a day. If they are equally efficient and the extra work is done by men, then extra hours of work put in by men everyday are a) 5 b) 3 c) 4 d) 9 Q 34) 20 men complete 1/3rd of a work in 20 days. How many more men should be employed to finish the rest of work in 25 more days? a) 15 b) 12 c) 18 d) 25 Q 35) In a school, Mid – Day Meal food is sufficient for 250 students for 33 days, if each student is given 125 g meals. 80 more students joined the school. If same amount of meal is given to each student, then the food will last for a) 20 days b) 40 days c) 30 days d) 25 days Q 36) If x men working x hour per day, can do x units of work in x days, then y men working y hour per day would be able to complete how many units of work in y days? a) y^3/x^2 b) y^3/x^2 c) x^4/y^2 d) y^4/x^3 Q 37) When ‗P‘ alone can do a piece of work, he takes 25 days more than the time taken by (P+Q) to complete that particular work, while Q alone takes 49 days more than the time taken (P+Q) to finish the same work. P & Q together will take what time to finish this work? a) 35 days b) 25 days c) 15 days d) 45 days Q 38)A contractor undertook to do a certain piece of work in 18 days. He employed certain number of men but 12 of them being absent from the very 1st day, the rest could finish the work in 30 days. Find the number of men originally employed. a) 40 b) 15 c) 45 d) 30 Q 39) There are three inlet pipes whose diameters are 1m, 2m & 3m respectively. If the rate of flow is directly proportional to the square of the diameter, find the time taken to fill an empty tank when all the three pipes are opened, given that the smallest pipe takes 9 min to fill the tank. a) 3/14 min b) 9/14 c) 11/24 d) None of these Q 40) There are two taps A & B connected to a tank. Capacity of the tank is 40 L. Tap A can fill the tank in 10 hour. Tap B can empty the tank in 20 hour. How much time will both the taps take to fill the tank when both are open simulataneously? It is given that water evaporates at the rate of 2.5% of the total capacity of tank in an hour. a) 20 hour b) 25 hour c) 40 hour d) 42 hour

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Q 41) Ravi builds a tank in his office, which has three taps attached to it. While the first tap can fill the tank in 10 hours, the second one takes 180% of time the first one take to fill it completely. A third tap is attached to the tank, which empties it in 30 hours. One day, in order to fill the tank, Ravi opens the first tap and after two hours opens the second tap as well. However, at the end of the fifth hour, he realizes that the third tap has been kept open right from the beginning and closes it. If he closes first tap 2 hours before second ta, what will be the total time required to fill the tank? a) 9 hours 48 minutes b) 9 hours 30 minutes c) 8 hours 30 minutes d) 8 hours 48 minutes Q 42) The digging work of the underpass by Gammon on the Moolchand – Saket stretch requires thirty – six men to complete the work in twelve days. As a part of the task if Gammon were to hire forty – eight women, they can complete the same work in eighteen days. Sixteen men and sixteen women started working and worked for ten days. Due to time bound schedule the work had to be completed in remaining three days, for which how many more men are to be employed? a) 32 b) 36 c) 40 d) 45 Q 43) In an assembly line, three robotics arms – R1, R2 & R3 – are working together. R1 alone takes 10 hrs to complete a single product but R2 & R3 working together take 4hours for the completion of the same product. If all of them worked together and completed 14 products, then for many hours did they work? a) 20 hours b) 28 hours c) 40 hours d) 54 hours Q 44) An overhead tank in the form of a cuboid is filled by two pumps – P1 & P2. P1 can fill the tank in 6 hours while P2 can fill the tank in 9 hours. There is a pump P3 which can empty the tank in the 12 hours. Both the inlet pumps are opened simultaneously. The caretaker of the house, before going out on a work, sets a timer to open P3 when the tank is 22.22% filled so that tank is exactly filled up by the time he is back. Due to some technical problem P3 didin‘t open at all .if the caretaker comes back as per the plan, for how much time was the tank over flowed with? a) 48 minutes b) 1 hour 12 minutes c) 1 hour 36 minutes d) 1 hour 48 minutes Q 45) Raj, Sahil&Harshit can fix a defect in m, 2m & 3, days repectively(where m is an integer). All the three mentioned person started working together. Raj continued to work till the defect was fixed, but Harshit left two days and Sahil one day before the defect was fixed. Which of the following is true? a) Sahil cannot take 16 days to complete the defect alone. b) Sahil cannot take 60 day to complete the defect alone c) Sahil cannot take 40 days to complete the defect alone d) None of these Q 46) Due to a hole at the bottom of the bucket, a tap takes 2 more minutes to completely fill the bucket. Due to the leakage of water through this hole, a bucket filled completely with water gets emptied in 4 minutes. In how much time can the tap fill the bucket, if there was no hole at the bottom of the bucket? a) 8 minutes b) 2 minutes c) 4 minutes d) 6 minutes

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Q 47) A group of workers was given a job. From the second day onwards, one worker was withdrawn each day. The job was finished when the last worker was withdrawn. If no worker had been withdrawn, thegroup would have finished the job in 2/3rd of the time. How many workers were there in the group? a) 2 b) 3 c) 5 d) 10 Q 48) A finishes a work in certain number of days. He got two assistants who work 3/4rth times as fast him. If all the three work together, then in what fraction of time would they finish the job as compared to A working alone? a) 5/3 b) 3/5 c) 2/3 d) 2/5 Q 49) P does a work in 90 days, Q in 40 days and R in 12 days. They work one after another for a day each, starting with P followed by Q and then by R. if the total wages received is Rs 360 and P, Q & R share it in the ratio of the work done, find their respective individual wages. a) Rs 40, Rs 60 and Rs 260 b) Rs 36, Rs 81 and Rs 243 c) Rs 42, Rs 86 and Rs 232 d) None of these Q 50) Rajesh completes an assignment in 10 to 15 days and Rakesh takes 15 to 20 days to finish the same assignment. If they work on alternate days and both of them take a break together on every third day, then which of the following is correct regarding the number of dayin which the assignment may be completed? a) Less than or equal to 25 days b) More than 18 days c) More than or equal to 17 days d) More than 25 days

SOLUTION AND EXPLANATION OF TIME & WORK

1). b) 0.5(P+Q+R) = 50% of the work. Means –: P, Q & R Can do the full work in 1 hour. Thus, (P+Q+R) = 100% From this point it better to solve through options. Option c) gives the correct answer based on the following thought process. If x= 50% of work per hour, it means R takes 2 hours to complete the work. Consequently, P would take 3 hours and hence do 33.33% of work per hour. 2). b) Ratio of number of men, women & children = 18/6 : 10/5 : 12/3 = 3x : 2x : 4x 3x + 2x + 4x = 18 ; x=2 Therefore, number of women = 4 Share of all women = (10/40)* 4000 = Rs 1000 (since 18 + 10 + 12 = 40) So share of each woman = 1000/4 Rs 250 3). a) Let ‗x‘ hrs be required to complete the work together. www.ibpsguide.com | www.ibpsguide.in|mock.ibpsguide.in| www.sscexamguide.com Copyright© 2016 IBPS Guide | For Queries contact – admin@ibpsguide.com Page-206

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Then, 1/(x+4.5) + 1/(x+80) = 1/x. check the options to see which one fits the equation and we see that option a) 10.5 hours fits into it. 4). c) let the total work be = 60 units so A‘s rate of doing work = 5 units/day B‘s rate of doing work = (10/3) units/day Similarly C‘s rate of doing work = 6 units/day So sum total of their one day‘s work is = 5 + 10/3 + 6 = 43/3 So in 3 days 43 units of work was done and work left is = 60 – 43 = 17 units To complete this remaining work it took B = (17 * 3)/10 = 5.1 days 5). c) MIT NIT 4 * 10* 60 * E1 = 5 * 8 * 80 * E2 E1/E2 = 4/3 Where E1 & E2 are the respective working efficiencies per hour . So ans is Each engineer from NIT is 25% less efficient than each engineer from MIT. 6) c) Let A < B < C in terms of efficiency. B and C together take n days. A and B together take m days. One of them, if he worked alone would take thrice as much time as it would take when all three work together. This is a crucial statement. Now, if there are three people who are all equally efficient, for each of them it would take thrice as much time as for all three together. Now, this tells us that the person who takes thrice as much time cannot be the quickest one. If the quickest one is only one-third as efficient as the entire team, the other two cannot add up to two-thirds. By a similar logic, the slowest one cannot be the person who is one-third as efficient. In other words, the person one-third as efficient = B Let A, B and C together take x days. B alone would take 3x days B and C together take n days. Or B + C in 1 day do 1n of the task ........Eqn (i) A and B together take m days. Or, A + B in 1 day do 1m of the task ........Eqn (ii) B takes 3x days to do the task. Or, B, in one day, does 13x of the task ........Eqn (iii) Now, if we do (i) + (i) – (iii) we get A + B + C do 1n+1m−13x in a day. This should be equal to 1x as all three of them complete the task in x days. 1n+1m−13x=1x 1n+1m=43x m+nmn=43x 4mn3(m+n). Answer choice (C). www.ibpsguide.com | www.ibpsguide.in|mock.ibpsguide.in| www.sscexamguide.com Copyright© 2016 IBPS Guide | For Queries contact – admin@ibpsguide.com Page-207

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7) a) G α No of workers2 G α No.ofMachines−−−−−−−−−−−−−√ G α No of hours 200 α 42×4√×8 200 α 16 x 2 x 8 200 α 256 200 = k x 256 K=200/256 : K=25/32 Correct Answer: K=25/32 8) d) Let time taken by A be 'a' hours and time taken by B be 'a+4' hours Then A does 1a of the work in an hour. B does 1a+4 of the work in an hour. Together they take 288 minutes to finish the job, 288 minutes = 28860=245 hours. Therefore, both A and B together complete 524 every hour. 1a+1a+4=524 2a+4a(a+4)=524 We get, 48a + 96 = 5(a2 + 4a) => 5a2 - 28a - 96 = 0 => 5a2 - 40a + 12a - 96 = 0 5a (a - 8) + 12(a - 8) = 0 (5a + 12)(a - 8) = 0 .Therefore, Since a cannot be negative, a = 8 hours. Hence, a + 4 = 12 hours. Therefore, Time taken by B to complete the work on his own is 12 hours. Correct Answer: 12 hrs 9) c) Let us assume the amount of work be 60 units Now 1/4rth of a work = 15 units which is completed by A in 10 days. So A‘s rate of work A= (3/2) units/day B completed 40% of work (40% of 60 units=24 units) in 40 days. So B‘s rate of doing work B= (3/5) units/day Similarly C does 1/3rd of work (i.e. 20 units) in 13 days. So C‘s rate of doing work, C=(20/13) units/ days finding out A complete whole work in (60*2)/3 = 40 days B complete whole 60 units of work in (60*5)/3=100 days & C complete the whole work in (60*13)20= 39 days So from the above we can conclude that C complete faster than the other two hence option c) C is the answer 10) c) answer is Let us take amount of work be 60 units So 5 men does 40 unit/day work So if we assume rate of doing work of 10 women be x units/day Then according to data given we get the equation as 10*4 + 5x = 60 which gives x=4 So time by 10 women to complete the whole work (ie 60 units) is = 60/4 = 15 days Ans www.ibpsguide.com | www.ibpsguide.in|mock.ibpsguide.in| www.sscexamguide.com Copyright© 2016 IBPS Guide | For Queries contact – admin@ibpsguide.com Page-208

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11)a) let us assume that the amount of work be 1440 units 6 children in 12 days can do – 1440 units. So – 1 children‘s rate of doing work = 20 units/day. 18 women in 10 days can do – 1440 units. So – 1 women‘s rate of doing work = 8 units/day. 8 men in 18 days can do – 1440 units. So – 1 man‘s rate of doin work = 10 units/day. 4 children can do – 4*20 = 80 units/day. 12 men can do – 12*10 = 120 units/day. 20 women can do – 20*8 = 160 units/day Together 4 children, 12 men & 20 women can do = 360 units/day. In 2 days they will do = 2*360 = 720 units. Amount of work left = 1440 – 720 = 720 units. So if only children are given to complete the left task of 720 units in one day, then Required number of children will be = 720/20 = 36 is the answer. 12)d)90 days let the amount of work be 360 units. Rate of doing work of P is = 360/20 = 18 units/day Rate of doing work of Q is = 360/30 = 12 units/day P worked alone for 4 days, in which he did 4*18=72 units of wprk Amount of work left is = 360 – 72 = 288 units; Q + R completes the remaining 288 units in 18 days which gives In terms of work –:12*18 + 18x = 288 we get 216 + 18x =288 which gives x=4 ie rate of R= 4 units/day So R alone completes the whole work in = 360/4 = 90 days 13) b) 5. Let ‗k‘ be the time from till when ‗Y‘ left the work. Let the total amount of work done be = 150 units So –: Rate of doing work by ‗X‘ & ‗Y‘ are 10 units/day& 6 units/day respectively. As per the statement eq becomes - amount of work done by X + amount of that by Y = 150 units i.e. 10(k + 7) + 6k = 150; 16k=150-70; k = 80/16 = 5 days is the answer. 14) a) 50/7 days. Let the amount of work be 1800 units. Rate of doing work by S is = 1800/9 = 200 units/day; Similarly for T rate will be = 1800/18 = 100 units/day But the efficiency as given for S is 90% so its rate will be = 90% of 200 = 180 units/day Similarly the efficiency of T as given is 72% so its rate becomes = 72% of 100 = 72 units/day With this reduced efficiency of doing work bot S & T together will take = 1800/(180+72) = 1800/252 =50/7days. 15) b) 10 hours. Letthe capacity of tank be = 600 litres 1 + 2 + 3 inlets rate of filling the tank = 600/12 = 50 litres/hour ---------- A) 2+ 3 + 4 inlets rate of filling the tank = 600/15 = 40 litres/hour ------------ B) 1 + 4 inlets rate of filling the tank = 600/20 = 30 litres/hour ------------ C) Adding EqA& C we get 2(1) + 2 + 3 + 4 = 80 litres/hour So 2(1) = 80 – 40 = 40 2(1) = 40; 1 = 20 litres/hour www.ibpsguide.com | www.ibpsguide.in|mock.ibpsguide.in| www.sscexamguide.com Copyright© 2016 IBPS Guide | For Queries contact – admin@ibpsguide.com Page-209

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So time taken by all four inlets is= 600/60 = 10 hours Ans 16) c)let the discharges per pipes be A & B litres/hr respectively. Then 17( A+B) = 425 I.E. A + B = 25 From this point of solution proceed to check the conditions of the question through options. Then we get15 hours as the answer. 17) b) P + Q = 50%/1.2 = 41.66% (where P & Q represent the work per hour of pies P & Q respectively). Solve using options to see which one fits the remaining conditions of the problem. For eg, if we check option b(4 hrs), then we get that the work of the faster pipe(say P) = 25 % Then Q = 16/66% Then Q wsa open for 4/2= 2 hours and P was open 6/3= 2 hours. Work done = 25% * 2 + 16.66% * 2 = 83.33% = 5/6 of work hence this option is correct. 18) a) let Vijay makes ‗x‘ questions in ‗a‘ minutes then Ridhima will make ‗x+b‘ questions in ‗a‘ minutes So minutes per questions by Vijay is a/x And dat of Ridhima is a/(x+b) If it is reduced by 2 mins den Vijay‘s questions per minutes becomes (a/x) – 2 which gives in ‗a‘ minutes it will solve ax/(a-2x) And Ridhima will solve in ‗a‘ minutes = x+b/(a – 2x – 2b) which gives equations as per the condition (x+b)a/(a – 2x – 2b) = 2b + ax/(a – 2x) Solving for x it we get the answer as option a) 19) b)let the delivery rate of pump filling the tank be 100x cubic m/min Then the delivery rate of discharging pump becomes 120x cubic m/min As its given that total time taken by filling pump takes 12 minutes more than that of discharging pump so according to this condition we get equation as 3600/100x – 3600/120x = 12 solve for x we get x= ½ so the delivery rate of pump discharging to the tank becomes 50 m^3 /min. 20 a) the equation from the above condition becomes 25 (n – 12) = 21 n + 300. Solving it we get n = 150. Hence, the first division harvest 3150 tons. 21) d) let the capacity of the tank be 150 cc then Pipe filling the tank at the rate of (150/k) cc/ hrs Similarly Pipe emptying the tank at the rate of (150/m) cc/hrs.since its 1/3rd full means left amount is 100 cc So time taken to fill the remaining 100 cc of tank is – 100/[150(1/k – 1/m)] which gives 2km/3(m – k) 22) d) Since rate of filling capacity is directly proportional to the diameter of the inlet/outlets www.ibpsguide.com | www.ibpsguide.in|mock.ibpsguide.in| www.sscexamguide.com Copyright© 2016 IBPS Guide | For Queries contact – admin@ibpsguide.com Page-210

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So 5/x = 7p/14p we get x = 10 litres /min so time taken to empty the tank becomes 100/10 = 10.0 mins. 23) c)let the total amount of work be 900 units So L‘s rate of doing work is 75 units/day M‘s rate of doing work is 50 units/day Similarly N‘s rate of doing work = 90 units/day So their one days work is = 75 + 50 + 90 = 215 units. They work together for 3 days in which they did 3*215 = 645 units of work. Amount of work left is 900 – 645 = 255 units and then after those 3 days L & N left. So M takes time to complete the remaining work of 255 units in 255/50 = 5.1 days 24) a) Ditch dug per day = 324/6 = 54 metres So x + ( x + y) + (x + 2y) = 54 10 ( x + 2y) = 14 x Using the options to solve it we get 15 metres 25) a) work done on the first three days is 37 %. Hence, work done on the next 7 days is 63%. Since, this is P + Q‘s work we get One day‘s work of (P + Q) = 9% Also, 5P = 4Q Hence P = 4% & Q = 5% Q turns out to be the fastest worker. So answer is 20 days 26 c) From the condition of the problem and a little bit of trial and error we can see that the first carpenter worked for for 4 mins and 2nd and 3rd carpenter also worked for 4 mins. As 4A + 4(B+C) = 49A + B + C) and we know that A + B + C = 20 pieces per minute. So , the first carpenter make 20 pieces in 4 mins. To make 160 pieces of chairs he would take 32 mins. Q 27 – 31) First set of ten pipes operate 10%/min (filling) i.e. Filling done by 1 pipe = 1% minute/ minute second set of five pipes operate at 12.5%/ minute ( filling) i.e. filling done by 1 pipe = 2.5%/minute Set C (Emptying) = 5%/minute Emptying per pipe = 0.625%/minute So Answers are 27) b28) d29) a30) b31) d 32) c)let Brijesh does ‗x‘ units in 3 days then Rajeev does ‗x‘ units in 4 days and similarly Daljeet does 4x/3 units in 5 days. So there one day‘s work is -: x/3 + x/2 + 4x/15 = 11x/10. They together completed the work in 20 days, so total work donbe = (11x * 20)/10 So time taken by Brijeshalone to complete the above amount of work is = [(11x * 20)/10]/[3/x] = 66 days. Q 33) b) let the extra labour done by women be ‗x‘ hours per day. www.ibpsguide.com | www.ibpsguide.in|mock.ibpsguide.in| www.sscexamguide.com Copyright© 2016 IBPS Guide | For Queries contact – admin@ibpsguide.com Page-211

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Let the number of women and children be ‗w‘ & ‗c‘ respectively. And let the amount of work initially be 100 units then by increment in 50% means it will become 150 units. Then by the formula (M1 * D1 * T1)/W1 = (M2 * D2 * T2)/W2 We get [(w + c) * 6 * 6]/100 = [(w + c) * 6 * (6 + 6 + x)]/150 So x = 3 hours is the answer. 34) b) let the amount of work be = 300 units So 20 men does – 100 units in – 20 days So 1 man does – in 1day – ¼ unit of work So in 25 days they will do 125 units while remaining work is 200 units so some extra men will be required so let it be x Then x+20 men will do – [(x+20) * 25]/4 units of work which is = 200 units so solving them we get x = 12 men 35) d) since M1 * D1 * T1 = M2 * D2 * T2 We need to find D2 = (M1 * D1 * T1)/(M2 * T2) So substituting the values we get D2 = (250 * 33 * 125)/( 330 * 125) = 25 DAYS 36) a) applying the same formula (M1 * D1 * T1) = (M2 * D2 * T2) we get amount of work done by y men is = y^3/x^2 37) a) Let (P + Q) complete the total work of ‗x‘ units in k days. Then P does ‗x‘ unit of work in k+25 days. & Q does ‗x‘ unit of work in k+49 days. Eq thus becomes -: x/(k+25) + x/(k+49) = x/k so we get k=35 days. 38) d) let the number of men employed initially by a contractor be ‗x‘ then applying the same M1 * D1 *T1 =Const We get -: x * 18 = (x – 12) * 30: x = 30 men 39) b) let the total capacity of tank be 180 cc Since the rate of the pipe flows is proportional to the square of their diameter. So the rate of their flows is k, 4k & 9k respectively. And given time taken by smallest pipe to fill 180 cc tank is 9 min so its rate becomes 20 cc/min which is = k So time taken by all 3 pipes together is = 180/( 14 * 20)= 9/14 min 40) c)since the capacity of tank is 40 L. Tap A takes 10 hr which means its rate of filling is = 4 L/hr. Similarly B empties the tank in 20 hr so its rate of emptying the tank is = 2 L/hr And given 2.5 % of total tank capacity get evaporated in every 1 hour which is = 1L/hr So, net rate of filling is 4 – 2 – 1 = 1 L/hr Hence, when both taps are open it will take 40/1 = 40 hr. 41 b) Second tap can fill the tank in 1.8 * 10 ie 18 hours. Fraction of tank filled after 5 hours = (5/10) + (3/18) – (5/30) =1/2 www.ibpsguide.com | www.ibpsguide.in|mock.ibpsguide.in| www.sscexamguide.com Copyright© 2016 IBPS Guide | For Queries contact – admin@ibpsguide.com Page-212

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Let the first tank remains open for next ‗n‘ hours According to question, n/10 + (n + 2)/18 = ½ or n = 2.5 Total time taken to fill the tank = 9.5 hours or 9 hours 30 minutes 42 c) Let a man in one day can do ‗w‘ units of work. Therefore, total work = ( 36 * 12) * w units Work done by a woman in one day = (36 * 12 * w)/(48 * 18) = w/2 units Amount of work done in 10 days = 10 * ( 16w + 16w/2) = 240w units Let ‗n‘ additional men are required So, according to question -: 3 * (24w + nw) = 192w or n =40 men 43 c) 1/R1 = 1/10 : 1/R2 + 1/R3 = ¼ : 1/R1 + 1/R2 + 1/R3 = ¼ + 1/10 = 7/20 So IN 20 hrs working together the three robotic arms will complete 7 products and in 40 hrs, they will complete (7 * 2) = 14 products. 44 b) Let in ‗t‘ hours the tank is filled by P1 & P2 t/6 +t/9 = 1 or t = 3.6 hours therefore, timer is to start after 0.8 hrs or 48 mins. (Since, 22.22% is equal to 2/9) When P3 was opened, let the tank get filled in ‗l‘ hours So, l/6 + l/9 – l/12 = 7/9 or l = 4 hrs Therefore, the caretaker was supposed to come back after 4.8 hrs. Required time = 1.2 hrs or 1 hour 12 minutes. 45 c) Let the defect be fixed in‗d‘ days .Then d/m + (d – 1)/2m + (d – 2)/3m = 1 ; 6d + 3d – 3 + 2d – 4 = 6m; 11d = 6m +7. Hence, m= 11k + 8, where k is a non negative integer. So Sahil alone can complete the defect in 2m = 22k +16 days. 46 b) let ‗x‘ minutes be the time taken to completely fill the bucket. It will take x+2 minutes to fill the bucket when it has a hole in it. While the hole takes 4 minutes to empty the bucket So, 1/x – ¼ = 1/(x+2) which gives x = 2 mins. 47 b)Let the initial number of workers be ‗n‘ and each worker completes ‗w‘ units of work in a day. According to question. n/w + (n – 1)/w + ……1/w = n * n/w * 2/3 n(n+1)/2w = 2(n^2)/3w or n =3 48 d) Let work(in units) done by A in one day be 4w. Work (in units) done by A‘s assistants in one day will be 3w. Total work (in units) done by all three of them in one day = 4w + 3w + 3w = 10w Let the total work( in units) be 20 w. then req fraction will be 2/5. 49) b) let the work be 360 units. www.ibpsguide.com | www.ibpsguide.in|mock.ibpsguide.in| www.sscexamguide.com Copyright© 2016 IBPS Guide | For Queries contact – admin@ibpsguide.com Page-213

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So P, Q & R does 4 units, 9 units & 30 units per day respectively. Since they work each alternate days, for 24 days they together work like that and did 344 units of work. Then P & Q working on each alternate day does 13 units more and the then R does remaining 3 units in 1/10th of a day. So from here we get that P & Q worked for 9 days so they did 36 units & 81 units respectively, while R did the remaining 243 units. Since their wages are divided in a direct relation to that of amount of work so 360 Rs will be divided for each of them as 36, 81 & 243 Rs each. 50) c) Take one extreme case where Rajesh takes 15 days and Rakesh takes 20 days to complete the assignment. Let us assume there are 60 units of work to be done. So Rajesh does 4 units/day and Rakesh does 3 units/day. Since they are working on alternate days, they will finish 7 units in 2 days. Both of them are not working on 3rd day. So, after 3 days only 7 units will be finished. So in 24 days 56 units will be completed. Now, if Rajesh starts assignment, he will work on 25th day and he will complete the remaining 4 units. So in this case exactly 25 days will be required. Otherwise, if Rakesh starts, it will take more than 25 days. So option a) & d) are ruled out. In another extreme case, if we assume that Rajesh takes 10 days and Rakesh takes 15 days to complete the assignment , by approaching similarly, we get that it will take 17 days to complete the assignment. So correct anwer choice should be c).

PROBLEMS ON TRAINS ( 1 – 5) A train enters into a tunnel PQ at P and exits at Q. A tiger is sitting at O in another by passing tunnel POQ, which is connected to PQ at P & Q, where OP is perpendicular to OQ. A cat is sitting at J inside the tunnel PQ making the shortest possible distance between O & J, such that PO: JQ = 30:32. When a train before entering into the tunnel PQ makes a whistle( or siren) somewhere before P, The tiger and cat run towards P, they meet with accident(with the train) at the entrance P. Further if the cat moves Q instead of P it again meets with accident at the exit of the tunnel by the same bike coming from the same direction. 1). What is the ratio of speeds of tiger and cat? a) 4:3 b) 5:3 c) 1:1 d) Can‘t be determined 2). The ratio of speeds of tiger is to trainis : a) 5:1 b) 3:5 c) 1:5 d) Can‘t be determined 3). If tiger moves towards OJP, it wil meet with bike at K then PK is: a) 20 km b) 16 km c) 10 km d) Can‘t be determined 4). If tiger moves towards OJQ and cat moves towards JOP who will not meet with accident with the train? a) Tiger b) Cat c) Both a & b d) Can‘t be determined 5). The ratio of time taken by cat and tiger in moving OPJO and JQOJ respectively given that they do not meet with accident: a) 1:1 b) 3:4 c) 5:4 d) Can‘t be determined www.ibpsguide.com | www.ibpsguide.in|mock.ibpsguide.in| www.sscexamguide.com Copyright© 2016 IBPS Guide | For Queries contact – admin@ibpsguide.com Page-214

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(6 – 7) Train A and Train B start simultaneously from Allahabad to Delhi towards each other and continuously shuttle between these two places. Every time these trains meet each other, they turn back after exchanging their respective speeds, the initial ratio of their speeds is 2:1. 6). What is the number of distinct places at which they will meet? a) 1 b) 2 c) 5 d) None of these 7). Let these two trains first meet at Kanpur, then what is the ratio of distances covered by train A and train B till they meet for the third time at the same place Kanpur: a) 1:1 b) 14:13 c) 10:11 d) None of these 8). A train met with an accident 60 km away from Patna station. It completed the remaining journey at 5/6th of the previous speed and reached the Anandpuri station 1 hour 12 min late. Had the accident taken place 60 km further, it would have been only 1 hour late.What is the normal speed of the train? a) 50 kmph b) 40 kmph c) 60 kmph d) None of these 9). A train approaches a tunnel distance PQ. Inside the tunnel a tiger located at a point i.e. 5/12th of the distance PQ measured from the entrance P. When the train whistles, the tiger runs. If the tiger moves to the entrance of the tunnel P, the train catches the tiger exactly at the entrance. If the tiger moves to the exit Q, the train catches the tiger at exactly the exit. The speed of the train is greater than the speed pf the tiger by what order? a) Speed of the train = 4 * speed of the tiger b) Speed of the train = 5 * speed of the tiger c) Speed of the train = 6 * speed of the tiger d) None of these (10 – 11) Two trains leave Delhi at the difference of 4 hours. The first train leaves at 8 am at 40 kmph and the faster train leaves later at 60 kmph in the same direction. 10) When the faster train will overtake the slower train? a) 4 pm b) 2 pm c) 8 pm d) 6:30 pm 11). What is the distance from Delhi, where one train overtakes another train? a) 480 km b) 420 km c) 360 km d) 250 km 12). A train covers a certain distance moving at a speed of 60 kmph. However if it were to halt for a fixed time every hour, its average speed comes out to be 50 kmph. For how much time does the train halt every hour? a) 6 min b) 10 min c) 12 min d) None of these 13). Two trains are travelling in the same direction at 22.5 kmph and 7.5 kmph respectively. The faster train crosses a man in the slower train in 18 seconds. What is length of the faster train? a) 87.5 m b) 75 m c) 122.5 m d) None of these

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14). Two trains start simultaneously from Mumbai and Chennai, respectively towards each other on the same track. The distance between the two stations is 560 km and speed of the trains are 30 kmph& 40 kmph. Simultaneously with the trains, a sparrow sitting on the top of one of the train starts towards the other and reverses its direction on reaching the other train and so on. If the speed of the sparrow is 80 kmph then the distance that the sparrow flies before being crushed between the train is: a) 70 km b) 560 km c) 640 km d) 650 km 15). A train with 120 wagons crosses Raju who is going in the same direction, in 36 seconds. If travels for half an hour from the time it starts overtaking the Raju( he is riding on his horse) before it starts overtaking Laxman( who is also riding on his horse) coming from the opposite direction in 24 seconds. In how much time(in seconds) after the train has crossed the Laxman do the Raju meets Laxman? a) 3560 sec b) 3600 sec c) 3576 sec d) Can‘t be determined 16). Due to technical snag in the signal system two trains start approaching each other on the same rail track from two different stations, 240 km away from each other. When the train starts a bird also starts moving to and fro between the two trains at 60 kmph touching each time each train. The bird is initially sitting on the top of the engine of one of the trains and it moves so till these trains collide. If these trains collide one and a half hour after the start, then how many kilometres bird travels till the time of collision of trains? a) 90 km b) 130 km c) 120 km d) None of these 17). The distance between Meerut and Allahabad is 700 km. Sangamnagri express starts from Allahabad for the Meerut at 60 kmph. 50 minutes later Ganga express leaves Meerut for Allahabad on the parallel tracks at 70 kmph. How far from Meerut will they cross each other? a) 250 km b) 360 km c) 350 km d) 475 km 18). Two trains R & S start simultaneously in the opposite direction from two points L & M and arrive at their destinations 16 & 9 hours respectively after their meeting each other. At what speed does the second train S travel if the first train travels at 120 kmph a) 90 kmph b) 160 kmph c) 67.5 kmph d) None of these 19). Train Z start from point L for point M at the same time that train K starts from point M to L. Point L and M are 300 km apart. The trains are moving at a constant speed atleast at 25 kmph. The trains met each other 3 hours after they start. If the faster train takes atleast 2 more hours to reach the destination. By which time will the slower train have definitely reached its destination? ( Ignoring the lengths of trains in crossing) a) 4 hours after the start b) 7.5 hours after the start c) 6 hours after the start d) None of the above 20). A train leaves Rampur at 2:15 pm and travels at the rate of 50 kmph. Another train leaves Rajrupur for Rampur at 1:35 pm and travels at the rate of 60 kmph. If the distance between Rajrupur and Rampur is 590 km at what distance from Rampur will the two trains meet? a) 200 km b) 300 km c) 250 km d) 225 km

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(21 – 22) The Kamayani express started from Varanasi to Bhopal at 7 p.m. at a speed of 60 kmph. Another train Godan Express started from Bhopal to Varanasi at 4 a.m. next morning at a speed of 90 kmph. The distance between Varanasi to Bhopal is 800 km. 21). How far from Bhopal will the two trains meet? a) 164 km b) 156 km c) 132 km d) 128 km 22). At what time will the two trains meet? a) 5:32 a.m. b) 5:28 a.m. c) 5:36 a.m. d) 5:44 a.m. 23). The Brahmaputra Express left Delhi for Kanpur. Having travelled 300 km, which constitutes 66.666 percent of the distance between Delhi & Kanpur, the train was stopped by a red signal. Half an hour later, the track was cleared and the engine – driver, having increased the speed by 15 kmph, arrived at Kanpur on time. Find the initial speed of the Brahmaputra express. a) 50 kmph b) 60 kmph c) 75 kmph d) 40 kmph 24). The Ravi express from Lucknow to Gwalior was delayed due to rail construction on its way for 16 minutes and made up for the delay on a section of 80 km travelling with a speed 10 kmph higher than its normal speed. Find the original speed of the Ravi express( according to the schedule) a) 60 kmph b) 66.66 kmph c) 50 kmph d) 40 kmph 25). The length of Mumbai mail is 120 m and that of Punjab mail is 80 m. These two trains are running in the same direction with velocities of 40 kmph and 50 kmph respectively. The time taken by them to cross each other is: a) 8 s b) 72 s c) 11.5 s d) 12.5 s 26). Two stations P & Q are 110 km apart on a straight line. One train starts from P at 8 a.m. and travels towards Q at 40 kmph. Another train starts from Q at 10 a.m. and travels towards P at 50 kmph. At what time will they meet? a) 8.30 a.m. b) 8.30 p.m. c) 10.20 a.m. d) 10.20 p.m. 27). A train covers a distance between stations R & S in 45 minutes. If the speed is reduced by 5 kmph. It will cover the same distance in 48 minutes. What is the distance between two stations R &S(in km)? Also find the speed of the train. a) 60 km, 80 kmph b) 65 km, 70 kmph c) 60 km, 70 kmph d) None of these 28). Two places A & B are 162 km apart. A train leaves A for B and at the same time another train leaves B for A. Both the trains meet 6 hrs after they start moving. If the train travelling from A to B travels 8 kmph faster than the other train. Find the speed of the two trains. a) 17.5 kmph, 9.5 kmph b) 19.5 kmph, 11.5 kmph c) 21.5 kmph, 13.5 kmph d) None of these

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29). The speed of the two trains are in the ratio 3:4. They are going in opposite directions along parallel tracks. If each takes 3 seconds to cross a telegraph post, find the time taken by the trains to cross each other completely? a) 1 seconds b) 3 seconds c) 5 seconds d) 7 seconds 30). Train L and Train M are running on parallel tracks in the same direction. The driver of Train L observes that the Train M coming from behind overtakes and crossed his train completely in 60 seconds. Whereas a man on Train M marks that he crossed the Train L in 40 seconds. If the speed of the Trains be in the ratio 1:2, find the ration of their lengths. a) 1:2 b) 2:1 c) 3:2 d) 2:3 31). The speed of two trains are in the ratio x:y. They are moving in the opposite directions on parallel tracks. The first train crossed a telegraph pole in ‗k‘ seconds where as the second train crossed the same telegraph pole in ‗p‘ second. Find the time taken by the trains to cross each other completely. a) 1.5 seconds b) 2 seconds c) (xa + yb)/(x+ y) d) None of these 32). A train travels at the speed of 65 kmph and halts at 8 junctions for a certain time. It covers a distance of 1300 km in 1 day(24 hours). How long does the train stop at each junction, if it hats for the same period time at all the junction? a) 30 minutes b) 20 minutes c) 60 minutes d) 40 minutes 33). A train overtakes two persons who are walking in the same directions in which the train is going, at the rate of 2kmph and 4 kmph respectively and passed them completely in 9 and 10 seconds respectively. The length of the train is a) 50 m b) 60 m c) 65 m d) 70 m 34). How many seconds will a train 60 m in length, travelling at the rate of 42 kmph, take to pass another train 84 m long, proceeding in the same direction at the rate of 30 kmph? a) 41.2 seconds b) 43.2 seconds c) 42.3 seconds d) 42.5 seconds 35). The distance two stations, Kanpur & Delhi, is 450 km. A train starts 4p.m. from Kanpur and moves toward Delhi at an average speed of 60 kmph. Another train starts from Delhi at 3.20 p.m. and moves towards Kanpur at an average of 80 kmph. At what time will the both trains meet? a) 5.30 p.m. b) 5.50 a.m. c) 6.50 p.m. d) 6.30 a.m. 36). Two trains start at the same time fromstation C & station D and proceed toward each other at the rate of 80 kmph and 95 kmph respectively. When they meet, it is found that one train has travelled 180 km more than the other. Find the distance between station C & station D. a) 1800 km b) 2000 km c) 2100 km d) 2300 km 37). Train H crosses a stationary train J in 30 seconds. The length of train J is 140% of the length of train H. The speed of train H is 72 kmph. What is the difference between the lengths of the two trains? a) 140 m b) 80 m c) 70 m d) 100 m www.ibpsguide.com | www.ibpsguide.in|mock.ibpsguide.in| www.sscexamguide.com Copyright© 2016 IBPS Guide | For Queries contact – admin@ibpsguide.com Page-218

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38). A train was late by 6 minutes. The driver increased its speed by 4 kmph. At the next station, 36 km away, the train reached on time. Find the original speed of the train. a) 32 kmph b) 33 kmph c) 34 kmph d) 36 kmph 39). A carriage driving in a fog passed a man who was walking at the rate of 3 kmph in the same direction. He could see the carriage for 4 minutes and it was visible to him upto a distance of 100m. what was the speed of the carriage? a) 4(1/2) kmph b) 6(1/2) kmph c) 4(2/3) kmph d) 6(2/3) kmph 40). A train normally covers a certain distance at a speed of 60 kmph. However, if it were to halt for a fixed time interval in each hour its average speed reduced to 50 kmph. What is the time interval for which the train halt in each hour? a) 10 minutes b) 20 minutes c) 6 minutes d) 12 minutes 41). A train without stopping travels at an average speed of 60 kmph and with stoppages at an average speed of 40 kmph. What is the total time taken by the taken by the train for stoppages on a route of length 300 km? a) 10 hrs b) 20 hrs c) 5 hrs d) 2.5 hrs 42). A train is travelling at a speed of 72 kmph. It takes 3 seconds to enter a tunnel and 30 seconds more to pass through it completely. What is the length of the tunnel( in meters)? a) 480 b) 540 c) 600 d) 660 43) A train of length 100m takes 1/6 minute to pass over another train 150 m long coming from the opposite direction. If the speed of first train is 60 kmph, the speed of the second train is : a) 45 kmph b) 28 kmph c) 30 kmph d) None of these 44) The RjbRajdhaani – R007, which is scheduled to travel on Delhi – Ranchi – Patna route and RjbRajdhani – R096, which is scheduled to travel on Patna – Ranchi – Delhi route, start at the same time from Delhi and Patna stations and proceed towards each other at speeds 15 m/s and 25 m/s respectively. When the two trains meet, it is found that one train has traveled 72 km more than the other. What is the distance between two Delhi and Patna stations? a) 144 km b) 192 km c) 256 km d) None of these 45) A train leaves K at 40 kmph. At the same time, another train departs from L at a speed of 60 kmph. They reach the respective destinations and turn back immediately towards the starting points. Now if they meet at a distance of 200 km from K, what is the distance between K & L? a) 260 km b) 255 km c) 250 km d) None of these 46) Trains are moving from P to Z and Z to P at a regular interval of 1 hr. They complete their journey in 5 hr. How many trains coming from station Z will cross the train coming from station P that started at 10 a.m.? Assume the trains start from both the stations at the same time. a) 12 b) 14 c) 11 d) Cannot be determined www.ibpsguide.com | www.ibpsguide.in|mock.ibpsguide.in| www.sscexamguide.com Copyright© 2016 IBPS Guide | For Queries contact – admin@ibpsguide.com Page-219

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(47 – 50) Two trains started simultaneouslyat 9 a.m. from P and Q towards Q & P. Both of them take 12 hr to reach their respective destinations. 47). At what time will the two trains meet? a) 3 p.m. b) 3.45 p.m. c) 4.20 p.m.

d) 6 p.m.

48). If the first train met with an accident at 1 p.m. and thereafter travels at half of its original speed, when will the two trains meet? a) 2.40 p.m. b) 3.40 p.m. c) 3.20 p.m. d) 4.20 p.m. 49). The first train met with an accident and travelled at half of its original speed thereafter. It reached the destination 10 hr late. Find the time when the trains would meet? a) 3 p.m. b) 2 p.m. c) 4.20 p.m. d) 4.33 p.m. 50). The first train met with an accident and travelled at half of its speed thereafter and the two trains met at 4 p.m. Find the time when the accident occurred. a) 3.15 p.m. b) 11.00 a.m. c) 9.30 a.m. d) 12 noon

SOLUTION AND EXPLANATION OF PROBLEMS ON TRAINS

1). b) Since it is clear from the statement that the triangle POQ is a right angle triangle and further OJ must be perpendicular to PQ then we can find that PO = 30 km and QO = 40 km by using Pythogorous theorem and its corollaries.

OJ² = OP² - PJ² OJ² = 900 - x² And OQ² = OJ² + QJ² OQ² = 900 - x² + 1024 (x + 32) = 900 + 900 - x² + 1024 x = 18 km Hence, PJ = 18, OP = 30 and OQ = 40 and OJ = 24 km www.ibpsguide.com | www.ibpsguide.in|mock.ibpsguide.in| www.sscexamguide.com Copyright© 2016 IBPS Guide | For Queries contact – admin@ibpsguide.com Page-220

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Now, since Tiger and Cat reaches P at the same time, so the ratio of speeds = ratio of distances covered by them. (Speed of Jackal)/(Speed of cat) = 30/18 = 5/3 2). c) Again, since Tiger and train both arrive at P at the same time and let the train was x km away from P, before entering into the tunnels. i.e. when it makes a whistle then the ratio of distances covered by train & tiger. = x/30 = (x + 500)/40 x = 150 km Thus, the ratio of speeds of Tiger is to train is 1 : 5 3). c) Since, when the train arrive at P, the Tiger can move 30 km. So, at the time when train is at P the tiger will cover 6 km from J on JP in addition to 24 km at OJ. Now, the rest distance at PJ is 12 km this remaining distance will be covered by train and Tiger according to their respective speeds. So, distance covered by train = 12 * (5/6) = 10 km And distance covered by Tiger = 12 * (1/6) = 2 km Hence, Tiger will meet with train at K which I 10 km away from P(inside PQ). 4). b) It is obvious from the path of cat that if cat moves in the JOP direction it will never meet with accident and now Tiger follows the path OJQ. Again when the train is at P then Tiger will cover 30 km(i.e.24(OJ) + 6km on JQ). So, the ratio of distances covered by tiger is to train = ratio of their respective speeds. Now let the tiger and train meet each other at PQ, ( 6 + x) km away from J towards Q, then x/(x + 24) = 1/5 we get x= 6 Hence train meets with the tiger at (18 + 6 + 6) = 30 km away from P. 5). c) The ratio of time taken by cat and tiger = (72/3)/(96/5) = 5/4

These two trains meet only at P and L i.e. there are only two points. 7). c) For the first meeting they have to cover only 2x + x = 3x distance and for the further meeting for each next meeting they have to cover 6x distance together. Distance covered by A Distance covered by B Point of meeting Total distance travelled

2x x P 3x

2x 4x L 6x

4x 2x P 6x

2x 4x P 6x

When A & B meet at P for the third time A goes 10x and B goes 11x. Thus, the required ratio = 10 : 11 www.ibpsguide.com | www.ibpsguide.in|mock.ibpsguide.in| www.sscexamguide.com CopyrightŠ 2016 IBPS Guide | For Queries contact – admin@ibpsguide.com Page-221

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8). c) Case 1 –: Since the speed is decreased by 1/6. So, the time will be increased by 1/5, which is equal to 1 hour 12 minutes. It means the normal time required for this remaining part(x) of the journey is 5 * 72 min = 360 min = 6 h. ( 1h 12 min = 72 min)

Since, the speed is decreased by 1/6, hence the time will be increased by 1/5, which is equal to 1 hour, hence the normal time required for this remaining part ( x – 60) of journey = 5 * 1 = 5 hours. Thus, it is clear that when the train runs 60 km of its normal speed it takes 1 hour less, which implies that in 1 hour the train can run 60 km with its normal speed. Thus the normal speed of the train is 60 kmph.

Let the speed of train be u and the speed of tiger be v and train whistles at a point T, x km away from P, then u/v = x/5k = (x+12k)/7k 7x = 5(x +12k) x/k = 30/1 ; u/v = 30/(5*1) = 6/1 .So we get u = 6v i.e option c) is the answer 10). c) Required time = (distance travelled)/(relative speed) = (4 * 40)/20 = 8 h Thus, the faster train will overtake at 8 pm. 11). a) Required distance = Time taken in overtaking * Faster‘s speed = 8 * 60 = 480 km from Delhi 12). b) Suppose the total distance be 300 km ( LCM of 50 & 60) then in the first case it takes only 5 hours and in the second case it takes 6 hours. Thus , in 6 hours trains halts for 1/6 hour = 10 m 13). b) Time taken to cross the man = ( length of the faster train)/relative speed 18 x/( 15 * 5/18) we get x = 75 m 14). c) Time taken by trains to collide = 560/70 = 8 h In 8 h sparrow will cover 8 * 80 = 640 km 15). c) Let the length of the train be L metres and speeds of the train Raju and Laxman be R, A & K respectively, then L/(R – A) = 36 ----------1) and L/(R + K ) = 24 ---------2) From eq 1) & eq 2) 3(R – A) = 2(R + K) www.ibpsguide.com | www.ibpsguide.in|mock.ibpsguide.in| www.sscexamguide.com Copyright© 2016 IBPS Guide | For Queries contact – admin@ibpsguide.com Page-222

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R = 3A + 2K In 30 minutes (i.e. 1800 seconds), the train covers 1800 R (distance) but the Raju also covers 1800 A( distance) in the same time. Therefore distance between Raju & Laxman, when the train has just crossed Laxman = 1800 ( R – A) – 24(A + K) Time required = [ 1800 ( R – A) – 24(A + K)]/(A + K) = 3600 – 24 = 3576s 16). a) Time taken to collide the two trains = 3/2 h So, in 3/2 h bird travels (3/2) * 60 = 90 km 17). c) In 50 minute Sangam nagri can cover 50 km. So, the rest distance = 650 km, which will be jointly covered by both trains. Time taken = 650/(60 + 70) = 5 h distance from Meerut = 5 * 70 = 350 km 18). b) S1/S2 = √T2/√T1 120/S2 = √9/√16 = ¾ S2 = 160 kmph 19). b) Let the speed of trains Z & K be z kmph and k kmph respectively. Since they meet after 3 hours, so z + k = 100. Since the faster train takes atleast 3 + 2 = 5 hours to complete the 300 km journey. Hence, minimum possible speed for the slower train = 40 kmph at which speed it will take 7.5 h to complete the journey. 20). c) a train that leaves Rajrupur travels at the speed at the speed of 60 kmph, at 2.15 pm it will be at 550 km way from the given train at Rampur. So the two trains meet each other in 5 hours(550/110 = 5 hrs) and from Rampur trains will met at a distance of 50 * 5 = 250 km. 21- 22) in 9 hours ( 7pm to 4 am) The Kamayani exp would cover 540 km. Remaining distance = 260 km Relative speed = 150 kmph Time required = 260/150 = 1.733 hours = 104 minutes. So 21). b) 22). d) 23). b) When the signal happened distance left was 150 km. 150/(s) – 150/(s + 15) = ½ hours so s = 60 kmph 24). c) The train saves 16 minutess by travelling faster over a section of 80 km. Thus, 80/S – 80/(S + 10) = 16/60 = 0.2666. checking the options we get S = 60 kmph 25). b) Relative speed = 50 – 40 = 10 kmph = 50 18 m/s time taken = Sum of length of the trains/Relative speed = (200 *18)/50 = 72 s 26). c) at 10 am when train from P will be 30 km away from train from Q. so for 30 km the two trains will take 30/90 = 1/3 hr = 20 minutes to meet each other i.e. at 10.20 am 27). a) when distance is kept constant then speed and time are in inverse relations. So if speed is S then s/(s – 5) = 16/15 so we get s = 80 kmph and distance = 60 km 28). d) given distance between two trains = 162 km and time taken to meet = 6 hrs. so if second train from B to A is ‗s‘ then from A to B is s + 8. So 162/6 = 2s + 8 which s = 9.5 kmph so none of the options matches www.ibpsguide.com | www.ibpsguide.in|mock.ibpsguide.in| www.sscexamguide.com Copyright© 2016 IBPS Guide | For Queries contact – admin@ibpsguide.com Page-223

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29). a) given their speeds are in ratio 3 : 1 while each train takes equal 3 secs to cross a pole. So their lengths will also be in the ratio 3:1. Hence it will take 4/4 = 1 sec to cross each other. 30). c) let the speeds of two trains be x & y respectively then their relative speed becomes x – y = D/60 x – y = d/40 So, D/60 = d/40 which gives D/3 = d/2 ratio of their length = 3 : 2 31). c) Length of 1st train = xk Length of 2nd train = yp Time = Total dist/[sum of time(as direction)] = (xk + yp)/(x + y) 32). a) speed = 65 kmph distance = 1300 km time taken = 1300/65 = 20 hours clearly, 4 hours are spent at 8 junctions in stoppages as one full day was taken for the journey to be completed . required time = 4 * 60 = 240 min and at each junction the halt is of = 240/8 = 30 min 33). a) let the speed and length of train be ‗s‘ and ‗l‘ respectively. So the equation as per the question becomes ( s – 5/9) = l/9 --------1) ( s – 10/9) = l/10 ------2) 1)– 2) we get l = 50 m 34) b) relative speed = 42 – 30 = 12 kmph = 12 * 5/18 = 10/3 m/s Time = Total length of both the train/relative speed = (84 + 60)/(10/3) = 43.2 s 35). c) let the first train also starts at 3.20 pm and add 40 km, to the total distance Total distance = 490 km Total speed = 140 kmph Total time = D/S = 490/140 = 3.5 hr They will meet at 3.20 p.m. + 3.5 hr = 6.50 pm 36) c) Faster train moves 95 – 80 = 15 km more in 1 hr Faster train moves 180 km more in = (1/15) * 180 = 12 hrs Since, they are moving in opposite directions, they cover a distance of 80 + 95 = 175kms, in 1 hr. In 12 hrs they cover a distance = 175 * 12 = 2100 km 37) d) Supose the length of train H = x m Therefore, the length of train J = 140 * x/100 = 1.4x m Total length of two trains = x + 1.4x = 2.4x m Speed off train H in metre per sec = 72 kmph = 20 m/s According to the question D = S * T 2.4x = 20 * 30 so we get x = 250 m Lebgth of train J= 250 * 1.4 = 350 m Difference between the lengths of two trains is = 350 – 250 = 100 m 38) d) Pick up the option.Distance given = 36 km If speed = 36 kmph, time = 1 hr . if speed is increased by 4kmph then speed = 40 kmph Time = D/S = 36 * 60/40 = 54 min; time saved = 6 min 39) a) 100m = 4 min Speed = (100/1000)/(4/60) kmph = 1.5 kmph. www.ibpsguide.com | www.ibpsguide.in|mock.ibpsguide.in| www.sscexamguide.com Copyright© 2016 IBPS Guide | For Queries contact – admin@ibpsguide.com Page-224

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So speed of carriage = 1.5 kmph + speed of man = 4.5 kmph 40) a) For this type of questions take the LCM of speeds and assume the LCM as the distance Then the time taken @ speed of 60 kmph = 300/60 = 5 hr Again the time taken @ speed of 50 kmph = 300/50 = 6 hrs Thus we see that in place of 5 hrs train takes 6 hrs. it means the train takes 1 hour extra and this one hour is stopping period in the total time of 6 hours. Thus in 6 hour train halts for 1 hour. So in 1 hour train will stop for 1.6 hours or 10 mins 41) d) Let r = running time of the train s = stoppage time of the train D = total distance travelled by train We have: D/r = 60 & D/(r + s) = 40 (r + s)/r = 3/2 so s/r =1/2 As D= 300 kms 300/r = 60 r = 5hr So s =5/2 = 2.5 hr 42) b) Let the length of train be ‗t‘ So time taken to enter the tunnel is 3 secs while its speed is 72 kmph = 20 m/s So length ‗t‘ of a train becomes = 20 * 3 = 60 m Let the length of tunnel be ‗l‘ So (60 + l)/20 = 30 we get l = 540 m 43) c) Relative speed = sum of speeds of two trains = ( 60 + x) Time = ( sum of length of two trains)/ (relative speed) 10 = [250/{(60 + x) *5}] * 18 we get 60 + x = 90 from here we have x = 30 kmph 44) d) Let the two trains meet after ‗t‘ hours. According to question, (25 – 15) *(18/5) * t = 72 or t = 2 Required distance = (25 + 15)*(18/5) * 2 = 288 km 45) c) ‗x‘ be the distance between K & L. The Train which leaves K travels a distance of x + ( x – 200) = 2x – 200 The train which leaves L travels a total distance of x + 200 The ratio of distances travelled by the trains = ratio of the speeds Therefore , (2x – 200) : (x + 200) proportional to 40 : 60 or we get x = 250 km 46) c) At 10 am a train from station Z is just coming to station P. That train must have started at 5 am from station Z. The train that starts at 10 am will reach at 3 pm at station Z. So from 5 am to 3 pm every train started from station Z will cross the train. So total number of train = 11 47 – 50 ) 47) a) Since the two trains have the same speed, they would take same time to cover the same distance ( between P & Q). Hence, they would meet exactly 6 hr after they start i.e. at 3 pm 48) b) If the distance between P & Q is assumed to be 12 km, then speed of both the trains = 1 kmph. Therefore, by 1 pm they would have both covered 4 km each. Distance left between them = 4 km Speed of the first train = 0.5 kmph ; speed of the second train = 1 kmph ( relative speed = 1 + 0.5 = 0.5 kmph) www.ibpsguide.com | www.ibpsguide.in|mock.ibpsguide.in| www.sscexamguide.com Copyright© 2016 IBPS Guide | For Queries contact – admin@ibpsguide.com Page-225

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Hence, time taken to meet, after the accident = 4/1.5 = 2(2/3) hr = 2 hr 40 min So they meet at 3.40 pm 49) c) The train is late by 10 hr due to reduction in speed after the accident as the same is half. So time taken now will be twice that of the original. Hence, the accident must have occurred 10 hr before actual arrival time at the destination i.e. at 11 o‘ clock. Now till 11 o‘ clock, if we assume the speed of each train to be 1 kmph and total distance = 12 km, in 2 hr they together will cover 4 km. the remaining distance of 8 km will be covered with relative speed of 1kmph and ½ kmph. Time = 8/(3/2) = 16/3 hrs. The two trains would meet after = ( 16/3 + 11) hr or at 4.20 pm 50) d) assume that the total distance d = 12 km Speed of the train from P to Q and back from Q to P is 1 kmph. P Q d Now if the accident occurred after ‗t‘ hours from start, the distance covered by the first train in t hours = t km And distance covered in (7 – t) hr = [(7 – t)]/2 (because after the accident the speed is half) ( 9 to 4 ------ 7 hr) Distance covered by the second train in 7 hr = 7 km To meet at 4am, the total distance = 12 km Therefore 7 + t + (7 – t) * ½ = 12 t = 3 hr after start i.e. at 12 o‘ clock DATA INTERPRETATION (MISSING DATA TYPE) Directions (Q. 1-5): Study the table carefully to answer the following questions. The percentage profit is given on total cost price. Cost price = cost of production + transportation cost + packaging cost Name of the goods Salt Wheat Barley Mustard Soya bean

