Chapter 1: Introduction to Pathology Test Bank
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. The sequence of events producing cellular changes following injury best defines:
a. manifestations.
b. pathogenesis.
c. sign.
d. symptom.
ANS: B REF: p. 2
2. An abnormal disturbance of the function and structure of the human body following injury refers to:
a. disease.
b. etiology.
c. manifestations.
d. pathogenesis.
ANS: A REF: p. 2
3. The study of the cause of disease is termed:
a. disease.
b. etiology.
c. pathogenesis.
d. prognosis.
ANS: B REF: p. 2
4. Common agents that cause disease include:
1. bacteria.
2. chemicals.
3. heat.
a. 1 and 2 only
b. 1 and 3 only
c. 2 and 3 only
d. 1, 2, and 3
ANS: D REF: p. 2
5. A syndrome is best defined as:
a. a genetic abnormality of a single protein.
b. an adverse response to medical treatment.
c. the patient’s perception of the disease.
d. signs and symptoms that characterize a specific abnormal disturbance.
ANS: D REF: p. 2
6. An adverse response to medical treatment itself is termed:
a. autoimmune.
b. iatrogenic.
c. idiopathic.
d. nosocomial.
ANS: B REF: p. 3
7. Prognosis refers to:
a. diseases usually having a quick onset.
b. the name of the particular disease.
c. the predicted course and outcome of the disease.
d. the structure of cells or tissue.
ANS: C REF: p. 3
8. Diseases that generally require a decrease in the exposure technique are considered:
a. destructive.
b. lytic.
c. subtractive.
d. all of the above.
ANS: D REF: p. 3
9. The investigation of disease occurring in large groups best defines:
a. epidemiology.
b. incidence.
c. prevalence.
d. all of the above.
ANS: A REF: p. 3
10. Data regarding the number of deaths caused by a particular disease averaged over a population are collected and reported by the:
a. American College of Radiology.
b. Centers for Disease Control.
c. Food and Drug Administration.
d. National Center for Health Statistics.
ANS: D REF: p. 2
11. Which of the following are leading causes of death in the United States for adults aged 45 years and greater?
1. Heart disease
2. Malignant neoplasm
3. Polycystic kidney disease
a. 1 and 2 only
b. 1 and 3 only
c. 2 and 3 only
d. 1, 2, and 3
ANS: A REF: p. 4
12. In 2010, health spending accounted for approximately _____% of the U.S. gross domestic product.
a. 12
b. 17
c. 21
d. 33
ANS: B REF: p. 7
13. Each cell in the human body, except the reproductive cells, contains _____ pairs of autosomal chromosomes and _____ sex chromosomes.
a. 11; 1
b. 11; 2
c. 22; 1
d. 22; 2
ANS: D REF: p. 8
14. The types of gene maps that grew out of the identification of DNA sequences include _____ maps.
1. genetic
2. SNP
3. physical
a. 1 and 2 only
b. 1 and 3 only
c. 2 and 3 only
d. 1, 2, and 3
ANS: B REF: p. 8
15. The identification of common DNA pattern sequences and common patterns of genetic variations of single DNA bases resulted in:
a. the Genome Project.
b. genetic linkage maps.
c. haplotype mapping.
d. physical mapping.
ANS: C REF: p. 8
16. Diseases that are present at birth from genetic or environmental factors are classified as:
a. congenital.
b. degenerative.
c. genetic.
d. metabolic.
ANS: A REF: p. 10
17. A genetic disorder caused by an abnormality on one of the 22 nonsex chromosomes is considered:
a. autosomal.
b. dominant.
c. recessive.
d. sex linked.
ANS: A REF: p. 11
18. A protein coat surrounding a genome of either RNA or DNA without an organized cellular structure best describes which type of microorganism?
a. Bacteria
b. Fungi
c. Virus
d. All of the above
ANS: C REF: p. 11
19. The ease with which a pathogenic organism can overcome the body’s defenses best describes:
a. etiology.
b. infection.
c. pathogenesis.
d. virulence.
ANS: D REF: p. 12
20. Diseases caused by the disturbance of normal physiologic function are classified as:
a. degenerative.
b. metabolic.
c. neoplastic.
d. traumatic.
ANS: B REF: p. 13
21. The lymph node into which the primary neoplasm drains during metastasis is termed the _____ node.
a. primary
b. sentinel
c. metastatic
d. neoplastic
ANS: B REF: p. 14
22. The spread of cancerous cells into surrounding tissue by virtue of the close proximity best describes:
a. lymphatic spread.
b. hematogenous spread.
c. invasion.
d. oncogenesis.
ANS: C REF: p. 16
23. Cancer originating in epithelial tissue is termed:
a. carcinoma.
b. leukemia.
c. lymphoma.
d. sarcoma.
ANS: A REF: p. 16
24. In classification of a tumor using the TNM system, the T refers to the:
a. size of the primary tumor.
b. lymph node involvement.
c. distant metastasis.
d. histologic grading of the primary tumor.
ANS: A REF: p. 16
25. Which of the following imaging modalities are used in the staging of neoplastic tumors?
1. CT
2. PET
3. MRI
a. 1 and 2 only
b. 1 and 3 only
c. 2 and 3 only
d. 1, 2, and 3
ANS: D REF: p. 16
26. In the treatment of neoplastic disease, interferons and interleukins are associated with:
a. chemotherapy.
b. radiation therapy.
c. hormone therapy.
d. immunotherapy.
ANS: D REF: p. 16
MATCHING
Altered Cell Biology Directions: Match the type of altered cell biology with the correct description.
a. A generalized decrease in cell size
b. A generalized increase in cell size
c. An increase in the number of cells in tissue as a result of excessive proliferation
d. Conversion of one cell type into another cell type
e. Abnormal changes of mature cells
1. Hypertrophy
2. Atrophy
3. Metaplasia
4. Hyperplasia
5. Dysplasia
1. ANS: B REF: p. 9
2. ANS: A REF: p. 9
3. ANS: D REF: p. 10
4. ANS: C REF: p. 9
5. ANS: E REF: p. 10
TRUE/FALSE
1. A tumor consisting of differentiated cells has a higher probability for malignancy.
ANS: F REF: p. 14
2. A histologic evaluation of a primary cancer that is graded as an “I” is considered well differentiated.
ANS: T REF: p. 16
Chapter 2: Skeletal System Test Bank
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. Which primary bone tumor should be investigated with the utilization of CT?
a. Osteosarcoma
b. Osteoid osteoma
c. Chondrosarcoma
d. Ewing sarcoma
ANS: B REF: p. 48
2. A patient presents to his physician with anterior shoulder pain for several months. He has had no recent injury and there is no relief with NSAIDs, ice, heat, and gentle range-of-motion exercises. Radiographs of the shoulder demonstrate small microcalcifications of the subacromial space. What is the differential diagnosis?
a. Rotator cuff tear
b. Labral tear
c. Calcific tendinitis
d. Anterior shoulder dislocation
ANS: C REF: p. 39
3. Which of the following characteristics does NOT assist in the differentiation between a primary metastatic bone lesion as compared to a secondary metastatic bone lesion?
a. Soft tissue mass
b. Periosteal reaction
c. Length of lesion
d. Calcification of blood vessels
ANS: D REF: p. 54
4. What skeletal pathology presents radiographically with a “soap bubble” appearance?
a. Giant cell tumor
b. Ewing sarcoma
c. Osteoid osteoma
d. Osteoblastoma
ANS: A REF: p. 50
5. Osteopetrosis requires what type of technical factor change?
a. Increase
b. Decrease
c. No change
ANS: A REF: p. 27
6. Tenosynovitis requires what type of technical factor change?
a. Increase
b. Decrease
c. No change
ANS: C REF: p. 39
7. Which neoplasm involves a nidus?
a. Osteoid osteoma
b. Osteoblastoma
c. Osteosarcoma
d. Paget disease
ANS: A REF: p. 48
8. Which disease is congenital?
a. Pott disease
b. Osteoporosis
c. Paget disease
d. Osteogenesis imperfecta
ANS: D REF: p. 24
9. Spondylolysis is a result of a cleft or defect in the vertebral:
a. pedicle.
b. lamina.
c. spinous process.
d. pars interarticularis.
ANS: D REF: p. 42
10. Diploë is specific to cancellous bone located in what anatomic structure?
a. Femur
b. Humerus
c. Sternum
d. Skull
ANS: D REF: p. 20
11. A 15-year-old male patient presents for a right knee series after sustaining a varus injury while playing football. AP, lateral, and both oblique radiographs of the knee demonstrate an avulsion fracture of the lateral tibial plateau (Segond fracture). What additional imaging modality would be best utilized in the diagnosis for this patient?
a. CT
b. Knee arthrography
c. MRI
d. Nuclear medicine
ANS: C REF: p. 23
12. Heberden nodes and Bouchard nodes are associated with what skeletal pathology?
a. Osteomyelitis
b. Osteoarthritis
c. Paget disease
d. Pott disease
ANS: B REF: p. 38
13. What skeletal pathology could be a contributing factor for a cervical rib?
a. Scoliosis
b. Spina bifida
c. Spondylolisthesis
d. Transitional vertebrae
ANS: D REF: p. 30
14. Which anatomic structure is NOT a common area for metastasis?
a. Pelvis
b. Carpals
c. Skull
d. Bony thorax
ANS: B REF: p. 53
15. “Brittle bone” disease is also known as:
a. achondroplasia.
b. DDH.
c. osteogenesis imperfecta.
d. osteopetrosis.
