19 Trường THPT chuyên Lý Tự Trọng – Cần Thơ

A. stands in relation B. is a wake-up call

C. stands to reason D. agrees to differ 2. Police are warning the public to be on the ..............for suspicious packages.

A. care B. alert C. guard D. alarm 3. Vietnam’s Got Talent is the game show that has taken audiences................

A. by heart B. by night C. by wind D. by storm 4. Clinics will be subject to a new ..............of conduct and stronger controls by local authorities.

A. ground B. system C. code D. set 5. My mother................when she found out that I’d forgotten to do the washing-up again.

A. made my blood boil B. felt off color

C. hit the ceiling D. stood her ground 6. You shouldn’t…............. other people’s problems, even if you don’t consider them to be very serious.

A. shed light upon B. come to light C. make light of D. see the light 7. A journalist is ..............on a politician in order to damage his image.

A. digging it out B. digging up out of the earth

C. digging up dirt D. digging his own grave 8. We were having dinner in a restaurant last night when this guy at the next table ..............because the waiter brought the wrong thing.

A. flew into the face of danger B. flew off the handle

C. flew by the seat of his pants D. flushed out of some place 9. Losing my job was................ I never would have found this one if it hadn’t happened.

A. a bone to pick with B. a breath of fresh air

C. a bleeding heart D. a blessing in disguise 10. The inquiry is by no means................

A. chop and change B. cut and dried

C. head and shoulders D. tooth and nail

V. READING PASSAGE 1 Read the text below and choose the best answer to each question.

A folk culture is small, isolated, cohesive, conservative, nearly self-sufficient group that is homogeneous in custom and race, with a strong family or clan structure and highly developed rituals. Order is maintained through sanctions based in the, religion or family, and interpersonal relationships are strong. Tradition is paramount, and change comes infrequently and slowly. There is relatively little division of labor into specialized duties. Rather, each person is expected to perform a great variety of tasks, though duties may differ between the sexes. Most goods are handmade, and a subsistence economy prevails. Individualism is weakly developed in folk cultures, as are social classes. Unaltered folk cultures no longer exist in industrialized countries such as the United States and Canada. Perhaps the nearest modern equivalent in Anglo-America is the Amish, a German American farming sect that largely renounces the products and labor saving devices of the industrial age. In Amish areas, horse-drawn buggies till serve as a local transportation device, and the faithful are not permitted to own automobiles. The Amish’s central religious concept of Demut, “humility”, clearly reflects the weakness of individualism and social class so typical of folk cultures, and there is a corresponding strength of Amish group identity. Rarely do the Amish many outside their sect. The religion, a variety of the Mennonite faith, provides the principal mechanism for maintaining order.

By contrast, a popular culture is a large heterogeneous group, often highly individualistic and constantly changing. Relationships tend to be impersonal, and a pronounced division of labor exists, leading to the establishment of many specialized professions. Secular institutions, of control such as the police and army take the place of religion and family in maintaining order, and a money-based economy prevails. Because of these contrasts, “popular” may be viewedas clearly different from “folk”.

The popular is replacing the folk in industrialized countries and in many developing nations, Folk-

351 made objects give way to their popular equivalent, usually because the popular item is more quickly or cheaply produced, is easier or time saving to use, or lends more prestige to the owner. 1. What does the passage mainly discuss?

A. Two decades in modern society

B. The influence of industrial technology

C. The characteristics of “folk” and “popular” societies

D. The specialization of labor in Canada and the United States 2. The word “homogeneous” is closest in meaning to ..........

A. uniform B. general C. primitive D. traditional 3. Which of the following is typical of folk cultures?

A. There is a money-based economy.

B. Social change occurs slowly.

C. Contact with other cultures is encouraged.

D. Each person develops one specialized skill. 4. What does the author imply about the United States and Canada?

A. They value folk cultures. B. They have no social classes,

C. They have popular cultures. D. They do not value individualism. 5. The phrase ''largely renounces" is closest in meaning to ...............

A. generally rejects B. greatly modifies

C. loudly declares D. often criticizes 6. What is the main source of order in Amish society?

A. The government B. The economy

C. The clan structure D. The religion 7. Which of the following statements about Amish beliefs does the passage support?

A. A variety of religious practices is tolerated.

B. individualism and competition are important.

C. Pre-modern technology is preferred.

D. People are defined according to their class. 8. Which of the following would probably NOT be found in a folk culture?

A. A carpenter B. A farmer C. A weaver D. A banker 9. The word "prevails" is closest in meaning to ...............

A. dominates B. provides C. develops D. invests 10. Which of following is NOT given as a reason why folk-made objects are replaced by mass-produced objects?

A. cost B. prestige C. quality D. convenience

VI. READING PASSAGE 2 Read the text below and choose the best answer to each question. FINDING THE CAREER THAT FITS YOUR PERSONALITY

‘If you've finished your exams and have absolutely no idea what to do next, you're not alone,’ says Sheridan Hughes, an occupational psychologist at Career Analysts, a career counseling service. ‘At 18, it can be very difficult to know what you want to do because you don’t really know what you’re interested in.’ Careers guidance, adds Alexis Hallam, one of her colleagues, is generally poor and ‘people can end up in the wrong job and stay there for years because they’re good at something without actually enjoying it.’

To discover what people are good at, and more fundamentally, what they will enjoy doing, Career Analysts give their clients a battery of personality profile questionnaires and psychometric tests. An indepth interview follows, in which the test results are discussed and different career paths and options are explored with the aid of an occupational psychologist. Career Analysts offers guidance to everyone, from teenagers to retirees looking for a new focus in life. The service sounded just, what I needed. Dividing my time as I do between teaching and freelance journalism, I definitely need advice about consolidating my

career. Being too ancient for Career Analysts' student career option guidance and not, unfortunately, at the executive level yet, I opted for the career management package. This is aimed at people who are established in their jobs and who either want a change or some advice about planning the next step in their careers.