Cost of production per kg ` 80 ` 40 ` 45 ` 20 ` 70

Cost of Cost of transportation packaging

Selling Profit / price per kg Loss

`8 `0

` 120

`3 ` 10

`0 `5 `1

1. What is the cost of packaging of Soya bean? a) `22.5 b) `20.04 c) `19.91

Percentage of Profit / Loss

5% Profit ` 50 ` 90

d) `18.71

6% Loss

e) `15.74

2. If the percentage of profit on sold Salt is 10%, then what is its cost of packaging? a) ` 25.57 b) ` 18.41 c) ` 30.27 d) ` 21.09 e) ` 19.18

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3. What is the difference between the selling price of Barley and that of Wheat, if the cost of transportation is zero for both? a) `56 b) `52 c) `48 d) `36 e) `72 4. What is the percentage profit of Mustard if its selling price is 80% of the cost price of Wheat? a) 28% b) 30% c) 32% d) 34% e) 38% 5. 4 kg Salt, 3 kg Wheat and 5 kg Mustard are sold. What is profit or loss percentage? (The packing cost is zero for all goods) and selling price of Mustard is `32 per kg? a) 36% b) 32% c) 30.49% d) 34.2% e) 31.5% Directions (Q.6-10): Study the table carefully to answer the following questions. Field name

Shape

Side (in metres)

R T S Q P

Square 15 Circle Parallelogram Rectangle 10 × 20 Triangle

Base (in metres)

Height (in Radius metres) (in metres)

10 20

12

16

12

Cost of flooring (in rupees per square metre) 40 45 60 30 50

Cost of fencing (in rupees per metre)

18 22 25 15 20

6. What is the ratio of the cost of flooring to that of fencing of field S? a) 4 : 1 b) 6 : 1 c) 8 : 1 d) 9 : 1 e) 5 : 1 7. The cost of fencing of field T is approximately what percent of the cost of flooring of field R? a) 10.5% b) 19.46% c) 18.71% d) 15.36% e) 13.82% 8. What is the difference between the cost of fencing of R and that of Q? a) Rs.180 b) Rs.120 c) Rs.240 d) Rs.360

e) Rs.480

9. The cost of fencing of field R is what percent of the cost of fencing of field S? a) 87.54% b) 67.5% c) 72.13% d) 54.36% e) 46.5% 10. What is the cost of flooring of P? a) Rs.4000 b) Rs.4600

c) Rs.4800

d) Rs.5000

e) Rs.4400

Direction (Q. 11-15): Study the following table carefully and answer the given questions. Name Type of Principal Amount Year Rate % interest Anil Compound 12000 6 Kamal Simple 35360 4 Sunil Compound 25000 3 5 Jalal Simple 5 Bilal Compound 6 4 www.ibpsguide.com | www.ibpsguide.in|mock.ibpsguide.in| www.sscexamguide.com Copyright© 2016 IBPS Guide | For Queries contact – admin@ibpsguide.com Page-227

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11. What is the principal of Kamal if the ratio of the rate of interest Anil to that of Kamal is 2 : 3? a) 24500 b) 25500 c) 26000 d) 27500 e) 25600 12. What is the amount of Sunil, if the interest is compounded yearly for 3 years? a) 24385.625 b) 26900.615 c) 27500.565 d) 28490.625 e) 25148.169 13. At what Rate of Interest does the amount of Kamal become 5 times his principal? a) 95% b) 102% c) 98% d) 100% e) 97% 14. What will be the amount of Bilal in two years when his principal is 30% more than Anil‘s? a) 18738.18 b) 16872.96 c) 19638.1 d) 19548.18 e) 19799.18 15. If the ratio of principal of Sunil to that of Jalal is 5 : 6 and the rate of interest of Jalal is 20% more than that of Sunil, then what is the interest of Jalal? a) 9000 b) 8000 c) 9400 d) 7500 e) 8800 Directions (16-20): Read the following table is pie chart carefully and answer the questions given below it. Distribution of employees of a company in different department:

Administrator

Production 20%

R&D 10%

Accounts

Purchase 30%

Table shows the portion of female employees and portion of employees whose age is under 25 years Employees Production R&D Purchase Accounts Administrator Total

Female 0.60 0.40 0.10 0.50 0.40

Under 25 0.50 0.10 0.25 0.30

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16. If in Purchase department, 25% of males are under 25 age then what is the ratio of number of males who are above 25 to the number of females who are under 25 age? a) 3 : 2 b) 2 : 3 c) 1 : 3 d) 1 : 2 e) None of these 17. The number of males in Accounts department is 180, then find the number of employees whose age is under 25 in same department? a) 100 b) 50 c) 75 d) 25 e) 125 18. What percent of employees in Production team are male? a) 10 % b) 20 % c) 25 %

d) 40 %

e) 15 %

19. If in Administrator department, there are no employee under 25, then by what percent number of employee under 25 in Purchase are more than number of employee under 25 in Accounts? a) 100% b) 96% c) 104% d) 124% e) None of these 20. What is the Ratio of number of male employees from Purchase department to number of employees under 25 age from Production team? a) 5 : 9 b) 7 : 8 c) 2 : 9 d) 9 : 5 e) Data insufficient Directions (Q. 21-25): Study the table carefully to answer the following questions. Stations

Speed (m/min)

Tambaram to Broadway Broadway to Anna Nagar Anna Nagar to Avadi Avadito T Nagar T Nagar to Central

1100

Distance between two stations (km) 2.75

Time taken (min)

4.5

3

1500

1200 1000

2.25

21. By what percent time taken from station Anna Nagar to Avadi is more/less than the time taken from Avadi to T Nagar by the metro? a) 66 2/3 % b) 65 1/3 % c) 62 1/3 % d) 60 % e) Data insufficient 22. From Broadway to Anna Nagar station, if the Metro train takes twice the time it takes to travel from Tambaram to Broadway, then what is the distance between Broadway to Anna Nagar station? (in km) a) 5 Km b) 6 Km c) 7.5 Km d) 7 Km e) 6.5 Km 23. If total distance from Tambaram to Central is 20 km, then find time taken to travel from T Nagar to Central. a) 2 Mins b) 3 Mins c) 4 Mins d) 5 Mins e) Data insufficient 24. What is the average speed of the train from Tambaram to Central? a) 75 km/hr b) 79.3 km/hr c) 75.6 km/hr d) 73.2 km/hr e) Data insufficient www.ibpsguide.com | www.ibpsguide.in|mock.ibpsguide.in| www.sscexamguide.com CopyrightŠ 2016 IBPS Guide | For Queries contact – admin@ibpsguide.com Page-229

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25. If due to some problem, the train takes 2 more minutes to reach Central from T Nagar, then by what percent the average speed of entire journey has changed? a) 6.35 % b) 7.28% c) 8.54% d) None of these e) Data insufficient Directions (26-30): The questions are based on the table and pie-chart given below. The table has some missing information but it is known that every shopkeeper sold books. Complete the missing information and answer the questions using the information given in table and pie-chart. Books sold by 6 shopkeepers in June 2016 (in thousands) Subject English Commerce Business Maths Computer Economics Marketing Total

A 3 6 7

B 1 2 9

C 6 9

8

1 8

2 8 4 26

5 1 2 27

3 4 33

30

D 2

E 5 1

F

Total 20

3 8

50

8

6

29

7 32

4 35

183

Distribution of books returned to six shopkeepers by customers in June 2016

Marketing 19%

English 18%

Economics 18% Computer 21%

Commerce 13%

Business Maths 11%

26. What is the average number of books sold of Commerce, Computer and Economics together? a) 29500 b) 30000 c) 30333 d) 28333 e) None of these 27. In June 2016, the second highest number of books sold was of which subject? a) Marketing b) Commerce c) Business Maths d) Economics e) Computer 28. If a total of 4000 books were returned in June 2016, then what was the number of Economics books returned as a percentage of Economics books sold in June 2016? a) 2.32% b) 2.74% c) 1.86% d) 1.44% e) 2.92% www.ibpsguide.com | www.ibpsguide.in|mock.ibpsguide.in| www.sscexamguide.com CopyrightŠ 2016 IBPS Guide | For Queries contact – admin@ibpsguide.com Page-230

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29. Which shopkeeper sold maximum number of Commerce books as a percentage of the total number of books sold by that shopkeeper? a) C b) D c) A d) F e) None of these 30. If the number of Commerce books returned in June 2016 is 780, then what is the approximate number of English and Marketing books sold as a ratio of the number of English and Marketing books returned in June 2016? a) 33:2 b) 41:2 c) 47:3 d) 53:4 e) 65:3 Directions (31-35): Study the table carefully to answer the following questions Laptop Acer Dell Asus HP HCL Lenovo

Cost price 35000 53000

Selling price

% of profit

Profit 3500

14% 22000

28000 33000

10%

32000

4000

31. What is the selling price and % of Profit of Lenovo Laptop? a) 36,000 and 12.5% b) 36,00 and 15% c) 36,000 and 18% d) 36,000 and 20% e) 36,000 and 23% 32. What is the ratio between Cost Price and selling price of Acer? a) 14:15 b) 10:13 c) 10:14 d) 14:15 33. What is the profit earned on Dell Laptop? a) 7360 b) 7450 c) 7420

d) 7560

e) 10:11

e) 7620

34. What is the % of Profit Asus, If Cost Price of Asus is 3/5 of Cost Price of HCL Laptop? a) 33 1/3% b) 26 4/9% c) 22 2/9% d) 24 5/9% e) 25 7/9% 35. What is the selling price and % of profit of HP Laptop? If profit is 500 more than the profit of Acer Laptop a) 32,000 and 14 1/7% b) 34,000 and 14 4/7% c) 32,000 and 15 2/7% d) 34,000 and 17 5/7% e) 32,000 and 14 2/7% Direction (36-40): Answer the following questions based on the information given below: The proportion of male employees and the proportion of post graduates in a company are given below. The company has a total of 800 employees, 80% of whom are in the production department and the rest equally divided between the Sales and the Finance department. Department Sales Finance Purchase Total

Male 0.60 0.55 0.475

Post Graduates 0.50 0.55 0.53

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36. In the Sales department, twenty five per cent of the post graduates are male. What is the difference between the number of female post graduates and male employees who are not post graduates? a) Less than 8 b) Less than 10 c) Less than 12 d) Less than 14 e) Less than 16 37. What is the percentage of male employees in the Purchase department? a) 40% b) 45% c) 50% d) 55%

e) 60%

38. The number of Total males from all the departments are approx. what percent more than the number of males in Finance department? a) 35% b) 32% c) 29% d) 25% e) 39% 39. The difference between the number of Post graduates in Sales department and Post graduates in Finance department is? a) 6 b) 8 c) 10 d) 9 e) 12 40. What percentage of employees in the Sales department are post graduates? a) 40% b) 45% c) 50% d) 55%

e) 60%

Directions for Questions (41-45): Study the given table carefully to answer the given questions Cities Number of students Number of students % of students enrolled enrolled dropped who got job Male Female Male Female Mumbai 350 200 90 16% Chennai 270 210 33 32 Hyderabad 52 20 Delhi 60% Bangalore 30 60 30% (Number of students completed course = Number of students enrolled – Number of students dropped) 41. In Delhi city, number of students (M + F) who dropped out is 3/11 of the total number of students who enrolled for the course what % of students (M + F) in city Delhi who completed the course got the job? a) 80% b) 82.5% c) 85% d) Cannot be determined e) None of these 42. If in Chennai city, 40% of the students (M + F) who completed the course got the job, then how many students got the job? a) 160 b) 165 c) 166 d) 170 e) None of these 43. In Bangalore city, ratio of male to the female students who enrolled is 9 : 8 and the ratio of male to female who completed the course is 4 : 3, then find the number of students who got the job? a) 153 b) 155 c) 160 d) Cannot be determined e) None of these 44. In Hyderabad city, number of male students who completed the course is equal to number of female students. Only 96 students, i.e. 25% of (M + F) who completed course got job? When how may male enrolled. a) 245 b) 250 c) 488 d) Cannot be determined e) None of these 45. In Mumbai city, 25% of (M + F) who completed the course got the job, then find the number of females who dropped out? www.ibpsguide.com | www.ibpsguide.in|mock.ibpsguide.in| www.sscexamguide.com CopyrightŠ 2016 IBPS Guide | For Queries contact – admin@ibpsguide.com Page-232

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a) 100

b) 110

c) 108

d) Cannot be determined

e) None of these

Directions (Q. 46-50): Study the given table carefully to answer the given questions. Percentage profit or loss is based on the sum of cost price and transportation cost. Name of goods

Cost price (in Rupees)

Pen Pencil Book Note Eraser

50

Selling price (in Rupees) 100

250 400 400

Cost of Profit (in transportation Rupees) (in Rupees) 30 0 20 5 0 40

Loss (in Rupees)

Profit or loss%

10 4 % loss 6% Profit (of CP)

46. If the loss on Pen is 5%, then its selling price is what percentage less than the selling price of Eraser? a) 85.7% b) 88.7% c) 83.7% d) 81.7% e) 79.7% 47. What is the ratio of the loss on Note to that on Pencil? a) 133 : 255 b) 65 : 55 c) 75 : 43

d)8.33 : 5.00

e) 233 : 155

48. The percentage profit on Pen is 4%. Then what is its selling price? a) Rs. 91.2 b) Rs. 89.5 c) Rs. 87.5 d) Rs. 85

e) Rs. 83.2

49. The selling price of Book is what per cent of the cost price of Pencil? a) 150% b) 250% c) 125% d) 200%

e) 100%

50. What is the difference between the selling price of Eraser and that of Book? a) Rs. 189.8 b) Rs. 294.5 c) Rs. 191.4 d) Rs. 195.9

e) Rs. 201

SOLUTION AND EXPLANATION OF DATA INTERPRETATION (MISSING DATA)

Answer: 1. E 2. D 3. C 4. A 5. c 1. Selling price of Soya bean = `90 Loss = 6% Total cost price = 90 × 100 / 94 = `95.74 Cost of packaging of Soya bean = Total cost price – Cost of production – Cost of transportation = 95.74 – 70.10 = `15.74 2. Selling price of Salt = `120 per kg Profit = 10% Total cost price = 120 × 100 / 110 = `109.09 Cost of packing = Cost price – Cost of production – Cost of transportation www.ibpsguide.com | www.ibpsguide.in|mock.ibpsguide.in| www.sscexamguide.com Copyright© 2016 IBPS Guide | For Queries contact – admin@ibpsguide.com Page-233

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= 109.09 – 80 – 8 = `21.09 3. Selling price of Wheat = 40 × 105 / 100 = `42 Selling price of Barley = 45 + 5 + 50 = `100 Required difference = 100 – 42 = `48 4. Cost price of Wheat = `40 Selling price of Mustard = 40 × 80 / 100 = `32 Cost price of Mustard = Cost of production + Transportation + Packaging = 20 + 3 + 2 = `25 % profit = 32 – 25 / 25 × 100 = 28% 5. Cost price of 4 kg Salt + 3 kg Wheat + 5 kg Mustard = {4 × (80 + 8) + 3 × 40 + 5 × (20 + 3)} = 352 + 120 + 115 = `587 Selling price of 4 kg Salt + 3 kg Wheat + 5 kg Mustard = 4 × 120 + 3 × 42 + 5 × 32 = 480 + 126 + 160 = `766 % profit = 766 – 587 / 587 = 30.49% Answer: 6. D 7. D 8. A 9. B 10. c 6. Area of S = Base × Height = 20 × 12 = 240 meter sq So, cost of flooring of S= 240 × 60 = Rs.14400 Perimeter of S = 2 (20 + 12) = 64 m So, cost of fencing of S = 64 × 25 = Rs.1600 So, required ratio = 14400 : 1600 = 9 : 1 7. Perimeter of T = 2πr = 2 × 22/7 × 10 = 440/7 m Cost of fencing of T = 440/7 × 22 = Rs.1382.85 Area of R = 15 * 15= 225 meter square So, cost of flooring of R = 225 × 40 = Rs.9000 So, required % = 1382.85 x 100 / 9000 = 15.36% of flooring cost of R. 8. Perimeter of Q = 2 (10 + 20) = 60 m So, cost of fencing of Q = 60 × 15 = 900 Perimeter of R = 4 × 15 = 60 m So, cost of fencing of R = 60 × 18 = Rs.1080 So, required difference = 1080 ⎯ 900 = Rs.180 9. Fencing cost of R = Rs.1080 Fencing cost of S = Rs.1600 Required % = 1080/1600 × 100 = 67.5% 10. P is a triangle So, area of P = 1/2 × 16 × 12 = 96 sqm So, cost of flooring of P = 96 × 50 = Rs.4800 Answer: 11. C 12. D 13. D 14. B 15. a www.ibpsguide.com | www.ibpsguide.in|mock.ibpsguide.in| www.sscexamguide.com Copyright© 2016 IBPS Guide | For Queries contact – admin@ibpsguide.com Page-234

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3

11. Rate of interest of Kamal = 6 Ă— 2 = 9% Amount = 35360 Time = 4 years Let the principal be x đ?‘Ľ Ă—9 Ă—4 Then, x + 100 = x 1 + 36/100 = 35360 136

X Ă— 100 = 35360 X = 26000 12. Amount of Sunil = P 1 + đ?‘&#x;/100 = 25000 Ă— 1 + 5/100 3 21 21 21 = 25000 Ă— 20 Ă— 20 Ă— 20 = 28940.625

t

13. Let the principal be x Then, SI = 5x – x = 4x 4x = x × r × 4/100 r = 100% 130

14. Principal of Bilal = 12000 Ă— = 15600 100 Amount of Bilal = 15600 Ă— 1 + 4/100 26 26 = 15600 Ă— 25 Ă— 25 = 16872.96 6

15. Principal of Jalal = 25000 Ă— 5 = 30000 120

Rate of interest = 5 Ă— 100 = 6% 30000 Ă—6 Ă—5

Interest = = 90000 100 Answer: 16.E 17. B 18. D 19. C 20. d Department

Total

Male

Female

Under 25

Production

160

64

96

80

R&D

80

32

48

8

Purchase

240

144

96

102

Accounts

200

180

20

50

Administrator 120

60

60

0

Total

480

320

240

800 75

16. Required ratio = 100 × 144 / 102 – 36 = 90

108 66

= 18 : 11

17. Number of males = 180 = 100 Ă— x www.ibpsguide.com | www.ibpsguide.in|mock.ibpsguide.in| www.sscexamguide.com CopyrightŠ 2016 IBPS Guide | For Queries contact – admin@ibpsguide.com Page-235

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Total employees in Accounts department = 200 25 Number of employees under 25 = 200 Ă— 100 = 50 64

18. Required% = 160 Ă— 100 = 40% 52

19. Required% = 50 Ă— 100 = 104% 20. Required ratio =

144 80

=9:5

Answer: 21. D 22. C 23. B 24. C 25. a 3−1.875 1.125 21. Required% = = Ă— 100 = 60% more 1.875

1.875

2.75 Ă—1000

22. Time taken from Tambaram to Broadway = Time taken from Broadway to Tambaram= 5 min Distance = 5 Ă— 1500 = 7500m = 7.5km

1100

= 2.5 đ?‘šđ?‘–đ?‘›đ?‘˘đ?‘Ąđ?‘’đ?‘

23. Total distance = 2.75 + .50 + 4.5 + 2.25 + d = 20 d = 3 km 3000 Time = 1000 = 3 minutes 24. Average = =

6300 5

1100 +1500 +1500 +1200 +1000 5

= 1260 m/min = 75.6 km/hr

25. Speed from T Nagar to Central = =

5900 5

1100 +1500 +1500 +1200 +600 5

= 1180 (1260 −1180 )

80

Required% = Ă— 100 = 1260 Ă— 100 = 6.35% 1260 Answer: 26. E 27. D 28. A 29. B 30. b Subject

A

B

C

D

E

F

Total

English

3

1

4

2

5

5

20

Commerce 6

2

6

9

1

3

27

Business Maths

7

9

9

8

9

8

50

Computer

1

2

5

7

8

6

29

Economics 8

8

1

3

2

9

31

Marketing

5

4

2

4

7

4

26

Total

30

26

27

33

32

35

183

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(27+29+31)

26. Required average = = 29 3 = 29000 27. Second highest number of books sold was Economics 28. Number of Economics books returned = 18% of 4000 = 720 720 Required percentage = 31000 × 100 = 2.32% 29. We need to check for which shopkeeper (s) the number of Commerce books sold were the highest, for that shopkeeper the percentage of Commerce books sold as a percentage of total number of books sold by that shopkeeper would be higher than for the shopkeeper who has not sold maximum number of Commerce books out of all the books sold, there is only one shopkeeper is D. 30. Number of Commerce books returned = 780 780 Total number of books returned = 13 × 100 = 6000 Number of English and Marketing books returned = 37% of 6000 = 2220 Required ratio = 46000 : 2220 = 2300 : 111 = 41 : 2. Answer: 31. A 32. E 33. C 34. C 35. e 31. Selling price = 32,000+4000=36,000 % of Profit = 4000/36000 = 12.5% 32. Cost Price = 35,000 Selling Price = 35,000+3500=38500 Ratio = 35000 : 38500 = 10:11 33. Cost Price = 53,000 % of profit = 14% 53,000 ------------ 100% ? ----------- 114% Selling price = 60,420 Profit = 60,420-53,000=7420 34. HCL Laptop Selling Price = 33,000 HCL Laptop % Of Profit = 10% means 33,000 ------- 110% ? ------- 100% (CP) Cost Price of HCL = 30,000 Asus cost price = 3/5 × 30,000 = 18,000 Selling price = 22,000 Profit = 4,000 % of profit = (4000/18,000) × 100 = 22 2/9% 35. Profit on Acer Laptop =3,500 From that profit on HP Laptop = 3500+500=4000 Selling Price of HP Laptop = 32,000 % of profit on HP = (4000/28,000) × 100 = 14 2/7% Answer: 36. E 37. B 38. B 39. B 40. a Total employees = 800 ⇒ total males = 0.475*800 = 380 Total Post graduates = 0.53*800 = 424 80% employees = in Purchase department = 640 Number of Post graduates in Purchase department = 0.55*640 = 352 Now, rest employees (800-640 = 160 are equally divided between Sales and Finance. Thus, both has 80-80 employees. www.ibpsguide.com | www.ibpsguide.in|mock.ibpsguide.in| www.sscexamguide.com Copyright© 2016 IBPS Guide | For Queries contact – admin@ibpsguide.com Page-237

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Number of males in Sales = 0.6*80 = 48 Number of males in Finance = 0.55*80 = 44 Post graduates in Finance = 0.50*80 = 40 Post graduates in Sales = 424-[352+40] = 32 And number of males in Purchase = 380-[48+44] = 288 36. Post graduates in Sales department = 32 Male Post graduates = 25% = 8 Hence, female Post graduates = 24 Hence, Male non Post graduates = 48-8 = 40 Required difference = 40-24 = 16 37. Percentage of males in the Purchase department is: [288/640]*100 = 45% 38. Males in Finance department = 288 Total males = 380 Difference = 92 Required percentage = [92/288]*100 = approx. 32% 39. Difference = 40-32 = 8 40. Required percentage = [32/80]*100 = 40% Answer: 41. B 42. C 43. A 44. E 45. c 41. Dropped (d) = 3/11 Enrolled (E) Number of students who completed the course = 8/11 E 60% of students who enrolled got job = 60/100 E = 3/5 E Required percentage = [(3/5 E) / (8/11 E)] Ă— 100 = 82.50% 42. Total number of students who completed the course = Number of students enrolled – Number of students dropped = (270 + 210 – 33 + 32) = 415 415 Ă—40 40% of students who completed the course got job = 100 = 166 43. Let the total number of students enrolled = 17x Male students enrolled = 9x Female students enrolled = 8x Number of students (Males) who completed the course = 9x – 30 Number of students (Females) who completed the course = 8x – 60 The ratio of male to female who completed the course is 4:3 9đ?‘Ľâˆ’30 4 = 8đ?‘Ľâˆ’60 = 3 = x = 30 Total number of students enrolled = 17x = 17 Ă— 30 = 510 30% of total number students enrolled got the job = 30% of 510 = 153 44. Let the number of students who completed the course be ‗c‘ Number of male students who enrolled for the course be ‗M‘ Number of Female students who enrolled for the course be ‗F‘ 25 = 96 = 100 Ă— đ?‘? = c = 384 = (M+F) – (52 + 20) = M + F = 456 ‌(1) www.ibpsguide.com | www.ibpsguide.in|mock.ibpsguide.in| www.sscexamguide.com CopyrightŠ 2016 IBPS Guide | For Queries contact – admin@ibpsguide.com Page-238

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Number of male students who completed the course is equal to number of female student (M – 52) = (F – 20) M – F = 32 ‌(2) From equation (1) and (2) F = 108 45. Number of students who completed the course = (350 + 200) – (90 + F) = 460 –F 25% of (M + F) who completed the course got the job = 25% of (460 – F) ‌(1) 16% of total number of students enrolled got the job = 16% of 550 ‌(2) From equation (1) and (2) 16 25 = 100 Ă— 550 = 100 Ă— (460 − đ??š) F = 108 Answer: 46. C 47. D 48. E 49. B 50. c 46. Selling price of Pen = (Cost price + Cost of Transportation)*95/100= (50+30) Ă— 95/100 = Rs.76 Selling price of Eraser = Rs.466.4 Required% = (466.4-76) Ă— 100/466.4 =83.7% 47. Loss on Note = Cost price of Note - selling price of Note = 400 Ă— 100/96-400 =416.66-400 = Rs.16.66 Loss on Pencil = Rs.10 Required ratio = 16.66:10=8.33:5.00 48. Cost price of Pen = Rs.50 Transportation cost = Rs.30 Total cost price = 50+30=Rs.80 Profit = 4% Selling price = 80 Ă— 104/100 = Rs.83.2 49. Selling price of Book = (Cost price + Cost on transportation + Profit) = 250+20+5=275 Cost price of Pencil =Selling price + Loss = 100+10=Rs.110 Required % = 275*100/110% =250% 50. Selling price of Eraser = Cost price of Eraser + Cost on transportation + Profit =400+40+440 Ă— 6/100= Rs.466.4 Selling price of Book =Rs.275 Difference =466.4-275=Rs.191.4

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CONTENT Topics Seating Arrangements Puzzles Coding Decoding Input-Output Alphanumeric Direction-Ranking Equality-Inequality Syllogism Blood Relation Critical Reasoning

Page No.

2 12 22 32 44 54 71 84 111 122

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1. SEATING ARRANGEMENTS Q (1 – 5) L, M, N, O, P, Q, R and S are sitting around a square table in such a way that four of them sit at four corners of the square while four sit in the middle of each of the four sides. The ones who sit at the four corners face the centre while those who sit in the middle of the sides face outside. Two females sit in the middle of the sides and two at the corners. L sits second to the left of R. R sits in the middle of one of the sides. N sits fourth to the right of his wife and his wife is not an immediate neighbour of L or R. M sits third to right of her husband. M does not sit at any of the corners. Only Osits between M and S. S is the husband of L. P is a male. Q 1) Which of the following is true with respect to the given seating arrangement? a) Q is a male and sits diagonally opposite to P b) L sits in the centre of one of the sides of the square table c) R and S do not face each other in the seating arrangement d) No two males are immediate neighbor of each other e) P and O are immediate neighbours of each other Q 2) What is the position of P with respect to N? a) Immediately to the left b) Second to the left c) Third to the right d) Immediately to the right e) Second to the right Q 3) How many people sit between M and N when counted in anti – clockwise direction from M? a) Four b) Three c) Two d) None e) One Q 4) Who amongst the following is the wife of N? a) O b) Q c) M d) R

e) Cannot be determined

Q 5) Who among the following is M‘s husband? a) N b) R c) P d) Q

e) Cannot be determined

Q (6 – 10) There are eight persons – Rajeev, Mahendra, Narendra, Orijeet, Pranjal, Ramesh, Ankur, Somesh – sitting around a circular area at equal distance from one another, but not necessarily in the same order. Some of them are facing the center while some others are facing outside(ie in a direction just opposite to the center). Somesh sitting fourth to the left of Pranjal, Orijeet is sitting second to the right of Somesh. Somesh faces outside. Rajeev is sitting third to the right of Ankur. Ankur is not an immediate neighbour of Pranjal. Both the immediate neighbours of Ramesh face toward the center. Both the immediate neighbours of Mahendra face opposite directions(ie if one person faces towards the center, the other person faces outside). Both the www.ibpsguide.com | www.ibpsguide.in | mock.ibpsguide.in | www.sscexamguide.com Copyright © 2016 IBPS Guide

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immediate neighbours both the immediate neighbours of Somesh face the same directions as that of Orijeet. Both the immediate neighbours of Pranjal face just the opposite direction of Pranjal(ie if Pranjal faces towards the center, bot the immediate neighbour of Pranjal faces outside and vice versa). Narendra is immediate neighbour of Ankur. Rajeev is facing inside and Narendra is facing the same direction as that of Orijeet. Q 6) Which of the following statements is/are true regarding Narendra as per the given seating arrangement? a) Narendra is sitting to the immediate right of Mahendra b) Narendra faces outside c) Rajeev is sitting second to the right of narendra d) Somesh is one of the immediate neighbours of Nahendra Q 7) Who among the following sitting to the immediate left of Pranjal? a) Ankur b) Mahendra c) Orijeet d) None of these Q 8) How many persons are facing outside? a) One b) Three c) Five d) Four Q 9) What is the position of Ankur with respect to the Orijeet in the given sitting arrangement? a) Fourth to the left b) Third to the right c) Fifth to the left d) Second to the right Q 10) Four of the following three are alike in a certain way on the basis of given seating arrangement, and hence form a group. Which one of the following does not belong to that group? a) Narendra b) Orijeet c) Ankur d) Pranjal Directions (Q. 11-14): Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions. K, L, M, P, Q, R, S and T are sitting around a square table in such a way that four of them sit at four corners of the square while four sit in the middle of each of the four sides. The one who sit at the four corners faces outside while those who sit in the middle of the sides face the centre of the table. P sits third to the right of S. S faces the centre. Q sits third to the left of M who does not sit in the middle of the sides. Only one person sits between Q and R. R is not an immediate neighbor of M. T faces the centre. K is not an immediate neighbour of R. Q 11). What is the position of M with respect to L? a) Third to the right b) M and L sit diagonally opposite to each other c) Second to the right d) Second to the left e) Fifth to the right Q 12). Who sits exactly between Q and R? a) T b) P c) K d) M

e) S and K

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Q 13). Which of the following pairs represents the persons seated in the centre of the side. Who face each other? a) S, Q b) K, L c) M, P d) R, T e) T, Q Q 14). Who amongst the following sit between R and K when counted in anti-clockwise direction from K? a) No one sits between R and K as R and K are immediate neighbor of each other b) S, P and L c) P and Q d) L and R e) M, S and T Q 15 – 20) Nine people L, M, N, O, P, Q, R, S and T stay in a building not necessarily in the same order. The building has nine floors and only one person stays on one floor. All of them own one each, and each car is of a different car, i.e. grey, white, black, yellow, green, red, orange and pinknot necessarily in the same order. The ground floor is numbered 1, the floor above it, number 2 and so on and the topmost floor is numbered 9. S owns a black coloured car and stays on even numbered floor. L stays on even numbered floor below the floor on which S stays. The one who own an orange coloured car stays on 4rth floor. P stays on the second floor and owns the white coloured car. The one who owns a pink coloured car stays on the third floor. L does not own a green coloured car. There are two floors between the floors on which the people owning the black and red coloured cars stay. N owns a grey coloured car. There are three floors between the floors on which N and R stays. O stays on a floor immediately above T‘s floor. There is one floor between the floors on which Q and R stay. Q does not own the pink coloured car. The one who owns the blue car stays on the top–most floor. Q does not stay on the ground floor. Q 15) How many floors are there between the floor on which Q stays and the floor on which N stays? a) Six b) Eight c) One d) None e) More than three Q 16) Which of the following is true as per the given information? a) M stays on a floor immediately below the floor on which S stays b) R stays on a floor immediately above the floor on which L stays c) Q stays on eight floor d) O owns the orange coloured car and stays on 4rth floor e) None is true Q 17) On which of the following floor does M stay? a) 7th b) 6th c) 9th d) 1st

e) None of these

Q 18) Who amongst the following stays on the top–most floor? a) M b) O c) R d) S e) None of these Q 19) L owns a car of which of the following colours? a) Pink b) Blue c) Yellow d) Orange

e) None of these

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Q 20) How many floors are there between the floor on which S stays and the floor on which red coloured car stays? a) 3 b) 2 c) 1 d) 4 e) More than 4 Directions (Q. 21 – 25): Read the following information carefully and answer the questions given below: Eight students A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H in a school sports competition participated in a game in which they were sitting around a circular ring. The seats of the ring are not directed towards the centre. All the eight students are in four groups I, II, III and IV, (ie) two students in each group, but not necessarily in the same order. These students are from different sport houses, viz Maharishi, Vyas, Aryabhatt, Vashistha, Shakaracharya, Balmiki, Dhuruv and Dayanand. • No two students of the same group are sitting adjacent to each other except those of group III. Students from group IV are sitting opposite each other. • D is neither in Dayanand nor in Aryabhatt house. • The student from Dhurv house is sitting on the immediate right of the student from Dayanand house. • C, who is Vashista house, is in group I. She is sitting in the immediate right of F, who is in group III. • F is not in Aryabhatt house and she has also participated in other sports • B from Vyas house is neither on group IV nor in group I or II. • B is sitting opposite E. Only Balmiki participant A is sitting between Dhurv participant E and the Shankarachary participant. • Both the students of group II are sitting adjacent to students of group IV. Q 21).Who is in Maharishi house? a) G b) F c) H d) Can‘t say e) None of these Q 22). ‘H‘ is in which house? a) Dayanand b) Shankaracharya

c) Maharishi d) Can‘t say e) None of these

Q 23).Who among the following students are in group IV? a) A and B b) A and C c) G and H d) Data inadequate e) None of these Q 24).The students from which house is sitting opposite the Vashistha house participant? a) Dayanand b) Shankaracharya c) Dhruv d) Can‘t say e) None of these Q 25).Which of the following statements is false? a) The Balmiki representative is sitting opposite the Maharishi house representative b) The Vyas house representative is sitting opposite the Dhruv house representative c) H and G are sitting opposite each other d) The two girl – participants are sitting opposite each other e) None of these www.ibpsguide.com | www.ibpsguide.in | mock.ibpsguide.in | www.sscexamguide.com Copyright © 2016 IBPS Guide

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Q 26 – 32) There are ten friends A, B, C, D, E, F, G, H, I and J sitting around a rectangular table in such a way that four of them sit at the corners, two each on the longer sides and one each on the smaller sides, but not necessarily in the same order. Some of them are facing the centre while the rest are not facing the centre. Not more than two friends sitting together face the same direction. A sit in the smaller sides and third to the right of F. I is not an immediate neighbor of A, B or F but sits on the immediate right of C, who is not facing the centre. Only two among four sitting on the corners face outward. H and D are sitting on the immediate left and third to the left of J respectively. One of the four friends sitting on the corner is I .E sits on the immediate left of D and is not an immediate neighbour of D. A and E face the same direction. D and G sit diagonally and face opposite directions. Five of them face the same directions. Q 26) Who among the following sits third to the right of E? a) G b) A c) J d) H e) None of these Q 27) What is the position of D with respect to A? a) Second to the right b) Fourth to the right c) Immediate right d) Can‘t be determined e) None of these Q 28) Which of the following groups sit on the corners of the rectangular table? a) DIHJ b) HDGC c) HDGI d) JDIG

e) None of these

Q 29) Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and hence form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group? a) FC b) AE c) IE d) HB e) DJ Q 30) How many persons are not facing the centre? a) Four b) Six c) Five d) Three

e) None of these

Q 31) Who among the following sits opposite to H? a) I b) B c) D d) E e) None of these Q 32) E is related to C in same way as I is related B. following the same pattern H is related to which of the following? a) J b) F c) D d) None of these e) A Q 33 – 37) Six picture cards P, Q, R, S, T and U are printed in six different coloured inks – Violet, majenta, orange, black, yellow and brown and are arranged from left to right (not necessarily in the same order and the colour as given). The pictures were of king, princess, queen, palace, joker and prince. The picture of palace was in violet colour, but it was nor printed on card S. Card P which was bearing queen‘s picture printed in brown ink, was at extreme right. The picture of princess was neither on card S nor card T and was not printed in either www.ibpsguide.com | www.ibpsguide.in | mock.ibpsguide.in | www.sscexamguide.com Copyright © 2016 IBPS Guide

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orange or yellow ink. Card R had picture of king printed in black ink and it was 5th from the right and next to card Q having the picture of prince. Q 33) If the princess‘s card is between the cards of the palace and prince, then at what number the joker‘s card is placed from the left? a) 1st b) 4th c) 5th d) 2nd Q 34) Which of the following combination of card and colour is true for picture of princess? a) T – yellow b) U – majenta c) Q – orange d) Data inadequate Q 35) In which colour was the picture of joker printed? a) Data inadequate b) Yellow c) Majenta d) Orange Q 36) Picture of palace was printed in which of the following cards? a) T b) U c) S d) Either S or T Q 37) What was the colour of the card T? a) Violet b) Majenta c) Orange

d) None of these

Direction (38 – 44): L, N, P, R, M, Q, T and Y are the members of a committee sitting around a circular table but not facing the centre. Each member has a different zodiac sign, viz Leo, Virgo, Libra, Cancer, Aries, Gemini, Pisces and Scorpio, but not necessarily in the same order. T is third to the right of P. The one whose sun-sign Leo is second to the left of the one whose sun-sign is Libra. Y's sun-sign is Libra and is sitting exactly between P and L. The one whose sun-sign is Pisces sits second to the right of N. The one whose sun-sign is Aries is second to the right of the person whose sun-sign is Gemini. P sits third to the left of the person whose sun-sign is Virgo. Neither Q nor L is the immediate neighbour of N. Q is fourth to the left of L. N's sun-sign is neither Cancer nor Ariel. The person whose sun-sign is Leo is sitting second to the right of the person whose sign is Cancer. R‘s sun-sign is Leo and is not an immediate neighbor of N. Q 38. Which of the following is N‘s sun-sign? a) Pisces b) Scorpio c) Gemini d) Can't be determined e) None of these Q 39. Who sits third to the right of L? a) P b) Y c) R d) Q e) None of these Q 40. What is Y's position with respect to Q? a) Third to the left b) Fourth to the left c) Second to the right d) Third to the right e) 2nd to the left www.ibpsguide.com | www.ibpsguide.in | mock.ibpsguide.in | www.sscexamguide.com Copyright © 2016 IBPS Guide

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Q 41. How many persons are there between P and N? a) None b) Two c) Three d) Four Q 42. What is the sun-sign of P? a) Gemini b) Libra

c) Leo

e) None of these

d) Can't be determined

Q 43. Which of the following combinations is true? a) M-Gemini b) P-Cancer c) N-Scorpio d) None is true Q 44. How many persons sits between T and R? a) one b) two c) three d) four

e) None of these

e)All are true

e) None of these

Q 45 –50) Twelve people are sitting in two parallel rows containing six people each, in such a way that there is an equal distance between adjacent persons. in row 1 – J, K, L, M, N and O are seated, all of them facing South. In row 2 – U, V, W, X, Y and Z are seated, all of them facing North. Therefore, in a given seating arrangement each member seated in a row faces another member of the other row. U sits third to the right of X. Neither U nor X sits at the extreme ends.N faces X. O does not face U and O does not sit at any of the extreme ends. O is not an immediate neighbor of N. V sits at one of the extreme end. Only two people sit between V and Y. Y does not face O. Two persons sit between L and K. L is not an immediate neighbour of N. W does not face O. J is not an immediate neighbour of L. Q 45) Who amongst the following sit at extreme ends of the rows? a) V, Y b) M, N c) J, L d) V, Z Q 46) Who amongst the following faces U? a) L b) N c) J d) M Q 47) How many persons are seated between N and M? a) One b) Two c) Three d) Four Q 48) J is related to O in the same way as W is related to Z. To which of the following is Y related to, following the same pattern? a) V b) X c) W d) U Q 49) Which of the following is true regarding Z? a) Z sits second to the right of W b) Z is not an immediate neighbour of U c) Z sits second to the right of X d) Z sits at one of the extreme ends of the line Q 50) Among the following given options all of them belongs to the same particular group except: a) J b) L c) W d) Z www.ibpsguide.com | www.ibpsguide.in | mock.ibpsguide.in | www.sscexamguide.com Copyright © 2016 IBPS Guide

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SEATING ARRANGEMENT (Answers with Detailed Explanation) Q 1 – 5) The diagram drawn below shows the arrangement of those 8 people.

Q 1) b)

Q 2) e)

Q 3) c)

Q 4) a)

Q 5) c)

Q 6 – 10) Based on the given information, following circular arrangement is drawn:

Q 6) d)

Q 7) b)

Q 8) d)

Q 9) a)

Q 10) c)

Q 11– 14)

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11)d 12)b 13)e 14)c Q 15 – 20) The tabulated is given below to show the arrangements – :

Q 15) e) Q 19) c)

Q 16) d) Q 20) b)

Floor 9 8 7 6 5 4 3 2 1

Colour of the person Blue Black Green Yellow Red Orange Pink White Grey

Person M S Q L R O T P N

Q 17) c)

Q 18) a)

Q 21 – 25)

21)b 22)d 23)c 24)b 25)c Q 26 – 32) Givenbelow is the figure showing the positions of ten friends around a rectangular table

Q 26) e)

Q 27) b)

Q 28) a)

Q 29) d)

Q 30) c)

Q 31) b)

Q 32) c)

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Q 33 – 37) Based on the information given in the question we get the following table:

Q 33) a) The and 5. The three be assigned no.1 from

Card P Q R S T U

Colour Brown Orange/Yellow Black Yellow/Orange Violet Majenta

Picture Queen Prince King Joker Palace Princess

Position 6 2

vacant positions are 1, 3, 4 given situation demands that consecutive cards – 3, 4 and 5 to these. So, Joker will be at left.

Q 34) b) Q 35) a) Yellow or Orange Q 36) a) Q 37) a) Q 38 – 44) Based on the given information, the circular arrangement thus formed is drawn below:

38) B

39)E

40)D

41)C

42)A

43)C 44)C

Q 45 – 50) Based on the given information following figure depicting the positions is drawn:

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Q 45) c)

Q 46) d)

Q 47) b)

Q 48) d)

Q 49) c)

Q 50) d)

2. PUZZLES Direction (1 – 6): In a dance club seven males and seven females participated in a dance programme. P, Q, R, S, T, U and V were the male participants while C, D, E, F, G, H, and I were the female participants. All the fourteen persons were divided into seven groups. Each group consisted of one male. After the end of the programme each group was assigned a grade according to its performance. For the purpose of grading seven letters were used, ie X, Y, Z, A, B, J and K indicating descending order. U‘s group got grade Y. Grade of Q‘s group was better than at least three groups while grade of R‘s group was better than at least four. T‘s partner was G. E‘s partner was not S. F‘s group got grade X. P, S and R were not partners of H, I and C respectively. Grade of one group was the same as the name of member of that group. Grades of D‘s group and H‘s group were better than H‘s group and I‘s group respectively. Grade of Q‘s group was better than R‘s. Grades of T‘s and P‘s groups were neither J nor K. G‘s group didn‘t get grade B. E‘s group got the grade K. Q 1) Which of the following is not correctly matched?

Q 2) Which of the following statements is/are true? 1. C‘s group got the grade J. 2. D‘s group got the grade K a) Only 2

b) Either 1 or 2

c) Only 1

d) Can‘t say

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Q 4) Grade B was assigned to which person‘s group? a) D b) F c) Can‘t say d) None of these Q 5) The group which got the best grade consisted of a) UI b) QF c) RH d) PD Q 6) Who among the following was the partner of R? a) H b) C c)I d) Can‘t say Directions (Q. 7-12): Eight candidates A, B, C, D, P, Q, R and S have applied for IBPS exam for different banks, viz BOB, BOI, Dena Bank, UBI, OBC, Indian Bank, Corporation Bank and UCO Bank but not necessarily in the same order. There are five male and three female candidates in this group. Each male and each female has applied from his/her city, viz Chennai, Delhi, Mumbai, Kochi, Patna, Raipur, Gwalior and Agra. No male has applied from Raipur and Kochi. P has applied for Indian Bank from Agra. The one who has applied for Corporation Bank is neither from Mumbai nor from Kochi. B has applied for OBC. His sister C has applied for Dena Bank from Chennai. The one who belongs to Delhi has applied for BOB. The one who has applied from Mumbai is not a female. D has applied for UBI and her friend has applied for BOB. Q is from Gwalior and has not applied either for Corporation Bank or for UCO Bank. The one who has applied for UCO Bank has applied neither from Patna nor from Mumbai. S has applied from Kochi. A does not apply from Patna. Q 7). Which of the following groups is a group of female applicants? a) B, D, C b) D, Q, S c) C, D, S d) P, Q, R e) None of these Q 8). Who among the following has applied from Ranchi? a) P b) D c) S d) C e) None of these Q 9). Which of the following combinations is true? a) A– UBI – Ranchi b) R – Corporation Bank – Mumbai c) C – UCO Bank – Chennai d) B – OBC – Mumbai e) None of these Q 10). Who among the following has applied for BOB? a) A b) S c) D d) Q

e) None of these

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Q 11). B belongs to which of the following cities? a) Delhi b) Ranchi c) Mumbai d) Gwalior

e) None of these

Q 12). Four of the five are alike in a certain way and hence form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group? a) P b) R c) A d) C e) Q Direction Q (13 – 17): Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions. Seven friends A, B, C, D, E, F and G study in Class XII in three different sections A, B and C. Not less than two friends study in one section. All of them have a different favourite subject—Science, Political Science, History, Mathematics, English, Biology and Commerce. Each of them has a favourite sport – Cricket, Hockey, Football, Basketball, Tennis, Volleyball and Table Tennis. E‘s favourite subject is Commerce and plays Table Tennis. B and G study in the A section, B‘s favourite subject is History. Neither Tennis nor Volleyball is his favourite game. The one whose favourite game is Football has Political Science as his favourite subject and is in Section B only with C. A‘s favourite subject is Science. He plays Cricket and studies only with F. C studies Mathematics and G studies Biology. F plays Basketball. The one whose favourite subject is Mathematics doesn‘t play Volleyball. Q 13). Who plays Tennis? a) A b) C

c) E

d) F

e) G

Q 14). Who among the following study in Section B? a) CA b) FE c) CD d) ED Q 15). How many friends study in Section A? a) Four b) Three c) Two Q 16). Who among the following plays Hockey? a) A b) B c) C d) D

e) AD

d) One

e) None of these

e) E

Q 17). Which of the following pairs of games is not played by students of the same section? a) Cricket and Basketball b) Hockey and Tennis c) Tennis and Football d) Hockey and Volleyball e) Table Tennis and Volleyball www.ibpsguide.com | www.ibpsguide.in | mock.ibpsguide.in | www.sscexamguide.com Copyright © 2016 IBPS Guide

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Direction (18 – 23): Ashish, Kamlesh, Sandy, Raju and Sarita are five aspirants or Bank PO. In order to excel in these exams joined the coaching institute Legion Classes. They joined the classes at different centres. These centres are located in Noida, Varanasi, Patna, Mumbai and Bengaluru. No two centres of KY classes are in a single town. Owing to the different problems they were confronting they joined different types of courses. Names of the courses are: SSCJ, SIA, ACJ, SSK and BPO. Each person has a different surname. Surnames are: Sharma, Tiwari, Yadav, Rao and Malhotra. Given below are the additional informations, answer the question that follows these informations –: 1. One who joined SSCJ course is associated with Bengaluru. 2. Three persons among them, ieAshish Sharma, MsRao and the one who is associated with Noida centre, are good at Non – Verbal Reasoning. But the other two, MrMalhotra and the one who has joined SSK are good at verbal Reasoning. 3. One who has joined SSK is not Kamlesh. 4. Sarita is not associated with Noida. But she is good at Non – Verbal Reasoning. 5. MsRao and the person who is associated with Patna centre are unfamiliar with each other but good at Non – Verbal Reasoning. 6. MsTiwari has joined the SSK course.