ANS: C REF: p. 24
16. Congenital clubfoot is also known as:
a. DDH.
b. syndactyly.
c. fibrous dysplasia.
d. talipes.
ANS: D REF: p. 28
17. The most common form of arthritis is:
a. osteoarthritis.
b. gouty arthritis.
c. psoriatic arthritis.
d. rheumatoid arthritis.
ANS: A REF: p. 37
18. Marie-Strümpell disease or “bamboo spine” is a symptom of the pathology known as:
a. ankylosing spondylitis.
b. spondylolisthesis.
c. spina bifida.
d. scoliosis.
ANS: A REF: p. 37
19. The forward slippage of one vertebra on another describes the pathology:
a. spondylitis.
b. spondylolisthesis.
c. spondylolysis.
d. spina bifida.
ANS: B REF: p. 40
20. What type of arthritis has tophi associated with it?
a. Osteoarthritis
b. Gouty arthritis
c. Psoriatic arthritis
d. Rheumatoid arthritis
ANS: B REF: p. 39
21. What imaging modality demonstrates both simultaneous evaluation of bone and soft tissues with quantitative metabolic data of osteosarcomas?
a. CT
b. Nuclear medicine bone scan
c. Sonography
d. PET scan
ANS: D REF: p. 51
22. Tuberculosis of the spine is commonly referred to as:
a. Kienbock disease.
b. Reiter syndrome.
c. Apert syndrome.
d. Pott disease.
ANS: D REF: p. 33
23. The imaging modality that would best demonstrate osteomyelitis is:
a. nuclear medicine.
b. radiography.
c. CT.
d. sonography.
ANS: A REF: p. 32
24. One of the most common areas for metastasis for osteosarcomas is to the:
a. brain.
b. breast.
c. lung.
d. colon.
ANS: C REF: p. 51
25. A 30-year-old male presents with swelling and redness on his left knee. He states that he lays carpet and rarely wears knee pads. The orthopedic surgeon decides to aspirate the swollen area and inject it with a corticosteroid. What would be the differential diagnosis?
a. Calcific tendinitis
b. Tenosynovitis
c. Ganglion cyst
d. Prepatellar bursitis
ANS: D REF: p. 34
26. A malignant tumor composed of atypical cartilage is known as:
a. chondrosarcoma.
b. osteosarcoma.
c. enchondroma.
d. osteoid osteoma.
ANS: A REF: p. 53
27. What skeletal pathology involves cysts in the metaphysis of long bones in individuals younger than 20 years of age and consists of numerous blood-filled arteriovenous communications?
a. Unicameral bone cyst
b. Aneurysmal bone cyst
c. Ganglion cyst
d. Osteoid osteoma
ANS: B REF: p. 48
28. What type of aggressive bone-forming neoplasm that is most often located in the bone marrow gives the radiographic appearance of a sunray or sunburst?
a. Osteomyelitis
b. Osteosarcoma
c. Chondrosarcoma
d. Multiple myeloma
ANS: B REF: p. 24
29. Which syndrome may involve craniosynostosis and syndactyly?
a. Pott syndrome
b. Reiter syndrome
c. Kienbock syndrome
d. Alpert syndrome
ANS: D REF: p. 50
30. Which of the following congenital skeletal pathologies involves failure of formation of the cranial vault and is not conducive for life?
a. Anencephaly
b. Craniosynostosis
c. Encephalopathy
d. Osteomyelitis
ANS: A REF: p. 28
31. What imaging modality/ies would demonstrate developmental dysplasia of the hip?
1. CT 2. MRI 3. Radiography 4. Sonography a. 1 and 2 b. 1 and 3
c. 3 and 4
d. 1, 2, 3, and 4
ANS: B REF: p. 31
32. A nuclear medicine bone scan is performed for a diagnosis of osteomyelitis of the right foot. If this procedure is positive, what would the images demonstrate?
a. Symmetry of both feet
b. Increased uptake on the right foot (hot spot)
c. Decreased uptake on the right foot (cold spot)
ANS: C REF: p. 28
33. A common radiographic finding with patients suffering from whiplash is:
a. narrowed disk spaces.
b. loss of lordosis.
c. subluxation.
d. erosion of vertebral body.
ANS: B REF: p. 32
34. The most commonly inherited disorder affecting the skeletal system is:
a. enchondroma.
b. osteogenesis imperfecta.
c. achondroplasia.
d. syndactyly.
ANS: C REF: p. 41
35. A 65-year-old female presents with bilateral knee pain and no history of injury. What radiographic procedure should be obtained initially?
a. Bilateral weight-bearing knee radiographs
b. CT of both knees
c. Arthrography of both knees
d. MRI of both knees
ANS: A REF: p. 25
36. A 75-year-old patient with weight-bearing AP and lateral knee radiographs of the left knee demonstrates a decreased medial joint compartment and osteophyte formation on the medial femoral condyle. What would be the initial diagnosis?
a. Ewing sarcoma
b. Osteoarthritis
c. Reiter syndrome
d. Osteomyelitis
ANS: B REF: p. 46
37. The primary site of ossification is the:
a. epiphysis.
b. metaphysis.
c. diaphysis.
d. epiphyseal plate.
ANS: C REF: p. 37
1. The staging systems used for both benign and malignant skeletal lesions are identical.
ANS: T REF: p. 21
TRUE/FALSE
Chapter 3: Respiratory System Test Bank
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. Which of the following terms refers to the gas exchange between the respiratory and circulatory systems?
a. Aspiration
b. Diffusion
c. Inhalation
d. Ventilation
ANS: B REF: p. 59
2. Which of the following body structures enclose the thoracic cavity?
1. Ribs
2. Sternum
3. Thoracic vertebrae
a. 1 and 2 only
b. 1 and 3 only
c. 2 and 3 only
d. 1, 2, and 3
ANS: D REF: p. 63
3. The American College of Radiology suggests that routine mobile chest radiographs are only indicated for patients:
1. with acute cardiopulmonary conditions.
2. in the intensive care unit.
3. who are on a mechanical ventilator.
a. 1 and 2 only
b. 1 and 3 only
c. 2 and 3 only
d. 1, 2, and 3
ANS: B REF: p. 66
4. The current standard of care when a pulmonary embolus is suspected is a:
a. PA and lateral chest radiograph.
b. thoracic computed tomographic angiogram.
c. nuclear medicine ventilation and perfusion scan.
d. thoracic MRI.
ANS: B REF: p. 67
5. Low oxygen levels within the arterial blood and resulting from a failure of the gas exchange function best describes:
a. hypercapnia.
b. hypoxemia.
c. CPAP.
d. PPV.
ANS: B REF: p. 74
6. Cystic fibrosis is classified as a(n) _____ disease.
a. genetic.
b. inflammatory.
c. degenerative.
d. neoplastic.
ANS: A REF: p. 75
7. The incomplete maturation of the type II alveolar cells within the surfactant-producing system causes unstable alveoli resulting in:
a. hyaline membrane disease.
b. pneumonia.
c. respiratory distress syndrome.
d. more than one of the above.
ANS: D REF: p. 76
8. Bacteria commonly responsible for typical pneumonia include:
1. Staphylococcus aureus.
2. parainfluenza.
3. H. influenza.
a. 1 and 2 only
b. 1 and 3 only
c. 2 and 3 only
d. 1, 2, and 3
ANS: B REF: p. 77
9. The most common lethal nosocomial infection in the United States is:
a. bronchiectasis.
b. COPD.
c. pleurisy.
d. pneumonia.
ANS: D REF: p. 77
10. A permanent, abnormal dilatation of one or more large bronchi as a result of destruction of the elastic and muscular components of the bronchial wall best describes:
a. bronchiectasis.
b. COPD.
c. emphysema.
d. pleurisy.
ANS: A REF: p. 79
11. Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease may be caused by:
a. chronic obstructive bronchitis.
b. emphysema.
c. both a and b.
ANS: C REF: p. 82
12. Pneumoconioses result from inhalation of foreign substances and may include:
a. anthracosis.
b. asbestosis.
c. silicosis.
d. all of the above.
ANS: D REF: p. 84
13. Patients presenting with a lung abscess often demonstrate which of the following clinical manifestations?
1. Fever
2. Cough
3. Expectoration of pus
a. 1 and 2 only
b. 1 and 3 only
c. 2 and 3 only
d. 1, 2, and 3
ANS: D REF: p. 87
14. Pleural effusion is best described as:
a. excess fluid collects in the pleural cavity.
b. inflammation of the pleura.
c. a cavity that is radiographically visible on a chest image.
d. more than one of the above.
ANS: A REF: p. 87
15. Which of the pathologies listed below is the most common fatal primary malignancy in the United States, accounting for over 90% of all lung tumors?
a. Bronchial carcinoid tumors
b. Bronchogenic carcinoma
c. Hematogenous metastatic lung disease
d. Lymphogenous metastasis lung disease
ANS: B REF: p. 91
16. Which of the following pathologies of the respiratory system are classified as additive pathologies?
1. Cystic fibrosis
2. Emphysema
3. Pleural effusion
a. 1 and 2 only
b. 1 and 3 only
c. 2 and 3 only
d. 1, 2, and 3
ANS: B REF: p. 94
17. Chest radiography is the imaging modality of choice for the evaluation of:
1. bronchial adenoma.
2. hyaline membrane disease.