Having tilled in a multitude of personality indicator questionnaires at home, I then spent a rather grueling morning being aptitude-tested at Career Analysts’ offices. The tests consisted of logical reasoning followed by verbal, mechanical and spatial aptitude papers. Logical reasoning required me to pick out the next shape in a sequence of triangles, squares and oblongs. I tried my best but knew that it was really a lost cause. I fared rather better when it came to verbal aptitude - finding the odd one out in a series of words couldn’t be simpler. My complacency was short-lived, however, when I was confronted with images of levers and pulleys for the mechanical aptitude papers. My mind went blank. I had no idea what would happen to wheel X when string Y was pulled.

At home, filling in questionnaires, 1 had been asked to give my instinctive reaction (not an overconsidered one) to statements like: 'It bothers me if people think I'm being odd or unconventional’, or 'I like to do my planning alone without interruptions from others.' I was asked to agree or disagree on a scale of one to five with '1 often take on impossible odds', or 'It is impossible for me to believe that chance or luck plays an important role in my life.' I was told to indicate how important I consider status to be in a job, and how important money and material benefits.

The questions attempt to construct a picture of the complete individual. Using aptitude tests alongside personality profiling, occupational psychologists will, the theory goes, be able to guide a client towards a rewarding, fulfilling career. Some questions are as straightforward as indicating whether or not you would enjoy a particular job. Designing aircraft runways?

Preparing legal documents? Playing a musical instrument? Every career going makes an appearance and, as I was shown later, the responses tend to form a coherent pattern.

Having completed my personality and aptitude tests, I sat down with Sheridan Hughes, who asked me fairly searching personal and professional questions. What do my parents and siblings do for a living? Why had I chosen to do an English degree? 'I need to get a picture of you as a person and how you've come to be who you are,’ she explained. 'What we do works because it’s a mixture of science and counseling. We use objective psychometric measures to discover our clients' natural strengths and abilities and then we talk to them about what they want from life.'

There were no real surprises in my own test results, nor in the interview that followed it. 'We’re interested in patterns,' Mrs Hughes explained, 'and the pattern for you is strongly verbal and communicative.' This was putting it rather kindly. I had come out as average on the verbal skills test and below average in logic, numerical, perceptual and mechanical reasoning. My spatial visualization was so bad it was almost off the scale. 'A career in cartography, navigation, tiling or architecture would not be playing to your strengths,' she said delicately.

Mrs Hughes encouraged me to expand the writing side of my career and gave me straightforward, practical suggestions as to how I could go about it. 'Widen the scope of your articles,' she said. 'You could develop an interest in medical and psychological fields.' These latter, she said, would sit comfortably with an interest in human behavior indicated on my personality-profiling questionnaires. She suggested that I consider writing e-learning content for on-line courses, an avenue that would never have occurred to me. 1. Which of the following is mentioned in the first paragraph?

A. people underestimating their own abilities

B. people accepting inappropriate advice

C. people being unwilling to take risks

D. people constantly changing their minds 2. What does the writer say about Career Analysts in the second paragraph?

A. It is about to offer a service for people at executive level.

B. The range of services it offers is unique.

C. She was initially doubtful that it could be useful to her.

353

D. Only one of its services was relevant to her. 3. What happened when the writer took the aptitude tests?

A. She found two of the papers extremely difficult.

B. She put in very little effort on any of them.

C. She didn't understand what she was required to do on one of them.

D. The papers were not what she had been expecting. 4. The phrase "a lost cause " in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to .............

A. a dead-end B. a shortcut C. a vain attempt D. a misjudgement 5. What does the writer say about the statements on the questionnaires?

A. She thought about them for longer than she was supposed to.

B. She found some of them rather strange.

C. One of them focused on her attitude to risk.

D. One of them concerned her current situation only. 6. The writer says that the idea behind the questionnaires is that

A. people will find some of the questions quite hard to answer.

B. the answers to them and the aptitude tests will provide all the necessary information.

C. they will encourage people to have new ideas about possible careers.

D. they will give a more accurate picture of people than the aptitude tests. 7. Some of the questions Sheridan Hughes asked concerned the writer’s

A. opinions of the tests and questionnaires.

B. relationships with family members.

C. main regrets.

D. progress through life. 8. The writer felt that during the interview, Mrs Hughes

A. was keen not to upset her concerning her test results.

B. seemed surprised at how badly she had done in the tests.

C. was being honest about her strengths and weaknesses.

D. preferred to avoid talking about her test results. 9. The phrase "off the scale" in paragraph 7 is closest in meaning to ..............

A. unsatisfactory B. not so good

C. worrying D. immeasurably low 10. The advice Mrs Hughes gave to the writer included the suggestion that she should

A. think about taking a course on writing.

B. concentrate only on writing and not on any other kind of work.

C. increase the number of subjects she writes about.

D. do something she had previously considered unappealing.

VII. GUIDED CLOZE 1 Read the text below and decide which answer best fits each space.

There can be no (1)............. that online shopping is of huge benefit to the consigner. Far from becoming (2)............. , online shoppers are very demanding. Overpriced merchants with poor services should beware. Gone are the days when stores could charge what they liked for goods and get away with it. The same, too, for shady manufacturers: smarter consumers know which products have a good (3)............ and which do not, because online they now read not only the sales (4)........... but also reviews from previous purchasers. And if customers are disappointed, a few (5)............. of the mouse will take them to places where they can let the world know. Nowadays there is nothing more damning than a flood of negative comments on the internet.

However, the big boys, as always, are ahead of the game. Some companies are already adjusting their business models to take account of these trends. The stores run by Sony and Apple, for instance, are more like brand showrooms than shops. They are there for people to try out (6)............. and to ask questions to

knowledgeable staff. Whether the products are ultimately bought online or offline is of secondary importance.