Q 18) Who is MrMalhotra? a) Kamlesh b) Ashish

c) Raju

d) Can‘t say

Q 19) Whose surname is Rao? a) One who has joined ACJ b) One who has joined SIA c) One who has joined SSCJ d) Can‘t say Q 20) One who has joined SSK courses at a) Bengaluru b) Patna c) Noida

d) Can‘t say

Q 21) Which of the following statements is correct? a) Rao is the surname of Ashish b) Raju is associated with Noida centre? c) MrYadav joined SSCJ d) None of these Q 22) Which of the following statements is not necessarily correct? a) Ashish has joined SIA b) Kamlesh is MrYadav c) Raju is MrMalhotra d) Sandy is associated with Varanasi Q 23) Who among the following is studying at Patna centre of KY Classes? www.ibpsguide.com | www.ibpsguide.in | mock.ibpsguide.in | www.sscexamguide.com Copyright © 2016 IBPS Guide

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a) Ashish

b) Kamlesh

c) Raju

d) Sarita

Direction (24 – 31): There are seven friends gathering at a party. They were dressed in different colours of caps and ties. The colours of ties were – White, Grey, Yellow, Violet, Brown, Orange and Pink. The colours of caps were Blue, Black, Yellow, Green, Brown, Red and White. No one wore the same colour of cap and tie. P wore Black colour cap but not Pink or Orange tie. Q wore Grey tie. S wore tie of the same colour as the cap of R. Similarly, the colour of cap worn by T was same as the colour of tie worn by U. Neither the cap nor the tie worn by R was brown. V wore Violet tie and White cap. Q 24) Who wore Brown tie? a) S b) T

c) U

d) Data inadequate

Q 25) Which of the following person – cap – tie combination may be true? a) Q – Yellow – Grey b) U – Blue – Brown c) S – Brown – Yellow d) P – Black – Orange Q 26) Which of the given pair of persons wore the same colour of tie and cap respectively? a) P, V b) T, U c) R, S d) R, U Q 27) Which of the following person – tie – cap combinations is definitely false? a) R – Pink – Yellow b) T – Orange – Brown c) U – Brown – Blue d) None of these Q 28) If Q wore Green cap, what was the colour of the cap worn by U? a) Blue b) Red c) Either Blue or Red None of these Q 29) What was the colour of cap worn by U? a) Blue b) Red c) Green

d) Data inadequate

Q 30) What was the colour of cap that P wore? a) Black b) Green c) Brown Q 31) Whatcolour of tie T wore? a) Orange b) Pink

c) Either Orange or Pink

d) None of these

d) None of these

Direction (32 – 34): India is a multi – religion, multi – language and multi – cultural country where people belonging to different religions join in celebrating the festivities together. The Indian Government declares such big occasions as www.ibpsguide.com | www.ibpsguide.in | mock.ibpsguide.in | www.sscexamguide.com Copyright © 2016 IBPS Guide

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public holidays to enable the citizens to enjoy and foster feelings of brotherhood. Five broad – minded persons belonging to different religions were asked to give their preferences of four such festivals which they would like to enjoy with like – minded brethren. Their options are –: A. Holi, Dussehra, Diwali, Guru Nanak Birthday B. Shivratri, Christmas, Onam, Eid C. Holi, Shivratri, Christmas, Diwali D. Holi, Dussehra, Guru Nanak Birthday, Eid E. Christmas, Diwali, Onam, Guru Nanak Birthday Q 32) Which pair celebrates Christmas and Onam but not Dussehra and Holi? a) A and C b) A and E c) B and D d) B and E Q 33) Who enjoys Holi and Eid but not Diwali and Chhristmas? a) D b) E c) B d) C Q 34) Which pair does not participate in Eid and Onam but joins in Holi? a) D and E b) A and C c) C and D d) A and B Direction (35 – 38): There are six different companies namely – A, B, C, D, E and F, in which six friends – Jayesh, Gyanesh, Raghav, Akshay, Madhav and Kamlesh are currently working. Each one wears company sponsored different coloured shirt i.e. White, Black, Violet, Brown, Majenta and Red. The one wearing White coloured shirt works in company D and the one wearing Black colour shirt works in company A. Kamlesh does not work in company C or E. Jayesh wears Violet shirt and works in company B. Akshay does not work in company E and Majentacoloured shirt is not sponsored by company C. Madhav works in company F and neither Akshay nor Gyanesh works in company D. Company E does not sponsor Majenta or Brown coloured shirt and Raghav works in company A. Q 35) Which of the following company – person – shirt combination is true? a) C – Akshay – Black b) D – Raghav – White c) E – Gyanesh – Red d) C – Madhav – Brown Q 36) Which of the following is true? a) Company F sponsors Black coloured shirt b) Madhav wears Red coloured shirt c) Akshay works in company E d) Red colour is sponsored by company E Q 37) What is the colour of shirt that is sponsored by company C? a) White b)Black c) It cannot be ascertained d) None of these www.ibpsguide.com | www.ibpsguide.in | mock.ibpsguide.in | www.sscexamguide.com Copyright © 2016 IBPS Guide

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Q 38) Which of the following sequence of companies represents Jayesh, Gyanesh, Raghav, Akshay, Madhav and Kamlesh? a) B, A, E, C, F, D b) B, E, A, C, F, D c) B, A, E, D, F, C d) B, E, D, F, C, A Direction (39–43): Read the following information carefully and answer the questions given below it— Six exams Maths, science, History, Economics, English and Hindi are to be scheduled starting from 2nd March and ending on 8th march wit Sunday being an off day, not necessarily in the same order. Each of the exam has different time duration: 40 mins, 50 mins, 60 mins, 75 mins, 90 mins and 100 mins, again not necessarily in the same order. 8th march is not sunday and an exam of 40 mins is scheduled on that day. Maths exam is for less than 60 mins and is scheduled immediately before English exam. There are two exams scheduled between Hindi exam which is for 100 mins and History exam which is for 60 mins. English exam is before Sunday and there are two days between sunday and maths exam. Economics exam which is for 75 mins is not scheduled on 2nd march. The exam schedules on saturday is of 100 mins. Q 39. How many exams are scheduled before sunday? (a) Two (b) One (c) Five (d) Three (e) None of these Q 40. Which of the following combinations of exam - Day - Time Duration is correct ? (a) English - Wednesday - 75 mins (b) Maths - Thursday - 50 mins (c) History - Thursday – 60 mins (d) Hindi - Tuesday - 100 mins (e) None is correct Q 41. What is the time duration of science exam? (a) 90 mins (b) 75 mins (c) 50 mins (e) None of these Q 42. On which day is Economics exam scheduled? (a) Monday (b) Saturday (c) Tuesday

(d) 40 mins

(d) Friday

(e) Cannot be determined

Direction (44 – 50): Rajeev, Virat, Ajay, Shailesh, Umesh and Pranjal are six friends who joined a youth club. They play different games – Football, Cricket, Tennis, Basketball, Badminton and Squash. They belong to different states – Rajasthan, Uttar Pradesh, Karnataka, Gujarat, Maharshtra and Himachal Pradesh. The oldest person in the group plays Basketball and has Audi car. The youngest person in the group has BMW car and plays Squash. One who belongs to Maharashtra has Lexus car and he is older than the person who belongs to Himachal Pradesh and younger than the person who has Land rover car. One who has Aston martin car is older than the person who has Cadillac car. Shailesh play cricket and Pranjal plays Squash. Ajay, who plays Tennis is older www.ibpsguide.com | www.ibpsguide.in | mock.ibpsguide.in | www.sscexamguide.com Copyright © 2016 IBPS Guide

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than Shailesh and Umesh. Umesh does not play Basketball. When they are arranged according to their age, Ajay is between Virat and Shailesh. Virat plays football. For each of them the number of letters of their state‘s nameis same as the number of letters of the game which they are associated with. Q 44) Who is the owner of Aston Martin Car? a) Virat b) Ajay c) Shailesh d) Data inadequate Q 45) The person who plays cricket possesses which car? a) Land rover b) Cadillac c) Land rover or Cadillac d) Data inadequate Q 46) Who belongs to Maharshtra? a) Umesh b) Shailesh

c) Ajay

Q 47) Who is oldest among them? a) Virat b) Rajeev

c) Data inadequate

d) Data inadequate

d) Virat or Rajeev

Q 48) The person who is third from the top, when they are arranged according to decreasing order of their age, belongs to which state? a) Uttar Pradesh b) Gujarat c) Maharashtra d) None of these Q 49) The person who possesses Cadillac car plays – a) Tennis b) Football c) Cricket

d) Data inadequate

Q 50) The person who played football is in possession of which car? a) Aston Martin b) Lancer c) Either Aston Martin or Lancer

d) None of these

PUZZLES (Answers with Detailed Explanation) Direction (1 – 6) The table given below shows the grades assigned to the seven males and the female members are – :

Q 1) c)

Q 2) c)

Q 3) a)

Q 4) d)

Q 5) b)

Q 6) a)

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Direction (7 – 12): Based on the information given figure is drawn below – :

Q 7) c

Q 8)b

Q 9) d Q 10) a

Q 11)c

Q 12)d

Direction (13 – 17): Based on the information given figure is drawn below – :

Q 13)b

Q 14) c)

Q 15) b)

Q 16) b

Q 17) b

Direction (18 – 23): The tabulated data given below shows the students with courses they applied for in the respective centres of KY Classes set on the basis of the information given in the questions –:

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Q 18) c)

Q 19) c)

Q 20) d)

Q 21) d)

Q 21) d)

Q 23) a)

Direction (24 – 31): The tabulated data based on the given information is shown below:

Q 24) c)

Q 25) b)

Q 26) a)

Q 27) d)

Q 28) c)

Q 29) d)

Q 30) d)

Q 31) c)

Direction (32 – 34):

Q 32) d)

Q 33) a)

Q 34) b)

Direction (35 – 38): Based on the given information in the question the tabulated data is given below:

Q 35) c)

Q 36) d)

Q 37) d)

Q 38) b)

Direction (39 - 43):

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Q 39) e Q 40) b Q 41) d Q 42) a Q 43) d Direction (44 – 50) Based on the given information we get – The decreasing order of their age is – Rajeev >Virat> Ajay >Shailesh>Umesh>Pranjal And the table with the whole information is given below –

Q 44) d)

Q 45) c)

Q 46) a)

Q 47) b)

Q 48) d)

Q 49) d)

Q 50) c)

3. CODING-DECODING Directions (Q. Nos. 1-5) Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below it. Digits in the numbers are to be coded as follows Digits / Symbols Letters/ Codes

%

4

2

6

*

7

α

#

5

9

@

©

3

8

1

$

W

I

R

L

U

M

V

T

C

G

S

Z

K

O

F

Y

Conditions (i) If the first unit in the group is an even digit and the last unit is a symbol, both these are to be coded as the code for the symbol. (ii) If the first unit in the group is an odd digit and the last unit is an even digit their codes are to be interchanged. (iii) If both the first and the last units in the group are symbols, both these are to be coded as ‗X‘. Q 1. 9124α6 a) GFRIVL b) LFRIVG

c) GFRIVG

d) XFRIVX

e) None of these

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Q 2. 4@312α a) VSKFRV b) VSKFRI

c) XSKFRX

d) ISKFRV

e) None of these

Q 3. @91#26 a) LGFYRS b) SGFYRS

c) XGFYRX d) SGFTRL

e) None of these

Q 4. 387#©9 a) KMOTZG b) KOMZTG c) GOMTZK d) KOMTZG e) None of these Q 5. %4187* a) WIFOMU b) UNIFOMW c) XIFOMX d) UIFOMU e) None of these Directions (Q. Nos. 6-10) Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below it. Digits in the numbers are to be coded as follows Letter B Digit / 2 Symbol

I 9

J 7

G @

A %

K 4

E 5

H 8

D $

O #

F 6

Conditions: i) If the first and the last letters are vowels, both are to be coded as £. ii) If the first letter is a consonant and the last letter is a vowel, both are to be coded by the code for the vowel. iii) If the first and the last letters are consonants, both are to be coded by the code for the first letter. Q 6. OFDBJI a) #6$279 b) #6$27£

c) £$627£

d) £6$27£

e) None of these

Q 7. BGJEAO a) #@57#% b) #@%57#

c) #@75%#

d) 2@%57#

e) None of these

Q 8. HBIAFD a) 892%6$ b) 829%68

c) $29%6$

d) $92%68

e) None of these

Q 9. BKAEFJ a) 24%567 b) 24%652

c) 24%562

d) 74%562

e) None of these

Q 10. AEKDIB a) %54$92 b) %54$9%

c) 2%54$2

d) %5$492

e) None of these

Directions (Q. Nos. 11-15) Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below it. Digits in the numbers are to be coded as follows Digits

9

6

8

2

7

5

1

3

4

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Letters / Symbols

R

@

T

©

U

L

B

Q

%

Conditions (i) If the first digit is odd and the last digit is even, the codes for the first and last digits are to be reversed. (ii) If the first and the last digits are even, both are to be coded as *. (iii) If the first and the last digits are odd, both are to be coded as $. Q 11. 671254 a) @UB©L% b) $UB©L$

c) *UB©L*

d) %UB©L© e) None of these

Q 12. 215349 a) RBLQ%© b) *BLQ%*

c) $BLQ%$

d) ©BLQ%R e) None of these

Q 13. 591426 a) @RB%©L b) LRB%©@ c) @BR%©L d) $RB%©*

e) None of these

Q 14. 813469 a) RBQ%@T b) TBQ%@R c) TBL%@R d) *BQ%@* e) None of these Q 15. 794821 a) UR%T©B b) BR%T©U c) U%RT©B d) $R%T© $ e) None of these

Directions (Q. Nos. 16-20) Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below it. Digits in the numbers are to be coded as follows Digits 5 3 6 4 9 2 1 8 7 Codes Z P C H K V O R L Conditions (i) If the first as well as the last digits are even, both are to the coded by the code for the first digit. (ii) If the first as well as the last digits are odd, both are to be coded by the code for the last digit. Q 16. 397416 a) PKLHOP b) CKLHOC c) PVLHOC d) PKLHOC e) None of these Q 17. 562183 a) PCVORP b) ZCVORZ c) PCVORZ

d) ZCVORP e) None of these

Q 18. 734192 a) ZPHOKV b) LPCOKV c) LPHOVK d) LPHOKV e) None of these Q 19. 627851 a) PULRZO b) CVLZRO c) CVLRZO d) CKLRZO e) None of these www.ibpsguide.com | www.ibpsguide.in | mock.ibpsguide.in | www.sscexamguide.com Copyright © 2016 IBPS Guide

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Q 20. 812354 a) RLVPZH b) HOVPZH c) ROVPZR

d) HOVPRZ e) None of these

Directions (Q. Nos. 21-25) Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below it. Digits in the numbers are to be coded as follows Letters J A L S E Q G D K M B I N P R Number 8 5 # 9 2 £ 6 % 3 7 * 4 @ $ 1 / Symbol Code Conditions (i) If the first letter is a vowel and the last a consonant, the codes for the first and the last are to be interchanged. (ii) If the first letter is a consonant and the last a vowel, both are to be coded as the code of the vowel. (iii) If no vowel is present in the group of letters, the second and the fifth letters are to be coded as ©. Q 21. KQAPJE a) 3£5$82 b) 3£58$2

c) 2£5$82

d) 2£5$83

e) None of these

Q 22. EMANRB a) *75@12 b) 275@1*

c) ©75@2©

d) *75@1*

e) None of these

Q 23. JAQDKP a) 85£%38 b) $5£%3$

c) $5£%38

d) $5£3%8

e) None of these

Q 24. QDBGRM a) £%*617 b) £©*6©7

c) £%*167

d) % £*61©

e) None of these

Q 25. IKQLMS a) 43£#74 b) ©3£#7©

c) 4£3#74

d) 93£#74

e) None of these

Directions (Q. Nos. 26-30) Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below it. Digits in the numbers are to be coded as follows Letter A I H R U J W E K D F P M T Digit/Symbol

©

7

3

#

@

%

9

8

1

2

6

5

4

$

Conditions: i) If the first letter is a consonant and the last letter is a vowel their codes are to be interchanged. ii) If both the first and the last letters are consonants both are to be coded as the code for the first letter. www.ibpsguide.com | www.ibpsguide.in | mock.ibpsguide.in | www.sscexamguide.com Copyright © 2016 IBPS Guide

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iii) If both the first and the last letters are vowels both are to be coded as the last letter. Q 26. EWMAPH a) 89©435 b) 894©58

c) 894©53

d) 89©458

e) None of these

Q 27. DAIMWU a) 2©749@ b) @©749@ c) @©7492

d) 2©7492

e) None of these

Q 28. MUPRKE a) 8@5#18 b) 4@5#14

c) 4@5#18

d) 8@5#14

e) None of these

Q 29. AMTHDU a) @$423@ b) @4$32@

c) @4$32©

d) ©4$32@

e) None of these

Q 30. MARKET a) 4©#184 b) 4©1#84

c) 4©#18$

d) 4#©148

e) None of these

Directions (Q. Nos. 31-35) Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below it. Digits in the numbers are to be coded as follows Letter H Number © / Symbol Code

B 8

N 1

Z %

Y 5

G ?

P 3

M $

A 4

C 7

X 9

E β

D 6

O 2

U #

Conditions: (i) If both the first and last elements are vowels, the codes for the vowels are to be interchanged. (ii) If the group of elements contains a single vowel, that vowel is to be coded as the code for the element following it. (iii) If the second element is a vowel and the fifth element is a consonant, the vowel is to be coded as the code for the consonant. Q 31. PXUNCM a) $9#173 b) $91173

c) 39717$

d) 39117$

e) 39#17$

Q 32. DEHAZN a) 6β©441 b) 6©%4%1 c) 11©4%6

d) 6β©4β7

e) 6%©4%1

Q 33. MHCYBG a) $©758? b) ?©758$

c) $©?758

d) 758$©?

e) ?c57$8

Q 34. OMPCZA a) 2$37%4 b) 437$%2

c) 4$37%2

d) 2%37$4

e) 4$3722

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Q 35. OUBNYE a) β58152 b) β#8152

c) 2#815β

d) 25815β

e) β581#2

Q 36. If the word ‗TABLECLOTH‘ is coded as ‗XEMRANRIXT‘, how can ‗HOTEL‘ be coded? a) RIXAT b) TIXAR c) TAXIR d) RAXIT e) None of these Q 37. If ‗SPEAKER‘ is coded as 25-22-11-7-17-11-24s, then how will you cod ‗DANGER‘ in the same code? a) 11-7-20-16-11-24 b) 13-7-20-9-11-25 c) 10-7-20-13-10-24 d) 13-7-20-10-11-25 e) 10-7-19-14-11-24 Q 38. If ‗apple‘ is called ‗milk‘, ‗milk‘ is called ‗soap‘, ‗soap‘ is called ‗oil‘, ‗oil‘ is called ‗petrol‘ and ‗petrol‘ is called ‗apple‘, then which of the following will be used for washing clothes? a) Petrol b) Milk c) Apple d) Soap e) Oil Q 39. On another planet, the local terminology for ‗earth‘, ‗water‘, ‗light‘, ‗air‘ and ‗sky‘ are ‗sky‘, ‗light‘, ‗air‘, ‗water‘ and ‗earth‘, respectively. If someone is thirsty there, what would he drink? a) Light b) Air c) Sky d) Water e) None of these Q 40. If in a certain code language, ‗WORKING‘ is coded as ‗XQUONTN‘, then how is ‗GAMBLE‘ coded in that same code language? a) JDOCMF b) CLEMNK c) HCPFQK d) AELGMN e) None of these Q 41. In a certain code, ‗BANKEXAM‘ is written as ‗LOBCNBYF‘ and ‗COVERS‘ is written as ‗WPDTSF‘. How is ‗LATE‘ written in that same code? a) FUBM b) UFMB c) BMFU d) BMDS e) None of these Q 42. In a code language, ‗OPERATION‘ is written as ‗CXFBWYQCL‘, and ‗ORGANISATION‘ is written as ‗CBDWLQJWYQCL‘. How would ‗SEPARATION‘ be coded? a) JFXWBWYQCL b) EJXEBYQCL c) QCLYWBFXJE d) JFQYWBCXQL e) None of these Q 43. If ‗Chair‘ is known as ‗mug‘, ‗mug‘ is known as ‗glass‘, ‗glass‘ is known as ‗plate‘, ‗plate‘ is known as ‗spoon‘, then which utensil will be used for drinking water? a) Mug b) Plate c) Glass d) Spoon e) None of these Q 44. In a certain code language 'te da ka ni' means 'intelligence is in genes', 'se po lo ni' means, 'genes are not responsible' and 'ba da fu te' means 'intelligence is through experience'. What does 'ka' stand for in that code language? a) genes b) through c) intelligence d) in e) responsible Q 45. In a certain code BUILDER is written as JVCKSFE. How is SEALING written in that code? a) BTFKHOJ b) JOHKBFT c) TFBKHOJ d) BFTKJOH e) None of these Q 46. In a certain code PAGEDOWN is written as ' FHBQOXPE ', how is SANCTION written in that code? a) DOBTMNHS b) DOBTOPJU c) TBODSHNM d) TBODMNHS e) None of these

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Q 47. If the animals which fly in the sky are called ‗hunters‘, those living in water are called ‗snakes‘, animals who crawl are called ‗flying‘ and those which can walk are called ‗swimmers‘, then what will a lizard be called? a) Snakes b) Hunters c) Swimmers d) Flying e) None of these Q 48. 'EJ' is related to 'JO' in the same way as 'QT' is related to a) UY b) UX c) UZ d) VY e) None of these Q 49. If a 'bus' is called 'bike', 'bike' is called 'cycle', 'cycle' is called 'boat', 'boat' is called 'aeroplane', 'aeroplane' is called 'car' and car' is called 'scooter' which of the following can fly? a) Boat b) Aeroplane c) Car d) Cycle e) None of these Q 50. In a certain code ―BREADTH‖ is written as ―CQFZFSI‖. How is OCTOBER written in that code? a) PBUNCDS b) PBUCNSD c) BPUNCSD d) PBUCNDS e) None of these

Answer: 1. b 2. a 3. d 4. d 5. c 6. d 7. c 8. b 9. c 10. a 11. c 12. d 13. a 14. b 15. d 16. d 17. c 18. d 19. c 20. c 21. c 22. a 23. e 24. b 25. d 26. c 27. c 28. d 29. b 30. a 31. d 32. e 33. a 34. c 35. a 36. b 37. c 38. e 39. a 40. c 41. c 42. a 43. b 44. d 45. c 46. a 47. d 48. d 49. c 50. C

3. Coding-Decoding (Answer with Explanation) Q (1-5) 1. b) 9 1 2 4 α 6 ↓ ↓ ↓ ↓ ↓ ↓ L F R I V G (Second (ii) condition follows) 2. a) 4 @ 3 1 2 α ↓ ↓ ↓ ↓ ↓ ↓ V S K F R V (First (i) condition follows) 3. d) @ 9 1 $ 2 6 ↓ ↓ ↓ ↓ ↓ ↓ S G F T R L (no such condition is follow)

4. d) 3 8 7 # © 9 ↓ ↓ ↓ ↓ ↓ ↓ K O M T Z G (no such condition is follow) 5. c) % 4 1 8 7 * ↓ ↓ ↓ ↓ ↓ ↓ X I F O M X (Third (iii) condition follows) Q (6-10) 6. d) Condition (i) applies O F D B J I ↓ ↓ ↓ ↓ ↓ ↓ £ 6 $ 2 7 £ 7. c) Condition (ii) applies B G J E A O

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↓ #

↓ ↓ ↓ ↓ ↓ @ 7 5 % #

8. b) Condition (iii) applies H B I A F D ↓ ↓ ↓ ↓ ↓ ↓ 8 2 9 % 6 8

9. c) Condition (iii) applies B K A E F J ↓ ↓ ↓ ↓ ↓ ↓ 2 4 % 5 6 2 10. a) No condition follows A E K D I B ↓ ↓ ↓ ↓ ↓ ↓ % 5 4 $ 9 2

7 9 4 8 2 1 ↓ ↓ ↓ ↓ ↓ ↓ $ R % T © $ (Condition (iii) is applicable) Q (16-20) 16. d) 3 9 7 4 1 6 ↓ ↓ ↓ ↓ ↓ ↓ P K L H O C (no condition follows) 17. c) 5 6 2 1 8 3 ↓ ↓ ↓ ↓ ↓ ↓ P C V O R P (condition number (ii) follows) 18. d)

Q (11-15) 11. c) 6 7 1 2 5 4 ↓ ↓ ↓ ↓ ↓ ↓ * U B © L * (condition (ii) is applicable) 12. d) 2 1 5 3 4 9 ↓ ↓ ↓ ↓ ↓ ↓ © B L Q % R (none of the conditions is applicable) 13. a) 5 9 1 4 2 6 ↓ ↓ ↓ ↓ ↓ ↓ @ R B % © L (condition (i) is applicable) 14. b) 8 1 3 4 6 9 ↓ ↓ ↓ ↓ ↓ ↓ T B Q % @ R (none of the conditions is applicable)

7 3 4 1 9 2 ↓ ↓ ↓ ↓ ↓ ↓ L P H O K V (no condition follows) 19.c) 6 2 7 8 5 1 ↓ ↓ ↓ ↓ ↓ ↓ C V L R Z O (no condition follows) 20. c) 8 1 2 3 5 4 ↓ ↓ ↓ ↓ ↓ ↓ R O V P Z R (condition number (i) follows) Q (21-25) 21. c) KQAPJE - 2£5$82 Condition ii follows 22. a) EMANRB - *75@12 Condition ii follows

15. d) www.ibpsguide.com | www.ibpsguide.in | mock.ibpsguide.in | www.sscexamguide.com Copyright © 2016 IBPS Guide

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23. e) JAQDKP - 85£%3$ No condition follows 24. b) QDBGRM - £©*6©7 Condition iii follows 25. d) IKQLMS - 93£#74 Condition I follows Q (26-30) 26. c) EWMAPH - 894©53 No condition follows 27. c) DAIMWU - @©7492 Condition (i) follows 28. d) MUPRKE - 8@5#14 Condition (i) follows 29. b) AMTHDU - @4$32@ Condition (iii) follows 30. a) MARKET - 4©#184 Condition (ii) follows Q (31-35) 31. d) PXUNCM - 39117$ Conditions (ii) follows. 32. e) DEHAZN - 6%©4%1 Conditions (iii) follows. 33. a) MHCYBG - $©758? No condition follows.

34. c) OMPCZA - 4$37%2 Condition (i) follows. 35. a) OUBNYE - β58152 Conditions (i) and (iii) follow 36. b) According to question, T-X A-E B-M L-R E-A C-N L-R O-I T-X H-T Similarly, H-T O-I T-X E-A L-R 37. c) As S →+ 6 = 25 P →+ 6 = 22 E →+ 6 = 11 A →+ 6 = 7 K →+ 6 = 17 E →+ 6 = 11 R →+ 6 = 24 Similarly, D → + 6 = 10 A →+ 6 = 7 N →+ 6 = 20 G →+ 6 = 13 R →+ 6 = 24 E →+ 6 = 11

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38. e) Soap is used for washing clothes and here soap is called oil. 39.a) Water quenches thirst and here water is called as light. 40. c) As W →+1 = X O → +2 = Q R →+3 = U K →+4 = O I →+5 = N N →+6 = T G →+7 = N Similarly, G →+1= H A → +2 = C M → +3 = P E → +6 = K L → +5 = Q B → +4 = F

Similarly, S→J E→F P→X A→W R→B A→W T→Y I→Q O→C N→L

41. c) If BANK = KNAB = K +1 = L; N +1 = O; A +1 B; B +1 =C EXAM = MAXE = M +1 = N; A +1 = B; X +1 = Y; E +1 = F And COV = VOC = V +1 =W; O +1 = P; C +1 =D ERS = SRE = S +1 = T; R +1 = S; E +1 = F Then, LA = AL = A +1 = B; L +1 = M TE = ET = E +1= F; T +1 = U 42. a) O →C P →X E →F R →B A →W T →Y I →Q O →C N →L And O →C R →B G →D

A →W N →L I →Q S→J A →W T →Y I →Q O →C N →L

43.b) Glass is used for drinking water and here glass is called as plate. 44. d) te da ka ni → intelligence is in genes ...(1) se po lo ni → genes are not responsible ...(2) ba da fu te → intelligence is through experience ...(3) From (1) and (2), ni → genes From (1) and (3), da and te → intelligence and is \ ka → in 45.c) BUI = IUB = I+1 = J; U +1 = V; B +1 = C L -1 = K DER = RED = R +1 = S; E +1 =F; D +1 = E Similarly, SEA = AES = A +1 = B; E +1 = F; S +1 = T L -1 = K ING = GNI = G +1 = H; N +1 = O; I +1 = J 46.a) PAGE = EGAP +1 for all =FHBQ DOWN = NWOD +1 for all = OXPE Similarly, SANC = CNAS +1 for all = DOBT

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TION = NOIT +1 for all = MNHS 47.d) Lizard → flying 48.d) Each corresponding letter moves five places forward in the alphabet. 49.c) 'Aeroplane' can fly and 'aeroplane' is called 'car'. 50. c) As B +1 = C R -1 = Q

E +1 = F A -1 = Z D +1 = F T -1 = S H +1 = I Similarly, O +1 = P C -1 = B T +1 = U O -1 = N B +1 = C E -1 = D R +1 = S

4. INPUT - OUTPUT

Direction (Q. 1-5): Study the given information and answer the following questions: When a word and number arrangement machine is given an input line of words and numbers, it arranges them following a particular rule. The following is an illustration of input and its rearrangement. (All the numbers are two-digit numbers.) Input : rocking 18 available 50 reach 89 gave 33 process 81 23 goal. Step I: gave rocking 18 available 50 reach 33 process 81 23 goal 89 Step II: gave goal rocking 18 available 50 reach 33 process 23 81 89 Step III: gave goal reach rocking 18 available 33 process 23 50 81 89 Step IV: gave goal reach process rocking 18 available 23 33 50 81 89 Step V: gave goal reach process rocking available 18 23 33 50 81 89 Step V is the last step of the above arrangement as the intended arrangement is obtained. As per the rules followed in the above steps, find out the appropriate steps for the given input. Input: 23 technology 52 number 94 extra 31 playing 77 66 fabricate torcher Q 1. If in the last step all the words get rearranged in alphabetical order, which of the following words would retain its original position? a) fabricate b) extra c) playing d) number e) None of these Q 2. Which step number would be the following output? extra number playing torcher 23 technology 31 fabricate 52 66 77 94 a) Step III b) Step IV c) Step V d) There will be no such step.

e) None of these

Q 3. Which of the following would be the last step of the rearrangement? www.ibpsguide.com | www.ibpsguide.in | mock.ibpsguide.in | www.sscexamguide.com Copyright Š 2016 IBPS Guide

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a) IV

b) V

c) VI

d) VII

e) None of these

Q 4. In Step IV, if ‗extra‘ is related to ‗94‘ and ‗number‘ is related to ‗77‘ then ‗23‘ is related to which of the following, if the same pattern is followed? a) 52 b) 66 c) fabricate d) 31 e) None of these Q 5. Which of the following would be at the 7th position from the left in Step III? a) 31 b) fabricate c) 52 d) playing e) None of these

Directions (Q. 6-10): Study the following information and answer the given questions: A word and number arrangement machine when given an input line of words and numbers rearranges them following a particular rule in each step. The following is an illustration of input and rearrangement. Input: sanction payroll revenue 44 passenger otherwise 80 demonstrating information shipping 60 Step I: payroll sanction revenue 44 passenger otherwise 80 demonstrating information shipping 60 Step II : payroll sanction passenger revenue 44 otherwise 80 demonstrating information shipping 60 Step III: payroll sanction passenger information revenue 44 otherwise 80 demonstrating shipping 60 Step IV: payroll sanction passenger information demonstrating revenue 44 otherwise 80 shipping 60 Step V: payroll sanction passenger information demonstrating otherwise 80 revenue 44 shipping 60 And step V is the last step of the above input, as the desired arrangement is obtained. As per the rules followed in the above steps, find out in each of the following questions the appropriate step for the given input. Input: ―indignity quartz 58 premier 42 customer imagination salary dynamic 15 viewer 36‖ Q 6. If in Step IV ‗salary‘ is related to ‗36‘ and ‗customer‘ is related to ‗viewer‘, in the same way, ‗indignity‘ is related to which of the following? a) premier b) 42 c) 15 d) dynamic e) None of these Q 7. How many steps would be required to get the final output? a) Six b) Seven c) Five d) Four

e) None of these

Q 8. Which step number is the following output? ―salary customer indignity imagination dynamic 42 premier 15 quartz 58 viewer 36‖ a) Step V b) Step IV c) Step VI d) Step III e) There is no such step Q 9. Which of the following represents the position of ‗imagination‘ in the third step? a) 6th from the left b) 9th from the left c) 9th from the right d) 6th from the right e) None of these Q 10. Which word/number would be at the 5th place from the left in Step IV? a) dynamic b) 15 c) quartz d) premier e) None of these Directions (Q. 11-15): Study the given information and answer the following questions. A word and number arrangement machine when given an input line of words and numbers rearranges them following a particular rule. The following is an illustration of input and its rearrangement: www.ibpsguide.com | www.ibpsguide.in | mock.ibpsguide.in | www.sscexamguide.com Copyright © 2016 IBPS Guide

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Input: can now 18 16 27 all done 36 insert 49 Step I: 16 18 can now 27 all done 36 insert 49 Step II: 16 18 all can now 27 done 36 insert 49 Step III: 16 18 all can 27 36 now done insert 49 Step IV: 16 18 all can 27 36 done insert now 49 Step V: 16 18 all can 27 36 done insert 49 now Step V is the last step of the rearrangement. As per the rules followed in the above steps, find out in each of the following questions the appropriate step for the following input. Input: 57 19 professor male 28 correct 36 38 47 female doctor 51 study Q 11. What is the position of ‗male‘ in the final step? a) 7th from the left b) 2nd from the right d) 5th from the right e) None of these

c) 8th from the left

Q 12. Which step number is the following output? 19 28 correct doctor 36 38 female male 47 51 57 professor study a) Step V b) Step VI c) Step VII d) There is no such step.

e) None of these

Q 13. Which element is third to the right of ‗female‘ in Step V? a) 38 b) professor c) study d) 51 e) None of these Q 14. How many steps will be required to complete the arrangement of the given input? a) Five b) Six c) Seven d) Eight e) None of these Q 15. Which of the following is the third element from the left end of Step III? a) 38 b) 57 c) correct d) doctor e) None of these

Direction (Q. 16-20): Study the given information and answer the following questions: A word and number arrangement machine when given a particular input, rearranges it following a particular rule. The following is the illustration of the input and the steps of rearrangement. Input: you access 40 energy 29 nothing on day 5 18 Step I: access you 40 energy 29 nothing on day 5 18 Step II: access 40 you energy 29 nothing on day 5 18 Step III: access 40 energy you 29 nothing on day 5 18 Step IV: access 40 energy 5 you 29 nothing on day 18 Step V: access 40 energy 5 on you 29 nothing day 18 Step VI: access 40 energy 5 on day you 29 nothing 18 Step VII: access 40 energy 5 on 29 day you nothing 18 Step VIII: access 40 energy 5 on 29 day 18 you nothing Step IX: access 40 energy 5 on 29 day 18 nothing you And Step IX is the last step. www.ibpsguide.com | www.ibpsguide.in | mock.ibpsguide.in | www.sscexamguide.com Copyright © 2016 IBPS Guide

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Q 16. If the following is the II step of an input what will be V th step? Step II: Again 93 she 40 wins 13 Olympic 33 the 3 a) again 93 she 3 the 33 Olympic 13 wins 40 b) again 93 Olympic she 40 wins 13 33 the 3 c) again 93 Olympic 3 she 40 the wins 13 33 d) again 93 Olympic 3 she 40 the 13 wins 33 e) None of these Q 17. Which of the following is the last step for the Input ‗every 9 four ideal 22 3 under cost 5‘? a) cost every 9 four 5 ideal 22 under 3 b) every 22 ideal 3 under 9 cost 5 four c) every 22 under 3 ideal 9 cost 5 four d) every 22 ideal 3 under 5 cost 9 four e) None of these Q 18. Which step will be the last step for the Input ‗election 17 fees open 41 27 delay 15‘? a) IV b) V c) VI d) VII e) None of these Q 19. Which word/number will be at 4th from the left in step V for the given input in above question 3? a) 41 b) delay c) open d) 15 e) None of these Q 20. Which word/number will be 3rd to the right of ―41‖ in step IV for the given input in Q. 3? a) open b) delay c) 15 d) 17 e) None of these Direction (Q. 21-25): Study the given information and answer the following questions: When a word and number arrangement machine is given an input line of words and numbers, it arranges them following a particular rule. The following is an illustration of an input and rearrangement: Input: 45 native charge 33 48 dark total freeze 62 88 98 gold office 21 Step I: 45 native charge 33 48 dark freeze 62 88 98 gold office total 21 Step II: 45 native charge 48 dark freeze 62 88 98 gold total 21 office 33 Step III: charge 48 dark freeze 62 88 98 gold total 21 office 33 native 45 Step IV: charge dark freeze 62 88 98 total 21 office 33 native 45 gold 48 Step V: charge dark 88 98 total 21 office 33 native 45 gold 48 freeze 62 Step VI: charge 98 total 21 office 33 native 45 gold 48 freeze 62 dark 88 Step VII: total 21 office 33 native 45 gold 48 freeze 62 dark 88 charge 98 Step VII is the last step of the above arrangement as the intended arrangement is obtained. As per the rules followed in the given steps, find out the appropriate steps for the given input. Input: 35 quite head clear 50 65 98 slow giant 71 82 19 oliver music Q 21. Which of the following is Step III of the given input? a) quite 82 head 50 giant 35 clear 19 65 98 slow 71 oliver music b) head clear 65 98 giant 71 82 music slow 19 quite 35 oliver 50 c) head clear 98 giant 71 82 slow 19 quite 35 oliver 50 music 65 d) head clear 98 65 giant 71 82 music slow 19 quite 35 oliver 50 e) None of these Q 22. How many steps will be required to complete the given input? www.ibpsguide.com | www.ibpsguide.in | mock.ibpsguide.in | www.sscexamguide.com Copyright © 2016 IBPS Guide

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a) Five

b) Six

c) Seven

d) Eight

e) None of these

Q 23. What is the position of ‗music‘ from the left end in the final step? a) Sixth b) Seventh c) Eighth d) Fifth e) Ninth Q 24. Which element is fourth to the right of ‗giant‘ in Step V? a) clear b) 19 c) quite d) 98 e) 35 Q 25. Which of the following is the fourth element from the left end of Step VI? a) clear b) music c) 71 d) oliver e) None of these Directions (Q. 26-30): Study the following information toanswer the given questions. A word and number arrangement machine when given an input line of words and numbers rearranges them following a particular rule. The following is an illustration of input and rearrangement. (All the numbers are twodigit numbers.) Input: yellow jovial 48 cross truth 20 connect staff that 78 Step I: 20 truth yellow jovial 48 cross connect staff that 78 Step II: 20 truth 48 jovial yellow cross connect staff that 78 Step III: 20 truth 48 jovial 78 that yellow cross connect staff Step IV: 20 truth 48 jovial 78 that yellow staff cross connect Step V: 20 truth 48 jovial 78 that yellow staff connect cross Step V is the last step of the rearrangement. As per the rules followed in the above steps, find out in each of the following questions the appropriate step for the following input. Input: union magnet 89 chalk 21 absorb liverpool black honest 11 everyday Q 26. Which step number will be the following output? 11 honest 21 chalk 89 magnet union absorb liverpool black everyday a) Step II b) Step III c) Step IV d) There will be no such step.

e) None of these

Q 27. How many steps will be required to get the final output? a) Five b) Six c) Seven d) Four e) None of these Q 28. Which word/number would be the fifth from the right in Step V? a) magnet b) union c) 89 d) liverpool e) None of these Q 29. What is the position of ‗black‘ in Step IV? a) 9th from the left b) 11th from the left c) 2nd from the right d) 4th from the right e) None of these Q 30. If in a certain way ‗honest‘ is related to ‗absorb‘ and ‗chalk‘ is related to ‗black‘ then ‗magnet‘ would be related to which of the following in the last step? a) 21 b) union c) everyday d) liverpool e) None of these Directions (Q. 31-35): Study the following information carefully to answer the given questions. www.ibpsguide.com | www.ibpsguide.in | mock.ibpsguide.in | www.sscexamguide.com Copyright © 2016 IBPS Guide

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A word and number arrangement machine when given an input line of words and numbers rearranges them following a particular rule in each step. The following is an illustration of the input and its rearrangement. Input: song 72 excel owl 28 11 power 81 40 cut Step I: excel song 72 owl 28 power 81 40 cut 11 Step II: excel owl song 72 power 81 40 cut 11 28 Step III: excel owl cut song 72 power 81 11 28 40 Step IV: excel owl cut power song 81 11 28 40 72 Step V: excel owl cut power song 11 28 40 72 81 Step V is the last step of the above input. As per the rules followed in the above steps, find out in each of the following questions, the appropriate step for the given input below and answer the questions based on it. Input: collection 53 vitamin 49 33 article 45 application 23 ice 69 encourage best Q 31. What will be the position of ‗69‘ in Step IV? a) 9th from the left b) Fifth from the right c) Extreme left e) None of these

d) Extreme right

Q 32. Which step would be the following output? ‗application article encourage collection 53 vitamin 49 ice 69 best 23 33 45‘ a) IV b) V c) VI d) III e) VII Q 33. How many steps will be required to complete the arrangement of the above input? a) Four b) Five c) Six d) Seven e) None of these Q 34. Which of the following steps would be the last step but one? a) V b) VI c) VII d) IV e) None of these Q 35. Which word/number would be at the 9th position from the right end in Step V? a) collection b) vitamin c) best d) 53 e) 49

Directions (Q. 36-40): Study the following information to answer the given questions. A word and number arrangement machine when given an input line of words and numbers rearranges them following a particular rule. The following is an illustration of an input and rearrangement. Input: machine autograph 8 4 2 personality 9 on 6 venn 11 sender 7 Educator Step I: autograph 9 machine 8 4 2 personality on 6 venn 11 sender 7 Educator Step II: autograph 9 Educator 8 machine 4 2 personality on 6 venn 11 sender 7 Step III: autograph 9 Educator 8 machine 7 4 2 personality on 6 venn 11 sender Step IV: autograph 9 Educator 8 machine 7 on 2 4 personality 6 venn 11 sender Step V: autograph 9 Educator 8 machine 7 on 2 personality 11 4 6 venn sender Step VI: autograph 9 Educator 8 machine 7 on 2 personality 11 sender 6 4 venn Step VII: autograph 9 Educator 8 machine 7 on 2 personality 11 sender 6 venn 4 Step VII is the last step. As per rules followed in above steps, find out in each of the following questions the appropriate step for the input given below. Input: inflexible on 7 6 factory dollar 5 8 10 agree projects 2 9 immovable www.ibpsguide.com | www.ibpsguide.in | mock.ibpsguide.in | www.sscexamguide.com Copyright © 2016 IBPS Guide

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Q 36. Which of the following will be the step IV of the rearrangement? a) agree 5 dollar 6 factory 7 inflexible on 8 10 projects 2 9 immovable b) agree 5 dollar 6 factory 7 immovable 9 inflexible on 8 10 projects 2 c) agree 5 dollar 6 factory 7 immovable 9 inflexible 10 on 8 projects 2 d) agree 5 dollar 6 inflexible on 7 factory 8 10 projects 2 9 immovable e) None of these Q 37. Which of the following will be the last step of the rearrangement? a) IV b) VI c) VII d) V e) None of these Q 38. In step IV, if, in a certain way, ‗immovable‘ is related to ‗factory‘ and ‗9‘ is related to ‗7‘, which of the following would ‗8‘ be related to, following the same pattern? a) inflexible b) 9 c) on d) 6 e) None of these Q 39. Which of the following is second to the right of the one that is 7th from the right end in step IV? a) inflexible b) 8 c) 9 d) on e) None of these Q 40. What will be the position of ‗factory‘ in step V? a) Fifth from the right end b) Ninth from the right end d) Sixth from the right end e) None of these

c) Sixth from the left end

Directions (Q. 41 - 45): Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions. A word and number arrangement machine when given an input line of words and numbers rearranges them following a particular rule in each step. The following is an illustration of input and rearrangement. Input: new 11 bold 22 carve hundred 32 29 45 houses it 38 Step I: 11 22 new bold carve hundred 32 29 45 houses it 38 Step II: it new 11 22 bold carve hundred 32 29 45 houses 38 Step III: 29 32 it new 11 22 bold carve hundred 45 houses 38 Step IV: bold carve 29 32 it new 11 22 hundred 45 houses 38 Step V: 38 45 bold carve 29 32 it new 11 22 hundred houses Step VI: houses hundred 38 45 bold carve 29 32 it new 11 22 Step VI is the last step of the above input, as the desired arrangement is obtained. As per the rules followed above find the appropriate step for the given input Input: ice money 21 13 good 18 12 qualify 35 eligible 41 browse candidates 10 Q 41. Which step will be the last but one? a) IX b) VI c) V

d) VII

e) None of these

Q 42. Which of the following represents the position of ‗ice‘ in Step VI? a) Third from the left b) Fifth from the right c) Sixth from the right d) Fourth from the left e) None of these Q 43. Which word/number would be at the 5th position from the right in Step V? a) ice b) qualify c) 10 d) 12 e) money www.ibpsguide.com | www.ibpsguide.in | mock.ibpsguide.in | www.sscexamguide.com Copyright © 2016 IBPS Guide

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Q 44. How many elements (words or numbers) are there between ‗21‘ and ‗12‘ in Step VII? a) Eight b) Five c) Three d) Six e) None of these Q 45. How many steps will be required to complete the arrangement? a) VI b) VII c) VIII d) X e) IX

Directions (Q. 46–50): Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions. A word and number arrangement machine, when given an input line of words and numbers, rearranges them following a particular rule. The following is an illustration of the Input and its rearrangement. Input: treat 96 23 unable 48 brown 37 own 62 art Step I: 23 treat 96 unable 48 brown 37 own 62 art Step II: 23 37 treat 96 unable 48 brown own 62 art Step III: 23 37 96 treat unable 48 brown own 62 art Step IV: 23 37 96 62 treat unable 48 brown own art Step V: 23 37 96 62 48 treat unable brown own art Step VI: 23 37 96 62 48 unable treat brown own art Step VII: 23 37 96 62 48 unable own treat brown art Step VIII: 23 37 96 62 48 unable own art treat brown Step IX: 23 37 96 62 48 unable own art brown treat Step IX is the last step of the rearrangement. As per the rules followed in the above steps, find out in each of the following questions the appropriate step for the input given below. Input: ball 24 indicate 17 51 42 success hold 68 33 easy Q 46. Which of the following would be the second-last step of the rearrangement ? a) 17 33 51 42 68 24 easy indicate hold success ball b) 17 33 51 24 42 68 indicate easy ball hold success c) 17 33 51 68 42 24 indicate easy ball success hold d) 17 33 51 68 42 24 easy indicate ball success hold e) None of these Q 47. Which of the following would be the last step of the arrangement? a) VII b) VIII c) IX d) X e) None of these Q 48. In step IV, which of the following numbers/words would be at 7th position from the left? a) 24 b) ball c) 42 d) indicate e) None of these Q 49. Which step number would be the following output? 17 33 51 68 42 24 indicate ball success hold easy a) VI b) VII c) V d) VIII e) There will be no such step. Q 50. In step VI of the rearrangement, if ‗68‘ is related to ‗success‘ in a certain way, which of the following would ‗42‘ be related to, following the same pattern? a) indicate b) 51 c) success d) hold e) None of these www.ibpsguide.com | www.ibpsguide.in | mock.ibpsguide.in | www.sscexamguide.com Copyright © 2016 IBPS Guide

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INPUT-OUTPUT (Answers with Detailed Explanations) Q (1-5): The words are rearranged in increasing order of their length and in case of a tie, they are arranged according to the dictionary, from left to right. Numbers are rearranged in descending order from right to left. Each step arranges a word and a number. Input: 23 technology 52 number 94 extra 31 playing 77 66 fabricate torcher Step I. extra 23 technology 52 number 31 playing 77 66 fabricate torcher 94 Step II. extra number 23 technology 52 31 playing 66 fabricate torcher 77 94 Step III. extra number playing 23 technology 52 31 fabricate torcher 66 77 94 Step IV. extra number playing torcher 23 technology 31 fabricate 52 66 77 94 Step V. extra number playing torcher fabricate 23 technology 31 52 66 77 94 Step VI. extra number playing torcher fabricate technology 23 31 52 66 77 94 1. d; fabricate number technology playing 2. b 3. c 4. c 5. a Q (6-10): The machine rearranges the words that are not followed by number according to the number of alphabets in each word in ascending order. The words which are followed by numbers are placed thereafter in alphabetical order along with the numbers. Input: indignity quartz 58 premier 42 customer imagination salary dynamic 15 viewer 36 Step I. salary indignity quartz 58 premier 42 customer imagination dynamic 15 viewer 36 Step II. salary customer indignity quartz 58 premier 42 imagination dynamic 15 viewer 36 Step III. salary customer indignity imagination quartz 58 premier 42 dynamic 15 viewer 36 Step IV. salary customer indignity imagination dynamic 15 quartz 58 premier 42 viewer 36 Step V. salary customer indignity imagination dynamic 15 premier 42 quartz 58 viewer 36 6. b 7. c 8. e 9. c 10. a Q (11-15): The machine rearranges the numbers and words in such a manner that the numbers are arranged in each alternate step in ascending order while words are also arranged in each alternate step in alphabetical order. In each alternate step two numbers and two words are arranged. Input: 57 19 professor male 28 correct 36 38 47 female doctor 51 study www.ibpsguide.com | www.ibpsguide.in | mock.ibpsguide.in | www.sscexamguide.com Copyright Š 2016 IBPS Guide

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Step I: 19 28 57 professor male correct 36 38 47 female doctor 51 study Step II: 19 28 correct doctor 57 professor male 36 38 47 female 51 study Step III: 19 28 correct doctor 36 38 57 professor male 47 female 51 study Step V: 19 28 correct doctor 36 38 female male 47 51 professor study 57 Step IV: 19 28 correct doctor 36 38 female male 57 professor 47 51 study Step V: 19 28 correct doctor 36 38 female male 47 51 57 professor study Step VI: 19 28 correct doctor 36 38 female male 47 51 professor study 57 11. a 12. a 13. d 14. b 15. c Q (16-20): Word arrangement machine first arranges words having first letter vowel in alphabetical order, after that words having first letter consonant will be arranged in alphabetical order. Alternately the numbers are chosen such that greatest, lowest, 2nd greatest, 2nd lowest and so on. 16. c 17. b 18. c 19. d 20. b 16. Step II: again 93 she 40 wins 13 olympic 33 the 3 Step III: again 93 olympic she 40 wins 13 33 the 3 Step IV: again 93 olympic 3 she 40 wins 13 33 the Step V: again 93 olympic 3 she 40 the wins 13 33 17. b 18. Input : election 17 fees open 41 27 delay 15 Step I: election 41 17 fees open 27 delay 15 Step II: election 41 open 17 fees 27 delay 15 Step III: election 41 open 15 17 fees 27 delay Step IV: election 41 open 15 delay 17 fees 27 Step V: election 41 open 15 delay 27 17 fees Step VI: election 41 open 15 delay 27 fees 17 19. d 20. b Q (21-25): www.ibpsguide.com | www.ibpsguide.in | mock.ibpsguide.in | www.sscexamguide.com Copyright Š 2016 IBPS Guide

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Words are arranged in reverse alphabetical order and the numbers are arranged in ascending order. One word and one number is arranged in each step. The arrangement is done from right to left. Input: 35 quite head clear 50 65 98 slow giant 71 82 19 oliver music Step I. 35 quite head clear 50 65 98 giant 71 82 oliver music slow 19 Step II. head clear 50 65 98 giant 71 82 oliver music slow 19 quite 35 Step III. head clear 65 98 giant 71 82 music slow 19 quite 35 oliver 50 Step IV. head clear 98 giant 71 82 slow 19 quite 35 oliver 50 music 65 Step V. clear 98 giant 82 slow 19 quite 35 oliver 50 music 65 head 71 Step VI. clear 98 slow 19 quite 35 oliver 50 music 65 head 71 giant 82 Step VII. slow 19 quite 35 oliver 50 music 65 head 71 giant 82 clear 98 21. b 22. c 23. b 24. c 25. e; 19 Q (26-30): It first arranges one number and one word in each step till all the numbers are arranged in ascending order. The words that are arranged together with numbers are those words which are preceding the numbers in inputs. Rest of the words are arranged in reverse alphabetical order. Input: union magnet 89 chalk 21 absorb liverpool black honest 11 everyday Step I. 11 honest union magnet 89 chalk 21 absorb liverpool black everyday Step II. 11 honest 21 chalk union magnet 89 absorb liverpool black everyday Step III. 11 honest 21 chalk 89 magnet union absorb liverpool black everyday Step IV. 11 honest 21 chalk 89 magnet union liverpool absorb black everyday Step V. 11 honest 21 chalk 89 magnet union liverpool everyday absorb black Step VI. 11 honest 21 chalk 89 magnet union liverpool everyday black absorb 26. b 27. b 28. b 29. c 30. c Q (31-35): The machine rearranges one word and one number in each step. The words starting with a vowel are arranged first in alphabetical order from the left. When this is done, the words starting with a consonant are arranged in alphabetical order. The numbers are arranged in ascending order from the right end. Input: collection 53 vitamin 49 33 article 45 application 23 ice 69 encourage best Step I. application collection 53 vitamin 49 33 article 45 ice 69 encourage best 23 Step II. application article collection 53 vitamin 49 45 ice 69 encourage best 23 33 Step III. application article encourage collection 53 vitamin 49 ice 69 best 23 33 45 Step IV. application article encourage ice collection 53 vitamin 69 best 23 33 45 49 www.ibpsguide.com | www.ibpsguide.in | mock.ibpsguide.in | www.sscexamguide.com Copyright Š 2016 IBPS Guide

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Step V. application article encourage ice best collection vitamin 69 23 33 45 49 53 Step VI. application article encourage ice best collection vitamin 23 33 45 49 53 69 31. e; 8th from the left or 6th from the right 32. d 33. c 34. a 35. c Q (36–40): The machine rearranges one word and one number in each step. The word that comes first in alphabetical order is placed first and is followed by the number equal to the total number of alphabets in the word. Input: inflexible on 7 6 factory dollar 5 8 10 agree projects 2 9 immovable Step I: agree 5 inflexible on 7 6 factory dollar 8 10 projects 2 9 immovable Step II: agree 5 dollar 6 inflexible on 7 factory 8 10 projects 2 9 immovable Step III: agree 5 dollar 6 factory 7 inflexible on 8 10 projects 2 9 immovable Step IV: agree 5 dollar 6 factory 7 immovable 9 inflexible on 8 10 projects 2 Step V: agree 5 dollar 6 factory 7 immovable 9 inflexible 10 on 8 projects 2 Step VI: agree 5 dollar 6 factory 7 immovable 9 inflexible 10 on 2 8 projects Step VII: agree 5 dollar 6 factory 7 immovable 9 inflexible 10 on 2 projects 8 36. b 37. c 38. a 39. d 40. e Q (41-45) The machine arranges words and numbers in the following manner: Step I. The first two numbers are arranged in ascending order from the left. Step II. The first two words are arranged according to the number of letters present in the word. This process follows in each alternate step until all the numbers and words are arranged. Input: ice money 21 13 good 18 12 qualify 35 eligible 41 browse candidates 10 Step I: 10 12 ice money 21 13 good 18 qualify 35 eligible 41 browse candidates Step II: ice good 10 12 money 21 13 18 qualify 35 eligible 41 browse candidates Step III: 13 18 ice good 10 12 money 21 qualify 35 eligible 41 browse candidates Step IV: money browse 13 18 ice good 10 12 21 qualify 35 eligible 41 candidates Step V: 21 35 money browse 13 18 ice good 10 12 qualify eligible 41 candidates Step VI: qualify eligible 21 35 money browse 13 18 ice good 10 12 41 candidates Step VII: 41 qualify eligible 21 35 money browse 13 18 ice good 10 12 candidates Step VIII: candidates 41 qualify eligible 21 35 money browse 13 18 ice good 10 12 41. d 42. c www.ibpsguide.com | www.ibpsguide.in | mock.ibpsguide.in | www.sscexamguide.com Copyright Š 2016 IBPS Guide

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43. d 44. a 45. c Q (46–50): The arrangement machine rearranges one word/ number in each step. It rearranges odd numbers first in ascending order and then even numbers in descending order. It rearranges words starting with vowels in descending order and finally words starting with consonants in ascending order. Input: ball 24 indicate 17 51 42 success hold 68 33 easy Step I: 17 ball 24 indicates 51 42 success hold 68 33 easy Step II: 17 33 ball 24 indicate 51 42 success hold 68 easy Step III: 17 33 51 ball 24 indicate 42 success hold 68 easy Step IV: 17 33 51 68 ball 24 indicate 42 success hold easy Step V: 17 33 51 68 42 ball 24 indicate success hold easy Step VI: 17 33 51 68 42 24 ball indicate success hold easy Step VII: 17 33 51 68 42 24 indicate ball success hold easy Step VIII: 17 33 51 68 42 24 indicate easy ball success hold Step IX: 17 33 51 68 42 24 indicate easy ball hold success 46. c 47. c 48. d; Step IV: 17 33 51 68 ball 24 indicate 42 success hold easy 49. b 50. d; Step VI: 17 33 51 68 42 24 ball indicate success hold easy

5. ALPHANUMERIC Directions (1-5): These questions are based on the following letter / number/ symbol arrangement. Study it carefully and answer the questions that follow RDAK5VI2MJEN97UZV1W3H4FY8P6TG Q 1. Which element will be eighth to the left of seventeenth from the left end? a) M b) J c) 8 d) 5 e) None of these Q 2. How many such numbers are there in the above arrangement each of which is immediately preceded by a consonant but not immediately followed by a vowel? a) None b) One c) Two d) Three e) More than three Q 3. Four of the following are alike in a certain way based on their positions in the above arrangement and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group? a) E9J b) Z1U c) HF3 d) Y48 e) V25 Q 4. Which element will be sixth to the right of nineteenth from the right end? www.ibpsguide.com | www.ibpsguide.in | mock.ibpsguide.in | www.sscexamguide.com Copyright Š 2016 IBPS Guide

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a) 5

b) Z

c) V

d) 1

e) None of these

Q 5. Which element will be tenth to the right of fourteenth from the left end? a) F b) Y c) 8 d) P e) None of these Directions (6-10): These questions are based on the following letter / number/ symbol arrangement. Study it carefully and answer the questions that follow 24856&1 3 @ 6 4 5 2 # 9 7 1©3 € Q 6. How many pairs of numbers are there in the series highlighted in bold in the above arrangement each of which has as many numbers between them (in both forward and backward directions) as they have between them in the numerical series? a) One b) Two c) Three d) Four e) Five Q 7. Which of the following digit / symbol is second to the right of the tenth from the left end? a) @ b) 4 c) 3 d) 5 e) 2 Q 8. If all the symbols are dropped from the above arrangement, which of the following will be the twelfth from the right end of the above arrangement? a) 2 b) 5 c) 3 d) 7 e) None of these Q 9. How many symbols are there in the above arrangement, each of which is immediately followed by a perfect square? (One is also a perfect square) a) One b) Two c) Three d) Four e) Five Q 10. How many perfect squares are there in the above arrangement, each of which is immediately preceded by an even number? (One is also a perfect square) a) None b) One c) Two d) Three e) More than three Directions (11-15): These questions are based on the following letter / number/ symbol arrangement. Study it carefully and answer the questions that follow B2@#K8Q7%UTI*V9$MDP14F©AE3 Q 11. If all the numbers in the above arrangement are summed up and then divided by 2, then what will be the result? a) 9 b) 16 c) 18 d) 20 e) None of these Q 12. How many such vowels are there in the above arrangement each of which is immediately preceded by a symbol and immediately followed by a letter? a) One b) Two c) Three d) None e) None of these Q 13. What should come next in the following series based on the above arrangement? 2@K 7%T V9M ? a) M D 1 b) 1 4 © c) F © E d) P 1 F e) None of these www.ibpsguide.com | www.ibpsguide.in | mock.ibpsguide.in | www.sscexamguide.com Copyright © 2016 IBPS Guide

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Q 14. If all the symbols in the above arrangement are dropped, which of the following will be the tenth from the left end? a) M b) I c) V d) 9 e) None of these Q 15. Which of the following is the seventh to the left of the eleventh from the right end of above arrangement? a) % b) D c) $ d) 7 e) None of these Directions (16-20): These questions are based on the following letter / number/ symbol arrangement. Study it carefully and answer the questions that follow Z 3*5AB1$GD94UE!C6Q&2#IJY Q 16. Which of the following is fifth to the right of the nineteenth from the left end of the above arrangement? a) # b) Z c) Y d) 5 e) None of these Q 17. How many such consonants are there in the above arrangement each of which is immediately preceded by a symbol and immediately followed by a letter? a) None b) One c) Two d) Three e) None of these Q 18. How many such symbols are there in the above arrangement each of which is immediately preceded by a letter and immediately followed by a number? a) None b) Two c) Three d) One e) None of these Q 19. How many such numbers are there in the above arrangement each of which is immediately followed by a vowel? a) One b) Two c) Three d) Four e) None of these Q 20. If all the symbols are dropped from the above arrangement, which of the following will be the tenth from the right end? a) 4 b) C c) E d) 9 e) None of these Directions (21-25): These questions are based on the following letter / number/ symbol arrangement. Study it carefully and answer the questions that follow: 5DGE79$F16R%LIAJ3B#4@KP8UM2 Q 21. How many such numbers are there in the above arrangement each of which is immediately followed by a consonant but not immediately preceded by a vowel? a) None b) One c) Two d) Three e) More than three Q 22. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way on the basis of their positions in the above arrangement and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to the group? a) $9F b) R6% c) 8PU d) #B4 e) 3BJ www.ibpsguide.com | www.ibpsguide.in | mock.ibpsguide.in | www.sscexamguide.com Copyright Š 2016 IBPS Guide