3. pneumoconiosis.
a. 1 and 2 only
b. 1 and 3 only
c. 2 and 3 only
d. 1, 2, and 3
ANS: C REF: p. 94
18. Fluorodeoxyglucose (FDG) positron emission tomography is the imaging modality of choice for:
1. COPD.
2. bronchogenic carcinoma.
3. metastatic lung disease.
a. 1 and 2 only
b. 1 and 3 only
c. 2 and 3 only
d. 1, 2, and 3
ANS: C REF: p. 95
19. High-resolution computed tomography is the imaging modality of choice in cases of suspected:
a. bronchiectasis.
b. cystic fibrosis.
c. fungal pneumonia.
d. respiratory distress syndrome.
ANS: A REF: p. 80
20. Sinusitis is considered a(n) _____ pathologic condition.
a. additive
b. subtractive
c. none of the above
ANS: A REF: p. 95
21. Pleurisy is considered a(n) _____ pathologic condition.
a. additive
b. subtractive
c. none of the above
ANS: C REF: p. 95
22. A disruption in the esophagus or airway may result in:
a. hemothorax.
b. mediastinal emphysema.
c. pectus excavatum.
d. Legionnaires’ disease.
ANS: B REF: p. 65
23. Inflammatory diseases of the respiratory system include:
a. hyaline membrane disease.
b. mycoplasma pneumonia.
c. subcutaneous emphysema.
d. bronchial adenoma.
ANS: B REF: p. 78
24. The upper respiratory system includes the:
1. larynx.
2. pharynx.
3. trachea.
a. 1 and 2 only
b. 1 and 3 only
c. 2 and 3 only
d. 1, 2, and 3
ANS: A REF: p. 59
TRUE/FALSE
1. On a normal PA chest radiograph, the right hemidiaphragm appears higher than the left hemidiaphragm.
ANS: T REF: p. 61
2. M. tuberculosis is captured by macrophages within the alveoli and creates a cell-mediated immune response that infiltrates the lymph nodes.
ANS: T REF: p. 80
3. Early pulmonary tuberculosis is always symptomatic.
ANS: F REF: p. 80
4. Coccidioidomycosis is a systemic, fungal infection of the lungs particularly endemic to the Ohio, Missouri, and Mississippi River valleys.
ANS: F REF: p. 86
5. Small cell carcinoma has a much higher mortality rate than other bronchogenic cancers.
ANS: T REF: p. 91
6. Lateral decubitus chest radiographs can better detect smaller amounts of fluid in the pleural space than an erect lateral chest radiograph.
ANS: T REF: p. 62
7. The posterior mediastinum contains the heart and great vessels, esophagus, and trachea.
ANS: F REF: p. 59
8. The maxillary and ethmoid sinuses are the only paranasal sinuses present at birth.
ANS: T REF: p. 59
MATCHING
Medical Devices
Directions: Match the following medical devices with the correct descriptions.
a. Chest tube
b. Endotracheal tube
c. CVP lines
d. Pulmonary artery catheter
e. Access catheter
1. A large plastic tube inserted through the patient’s nose or mouth into the trachea to manage the patient’s airway
2. A large plastic tube inserted through the chest wall between the ribs to allow drainage of fluid or air
3. A multilumen catheter that serves to evaluate cardiac function
4. A catheter inserted for an alternative injection site or to allow for infusion of massive volumes of fluids
5. Catheters placed to allow multiple tapping for injection of chemotherapeutic agents
1. ANS: B REF: p. 70
2. ANS: A REF: p. 71
3. ANS: D REF: p. 72
4. ANS: C REF: p. 71
5. ANS: E REF: p. 72
Chapter 4: Cardiovascular System Test Bank
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. The innermost tissue layer of the heart is the:
a. epicardium.
b. myocardium.
c. pericardium.
d. endocardium.
ANS: D REF: p. 99
2. Oxygenated blood is returned to the heart via the:
a. pulmonary arteries.
b. superior vena cavae.
c. pulmonary veins.
d. aorta.
ANS: C REF: p. 99
3. The mitral valve is also known as the _____ valve.
a. bicuspid
b. semilunar
c. aortic
d. tricuspid
ANS: A REF: p. 119
4. What is the name of the internal tubular structure of a blood vessel?
a. Intima
b. Lumen
c. Adventitia
d. Endocardium
ANS: B REF: p. 100
5. How many posterior ribs should be visible on a chest radiograph?
a. 6
b. 8
c. 10
d. 12
ANS: C REF: p. 101
6. An enlarged heart is known as:
a. ischemia.
b. cor pulmonale.
c. cardiomegaly.
d. tetralogy of Fallot.
ANS: C REF: p. 102
7. Doppler sonography is used to image which of the following conditions?
1. Deep vein thrombosis
2. Carotid stenosis
3. Lower extremity arterial stenosis
a. 1 and 3
b. 2 only
c. 2 and 3
d. 1, 2, and 3
ANS: D REF: p. 104
8. The contraction of the heart is known as:
a. diastole.
b. systole.
c. peristole.
d. myostol.
ANS: B REF: p. 100
9. The single most frequent cause of death in the United States is:
a. congestive heart failure.
b. coronary artery disease.
c. valvular heart disease.
d. ventricular septal defects.
ANS: B REF: p. 124
10. A CT calcium score best demonstrates:
a. chambers of the heart.
b. soft plaque.
c. pulmonary arteries.
d. hard plaque.
ANS: D REF: p. 106
11. A decrease in tissue blood supply is termed:
a. atheroma.
b. ischemia.
c. infarction.
d. necrosis.
ANS: B REF: p. 123
12. What type of aneurysm results when the intima tears and allows blood to flow within the vessel wall?
a. Dissecting
b. Fusiform
c. Saccular
ANS: A REF: p. 126
13. A blood clot is known as a(n):
a. infarct.
b. aneurysm.
c. thrombus.
d. adventitia.
ANS: C REF: p. 129
14. A procedure used to break up blood clots is known as a(n):
a. embolization.
b. thrombolysis.
c. angioplasty.
d. TIPSS.
ANS: B REF: p. 110
15. What is the opening between the atria and septum present at birth?
a. Ductus arteriosus
b. Cor pulmonale
c. Tetralogy of Fallot
d. Foramen ovale
ANS: D REF: p. 112
16. The most common cause of chronic valve disease of the heart is:
a. coronary artery disease.
b. rheumatic fever.
c. congestive heart failure.
d. ventricular septal defect.
ANS: B REF: p. 119
17. Which of the following imaging modalities provides the most information in terms of mitral valve function?
a. CT
b. MRI
c. US
d. TEE
ANS: D REF: p. 120
18. Congestive heart failure is most commonly caused by:
a. high cholesterol.
b. aneurysm.
c. congenital heart disease.
d. hypertension.
ANS: D REF: p. 120
19. A pulmonary embolus (PE) is best visualized with:
a. a VQ scan.
b. a nuclear perfusion scan.
c. CT.
d. angiography.
ANS: C REF: p. 130
20. Venous thrombosis most often affects the _____ veins of the _____ extremities.
a. deep; upper
b. deep; lower
c. superficial; upper
d. superficial; lower
ANS: B REF: p. 127
21. Imaging procedures that may be used to demonstrate an abdominal aneurysm include:
1. angiography.
2. CT.
3. sonography.
a. 1 and 2
b. 1 and 3
c. 2 and 3
d. 1, 2, and 3
ANS: D REF: p. 126
22. Common risk factors for CAD include:
1. cigarette smoking.
2. hypertension.
3. low-fat diet.
a. 1 and 2
b. 1 and 3
c. 2 and 3
d. 1, 2, and 3
ANS: A REF: p. 125
23. Clinical signs of a myocardial infarction include:
1. shortness of breath.
2. crushing chest pain.
3. neck pain.
a. 1 and 2
b. 1 and 3
c. 2 and 3
d. 1, 2, and 3
ANS: D REF: p. 125
TRUE/FALSE
1. Pulmonary circulation transports blood between the heart and lungs.
ANS: T REF: p. 98
2. In chest radiography, a PA view is sufficient to demonstrate all the chambers of the heart.
ANS: F REF: p. 98
3. Arteries carry blood away from the heart.
ANS: T REF: p. 100
4. MRI is used for imaging of the anatomy, function, and disease of the heart.
ANS: T REF: p. 107
5. A Greenfield filter may be placed in the inferior vena cava to prevent blood clots from traveling to the lungs.
ANS: T REF: p. 128
Chapter 5: Abdomen and Gastrointestinal System Test Bank
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. Which of the following are signs/symptoms of esophageal atresia?
a. Salivation
b. Choking
c. Cyanosis
d. All of the above
ANS: D REF: p. 151
2. Which of the following is the most common type of bowel atresia?
a. Duodenal atresia
b. Jejunal atresia
c. Ileal atresia
d. Colonic atresia
ANS: C REF: p. 151
3. Hypertrophic pyloric stenosis (HPS) is classified as a(n) _____ condition of the GI system.
a. congenital
b. degenerative
c. inflammatory
d. neurologic
ANS: A REF: p. 152
4. When imaging an infant with suspected malrotation, a(n) _____ examination should be performed and is considered the gold standard.
a. transabdominal ultrasound
b. small bowel follow-through
c. upper GI
d. contrast-enhanced CT
ANS: C REF: p. 155
5. If left untreated, Hirschsprung disease can progress to:
a. bacterial overgrowth.
b. colonic distention.
c. electrolyte imbalances.
d. all of the above.
ANS: D REF: p. 156
6. In the condition of carbohydrate intolerance, the small bowel lacks enough of the enzyme:
a. lactase.
b. lipase.
c. amylase.
d. lactose.