Online traders must also adjust. Amazon, for one, is (7)............. turning from being primarily a bookseller to becoming a (8)............ retailer by letting other companies sell products on its site, rather like a marketplace. During America's Thanksgiving weekend last November, Amazon's sales of consumer electronics in the United States (9)........... its book sales for the first time in its history. Other transformations in the retail business are (10)............. to follow. 1. A. query B. examination C. question D. proposal 2. A. complacent B. dissatisfied. C. competent D. compassionate 3. A. distinction B. resolution C. opinion D. reputation 4. A. bubble B. message C. blare D. blurb 5. A. taps B. clucks C. clicks D. prods 6. A. devices B. tools C. emblems D. schemes 7. A. mistakenly B. rapidly C. unreasonably D. secretly 8. A. mass B. block C. lump D. chunk 9. A. receded B. excluded C. repressed D. exceeded 10. A. tied B. secured C. bound D. fastened

VIII. GUIDED CLOZE 2 Read the text below and decide which answer best fits each space.

Greenhouse gases are being released into the atmosphere 30 times faster than the time when the Earth experienced a (1)............. episode of global warming. A study comparing the rate at which carbon dioxide and methane are being (2)............. now, compared to 55 million years ago when global warming also occurred, has found dramatic differences in the speed of release. James Zachos, professor of earth sciences at the University of California, Santa Cruz, said the speed of the present buildup of greenhouse gases is far greater than during the global warming after the (3)........ ..... of the dinosaurs. "The emissions that caused this past episode of global warming probably lasted 10,000 years," Professor Zachos told the American Association for the Advancement of Science at a meeting in St. Louis. "By burning fossil fuels, we are likely to emit the same amount over the next three centuries." He warned that studies of global warming events in the geological past (4)..... ........the Earth’s climate passes a (5)...............beyond which climate change accelerates with the help of positive feedbacks - vicious circles of warming. Professor Zachos is a leading (6).............. on the episode of global warming known as the palaeocene-eocene thermal maximum, when average global temperatures increased by up to 5°C due to a massive release of carbon dioxide and methane.

His research into the deep ocean (7)..... ........suggests at this time that about 4.5 billion tons of carbon entered the atmosphere over 10,000 years. "This will be the same amount of carbon released into the atmosphere from cars and industrial emissions over the next 300 years if present (8)............. continue", he said. Although carbon can be released suddenly and naturally into the atmosphere from volcanic activity, it takes many thousands of years for it to be removed permanently by natural processes. The ocean is capable of removing carbon, and quickly, but this natural (9)............. can be easily (10).............., which is probably what happened 55 million years ago. "It will take tens of thousands of years before atmospheric carbon dioxide comes down to preindustrial levels," the professor said. "Even after humans stop burning fossil fuels, the effects will be long-lasting." 1. A. prearranged B. premier C. previous D. fundamental 2. A. emitted B. exhaled C. incorporated D. digested 3. A. dementia B. demolition C. detachment D. demise 4. A. comment B. mark C. compliment D. indicate 5. A. barricade B. verge C. threshold D. perimeter 6. A. autocrat B. authority C. administrator D. proprietor 7. A. dusts B. sediments C. dirt D. powder

355 8. A. trends B. gadgets C. fads D. crazes 9. A. capacity B. competence C. intelligence D. bulk 10. A. overcharged B. overstated C. overshadowed D. overwhelmed

B. WRITTEN TEST I. CLOZE TEST: Read the texts below and think of the word which best fits each space. Use only ONE WORD for each space. OPEN CLOZE 1

As petrol prices continue to (1)..............many people are looking for ways to reduce the (2)..............of higher prices while still doing the driving necessary to their work and other activities. (3)..............are some suggestions which will save you a (4)..............amount of money on petrol. 1. Ask yourself every time you (5)..............to use your car. truck, SUV, or van, "Is this trip really necessary?" Every mile you drive your vehicle will cost you at least an (6)..............of 36 cents. If the trip is not necessary, think twice before using your vehicle. 2. Drive at a (7)................. speed on the motorway. According to the Department of Energy, most automobiles get about 20 percent more miles per gallon on the motorway at 55 miles per hour than they do at 70 miles per hour. 3. Consider (8).............. an automobile which gets the best petrol mileage. For example, generally, the following get better petrol mileage: lighter weight vehicles, vehicles with smaller engines, vehicles with manual transmissions, those with four cylinders, and those with fewer accessories. Check the "fuel economy" labels (9)............. to the windows of new automobiles to find the average estimated miles per gallon for given makes and models. 4. Decrease the number of short trips you make. Short trips (10)..............reduce petrol mileage. If an automobile gets 20 miles per gallon in general, it may get only 4 miles per gallon on a short trip of 5 miles or less.

OPEN CLOZE 2

A Nobel Prize-winning scientist has proposed a controversial method for protecting Earth from global warming: (1)............. the atmosphere with sulfur to reflect the sun’s rays. Paul Crutzen of Germany’s Max Planck Institute for Chemistry suggests (2)............. particles of sulfur into the (3).............. – the upper layer of the atmosphere - to cool the planet and buy time for humans to reduce greenhouse gas emissions. The sulfur (4)............. would be dropped from high-altitude balloons or fired into the atmosphere with heavy artillery shells. Once airborne the particles would act like tiny mirrors, (5)...... ....... the sun’s light and heat back into space. Crutzen’s plan would imitate the cooling effects of volcanic eruptions, which send large sulfur-rich clouds into the atmosphere.

This is not the first time that scientists have suggested (6).............. with the Earth’s climate in order to reduce the impact of global warming. John Latham and his colleagues had put forward a plan to (7)............. up seawater to encourage cloud formation in the lower atmosphere, (8)............ . reflecting radiation back into space. Latham, who has commented on Crutzen’s idea, believes that his plan is (9)............. . but that further investigation is needed.

Crutzen admits that there is risk of the sulfur becoming a health hazard if it rained back down on earth. In addition there could be an increase in damage to the ozone layer and a whitening of the sky. On the (10)............... sunsets and sunrises would become more spectacular.