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Q 23. If all the consonants are removed from the above arrangement which element will be fifth to the left of seventh from the right? a) 6 b) $ c) % d) 1 e) None of these Q 24. If all the symbols are removed from the above arrangement which element will be third to the left of thirteenth from the left? a) L b) R c) 6 d) % e) None of these Q 25. Which element will be fifth to the right of ninth from the right end if all the numbers are removed from the above arrangement? a) K b) @ c) P d) # e) None of these Directions (Q. 26-30): In a certain instruction system the different computation processes are written as follows: (i) a $ b «c means c is subtracted from the product of a and b. (ii) a @ b # c means a is multiplied by the sum of b and c. (iii) a l b e c means c is subtracted from b and the resultant is added to a. (iv) a © b % c means b is divided by c and the resultant is added to square of a. In each of the following questions, a set of instruction sequence is given. You are required to find out the outcome which should come in place of the question mark (?) in each of the given sets of sequence. Q 26. 17 $ 4 « 8 = t 7 © t % 15 = ? a) 11 b) 53

c) 13

d) 51

e) None of these

Q 27. 13 @ 4 # 3 = p p $ 5 « 55 = ? a) 45 b) 75

c) 340

d) 400

e) None of these

Q 28. b $ 15 « 18 = 42 b © 36 % 9 = ? a) 12 b) 16

c) 20

d) 18

e) None of these

Q 29. 5 © 49 % 7 = a a l 87 e 29 = ? a) 118 b) 108

c) 98

d) 80

e) None of these

Q 30. m l 78 e 56 = 50 m @ 7 # 13 = ? a) 560 b) 56

c) 280

d) Cannot be determined

e) None of these

Directions (31-35): These questions are based on the following letter / number/ symbol arrangement. Study it carefully and answer the questions that follow LF3#RN8A@Y4M©WP6HU9IK2E www.ibpsguide.com | www.ibpsguide.in | mock.ibpsguide.in | www.sscexamguide.com Copyright © 2016 IBPS Guide

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Q 31. If all numbers are dropped from the above arrangement, which of the following will be the fourteenth from the left end? a) I b) P c) W d) U e) None of these Q 32. How many such numbers are there in the above arrangement each of which is immediately preceded by a vowel? a) None b) One c) Two d) Three e) None of these Q 33. How many such consonants are there in the above arrangement each of which is immediately preceded by a symbol and immediately followed by a letter? a) None b) One c) Two d) Three e) None of these Q 34. If it is possible to make a meaningful word with the fifth, sixth, eighth, twelfth, twentieth and twenty-third letter of the above arrangement, which of the following will be the fourth letter from the left? a) E b) I c) N d) R e) Cannot be determined Q 35. Which of the following is sixth to the right of the nineteenth from the right end of the above arrangement? a) Y b) M c) 4 d) @ e) None of these Directions (36-40): These questions are based on the following letter / number/ symbol arrangement. Study it carefully and answer the questions that follow B#AR58E%MF4J1U@H2©9TI6*W3P#K7$YS Q 36. If all the numbers in the above arrangement are dropped, which of the following will be the eleventh from the right end? a) U b) T c) F d) H e) None of these Q 37. Four of the following are alike in a certain way based on their positions in the above arrangement and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group? a) 1 @ 4 b) © T H c) W P 6 d) # 7 3 e) 9 2 I Q 38. Which of the following is the twelfth to the left of the twentieth from the left end of the above arrangement? a) % b) W c) $ d) J e) None of these Q 39. Which of the following is the fifteenth to the left of the seventh from the right end of the above arrangement? a) J b) 4 c) F d) 1 e) M Q 40. How many such numbers are there in the above arrangement each of which is immediately preceded by a consonant and also immediately followed by a symbol? a) None b) One c) Two d) Three e) More than three www.ibpsguide.com | www.ibpsguide.in | mock.ibpsguide.in | www.sscexamguide.com Copyright © 2016 IBPS Guide

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Directions (41-45): These questions are based on the following letter / number/ symbol arrangement. Study it carefully and answer the questions that follow: W1R%4JE#7MTUI9BH3A$9FQ5DG6USP Q 41. Four of the following are alike in a certain way based on their positions in the above arrangement and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group? a) RW4 b) 5FG c) 9QA d) 3B$ e) 7ET Q 42. Which element will be eighth to the left of twentieth from the right end? a) W b) R c) % d) 4 e) None of these Q 43. Which element will be seventh to the right of eighteenth from the right end? a) A b) E c) $ d) # e) None of these Q 44. If the order of the last 15 elements is reversed which of the following will be fifth to the right of twelfth from the left end? a) U b) $ c) 3 d) 6 e) None of these Q 45. If the positions of E and A are interchanged and similarly the positions of R and U are interchanged then how many symbols will be there each of which is either preceded or followed by a vowel? a) None b) One c) Two d) Three e) More than three Directions (46-50): These questions are based on the following letter / number/ symbol arrangement. Study it carefully and answer the questions that follow !9BQ=$25RJ#L3@YME68*+DF4%H7& Q 46. How many such numbers are there in the above arrangement each of which is immediately followed by a number but not immediately preceded by a symbol? a) One b) Two c) Three d) Four e) None Q 47. Four of the following are alike in a certain way based on their positions in the above arrangement and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group? a) =5$ b) #@L c) %7H d) 8D* e) !Q9 Q 48. How many such numbers are there in the above arrangement each of which is immediately preceded by a symbol but not immediately followed by a letter? a) None ' b) One c) Two d) Three e) More than three Q 49. Which element will be thirteenth to the right of eleventh from the left end? a) F b) % c) H d) 4 e) D Q 50.1f all the symbols are dropped from the above arrangement which of the following will be the sixth from the right end? www.ibpsguide.com | www.ibpsguide.in | mock.ibpsguide.in | www.sscexamguide.com Copyright Š 2016 IBPS Guide

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a) R

b) 8

c) 5

d) 6

e) None of these

ALPHANUMERIC (Answers with Explanation) 1. a) Eighth to the left of seventeenth from the left end = 17 – 8 = 9th from left end = M 2. e) K5V N97 V1W W3H H 4 F Y 8 P P 6 T 3. d) E + 2 =9 ; E – 1 =J Z+2=1;Z–1=U H+2=F;H–1=3 Y–2=4;Y+1=8 V + 2 =2 ; V – 1 = 5 So Y 4 8 does not belong to that group 4. c) Sixth to the right of nineteenth from the right end = 19 – 6 = 13th from right end = V 5. b) Tenth to the right of fourteenth from the left end = 10 + 14 = 24th from left end = Y 6.d) Required pairs Hence, such pairs are 2 to 5, 2 to 6, 5 to 6, and 6 to 8. 7. d) Second digit/symbol to the right of tenth from the left end means 12th digit symbol from the left end means 5. 8. b) After dropping all the symbols, new arrangement is as, 2 48 5 6 1 3 6 4 5 2 9 7 1 3 Hence, Twelfth from right end → 5 9. b) There are two such symbols i.e.,& 1 and#9. 10. c) There are two such perfect square i.e., 24 and 64. 11. e) 2 + 8 + 7 + 9 +1+ 4 + 3/2= 34/2 = 17 12. b) %UT, ©AE www.ibpsguide.com | www.ibpsguide.in | mock.ibpsguide.in | www.sscexamguide.com Copyright © 2016 IBPS Guide

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13. b) 2→+1=@→+2=K→+3=7 7→+1=%→+2=T→+3=V V→+1=9→+2=M→+3=1 1→+1=4→+2=© 14. c) New arrangement: B2K8Q7UTIV9MDP14FAE3 Hence, tenth letter from the left is V. 15. a) Seventh to the left of eleventh from the right end = (11 + 7 =) 18th from the right end, ie %. 16. c) Fifth to the right of nineteenth from the left = (19 + 5=) 24th from the left, ie Y. 17. b) $GD 18. d) Q & 2 19. b) 5A, 4U 20. a) After rearrangement, Z 3 5 A B 1 G D 9 4 U E C 6 Q 2 I J Y. Hence tenth from the right end is 4. 21. c) 1 6 R and J 3 B 22. e) $9F this symbols and numbers are arranged in preceded by and followed by manner So ―3BJ‖ is not arranged in the above manner 23. d) New arrangement 5E«79$16%IA3#4@8U2 Fifth to the left of seventh from the right = 5 + 7 = 12th from right = 1 24. b) 5DGE79F16RLIAJ3B4KP8UM2 Third to the left of thirteenth from the left = 13 – 3 = 10th from the left = R 25. a) DGE«$FR%LIAJB#@KPUM Fifth to the right of ninth from the right end = 9 – 5 = 4th from right end = K 26. b) 17 $ 4 « 8 (17 × 4) - 8 [Use instruction (iii)] = 60 Hence t = 60 Now, we have www.ibpsguide.com | www.ibpsguide.in | mock.ibpsguide.in | www.sscexamguide.com Copyright © 2016 IBPS Guide

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7 © 60 % 15 (60 ÷ 15) + 72 [Use instruction (ii)] = 53 ? = 53 27. d) 13 @ 4 # 3 13 × (4 + 3) [Use instruction (i)] = 91 Hence p = 91 Now, we have 91 $ 5 « 55 (91 × 5) - 55 [Use instruction (iii)] = 400 ?= 400 28. c) b $ 15 « 18 = 42 (b × 15) - 18 = 42 [Use instruction (iii)] (b × 15) = 42 + 18 b=4 Now, we have 4 © 36 % 9 (36 ÷9) + 42 [Use instruction (ii)] = 20 ? = 20 29. e) 5 © 49 % 7 (49 ÷ 7) + 52 [Use instruction (ii)] = 32 Hence a = 32 Now, we have 32 l 87 e 29 (87 - 29) + 32 [Use instruction (iv)] = 58 + 32 = 90 ?= 90 30. a) m l 78 e 56 = 50 (78 - 56) + m = 50 [Use instruction (iv)] m = 50 - 22 = 28 Now, we have 28 @ 7 # 13 28 × (7 + 13) [Use instruction (i)] = 560 ? = 560 31. d) L F # R N A @ Y M © W P H U I K E www.ibpsguide.com | www.ibpsguide.in | mock.ibpsguide.in | www.sscexamguide.com Copyright © 2016 IBPS Guide

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32. b) U9 33. c) #RN, ©WP 34. e) Fifth letter → R Sixth letter → N Eighth letter → A Twelfth letter → M Twentieth letter → I Twenty-third letter → E 35. c) Sixth to the right of the 19th from the right end, that is (19 – 6 =) 13th from the right, ie 4. 36. e) B # A R E % M F J U @ H © T I * W P # K $ Y S 11th from right end is © 37.e) All values are 1+2=@;1–2=4 ©+2=T;©-2=H W+2=P;W–2=6 #+2=7;#-2=3 9–2=2;9+2=I So 9 2 I is not belong to that group. 38. a) Twelfth to the left of the twentieth from the left end = 22-12 = 10th from left end = % 39.b) Fifteenth to the left of the seventh from the right end = 15 + 7 = 22nd from right end = 4 40. c) H 2 © and K 7 $ 41. c) R–2=W;R+2=4 5–2=F;5+2=G 9+2=Q;9-2=A 3–2=B;3+2=$ 7–2=E;7+2=T So 9QA is not belong to that group 42. e) Eighth to the left of twentieth from the right end = 8 + 20 = 28th from right end = 1 43. c) Seventh to the right of eighteenth from the right end = 18 – 7 = 11th from right end = $ 44. a) New arrangement is W1R%4JE#7MTUI9PSU6GD5QF9$A3HB www.ibpsguide.com | www.ibpsguide.in | mock.ibpsguide.in | www.sscexamguide.com Copyright © 2016 IBPS Guide

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Fifth to the right of twelfth from the left end = 5 + 12 = 17th from left end = U 45. d) New arrangement W1U%4JA#7MTRI9BH3E$9FQ5DG6RSP ―U %‖, ―A #‖ and ―E $‖ 46. a) ―E 6 8‖ 47. c) =+3=5;=+1=$ #+3=@;#+1=L % + 2 =7 ; % + 1 = H 8+3=D;8+1=* !+3=Q;!+1=9 So ―%7H‖ is not belong to that group 48. b) ― $ 2 5 ― 49. d) Thirteenth to the right of eleventh from the left end = 13 + 11 = 24th from left end = 4 50. b) New arrangement 9BQ=25RJL3YME68DF4H7 Sixth from right end = 8 6. DIRECTION-RANKING Direction 1). Rahane walks 10 metres in front and 10 metres to the right. Then every time turning to his left, he walks 5, 15 and 15 metres respectively. How far is he now from his starting point? a) 10 metres b) 15 metres c) 5 metres d) 12 metres e) 7 metres 2). From her home, Jayanthi wishes to go to temple. From home, she goes towards North and then turns left and then turns right, and finally she turns left and reaches temple. In which direction her temple is situated with respect to her home? a) North-East b) North-West c) South-East d) South-West e) None of these 3). If all the directions are rotated, i.e., if East is changed to North and North to West and so on, then what will come in place of North-West ? a) East-west b) East-north c) North-east d) South-west e) None of these 4). A is to the East of X, which is to the North of Z. If P is to the South of Z, then P is in which direction with respect to A? a) South-East b) North c) South d) Cannot be determined e) None of these www.ibpsguide.com | www.ibpsguide.in | mock.ibpsguide.in | www.sscexamguide.com Copyright © 2016 IBPS Guide

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5). From her house Archana walked 50 m towards North. Archana turned right and walked 30 m. Again Archana went ten m to south How far Archana from her house? a) 10 km b) 8 km c) 3 km d) 5 km e) 4 km Directions (Q. 6-7): Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions. Orange is 50m towards the west of Red. Blue is 20m towards the north of Red. Green is 30m towards the east of Blue. White is 20m towards the south of Green. 6). If a person walks 20 m towards the north from Orange, takes a right turn and continues to walk, which of the following points would he reach the first? a) Green b) Red c) White d) Blue e) None of these 7). Which of the following points are in a straight line? a) Orange, White, Blue b) Blue, White, Green e) Orange, Red, White

c) Green, Blue, Orange

d) Red, Green, Orange

8). Amir is to the East of Kalam, Giri is to the South of Kalam and Sam is to the West of Giri. Amir is in which direction with respect to Sam? a) South-East b) North-East c) North-West d) South-West e) None of these 9). Four players Dhoni, Rohit, Kohli and Dhawan are standing a play filed in such a way that Rohit is to East of Dhoni, Kohli is to the South of Dhoni and Dhawan is to the North of Dhoni. In which direction of Rohit is Dhawan Standing? a) North – East b) South c) South-East d) North-West e) North 10). Prakash's house is to the right of Vikram's house at a distance of 20 metres in the same row facing north. Mohan's house is in the North- East direction of Vikram's house at a distance of 25 metres. Determine that Prakash's house is in which direction with respect of Mohan's house? a) East b) South c) North-East d) West e) None of these 11). Five persons Milan, Milap, Milun, Mirza and Misal are standing in a row. Milap is between Milan and Milun and Mirza is between Milun and Misal. If the distance of Milun from Milap is equal to the distance of Mirza from Milun, what is the relation between the distances of Milan to Milap and Milap to Misal? a) There is no relation in Milan, Milap and Milap, Misal b) Both are equal c) Milan, Milap is larger than Milap, Misal d) Milan, Milap is smaller than Milap, Misal e) None of these www.ibpsguide.com | www.ibpsguide.in | mock.ibpsguide.in | www.sscexamguide.com Copyright Š 2016 IBPS Guide

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12). From his house, Gokul went 15 km to the North. Then he turned West and covered 10 km. Then, he turned South and covered 5 km. Finally, turning to East, he covered 10 km. In which direction is he from his house? a) West b) East c) North d) South e) None of these 13). Arun goes 300 m to North and then turning to East he goes 400 m. Again he turns to his right and goes 200 m. After this he turns to his right and goes 400 m. How far is he from his starting point? a) 0 m b) 100 m c) 250 m d) 400 m e) 200 m Directions (Q. 14-16): Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions. Seven States Goa, Bihar, Kerala, Manipur, Karnataka, Assam and Rajasthan are situated as follows: Karnataka is 2 km to the west of Bihar. Assam is 2 km to the north of Goa. Kerala is 1 km to the west of Goa. Manipur is 2 km to the south of Rajasthan. Rajasthan is 2 km to the east of Kerala. Manipur is exactly in the middle of Bihar and Karnataka. 14). Goa is in the middle of a) Karnataka and Kerala b) Karnataka and Rajasthan c) Assam and Rajasthan e) Bihar and Assam 15). Which two states are the farthest from one another? a) Manipur and Kerala b) Assam and Karnataka e) Assam and Kerala 16). How far is Karnataka from Assam (in km)? a) 9 B) √30 c) 8 d) √18

c) Assam and Bihar

d) Rajasthan and Kerala

d) Rajasthan and Karnataka

e) 4

17). Prasath is travelling by Cycle. He travels 20 km and then turns right and travels 10 km, then he takes left turn and travels 5 km and finally he takes right turn. If now, he is facing West, from which direction did he started? a) North West b) West c) North d) East e) South 18). Tanav and Tanay are standing at a distance of 20 km from each other on a straight East-West road. Tanav and Tanay start walking simultaneously, eastwards and westwards respectively, and both cover a distance of 5 km. Then Tanav turns to his left and walks 10 km. ‗Tanay‘ turns to his right and walks 10 km and at the same speed. Then both turn to their left and cover a distance of 5 km at the same speed. What will be the distance between them? a) 10 km b) 5 km c) 20 km d) 25 km e) 15 km www.ibpsguide.com | www.ibpsguide.in | mock.ibpsguide.in | www.sscexamguide.com Copyright © 2016 IBPS Guide

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19). One day, Balaji left home and walked 10 km southwards, turned right and cycled 5 km and turned right and cycled 10 km and turned left and cycled 10 km. How many kilometres will he have to walk to reach his home straight? a) 22 km b) 5 km c) 30 km d) 25 km e) 15 km 20). The Bank is in the East of the Temple while my house is in the South of the Temple. The Airport is in the North of the post office. If the distance of the Airport from the post-office is equal to the distance of my house from the Temple, in which direction is the Airport with respect to my house? a) East b) North c) North-east d) North West e) South-west 21). Of the five fruits Apple, Banana, Grapes, Pears and Mango situated close to each other, Apple is to west of Banana, Grapes is to the south of Apple, Mango is to the north of Banana, and Pears is to the east of Mango. Then, Grapes is in which direction with respect to Pears? a) North-West b) South-East c) South-West d) Data Inadequate e) None of these 22). Nitish walked 30 km towards east and took a right turn and walked 40 km. He again took a right turn and walked 50 km. Towards which direction is he from his starting point? a) South-East b) West c) South d) South-West e) None of these 23). Raman walks 20 m North. Then, he turns right and walks 30 m. Then he turns right and walks 35 m. Then he turns left and walks 15 m. Then he again turns left and walks 15 m. In which direction and how many metres away is he from his original position? a) 25 metres West b) 20 metres East c) 15 metres West d) 20 metres West e) 45 metres East 24). Krishna walked from A to B in North, 100 m. Then, she turned to the left and walked 30 m. Again, she turned to left and walked 140 m. Now, how far is she from the starting point? a) 20 m b) 50 m c) 10 m d) 40 m e) None of these 25). Murali walks 10 km towards North. From there he walks 6 km towards South. Then, he walks 3 km towards East. How far and in which direction is he with reference to his starting point? a) 3 km North -West b) 9 km South – West c) 6 km North - East d) 5 km North - East e) Cannot be determined Answers: 1. c 2. b 3. d 4. e 5. d 6. b 7. e 8. b 9. d 10. b 11. d 12. c 13. b 14. d 15. c 16. e 17. c 18. a 19. e 20.c 21. c 22. d 23. e 24. b 25. d DIRECTION (Explanations) www.ibpsguide.com | www.ibpsguide.in | mock.ibpsguide.in | www.sscexamguide.com Copyright Š 2016 IBPS Guide

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The movements of Rahane are as shown in Diagram (A to B, B to C, C to D, D to E and E to F) Since FE = AB + CD, so F lies in line with A. Rahane's distance from the starting point A = AF = (DE – BC) = (15 – 10) m = 5 m.

It is clear from the diagram that temple is in North-west direction with respect to home.

South-west www.ibpsguide.com | www.ibpsguide.in | mock.ibpsguide.in | www.sscexamguide.com Copyright © 2016 IBPS Guide

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South West

J R = √42 + 32 = √16 + 9 = √25 = 5 km

6. Red 7. Orange, Red, White

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Amir is to the North-East of Sam

Hence, Rohit is in North - West direction of Dhawan

Prakash's house is in South direction with respect of Mohan's house

The position of all the five persons is as follows: Hence Milan, Milap is smaller than Milap, Misal www.ibpsguide.com | www.ibpsguide.in | mock.ibpsguide.in | www.sscexamguide.com Copyright Š 2016 IBPS Guide

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The movements of Gokul are as shown in diagram. (P to Q, Q to R, R to S, S to T) Clearly, his final position is T which is to the North of his house P.

Distance from starting point = MO – NO = 300 – 200 = 100 m

14). Clearly, Goa is in the middle of Rajasthan and Kerala www.ibpsguide.com | www.ibpsguide.in | mock.ibpsguide.in | www.sscexamguide.com Copyright © 2016 IBPS Guide

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15). Clearly, Assam and Bihar are the farthest from one another. 16). Required distance = Assam, Karnataka = Assam, Goa + Goa, Karnataka = Assam, Goa + Rajasthan, Manipur = (2 + 2) KM = 4 km

North

10 km

Here, Balaji starts from home at P, moves 10 km southwards up to Q, turns right and moves 10 km up to R, turns right again and moves 10 km up to S and finally turns left and moves 10 km up to T. Thus, his distance from initial position P = PT = PS + ST = QR + ST = (5 + 10) km = 15 km. www.ibpsguide.com | www.ibpsguide.in | mock.ibpsguide.in | www.sscexamguide.com Copyright Š 2016 IBPS Guide

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The positions of Temple, house, Bank and Airport are as follows: Hence the Air port is in the North-east of my house.

Hence, Grapes is to the South-West with respect to Pears

South – West

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The movements of Raman from M to R are as shown in figure. Since OP = MN + QR, so R lies in line with M. Raman‘s distance from original position M = MR = (MS + SR) = (NO + PQ) = (30 + 15) m = 45m. Also, R lies to the east of M.

Required distance (AE) = Square Root of 302 + 402 = 50m

Clearly, Murali moves from P 10 km north-wards up to Q, then moves 6 km southwards up to R, turns towards East and walks 3 km up to S. Then, PR = (PQ – QR) = (10 – 6) = 4 km; RS = 3 km. www.ibpsguide.com | www.ibpsguide.in | mock.ibpsguide.in | www.sscexamguide.com Copyright © 2016 IBPS Guide

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So, Murali's distance from starting point P =PS = √đ?‘ƒđ?‘… 2 + đ?‘…đ?‘† 2 = √42 + 32 = 5km. Also, S is to the North-east of P. RANKING 1). Among Dhanvi, Dhanya, Dhithi, Dhriti and Dhuthi, Dhriti is older than Dhithi but not as old as Dhuthi; Dhanya is older than only Dhanvi. Who among them is the youngest? a) Dhanvi b) Dhanya c) Dhithi d) Cannot be determined e) None of these 2). In a row of thirty-seven boys facing South, Arafath is eighth to the right of Mishra who is fourteenth to the left of David. How many boys are there between David and Arafath in the row? a) 4 b) 6 c) 8 d) Data inadequate e) None of these 3). Among Kaushika, Kaveri, Kavini, Kavita and Kavya each having a different weight, Kavita is heavier than Kaushika and Kavya and Kaveri is lighter than Kavini. Who among them is the heaviest? a) Kavita b) Kaveri c) Kavini d) Data inadequate e) None of these 4). Priya is 18th from the left end and Saranya is 11th from the right end of a row of 40 children. How many children are there between Priya and Saranya in the row? a) 10 b) 9 c) 12 d) 11 e) None of these 5). Among Suresh, Dinesh, Ganesh, Ramesh and Lokesh each having a different height, Ganesh is taller than Suresh and Lokesh but shorter than Ramesh and Dinesh. Suresh is not the shortest. Who among them is the tallest? a) Ramesh b) Dinesh c) Suresh d) Suresh or Lokesh e) Data inadequate 6). Nisha is senior to Divya but not to Radha. Latha is junior to Richa. No one is senior to Najima. Who is most junior? a) Divya b) Nisha c) Latha d) Data inadequate e) None of these 7). In a queue of children, Hameed is fifth from the left and Aruna is sixth from the right. When they interchange their places among themselves, Hameed becomes thirteenth from the left. Now what will be Aruna's position from the right? a) 4th b) 14th c) 8th d) 15th e) None of these 8). Five students took part in a race. Ramesh finished before Gokul but behind Teja. Lokesh finished before Balaji but behind Gokul. Who won the race? a) Ramesh b) Teja c) Gokul d) Lokesh e) None of these www.ibpsguide.com | www.ibpsguide.in | mock.ibpsguide.in | www.sscexamguide.com Copyright Š 2016 IBPS Guide

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9). Among Badal, Badri, Balan, Balbir and Baldev each one has secured different marks in an examination. Balbir secured more marks than Badal and Baldev. Badri secured less marks than Balan. Who among them secured third highest marks? a) Badri b) Balbir c) Badal d) Baldev e) Data inadequate 10). Zaheer is 16th from the left end in the row of boys and Munaf is 18th from the right end. Rahaman is 11th from Zaheer towards the right end and 3rd from Munaf towards the right end. How many boys are there in the row? a) Data inadequate b) 42 c) 40 d) 48 e) None of these 11). Among Taral, Taran, Tarik, Tariq and Tarit each having a different weight, Taran is heavier than only Tarik. Taral is heavier than Taran and Tarit but not as heavy as Tariq. Who is the third heaviest among them? a) Taral b) Taran c) Tariq d) Tarit e) None of these 12). In a row of thirty five children, Prem is fifteenth from the right end and there are ten children between Prem and Udaya. What is Udaya's position from the left end of the row? a) 15th b) 5th c) 30th d) Data inadequate e) None of these 13). Aravind is older than Gandhi. Praveen is younger than Gandhi and Karan. Karan is not as old as Aravind. Who among Aravind, Karan, Gandhi and Praveen is the oldest? a) Aravind b) Gandhi c) Aravind or Gandhi d) Data inadequate e) None of these 14. In a row of children facing North, Ganesh is twelfth from the left end. Karthik who is twenty-second from the right end is fourth to the right of Ganesh. Total how many children are there in the row? a) 35 b) 36 c) 37 d) 34 e) None of these 15). Ashok is 16th from the top and twelfth from the bottom in merit in the class. How many students are there in the class? a) 29 b) 28 c) 27 d) Cannot be determined e) None of these 16). Among five friends Naresh is taller than Natesh but not Namish. Namit is taller than Namish but not Nakul. If they stand in increasing order of their heights, who will be first in line ? a) Nakul b) Namish c) Natesh d) Data inadequate e) None of these 17). In a row of girls, Soundarya is 15th from the left and Hema is 18th from the right. If they inter-change their places, Hema becomes 15th from the left. How many girls are there in the row? a) 33 b) 48 c) 47 d) Data inadequate e) None of these

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18). Five women Nakula, Najma, Nalina, Nalini and Nalika read a newspaper. The one who reads first gives it to Nalina. The one who reads last had taken it from Nakula. Nalika was not the first or the last to read. There were two readers between Najma and Nakula. Najma passed the newspaper to whom? a) Nakula b) Nalina c) Nalini d) Nalika e) None of these 19). In a row of 40 students facing North, Prakash is 6th to the left of Gopinath. If Gopinath is 30th from the left end of the row, how far is Prakash from the right end of the row? a) 17th b) 16th c) 15th d) 26th e) None of these 20). Among Hriday, Hridik, Hriman, Hrithik and Hritish, Hriday is taller than Hridik but shorter than Hriman. Hridik is taller than only Hritish. Hriman is not the tallest. Who among them will be in the middle if they stand in the order of their heights? a) Hriday b) Hriman c) Hrithik d) Cannot be determined e) None of these 21). Among Rajan, Rajas, Rajat and Rajak, Rajan is older than only Rajak. Rajas is older than Rajat. Who among them is the oldest? a) Rajas b) Rajat c) Rajas or Rajat d) Data inadequate e) None of these 22). In a class of forty students, Jalal's rank from the top is twelfth. Dhoni is eight ranks below Jalal. What is Dhoni's rank from the bottom? a) 20th b) 21st c) 22nd d) 19th e) None of these 23). In a class of 20 students, Anjali‘s rank is 15th from the top. Varun is 4 ranks above Anjali. What is Varun‘s rank from the bottom? a) 10th b) 11th c) 9th d) 12th e) None of these 24). In a class of 10 girls and 20 boys, Deepika's rank is '4' among the girls and '18' in the class. What is Deepika's rank among the boys in the class? a) Cannot be determined b) 16 c) 14 d) 15 e) None of these 25). In a row of forty boys facing North, Yogesh is twelfth from the left end and Sankar is eighteenth from the right end. How many boys are between Yogesh and Sankar in the row? a) 10 b) 11 c) 12 d) Cannot be determined e) None of these Answer: 1. a 2. e 3. d 4. c 5. e 6. d 7. b 8. b 9. e 10. e 11. d 12. d 13. a 14. c 15. c 16. c 17. d 18. b 19. a 20. a 21. a 22. b 23. a 24. d 25. a

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RANKING (Explanations) 1).a) Dhuthi > Dhriti > Dhithi > Dhanya > Dhanvi Dhanvi among them is the youngest 2). e) David 1 2 3 4 5 Arafath 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 Mishra There are five boys between David and Arafath. 3).d) Kavita > Kaushika, Kavya and Kaveri < Kavini The heaviest among them can‘t be determined. 4).c) 17 + * # + 10 * - Priya # - Saranya Number of boys between Priya and Saranya = 40 – 18 – 11 + 1 = 12 5). e) Ganesh > Suresh, Lokesh Ganesh < Ramesh, Dinesh Suresh > Lokesh Ramesh, Dinesh > Ganesh > Suresh > Lokesh So, either Ramesh or Dinesh is the tallest. 6).d) Nisha > Divya Radha > Nisha Richa > Latha Najima is the senior most But no other data is there to find who is the junior most. 7). b) Clearly 6th position from right (Aruna) is 13th position from left. That means there are 13 + 5 = 18 children in the row. Hence 5th position from left will be 18 – 5 + 1 = 14th from right (Aruna‘s new position). Previous by Hameed – 5th Aruna – 13th 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 Present Aruna – 5th Hameed – 13th 8). b) Ramesh > Gokul Teja > Ramesh www.ibpsguide.com | www.ibpsguide.in | mock.ibpsguide.in | www.sscexamguide.com Copyright © 2016 IBPS Guide

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Lokesh > Balaji Gokul > Lokesh Hence, Teja > Ramesh > Gokul > Lokesh > Balaji Hence, Teja won the race. 9).e) Correct order can‘t be determined. 10).e) Total number of boys = 41. 11).d) Ascending order of weight : Tarik > Taran > Tarit > Taral > Tariq So, third heaviest is Tarit. 12).d) Since Udaya can be to the right of Prem 35 ---------------------------------- 15th---------------- 10 -------------- 4th Prem – 15th Udaya – 4th or to the left of Prem 9---------- 10th -------------------- 15th ----------- 14 Udaya – 10th Prem – 15th Udaya‘s position can‘t be determined. 13).a) Gandhi < Aravind; Praveen < Gandhi, Karan; Karan < Aravind Aravind > Karan / Gandhi > Praveen 14).c) Total number of children in a row = 12 + 4 + 22 – 1 = 37 15).c) Total number of students in the class = 16 + 12 - 1 =27 16).c) Namish > Naresh > Natesh Nakul > Namit > Namish Natesh < Naresh < Namish < Namit < Nakul 17).d) In order to solve this question, we must know the position of either Soundarya or Hema from both the ends. 18).b) From the information given in the question, the newspaper was read in the following order www.ibpsguide.com | www.ibpsguide.in | mock.ibpsguide.in | www.sscexamguide.com Copyright © 2016 IBPS Guide

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Najma, Nalina, Nalika, Nakula, Nalini. Hence Najma passed the newspaper to Nalina. 19).a) 23 + * + + + + + + # + 10 * - Prakash # - Gopinath Prakash's position from the right end of the row = 40 – 23 = 17th 20).a) Hrithik > Hriman > Hriday > Hridik > Hritish A will be in the middle if they stand in the order of the height. 21).a) Rajan > Rajak, Rajas > Rajat Rajas > Rajat > Rajan > Rajak (Rajan is older than only Rajak) Hence, Rajas is the eldest. 22).b) Total students = 40 12 + + + + + + Jalal Dhoni's rank from bottom = 40 – (12 + 8) + 1 = 21st

+ 20 Dhoni

23).a) Varun‘s rank from the top = 15 – 4 = 11th. Varun‘s rank from the bottom = 20 + 1 – 11 = 10th 24).d) 3 Girls are ahead of Deepika. 14 Boys are ahead of Deepika. Deepika's rank is 15th among the boys in the class. 25).a) Yogesh = 12th from left Sankar = 18th from right = (40 – 18 + 1) = 23rd from left No. of boys between Yogesh and Sankar = 23 – 12 – 1 = 10

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7. EQUALITY-INEQUALITY Q 1 – 5) As per the given information below, answer the questions that follows –  P @ Q means P is smaller than Q  P % Q means P is greater than Q  P ¥ Q means P is neither greater than nor less than Q  P $ Q means P is either smaller than or equal to Q  P # Q means P is either greater than or equal to Q Now in each of the following questions assuming the given statements to be true, choose amongst the correct options for the questions given below: Q 1). A@B, B¥Q, Q$H, H@R, R¥S Conclusion 1 –A@S Conclusion2 – Q%S a) If only conclusion 1 is true b) If only conclusion 2 is true c) If either conclusion 1 or conclusion 2 is true d) None of these Q 2). M#N, N¥J, J%B, B¥K, K#H Conclusion 1 – M#N Conclusion 2 – J%H a) If only conclusion 1 is true b) If only conclusion 2 is true c) If either conclusion 1 or conclusion 2 is true d) If both conclusion 1 &conclusion 2 are true Q 3). U¥V, V$X, X¥Y,Y%Z, Z #A Conclusion 1 – U@Y Conclusion 2 - U¥Y a) If only conclusion 1 is true b) If only conclusion 2 is true c) If either conclusion 1 or conclusion 2 is true d) If both conclusion 1 and conclusion 2 are true Q 4). C@D, D%E, E$F, F#G, G¥H Conclusion 1 –C$F Conclusion 2 – D@F a) If only conclusion 1 is true b) If only conclusion 2 is true c) If either conclusion 1 or conclusion 2 is true d) Neither conclusion 1 nor conclusion2 follows Q 5). G%K, K$H, H#N, N¥T, T@B Conclusion 1 – H%N Conclusion 2 - H¥N a) If only conclusion 1 is true b) If only conclusion 2 is true c) If both conclusion 1 and conclusion 2 are true d) None of these www.ibpsguide.com | www.ibpsguide.in | mock.ibpsguide.in | www.sscexamguide.com Copyright © 2016 IBPS Guide

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Q Directions (6 – 10): In these questions, the relationship between different elements is shown in the statements. Give answer: a) If only conclusion I follows b) If only conclusion II follows c) If either conclusion I or II follows d) If neither conclusion I nor II follows e) If both conclusion I and IIfollow Q 6). Statements: A = B ≠ E > T Conclusions: I. A ≥ T II. A < T Q 7). Statements: S > O ≥ F ≤ T Conclusions: I. O > T II. O ≤ T Q 8). Statements: C = A ≠ P Conclusions: I. P > C II. P < C Q 9). Statements: D ≥ A ≥ Y, S = Y Conclusions: I. D > S II. D = Y Q 10). Statements: I > D > E ≠ A = L Conclusions: I. I ≥ L II. I < L Q 11 – 15) Answer the question on the basis of the statements given below :  U@V means U is less than V  U$V means U is either less than or equal to V  U#V means U is greater than V  U%V means U is either greater than or equal to V  U©V means U is neither greater than nor less than V Q 11). T#R, R%H, H@F Conclusion 1 – H@T Conclusion 2 – F©T a) If only conclusion 1 is true b) If only conclusion 2 is true c) If either conclusion 1 or conclusion 2 is true d) None of these Q 12) L$K, K@M, J%M Conclusion 1 – L@M Conclusion 2 – K@J a) If only conclusion 1 is true b) If only conclusion 2 is true c) If both conclusion 1 and conclusion 2 is true d) None of these Q 13). F©D, D#V, V@P www.ibpsguide.com | www.ibpsguide.in | mock.ibpsguide.in | www.sscexamguide.com Copyright © 2016 IBPS Guide

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Conclusion 1 – F©P Conclusion 2 –V@F a) If only conclusion 1 is true b) If either conclusion 1 or conclusion 2 is true c) If both conclusion 1 and conclusion 2 is true d) None of these Q 14). E$W, W@Q, Q%H Conclusion 1 – E$Q Conclusion 2 – E©H a) If only conclusion 1 is true b) If only conclusion 2 is true c) If both conclusion 1 or conclusion 2 is true d) None of these Q 15). J©T, T#W, W%R Conclusion 1 – J#R Conclusion 2 – T%R a) If only conclusion 2 is true b) If either concusion 1 or conclusion 2 is true c) If only conclusion 1 is true d) None of these Directions(16 – 21) Answer the question on the basis of the statements given below :  X%Y means X is smaller than Y  X©Y means X is either smaller than or equal to Y  X*Y means X is neither greater than nor smaller than Y  X@Y means X is greater than Y  X$Y means X is either greater than or equal to Y Q 16). M@D, D©W, W*B Conclusion 1 – B$D Conclusion 2 – M@B a) If either conclusion 1 or conclusion 2 is true b) If both conclusion 1 and conclusion 2 is true c) If only conclusion 1 is true d) None of these Q 17). H*B, B$A, A%R Conclusion 1 – R@H Conclusion 2 – A©H a) If either conclusion 1 or conclusion 2 is true b) If both conclusion 1 and conclusion 2 is true c) If only conclusion 1 is true d) If only conclusion 2 is true Q 18). B$D, D@J, J%M Conclusion 1 – J%B Conclusion 2 – M@D a) If neither conclusion 1 nor conclusion 2 is true b) If only conclusion 2 true c) If only conclusion 1 is true www.ibpsguide.com | www.ibpsguide.in | mock.ibpsguide.in | www.sscexamguide.com Copyright © 2016 IBPS Guide

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d) None of these Q 19). R@M, M*K, K©T Conclusion 1 – T@M Conclusion 2 – T*M a) If neither conclusion 1 nor conclusion 2 is true b) If only conclusion 2 is true c) If either conclusion 1 or conclusion 2 is true d) None of these Q 20). J$N, N%D, D@F Conclusion 1 – F%N Conclusion 2 – J@D a) If only conclusion 1 is true b) If only conclusion 2 is true c) If neither conclusion 1 and conclusion 2 is true d) None of these Q 21). K%N, N*J, J©F Conclusion 1 – F$N Conclusion 2 – J@K a) If only conclusion 1 is true b) If only conclusion 2 is true c) If both conclusion 1 and conclusion 2 is true d) None of these Q 22). Z ≥ U = T ; T < W ; R ≥ W ; Q = R Conclusion 1 – Z ≥ Q Conclusion 2 – Z ≤ W a) If only conclusion 1 is true b) If only conclusion 2 is true c) If either conclusion 1 or conclusion 2 is true d) None of these Q 23). Z ≥ U = T ; T < W ; R ≥ W ; Q = R Conclusion 1 – T < Q Conclusion 2 – W > Q a) If only conclusion 1 is true b) If only conclusion 2 is true c) If either conclusion 1 or conclusion 2 is true d) None of these Directions (24 – 30): Answer the questions as per the information given below :  U©V means U is not smaller than V  U*V means U is not greater than V  U@V means U is neither greater than nor smaller than V  U$V means U is neither smaller than nor equal to V  U%V means U is neither greater than nor equal to V Q 24). K©L, L%O, O@M, M*N www.ibpsguide.com | www.ibpsguide.in | mock.ibpsguide.in | www.sscexamguide.com Copyright © 2016 IBPS Guide

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Conclusions : 1 – N©O a) Only 1 is true b) Only 2 is true c) Both 1 & 2 are true d) None of these

2 – M$L

Q 25). A*B, B$C, C%D, D©E Conclusions : 1 – D$A 2 – B$D a) Only 1 is true b) Either 1 or 2 is true c) Neither of the conclusions is true d) None of these Q 26). F$P, P@R, R©S, S%T Conclusions : 1 –R%F 2 – S*P a) Only 1, 2 & 3 are true b) Only 1 & 2 are true c) Only 3 & 4 are true d) Only 1, 2 & 4 are true Q 27). G%H, H*I, I$J, J@K Conclusions : 1 – G%I 2 – G%J a) Only 1 is true b) Only 2 is true c) Only 1, 2 & 3 are true d) Only either 1 or 2 and 3 are true Q 28). V@W, W%X, X*Y, Y$Z Conclusions : 1 – Z$X 2 – Y©V a) Only 1 & 3 are true b) Only 2 is true c) None is true d) Only 3 is true Q 29) R%S, S@T, T©U, U$V Conclusions : 1 – R@V 2 – S©U a) Only 1 & 2 are true b) Only 2 is true c) None is true d) Only 2, 3 & 4 are true Q 30). P©S, S@T, T$U, U*V Conclusions : 1 – P$U 2 – U%S a) Only 1 & 3 are true b) Only 4 is true

3 – K*N

4 – L@N

3 – E%C

4 – A@E

3 – P©T

4 – S%F

3 – K$I

4 – H*J

3 – W%Y

4 – Y@W

3 – R%T

4 – T$V

3 – V$T

4 – T*V

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c) Only 1 and 2 and either 3 or 4 is true d) None of these Direction (31 – 38): Answer the Questions as per the information given below :  J@K means J is neither smaller than nor equal to K  J#K means J is not greater than K  J$K means J is not smaller than K  J%K means J is neither greater than nor smaller than K  J&K means J is neither greater than nor equal to K Q 31). D&T, R#T, R$M Conclusion 1 – M&T Conclusion 2 – M%T a) If only conclusion 1 is true‘ b) If only conclusion 2 is true c) If either conclusion 1 or conclusion 2 is true d) None of these Q 32). E%H, H$M, M#Q Conclusion 1 – H$Q Conclusion 2 – E$M a) If only conclusion 1 is true b) If only conclusion 2 is true c) If either conclusion 1 or conclusion 2 is true d) If neither conclusion 1 nor conclusion 2 is true Q 33). F$D, H#M, M%D Conclusion 1 – F$H Conclusion 2 – F@H a) If only conclusion 1 is true b) If only conclusion 2 is true c) If either conclusion 1 or conclusion 2 is true d) None of these Q 34). G#H, H$K, K@M Conclusion 1 – M#G Conclusion 2 – G&M a) If only conclusion 2 is true b) If only conclusion 1 is true c) If either conclusion 1 or conclusion 2 is true d) If neitherconclusion 1 nor conclusion 2 is true Q 35). R&M, M#L, L$Q Conclusion 1 – M%Q Conclusion 2 – M@Q a) If conclusion 1 is true b) If conclusion 2 is true c) If either conclusion 1 or conclusion 2 is true d) If neither conclusion 1 nor conclusion 2 is true www.ibpsguide.com | www.ibpsguide.in | mock.ibpsguide.in | www.sscexamguide.com Copyright © 2016 IBPS Guide

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Q 36). F#R, Q$R, Q&M Conclusion 1 – F#Q Conclusion 2 – R&M a) If only conclusion 1 is true b) If only conclusion 2 is true c) If either conclusion 1 or conclusion 2 is true d) If both conclusion 1 and conclusion 2 are true Q 37). S#A, S@T, L&T Conclusion 1 – L&A Conclusion 2 – S@L a) If only conclusion 1 is true b) If only conclusion 2 is true c) If both conclusion 1 and conclusion 2 are true d) If neither conclusion 1 nor conclusion 2 is true Q 38). G$J, J@K, K%N Conclusion 1 – G@N Conclusion 2 – G%N a) If both conclusion 1 and conclusion 2 are true b) If only conclusion 2 is true c) If only conclusion 1 is true d) If neither conclusion 1 nor conclusion 2 is true Directions (39 – 40): In the given Questions the following statements are given as per the given questions, find out which of the conclusions given are true according to the statements given : Q 39) Statements: R=K, T≤K , T≥M, M<W Conclusions : 1 – W<K 2 – M ≤R 3 – K≤R a) Only 1 is true b) Only 2 is true c) Only 1 and 2 are true d) Only 2 and 3 are true Q 40). Statements :B>N, N≥R, H≤R Conclusions : 1 – B>R 2 – H≤N a) Only 1 and 2 are true b) Only 2 and 3 are true c) Only 1 and 3 are true d) All 1, 2 and 3 are true

3 – H<N

Directions(41 – 45): In these questions, relationship between different elements is shown in the statements. The statements are followed by two conclusions. Give answers – Q 41). Statements :J>A=K<D<E>F Conclusion 1 – F<K Conclusion 2 – J>D a) If only conclusion 1 is true b) If only conclusion 2 is true c) If either conclusion or conclusion 2 is true d) If neither conclusion 1 nor conclusion 2 is true www.ibpsguide.com | www.ibpsguide.in | mock.ibpsguide.in | www.sscexamguide.com Copyright © 2016 IBPS Guide

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e) If both conclusions 1 and 2 are true Q 42). Statements :Q=R>T>X>Y; K<T Conclusion 1 –K<Q Conclusion2 – Y<T a) If only Conclusion I is true b) If only Conclusion II is true c) If either Conclusion I or II is true d) If neither Conclusion I nor II is true e) If both Conclusions I and II are true Q 43). Statements :T<J>S>P; T>F; P>G Conclusion 1 – G>J Conclusion 2 – J>F a) If only Conclusion I is true b) If only Conclusion II is true c) If either conclusion or conclusion 2 is true d) If neither Conclusion I nor II is true e) If both Conclusions I and II are true Q 44). Statements :U=V<X>Y; W>X<Z Conclusion 1 – W>U Conclusion 2 – Z>Y a) If only Conclusion I is true b) If only Conclusion II is true c) If either Conclusion I or II is true d) If neither Conclusion I nor II is true e) If both Conclusions I and II are true Q 45). Statements :A > B = C; D < C > E Conclusion 1 – D < AConclusion 2 – E < A a) If only Conclusion I is true b) If only Conclusion II is true c) If either conclusion or conclusion 2 is true d) If neither conclusion or conclusion 2 is true e) If both Conclusions I and II are true Directions(46 – 50):In the following questions, thesymbols @, #, %, $ and * are used with the followingmeaning as illustrated below.  ‘S @ T’ means ‘S is not smaller than T  ‘S # T’ means ‘S is neither smaller than nor equal to T’  ‘S % T’ means ‘S is neither smaller than nor greater than T’  ‘S $ T’ means ‘S is not greater than T’  ‘S * T’ means ‘S is neither greater than nor equal to T’ Q 46). Statements: L#M, N@O, M*P, O%L Conclusion 1 – N*P Conclusion 2 – N@P a) If only conclusion 2 is true www.ibpsguide.com | www.ibpsguide.in | mock.ibpsguide.in | www.sscexamguide.com Copyright © 2016 IBPS Guide

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b) c) d) e)

If either conclusion or conclusion 2 is true If both Conclusions I and II are true If only conclusion 1 is true If neither conclusion 1 nor conclusion 2 is true

Q 47). Statements: U*V, Y#Z, X$Y, W%X, V*W Conclusion 1 – U#Z Conclusion 2 – V*Y a) If only conclusion 1 is true b) If either conclusion or conclusion 2 is true c) If only conclusion 2 is true d) If both conclusions 1 and conclusion 2 are true e) If neither conclusion 1 nor conclusion 2 is true Q 48). Statements: C%D, E$K, K*C, K@L Conclusion 1 – C*D Conclusion 2 – E@L a) If neither conclusion 1 nor conclusion 2 is true b) If both Conclusions I and II are true c) If only conclusion 1 is true d) If either conclusion or conclusion 2 is true e) If only conclusion 2 is true Q 49). Statements :A@U, U%V, V#T, K$M Conclusion 1 :A#T Conclusion 2 – A%K a) If only conclusion 1 is true b) If either conclusion 1 or conclusion 2 is true c) If both conclusion 1 and conclusion 2 are true d) If neither conclusion 1 nor conclusion 2 is true e) None of these Q 50). Statements :N#A, I%T, T@N, L*A Conclusion 1 :I$L Conclusion 2 : I#L a) If only conclusion 2 follows b) If neither conclusion 1 nor conclusion 2 follows c) None of these d) If conclusion 2 follows e) If either conclusion 1 or conclusion 2 follows.

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EQUALITY -INEQUALITY (Answers with Explanation) Directions (1 – 5): Q 1). a). Since between A & S one entity is < and another entity is > so no regular pattern hence no conclusion follows. Q 2). d). Since between M & N only one entity is there i.e. ≥ hence M≥N holds true so 1 follows. Between J & H there are three entities – >, =, ≥. Here > is the strong entity so J>H. Q 3). c) Since between U and Y there are two entitites – = and ≤ so both at first U<Y and U=Y does not agree. Secondly in both conclusion there are both equal attributes U and Y while ≤ is the strong entity in between them and in one conclusion its given < while in other its given = . henceanwereill be either or. Q 4). d) Since between C and F both < and > is there so no regular pattern is there hence conclusion 1 does not follow. Between D and F the same thing no regular pattern follows hence 2 also does not follow. So neither follows. Q 5). d) Since between H and N there is only one entity ≥ so both at first H>N and H=N does not agree. Secondly in both conclusion there are both equal attributes U and Y while ≥ is that one strong entity in between them and in one conclusion its given > while in other its given =. Hence either of them follows. So according to option for either or is not given so none of these will be the answer. Directions(6 – 10) : Q 6). c) ‗B ≠ E‘ means that B > E or B < E. So a > T or A < T or A = T. Hence, either I or II follows Q 7). c) O ≥ F ≥ T, as > and < are there between O and T, the relationship between cannot be compared. Hence O > T or O ≤ T Q 8). c) As C = A ≠ P, C > P or C < P So either I or II follows Q 9). c) D ≥ A ≥ Y = S; Either D > Y (or S) or D = Y (or S) Q 10). c) I > L or I < L or I = L Hence, either I or II follows. Directions (11 – 15): www.ibpsguide.com | www.ibpsguide.in | mock.ibpsguide.in | www.sscexamguide.com Copyright © 2016 IBPS Guide

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Q 11). a) Between H and T there are two entities ≤ and < so there is a regular pattern while < is the strong entity, so conclusion 1 follows but between F and T there is no regular pattern due to < and >, so conclusion 2 does not follows. Q 12). c) Between L and M there are two entities ≤ and < while < is the strong entity so conclusion 1 follows. Between K and J there are two entities < and ≤ while < being the strong entity so conclusion 2 also follows. Q 13). d) Between F and P there are three entities – =, >, <, so no regular pattern is there hence conclusion 1 does not follow. While between V and F there are two entities < and = thereby following a regular pattern and as < is the strong entity, hence conclusion 2 follows. But in option this option is not given so none of these will be the answer. Q 14). d) Between E and Q there are two entities ≤ and <, so regular pattern follows with < being the strong entity so E<Q is the answer but in conclusion 1 its given E≤Q , so 1 does not follow. Now between E and H there are three different entities ≤, < and ≥, which shows no regular pattern. Hence conclusion 2 does not follows. Q 15). c) J and R have three entities between them all being different – =,> and ≥ with > being the strong entity, so conclusion 1 follows. While between T and R there are two entities > and ≥ with > being the strong entity so T>R agree but no given in the conclusion 2 so it does not follow. Directions(16 – 21): Q 16). c) In between B and D there are two entities ≥ and = thereby following a regular pattern with ≥ being the stronger entity so conclusion 1 follows. Now between M and B, the two entities being > and ≤ which contradicts the regularity of the pattern so conclusion 2 does not follow. Q 17). d) Between R and H the two entities > and ≤ are there which implies the irregularity in the pattern so conclusion 1 does not follow while between A and H there are two entities ≤ and = which shows a regular pattern with ≤ the stronger entity, so conclusion 2 agrees. Q 18). c) Between J and B two entities < and ≤ are there with < being the stronger entity so, conclusion 1 follows. While between M and D there is no regular pattern due to two different sided entities like > and < so conclusion 2 does not follows. Q 19). c) Between T and M, there are two entities ≥ and = with ≥ being the stronger one so T≥ M holds true, but both conclusions 1) M<T and 2) M = T turns out to be wrong and the variables being M and T are the same so it fulfills the conditions of either or hence c is the option. Q 20). c) In both conclusion there are two different sided entities between F and N, J and Dso neither of the conclusion follows, hence c is the correct option. Q 21). c) Between F and N there is a regular pattern due to one sided entity with ≥being the stronger one so conclusion 1 follows. Similarly between J and K there is a regular pattern with > being the strong entity so conclusion 2 also follows, hence option c is the correct answer. www.ibpsguide.com | www.ibpsguide.in | mock.ibpsguide.in | www.sscexamguide.com Copyright © 2016 IBPS Guide

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Q 22). d) Between Z and Q there are different sided entities like ≥ and < so no regular pattern, hence conclusion 1 does not follow. While between J and W same is the case so no regular pattern, hence conclusion 2 also does not follows, hence d is the correct option. Q 23). a) Between T and Q there are three entities <, ≤ and = are there which shows one sided entities so regular pattern is there with < being the stronger entity and which is given in conclusion 1 so 1 follows. In conclusion 2 between W and Q there are two entities as per the statement given and those are ≥ and = with ≥ the stronger one but this is not given in conclusion 2 hence 2 does not follow. So option a is the correct answer. Directions(24 – 30) : Q 24). c) Between N and O there is a regular pattern with one sided entity and the stronger one is ≥ which makes conclusion 2 follows. Then in conclusion 2 between M and L there are one sided entities like ≥ and > with > as the stronger entity which is given conclusion 2 hence it follows. In conclusion 3 between K and N there are two different sided entities like ≥, and < due to which conclusion 3 does not follow. In conclusion 4 between L and N there are only one sided entities like < and ≤ with < being the stronger entity but its not given in the conclusion 4 so 4 does not follow. Hence c is the correct option. Q 25). c) Since in all the conclusion between the given variables D,A; B, D; E, C; A, E; none of them have one sided entities and so with no regular pattern, hence neither of the conclusions are true. So option c is the correct option. Q 26). d) In conclusion 1, 2 and 4 R, F; S, P; S, F forms a regular pattern with one side entity and in each the strong entities are <, ≤ and < which are given in the conclusion also so all these three conclusions 1, 2 and 4 follows. While in conclusion 3 between P and T there are two different sided entities like ≥ and < which does not give it a regular pattern so it does not agree, so option d is the correct answer Q 27). c). Q 28). c) In conclusion 3 between W and Y there are two one sided entities < and ≤. In conclusion 1, 2 and 4, they all have two or more than two different sided entities like ≤ and >etc so they don‘t follow a regular pattern, hence conclusion 1,2 and 4 does not follows so correct option is d. Q 29). d) In conclusion 1 between R and V there are two different sided entities < and > so no reguar pattern and hence conclusion 1 does not follow. In conclusion 2, 3 and 4 there are one sided entities in each case showing a regular pattern, so 2,3 and 4 follows, hence d is the correct option. Q 30). e) Directions(31 – 38): Q 31). c) In both conclusion 1 and 2 between M and T the existing entity being the stronger and also following the regular pattern is ≤, so M≤T should be there but its not given in conclusion 1 and 2, but the variables being the same M and T with the combining entity in both conclusions giving out to be ≤, thereby satisfying the conditions for either or, option c is the correct answer. www.ibpsguide.com | www.ibpsguide.in | mock.ibpsguide.in | www.sscexamguide.com Copyright © 2016 IBPS Guide

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Q 32). b) In conclusion 1 between H and Q there are two different sided entities ≥ and ≤ due to which there is no regular pattern, so conclusion 1 does not follows. In conclusion 2 between E and M, only 1 sided entity is there with ≥ the stronger 1 which is given in conclusion, hence conclusion 2 follows and option b is the correct answer. Q 33). a) In conclusion 1 between F and H there is only one sided entity with ≥ being the stronger one so conclusion 1 follows. The same is not the case in conclusion 2 where it is given F > M which does not agrees as per the statement given, hence a is the correct option. Q 34). d) Q 35). d) Since in both the conclusions between M and Q, there are two different sided entities, so no regular pattern, hence neither of the two conclusion follows, so option d is correct. Q 36). d) In conclusion 1 between F and Q there is only one one sided entity which is ≤ with it being the stronger one so conclusion 1 follows. In conclusion 2 between R and M there are two one sided entities with < being the stronger one which is given in the conclusion, so conclusion 2 also follows. Hence correct option is d, both follows. Q 37). c) In conclusion 1 between L and A there are two one sided entities making it a regular pattern, with < being the stronger entity so 1 follows. In conclusion 2 between S and L there is only one one sided entity and that is > which is given in conclusion 2 so 2 also follows, hence c is correct – both follows. Q 38). d) Q 39). b) In conclusion 1 between W and K, there are two different sided entities, so it does not follows, while in conclusion 3 between K and R only entity = exists which is not mention in 3 so it does not follows. In conclusion 2 between M and R there are two one sided entities ≤ and = in which ≤ is the strong one which is mentioned in conclusion 2 so it follows. Hence option b is correct. Q 40). a) In conclusion 2 between B and R there are two one sided entity > and ≥ are there with > being the stronger one, so 1 follows. In conclusion 2 between H and N only one one sided entity is given which is ≤ which is given in the conclusion 2 so it follows. In conclusion 3 same variables as that of conclusion 2 but the entity mention in it is different so 3 does not follows. Hence option a is correct. Directions(41 – 45): Q 41). d) in both the conclusions there are different sided entities so no regular pattern, so neither of the conclusion follows. Hence option d is correct. Q 42). e) In conclusion 1 between K and Q there are two one sided entities < and = are given with < being the strong one so conclusion 1 follows. While in conclusion 2 between Y and T only one one sided entity ie< is given so conclusion 2 also follows. Hence option e is correct.