ANS: A REF: p. 157
7. Currently, _____ is the most accurate imaging examination for evaluating patients who do not have a clear clinical diagnosis of acute appendicitis.
a. abdominal radiography
b. computed tomography (CT)
c. magnetic resonance enterography (MRE)
d. colonoscopy
ANS: B REF: p. 166
8. A less common type of hiatal hernia is the _____ type.
a. rolling
b. sliding
c. paraesophageal
d. both a and c
ANS: D REF: p. 171
9. Abdominal radiography is of limited value in cases of diverticulitis unless diagnosing for suspected complications of:
a. pneumoperitoneum.
b. obstruction.
c. both a and c.
d. none of the above.
ANS: C REF: p. 182
10. Colorectal cancers are the _____ most common gastrointestinal cancer in the United States.
a. first
b. second
c. third
d. none of the above
ANS: A REF: p. 187
11. Which of the following is currently the standard imaging procedure for staging superficial rectal carcinomas?
a. Virtual colonoscopy acquired by computed tomography (CT)
b. Magnetic resonance colonography (MRC)
c. Digital rectal examination
d. Transrectal ultrasound (TRUS)
ANS: D REF: p. 189
12. Which of the following statements is true regarding the use of ultrasound over other imaging modalities in evaluation of the gastrointestinal tract?
a. Ultrasound provides the opportunity to biopsy during the sonographic procedure.
b. The examination sensitivity is not highly dependent on the skill of the sonographer.
c. Abdominal sonographic investigation is very effective in the obese population.
d. All of the above statements are true.
ANS: A REF: p. 145
13. Which of the following nuclear medicine procedures is performed to detect the presence of Helicobacter pylori in patients with a suspected gastric ulcer?
a. GI bleed scans
b. Gastric emptying scans
c. Urea breath test
d. SPECT gastric imaging
ANS: C REF: p. 145
14. Which types of esophageal diverticula are located at the pharyngoesophageal junction at the upper-lateral aspect of the esophagus?
1. Epiphrenic
2. Killian-Jameson
3. Zenker
a. 1 and 2 only
b. 1 and 3 only
c. 2 and 3 only
d. 1, 2, and 3
ANS: C REF: p. 179
15. The “olive sign” is associated with what pathologic process?
a. Appendicitis
b. Esophageal varices
c. Hypertrophied pyloric stenosis
d. Leiomyoma
ANS: C REF: p. 153
16. Which of the statements are true in reference to a mechanical bowel obstruction?
1. It occurs from a blockage of the bowel lumen.
2. It may be caused by a herniation of the bowel.
3. It may be caused by a lumen-obliterating gastrointestinal tumor.
a. 1 and 2 only
b. 1 and 3 only
c. 2 and 3 only
d. 1, 2, and 3
ANS: D REF: p. 174
17. Radiographically, Crohn disease can be differentiated from ulcerative colitis because:
a. the transmural inflammation penetrates all layer of the bowel wall in Crohn disease.
b. Crohn disease is limited to the mucosal and submucosal layers of the bowel wall.
c. the retrograde involvement in Crohn disease rarely reaches past the terminal ileum.
d. both b and c are correct.
ANS: A REF: p. 163
18. Which of the following magnetic resonance imaging techniques are used to visualize abdominal organs to differentiate pathologic processes from normal tissue?
1. T1-weighted images
2. T2-weighted images
3. Dark lumen imaging using water as a negative contrast agent
a. 1 and 2 only
b. 1 and 3 only
c. 2 and 3 only
d. 1, 2, and 3
ANS: A REF: p. 144
TRUE/FALSE
1. Sonography has become a standard and highly accurate method for diagnosing hypertrophic pyloric stenosis (HPS) without the need for radiation exposure.
ANS: T REF: p. 153
2. Hirschsprung disease is an absence of neurons in the bowel wall, typically in the descending colon.
ANS: F REF: p. 156
3. A Meckel diverticulum is a remnant of a duct connecting the small bowel to the umbilicus in the fetus.
ANS: T REF: p. 156
4. Diagnosis of gluten-sensitive enteropathy is rarely confirmed by biopsy of the small bowel.
ANS: F REF: p. 157
5. A peptic ulcer is an erosion of the mucous membrane of the lower end of the esophagus, stomach, or duodenum.
ANS: T REF: p. 160
6. Esophageal varices are best demonstrated in an upright position because the lack of gravity in a recumbent position causes poor visualization.
ANS: F REF: p. 168
7. A gallstone ileus is an obstruction that occurs when a gallstone reaches the ileocecal valve.
ANS: T REF: p. 176
8. Benign tumors of the esophagus are almost always leiomyomas.
ANS: T REF: p. 183
9. Small bowel barium studies are the most common means of identifying small-bowel neoplasms.
ANS: F REF: p. 185
10. A strangulated hernia occurs when a loop of bowel passes through a constricted area that is tight enough to cut off blood supply to the bowel.
ANS: T REF: p. 170
11. Treatment for regional enteritis includes bowel resection in approximately 70% of cases, particularly if perforation or hemorrhage is present.
ANS: T REF: p. 165
12. A category 2 risk of colon cancer is defined as a high risk; it includes hereditary syndromes such as hereditary nonpolyposis colorectal cancer (HNPCC) and familial polyposis, or patients with a personal history of ulcerative colitis or Crohn disease.
ANS: F REF: p. 187
Chapter 6: Hepatobiliary System
Test Bank
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. Which of the following diagnostic imaging studies provides physiologic function of the liver?
a. CT without contrast
b. Sonogram
c. Radiograph
d. Nuclear medicine with contrast
ANS: D REF: p. 197
2. Which diagnostic examination does the ACR recommend for a patient who presents with right upper quadrant pain that may be attributed to the biliary system?
a. CT without contrast
b. Sonogram
c. Radiograph
d. Nuclear medicine with contrast
ANS: B REF: p. 198
3. A MRCP is used to visual which anatomic structures?
1. Gallbladder
2. Biliary system
3. Kidney
a. 1 and 2 only
b. 1 and 3 only
c. 2 and 3 only
d. 1, 2, and 3
ANS: A REF: p. 197
4. A radiograph of the abdomen on a patient with known cirrhosis may be compromised due to what additional pathologic condition?
a. Shrunken liver tissue
b. Gallstones
c. Ascites
d. Pancreatitis
ANS: C REF: p. 201
5. Which form of hepatitis is transmitted from the GI tract in fecal material?
a. HAV
b. HBV
c. HCV
d. HDV
ANS: A REF: p. 203
6. Which liver lesion is primarily composed of blood vessels?
a. Hepatocellular adenoma
b. Hemangioma
c. Hepatocellular carcinoma
d. Hepatoma
ANS: B REF: p. 209
7. The TIPSS procedure is designed to reduce portal hypertension by uniting which vessels?
1. Hepatic artery
2. Hepatic vein
3. Portal vein
a. 1 and 2 only
b. 1 and 3 only
c. 2 and 3 only
d. 1, 2, and 3
ANS: C REF: p. 202
8. What is the incidence of gallstones in the United States for persons over 65 years of age?
a. 5%
b. 10%
c. 15%
d. 20%
ANS: D REF: p. 205
9. The inflammation of the gallbladder is referred to as:
a. colitis.
b. cholecystitis.
c. cholelithiasis.
d. cholecystectomy.
ANS: B REF: p. 206
10. A fluid collection that develops from the pancreas is termed:
a. ascites.
b. pancreatitis.
c. polycystic disease.
d. a pseudocyst.
ANS: D REF: p. 207
11. Which of the following imaging studies are highly recommended for the diagnosis of acute pancreatitis?
1. CT
2. SPECT
3. Sonography
a. 1 and 2 only
b. 1 and 3 only
c. 2 and 3 only
d. 1, 2, and 3
ANS: B REF: p. 207
12. The impaction of a gallstone in the small bowel is referred to as:
a. cholelithiasis.
b. gallstone ileus.
c. obstructive jaundice.
d. medical jaundice.
ANS: B REF: p. 206
13. Chronic liver disease has the highest incidence in which age group?
a. 25-34 years
b. 35-44 years
c. 45-65 years
d. Greater than 65 years
ANS: C REF: p. 201
14. Which imaging procedure is preferred in the evaluation of proximal obstructions involving the hepatic duct bifurcation?
a. ERCP
b. Percutaneous transhepatic cholangiogram
c. T-tube cholangiogram
d. Operative cholangiogram
ANS: B REF: p. 195
15. Which imaging procedure can differentiate between vessels and biliary ducts based on flow characteristics?
a. CT of the abdomen with contrast
b. Magnetic resonance cholangiopancreatography
c. Nuclear medicine cholescintigraphy
d. Doppler sonography
ANS: D REF: p. 197
16. Fatty infiltration of the liver is termed:
a. hyperlipidemia.
b. cirrhosis.
c. metabolic syndrome.
d. steatosis.
ANS: D REF: p. 200
17. Cirrhosis of the liver is considered an end-stage condition resulting from liver damage caused by chronic:
1. alcohol abuse.
2. hepatitis.
3. biliary tract obstruction.
a. 1 and 2 only
b. 1 and 3 only
c. 2 and 3 only
d. 1, 2, and 3
ANS: D REF: p. 200
18. How many types of viral hepatitis have been identified?
a. 2
b. 4
c. 6
d. 8
ANS: C REF: p. 203
19. Which of the following additional imaging procedures are highly recommended in patients who have gallstones demonstrated with sonography but do not have fever or an elevated white blood cell count?