II. WORD FORMATION PA RT I: Complete each sentence, using the correct form of the word in parentheses. 1. Patrician and charming, he controls his empire with quiet .............. from his office in St Rémy, his native town. (PATERNAL) 2. At the beginning of the 19th century, Britain’s.............was France. (ENEMY)

3. There is an ..............(CURRENT) of menace and barely suppressed violent that gives the picture of symbolic edge. 4. Its ..............makes food distribution difficult. (ACCESS) 5. She stood there completely .............., so I had no idea at all what she was thinking. (EXPRESS) 6. The majority of infected people are ............. and unaware of their condition. (SYMPTOM) 7................conditions can be diagnosed from the early stage. (CANCER) 8. The new law represents a/an ............. intrusion into the privacy of the individual. (JUSTIFY) 9. The draft law was passed by 134 votes to 19, with 5 ................(ABSTAIN) 10. Behavior, such as.................and cooperation is not bred in the bone. (RECIPROCATE)

PART 2: Complete the passage with appropriate forms of the words given in the box.

hold credit cogitative allegation rely controvert celerity hospitality predict derequisition

With the rapid depletion of fossil fuel reserves, nuclear power is back on the political agenda as the greenest and most realistic energy source for the future, not without (1).............. , though. Until recently, disasters such as Three Mile Island and Chernobyl underpinned the commonly-held view that the technology was fundamentally (2)...............However, as traditional fossil fuel counterparts choke the atmosphere and climate change reduces workable pasture land to (3)............. deserts, a new tolerance may have to be (4)................ Those who once (5)..............it face the unsettling realization that nuclear power may be the least harmful for future energy needs and the most viable in comparison with renewable energy sources like wind, wave, and solar power. (6)...........highlight the fact that nuclear power has no regulated air emissions, which means no greenhouse gases; in terms of radioactivity, they (7)..............that fossil fuel equivalents, such as coal, release far more radiation than nuclear power plants. They also list the number of deaths per year that can be (8)............to mining operations and question a (9)............. on fossil fuel combustion that has brought the Earth to the brink of ecological catastrophe. According to these arguments, nuclear power is the key to the (10)............. demands of our energyintense society.

III. ERROR CORRECTION The following passage contain 10 errors. Identify and correct them.

An environmental history of mankind would have to be a history of the exploitation of abundant natural resources, the spiral demand for these resources, and their inevitable depletion. As humanity spread over the globe, leaving colonies in their wake, essential resources such as coal, oil, and even fresh water were extracted through industrial mining and manufacturing operations that had a massive impact on the Earth itself. That was once a plethora of riches has inexorably declined, and entrepreneurs are now looking into the limits of land, sea, and sky; the new target is the stars and, more especially, asteroids. Spinning around the Sun are tens of thousands of asteroids, and scientists have convinced that these mountain-like formations contain a treasure trove of minerals and metals. The asteroid 16 Psyche has enough iron-nickel ore to sustain the Earth for several million years. Even a comparatively small asteroid could contain more than 2,000 million metric tons of serviceable mineralmetal reserves. In addition, some asteroids have a high ice content which means that they could be an economically viable source of fresh water.

357 20 Large-scale mining of asteroids is possibly the key to solve many of our escalating environmental problems. Any mining venture contains an element of risk, however. Asteroids have traditionally been considered dead perils lurking out in the dark depths of space, bided their time before smashing headlong into our insignificant planet. In order to transplant mining operations from the Earth to the stars, we need to find solutions to extensive safety and logistical problems.

1………………. 2………………. 3………………. 4………………. 5………………. 6………………. 7………………. 8………………. 9………………. 10………………

IV. SENTENCE TRANSFORMATION Rewrite the following sentences using the words given. 1. Coming second didn’t make her feel any better because she only wanted to win. (CONSOLIDATION)

Coming second ................................................. ................................................... 2. His analysis of the situation was far too complex for me to grasp. (HEAD)

His analysis of the situation................................................................................... 3. The committee members said that they would remain loyal to the chairman. (PLEDGED)

The committee members................................................................. ...................... 4. I can spend more time with my grandchildren when I retire. (FREE)

Retirement............................................................................................................... 5. In the area, Thailand is much better than all other countries in football. (ABOVE)

In the area, .............................................................................................................. 6. They’ve been having discussions on the issue for over two weeks.

Discussions............................................................................................................. 7. What put me off the idea was simply how expensive it was going to.

The sheer ................................................................................................................ 8. Every possible effort was made by orphanage to find the boy 's parents.

The orphanage left no stone..................................................................................... 9. Whatever the methods used to obtain the results, drugs were definitely not involved.

There was no question............................................................................................. 10. He threatened the officers with violence.

He made..................................................................................................................

A. MULTIPLE CHOICE (40 pts) I. WORD CHOICE (10 pts) 1. When the ship docked at Hamburg, they found a …………in the hold.

A. gate-crasher B. stowaway C. interloper D. trespasser 2. Although Vicky looked pretty much the same after all those years, I noticed………… changes which made her look even more beautiful than I remembered.

A. subtle B. sensitive C. fair D. joint 3. Several of the advertising hoardings had been …………by anti-exist slogans.

A. deleted B. mutilated C. erased D. defaced 4. The smoke…………from the burning tyres could be seen for miles.

A. bulging B. radiating C. billowing D. sweeping 5. The cat slept peacefully ………… in the long grass.

A. nestled B. huddled C. snuggled D. cuddled 6. It was decided that the cost of the project would be………… and so it was abandoned.

A. repressive B. prohibitive C. restrictive D. exclusive 7. Pulling the contract out of the envelope, she ripped it to …………

A. smithereens B. tiny pieces C. shreds D. half 8. Employees of the company are forbidden to ………… information about the secret formula.

A. betray B. divulge C. portray D. unveil 9. The fire …………for days until the monsoon rains put it out.

A. ignited B. scorched C. flashed D. raged 10. My mother had to take private pupils in order to…………her salary as a teacher.

A. augment B. expand C. complete D. inflate

II. STRUCTURES AND GRAMMAR (10 pts) Choose the best option A, B, C or D. 11. In her writing, Elimor Wylie often dealt with her own personality as it was, rather than …………

A. as was defines by others B. as others defined it

C. other’s definition D. its definitions by others 12. It would be difficult for a man of his political affiliation,………… , to become a senator from the south.

A. though charming and capable is he B. even with charm and so capable

C. charming and having capability D. however charming and capable 13. ………… left before the deadline, it doesn’t seem likely that John will accomplish the job.

A. Although such a short time B. It is such a short

C. With so short time D. With such a short time 14…………around stones that are sunwarmed, even the smallest of stones creates tiny currents of warm air.