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Q 43). b) In conclusion 1 between G and J only one one sided entity and that is < is there which is not given in the conclusion so 1 does not follows. In conclusion 2 between J and F only one one sided entity ie> is there which is mention in the conclusion 2 so 2 follows. Hence option b is vorrect. Q 44). e) In conclusion 1 between W and U there are two one sided entity with >bein the stronger one which is given in conclusion 1 so 1 follows. In conclusion 2 between Z and Y a regular pattern is followed where > being the stronger entity is given in the conclusion 2 so 2 also follows. Hence option e is correct. Q 45). e) In both the conclusion 1 and 2 there is one single sided entity between both D and A and E and A and that is < which agrees with the statements also, so both conclusions follows. Hence e is correct. Directions(46 – 50) : Q 46). b) Since both conclusions 1 and 2 does not follow and the second condition of having the same variables also gets satisfied, we can see the entities present in either of them if we exclude 1 from another ie if we exclude < then we get ≥ and vice versa so 3rd condition also gets satisfied. Hence there is either or in it, according to which option b is correct. Q 47). c) For conclusion 1, from the statement we get that between U and Z, there are two sided entities due to which the pattern is not regular, so 1 does not follow. For conclusion 2 from the statement given, we get that there are three one sided entities <, = and ≤, with < being the stronger one. Hence conclusion 2 follows. So correct option is c. Q 48). a) From the given statements, conclusion 1 does not follow because there is only one entity given I between the two which is = and this entity is not mentioned in the conclusion, while in conclusion 2 we get from the statement that between E and L there are two different sided entities, so 2 does not follow. Q 49). a) from the statement between A and T, there are three one sided entities ≥, = and > with > being the stronger one which is given in conclusion 1, so 1 follows. But in conclusion 2 from the statement there is no relation given between A and K so 2 does not follow, hence correct option is a. Q 50). d) 8. SYLLOGISM Directions: (1-25) In each question below, there are three or four statements followed by four conclusions numbered I, II, III and IV. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the given statements. Q 1. Statements: All watches are gold. Some phones are gold.

All pens are phones. Conclusions: I. Some phones are watches. II. Some pens are gold. III. Some gold are watches. IV. No pen is gold. a) Only either II or IV and III follow b) Only either II or IV and I follow c) Only either I or II and IV follow d) None follows e) All follow

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Q 2. Statements: All tigers are rabbits. No rabbit is a mouse. All mouse are fruits. Conclusions: I. No lion is a mouse. II. Some fruits are mouse. III. Some rabbits are tigers. IV. Some tigers are mouse. a) All follows b) Only either I or II and both III and IV follow c) Only either I or IV and both II and III follow d) Only either I or IV and II follow e) None of these Q 3. Statements: Some hills are trains. Some trains are roads. Some roads are codes. Conclusions: I. Some codes are roads. II. Some trains are hills. III. Some roads are hills. IV. Some codes are trains. a) All follow b) Only I and II follow c) Only III and IV follow d) Only I and IV follow e) None follows Q 4. Statements: All branches are trees. All trees are leafs. All leafs are wires. Conclusions: I. All wires are branches. II. All trees are wires. III. Some wires are leafs. IV. Some leafs are branches. a) All follow b) Only II, III and IV follow

c) Only III and IV follow d) Only II and III follow e) None of these Q 5. Statements: Some tapes are radios. Some radios are keys. All tigers are keys. Conclusions: I. Some tapes are tigers. II. Some tapes are keys. III. No water is tape. IV. All keys are tigers. a) None follows b) Both II and III follow c) Only either II or III follows d) Only either I or III follows e) Only either I or IV follows Q 6. Statements: Some buses are cars. All cars are boxes. Some roads are boxes. Conclusions: I. Some boxes are buses. II. Some roads are buses. III. Some roads are cars. IV. Some boxes are roads. a) None follows b) Only I and II follow c) Only III and IV follow d) Only I and IV follow e) All follows Q 7. Statements: All bats are cells. Some cells are rabbits. All rabbits are carrots. Conclusions: I. Some rabbits are bats. II. Some carrots are cells. III. Some carrots are bats. IV. Some carrots are rabbits.

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a) Only I and III follow b) Only I and II follow c) Only II and III follow d) Only III and IV follow e) None of these Q 8. Statements: All cards are lines. No lines are tools. All tools are doors. Conclusions: I. No cards are tools. II. No cards are doors. III. Some doors are lines. IV. Some tools are cards. a) Only I follow b) Only I and II follow c) Only II and III follow d) Only III and IV follow e) None of these Q 9. Statements: Some wires are leafs. No wire is a boat. All boats are cars. Conclusions: I. Some wires are cars. II. Some cars are boats. III. Some cars are wires. IV. Some leafs are wires. a) All of the above b) II and IV only follow c) I and III only follow d) II and III only follow e) None of these Q 10. Statements: Some buses are cycles. All cycles are files. All files are sheets. Conclusions: I. Some sheets are buses.

II. Some sheets are cycles. III. Some sheets are files. IV. Some buses are files. a) None of the above b) I and II only c) II and III only d) III and IV only e) All of the above Q 11. Statements: Some bikes are buildings. All buildings are bottles. Some bottles are trucks. Conclusions: I. Some bikes are trucks. II. Some bikes are bottles. III. Some bottles are buildings. IV. No truck is a bike. a) None of the above b) II and III only follow c) Either only I or II and III and IV follows d) Either only I or IV and II and III follows e) All of the above Q 12. Statements: No cards are lines. All copies are cards. All cards are telephones. No radios are telephones. Conclusions: I. Some lines are not copies. II. Some copies are neither cards nor telephones. III. Some telephones are neither copies nor cards. IV. Some copies are not radios. a) Only I follow b) Only IV follows c) Only I and IV follow d) All follows e) None of these Q 13. Statements: Some dogs bark.

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All dogs bite. All bats bite. Those animals who bark are not dangerous. Conclusions: I. Even those dogs who do not bark bite. II. Those dogs who do not bark, do not necessarily bite. III. All those dogs which are of white colour, bite. IV. Some dogs are bats. a) Only II and III follow b) Only II follows c) Only III follows d) Only I and III follow e) None of these Q 14. Statements: Some soldiers are famous. Some soldiers are intelligent. All soldiers are honest. All honest and famous persons are kind-hearted. Conclusions: I. Some soldiers are either famous or intelligent. II. Some soldiers are neither famous nor intelligent. III. All intelligent persons are kind hearted. IV. Some intelligent persons are not kind-hearted. a) All follow b) Only I and II follow c) Only I, II and III follow d) Only either I or II follows e) None of these Q 15. Statements: Some bags are cats. All cats are dogs. No dog is a cycle. All cycles are bulls. Conclusions: I. No dog is a bull. II. Some dogs are bulls. III. Some dogs are bags. IV. Some bulls are bags.

a) None follows b) All follows c) Only either I or II and III follow d) Only I and III follow e) Only I, II and III follow Q 16. Statements: Some umbrellas are sticks. Some sticks are balls. Some balls are bats. All bats are guns. Conclusions: I. Some balls are umbrellas. II. Some guns are bats. III. Some sticks are guns. IV. Some balls are guns. a) Only I, II and IV follow b) Only II and IV follow c) Only II, III and IV follow d) Only I, II and III follow e) None of these Q 17. Statements: Some cards are notebooks. Some notebooks are dictionaries. Some dictionaries are files. All files are envelopes. Conclusions: I. Some envelopes are notebooks. II. Some files are books. III. Some books are dictionaries. IV. No book is an envelope. a) None follows b) Only I, II and III follow c) Only II and III follow d) Only III and IV follow e) None of these Q 18. Statements: Some keys are letters. All letters are locks. All locks are numbers. No number is a coin.

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Conclusions: I. Some keys are numbers. II. All letters are numbers. III. Some locks are keys. IV. No coin is a letter. a) Only I and II follow b) Only I, II and III follow c) Only II and III follow d) Only II, III and IV follow e) All follow Q 19. Statements: Some floppies are CDs. Some CDs are keyboards. Some keyboards are computers. Some computers are monitors. Conclusions: I. Some monitors are floppies. II. No floppy is a monitor. III. Some computers are CDs. IV. Some keyboards are floppies. a) Only I follow b) Only I, III and IV follow c) Only II follows d) Only either I or II follows e) None of these Q 20. Statements: All cards are pins. Some pins are tablets. All tablets are needles. Some needles are threads. Conclusions: I. Some needles are pins. II. Some pins are cards. III. Some threads are needles. IV. Some needles are tablets. a) None follows b) Only I and II follow c) Only I, II and III follow d) Only II, III and IV follow e) All follow

Q 21. Statements: All cells are bins. All bins are petals. No petal is root. All roots are leafs. Conclusions: I. No cell is bin. II. No jungle is root. III. All cells are petals. IV. All leafs are roots. a) Only I and II follow b) Only III follow c) Only I, II and III follow d) All follows e) None of these Q 22. Statements: All poles are fans. All fans are stands. Some stands are lines. Some lines are boxes. Conclusions: I. Some boxes are poles. II. Some fans are boxes. III. Some lines are poles. IV. Some lines are fans. a) None follows b) Only I and II follow c) Only II and IV follow d) Only III and IV follow e) Only I, II and IV follow Q 23. Statements: Some scales are weights. All weights are metals. Some metals are rings. All rings are bands. Conclusions: I. Some bands are scales. II. Some weights are bands. III. Some rings are scales. IV. Some metals are scales.

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a) Only I and III follow b) Only I and II follow c) Only II and III follow d) Only II and IV follow e) None of these Q 24. Statements: Some tools are seeds. Some seeds are cycles. Some cycles are tubes. Some tubes are rains. Conclusions: I. Some tubes are seeds. II. Some cycles are tools. III. No seed is tube. IV. Some rains are cycles. a) Only I follows b) Only either I or III follows c) Only I and II follow d) Only either I or III and IV follow e) None of these Q 25. Statements: All stones are pearls. Some pearls are shells. Some shells are boxes. No box is container. Conclusions: I. Some stones are shells. II. No pearl is container. III. No shell is container. IV. Some pearls are containers. a) Only II follows b) Only II & III follow c) Only either II or IV follows d) Only III follows e) None follows Directions: (26 – 35) In each question below, there are three or four statements followed by four conclusions numbered I, II, III and IV. You have to take the given statements to be true

even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts and then decide which of the given conclusions logically not follow(s) from the given statements. Q 26. Statements: Some schools are colleges. Some colleges are hostels. No hostel is office. All offices are institutes. Conclusions: I. No hostel is institute. II. Some hostels are schools. III. Some hostels are institutes. IV. Some offices are colleges. a) Only I not follow b) Only II & IV not follows, either I or III not follow c) Only IV not follows d) Only either I or III not follows e) None of these Q 27. Statements: Some pins are needles. Some threads are needles. All needles are nails. All nails are hammers. Conclusions: I. Some pins are hammers. II. Some threads are nails. III. Some pins are threads. IV. No pin is thread. a) Only I, II and either III or IV not follow b) Only III & IV not follow c) Only I & II not follow d) All not follow e) only II follows, Either III or IV follows Q 28. Statements: Some bikes are rooms. No room is sofa. All sofas are tables. Some tables are desks.

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Conclusions: I. Some sofas are desks. II. No room is table. III. Some bikes are tables. IV. No desk is room. a) None follows b) Only I follow c) Only either II or III follows d) Only III and IV follow e) All follow Q 29. Statements: Some rings are letters. All letters are bangles. All bracelets are bangles. Some bangles are pendants. Conclusions: I. Some rings are bangles. II. Some letters are pendants. III. Some bracelets are rings. IV. No pendant is ring. a) All not follows b) Only I not follow c) Only II, III & IV not follow d) Only IV not follows e) None of these Q 30. Statements: Some jeeps are tapes. All tapes are buses. Some boats are jeeps. Some scooters are buses. Conclusions: I. Some scooters are tapes. II. Some boats are buses. III. Some jeeps are scooters. IV. All buses are tapes. a) All not follows b) Only IV not follows c) Only II and IV not follow d) Only III not follows e) None of these

Q 31. Statements: Some doors are walls. All walls are floors. All floors are rooms. Some rooms are codes. Conclusions: I. All walls are rooms. II. Some rooms are doors. III. Some rooms are walls. IV. Some floors are doors. a) None follows b) Only I & II not follow c) Only II & III not follow d) Only II, III & IV not follow e) All follows Q 32. Statements: Some spoons are forks. Some forks are bowls. All bowls are plates. Some plates are utensils. Conclusions: I. Some utensils are forks. II. Some plates are forks. III. Some plates are spoons. IV. Some utensils are spoons. a) Only I not follow b) Only II not follows c) Only I & III not follow d) Only I, III & IV not follow e) None of these Q 33. Statements: All bikes are tables. All tables are desks. Some desks are branches. Some desks are sofas. Conclusions: I. Some branches are sofas. II. Some sofas are tables. III. Some branches are tables. IV. No bike is bench.

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a) All not follows b) Only I & II not follow c) Only II & III not follow d) Only I, II & III not follow e) None of these Q 34. Statements: Some sweets are chocolates. Some chocolates are mints. Some mints are food. Some food is diet. Conclusions: I. No sweets are diet. II. No food is chocolates. III. Some sweets are diet. IV. Some sweets are food. a) All not follows b) Either I or III not follows c) Only III & IV not follow d) Only II & IV and either I or III not follows e) None of these Q 35. Statements: Some doctors are lawyers. All teachers are lawyers. Some engineers are lawyers. All engineers are businessmen. Conclusions: I. Some teachers are doctors. II. Some businessmen are lawyers. III. Some businessmen are teachers. IV. Some lawyers are teachers. a) All not follows b) Only II not follows c) Only I and III not follow d) Only II and IV not follow e) None of these Directions: (36 – 50)In each question below, there are three or four statements followed by four conclusions numbered I, II, III and IV.

You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the given statements. Q 36. Statements : All erasers are lines Some lines are pencils All pencils are red No red is ink Conclusions : I. There is a possibility that some lines are not red II. Some pencils are not lines III. No pencil is ink IV. Some lines are not ink a) Only I and II follows b) Only II and IV follow c) Only I, II and IV follows d) Only I, III and IV follows e) None of these Q 37. Statements : Some sheets are files Some cats are files Some cats are whites Conclusions : I. Some cats being sheets is a possibility II. Some sheets not being files is a possibility III. Some whites are files IV. Some sheets are whites a) Only I and II follows b) Only II and III follow c) Only I and IV follow d) Only II, III and IV follow e) None of these Q 38. Statements : Some gases are liquids All liquids are water Some keys are whites Conclusions : I. All gases being water is a possibility

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II. All such gases that are not water can be liquids. III. Some liquids are whites IV. All whites are keys is a possibility a) None follows b) Only I follow c) Only II follows d) Only III follows e) Only I and IV follows. Q 39. Statements : Some professors are clerks Some teachers are professors Some lecturers are teachers Conclusions : I. Some lecturers as well as teachers are professors is the possibility II. Some teachers who are lecturers are also professors III. Some clerks are teachers IV. No lecturer is a clerk a) Only I follow b) Only II follows c) Only III follows d) Only I and II follows. e) None follows Q 40. Statements : All engineers are doctors Some doctors are compounders Some compounders are staffs Conclusions : I. All staffs are doctors II. All engineers being compounders is a possibility III. All compounders being doctors is a possibility IV. No engineer is a staff. a) None follows b) All follow c) Only II and III follow d) Only IV follow e) None of these

Q 41. Statements : No table are bikes All bikes are black Some blacks are notes Conclusions : I. All back being take is a possibility II. Some bikes being table is a possibility III. Some bikes are notes IV. No note is a table a) None follows b) Only I follow c) Only II follows d) Only III follows e) Only I and II follows. Q 42. Statements : Some cats are sheets No sheet is a file All files are animals Conclusions : I. All those animals if they are sheets are also cats II. Some files that are not sheets being cats is a possibility. III. Some animals are not files IV. Some animals are cats a) None follows b) All follow c) Only II and III follow d) Only IV follow e) None of these Q 43. Statements : Some stones are diamonds All stones are black No black is precious Conclusions : I. All precious being stones is a possibility II. All diamonds being black is a possibility. III. Some diamonds are precious IV. No diamond is black a) None follows b) Only II follows

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c) Only I follow d) Only III follows e) Only I and II follows. Q 44. Statements : Some roses are beautiful All leafs are roses All buds are leafs Conclusions : I. All roses being leafs is a possibility II. Some leafs are beautiful III. All roses being buds is a possibility IV. All buds are beautiful a) All follow b) None follows c) Only I and III follow d) Only II and IV follow e) None of these Q 45. Statements : All engineers are doctors Some doctors are talented Some talented are lawyers Conclusions : I. All engineers being talented is a possibility II. Some doctors are lawyers III. All talented being doctors is a possibility IV. No doctor is a lawyer a) All follows b) Only either I or II and both III and IV follows c) Only either II or IV and both I and III follow d) Only either I or IV follows e) None of these Q 46. Statements : Some groups are mails Some mails are chats All updates are chats Conclusions : I. All mails being updates is a possibility II. Some updates being group is a possibility

III. No updates are a mail. IV. Some groups are chats a) Only I and II follows b) Only II and III follow c) Only I, II and III follows d) Only II, III and IV follow e) None of these Q 47. Statements : No stone is red No red is flower Some red are blue Some blue are orange Conclusions : I. Some leafs are not red is a possibility II. All oranges are red III. Some roses being leafs is a possibility. IV. No orange is flower a) Only II and III follow b) Only I and IV follow c) Only II, III and IV follow d) Only I and III follow e) None of these Q 48. Statements : Some tables are bikes No furniture is table Some furniture is brown Conclusions : I. There is a possibility that some bikes are not furniture II. Some bikes are not tables are a possibility. III. Some brown is not table IV. No brown is a bike a) Only I, II and III follows b) Only II and III follow c) Only I and IV follow d) Only II, III and IV follow e) None of these Q 49. Statements : Some gold are yellow

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All silvers are gold All metals are silvers Conclusions : I. All gold being silvers is a possibility II. There is a possibility that all metals are gold. III. Some silvers are yellow IV. Some metals being yellow is a possibility a) Only I and IV follow b) Only II and IV follow c) Only either I or II follows d) Only either II or IV and III e) None of these.

follow

Q 50. Statements : Some professors are students Some teachers are professors Some lecturers are teachers Conclusions : I. All those teachers who are lecturers are also professors. II. No lecturer is student III. Some student is teacher IV. All teachers as well as all professors being lecturers is a possibility a) Only I and III follow b) Either II or IV follows c) None follows d) Only IV follows e) None of these

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Answers with Detailed Explanation:

Answer- 1. a Answer- 2. e

Answer - 3. b

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Answer - 4. b Answer - 5. a

Answer - 6. d

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Answer - 7. e Answer - 8. a

Answer - 9. b

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Answer - 10. e Answer - 11. d

Answer - 12. c

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Answer - 13. d Answer - 14. e

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Answer - 15. c Answer - 16. b

Answer - 17. a

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Answer - 18. e Answer - 19. d

Answer - 20. e

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Answer - 21. b Answer - 22. a

Answer - 23. e

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Answer - 24. b Answer - 25. c

Answer - 26. b

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Answer - 27. e Answer - 28. a

Answer - 29. c

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Answer - 30. a Answer - 31. e

Answer - 32. d

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Answer - 33. a Answer - 34. d

Answer - 35. c

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Answer - 36. d Answer - 37. a

Answer - 38. e Answer - 39. a

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Answer - 40. c Answer - 41. a

Answer - 42. c

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Answer - 43. e Answer - 44. c

Answer - 45. c

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Answer - 46. a Answer - 47. d

Answer - 48. a

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Answer - 49. e Answer - 50. d

9. BLOOD RELATIONS Q 1 – 5).Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below : There is a family of seven members Shivika, Raman, Deepika, Anuj, Vijay, Jayesh, and Priti. They all appeared in an IQ test to check their intelligence. There are three females in the family and two married couples. Priti is the most intelligent member in the family. Raman is father of Vijay and he is more intelligent than his son. Deepika has son and one daughter and she is more intelligent than her husband. The father of Raman is more intelligent than Raman. Vijay, the grandson of Jayesh, is the least intelligent in the family. Jayesh is the second most intelligent in the family. The mother of Raman is less intelligent than Raman. The grandmother of Priti has two sons and one of them is Anuj, who is more intelligent than his brother but less intelligent than his sister – in – law. Shivika is not more intelligent than her sons. The father of Priti is married to Deepika. Q 1) Who among the following is wife of Raman? a) Jayesh b) Deepika c) Anuj d) Priti Q 2) Who among the following is the third least intelligent in the family? a) Shivika b) Raman c) Deepika d) Anuj Q 3) How is Priti related to Anuj? a) Niece b) Nephew c) Son

d) Can‘t be determined

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Q 4) The one who is the most intelligent is not a a) Daughter b) Granddaughter c) Wife Q 5) How is Shivika related to Deepika? a) Mother – in – law b) Mother c) Father

d) Sister

d) Daughter

Q 6) Ravikishan said, ―The girl is the wife of the grandson of my mother‖. How is Ramakrishna related to the girl? a) Father b) Cannot be determined c) Grandfather d) Daughter – in – law Q ( 7 – 11) In a family of eight persons – C, D, E, F, G, H, I & J – there are four males and four females. There are three married couples and two persons are unmarried. Each of them reads a different newspaper, viz Wall Street Journal, Washington Journals, Financial Times, Economic Times, Business Standard, Indian Express, The Hindu & Deccan herald. No couples reads both the versions of same newspaper. In the family of two generations, each male member except J has two brothers and one sister. I is the mother – in – law of E who reads Washington Journals. D who reads Financial Times, is the daughter – in – law of J. G who reads Business Standard is the unmarried brother of H, who does not read The Hindu. No female reads Economic Times or Indian Express. F is the brother – in – law of E but he does not read The Hindu, Deccan Herald or Indian Express. C does not read Indian Express wall street journal and the hindu. J has no son – in – law. H is D‘s sister – in – law. And does not read wall street journal. Q 7) Who among the following reads Economic Times? a) Can‘t say b) F c) C d) E Q 8) F reads which of the following magazines? a) Can‘t say b) Wall Street Journal c) Business Standard d) Deccan Herald Q 9) Which of the following pairs of persons does not represent the couples? 1–J&I 2–C&E 3–F&D a) Can‘t say b) Only 1 c) Only 2 d) All of the above pairs of persons represent the couples Q 10) How many sons does J have? a)Two b)Three c)One Q 11)How is C related with H? a)Father b) Brother c) Husband

d)Can‘t say

d) Can‘t say

Q (12 – 15) There are 7 members in a family – Prajakta, Ayush, Rakesh, Shyam, Anjali, Raveena& Ravi. There are only 3 females in the family – Prajakta, Anjali &Raveena. The family consists of three couples, four pairs of brother and sister, 3 brothers and one pair of sisters. Raveena is not the sister of Prajakta or Ayush. Shyam is not married to either Raveena or Anjali. Raveena‘s husband is neither Ayush nor Shyam. Rakesh is the brother of both Ayush and Prajakta. Ayush is a brother of Ravi. Ravi is unmarried. Q 12) Who is Shyam‘s wife? a) Either Prajakta or Anjali b) Anjali c) Prajakta d) Raveena www.ibpsguide.com | www.ibpsguide.in | mock.ibpsguide.in | www.sscexamguide.com Copyright © 2016 IBPS Guide

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Q 13) Which of the following is not a pair of brother and sister? a) Prajakta&Ayush b) Prajakta&Rakesh c) Anjali &Rakesh d) Anjali &Shyam Q 14) Which of the following is a pair of husband and wife? a) Rakesh&Raveena b) Shyam& Anjali c) Rakesh& Anjali d)Ayush&Prajakta Q 15) Which of the following statements is false? a) Rakesh is Raveena‘s husband b) Prajakta is Raveena‘s sister – in – law c) Rakesh has the same relation with Anjali as Shyam has with Raveena d) Prajakta is not Shyam‘s sister.

Q (16 – 20) In a family of six persons – L, M, N, O, P & Q – there are three males and three females. There are two married couples and two persons are unmarried. Each one of them watch different news channel viz. AajTak, Newshour, India TV, CNBC, Ndtv and IBN. P, who watches Newshour, is the mother – in – law of L, who is wife of N. O is the father of Q and he does not watch AajTak or IBN. M watches Ndtv and is the sister of Q, who watches India TV. N does not watch IBN. Q 16) Who among the following watches AajTak? a) N b) O c) L d) Data inadequate Q 17) How is Q related to P? a) Daughter b) Brother c) Son

d) Data inadequate

Q 18) Which of the following is one of the married couples? a) O – M b) O – P c) M – Q d) P – Q Q 19) Which of the following news channel does L watches? a) AajTak b) Ndtv c) CNBC Q 20) How many sons does P have? a) Four b) Three c) Two

d) None of these

d) One

Q (21 – 25) A, B, C, D, E, F & G are seven members of a family. Each of them has a different profession – Businessman, Teacher, Advocate, Engineer, Architect, Chartered Accountant & Banker – and their incomes are different. There are two married couples in a group. C is the Businessman and earns more than the Engineer and the Advocate. E is married to Chartered Accountant and she earns the least. No lady is either Advocate or Engineer. B, the Teacher, earns less than A, the Banker. G is married to B and he earns more than D & A. F is not Advocate. The Chartered Accountant earns less than the Advocate but more than the Banker.

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Q 21) Who earns the maximum in the family? a) F b) G c) C d) D Q 22) Which of the following is a pair of married couple? a) CE b) FE c) BE d) None of these Q 23) What is A‘s position from the top when they are arranged in descending order of their incomes? a) Second b) Fourth c) Third d) None of these Q 24) What is the profession of F? a) Engineer b) Chartered Accountant c) Engineer or Chartered Accountant d) Data inadequate Q 25) At least how many male members are there in the family? a) Two b) four c) three d) Five Q (26 – 30) In a family of three generations, there are two pairs of couples and two pairs of brothers and sisters. There are three Reporters, Two Lawyers, one Architect and one Doctor in the family. The name of the persons in the family are D, E, F, G, H, I & J. 1 – No females in the family are Reporter. 2 – J is not a Doctor 3 – No married persons in the family are Lawyers. 4 – Ratio of the monthly salaries of E : F : G is 1 : 3 : 5 5 – Ratio of the monthly salaries of D : H : I is 2 : 1 : 3 6 – Ratio of the monthly salaries of E : D : J is 1 : 4 : 7 7 –D is the son of E. H is the son of F and his wife is E. F is a Reporter. F & J are the eldest couple in the Family. G is the daughter of H . I is the sister – in – law of E. Q 26) How is E related to J? a) Mother – in – Law b) Daughter – in – Law

c) Daughter

d) Can‘t say

Q 27) Who among the following persons is not a Reporter? a) D b) F c) H d) I Q 28) Who among the following gets the least monthly salary? a) D b) F c) H d) E Q 29) Which of the following shows the correct order of the salaries of all the peersons? a) J>I>G>D>F>H>E b) J>I>G>D>F>E>H c) J>I>G>D>E>H>F d) J>I>G>E>F>H>D Q 30) Which pair given below are the sons of E? a) E & F b) E & C c) D & H

d) E & D

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Q (31 – 33) Ramya& Rajesh are a married couple having two daughters named Reetika&Devika. Devika is married to a man who is the son of Siya and Jeevan. Saumya is the daughter of Arav. Ganga who is Arav‘s sister is married to Sunil and has two sons Ayush&Ankit. Ankit is the grandson of Siya and Jeevan. Q 31) How is Ganga related to Devika? a) Sisiter – in – Law b) Sister c) Aunt

d) None of these

Q 32) What is the relationship between Ayush&Saumya? a) Uncle – Niece b) Father – Daughter c) Husband – Wife Q 33) Which of the following is true? a) Ayush is the son of Reetika c) Siya is Sunil‘s mother – in – Law

d) Cousins

b) Saumya is the cousin of Ganga d) Jeevan is Devika‘s Maternal Uncle

Q 34 – 36) Rita, Ramesh&Rajender are children of Mr. and Mrs. Sharma. a) Renuka, Rajeev &Santosh are children of Mr& Mrs. Srivastava. b) Santosh& Rita are a married couple and Kumar &Sanjeev are their children. c) Geetika&Lokesh are children of Mr& Mrs. Kohli. Geetika is married to Rajender and has three children named Reema, Abhay& Ravi. Q 34) How is Ramesh related to Kumar? a) Father – in – Law b) Brother – in – Law c) Cousin

d) Maternal Uncle

Q 35) What is Sanjeev‘s surname? a) Kohli b) Srivastava c) Sharma

d) Rajender

Q 36) Renuka is Sanjeev‘s…. a) Sister – in – Law b) Sister

c) Cousin

d) Aunty

Q (37 – 41) In a group there are 6 persons U, V, W, X, Y & Z. W is the sister of Z. V is the brother of Y‘s husband. X is the father of U and grandfather of Z. There are two fathers, three brothers and a mother in the group. Q 37) Who is the mother? a) U b) V c) X d) Y Q 38) Who is Y‘s husband? a) V b) W c) U d) Y Q 39) How many male members are there in the group? a) 3 b) 1 c) 2 d) 4 Q 40) How is Z related to Y? www.ibpsguide.com | www.ibpsguide.in | mock.ibpsguide.in | www.sscexamguide.com Copyright © 2016 IBPS Guide

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a) Son

b) Uncle

c) Husband

d) Daughter

Q 41) Which of the following is a group of brothers? a) UVZ b) UVX c) VZW

d) VXZ

Q (42 – 45) SudhirAnand has threechildren: Radhika, Raman and Sudeep. Sudeep married Rupa, the eldest daughter Mr. and Mrs. Malhotra. The Malhotras married their youngest daughter to the eldest son of Mr. and Mrs. Bushan and they had two children Rajveer and Sameeksha. The Malhotras have two more children, Rakesh and Rukmani, both elder to Shiela. Sahil and Abhijeet are sons of Sudeep and Rupa. Rita is the daughter of Rajveer. Q 42) How is Mrs. Malhotras related to Sudeep? a) Aunt b) Mother – in – Law c) Mother

d) Sister – in – Law

Q 43) What is the surname of Sahil? a) Bushan Malhotra c) Anand

d) Raman

Q 44) What is the surname of Rita? a) Bushan b) Malhotra c) Anand

d) None of these

Q 45) How is Abhijeet related to Rupa‘s father? a) Son – in – Law b) Cousin c) Son

d) Gradnson

Q (46 – 50) U, V, W, X, Y & Z are members of a family consisting of three generations. The family consists of two pairs of couples. The family consists of only three females. The oldest member in the family is a female but the youngest one is a male. No two persons are of the same age. One day they visited a restaurant and sat around a table facing towards the centre. X sat opposite the person who occupies the third place when their ages are considered in descending order. U is the grandfather of Z and sat on the immediate right of X, who is the father of W but not the husband of Y. Persons of the same generation sat opposite each other. V sat on the immediate right of a female. Z is not the youngest. Q 46) The youngest person sat between which of the following two persons? a) X and Y b) V and U c) X and V d) Data inadequate Q 47) The only person who sat between Y and Z is not the person who is a) The mother of Z b) The daughter – in – Law of U c) The wife of X d) The second in position in descending order of age Q 48) Which of the following shows the correct order rightward from the position of U? a) U, Z, V, Y, X, W b) U, X, Y, W, V, Z c) U, X, W, Y, V, Z d) None of these Q 49) The person who are adjacent to Y, are a) V and Z b) W and X c) W and V

d) Data inadequate

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Q 50) Which of the following statements is/are not true? 1 – One of the couples is U and Y 2 – X is the son of Y whereas V is the wife of X 3 – W is the brother of Z 4 – Y, V and Z are females. a) All 1, 2, 3 and 4 b) Only 3 c) Only 3 and 4

d) None

BLOOD RELATIONS (Answers with Detailed Explanation) Q (1 – 5) The intelligence of seven members of the family in descending order as per the IQ test is given below: Priti(P) > Jayesh(J) > Deepika(D) > Anuj(A) > Raman(R) > Shivika(S) > Vijay(V) Male represented by ‗+‘

Q 1) b)

Q 2) b)

Female represented by ‗–‗

Q 3) a)

Q 4) c)

Q 5) a)

Q 6) b)

Q 7 – 11) The tree diagram to show the relations between the members is given below:

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Hence the table of who reads which newspaper is given below with positive(+) and negative(-) sign showing male and female members of the family. WAJ – Wall street, WSJ – Washington journal, FT – Financial times, ET – Economic times, BS –Business standard, IE –Indian express, TH – The Hindu, DC – Deccan Herald

7) c)

8) c)

9) d)

10) b)

11) b)

Q (12-15):

Q 12) c)

Q13)c)

Q14)a) Q 15) c)

Q 16 – 20) The blood relation of the six members are given below:

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Q 16) a)

Q 17) c)

Q 18) b)

Q 19) d)

Q 20) c)

Q 21 – 25) On the basis of the given statements we can conclude that The two married couples are 1) G(+) B(–) and 2) E and F or D( not sure as per the info given). The table below shows the profession and specifies the male and female members of the family.

Q 21) c)

Q 22) d)

Q 23) d)

Q 24) c)

Q 25) b)

Q 26 – 30) Let us arrange the information given in statement 7. D and H are the sons of E and F respectively. Hence D and H are males. E is the wife of H, i.e. E is the mother of of D. F and J are eldest couple but we have still no information about the sex of F and J. From clue 1, no female is a Reporter; hence F is a male and J is a female. I is sister – in – law of E, i.e. I is the sister of H. We get this tree drawn below:

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Q 26) b)

Q 27) d)

Q 28) d)

Q 29) a)

Q 30) c)

Q (31 – 33) The following diagram drawn below shows the relations of the given people:

Q 31) a) Since, Devika is wife of Arav and Ganga is sister of Arav, therefore, Ganga is the siter – in – law of Arav, therefore, Ganga is the sister – in – law of Devika. Q 32) d) Since, Ayush is son of Ganga and Saumya is daughter of Arav and Arav is brother of Ganga, therefore Ayush and Saumya are cousins. Q 33) c) Since, Siya is mother of Ganga who is the wife of Sunil. Therefore, Siya is Sunil‘s mother – in – law.

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Q 34) d) Q 35) b) Q 36) d) Q (37 – 41) The given information can be summarized as follows:

Q 37) d) U‘s wife Y is the mother. Q 38) c) U is the husband of Y. Q 39) d) Clearly there are four male members U, V, X andZ Q 40) c) Clearly, Z is the son of Y Q 41) a) U, V are brothers of each other while Z is the brother of W. Q (42 – 45)

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Q (46 – 50) From the given information we can make our task easy. First we find that if U is the grandfather of Z, it means Z is a person of the lowest generation. Again, since persons of same generation sat opposite each other, X, who sat adjacent to U, is not from the generation of U. But X is the father of X. This implies X is from the middle generation and W from the lowest generation. Again, since X is not the husband of Y, U is the husband of Y and X is the husband of V. Thus, we get the following tree.

As per the information it is given that there are three females in the family. This implies that either W or Z is a female. Now, let us fix their seating arrangement. From the given information we can also conclude that U sat on the immediate right of X. Again, since V and X are of the same generation, this implies that V sat opposite each other. Thus, we get the following arrangement.

Again, from the given information we get that Z is not that youngest. This implies W is the youngest(because only W and Z are from lowest generation). Now, we also find out from the given information that the youngest one is male. This implies that W is a male and Z is a female. Now, let us arrange the persons in descending order of their ages. Since the oldest member is a female, this implies Y is older than U. Again, we get that V occupies the third position. This implies v is older than X. And, since W is the youngest. Hence Z is older than W. Y>U>V>X>Z>W Thus, we can conclude that V sat on the immediate right of Z(because it is given that V sat on the immediate right of a female) and W sat on the immediate left of X. Q 46) a) Q 47) d) Q 48) c) Q 49) d) Q 50) d)

10. CRITICAL REASONING Q 1) In the country A, about $5,200 per person per year is spent on health care, while in country B the amount is about half that. A recent study indicated that middle-aged white Americans have a significantly higher rate of diabetes and heart disease than do middle-aged white Britons. Even after eliminating from the study the lifestyle differences of diet, exercise, smoking, and drinking, the data showed that the Americans have poorer health than their British counterparts. The statements above, if true, best support which of the following assertions? a) Health care spending in the country A should be reduced by 50%. b) More expensive health care causes a higher incidence of certain diseases. c) The money spent on health care in the country A is not being used effectively. d) Something other than diet, exercise, smoking, and drinking must account for the difference in health for the twogroups in the study.

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Q 2) In 2003, the Rendezvous Hits Record Company spent 40% of its total budget on the production of ten albums, 30% of its budget on the marketing of these albums, and the remainder of its budget on overhead costs. In the same year, the Song K-T Record Company spent 20% of its total budget on the production of 10 albums and 60% of itsbudget on the marketing of these albums. Making Hits sold a total of 800,000 copies of the ten records it producedin 2003, while the Song K-T sold a total of 1,600,000 copies of the ten records it produced in 2003. Assumingeach company met its budget, which of the following conclusions is best supported by the information givenabove? a) The amount of money spent on marketing is directly related to the number of copies sold. b) Rendezvous Hits spent more money on the production of its albums in 2003 than did the Song K-T. c) Song K-T‘s total revenue from the sale of albums produced in 2003 was higher than that of Rendezvous Hits. d) In 2003, Rendezvous Hits spent a larger percentage of its budget on overhead costs than did the Song K-T. Q 3) A recent research study of undergraduate students analyzed the effects of music on human emotions. Each of the 200 participants attended at least 1 two-hour concert of classical music per week over the course of 12 weeks oftheir spring semester. At the end of the experiment, all of the students filled out a questionnaire assessing their emotional state. Based on the results of the questionnaires, all of the 10 students who attended the greatestnumber of concerts reported lower stress levels and higher satisfaction with their lives. Also, most of the 20students who attended the fewest number of concerts reported below-average levels of emotional comfort. Whichof the following must be true based on the evidence presented above? a) Most of the 200 participants improved their emotional state and lowered their stress levels. b) During each week of the experiment, the participants spent at least 2 hours less on their academic work as a result of concert attendance. c) Listening to classical music for at least 2 hours per week improves the emotional well-being of the majority ofyoung adults. d) More than 6 participants attended at least 14 concerts during the course of the experiment. Q 4) In Greenland, from 1999 to 2004, the total consumption of fish increased by 4.0 percent, and the total consumption of poultry products increased by 8.0 percent. During this time, the population of Greenland increased by 6 percent,in part due to new arrivals from surrounding areas. Which of the following can one infer based on the statementsabove? a) For new arrivals to Eastland between 1999 and 2004, fish was less likely to be a major part of families‘ diet than was poultry b) In 1999, the residents of Greenland consumed twice as much poultry as fish. c) The per capita consumption of poultry in Greenland was higher in 2004 than it was in 1999. d) Between 1999 and 2004, both fish and poultry products were a regular part of the diet of a significant proportion of Greenland residents. Q 5) Everyone who has graduated from Top Notch school has an intelligence quotient (IQ) of over 120. Moststudents with an IQ of over 120 and all students with an IQ of over 150 who apply to one or more Vidyamandiruniversities are accepted to at least one of them. The statements above, if true, best support which of thefollowing conclusions? a) Every graduate of TopNotch School with an IQ of 150 has been accepted to at least one of the Vidyamandir schools. b) If a person is a high-school graduate and has an IQ of less than 100, he or she could not have been a student at Top Notch school. c) If a person has an IQ of 130 and is attending an Ivy-League school, it is possible for him or her to have graduated from TopNotch High School. d) At least one graduate from TopNotch high school who has applied to at least one VidyaMandir university has been accepted to one of them www.ibpsguide.com | www.ibpsguide.in | mock.ibpsguide.in | www.sscexamguide.com Copyright © 2016 IBPS Guide

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Q 6) Advocates insist that health savings accounts are an efficient method to reduce medical expenses. However, widespread adoption of these accounts will soon undermine the public‘s health. One reason for this is that most people will be reluctant to deplete their accounts to pay for regular preventive examinations, so that in many cases a serious illness will go undetected until it is far advanced. Another reason is that poor people, who will not be able to afford health savings accounts, will no longer receive vaccinations against infectious diseases. The statements above, if true, most support which of the following? a) Wealthy individuals will not be affected negatively by health savings accounts. b) Private health insurance will no longer be available. c) Most diseases are detected during regular preventive examinations. d) Some people without health savings accounts are likely to contract infectious diseases. Q 7) Indira Gandhi Airport and Shivaji Airport have the same number of flight departures each day. Indira Gandhi Airport experiences 26 departure delays per 100 flights, while Shivaji Airport experiences 20 departure delays per 100flights. When delays caused by bad weather are disregarded, Indira Gandhi Airport has 5 fewer departure delays per 100 flights than Shivaji Airport does. Which of the following conclusions is best supported by the informationgiven above? a) Bad weather causes a greater number of departure delays at Indira Gandhi Airport than at Shivaji Airport. b) On average, the weather at Indira Gandhi Airport is worse than it is at Shivaji Airport. c) Mechanical problems cause a greater number of delays at Shivaji Airport than at Indira Gandhi Airport. d) The fleet of airplanes leaving from Shivaji Airport is better equipped to handle inclement weather than the fleet of airplanes leaving from Indira Gandhi Airport. Q 8) The head baker at Paradise can either purchase flour in-person from the local flour mill, Charles Local Mill, or order a shipment of flour from an out-of-state mill, Isildiur‘s Mill. The cost of the flour from Isildiur‘sMill is 10 percent less than the cost of the flour from Charles Local Mill. Even after shipping and handlingfees are added, it is still cheaper to order flour that has to be shipped from Isildiur‘s than to buy flour locally fromCharles. The statements above, if true, best support which of the following assertions? a) Production costs at Isildiur‘s Mill are 10 percent below those at Charles Local Mill. b) Buying flour from Isildiur‘sMill will eliminate 10 percent of the local flour mill jobs. c) The shipping and handling fees for a batch of flour purchased from Isildiur‘s Mill are less than 10 percent of the cost of an identical batch of flour purchased from Charles Local Mill. d) The shipping and handling fees for a batch of flour purchased from Isildiur‘s Mill are more than 10 percent of the cost of Isildiur‘s flour. Q 9) Box office receipts for independent movies for the first half of this year have increased by 20 percent over the total receipts for independent movies for all of last year. Last year, 50 independent movies were released, while so far this year only 20 independent movies have been released. The number of independent movies slated for release in the second half of this year is roughly equal to the number released so far. If the statements above are true, which of the following must be true? a) The total box office receipts for independent movies this year will be significantly more than 20 percent greater than the receipts for independent movies last year. b) The number of independent movies released in the first half of this year is equal to the number released in the first half of last year. c) The price of a movie ticket has not increased since last year. d) The average revenues of the independent films released during the first half of this year is greater than that of all independent films released last year. Q 10) As many as 90,000 people die each year due to medical error. In a campaign to reduce lethal errors, thousands of hospitals introduced six key changes, including rapid-response teams, re-checks of patient medication, and new guidelines for preventing infection. The campaign estimated that, over an 18-month www.ibpsguide.com | www.ibpsguide.in | mock.ibpsguide.in | www.sscexamguide.com Copyright © 2016 IBPS Guide

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period, more than 150,000 lives were saved as a direct result of the program. Which of the following can be most properly inferred from theabove statements? a) Doctors and nurses should be more careful when doing their jobs. b) The campaign saved all of the people who otherwise would have died due to medical error in that time period. c) In the future, no one will die because of medical error. d) If the campaign had not been implemented, more than 150,000 people might have died during the 18month period due to medical error. Q 11) Educator: Like any other difficult pursuit, music requires intense study and practice in order for one to become proficient. But many school music programs encourage only children who demonstrate early aptitude to continue studying music, while children who are not especially musical are directed towards other activities. Having learned to think of themselves as musically inept, these children do not devote any time to music and thus deprive themselves of the opportunity to develop a latent talent. The educator‘s statements, if true, would best support which of the following conclusions? a) Music education should not devote special attention to talented students. b) Everyone has the potential to learn music. c) Talent is not always apparent at an early age. d) Children are particularly sensitive to criticism from adults. Q 12) Charter schools are independent public schools that are given greater autonomy in exchange for increasedaccountability. Charter school operators are freed from many of the regulations of the traditional public schoolbureaucracy, thereby allowing them to pursue more innovative educational ideas than noncharter public schoolscan pursue. At the same time, charter schools are held accountable for achieving specific educational outcomes and are closed down if those outcomes are not met. Which of the following, if true, best supports the assertion that students attending charter schools will, on average, perform better on assessments of writing ability than students attending traditional public schools? a) Students who attend schools that emphasize order and discipline perform worse on assessments of writing abilitythan students who attend schools that do not emphasize order and discipline. b) The majority of students who score in the 99th percentile on assessments of writing ability attend charter schools. c) Public schools that operate outside of the traditional public school bureaucracy spend more time teaching studentswriting than do traditional public schools. d) Students who attend schools that are allowed to experiment with their writing curricula perform better onassessments of writing ability than students who attend schools that have less flexible curricula. Q 13) The new heart scans offer patients significant benefits. They can be completed in a fraction of the time required for an angiogram, with no recovery time necessary. Furthermore, the scans are more sensitive and can identify problem areas that an angiogram might not perceive. However, heart scans use more radiation than most diagnostic procedures, and can cause undue concern over and treatment for the harmless abnormalities often picked up by such sensitive technology. Which of the following conclusions is best supported by the statements above? a) A heart scan is safer than an angiogram procedure. b) Patients should not be concerned about heart abnormalities that appear in a heart scan. c) A heart scan could result in indirect harm by causing a patient to undergo risky, unnecessary procedures. d) An angiogram is the more appropriate of the two procedures for most patients. Q 14) In the Last April, in an attempt to lower the number of traffic fatalities, the state legislature passed its ―Click It or Ticket‖ law. Under the new law, motorists can be pulled over and ticketed for not wearing their seat belts, even if an additional driving infraction has not been committed. Lawyers and citizens‘ groups are already protesting the law, saying it unfairly infringes on the rights of the state‘s drivers. Law enforcement www.ibpsguide.com | www.ibpsguide.in | mock.ibpsguide.in | www.sscexamguide.com Copyright © 2016 IBPS Guide

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groups counter these claims by stating that the new regulations will save countless additional lives. Which of the following inferences is best supported by the passage above? a) Prior to the ―Click It or Ticket‖ law, motorists could not be stopped simply for not wearing a seat belt. b) The ―Click It or Ticket‖ law violates current search and seizure laws. c) Laws similar to ―Click It or Ticket‖ have effectively reduced traffic fatalities in a number of states. d) The previous seatbelt laws were ineffective in saving lives. Q 15) The popular notion that a tree‘s age can be determined by counting the number of internal rings in its trunk is generally true. However, to help regulate the internal temperature of the tree, the outermost layers of wood of the Brazilian ash often peel away when the temperature exceeds 95 degrees Fahrenheit, leaving the tree with fewer rings than it would otherwise have. So only if the temperature in the Brazilian ash‘s environment never exceeds 95 degrees Fahrenheit will its rings be a reliable measure of the tree‘s age. Which of the following is an assumption on which the argument above depends? a) The growth of new rings in a tree is not a function of levels of precipitation. b) Only the Brazilian ash loses rings because of excessive heat. c) Only one day of temperatures above 95 degrees Fahrenheit is needed to cause the Brazilian ash to lose a ring. d) The number of rings that will be lost when the temperature exceeds 95 degrees Fahrenheit is not predictable. Q 16) The Department of Homeland Security has proposed new federal requirements for driver‘s licenses that would allow them to be used as part of a national identification system. Using licenses for purposes not directly relatedto operating a motor vehicle is un-American because it would require U.S. citizens to carry the equivalent of ―papers.‖ Such a requirement would allow the government to restrict their movements and activities in the mannerof totalitarian regimes. In time, this could make other limits on freedom acceptable. The author assumes which ofthe following? a) The next presidential election will be dishonest, as has happened in eastern European countries. b) The government will soon start curtailing the activities of those it considers ―dissidents.‖ c) Blanket restrictions on law-abiding individuals are contrary to the traditions of American culture and law. d) The majority of Americans are not willing to give up their right to travel and move about without identification. Q 17) Since the new publisher took control, a news magazine‘s covers have featured only models and movie stars. Previously, the covers had displayed only politicians, soldiers, and business leaders. A leading gossip columnist claimed that the changes made the magazine relevant again. However, many newspaper editorials disagreed and suggested that the new publisher is more interested in boosting sales than in reporting important news events. Which of the following is an assumption necessary for the argument made by the gossip columnist‘s opponents? a) The charitable activities of models and movie stars often focus public attention on pressing problems. b) Final authority for choosing the cover subject of the magazine lies with the publisher. c) A magazine can boost sales while highlighting the coverage of important world leaders. d) Some of the movie stars featured are now running for political office. Q 18) In response to the increasing cost of producing energy through traditional means, such as combustion, many utility companies have begun investing in renewable energy sources, chiefly wind and solar power, hoping someday to rely on them completely and thus lower energy costs. The utility companies claim that although these sources require significant initial capital investment, they will provide stable energy supplies at low cost. As a result, these sources will be less risky for the utilities than nonrenewable sources, such as gas, oil, and coal, whose prices can fluctuate dramatically according to availability. The claim of the utility companies presupposes which of the following? a) The public will embrace the development of wind and solar power. www.ibpsguide.com | www.ibpsguide.in | mock.ibpsguide.in | www.sscexamguide.com Copyright © 2016 IBPS Guide

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b) No new deposits of gas, oil, and coal will be discovered in the near future. c) Weather patterns are consistent and predictable. d) The necessary technology for conversion to wind and solar power is not more expensive than the technologyneeded to create energy through combustion. Q 19) The media claim that the economy is entering a phase of growth and prosperity. They point to lower unemployment rates and increased productivity. This analysis is false, though. The number of people filing for bankruptcy has increased every month for the last six months, and bankruptcy lawyers report that they are busier than they have been in years. Which of the following is an assumption on which the argument depends? a) Unemployment rates are not useful indicators of growth and prosperity. b) Economic growth cannot be measured in terms of productivity. c) Legislation has not been recently passed to make legal bankruptcy easier to obtain. d) There has not been an increase in the number of bankruptcy lawyers. Q 20) In order to save money, some of Company X‘s manufacturing plants converted from oil fuel to natural gas last year, when the cost of oil was more than the cost of natural gas. Because of a sudden, unexpected shortage, however, natural gas now costs more than oil, the price of which has fallen steeply over the past year. The cost of conversion back to oil would more than negate any cost savings in fuel. So Company X‘s fuel costs this year will be significantly higher than they were last year. Which of the following is an assumption on which the argument above depends? a) Company X does not have money set aside for the increased costs of fuel. b) The increase in the cost of fuel cannot be offset by reductions in other operating expenses. c) The price of natural gas will never again fall below that of oil. d) The cost of fuel needed by those of Company X‘s plants that converted to natural gas is not less than the cost offuel needed by those plants still using oil. Q 21) Advertisement: Hansraj Oculars are the newest in binocular technology for the professional bird watcher. For a price comparable to that of traditional binoculars, Hansraj Oculars are specially designed with the features demanded by birding enthusiasts: they are lightweight, compact and extremely durable. So, use Hansraj Oculars on your next bird watching excursion, and see some of the world‘s rarest species in all of their beautiful plumage. Which of the following is an assumption on which the author of the advertisement relies? a) Hansraj Oculars weigh less than traditional binoculars. b) Hansraj Oculars should be used only by bird watchers. c) The reader will travel through the habitats of rare species during his or her next bird watching trip. d) Hansraj Oculars are similar in cost to traditional binoculars. Q 22) Every year many people become ill because of airborne mold spores in their homes. After someone becomes ill, specialists are often hired to eradicate the mold. These specialists look in damp areas of the house, since mold is almost always found in places where there is substantial moisture. If one wishes to avoid mold poisoning, then, one should make sure to keep all internal plumbing in good condition to prevent leakage that could serve as a breeding ground for mold. Which of the following is an assumption on which the argument depends? a) Mold itself does not create moisture. b) Most homeowners know enough about plumbing to determine whether theirs is in good condition. c) Mold cannot grow in dry areas. d) No varieties of mold are harmless. Q 23) Smoking is a known cause of certain serious health problems, including emphysema and lung cancer. Now, an additional concern can be added to the list of maladies caused by smoking. A recent study surveyed www.ibpsguide.com | www.ibpsguide.in | mock.ibpsguide.in | www.sscexamguide.com Copyright © 2016 IBPS Guide