1. Nuclear medicine cholescintigraphy
2. CT of the abdomen (with or without contrast)
3. MRI of the abdomen (with or without contrast)
a. 1 and 2 only
b. 1 and 3 only
c. 2 and 3 only
d. 1, 2, and 3
ANS: D REF: p. 205
20. Which type of jaundice occurs because of hemolytic disease in which too many red blood cells are destroyed or because of liver damage from cirrhosis or hepatitis?
a. Medical jaundice
b. Obstructive jaundice
ANS: A REF: p. 195
21. The majority of adenocarcinomas of the pancreas occur in the _____ of the pancreas.
a. head
b. body
c. tail
ANS: A REF: p. 212
22. Ascites is best demonstrated by which of the following imaging procedures?
1. CT of the abdomen
2. Sonogram of the abdomen
3. ERCP
a. 1 and 2 only
b. 1 and 3 only
c. 2 and 3 only
d. 1, 2, and 3
ANS: A REF: p. 201
TRUE/FALSE
1. The right and left hepatic ducts unite to form the common bile duct.
ANS: F REF: p. 194
2. The liver has a double supply of blood, coming from the hepatic artery and the portal vein.
ANS: T REF: p. 193
3. Hepatitis B (HBV) is transmitted parenterally in infected serum or blood products.
ANS: T REF: p. 203
4. Although most commonly found in the gallbladder, gallstones can be located anywhere in the biliary tree.
ANS: T REF: p. 205
5. Chronic pancreatitis resolves without impairing the histologic makeup of the pancreas.
ANS: F REF: p. 206
6. The liver is a common site for metastasis from other primary sites such as the colon, pancreas, stomach, lung, and breast.
ANS: T REF: p. 210
7. Hepatitis B accounts for 80% of the cases of hepatitis that develop after blood transfusions.
ANS: F REF: p. 204
8. Approximately 80% of all gallstones are composed of a mixture of cholesterol, bilirubin, and calcium salts.
ANS: T REF: p. 205
Chapter 7: Urinary System Test Bank
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. The kidneys are located:
1. in the retroperitoneal cavity.
2. between T-12 and L-3.
3. anterior to the spleen.
a. 1 and 2 only
b. 1 and 3 only
c. 2 and 3 only
d. 1, 2, and 3
ANS: A REF: p. 216
2. Which anatomic structures are located in the hilum of the kidney?
1. Renal artery
2. Renal vein
3. Nerve plexus
a. 1 and 2 only
b. 1 and 3 only
c. 2 and 3 only
d. 1, 2, and 3
ANS: D REF: p. 216
3. In an adult, the ureters are normally approximately _____ inches long.
a. 5
b. 10
c. 15
d. 20
ANS: B REF: p. 217
4. Which of the following is a waste product derived from a breakdown of a compound normally found in muscle tissue?
a. BUN
b. Serum creatinine
c. GFR
d. Urine
ANS: B REF: p. 218
5. Which laboratory test is used to determine the urinary system’s ability to break down nitrogenous compounds from proteins to produce urea nitrogen?
a. BUN
b. Serum creatinine
c. GFR
d. All of the above
ANS: A REF: p. 218
6. Normally, the glomerular filtration rate of the kidneys should be _____ mL/min/1.73m2 or greater.
a. 30
b. 50
c. 75
d. 90
ANS: D REF: p. 218
7. Serious adverse effects typically accompany the injection of urographic contrast agents are most common in elderly:
a. black females.
b. white females.
c. black males.
d. white males.
ANS: B REF: p. 219
8. Which of the following predisposing conditions may increase the risk of an adverse reaction to an iodinated contrast agent?
1. Dehydration
2. Heart disease
3. Asthma
a. 1 and 2 only
b. 1 and 3 only
c. 2 and 3 only
d. 1, 2, and 3
ANS: D REF: p. 219
9. What is the modality of choice for evaluating individuals after kidney transplantation?
a. CT
b. MRI
c. Sonography
d. FDG-PET
ANS: C REF: p. 222
10. The American College of Radiology’s imaging modality of choice for a patient presenting with an acute onset of flank pain or other symptoms that suggest the presence of renal calculi is:
a. CT stone study.
b. abdominal CT with and without contrast.
c. abdominal MR with and without contrast.
d. renal sonogram.
ANS: A REF: p. 223
11. Which of the following is highly recommended by the American College of Radiology in the diagnosis of renovascular hypertension?
a. CTA of the kidneys
b. Abdominal CT with and without contrast
c. Abdominal MR with and without contrast
d. MRA of the kidneys
ANS: D REF: p. 223
12. What type of catheter connects the renal pelvis to the outside of the body?
a. Nephrostomy tube
b. Ureteral stent
c. Foley catheter
d. Suprapubic catheter
ANS: A REF: p. 226
13. The congenital absence of a kidney is termed:
a. renal agenesis.
b. renal aplasia.
c. compensatory hypertrophy.
d. more than one of the above.
ANS: D REF: p. 227
14. A kidney located out of its normal position is termed:
a. malrotation.
b. ectopic.
c. prolapsed.
d. cross fused.
ANS: B REF: p. 229
15. A congenital, familial kidney disorder that may be classified as either autosomal recessive or autosomal dominant is:
a. renal agenesis.
b. polycystic kidney disease.
c. crossed ectopy.
d. medullary sponge kidney.
ANS: B REF: p. 231
16. A congenital dilatation of the renal tubules leading to urinary stasis and increased levels of calcium phosphate is:
a. renal agenesis.
b. polycystic kidney disease.
c. crossed ectopy.
d. medullary sponge kidney.
ANS: D REF: p. 232
17. Which of the following microorganisms are generally involved in pyelonephritis?
a. E. coli
b. Proteus
c. Staphylococcus
a. 1 and 2 only
b. 1 and 3 only
c. 2 and 3 only
d. 1, 2, and 3
ANS: A REF: p. 233
18. Inflammation of the bladder is termed:
a. cystitis.
b. nephritis.
c. glomerulitis.
d. diverticulitis.
ANS: A REF: p. 235
19. Intermittent pain associated with the movement of renal calculi is termed:
a. neurogenic bladder.
b. trabeculae.
c. renal colic.
d. pneumatic lithotripsy.
ANS: C REF: p. 238
20. An obstructive disorder of the urinary system that causes dilatation of the renal pelvis and calyces with urine is:
a. glomerulonephritis.
b. hydronephrosis.
c. hematuria.
d. nephrosclerosis.
ANS: B REF: p. 240
21. Renal cell carcinoma is a type of:
a. adenocarcinoma.
b. sarcoma.
c. epithelioma.
d. glioma.
ANS: A REF: p. 241
22. Which of the following examinations are recommended for staging and follow-up of renal cell carcinoma by the American College of Radiology?
1. Abdominal CT with and without contrast
2. Abdominal MRI with and without contrast
3. Renal ultrasound
a. 1 and 2 only
b. 1 and 3 only
c. 2 and 3 only
d. 1, 2, and 3
ANS: A REF: p. 242
23. Bladder cancer may be treated with which of the following procedures?
1. Cryoablation
2. Radiofrequency ablation
3. Total cystectomy
a. 1 and 2 only
b. 1 and 3 only
c. 2 and 3 only
d. 1, 2, and 3
ANS: D REF: p. 245
24. Congenital anomalies of the urinary system are often evaluated in the fetus using which of the following modalities?
a. CT
b. MRI
c. Radiography
d. Sonography
ANS: D REF: p. 222
TRUE/FALSE
1. Kidney function is generally unimpaired with a horseshoe kidney.
ANS: T REF: p. 228
2. Vesicoureteral reflux is the backward flow of urine out of the bladder and into the urethra.
ANS: F REF: p. 220
3. The retention of urea in the blood is termed pyurea.
ANS: F REF: p. 239
4. It is estimated that more than half of people at age 50 have renal cysts.
ANS: T REF: p. 241
5. The cure rate for Stage I-III Wilms’ tumor (nephroblastoma) is 95%.
ANS: T REF: p. 243
6. Renal cell carcinoma often metastasizes to the chest, so often a chest radiograph is recommended.
ANS: T REF: p. 243
Chapter 8: Central Nervous System Test Bank
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. Which of the following structures is NOT considered part of the brainstem?
a. Pons
b. Medulla oblongata
c. Diencephalon
d. Midbrain
ANS: C REF: p. 250
2. Which of the following is the modality of choice for detecting cerebrovascular hemorrhage following acute head trauma?
a. Computed tomography
b. Magnetic resonance imaging
c. Nuclear medicine
d. Sonography
ANS: A REF: p. 258
3. A ventricular shunt is placed between the ventricles and the _____ to drain excess CSF in patients diagnosed with hydrocephalus.
a. internal jugular vein
b. heart
c. peritoneum
d. all of the above
ANS: D REF: p. 281
4. Since the introduction of CT, the overall mortality rate due to brain abscesses has decreased from more than 40% to less than:
a. 30%.
b. 15%.
c. 5%.
d. 0.5%.
ANS: C REF: p. 266
5. Which of the following advanced MR imaging techniques is not useful in supporting a diagnosis of MS?
a. Diffusion imaging
b. Functional imaging (fMRI)
c. Perfusion imaging
d. Magnetization transfer
ANS: B REF: p. 272
6. Noncontrast brain CT scans are most commonly used to diagnose patients with strokelike symptoms because of their:
a. high sensitivity to ischemic strokes.
b. high sensitivity to hemorrhagic strokes.
c. wide availability.
d. both b and c.