A. The cool air B. If the air is cool

C. That the air cools D. The cooler the air 15. Everything looks very positive for the company,…………the current investors do not default on their agreements.

A. assuming that B. whether C. whereas D. as if 16…………came………… as the injured cat was so weak.

A. Afterwards/dying B. Death/X C. Soon/death D. Then/to die 17. Probably no man had more effect on the daily lives of most people in the United States………….

A. as Henry Ford, a pioneer in automobile production.

B. rather than Henry Ford, a pioneer in automobile production.

359 C. than did Henry Ford, a pioneer in automobile production.

D. more than Henry Ford, a pioneer in automobile production, 18. For the first few months the babies looked so alike I couldn’t tell………….

A. who is who B. which is which

C. which from which D. whom with whom 19 .………… , the meeting began.

A. After we have sat down B. All of us having taken the seats

C. Our having seated D. Once we had seated 20. She knew her father………… when he threatened to ground her if she failed the test.

A. was begging the question B. hit the nail on the head

C. meant business D. was a glutton for punishment

III. PREPOSITIONS AND PHRASAL VERBS (10 pts) Choose the best option. 21. It’s like banging your head...................a brick wall.

A. into B. against C. onto D. up 22. We lay in the sun until our bodies felt saturated ....................the heat.

A. up B. with C. upon D. within 23. Some very important issues was taking......................all his attention.

A. up B. on C. out D. within 24. He................... by pointing out the dangers involved in rock climbing.

A. started on B. started off C. started up D. started out 25. She.................... till the early hours listening to pop music.

A. help me up B. caught me up C. kept me up D. took me up 26. Old Mr Brown’s condition looks very serious and it is doubtful if he will.....

A. pull through B. pull up C. pull back D. pull out 27. I do wish you wouldn’t .............Charles. I'm trying to talk to your father.

A. put off B. call up C. butt in D. tell off 28. After the accident at the nuclear power station, the authorities tried to ..................the danger to the public from radioactive waste.

A. calm down B. get through C. get over D. play down 29. The witness’s evidence ................what Peter had said.

A. bore out B. gave off C. told off D. wiped out 30. When David started speaking everyone fell ............ laughing.

A. up B. at C. in D. about

IV. COLLOCATIONS AND IDIOMS (10 pts) Choose the best option. 31. Thanks for listening to me complain about my boss. I just needed to…………

A. cry my heart out B. get this off my chest

C. face the music D. stick my neck out 32. The news of his death was like a bolt…………

A. from the red B. from the blue C. from the black D. from the white 33. This is an exciting book which………… new ground in the educational research

A. breaks B. reaches C. scratches D. turns 34. Were you on the…………when you said you had resigned from work?

A. wagon B. flat C. level D. town 35. This painting stands a good…………of winning the prize.

A. possibility B. chance C. opportunity D. certainty 36. The optician says you have to wear glasses, like it or…………it.

A. jump B. loathe C. dislike D. lump 37. When her daughter didn’t come home on the last bus, Mrs. Lee was at………….

A. a loss B. death’s door C. her wits’ end D. the crack of dawn 38. Her health has improved in ………….

A. leaps and bounds B. odds and ends C. sick and tired D. trial and error 39. We’ve lost everything. Still, there’s no point in complaining. We’ll just have to try and make………….

A. the best of a bad job B. no bones about it C. a splash D. a clean sweep 40. He made a number of…………remarks about my cooking, which upset us.

A. slashing B. stabbing C. chopping D. cutting

V. READING COMPREHENSION (20 pts) READING PASSAGE 1 (10 pts) Read the following text and choose the best option to answer the question.

The first peoples to inhabit what today is the southeastern United States sustained themselves as hunters and gathers. Sometimes early in the first millennium A.D., however, they began to cultivate corn and other crops. Gradually, as they became more skilled at gardening, they settled into permanent villages and developed a rich culture, characterized by the great earthen mounds they erected as monuments to their gods and as tombs for their distinguished dead. Most of these early mound builders were part of the Adena-Hopewell culture, which had its beginnings near the Ohio River and takes its name from sites in Ohio. The culture spread southward into the present-day states of Louisiana, Alabama, Georgia, and Florida. Its peoples became great traders, bartering jewellery, pottery, animal pelts, tools, and other goods along extensive trading networks that stretched up and down eastern North America and as far west as the Rocky Mountains.

About A.D. 400, the Hopewell culture fell into decay. Over the next centuries, it was supplanted by another culture, the Mississippian, named after the river along which many of its earliest villages were located. This complex civilization dominated the Southeast from about A.D. 700 until shortly before the Europeans began arriving in the sixteenth century. At the peak of its strength, about the year 1200, it was the most advanced culture in North America. Like their Hopewell predecessors, the Mississippians became highly skilled at growing food, although on a grander scale. They developed an improved strain of com, which could survive in wet soil and a relatively cool climate, and also learned to cultivate beans. Indeed, agriculture became so important to the Mississippians that it became closely associated with the Sun - the guarantor of good crops. Many tribes called themselves "children of the Sun" and believed their omnipotent priest-chiefs were descendants of the great sun god.

Although most Mississippians lived in small villages, many others inhabited large towns. Most of these towns boasted at least one major flat-topped mound on which stood a temple that contained a sacred flame. Only priests and those charged with guarding the flame could enter the temples. The mounds also served as ceremonial and trading sites, and at times they were used as burial grounds. 41. What does the passage mainly discuss?

A. The development of agriculture

B. The locations of towns and villages

C. The early people and cultures of the United States

D. The construction of burial mounds 42. Which of the following resulted from the rise of agriculture in the southeastern United States?

A. The development of trade in North America

B. The establishment of permanent settlements

C. Conflicts with other Native American groups over land

D. A migration of these peoples to the Rocky Mountains. 43. What does the term “Adena-Hope well” (line 7) designate?

A. The early locations of the Adena-Hopewell culture

B. The two most important nations of the Adena-Hopewell culture

361 C. Two former leaders who were honored with large burial mounds.

D. Two important trade routes in eastern North America 44. The word “bartering” in line 11 is closest in meaning to

A. producing B. exchanging C. transporting D. loading 45. The word “supplanted” in line 15 is closest in meaning to

A. conquered B. preceded C. replaced D. imitated 46. According to the passage, when did the Mississippian culture reach its highest point of development?