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both smokers and nonsmokers, and found that smokers are significantly more anxious and nervous than nonsmokers. Which of the following is an assumption on which the argument rests? a) Anxiety and nervousness can lead to serious health problems. b) Anxiety and nervousness do not make individuals more likely to start smoking. c) Equivalent numbers of smokers and nonsmokers were surveyed for the study. d) Smokers are aware of the various health problems attributed to smoking, including lung cancer and emphysema. Q 24) A recent article stated that only 5.5% of colleges in country A grant the majority of their degrees in the liberal arts. Citing this, a reader wrote to lament that this was further evidence of the decline of academic rigor in country A‘s high school education. Which of the following is an assumption on the part of the reader? a) The percentage of country A colleges granting liberal arts degrees would continue to drop. b) All colleges should grant the majority of their degrees in the liberal arts. c) Most post-secondary scientific, engineering, and vocational training does not involve as much academic rigor asliberal arts training. d) Academic rigor is the most important aspect of post high school education. Q 25) Parent: The city education department is unable to distinguish between annoyances and important problems. For instance, prohibiting students from having cell phones is an overreaction. If a student uses one and thus interferes with instruction, confiscate it. All in all, we need educational leadership that can solve problems, not create them. Which of the following is an assumption made by the parent? a) Students having cell phones does not constitute an important problem for the city schools. b) Students have no need for cell phones in school. c) Faculty and staff should be allowed to possess cell phones. d) Students need to have cell phones because some of them have no stay-at-home parent. Q 26) The Ergonomic Society conducted a study that indicated that many people develop severe back problems during adulthood, and that virtually all such people who received chiropractic treatment showed great improvement. Therefore, in order to minimize the proportion of the population that suffers from back pain, the Ergonomic Society recommended that chiropractic treatment be directed toward those adults who suffer from severe back problems. Which of the following is an assumption on which the argument depends? a) Any person who receives chiropractic treatment for back pain may also benefit from other forms of treatment. b) Large insurance carriers cover chiropractic care for back problems to a lesser degree than they do other medical treatments. c) Individuals who receive chiropractic or other treatment prior to developing severe back problems are not less likely to develop back pain than those who do not. d) Chiropractic treatment is more effective in treating severe back problems when utilized over a long period of time, as opposed to sporadically. Q 27) Since the new publisher took control, a news magazine‘s covers have featured only models and movie stars. Previously, the covers had displayed only politicians, soldiers, and business leaders. A leading gossip columnist claimed that the changes made the magazine relevant again. However, many newspaper editorials disagreed and suggested that the new publisher is more interested in boosting sales than in reporting important news events. Which of the following is an assumption necessary for the argument made by the gossip columnist‘s opponents? a) The charitable activities of models and movie stars often focus public attention on pressing problems. b) Final authority for choosing the cover subject of the magazine lies with the publisher. c) A magazine can boost sales while highlighting the coverage of important world leaders. d) Some of the movie stars featured are now running for political office. www.ibpsguide.com | www.ibpsguide.in | mock.ibpsguide.in | www.sscexamguide.com Copyright © 2016 IBPS Guide

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Q 28) For-profit colleges serve far fewer students than either public or private non-profit colleges. At the same time, relative to non-profit colleges, for-profit colleges draw a disproportionate share of federal and state financial aid, such as tuition grants and guaranteed loans, for their students. It must be, then, that for-profit colleges enroll a greater proportion of financially disadvantaged students than do non-profit colleges. The conclusion above depends on which of the following assumptions? a) Public non-profit colleges and private non-profit colleges enroll a similar proportion of financially disadvantaged students. b) For-profit colleges do not engage in fraudulent practices in helping their students obtain unneeded federal and state financial aid. c) The number of students receiving federal and state financial aid at for-profit colleges is greater than the number of students receiving federal and state financial aid at non-profit colleges. d) For-profit colleges are of similar educational quality as non-profit colleges. Q 29) Recent research has indicated that married people are not only happier than unmarried people, but also healthier. This study has been widely reported by the media, with most commentators concluding that being married is good for one‘s health and attitude. The conclusion of the media commentators depends on which of the following assumptions? a) The longer people are married, the happier and healthier they become. b) Married couples who had a large, extravagant wedding are happier than those who had a small, simple ceremony. c) Married people cannot get depressed. d) Single people with depression or health problems are just as likely to get married as are other single people. Q 30) When a company refuses to allow other companies to produce patented technology, the consumer invariably loses. The company that holds the patent can charge exorbitant prices because there is no direct competition. When the patent expires, other companies are free to manufacture the technology and prices fall. Companies should therefore allow other manufacturers to license patented technology. The argument above presupposes which of the following? a) Companies cannot find legal ways to produce technology similar to patented technology. b) Companies have an obligation to act in the best interest of the consumer. c) Too many patents are granted to companies that are unwilling to share them. d) The consumer can tell the difference between patented technology and inferior imitations. Q 31) Inorganic pesticides remain active on the surfaces of fruits and vegetables for several days after spraying, while organic pesticides dissipate within a few hours after application, leaving the surface of the sprayed produce free of pesticide residue. Therefore, when purchasing from a farm that uses inorganic pesticides, one must be careful to wash the produce thoroughly before eating it to prevent the ingestion of toxins. But one need not worry about ingesting pesticides when purchasing from farms that use only organic pesticides. The argument above assumes that a) Consumers are aware of the origins of the produce they purchase. b) Produce from farms that use organic pesticides reaches the consumer within hours after it is picked or harvested. c) No farm uses both organic and inorganic pesticides. d) No pesticide is capable of penetrating the skin of a fruit or vegetable. Q 32) The downturn in the economy last year has prompted many companies to make widely publicized layoffs, resulting in thousands of lost jobs. Economists predicted that these layoffs would cause people generally to cut back on their discretionary spending, even if their jobs were secure, in anticipation of coming hard times. However, this prediction has not come to pass, since there has been no increase in the amount of www.ibpsguide.com | www.ibpsguide.in | mock.ibpsguide.in | www.sscexamguide.com Copyright Š 2016 IBPS Guide

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money set aside by the general public in savings accounts. Which one of the following is an assumption on which the argument depends? a) The economy has not improved in recent months. b) There has been no increase in the amount of money invested in stocks, certificates of deposit, or other savingsVehicles. c) Salaries have decreased as a result of the economic downturn. d) No business sectors have seen growth in recent months. Q 33) Because most hospitals suffer a chronic undersupply of physicians, patients must sometimes wait hours in the emergency room to see a doctor. Nurses should therefore perform initial examinations in hospital emergencyrooms to determine which patients merit immediate treatment and which can wait until the emergency physicians have more time to see them. Which of the following is an assumption on which the argument above is based? a) Hospitals should expand their medical staffs. b) Physicians cannot be trained to perform initial examinations themselves. c) Emergency rooms will run more smoothly if initial examinations are performed. d) Nurses are competent to judge the severity of patients‘ conditions. Q 34) A certain baseball team has just completed its season. In stadiums that seat 20,000 or fewer people, the team averaged 1 home run per game; in stadiums that seat between 20,000 and 40,000 people, the team averaged 2 home runs per game; and, in stadiums that seat 40,000 or more people, the team averaged 3 home runs per game. Obviously, the excitement of playing in front of large crowds motivated the team to hit more home runs. Assuming that all stadiums during the season were filled to capacity, which of the following, if true, most undermines the argument above? A) The team‘s leading home run hitter hit more home runs in mid-sized stadiums than in large stadiums B) The fans in the larger stadiums often cheered against the team. C) The team averaged only 2 home runs per game when playing in the league‘s largest stadium. D) In order to create seating for the additional fans, the outfield walls in the larger stadiums were constructed closer to home base. Q 35) Abraham will spend $4,000 to rent a booth at the town‘s annual county fair to promote his new Burger Shoppe. In previous years, the average food booth at the fair served 400 customers. Thus, in order to cover his costs, Abraham has calculated that he must sell 400 burgers for $10 each. Which of the following statements casts the most doubt on Abraham‘s chances of breaking even at the county fair? a) Abraham should not limit himself to 400 burgers; he should be prepared to sell more. b) Abraham has not factored in the costs of raw materials or labor in calculating the amount of revenue he needs to generate to break even. c) If booths in previous years averaged 400 customers, that means some booths served more than 400 and someserved fewer than 400. d) Many people prefer other types of food to burgers. Q 36) The people of Prohibitionland are considering banning the service of alcoholic beverages in restaurants to curb unruly behavior on the part of its residents. Proprietors of restaurants in Prohibitionland are protesting the ban on the grounds that it will reduce their revenues and profits. However, several provinces in Prohibitionland enacted restrictions on alcoholic beverages last year, and the sales taxes paid by the restaurants in those provinces rose by an average of 50 percent. In contrast, the sales taxes paid by restaurants located in areas of Prohibitionland that did not have any restrictions rose by an average of 30 percent. Which of the following, if true, supports the restaurant proprietors‘ economic stance against the ban? a) In the provinces that restricted alcoholic beverages, there was a short-term negative impact on restaurant visitation in the beginning of last year. www.ibpsguide.com | www.ibpsguide.in | mock.ibpsguide.in | www.sscexamguide.com Copyright © 2016 IBPS Guide

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b) The sales tax in Prohibitionland is lower on food and beverages than it is on other consumer goods, such asclothing. c) The consumption of alcoholic beverages in Prohibitionland has been on a gradual decline the last 20 years. d) The restrictions on alcoholic beverages enacted last year allowed for the service of drinks beginning arounddinnertime each evening.

Q 37) Market Analyst: Recent research confirms that the main cause of bad breath is bacteria build-up on the tongue. The research also concludes that tongue scrapers, when used properly, can eliminate up to 40% of the bacteria from the tongue. As the effectiveness of tongue scrapers becomes more widely known, the market for less effective breath freshening products, such as mints, gums, and sprays, will decline significantly. Which of the following provides the best evidence that the analyst‘s argument is flawed? a) Some breath freshening products are advertised to eliminate up to 30% of the bacteria from the tongue. b) Tongue scrapers have already been on the market for a number of years. c) Many dentists recommend regular flossing, and not the use of the tongue scraper, to combat bad breath. d) A recent survey shows that 94% of those who regularly purchase breath freshening products are aware of the effectiveness of the tongue scraper. Q 38) Companies that offer ―employer sponsored insurance‖ (ESI) pay a portion of employees‘ health care costs. In the manufacturing sector last year, companies that offered ESI had worker absentee rates 22% lower, on average, than those at companies that did not offer ESI. If, on the basis of the evidence above, it is argued that ESI decreases worker absenteeism, which of the following, if true, would most seriously weaken that argument? a) Results similar to those cited for the manufacturing sector have been found in other sectors of the economy where ESI is offered. b) At companies that offer ESI, employees have access to preventative health care such as regular check-ups, routine laboratory tests, and nutrition counseling. c) Because initiating an ESI plan requires a lot of paperwork for the company, employees, and the insurance provider, doing so is complex and time-consuming. d) Many firms in the manufacturing sector have improved workplace safety and decreased the occurrence of on-thejob injuries in the last five years, and most of these companies introduced ESI at the same time. Q 39) A researcher studying corporate executives found that they tend to have ―take charge‖ personalities, with the predominant traits of assertiveness, decisiveness, and self-confidence. The researcher concluded that people who are more ―take charge‖ than the average person are more likely to become corporate executives. Which of the following, if true, most seriously weakens the researcher‘s conclusion? a) Holding the job of a corporate executive causes people to develop ―take charge‖ personality traits. b) When working on charitable or community projects, corporate executives often use their ability to make decisions and lead people to make those projects successful. c) Some people who are not executives have stronger ―take charge‖ personalities than some people who currently serve as corporate executives. d) Many people who aspire to become executives exhibit different management styles in their current jobs. Q 40) Because of a rare type of fungus that killed off many cacao trees in Brazil, there was an unusually meager harvest of cacao beans this year. The wholesale price of cocoa solids and cocoa butter has increased significantly and isunlikely to fall in the foreseeable future. As a result, the retail price of chocolate is certain to increase within six months. Which of the following, if true, most seriously weakens the argument above? www.ibpsguide.com | www.ibpsguide.in | mock.ibpsguide.in | www.sscexamguide.com Copyright © 2016 IBPS Guide

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a) b) c) d)

Consumers will purchase other sweets if the price of chocolate increases. Researchers have discovered an effective method to kill the fungus. Dark and bittersweet varieties of chocolate will be affected more seriously than milk varieties. Most chocolate in stores is manufactured from cocoa that was purchased two years earlier.

Q 41) Recently in City K, developers have stopped buying land, contractors have found themselves going without work for longer periods, and banks have issued fewer mortgages. There must be fewer new residents moving to City K than there were previously. Which of the following indicates a flaw in the reasoning above? a) This year several housing blocks have gone on the market after being held up for months by legal red tape. b) The average size of a new home has increased significantly over the past several years. c) Re-sales of condominiums have increased over the past six months. d) The cost of materials such as lumber and cement has decreased over the past year. Q 42) The anticipated retirement of tens of thousands of baby boomers will create an unprecedented opportunity to move significant numbers of people into career-track jobs at family-supporting incomes. Major industries, from health care and construction to automotive repair, will soon face deep shortages of workers as a result of projected growth and boomer retirements. Fortunately, many of these jobs have relatively low barriers to entry and could be filled by out-of-work young people. To achieve this result, the city government should convene employers and educators to determine how best to create paths of upward mobility in these fields. Which of the following, if true, most weakens the argument? a) Immigration reform will limit the pool of available workers. b) Government efforts have been shown to affect employment trends only rarely. c) The best available positions require skills not possessed by the vast majority of the unemployed. d) A small proportion of baby boomers will not retire as soon as is anticipated. Q 43) Two years ago, the cost of the raw material used in a particular product doubled after an earthquake disrupted production in the region where the material is mined. Since that time, the company that makes the product has seen its profit margins decline steadily. Aiming to improve profit margins, the company‘s head of engineering has decided that he must find a new source for the raw material. Which of the following, if true, would cast the most doubt on the validity of the head of engineering‘s decision? a) New competitors have entered the market every six months for the past two years, resulting in price wars that have progressively driven down revenues across the market. b) Although the earthquake occurred two years ago, the region‘s mines have still not recovered to preearthquake production capacity. c) There are several other regions in the world where the raw material is mined, but those regions do not produce as much of the raw material as the current source region. d) The company could use a completely different raw material to make its product. Q 44) The current administration and Congress have once again practiced bad public policy in failing to increase Pell grants or at least limit their reduction for next year‘s budget. Pell grants improve access to higher education for those who have historically been disadvantaged in our society by financial or other life circumstances, therebyhelping recipients elevate themselves to the middle class. Without that access, the gap between the rich and poor in this country will continue to widen, increasingly straining the stability of our democracy. Which of the following, if true, most seriously weakens the conclusion of this argument? a) Total spending on programs targeted at improving access to higher education for disadvantaged students will increase in next year‘s federal budget. b) The neediest candidates for Pell grants often lack information about their eligibility for such grants. c) Congress recently authorized a bill that will increase after-school programs in urban communities. d) On average, an individual Pell grant funds less than 15% of the full cost of attending a four-year college or university. www.ibpsguide.com | www.ibpsguide.in | mock.ibpsguide.in | www.sscexamguide.com Copyright © 2016 IBPS Guide

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Q 45) Investment Advisor: It is well-known that investing in mutual funds reduces portfolio risk through diversification. It is also true that past investment performance is often related to future investment prospects. Therefore, to help my clients earn high returns with low risk, I select a group of mutual funds that meet the client‘s objectives and then invest the client‘s assets in the fund that has delivered the highest returns in this group over the past 2 years. Which of the following statements, if true, would demonstrate a serious flaw in the approach of the Investment Advisor? a) Managers of many mutual funds that have delivered the highest returns over the past several years have already used up their best investment ideas and are unlikely to sustain this level of performance in the future. b) Mutual funds span a wide spectrum of investment styles and performance objectives and no single fund is suitable for every investor. c) Many individual investors choose to manage their own portfolios rather than consult an investment advisor. d) The funds that have had the strongest past performance tend to continue to outperform other funds with similar objectives for many years in the future. Q 46) Recently, many critics of the U.S. government have pointed out that this country is the only industrialized nationwithout a national vaccine laboratory and suggested that this lack makes theAmerican public more vulnerablethan other advanced nations to diseases such as avian flu or other flu epidemics. When asked at a press conference, a government official said these critics were disloyal and thus wrong about the public‘s vulnerability. To support hisclaim, he cited the international pre-eminence of American doctors and hospitals as well as the middle ranking ofthe United States among United Nation member nations in the health categories of infant mortality, life span, andnutrition. He also added that all of the Europeans that he knew preferred to undergo major medical treatments inthe United States rather than in the socialized medical systems in place in their home countries. All of the followingare flaws in the official‘s logic EXCEPT: a) The official accepts that the quality of physicians and hospitals is a major factor, albeit not the only one, affectingthe public‘s vulnerability to disease. b) The critics could be disloyal but not wrong. c) The Europeans that the official cited are overwhelmingly wealthy males over the age of fifty. d) The UN health ranking that the official cited is based on an almost complete survey of the nations of the world.

Q 47)Consumer advocates argue that the coating found on non-stick cookware contains harmful chemicals that arereleased into the air when the cookware is heated above a certain temperature. The manufacturer of the cookwareacknowledges this hazard but assures consumers that the temperature threshold is much higher than would everbe needed for food preparation and therefore no special precautions need be taken in using the cookware. Whichof the following, if true, would cast the most serious doubt on the claims of the manufacturer? a) The chemicals released by the coating can linger in the air for days. b) Empty cookware left on the flame often reaches exceptionally high temperatures. c) Several consumers have already claimed illness as a result of using the cookware. d) There are effective non-stick coatings that do not release toxins when heated.

Q 48) State X recently decided to cut state funding for the public library system in County X. To help counteract this cutin funding, the county library system has increased library late fees from $.10 per day to $.12 per day. Since thefee increase, library administrators have seen no decline in the number of overdue books. The director of thecounty library system concludes that the fee hike has helped to counteract the cut in state funding. Which of thefollowing statements, if true, most strengthens the director‘s claim? www.ibpsguide.com | www.ibpsguide.in | mock.ibpsguide.in | www.sscexamguide.com Copyright © 2016 IBPS Guide

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a) Since the fee increase, library administrators have noted a significant decrease in the number of books borrowedeach day. b) The library system incurred minor costs to make its visitors aware of the late fee increase. c) Since the fee increase, there has been no significant change in the average number of days that books areoverdue before they are returned. d) The library system in County X tracks its books through a very advanced database system, allowing libraryadministrators to have access to very accurate statistics on the number of overdue books at any given time.

Q 49) Historically, the drug industry promoted its products to physicians by educating them in their offices or at industry conferences. In the last 10 years, it has become much more commonplace for drug companies to advertise prescription drugs directly to consumers, via television advertising and other media. Some public health advocates have become concerned that patients, encouraged by advertising, may pursue the use of prescription drugs that may be inappropriate for the individual patient or situation. However, since physicians must prescribe these medications, there is no reason for such concern. Which of the following pieces of information would be most helpful in addressing the concern articulated by the public health advocates? a) Certain over-the-counter medications are as effective for many common medical conditions as more powerful nonprescription medications. b) Prescription medication television advertisements directed at the general public only appear on certain programs and are not seen by many potential consumers. c) Physicians are also subject to prescription drug advertisements that are directed toward consumers. d) Physicians are not susceptible to pressure from patients in determining appropriate courses of treatment, including drug prescriptions. Q 50) Studies in restaurants show that the tips left by customers who pay their bill tend to be larger when the bill is presented with the server‘s name hand-written on the bill. Psychologists hypothesize that simply seeing a handwritten name makes many consumers feel more of a personal identification with the server, encouraging larger tips. Which of the following, if true, most strongly supports the psychologists‘ interpretation of the studies? a) The effect noted in the studies applies to patrons paying with either credit cards or cash. b) Nametags for servers have not been shown to have any effect on the size of the bill. c) Greeting card companies have found that charities which send holiday cards with handwritten signatures are more likely to receive donations than those which send cards with printed signatures. d) The studies indicated much larger average tips if the customer ordered alcoholic beverages with his or her meal. CRITICAL REASONING (ANSWERS WITH DETAILED SOLUTIONS): Q 1) A) Reducing health care spending in the United States by 50% would equalize the amount of money spent on health care in the United States and Britain. There is an assumption made that there is some reason to do so, perhaps in the hopes that American health will consequently improve to the level of British health, or perhaps simply to save money. The facts given in the argument are not sufficient to support this assertion. B) Although the recent study indicated that the middle-aged white Americans have poorer health than their British counterparts despite apparently more expensive health care, there is no evidence that the cost of the health care is a cause of health or sickness for either group. C) It is possible that health care in the United States costs more because the money is being used ineffectively. This assertion is one potential explanation for the poorer health of the Americans in the study, despite www.ibpsguide.com | www.ibpsguide.in | mock.ibpsguide.in | www.sscexamguide.com Copyright © 2016 IBPS Guide

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apparently higher spending on health care. However, more information is needed to conclusively make this assertion, such as proving that money is currently being wasted, and on what. Additionally, it is unclear exactly how much money is spent on health care for the age group and race studied, so the poorer health of the American patients does not necessarily tell us anything about the effectiveness of the money spent on them. D) CORRECT. The study revealed some differences in the health of middleaged white Americans and middle-aged white Britons. The study did not indicate the reason for the difference. However, the researchers did eliminate the lifestyle differences of diet, exercise, smoking, and drinking as causes of the health difference. Thus, it can be conclusively asserted that something else (other than diet, exercise, smoking and drinking) must account for the difference in health for the two groups in the study. 2) A) While we are given information about the percentage of the total budgets spent on marketing, we have no information about the actual amount of money either company spent on marketing. B) While we are given information about the percentage of the total budgets spent on production, we have no information about the actual amount of money either company spent on production. C) Because we have no information on the sale price per copy for either company, we cannot make any conclusions about the revenue generated by either company. It‘s very possible that Rendezvous sold its copies at twice the price of the K-T copies, in which case the revenues for the two companies would be the same. D) CORRECT. Since Rendezvous Hits spent 40% of its budget on production, 30% on marketing, and the rest on overhead, we can conclude that Rendezvous Hits spent 30% of its budget on overhead. Since the K-T spent 20% of its budget on production and 60% on marketing, and met its budget, it could not have spent more than 20% on overhead. Therefore, Rendezvous Hits spent a higher percentage of its budget on overhead than did the K-T. 3) A) This statement does not have to be true. The argument provides evidence about the emotional progress of only 30 participants. The fact that we have no information about the vast majority of participants demonstrates that the statement in this answer choice cannot be justified. B) While each participant did spend at least 2 hours each week attending the concerts, there is no information in the argument that would suggest that the students reduced their study time. For example, they could have attended the concerts in their free time. C) This statement does not have to be true, since we have no information about the emotional progress of the vast majority of study participants. Note that even if the study did demonstrate a positive effect of classical music on the majority of participants, it would still be uncertain whether this effect would hold for the majority of young adults. D) CORRECT. We know that 20 students attended the fewest number of concerts, 10 students attended the greatest number of concerts, and the remaining 170 students attended some other number of concerts in between. The term 'greatest' indicates that there are at least 3 different numbers of concerts attended by the students (as opposed to 'greater' to distinguish between 2 different numbers). Since each of the participants attended at least one concert per week during the 12 weeks of the experiment, all of the study participants must have attended at least 12 concerts. Even if the 20 bottom students attended the smallest possible number of concerts (i.e. 12), it must be the case that the next 170 students in the middle attended at least one more (i.e. at least 13 concerts) and the 10 most active participants must have attended at least one more than the middle group, i.e at least 14 concerts. Thus, it must be true that the 10 most active participants (i.e. more than 6 participants) attended at least 14 concerts, as stated in this answer choice. Note that if the students attended more concerts than the minimum requirement, the number of students with at least 14 concerts attended will be even greater, still validating the accuracy of this statement. 4)

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A) Though poultry consumption increased at a higher rate than fish consumption, there is no way to determine if this is due to the dietary habits of the new arrivals in Greenland. It is also possible that consumption among longtime residents of Greenland increased at a dramatically higher rate. B) We are given information about the relative rate of increases, not the actual amounts of poultry or fish consumed. As a result, there is no way to know if this statement is true. C) CORRECT. As we are given that the population of Greenland increased by 6 percent, and the total consumption of poultry increased by 8 percent in the same period, then it must be the case that the per capita, or average, consumption of poultry rose from 1999 to 2004. For example, let's say that the population of Greenland increased by 6 percent from 1000 to 1060 people, while the consumption of poultry increased by 9 percent from 100 to 109 units. The per capita consumption in 1999 would have been exactly 100/1000 while the per capita consumption in 2004 would have been 109/1060, a slightly greater value. D) Between 1999 and 2004, both fish and poultry products were a regular part of the diet of a significant proportion of Greenland residents.

5) A) The passage states that every student with an IQ of 150 who applies to the VidyaMandir will be accepted by at least one of the universities. However, it is possible that a graduate of TopNotch High with an IQ of 150 did not apply, and thereby was not accepted, to any of the schools. Hence, this conclusion is not valid. B) The passage states that every graduate of TopNotch School has an IQ of over 120. The conclusion only states that the student is a Top Notch school graduate and that he has an IQ of less than 120. It does NOT state that he or she was a graduate of TopNotch school. It is possible, however, that after attending TopNotch school for a period of time, he or she graduated from another school. If this is the case, the situation does not contradict the passage, but contradicts the conclusion (he or she was a student at TopNotch School). Hence, this conclusion is not valid. C) CORRECT. Nothing in the passage precludes a person who is a graduate of TopNotch School from having an IQ of 130 and from attending anVidyaMandir university. Neither does anything in the passage preclude a person who has an IQ of 130 and is attending anVindyaMandir school to have graduated from TopNotch School. Therefore, it is possible for both situations to exist simultaneously, so the conclusion is valid. D) At least one graduate from TopNotch school who has applied to at least one VidyaMandiruniversity has been accepted to one of them. 6) A) The argument does not provide enough information to conclude that wealthy individuals will not be affected negatively by health savings accounts. The argument never specifically mentions wealthy individuals, just people in general. B) The argument does not provide enough information to conclude that private health insurance will no longer be available. In fact, private health insurance is never mentioned. C) The author argues that people will not get regular preventive examinations, and will therefore not receive medical attention until diseases are advanced. This logic, even if true, does not allow us to conclude that most diseases are detected during regular preventive examinations. D) CORRECT. The argument states that "poor people, who will not be able to afford health savings accounts, will no longer receive vaccinations". Based on this statement, it is reasonable to conclude that some people without health savings are likely to contract infectious diseases. 7) A) CORRECT. In general, Indira Gandhi experiences a greater number of delays per 100 flights than Shivaji does. However, when delays caused by bad weather are discounted, Shivaji has 5 fewer delays per 100 flights. www.ibpsguide.com | www.ibpsguide.in | mock.ibpsguide.in | www.sscexamguide.com Copyright Š 2016 IBPS Guide

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Since the two airports run the same number of flights, bad weather must cause a greater number of delays at Indira Gandhi Airport than at Shivaji Airport. B) While we can conclude that Indira Gandhi experiences a greater number of delays caused by bad weather, we cannot make any conclusions about the relative weather conditions at either airport. It is very possible that the airports experience the same weather, but that for some reason Newcomb‘s airport is betterequipped than Indira Gandhi‘s airport to handle inclement weather (e.g. the fleet ofaircraft at Shivaji is better suited to bad weather, or the air traffic controllers at Shivaji are more competent, etc.). Some other factor could cause the discrepancy in weather related delays aside from the weather conditions being different. C) While we can conclude that Indira Gandhi experiences a greater number of delays caused by bad weather, we have no information about delays caused by mechanical problems. There may be other reasons aside from either bad weather or mechanical problems that account for departure delays (e.g. human error). D) We have no information regarding the quality of airplane fleets at either airport. 8) A) Lower production costs could explain the lower price of the flour from Isidiur‘s Mill, but there may be a variety of other reasons. We cannot state this conclusively. B) It is possible that the number of local flour mill jobs would be decreased, but no evidence in the passage leads to that conclusion. C) CORRECT. This statement properly identifies the point that, for ordering from an out-of-state mill to be less expensive, the shipping and handling fees must be less than the difference in the flour costs of the two suppliers. Say, for example, that a batch of flour costs $100 from Charles‘s Local Mill. The passage tells us that the same batch would cost $90 from Isildiur‘s Mill, yet when purchasing from Isildiur‘s, shipping and handling fees would apply. We are told that Isildiur‘s total cost is cheaper than Charles‘s, so mathematically that is: $90 + Shipping & Handling < $100, which means that Shipping & Handling < $10 = 10% of the cost of flour from Charles‘s. D) If shipping and handling fees were more than 10 percent, purchasing from the out-of-state supplier would be more expensive, not less. 9) A) There is no way to predict box-office receipts for the year. B) There is no way to know how many movies were released in the first half of last year. C) We cannot infer that the price of a movie ticket has not increased. D) CORRECT. The average revenue per film = total revenues ÷ number of films 10) A) While this might generally be true in the real world, the given information does not address whether doctors and nurses are too careless in conducting their jobs. B) While the campaign did save a large number of people, we cannot say that every single person who would have died was saved; this answer choice is too extreme. C) The argument does not provide information to make predictions about the future; in addition, this answer choice is extreme. Common sense tells us that we cannot prevent every single medical error in the future. D) CORRECT. This statement can be inferred from the original argument. If the campaign saved the lives of people who otherwise would have died of medical error, then the absence of the campaign would have meant that many of those people might not have been saved. Notice that this answer choice is more of a restatement of the given information, rather than what we would consider a true conclusion in the real world. 11) A) This choice states that music education should not devote special attention to talented students. This goes beyond the scope of the educator's statements. www.ibpsguide.com | www.ibpsguide.in | mock.ibpsguide.in | www.sscexamguide.com Copyright © 2016 IBPS Guide

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B) This choice states that everyone has the potential to learn music. This goes beyond the scope of the educator's statements. The educator is arguing against classifying students as musically inept at an early age because they might have latent talent that is not showing itself. He is not necessarily saying that everyone has the potential to learn music. C) CORRECT. By referring to the latent talent that some children may beneglecting, the educator is implying that not all talent shows its face at an early age. D) The fact that children who are directed towards other activities have learned to think of themselves as musically inept doesn't mean that children are particularly sensitive to criticism from adults. The being "directed towards other activities" is not necessarily best characterized criticism, and furthermore, it is not just children that tend to think themselves incapable of something if they don't partake in that activity. 12) A) Incorrect. While the passage mentions that charter schools themselves are freed from many regulations, no information is presented about any difference in emphasis with respect to order and discipline between charter and non-charter public schools. As such, it is impossible to tell whether this information would support the conclusion in the question. B) Incorrect. This choice presents information only about those students who score at the very highest level of the writing assessments. However, this presents no information about the difference, on average, between all charter school students and non-charter public school students. It is possible, for example, that while the students who perform at the highest level on writing assessments are those whoattend charter schools, on average non-charter public school students perform better. C) Incorrect. There is no necessary link between the amount of time spent teaching writing and student performance on writing assessments. For example, a good teacher who spends one hour teaching writing may have a more positive impact on student performance than a poor teacher who spends three hours teaching writing. D) Correct. The passage specifies that charter schools have more freedom to pursue innovative educational ideas than non-charter public schools. It follows that charter schools are allowed to experiment with their curricula to a greater degree than non-charter public schools. This choice links this difference to higher student achievement on assessments of writing ability. 13) A) States that a heart scan is safer than an angiogram. We are given no information about the relative safety of the procedures. So Incorrect. B) States that patients should not be concerned about heart abnormalities that appear in a heart scan. This misrepresents the information in the passage. The passage simply stated that the scans may pick up harmless abnormalities, not that all abnormalities are harmless. So Incorrect. C) States that a heart scan could result in indirect harm by causing a patient to undergo risky unnecessary procedures. This is supported by the passage, which states that the scans could result in undue concern and treatment. So Correct. D) States an angiogram is the appropriate treatment for most patients. The information in the passage does not support this. In fact, if anything, the passage would seem to support the contradictory assertion that heart scans are more appropriate for most patients. So Incorrect. 14) A) CORRECT. The entire controversy is based on the new law that allows motorists to be cited, even in the absence of an additional infraction. Thus, it follows that prior to the passage of this law, an additional driving infraction must have been necessary in order to stop and cite an individual for not wearing a seat belt. B) Incorrect. Search and seizure laws are never mentioned in the text. This answer choice is outside the scope of the argument. C) Incorrect. Laws in other states are never mentioned in the text. This answer choice is outside the scope of the argument. www.ibpsguide.com | www.ibpsguide.in | mock.ibpsguide.in | www.sscexamguide.com Copyright Š 2016 IBPS Guide

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D) Incorrect. Though the text states that the new regulation might save countless additional lives, the effectiveness of the previous laws are never mentioned. 15) A) Incorrect. The argument says nothing about precipitation. This answer choice is out of scope since it would require a number of other assumptions to make it relevant to the argument's conclusion. B) Incorrect. Whether other trees share this feature is irrelevant; the argument focuses only on the Brazilian ash. C) Incorrect. The number of days of excessive heat needed to cause the tree to lose rings is irrelevant. D) Correct. The conclusion is that the rings will be a reliable measure only if the temperature never exceeds 95 degrees. This is true only if there is no way to predict how many rings would be lost when the temperature does exceed 95 degrees. (If it were possible to predict this, one might be able to assess the age of a tree using its rings even if the temperature had exceeded 95 degrees.) 16) A) Incorrect. The author never mentions future presidential elections, or the role of then president in such a national identification system. Therefore, the conclusion that the national identification system is un-American does not depend on this assumption. B) Incorrect. Whether the government will soon, or will ever, start curtailing the activities of dissidents is irrelevant to this argument: that the national identification system is un-American simply because it restricts the liberties of U.S. citizens. Even if the government does not abuse the power the national identification system provides, the system could still be considered un-American. C) CORRECT. This choice connects the concept of "un-American" policies to restrictions on liberties, essentially defining blanket restrictions on citizens as un-American. D) Incorrect. Whether Americans are willing to give up their right to travel freely is irrelevant to this argument: that the national identification system is un-American simply because it restricts the liberties of U.S. citizens. Even if Americans were willing to give up their right to move about without identification, the system could still be considered un-American. 17) A) Incorrect. This choice is irrelevant, as it is not connected to the conclusion. The activities of celebrities have nothing to do with the publisher‘s interests. B) CORRECT. Since the conclusion concerns the publisher‘s desires based on the content of the magazine covers, the editorials have to assume that the publisher decides who is to be a cover subject. If not, there is no connection between the covers and the publisher‘s interests. C) Incorrect. This choice is the opposite of a necessary assumption. For the editorials to conclude that the publisher prefers profits to reporting, they have to assume that the two are mutually exclusive. D) Incorrect. ―Some‖ means ―at least one,‖ so this is not a powerful statement in any direction. Furthermore, even if several such stars were running for political office, it is not at all necessary to assume that to conclude that the publisher was more interested in profits. 18) A) Incorrect. The utility companies' claim has to do with the supply risk of the new energy sources, not with how these sources are received by the public. B) Incorrect. If no new supplies of traditional energy sources are found, then it is true that perhapsthese nonrenewable supplies will continue to fluctuate in price in a risky manner. However, the argument does not depend upon any assumption about the future discovery of oil and gas supplies. C) CORRECT. If we assume that weather patterns are consistent and predictable, then with the stated premises, we can conclude that solar and wind power will be less risky than oil and gas. If, on the other hand, weather patterns are not consistent and predictable, then solar and wind power are not reliable and thus will www.ibpsguide.com | www.ibpsguide.in | mock.ibpsguide.in | www.sscexamguide.com Copyright © 2016 IBPS Guide

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not provide "stable energy supplies at low cost." Thus, the argument's conclusion directly depends on this assumption. D) Incorrect. To reach the required conclusion, it is not necessary to assume that the conversion technology for new sources is not more expensive than the present technology. 19) A) Incorrect. This statement does not have to be true for the claim that the media are wrong about the economy to hold. Even if unemployment rates are useful indicators of growth and prosperity, the media could still be wrong about the economy (e.g., if there are other indicators that show problems in other areas) B) Incorrect. This does not have to be true for the conclusion to hold. Productivity could be a good measure of economic growth, but the media could still be wrong about the economy (e.g., if there are other indicators that show problems in other areas). C) CORRECT. This has to be true for the conclusion to hold. If legislation has recently been passed that makes it easier to obtain bankruptcy, then the evidence cited would be less relevant. The increased number of bankruptcies could have been the result of the easier process rather than of a poor economy. D) Incorrect. This does not have to be true for the conclusion to hold. An increase in the number of bankruptcy lawyers would not explain the increase in the number of bankruptcy filings. 20) A) Incorrect. Whether Company X has the money to cover its costs does not affect the amount of those costs. B) Incorrect. We do not need to assume that the costs cannot be offset by reducing expenditures in other areas in order for Company X's costs to be higher. C) Incorrect. We do not need to assume that gas will never be cheaper than oil in order for Company X's costs to be higher. D) CORRECT. The author does not take into account the fact that only "some" of the company's plants converted to natural gas. Some of the plants, then, still use oil, which is now cheaper. So in order to conclude that the company will have to spend more on fuel, the author must assume that the extra cost of the natural gas for the plants that converted is at least as much as the cost of the oil for the plants that did not. 21) A) Incorrect. The argument states that Hansraj Oculars are lightweight, but makes no direct comparison to traditional binoculars. B) Incorrect. Although the advertisement is geared toward bird watchers, nothing indicates that Hansraj Oculars should be used only by bird watchers. Even if Hansraj Oculars were used by individuals other than bird watchers, no information in the advertisement would be undermined. C) CORRECT. The conclusion of the advertisement is that, by using Hansraj Oculars, the reader will see some of the world‘s rarest bird species on his or her next bird watching trip. In order for this to be true, the reader would have to have access to these rare bird species. Even the best bird watching technology would prove useless to view a particular species of bird if the species were not present. D) Incorrect. This choice is true, but it is not an assumption. Remember, an assumption is an unstated piece of information that ties a conclusion to its premises. This particular answer choice is simply a stated premise from the second sentence of the argument. 22) A) CORRECT. The argument depends on the assumption that the reason mold and wetness are observed together is that wet areas cause mold growth. If the reverse causation (mold causes wetness) were true, then keeping all plumbing in good condition to prevent leakage would do little to prevent the growth of mold. This choice eliminates the alternate causation. B) Incorrect. If most homeowners know enough about plumbing to determine whether theirs is in good condition, then the recommendation made in this argument would be more useful. However, this is not an assumption on which the argument depends. www.ibpsguide.com | www.ibpsguide.in | mock.ibpsguide.in | www.sscexamguide.com Copyright Š 2016 IBPS Guide

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C) Incorrect. Even if mold could grow in dry areas, the fact that mold is almost always found in wet areas is still valid. This is the fact upon which the argument is based, so the argument does not depend on the unnecessarily absolute assertion that mold cannot grow in dry areas. D) Incorrect. Even if some varieties of mold are harmless, the conclusion of this argument, that ―one should make sure to keep all internal plumbing in good condition to prevent leakage‖ and minimize mold growth, could still be valid. Therefore, this argument does not depend on the unnecessarily absolute assertion that no varieties of mold are harmless. 23) A) Incorrect. The argument concludes that smoking causes anxiety and nervousness. Whether these maladies lead to more serious health problems is not relevant to the conclusion. B) CORRECT. For smoking to be the cause of anxiety and nervousness (i.e., that A caused B) it must be true that these individuals were not more likely to be anxious and nervous before they started smoking. If smokers had these preconditions, which contributed to their decision to begin smoking (i.e., that B caused A), our conclusion – that smoking causes these maladies – would be incorrect. C) Incorrect. The argument concludes that smoking causes anxiety and nervousness. The number of survey respondents is not relevant to the conclusion. D) Incorrect. The argument concludes that smoking causes anxiety and nervousness. The awareness of the health problems related to smoking is not relevant to the conclusion. 24) A) Incorrect. It is not necessary for the reader to assume that the percentage will continue to drop. The reader's conclusion concerns the present. Assumptions must be both unstated and necessary. B) Incorrect. This extreme statement is not a necessary assumption. The reader does not have to assume that all colleges should do so; the conclusion only relies on an assumption that 5.5% is too low. C) Correct. To conclude that the low percentage of colleges granting the majority of their degrees in the liberal arts indicates a decline in academic rigor, the reader must assume that other degree programs required less academic rigor. If not, this evidence would not indicate a decline in academic rigor. D) Incorrect. This is not a necessary assumption. The relative importance of academic rigor is irrelevant to the reader‘s claim. That claim only asserts that academic rigor, in isolation, is in decline. The claim has nothing to do with its importance relative to other attributes. 25) A) Correct. In order to use the issue of students having cells phones as an example of how the educational leadership creates problems where none exist, the author must assume that students having cell phones is not an important problem. B) Incorrect. The argument and its conclusion are not about students‘ needs. They concern the quality of educational leadership. Thus, this choice is irrelevant; it is not necessary for the argument to assume anything about students‘ needs. C) Incorrect. This choice is irrelevant; the argument does not concern faculty and staff cell phones, and thus no assumption about them is necessary. Assumptions must be both unstated and necessary to the conclusion. D) Incorrect. The argument and its conclusion are not about students‘ needs. They concern the quality of educational leadership. Thus, this choice is irrelevant; it is not necessary for the argument to assume anything about students‘ needs. 26) A) Incorrect. The argument does not depend upon whether or not chiropractic treatment can or cannot be used in conjunction with other medical treatments. The fact that people could benefit from other forms of treatment aside from chiropractic care weakens the argument to a slight degree, and does not act as a supportive assumption.

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B) Incorrect. The relative degree of insurance coverage of chiropractic care compared with other medical treatments is not vital to the argument. Also, that insurance carriers cover chiropractic care to a lesser degree weakens the argument marginally, and does not act as a supportive assumption. C) Correct. This statement rules out the possibility that chiropractic care or other medical treatments could effectively prevent or lessen back pain among those people who have not yet developed severe back problems. D) Incorrect. That chiropractic treatment is more effective over time is irrelevant to the argument. 27) A) Incorrect. This choice is irrelevant, as it is not connected to the conclusion. The activities of celebrities have nothing to do with the publisher‘s interests. B) Correct. Since the conclusion concerns the publisher‘s desires based on the content of the magazine covers, the editorials have to assume that the publisher decides who is to be a cover subject. If not, there is no connection between the covers and the publisher‘s interests. C) Incorrect. This choice is the opposite of a necessary assumption. For the editorials to conclude that the publisher prefers profits to reporting, they have to assume that the two are mutually exclusive. D) Incorrect. ―Some‖ means ―at least one,‖ so this is not a powerful statement in any direction. Furthermore, even if several such stars were running for political office, it is not at all necessary to assume that to conclude that the publisher was more interested in profits. 28) A) Incorrect. The conclusion makes a claim about the differences between for-profit and non-profit colleges. Differences among non-profit colleges – such as public vs. private – are irrelevant to the argument. B) Correct. One alternative reason that might explain the disproportionate aid distribution is that for-profit colleges engaged in fraudulent practices to obtain unneeded financial assistance for their students. If this were true, then much of the aid was distributed based not on the actual financial situation of the students but on the ability of colleges to defraud federal and state governments. This answer choice asserts that this was NOT in fact the case, thereby eliminating this alternative explanation and highlighting a key assumption upon which the argument rests. C) Incorrect. The argument's claim is centered on proportions. The actual number of students receiving aid at for-profit vs. non-profit colleges is irrelevant to the conclusion. D) Incorrect. The relative educational quality of for-profit vs. non-profit colleges lies outside the scope of the argument, which is focused solely on differences in financial aid distribution. 29) A) Incorrect. The research compared married people to unmarried people. Neither the researchers nor the media commentators made any distinction between newlyweds and those who had been married a long time, so this assumption is not necessary. B) Incorrect. The type of wedding is outside the scope of this argument. The research compared married people to unmarried people, but made no distinction based upon the type of wedding. Thus, this assumption is unnecessary. C) Incorrect. At first, this statement may seem necessary—after all, if the commentators conclude that marriage causes happiness, a lack of depression in married people would certainly support that conclusion. However, the statement is too extreme. One depressed married person does not invalidate the research indicating that, on average, married people are healthier and happier than non-married people. D) Correct. This statement eliminates the alternative interpretation of the research findings—that being happy and healthy makes a person more likely to get married. 30) A) Incorrect. This does not address the moral obligation to the consumers (i.e. ―should‖) of the companies who produced the patented technology, the main point of the conclusion. Furthremore, even if companies www.ibpsguide.com | www.ibpsguide.in | mock.ibpsguide.in | www.sscexamguide.com Copyright © 2016 IBPS Guide

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could find legal ways to produce similar technologies, the patented technology could still command exorbitant prices, thereby harming the consumer. B) Correct. The conclusion only makes sense if companies have an obligation to act in the best interest of the customer, as this choice states. C) Incorrect. This generally follows along with the author's claim, but we are not required to assume this in order to reach the conclusion that companies who are granted patents are obligated to look out for the best interests of their customers. D) Incorrect. This addresses a tangential issue of whether or not consumers could notice the difference between a new patented technology and a possible imitation. This does not address the core issue of the obligation to the consumer. 31) A) Incorrect. This is unrelated to the argument since the conclusion speaks about nothaving to worry about ingesting produce on which only organic pesticides were known to be used. B) Incorrect. If anything, this statement runs counter to what the argument is saying. If produce that has been sprayed with organic pesticide reaches the final consumer within hours after it is picked, it is possible that the consumer does need be concerned about the pesticides. C) Incorrect. The conclusion of the argument is already limited to those farms which use "only organic pesticides.‖ D) Correct. If a pesticide is capable of penetrating the skin of a fruit or vegetable then, while the organic pesticide will dissipate from the surface of the fruit in a few hours, it may remain inside the fruit. The author of this argument assumes that the pesticides cannot penetrate the skin. 32) A) Incorrect. The state of the economy in the last few months has no bearing on the claim that a lack of extra money deposited in consumer savings accounts is evidence that consumer spending has not decreased. B) Correct. If there was an alternate explanation for the lack of increase in savings accounts, the claim that the decrease in spending has not taken place would be greatly weakened. This assumption guarantees us that at least one other possible explanation for the lack of increase in savings (i.e. an increase in stocks, certificates of deposit, or other savings vehicles) is NOT true. C) Incorrect. Assuming that salaries decreased would actually weaken this argument. If salaries decreased, that may explain the decrease in the amount of money being put aside in savings without necessarily implying a decrease in spending. People could be making less, spending the same, and therefore saving less. D) Incorrect. The lack of growth in business sectors has nothing to do with what consumers are doing with their money during the same time period. 33) A) Incorrect. The idea of having nurses make the initial examination does not depend on increasing the medical staff. B) Incorrect. The main premise for the conclusion was that patients ended up waiting due to an undersupply of doctors. There weren't enough doctors to perform the initial examination. If the doctors perform the initial examinations there will be no time saved. C) Incorrect. The conclusions rests on whether or not the nurses would be able to perform the examinations, not on what the result of them doing the examinations would be. D) Incorrect. This argument is valid only if we assume that nurses are competent to determine which patients merit immediate treatment. 34) A) Incorrect. The argument makes a claim about the collective behavior of the team. This collective claim does not preclude certain individuals from hitting fewer home runs in larger stadiums. B) Incorrect. The claim made in the argument is based on the size of the crowd in each stadium. For whom the fans cheered is irrelevant to the argument. www.ibpsguide.com | www.ibpsguide.in | mock.ibpsguide.in | www.sscexamguide.com Copyright Š 2016 IBPS Guide

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C) Incorrect. Similar to answer choice A, this choice cites one specific example of contradictory information, while the argument is based on the average behavior of the team throughout the entire season. The does not strongly undermine that, on average, the team was motivated by larger crowds. D) Correct. This choice explains that the larger stadiums actually have different dimensions from the smaller stadiums. In order to accommodate a larger number of fans, the outfield walls are closer to the batters. Thus, it is very possible that the greater number of home runs is due to the fact that the ball does not have to travel as far in larger stadiums. 35) A) Incorrect. Though this is certainly true in a practical sense, it does not show that Abraham‘s plan will not work and that he will not stay within his budget. In fact, if he could sell more than 400 burgers, it is likely that this would help him break even. B) Correct. Each sandwich costs some amount of money to make and sell, so even if Abraham sells the 400 burgers as planned, his net income will certainly be less than $4,000. Based on this statement, Abraham definitely will not break even. C) Incorrect. Though it is true that an average number of customers means some booths served more and some served fewer, this statement does not tell us that Abraham will have fewer than 400 or that his plan cannot work. Consider also that each customer might buy more than one burger, so Abraham could have fewer customers but still sell enough burgers to cover his costs. D) Incorrect. Although some people will buy other types of food at the fair, this statement fails to conclusively weaken Abraham‘s logic. Abraham relied on information about the average number of customers for food booths in previous years, but those booths may have sold burgers or other foods – we simply don‘t have enough information to judge whether this statement strengthens or weakens Abraham‘s conclusion. 36) A) Incorrect. This answer choice may seem to strengthen the argument that banning the service of alcoholic beverages would have an adverse impact on restaurants. However, as the evidence involves data for the entire year, citing a short-term negative impact on restaurant visitation at the beginning of the year does not measurably strengthen the argument. B) Incorrect. The relative tax rate on food and beverages as compared to other consumer good is irrelevant here. C) Incorrect. A gradual decline in alcohol consumption over the past 20 years would suggest that over time, any ban on alcohol would have an increasingly small impact on restaurant visitation, weakening the proprietors‘ argument. D) Correct. This statement calls the evidence into question by indicating that any measured increase in sales taxes and, presumably, revenues for restaurants that have been operating under the restrictions last year enacted is irrelevant, as the restrictions could be argued to be completely different than the total ban that is being proposed. This answer choice substantially strengthens the proprietors‘ argument by threatening to make the cited evidence irrelevant. 37) A) Incorrect. This statement does not attack either one of the assumptions. In fact, it may actually strengthen the argument by pointing out that some breath freshening products are less effective than tongue scrapers at eliminating bacteria. B) Incorrect. This statement could weaken the argument by attacking the second assumption (consumers are currently unaware of the tongue scraper). If the tongue scraper has been on the market for a while, maybe consumers are already aware of its effectiveness. However, just because the product is on the market doesn't mean consumers are aware of its effectiveness. The analyst‘s conclusion states that as consumers learn about tongue scrapers, the market for breath freshening products will decline, regardless of whether the tongue scraper has already been on the market. www.ibpsguide.com | www.ibpsguide.in | mock.ibpsguide.in | www.sscexamguide.com Copyright © 2016 IBPS Guide

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C) Incorrect. While this certainly doesn‘t help the market analyst‘s case, we don‘t know what percentage of dentists recommend flossing over the tongue scraper, and we can‘t be sure how this recommendation affects the consumption of breath freshening products. D) Correct. This statement weakens the argument by attacking one of the main assumptions of the argument: people who use breath freshening products don‘t already know about the effectiveness of the tongue scraper. If 94% of those who consume breath freshening products already know about the tongue scraper, and if these consumers have continued to purchase breath freshening products, then only 6% of those who consume breath freshening products could decide to stop purchasing these products upon learning about the tongue scrapers effectiveness in fighting bad breath. Even if all 6% stopped purchasing the products, this would hardly create a ―significant decline‖ in the market. 38) A) Incorrect. Similar findings in other sectors of the economy strengthen rather than weaken the argument. B) Incorrect. If workers have access to preventative health care as a result of the ESI plan, they might be healthier and would miss fewer days of work due to illness. This point supports the argument. C) Incorrect. The difficulty of initiating an ESI plan is irrelevant to a conclusion about what happens after the plan is established. D) Correct. If there are fewer on-the-job injuries, then workers will miss fewer days of work. This is an alternate explanation for the decrease in absenteeism, and thus weakens the argument that the decrease in absenteeism must have been due to the availability of ESI. 39) A) Correct. If a ―take charge‖ personality is observed in people who are corporate executives because the job itself causes those traits to emerge, then the researcher‘s conclusion that the personality traits lead to the job would be weakened. B) Incorrect. The behavior of corporate executives outside of the corporate world is not relevant to the argument. C) Incorrect. The fact that some non-executives have stronger "take charge" personalities than some people who are corporate executives does not substantially weaken the argument, as the existence of people who embody the extremes of a "take charge" personality does not disprove that those with a "take charge" personality are more likely to move into the role of corporate executive. Moreover, the personalities of nonexecutives are not relevant as counterexamples to the researcher‘s argument about executives. D) Incorrect. The argument concerns ―take charge‖ personality traits, not other management styles. It is possible that the people who aspire to become executives have ―take charge‖ personalities, but have to adjust their management style according to the demands of their current jobs. Thus, this statement does not weaken the researcher‘s conclusion.