ANS: D REF: p. 275
7. In children, brain tumors often tend to occur in the:
a. brainstem.
b. frontal lobe.
c. temporal lobes.
d. posterior fossa.
ANS: D REF: p. 276
8. Distinguishing clinical features of astrocytomas include:
a. fast growing.
b. infiltrative tumors.
c. high grade of malignancy.
d. all of the above.
ANS: B REF: p. 278
9. Meningiomas are fed by the meningeal arteries, often enabling demonstration of an enlarged foramen spinosum and increased meningeal vascular markings on:
a. skull radiography.
b. contrast-enhanced CT.
c. contrast-enhanced MRI.
d. all of the above.
ANS: A REF: p. 281
10. Which of the following is NOT one of three tumors of the peripheral nerve sheath?
a. Acoustic neuroma
b. Acoustic neurilemma
c. Schwannoma
d. Pituitary adenoma
ANS: D REF: p. 284
11. What are the three meningeal layers of the spinal cord, in order, from outermost to innermost?
a. Dura mater, arachnoid mater, pia mater
b. Arachnoid mater, dura mater, pia mater
c. Pia mater, arachnoid mater, dura mater
d. Dura mater, pia mater, arachnoid mater
ANS: A REF: p. 250
12. The primary role of conventional radiography in imaging of the central nervous system includes the demonstration of:
1. fractures related to cranial trauma.
2. calcifications related to chronic disease.
3. cerebral aneurysms.
a. 1 and 2 only
b. 1 and 3 only
c. 2 and 3 only
d. 1, 2, and 3
ANS: A REF: p. 253
13. Which of the following pathologic conditions would demonstrate as a decrease in tissue density on CT images of the CNS?
1. Cerebral infarctions
2. Cerebral calcifications
3. CNS cysts
a. 1 and 2 only
b. 1 and 3 only
c. 2 and 3 only
d. 1, 2, and 3
ANS: B REF: p. 258
14. What imaging modality is most commonly used to image the brain of neonates?
a. CT
b. Conventional radiography
c. MRI
d. Ultrasound
ANS: D REF: p. 259
15. Which of the following neurologic deficits are associated with a meningomyelocele?
1. Diminished control of the urinary bladder
2. Diminished control of the bowel
3. Diminished control of the lower extremities
a. 1 and 2 only
b. 1 and 3 only
c. 2 and 3 only
d. 1, 2, and 3
ANS: C REF: p. 261
16. What is the most common cause of chronic meningitis?
a. Bacterial infections
b. Fungal infections
c. Viral infections
d. None of the above
ANS: A REF: p. 264
17. What are the determining factors of a patient’s prognosis when diagnosed with metastatic brain disease?
1. Age of the individual
2. Number of metastatic lesions present
3. Primary type of malignant disease
a. 1 and 2 only
b. 1 and 3 only
c. 2 and 3 only
d. 1, 2, and 3
ANS: C REF: p. 285
TRUE/FALSE
1. Vertebral disks are covered by a tough outer covering called the nucleus pulposus.
ANS: F REF: p. 269
2. Spheres, coils, or beads are used to embolize or occlude cerebral vasculature, as in the case of an aneurysm or arteriovenous malformation (AVM).
ANS: T REF: p. 260
3. Antibiotics are often successful against many forms of meningitis, though antibiotic therapy is never given before a definite diagnosis has been established.
ANS: F REF: p. 264
4. The most common locations for disk herniation are in the lower cervical and lower lumbar regions.
ANS: T REF: p. 268
5. About 80% of all strokes are caused by small vessel disease.
ANS: F REF: p. 273
6. Optimal detail of posterior fossa structures can be obscured by beam-hardening artifact associated with CT, making MRI the initial modality of choice for evaluating patients of all ages.
ANS: T REF: p. 276
7. In patients previously treated for brain neoplasms, who subsequently present with new neurologic complaints, distinguishing between radiation necrosis and tumor recurrence is relatively simple.
ANS: F REF: p. 277
8. Recurrence is common with medulloblastomas, and chemotherapy regimens have not been found to be consistently effective in controlling the recurrence.
ANS: T REF: p. 281
9. The appearance of craniopharyngioma tumors on both CT and MR depends on the solid and cystic components of the mass.
ANS: T REF: p. 284
10. In spinal tumor diagnosis and evaluation, conventional spine radiographs are primarily reserved for demonstrating bony destruction and widening of the vertebral pedicles related to tumor growth.
ANS: T REF: p. 287
11. The blood–brain barrier consists of a network of capillaries that connects the arteries and veins of the brain that prevent the passage of unwanted macromolecules and fluids from leaking into the brain parenchyma.
ANS: T REF: p. 252
12. A contrast-enhanced CT of the spine is the best imaging choice for postoperative patients in the evaluation of scarring when the tissue extends beyond the vertebral interspace.
ANS: F REF: p. 269
13. A hemorrhagic stroke results from a rupture of a blood vessel of the brain due to a weakening in the diseased vessel wall.
ANS: T REF: p. 272
Chapter 9: Hemopoietic System Test Bank
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. The hemopoietic system consists of:
1. lymphatic tissue.
2. blood cells.
3. the liver.
a. 1 and 2 only
b. 1 and 3 only
c. 2 and 3 only
d. 1, 2, and 3
ANS: A REF: p. 291
2. What substance helps to regulate the passage of water and solutes through the capillaries?
a. Albumins
b. Immune globulins
c. Glucose
d. Lipids
ANS: A REF: p. 291
3. The three basic types of blood cells include:
1. erythrocytes.
2. leukocytes.
3. lymphocytes.
a. 1 and 2 only
b. 1 and 3 only
c. 2 and 3 only
d. 1, 2, and 3
ANS: A REF: p. 291
4. Anemia is defined as a hemoglobin level less than _____ grams per 100 mL of blood.
a. 5
b. 7
c. 12
d. 20
ANS: C REF: p. 291
5. Which type of blood cells contains various antigens that determine blood type?
a. Erythrocytes
b. Leukocytes
c. Lymphocytes
d. Thrombocytes
ANS: A REF: p. 291
6. Which blood type is considered to be a universal donor?
a. A
b. B
c. AB
d. O
ANS: D REF: p. 292
7. Which blood type is considered to be a universal recipient?
a. A
b. B
c. AB
d. O
ANS: C REF: p. 292
8. Which of the following are classified as granular leukocytes?
1. Basophils
2. Eosinophils
3. Neutrophils
a. 1 and 2 only
b. 1 and 3 only
c. 2 and 3 only
d. 1, 2, and 3
ANS: D REF: p. 292
9. Platelet activity is _____ by an inflammatory response.
a. decreased
b. increased
c. not affected
ANS: B REF: p. 292
10. Major areas of lymph node chains include the: 1. neck.
2. pelvis.
3. retroperitoneum.
a. 1 and 2 only
b. 1 and 3 only
c. 2 and 3 only
d. 1, 2, and 3
ANS: D REF: p. 293
11. Which of the following cells are the most important in the development of immunity?
a. Erythrocytes
b. Leukocytes
c. Lymphocytes
d. Thrombocytes
ANS: C REF: p. 293
12. Which of the following is the most radiosensitive blood cell type?
a. Erythrocytes
b. Leukocytes
c. Lymphocytes
d. Thrombocytes
ANS: C REF: p. 294
13. What is the largest lymphoid organ in the body?
a. Spleen
b. Liver
c. Thoracic duct
d. Thymus
ANS: A REF: p. 294
14. Radiographic skeletal survey images are appropriate in the diagnosis of:
a. HIV.
b. leukemia.
c. multiple myeloma.
d. non-Hodgkin lymphoma.
ANS: C REF: p. 294
15. Which imaging modality has the highest specificity in demonstrating lymphatic disease?
a. CT
b. MRI
c. PET
d. Radiography
ANS: C REF: p. 294
16. Which of the following is the principal agent of AIDS in the United States?
a. HIV-1
b. HIV-2
c. HIV-3
d. Both a and b
ANS: B REF: p. 295
17. What enzyme can covert viral RNA into a DNA copy?
a. Retrovirus
b. Reverse transcriptase
c. Monoclonal paraprotein
d. CD4
ANS: B REF: p. 296
18. Which of the following results from neoplastic changes in the B cells of the blood plasma?
a. AIDS
b. ALL
c. Hodgkin lymphoma
d. Multiple myeloma
ANS: D REF: p. 300
19. Which of the following is a common complication associated with multiple myeloma?
a. Opportunist infections
b. Renal failure
c. Splenomegaly
d. Hepatomegaly
ANS: B REF: p. 301
20. Leukemias frequently infiltrate the:
1. liver.
2. spleen.