A. About A.D. 400 B. Between A.D. 400 and A.D. 700

C. About A.D. 1200 D. In the sixteenth century 47. According to the passage, how did the agriculture of the Mississippians differ from that of their Hopewell predecessors?

A. The Mississippians produced more durable and larger crops of food.

B. The Mississippians sold their food to other groups.

C. The Mississippians could only grow plants in warm, dry climates.

D. The Mississippians produced special foods for their religious leaders. 48. Why does the author mention that many Mississippians tribes called themselves “children of the Sun” (line 25)?

A. To explain why they were obedient to their priest-chiefs.

B. To argue about the importance of religion in their culture,

C. To illustrate the great importance they placed on agriculture.

D. To provide an example of their religious rituals. 49. The phrase “charged with” in line 30 is closest in meaning to

A. passed on B. experienced at C. interested in D. assigned to 50. According to the passage, the flat-topped mounds in Mississippian towns were used for all of the following purposes EXCEPT

A. religious ceremonies B. meeting places for the entire community

C. sites for commerce D. burial sites

READING PASSAGE 2 (10 pts) Read the following text and choose the best option to answer the question. SPEAKING IN ONE TONGUE

English is spreading and it has been predicted that one in ten of the world’s 6,000 languages will become extinct over the next century. Up to half of the world’s languages are no longer being taught to children, threatening them with eventual extinction. Even countries with millions of native language speakers are so worried by the growth of English that they have devised policies to fight back.

The French have brought in regulations to combat what they see as an American cultural invasion. Corporations and government bodies are not allowed to use English terms where there are French equivalents. And to ensure there are as many of these as possible, a Terminology Commission has been set up with the task of creating them. There is widespread concern that the American influence could mean local films, TV, music and books get pushed into the background.-In order to protect local language and culture, The European Union introduced new legislation which states that half of the TV programmers shown in member states must be European.

New technology does not make things easy for other languages. It is especially difficult to hold back the tide of English words in high-tech industries because many of the innovations are American. The German have their own words for “computer”, 'smart-card", “DVD”, “modem” and “handheld PC”, but hardly anyone uses them. Until recently all university subjects in Malaysia were taught in Malay. Now, however, universities have had to make exceptions for Information Technology, as the majority of IT textbooks are in English and they simply do not have the time or resources to translate them.

Today, there is another medium to worry about: The Internet. English accounts for about 90 percent of traffic and World Wide Web will only accelerate its spread around the world. Unlike broadcasting,

however, most communication on the Net is written, so it indent pose the same threat to regional accents and dialects. It is also decentralized and more interactive than broadcasting, which may help to prevent the disappearance of minority languages.

Even if English were universally adopted, this would not mean the end of diversity. Languages are constantly adapting and English is not exactly the same the world over: you only have to compare American and British English to realize that. The Net, too, is an instrument of change. Because Net communication is mainly written, many people use abbreviations to speed things up and this trend means the language is evolving with Internet use. In 10 to 20 years from now the English on the Net may well be unrecognizable compared with the English we know now.

English will continue to spread and evolve with the Net but people will still speak their own languages. In most cases, they’ll use English for electronic communication, but native languages at home. Languages are more than just a means of communication: they are also an important part of regional cultures and identities and they do not disappear easily. For centuries, the trading world spoke Latin but it didn’t go away with French or German. Instead, Latin became the dead language.

Languages have their own dynamics and there is little governments can do to change their course. In 18th - century Germany. Frederick II set up a commission to get rid of French words from German. It failed because the dynamics of a language come from the bottom up rather than the top down.

English may dominate but it won’t wipe every other language off the face of the Earth and it won’t be the same English spoken everywhere. This may not be enough to prevent the disappearance of some of the world’s languages, but it does mean that there will not be a boring worldwide uniformity. 51. Faced with the dominance of English, what does the writer think will happen to the world’s other languages?

A. Many will exist alongside English.

B. They will only be spoken at home.

C. Most of them will die out.

D. They will consist mainly of English words. 52. According to the writer, one reason why some languages will become extinct is that……........

A. English has become the first language in some countries.

B. there are not enough language teachers.

C. they are not spoken all the time.

D. young people are not learning them. 53. The French government introduced regulations in order to...........

A. limit the use of English words.

B. increase the number of native language speakers.

C. control the amount of American English spoken.

D. restrict the number of English films on television. 54. The phrase ’’hold back " in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to

A. impede the progress of. B. have the influence of

C. maintain the grip of D. maintain the position of 55. What does “they' (in the last sentence of paragraph 3) refer to?

A. university subjects B. Malaysian universities

C. exceptions D. IT textbooks 56. The writer says that as a result of the Internet some languages might....................

A. be saved from extinction B. become more widespread

C. only be used in written form D. no longer be used on radio and television 57. According to the writer, what effect will the Internet have on English?

A. English on the Internet could soon be difficult to understand.

B. English will be quicker to read.

C. British English words will not be used on the Internet.

D. The appearance of English could change considerably on the Internet.

363 58. What does the writer mean when he says “ the dynamics of a language come from the bottom up rather than the top down” (in next-to -the last paragraph)?

A. The least frequent words of a language are the first to change.

B. Changes in language are not determined by how powerful a country is.

C. People, not governments, determine what happens to a language.

D. Unwanted foreign words disappear naturally. 59. The phrase “wipe off” in the last paragraph is closest in meaning to

A. cancel B. remove C. delete D. clean 60. The word “uniformity” in the last paragraph is closest in meaning to

A. variety B. sameness C. uniqueness D. consistency

VI. GUIDED CLOZE TEST (20 pts) Read the following passages and choose the options that best complete the blanks. GUIDED CLOZE TEST 1 (10 pts)

A COMMUNITY CHOIR

Open Voices is a community choir based in the town of Kingston, in Ontario, Canada. It was founded last year by a man called Andy Rush, an accomplished musician with a 16-year (0)…..B….. record as a choir director.