40) A) Incorrect. The argument concludes that the retail price of chocolate is certain to increase - what consumers will or will not do in response to the predicted price increase is not relevant. B) Incorrect. If researchers have discovered a method to kill the fungus, then the cacao bean crop might recover, although this statement does not provide any indication that that will happen. This statement does not mention anything about when the fungicide method would be implemented, or how long the supposed cacao bean crop recovery would take. Therefore, this statement fails to weaken the conclusion that the retail price will increase within six months. C) Incorrect. The argument does not discuss the differences between types of chocolates, so the statement that dark and bittersweet varieties will be more seriously affected than milk varieties is irrelevant. D) Correct. This statement contradicts the assumption that the retail price of chocolate immediately reflects the wholesale price of cocoa solids and cocoa butter. If the chocolate currently sold in stores was made from www.ibpsguide.com | www.ibpsguide.in | mock.ibpsguide.in | www.sscexamguide.com Copyright © 2016 IBPS Guide

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cocoa purchased two years ago, then it may be quite some time before the current wholesale price increase is passed on to retail chocolate consumers. 41) A) Correct. This suggests that there might be another reason for the decline in home construction: the supply of available housing has been increased through the release of many previously built homes. Therefore, the reasoning in the argument is flawed. B) Incorrect. The size of homes, by itself, does not point to any flaw in the argument. C) Incorrect. The argument centers on new homes, so re-sales of condominiums are not directly related. D) Incorrect. If materials cost less, it seems more likely that any decrease in new home construction could be attributed to the stated causes. 42) A) Incorrect. If anything, this choice strengthens the argument. If immigration does not provide a labor pool, it is more likely that a shortage will ensue. B) Correct. The argument assumes that it is feasible to affect employment patterns by government encouragement and/or action. If that assumption is denied, the conclusion is weakened, as the conference would be pointless. C) Incorrect. This choice makes an irrelevant distinction. It doesn‘t matter if the best positions require skills, as long as the majority are available to the unskilled unemployed in question. D) Incorrect. Knowing that a small proportion of baby boomers will not retire on schedule does not significantly weaken the argument. The argument relies on general estimates, not on exact numbers. 43) A) Correct. New competitors have caused a steady two-year decline in revenues. This weakens the engineer's contention that the one-time doubling of costs for the raw material is the cause of the steady two-year decline in profit margins . B) Incorrect. The fact that the region's mines are producing less than they did before the earthquake does not indicate anything about the cost of the raw material; it would be necessary to show that cost is not reduced in order to weaken the engineer's conclusion. C) Incorrect. The amount of raw material produced by other regions does not indicate anything about the cost of the raw material; it would be necessary to show that cost is not reduced in order to weaken the engineer's conclusion. D) Incorrect. The use of a different raw material does not indicate anything about the cost of that raw material; it would be necessary to show that cost is not reduced in order to weaken the engineer's conclusion. 44) A) Correct. If total spending on access to higher education will increase, then the federal government has addressed the issue that the author cites, albeit through means other than Pell grants. B) Incorrect. Whether candidates for Pell grants are aware of their eligibility is irrelevant to the claim that the government has practiced bad public policy. C) Incorrect. This choice may sound like a counterargument (that Congress is somehow practicing good public policy by authorizing a bill that will increase after-school programs in urban communities) to the argument presented (that the government is practicing bad public policy by failing to safeguard Pell grants). However, we have no evidence that after-school programs in urban communities help low income students afford higher education, so this does not weaken the argument presented by the author. D) Incorrect. The dollar amount of the Pell grants is irrelevant. To this argument, it matters only that they provide some help at all. 45) www.ibpsguide.com | www.ibpsguide.in | mock.ibpsguide.in | www.sscexamguide.com Copyright Š 2016 IBPS Guide

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A) Correct. This answer choice demonstrates a serious flaw in the logic of the investment advisor. If it is true that the best-performing fund managers have already used their strongest ideas and are unlikely to sustain this level of performance in the future, then the advisor‘s winner-oriented strategy is unlikely to deliver high returns. B) Incorrect. Since the investment advisor selects the fund from the group that meets the client‘s objectives, this statement does not weaken the advisor‘s strategy. C) Incorrect. Since the advisor‘s strategy is oriented only towards her clients rather than the public in general, the fact that many investors choose to manage their own portfolios is outside the scope of the argument D) Incorrect. This statement, if true, would support rather than weaken the advisor‘s strategy. If the funds with strongest past performance continue to outperform others, the advisor‘s strategy is likely to yield high future returns. 46) A) Correct. This choice states that the official accepts that the quality of physicians and hospitals is a major factor, albeit not the only one, affecting the public's vulnerability to disease. This does not contradict anything in the official's argument, nor does it make light of any flaws in the official's logic. B) Incorrect. This choice highlights the official's logical jump from "disloyal" to "wrong" in the phrase "these critics are disloyal and thus wrong about the public's vulnerability." There is no connection between disloyalty and wrongness. This is a flaw. C) Incorrect. If the Europeans that the official cited are overwhelmingly wealthy men over the age of fifty, the official relied on an unrepresentative sample to justify his claim. What is true of wealthy older European men is not necessarily true of Europeans or non- Americans generally. This is a flaw. D) Incorrect. The fact the official relies on health statistics that are based on a complete accounting of deaths, injuries, and illnesses suffered by the American public from all causes, including the ten percent attributable to infectious diseases means that the official is not limiting his evidence to cases relating to vaccines. Other causes of death are not relevant to the argument. This is a flaw. 47) A) Incorrect. The fact that chemicals can linger for days does not affect the claim; if the chemicals are not released in the first place, this is irrelevant. B) Correct. If "empty cookware left on the flame often reaches exceptionally high temperatures," then there may indeed exist circumstances under which the cookware will pose a danger. The manufacturer's claim that no precautions need be taken is greatly weakened. C) Incorrect. The fact that several consumers have claimed illness as a result of using the cookware does not mean that their illnesses were in fact from the cookware; the food may have been contaminated or the illness may have resulted from something entirely unrelated to cooking. Without proof of the claim, this choice is not relevant. D) Incorrect. The existence of other non-stick coatings that do not release toxins has little to do with the manufacturer's claim here about a non-stick coating that could release toxins. 48) A) Incorrect. A decrease in the number of borrowed books has no bearing on the revenue generated from late fees if the number of overdue books remains unchanged. The question explicitly states that the number of overdue books has not changed. B) Incorrect. If anything, this statement weakens the argument. The costs incurred to implement the new fees would cut into the revenue generated from these new fees. C) Correct. This statement rules out the possibility that the library system is losing revenue as a result of borrowers returning overdue books earlier than they would otherwise. D) Incorrect. The argument has explicitly stated that the number of overdue books has not changed. This is a stated premise that we must take as factual information, regardless of the quality of the database being used to track such information. www.ibpsguide.com | www.ibpsguide.in | mock.ibpsguide.in | www.sscexamguide.com Copyright © 2016 IBPS Guide

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49) A) Incorrect. The clinical efficacy of certain over-the-counter medications does not address the public health advocates‘ concern regarding patient pursuit of inappropriate prescription drugs. B) Incorrect. The public health advocates‘ concern does not rely on every possible consumer to see the advertisements for prescription medications. It is enough that some consumers see the advertisements. C) Incorrect. This answer choice states the obvious possibility that physicians may also see the advertisements for prescription drugs directed toward consumers. This is irrelevant to the concern expressed by the public health advocates. D) Correct. This answer choice directly addresses the public health advocates‘ concern by establishing that physicians are not susceptible to patient pressure in prescribing inappropriate drugs. As a result, drugs will be prescribedaccording to the objective clinical judgment of the prescribing physician, mitigating the danger of inappropriate use. 50) A) Incorrect. The fact that the effect applies equally regardless of the method of payment is not relevant to the conclusion. B) Incorrect. The argument does not address the size of the bill; rather, it addresses the size of the tip. This choice is irrelevant. C) Correct. This answer choice provides further evidence that a handwritten name or signature generates a greater form of personalization and emotional connection among recipients, leading to more donations. D) Incorrect. The impact of alcoholic beverages on tipping behavior is irrelevant.

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CONTENT Topics Reading Comprehension Cloze Test Fill Ups Jumbled Sentence Error Spotting

Page No.

2 22 31 44 55

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READING COMPREHENSION: Tips & tricks The reading comprehension section of English is supposed to be a part of test aiming at imploring or testing one‘s understanding of a language (written or spoken). The students are required to pursue the passage carefully in order to grasp its meaning. Comprehension test actually aims at testing students‘ vocabulary, their sense of language and their ability to understand the real meaning of the passage. Hence the students are advised to adopt certain steps while they set to work on the given passage: 1. First of all, the passage should be read quickly to get a general idea of the theme. The first reading will enable the candidates to grasp the information contained in the passage. 2. Study the questions thoroughly, after that read again the passage a little slowly so as to know the details. 3. Before answering the first question, all the alternatives answers should be read. The answers, which are incorrect, should be eliminated. 4. Don‘t spend much time on single question. 5. Skip those questions which ask you to find out the correct or incorrect from the passage or have multiple options to look for. 6. For answering vocabulary questions of RC, just read the sentence the word is present in and without looking over at the options, think about the context that word is used in. Then check the options and the nearest assumption is your answer. 7. Keeping time factor in mind, it‘s better to attempt only Antonyms and Synonyms. 8. Answers must be based on the facts given in the passage unless the students are directed to given information which is not given in the passage.

NOTE: It is expected that RC passage will be based on Socio-economic issue comes in RC. So to handle either one must regularly read newspapers.

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Practice Questions - (RC) Directions (Q.1-10): read the following passage carefully and choose the most suitable options for the questions given below: Can India make it to a leadership position in the new millennium or will it retain the ‗fast train going slow‘ image of the last 50 odd years? Most people believe that the potential for our country to succeed is huge. They are also disappointed at the inability to convert the natural advantages we possess into tangible benefits. The recent success of our InfoTech industry globally has reinforced the belief that when we put our mind to it we can and do succeed. Now, the expectation is that this success will be replicated in other areas. There is no doubt that India‘s future will be driven by the intellectual capital of its people. Even though many of the billion people are and will continue for the foreseeable future to live in a third world setting, there are many Indians with the skills, ability and aspiration to prosper and flourioush in a first world environment. It is, therefore, likely that India will, at the same time, belongs to both the first and third worlds. That first world environment will be powered increasingly by knowledge workers and brainworker. India clearly has the numbers. It needs to invest in training and skill-building and also encourage entrepreneurship and risk-tasking. I have no magic recopies to convert India‘s people power into a competitive advantage on global basis. Also I am nowhere near qualified to address macro issues like universal education and school curricular. Therefore, I have to shrink the issue into a familiar framework of ‗growing our people‘. It is imperative that Indian business pay more than lip service to the empowerment of their employees. We have to break the ‗do-as-you are told‘ mentality which inhibits creativity and promotes the culture of servitude long after our ‗foreign masters‘ are gone. Together with the empowerment, there has to be a culture of personnel accountability so that everyone realizes the necessity of valuing commitment. In all areas of activity, seniority and hierarchies must be based purely on merit. Seniority, like respect, must be earned and not ‗termed‘ i.e. based on the length of service. Future organizations will be based on communities and interaction between individuals and teams both within and outside the organization. The work environment both with the respect to physical space as well as culture must be barrier less, allowing the impromptu and regular and regular interaction across workgroups or teams.

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Organizations must accept that empowerment and personal accountability should go hand with a degree of tolerance for mistakes and failures. Mistakes and failures are good learning opportunities for our people and should be regarded as such unless repeated. Tolerance would also provide a safety net for those prepared to take risks, a quality rarely seen among Indian executives today, but crucial to succeed in the new economy. Organizations must be transparent as possible with their employees. Both good and bad news must be shared. Often organization and their leadership wrongly believe that the employees aren‘t interested in certain information or, more arrogantly, decide that information is best withheld as it is beyond the comprehension of their employees. Knowledge sharing must be pushed at all levels through a carrot and stick approach. Those who continuously hoard knowledge must be weeded out. Everyone must come top work thinking that he will learn and add to his skills. Performance management must be institutionalized to give everyone a clear understanding of organizational goals tem goals, the individual‘s role or goals within the team reward which follow from meeting goals, and career opportunities in the organization. Encourage a sense of commitment to the community among your employees. Apart from making them feel good about themselves, it also affords opportunities for them to work as team s in a non work environment. Above all, make work fun. If people, however talented, show up at work because it is a job, then they are unlikely to realize their full potential. The above is not an exhaustive list for each organization to get the best out of its people. But if each organization addresses some of these issues then people will grow individually and collectively. This is bound to have a beneficial effect on harnessing and driving their intellectual capital. 1. The author attributes success of India in InfoTech industry to(a) Do-as-you are told mentality (b) Lazy and intolerant attitude of Indians (c) Growing global economy (d) Realizing the latent intellectual capital (e) None of the above 2. Which of the following is the best way for organizations to be transparent? (a) Share both good and bad news at all levels (b) Share only that information which employees can understand (c) Share only good news and withhold bad news (d) Only relevant information should be shared www.ibpsguide.com | www.ibpsguide.in | mock.ibpsguide.in | www.sscexamguide.com Copyright Š 2016 IBPS Guide

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(e) None of the above 3. The carrot-and-stick method will realize which of the following objectives: (a) The accountability of the employees will improve (b) The confidential information will remain as guarded secret (c) There will be improvement in the skill of employees (d) The free flow of knowledge and information will improve (e) None of the above. 4. Which of the following measures, according to the passage, if adopted, will make employees value commitment? (a) Strengthening the skills (b) Giving necessary instructions (c) Fixing accountability (d) Both (a) and (c) (e) Both (a) and (b) 5. What does the word ‗impromptu‘ communicate in the passage? (a) The communication should be unprovoked. (b) Employee‘s interaction should be spontaneous and natural. (c) The work groups should be prompted to talk less, work more (d) Work groups and teams should interact only if it is necessary. (e) None of the above 6. The phrase ‗ fast train going slow‘ in the passage refers to (a) Following the old policies of governance (b) Not realizing the inbuilt potential (c) Both (a) and (b) (d) Following new trends (e) None of the above 7. According to author, which of the following factors inhibits creativity? (a) Giving more emphasis on seniority (b) Less emphasis on team work (c) Asking employees to follow directions only www.ibpsguide.com | www.ibpsguide.in | mock.ibpsguide.in | www.sscexamguide.com Copyright © 2016 IBPS Guide

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(d) Liability of organization to address macro issues (e) None of the above 8. According to the passage which of the following is predicament of Indian business? (a) The core issues of universal education are not addressed (b) The government policies are not favorable (c) While strengthening employees‘ potential, the policies are more talked and implemented. (d) The field of completion is uneven. (e) None of the above 9. To realize the full potential of the talent, what are recommendations of the passage? (a) Making the working place as funny as possible (b) Love your job even if you hare to work (c) Make clear difference between job and work (d) Make work as interesting as if it is fun (e) None of the above 10. Which of the following provides good learning opportunities? (a) High level of tolerance for failure (b) Repeating the mistakes till learning takes place (c) Overlooking the mistakes of the employees (d) Making efforts not to do the same mistake again (e) None of the above Directions (Q.11-20): read the following passage carefully and choose the most suitable options for the questions given below: A Generation ago Medellin was Columbia‘s and the world‘s most violent city. But a mathematician who served as major in 2003-07 began the task of turning Medellin around. He invested in urban projects designed to bridge the city‘s socio-economic divide, such as cable cars connecting shanty towns to the metro and to new public libraries in poorer areas. With a relatively small budget, he concentrated on drawing open security and development plans buildings ‗education parks‘ in each municipality emblematic buildings designed as teachers‘ centers but also meant to mobilize communities to improve the quality of schooling. The problem is that income distribution for Columbia as a whole is among the most unequal in Latin America, behind only Haiti and Honduras. When the government recently carried out the first agricultural census for 45 www.ibpsguide.com | www.ibpsguide.in | mock.ibpsguide.in | www.sscexamguide.com Copyright © 2016 IBPS Guide

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years, it is found that two-third of all farms have less than 5 hectares and together occupy less than 5% of all agricultural and grazing land. Still, the proportion of people living in poverty (defined as income per head of $ 4 a day or less in purchasing-power-parity terms) fell from almost 50% in 2002 to 29.5% in 204, and incomes of the poorest 40% have grown faster than average, according to international aid organizations such as the World Bank. Many more children now benefit from education, though Columbia still hovers near the bottom of the OCED‘s (a club for all producing countries) PISA rankings that test children in 65 economics for reading, math and science. There are ‗three Columbia‘s‘. One, in the main cities, is a sophisticated place with rapid economic growth and first world indicators. A second has seen social improvements but lack good jobs. A third, made up of 3 million people, lacks even basic services. Not coincidently, this third Columbia is where conflict has persisted. But three things are still missing. The first is better roads. The government has embarked on an ambitious infrastructure program, but it is confined to the main national route. Second, security, though much improved, still needs to get better. Third, if farmers are not to be dependent solely on cocoa, they need credit and technical advice. Local political and state institutions will also need to be strengthened. These suffer ‗chronic deficiencies‘ such as corruption, lack of competence, democratic accountability and budget resources, as UN started in a report last year. The government is setting up a $ 400 million fund with the money from the World Bank and inter American development bank to install drinking water and sewerage in the coast‘s four main cities. The rural economy will need more attention too. Stare agricultural agencies need a complete revamp to be able to expand credit and technical help to small farmers. Together with changes to social policies, this could close the rural urban development gap within 20 years. 11. Which of the following correctly describes international aid efforts in Columbia? (a) There are non-existent owing to global economic conditions. (b) These have further damaged Columbia‘s economy. (c) These are likely to widen the rural-urban divide in Columbia. (d) It has had an adverse impact on rural agricultural incomes. (e) None of the above 12. Which one of the following correctly explains the phrase ‗these suffer chronic deficiencies‘ as used in the passage? (a) For the past few years crops in Columbia are suffering from chronic diseases. www.ibpsguide.com | www.ibpsguide.in | mock.ibpsguide.in | www.sscexamguide.com Copyright © 2016 IBPS Guide

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(b) Water-borne diseases in Columbia are widespread. (c) Local institutions are plagued by systematic flaws. (d) Poor Columbians suffer from many vitamin related deficiencies. (e) Ti is impossible to correct the agricultural sector which needs it complete revamp. 13. Which of the following is the central idea of the passage? (a) Columbia has split into various blocs, each of which is demanding sovereignty. (b) Columbia is a poor undeveloped nation on the brink of war. (c) Agricultural reform is the answer to Columbia‘s problems. (d) Columbia has taken adequate steps to address its infrastructure issues. (e) Security and development are keys if Columbia is to reach its potential. 14. According to the passage which of the following is/are factor(s) impacting the situation in Columbia? (a) Tremendous increase in poverty (b) Availability of funds for development programmes (c) Lack of infrastructure (d) Only (b) and (c) (e) Only (a) and (c) 15. Which of the following is true in the context of the passage? (a) Columbia‘s poverty estimates are drastically under-reported. (b) Haiti and Honduras are the most prosperous Latin American nations. (c) Columbia‘s education system needs reform. (d) Urban development projects in Columbia had failed owing to lack of funds. (e) All of the above 16. What does the author want to convey through the anecdote of Merlin cited in the passage? (a) Medellin is ripe for social unrest as the gap between the rich and poor is too wide. (b) Innovative low-cost development schemes have benefited Columbia. (c) Academics do not make able administrators (d) Medellin‘s PISA ranking is well designed. (e) None of the above 17. Choose the word which his most nearly the SAME in the meaning of word Emblematic as given in the passage? www.ibpsguide.com | www.ibpsguide.in | mock.ibpsguide.in | www.sscexamguide.com Copyright © 2016 IBPS Guide

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(a) Symbolic (b) Warning (c) Valuable (d) Belief (e) Flagged 18. Choose the synonyms of Hovers as given in bold as used in the passage? (a) Leaves (b) Flies (c) Attacks (d) Remains (e) Delays 19. Choose the word which is opposite in meaning to the word Confined as given in bold as used in the passage? (a) Imprisoned (b) Discharged (c) Withhold (d) Extensive (e) Unlocked 20. Choose the word which is opposite in meaning to the word Persisted as given in bold as used in the passage? (a) Wasted (b) Grown (c) Escaped (d) Advanced (e) Faded Directions (Q.21-30): read the following passage carefully and choose the most suitable options for the questions given below: As campuses across the U.S. open their doors to new students, fresh out of high school, the conversation is dominated by issues of diversity, free speech and safe spaces. Some people hold that we need to take care not to offend others, to create spaces where everyone not only feels safe, but is also valued and respected. Others www.ibpsguide.com | www.ibpsguide.in | mock.ibpsguide.in | www.sscexamguide.com Copyright Š 2016 IBPS Guide

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hold that education is about being exposed to and dealing with a wide range of information, ideas and opinions, some of which we may find disagreeable or even offensive. In the first scenario, it is expected that we watch what we say and how we say it, and any potentially offensive material is introduced with a ―trigger warning‖, indicating that it could hurt the sentiments of certain people. So an article about the refugee crisis might be potentially disturbing to people who have themselves been through such an experience, or a film that deals with suicide could affect someone who either attempted it or knows someone who has. The spirit behind this approach is to increase sensitivity to difference and to be reflective about how everything we say and do could be interpreted by those who come from backgrounds that may be different from ours. Many institutions have put in place (or are now designing) orientation programmes for their students and faculty that gets them to recognize the multiple ways in which we might offend or hurt by our words, gestures and actions. Many have criticized this approach for taking things too far, for having a “chilling” effect — making people so worried about offending that they end up not saying anything, not offering honest criticism, or masking their true responses with political correctness. A recent statement by the president of a university emphasized that campuses should be spaces of free speech and debate, implying that over-use of trigger warnings could discourage true dialogue, and worse, would result in students not being exposed to a range of viewpoints. Others, similarly, have warned that too much of an emphasis on this kind of ―safety‖ would not build the ability to engage with and resolve differences — something that is important in today‘s polarized world. In India, too, we have had our share of back-and-forth on the right to offend and the right to take offence. Few would disagree that we need to develop awareness of and sensitivity to differences of various kinds — sexual, social, cultural and political. At the same time, we also need to develop the ability to talk through things we do not understand completely or what we do not agree with. Before dismissing a point of view we need to engage with it—and this means running the risk of being displeased, angered or even offended. College is the perfect place to do this. For the first time, as young adults, we have the opportunity to interact with people who may be very different from ourselves. It is an opportunity to understand this difference, to explore from the bottom up, to ask questions about it, and then figure out where we stand in relation to it. Understanding people and becoming aware of their experiences is one thing. Understanding their ideas and the reasoning behind their actions is another. It is important to distinguish between the two and to cultivate both kinds of understanding. www.ibpsguide.com | www.ibpsguide.in | mock.ibpsguide.in | www.sscexamguide.com Copyright © 2016 IBPS Guide

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Once we leave college, we tend to interact with a fairly homogeneous group of people — family, workplace acquaintances, a few neighbors — who all look and think like us. Universities, particularly public universities, on the other hand, expose us to people from different socio-economic and cultural backgrounds. We can have ―trigger warnings‖ at the back of our minds and talk to people carefully to begin with, trying to figure out what makes them vulnerable and managing our interactions in a way that builds on acceptance rather than suspicion. The questions we ask and answer at this stage revolve around: ―Who are you (as defined by the person)?‖ ―What are your experiences?‖ ―What makes you tick?‖ ―What are your fears and hopes?‖ From here we go on to: ―What do you think of…?‖ ―Why do you hold that position?‖ The underlying spirit all through this questioning is to understand, not to challenge or attack. Once understanding has been established, the space naturally becomes safe for further intellectual dialogue that is open and free ranging. Safe spaces cannot be built on the basis of restricting speech. They can only emerge over time from a process of real dialogue. 21. What are the views of other people about education? (a)

It deals with a wide range of information, ideas and opinions, some of which we may find

disagreeable or even offensive. (b)

It creates spaces where everyone not only feels safe, but is also valued and respected.

(c)

Education is the fundamental right of every girl child

(d)

Both (a) and (b)

(e)

Both (b) and (c)

22. What is the underlying spirit for making safe space for intellectual dialogue? (a)

To worried about offending

(b)

To develop the ability to talk through things

(c)

To develop awareness of and sensitivity to differences of various kinds

(d)

To understand, not to challenge or attack.

(e)

None of these

23. What was the statement made by the president for ‗campuses‘? (a)

He says that we need to take care not to offend others, to create spaces where everyone not

only feels safe, but is also valued and respected.

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(b)

He warned that too much of an emphasis on this kind of ―safety‖ would not build the ability to

engage with and resolve differences (c)

Campuses should be spaces of free speech and debate, implying that over-use of trigger

warnings could discourage true dialogue, and worse, would result in students not being exposed to a range of viewpoints. (d)

Both (b) and (c)

(e)

None of these

24. What are the sections in which we needed to bring awareness in India? (a)

Political knowledge

(b)

Cultural knowledge

(c)

Social knowledge

(d)

Sexual knowledge

(e)

All of the above

25. Which of the following is true as per the passage? (a)

Safe spaces can be built on the basis of restricting speech.

(b)

Understanding people and becoming aware of their experiences is two different things.

(c)

Some people hold that we need to take care to offend others, to create spaces where everyone

not only feels safe, but is also valued and respected. (d)

Universities, particularly public universities, on the other hand, do not expose us to people

from different socio-economic and cultural backgrounds. (e)

None of the these

26. Which of the following is false as per the passage? (a) They can only emerge over time from a process of real dialogue. (b) Before dismissing a point of view we need to engage with it—and this means running the risk of being displeased, angered or even offended. (c) Safe spaces can be built on the basis of restricting speech. (d) All of the above (e) None of these 27. Which of the following word can replace the word polarized? (a)

Demarcated www.ibpsguide.com | www.ibpsguide.in | mock.ibpsguide.in | www.sscexamguide.com Copyright © 2016 IBPS Guide

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(b)

Parallel

(c)

Diluted

(d)

Connected

(e)

None of these

28. Which of the following determines the correct meaning of phrase „a chilling effect‟? (a)

A situation where speech or conduct is suppressed by fear of penalization at the interests of an

individual or group (b)

The apparent temperature felt on exposed skin, which is a function of the air temperature and

wind speed (c)

A shocking effect that is not understands by peoples.

(d)

All of the above

(e)

None of these

29. Which of the following is the meaning of ‗trigger warning‟? (a)

A potentially offensive material

(b)

A alarm warning machine

(c)

A unaltered situation

(d)

A limit of differences between gestures of people

(e)

None of these

30. What are the steps taken by the institutes to reduce trigger warning? (a)

A committee has been set up to evoke measures to reduce the consequence of it.

(b)

Awareness about fundamental rights is given to each students and faculty members.

(c)

Designed an orientation programmes for their students and faculty that gets them to recognize

the multiple ways in which we might offend or hurt by our words, gestures and actions. (d)

Both (a) and (c)

(e)

Both (b) and (c)

Directions (Q.31-40): read the following passage carefully and choose the most suitable options for the questions given below: Thirty one countries submitted their ratification instruments for the Paris climate treaty to the UN on Wednesday, bringing the total count of countries that have endorsed the treaty to 60, accounting for nearly 48 per cent of global greenhouse gas emissions. www.ibpsguide.com | www.ibpsguide.in | mock.ibpsguide.in | www.sscexamguide.com Copyright © 2016 IBPS Guide

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At a ratification ceremony for the Paris agreement held in the UN headquarters on Wednesday, the countries that endorsed the treaty helped clear the first hurdle of 55 countries required for its early entry into force by 2016. However, the total global emissions count currently falls short of the requisite 55 per cent for the treaty to enter into force. Fourteen more countries will join the agreement later in 2016, virtually assuring entry into force, an official statement from the UN said. Eager to leave behind a legacy of positive climate action, before he exits office next year, UN Secretary General Ban ki-Moon pushed countries to come forward and ratify the treaty at the earliest possible during the second day of the 71st UNGA underway now. The U.S. government too has been keen to see through the treaty before President Barack Obama exits office next year. Speaking at the ratification ceremony in the UN General Assembly on Wednesday, U.S. Secretary of State John Kerry said, ―We are already seeing the impacts of climate change. People are dying of heat, or being displaced,‖ urging more countries to join the fight against climate change. Mr. Ban observed that the continued strong global momentum for climate action was unprecedented. Most international treaties take several years to enter into force. The Kyoto Protocol had entered into force eight years after it was first signed in 1997. ―Today we can say with ever more confidence that this historic moment is likely to come very soon, perhaps even by the time governments meet for the next round of climate negotiations in Marrakech, Morocco in November,‖ Patricia Espinosa, Executive Secretary of the UNFCCC said at the ceremony. Brexit impact on EU ratification The European Union with its bloc of 28 countries could likely provide a major boost to the Paris treaty‘s early entry into force. But there have been fears that the impact of Brexit and Poland‘s ongoing constitutional crisis could delay the ratification process of the Paris treaty. However, official spokespersons The Hindu reached out to dismiss such talks. Anna-Kaisa Itkonen, the European Commission‘s spokesperson for Energy and Climate Actions told The Hindu in a written response that Brexit is unlikely to impact the prospects of the Paris treaty and the EU is aiming for early ratification by the end of the year, although member countries will have to individually pursue their ratification processes back at home. ―It is far too early to speculate on the question of future impact of the outcome of the UK referendum,‖ she said. As of now, only five EU member countries have ratified the treaty at home.

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Adriano Campolina, Action Aid Chief Executive, said that prospects of an early entry into force of the Agreement less than a year since the Paris adoption of the treaty would have been an important signal and step forward to protect the lives of millions of people around the world. Criticizing the EU countries for not ratifying the treaty during the UN ceremony, despite being the third largest greenhouse gas emitter, she said: ―European countries‘ failure to ratify today is a dent in the climate leadership it has prided itself on previously.‖ 31. How many countries have signed the Paris climate treaty? (a)

45

(b)

67

(c)

50

(d)

60

(e)

None of these

32. What is the step taken by Ban-Ki-Moon before his exiting from his office? (a)

He pushed countries to come forward and ratify the treaty at the earliest possible during the

second day of the 71st UNGA underway now. (b)

He opened the treaty to each and every countries to speak about their views

(c)

He stopped the Paris treaty in order to have peace among people in the world

(d)

Both (a) and (b)

(e)

None of these

33. What are the views of John Kerry on the ratification ceremony? (a)

The Paris agreement will lead to next world war.

(b)

Continued strong global momentum for climate action was unprecedented.

(c)

Seeing the impacts of climate change, people are dying of heat, or being displaced, more

countries must join the fight against climate change. (d)

He condemn such type of treaty

(e)

He did not give his opinion regarding the treaty

34. Who is Patricia Espinosa? (a)

U.S. General secretary of state

(b)

Action Aid Chief Executive

(c)

European Commission‘s spokesperson www.ibpsguide.com | www.ibpsguide.in | mock.ibpsguide.in | www.sscexamguide.com Copyright © 2016 IBPS Guide

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(d)

UN Secretary General

(e)

Executive Secretary of the UNFCCC

35. What is the impact of Brexit on this ratification? (a)

It will stabilize this ratification

(b)

It will endorse the climate ratification among countries

(c)

It could delay the ratification process of the Paris treaty.

(d)

Both (a) and (b)

(e)

None of these

36. What Adriano Campolina forecast about the Paris adoption of the treaty? (a)

He said that prospects of an early entry into force of the Agreement less than a year since the

Paris adoption of the treaty would have been an important signal (b)

And He said that prospects of an early entry into force will step forward to protect the lives of

millions of people around the world. (c)

He Criticizing the EU countries for not ratifying the treaty during the UN ceremony

(d)

All of the above

(e)

None of these

37. Which of the following statement is correct? (a)

The total global emissions count currently falls short of the requisite 55 per cent for the treaty

to enter into force. (b)

The U.S. government too has been keen to see through the treaty before President Barack

Obama exits office next year. (c)

The Kyoto Protocol had entered into force eight years after it was first signed in 1997.

(d)

As of now, only five EU member countries have ratified the treaty at home.

(e)

All of the above

38. Which of the following statement is false as per the context of the passage? (a)

It is far too late to speculate on the question of future impact of the outcome of the UK

referendum (b)

The countries that endorsed the treaty helped clear the first hurdle of 55 countries required for

its early entry into force by 2016.

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(c)

The total global emissions count currently falls short of the requisite 55 per cent for the treaty

to enter into force. (d)

All of the above

(e)

None of these

39. Which of the following is closest in meaning of word endorsed? (a)

Validate

(b)

Censure

(c)

Unauthorized

(d)

Evaluate

(e)

disintegrate

40. Which of the following correctly explain the meaning of ratification? (a)

It is the official way to confirm something, usually by vote.

(b)

Declaration

(c)

Informative standards

(d)

Reluctant documents

(e)

None of these

Directions (Q.41-50): read the following passage carefully and choose the most suitable options for the questions given below: A majority of Indians prefer to use the internet for accessing banking and other financial services than shopping online, shows a new survey. Almost 57% of Indian respondents using the internet prefer to bank online and use other financial services due to hassle-free access and time saving features of online banking according to the survey. Checking information on products and service online comes a close second at 53% while 50% shop for products online. The fourth on the list around 42 % of respondents in India surfed online to look for jobs, the survey said. Online banking has made things much easier for the people and it saves a lot of time. It has eliminated the problems associated with traditional way of banking where one had to stand in a queue and fill up several forms. Most of the banks in India customer friendly online banking facility with advanced security features to protect customers against cybercrime. The easy registration process for net banking has improved customers access to several banking products increased customer loyalty, facilitated money transfer to any bank across India and has helped banks-attract www.ibpsguide.com | www.ibpsguide.in | mock.ibpsguide.in | www.sscexamguide.com Copyright Š 2016 IBPS Guide

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new customers. The Indian results closely track the global trends as well conducted among 19204 people from 24 countries, the survey showed that banking and keeping track of finances and searching jobs are the main tasks of internet users around the globe. Overall 60 % of people surveyed used the web to check their bank account and others financial assets in the past 90 days, making it the most popular use of the internet globality, shopping was not too far behind at 48%, the survey showed and 41 % were online in search of a job in terms of country preferences, almost 90 % of respondents in Sweden use e-banking. Online banking has also caught on in a big way in nations like France, Canada, Australia, Poland, South Africa and Belgium, the survey showed. The Germans and British come on the top for using online shopping with 74 % of respondents in both countries having bought something online in the past three months. They arte followed by 68 % of respondents in Sweden, 65 % in US and 62 % in South Korea. 41. If the given sentences were to be arranged in their order of their popularity (decreasing popularity), which one of the following would represent the correct sequences as given in passage? A.

Use internet to gain information about products and services

B.

Use internet to search for jobs

C.

Use internet for online banking.

(a)

BAC

(b)

CBA

(c)

CAB

(d)

ABC

(e)

ACB

42. Which of the following is not true in the context of the passage? (a)

Internet users across the globe are mainly interested in looking for jobs and keeping track of

finances (b)

Germany and Great Britain are the top countries where online shopping is quite popular.

(c)

Many people in Sweden use e-banking to maintain their finances.

(d)

A majority of Indians prefer shopping online as compared to other online activities

(e)

All of the above

43. According to the passage, banks are more successful in attracting more customers due to (a)

Better training to sales staff www.ibpsguide.com | www.ibpsguide.in | mock.ibpsguide.in | www.sscexamguide.com Copyright Š 2016 IBPS Guide

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(b)

Opening more braches

(c)

Easy registration process for net banking

(d)

Both (a) and (b)

(e)

No of these

44. How many of the Indians using the internet shop online? (a)

Between 40-50 %

(b)

One-fourth of them

(c)

Half of them

(d)

One- third of them

(e)

All of them

45. Which of the following is most nearly the same meaning as the word hassle-free used in the passage? (a)

Unskilled

(b)

Not annoying

(c)

Unsaddle

(d)

Notable

(e)

Subtle

46. Based on the passage, what can be said about the internet is a nutshell? (a)

It has increased the number of cybercrimes

(b)

It is useful only for the rich

(c)

It has been hyped for no reason

(d)

It is more popular for online shopping than anything else

(e)

None of these

47. Which of the following can be the appropriate title of the following passage? (a)

The growing utility of Internet

(b)

Internet and its drawbacks

(c)

Internet-the curse

(d)

Use of internet in different countries

(e)

The traditional versus modern ways of shopping

48. Which of the following is/are true in the context of the passage? (a)

More than 50 % Indians using internet prefer online banking www.ibpsguide.com | www.ibpsguide.in | mock.ibpsguide.in | www.sscexamguide.com Copyright Š 2016 IBPS Guide

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(b)

Many banks in India have introduced facilities to suit the needs of customers

(c)

More people shop online in South Korea as compared to those in Sweden.

(d)

All of the above

(e)

None of the above

49. Which of the following synonym is of eliminated as used in the passage? (a)

Taken

(b)

Introduced

(c)

Begun

(d)

Removed

(e)

cancelled

50. According to the passage, globally the most popular use of internet is… (a)

Looking for a job

(b)

Checking bank accounts and maintaining financial assets

(c)

Shopping online

(d)

Blogging and tweeting every update in one‘ s personal life

(e)

Finding out information about various products.

Answer with Explanation-(RC) 1.

(d), the author attributes success of India in InfoTech industry to realizing the latent intellectual

capital. 2.

(a), sharing both good and bad news at all levels is the best way for organizations to be transparent.

3.

(c), the carrot-and-stick method will realize that there will be improvement in the skill of the

employees. 4.

(c), strengthening the skills and fixing the accountability will make employees value commitment.

5.

(b), in the passage, the word ‗impromptu‘ communicates that employees interaction should be

spontaneous and natural 6.

(b), the phrase ‗fast-train-going-slow‘ in the passage refers to not realizing the in-built potential.

7.

(c), according to the author, creativity may be inhibited by asking employees to follow the direction

only

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8.

(c), acc. To the passage, the predicament of Indian business is that while strengthening employee‘s

potential the policies are more talked and implemented. 9.

(d), to realize the full potential of the talent, the recommendations of the passage is to make one‘s

work as interesting as if it is fun. 10.

(a), high level of tolerance for failure provides good learning opportunities.

11.

(e), none of the option correctly describes international aid efforts in Columbia.

12.

(c), the context of the phrase ‗they suffer‘ chronic deficiencies‘ in the passage is that the local

institutions are plagued by systematic flaws. 13.

(e), central idea of the passage is that security and development are key if Columbia is to reach its

potential. 14.

(d), factors that impact the situation in Columbia are availability of funds for development

programmes and the lack of infrastructure. 15.

(e), all the statements given above are true in the context of the passage.

16.

(a), the author wants to convey the message that Mendellin is ripe for social unrest as the gap between

the rich and the poor is too wide. 17.

(a), ‗emblematic‘ and ‗symbolic‘ are the words with same context in the passage.

18.

(d), ‗hovers‘ and ‗remains‘ have the same contextual meaning in the passage.

19.

(d), ‗confined‘ means ‗restricted to‘. So correct antonym is ‗extensive‘.

20.

(e), ‗persisted‘ and ‗faded‘ are opposite in the context of the passage.

21.

(a), in paragraph one, it is written education is about being exposed to and dealing with a wide range

of information, ideas and opinions. 22.

(d), in the last paragraph, underlying spirit is to understand, not to challenge or attack

23.

(c), president says that Campuses should be spaces of free speech and debate, implying that over-use

of trigger warnings could discourage true dialogue, and worse, would result in students not being exposed to a range of viewpoints. 24.

(e), awareness to bring in India in political, cultural, social and sexual knowledge.

25.

(e), all the statement given is wrong in the context of the passage.

26.

(c), option (c) is wrong, correct sentence is ‗safe spaces cannot be built on the basis of restricting

speech‘. 27.

(a), ‗polarized‘ and ‗demarcated‘ are same in meaning as per the context of the passage. www.ibpsguide.com | www.ibpsguide.in | mock.ibpsguide.in | www.sscexamguide.com Copyright © 2016 IBPS Guide

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28.

(a), a chilling effect means a situation where speech or conduct is suppressed by fear of penalization at

the interests of an individual or group. 29.

(a), as written in the paragraph ‗trigger warning‘ is a potentially offensive material‘.

30.

(c), the institutes will design an orientation programmes for their students…….

31.

(d), till date total 60 countries have signed the treaty

32.

(a), before exiting from his office, Ban-Ki-Moon pushed countries to come forward and ratify the

treaty at the earliest possible during the second day of the 71st UNGA underway now. 33.

(c), John Kerry said that seeing the impacts of climate change, people are dying of heat, or being

displaced, more countries must join the fight against climate change. 34.

(e), Patricia Espinosa is Executive Secretary of the UNFCCC

35.

(c), Brexit could delay the ratification process of the Paris treaty

36.

(d), given in the last paragraph

37.

(e), all statement given is correct.

38.

(a), correct sentence is ‗it is far too early to speculate…..‘

39.

(a), ‗endorsed‘ means ‗validate‘

40.

(a), ratification is an official way to confirm

41.

(c), as per popularity, correct arrangement is CAB

42.

(d), option (d) is incorrect statement.

43.

(e), none of the option gives the appropriate reason.

44.

(c), 50 % Indian prefer shopping online

45.

(b), ‗hassle-free‘ mean ‗not annoying‘

46.

(e), none of the given statement can be said about ‗the internet is nutshell‘.

47.

(a), as we can see that in the passage the increased utility of internet is described, option (a) is correct.

48.

(c), option (c) is correct.

49.

(d), ‗eliminated‘ means ‗ removed‘

50.

(b), most popular use of Internet is checking bank accounts and maintaining financial assets.

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CLOZE TEST & FILLUPS TIPS & TRICKS Cloze test is a very complex sentence completion test. In this test you will be given a paragraph with few blanks. And you need to fill these blanks from the given alternatives. This test is complex and bit typical because it evaluates candidates Vocabulary power and his understanding of the message of the passage or we can say to test the ability to judge the overall meaning of the given passage. Often we provide answer and we end up with wrong one... This type of test are very common in Bank exam because the result of this test provides the ability of a candidate to understand a passage, and his knowledge to grammar as well, as grammar is the root of any language this test can judge the candidate very well. If you make a good command in these types of questions you can easily score good marks. Read the passage provided very thoroughly to form an idea about the topic. Read slowly and gain an understanding of the text. Once the theme of the text is somewhat clear, your job becomes easier. You can then go on to think of the appropriate words that suit the situation being described and proceed to filling in the blanks... Check the tone of the passage because passage is usually written in a certain tone; sometimes narrative, sometimes critical, and sometimes humorous. Remember that it is a passage with sentences that are connected to each other. Do not make the mistake of treating each sentence like an individual one and filling in the blanks accordingly. Try to come up with logical connections that link up the sentences together and your job will automatically become easier. Now look at the blanks carefully and assess the kind of words you have to fill in. To find out the missing words in the remaining gaps, find out which among the following part of speech will fill in the

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gap: articles, nouns, pronouns, adverbs, prepositions, adjectives, conjunctions or verbs. Some sentences may have the following combinations:  A preposition following a noun, adjective or verb. (Example: good at languages)  A prepositional phrase. (Example: in spite of )  An adverb. ( Example: He moved to Mumbai two years ago )  A connector. (Example: First, he arrived; then he sat down; finally, he left.)  A conjunction. (Example: Although he is seven, he can speak eight languages)  An auxiliary verb. (Example: He has won 2 contests)  An article or some other kind of determiner. (Example: I have no time)  A pronoun, either subject or object. (Example : it is easier to know)  A comparative or superlative involved? (Example: she‘s taller than me)

You will often come across a blank that has more than one correct option. List out all these options and try them one by one. Use the one that seems most fitting. Instead of getting confused, think of words that are appropriate not only to the given sentence but also fit the context of the entire passage. Sometimes, you may not be able to decide between two words. In this case, if you see a word in the options that is frequently used with the words around the blank, then pick that option.

Also most important thing is increase your vocabulary as well as reading habits so that you can easily solve the passage and have better chance to score more.

Practice Questions (Cloze Test) Directions (51-60): in the following question a passage is given having some blanks. After the passage five words are suggested in each of the questions. You have to select appropriate alternative as your answer: Does Indian industry need democracy? The Indian economy‘s sustained growth today is (51) by incomplete democracy. While millions of Indians endure poverty, only a tiny majority (52) prosperity. On the other hand, www.ibpsguide.com | www.ibpsguide.in | mock.ibpsguide.in | www.sscexamguide.com Copyright © 2016 IBPS Guide

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many Latin American countries have registered (53) growth rates under military dictators and today one of the fastest growing economies in the world-china-has an (54) rather than a democracy government. So why does Indian need democracy for sustained growth? To many, democracy (55) slower decision making with corrupt politicians and red-tapism etc. industry should, therefore, be (56) with less, not more, democracy. However, while China (57) consumption in order to save and invest more than half its output to produce 10 % growth, India (58) almost two-third of its output and manages to achieve 9% growth from one-third of its output. (59) India‘s democracy is not inefficient when it comes to making (60) use of resources. 51. (a) deprived

(b) hampered

(c) eliminated

(d) faced

(e) threaten

52. (a) pursuit

(b) acquisition

(c) benefit

(d) enjoy

(e) value

53. (a) acceptable

(b) insignificant

(c) variable

(d) inflated

(e) affordable

54. (a) autonomous

(b) economical

(c) authoritarian

(d) egalitarian

(e) orthodox

55. (a) imply

(b) mentions

(c) attracts

(d) features

(e) means

56. (a) gracious

(b) adapted

(c) fascinated

(d) pleased

(e) urged

57. (a) bans

(b) curtails

(c) regulate

(d) ceases

(e) discourage

58. (a) consumes

(b) selects

(c) indulges

(d) disperse

(e) hoard

59. (a) accordingly

(b) totally

(c) thus

(d) even

(e) likely

60. (a) ultimately

(b) capably

(c) modest

(d) secure

(e) effective

Directions (61-70): in the following question a passage is given having some blanks. After the passage five words are suggested in each of the questions. You have to select appropriate alternative as your answer: Visual experiences can (61) children, teenagers and even adults learn and absorb more due to its highly stimulating and (62) engaging impact. It is for this reason that we are seeing an increase in schools across the globe (63) content provider programmes into their class curriculum to (64) lessons through video. Visual excursions and school collaborations are (65) by advances in high definition video, high fidelity audio and content sharing, allowing students to experience a richer and more stimulating learning experience. School that have previously transported students to excursions in (66) now face increased transportation costs, higher insurance premiums, attendance costs for the families and strict duty of care policies for students while ( 67) school property. Virtual excursions (68) students to improve their presentation, research, learning and speaking skills while they engage in a live learning session. Students also now have the ability to peers from www.ibpsguide.com | www.ibpsguide.in | mock.ibpsguide.in | www.sscexamguide.com Copyright Š 2016 IBPS Guide

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many cultures, speak to subject-matter (69) like scientists or authors practice a foreign language with students from another country, and learn about global issues from the ( 70) of their own classrooms. 61. (a) help

(b) aiding

(c) prescribe

(d) feature

(e) present

62. (a) plus

(b) lonely

(c) ably

(d) many

(e) deeply

63. (a) incorporating (b) pressing

(c) following

(d) parting

(e) leaving

64. (a) make

(b) demand

(c) impart

(d) vision

(e) need

65. (a) dissolved

(b) enhanced

(c) measured

(d) failed

(e) blasted

66. (a) deed

(b) total

(c) parent

(d) person

(e) lieu

67. (a) involving

(b) saving

(c) away

(d) off

(e) vacating

68. (a) let

(b) enable

(c) present

(d) pressure

(e) collect

69. (a) clauses

(b) dictionaries

(c) books

(d) experts

(e) partners

70. (a) vacancy

(b) availability

(c) safety

(d) comfortable

(e) gap

Directions (71-80): in the following question a passage is given having some blanks. After the passage five words are suggested in each of the questions. You have to select appropriate alternative as your answer: Trust is the basic tenet for all relationships, so building an environment of trust is one of the (71) important things one can do to (72) a positive work environment. It is a philosophy that must be demonstrated in everything you and your staff does. Trust is about doing what you say you are going to do that you and being who you say you (73). It is about showing your staff in everything you do that you are reliable, responsible and accountable and that they can (74) on you for consistency. Also, letting them know you (75) the same from them. When your words and behavior are congruent you (76) trust. It will take sometime for your staff members to learn that you are consistent you will build trust, but if they see that your words don‘t match your behavior their trust in you will be (77). The unfortunate thing about trust is that it takes a long time to build, but is very fragile and breaks easily. Once broken, it takes an (78) longer time to regain, and it may never be fully rebuilt. Therefore, it is of primary importance that you are (79) of all your words and behavior and ensure that they are worthy of your employees‘ trust. Even while dealing with uncomfortable situation, if you are honest and upfront it will make thing (80) for everyone. 71. (a) most

(b) single

(c) extreme

(d) high

(e) crucial

72. (a) believe

(b) accept

(c) create

(d) lift

(e) add

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73. (a) is

(b) will

(c) are

(d) would

(e) could

74. (a) trust

(b) rely

(c) believe

(d) expect

(e) try

75. (a) are

(b) belong

(c) demands

(d) expect

(e) harbor

76. (a) foster

(b) seek

(c) ask

(d) built

(e) collect

77. (a) broke

(b) fall

(c) degrade

(d) destroyed

(e) eliminate

78. (a) even

(b) very

(c) elaborate

(d) much

(e) enormous

79. (a) cautious

(b) careful

(c) worried

(d) afraid

(e) asking

80. (a) simplest

(b) easier

(c) real

(d) contrast

(e) wrong

Directions (81-90): in the following question a passage is given having some blanks. After the passage five words are suggested in each of the questions. You have to select appropriate alternative as your answer: Reminiscing about good old days when we were growing up is a memory trip well, worth taking when trying to understand the issues (81) the children of today. A mere 20 years ago, children used to play outside all day, riding bikes and building forts. (82) Of imaginary games, children of the past created their own form of play that didn‘t require costly equipment or parental supervision. Children of the past moved a lot, and their sensory world was nature based and simple. Technology‘s impact on the 21stcenturary family is (83) its very foundation, causing a disintegration of core values that long ago, were the fabric that held families (84). TV, internet, video games, iPads, cell phones have advanced so rapidly, that families have (85) noticed the significant impact and changes to their family structure and lifestyles. Children‘s developing sensory, motor and attachments systems have biologically not (86) to accommodate this sedentary, yet frenzied and chaotic nature of today‘s technology. The impact of rapidly advancing technology on the developing child has seen an (87) in physical, psychological and behavior disorders that the health and education systems are just beginning to detect, much less (88). It‘s important to come together as parents, teachers and therapists to help society ―wake up‖ and see the (89) effects that technology is having on our children. While technology is a train that will (90) move forward, knowledge regarding its detrimental effects, and action taken toward balancing the use of technology, all work toward sustaining our children. 81. (a) by

(b) ahead

(c) plaguing

(d) solving

(e) determining

82. (a) made

(b) usage

(c) kind

(d) contents

(e) masters

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83. (a) fracturing

(b) building

(c) comprising

(d) mending

(e) breached

84. (a) beliefs

(b) together

(c) once

(d) protected

(e) whole

85. (a) failed

(b) definitely

(c) scarcely

(d) silently

(e) never

86. (a) provided

(b) entrusted

(c) arranged

(d) evolved

(e) enough

87. (a) empathy

(b) reduction

(c) improvement

(d) increase

(e) enlargement

88. (a) identifying

(b) understand

(c) expect

(d) important

(e) revelation

89. (a) encouraging

(b) common

(c) anticipated

(d) feeble

(e) devastating

90. (a) continually

(b) rarely

(c) never

(d) repeatedly

(e) cease

Directions (91-100): in the following question a passage is given having some blanks. After the passage five words are suggested in each of the questions. You have to select appropriate alternative as your answer: It the country is going to get (91) about cutting carbon emissions from oil and gas, it will have to (92) ways to scale up its use of renewable energy. (93) Wind and solar power into electricity is, in some ways, the easy part. The bigger (94) is developing the infrastructure to transmit that electricity across the country. In the case of wind, most of that power is (95) far from the urban centers that would use it. Transmission would require a nation wide system of power lines reaching from widest parts of country. Such a system could also (96) power suppliers the flexibility to shift supply depending on variations in weather. But residents in those areas do not want power lines (97) their properties. One project, called the Grain Belt express and the intended to run from Kansas to Illinois, is on (98) after being voted down by the Missouri public service commission. There was considerable (99) from land owners, who worried the lines would be unsightly or interfere with farming. Some residents also (100) to the idea of companies building Missourians land in order to sell power elsewhere. 91. (a) though

(b) severe

(c) serious

(d) intend

(e) steady

92. (a) look

(b) bargain

(c) catch

(d) find

(e) lose

93. (a) switching

(b) putting

(c) planning

(d) holding

(e) converting

94. (a) challenge

(b) issues

(c) trial

(d) contest

(e) threat

95. (a) generated

(b) achieved

(c) provoked

(d) set

(e) prevented

96. (a) deny

(b) allow

(c) hinder

(d) grants

(e) confess

97. (a) without

(b) beyond

(c) crossing

(d) featuring

(e) running

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98. (a) grip

(b) stop

(c) line

(d) hold

(e) schedule

99. (a) constraint

(b) neglect

(c) resistant

(d) hostile

(e) opposition

100.

(b) objected

(c) welcomed

(d) complaint

(e) endorse

(a) protest

Answers with Explanation (Cloze Test) 51.

(b), ‗hampered‘ meaning ‗prevent the progress‘ is the correct word to be used in the space.

52.

(d), correct word is enjoy

53.

(a), Latin American have registered ‗acceptable‘ growth….

54.

(c), ‗authoritarian‘ which means ‗dictator‘ fits the space

55.

(e), means is the correct word from all the option

56.

(d), pleased means experiencing pleasure

57.

(b), curtails means place restriction on something.

58.

(a), consumes is correct word

59.

(c), thus is correct word to fill the space

60.

(e), use should be effective

61.

(a), ‗help‘ is the correct word that to be used to fill the space.

62.

(e), ‗deeply‘ means intensely, extremely, so phrase is deeply engaging impact.

63.

(a), ‗incorporating‘ means to take in or contain something as a part of whole or include.

64.

(c), impart means to transmit, or convey.

65.

(b), school collaborations are enhanced…

66.

(d), ‗in person‘ means with the personal presence.

67.

(c), Away is correct word for the space.

68.

(b), enable means to make it possible for is the correct word.

69.

(d), the correct word is experts

70.

(c), the correct word is safety ( of their classroom).

71.

(a), of all the option ‗most is most appropriate word.

72.

(c), correct word is ‗create‘.

73.

(b), correct word is ‗will‘.

74.

(b), ‗rely‘ means ‗confidence in‘

75.

(d), correct word to be placed here is ‗expect‘. www.ibpsguide.com | www.ibpsguide.in | mock.ibpsguide.in | www.sscexamguide.com Copyright © 2016 IBPS Guide

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76.

(d), trust is ‗built‘.

77.

(d), trust will be ‗destroyed‘

78.

(a), correct word to be used in this space from all the option is ‗even‘

79.

(b), ‗careful‘ should be selected from all other option.

80.

(b), honesty makes ‗easier‘ everything in life.

81.

(e), ‗determining‘ means ‗deciding‘

82.

(e), ‗masters‘ is the correct word.

83.

(b), correct word to be placed here is ‗building‘.

84.

(b), beliefs, once, protested and whole doesn‘t go well with the context of the passage as compared to

‗together‘. 85.

(c), correct word to be used here is ‗scarcely‘

86.

(d), correct word to be used here is ‗evolved‘.

87.

(d), increase go well with the context of the passage

88.

(a),‘identifying‘ is the correct option

89.

(e), effect is negative so it will be ‗devastating‘.

90.

(a), correct word is continually.

91.

(c), country to get ‗serious‘ about the issue.

92.

(d), ‗find‘ is the correct word.

93.

(e), conversion is going on, so option (e0 is correct.

94.

(a), the bigger ‗challenge‘ is….

95.

(a), power is always generated

96.

(b), ‗allow‘ is correct word.

97.

(c), power lines crosses property lines

98.

(d), ‗hold‘ means some action is awaited‘.

99.

(a), ‗constraint‘ means ‗confine‘

100.

(b), ‗objected‘ means opposition is the correct word that to be fitted from all other option

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Fill ups (and double fillers) Direction (101-120): In the following questions, a sentence has two blanks. For the blanks, there are options. From the options, choose the one that fits both the blanks in an appropriate way. 101.

Ramesh ______ me coming to his table, he smiled and ______ me a chair.

(a) Found, signaled (b) Met, sat (c) Looked, gave (d) Saw, offered (e) Welcomed, took 102.

The leaders were ______ needed by those to ______ they addressed.

(a) Angrily, who (b) Readily, which (c) Scarcely, whom (d) Rarely, where (e) Joyfully, when 103.

I am not ______ to sell you my house unless you offer a more ______ price.

(a) Agree, better (b) Prepared, realistic (c) Ready, correct (d) Having, actual (e) Ready, better 104.

Due to _______ rainfall this year, there will be ______ cut in water supply.

(a) Scanty, substantial (b) Meager, least (c) Sufficient, no (d) Surplus, abundant (e) Abundant, considerable 105.

In a changing and ______ unstructured business environment creativity and innovation are being

______ demanded of executives. (a) Excessively, rapidly www.ibpsguide.com | www.ibpsguide.in | mock.ibpsguide.in | www.sscexamguide.com Copyright Š 2016 IBPS Guide

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(b) Highly, extremely (c) Increasingly, moderately (d) Progressively, increasingly (e) Highly, speedily 106.

Each country must realize that it has played a ______ in global warming and should embrace its

responsibility to ______ this problem. (a) Joke, reduce (b) Hunch, improve (c) Role, arrest (d) Part, recover (e) Card, strengthen 107.

Micro credit institutions in California provide loans along with free advice and training in how to

______ use the money and these ______ farmers boost their productivity and income. (a) Best, helps (b) Well, enables (c) Better, encourage (d) Important, make (e) Often, urge 108.

It is _______ that we don‘t have to wait for enormous economic growth to improve society, as even

small steps such as financial inclusion can bring about ______ progress. (a) Realized, any (b) Likely, remarkable (c) True, tremendous (d) Appropriate, significantly (e) Certainly, superb 109.