3. lymphatic tissue.
a. 1 and 2 only
b. 1 and 3 only
c. 2 and 3 only
d. 1, 2, and 3
ANS: D REF: p. 301
21. Which type(s) of leukemia develop(s) from primitive or stem cells?
a. Monocytic
b. Myelocytic
c. Lymphocytic
d. All of the above
ANS: B REF: p. 302
22. Which type of leukemia often infiltrates the skin and soft tissues of the body?
a. ALL
b. AML
c. CLL
d. CML
ANS: B REF: p. 302
23. Bruising frequently occurs with a variety of hemopoietic disorders due to a decreased _____ count.
a. erythrocyte
b. leukocyte
c. lymphocyte
d. platelet
ANS: D REF: p. 302
24. Non-Hodgkin lymphoma is associated with which type of lymphatic cells?
1. Reed-Sternberg cells
2. B cells
3. T cells
a. 1 and 2 only
b. 1 and 3 only
c. 2 and 3 only
d. 1, 2, and 3
ANS: C REF: p. 303
25. The presence of which of the following cell types differentiate Hodgkin lymphoma from other types of lymphomas?
a. CD4 receptors
b. B cells
c. T cells
d. Reed-Sternberg cells
ANS: D REF: p. 304
Chapter 10: Reproductive System Test Bank
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. The ACR recommends which of the following as the best imaging examination for uterine fibroids?
a. MRI
b. Sonography
c. CT
d. Abdominal radiograph
ANS: B REF: p. 320
2. Carcinoma of the breast has an increased incidence in females between the ages of _____ years.
a. 18-25
b. 20-30
c. 30-50
d. None of the above, the incidence remains the same throughout life.
ANS: C REF: p. 309
3. The ACR recommends which of the following as the best imaging examination for staging men with prostate cancer?
a. MRI
b. Sonography
c. CT
d. Abdominal radiograph
ANS: A REF: p. 329
4. Acute scrotal pain that may be caused by a lack of blood flow to the testicle requires an emergent imaging examination. What is modality most highly recommended?
a. CT
b. Pelvic radiograph
c. MRI
d. Sonography
ANS: D REF: p. 331
5. A patient with diagnosed carcinoma of the cervix needs to have a highly reliable diagnostic workup. Which imaging examinations are highly recommended by the ACR for detecting recurrent disease?
1. Hysterosalpingogram
2. MRI of the pelvis
3. FDG-PET/CT
a. 1 and 2 only
b. 1 and 3 only
c. 2 and 3 only
d. 1, 2, and 3
ANS: C REF: p. 334
6. Which of the following is the rarest testicular cancer; it makes up only 1% of the tumor detected with imaging?
a. Testicular carcinoma
b. Testicular choriocarcinoma
c. Testicular seminoma
d. Testicular teratoma
ANS: B REF: p. 333
7. What pathology can cause older male patients to be unable to completely empty their urinary bladder?
a. Prostatic hyperplasia
b. Testicular torsion
c. Spermatoceles
d. Hydroceles
ANS: A REF: p. 330
8. Which of the following is a malignant pathology that can develop within the placenta?
a. Hydatidiform mole
b. Leiomyoma
c. Cystadenocarcinoma
d. None of the above
ANS: A REF: p. 327
9. What is the pathologic term for infection of the breast?
a. Mastalgia
b. Mastitis
c. Mastectomy
ANS: B REF: p. 316
10. What is the best imaging examination to determine whether blood flow exists in the testicle?
a. FDG-PET
b. CT of pelvis
c. MRI of pelvis
d. Doppler ultrasound
ANS: D REF: p. 331
11. What is the medical term used to describe the undescended testicle?
a. Cryptorchidism
b. Epididymo-orchitis
c. Hydrocele
d. Spermatocele
ANS: A REF: p. 329
12. The lab test for CA-125 is associated with which type of malignant disease?
a. Endometrial carcinoma
b. Cystadenocarcinoma of the ovary
c. Carcinoma of the cervix
d. Fibroadenoma
ANS: B REF: p. 319
13. Sonohysterography is conducted by instilling _____ into the uterus.
a. barium sulfate
b. an oily iodinated contrast agent
c. an aqueous iodinated contrast agent
d. saline
ANS: D REF: p. 310
14. The term denoting a complete duplication of the uterus, cervix, and vagina is:
a. unicornuate uterus.
b. bicornuate uterus.
c. retroverted uterus.
d. uterus didelphys.
ANS: D REF: p. 314
15. Signs and symptoms associated with PID include:
1. pelvic tenderness.
2. elevated white blood count.
3. nausea.
a. 1 and 2 only
b. 1 and 3 only
c. 2 and 3 only
d. 1, 2, and 3
ANS: D REF: p. 315
16. Stein-Leventhal syndrome is associated with:
a. endometriosis.
b. cystadenocarcinoma of the ovaries.
c. cystic teratomas.
d. polycystic ovaries.
ANS: D REF: p. 317
17. The human papillomavirus is associated with what type of malignancy?
a. Cervical cancer
b. Endometrial carcinoma
c. Hereditary ovarian cancers
d. Interductal breast cancers
ANS: A REF: p. 319
18. Approximately 60% of all palpable breast lesions occur in the _____ quadrant of the breast.
a. upper, inner
b. upper, outer
c. lower, inner
d. lower, outer
ANS: B REF: p. 322
19. What is the primary problem with using MRI as the primary imaging modality for detecting breast cancer?
a. MRI utilizes ionizing radiation.
b. MRI cannot visualize cystic structures.
c. MRI cannot visualize soft tissue.
d. MRI may cause an increase in the request for additional images.
ANS: D REF: p. 314
20. What gene mutations are associated with hereditary breast ovarian cancer syndrome?
1. BRCA1
2. BRCA2
3. BRCA3
a. 1 and 2 only
b. 1 and 3 only
c. 2 and 3 only
d. 1, 2, and 3
ANS: A REF: p. 322
21. What medical term denotes the development of an embryo outside the uterine cavity?
a. Bicornuate uterus
b. Ectopic pregnancy
c. Hydatidiform mole
d. Placenta previa
ANS: B REF: p. 326
TRUE/FALSE
1. A fibroadenoma is a benign palpable lump that could develop in the breast.
ANS: T REF: p. 320
2. An MRI pelvis (with and without contrast) is recommended for staging a patient who has adenocarcinoma of the endometrium.
ANS: T REF: p. 334
3. The term “nongravid” is used in designating a pregnant female.
ANS: F REF: p. 310
4. The Ecklund maneuver is used in imaging patients with breast implants to isolate the native breast tissue for imaging.
ANS: T REF: p. 311
5. Corpus luteum ovarian cysts are always malignant neoplasms.
ANS: F REF: p. 316
6. Uterine fibroids tend to increase in size during menopause.
ANS: F REF: p. 319
7. Sonography is extremely useful as a follow-up to mammography in differentiating solid masses from cystic masses in women with fibrocystic breasts.
ANS: T REF: p. 321
8. Hyperplasia of the prostate gland is often treated with a transurethral resection of the prostate.
ANS: T REF: p. 330
9. Follicular ovarian cysts are small cyst formations that result from resorption of blood leaked into the cavity after ovulation.
ANS: F REF: p. 316
Chapter 11: Endocrine System Test Bank
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. The endocrine system includes which of the following glands/organs?
1. Thyroid
2. Thymus
3. Pancreas
a. 1 and 2 only
b. 1 and 3 only
c. 2 and 3 only
d. 1, 2, and 3
ANS: D REF: p. 338
2. The pituitary gland is located inferior to the:
a. hypothalamus.
b. thyroid.
c. sella turcica.
d. pons.
ANS: A REF: p. 338
3. The anterior lobe of the pituitary secretes which of the following hormones?
1. ADH
2. FSH
3. GH
a. 1 and 2 only
b. 1 and 3 only
c. 2 and 3 only
d. 1, 2, and 3
ANS: C REF: p. 339
4. The hypothalamus controls the _____ gland.
1. pineal
2. pituitary
3. thyroid
a. 1 and 2 only
b. 1 and 3 only
c. 2 and 3 only
d. 1, 2, and 3
ANS: A REF: p. 339
5. Epinephrine is produced in the:
a. pituitary gland.
b. pancreas.
c. adrenal cortex.
d. adrenal medulla.
ANS: D REF: p. 339
6. The thyroid gland is responsible for secreting:
1. TSH.
2. TH.
3. calcitonin.
a. 1 and 2 only
b. 1 and 3 only
c. 2 and 3 only
d. 1, 2, and 3
ANS: C REF: p. 340
7. Overactivity of the thyroid gland results in:
a. hypothyroidism.
b. hyperthyroidism.
c. hypoparathyroidism.
d. hyperparathyroidism.
ANS: B REF: p. 341
8. The alpha cells of the _____ are responsible for glucagon synthesis.
a. adrenal cortex
b. adrenal medulla
c. liver
d. pancreas
ANS: D REF: p. 341
9. The primary imaging modality used in the evaluation of osteoporosis is:
a. DXA.
b. MRI.
c. sestamibi nuclear medicine scans.
d. CT.
ANS: A REF: p. 342
10. Which imaging modality is the most reliable in imaging the hypothalamus?
a. DXA
b. MRI
c. Sestamibi nuclear medicine scans
d. CT
ANS: B REF: p. 342
11. Osteopenia is identified as a bone mass of _____ mg/cm2 .
a. <648
b. 648-833
c. >833
ANS: B REF: p. 343
12. Osteitis deformans is also referred to as:
a. Addison disease.
b. Cushing syndrome.
c. Graves disease.
d. Paget disease.
ANS: D REF: p. 345
13. Acromegaly is a disorder caused by a disturbance in the pituitary gland resulting in an excessive secretion of:
a. FSH.
b. TH.
c. GH.
d. PTH.
ANS: C REF: p. 347
14. Diabetes insipidus is a disorder that results when the _____ secretes an insufficient level of ADH.
a. adrenal cortex
b. adrenal medulla
c. anterior pituitary gland
d. posterior pituitary gland
ANS: D REF: p. 348
15. Sheehan syndrome is associated with:
a. hypothyroidism.
b. hyperthyroidism.
c. hypopituitarism.
d. hyperpituitarism.