Andy began by searching the way other community choirs were (61)…………., before deciding on the (62)…………. he wished to use for his own choir. He then advertised for people to come and try out the choir. There were no auditions and a (63) ………….in music was not necessary. The purpose of the trial session was simply to give people the opportunity to sing in a choir and get a (64)………….for the experience before making any (65) …………. to it. In order to overcome the barriers that can prevent people joining groups like this, he provided transportation, childcare, and subsidized membership fees for those who needed them. His goal was to make Open voices inclusive and welcoming, and to (66)………. people from a variety of musical, cultural and social environments.

Andy expected 50 or 60 responses to his advertisement. In the event, 279 people (67)…………. an interest in joining the choir. In order to (68)………….everyone, the choir had to be (69)…………. into two groups, each one rehearsing on a different day. Open Voices has now held several (70) …………. successful concerts and has many more planned for the future. 0. A. course B. track C. path D. line 61. A. set down B. set off C. set up D. set on 62. A. guide B. model C. sample D. pattern 6 3 .A. backup B. backdrop C. background D. backlog 64. A. touch B. mood C. sense D. feel 65. A. commitment B. allegiance C. dedication D. assurance 66. A. catch on B. pull up C. take out D. bring in 67. A. suggested B. expressed C. described D. conveyed 68. A. accommodate B. contain C. arrange D. maintain 69. A. torn B. cut C. sliced D. split 70. A. fully B. deeply C. highly D. greatly

GUIDED CLOZE TEST 2 (10 pts) Read the text below and decide which answer (A, B, C , or D) best fits each space.

Interpreting the feelings of other people is not always easy, as we all know, and we rely as much on what they seem to be telling us, as on the (71).................words they say. Facial (72)................ and tone of voice are obvious ways of showing our (73).................. to something, and it may well be that we unconsciously (74) .................views that we are trying to hide. The art of being tactful lies in (75) .............. these signals, realizing what the other person is trying to say, and acting so that they are not embarrassed in any way. For example, we may understand that they are in fact reluctant to answer our question, and so we

stop pressing them. Body movements in general may also (76).................... feelings, and interviewers often pay particular attention to the way a candidate for a job walks into the room and sits down. However, it is not difficult to present the right kind of appearance, while what many employers want to know relates to the candidate’s character (77)...................., and psychological stability. This raises the (78 )....................... questions of whether job candidates should be asked to complete psychological tests, and the further problem of whether such tests actually produce reliable results. For many people, being asked to take part in such a test would be objectionable (79).................... into their private lives. Quite apart from this problem, can such tests predict whether a person is likely to be a (80).....................employee or a valued colleague? 71. A. other B. real C. identical D. actual 72. A. looks B. expression C. image D. manner 73. A. view B. feeling C. notion D. reaction 74. A. express B. declare C. exhibit D. utter 75. A. taking down B. putting across C. picking up D. going over 76. A. display B. indicate C. imply D. infer 77. A. quirks B. mannerisms C. traits D. points 78. A. awkward B. risky C. unpleasant D. touchy 79. A. invasion B. intrusion C. infringement D. interference 80. A. pedantic B. particular C. laborious D. conscientious

B. WRITTEN TEST I. OPEN CLOZE TEXT OPEN CLOZE TEXT 1 (10 pts) Fill each of the numbered blanks in the passage with one suitable word.

When you want to book a flight to a certain place, visit your (1)………….. travel agent. Tell the travel agent the date when you want to travel and the (2) …………..to which you want to go. The travel agent will then type the (3) ………….. into a small computer. After checking everything on the computer screen, he/she will send the information to a central computer. The central computer contains all information about (4)………….. and destinations, and sends a reply, (5)…………..which are the most suitable flights. It also shows whether the flights are (6)…………..booked or not. The information which is now shown on the small computer screen is continually changing (7)…………..other bookings are made in other parts of the world.

The travel agent now types in your booking, then the computer will ask for your name and address as well as for (8)………….. other information. It will also ask how you will pay for your ticket (by cheque or by credit card). Next the computer (9)………….. the booking and makes a request for payment. When you have paid for your ticket, the travel agent types the information into the computer as well. Finally, some computers (10)…………..out a ticket before you leave the travel agent’s.

OPEN CLOZE TEXT 2: (10 pts) Fill each gap with ONE suitable word.

Large animals that (11)…………..the desert have evolved a number of adaptations for (12)………….. the effects of extreme heat. One adaptation is to be light in color, and to (13)………….. rather than absorb the Sun’s rays. Desert mammals also depart from the normal mammalian practice of maintaining a (14)….. body temperature. Instead of trying to keep down the body temperature deep (15)…………..the body, which would involve the expenditure of water and energy, desert mammals allow their temperatures to rise to (16)………….. would normally be fever height, and temperatures as high as 46 degrees Celsius have been measured in Grant’s gazelles. The (17)…………..body then cools down during the cold desert night, and indeed the temperature may fall unusually (18)………….. by dawn, as low as 34 degrees Celsius in the camel. This is an advantage since the heat of the first few hours of daylight is absorbed in warming up the body, and an excessive (19)…………..of heat does not begin until well (20)…………..the day.

365 II. WORD FORMS (20 pts) 1. Supply the correct word form (10 pts) 1. He was charged with causing a ………….. after the game. (DISTURB) 2. Children of school age are very………….. and tend to believe what they are told. (IMPRESSION) 3. She found the idea deeply ………….. (REPEL) 4. The two pairs of twins make a pleasant…………..during the game of golf. (FOUR) 5. The…………..woman did not utter a single word when her husband abused her. (SUBMIT) 6. Blinking to…………..herself to the darkness, Lexa already had her hands over her ears when the deafening blast of thunder reached her. (CUSTOM) 7. In my heart of hearts, I think………….. laws such as these are abominations that bring the entire legal system into disrepute. 8. The conference touched on many things, but one more deeply than the fragile environment that still exists around the very concept of…………... (TOUR) 9. Time and again, the club has been………….. on the brink of selling off their antiquated ground. (SUPPOSE) 10. We must value that reputation and work together to nurture it and remove any………….. that will put it at risk. (CONCEIVE)