These relaxations in guidelines are _______ only to long-term borrowings and RBI will ______ keep a

check on short-term borrowings. (a) Given, continue (b) Made, necessary (c) Valid, ensure www.ibpsguide.com | www.ibpsguide.in | mock.ibpsguide.in | www.sscexamguide.com Copyright Š 2016 IBPS Guide

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(d) Granted, be (e) Applicable, still 110.

Today we _______ computers with data and get them to use probability to infer and provide us with

recommendations and _______. (a) Enter, result (b) Feed, solutions (c) Type, answer (d) Key, algorithms (e) Provide, outcome 111.

The construction of the hall has been ______ because of the _______ cement in the market.

(a) Held, non-availability (b) Denied, restrictions (c) Hampered, shortage (d) Prevented, supply (e) Completed, disappearance 112.

Only when _______ failed, the police resorted to _______.

(a) Efforts, power (b) Arrests, imprisonment (c) Persuasions, force (d) Power, punishment (e) Manipulations, arrests 113.

They wanted to _______ all these books, but they could not find _______ time to do so.

(a) Cover, almost (b) Pursue, necessary (c) Dispose, some (d) Read, sufficient (e) Buy, some 114.

Though he is reputed for his technical _______, his books were sadly _______ of the work of others as

he lacked originality. (a) Advice, unconscious www.ibpsguide.com | www.ibpsguide.in | mock.ibpsguide.in | www.sscexamguide.com Copyright Š 2016 IBPS Guide

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(b) Skill, independent (c) Knowledge, ignorant (d) Expertise, derivative (e) Dependence, indicative 115.

He had managed to ________ several times, but was finally _______ by the police.

(a) Deceive, cheated (b) Defend, acquitted (c) Escape, arrested (d) Cheat, robbed (e) Beyond, kidnapped 116.

He is so ______ that everyone is always ______ to help him in his work.

(a) Helpful, reluctant (b) Aloof, cooperative (c) Adamant, enthusiastic (d) Miserly, ignorant (e) Magnanimous, eager 117.

Instead of ________ prove your worth by _______ something.

(a) Begging, demanding (b) Talking, doing (c) Worrying, paying (d) Writing, reading (e) Donating, demanding 118.

The great scientist ________ himself with alrility and modernization all _______ the conference.

(a) Felt, about (b) Displayed, in (c) Disclosed, besides (d) Conducted, through (e) Presented, though 119.

The speech ________ with subtle threats has resulted in _______ tension in the sensitive areas of the

city. www.ibpsguide.com | www.ibpsguide.in | mock.ibpsguide.in | www.sscexamguide.com Copyright Š 2016 IBPS Guide

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(a) Started, reduced (b) Replete, increased (c) Full, escalating (d) Forced, dissolving (e) Followed, continuous 120.

The minister felt that the ________ made by the committee was ________ even though similar

schemes had worked. (a) Decision, gainful (b) Choice, profitable (c) Acceptance, approved (d) Election, acceptable (e) Recommendation, infeasible 121.

After having been friends for more than a decade, they had a _______ last year and have not ______

each other ever since. (a) Fight, talked (b) Argument, met (c) Dispute, seen (d) Quarrel, admired (e) Difference, introduced 122.

The workers, several of _______ had complained about their low wages earlier have now ______ to

move to the court for the labour rights. (a) Who, indicated (b) Whom, decided (c) Which, threatened (d) Them, resolved (e) Promised subsidized 123.

The hutment dwellers were jubilant when the government ________ an apartment to each of them at

_______ rates. 124.

The organization was deeply _______ by difficulties a decade ago, but the new CEO brought many

________ changes in it and took it to a new high. www.ibpsguide.com | www.ibpsguide.in | mock.ibpsguide.in | www.sscexamguide.com Copyright Š 2016 IBPS Guide

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(a) Indebted, necessary (b) Plagued, vital (c) Coping, more (d) Hurt, critical (e) Shaken, inevitable 125.

The prime minister who is ________ in his holiday home at the moment said that he was very

_______ by the news of India winning the world cup. (a) Visiting, happy (b) Residing, obliged (c) Intruding, dejected (d) Staying, pleased (e) Resting, cheerful 126.

As the boat ________, all those on board fortunately managed to reach the banks of the river -

_______, with the help of the life boats. (a) Capsized, drowned (b) Fell, harmlessly (c) Dropped, uninjured (d) Deceased, unhurt (e) Sank, safety 127.

Radhika _______ her team with a lot of skills and the _________ increase in the sales by the team is a

measure of her success. (a) Dominates, poor (b) Condemns, sudden (c) Manages, significant (d) Directs, worthless (e) Overpowers, exceptional 128.

On being asked for the passport, he _______ to his dismay that he had ________ to bring it along with

him to the airport. (a) Shocked, failed (b) Realized, forgotten www.ibpsguide.com | www.ibpsguide.in | mock.ibpsguide.in | www.sscexamguide.com Copyright Š 2016 IBPS Guide

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(c) Pleaded, neglected (d) Understood, lost (e) Recognized, missed 129.

Harsh quickly _______ the career ladder and is now the ______ managing director, the company has

ever appointed. (a) Jumped, shortest (b) Entered, oldest (c) Started, junior most (d) Climbed, youngest (e) Ascended, inexperienced 130.

A famous economist says that the government should do more to _______ jobs in the area in order to

curb the _______ rate of unemployment. (a) Create, rising (b) Need, increasing (c) Employ, high (d) Invent, growing (e) Generate, slowing 131.

A new study has ________ the five most common health issues in men and how to _______ them.

(a) Said, arrest (b) Stated, shrink (c) Revealed, prevent (d) Exposed, react (e) Laid, restrict 132.

_______ to the challenge of fighting drug addiction, children have _______ up the task of spreading

awareness against drugs. (a) Taking, set (b) Accepting, taken (c) Responding, set (d) Reply, found (e) Accept, found www.ibpsguide.com | www.ibpsguide.in | mock.ibpsguide.in | www.sscexamguide.com Copyright Š 2016 IBPS Guide

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133.

The night fabric can do ________ for your frame and as a _______ your confidence.

(a) Wonders, consequence (b) Marvels, side (c) Good, process (d) Remarkably, finish (e) Superb, result 134.

The wheat grains do not meet the ________ standards ________ for procurement of food grains by the

government agencies. (a) Total, kept (b) Most, meant (c) Excellence, allowed (d) Optimistic, placed (e) Quality, prescribed 135.

Student will be _______ on their reading and writing abilities through question papers ______ by the

government. (a) Judged, assorted (b) Kept, set (c) Tested, provided (d) Evaluated, asked (e) Calculated, assigned Direction (121-140): sentences are given with blanks to be filled in with an appropriate word. Five alternatives are suggested for each question. Choose the correct alternative. 136.

No one could explain how to calm and balanced person like him could _______ such a mindless act on

his friends. (a) Perpetuate (b) Penetrate (c) Perpetrate (d) Precipitate (e) Prescribed 137.

It became clear that the strangers were heading ______ a serious disaster. www.ibpsguide.com | www.ibpsguide.in | mock.ibpsguide.in | www.sscexamguide.com Copyright Š 2016 IBPS Guide

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(a) Along (b) Besides (c) Towards (d) For (e) Into 138.

We don‘t want to make your journey ______ by making you sit next to someone with whom you are

not comfortable. (a) Successful (b) Unpleasant (c) Favourite (d) Worthy (e) tired 139.

All the children were ______ as the school had announced an unexpected holiday.

(a) Lone (b) Ecstatic (c) Joy (d) Danced (e) requesting 140.

Everything from our plastic water bottles and cosmetics to our non-stick frying pans, comprises

chemicals that _______ in our bodies. (a) Stays (b) Accumulate (c) Hayed (d) Harm (e) dilute 141.

There is no clear_________ as to why so many companies start at the sane time with broadly the

related ideas. (a) Indication (b) Idea (c) Signal www.ibpsguide.com | www.ibpsguide.in | mock.ibpsguide.in | www.sscexamguide.com Copyright Š 2016 IBPS Guide

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(d) Explanation (e) proofs 142.

World economic growth which was anyway gloom, will be further dampened _______ to Brexit.

(a) Stumble (b) Thanks (c) Owing (d) Due (e) Because 143.

There is a common ________ that runs through many of these ventures.

(a) Fiber (b) Thread (c) Wired (d) Cord (e) Strand 144.

Doctors-in-training ________ a lot about the working of the human body during medical school and

residency. (a) Acquire (b) Trained (c) Receives (d) Study (e) Learn 145.

One day, ________ serving dinner, the old man whose hands and legs shivered, split food on the table.

(a) Since (b) Bow (c) While (d) Then (e) for Directions (145-150): In these questions, two sentences (I) and (II) are given. Each sentence has a blank in it. Against each five options are suggested. Out of these, only one fits at both the places in the context of each sentence. Mark that option. www.ibpsguide.com | www.ibpsguide.in | mock.ibpsguide.in | www.sscexamguide.com Copyright Š 2016 IBPS Guide

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146. I. II.

The report ended on a ______ note. They must take ______ steps to deal with the problem. (a) Criticizing (b) Huge (c) Positive (d) Fancy (e) cursory

147. I.

In today‘s world parent usually _______ that their children do not talk to them as they are more involved in electronic gadgets and social media.

II.

He would _______ about every other child on the playground and his parents would fight with other parents so as to protect him. (a) Feel (b) Defend (c) Fight (d) Complain (e) Observe

148. I.

He was good with mathematics so he could not fat horn hwy other people cribbed about such an ______ subject.

II.

In a world so riddled with greed and corruption where every man seems to be out to get another, it is not very _______ to trust others. (a) Good (b) Exciting (c) Wise (d) Easy (e) interesting

149.

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I.

The area under our eyes in connected to our kidneys, so any ______ change in the dark circles indicates dehydration or accumulating toxins.

II.

Many Indians adults are struggling with weight, thus indulging in weight loss programmes that require ______ changes in their current lifestyles. (a) Drastic (b) Frequent (c) Ambiguous (d) Severe (e) aggressive

150. I.

Usually fund-raising events and charity auctions raise a large amount of money as people from all sections of the society get an opportunity to ______ for a cause.

II.

Today, a person needs to ______ very hard for surviving in the corporate race. (a) Work (b) Contribute (c) Effort (d) Donate (e) Dedication

Answers with Explanation (Fill Ups) 101.

(d), for the first blank, ‗looked‘ and ‗saw‘ are the suitable words but in the first blank ‗looked‘ is not

suitable as this will be followed by ‗at‘. 102.

(c), for the second blank, ‗who‘ and ‗whom‘ are the suitable option but in the first blank ‗angrily‘ is

inappropriate usage, moreover, ‗whom‘ is suitable in objective case. 103.

(b), in the first blank, ‗ ready‘ and ‗prepared‘ are the suitable option but in the second blank, ‗better‘

doesn‘t meet the correct form. 104.

(a), ‗scanty‘ and ‗meager‘ are the probable words for the first blank. But, in the next blank,

‗substantial‘ is appropriate‘. 105.

(d), in the second blank, ‗rapidly‘ and ‗increasingly‘ are the suitable words but for the first blank,

‗progressively‘ is suitable. www.ibpsguide.com | www.ibpsguide.in | mock.ibpsguide.in | www.sscexamguide.com Copyright © 2016 IBPS Guide

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106.

(d), ‗role‘ and ‗part‘ both goes well with first blank, but ‗arrest cannot be placed in second blank, so

option (d) is correct. 107.

(b), for first blank, ‗well‘ is suitable and for second blank ‗enables‘ fitted best.

108.

(b), since situation is going to be in future, so correct option is (b).

109.

(e), correct option is (e)

110.

(b), computers are ‗feed‘ with data, so option (b) is correct.

111.

(d), due to ‗shortage‘ of cement construction is prevented (hampered).

112.

(a), correct word to be filled in first and second blank is ‗efforts‘ and ‗power‘.

113.

(d), they did not have ‗sufficient‘ time to ‗read‘ all books.

114.

(b), for first blank ‗skill‘ is suitable, so option (b) is correct.

115.

(c), for first blank ‗escape‘ is correct word.

116.

(e), the two blanks don‘t need the words that are contrasting to each other. For the first blank, words

that are suitable are helpful, adamant, and magnanimous. But in the second blank, reluctant, enthusiastic are not meeting the context. So option (e) is suitable. 117.

(b), the sentence is clearly an indication of the fact be up and doing instead of mere talking. Hence

option (b) is suitable option. 118.

(d), in the first blank, the suitable usage may be either ‗felt‘ or ‗conducted‘. But ‗felt‘ is a weak usage

because ability and moderation are not in the sync. Also ‗through‘ is proper in the second blank. 119.

(b), as the sentence has the usage of the word ‗threats‘ which will definitely increase the tensions.

Hence, ‗replete‘ in the first blank and ‗increased‘ in the second blank are appropriate. 120.

(e), of course, a committee puts forward its ‗recommendation‘ is proper usage in the first blank. The

use of ‗infeasible‘ is appropriate in second blank. 121.

(a), for first blank, ‗fight‘, ‗argument‘ or ‗dispute‘ goes well, but for second blank ‗talked is

appropriate. 122.

(b), ‗whom‘ and decided‘ is correct words to fill first and second blank.

123.

(c), the government ‗provided‘ an apartment… so option (c) is correct.

124.

(b), ‗plagued‘ meaning annoying for a long time is suitable for first blank.

125.

(d), correct option is (d).

126.

(e), boat ‗sank‘, so option (e) is correct.

127.

(c), for first blank ‗manages‘ is appropriate and for second blank ‗significant‘ is suitable. www.ibpsguide.com | www.ibpsguide.in | mock.ibpsguide.in | www.sscexamguide.com Copyright © 2016 IBPS Guide

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128.

(b), ‗realized‘ and ‗forgotten‘ are correct words.

129.

(d) , we always climbed the ladder, so option 9d0 is correct.

130.

(a) , for first blank ‗create‘ is correct word, so option (a) is correct.

131.

(c), in the second blank the correct word is ‗prevent‘ so, option (c) is correct.

132.

(c), the children responded to the problem and set up a task can be said about the sentence.

133.

(a), ‗wonders‘ and ‗consequence‘ fits the most as compared to other option.

134.

(e), prescribed which means specify or impose is right word for second blank. So, option (e) is correct.

135.

(c), for the first blank, students are tested for their abilities, so option (c) is correct.

136.

(b), ‗penetrate‘ which means ‗come to understand‘ will fit in the blank.

137.

(c), for heading ‗towards‘ is correct usage of words.

138.

(b), what is not comfortable that would be ‗unpleasant‘. So, option (b) is correct

139.

(b), unexpected holiday made all of the children ‗ecstatic‘. So option (b) is correct.

140.

(b), ‗accumulate‘ which means gather is appropriate word to be used in this blank.

141.

(d), correct word is ‗explanation‘.

142.

(c), correct word is ‗owing‘.

143.

(b), through ventures ‗thread‘ runs.

144.

(e), doctors in training usually ‗learns‘.

145.

(c), progressive form of verb takes ‗while‘.

146.

(c), to deal with problems positive thinking is must so, in both space, ‗positive suit best, so option © is

correct. 147.

(d), complain is the correct word to be used in both the sentences.

148.

(d), ‗easy‘ is appropriate in both the statement.

149.

(a), ‗drastic‘ is the correct word to be used in both sentences

150.

(a), ‗work‘ is correct word to be used in both sentences.

Jumbled Sentence Paragraph jumble or jumbled paragraph is one of the most important question types in Bank entrance exams. Para jumbles test your understanding of thought flow. In simple words they test are you able to identify coherently formed paragraphs. Paragraph jumbles come in different flavors. 5 sentence www.ibpsguide.com | www.ibpsguide.in | mock.ibpsguide.in | www.sscexamguide.com Copyright © 2016 IBPS Guide

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6 sentence Since there are 5 questions linked to a single paragraph jumble, solving it is important. These questions can be solved by following specific strategies. So let us understand the strategies and solve some questions. The proven technique or strategy to solve is to identify the links between the sentences and arrive at coherent paragraphs. To identify the links we need to identify the keywords. One effective way is to identify MANDATORY PAIRS. So let us understand what all mandatory pairs are there and how we can identify them. Pronoun: Generally the paragraph jumble will mention a noun first and then use pronouns to point at it. So we need to simply identify those sentence pair that does that Chronology/time reference: Many a times there is a logical/ time bound event chain present in the paragraph jumble. It could be a series of events, steps etc. We can identify the beginning /start of the event and then find the next event and so on. Part of speech: Parts of speech such as conjunctions, adjectives and pronouns can also be used to identify the links between sentences. Obvious openers: Sometimes you may find that a sentence has no previous link and introduces the idea of the paragraph jumble. Such sentence can introduce a concept, be a definition, describe an event, and state an observation. In short, it will be the obvious opener of the paragraph. A good way to find such sentence would be to look at the first letter of the option and read only that sentence to gauge whether the sentence is an obvious opener or not. Conjunctions: using conjunction to find links as there are certain words – firstly, secondly, then, however, consequently, on the other hand, etc. – which show how the idea given in the paragraph jumble flows from start to finish. We can identify these words and then look for the sentence that comes before or after these sentences. Common words: Some commonly used linking words we can use Are: Cause and Effect: Words or phrases explicitly indicating that one thing causes another or logically determines another. For example: accordingly, in order to, because, so...that, consequently, therefore, given, thus, hence, when...then, if...then Note: sentences starting from the, he, she, then, them, it cannot be the first sentence.

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Practice Questions (Jumbled Sentence) Directions (151-200): rearrange the following sentences in the proper sequences so as to form a meaningful paragraph, and then answer the questions given below them. Set -1: A. Environment education unit of centre for science. B. Environment has always been working towards providing easy to understand reading material. C. Their new publication on this subject is an attempt to lend teachers a helping hand. D. It unfolds in two sections first, climate change, how to make sense of it all and second, natural resources, how to share and care. E. However, they are introduced to students not as a paragraph to memories but as an activity to do. 151.

Which one of the following is the last sentence after rearrangement?

(a)

A

152.

Which one of the following is the second sentence after rearrangement?

(a)

A

153.

Which one of the following is the first sentence after of the rearrangement?

(a)

A

154.

Which one of the following is the third sentence after the rearrangement?

(a)

A

155.

What is the correct sequence after the rearrangement?

(a)

ABCED

(b) B

(b) B

(b) B

(b) B

(b) ABCDE

(c) C

(c) C

(c) C

(c) C

(c) AECBD

(d) D

(d) D

(d) D

(e) E

(e) E

(e) E

(d) D

(e) E

(d) BCDEA

(e) ADCBE

Set -2:

A. When they gathered together, the Buddha was completely silent and some speculated that perhaps the Buddha was tired or ill. B. It is said that Gautama Buddha gathered his disciples one day for a dharma talk. C. One of the Buddha‘s disciples, Mahakasyapa, silently gazed at the flowers and broke into a broad smile. D. The origins of Zen Buddhism are ascribed to the flower sermon, the earliest source for which comes from the 14th century. www.ibpsguide.com | www.ibpsguide.in | mock.ibpsguide.in | www.sscexamguide.com Copyright Š 2016 IBPS Guide

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E. The Buddha silently held up and twirled a flower and twinkled his eyes, several of his disciples tried to interpret what this meant though none of them were correct. 156.

Which one of the following is the fifth sentence after arrangement?

(a)

E

157.

Which one of the following is the third sentence after rearrangement?

(a)

A

158.

Which one of the following is the first sentence after rearrangement?

(a)

A

159.

Which one of the following is the second sentence after rearrangement?

(a)

A

160.

What is the correct sequence after the rearrangement?

(a)

CADBE

(b) D

(b) B

(b) B

(b) B

(b) BCDEA

(c) C

(c) C

(c) C

(c) C

(c) DBAEC

(d) B

(d) D

(d) D

(e) A

(e) E

(e) E

(d) D

(e) E

(d) ABCDE

(e) EBDAC

Set -3:

A. Normally, such a collapse would lead OPEC to pump less oil as the idea is that less oil in the market helps keep prices up. B. This is evident from the fact that in the middle of 2014, a barrel of crude cost over $ 100 but now it is worth just over $ 30. C. The price of oil has more than halved over the last year and a half. D. But despite a historic fall in oil prices, the international oil cartel hasn‘t budged: the biggest step it has taken so far is offer to freeze production at its current record levels and production cuts are not on the table. E. A probable explanation could be that OPEC simply has less control over the oil market than it is used to, thanks to the shale gas revolution. F. The big question is: why such production cuts are not being looked at as plausible solutions? 161.

Which of the following should be the first sentence after the rearrangement?

(a)

C

162.

Which of the following should be the sixth sentence after the rearrangement?

(a)

C

(b) A

(b) E

(c) E

(c) B

(d) F

(d) A

(e) D

(e) F

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163.

Which of the following should be the second sentence after the rearrangement?

(a)

B

164.

Which of the following should be the third sentence after the rearrangement?

(a)

F

165.

Which of the following should be the fourth sentence after rearrangement?

(a)

B

(b) A

(b) B

(b) D

(c) D

(c) A

(c) E

(d) C

(d) E

(d) A

(e) E

(e) D

(e) C

Set -4: A. The next day Shiva appeared at Raghu‘s house and spotted a metal chest on the rooftop which had all the money and ornaments that Raghu owned. B. When Raghu arrived at Shiva‘s house, Shiva asked him to guess what fruit it was, saying that if Raghu failed him (Shiva) would carry one thing out of Raghu‘s house and if Raghu guessed correctly then Raghu could carry one thing out of Shiva‘s house. C. Seeing him Raghu thanked him saying, ‗thank you for sparing my wealth and carrying out only the ladder!‘ D. One day Shiva hatched a plan to outwit Raghu. He plucked a mango and wrapped it well in a piece of cloth. E. ‗Oh ho!‘ you thought that you‘d hide all your wealth from me said Shiva going into Raghu‘s house and bring out a ladder began to climb up into the roof. F. But Raghu‘s guesses were incorrect. 166.

Which of the following should be the first sentence after the rearrangement?

(a)

A

167.

Which of the following should be the sixth sentence after the rearrangement?

(a)

B

168.

Which of the following should be the second sentence after the rearrangement?

(a)

D

169.

Which of the following should be the third sentence after the rearrangement?

(a)

E

170.

Which of the following should be the fourth sentence after rearrangement?

(b) B

(b) E

(b) B

(b) F

(c) D

(c) C

(c) C

(c) B

(d) E

(d) A

(d) E

(d) D

(e) F

(e) D

(e) F

(e) A

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(a)

C

(b) E

(c) F

(d) A

(e) B

Set -5:

A. The blame for lacking creativity is, however, put on the present generation by the modern educationists. B. The concept of home-work began so that the pupils could revise that was being taught in the class. C. By doing so, most of the schools took away the leisure time of the children. D. Instead, these educationists should lower of burden of homework to the commission for educational reforms. E. The purpose of this concept was, however, defeated when the schools started overburdening students with so called homework. F. Lack of such leisure time does not allow the children to develop creative pursuits. 171.

Which of the following should be the first sentence after the rearrangement?

(a) D

(b) C

(c) B

(d) F

(e) E

172.

Which of the following should be the sixth sentence after the rearrangement?

(a)

A

173.

Which of the following should be the second sentence after the rearrangement?

(a)

E

174.

Which of the following should be the third sentence after the rearrangement?

(a)

C

175.

What is the correct sequence after rearrangement?

(a)

BECFAD

(b) E

(b) F

(b) A

(b) ABDCEF

(c) B

(c) D

(c) E

(c) ABEFCD

(d) D

(d) C

(e) F

(e) A

(d) F

(e) B

(d) EFABCD

(e) BCDEFA

Set -6:

A. The history of mankind is full of such fighting between communities, nation and people. B. From primitive weapons of warfare, man has advanced to the modern nuclear weapons. C. Ever since the dawn of civilization, man has been fighting with man. D. A modern war is scientific in character, but the effect is the same, wiping human existence out of this earth. www.ibpsguide.com | www.ibpsguide.in | mock.ibpsguide.in | www.sscexamguide.com Copyright Š 2016 IBPS Guide

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E. The only difference now seems to be in the efficiency of the instruments used for killing each other. 176.

Which of the following should be the first sentence after the rearrangement?

(a) A

(b) B

(c) C

(d) D

(e) E

177.

Which of the following should be the second sentence after the rearrangement?

(a)

B

178.

Which of the following should be the third sentence after the rearrangement?

(a)

C

179.

Which of the following should be the fourth sentence after the rearrangement?

(a)

D

180.

What is the correct sequence after rearrangement?

(a)

ABCDE

(b) C

(b) D

(b) E

(b) AEDCB

(c) D

(c) E

(c) A

(c) CBDEA

(d) E

(d) A

(e) A

(e) B

(d) B

(e) C

(d) DEABC

(e) CADEB

Set -7:

A. It was always breaking its string, sitting down on the tops of houses, getting struck in trees and refusing to rise higher than a yard from the ground. B. As a result, they were obliged to fly day and night for a living and were never able to give any time to their children or to bring them up properly. C. Perhaps, they were very poor people, just made of newspaper and little bits of common string knotted together. D. I have often sat and thought about this behavior of the kite and wondered who its father and mother. E. It was the most tiresome kite in the world. 181.

Which one of the following is the fifth sentence after arrangement?

(a)

A

182.

Which one of the following is the third sentence after rearrangement?

(a)

A

183.

Which one of the following is the first sentence after rearrangement?

(a)

A

184.

Which one of the following is the second sentence after rearrangement?

(a)

A

(b) B

(b) B

(b) B

(b) B

(c) C

(c) C

(c) C

(c) C

(d) D

(d) D

(d) D

(d) D

(e) E

(e) E

(e) E

(e) E

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185.

What is the correct sequence after the rearrangement?

(a)

ABCDE

(b) EADBC

(c) EADCB

(d) ADCEB

(e) ABDEC

Set -8: A. In addition, the government wants to boost‘ shared ownership‘ where people buy a chunk of a house and pay the rest( with the option to buy it in full later) and the hope is that 135000 such homes will be built. B. The construction of homes in Britain has been below its long-term trend since 1990. C. These two plans are not without their drawbacks-one of which is house-builders will be encouraged to provide houses to buy rather than to rent which will be a problem for low-income families for whom putting together a deposit is tricky. D. The government has proposed building 40000 ‗affordable‘ homes by 2020 which would bring Britain close to its overall target of 250000 a year which hit hopes will help keep its housing prices in check. E. Moreover the prime minister has merely mentioned these reforms in his speech but has offered no details and until the changes are more concrete efforts to. Delicate the housing bubble will not get far. F. Since 1990 prices too have risen by 60 % in real terms, faster than most other rich countries. 186.

Which of the following should be the first sentence after the rearrangement?

(a)

A

187.

Which of the following should be the sixth sentence after the rearrangement?

(a)

C

188.

Which of the following should be the second sentence after the rearrangement?

(a)

A

189.

Which of the following should be the third sentence after the rearrangement?

(a)

C

190.

Which of the following should be the fourth sentence after rearrangement?

(a)

F

(b) B

(b) A

(b) B

(b) F

(b) D

(c) D

(c) E

(c) F

(c) A

(c) B

(d) E

(d) D

(d) E

(d) B

(d) C

(e) E

(e) F

(e) C

(e) D

(e) A

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Set -9:

A. Apart from these, the care provided in these facilities is also not up to the mark. B. For instance, in 2015, there was one government hospital bed for every 1,800 people compared with 2,300 persons in decade earlier which is a good sign. C. India has made strides in the expansion of public services. D. For example, six out of every ten hospitals in the less developed states did not provide intensive care and a quarter of them struggled with issues like sanitation and drainage. E. For instance, there is one government hospital bed for ever 614 people in Goa compared with one every 8,789 people in Bihar. F. However, as lancer points out, this availability of beds has been inequitably distributed within the country. 191.

Which of the following should be the first sentence after the rearrangement?

(a)

A

192.

Which of the following should be the sixth (last) sentence after the rearrangement?

(a)

C

193.

Which of the following should be the second sentence after the rearrangement?

(a)

E

194.

Which of the following should be the fifth sentence after the rearrangement?

(a)

F

195.

Which of the following should be the fourth sentence after rearrangement?

(a)

A

(b) B

(b) A

(b) C

(b) B

(b) F

(c) C

(c) D

(c) B

(c) E

(c) D

(d) D

(d) E

(d) D

(d) A

(d) C

(e) E

(e) F

(e) A

(e) C

(e) B

Set -10:

A. The full extent and impact of the forest fires in Uttarakhand can be assessed only after they have adapted with better weather conditions, but the furious blaze that has swept the hill state drives home the truth that governments are yet to find scientific ways to tackle the phenomenon. B. Some of the studies reported by organizations affiliated to the union environment ministry point to the effective intervention of community led ‗van panchayats‘ in preventing fires. www.ibpsguide.com | www.ibpsguide.in | mock.ibpsguide.in | www.sscexamguide.com Copyright © 2016 IBPS Guide

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C. Progress can be made also by providing environmental education to local residents and officials. D. Significantly, the use of biomass alternatives, including cooking gas, has had a beneficial impact on fire risk, and this must be expanded. E. The Uttarakhand Government should learn from the severity of the experience, and involve in large rural communities in preparing for the future. F. It is possible that the changing patterns of climate may be exacerbating the problem: more research is required to conclude whether the EI Nino that set in last year, marked by a lack of pre-monsoon showers, also played a part in intensifying the fires. 196.

Which one of the following is the fifth sentence after arrangement?

(a) B 197.

(b) C

(c) E

(d) F

(e) A

Which one of the following is the third sentence after rearrangement?

(a) C

(b) B

(c) E

(d) A

198.

Which one of the following is the first sentence after rearrangement?

(a)

D

199.

Which one of the following is the second sentence after rearrangement?

(a)

A

200.

What is the correct sequence after the rearrangement?

(a)

ABCDEF

(b) C

(b) D

(b) ABEFDC

(c) F

(c) C

(c) AFDCBE

(d) B

(e) D

(e) A

(d) F

(e) B

(d) ACEDBF

(e)

AEFDCB

Answers with Explanation (Jumbled Sentence) 151.

(e), the correct sequence of the sentences is ABCDE, last sentence is E.

152.

(b), the correct sequence of the sentences is ABCDE, second sentence is B.

153.

(a), the correct sequence of the sentences is ABCDE, first sentence is A.

154.

(c), the correct sequence of the sentences is ABCDE, third sentence is C

155.

(b), the correct sequence of the sentences is ABCDE after rearrangement.

156.

(e), the correct sequence of sentences is BCDEA, fifth sentence is A.

157.

(d), the correct sequence of sentences is BCDEA, third sentence is D.

158.

(b), the correct sequence of sentences is BCDEA, first sentence is B

159.

(c), the correct sequence of sentences is BCDEA, second sentence is C

160.

(b), the correct sequence of sentences is BCDEA after rearrangement. www.ibpsguide.com | www.ibpsguide.in | mock.ibpsguide.in | www.sscexamguide.com Copyright Š 2016 IBPS Guide

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161.

(a), the correct sequence of sentences is CBDAEF, first sentence is C.

162.

(e), the correct sequence of sentences is CBDAEF, sixth sentence is F.

163.

(a), the correct sequence of sentences is CBDAEF, second sentence is B.

164.

(e), the correct sequence of sentences is CBDAEF, third sentence is D

165.

(d), the correct sequence of sentences is CBDAEF, fourth sentence is A.

166.

(c), the correct sequence of the sentence is DBFAEC, first sentence is D.

167.

(c), the correct sequence of the sentence is DBFAEC, sixth sentence is C.

168.

(b), the correct sequence of the sentence is DBFAEC, second sentence is B.

169.

(b), the correct sequence of the sentence is DBFAEC, third sentence is F.

170.

(d), the correct sequence of the sentence is DBFAEC, fourth sentence is A.

171.

(c), the correct sequence of sentences is BECFAD, first sentence after rearrangement is B.

172.

(d), the correct sequence of sentences is BECFAD, sixth sentence is D.

173.

(a), the correct sequence of sentences is BECFAD, second sentence is E.

174.

(a), the correct sequence of sentences is BECFAD, third sentence is C.

175.

(a), the correct sequence of sentences is BECFAD after the rearrangement.

176.

(c), the correct sequence of sentences is CADEB, first sentence is C.

177.

(e), the correct sequence of sentences is CADEB, second sentence is A.

178.

(b), the correct sequence of sentences is CADEB, third sentence is D.

179.

(b), the correct sequence of sentences is CADEB, fourth sentence is E.

180.

(e), the correct sequence of sentences is CADEB after the rearrangement.

181.

(b), correct sequence of sentences is EADCB, fifth sentence is B.

182.

(d), correct sequence of sentences is EADCB, third sentence is D.

183.

(e), correct sequence of sentences is EADCB, first sentence is E.

184.

(a), correct sequence of sentences is EADCB, second sentence is A.

185.

(c), correct sequence of sentences is EADCB after rearrangement.

186.

(b), correct sequence of the sentences is BFDACE, first sentence is B.

187.

(c), correct sequence of the sentences is BFDACE, sixth sentence is E.

188.

(c), correct sequence of the sentences is BFDACE, second sentence is F.

189.

(e), correct sequence of the sentences is BFDACE, third sentence is D.

190.

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191.

(c), the correct sequence of sentences is CBFEAD, first sentence is C.

192.

(c), the correct sequence of sentences is CBFEAD, last sentence is D.

193.

(c), the correct sequence of sentences is CBFEAD, second sentence is B.

194.

(d), the correct sequence of sentences is CBFEAD, fifth sentence is A.

195.

(a), the correct sequence of sentences is CBFEAD, fourth sentence is E.

196.

(a), the correct sequence of sentences is AFDCBE, fifth sentence after rearrangement is B.

197.

(e), the correct sequence of sentences is AFDCBE, third sentence after rearrangement is D.

198.

(e), the correct sequence of sentences is AFDCBE, first sentence is A.

199.

(d), the correct sequence of sentences is AFDCBE, second sentence is F.

200.

(c), the correct sequence of sentences is AFDCBE after rearrangement.

Spotting errors Tips and tricks Words, phrases and sentences are the bases of any language. An error in their use may shake the very foundation of the language and make an expression meaningless or ambiguous in a context. Therefore, an aspirant has to clear those barriers before they begin their voluminous studies; and so sentence correction is one of the verbal problems in banking examination. Knowing the common structures and the nuances of the language is crucial to understand the written text and to express accurately and precisely. Finding an error in a sentence is a step-by-step process. Checking errors randomly is always so confusing that you can never go close to accuracy. Therefore, we have adopted following STRATEGY to probe a sentence for an error and pin-point it with accuracy. Subject-verb agreement: The very first thing that we need to check in a sentence correction exercise is the verb. Here are following points regarding this:  If two subjects are added together expressing one idea, one being added to the other for the sake of emphasis than verb is singular. Example: the very scheme and plan of my life is clean. Two nouns ‗scheme‘ and ‗plan‘ express same idea , so singular verb ‗is‘ is used.  When a distance, time or amount perceived with numbers (34, 2, 5…) takes singular verb.  Two or more singular subject connected by either-or, neither, nor… take singular verb.  If the different subjects with different number are joined by or/ nor , the verb must be plural and plural subject must be placed next to the verb. www.ibpsguide.com | www.ibpsguide.in | mock.ibpsguide.in | www.sscexamguide.com Copyright © 2016 IBPS Guide

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 Any noun qualifying by each/ every must consider singular verb, even if they are connected by and.  There are some words which takes verb according to the first subject, „ant not‟, „with‟, „as well as‟, „in addition to‟, „along with‟, „beside‟, „like‟, „together with‟.  When two nouns/pronouns joined with ‗not only…but also‟, the verb agrees with second noun.  The number of plural noun agrees with singular verb.  Many a deals with singular subject and singular verb.  A verb should agree with its subject and not with the complement but in case of sentences beginning with there the verb is according to the predicate.  One of/ none of/ either of/ neither of/ must have plural noun and singular verb. 

All/some must have countable nouns (plural) with plural verb.

 Singular noun + preposition+ singular noun + singular verb.  Any body, anyone, each, everyone, some one, somebody, every body, much, no one, one, other, something…… always takes singular verb. Tense should be correct: Checking the tense of the verb in a sentence is another very important thing in sentence correction exercise. You need to know, ―Is the tense of the verb correct?‖ Consider the following sentences: (i)

Yesterday I met him.

(ii)

She said she would meet him.

Yesterday and said fixes the time of the verb to be past. Therefore, we have used the past forms of ‗meet‘ and ‗will‘. However, for the present time, we say: (i)

I always meet him at the station.

(ii)

She says she will meet him.

Always and says refer to the present and ‗meet‘ and ‗will‘ are the present forms of the verbs.  Is, am and are are the present forms and their past forms are was and were.  Has and have are the present forms and their past form is had.  Does and do are the present forms and their past form is did.

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 Will, shall, can and May is the present form modals and their past forms are would, should, could and might respectively. It is important to know the correct past and past participle forms of the verbs. Broadly the verbs are conjugated in four different ways: 1. Those which take ‗ed‘ in their past and past participle forms such as work-worked-worked, enquireenquired-enquired, lie- lied-lied or try-tried-tried. Some more such verbs are–play, request, flow, die, please. 2. Those which remain same in all their forms such as cast-cast-cast, burst-burst-burst, cut-cut-cut or shutshut-shut. Some more such verbs are–put, hit, spread, let, set. 3. Those which take same past and past participle forms such as buy-bought- bought, say-said-said, holdheld-held or win-won-won. Some more such verbs are–teach-taught-taught, catch-caught-caught, make-mademade, bleed-bled-bled, keep-kept- kept, dig-dug-dug. 4. Those which are different in all the three forms such as see-saw-seen, sing-sang-sung; bear-bore-borne, write-wrote-written. Some more such verbs are–eat-ate-eaten, drink-drank- drunk, break-broke-bro ken, bitebit-bit ten, take-took- taken, be gin-be gan-be gun. The second forms of the verb are the simple past forms and the third forms of the verb (or the past participle) are the past perfect forms used with has, have or had. The third forms are also used in the passive voice sentences.  Perfect Tenses: The woman has done her household work. I have written five letters to him so far. The train had gone before we reached the station.  Passive Voice All household work in this house is done by the servants. Five novels have been written by the new writer so far. The train will be caught by us if we hurry. Error of Conditional Sentences:  Pattern I 

If + Subject + Verb (in the first form)–Subject + Will + Verb (in the first form)



If + you + allow -I +will + go.



If + it + rains -he +will + not come.



If + one + promises -one + must + keep it.



If + you + work hard -you + can + succeed.

These sentences express what is probable to hap pen in future under particular conditions. The first parts of the sentences be ginning with ‗if‘ are the conditions and the second parts are the intentions or the likely hap www.ibpsguide.com | www.ibpsguide.in | mock.ibpsguide.in | www.sscexamguide.com Copyright © 2016 IBPS Guide

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penning in future. The first takes the simple present form and the second simple future. They can be stated reversing the order : I will go if you al low. He will not come if it rains. One must keep it if one promises. You can succeed if you work hard.  Pattern II 

If + Subject + Verb (in the second form) – Subject + Would + Verb (in the first form)



If + I + knew - I + would + tell you



If + the office + had money - it + would + give away the salary.



If + I + were the President - I + would + honour the learned.



If + women + had power - they + would + rule better.

These sentences express some hypothetical probability or sup position or just an assumption. They mean ‗I don‘t know so I can‘t tell you‘; ‗the office doesn‘t have money so it can not pay salary‘; ‗I am not the President other wise I would honour the learned‘; ‗women don‘t have power other wise they would rule better‘. These sentences can also state the second part first.  Pattern III 

If + Subject + Verb (had + the third form) – Subject + would have + 3rd form of Verb



If + it + had rained - the farmers + would have + grown crops.



If + they + had worked - they + would have + succeeded.



If + we + had reached on time + would have + caught the train.



If + the doctor + had come on time - the patient + would not have + died

These sentences express something that could not hap pen in the past because of the lack of some required condition. It expresses some sort of regret. It did not rain so farmers could not grow crops; they did not work hard so they could not succeed; we did not reach on time and so we could not catch the train; the doctor did not come on time and so the patient could not be saved. You must have noticed that the verb in  Pattern I is the first form (the present) and the first form of future (will) indicating some future intentions. www.ibpsguide.com | www.ibpsguide.in | mock.ibpsguide.in | www.sscexamguide.com Copyright © 2016 IBPS Guide

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ďƒź Pattern II is the second form (the past) and the second form of future (would) indicating hypothesis or supposition in present meaning. ďƒź Pat tern III is had + third form (the past perfect) and would have + third form (future perfect) some conditional regret about the past. The correct use of noun, pronoun, adjective, articles and determiners should be checked thoroughly.

Practice Questions (Error Spotting) Directions (Q. 201-225): some of the sentences have errors and some are correct. Find out which part of the sentence has an error and corresponding to the appropriate letter (a), (b), (c), (d). If the sentence is free from error, then mark (e). 201.

The vehicle which is stopped (a)/ by the policeman (b)/ contained a number (c)/ of smuggled watches.

(d)/ No error (e). 202.

One should look for his (a)/ own faults first (b)/ and then those (c)/ of others. (d)/ No error (e).

203.

Sitting under the shade (a)/ of a tree for a while (b)/ made us fresh (c)/ for the further journey. (d)/ No

error (e). 204.

Although it is summer, (a)/ yet the weather at the (b)/ hill station was (c)/ the police trap. (d)/ no error

(e). 205.

The smuggler yield (a)/ for the temptation (b)/ and fell into (c)/ the police trap. (d)/ No error.

206.

The day after the attack, (a)/ the seniors asked their colleagues (b)/ to not turn (c)/ up for work. (d)/ No

error (e). 207.

In the early 90s, (a)/ a noted architect photographed (b)/ the water bodies nestled (c)/ inside the textile

mills of Mumbai. (d)/ No error (e). 208.

The Supreme Court passed (a)/ an order for all state governments (b)/ to construct shelters with (c)/ a

capacity around 100 persons per one lakh population. (d)/ No error (e). 209.

The wrestling den is (a)/ almost so large as (b)/ the mud pit in (c)/ which its wrestling train. (d)/ No

error (e). 210.

Have the pressure of crossing over (a)/ to the digital been difficult (b)/ for a firm that ironically

democratized the photographic image (c)/ with its low-cost cameras? (d)/ No error (e). 211.

The progress of the southwest monsoon (a)/ is relatively slow as it is (b)/ not getting a favourable

system (c)/ for move forward. (d)/ No error (e). www.ibpsguide.com | www.ibpsguide.in | mock.ibpsguide.in | www.sscexamguide.com Copyright Š 2016 IBPS Guide

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212.

Authorities have (a)/ derived requests (b)/ for private hospital care (c)/ to the accused. (d)/ No error

(e). 213.

The drive intended to creating (a)/ an awareness of (b)/ the perks of riding two wheelers (c)/ without a

helmet. (d)/ No error (e). 214.

Gold continued its rising streak (a)/ for the fourth straight session (b)/ to reclaim the (c)/

psychologically significant thirty thousand mark. (d)/ No error (e). 215.

The system, which keeps (a)/ a record for personal and professional details (b)/ of all community

members, (c)/ was hacked. (d)/ No error (e). 216.

The World Bank report has found that (a)/ last year out of 45 economies, (b)/ 33 introduced reforms to

(c)/ make it easily to start a business. (d)/ No error (e). 217.

From just telling consumers to go (a)/ and buy products and celebrating with (b)/ their families, brands

today are embedding (c)/ social messages in their advertisements. (d)/ No error (e). 218.

As the gains from one set off reforms gradually disappears, a country needs (b)/ to initiate another sets

of returns (c)/ to take its economy to the next level. (d)/ No error (e). 219.

As a chairperson one has to (a)/ work hard to set (b)/ the right agenda so that all member (c)/ of the

board can add value to discussions (d)/ No error (e). 220.

By giving women access to (a)/ better health facilities and education (b)/ we can ensure that poverty

(c)/ reduces and the standard of living improves. (d)/ No error (e). 221.

Every driver should take (a)/ abundant precautions (b)/ while driving on (c)/ an unfamiliar road. (d0/

No error. (e) 222.

Accidents usually (a)/ result into (b)/ negligence, ignorance (c)/ recklessness or carelessness (d)/ No

error. (e). 223.

His good qualities include (a)/ his ability to take (b)/ quickly and (c0/ appropriate decisions. (d)/ No

error (e). 224.

This institution had founded (a)/ by some noble souls (b)/ for the welfare of the poor (c)/ and disabled

people. (d)/ No error (e). 225.

He avoids (a)/ taking the (b)/ prescribed medicine (c)/ at regularly intervals (d)/. No error (e).

Directions (Q. 226-250): Which phrase should replace the phase given in bold in the sentence to make it grammatically correct? If the sentence is correct as it is given, then mark „no correction requiredâ€&#x; as your answer. www.ibpsguide.com | www.ibpsguide.in | mock.ibpsguide.in | www.sscexamguide.com Copyright Š 2016 IBPS Guide

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226.

We asked her that how she got time to write all these books.

(a) That how did she got (b) That how she was getting (c) How did she get (d) How she get (e) No correction required 227.

Studies in the past have shown that those who limit their activity span during the day in winters are

more likely to suffer from depression. (a) More likely for (b) Mostly likely to (c) Most likely for (d) Most likeliest for (e) No correction required 228.

In some cases, factors like low salary, lack of growth prospects and lack of motivation compel all

employees to look for a change. (a) Compel those employees (b) Compelling all employees (c) Compelling the employee (d) Compel employees (e) No correction required 229.

Living with compassion and contributing to others lives would helping us add happiness to our lives

as well. (a) Will helping us (b) Will help us (c) Would helped them (d) Will helped us (e) No correction required 230.

The easiest way for present stress caused by work or home pressures is to indulge in high levels of

physical activity. (a) Easily way to www.ibpsguide.com | www.ibpsguide.in | mock.ibpsguide.in | www.sscexamguide.com Copyright Š 2016 IBPS Guide

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(b) Easier ways for (c) Easiest way to (d) Easier way from (e) No correction required 231.

By Complying the Foreign Account Tax compliances Act which was passed in the US in 2010,

mutual fund investors have to submit declarations and KYC details. (a) Comply with (b) In order to comply with (c) Complying (d) In spite of complying (e) No correction required 232.

When BRICS countries faced opposition to reforms, they pursuit change by establishing new

institutions such as the Asian Infrastructure Asian Bank. (a) Their pursuit of change (b) They pursued change (c) Their pursuit changing (d) They were to pursuit changes (e) No correction required 233.

Knowledge centers being much useful in disseminating information pertaining to weather and crop

price and also benefit students as they can look up exam scores: learn skills and look for employment. (a) Are more usefully (b) Being of much use (c) Have much to use (d) Are very useful (e) No correction required 234.

Experts believe that it is utmost important that staff be trained to take adequate security precautions

to avoid cyber attacks. (a) Utmost importantly (b) Most importance (c) Mostly too important www.ibpsguide.com | www.ibpsguide.in | mock.ibpsguide.in | www.sscexamguide.com Copyright Š 2016 IBPS Guide

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(d) Of utmost importance (e) No correction required 235.

It can be difficult to impart financial know how at a young age but in developing countries financial

literacy among the young are quite well. (a) Is quite good (b) Are getting better (c) Have been good (d) Will be best (e) No correction required 236.

The abduction and return of the local leader within 24 hours on Wednesday has left some lose and

that have been intriguing investigators probing the case. (a) Left some loosened endings (b) Been leaving some loosening ends (c) Leave some lose ends (d) Left some loose ends (e) No correction required 237.

According to the investigators, the hammer used in the crime was the one who is used by security

guards to sound the hourly bell on a metal plate while on duty. (a) Are those ones which (b) Was the one that (c) Which one (d) Is ones that (e) No correction required 238.

The fraud comes at a time when the unregulated microfinance industry is facing a crisis on its way of

high interest rates and low repayment of loans. (a) Because manner of (b) Since ways are (c) By way of (d) In the way of (e) No correction required www.ibpsguide.com | www.ibpsguide.in | mock.ibpsguide.in | www.sscexamguide.com Copyright Š 2016 IBPS Guide

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239.

Preliminary investigation revealed that the woman had committed suicide on account of her failed

attempt to enter the country. (a) In place of (b) Being depressed of (c) In belief of (d) Reason being (e) No correction required 240.

Frustrated families of the missing people have sought access to all documents and data concerning the

search and the inclusion of international experts in the inquiry. (a) Have sought accessing (b) In seeking access (c) Are seeking accessed (d) Has sought accesses (e) No correction required 241.

The new move by the regulatory body is aimed at setting small cases which are at a time draws into

lengthy litigations. (a) Are drawing (b) Drawn out (c) Sometimes drawn (d) Are drawn into (e) No correction required 242.

Combine effects of growing populations, rising incomes and expanding cities will see the demand

rising exponentially. (a) Combining an effect (b) Combined effects of (c) Combine the effect of (d) Combination of the effects (e) No correction required 243.

Heavily invest in technology has resulted in more than half the transactions taking place online

reducing banks dependence on costly branches. www.ibpsguide.com | www.ibpsguide.in | mock.ibpsguide.in | www.sscexamguide.com Copyright Š 2016 IBPS Guide

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(a) Heavy investment in (b) A heavy investment (c) If we invest heavily to invest heavily in (d) No correction required 244.

Experts reckon that in the next four years steel making capacity has increased to 50 % in the Middle

East, 20 % in Africa and 10 % in America. (a) Increasing up to (b) Will have increased by (c) Has been increased (d) Has an increase off (e) No correction required 245.

The report stressed the need to broaden access to health, education and has promoting financial

inclusion to bring down inequality levels. (a) As well as promote (b) Promotion of (c) Which is a promotion of (d) Has been promoting (e) No correction required 246.

The corruption charges were a huge blow to his reputation and his business suffered to a great extent.

(a) His business suffers to (b) His business suffered to (c) His business suffering to (d) His business suffers on (e) No correction required 247.

Airline companies pay nearly $ 25 billion for their right to fly over the countries other than their

parent country. (a) Their right to fly (b) Their right in flying (c) Their right to flying (d) There right of flight www.ibpsguide.com | www.ibpsguide.in | mock.ibpsguide.in | www.sscexamguide.com Copyright Š 2016 IBPS Guide

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(e) No correction required 248.

When he fell down the ditch, he shouted with all his might so that to catch someone‘s attention.

(a) Such that to catch (b) So as to catch (c) So that to catching (d) So then to catch (e) No correction required 249.

The disparity between the earnings of the poor and the rich has widened in the last few decades.

(a) Have widen in (b) Has widen in (c) Has widened on (d) Have widened in (e) No correction required 250.

Instead of teaching abstracted concepts, the new and improved textbooks tell stories of real people

so that the children can identify with the characters. (a) In spite of teaching abstracted (b) Instead of taught abstract (c) Instead of teaching abstract (d) In spite of taught abstract (e) No correction required

Answers with Explanation (Error Spotting) 201.

(a), the event is of past tense. So we have to use verb of past tense, ‗is‘ should by replaced by ‗was‘.

202.

(a), when the subject of the sentence is pronoun ‗one‘ then the possessive used is ‗one‘s‘ not ‗his‘.

203.

(a), when shade of the tree is talked about then ‗under‘ is not used but the preposition ‗in‘ is used.

204.

(c), the sentence clearly indicates that it is of present tense. Hence ‗was‘ should replaced by ‗is‘.

205.

(b), the word ‗yielded‘ is followed by the preposition ‗to‘. So ‗for‘ is to be replaced by ‗to‘.

206.

(c), part (c) has the error of construction ‗to not turn‘ should be replaced by ‗not to turn‘

207.

(b), ‗noted‘ should not be used with persons. Instead, we should use ‗renowned‘.

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208.

(d), it is wrong usage to say ‗per one‘ lakh. ‗Per‘ is itself a denotion of unitary. Hence option (d) is

correct choice. 209.

(b), here, the size has been put into comparison. So, ‗so large as ‗should‘ be replaced by ‗as large as‘

to make the sentence correct. 210.

(a), the subject of the sentence is singular so, the verb should be in the singular number. So ‗have‘

should be replaced by ‗has‘. 211.

(d), ‗for‘ to be replaced by ‗to‘.

212.

(b), use singular form of requests, omit‗s‘.

213.

(a), ‗perks‘ means benefit which is wrong, correct word is ‗disadvantage/drawback‘

214.

(e), no error is present in this sentence.

215.

(b), replace ‗for‘ with ‗of‘.

216.

(d), ‗easily‘ is the wrong usage. Use ‗easy‘ in place of it to make sentence grammatically correct.

217.

(b), use ‗celebrate‘ in place of ‗celebrating‘. Coordinator connector ‗and‘ takes same verb form to its

either side. So, option (b) is correct. 218.

(c), use ‗set‘ in place of ‗sets‘

219.

(c), use plural noun after ‗all‘. Hence ‗members‘ should be used here in place of ‗member‘.

220.

(e), no grammatical error is present in this sentence.

221.

(e), sentence is grammatically correct.

222.

(b), plural form should be used, ‗results‘ in place of ‗result‘.

223.

(c), replace ‗quick‘ in place of ‗quickly‘.

224.

(a) , replace ‗was‘ with ‗had‘.

225.

(d), correct word is ‗regular‘.

226.

(d), it is wrong to use two immediate connectors. So ‗that‘ and ‗how‘ can‘t be used. So ‗how she got‘

is the correct usage. 227.

(e), sentence is correct grammatically.

228.

(d), here, employees are talked about in general. So ‗compel all employee‘ should be replaced by

‗compel employees‘. 229.

(b), the construction in option (a), (c) and (d) are wrong. ‗Will‘ and ‗would‘ both agree to V1 form.

Option (b) is correct option as it has right construction.

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230.

(c), ‗the‘ is followed by adjective of superlative degree. So ‗easiest is correct‘. Also ‗way‘ is followed

by the preposition ‗to‘. Hence option © is correct. 231.

(b), sentence shows the necessity of a thing therefore, ‗on order to comply with‘ is the correct choice.

232.

(b), when there was an opposition to reform, there was a change required. Hence, the suitable option is

(b). 233.

(d), sentence needs attributive use of the adjective here. So, ‗are very useful‘ is the suitable choice.

234.

(d), ‗of utmost importance‘ is suitable for the sentence.

235.

(a), the subject ‗financial literacy‘ is in singular number. Therefore, ‗is quite good‘ is correct option.

236.

(d), the phrase ‗left some loose end‘ is suitable replacement here. Rest of the option is wrongly

constructed. 237.

(b), correct phrase is ‗which one‘ that to be used in place of ‗was the one who‘.

238.

(c), correct preposition is ‗by‘ in place of ‗on its‘.

239.

(e), no correction is required in this sentence.

240.

(e), sentence is grammatically correct.

241.

(d), the phrase ‗are drawn into‘ is the suitable replacement here. Rest of the option is wrongly

constructed or out of context. 242.

(b), the sentence has a sense of combining all the factors to produce the effect. So, ‗combined effect

of‘ is correct. 243.

(a), the suitable replacement must end with the preposition ‗in‘, so option (a) or (d) can be used but

option (d) has not the right syntax as there is no need of using an adverb. 244.

(b), the sentence clearly refers to future, so ‗will have increased by‘ is correct replacement.

245.

(b), ‗promotion‘ is the correct usage. But, saying ‗which is a promotion of‘ is wrong usage as health

and education become inclusive that should not be. So option (b) is correct. 246.

(e), no correction is required, statement is grammatically correct.

247.

(a), correct form is ‗ their right to fly

248.

(b), ‗so as to catch‘ conveys the right sense in the sentence.

249.

(e), no correction is required, statement is grammatically correct.

250.

(c), abstracted is wrongly used; correct form of it in the context of statement should be ‗abstract‘.

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