ANS: C REF: p. 348
16. Which pathology results from a dysfunction within the adrenal cortex leading to hypersecretion of glucocorticoids from the anterior pituitary?
a. Addison disease
b. Cushing syndrome
c. Graves disease
d. Paget disease
ANS: B REF: p. 348
17. What syndrome is associated with chronic hyperglycemia in combination with glucose intolerance and alterations in the metabolism of carbohydrates, fats, and proteins?
a. Cushing
b. Diabetes mellitus
c. Diabetes insipidus
d. Metabolic
ANS: B REF: p. 349
18. Grave disease is associated with:
a. hypothyroidism.
b. hyperthyroidism.
c. hypopituitarism.
d. hyperpituitarism.
ANS: B
REF
REF: p. 352
TRUE/FALSE
1. Females are two to three times more likely to develop malignant neoplasm of the thyroid gland than males.
ANS: T REF: p. 352
2. Hyperthyroidism is a fairly common disease of the endocrine system that affects the skeletal system.
ANS: F REF: p. 352
3. The outer portion of the adrenal glands, the adrenal cortex, is responsible for corticosteroid production.
ANS: T REF: p. 340
4. The thymus gland is vital to maintaining normal blood pressure and in regulating tissue growth and development.
ANS: F REF: p. 340
5. Calcitonin is an antagonist of PTH and serves to lower blood calcium.
ANS: T REF: p. 341
6. Glucagon promotes the breakdown within the liver of glycogen to glucose.
ANS: T REF: p. 341
7. Based on criteria established by the World Health Organization, a DXA T-score greater than 1 is normal.
ANS: T REF: p. 342
Chapter 12: Traumatic Disease Test Bank
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. Which of the following types of trauma centers require prompt access to orthopedic and neurologic services?
1. Level I
2. Level II
3. Level III
4. Level IV
a. 1 only
b. 1 and 2
c. 4 only
d. All of the above
ANS: B REF: p. 361
2. Which of the following is not a secondary assessment or vital sign of the patient who has sustained a traumatic injury?
a. Pulse
b. Blood pressure
c. Respiration
d. Range of motion of the head and neck
ANS: D REF: p. 360
3. What type of distribution pattern do most deaths from trauma assume?
a. Monocloidal
b. Bimodal
c. Trimodal
d. Bell curve
ANS: C REF: p. 359
4. Trauma is the leading cause of death for which of the following age groups?
a. 1-44 years
b. 45-50 years
c. 40-65 years
d. 60-75 years
ANS: A REF: p. 359
5. What is the Glasgow Coma Scale number recommended by the New Orleans helical computed tomography rule (HCT) to order a CT head examination for a traumatic head injury in conjunction with a headache or intoxication?
a. 1-5
b. 6-10
c. 10-13
d. 15
ANS: D REF: p. 361
6. Which imaging modality has superseded the use of cervical spine radiography for trauma patients?
a. Computed tomography
b. Nuclear medicine
c. Sonography
d. Angiography
ANS: A REF: p. 361
7. Which medical organization(s) has/have determined that CT of the cervical spine has greater than 99% sensitivity for the detection of a fracture?
1. American College of Radiology
2. American College of Surgeons
3. National Emergency X-Radiography Utilization Study (NEXUS)
4. Canadian C-Spine Review (CCR)
a. 1 and 2
b. 2 and 3
c. 3 and 4
d. All of the above
ANS: C REF: p. 361
8. What is the preferred modality for imaging trauma to the abdomen and pelvis?
a. Radiography
b. Magnetic resonance
c. Computed tomography
d. Sonography
ANS: C REF: p. 362
9. What is the most common type of fracture associated with the vertebrae?
a. Burst fracture
b. Compression fracture
c. Spondylolisthesis
d. Pars defect
ANS: B REF: p. 363
10. When analyzing cervical spine radiographs of the trauma patient, what is not a significant consideration?
a. Prevertebral fat stripe
b. Size and shape of vertebral structures
c. Nucleus pulposus
d. Alignment of spinolaminal lines
ANS: C REF: p. 365
11. With a basilar skull fracture, what anatomic structure is important radiographically?
a. Sphenoid sinus
b. Ethmoid sinuses
c. Maxillary sinuses
d. Frontal sinuses
ANS: A REF: p. 367
12. What pathologic condition following trauma to the head is characterized by headache, vertigo, and vomiting?
a. Contusion
b. Coup lesion
c. Contrecoup lesion
d. Concussion
ANS: D REF: p. 368
13. Which type of cerebral hematoma has the highest mortality rate?
a. Intracerebral hematoma
b. Subdural hematoma
c. Epidural hematoma
d. Subarachnoid hematoma
ANS: C REF: p. 370
14. Which type of cerebral hematoma often demonstrates a midline shift on CT or MR images?
a. Intracerebral hematoma
b. Subdural hematoma
c. Epidural hematoma
d. Subarachnoid hematoma
ANS: B REF: p. 370
15. What imaging modality is best utilized for skeletal trauma?
a. Radiography
b. CT
c. MR
d. Nuclear medicine
ANS: A REF: p. 372
16. What classification is given to a fracture that fails to heal?
a. Delayed union
b. Poor union
c. Malunion
d. Nonunion
ANS: D REF: p. 376
17. Which fracture classification generally requires surgical intervention such as an irrigation and debridement?
a. Closed
b. Buckle
c. Open
d. Impacted
ANS: C REF: p. 378
18. What type of fracture classification often occurs as a twisting or rotary movement to a long bone?
a. Transverse fracture
b. Spiral fracture
c. Impacted fracture
d. Comminuted fracture
ANS: B REF: p. 378
19. What is the term commonly used to describe fractures involving the epiphysis of children?
a. Glasgow scale
b. Trauma scale
c. Salter-Harris
d. Fracture scale
ANS: C REF: p. 388
20. Which of the following is an example of a growth plate injury?
a. Avascular necrosis
b. Buckle fracture
c. Colles fracture
d. SCFE
ANS: D REF: p. 388
21. What anatomic structures are common areas for fatigue fractures?
a. Metatarsals
b. Metacarpals
c. Distal radius
d. Distal tibia
ANS: A REF: p. 390
22. Which bone is involved with a tripod fracture?
a. Maxilla
b. Mandible
c. Malar
d. Nasal
ANS: C REF: p. 393
23. Which bone has the slowest healing time following traumatic injury?
a. Maxilla
b. Mandible
c. Malar
d. Nasal
ANS: B REF: p. 398
24. Which of the following structures form the bony nasal septum?
1. Vomer
2. Perpendicular plate of the ethmoid
3. Cribriform plate
a. 1 and 2 only
b. 1 and 3 only
c. 2 and 3 only
d. 1, 2, and 3
ANS: A REF: p. 399
25. A high school football player sustained a stress injury to his right knee and was diagnosed with a medial meniscal tear. What additional pathology may be demonstrated on the MRI exam?
a. Impacted fracture of the hip
b. Bone bruise of the medial femoral condyle
c. Salter-Harris fracture of the distal fibula
d. Avascular necrosis of the proximal femur
ANS: B REF: p. 375
26. Which of the following is not a radiographic sign of battered child syndrome?
a. Impacted radial fracture
b. Multiple rib fractures
c. Spiral fracture of a long bone
d. Skull fracture
ANS: A REF: p. 403
27. Which imaging modality best demonstrates avascular necrosis?
a. CT
b. MRI
c. Nuclear medicine
d. Radiography
ANS: B REF: p. 404
28. Which radiographic chest projections are generally obtained for the diagnosis of a pneumothorax?
1. PA with inspiration
2. PA with expiration
3. Lateral with inspiration
a. 1 and 2 only
b. 1 and 3 only
c. 2 and 3 only
d. 1, 2, and 3
ANS: D REF: p. 406
29. What pathology can cause a mediastinal shift on a chest radiograph?
a. Lobar bibasilar atelectasis
b. Pleurisy
c. Pneumonia
d. Rib fracture
ANS: A REF: p. 406
30. According to the ACR, which of the following imaging modalities is most appropriate in assessing abdominal trauma?
a. CT
b. MRI
c. Radiography
d. Sonography
ANS: A REF: p. 408
31. The radiographic “football sign” is usually indicative of what pathologic condition?
a. Ileus
b. Perforated ulcer
c. Pneumoperitoneum
d. Pneumothorax
ANS: C REF: p. 410
MATCHING Fracture Pseudonyms
Directions: Match the fracture pseudonym to the appropriate description.
a. Fracture of the distal radius with posterior displacement of the distal fragment
b. Fracture of the distal radius with anterior displacement of the distal fragment
c. Fracture of the medial and lateral malleoli with ankle dislocation
d. Fracture of the proximal shaft of the fibula with disruption of the syndesmosis
e. Fracture of the fourth or fifth metacarpal
f. Fracture of the proximal third of the ulnar shaft with radial head dislocation
g. Fracture dislocation of the first CMC joint
1. Smith fracture
2. Boxer fracture
3. Monteggia fracture
4. Colles fracture
5. Pott fracture
6. Maisonneuve fracture
7. Bennett fracture
1. ANS: B REF: p. 391
2. ANS: E REF: p. 391
3. ANS: F REF: p. 391
4. ANS: A REF: p. 391
5. ANS: C REF: p. 392
6. ANS: D REF: p. 392
7. ANS: G REF: p. 391
TRUE/FALSE
1. Bilateral shoulder radiographs are generally obtained to diagnose shoulder dislocations.
ANS: F REF: p. 400