2. Supply each gap with the correct form of the word given in the box (10 pts)

problem endurance authorise perceive survive imitate heart face illusion identify

In 1997 I went back to Beijing for the first time since the (0) ... disastrous....events of 1989. The Chinese (11).................. had been reluctant to re-admit foreign journalists who had witnessed the Tiananmen Square student protests. Every eight years later ,it was still (12)..................to get into the Square with a television camera, but we managed it. I looked for the bullet holes on the steps of the central monument, but they had all been expertly filled in; a faint discoloration perhaps, but almost (13) ..... The most critical moment in Chinese history after Mao Zedong's death seemed to have been entirely forgotten. My time in China had given me an (14)..................interest in Chinese art, so I decided to go to Liu Li Chang, where for centuries there has been an antiquities market. Unfortunately, many things for sale there nowadays are modern (15) .................Empty-handed and somewhat (16).................., I went into a tea house and sat through the usual ceremony, but there were (17) ..................differences here too: it seemed quicker and the tea lacked that extraordinary lingering scent. Thoroughly (18).................., I returned to my hotel: one of the enormous, (19)..................places which have sprung up everywhere. Yet here, in a dark shop tucked away off the lobby, my melancholy mood disappeared, for I met a (20).................. from 1989, who remembered me instantly. Not everything had been entirely forgotten

III. ERROR IDENTIFICATION (20 pts) Read the following passage. There are 10 errors. Identify the errors and then correct them. (10 pts)

1

5 Human memory, formally believed to rather inefficient, is now really more sophisticated than that of a computer. Researchers approaches the problem from a variety of points of view have all concluded that there is a great deal more stores in our minds than has been generally supposed. Dr Wilder, a Canadian neurosurgeon, proved that on stimulating their brains electric, he could elicit the total recall of specific events in the subjects’ lives. Even dreams and other minor events supposed forgotten for many years suddenly emerged in detail.

Although the physical basis for memory is not still understood, one theory is that the fantastic capacity for storage in the brain is the result of an almost limited combination of interconnections between brain cells, stimulated by patterns of activity. Repeated references to the same information supports recall. Or, to say that another way, improved performance is the result of strength the chemical bonds in the memory.

1……………… 2……………… 3……………… 4……………… 5……………… 6……………… 7……………… 8……………… 9……………… 10……………..

IV. SENTENCE TRANSFORMATION (20 pts) Rewrite the sentences with the given words or beginning in such a way that their meanings remain unchanged. 1. It was the goalkeeper that saved the match for us. → Had .………………………………………………………………………… 2. Most people seem to think that I will be next to be promoted. LINE →Most people seem to think that I…………………………………………….a promotion. 3. In the area, Thailand is much better than all other countries in football. (SHOULDERS) → In the area, Thailand……………………………………………………….. 4. The children are in disgrace for being so badly behaved. → The children………………………………………………………………… 5. We regret to inform you that your application has not been successful. → Much………………………………………………………………………… 6. I left without saying goodbye as I didn’t want to disturb the meeting. → Rather ………………………………………………………………………. 7. Driving at that speed is dangerous whether you are an experienced driver or not. →However……………………………………………………………………… 8. My protests were ignored by everybody. → Nobody………………………………………………………………………. 9. We’ve agreed to share the cost. AGREEMENT

→………………………………………………………………………………… 10. What has this experience taught you. DRAWN

→…………………………………………………………………………………

367 A. MULTIPLE CHOICE. (4 0 PT S) I. PHONOLOGY (5 PTS) Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from the others. 1. A. psychiatrist B. psychiatric C. psychics D. psyching 2. A. confusedly B. allegedly C. supposedly D. wickedly 3. A. mezzanine B. swithzerland C. pizza D. pretzel 4. A. hazard B. bombard C. custard D. mustard 5. A. exhilarate B. pharaoh C. diarrhoea D. carbohydrate

Choose the word which is stressed differently from the other three. 6. A. justapose B. monoculture C. geothermal D. intermittent 7. A. stratosphere B. Dictaphone C. cornerback D. hendiadys 8. A. ultraviolet B. paradoxical C. correlative D. influential 9. A. legitimate B. extravagant C. septicaemia D. demonstrative 10. A. advanturous B. luminous C. laborious D. autonomous

II. WORD CHOICE (5 PTS) Choose the best options to complete the following sentences. 1. I think I understand the nuts and……………of the operation.

A. crews B. hammer C. bolts D. nail 2. Tom won’t buy that old car because it has too much…………… on it .

A. ups and downs B. odds and ends C. wear and tear D. white lie 3. Job losses are mainly in the…………… sectors of the industry .

A. blue-collar B. red-collar C. stiff-collar D. high-collar 4. Since he is too old to be a porter, they have decided to put him out to……………

A. the door B. grounds C. grass D. the kerb 5. It was an extremely hostile article which cast……………on the conduct of the entire cabinet.

A. criticism B. aspersions C. disapproval D. abuse 6. Some countries always…………… resolutions at the United Nations which don’t suit them.

A. bail B. countenance C. veil D. veto 7. I didn’t need any medicine. I’m as right as…………….

A. clouds B. rays C. rain D. a haze 8. My sunburnt nose made me feel rather……………for the first few days of the holiday.

A. self-confident B. self-centre C. self-conscious D. self-evident 9. My mother is a real……………potato. She watches T.V all the time.

A. couch B. sofa C. armchair D. cushion 10. The red cross is……………an international aid organization.

A. intriguingly B. intrusively C. intrinsically D. intrepidly

III. GRAMMAR AND STRUCTURES (5 PTS) 1. I hope everything’s OK. They……………several hours ago.

A. would have called B. must have called

C. were to have called D. supposed to call 2……………with her boyfriend yesterday, she doesn’t want to answer his phone call.

A. Having quarreled B. Because having quarreled

C. Because of she quarreled D. Having quarreled 3. Superconductivity will revolutionize the way that energy is used for the next millennium, and………… the first truly superconductive substance will be remembered as a technological hero.

A. what the discovery of B. the discovery of